Class 10

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 2 Questions Windows of Knowledge and Responses English Medium

Select the correct answer.

Sslc Biology Chapter 2 Question 1.
The transparent anterior part of sclera
a. Conjunctiva
b. Cornea
c. Iris
d. Pupil
Answer:
b. Cornea

Question 2.
The liquid which helps in maintaining the shape of eye
a. Aqueous humour
b. Cerebrospinal fluid
c. Tears
d. Vitreous humour
Answer:
d. Vitreous humour

Question 3.
The visual pigment in rod cells
a. Rhodopsin
b. Retinal
c. Photopsin
d. Iodopsin
Answer:
a. Rhodopsin

Question 4.
The part that connects middle ear and pharynx
a. Oval window
b. Eustachian tube
c. Round window
d. Tympanum
Answer:
b. Eustachian tube

Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship between the first pair.
a. Planaria : Eyespot :: House fly : ……………..
b. Cochlea : Hearing :: Vestibule : ……………
c. The outer layer made up of connective tissues : Sclera :: The inner layer which has photoreceptors : ………………….
Answer:
a. Ommatidia
b. Body balancing
c. Retina

Question 6.
Find out the odd one and note down the common features of others.
a. Sclera, Choroid, Optic nerve, Retina ‘
b. Pinna, Malleus, Incus, Eustachian tube
c. Vestible, Semicircular canals, Iris, Vestibular nerve
Answer:
a. Optic nerve
Others are layers of eye.
b. Pinna
Others are parts of middle ear.
c. Iris
Others are parts related to body balancing.

Windows of Knowledge Class 10 Questions And Answers  Question 7.
The ciliary muscles of a person do not contract.
a. How does this affect his vision?
b. Does this affect the action of photoreceptors of retina? Why?
Answer:
a. He cannot see near objects.
b. It does not affect the action of photoreceptors of retina. It is because when light ray reaches the retina, the photoreceptors are stimulated.

Question 8.
The diagram given below shows the structure of ear.

a. Redraw the picture.
b. Label the parts A, B, C, D.
c. Write down the name and function of E and F.
Answer:

b. A. Tympanum, B. Auditory nerve, C. Ear ossicles, D. Eustachian tube
c.

• E-Semicircular canals. It helps in the maintenance of balancing of body.
• F-Cochlea. Helps in hearing.

Question 9.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the part labelled as A, B, C, D.
b. Write the peculiarities of part mentioned as A, C.
c. Write the functions of part indicated as B, D.
Answer:
a. A-Cornea, B- Sclera, C-Pupil, D-Optic nerve
b.

• A-Slightly projected transparent anterior part of the sclera.
• C – The aperture seen at the centre of the iris. The size increases and decreases depending on the intensity of light.

c.

• Sclera – Gives firmness to the eye
• Optic nerve – Transmits impulses from photoreceptors to the visual centre in the brain.

Biology Chapter 2 Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Arrange the statements suitably in the table given below.
a. Ligaments stretch.
b. Focal length decreases.
c. Ciliary muscles relax.
d. Ligaments relax.
e. Ciliary muscles contract.
f. Curvature of lens decreases.
g. Focal length increases
h. Curvature of lens increases.

Answer:

Question 11.
The flowchart related to the process of hearing is given below complete it.

Answer:
a. Tympanum
b. Ear ossicles
c. Cochlea
d. Auditory nerve
e. Cerebrum

Windows Of Knowledge Class 10 Question Paper Question 12.
Make suitable word pairs by using the words given in the box.
Jacobson’s organ, Housefly, Eye spot, Snake, Shark, Planaria, Ommatidia, Lateral line
Answer:

• Snake – Jacobson’s organ
• Housefly – Ommatidia
• Shark – Lateral line
• Planafia – Eye spot

Question 13.
The stages related to maintain the equilibrium of the body are given below. Arrange them in correct order.
a. Generates impulses
b. Maintains the equilibrium of the body
c. Body movements create movement in the fluid inside the vestibule and semicircular canals.
d. The impulses are transmitted by the vestibular nerve.
e. Cerebellum enables muscular movements.
f. Creates movements of the sensory hair cells.
Answer:
c. Body movements create movement in the fluid inside the vestibule and semicircular canals.
f. Creates movements of the sensory hair cells.
a. Generates impulses
d. The impulses are transmitted by the vestibular nerve.
e. Cerebellum enables muscular movements.
b. Maintains the equilibrium of the body

Sslc Biology Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 14.

a. Construct two questions related to this figure and see whether you can give any explanation.
b. Give suitable explanation of the questions.
Answer:
a.

• Two images from an object are formed in two eyes. But we see only one image of the object. Why?
• Draw a flow chart of light rays from the object to the centre of vision in brain.

b

• Two images of the same object formed in the two eyes reach the visual area of the brain. The brain combines the two images together to give a single vision.
• Light from the object → Eyes → Sensory nerve → Brain → Centre of vision.

Question 15.
“Receptors are modified neurons”. Justify the statement with examples of receptors in different sense organ.
Answer:
Receptors are modified neurons. They are of different types. Rods and cones of eye, sound receptors in ear, taste receptors on the tongue, olfactory receptors in nose and receptors in skin are examples.

Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 16.
Glaucoma is a serious eye defect. Analyze the statement.
Answer:
If the reabsorption of aqueous humour does not occur, it causes an increase in the pressure inside the eyes. This causes damage to the retina and the photoreceptor cells and ultimately leads to blindness.

Sslc Biology Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 17.
Arrange columns B and C according ro ¡he daa given in column A.

Answer:

Biology Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 Question 18.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the situation indicated by the figure.
b. Identify the parts indicated as A, B.
c. How do A and B act in the situation?
Answer:
a. While viewing nearby objects
b. A – Ciliary muscles, B – lens
c. The contraction of ciliary muscles and the relaxation of ligaments help to increase the curvature of lens.

Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 19.
Prepare a flowchart related to the sense of vision by selecting suitable words given in the box.

Cornea, Auditory nerve, Blind spot, Aqueous humour. Retina, Eustachian tube, Light, Impulse, Pupil, Choroid, Vitreous humour, Cerebrum, Cochlea, Optic nerve, Sense of vision, Lens
Answer:
Light → Cornea → Aqueous humour → Pupil → Lens → Vitreous humour → Retina → Impulse → Optic nerve → Cerebrum → Sense of vision

Question 20.
Observe the picture and answer the questions – given below.

a. Identify the picture
b. Identify the parts indicated as A, B, C, D.
c. What are the functions of C, D?
Answer:
a. Internal ear.
b. A- Semicircular canals B – Cochlea C – Autidory nerve D – Vestibular nerve
c.

• Auditory nerve – Transmits impulses related to hearing to cerebrum.
• Vestibular nerve – Transmits impulses related to body balancing to cerebellum.

Sslc Biology Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Pdf English Medium Question 21.
Prepare a flowchart related to the experience of taste.
Answer:

Question 22.
Find out the peculiarities of column A and rearrange columns B and C.

Answer:

Question 23.
Binocular vision gives us three dimensional vision. Then why do we close one eye when we aim at an object?
Answer:
Here distance is not important. Location of the object and eye must come in a straight line.

Question 24.
Ear canal → Cochlea → Tympanum → Auditory nerve
a. Correct the mistake, if any, in the above flowchart.
b. Modify the flow chart by adding the terms ‘oval window’ and ‘ear ossicles’
Answer:
a. Ear canal → Tympanum → Cochlea → Auditory nerve
b. Ear canal → Tympanum → Ear ossicles → Oval window → Cochlea →Auditory nerve

Question 25.
The flow chart related to the experience of smell is given below. Complete the flowchart.

Answer:
a.

• A – Aromatic particles dissolve in the mucus inside the nostrils, stimulate olfactory receptors.
• B – Generate impulses
• C – Impulses reach cerebrum through olfactory nerve

Sslc Biology Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Pdf English Medium Question 26.
The symptoms of two below. eye defects are given

Identify the defects. Write how these defects can be rectified.
Answer:
A – Glaucoma. Laser surgery
B – Cataract. Replace the lens with an artificial one.

Question 27.
Observe the picture and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the photoreceptor.
b. Write the pigment and components of this pigment.
Answer:
a. Rod cell
b. Rhodopsin – opsin, retinal

Question 28.
The features of a fluid are given below.

• Seen between retina and lens
• Jelly like substance

a. Identify the fluid.
b. Write its function.
Answer:
a. Vitreous humour
b. Helps in maintaining the shape of the eye.

Question 29.
Given below are the two diseases of eyes.
i. Colour blindness
ii. Night blindness
a. Which of these is caused by malnutrition?
b. Deficiency of which nutrient causes this disease?
c. Write the main symptom of this disease.
Answer:
a. Night blindness
b. Vitamin A
c. Cannot see objects clearly in dim light.

Question 30.
Statements related to sense organs are given below:
Choose the correct ones.
a. Taste buds are the chemoreceptors seen in the papillae.
b. Receptors are uniformly distributed all over the skin.
c. Impulses from the olfactory receptors reach the cerebrum through the olfactory nerve.
d. We experience taste when impulses from the taste buds reach the cerebellum.
Answer:
a. Taste buds are the chemoreceptors seen in the papillae.
c. Impulses from the olfactory’ receptors reach the cerebrum through the olfactory nerve.

Question 31.
Light rays which reflect from the object are focussed on the retina and an image is formed,
a. Write the peculiarities of this image.
b. How do the. images formed in the two eyes combine? What is its advantage?
Answer:
a. Small, inverted, real.
b.

• Three dimensional image of the object is formed due to the activity of the brain.
• Binocular vision becomes possible.

Question 32.
Vision is enabled when the impulse from the retina reaches the cerebrum through the optic nerve.
a. Draw a flow chart showing the pathway of light from cornea to retina.
b. There is no vision at the point where the optic nerve starts. Why?
Answer:
a. Light → Cornea → Aqueous humour → Pupil → Lens Vitreous humour → Retina → Optic nerve
b. Rod cells and cone cells are absent in the part from where the optic nerve begins / Photoreceptors are absent.

Question 33.
Rhodopsin Retinal + Opsin
a. How is this reaction related to vision?
b. How does the deficiency of vitamin A cause poor vision in dim light?
Answer:
a.

• When light rays fall, rhodopsin dissociates into retinal and opsin.
• Generates impulses.
• When impulses reach the cerebrum, vision is experienced.

b

• Amount of retinal decreases.
• Causes a decrease in the level of rhodopsin.
• Resynthesis of rhodopsin gets blocked.
• Cannot see objects clearly in dim light / night blindness.

Question 34.
Observe the figure given below and answer the questions: .

a. Which is the receptor seen in the figure?
b. In which sense organ is this receptor seen?
c. What is the function of this receptor?
Answer:
a. Olfactory receptor
b. Nose
c. Gets stimulated by aromatic particles and generates impulses.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

You can Download Moving Images Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 9 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Moving Images

Moving Images Questions and Answers

Section -1

Question 1.
The animation software in IT @ School GNU/Linux is
a) Synfig studio
b) Tupi
c) Gimp
d) Paint
Answer:
a) Synfig studio

Question 2.
Which type of animation software is synfig studio.
a) Proprietary
b) not able to take copy
c) pay and use
d) free software
Answer:
d) free software

Question 3.
To prepare a film, How many times images appear one after the other continuously in front of our eyes in one second?
a) 48
b) 12
c) 24
d) 36
Answer:
c) 24

Question 4.
Say the important stage of an animation film?
a) character designing
b) background
c) characters
d) action
Answer:
a) character designing

Question 5.
Construction of a storyboard is a preparation of
a) Drawing a picture
b) finding time zones
c) producing an animation
d) character designing
Answer:
c) Producing an animation

Question 6.
Synfig Studio is a free-animation software
a) Drawing pictures
b) Studio
c) Three dimensional
d) Two dimensional
Answer:
d) Two dimensional

Question 7.
Synfig studio software is designed by
a) Stall men
b) Robert B Quattlebaum
c) Leslie Lamport
d) Donald Knuth
Answer:
b) Robert B Quattlebaum

Question 8.
What versions of animation software can run in GNU/Linux and Microsoft Windows?
a) Grass
b) Notepad
c) Synfig studio
d) Pencil
Answer:
c) Synfig studio

Question 9.
Which tool is used to fill colors to the objects in synfig studio?

Answer:

Question 10.
Which tool is used to draw rectangular objects in synfig studio?

Answer:

Question 11.
Which tool is used to move the objects in synfig studio?

Answer:

Question 12.
Expand FPS
a) Frames per system
b) Frames per second
c) File properties settings
d) Frames per hour
Answer:
b) Frames per second

Question 13.
Animation is done by fast and continuous movements of images in a two-dimensional canvas. The images are known as
a) characters
b) FPS
c) Frames
d) Scene
Answer:
c) Frames

Question 14
Which menu is used to studio
a) File
b) view
c) window canvas
d)canvas
Answer:
d)canvas

Question 15.
To change the FPS in Synfig studio, by clicking
a) canvas → properties → time
b) view → pause
c) window → toolbox
d) canvas properties → image
Answer:
a) canvas → properties → time

Question 16.
We can import Images into synfig studio and use them
a) odf
b) vector
c) Pdf
d) Bitmap
Answer:
d) Bitmap

Question 17.
FPS = 24, Time =5, for an animation. Find the total number of frames in that animation
a) 24,
b) 48
c) 120
d) 920
Answer:
c) 120

Question 18.
The frames that represent important positions are known as
a) Tweening
b) current time
c) key
d)keyframe
Answer:
d) keyframe

Question 19.
What happens when you press

play button
a) Animation works
b) Animation stops
c) no change
d) to save
Answer:
a) Animation works

Question 20.
The software fills up the frames in between two keyframes is called.
a) Interpolation
b) keyframe
c) Tweening
d) Edit
Answer:
c) Tweening

Question 21.
Rey frame utility is set in one of the panels in synfig audio. Give the names of that panel
a) Time track panel
b) layers panel
c) parameters panel
d) panel
Answer:
c) parameters panel

Question 22.
Name the extension of project file in synfig studio?
a). svg
b) .pdf
c) .sifz
d) .ods
Answer:
c) .sifz

Question 23.
In which panel to give the number of frames in current time?
a) Time track panel
b) layers panel
c) meters panel
d) panel
Answer:
a) Time track panel

Question 24.
What is the current time to animation from first frame
a) 0 f
b) 60 f
c) 120f
d) 121 f
Answer:
a) 0 f

Question 25.
What is the name for the frame with current time is ‘o’ f
a) first keyframe
b) last keyframe
c) middle keyframe
d) keyframe
Answer:
a) first keyframe

Question 26.
Give the order of activity to export a project file on synfig studio
a) File → Render
b) File → Save
c) File → Export
d) File → Save as
Answer:
a) File → Render

Question 25.
Which is not a member related to synfig studio?
a) parameters panel
b) time track panel
c) panel
d) layers panel
Answer:
c) panel

Question 28.
The utility to animate the flap its wings of a bird is
a) joining wings
b) adding time loop layer
c) copy of the first wing
d) adding the layer
Answer:
b) adding time loop layer

Question 29.
Write the activity to include an image to synfig studio
a) file → open
b) file → new
c) file → import
d) file → save
Answer:
c) file → import

Question 29.
in which menu import facility is available”?
a) Edit
b) file
c) canvas
d) windows
Answer:
b) file

Question 30.
Select ofie not group
a) . dv
b) .flv
c) . mpeg
d). svg
Answer:
d) .svg

Question 32.
What is the maximum value of current time?
a) 20 f
b) 60 f
c) 120 f
d) 1 f ,
Answer:
c) 120 f

Question 33.
What is the least value of current time?
a) 60 f
b) 120 f
c) 40 f
d) Of
Answer:
d)0f ‘

Question 34.
Keyframe are constructed in different type or same type
a) same type
b) different type
c) not constructing a keyframe
d) Equal type
Answer:
b) different type

Question 35.
Select any two free animation software’s
a) Anim studio
b) pencil
c) synfig studio
d) adobe flash
Answer:
b) pencil
and
c) synfig studio

Question 36.
An important stage in preparing animation is character designing. What is the meaning of character designing?
a) characters
b) Draw the characters
c) bringing character to life with humanity & personality
d) Giving life to the story
Answer:
b) Draw the characters
and
c) bringing character to life with humanity & personality

Question 37.
What are the uses of multi-colored buttons on the handle of a image?
a) To switch on the Animate editing mode
b) To adjust size
c) To take copy
d) To rotate if needed.
Answer:
b) To adjust size
and
d) To rotate if needed

Question 38.
Give the two activities done before starting animation from first keyframe
a) Current time is 60 f
b) Current time is 0 f
c) Before editing the motion, animate the edit mode button is active
d) press the play button to see the animation
Answer:
b) Current time is 0 f
and
c) Before editing the motion, animate the edit mode button is active

Question 39.
Sky and one star are drawn in synfig studio canvas. In the layers panel we can see a rectangle 001, and star 001. What are the tools use dot draw them
a) Circle tool
b) Fill tool
c) Star tool
d) Rectangle tool
Answer:
c) Star tool
and
d) Rectangle tool

Question 40.
Animation became much easier in film industry, with the arrival of new technologies. What are they?
a) computers
b) Radio
c) Animation software’s
d) office software.
Answer:
a) computers
and
c) Animation software’s

Question 41.
Create animations is one of the stages in animation film. There are two other stages before creating an animation. What are they?
a) To save animation project
b) Character designing
c) Playing an animation
d) Preparation of storyboards
Answer:
b) Character designing
and
d) Preparation of storyboards

Question 42.
Utilities of synfig studio windows are given below. Select one of each set and make a list.

Set-I

a) Database panel
b) Work area
c) Layers Panel
d) Task area
Answer:
c) Layers Panel

Set -II

a) Audio track
b) Video track
c) Time track panel
d) Fill
Answer:
c) Time track panel

Set-III

a) Parameters panel
b) Table
c) Storyboard
d) Path
Answer:
a) Parameters panel

Set -IV

a) Database window
b) tooIX
c) Editor window
d) Window
Answer:
b) tooIX

pH Calculator is a free online tool that displays the pH value for the given chemical solution.

Question 43
Select one video formats from each set

Set I

a) PNG
b) gif
c) xcf
d) sifz
Answer:
b) gif

Set II

a) dv
b) ods
c) odf
d) odp
Answer:
a) dv

Set III

a) jpg
b) flv
c) jpg
d) py
Answer:
b) flv

Set -IV

a) Html
b) ph
c) htm
d) mpeg
Answer:
d) mpeg

Question 44.
There are a lots of job opportunities related to animation in Government/public sectors of India and abroad. A list of job opportunities are given below. Select one from each set.

Set-I

a) Cinema production
b) Still photograph
c) Newspaper
d) Shops
Answer:
a) Cinema production

Set-II

a) Schools
b) advertising agencies
c) building construction
b) advertising agencies
Answer:
d) Library

Set-III

a) Radio
b) FM radio
c) TV
d) Tape recorder
c) TV

Set-IV

a) mobile
b) computer
c) calculator
d) computer games
Answer:
d) computer games

Question 45.
Images are included in synfig studio through import menu what are the uses of handles on the image? Select one form each set.

Set-1

a) To join the parts of an image
b) To arrange its position
c) To animation
d) Frame
Answer:
b) To arrange its position

Set – II

a) To arrange its size
b) To reduce its size
c) To increase its size
d) Can’t change its size
Answer:
a) To arrange its size

Set-II

a) To rotate
b) Can’t rotate
c) To remove the image
d) To include and image
Answer:
a) To rotate

Set-IV

a) To add a background image
b) Creating a scene
c) To adjust the views of the images
d) To change its background-color
Answer:
c) To adjust the views of the images

Question 46.
The layers are seen in the layers panel of a synfig studio some activities related to the layers are given in sets. Select correct activities from each set.

Set-1

a) Can’t change its order
b) can change its order
c) Arrange the order before including the layer
d) Layers are not visible
Answer;
b) can change its order

Set -II

a) Can’t group together
b) Objects
c) Can group together
d) Can’t change its color
Answer:
c) Can group together

Set-III

a) To take a copy of a layer
b) Layer is fixed
c) Can edit animation
d) Can’t delete the layer
Answer:
a) To take a copy of a layer

Set-IV

a) Removing the layer may effect he other
b) Can delete a layer
c) Can edit animation
d) Can’t delete the layers
Answer:
b) Can delete a layer

You can Download Publishing Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Publishing

Publishing Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Clickthrough Insert → fields → more fields in writer software. We get a field window contains utility.
a) File
b) Edit
c) Database
d) None
Answer:
c) Database

Question 2.
Formattings of a text is copped to another text is using tool
a) Clone formatting
b) style
c) Paragraph formatting
d) styles and formatting
Answer:
a) Clone formatting

Question 3.
Which is the Clone formatting tool?

Answer:

Question 4.
A word can define headings, subheadings and para-graph separately is called
a) Style
b) Insert
c) Formatting
d) Clone
Answer:
a) Style

Question 5.
In which menu lies the Index and Tables
a) File
b) Insert
c) Edit
d) Data
Answer:
b) Insert

Question 6.
Where does contain the table of contents in your text?
a) Middle of the text
b) Not entered
c) At the beginning
d) At the end
Answer:
c) At the beginning

Question 7
The Software developed by Leslie Lamport is
a) Linux
b) Windows
c) Android
d) LaTex
Answer:
d) LaTex

Question 8.
The program for type setting technical documents is developed by Donald Knuth is
a) LaTex
b) Tex.
c) Linux
d) Windows
Answer:
b) Tex

Question 9.
If you click at the word preface on the table of contents in writer. What message appears?
a) Ctrl-click to follow link
b) Click to follow link
c) Follow link
d) Click to follow link to close the window
Answer:
a) Ctrl-click to follow link

Question 10.
Which menu lies the field’s utility?
a) Edit
b) Insert
c) File
d) formatting
Answer:
b) Insert

Question 11.
Which software having the mail merge facility?
a) Libre office writer
b) Python
c) Firefox
d) Calculator
Answer:
a) Libre office writer

The Full form of DSLR is Digital Single Lens Reflex Cameras.

Question 12.
To include the names and address one by one in a table in the letters using a feature called
a) Style
b) Mail merge
c) Database
d) Indexable
Answer:
b) Mail merge

Question 13.
Which style is used to the headings more attractive?
a) Character style
b) Page style
c) Paragraph style
d) List style
Answer:
c) Paragraph style

Question 14.
Anu was prepared a style named main head. Then he selects the all headings in a report and clicks on the style named main head. What happens for the headings?
a) All headings are changed to same type
b) No change to the headings
c) Headings are changed to different sizes
d) Headings are seen in different colors
Answer:
a) AI1 headings are changed to same type

Question 15.
The use of organizer tab in styles and formattings window for creating a new style is?
a) No use at all
b) To applying the style
c) Giving the name for the style
d) Don’t give a name for the style
Answer:
c) Giving the name for the style

Questions 16.
Which software includes the styles and formattings utility
a) Cale
b) Python
c) Writer
d) Sun clock
Answer:
c) Writer

Question 17.
Pick out the correct statement related to a frame
a) Can’t able to type inside the frame
b) Frame can move at any place on the page
c) Frame can’t move on the page
d) Can’t able to insert an image in a frame
Answer:
b) Frame can move at any place on the page

Question 18.
Where did you get the fields window?
a) Insert →Fields → More fields
b) Insert → Media → Fields
c) Format → More fields
d) Tools → More fields
Answer:
a) Insert → Fields → More fields

Question 19.
A correct statement related to clone formatting is
a) Use clone formatting for a large report
b) Formattings of headings can be changed by changing the formatting of each heading separately
c) Formattings of headings can be changed by changing the formatting of one heading
d) Formattings of heading cannot be copped to another
b) Formattings of headings can be changed by changing the formatting of each heading separately

Section – II

Question 20.
Right-click on the heading (styles name) on a paragraph style, we get the utilities
a) Modify
b) Colour
c) New
d) Pattern
Answer:
a) Modify

Question 21.
Libre office writer file prepared in Malayalam fonts and English fonts, on which fonts are changed to change the styles of the files?
a) If the file is in Malayalam fonts, then change the CTL font
b) If the file is in English fonts, then change the CTL font
c) If the file is in Malayalam fonts, then change western text font
d) If the file is in English fonts, then change the Western text font
Answer:
a and b

Question 22.
Select the correct statements
a) The styles in a writer are changed and use them
b) The styles in a writer cannot be changed
c) New styles cannot be created
d) New styles can prepared in a writer.
Answer:
a and d

Question 23.
Select two correct statements related to a frame
a) Can’t move from one part of a page
b) To place text or images within a document separated from the main contents
c) To place anywhere in the page
d) Not separated from the main contents
Answer:
b and c

Question 24.
Participant’s cards are prepared by mail merge utility and select print from file menu. Then you get a window to select two utilities to save the output file what are they?
a) Save as single document
b) Save as image
c) Save as individual documents
d) Save picture as
Answer:
a and c

Question 25.
Using mail merge to preparing the letters for the parents about the Youth Festival. What are the preparations we make for this?
a) Making a list of parents address in Libre Office writer
b) Making a list of parents addresses in Libre Office Calc
c) Preparing the letters to the parents in Libre office writer
d) Preparing the letters to the parents in Libre office calc
Answer:
b and c

Question 26.
Why did scientific articles and research reports are prepared by LaTex Software?
a) Facility to use English fonts
b) Facility to use Malayalam fonts
c) Several features for typesetting Symbols
d) Several features for typesetting equations.
Answer:
c and d

Question 27.
What are the difficulties to prepare a text /document using clone formatting?
a) Separate formattings the contents of a text is difficult
b) Formattings of heading can be changed by changing the formattings of each heading separately
c) Formattings of headings/ paragraph can be changed by changing one
d) One by one formatting is very easy
Answer:
a and b

Question 28.
The order of preparing a table of contents to the school report are following. Select one from each set.

Set -1

a) Close the report
b) Type the school report
c) Correct the report
d) Open the prepared school report
Answer:
d) Open the prepared school report

Set – II

a) Click on the last page of the report
b) Click on the place where the table of contents to be inserted
c) Insert the table of contents on the cover page
d) Click on the blank space of the report
Answer:
b) Click on the place where the table of contents to be inserted

Set – III

a) Select Index and Tables from Insert Menu
b) Select fields from Insert menu
c) Select modify
d) Select styles and formatting from insert menu
Answer:
a) Select Index and Tables from Insert Menu

Set – IV

a) Close the window
b) A new window appears, give a heading and background color for the table of contents and click OK.
c) Click cancel on the new window
d) Leave the window without any change
Answer:
b) A new window appears, give a heading and background color for the table of contents and click OK.

Question 29.
What are the styles included in styles and formatting window?

Set -1

a) Paragraph style
b) Western-style
c) Formatting style
d) More style
Answer;
a) Paragraph style

Set – II

a) Apply style
b) Character styles
c) Style Box
d) Clone formatting
Answer:
b) Character styles

Set – III

a) Heading style
b) Report style
c) Frame style
d) Life style
Answer:
c) Frame style

Set-IV

a) Page style
b) Heading 1
c) Head
d) Address
Answer:
a) Page style

Question 30.
The uses of mail merge utility in LibreOffice writer.

Set-I

a) Preparing Notice
b) Preparing the letter for parents about youth festival
c) Writing the mark list
d) To prepare address
Answer:
b) Preparing the letter for parents about youth festival

Set – II

a) Creating a style
b) Taking a print
c) To taking a copy
d) To prepare participant’s card
Answer:
d)To prepare participant’s card

Set – III

a) To prepare certificate
b) To prepare a letter to a friend
c) To prepare a document
d) To prepare a study report
Answer:
a) To prepare certificate

Set – IV

a) To calculate the achievement
b) To prepare electricity bill
c) To apply style
d) To prepare the table of contents
Answer:
b) To prepare electricity bill

Question 31.
Which are the styles we are using from paragraph style? Make a list using from each set

Set – I

a) Table
b) Report
c) Heading
d) Contents
Answer:
c) Heading

Set – II

a) Caption
b) Font
c) Footer
d) Color
Answer:
a) Caption

Set-III

a) Find
b) Link
c) Object
d) Index
Answer:
d) Index

Set-IV

a) Body
b) Media
c) Text body
d) Frame
Answer:
c) Text body

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Social Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 Malayalam Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Social Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 Malayalam Medium

Kerala Sslc Social Science Question Paper 2019 Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is the cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer all questions in PART – A. Answer any one from the questions given under each question number in PART – B.

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Students can Download Kerala SSLC English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Kerala SSLC English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC English Model Question Paper 2

Time: 2½ Hours
Maximum: 80 Scores

Instructions:

• The first fifteen minutes is cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan the answers.
• Read the questions carefully before answering.
• Certain Sections of the questions have choices. Follow the instructions.

Questions 1 – 6: Read the excerpt “Adventures in a Banyan Tree” and answer the questions that follow. Each question carries one score. (1 × 6 = 6)

When I had also made a conscious descent from the tree and returned to the house, I told Grandfather of the fight I had seen. He was pleased that the mongoose had won. He had encouraged it to live in the garden, to keep away the snakes, and fed it regularly with scraps from the kitchen. He had never tried taming it, because wild mongoose was more useful than a domesticated one.

From the banyan tree I often saw the mongoose patrolling the four corners of the garden, and once I saw him with an egg in his mouth and knew he had been in the poultry house; but he had not harmed the birds, and I knew Grandmother would forgive him for stealing as long as he kept the snakes away from the house.

Question 1.
Why was the Grandfather pleased?
Answer:
The Grandfather was pleased because the mongoose had won the fight.

Question 2.
Why did the Grandfather encourage the mongoose to live in the garden?
Answer:
The Grandfather encouraged the mongoose to live in the garden because it would keep away the snakes.

Question 3.
The Grandfather never tried training the mongoose. Why?
Answer:
The Grandfather never tried training the mongoose because a wild mongoose was more useful than a domesticated one.

Question 4.
What did the narrator often see when he was sitting on the banyan tree?
Answer:
When he was sitting on the banyan tree, the narrator often saw the mongoose patrolling the four corners of the garden.

Question 5.
Was the Grandmother angry with the mongoose for stealing an egg from her poultry?
Answer:
No, she wasn’t.

Question 6.
Find a word from the passage which means ‘tamed’.
Answer:
Domesticated.

Questions 7 – 10: Read the lines from “Lines Written in Early Spring” and answer the questions that follow. Each question carries one score. (1 × 4 = 4)

I heard a thousand blended notes,
While in a grove I sate reclined,
In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts
Bring sad thoughts to the mind.

To her fair works did Nature link
The human soul that through me ran
And much it grieved my heart to think’
What man made of man.

Question 7.
Where did the poet sit?
Answer:
He sat in a grove.

Question 8.
Sitting there what did the poet hear?
Answer:
He heard a thousand blended notes.

Question 9.
To whom did Nature link her good works?
Answer:
To the human soul.

Question 10.
Why did the heart of the poet grieve?
Answer:
The heart of the poet grieved because of what man-made of man.

Question 11. Read the poem “Mother to Son” and attempt a brief appreciation, point out the theme(s) and poetic devices used. (1 × 5 = 5)

I heard a thousand blended notes,
While in a grove I sate reclined,
In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts
Bring sad thoughts to the mind.

To her fair works did Nature link
The human soul that through me ran;
And much it grieved my heart to think
What man has made of man.

Through primrose tufts, in that green bower,
The periwinkle trailed its wreaths;
And ’tis my faith that every flower
Enjoys the air it breathes.

The birds around me hopped and played,
Their thoughts I cannot measure:-
But the least motion which they made
It seemed a thrill of pleasure.

The budding twigs spread out their fan,
To catch the breezy air;
And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there.

If this belief from heaven be sent,
If such be Nature’s holy plan,
Have I not reason to lament
Whatman has made of man?
Answer:
The poet says that while sitting reclined on a woodland grove, his mind was filled with several thoughts. While he finds solace in the nature’s beauty, the same beauty also reminds him of sad thoughts. The speaker appreciates the nature for her god like abilities of linking a human soul to herself but he also feels grief while thinking about how cruelly man has separated himself from mother nature. The poet is highly appreciative of nature’s beauty.

He finds delight in the green bowers and has faith that the beautiful flowers enjoy every ounce of the air they breathe and they are thankful for living beside the nature. The speaker observes the birds which sing and hop around him. He is in awe of these creatures. Though the speaker does not understand their, language and ways, he does recognize that the birds are creating all these movements out of sheer pleasure and joy.

The breeze blowing is sweet and light, the twigs are spreading out as if to catch the sweet air and all the poet can do is gather pleasure in their existence. The speaker questions that if this is heaven and this is the holy plan of nature then what man has done to himself is really bad. Man has separated himself from such joy and is spending his time hating one another and fighting wars.

The poem has 6 quatrains and the rhyming scheme is abab. There are examples of personification. There is fine-visual and auditory imagery. We too feel like the poet reclining in the grove watching the flowers and listening to the music of the birds. Nature is really beautiful.

Questions 12 – 16: Read the following passage from “The Castaway” and answer the questions that follow. Each question carries one score. (1 × 5 = 5)

After Satish’s arrival, Kiran had seldom got much time to spare serving Nilkanta’s meals which she had been doing so generously as he had an immense capacity of eating. After that he left the hall without eating much. He would repeatedly say, “I am not hungry” thinking that it would bring Kiran to press him to finish. That didn’t happen. Soaking the pillow with his sobs became a usual occurrence. He jumped into the conclusion that some venomous trick of Satish had made her angry against him.

Question 12.
Who had an immense capacity of eating?
Answer:
Nilkanta had an immense capacity of eating.

Question 13.
Why did Nilkanta repeatedly say, “I am not hungry”?
Answer:
Nilkanta repeatedly said, “I am not hungry” because he wanted Kiran to press him to eat more.

Question 14.
Did Kiran press him to eat more?
Answer:
No, she didn’t. Kiran didn’t press him to eat more.

Question 15.
Why was Nilktanta soaking his pillow with his sobs?
Answer:
Nilkanta was soaking his pillow with his sobs because he was sad that he was being neglected by Kiran after the arrival of Satish.

Question 16.
Did Nilkanta entertain Satish?
Answer:
No, he didn’t. He kept mum saying that he did not remember anything,

Questions 17 – 21: The details of some authors given below. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. Each question carries on score. (1 × 5 = 5) 

Question 17.
How many of the above authors were born in the 19th century?
Answer:
One

Question 18.
Who is the only film director in the list?
Answer:
MajidiMajidi

Question 19.
A speech by Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie is in your syllabus. Name it.
Answer:
The Danger of a Single Story

Question 20.
Write down the name of the writer from the USA.
Answer:
Bob Dylan

Question 21.
of all those who were born in the 20th century, who was born first?
Answer:
Ruskin bond

Question 22 – 23: Answer any ONE of the following in about 120 words. (7 × 1 = 7)

Question 22.
Narrate the story of the Scholarship Jacket in your own words.
Answer:
Martha is an intelligent and hardworking girl. But because her parents were poor, they gave her to her grandparents to bring up. Her poverty did not stop her from hard work and she has been scoring top grades all the years.

In the Texas school where she was studying, there was the custom of awarding a scholarship jacket to the best outgoing student. The jacket was given during the valedictory function for the 8th grade students. The eligible student should have constantly scored the top grades in all the 8 years of his/her stay there. Martha was sure she would get it and she was eagerly awaiting it.

There was a girl called Joann in her class. She was nowhere near Martha in her grades. But her father was a Board mehnber and he made a plan to keep Martha away from the Prize. He knew that Martha was too poor to pay any money to get the jacket. He and some his friends took the initiative and made the Board change its policy from that year. They decided that to get the scholarship jacket the student has to pay 15 dollars. By this he knew that Martha won’t get it and it could then be given to Joann.

But a good teacher named Mr. Schmidt was against this scheme. He persuaded the principal to make the scholarship jacket free. The principal also realized it would be an injustice to Martha if the jacket was not given to her. So, finally, Martha got it because of the goodness of Mr. Schmidt and the principal. Martha was very happy.

Question 23.
Prepare a review of the Drama “The Never-Never Nest”.
Answer:
“The Never-Never Nest” is a one-act Play by Cedric Mount. It exposes’ the shams of contemporary society which tries to live beyond its means. It warns the people against the modern “Buy Now Pay Later” scheme which tempts people to buy things which are not essential for them. Since they don’t have to pay immediately, they are tempted to buy things that are available on instalments. In the play we see Jack and Jill, a young couple with a baby.

Jack earns only 6 Pounds a week. Jill is a housewife. But they go on getting all kinds of luxury items on instalments. The monthly installments come to more than 7 Pounds. To make up the deficit they will take a loan which will further increase their financial burden. In their lounge in the villa, they have fine furniture, a radiogram and a piano.

They also have a refrigerator and a car. But all these and the villa itself are bought on installments. So nothing is their own, even their, baby, as they owed money to the doctor. They have to finish the installments to make the baby fully their own. Their Aunt comes and pays them 10 Pounds and Jill pays it to the doctor hoping that at the least the baby in the house will be their own. The play is a warning to those who live beyond their means and go on buying things on installments.

Questions 24 – 26: Answer any TWO of the questions. Each question carries 5 score.

Question 24.
Imagine that Mr. John, after meeting the narrator for the second time, writes his diary. What would be the possible diary entry?
Answer:
Today is one of the happiest days in my life. For almost 25 years I had been trying to find out this man, who had changed my life. This man, this doctor, had not only revived me after my suicide attempt, but also gave me the money to put back into the place from where I had stolen it. He is not just a man but an angel for me.

Without his help, I would have been dead. Today I met him while I was returning from the States. This doctor has grown slightly old, but the cheerful expression is still on his face. I recognized him at the first look. But he did not recognize me. So I went and told him who I was and how he had helped me 25 years ago. He was happy to see me and hear about my work. I was also extremely pleased to meet him. I pray God there should more and more persons like him in this world.

Question 25.
Read the following lines from the poem “The Ballad of Father Gilligan” and prepare a note of appreciation.
‘Mavrone, mavrone! The man has died
While I slept on the chair’;
He roused his horse out of its sleep
And rode with little care.
He rode now as he never rode,
By rocky lane and fen;
The sick man’s wife opened the door,
‘Father! you come again!’
‘And is the poor man dead?’
he cried ‘He died an hour ago’.
The old priest Peter Gilligan
In grief swayed to and fro.
Answer:
Fr. Gilligan is an old priest. He is working very hard day and night because half of parishioners are either dick or dead. One evening he was sitting in a chair quite tired and sleepy. But he is called to go and administer the sacrament of anointing the sick to a poor sick man. Fr. Gilligan is not happy because he is already too tired. He said he has no rest, joy or peace as people are going on dying. Soon he was sorry that he thought like that and he kneels down and prays seeking forgiveness from God.

He soon fell asleep. Only when he heard the sparrows chirping he got up from his sleep. He suddenly thought that the man may have died as he was sleeping. He then took his horse and rushed to the place of the sick man. He rode very fast over the rocky paths and wetlands. The sick man’s wife opened the door and she was surprised to see him ‘again’. On enquiring about the sick man she says he died an hour.ago. Fr. Gilligan was shocked to hear the news. Later we learn that God had sent an angel in the guise of Fr. Gilligan and the sick man was administered the sacrament.

This poem by William Butler Yeats tells a beautiful story. It shows the sincerity and honesty of an old priest. He did not immediately go to the sick man when he got the call because his body was too tired and he slept quite involuntarily. The way he seeks forgiveness from God and thanking him later for sending an angel to do his duty is very touching.

The poem is in rhyme and the scheme is abcb. There is a simile here: “He rode now as he never rode.” There is alliteration in ‘his horse’ and ‘Priest Peter’. The use of ‘Mavrone! Mavronel’ to mean “Alas!’ is very special and it has an Irish ring to it. The conversational style adds beauty to the ballad. On the whole it is an exquisite poem by Yeats, the Nobel Prize Winner.

Question 26.
The English Club of your school as decided to stage the play “The Never-Never nest”. Draft a notice inviting all teachers and students to watch the play.
Answer:

Crescent Public School, Chalakudy
English Club

1 December 2019

Notice

The English Club of this School is staging a play titled ‘‘The Never-Never Nest”. It is a very interesting play by Cedric Mount.
Venue: School Auditorium
Date and Time: 10 December 2019, 3 p.m.

A couple named Jack and Jill are in the habit of getting everything on instalment basis. They take advantage of the “Buy Nowand Pay Later” scheme. They have a good house, fine furniture, a radiogram, a piano and a car. Even their baby is on instalment as they , have to still pay money to the doctor. Jack earns only 6 Pounds a week. Jill is a homemaker, the instalments come to more than 7 Pounds. Their Aunt comes to visit them and she gives them a small cheque asking them to make at least one thing their own. Find out what is the thing they make their own by watching the play on stage.

All the teachers and students of the school are cordially invited!

Raj Job
Secretary

Questions 27 – 31: Answer any three of the following. Each question carries six scores.

Question 27.
In the Lesson “Adventures in a Banyan Tree”, the boy sees a fight between the cobra and the mongoose. Narrate the fight scene in your own words.
Answer:
The boy was sitting on the platform halfway up the tree. It was an April afternoon. Warm breezes had sent everyone indoors. The boy was thinking of going for a swim, when he saw a black cobra coming out of a group of cactus. It was looking for a cooler place in the garden. A mongoose also came out and went towards the cobra. They came face to face.

The Cobra knew that the 3 feet long mongoose is a fine fighter, clever and aggressive. But the cobra was also an experienced fighter. He could move with great speed and strike the mongoose. His sharp teeth were full of poison. It was a battle of champions.

The cobra hissed. His tongue darted in and out. It was 6 feet long. It raised its three feet high and raised its broad, spectacled hood. The mongoose was also ready to fight. Its hair on the spine stood up like bristles. They would help him to prevent his body from getting bitten. A myna and a jungle crow were watching the fight.

At one stage they dived towards the cobra, but they missed it. The myna went back. The crow was trying to turn around when it was struck by the cobra. It died soon. The mongoose proved too clever for the cobra and finally it was killed by the mongoose which dragged it into the bush.

Question 28.
In the story “The Snake and the Mirror”, the snake did not harm the homeopath. The homeopath in turn did not hurt it. Keeping Basheer’s vision on nature and its beings, commend on this story.
Answer:
In the story the snake did not harm the homeopath. The homeopath in turn did not hurt it. By saying this, Basheer is emphasizing the principle of “Live and Let Live”. Man and animals are supposed to co-exist in this world. As man has the right to live, the animals also have the right to live.

It is a known fact that animals do not harm people unless they are provoked and feel threatened. No snake will deliberately come and bite you. But we deliberately kill snakes. A snake will attack only if it feels threatened and its escape route is blocked. If they see people, they will either try to hide or run away.

They bite only when people step over them unknowingly or chase them and block their escape . route. In that sense man is the only ‘animal’ that kills for pleasure. Animals of prey may kill to satisfy their hunger. But we do it for fun.

Basheer is of the view that we should let animals live their life without interfering with them, unless they prove dangerous to us. Peaceful coexistence is what he insists. It is an interesting story in which the homeopath has fine dreams about his future wife.

Question 29.
Here are some details about Pablo Neruda. Write his short profile.
His actual name : Neftali Ricardo Reyes Basoaito
Birth – 1904
Nationality – Chilean
Career – poet, diplomat and politician
Specialty: He often wrote in Green Ink.
Famous poems: “Tonight I Can Write the Saddest Lines”,” Don’t Be Far Off’, “When I Die I Want Your Hands on My Eyes”, “Die Slowly”, “Here I Love You”. Award – Nobel Prize for Literature, 1971
Answer:
Pablo Neruda’s actual name was Neftali Ricardo Reyes Basoalto. He was born in 1904. he was a Chilean poet, diplomat and politician. It is interesting to know that he often wrote in Green Ink, which represented his hope and optimism. His most famous poems are “Tonight I Can Write the Saddest Lines”, “Don’t Be Far Off’, “When I Die I Want Your Hands on My Eyes”, “Die Slowly”, and “Here I Love You”. He was awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature, 1971. He died in 1973.

Question 30.
Satyajit Ray and his friends had to shoot scenes involving the tiger twice at Notun Gram and Boral. Ray describes the shooting at both these places. How it would be?
Answer:
We found a suitable bamboo grove in Notun Gram. As arranged with Mr. Thorat of Bharat Circus, a lorry arrived with two well-fed tigers. He brought two so that if one did not do things properly the other could be used. Atripod was placed facing the bamboo grove to mount the camera. The audience was instructed to get behind the camera. Goopy and Bagha were placed close to the bamboo grove so that they could be seen along with the tiger.

A five-foot iron rod was fixed to the ground, some 30 feet from the area where the tiger was to walk. A tiger-skin collar with a thin wire inside was placed in the neck of the tiger. The door of the cage was opened and the tiger jumped out. But instead of walking calmly it started running and jumping about. When it became calm some shots were taken. But the shots were later found to be dark owing to poor light.

The scenes had to be shot a second time. Abamboo grove near Calcutta in Boral was found. The lorry arrived with Thorat, the tiger, the steel wire, the special collar and the iron rod. The whole village came to watch the shooting. The villagers were told to keep at least 70 feet away from the scene of the shot.

Without listening to the instructions, the entire crowd got as close to the camera as they could. Thorat opened the cage. With a roar the tiger charged towards the crowd. The crowd disappeared as if my magic. Soon the tiger calmed down and the shots were taken as required. This time the tiger and the camera behaved well.

Question 31.
In her speech, Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie talks about the dangers of a single story. Prepare a write up bring out her views on the issue.
Answer:
A single-story creates stereo types. The problem with stereotypes is not that they are untrue, but they are incomplete. The experience of Chimamanda -Adichie, while she was a student in the USA, proves the point. Her American roommate was surprised to hear Adichie speak English so well and she liked the songs of Mariah Carey.

The American roommate could never imagine that a girl from Nigeria would speak English or listen to singers like Mariah Carey. Many British, Canadians or Australians feel surprised when Indians speak fluent English because they think that Indians can’t speak English well. Adichie further elaborated how single stories often misinform and misguide people. They had a servant, whose name was Fide. Her mother always talked about the poverty of Fide.

Adichie once visited Fide’s home and found his brother was a fine craftsman who could make beautifully patterned baskets. But she knew only of their poverty and not their artistic skills. This is what happens to many of us. We hear just one thing about a person or about a country. We don’t hear other things about him or the country. And so our opinion about the person and the country remains prejudiced. In India there are many street magicians an snake charmers. Many people in Africa and Europe think that all Indians know magic and they can handle snakes like Vava Suresh.

We all have heard the story of six blind men going to ‘see’ the elephant. Each of them felt with their hands a different hart of the elephant. The person who felt the leg of the elephant said that an elephant is like a pillar. The one who felt the ear said that an elephant is like a hand-fan. To the one who felt the tail an elephant was like a stick! They all were right in their own limited way, but they were all wrong about their concept of the elephant.

So before coming to conclusions we should hear not a single story about something, but different stories about it. Otherwise we will remain prejudiced like the blind men in the story.

Question 32.
Complete the following conversation between Ali and Zahra from the story “My Sister’s Shoes”. (5)
Zahra: Ali, where are my shoes which you took for
repairs yesterday?
Ali: I lost them.
Zahra: You lost them! What …………. (a) to school today?
Ali: You can wear my shoes.
Zahra: Your shoes? ……………..(b).
Ali: If they are too big for you wear your slippers.
Zahra: I will be punished by the teacher, …………….. (c)?
Ali: No, you won’t. Tell the teacher your shoes were stolen.
Zahra : I am going to tell our father about the loss of my shoes.
Ali: ………….. (d). He will beat me.
Zahra: It will be good for you for your carelessness. ……………..(e)
Answer:
a) will I wear
b) They are too big for me
c) won’t I
d) Please don’t.
e) won’t it?

Question 33.
Report the following dialogue.
Grandfather: In the fight between the cobra and the mongoose, who won?
Narrator: The mongoose won the fight. He was a better fighter than the cobra.
Answer:
Grandfather asked the narrator as to who won the fight between the cobra and the mongoose.
The narrator replied saying that the mongoose won it and he was a better fighter than the cobra.

Question 34.
Complete the passage choosing the right words from the ones given in brackets. (5)

In a village named Notun Gram we found a suitable bamboo grove …………(a) shoot the first meeting between Goopy and Bagha and the tiger. Thorat came to the location …………… the tiger. There were some 25 people there. A. ………….(c) villagers took our permission to come and watch …………..(d) shooting. (the, few, to, with)
Answer:
a) to
b) with
c) few
d) the

Question 35.
There are a few mistakes in the following passage. The mistakes are underlined. Correct them. (4)
Nine year olds
(a) Vanka Zhukhov, which
(b) had been apprenticed three months ago too
(c) Alyakhin the shoemaker, did not went
(d) to bed on Christmas eve.
Answer:
a) old
b) who
c) to
d) go

Question 36.
Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with an appropriate phrasal verbs from the ones given in brackets.
(put off, put cross, put up with, put out)
a) I can’t …………. his rude behaviour.
b) The firemen ………….. the fire with great difficulty.
c) A good teacher must be able to …………. his ideas to students.
d) The meeting was ……………… because of the floods in the area.
Answer:
a) put up with
b) put out
c) put across
d) put off

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may use the time to read and plan your answers.
2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Section – A

(Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each question carries 1 score) (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Which of the following molecule can undergo addition reaction? (1)
(methane, ethane, propene, butane)
Answer:
Propene

Question 2.
The glass used to make lenses and prisms is ………(1)
Answer:
Flint glass / optic glass/ Lead glass

Question 3.
Atomic mass of Nitrogen is 14. which of the following sample contain 6.022 x 10²³ Nitrogen atoms? (1)
(7g Nitrogen, 14 g Nitrogen, 28g Nitrogen, 1g Nitrogen)
Answer:
14g nitrogen

Question 4.
The ore of a metal is lighter than the impurities. Which method is suitable for its concentration? (1)
Answer:
Froth floatation process

Question 5.
A fresh piece of Mg ribbon loses its luster after a few days. This is due to the formation of the compound ………..(1)
Answer:
Magnessium oxide/MgO/oxide

Section – B

(Answer any 4 questions from 6 to 10. Each question carries 2 scores)(4 × 2 = 8)

Question 6.
The last subshell of an element is 3p and there are 3 electrons in it.
a) Write the complete electronic configuration of the element. (1)
b) Identify its period and group. (1)
Answer:
a) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³ (2, 8, 5)
b) Period -3 group -15

Question 7.
An iron nail is dipped in CuSO₄ solution. (Reactivity order Fe>Cu)
a) What is the change that can be noticed on the iron nail after a while? (1)
b) Write down the chemical equation of the oxidation reaction occurs here. (1)
Answer:
a) Copper gets deposited on iron nail b) Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e^–

Question 8.
4g of NaOH is dissolved in water and the volume is made upto 1 L.
(1 mole of. NaOH = 40 g)
a) Calculate the molarity of the resultant solution. (1)
b) How will you make 1 M solution of NaOH using the same amount (4g) of NaOH? (1)
Answer:
a) Molecular mass of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40

b) Dissolve 4g NaOH in water and make up the solution in to 100 mL

Question 9.
Concentrated Cu₂S is converted into oxide by roasting.
a) Write the process of roasting. (1)
b) How impurities like sulphur and phosphorus are removed in this process? (1)
Answer:
a) Heating the ore in the presence of air below its melting point.
b) Sulphur and phosphorous are removed as their oxides

Question 10.
Ethanoic acid is an organic compound having industrial values.
a) How ethanoic acid is manufactured industrially?^)
b) Give any one use of ethanoic acid. (1)
a) Ethanoic acid is manufactured by reacting methanol and carbon monoxide in the preence of a catalyst.

b)

• Production of rayon
• In rubber and silk industry
• To produce vinegar

Section – C

(Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each question carries 3 scores) (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
H₂(g) + I₀2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g)
a) What is the total number of moles of reactants and products in the above reaction. (1)
b) What is the effect of pressure in this reversible reaction? Explain. (2)
Answer:
a) No. of mol of reactants = 2
No. of mol of products =2
b) Pressure has no effect on this reaction. Because there is no change in volume (no.of molecules) due to forward and backward reactions.

Question 12.
The structure of a hydrocarbon is given below:

a) How many C-atoms are there in the main chain?
Which is the word root? (1)
b) Identify the branch and its position number (1)
c) Write the IUPAC name of this compound. (1)
Answer:
a) 5, pent
b) Methyl, 3
c) 3-methyl pentane

Question 13.
The chemical equation for the manufacture of ammonia is N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)
a) Complete the following: 1 mol N₂ + …………H₂→ …………NH₃ (1)
b) Calculate the amount of H₂ required to rea.ct with 28 g of N₂ completely. (1)
[Hint: Molecular mass of N₂ = 28, H₂ = 2]
c) What will be the volume of NH₃ formed at STP, if 22.4L of N₂ is completely reacted? (1)
Answer:
a) 1 mol N₂ + 3mool -H₂ → 2 mol NH₃
b) 28 g N2 requires 3 mol H₂
3 mol H₂ = 3 x 2 = 6g
c) NH₃ formed when 1 mol (22.4L)
N₂ reacts = 2 mol
Volume of 2 mol NH₃ at STP = 2 x 22.4 = 44.8L

Question 14.
Consider the metals and solutions given in the box.
Zn, Mg, Cu, Ag, CuSO₄ solution, MgSO₄ solution
a) Which of the above metals are to be selected to construct a Galvanic cell? (1)
b) Identify the anode and cathode of the cell. (1)
[Hint: Reactivity order Mg > Zn > Cu > Ag]
c) Write the redox reaction taking place in this cell. (1)
Answer:
a) Mg, Cu
b) Anode Mg/MgSO₄
Cathode Cu/CuSO₄
c)

Question 15.
Alumina is mixed with cryolite and subjected to electrolysis to extract aluminium.
a) Why cryolite is added to alumina? (1)
b) Which are the ions present in alumina? (1)
c) Write the equation of the reduction reaction taking place at negative electrode. (1)
Answer:
a) To lower the melting point of alumina and to increase the electrical conductivity.
b) Al³⁺, O^2-
c) Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al

Section – D

(Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each question carries 4 scores)(4 × 4 = 16)

Question 16.
Zinc piece and zinc powder are taken in two test tubes and equal’amount of dil. HCl is added.
a) In which test tube does the reaction proceed faster? (1)
b) Give the reason. (2)
c) Give an instance from daily life, where such condition is made use. (1)
Answer:
a) In second test tube (Zinc powder)
b) Total surface area increases on powdering. So the rate of effective collisions increases.
c) • Fire wood catches fire quickly if splitted up into small pieces.
• Vegetables get cooked easily if cut into small pieces.
• Condiments are powdered for quick action.

Question 17.
The structure of two organic compounds are given below:
i) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-OH
ii) CH₃-CH₂-0-CH₂-CH₃
a) Write the molecular formula of these com-pounds. (1)
b) Which type of isomerism do they exhibit? (1)
c) Explain this isomerism. (1)
d) Write the strucutral formula of a position isomer of compound (i) (1)
Answer:
a) C₄H₁₀O
b) Functional group isomerism
c) Compounds having same molecular formula and different structural formula and functional groups are called functional group isomers.
d)

Question 18.
The atomic number of an element is 19.
a) Write the subshell electronic configuration. (1)
b) Identify its group, period, block and oxidation state. (2)
c) Write any one characteristic of the block to which the element belongs., (1)
Answer:
a) 1 s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹
b) Group -1 Period – 4
Block – s Oxidation state +1
c) Highly electropositive, low ionisation energy.

Question 19.
Two organic reactions are given below:

a) Identify the products A and B (1)
b) Which type of reaction is (i)? (1)
c) The product B has industrial values. Give its name and use. (2)
Answer:
a)

b) Substitution reaction
c) Poly Vinyl chloride (PVC)
PVC is a plastic used for thd manufacture of pipes hoses etc.

Question 20.

a) Give the functions of antipyretics and anti-biotics. (2)
b) Write any two unhealthy practices among people in using medicines. (2)
Answer:
a) Antipyretics – lowers body temperature
Antibiotics – Destroys harmful microbes and prevent their growth.

b)

• Self treatment
• Excessive use of medicine
• Using medicine prescribed for others
• Using old prescriptions for taking medicines
• Dont taking medicine at regular intervals.b

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may use the time to read and plan your answers.
2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

(Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each question carries 1 score) (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 1.
The element with 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ is placed in the group of the periodic table.
a) 1
b) 6
c) 8
d) 18
Answer:
18

Question 2.
The reaction taking place at the anode of a zinc – copper galvanic cell …………
a) Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e^–
b) Zn²⁺ + 2e^– → Zn
c) Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e^–
d) Cu²⁺ + 2e^– → Cu
2.
Answer:
Zn → Zn<>sup>2+ + 2e^–

Question 3.
The metal that liberate hydrogen gas when react with steam is ………….
a) Magnesium
b) Zinc
c) Iron
d) Sodium
Answer:
Iron

Question 4.
The substance used to remove moisture from ammonia is ……………….
a) Vanadium pentoxide
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Calcium oxide
d) Silicon dioxide
Answer:
Calcium oxide

Question 5.
The functional group present in the compound CH₃ – O-CH₃ is …………
a) Hydroxyl
b) Alkoxy
c) Methyl
d) Carboxylic
Answer:
Alkoxy

Section – B

(Answer any 4 questions from 6 to 10. Each question carries 2 scores)(4 × 2 = 8)

Question 6.
Calculate the number of molecules in 90g of water. (Hint-Atomicmass H = 1 O = 16)
Answer:
1 GMM of water = 18 g.
90 g water = \(\frac{90}{18}\) = 5 mol
No. of molecules in 5 mol = 5 x 6.022 x 10²³

Question 7.
The molecular mass of CO₂ is 44.
a) Find out the number of molecules in 220g CO₂.
Answer:
a) 220g CO₂ = \(\frac{224}{44}\) = 5 mol
∴ No. of molecules = 5 x 6.022 x 10²³
b) 5×22.4 = 112 L

b) What will be the volume of this much CO₂ at STP?
(Hint: The molar volume of gases at STP = 22.4 L)

Question 8.
The equation of the industrial production of ammonia is given below.
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) + Heat
a) By which name the industrial production of ammonia is known?
b) What will be the effect of increased pressure in ‘ this reaction?
c) What will happen if ammonia is removed from the system at regular intervals?
Answer:
a) Heber’s process
b) Due to forward reaction number of molecules decreases. So increase in pressure is favourable to forward reaction.
c) Forward reaction increases, more product will be formed.

Question 9.
Certain elements are arranged in the order as they appear in the electrochemical series.
Answer the questions that follows based on this Na > Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag
a) Which of these element is likely to be found in free state in nature?
b) Which of these metal will produce the stablest compound?
c) Which of these metal is produced by reducing its ore with CO?
Answer:
a) Ag
b) Na
c) Zn

Question 10.
The structural formula of an organic compound is given below.

a) What is the total number of carbon atom in the longest carbon chain in this compound?
b) Write the name and position of the branch.
c) Write the IUPAC name of the compound.
Answer:
a) 5
b) Methyl, 3
c) 3 – methyl pentane

Section – C

(Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each question carries 3 scores) (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
The subshell electron configuration of certain elements are given below. (Symbols are not real)
A = [Ar] 4s² 3d¹ B = [Ne]3s¹
C = [Ar] 4s¹ D = [Ne]3s²3p⁵
a) Write any characteristic of the element A.
b) Which among these belong to the same group?
c) Which among these belong to the same period?
Answer:
a) Shows variable oxidation states or forms coloured compounds.
b) B and C
c) C and D

Question 12.
Certain samples are given below.

a) Find out the number of moles in each sample.
b) Arrange them in the increasing order of number of molecules.
(Hint: Atomic mass of H = 1, He = 4, Ca = 20)
Answer:
200g H₂ = \(\frac{200}{2}\) = 100 mol
200 g He = \(\frac{200}{4}\) = 50 mol
200 g Ga = \(\frac{200}{20}\) = 10 mol
200g Ca < 200g He < 200g H₂

Question 13.
a) Which substances are used as the anode,
cathode and electrolyte when copper is refined by electrolysis.
b) It is said that electrolytic refining of copper is economic. Why?
Answer:
a) Anode – Impure copper (Copper to be purified)
Cathode – Pure Copper rod
Electrolyte – CuSO₄ solution
b) When copper is purified by electrolysis the residue left behind at the anode, called anode mud, often contains precious metals like gold.

Question 14.
Match those given columns suitably.

Answer:
Aluminium – Bauxite – Al₂O₃-2H₂O
Iron – Haematite – Fe₂O₃
Zinc – Calamine – ZnCO₃

Question 15.
There are compounds with same molecular formula but different structural formula,
a) Write two compounds with different structural formula and the molecularformulaC₃H₈O.
b) By what name these compounds are known?(1)
Answer:
a) CH₃-O-CH₂-CH₃
CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-OH
b) Isomers

Section – D

(Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each question carries 4 scores)(4 × 4 = 16)

Question 16.
In the table given below, under A certain chemical reactions and under B types of chemical reactions are given. Match them suitably.

Answer:
CH₄ + Cl₂ → CH₃ – Cl + HCl
– Substitution reaction

CH₂ = CH₂ + H₂ → CH₃ – CH₃
-Addition reaction

CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃ → CH₄-C₃H₆
– Thermal cracking

nCH₂ = CH₂ → [-CH₂-CH₂-]n
– Polymerisation

Question 17.
The chemical reactions taking place inside blast furnance during the manufacture of ‘iron is given below. Analyse it and answer the questions given below.
CaCO₃(s) → CaO(s) + CO₂(g)
CaO(s) + SiO₂(s) → CaSiO₃(s)
C(s) + O₂(g) → CO₂(g) + Heat
CO(g) + C(s) + Heat → 2CO(g)
Fe₂O₃(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO₂(g)
a) Write the chemical formula of the ore of iron.
b) Which compound is the actual reducing agent in the reaction?
c) Which equation shows slag formation?
Answer:
a) Fe₂O₃
b) CO
C) CaO(s) + SiO₂(s) →CaSiO₃(s)
d) FeO₃(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO₂(g)

Question 18.
The equation of a reversible reaction is given below.
2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ⇌ 2SO₃(g) + Heat
a) Write the equations of endothermic and exothermic reactions.
b) Write the mole ratio of the reactants and products
c) Suggest methods to get more product.
Answer:
a) Endothermic
2SO₃(g)+Heat → 2SO₂(g +O₂(g)
Exothermic
2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2SO₃(g)+Heat

b) 2:1:2
c) Increase the concentration of the reactants
Remove the product from the system
Decrease the temperature
Increase the pressure.

Question 19.
a) Sulphuric acid is known as ‘the king of chemicals’.
What is the basis for this?
b) How concentrated sulphuric acid is diluted in the laboratory?
c) The wooden cupboards in which concentrated sulphuric acid is often seen charred. Why?
Answer:
a) Due to the wide range of uses sulphuriç acid is known as the king of chemicals eg: Used to make explosives, petroleum refining dehydrating agent, manufacture of chemical fertilizers, etc.
b) Take water in a beaker and add concentrated acid slowly along the side and stir continuously. Otherwise, the add will spurt over as the dissolution is exothermic.
c) Sulphuric absorbs hydrogen and oxygen present in substances in the ratio as that in water. So carbon only remains (dehydrating property)

Question 20.
a) How do galvanic cells and electrolytic cells differ each other?
b) Write any two practical uses of electrolysis.
Answer:
a)

• Galvanic cells converts chemical energy in to electrical energy.
• Electrolytic cell converts electrical energy into chemical energy
• The anode in a galvanic cell is negative and cathode is positive.
• The anode in an electrolytic cell is positive and cathode is negative

b)

• Production of metal .
• Production of non metals
• Production of compounds
• Refining of metals
• Electroplating

You can Download गुठली तो पराई है Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 5 Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 5 Chapter 2 गुठली तो पराई है (कहानी)

गुठली तो पराई है Text Book Questions and Answers

गुठली तो पराई है विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

Hindi Notes 10th Class Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
‘यूँ तो बड़ी बुआ गुठली को अच्छी लगती हैं। पर उनसे बात करना उसे कुछ खास पसंद नहीं।’ क्यों?

उत्तर:
बुआ हमेशा नसीहतें देती रहती हैं। हर बात में मनाही करती रहती है। कहती है कि गुठली पराए घर की अमानत है। इसी कारण से गुठली बुआ से बातें करना नहीं चाहती।

10th Standard Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
‘अरी बेवकूफ़ यह घर तो पराया है’ बुआ गुठली से ऐसा क्यों कहती हैं?

उत्तर:
इस संस्कृति को माननेवाली है। इसलिए बुआ यह कहती हैं।

Gudli Meaning In Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 3.
लगा उसे जैसे उसके पैरों के नीचे से ज़मीन खींच ली गई हो। गुठली को ऐसा क्यों लगता है?

उत्तर:
बुआ गुठली से कहती है कि गुठली का अपना घर उसका नहीं पराया है। उस समय वह अपनी . माँ की ओर देखती है। लेकिन माँ बुआ की बातों से हामी भरती है। माँ भी उसे पराई मानती है। यह सच्चाई जानकर गुठली को लगा कि अपने पैरों के नीचे से ज़मीन खींच ली गई है।

गुठली Meaning In Malayalam Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 4.
‘पर ताऊजी उसमें भैया के छोटे-से बेटे का भी नाम है जो अभी बोल भी नहीं सकता तो मेरा…।’ – यहाँ कौन-सी सामाजिक अव्यवस्था की झलक मिलती है?

उत्तर:
यहाँ लड़के-लड़की भेदभाव की ओर संकेत है। हमारे परिवार पुरुष केंद्रित हैं। आज भी परिवारों में लड़कों को बड़ा स्थान मिल रहा है। लड़कियों से ऐसा व्यवहार करते हैं कि वह दूसरे घर में व्याहकर जानेवाली है। इसी कारण से लड़कियाँ कई बातों से वंचित रह जाती हैं। इस सामाजिक अव्यवस्था की ओर यहाँ संकेत है।

गुठली तो पराई है Text Book Activities & Answers

गुठली तो पराई है अभ्यास के प्रश्न

Parayi Meaning In Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
पढ़ें, ये वाक्य किसकी ओर इशारा करते हैं? इसकी आपकी राय क्या है?
i. ‘अरी बेवकूफ़ यह घर तो पराया है। बाकी लड़कियों की तरह तू भी किसी और की अमानत है। ससुराल ही तेरा असली घर होगा। जैसे देख, पैदा तो मैं भी इसी घर में हुई थीं, पर अब तेरे फूफाजी का घर ही मेरा घर है। कुछ समझी?”

ii. “भूला नहीं है रे… अपने घर की छोरियों के नाम कार्ड पर नहीं छपते।”

उत्तर:
ये वाक्य लड़की-लड़के के भेदभाव की ओर संकेत करते हैं। लड़कों की अपेक्षा लड़कियों के प्रति भेदभाव रखना बिलकुल अनुचित है। लड़कियों को भी लड़कों जैसे अधिकारों का हक है।

10th Class Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
पढ़ें।

उत्तर:

जोधपुर
12 दिसंबर 2017, मंगलवार

प्रिय मुन्नी,
नमस्कार । तुम कैसी हो? सोचता हूँ खुश है। मैं एक बात बताने के लिए यह चिट्ठी लिख रही हूँ। अपने घर के लोग मुझे पराए घर की चीज़ मानते हैं। बुआ, माँ सब यही बीचबीच में कहती रहती है। यह क्या सही है। क्या हमें अपने भाइयों की तरह अपने घर में रहने का अधिकार नहीं। ये लोग ऐसा क्यों है?

मुझे लगता है ये लोग पुरुष केंद्रित समाजिक व्यवस्था को छोड़ना नहीं चाहते हैं। हमें इसके विरुद्ध आवाज़ उठानी है। मैं अपने घर में काम करना बंद किया है। अगर घर । भाइयों का है तो घर का काम भी वे करें। सोचती हूँ तुम्हारे मात-पिता भी सकुशल हैं। उनको मेरा नमस्कार कहना।

सेवामें
मुन्नी
10/215, गुलाब एनक्लेव
गाँधीमार्ग, इलाहाबाद।

तुम्हारी सहेली
गुठली।

Sslc Hindi Chapter 2 Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 3.

उत्तर:
1. पत्र-पत्रिकाओं में लिख सकते हैं।
2. कहानियाँ लिख सकते हैं।
3. कविता रच सकते हैं।
4. चित्र प्रदर्शनी चला सकते हैं।
5. लोगों में अवबोध जगाने के लिए पोस्टर वगैरह तैयार कर सकते हैं।

गुठली तो पराई है Orakkum Questions and Answers

गतिविधि -1

सूचनाः ‘गुठली तो पराई है’ कहानी का अंश पढ़ें और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
“ऐसा मत करो”, “ऐसे पट-पट मत बोलो”, “ऐसे धम-धम मत चलो…” एक दिन गलती से उसने पूछ ही लिया, “क्यों?” तो बस शुरु हो गई, “अरे छोरी, लोग नाम तो तेरी माँ को ही रखेंगे। कहेंगे कुछ सिखाया ही नहीं। ऐसे ही करेगी क्या अपने घर जाकर ? गुठली बोली, “अपना घर? यही तो है मेरा घर, जहाँ मैं पैदा हुई।”

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Textbook प्रश्ना 1.
‘लोग नाम तो तेरी माँ को ही रखेंगें – यहाँ रखेंगे’ क्रिया का रूपायन किस शब्द के आधार पर हैं? (नाम, लोग, माँ)
उत्तर:
लोग

10th Std Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
कहानी में किसका संकेत है?
क. वर्तमान समाज में स्त्री-पुरुष में समता हैं।
ख. वर्तमान समाज में स्त्री-पुरुष समता का अभाव हैं।
ग. वर्तमान समाज स्त्रीयों को पुरुषों के समान ही देखता हैं।
उत्तर:
वर्तमान समाज में स्त्री-पुरुष समता का अभाव है।

10th Hindi Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 3.
कहानी के उपर्युक्त अंश के आधार पर पटकथा का एक दृश्य लिखें।
उत्तर:

गतिविधि -2

सूचनाः ‘गुठली तो पराई’ कहानी का अंश पढ़ें और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें। ।
जैसे-तैसे पूजा-पाठ के बाद कार्ड हाथ में आया तो गुठली का मूंह उतर गया। वह ताऊजी के पास जाकर बोली, देखिए भइया मेरा नाम कार्ड में छपवाना भूल गया? ताऊजी बोले, “भूला नहीं है रे… अपने घर की छोरियों के नाम कार्ड पर नहीं छपते।” गुठली, “पर उनमें भइया के छोटे-से बेटे का भी नाम है जो अभी बोल भी नहीं सकता तो मेरा.

10th Standard Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
यहाँ ‘मुँह उतर गया’ – का मतलब क्या हैं? (उदास हो गई, खुश हो गई, नाराज़ होई)
उत्तर:
उदास हो गई।

Hindi 10th Class Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
गुठली दुखी हुई थी। वह अपने मन की बातों को पत्र के ज़रिए सहेली से बताना चाहती हैं। सहेली के नाम गुठली का पत्र कल्पना करके लिखें।
उत्तर:

स्थान
तारीख

प्रिय मित्र,
नमस्कार। तुम कैसी हो? खुशी हैं न? मैं यहाँ कुशाल से हूँ। कई दिनों से मैं तुझे एक पत्र लिखना चाहती हूँ। क्या हमारे समाज में लडका लडकी एक समान नहीं हैं? लडकालडकी का समान अधिकार है न? मेरी बुआ मुझसे कहती हैं। जिस घर में मेरा जन्म हुआ वह मेरा घर नहीं। घर की लडकी तो और किसी की अमानत हैं। ससुराल ही मेरा असली घर होगा आदि। बुआ का उपदेश मैं न सकती, जैसे – ऐसा मत करो गुठली, ऐसे धम-धम मत चलो। पट-पट मत बोलो। यह सब मुझे बुरा लगती हैं। हम लडकियों से घर में इतना भेदभाव क्यों? लडकों को कोई रोकटोक नहीं। ऐसा क्यों? दीदी की शादी के कार्ड पर मेरा नाम नहीं छपवाया। पर भैया के छोटे बच्चे का नाम भी छपवाया है। इससे मैं बहुत दुखी हूँ। हमारे समाज में लडकियों को कोई स्थान नहीं? इसके विरुद्ध जरूर आवाज़ उठाना हैं। क्या तुम भी मेरे साथ होगी?

सेवा में
नाम
पता

तुम्हारा मित्र
हस्ताक्षर
गुठली

गुठली तो पराई है Additional Questions and Answers

गुठली तो पराई है आशयग्रहण के प्रश्न

Hindi 10th Standard Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.

उत्तर:
जीवन में बचपन बार-बार नहीं आता। गुज़रते समय कभी वापस नहीं आता। इसलिए वर्तमान में जी भर कर जीने के लिए माँ कहती हैं। भविष्य के संबंध में आशंकित होकर जीने की ज़रूरत नहीं।

गुठली तो पराई है Summary in Malayalam and Translation

गुठली तो पराई है शब्दार्थ

Bacche Kaam Par Ja Rahe Question Answer

You can Download बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 5 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 5 Chapter 1 बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं (कविता)

बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं Text Book Questions and Answers

बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
‘हमारे समय की सबसे भयानक पंक्ति है यह’ ऐसा क्यों कहा गया है?

उत्तर:
बच्चों का काम पर जाना भयानक स्थिति है। यह कानूनन अपराध है। फिर भी कई बच्चे रोटी के लिए तरसते हैं। वे अपने परिवार के सदस्यों की भूख मिटाने के लिए काम पर जाते हैं। यह देश की डरावना स्थिति है।

Bache Kaam Par Ja Rahi Hai Summary Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
बातों को सवालों की तरह लिखा जाने से क्या फायदा है?

उत्तर:
अकसर हम समस्याओं को विवरण की तरह लिखते हैं, और उस पर चर्चा होती रहती है। कोई हल नहीं निकलता । समस्याओं को सवालों की तरह लिखा जाने से यह फायदा होती है कि उसका जवाब मिल जाता है। समस्या का एक हद तक समाधान होता है।

बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं प्रश्न उत्तर Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 3.
‘क्या किसी भूकंप में ढह गई हैं सारे मदरसों की इमारतें’ इन पंक्तियों द्वारा कवि क्या कहना चाहते हैं?

उत्तर:
प्रस्तुत पंक्तियों से बच्चों की पढ़ाई करने के हक से वंचित होने की बात बताते हैं। यहाँ ‘मदरसों की इमारतें’ पाठशालाएँ है। गरीब बच्चे आज भी पढ़ाई से वंचित रहते है।

Bache Kam Par Ja Rahe Hai Question Answers Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 4.
यह कविता किस सामाजिक समस्या की चर्चा कर रही है?

उत्तर:
यह कविता बालश्रम की चर्चा कर रही है। बालश्रम यानी बच्चों से किये जाने वाला कठिन काम आजकल बढ़ता जा रहा है। इसके विरुद्ध समाज को प्रतिक्रिया करनी है। सरकार भी – इस मामले में उचित कारवाई करें तो इस समस्या का एक हद तक हल कर पाएँगे ।

बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं Text Book Activities & Answers

अभ्यास के प्रश्न बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं

Bacche Kaam Par Ja Rahe Hain Question Answer Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
ये पंक्तियाँ पढ़ें।
(क्या काले पहाड़ के नीचे दब गए हैं सारे खिलौने?)
क्या दीमकों ने खा लिया है
सारी रंग-बिरंगी किताबों को?
इन पंक्तियों से कवि क्या कहना चाहते हैं? चर्चा करें।

उत्तर:
कवि यहाँ बच्चों की दुनिया को मनोवैज्ञानिक नज़रिए से पेश करते हैं। बचपन में बच्चों को खिलौने चाहिए। पढ़ने के लिए किताबें चाहिए। खेलने के लिए गेंद चाहिए। पढ़ने के लिए स्कूल चाहिए। खेल के मैदान, बगीचे या आँगन चाहिए। लेकिन यहाँ के बच्चे इन सबसे वंचित हैं। उन्हें मैदान, बगीचे या आँगन में खेलने का मौका नहीं है। खिलौनों से वे वंचित हैं। स्कूल और शिक्षा उनसे बहुत दूर हैं।

बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं Pdf Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
नमूने के अनुसार लिखे :

उत्तर:

Sslc Hindi Chapter 1 Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 3.
कविता की आस्वादन टिप्पणी तैयार करें।

उत्तर:
बाल मजूरी पर तीखा प्रहार करनेवाली कविता – बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं
बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं श्री राजेश जोशी की कविता है। इसमें कवि ने मनोवैज्ञानिक ढंग से बच्चों की दुनिया पर नज़र डालते हैं। कवि कहते हैं कि बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं। वह भी ऐसे समय में जब रास्ता कोहरे से ढका हुआ है। उन्होंने पाठकों से कुछ प्रश्न करते हैं-क्या काले पहाड़ के नीचे दब गए हैं सारे खिलौने?, क्या दीमकों ने खा लिया है | सारी रंग-बिरंगी किताबों को?, क्या अंतरिक्ष में गिर गई है सारी गेदे?, क्या किसी भूकंप में ढह गई है / सारे मदरसों की इमारते? और क्या सारे मैदान, सारे बगीचे और घरों के आँगन खत्म हो गए हैं एकाएक? ये प्रश्न बहुत नुकीले हैं। इन प्रश्नों के माध्यम से कवि कहते हैं कि बचपन खिलौनों से खेलने, किताबों की दुनिया में घूमने, स्कूल में पढ़ाई करने का समय है। ऐसे समय में बच्चों का काम पर जाना बहुत भयानक समस्या है।

कवि प्रश्न करते हैं कि बच्चों के काम पर जाने का कारण क्या है? विश्लेषण करने से हमें मालूम हो जाएगा कि मूल कारण गरीबी है। गरीबी से बचने के लिए बच्चों को भी काम पर जाना पड़ रहा है। अशिक्षित माँ-बाप भी इसका कारण हो सकता है। यह कविता कुछ नुकीले प्रश्न हमारे सामने रखती है। ये प्रश्न हमें बाल मजूरी पर सोचने को विवश करते है।

Hsslive Guru Hindi 10 Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 4.
बच्चे काम पर क्यों जाते होंगे? लिखें।

उत्तर:
अकसर ऐसे बच्चों के परिवार गरीब होते हैं। अनपढ़ माँ-बाप ऐसे परिवारों में होते हैं। रोज़ी रोटी के लिए माँ-बाप के साथ बच्चों को भी काम पर जाना पड़ता है।

Hss Live Guru 10th Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 5.
पोस्टर तैयार करें।
अपने बचपन से वंचित कई बच्चे हैं। उनकी मदद करना हमारी भी ज़िम्मेदारी है। बालश्रम के विरुद्ध एक पोस्टर तैयार करे।


उत्तर:

बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं Orakkum Questions and Answers

गतिविधि -1

सूचनाः ‘बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं’ कविता की पंक्तियाँ पढें और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
क्या अंतरीक्ष में गिर गई है सारी गेंदें
क्या दीमकों ने खा लिया है
सारी रंग-बिरंगी किताबों को
क्या काले पहाड़ के नीचे दब गए है सारे खिलौने
क्या किसी भूकंप में ढह गई है
सारे मदरसों की इमारतें।

10th Standard Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
क्या दीमकों ने खा लिया है
सारी रंग-बिरंगी किताबों को
– इन पंक्तियों से क्या तात्पर्य है?
उत्तर:
बचपन पढ़ने का समय है। लेकिन काम पर जाने के कारण उन्हें पढ़ने केलिए समय नहीं मिलता हैं।

प्रश्ना 2.
‘क्या अंतरिक्ष में गिर गई हैं सारी गेंदें – इस पंक्ति में गिर गई हैं’ क्रिया रूप किस शब्द के आधार पर हैं? (अंतरिक्ष, क्या, गेंद)
उत्तर:
गेंद

प्रश्ना 3.
क्या काले पहाड़ के नीचे दब गए हैं सारे खिलौने’ – का मतलब क्या है?
खिलौने पहाड के नीचे हैं।
पहाड़ और खिलौने काले हैं।
बच्चे खेलने के अवसर से वंचित हैं।
उत्तर:
बच्चे खेलने के अवसर से वंचित हैं।

प्रश्ना 4.
इस कविता की आस्वादन टिप्पणी लिखें।
उत्तर:
श्री राजेश जोशी हिंदी के आधुनिक कवियों में प्रमुख हैं। “बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं” बालश्रम पर तीखा प्रहार करनेवाली कविता हैं। मनुष्यता को बचाए रखने का एक निरंतर संघर्ष आपकी कविताओं की विशेषता हैं।
कवि कहते हैं – जब सड़क कोहरे से ढका हुआ है तब बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं। ये बच्चे खिलौने, किताब, गेंद, स्कूल, खेलने के मैदान इस सब से वंचित है। कवि पाठकों से थोडा प्रश्न पूछते है – क्या सारी गेंद अंतरिक्ष से गिर गई हैं? सारी रंग-बिरंग किताबों को दीमकों ने खा लिया हैं? सारे खिलौने काले पहाड़ के नीचे दब गए हैं? सारे मदरसों की इमारतें भूकंप में ढह गई हैं? इन प्रश्नों द्वारा कवि कहते है कि बचपन उन्हें काम पर जाने का समय नहीं। बच्चों का पढने का समय हैं। बच्चों का काम पर जाना भयानक समस्या है।

कवि पूछते हैं – बच्चे क्यों काम पर जा रहे हैं? इस प्रश्न का उत्तर यह हैं कि माता-पिता। यदि परिवार गरीब हैं और बहुत संकट में हैं, तब माता-पिता को अपने बच्चे को काम पर भेजना पड़ता हैं। जो भी हो आज दुनिया की हज़ारों सडकों से सुबह छोटे-छोटे बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं। हम सबको मालूम है कि बच्चे राष्ट्र की अमूल्य निधि है। उसको संपूर्ण सुरक्षा प्रदान करना है। बालश्रमिकों के शोषण की यह परंपरा अनादि काल से चली आ रही हैं और अभी भी समाज में एक मानवीय कलंक के रूप में व्याप्त है। बालश्रम के विरुद्ध हम सब को आवाज़ उठानी है।

प्रश्ना 5.
बालश्रम दुनिया भर में प्याप्त एक दुस्थिति है। बाल मज़दूरी के विरुद्ध एक पोस्टर तैयार करें।
उत्तर:

बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं Summary in Malayalam and Translation

बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं शब्दार्थ

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may – use the time to read and plan your answers.
2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 1 score. [4 x 1 = 4]

Physics Focus Area Model Question Paper Question 1.
Select 2 forms of coal from the given.
(Coal tar, Paraffin, Anthracite, Lignite)
Answer:
Anthracite, lignite

Sslc Physics Model Question Paper 2020 Question 2.
Find the relation between the first pair and complete the second.
Generator: Mechanical energy → Electrical energy Moving coil microphone ______.
Answer:
Sound energy → Electrical energy

Sslc Physics Focus Area Questions And Answers Question 3.
Which is the correct figure?

Answer:

Sslc Physics Focus Area Based Questions And Answers Question 4.
Why is Nichrome not used as filament in electric bulbs?
Answer:
Nichrome does not emit white light, instead it stays on red hot condition.

Sslc Physics Focus Area Model Question Paper Question 5.
Figures shows a ray of light obliquely travel from air to glass. Find out the correct one.

Answer:

it bends towards the normal.

Section – B

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 2 score. [4 × 2 = 8]

Sslc Physics Focus Area Based Questions Question 6.
Complete the figure then find out the principal focus of the concave lens.

Answer:

Sslc Physics Focus Area Based Model Question Paper Question 7.
Write two advantages of nichrome which are made used in electric heating appliances.
Answer:
High resistivity and high melting point.

Hss Live Guru Model Question Paper Question 8.
What are the properties that a good fuel must have?
Answer:
Should be easily available.

Sslc Focus Area Physics English Medium Question 9.
Terms related to lens are given below? Complete the questions using these terms?
(Pole, Focal length, Centre Of curvature, Principal axis)
a) The midpoint of a lens is called
b) The distance between pole to focus is called ______.
c) The centre of imaginary spear of two sides of the lens is called _______.
d) Imaginary line passing through the centre of curvature of the lens is called _______.
Answer:
a) Pole
b) Focal length
c) Centre of curvature
d) Principal axis

Sslc Physics Focus Area Pdf Question 10.
A motor cyclist sees the image of a car coming behind as \(\frac{1}{6}\) of its original size in the rear view mirror. If the real distance between the bike and car is 30 cm, Calculate the radius of curvature of the rear view mirror.
Answer:
u = -30 m, v=? R =?
m = \(\frac{-v}{u}\)
v = -mu
v = \(\frac{-1}{6}\) × -30m
v = 5m

f =6m
R = 2f
R = 2 × 6m
R = 12 m

Section – C

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 3 score. [4 × 3 = 12]

Sslc Physics Focus Area English Medium Question 11.
A burning candle is placed in front of a convex lens to obtain an image on the screen.
Find out the positions of the object in each of the conditions given below?
a) We get the size of the image is equal to the size of the object.
b) The size of the image is smaller than that of the object.
c) We get large .real image than the object.
Answer:
a) 2F or C
b) Beyond 2F or Beyond C
c) In between 2F and F (in between C and F)

Physics Focus Area Question Paper Question 12.
Nature of some images are given below. Find out the real and virtual images and then write it in separate column.
a) Inverted image
b) Do not obtained on a screen
c) Obtained on a screen
d) If the light rays really intersect to each other.
e) Erect image
f) The image distance cannot directly measured.
Answer:
Real images : a, c, d
Virtual image : b, e, f

Focus Area Sslc Physics English Medium Question 13.
A convex lens of focal length 15 cm, it is used to obtain an image on the screen. The size of the images is twice the size of the object.
a) Find out the distance between lens to object?
b) Find out the distance between lens to image?
Answer:
a) f = + 15cm
m = -2 (convex lens create real images so its magnification is negative.

2u = -45
u = -22.5 cm

b) v = -2u
= -2 × -22.5 = 45 cm

Sslc Focus Area Physics Question Paper Question 14.
1) What is the energy transformation in a solar panel?
2) Why is it said that solar panel is an electronic device?
3) Explain photo voltaic effect.
Answer:
1) Light energy → electrical energy
2) The important part of a solar panel is a P-N junction diode made up of silicon, so it is an electronic device.
3) When solar energy fall so on N-side of a solar cell, a small electric current is obtained due to the flow of electrons to P region from N-region. This phenomenon is called photovoltaic effect

Sslc Physics Questions And Answers English Medium Question 15.
A thin copper wire is freely suspended between the pole pieces of a U shaped magnet.

a) When current flows through the circuit, what energy change will be taken place in this arrangement?
b) What is the reason behind this change?
c) Which rule helps to explain this change?
Answer:
a) The conductor moves
b) One magnetic field experiences force on another magnetic field.
C) Fleming’s left hand rule.

Section – D

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 4 score. [4 × 4 = 16]

Focus Area Sslc English Medium Physics Question 16.
What is BLEVE?
Answer:
Owing to the excess heat, the LPG becomes gas increasing the pressure inside. The ability to expand is 250 times for the gaseous LPG Therefore when LPG becomes gas, the container cannot accommodate the entire gas. This increases the pressure to a very high level causing a huge explosion. This is known as BLEVE (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapour Explosion).

Question 17.
Image formation of an eye is given below, but the object is placed in different distances from the eye.

a) In which position images termed in our eye in the above two cases.
b) How image is formed on the retina in this two cases explain?
Answer:
a) Formed on the retina
b) Ciliary muscles changes the curvature of the eye lens by itself. So its focal length changes periodically, depends upon the position of the object present in front of the eye. Therefore image distance V cannot changes.

Question 18.
An object is placed 20 cm away from the convex lens, a virtual and erect image is formed 100 cm away from the lens.
a) Find out the focal length of the lens?
b) What is the power of the lens?
Answer:
(a) u = -20 cm
v = -100 cm

(b) f = + 25 cm

Question 19.
Observe the figure and answer the following questions

a) In which mode, the rheostat and resistor are connected in the circuit?
b) If the resistance of the rheostat is 50 Ω, what is the current in the circuit?
c) In this occasion, if the circuit is turned on, for 5 minute, calculate the heat generated?
Answer:
a) Series connection mode

b) R = 10Ω + 50Ω = 60Ω
I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
I = \(\frac{6}{60}=\frac{1}{10}\) A = 0.1A

c) H = I^θRt
H = IVT = 0.1 × 6 × 300 = 180 J

Question 20.
The schematic diagram represents an image formation of a distant object in the eye.

a) Which eye defect can you identify from this figure?
b) What is the reason for this defect?
c) Which lens is used to solve this problem?
d) How this lens is used to solve this problem?
Answer:
a) Hypermetropia

b)

• Shortening of the eyeball
• Focal length of the lens is high
• Power of the lens is low

c) Convex lens

(d)

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium, Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Instructions

• Read each question carefully before writing the answer.
• Give explanations wherever necessary.
• First 15 minutes is Cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• No need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, π etc., using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 1.
In the figure, O is the centre of the circle. ∠AOC = 80°
a) What is the measure of ∠ABC?
b) What is the measure of ∠ADC?

Answer:
a) \(\angle \mathrm{ABC}=\frac{1}{2} \times \angle \mathrm{AOC}=\frac{1}{2} \times 80=40^{\circ}\)
b) ∠ADC = 180 – ∠ABC = 180 – 40 = 140°

Question 2.
a) Write the first integer term of the arithmetic sequence \(\frac{1}{7}, \frac{2}{7}, \frac{3}{7} \ldots\)
b) What is the sum of the first 7 terms of this se-quence?
Answer:
a) First integer term is \(\left(\frac{7}{7}\right)=1\)
b) Sum of first 7 terms = \(\frac { 1 }{ 7 }\) (1 + 2 + 3 + ….. + 7)
= \(=\frac{1}{7} \times \frac{7 \times 8}{2}=4\)

Question 3.
a) If C(-1, k) is a point on the line passing through the points A(2, 4) and B(4, 8). Which number is k?
b) What is the relation between the x coordinate and the y coordinate of any point on this line?
Answer:
a) Since C is on the line AC,
slope of AB = slope of BC
\(\begin{aligned}
\frac{8-4}{4-2} &=\frac{8-k}{4–1} \\
\frac{4}{2} &=\frac{8-k}{5}
\end{aligned}\)
⇒ 4 × 5 = 2 (8 – k) = 20
⇒ 20 = 16 – 2k
⇒ 2k = 16 – 20 = -4
⇒ k = -2
b) Let (x, y) be a point on the line
\(\begin{aligned}
&\frac{y-4}{x-2}=\frac{8-4}{4-2}\\
&\frac{y-4}{x-2}=\frac{4}{2}
\end{aligned}\)
⇒ 2 (y – 4) = 4(x – 2)
⇒ 2y – 8 = 4x – 8
⇒ 4x – 2y – 8 + 8 = 0
⇒ 4x – 2y = 0
⇒ 2x – y = 0
⇒ y = 2x

Question 4.
a) Find P(1) if P(x) = x² + 2x + 5
b) If (x – 1) is a factor of x² + 2x + k, What number is k?
Answer:
a) P(1) = 1² + 2 × 1 + 5 = 1 + 2 + 5 = 8
b) Since x – 1 is a factor
P(1) = 0
⇒ 1² + 2 × 1 + k = 0
⇒ 1 + 2 + k = 0
⇒ k = -3

Answer any five questions from 5 to 11. Each question carries 3 scores. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 5.
a) What is the remainder on dividing the terms of the arithmetic sequence 100, 107, 114.. by 7?
b) Write the sequence of all three digit numbers. Which leaves remainder 3 on division by 7? Which is the last term of this sequence?
Answer:
a) 100 = 7 × 14 + 2
107 = 7 × 15 + 2
Remainder on dividing the terms by 7 is 2
b) x₁ = 101, x₂ = 108, ……
Sequence : 101, 108, 115 ….
x_n = d_n + (f – d) = 7n + 94
To find largest 3 digit terms
7n + 94 < 1000
7n < 906
n < \(\frac { 906 }{ 7 }\) = 129.4 = 129
x₁₂₉ = 7 × 129 + 94 = 997

Question 6.
AB is the diameter of the. circle. D is a point on the circle. ∠ACB + ∠ADB + ∠AEB = 270°. The measure of one among ∠ACB, ∠ADB, ∠AEB is 110°. Write the measures of ∠ADB, ∠ACB, and ∠AEB.

Answer:
Since AB is the diameter, ∠ADC = 90°
∠ACB is obtuse.
∴ ∠ACB = 110°
∴ ∠AEB = 270 – (90 + 110) = 270 – 200 = 70°
∴ ∠ADB = 90°, ∠ACB = 110°, ∠AEB = 70°

Question 7.
If x is a natural number
a) What number is to be added to x² + 6x to get a perfect square?
b) If x² + ax + 16 is a perfect square which number is ‘a’?
c) If x² + ax + b is a perfect square prove that a² = 4b.
Answer:
a) x² + 6x = x² + 2 × x × 3
Add 3² to it we get
x² + 2x × 3 + 9 = (x + 3)²
b) x² + ax + 16 = x² + ax + 4²
ax = 2 × x × 4 = 8x
∴ a = 8 or a = -8
c) x² + ax + b is a perfect square
\(x^{2}+2 \times x \times \frac{a}{2}+\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^{2}\) is a perfect square
\(\begin{aligned}
&b=\left(\frac{a}{2}\right)^{2}\\
&b=\frac{a^{2}}{4}, a^{2}=4 b
\end{aligned}\)

Question 8.
In the figure ∠B = 90°, ∠C = 44°

a) What is the measure of ∠A?
b) Which among the following is tan 44°?
\(\left(\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{BC}}, \frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{AC}}, \frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{AB}}, \frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{AC}}\right)\)
c) Prove that tan 44° × tan 46° = 1.
Answer:
a) ∠A = 90 – 44 = 46°
b) \(\frac{A B}{B C}\)
c) \(\tan 44^{\circ} \times \tan 46^{\circ}=\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{BC}} \times \frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{AB}}=1\)

Question 9.
Draw a circle of radius 3 centimetres. Mark a point P at a distance 6 centimetres from the centre of the circle. Draw tangents from P to the circle.
Answer:

• Draw the circle having radius 3 cm, mark the centre C, and point P at the distance 6 cm from the centre.
• Draw perpendicular bisector of CP and mark midpoint of CP as O.
• Draw a circle with centre O and radius OP. The circle cut the first circle at A and B
• PA and PB are the tangents
  

Question 10.
a) Find the coordinates of the point on the x-axis, which is at a distance 4 units from (3, 4).
b) Find the coordinates of the points on the x-axis at a distance 5 units from (3, 4).
Answer:
a) The point on x axis at the distance 4 cut from (3, 4) is (3, 0)
b) Let P (x, 0) be the point
(x – 3)² + (0 – 4)² = 5²
⇒ (x – 3)² = 25 – 16
⇒ (x – 3)² = 9
⇒ x – 3 = 3, -3
If x – 3 = 3, x = 6
If x – 3 = -3, x = 0
Points : (0, 0), (6, 0)

Question 11.
The given figure is the lateral face of a square pyramid. AB = AC = 25 centimetres and BD = DC = 15 centimetres.
a) What is the length of its base edge?
b) Find the lateral surface area of the pyramid.

Answer:
a) a = 30 cm
b) AD² + CD² = AC²
AD² + 15² = 25²
AD² = 625 – 225 = 400
AD = 20
Latral face area = 2al = 2 × 30 × 20 = 1200 cm²

Answer any 7 questions from 12 to 21. Each question carries 4 scores. (7 × 4 = 28)

Question 12.
In triangle ABC, ∠A = 30°, ∠B = 80°, circumradius of the triangle is 4 centimetres. draw the triangle. Measure and write the length of its smallest side.
Answer:

• Draw the circle of radius 4 cm and a radius OA.
• Mark a point Bon the circle such that ∠COB = 60° and draw OB.
• Mark a point C on the circle such that ∠AOC = 160°
• Join AB, BC and AC, and complete ∆ABC.

Question 13.
Find the following sums:
a) 1 + 2 + 3 + ……………. + 100
b) 1 + 3 + 5 + ………….. + 99
c) 2 + 4 + 6 + ………….. + 100
d) 3 + 7 + 11 + ……………. + 199
Answer:

Question 14.
A box contains some green and blue balls. 7 red balls are put into it. Now the probability of getting a
red ball from the box is \(\frac{7}{24}\) and that of a blue ball is \(\frac{1}{6}\)
a) How many balls are there in the box?
b) How many of them are blue?
c) What is the probability of getting a green ball from the box?
Answer:
a) Total number of balls = 24
b) Let x be the number of blue balls
\(\frac{x}{24}=\frac{1}{3}\)
⇒ 3x = 24
⇒ x = 8
c) Number of green balls = 24 – (7 + 8) = 24 – 15 = 9
Probability of. getting green ball \(=\frac{9}{24}=\frac{3}{8}\)

Question 15.
The land is acquired for road widening from a square ground, as shown in the figure. The width of the acquired land is 2 metres. Area of the remaining, ground is 440 square metres.

a) What is the shape of the remaining ground?
b) What is the length of the remaining ground?
Answer:
a) Rectangle
b) x (x – 2) = 440
⇒ x² – 2x = 440
⇒ x² – 2x + 1 = 441
⇒ (x – 1)² = 21²
⇒ x – 1 = 21
⇒ x = 1 + 21 = 22
Length 22m, width 20m

Question 16.
In the figure, P is the centre of the circle. A, B and D are points on the circle. ∠P = 90°, AD = 5 centimetres.

a) What is the measure of ∠A?
b) What is the area of triangle APD?
c) Find the area of the parallelogram ABCD
Answer:
a) AP = PD, ∠A = 45°
b) Area of APD = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) × AP × PD
\(\begin{aligned}
&=\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{5}{\sqrt{2}} \times \frac{5}{\sqrt{2}}\\
&=\frac{25}{4}
\end{aligned}\)
= 6.25 cm²
c) Area of ABCD = AB × PD
\(=2 \times \frac{5}{\sqrt{2}} \times \frac{5}{\sqrt{2}}\)
= 25 cm²

Question 17.
a) Draw the coordinate axes and mark the points A(1, 1), B(7, 1)
b) Draw an isosceles right triangle ABC with AB as hypotenuse.
c) Write the coordinates of C.
Answer:
a) A(1, 1) and B(7, 1)
b) The midpoint of AB is E (4, 1)
AE = 3 unit
Move 3 unit up from E and mark C (4, 4).
ABC will be an isosceles right triangle.

c) Coordinates of C = (4, 1 + 3) = (4, 4)

Question 18.
In the figure chord, BC is extended to P. Tangent from P to the circle is PA. AQ is the bisector of ∠BAC

a) Write one pair of equal angles from the figure.
b) If ∠PAC = x and ∠PCA = y prove that ∠BAC = y – x
c) Prove that ∠PAQ = \(\frac{y+x}{2}\)
Answer:
a) ∠ABC = ∠CAP
b) ∠B = ∠PAC = x
∠B = ∠BAC = ∠ACP = y
x + ∠BAC = y
∠BAC = y – x
c) ∠PAQ = ∠PAC + ∠CAQ

Question 19.
If x – 1 is a factor of the second degree polynomial P(x) = ax² + bx + c and P(0) = -5.
a) What is the value of c?
b) Prove that a + b = 5.
c) Write a second degree polynomial whose one factor is x = 1.
Answer:
a) P(0) = -5 , c = -5
b) P(1) = 0, a + b + c = 0
a + b – 5 = 0
a + b = 5
c) If x – 1 is a factor, sum of the coefficients willbe zero.
P(x) = 3x² + 2x – 5 = 0

Question 20.
A circular sheet of paper is divided into two sectors. The central angle of one of them is 160°.
a) What is the centre of the remaining sector?
b) These sectors are bent into cones of maximum volume. If the radius of the small cone is 8 centimetres, what is the radius of the other?
c) What is the slant height of the cones?
Answer:
a) Central angle of second sectoral plate = 360 – 160 = 200°
l × 160 = 360 × 8
\(\ell=\frac{360 \times 8}{160}\) = 18 cm
Radii of sectors are equal .
\(\begin{aligned}
&\frac{r}{18}=\frac{200}{360}\\
&\begin{aligned}
r &=18 \times \frac{200}{360} \\
&=10 \mathrm{cm}
\end{aligned}
\end{aligned}\)
Radius of the big cone = 10 cm
c) 18 cm (Equal to radius of the circle)

Question 21.
Equation of the line AB is 3x – 2y = 6. P is a point on the line. The line intersects the y-axis at A and the x-axis at B.
a) What is the x coordinate of A?
b) What is the length of OA?
c) What is the length of OB?
d) The x coordinate and the y coordinate of P are the same. Find the coordinates of P.

Answer:
a) x coordinate of A = 0
b) When x = 0,
3x – 2y = 6, y = -3
Coordinates of A (0, -3)
OA = 3 unit
c) y coordinate of B is 0
3x – 2 × 0 = 6, x = 2
Coordinates of B (2, 0)
OB = 2 unit
d) Since coordinates fo P are (x, x)
3x – 2x = 6
x = 6
P (6, 6)

Answer any five questions from 22 to 28. Each question carries 5 score. (5 × 5 = 25)

Question 22.
If the terms of the arithmetic sequence \(\frac{2}{9}, \frac{3}{9}, \frac{4}{9}, \frac{5}{9} .\) are represented as x1, x2, x3, ….. then
a) x₁ + x₂ + x₃ = ______
b) x₄ + x₅ + x₆ = _______
c) Find the sum of first 9 terms.
d) What is the sum of first 200 terms?
Answer:

d) Sum of 300 terms = 1 + 2 + 3 + ….. + 100
\(=\frac{100 \times 101}{2}\)
= 5050

Question 23.
Draw a rectangle of area 12 square centimetres. Draw a square having the same area.
Answer:

1. Draw rectangle ABCD of side AB = 6 cm, BC = 2 cm.
2. Produce AB to E such that BC = BE
3. Mark the midpoint of AB as O
4. Draw a semicircle with O as the centre and OE as the radius.
5. BC, when produced meet the semicircle at G.
6. Draw a square wit

Question 24.
A boy standing at one bank of a river sees the top of a tree on the other bank directly opposite to the boy pt an elevation of 60°. Stepping 40 metres back, he sees the top at an elevation of 30°.
a) Draw a rough figure and find the height of the tree
b) What is the width of the river?
Answer:
a) PC = 40 m
∠BPC = 30°
∠BCA = 60°

In ΔPCB, ∠PCB = 120°
∠PBC = 30°
ΔPCB is an isoscles triangle
BC = PC = 40 cm
Consider ΔCBA
This is a 30° – 60° – 90° triangle side opposite to 30° in ΔCAB is = 20 m
AB = 2 × \frac{40}{\sqrt{3}} = 20√3 m
b) Width of the river is 20 m

Question 25.
Circle with centre O touches the sides of the triangle at P, Q and R, AB = AC, AQ = 4 centimetres and CQ = 6 centimetres.

a) What is the length of CP?
b) Find the perimeter and the area of the triangle.
c) What is the radius of the circle?
Answer:
a) CP = CQ = 6 cm
b) AC = AQ + QC = 4 + 6 = 10 cm
AB = AC = 10 cm
AR = AQ = 4 cm
BR = AB – AR = 10 – 4 = 6 cm
BP = BR = 6 cm
BC = BP + PC = 6 + 6 = 12 cm
Perimeter of ∆ABC = AB + BC + AC = 10 + 12 + 10 = 32 cm
Area of ∆ABC = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) × BC × AP
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) × 12 × 8
= 48 cm² \([\mathrm{AP}=\sqrt{\mathrm{AB}^{2}-\mathrm{BP}^{2}}]\)
c) \(r=\frac{A}{S}=\frac{48}{16}=3 \mathrm{cm}\)

Question 26.
The radius of a cylinder is equal to its height. If the radius is taken as r, the volume of the cylinder is πr² × r = πr³. Like this find the volumes of the solids, with the following measures.

a) What is the ratio of the volumes of the cone, hemisphere, cylinder and the sphere?
b) A solid metal sphere of radius 6 centimetres is melted and recast into solid cones of radius 6 centimetres and height 6 centimetres. Find the number of cones.
Answer:

Question 27.
C is the centre of the circle passing through the origin. Circle cuts the y-axis at A(0, 4) and the x-axis at B(4, 0)

a) Write coordinates of C
b) Write the equation of the circle.
c) (0, 0) is the point on the circle. There is one more point on the circle with x and y coordinates equal. Which is that point?
Answer:
a) \(C\left(\frac{0+4}{2}, \frac{4+0}{2}\right)=C(2,2)\)
b) Radius \(=\frac{A B}{2}=\frac{4 \sqrt{2}}{2}=2 \sqrt{2}\) Unit [1 : 1 : √2 ]
Equation = (x – 2)² + (y – 2)² = (2√2)²
= x² – 4x + 4 + y² – 4y + 4 = 8
= x² + y² – 4x – 4y = 0
c) If x = y
x² + x² – 4x – 4x = 0
2(x² – 4x) = 0
x² – 4x = 0
x(x – 4) = 0
x = 0, x = 4
The required point is (4, 4)

Question 28.
The table below shows the number of children in a class, sorted according to their heights.

If the students are directed to stand in a line according to the order of their heights starting from the smallest, then
a) The height of the child at what position is taken as the median?
b) What is the assumed height of the child in the 17th position?
c) Find the median height.
Answer:
n = 7 + 9 + 10 + 10 + 9 = 45 (odd)

a) \(\frac{45+1}{2}\) = 23rd chil’s height comes in the middle.
the median when 10 cm height in divided into 10 children, each one’s share is \(\frac{10}{10}=1\)
Height of 17th child = 150 + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = 150.5
b) Take 150.5 as the fist term and 1 as the common difference 7th term is the height of 23rd child.
c) Median = 150.5 + 6 × 1 = 150.5 + 6 = 156.5 cm.

Read the following. Understand the Mathemati¬cal concepts in it and answer the questions. (6 × 1 = 6)

Question 29.
The remainders obtained on dividing the powers of two by 7 have an interesting property. We can understand it from the table given below.

If the powers are 1, 4, 7, … the remainder is 2
If the powers are 3, 6, 9,.. the remainder is 1
a) What is the remainder on dividing 28 by 7?
b) Write the sequence of powers of 2 leaving remainder 1 on division by 7.
c) Check whether 2019 is a term f the arithmetic sequence 3, 6, 9,…
d) What is the remainder on dividing 22019 by 7?
e) Write the algebraic form of the arithmetic sequence 1, 4, 7 …
f) Write the algebraic form of the sequence 21, 24, 27, ……. (powers of two leaving remainder 2 on division by 7).
Answer:
a) 4
b) 2⁰, 2³, 2⁶, 2⁹, ….. (1, 8, 64, 512)
c) Since 2019 is a multiple of 3, it is a term of the sequence 3, 6, 9, …..
d) Remainder = 1
e) x_n = 2n – 2
f) x_n = 2^3n-2

You can Download Genetics for the Future Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 7 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Genetics for the Future

Genetics for the Future Text Book Questions and Answers

Sslc Biology Chapter 7 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Observe illustration on the various stages in the production of bacteria that are capable of producing insulin. Analyze it based on the indicators and write down the inferences.

a) How insulin-producing bacteria are created?
b) What is the change that occurred in the genetic constitution of the bacteria that can produce insulin?
c) Will the future generation of this bacteria have the ability to produce insulin? Why?
Answer:
a) Insulin-producing bacteria are created through Genetic Engineering. Cutting the gene responsible for the production of insulin and joining it with bacterial DNA (plasmid).
b) The gene responsible for the production of insulin become part of the bacterial DNA.
c) Yes, the bacteria containing genes that the ability which controlling insulin production They replicates and forms more in number.

10th Class Biology 7th Lesson Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Observe the collage given below analysis and prepare notes about it.

Answer:
It is criticized that genetically modified varieties are threat to indigenous varieties and may cause health issues to human. There are possibilities to use the genetically modified organisms are bioweapons that might be applied any country to their enemies is called Bioware. This becomes a threat to the existence of human beings.

Genetic Engineering

The use of microorganisms and biological processes for various human requisites is called biotechnology. The ability of fungi and bacteria to convert sugar into alcohol was utilized to make wine, appam and cake. These can be considered as traditional methods of biotechnology. Genetic engineering is the modern form of biotechnology. Genetic engineering is the technology of controlling traits of Organisms by bringing about desirable changes in the genetic constitution of organisms.

Biology Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
What is the basis of genetic engineering?
Answer:
The basis of genetic engineering is the discovery of the fact that genes can be cut and joined.

• Restriction Endonuclease: The enzyme used to cut DNA at specific sites. This enzyme is known as genetic scissors.
• Liqase: The enzyme ligase is used for joining DNA at specific sites, this enzyme is called as genetic glue.
• Vectors: Plasmids in bacteria are generally used as vectors. A gene from one cell is transferred to another cell by using suitable vectors.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Notes Pdf Question 4.
How is the new genes become a part of the genetic constitution of target cells?
Answer:
DNA with ligated genes enter the target cell. Thus the new genes become a part of the genetic constitution of target cells.

10th Standard Biology Malayalam Medium Question 5.
Scope of genetic engineering
Answer:
a) Gene therapy
b) Genetically modified animals and crops
c) Forensic test

Gene Therapy

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Pdf Question 6.
Why is gene therapy essential?
Gene therapy is the method of curing genetic diseases by removing disease-causing genes from the genome and inserting normal functional genes. Gene therapy is beneficial for the sustenance of humankind.

Human Genome Project

Hss Live 10th Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
What is the significance of the human genome project?
Answer:
The human genome includes about 30000 genes present in his 46 chromosomes. The secret of human genome is revealed through a project, known as the Human Genome Project started in 1990 and ended in 2003 in various laboratories of the world. The Gene mapping technology helped us to identify the location of a gene in the DNA.

10th Biology Notes Malayalam Medium Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
What is the benefit of gene mapping ?
Answer:
Gene mapping is a technology by which we can locate a specific gene in the DNA responsible for a particular trait.

10th Class Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
What is Junk genes ?
Answer:
In human DNA, majority of genes, except the genes that code for protein are non-functional. They are called junk genes.
The relevance of the Human Genome Project:

• Human genome has about 24000 functional genes.
• Major share of human DNA includes junk genes
• There is only 0.2 percent difference in DNA among humans.
• About 200 genes in human genome are identical to those in bacteria.

Genetically Modified Animals& Crops

10th Biology Guide Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Proteins that can be used for the treatment of diseases in humans are produced through genetic engineering.
Answer:

Sslc Biology Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
One of the future promises of genetic engineering is pharm animals. What do you mean by pharm animals?
Answer:
Genes responsible for the production of human insulin and growth hormones etc. are identified and inserted in animals like cows or pigs to transform them into ‘pharm animals’ (animals providing pharmaceuticals or medicines). Medicines thus produced can be extracted from the blood or milk of such animals.

Sslc Biology Textbook Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Instead of bacteria, animals like cows or pigs are used as medicinal animals or pharm animals. Why?
Answer:
It is easy to rear animals like cows or pigs than the culturing of bacteria. Moreover, medicines can be extracted from their blood or milk.

Dna Finger Printing

The arrangement of nucleotides in the DNA of each person differs. This finding leads to the DNA testing. The technology of testing the arrangement of nucleotides in each person also differs. Hence this technology is also called DNA fingerprinting. Alec Jeffrey in 1984 paved the way for DNA testing.

Sslc Biology Notes Malayalam Medium Pdf Question 13.
How are persons identified through DNA testing?
Answer:
The arrangement of nucleotides in the DNA of each person differs.

Question 14.
What is the basis of DNA testing?
Answer:
The arrangement of nucleotides in the DNA of each person differs. This finding lead to the DNA testing.

Question 15.
How is it possible to identify the person’s blood relatives?
Answer:
The arrangement of nucleotides among close relatives have many similarities. So DNA fingerprinting is helpful to find out hereditary characteristics, to identify real parents in cases of parental dispute.

Question 16.
What is the scope of DNA testing?
Answer:
DNA fingerprinting helpful to find out hereditary characteristics to identify real parents in cases of parental is missing due to natural calamities or wars. DNA of the skin hair, nail blood and other body fluids obtained from the place of murder, robbery, etc. is compared with the DNA of suspected persons. Thus the real culprit can be identified from among the suspected persons through this method.

Question 17.
Observe the collage given below analysis and prepare notes about it.

Answer:
It is criticized that genetically modified varieties are threat to indigenous varieties and may cause health issues to humans. There are possibilities to use the genetically modified organisms are bioweapons that might be applied any country to their enemies is called Bioware. This becomes a threat to the existence of human beings.

Question 18.
We should utilize science and technologies for the well being of man and other living beings. On the basis of the above statement, should we favor gene technology, which has a few demerits? Share your thought.
Answer:
Though there are certain possibilities of misuse, gene technology has many merits. Hence, we should utilize science and technologies for the well being of man and other living beings.

Question 19.
Is it right to misuse technologies that are used for human progress? As such possibilities prevail, can we promote genetic engineering, organize a debate in the class on this topic.

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a part of modern genetic engineering?
a) DNA profiling
b) Gene mapping,
c) DNA fingerprinting.
d) X-ray diffraction.
Answer:
d) X-ray diffraction.

Question 2.
Gene therapy is an example of the benefits of science for human existence.
a) What is gene therapy?
b) What was the discovery that led to gene therapy?
c) How does gene therapy become useful to human beings?
Answer:
a) Gene therapy is the method of curing genetic diseases by removing disease-causing genes from the genome and inserting normal functional genes.
b) Gene mapping
c) We can cure genetic diseases and disorders by gene therapy.

Question 3.
‘Since genetic engineering has many harmful effects, it can’t be promoted’. Do you agree to this statement? Why?
Answer:
No. Though there are certain possibilities of misuse, gene technology has many merits (like medicines, vaccines, treatment of genetic diseases, production of high yield and resistant varieties of food crops). Hence, we should utilize science and technologies for the well being of man and other living beings.

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare a slide presentation including the stages of production of insulin through genetic engineering.
Answer:

Question 2.
Prepare a science excerpt collecting pictures and news related to genetic engineering.

Genetics for the Future More Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Traditionally, human beings adopted and utilized various methods of biotechnology. Substantiate this statement with suitable examples.
Answer:

• Yeast (a fungus) was used to prepare food items like bread.
• Bacteria and fungi were utilized to convert sugar into alcohol or acids.
• Practiced the method of selecting and rearing of cattle or crops of superior hybrid variety

Question 2.
Give example for modern biotechnological practices.
Answer:

• Development of human insulin-producing bacteria.
• Production of ‘pharm animals’, that yielding medicines or vaccines.

Question 3.
The scope of modem biotechnology is endless. Substantiate this statement providing apt examples.
Answer:
The statement is true. Organisms that can withstand adverse conditions, beautiful flowers, amazing animals, effective vaccines, food crops, etc. can be developed through biotechnology.

Question 4.
Describe the stages in the production of human insulin bacteria through the process of genetic engineering.
Answer:

• From human DNA, cut the gene responsible for the production of insulin.
• This gene is joined with cutting of bacterial DNA (plasmid)
• Insert the joined DNA in the bacterial cell.

Question 5.
Both the genetic scissors and genetic glue are used in the process of genetic engineering. What do you mean by these?
Answer:
The enzymes like Restriction endonuclease, used to cut DNA at specific sites, are generally called as ‘genetic scissors’. The enzymes like Ligase, used for joining DNA at specific sites, are generally called as ‘genetic glue’.

Question 6.
Observe the given illustration and answer to the following questions

a) Name the technology indicated here.
b) Name the general term for enzymes that use to cut genes.
c) Which is the vector used in this process?
Answer:
a) Genetic engineering
b) Genetic scissor
c) Bacterial DNA (plasmid)

Question 7.
Define ‘vectors’ in genetic engineering.
Answer:
Vectors are other DNA (usually bacterial DNA), by which genes can be transferred from one cell to another.

Question 8.
Paravur Fire Tragedy: The remnants of body parts sent for DNA test to identify missed persons.
What is the test indicating in this news? How is it possible to identify any person from minute remnants of their body parts?
Answer:
DNA fingerprinting (DNA profiling or DNA Testing). DNA of the skin, hair, nail, blood and other body fluid obtained from the place is compared through DNA profiling with the DNA of suspected person’s blood relatives.

Question 9.
Identify this person. What is the technology that he put forwarded in 1984? Mention its importance.

Answer:
Alec Jeffrey.
He paved the way for DNA testing, by which we can find out hereditary characteristics, identify real parents in the case of parental dispute and also can identify persons found after long periods of missing.

Question 10.
Genetic engineering caused tremendous changes in medicinal field, how? Answer with examples.
Answer:

• Human insulin-producing bacteria.
• Pharm animals, which produce human insulin and growth hormones
• Medicine producing plants

Question 11.
Instead of bacteria, animals like cows or pigs are used as medicinal animals or pharm animals. Why?
Answer:
It is easy to rear animals like cows or pigs than the culturing of bacteria. Moreover, medicines can be extracted from their blood or milk.

Question 12.
Explain briefly about the merits of genetic engineering in the fields of food and agriculture?
Answer:
Genetic engineering influenced in the production of genetically modified disease resistant and high yield varieties of animals, food crops and cash crops.

Question 13.
Bioweapons are crucial threat to human beings. What are bioweapons? Which is the technology behind biowar?
Answer:
Bioweapons are genetically modified pathogens that might be applied any country to their enemies. Genetic engineering is the technology behind this kind of BioWare.

Question 14.
Make a few logo sentences that can be used for the awareness programme against the misuse of science and technology.
Answer:

• Genetic modification can be allowed only for the benefit of mankind.
• Avoid all weapons including bioweapons, save life.
• Science and technologies are meant for protection, not for destruction.

Question 15.
“Genetic engineering is the branch of Science that transforms the living world”.
a) What is your opinion on the above statement?
b) Give reason to substantiate your opinion.
Answer:
a) I agree with this statement
b) In agriculture, medicine, use of superbugs, DNA fingerprinting, misuses

Question 16.
BT Brinjal is less subject to pest attacks. (March 2013)
a) How is it possible?
b) What are the advantages of genetic modifications?
c) What are the harmful effects of genetic modifications?
Answer:
a) The gene which introduced in these plants causes the production of a protein since this protein can destroy pests.
b) Today insulin without any side effects is being manufactured through genetic engineering.

• Superbugs are one of the products of genetic engineering
• Bt cotton and Bt Brinjal are produced.
• The DNA fingerprinting which is used to prove disputed parentage and criminal offenses.

c) A possibility to the pathogens which will not yield to any medicine.

• Superbugs introduced in oil fields destroy oil fields

Genetics for the Future Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Analyze the word pair relationship and fill in the blanks: (Question Pool-2017)
a) Restriction endonuclease: genetic scissors
……………………………………..: genetic glue
b) DNA profiling: Tests the arrangement of nucleotides
………………………………………: Identifies the loca tionofageneinthe DNA
Answer:
a) Ligase
b) Gene mapping

Question 2.
Choose the right statement from those given below: (Question Pool – 2017)
i) Gene mapping is a technology that identifies the location of a gene in the DNA.
ii) The sum of genetic material presents in an organism is called its DNA.
iii) Enzyme Ligase is used to join the genes.
iv) Gene therapy is the technology that tests the arrangement of nucleotides.
Answer:
i) Gene mapping is a technology that identifies the location of a gene in the DNA.
iii) Enzyme Ligase is used to join the genes.

Question 3.
‘Pharm animals’ is one of the promises of genetic engineering. What is the significance of this concept? (Question Pool-2017)
Answer:

• Genes responsible for the production of insulin and growth hormones are inserted into animals, transforming
• them into pharm animals.
• These animals are easy to be reared and cared when compared to bacteria.
• Medicines can be extracted from their blood or milk.

Question 4.
Observe the logo given below. What does it indicate? (Question Pool-2017)

Answer:
Human Genome Project

Question 5.
“Gene therapy becomes the remedy for genetic diseases.” (Question Pool-2017)’
This is a note in Sethu’s science diary.
Do you agree to this note? Justify your opinion. (2)
Answer:

• Yes
• Gene therapy is the treatment for curing genetic diseases by removing disease-causing genes and inserting functional genes in the genome.

Question 6.
Suma murder case – trace of hair obtained from the site of incidence enabled to identify killer. (Question Pool-2017)
a) Read the above news. Name the technology that helped to find the killer?
b) Cite two other uses of this technology
Answer:
a) DNA fingerprinting
b) 1. to solve parental dispute
2. to identify culprits
3. to identify persons

Question 7.
“Insulin-producing bacteria created” – news report Santhosh raises the following doubts about the news. What explanations would you give as a student of Genetics? ‘
a) Which is the technology that helped to create insulin-producing bacteria?
b) Will the next generation of this bacteria be able to produce insulin? Give reason.
Answer:
a) Genetic Engineering
b) 1. Yes
2. Because the gene responsible for the production of insulin is there in the next generations

Question 8.
Given below are the various steps involved in the production of insulin through genetic engineering, Arrange them appropriately. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Producing active insulin from this
b) Cutting the gene responsible for the production of insulin from human DNA.
c) Bacteria produce inactive form of insulin.
d) Isolating bacterial DNA.
e) Joining the gene with bacterial DNA and inserting it into the bacterial cell.
f) Providing a favorable medium for the multiplication of bacterial
Answer:
b → d → c → f → c → a

Question 9.
A debate has been organized in the topic. ‘Genetic Engineering – scope and challenges’. (Question Pool – 2017)
List out 3 scopes encountered in the field of Genetic Engineering for Anoop and 3 challenges for Safa respectively.
Answer:
Scopes: In the field of medicine, food crops, cash crops, cattle management, nature conservation, gene therapy, etc.
Challenges: Genetic modifications – violation of rights, bioweapons, BioWare, threat to indigenous varieties, health problems in man, superbugs, etc.

Question 10.
Identify the odd one and write the common feature of others: (1) (Question Pool – 2017)
DNA profiling, Electrocardiogram, gene mapping, gene therapy
Answer:
a) Electrocardiogram
Others related to genetic engineering

Question 11.
Given below is a word tree prepared by Appu for classroom presentation. Help him to complete the tree by choosing the words given in the box: (2) (Question Pool-2017)
Junk genes, Ligase, Gene therapy DNA profiling, Restriction endonuclease, Gene mapping, Plasmid, Genetic engineering.

Answer:
a) Restriction endonuclease
b) Ligase
c) DNA profiling
d) junk genes
e) Gene mapping
f) Gene therapy

Question 12.
Observe the table and form matching pairs. (2) (Question Pool-2017)

Answer:
a) ii
b) iv,
c) i,
d) ii

Question 13.

Didn’t you read the news report? (Question Pool -2017)
a) What is the basis of DNA test?
b) How is it possible to identify relations through DNA test?
Answer:
a) The arrangement of nucleotides in the DNA differs in different individuals
b) The arrangement of nucleotides among close relatives have many similarities.

Question 14.
Analyse the table given below and answer the following questions. (Orukkam – 2017)

a) What are the desirable characters that you like from hybridization between crop A and B?
b) Is there any chance for getting plants with undesirable characters in the same hybridization? Explain the reason for this chance in the light of Mendel’s experiment in pea plant?
c) Can you suggest a remedy for this problem?
Answer:
a) More productivity, and resistance to the disease.
b) Yes. Four different types of plants may forms in the ratio of. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1, as a result of the self-pollination of plants A and B.
c) Genetically modified plants is the remedy for this.

Question 15.
Read the statement given below and answer the following questions. (Orukkam – 2017)
Gene mapping is the method to identify the location of gene in the DNA responsible for a particular trait.
a) How does gene mapping help in insulin production?
b) What is the significance of pharm animals?
c) What is meant by gene therapy?
Answer:
a) We can locate the correct position of gene responsible for insulin production.
b) Pharmammals produce medicines, growth ‘ hormones, human insulin, etc.
c) The process in which new active gene is added in the place of diseased or inactive genes to rectify genetic diseases is known as gene therapy.

Question 16.
Complete the illustration which represents the scope and misuses of genetic engineering. (Orukkam – 2017)

Answer:
A) Food crops and cash crops with high productivity and disease resistance
B) Medicines: From pharm animals, plants and microorganism
C) DNA fingerprinting: To identify person in disputes.
D) Possibility of BioWare: Using genetically modified organisms as bioweapons
F) Violation of rights: Genetic modification is intrusion upon the freedom of organisms.

Question 17.
Explain the difference between”traditional biotechnology and modern biotechnology with suitable examples (Orukkam – 2017)
Answer:
In traditional biotechnology process, we select and use organisms having desirable qualities, eg. Yeasts were used in bread making.

Question 18.
What are the scope of DNA fingerprinting and gene mapping? (Orukkam – 2017)
Answer:
DNA fingerprinting:

• To identify. real parents
• To find out hereditary characteristics
• To identify apt persons found after a long period of missing.

Gene mapping:

• To identify the correct position of genes in DNA responsible for each characteristic.
• To rectify genetic disorders through gene therapy.
• To produce new varieties of organisms with desirable qualities.

Question 19.
Write down any two arguments that evolved during the debate about the topic “Is genetic engineering for human progress?” From support and against group. (Orukkam – 2017)
Answer:
Environment: Neutralizing substances that cause pollution to nature, Gene therapy, New desirable varieties.
Misuses: Threat to indigenous varieties: Genetically modified varieties cause harm to indigenous varieties.

Expert Teachers at HSSLive.Guru has created Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers 2019-20, Notes Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Malayalam Medium of Textbook Information and Communications Technology (ICT) are part of Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Textbooks Solutions. Here HSSLive.Guru has given SCERT Kerala State Board Syllabus Class 10th SSLC IT Theory Textbook Questions and Answers Solutions Pdf of Part 1 and 2. Students can also read Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Papers with Answers.

Kerala State Syllabus SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers 2019-2020

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers 2019 English Medium

Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Part 1

• Chapter 1 The World of Designing
• Chapter 2 Publishing
• Chapter 3 Attractive Web Designing
• Chapter 4 Python Graphics
• Chapter 5 Networking
• Chapter 6 Map Reading

Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Part 2

• Chapter 7 The Working of the Internet
• Chapter 8 Database – An Introduction
• Chapter 9 Moving Images
• Chapter 10 Operating Systems

You can Download The Paths Traversed by Life Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 8 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 8 The Paths Traversed by Life

The Paths Traversed by Life Text Book Questions and Answers

The Paths Traversed By Life Kerala Syllabus 10th Question 1.
Analyze the following illustration and prepare a note on the theory of chemical evolution.

Answer:
Gases like hydrogen, ammonia, water vapor and methane which present in the atmosphere of primitive earth reacted together to form simple organic molecules like amino acids. Thunder and lightning ultraviolet radiations, volcanic eruptions are energy sources. Condensation of water vapor present in the atmosphere and the resulting incessant rain led to the formation of oceans. Simple organic molecules are formed first in the primitive ocean. By further reactions, complex molecules were found including genetic material to evolve the first primitive cell.

Urey – Miller Experiment

The Path Traversed By Life Kerala Syllabus 10th Question 2.
Which were the conditions of the primitive earth, recreated by Stanley Miller and Harold Urey?
Answer:
Stanley Miller and Harold Urey re-created the experimental setup, in which the glass flask considered as the primitive atmosphere that contained methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water vapor. Instead of lightning or other energy sources, they passed high voltage electricity through the gaseous mixture. The condensed water from this gaseous mixture was considered as the primitive ocean.

Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 3.
The organic substances synthesized through Urey- Miller experiment?
a) Amino acids
b) Nucleic acids
c) Nucleotides
d) DNA
Answer:
a) Amino acids.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Notes Pdf Question 4.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions that follow:

a) Name the scientists who set up this experiment.
b) What was the aim of their experiment?
c) Name the gases which are filled within the ‘A’ of the figure.
d) Which type of organic molecules did they synthesize through this experiment?
Answer:
a) Stanley Miller and Harold Urey.
b) To prove the theory of chemical evolution (Oparin- Haldane hypotheses) scientifically.
c) Methane, ammonia, hydrogen and water vapor.
d) Amino acids

Hsslive Guru 10th Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Analyze the major events related to the origin of life?

Answer:
Eukaryotes are originated from primitive prokaryotic cell. Gradually colonies of membrane-bound eukaryotic cells are formed. This led to the emergence of multicellular organisms.

Evolution – Through Theories

A) Lamarckism:

Biology Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Explain the ideas of J.B. Lamarck about organic evolution.
Answer:
Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characters. Continuous use or disuse of an organ results variations to develop changes in the structure of that organ (Acquired characters). These will be transmitted to the next generation to form new species.

Hss Live Guru 10th Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Why did scientists criticize Lamarck’s view?
Answer:
The changes in the body (Acquired characters) that occur in the lifetime of an organism do not affect its genetic constitution and hence not possible to transmit to the next generation.

B) Darwinism:

Hss Live Guru Biology 8 Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
The items given in the box indicates a scientist.
a) Identify the scientist.
b) What idea did he put forward in the field of evolution?
1. The origin of species
2. HMS Beagle
3. Galapagos Islands
4. Survival of the favorable ones.
Answer:
a) Charles Darwin.
b) Theory of Natural Selection

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Pdf Question 9.
Given below is the illustration of the ‘Darwin’s finches’ on the basis of indicators, analyze illustration.

a) Which peculiarity of the finches attracted Darwin.
b) How do these peculiarities help finches in their survival?
Answer:
The differences in the beaks of finches attracted Darwin.
The finches of Darwin’s had beaks adapted to their feeding habits insectivore finches have small beaks, cactus feeding finches have long and sharp beaks, woodpecker finches feed on worms in tree trunks have sharp beaks and ground finches feed on seeds have large beaks.

10th Standard Biology Malayalam Medium Question 10.
Complete the table of Darwin finches which showed differences in food and food habits.
Answer:

Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
Compare the ideas of Thomas Robert Malthus and main concepts of Theory of Natural Selection’ put forward by Darwin.
Answer:

The Theory Of Natural Selection

Hss Live Guru Biology 10 Kerala Syllabus Question. 12
Describe the theory of Natural Selection proposed by Charles Darwin.
Answer:
Variations develop in each species. Only those variations, which are favorable to that nature, survive and those which are unfavorable get eliminated, According to Darwin, organisms of one kind, when produced in large numbers (Over Production), compete for food, space, mate, and other limited resources (Struggle for Existence). In this struggle, only organisms with favorable variations survive in that nature (Survival of the Fittest). Over a long period, the favorable variations accumulate, resulting the formation of new species.

Hss Live Guru 10 Biology Kerala Syllabus  Question 13.
What was the limitation in Darwin’s theory? Who gave sufficient explanations to this?
Answer:
Darwin could not explain the reasons for continuous variations in organisms. However, Hugo deVries explained that one of the reasons for variations in organisms is mutation (sudden changes that occur in genes).

Scert Class 10 Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Describe Neo Darwinism.
Answer:
Neo Darwinism is the modified version of Darwin’s theory in the light of new information from the branches of genetics, cytology, geology, and paleontology about the reasons of variations occurred in organisms. Hugo deVries first supported Darwin by his theory of mutation.

Sslc Biology Notes Malayalam Medium Pdf Mutation

Sudden changes that occur in genes are called mutation.

Mutation Theory:
Mutation theory explains that new species are formed by the inheritances of sudden changes that occur in genes. This theory formulated by a Dutch scientist Hugo de Vries.

Evidence Of Evolution

Sslc Biology Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Mention the branches of science which provide evidence to organic evolution.
Answer:

• Paleontology (fossil study)
• Comparative morphological studies
• Biochemistry-physiology
• Molecular biology

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Question 16.
Define fossils.
Answer:
Fossils are remnants of primitive organisms preserved in earth crust.

Scert Biology Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
Analyze the following illustration.

Answer:
The study of fossils reveals that complex structured organisms are evolved from primitive simple organisms.
Certain linking fossils reveal the evolution of one form of organisms from another form.
Extinction of some species as well as the emergence of new species.

Comparative Morphological Studies

Question 18.
‘Comparative study of structure gives evidence to evolution’. Evaluate this statement.
Answer:
Though there are differences in the external structure (morphology) among different organisms, there are certain similarities in their internal structure (anatomy). The evidence from the comparative morphological studies justifies the inferences that all organisms were evolved from a common ancestor.

Question 19.
The morphological and anatomical structure of forelimbs in lizard, bat and sea cow are shown here. Observe the illustration and answer to the following questions.

a) Are these forelimbs differ morphologically or anatomically or both? What is the reason behind this difference?
b) What is the term used for such organs that are similar in structure but different in function?
Answer:
a) Only morphological differences are there among these organs. Reason for these differences are their adaptations to live their own habitats.
b) Homologous organs.

Question 20.
Homologous organs are seen among reptiles, birds, and mammals. What do you mean by homologous organs?
Answer:
Organs that are similar in structure but perform different functions are called homologous organs.

Biochemistry And Physiology

Question 21.
Observe the illustration and write the inference.

Answer:
All organisms are made up of cells with protoplasm. There are similarities among the cell organelles and cellular activities. Enzymes control chemical reactions and energy is stored in ATP molecules in all organisms. Hereditary factors are gene , seen in DNA and the structure of DNA is alike in all. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are the basic substances. There are similarities in growth, excretion, etc.

Question 22.
What evolutionary interference can be arrived from the evidence from the comparative morphological, Biochemical and physiological studies?
Answer:
The evidence from the comparative morphological, Biochemical and physiological studies justify the inferences that all organisms were evolved from a common ancestor.

Molecular Biology

Question 23.
What evidences of organic evolution do the study of molecular biology provide us?
Answer:
Through a comparative study of protein molecules in different species, the evolutionary relationship (similarity/difference) among organisms can be identified. For instance, we can analyze the similarities or differences in the sequence of amino acids in the beta chain of hemoglobin molecules of different mammals and thereby we can understand about the evolutionary relationship among them.

Question 24.
The differences of the sequential arrangement of amino acids in the beta chain of hemoglobin of man with other animals are given below.

Which animal is so close to human beings? What is the reason for this?
Answer:
Chimpanzee.
There is no difference in the sequential arrangement of amino acids in the beta chain of hemoglobin in man and chimpanzee.

Question 25.
How molecular studies can infer the period of separation of different groups from their ancestors?
Answer:
Mutations are the main reason for evolutionary changes. Through the molecular studies, we can find out how mutation occurs in the genes that determine amino acid sequences in protein molecules. From this, we can infer the period of separation of different group of organisms from their ancestors.

Evolution Of Human Beings

Question 26.
An evolutionary tree relating to certain organisms including humans is given below. Analyze and prepare a note.
Answer:

Question 27.
Which organisms is the closest to humans in specific characters?
Answer:
Chimpanzee

Question 28.
Do you agree with the statement that man is evolved from monkeys? What is your opinion?
Answer:
This statement is wrong. Man come under the group Hominoidea while monkeys are included in Cercopithecoidea. It is believed that both the ancestors of man and monkeys are evolved from a common ancestor.

Question 29.
Name of a few animals are given in the box. Out of these which one is more similar to man? Mention any two peculiarities of the other animals.
Baboons, Chimpanzees, Monkeys

Question 30.
Analyze the following illustration which shows the evolutionary history of modern man.

Answer:

Question 31.
The primitive man might be lived in African continent Do you agree this statement? What is your opinion?
Answer:
This statement might be right, because, fossils of Ardipithecus ramidus, Australopithecus afarensis, Homo habilis, and Homo erectus were discovered ” from African continent.

Question 32.
How do modern men differ from the other groups of human beings?
Answer:
Modern man have developed brains and equipped with advanced technologies.

Question 33.
Do the interventions of modern man cause any change to natural evolutionary process? How?
Answer:
Yes. Biodiversity is on a dangerous decline due to the interference of human beings in nature and natural resources. By human interventions, climatic changes brought in as well as the extinction of many organisms.

Question 34.
Here is an incomplete illustration of human evolutionary tree. Find out the missing links.

Answer:
A: Australopithecus
B: Homo habilis
C: Homo neanderthalensis.

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Which concept is put forward by the theory of natural selection?
a) Origin of life
b) Origin of species
c) Origin of eukaryotes
d) Chemical evolution of life
Answer:
b) Origin of species

Question 2.
List the main concepts that indicate how the biodiversity seen today has been developed from prokaryotes.
Answer:
Origin of prokaryotes 3500 million years ago
Origin of eukaryotes 1500 million years ago
Origin of multicellular organisms 1000 million years ago

Question 3.
How does the interference of human beings in nature influence the process of evolution? How do these affect the existence of other organisms?
Answer:
Biodiversity is on a dangerous decline due to the interference of human beings in nature and natural resources. By human interventions, climatic changes brought in as well as the extinction of many organisms.

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare and exhibit a model of the experimental set up constructed by Urey-Millerto scientifically prove the theory of chemical evolution.

Question 2.
Prepare a chart illustrating the evolutionary tree of man. (See Question 70)

The Paths Traversed by Life More Questions And Answers

Question 1.
The hypothesis which explain how do the evolution occur in living beings is illustrated below:

a) Write the name of scientist who proposed this hypothesis.
b) This hypothesis was not fully accepted. Give reason. (Model 2014)
Answer:
a) Lamarck
b) variations affect genetic constitution only transferred to next generation

Question 2.
Rearrange the following based on the relationship between different Primates. Chimpanzee – Gorilla – Gibbon – Orangutan (March 2014)
Answer:
Gibbon → Orange → Orangutan → Gorilla → Chimpanzee

Question 3.
DDT was sprayed on some insects as an experiment. Among them some died and some 3 survived A second generation was created by mating the survived ones. Again DDT sprayed. This process was repeated on five generations. The result is given in the table. Analyze it arid answer the following questions.

a) Interpret the result given in the table.
b) What scientific explanation can you give for this result?
c) What may be the result if the experiment is continued? (March 2014)
Answer:
a) After each generation’s resistance to DDT increases, ie. variation increases.
b) It is an example for Darwin’s theory of Natural selection. Due to struggle existence variations will arises and transmitted into next generations.
c) The total population becomes resistant to DDT / Evolution of DDT resistant species.

Question 4.
Name of certain animals belong to primates is given below.
a) Loris,
b) Gibbon,
c) Monkey
i) Which among them is closest to human beings according to the theory of evolution.
ii) Write down any two characteristics of the others. (March 2013)
Answer:
i) b) Gibbon
ii) Lorin
1. Noctural
2. Solitary
Monkey
1. Diurnal
2. Colonial life

Question 5.
Even though chemicals are used continuously, mosquitoes can’t be destructed completely. Write down scientific explanations for this statement on the basis of the theory of evolution. (March 2013)
Answer:
Mosquitoes develop resistant power in them against the chemicals. This is the survival of the fittest. Those mosquitoes which have the ability to resist the action of the chemicals survive, the others die.

Question 6.
Rearrange the following animals according to the evolutionary series.

b) List out any two evidences of organic evolution.
c) Man is involved in the evolution of other living beings. Substantiate your answer. (Model 2012)
Answer:
a) Gibbon, Orang-utan, Gorilla, Chimpanzee, Man.
b) Morphological similarities among animals and similar biochemical reactions indicate about a common ancestor/Different type of fossils are available / Scientific classification or taxonomy and molecular biology indicate that organisms are evolved from common ancestor and how they are interrelated or different, (any 2 points)
c) Yes. The involvement of man in his environment altered the natural evolutionary processes. Human influence may lead to mutation and other natural calamities which lead to evolution or extinction of certain species. Genetic engineering processes caused the production of new species, (any 2 points)

The Paths Traversed by Life Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Identify the odd one from those given below, and write the feature common to others. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Monkey, gibbon, orangutan, gorilla.
b) acquired characters, overproduction, struggle for existence, favorable variations.
Answer:
a) 1. Monkey
2. Others belong to Hominoidea
b) 1. Acquired characters
2. Others are related to the theory of natural section

Question 2.
Analyze the word pair relationship and fill in the blanks.
a) Monkey: Cercopithecoidea
Chimpanzee:………………….
b) Theory of Natural Selection: Charles Darwin
Mutation theory:………………
Answer:
a) Hominoidea
b) Hugo deVries

Question 3.
The stages related to the origin of life are given below, b Analyse and arrange them correctly. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Organic compounds
b) Prokaryotic cells
c) Chemical evolution
d) eukaryotic cells
e) Multicellular organism
f) Colonies of eukaryotic cells.
Answer:
(c) → (a) → (b) → (d) → (f) → (e)

Question 4.
Match the following

Answer:
a) (iii)
b) (i)
c) (ii)

Question 5.
An illustration related to chemical evolution is given below. Complete the illustration using the information given in the box. (Question Pool – 2017)
i) RNA, DNA
ii) polysaccharides, peptides, fats
iii) Presence of H₂, N₂, CO₂
iv) Monosaccharides, aminoacids

Answer:
A – (iii)
B – (i)
C – (iv)
D – (ii)

Question 6.
Identify the statements that are related to chemical evolution:
i) Life originated in some other planets in the universe and accidentally reached the earth.
ii) Life originated as a result of the changes that occurred in the chemical substances in water, under specific conditions of primitive earth.
iii) The theory is supported by the organic substances found in the meteors that fell on earth.
iv) A.I.Oparin and J.B.S.Haldane are the proponents of the theory.
Answer:
ii) Life originated as a result of the changes that occurred in the chemical substances in water, under specific conditions of primitive earth.
iv) A.I.Oparin and J.B.S.Haldane are the proponents of the theory.

Question 7.
Tabulate the data appropriately in the box given below.
i) Chemical evolution
ii) Natural selection
iii) Panspermia theory
iv) Mutation theory

Answer:
Origin of life i) Chemical evolution and iii) Panspermia theory
Evolution – ii) Natural selection and iv) Mutation theory

Question 8.
Complete the illustration related to the evolution of human beings appropriately. (Question Pool – 2017)

Answer:
a) Cercopithecidae
b) Hominoidea
c) Small brain

Question 9.
Complete the table using the data given in the box. (Question Pool – 2017)
Most primitive members of the human race, cranial capacity is 460cm³, made weapons from stones and bone pieces, cranial capacity is 1000 cm³, thick chin, and large teeth, cranial capacity is 1700cm³, slender body, cranial capacity 610cm³, cranial capacity 325cm³, contemporary of modem man.

Answer:

Question 10.
Given below is an illustration of the differences observed by Darwin in the beaks of the finches in the Galapagos island. (Question Pool-2017)

Finches with different beaks emerged from the ancestor finch. Substantiate the statement.
Answer:
Though the finches were similar in sound and nesting habits, only they showed differences in food and food habits. (Insectivore finches have small beaks, cactus feeding finches have long and sharp beaks, woodpecker finches feed on worms in tree trunks have sharp beaks and ground finches feed on seeds have latg beaks, etc.) So, Darwin thought that they were evolved from a common ancestor.

Question 11.
The links in the evolutionary history of modern man are given in the box. Complete the illustration choosing the appropriate ones from the box. (Question Pool – 2017)
Ardipithecus ramidus, Homo neanderthalensis, Homohabilis, Homo erectus, Homo sapiens, Australopithecus afarensis

Answer:
a) Australopithecus afarensis
b) Homohabilis
c) Homoneanderthalensis

Question 12.
‘The constant use of antibiotics develops resistance in bacteria”. (Question Pool-2017)
Substantiate the above statement on the basis of the theory of natural selection.
Answer:
The constant use of antibiotics develops resistance in bacteria. It is an example for Darwin’s theory of natural selection. Due to struggle for existence variations will arise and transmitted to next generation. So bacteria become resistant to antibiotic.

Question 13.
Complete the illustration given below, related to the evidences that support the evolution of new species. (Question Pool – 2017)

Answer:
B – Comparative morphology
D – Molecular biology

Question 14.
Scientific study of the remnants, body parts and imprints of primitive organisms are evidences on evolution.
a) What inferences do we arrive at, through such scientific studies?
b) How will you explain these inferences as evidences on evolution?
Answer:
a) 1. Primitive fossils have simple structure
2. Recently formed fossils have complex structure
3. Certain fossils are connecting links between different species.
b) 1. Organisms with complex structures are formed from those with simple structures.
2. Certain fossils indicate the evolution of one species from another species.

Question 15.
The forelimbs of the organisms shown in the picture below, do not show any similarity. Hence they do not have any evolutionary relationship. (Question Pool-2017)

How will you respond to this statement? Substantiate
Answer:
Do not agree

• The similarity in blood vessels, nerves, muscles and bones.
• Such anatomical resemblances indicate that they evolved from a common ancestor
• Differences in their external appearance are their adaptations to like in different habitats

Question 16.
Arrange the following links in human evolution in the ascending order of their cranial capacity. (Question Pool-2017)
Homo sapiens, Ardipithecus,
Homo erectus. Homo habilis
Answer:
Ardipithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens

Question 17.
Arrange the links in human evolution appropriately: (Question Pool – 2017)

Answer:
A -Ardipithecus
B-Australopithecus
C- Homo erectus
D-Homo sapiens

Question 18.
There is a common ancestor for all the different species that exist today.
Explain how Biochemical and Physiological studies substantiate the above statement?
Answer:
All organisms are made up of cells with protoplasm, There are similarities among the cell organelles and cellular activities. Enzymes control chemical reactions and energy is stored in ATP molecules in all organisms. Hereditary factors are gene, seen in DNA and the structure of DNA is alike in all. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are the basic substances. There are similarities in growth, excretion, etc.

Question 19.
An excerpt from the article “Darwin view of evolution” is given below. (Question Pool – 2017)
Variations often occur in organisms. New species arise when these variations are subjected to natural selection. But Darwin could not explain the reason for these variations.
a) Explain the reason for variations on the basis of Genetics.
b) How was Darwinism revised later?
Answer:
a) Mutations taking place in gene, chromosome; This brings about variations,
b) Darwinism was revised as Neodarwinism in the light of new information form the branches of genetics, cytology, geology, and paleontology.

Question 20.
The table given below shows the difference in amino acids obtained from a comparative study of the (3 chains of hemoglobin of different organisms Analyse the table and answer the questions. (Qn. Pool-2017)

a) Which organism is more closely related to man on the basis of evolution? Substantiate your observation.
b) Explain the reason for the difference in amino acids of hemoglobin of the organisms listed in the table on biochemical basis.
Answer:
a) 1. Chimpanzee
2. No difference in the amino acid sequence in the Beta-chain of hemoglobin
b) 1. Mutations may occur in the genes that determine amino acid sequence
2. This causes changes in amino acid sequence.

Question 21.
A few concepts of scientists like Darwin and Malthus are given below. Classify them in the table given below. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Selection by nature leads to the diversity of species.
b) Rate of food production does not increase proportionately to the increase in population.
c) Those organisms that overcome the unfavourable situations will survive.
d) Scarcity of food and starvation leads to struggle for existence.

Answer:
Concepts of Darwin – a, c
Concepts of Malthus – b, d

Question 22.
An excerpt from the science article. ‘Man and Evolution’ is given below. Analyze the excerpt and answer the questions. (Question Pool -2017)
Certain evolutionary features make man different from other animals included in evolutionary history. This helped him in his dominance over nature and other organisms. His interference had created a negative impact on the existence of other organisms.
a) What are the features that make man different from other animals?
b) Has man’s interference led to Biodiversity deterioration as mentioned in the excerpt? Evaluate.
Answer:
a) High cranial capacity, ability to stand erect, ability to walk in two legs, ability to make and use machines and tools, cultural development
b) Yes, Climate changes, deteriorating habitats, extinction.

Question 23.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions given below. (Orukkam – 2017)

a) What are the characteristic features of Cercopithecidae group?
b) Name the group which includes man and gorilla. What are the characteristics features of this group?
c) Which organism is close to man from the evolutionary point of view?
Give explanation for this on the basis of molecular biology?
Answer:
a) Small brain, Longtail
b) Hominoidea
c) Developed brain, free moving hands
d) Chimpanzee
The amino acid sequencing in the beta chain of hemoglobin in both chimpanzees and man is almost same.

Question 24.
There exist certain scientific proofs about the formation of different species by evolution. Justify this statement. (Orukkam – 2017)
(Hints – Fossils, Comparative morphological studies, Molecular biology)
Answer:
a) Evidence from fossil studies-Agradual change from simple structure to complex structure, Linking between two groups of organisms.
b) Comparative study of homologous organs Reveals the existence of a common ancestor.
c) Molecular biology proves the evolutionary relationship among different groups of organism.

Question 25.
The different views regarding the evolution of species are given below. (Orukkam – 2017)

a) Name the scientists who proposed those views.
b) Name the view which was not accepted by scientific world. Why?
Answer:
a) A – Gene Lamarck,
B – Hugo devices
C – Charles Darwin
b) Theory of Lamarck was not accepted. The acquired characters described by him, make no change in genes, to affect evolutionary change.

Question 26.
Fill in the blanks by observing the relationship in the first pair. (Orukkam – 2017)
a) Cranial capacity 610 cu.cm: Homo habilis
Cranial capacity 1430 cu.cm : ……………………
b) Gibbon: Hominoidea
Monkey:………………….
Answer:
a) Homoneanderthalansis
b) Cercopithecidae

Question 27.
What do you mean by homologous organs? What evidences do they give for evolution? (Orukkam – 2017)
Answer:
Organs which are different in external structure and function, but similar in internal structure are called homologous organs. The comparative study of homologous organs reveals the possibility of a common ancestor to such animals.

You can Download Unravelling Genetic Mysteries Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Unravelling Genetic Mysteries

Unraveling Genetic Mysteries Text Book Questions and Answers

Emergence Of Genetics

Genetics is the branch of science emerged at the beginning of the 20th century. It influences almost all areas of life like diagnosis, therapeutic and food production. Gregor Johann Mendel’s hybridization experiments in pea plants have led to the foundation of genetics. So he is considered as the father of Genetics.

Unravelling Genetic Mysteries Kerala Syllabus 10th Chapter 6 Question 1.
What are the traits that were experimented by Mendel?
Answer:
The traits that were experimented by Mendel

• Height of the plant (Tall – Dwarf)
• Position of the flower (Terminal – Axial)
• Shape of the seed (Round – Wrinkled)
• Colour of the seed (Green-Yellow)
• Colour of the flower (Purple, White)
• Shape of the pod (Inflated – Constricted)
• Colour of the fruit (Yellow-Green)

Experiments Of Mendel

Sslc Biology Chapter 6 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 2.
Which trait of the pea plant was considered in these experiments?
Answer:
Height of the pea plant was considered as the trait in this experiment.

Biology Chapter 6 Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 3.
What variant forms of the trait are considered here?
Answer:
Tall and dwarf are the variant forms of the trait considered here.

Unravelling Genetic Mysteries Notes Kerala Syllabus 10th Chapter 6 Question 4.
Which forms of the trait was expressed in the first generation?
Answer:
Tall is the trait was expressed in the first generation.

Sslc Biology Chapter 6 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
The following illustration showing hybridization experiment in pea plants using symbols for the factors that control traits.
Answer:

Peculiarities of offsprings in the second generation

Mendel self-pollinated the plants obtained in the first generation and produced the second generation. Among the 1064 plants obtained in the second generation, 787 plants were tall and 277 plants were dwarf. The ratio of the result obtained is about 3:1

Statistics In Mendel’S Experiment

10th Class Biology 6th Chapter Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Complete the table

Answer:
a) Axial
b)3:1
c) Round
d) 3:1

Inferences of Mendel:

• A trait is controlled by the combination of two traits.
• One character is expressed (dominant character) and the other character remains hidden (recessive character) in the offspring first generation.
• The character which remains hidden in the first generation appears in the second generation.
• The ratio of the dominant character and recessive character in the second generation is 3:1

Gene – Allele:
The gene present in the chromosome of the nucleus determines the character. A gene that controls a trait has different forms. The different forms of a gene are called alleles. Generally, a gene has two alleles. When.we illustrate hybridization experiment, the allele that controls the dominant character that is expressed in the first generation is indicated by a capital letter and the allele that controls recessive character is indicated by a small letter.

Sslc Biology Chapter 6 Malayalam Medium Question 7.
Which are the alleles of a tall plant?
Answer:
‘TT are the alleles of a tall plant.

Hsslive Guru 10th Biology Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 8.
Which are the alleles of the dwarf planets?
Answer:
‘tt’ are the alleles of the dwarf planet.

Sslc Biology Focus Area Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 9.
How do the allele combination of the first generation differ from parental plants?
Answer:
The allele combination ‘Tt’ is responsible for the character height in first-generation instead of TT. One character is expressed and the other character remains hidden in the offsprings.

Kerala Genetics Question 10.
How can you differentiate alleles that control the dominant character and recessive character?
Answer:
The allele that controls dominant character generally indicated by capital letter and the allele that controls recessive character is indicated by a small letter.

Biology Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 11.
Observe the illustration showing the hybridization experiment conducted by Mendel on two traits namely height and color of flowers. Complete the illustration and table suitably based on the indicators, analyze illustration and write down inferences.

Answer:

Tall, red flower TtRr
Self-pollination first-generation TtRr x TtRr

Hss Live Guru 10th Biology Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 12.
What are the characters expressed in the offsprings of the first generation? Which are the recessive ones?
Answer:
Expressed characters – Tall and red flower
Recessive characters – Dwarf and white flower.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Notes Pdf Chapter 6 Question 13.
Are there new combination of characters different from parents appeared in the second generation? Which are they?
Answer:
Yes. New combination of characters different form parents appeared in the second generation. The appearance of new combination of characters in offsprings is due to the independent assortment of each character.
New combination of characters appeared in second generation

• Dwarf, red flower plants
• Tall, white flower plant

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid)

Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6  Question 14.
What are the peculiarities of double-helical model of DNA presented by Watson and Crick?
Answer:
James Watson and Francis Crick presented the double-helical model of DNA in 1953. As per the double-helical model, DNA contains two strands. Two strands of DNA are made of phosphate and pentose sugar and steps with nitrogen bases. The nitrogen bases are adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine.

Structure of DNA molecule

DNA molecule contains two long strands with deoxyribose sugar, phosphate, and steps with nitrogen bases. Nitrogen bases are molecules that contain nitrogen and are alkaline in nature. The nitrogen bases are of four types. In DNA the bases adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine. One deoxyribose sugar molecule one phosphate molecule and one nitrogenous base join together to form a nucleotide. Nucleotides are the basic unit of DNA. Since DNA has four kinds of nitrogen bases, DNA has four kinds of nucleotides.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Pdf Chapter 6 Question 15.
Observe the illustration and complete its second strand.

Answer:

Terminal Axial Question 16.
Compare the structure of DNA and RNA and complete the table.

Answer:

How Do Genes Act?

Question 17.
Observe the following illustration and write down the inferences in the science diary.

Answer:
DNA does not participate directly in protein synthesis. RNA is the molecule that carries information form DNA to ribosomes and controls protein synthesis. This RNA is messenger of DNA, it is called messenger RNA or mRNA. Besides mRNA, there are tRNA (Transfer RNA) that carry amino acids to the ribosomes and rRNA (Ribosomal RNA) that are seen associated with ribosomes. Protein molecule is synthesized by the combined activities of all these molecules.

Question 18.
Prepare a flow chart of Protein synthesize.
Answer:

There are 46 chromosomes in human beings. Of these 44 are somatic chromosomes and two are sex chromosomes. A somatic chromosome pair contains two identical chromosomes. Thus in human beings, there are 22 pairs of somatic chromosomes. Sex chromosomes are two types. They are called x chromosomes and y chromosomes. Females have 44 + xx and genetics of variation that of male 44 + XY.

Genetics Of Variation

Crossing over in chromosomes: A source of variation:

During the initial phase of meiosis, chromosomes pair and exchange their parts. This process is called crossing over. As a result of this, part of a DNA crosses over to become the part of another DNA. This causes a difference in the distribution of genes. When these chromosomes are transferred to the next generation, it causes the expression of new characters in offsprings.

Combination of Allele during fertilization:
When gametes undergo fusion, the combination of allele changes. This causes the expression of characteristics in offsprings that are different from parents. Thus fertilization causes variations int the next generation.

Mutation

Question 19.
What is mutation?
Answer:
Mutation is a sudden heritable change in the genetic constitution of an organism.

Question 20.
What are the causes of mutations?
Answer:
The defects in the duplication of DNA, certain chemicals and radiations.

Question 21.
What is the importance of mutations?
Answer:
Certain mutations are harmful and some are helpful for survival of the organisms. Mutations lead to variations in characters. Mutation has great relevance in evolution.

Is The Child – Male Or Female

Observe illustration and write down the inferences in the science diary.

Question 22.
Is there any difference in the number of chromosomes in male and female.
Answer:
No. In male and female, there is not any difference in the number of chromosomes. In men and women 46 chromosomes are present.

Question 23.
Which chromosome is different in male and female?
Answer:
Sex chromosome is different. The sex chromosome of female is are XX and in male are XY.

Question 24.
What is the possibility for the birth of a male or a female child? Discuss.
Answer:
The possibility for the birth of a male or a female child is more or less equal. If the X chromosomes in male unite with X chromosome in female the offspring will be female and if with the Y chromosome In female the offspring will be male.

Question 25.
Is it fair to criticize mothers who deliver only female- children. Substantiate your opinion scientifically.
Answer:
The XY chromosomes of the father determine whether the child is male or female. Child with XX sex chromosomes is female arid with XY sex chromosomes is made. So male sex chromosomes have greater importance than female sex chromosomes in sex determination. So the view of her husband and relatives is wrong.

Difference In Colour

Melanin, a pigment-protein imparts color to the skin. The difference in gene function is the reason for the color difference of skin. This is simply an adaption to live under sun.

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
The nitrogen base absent in RNA.
a) Admin
b) Thymine
c) Uracil
d) Cytosine
Answer:
b) Thymine

Question 2.
Arrange the stages of protein synthesis in the form of a flow chart.
1. Combines amino acid.
2. mRNA reaches ribosomes
3. mRNA is formed
4. Amino acids are carried to the ribosomes.
Answer:
mRNA is formed → mRNA reaches ribosomes → amino acids are carried to the ribosomes → combines amino acids.

Question 3.
Observe the hybridization experiment given below

a) Prepare an illustration of this hybridization experiment using symbols
b) Prepare an illustration for the second generation.
Answer:

b) Parental plants (Self-pollination of first-generation) F2 → Gg × Gg

Extended Activities

Question 1.
‘ Prepare an excerpt including information on scientist who made contributions in the progress of genetics. (Hints – Gregor Johann Mendel, Walter, S. Sutton, Boveri, Friedrich Meischer, Johannsen, Avery, James Watson, Francis Crick, Marshall, Nirenberg, Har Gobind Khorana)
Answer:
Milestones in the History of Genetics

Question 2.
Prepare models of DNA and RNA using locally available materials and present them in a science exhibition.

Unraveling Genetic Mysteries More Questions And Answers

Question 1.
The father of genetics?
Answer:
Gregor Johann Mendel

Question 2.
Mendel conducted the process of hybridization using one pair of contrasting characters. In all his experiments only one character was expressed. So which was the method he adopted to find out recessive character?
Answer:
Mendel self-pollinated the plants obtained as the first generation.

Question 3.
When Mendel conducted experiment using one pair of contrasting characters, the plants obtained in the F2 generation is was in ………. ratio.
Answer:
3:1

Question 4.
Find out the dominant characters in plants having TTRR, TTRr, TtRR, TtRr traits.
Answer:
All plants are tall with red flowers.

Question 5.
Hereditary factors which Mendel had described are now known as …………….
Answer:
Genes

Question 6.
What are genes?
Answer:
Genes are the specific units of DNA that control metabolic activities and responsible for the specific characters of any organism.

Question 7.
“Offsprings of the same parents show differences among themselves” Give reasons for this?
Answer:
During fertilization alleles from the chromosomes of gametes segregate and causes change in the allele combination. This change causes variations in the offsprings. So offsprings of the same parents also show differences.

Question 8.
When a woman gave birth to girl children in her consecutive deliveries, her husband and relatives blamed her. Evaluate this social situation and write your opinion.
Answer:
The XY chromosomes of the father determine whether the child is male or female. Child with XX sex chromosomes is female and with XY sex chromosomes is male. So male sex hormones have greater importance than female sex chromosomes in sex determination. So the view of her husband and relatives is wrong.

Question 9.
What is the possible ratio for the birth of a male or a female child? What is the reason for this?
Answer:
The possibility for the birth of a male or a female child is more or less equal. If the X chromosomes in male unite with X chromosome in female the offspring will be female and if with the Y chromosome in female the offspring will be male.

Question 10.
Which are the two types of nucleic acids?
Answer:
DNA, RNA

Question 11.
What is the figure shows?
Answer:
a) a DNA molecule
b) a RNA molecule
c) a nucleotide
d) a chromosome
Answer:
a) nucleotide

Question 12.
Identify the picture? From where is it seen?

Answer:
DNA molecule. DNA molecules are seen in chromosome.

Question 13.
Identify the nucleotides presented in DNA and RNA. Which factor help you to identify this?
Answer:

B and C are nucleotides seen in DNA because the adenine and thymine are seen in DNA. A and C are nucleotide seen in RNA because Adenine and Uracil are seen in RNA.

Question 14.
Give examples for different kinds of RNA seen in the cell?
Answer:
mRNA(messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer RNA), rRNA (ribosomal RNA).

Question 15.
What is the following illustration represents?
Answer:

Answer:
Protein synthesis of DNA.

Question 16.
Explain the role of mRNA in protein synthesis.
Answer:
DNA does not participate directly in protein synthesis. It unwinds and mRNA is synthesized which carries the information from DNA to ribosomes. Based on the information in mRNA protein is synthesized by proper adding amino acids.

Question 17.
Observe the diagram and find out the names of the labeled parts a. b and c.
Answer:

Answer:
a) mRNA
b) Ribosomes
c) Protein molecule

Question 18.
Observe the figures and identify the process given below.

Answer:
Crossing over

Question 19.
‘ While some mutations are harmful, some of them are helpful.” Analyze the statement.
Answer:
This statement is correct. Certain mutations are harmful and some are helpful for survival of the organism. Mutations also lead to evolution.

Question 20.
‘‘Some specific processes during Meiosis helps to create variation in characters among organisms Analyse this statement and explain the process.
Answer:
Homologous chromosomes from father and mother pair exchange chromosomal material during meiosis. Tbi3 is “Crossing Over” in meiosis.

Question 21.
Diagrammatically represent with symbols the First generation of progenies of Tall and Dwarf pea plants when cross-pollinated as in Mendel’s first stage of Experiment (March 2015)
Answer:

Question 22.
Observe the flow chart given below. (Model 2015)
Answer:
i) RNA is synthesized
↓
ii) DNA unwinds
↓
iii) RNA combines with ribosome
↓
iv) RNA comes out through nuclear membrane.
↓
v) Protein molecule is formed.
↓
vi) Different amino acids are formed.
↓
a) Arrange the flow orderly.
b) Identify the process.
Answer:
a) DNA unwinds
↓
RNA Is synthesized
↓
RNA comes out through nuclear membrane.
↓
RNA combines with ribosome
↓
Different amino acids are formed.
↓
Protein molecule is formed
b) Protein synthesis or gene action

Question 23.

(Model 2014)
Observe the diagram Identify the process which occurs in Chromosomes during meiosis.
Answer:
Crossing over

Question 24.
A pea plant with genetic constitution TtRr (Tall plant which produces red flower) was subjected to self-pollination. The genetic constitution of some of the progenies obtained are given below.
Write the expressed character of the given progenies based on their genetic constitution. (Model 2014)
(a) TTRr
(b) ttrr
(c) ttRr
(d) Ttrr
Answer
a) TTRr – tall plant with red flower
b) ttrr – dwarf plant with white flower
c) ttRr – dwarf plant with red flower
d) Ttrr – tall plant with white flower

Question 25.
Mr. Rajan decided to divorce his wife by arguing that she is incapable to give birth to a boy child.
a) Can you agree with Mr. Rajan?
b) Give scientific explanation, to this problem with the help of an illustration showing the role of sex chromosomes in determining sex in human beings.
Answer:
a) I cannot agree with Rajan

Y chromosome from male decide the sex of child

Question 26.
Find the odd one. Write down the common feature of the others. (March 2014)
a) Bypass surgery, ECG, EEG, Pacemaker
b) Adenine, Cytosine, Thymine, Uracil
Answer:
a) EEG: Related with the treatment of heart diseases
b) Uracil: Nitrogen bases in DNA/Thymine: Nitrogen bases in RNA.

Question 27.
Gopalettan is trying to develop new varieties of pea plants in his garden. Given below is the illustration of the experiment which he conducted. Observe this and answer the questions that follow. (Model 2013)

a) Which law of hereditary can be used to explain the reason of violet flowered plants in the F1 generation?
b) Among these, which are the dominant and recessive characters?
c) What will be the characters appearing in the F2 generation if the plants in the F1 generation are self-pollinated? In what ratio?
Answer:
a) Law of dominance. (When a pair of contrasting characters combines, only one character is expressed, while the other remains hidden.)
b) Dominant is violet and recessive is white.
c) Yellow and green seeds in 3:1 ratio.

Question 28.
Fill up the blanks in the table showing gene action in protein synthesis. (Model 2013)

Answer:
a) RNA is being synthesized
b) RNA comes out through nuclear membrane
c) RNA1 combines with ribosomes

Question 29.
Rearrange B and C according to the data given in A. (Model 2013)

Answer:

Question 30.
A portion of DNA molecule is shown below. Find out the missing nitrogen base pair from those given below. (Model 2012)

Answer:
(b) C – G

Question 31.
The fusing of gametes during self-pollination of F1 in pea plants with two separate characters combined together were tabulated; (Model 2012)

A) Fill up the blanks.
B) How many white-flowered plants will be formed if 16 pea plants in F₂ generation were produced?
Answer;
A) (a) TtRR
(b) Ttrr
(c) ttRR
(d) ttrr
B) 4

Question 32.
Given below is the illustration showing how sex determination is taking place in man. (March 2012)

a) Observe the illustration and examine the 4 types of possible offsprings. Specify their sex chromosomes.
b) What are the inferences you arrive at from this illustration?
c) What is the probable ratio of formation of male child and female children in man ? Illustrate your answer.
d) Which are the sex-determining chromosomes in man?
Answer:
a) (i) and (iii) are female children having XX chromosomes
(ii) and (iv) are male children having XY chromosomes
b) The sex chromosomes of male determine the sex of a child. The probability of formation of male and female children is almost equal (1:1)
c) 1: 1
d) Male XY and female XX.

Question 33.
Using given indicators, construct RNA nucleotide and anyone DNA nucleotide. (March 2012)

Answer:

Unraveling Genetic Mysteries Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Find the word pair relationship and fill in the blanks appropriately. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) DNA: Thymine
RNA:……………..
b) Adenine: Thymine
Guanine:…………………
c) The character which is expressed: dominant
The character which remains hidden:……………
Answer:
a) Uracil
b) Cytosine
c) Recessive character

Question 2.
Given below are certain indicators exhibited by Anu in her slide presentation while conducting seminar on the topic ” Emergence of Genetics”. What explanations would you give for these indicators?
a) Heredity
b) Variation
c) Genetics
d) The father of Genetics
Answer:
a) Transmission of features of parent to offspring.
b) Features seen in offspring that are different from their parents.
c) The branch of science that deals with heredity and variation.
d) Gregor John Mendel

Question 3.
The note prepared by Shahana on Mendel’s inferences during the classroom analysis of Mendel’s hybridization experiment in pea plants, based on a single trait is given below. Analyze the statements in the note and correct those that are wrong ones.
a) A trait is controlled by a specific factor.
b) A character is expressed and the other remains hidden in the first generation.
c) The character that remains hidden, in the first generation does not appear in the second generation.
d) The ratio of characters in the second generation is 3: 1
Answer:
a) One trait is controlled by the combination of two factors.
b) The characters that remain hidden in the first generation appears in the second generation.

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks in the illustration given below. (Question Pool -2017)

Answer:
A) tt
B) t
C) Tt
D) dwarf

Question 5.
Complete the flowchart illustrating the location of gene by using the information given in the box: (Question Pool – 2017)
nucleus, gene, DNA, cell, chromosome

Answer:
A – Cell
B – Nucleus
C – Chromosome
D – DNA

Question 6.
Analyze the article and answer the questions. The experiments performed by Gregor John Mendel in pea plants led to the emergence of a new branch of science that has today grown and expanded to a great extent. This branch of science has untravelled several mysteries regarding the similarities and variations found in the characters of organisms. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Which branch of science does the article refer to?
b) List out any 4 traits selected by Mendel for performing hybridization in pea plants.
Answer:
a) Genetics
b) Height, colour of the seed, colour of the flower, shape of the seed, color of the fruit, shape of the pod

Question 7.
Observe the illustration given below and answer the questions. (Question Pool-2017)

a) Identify the dominant character
b) How does the parental plant with green colored seed and the plant in the first generation differ in their alleles.
c) Describe alleles.
Answer:
a) Green
b) Alleles in parental plant – G, G Allele in the first generation – G, g
c) Different forms of a gene

Question 8.
Fill in the blanks in the illustration related to chromosomes in man. (Question Pool-2017)

Answer:
A) Autosomes
B) 2
C) XY

Question 9.
Identify the word pair relationship and fill in the blanks: (Question Pool -2017)
Female : 44 + XX
Male: …………….
Answer:
44 + XY

Question 10.
Fill in the blanks in the illustration. (Question Pool-2017)

Answer:
A. ggww
B. GW
C. Green colored round seed

Question 11.
The indicators given below are about the plant in the first generation formed as a result of the hybridization between a tall plant with red flowers and a dwarf plant with white flowers. (Question Pool-2017)

a) Identify the alleles in the plant related to the trait ’tallness’.
b) Identify the gametes formed from this plant.
Answer:
a) T, t

Question 12.
Complete the illustration of the second generation obtained from the hybridization in which two traits of a plant are considered. (Question Pool-2017)
Indicators:
Dominant character – Tallness, red color of flower Recessive character – Dwarfness, white color of flower

Answer:
A. TTRr
B. TtRr
C.TTRr
D. TtRr
E. TtRr
F. ttRR
G. ttRr
H. TtRr

Question 13.

Given below are some of the offspring obtained by self-pollinating the above plant. Analyze the offspring and answer the questions.
a) ttRr
b) ttRR
c) TTrr
d) ttrr
i) Identify the dominant characters in each of the offspring?
ii) What explanation would you give for the expression of characters in the offspring which were hidden in the parental plant?
Answer:
i. a) dwarf, red flower
b) dwarf, red flower
c) tall, white flower
d) dwarf, white flower
ii. The expression of characters in the offsprings which were hidden in the parental plant is due to the independent assortment of each character.

Question 14.
Analyze the illustration of a nucleotide molecule and answer the questions. (Question Pool-2017)

a) Identify A and B in the illustration.
b) ‘Nucleotides are found in DNA alone’. What is your opinion regarding these statements? Substantiate.
Answer:
a) A – Phosphate
B – Sugar
b) 1. does not agree
2. Like DNA, RNA is also made up of nucleotides

Question 15.
Genes which are the specific units of DNA control the metabolic activities and are also responsible for specific characters. They control the process of protein synthesis. Binu has a doubt on the above note. (Question Pool – 2017)
‘Does the RNA have no role in protein synthesis?’ What explanation would you give to Binu’s doubt? Substantiate.
Answer:

• RNA has role
• DNA is not directly involved in protein synthesis
• mRNA is formed from DNA.
• mRNA that carries information from DNA, controls the protein synthesis
• tRNA carries amino acids to ribosomes
• rRNA associated with ribosomes also have a role in protein synthesis.

Question 16.
The components and features of nucleic acid are given below. Analyze them and complete the table. (Question Pool-2017)
a) ribose sugar
b) double helical shape
c) Uracil
d) one strand
e) deoxyribose sugar
f) thymine

Answer:

Question 17.
Observe the nucleotide strands given below and answer the questions. (Question Pool-2017)

a) Identify the strand that is found in DNA only.
b) Identify the strand that can be found in both DNA and RNA.
c) What is a nucleotide?
Answer:
a) B
b) A
c) A unit of sugar, phosphate and nitrogen base / Component of nucleic acid

Question 18.
The stages in the process of protein synthesis are given below. Prepare a flowchart using the stages. (Question Pool-2017)
a) tRNA carries different kinds of amino acids to the ribosome.
b) mRNA reaches outside the nucleus.
c) mRNA forms from DNA
d) Amino acids are added based on the information in mRNA
e) mRNA reaches ribosome.
f) Proteins are synthesized.
Answer:
c → b → e → a → d → f

Question 19.
A part of the article. Variations in ourself is given below: The features seen in offspring that are different form their parents are called variations. Certain processes taking place in the initial phase of meiosis are responsible for such variations. (Question Pool-2017)
a) Which process, as mentioned in the article, is responsible for variations?
b) How does this process bring about variations?
Answer:
a) Crossing over of chromosomes
b) 1. Part of a DNA crosses over to become the part of another DNA.
2. This causes difference in the distributions of genes
3. When these chromosomes are transferred to the next generation, new characters are expressed.

Question 20.
The process of crossing over of chromosomes that takes place in the initial phase of meiosis is illustrated below. Analyse-it and answer the questions. (Question Pool – 2017)

a) Arrange the stages appropriately.
b) This process brings about variations in offspring. How?
Answer:
a) C, A, B
b) 1. Part of a DNA crosses Over to become the part of another DNA.
2. This causes difference in the distributions of genes.
3. When these chromosomes are transferred to the next generation, new characters are expressed.

Question 21.
Given below is an illustration regarding sex determination Observe the illustration and answer the questions. (Question Pool-2017)

a) Complete A, B, C in the illustration.
b) What is the possibility of the formation of a male child or a female child? Explain.
Answer:
a) A) 44 + XY
B) 22 + X
C) 22+ Y
b) Equal chance. The number of male gametes with X chromosome and those with Y chromosome are equal.
Egg with the X chromosome has equal chance to combine with sperm having Y chromosome and those having X chromosome.

Question 22.
The practice of blaming those mothers who give birth to girl children exists even today. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) As a science student, how will you respond to this situation? Substantiate.
Answer:

• No, it is wrong to blame the mother
• The possibility of the birth of male or female child is equal.
• The gender of the child is determined by the XY chromosome of the father.

Question 23.
The chromosomes from the father determine whether the child is male or female. Evaluate this statement on a scientific basis. (Question Pool-2017)
Answer:
Males have 2 types of sex chromosomes. (X, Y) Females have only one type of sex chromosome (X, X) Sex determination is based on the type of male gamete that fuses with the egg. If the male gamete with Y chromosome fuses with the egg, then male child is born, if the male gamete with X chromosome fuses with the egg, then female child is born.

Question 24.
Given below is a placard exhibited in a school rally organized ‘Against Racism’. It is not racial difference that makes the skin color different;
This is an adaptation to live under the sun.
a) How ; will you. explain the difference in skin color of people living in different parts of the world?
b) What attitude should be adopted by a scientifically enlightened society towards the idea in the placard? Substantiate.
Answer:
a) 1. Melanin, a pigment-protein imparts color to skin.
2. It is due to the difference in gene function,
b) 1. Skin color is an adaptation to live under the sun.
2. Races among making are only cultural.
3. Scientifically, all men are of the same race.
4. Consider all men as equal, without any racial difference.

Question 25.
Vipin wrote the following as situations that create variations in organisms. Choose the right ones. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Mutation
b) Formation of mRNA
c) Crossing over of chromosomes
d) Action of rRNA
Answer:
a) Mutation
c) Crossing over of chromosomes

Question 26.
The components of nucleic acids are given below. Answer the questions through illustrations using these components: (Question Pool – 2017)

a) Illustrate the nucleotide which is found only in RNA.
b) Illustrate the nucleotide which is found only in DNA.
Answer:

Question 27.
Analyze the nitrogen bases given below and write the nitrogen base pairs found in DNA. (Question Pool-2017)

Answer:
Thymine – Adenine.
Guanine – Cytosine

Question 28.
‘Gene itself is allele; allele itself is gene. (Question Pool – 2017)
Answer:
Statement is party correct.
Each character is controlled by pair factors called genes.
Different forms of a gene are called alleles. Generally, a gene has two alleles. ,
Alleles can be of the same type (TT) or different types (Tt).
If the alleles are of different types, only one trait represented by anyone of the alleles get expressed.

Question 29.
Offsprings may vary in characters from their parents.
a) What are reasons of this variation in the light of genetics?
b) How does the changes take place during meiosis cause variations in next generation?
c) How does the chemical substances and the radiations cause variation in characters?
Answer:
a) Crossing over and mutations.
b) When a part of a particular DNA become the part of another DNA, the sequencing of nucleotides in the DNA become differs and hence variation may occur in the offsprings.
c) Mutation may occur due to chemicals and radiations.

Question 30.
Observe the illustration related to Mendel’s experiment based on two contrasting characters.
a) Complete the illustration appropriately

b) What are the characters observed in the second generation?
Answer:

b) Tall with red flowers = 9
Tall with white flower = 3
Dwarf with red flowers = 3
Dwarf with white flowers = 1

Question 31.
The different stages of protein synthesis given below. Rearrange them appropriately. (Orukkam – 2017)
a) tRNA carries different types of amino acids.
b) mRNA come out from the nucleus.
c) mRNA is formed from DNA.
d) Amino acids are joined together based on the messages in mRNA.
e) mRNA reaches in ribosome.
f) Protein is synthesized.
Answer:
c → b → e → a → d → f

Question 32.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below. (Orukkam – 2017)

a) Name the process shown in the figure.
b) Write the importance of this process.
Answer:
a) Crossing over
b) Causes variation

Question 33.
Write the role of mRNA and tRNA in protein synthesis. (Orukkam – 2017)
Answer:
mRNA carries messages for protein synthesis from DNA to the ribosomes.
tRNA carries amino acids to ribosomes according to the message in the mRNA.

Question 34.
What is mutation? Write the reasons? (Orukkam – 2017)
Answer:
Mutation is a sudden heritable change occur in the genetic material (chromosomes)
Reasons: – Radiations, chemicals, changes in the replication of DNA.