Class 10

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SSLC Maths Chapter 5 Trigonometry Questions and Answers Malayalam Medium

SCERT 10th Standard Maths Textbook Chapter 5 Solutions Malayalam Medium

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SCERT 10th Standard Chemistry Textbook Chapter 6 Solutions Malayalam Medium

You can Download Reflection of Light Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

SSLC Physics Chapter 4 Reflection of Light Textbook Questions and Answers

SCERT Class 10th Standard Physics Chapter 4 Reflection of Light Solutions

Text Book Page No. 80

Sslc Physics Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.

→ Which is the incident ray?
Answer:
AO

→ Which is the reflected ray?
Answers:
QB

→ Is there any relation between the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection?
Answer:
The angle of incidence and angle of reflection are equal.

→ Are the incident ray, reflected ray and normal to the mirror at the point of incidence in the different planes?
Answer:
In the same plane.

Reflection Of Light Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 2.

→ What difference is seen between the surfaces of the two objects?
Answer:
In the first figure the surface is smooth, in the second figure surface is rough.

→ Fig. 4.2(b) are the rays of light travelling parallel after reflection?
Answer:
No. When light falls on a rough surface, it undergoes an irregular reflection. This is scattered reflection.

Reflection of Light Class 10 Question 3.
In Fig. 4.2(a) regular reflection is depicted. Can you give a definition for such reflections by observing the figure?
Answer:
When light falls on a smooth surface, it undergoes an regular reflection, the rays of light travelling parallel after reflection This is regular reflection.

Text Book Page No. 81

Sslc Physics Chapter 4 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Record in your science diary the following features about the images formed here.

→ The distance from the mirror to the object and the image from the mirror.
Answer: Equal

→ Is the image real or virtual?
Answer: Virtual

→ The size of the image.
Answer:
Same size as object.

Sslc Physics Reflection Of Light Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
How many images can we see at a time busying two mirrors?
Answer:
The number of images changes accordance with the relation between the angle between the mirrors.

Text Book Page No. 82

Sslc Physics Chapter 4 Reflection Of Light Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Table 4.1.

Answer:

→ How many images can be seen when viewed from A and B?
Answer:
3

→ What if viewed from other positions in between the mirrors?
Answer:
3

→ How much is the angle between the mirrors?
Answer:
90°

→ What is the relation between the angle between the mirrors and the number of images?
Answer:
Number of images = \(n=\frac{360}{\theta}-1\)

Class 10 Physics Chapter 4 Reflection Of Light Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Table 4.2.

Answer:

Text Book Page No. 83

Class 10 Physics Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 8.

Answer:

Text Book Page No. 84

Sslc Physics Chapter 4 Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Draw a straight line on a table as shown in the figure. At one end of the line, place a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. Mark principal focus (F) and center of curvature (C) on the line.

Fix a burning candle on the principal focus in such a way that it is at a slight distance from the center of curvature. Arrange a screen in such a way that a clear image is obtained on the screen.

→ What is the position and features of the image?
Answer:
Between F and C, small, real, inverted.

→ Observe the change in position of image and features on changing the position of the candle
Answer:

Physics Chapter 4 Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Table 4.4.

Answer:

Physics Class 10 Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
Aren’t the focal length of \(\frac{u v}{u+v}\) the mirror and the average value of obtained from the table the same?
Answer:
Yes

Text Book Page No. 85

Sslc Physics Chapter 4 Reflection Of Light Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Record the measurements shown in the figure (4.6) using the New Cartesian Sign Convention.

→ Distance to the object from the mirror (u) =
Answer:
Negative.

→ Distance to the image from the mirror (v) =
Answer:
Negative.

→ Height of object (OB) =
Answer:
Positive.

→ Height of image (IM) =
Answer:
Negative.

Text Book Page No. 86

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Physics Chapter 4 Question 13.
The given figure shows the image formation by a concave mirror. Analyse the figure and write down different measures using New Cartesian Sign Convention.

Answer:

Sslc Physics Chapter 4 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
An object is placed in front of a concave mirror 20 cm away from it. If its focal length is 40 cm, locate the position of image and its nature.
Answer:
f = – 40 cm, u = – 20 cm
f = \(\frac { uv }{ u+v }\)
– 40 = \(\frac { – 20 }{ – 20 + v }\)
– 40 ( – 20 + v ) = – 20 v
– 20 + v = \(\frac { – 20 }{ – 40 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ v }\)
– 20 = [/latex] = \(\frac { v }{ 2 }\) – v = – \(\frac { v }{ 2 }\)
∴ – \(\frac { v }{ 2 }\) = – 20
v = 40 cm
Features of image:
At behind the mirror, very large, virtual, direct.

10th Physics Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Find out the height of object (ho), height of image (hi), position of object(u) and position of image (v) using New Cartesian Sign Convention and tabulate them. (The height of image hi can be directly measured by fixing a graph paper on the screen).
Answer:

Text Book Page No. 87

Physics Class 10 Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
\(\frac{h_{i}}{h_{o}}\) is magnification. Does it have any relational with the value of \(\frac{v}{u}\) ?
Answer:
\(m=\frac{-h_{i}}{h_{o}}=\frac{-v}{u}\)

Text Book Page No. 88

Question 17.
An object is placed 8 cm away in front of a concave mirror of focal length 5 cm. Find out the position of image and magnification. Find out whether the image is inverted or erect by drawing the ray diagram on a graph paper.
Answer:
f = – 5 cm, u = – 8 cm

Features of images : Beyond C, big, real, inverted

Question 18.
What are the features of an image that is obtained from magnification?
Answer:

• When magnification is 1, the size of the image and the size of the object are equal.
• When magnification is more than 1, the size of the image is greater than the size of the object.
• When magnification is less than 1, the size of the image is smaller than the size of the object.
• When the magnification is positive, image is real and inverted.
• When the magnification is negative, image is virtual and erect.

Question 19.
Observe the given figures and complete the table using New Cartesian Sign Convention.

Answer:

Text Book Rage No. 89

Question 20.

From the above table, find out which mirror always gives an erect and diminished image and write it down.
Answer:
The image formed by a convex mirror is always erect and diminished.

Question 21.
Why it is written on rearview mirrors that “Objects in the mirror are closer than they appear”.
Answer:
The image formed by a convex mirror is always erect and diminished. Hence the driver who sees the image of vehicles on the mirror develops a feeling that the vehicles coming from behind are at a greater distance. This may turn out to be dangerous.

Reflection of Light Let Us Assess

Question 1.
A dental doctor uses a mirror of focal length 8 cm. To see the teeth clearly what should be the maximum distance between the teeth and the mirror? Justify your answer. Which type of mirror has been used by the doctor?
Answer:
The dental doctor uses a concave mirror. Effect and enlarged image can be obtained using the mirror. Such images are formed when the object is kept in between the main focus and pole of a concave mirror. So the minimum distance between the mirror and the teeth must be in 8 cm to view the teeth clearly.

Question 2.
Imagine that a spherical mirror gives an image magnified 5 times at a distance 5 m. If so determine whether the mirror is concave or convex. How much will be the focal length of the mirror?
Answer:

Image formed is larger than the object, so the used mirror is concave.

Question 3.
A motorcyclist observes a car coining from behind with a magnification 1/6. If the actual distance between the car and the bike is 30 m calculate the radius of curvature of the mirror.
Answer:

Question 4.
A shaving mirror of focal length 72 cm is kept in a beauty clinic. A man uses it standing 18 cm away from the mirror. At what distance will the image be formed? Is the image real or virtual? What is the magnification of the image?
Answer:
f =-72 cm, u = -18cm

Image formed on the 24 cm away from the mirror. Virtual image.
Magnification.
m = \(\frac{-v}{u}=-\frac{24}{18}\) = – 1.33
This is a concave mirror.

Question 5.
Wrap a rubber ball of diameter 12 cm completely with an aluminum foil and make the surfaces smooth. Where will be the image of an object kept 12 cm away from the center of the ball? Is the image real or virtual?
Answer:
Surface of a rubber ball is similar to a convex mirror.
Diameter = 12 cm
⇒ Radius = 6 cm
2f = R
f = \(\frac { R }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 2 }\) = 3 cm
u = \(\frac { 12 }{ 2 }\) = 6 cm

Mirror is a convex, so image is virtual.

Question 6.
We are able to read a book since light falling on a surface gets reflected from the book and reaches the eye. But on such occasions, we cannot see our images like that from a mirror. Explain why?
Answer:
Irregular reflection takes place in the book. So images not formed.

Question 7.
Is the image formed by a plane mirror real or virtual? Write an instance when such a mirror gives an inverted image.
Answer:
Image formed by a plane mirror is always direct and virtual. The image will be at the same distance at the object.

If the objects placed erect as shown in the figure then the image will be inverted.

Reflection of Light Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions (Score 1)

Question 1.
1. Classify the following statements as to those related to concave mirrors and convex mirrors and tabulate them accordingly.
a. to view the face.
b. as makeup mirror.
c. as reviewer mirrors in vehicles.
d. in solar concentration.
e. in periscopes.
f. as shaving mirror.
Answer:
Concave mirror:

• In solar concentration.
• Makeup mirror.
• Shaving mirror.

Convex mirror:

• In rearview mirrors of vehicles.
• In Searchlights.

Plane mirror:

• In periscopes.
• To see face.

Question 2.
Find out the relation and All in the blanks.
Small, virtual and direct images:
Convex mirror.
Size same as object, virtual and direct image :………………
Answer:
Plane mirror.

Question 3.
Which mirror gives rectifiable whatever the distance between the object and mirror is
i. Plane mirror.
ii. Convex mirror.
iii. Concave mirror.
iv. Plane or convex mirror.
Answer:
Plane or convex mirror.

Question 4.
Relation between angle of incidence (i) and angle of reflection (r) of light is………..
i. i > r
ii. i < r
iii. i = r
iv. None of these
Answer:
iii. i = r

Question 5.
Find the odd one in the group.
More scattered reflection, virtual image, direct image, large image
Answer:
Large image.

Very Short Answer Type Questions (Score 2)

Question 6.
Radius of curvature of a concave mirror is 24 cm. Then find the focal length of the mirror?
Answer:
R = 24 cm
f = \(\frac{R}{2}=\frac{24}{2}\) = 12 cm

Question 7.
Find the radius of curvature of a convex mirror whose focal length is 0.6 m.
Answer:
f = \(\frac{\mathrm{R}}{2}\)
∴ R=2f
0.6 = \(\frac{R}{2}\)
R = 2 × 0.6 = 1.2 m

Question 8.
Write the characteristics of the image formed by an object placed at the center of curvature of a concave mirror?
Answer:
Position: At the center of curvature at the same side
Size: Same as the size of the object
Nature: Real, Inverted

Question 9.
i. Which are the different types of mirror?
ii. What are the peculiarities are images obtained in the face mirror?
Answer:
i. Convex, concave and plane mirror.
ii. Image will be formed behind the mirror and will be equal distance from the mirror to the object. It will be direct and virtual.

Question 10.
State whether the below-given statement are true or false. If false correct them.
i. Real images are always produced by concave mirror.
ii. The image formed from a convex mirror is direct and enlarged.
Answer:
i. False. If the position of object is between focus and pole, virtual image is produced by concave mirror.
ii.False. The image formed by convex mirror will be smaller than the object and erect.

Very Short Answer Type Questions (Score 3)

Question 11.
Write three differences of real image and virtual image which is made by spherical mirrors.
Answer:
Real images:

• Inverted.
• Can be shown on a screen.
• Can measure the length of the image and distance to the image.

Virtual images:

• Cannot be taken on a screen.
• Not able to be measured direct.

Question 12.
Write the uses of concave mirror?
Answer:

• Used as a shaving mirror.
• Used as a makeup mirror.
• Doctors used as head mirrors.
• On film projectors.

Question 13.

a. Examine the figure and find the magnification.
b. What is the height of the object if height of the image is 4 cm when the object is placed on the same position in front of the mirror.
Answer:
a. Magnification = \(=\frac{\mathrm{hi}}{\mathrm{ho}}=\frac{– 10}{5}=– 2\)

Question 14.
Write the uses of convex mirror?
Answer:

• As reflectors in street lights.
• As rear view mirrors in vehicles.
• In searchlights.

Question 15.
Examine the position of the object given in the figure and table the following peculiarities.

a. Position of image.
b. Size of image.
c. Features of image.
Answer:
a.Behind the mirror.
b.Larger than obj etc.
c. Direct, virtual.

Question 16.
When an object of height 4 cm is placed in front of a concave mirror an image of height 8 cm is formed. Find the magnification.
Answer:
Magnification
hi = 4 cm, ho =  – 8 cm
Magnification m = \(\frac { hi }{ h0 }\) = \(\frac { –8 }{ 4 }\) = – 2

Very Short Answer Type Questions (Score 4)

Question 17.
Complete the table.

Answer:
a. Passes through principal focus.
b.Seem to come from the principal focus.
c, d. Returns parallel to the principal axis.
e, f. Returns through the same path.
g, h. Reflects in the same angle of incident ray.

Question 18.
Complete the ray diagram.


Answer:

Question 19.
Complete the table.

Answer:
a. 30°
b. 40°
c. 50°
d. 60°

Question 20.
An object of 5 cm is kept in front of a convex mirror having radius of curvature 30 cm at a distance of 10 cm. Calculate the position, size, and feature of object.
Answer:
u = – 10 cm
v = ?
Focal length = \(\frac{r}{2}=\frac{30}{2}\) = + 15 cm

The image is formed 60cm behind the concave mirror. The’ image will be virtual and direct.

You can Download Geometry and Algebra Questions and Answers, Activity, Notes PDF, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 9 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

SSLC Maths Chapter 9 Geometry and Algebra Textbook Questions and Answers

SCERT Class 10th Standard Maths Chapter 9 Geometry and Algebra Notes

Textbook Page No. 213

Geometry and Algebra Class 10 Solutions Question 1.
What are the coordinates of the fourth vertex of the parallelogram shown on the right?

Answer:
Coordinate of the fourth vertex is = (6, 6)

Geometry and Algebra Class 10 Question 2.
The Figure shows a parallelogram with the coordinates of its vertices:
Prove that x₁ + x₃ = x₂ + x₄ and y₁ + y₃ = y₂ + y₄.

Answer:
Let P be the; point of intersection of diagonals of a parallelogram, which is the midpoint of AB and OC.

From eqn (1)
Comparing y coordinates

Geometry And Algebra Class 10 Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
A parallelogram is drawn with the lines joining (x₁, y₁) aid (x_2, y₂) to the origin as adjacent sides. What are the coordinates of the fourth vertex?

Answer:
Coordinates of the fourth vertex = (x₁ + x₂, y₁ + y₂)
Let P be the point of intersection of diago¬nals of a parallelogram, which is the midpoint of AB and OC.

Sslc Maths Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Prove that in any parallelogram, the sum of the squares of all sides is equal to the sum of the squares of the diagonals.
Answer:

OA² + OB² = x₁² + y₁²  + x₂²  + y₂²
OA = BC and OB = AC
OA² + OB² + OC² + AC² = 2(x₁² + y₁² + x₂² + y₂² )
AB² = (x₂ – x₁ )² + (y₂ – y₁ )²
OC² = (x₁ – x₂)² + (y₂ – y₃)²
OB² + OC² = 2(x₁² + x₂² + y₁² + y₂²)
OA² + OB² + AC² + BC² = AB² + OC²

Sslc Maths Geometry And Algebra Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
In this picture, the midpoints of the sides of the large triangle are joined to make a small triangle inside. Calculate the coordinates of die vertices of the large triangle.
Answer:

textbook page no: 217

Sslc Geometry And Algebra Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
A circle is drawn with the line joining (2, 3) and (6, 5) as diameter. What are the coordinates of the centre of the circle?
Answer:
Midpoint of the line joining (2, 3) and (6, 5) is

Sslc Maths Chapter 9 Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
The coordinates of two opposite vertices of a parallelogram are (4, 5) and (1, 3). What are the coordinates of the point of intersection of its diagonals?
Answer:
Midpoint of line joining the points (4, 5) and (1, 3) is

The coordinates of the point of intersec¬tion of its diagonal is (3, 4).

Geometry And Algebra Class 10 Solutions Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
The coordinates of the vertices of a quadrilateral, taken in order, are (2, 1), (5, 3), (8, 7), (4, 9).
i. Find the coordinates of the midpoints of all four sides.
ii. Prove that the quadrilateral got by joining these midpoints is a parallelogram.
Answer:


Since the opposite sides of the quadrilateral PQRS are equal it is a parallelogram.

Geometry And Algebra Sslc Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
In the figure, the midpoints of the large quadrilateral are joined to form the small quadrilateral within:
i. Find the coordinates of the fourth vertex of the smaller quadrilateral.
ii. Find the coordinates of the other three vertices of the larger quadrilateral.

Answer:

Midpoint of AB is P

Coordinate of the fourth vertex of smaller quadrilateral -(6, 2)
ii. Coordinates of other three vertices of the bigger quadrilateral (10, 3),(8, 7),(4, 5)

Geometry And Algebra Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
The coordinates of the vertices of a triangle are (3, 5), (9, 13), (10, 6). Prove that this triangle is isosceles. Calculate its area.
Answer:
IfA (3, 5), B (9, 13), C(10, 6)
are the vertices of the triangle ABC

As BC = AC the triangle is an isosceles triangle

Geometry And Algebra Class 10 Pdf Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
The centre of a circle is (1, 2) and a point on it is (3, 2). Find the coordinates of the other end of the diameter through this point
Answer:
Midpoint of the diameter

textbook Page no: 220

Geometry And Algebra Class 10 Questions And Answers Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus  Question 1.
The coordinates of the points A and Bare (3, 2) and (8, 7). Find the coordinates of
i. the point P on AB with AP: PB = 2 : 3
ii. the point Q on AB with AQ: QB = 3: 2
Answer:

Geometry And Algebra Class 10 Scert Chapter 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Find the coordinates of the points which divide the line joining (1, 6) and (5, 2) into three equal parts.
Answer:

Coordinate of Q is \(\left(\frac{11}{3}, \frac{10}{3}\right)\)

Algebra Solutions Question 3. The coordinates of the vertices of a triangle are (-1, 5), (3, 7), (1, 1). Find the coordinates of its centroid.
Answer:
Centroid of the triangle

Question 4.
Calculate the coordinates of the point Pin the picture:

Answer:
Bisector of an angle divides the opposite side in the ratio of the sides containing the angle.

So, the coordinates of the point P which divides the line joining (4, 0) and (0, 3) in the ratio 4 : 3.
BP : PC = 4 : 3, so coordinate of P is Coordinate of x \(=4+\frac{4}{7}(0-4)=4-\frac{16}{7}=\frac{12}{7}\)
Coordinate of y \(=0+\frac{4}{7}(3-0)=0+\frac{12}{7}=\frac{12}{7}\)
\(\text { Coordinate of } P \text { is }\left(\frac{12}{7}, \frac{12}{7}\right)\)

Textbook Page No. 227

Question 1.
Prove that the points (1, 3), (2, 5), (3, 7) are on the same line.
Answer:
Coordinates of slope of a line, which joins the points (1, 3) and (2, 5) = \(\frac{5-3}{2-1}=2\)
Slope of a line, which joins the points (2, 5) and (3, 7) \(=\frac{7-5}{3-2}=2\)
both have same slope, so they make equal angles with the x-axis.
∴ They all lie on the same line.

Algebra 10th Standard Question 2. Find the coordinates of two more points on the line joining (-1, 4) and (1, 2).
Answer:
Change in x is 2 and y is -2
When change in x be 1 then change in y = \(\frac{-2}{2}=-1\)
Let change in x be 1 then change in y will be 3.
Coordinate of y = 4 + 3 x – 1 = 1
Point (2, 1)
Let change in x be 3 then change in ywillbe 4.
∴ Coordinate of y = 4 + 4 x – 1 = 0
∴ Point (3, 0)
Two points are (2, 1), (3, 0)

Question 3.
x₁, x₂, x₃, ……… and y₁, y₂, y₃, …….. are arithmetic sequences. Prove that all the points with coordinates in the sequence (x₁, y₁), (x₂, y₂), (x₃, y₃) ……… of number pairs are on the same line.
Answer:
If the line which contains the points (x₁, y₁), (x₃, y₃) also contains (x, y), then

Therefore, (x₁, y₁), (x₂, y₂) …………. will be in the same line

Question 4.
Prove that If the points (x₁, y₁), (x₂, y₂), (x₃, y₃) are on a single line, then the points (3x₁ + 2y₁, 3x₁ – 1y₁), (3x₂ + 2y₂, 3x₂ – 2y₂), (3x₃ + 2y₃, 3x₃ – 2y₃) are also on a single line. Would this be true if we take some other numbers instead of 3 and 2?
Answer:


Yes it is possible.

Textbook Page no: 231

Question 1.
Find the equation of the line joining (1, 2) and (2, 4). For points on this line with consecutive natural numbers 3, 4, 5, ……… as the x coordinates, what is the sequence of y coordinates?
Answer:
Equation of line joining the points (1, 2), (2, 4)

Question 2.
Find the equation of the line joining (–1, 3) and (2, 5). Prove that if the point (x, y) is on this line, so is the point (x+3, y+2).
Answer:

Question 3.
Prove that whatever number we take as, the point (x, 2x + 3) is a point on the line joining (–1, 1) and (2, 7).
Answer:

= \(\frac{2 x+3-7}{x-2}=\frac{2 x-4}{x-2}=2\)
The slopes are same hence die point (x, 2x+3) is passing through the points (–1, 1), (2, 7)

Question 4.
The x coordinate of a point on the slanted (blue) line is 3:
i. What it its y coordinates?
ii. What is the slope of the line?
iii. Write the equation of the line.

Answer:
As we get a right triangle on joining die three points’, with angles 30 : 60: 90 and ratio of their sides 1 : √3: 2

Question 5.
In the picture here, ABCD is a square. Prove that for any point on the diagonal BD, the sum of the x and coordinates is zero.

Answer:
B(2, -2), D(-2, 2) are the vertices of the diagonal BD: Sum of x,y coordinates of B = 2 + –2 = 0
Sum of x,y coordinates of D = –2 + 2 = 0
If (x, y)is a point on BD, then

Question 6.
Prove that for any point on the line intersecting the axes in the picture, the sum of the x and y coordinates is 3.

Answer:

∴ the sum of the and y coordinates of the point is 3.

Question 7.
Find the equation of the circle with center at the origin and radius 5. Write the coordinates of eight points on this circle.
Answer:
Equation of the circle
= (x – 0)² + (y – 0)² = 5²
= x² + y² = 25
x² = 25 – y²
x = \(=\sqrt{25-y^{2}}\)
y = 0 x = 5 (5, 0), (–5, 0)
y = 5 x = 0 (0, 5), (0, –5)
y = 3 x = 4 (4, 3), (4, 3)
y = 4 x = 3 (3, 4), (3, –4)
Coordinates of points on the circle
(5, 0), (–5, 0), (0, 5), (0, -5), (4, 3), (4, 3), (3, 4), (3, 4).

Question 8.
Prove that if (x, y) be a point on the circle with the line joining (0, 1) and (2, 3) as diameter, then x² + y² – 2x – 4y + 3 = 0. Find the coordinates of the points where this circle cuts they axis.
Answer:
As (0, 1), (2, 3) are the points joining the diameter of the circle, the center will be

Let (x, 0) be the coordinate which intersect
the x axis then, x² – 2x +3=0
\(x=\frac{2 \pm \sqrt{4-12}}{2}=\frac{2 \pm \sqrt{-8}}{2}\)
This circle can not be intersect the x axis. Let (0, y) be the coordinate which intersect the y axis then, y² – 4y + 3 = 0,
(y – 3)(y – 1) = 0 Coordinates are (0, 1) and (0, 3)

Question 9.
What is the equation of the circle shown here?

Answer:

Geometry and Algebra Orukkam Questions & Answers

Worksheet 1

Question 1.
If A(2, –1), B(3, 4), C(–2, 3) are the vertices of a triangle find the fourth vertex.
Answer:
Difference between x coordinates of A and B = 3 – 2 = 1, Coordinate of y = 4 + 1 = 5
x coordinates of D = –2 – 1 = -3
y coordinates of D = 3 – 5 = –2
Coordinates of D = (–3, –2)

Question 2.
In triangle ABC (4, 2) is the midpoint of AB. The midpoint of BC is (5, 4), the midpoint of AC is (3, 3). Find the vertices of the triangle.
Answer:

2x² = 12
∴ x² = 6
∴ y² = 3
From(1) y₁ = 4 – 3 = 1
x = 8 – 6 = 2, y₃ = 6 – 1 = 5
From(3) x₃ = 6 – 2 = 4 ,
Coordinates of A, B and C A(2, 1), B(6, 3), C(4, 5)

Question 3.
If A(2, –2), B(14, 10), C(11, 13) are the three vertices of a parallelogram ABC D write the coordinates of the fourth vertex
Answer:
A(2, –2), B(14, 10), C(11, 13).
Difference of x coordinates of A and B = 14 – 2 = 12.
x coordinate of D = 11 – 12 = 1.
Difference of y coordinates of A and B= 10 – (–2) = 12
y coordinates of D =13 – 12 = 1
Coordinates of D = (–1, 1)

Worksheet 2

Question 4.
Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line joining(4, –3), (9, 7) in the
Answer:

Question 5.
Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the line joining the points(1, –2), (–3, 4)
Answer:
Coordinates of midpoint =

Question 6.
The points A(6, 1), B(8, 2), C(9, 4), D(p, 3) are the vertices of a parallelogram. Find the value of p using the concept that the diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.
Answer:

The x coordinate of O using the concept that the diagonals of a parallelogram bisect

Question 7.
One end of the diameter of a circle is (1, 4). The center of the circle is (3, –4). Find the coordinates of other end
Answer:
One end of the diameter = (x₁, y₁) = (1, 4)
Center of the circle = (x, y) =(3, -4)
If other end of the diameter = (x₂, y₂)

Other end of the diameter (5 – 12)

Question 8.
Find the coordinates of the points P and Q which trisect the line joining (2, –3), and (4, –1) P,Q
Answer:

P can divide the line which joins the points (2, –3),(4, –1)in the ratio of 1 : 2

Question 9.
Prove thatA(6, 4), B(5, –2), C(7, –2) are the vertices of an isosceles triangle. If D is the midpoint of the side BC ,find the coordinates of D. Calculate the length of this median. Also, find the coordinates of centroid
Answer:

Worksheet 3

Question 10.
A-line makes an angle 45° with x-axis.Find the slope of the line
Answer:
Slope of the line = tan 45° = 1

Question 11.
The points on a line are (–1, 1), (3, 1), (5, 1)What is the angle made by this line with x-axis? What is the slope of this line
Answer:
This line is parallel to the x-axis so the slope is 0.

Question 12.
Find the slope of the line passing through (1, –3) (3, –5).
Answer:
Slope = \(\frac{-5+3}{3-1}=\frac{-2}{2}=1\)

Question 13.
A line passing through a point at a distance 4 from the right of origin on x-axis. If (3, –5) is a point on this line, find the equation of the line.
Answer:
Points are (4, 0) (3, –5)
Slope = \(\frac { -5 }{ -1 }\) = 5

Question 14.
If a line cut x-axis at (5, 0) and y-axis at (0, –3) Find the slope of the line given below.
Answer:
Slope of the line = \(\frac{-3-0}{0-5}=\frac{-3}{-5}=\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 15.
Find the slope of the line given below.

Answer:
Slope of the line = tan 60° = √3

Worksheet 4

Question 16.
Prove that the points (1, 3) (2, 5) (3, 7) are on a line
Answer:

Three points are lies on the same line.

Question 17.
The numbers in the sequence 2, 5, 8,11 and the numbers in the sequence 7, 11, 15, 19 …. are joined pairwise as given below(2, 7), (5, 11), (8, 15) Prove that these are on a line.
Answer:
Distance between (2, 7) and (5, 11) = \(=\sqrt{9+16}=5\)
Distance between (5, 11) and (8, 15) = \(=\sqrt{9+16}=5\)
Hence the distances are same, so the points are lie on the same line.

Question 18.
Find the slope of the line passing through (–2, 3) (5, 7) Write the slope of the fine parallel to it.
Answer:
Slope of the line which passing through the points (–2, 3) and (5, 7) = \(\frac{7-3}{5+2}=\frac{4}{7}\)
The line which joins the points (–2, 2) and (5, 6) is parallel to the first line.
Slope of the line which passes through the points (–2, 2) and (5, 6) = \(=\frac{6-2}{5+2}=\frac{4}{7}\)
Slope of the line which passes through the points (–7, 4) and (0, 8) = \(=\frac{8-4}{0+7}=\frac{4}{7}\)
The lines are parallel because their slopes are same.

Worksheet 6

Question 19.
Find the equation of the line passing through (5, 1), (1, –1), (11, 4)
Answer:
Equation of the line which passes through the points (5, 1), and (1, –1)

Equation is x – 2y – 3 = 0
Let find (11, 4) be on the equation 11 – 2 x 4 – 3 = 11 – 8 – 3 = 0
Equation is x – 2y – 3 = 0

Question 20.
(3, 0) is a point on the line joining the points (3x², 6x), (3y², 6y) then prove that xy = –1
Answer:
Slope of the line which passing through the points (3x², 6x) and (3y², 6y)

That is equal to the slope of the line which joins the points (3, 0) and (3x², 6x).

Worksheet 7

Question 21.
If a line is passing through (1, 1). This point divides the segment between axes in the ratio 3 : 4. Find the equation of this line.
Let consider the line 4x + 3y = 7, which cuts x axis at (a, 0) and y axis at (0, b)

Geometry and Algebra SCERT Questions & Answers

Question 22.
In the parallelogram ABCD A(2, 3); B(7, 3); and D(4, 7). Find the coordinates of C. [Score: 4, Time: 6 minutes]

Answer:
In the figure ΔAED, ΔBFC
AD = BC. DE = CF (1)
AE = BF = 2 unit (1)
∴ x coordinate of C
= 7 + BF = 7 + AE = 7 + 2 = 9 (1)
y coordinate of C = 3 + FC = 3 + ED = 3 + 4 = 7 (1)
C has the coordinates (9, 7)

Question 23.
In parallelogram ABCD A(2, 3); B(6, 5); and D(4, 7). Find the coordinates of C [Score: 4, Time: 6 minutes]

Answer:
Draw AE, DF parallel to x-axis. (1)
Draw BE, CF parallel to y-axis.
In right triangles Δ ABE, Δ DCF (1)
AB=DC, ∠BAE = ∠CDF
∠ABE = ∠DCF
∴ AE = DF= 6 – 2 = 4
BE = CF =5 – 3 = 2
x coordinate of C = 4 + DF = 4 + 4 = 8
y coordinate of C = 7 + CF = 7 + 2 = 9
Coordinates ofC (8, 9) (1)

Question 24.
In parallelogram ABCD A(x₁, y₁),B(x₃, y₂), D(x₂, y₃) Find the coordinates of C. [Score: 4, Time: 6 minutes]

Answer:
Draw AE, DF parallel to x-axis
Draw BE, CF parallel to y-axis
In right triangles ΔAEB, ΔDFE
AB=DC (1)
∠BAE = ∠CDF ∠ABE = ∠DCF
∴ AE = DF = x₂ – x₁ (1)
BE = CF = y₂ – y₁ (1)
x coordinate of C =
x₃ + DF = x₃ + x₂ -x,
y coordinate of C = y₃ + CF = y₃ + y₂ – y₁
∴ C has the coordinates =(x₂ + x₃ – x₁, y₂ + y₃ – y₃) (1)

Question 25.
Find the coordinates of the fourth vertex of the parallelogram shown here. [Score: 2, Time: 6 minutes]

Answer:
If A(x₁, y₁); B(x₃, y₂); D(x₂, y₃) are vertices of a parallelogram ABCD, then C has the coordinates (x₃ + x₂ – x₁, y₃ + y₂ – y₁) (1)
x coordinate of fourth vertex = 8 + 5 – 3 = 10
y coordinate of fourth vertex = 7 + 4 – 2 = 9
Coordinate of fourth vertex (10, 9) (1)

Question 26.
In the parallelogram PQRS, P(-3, 2) Q(2, 7), S(1, 9) are three vertices. Find the length of the diagonal PR. [Score: 4, Time: 6 minutes]

Answer:
x coordinate of R = 2 + 1 – (–3) = 6 (1)
y coordinate of R = 9 + 7 – 2 = 14 (1)
(6, 14) is the coordinate of R

Question 27.
A ABC A(6, 8); B(3, 4); C(–2, 2) are its vertices. The bisector of ∠A cuts BC at D.
a Find BD: CD.
b. Find the coordinates of D. [Score: 4, Time: 8 minutes]
Answer:

Question 28.
A circle is drawn with AB as diameter whose endpoints are A(3, 1) and 5(9, 10)
a. Find the coordinates of the center of the circle.
b. If another circle with diameter one-third of the above circle is drawn with the same center, what are the points that the circle cuts AB? [Score: 5, Time: 8 minute]
Answer:
a. Coordinates of the center OA

Geometry and Algebra Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Short Answer Type Questions (Score 2)

Question 29.
Find the midpoint of the line segment joining the points(3, 0), (–1, 4).
Answer:
Mid point of the line segment joining the line segment joining the points (3, 0), (–1, 4).
\(=\left(\frac{3-1}{2}, \frac{0+4}{2}\right)=(1,2)\)

Question 30.
Find the equation of the line joining (1, 3), (2, 7).
Answer:
If (x, y) be any point on this line, then
\(\frac{(y-4)}{(x-1)}=2\)
y – 4 = 2(x – 1)
y – 4 = 2x – 2
2x + y + 2 = 0

Question 31.
What is the distance between the origin and the point (–2, -3)? What is the relation between this distance and the distance between the origin and the point (2, 3)?
Answer:
The distance to the points (–2,–3) is \(\sqrt{(-2)^{2}+(-3)^{2}}=\sqrt{13}\)
The distance to the points (2, 3) is \(\sqrt{2^{2}+3^{2}}=\sqrt{13}\)
Both the distances are equal.

Question 32.
Mark the points A(2, 3), 6(6, 6) by drawing the axes. Draw a rectangle with AB as di-agonal and sides are parallel to the axes. Find the coordinates of the other vertices of the rectangle. Find the length and breadth of the rectangle. Find the length of the diagonal AB.
Answer:
P(6, 3) Q(2, 6)
length = 4, breadth = 3
AB = \(\sqrt{4^{2}+3^{2}}-\sqrt{25} \div 5\)

Question 33.
What is the equation of the circle? Centre (2, 1), radius √5.
Answer:
Equation of the circle
(x – 2)² + (x – 1)² = 5
x₂ – 4x + 4 + y₂ – 2y + 1 = 5
x₂ + y₂ – 4x – 2y = 0

Question 34.
If (7, 3), (6, 1), (8, 2) and (p, 4) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order, then find the value of p.

Answer:
The midpoint of the diagonal AC and the diagonal BD coincide.

Question 35.
Find the equation of the line joining (–1, 3), (2, 5).
Answer:

Short Answer Type Questions (Score 3)

Question 36.
A is a point on the Y axis, equidistant from (3, 5) and (2, 6). Draw a rough sketch. If the Y co-ordinate of Ais P. What are the coordinates of A, in terms of P? Calculate the Value of P and hence the coordinates of A.
Answer:
The coordinate of A is (0, P). Since A is a point on the y-axis.

P2 – 12P + 40 = P2 – 10P +34
P2 – P2 – 12P + 10P = 34 – 40 – 2P = -6
P=3
∴ Coordinates of A are (0, 3)

Question 37.
The points A(0, 0), B(10, 0), C(5, 5√3 ) are the vertices of the triangle ABC. Find AB, BC, AC and prove that the triangle is equilateral.
Answer:
A(0, 0), B(10, 0), C (5, 5√3)
AB = 10 unit


AB = BC = AC
∴ ΔABC is equilateral

Question 38.
Prove that the points (2, 3), (7, 5), (9, 8), (4, 6) are the corners of a parallelogram.
Answer:

Since opposite sides are parallel, ABCD is a parallelogram.

Question 39.
a. What is the point at which the line 2x + 4y – 1 = 0 cuts the x-axis?
b. What about the y-axis?
Answer:
a. If the line 2x + 4y – 1 = o cut the x -axis at (x, 0), then 2x – 1 = 0
x = 1/2
The line intersect x axis is ( 1/2, 0 )
If the line 2x + 4y – 1 = 0 cut the y-axis at (0, y), then
4y – 1 = 0
y = 1/4
The line intersect y axis is (0, 1/4).

Long Answer Type Questions (Score 4)

Question 40.
Find the slope of the line joining (2, 3) and (3, –1). Check whether this line passes through the point (5, 6). What about the point (5, -9)?
Answer:

∴ Slope of the line joining (2, 3) and (3, –1)
\(=\frac{3-1}{2-3}=\frac{3+1}{-1}=-4\)
Slope of the line is –4
For point (5, –6)
Slope = \(\frac{6-3}{5-2}=\frac{3}{3}=1\)
Since slope = 4,
this line does not pass through(5,6)
For point (5, –9) Slope = \(\frac{-9-3}{5-2}=\frac{-12}{3}=-4\)
The line (5, –9) pass through the point.

Question 41.
Write the coordinates of each points on the lines 2x – y + 1 = 0 and 3x – 2y + 3 = 0. Find the co-ordinates of the point of intersection of the lines.
Answer:

Question 42.
a. Find the slope of the line joining the points (5, 3) and (4, 1).
b. Which are the points where this line meets x-axis and y-axis?
c. Write the coordinates of two other points on the line.
Answer:
a. Let (5, 3) = (x₁, y₁) and (4, 1) = (x₂, y₂),
= slop = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}=\frac{1-3}{4-5}=\frac{-2}{-1}=\frac{2}{1}=2\)
b. If the line meets x axis at the point (x, 0), then slope = \(\frac{a-3}{x-5}=2 \Rightarrow 2(x-5)=-3\)
2x – 10 = –3,
2x = –3 + 10 = 7,
x = 7/2 = 3.5,
point is = (3.5, 0)
y axis \(\frac{y-3}{0-5}=2 \text { point }(0,-7)\)

c. slope is (2/1) means when x coordinate increase/decreases by 1, y co-ordinate increases decreases by 2. Another point on the line is (5 + 1), (3 + 2) = (6, 5)
A third point = (6 + 1) (5 + 2) = (7, 7)

Long Answer Type Questions (Score 5)

Question 43.
In the figure, the center of the circle is the origin and its radius is 1 unit. The points A,B are on the circle with ∠AOP = 30°, ∠AOB = 15°.
a. Find the coordinates of A and B.
b. Find the relation between the slope of the lines OA, OB and the tan measures of angles they make with the x-axis.
Answer:

Slopes of the lines and die tangent values-of the angles made by the lines with the axis are equal.

Question 44.
A circle is drawn with origin as the center and radius 10 units. Show that the point (–8, –6) is a point on the circle. Find out whether the point (9, –1) lies within the circle or outside the circle. Why?
Answer:
The distance between the centre and the point (-8,-6) is = \(=\sqrt{(-8)^{2}+(-6)^{2}}=\sqrt{100}=10\)
It is equal to the radius. So the point (-8, -6) is a point on the circle.
The distance between the centre, and the point (9,-1) is = \(\sqrt{9^{2}+(-1)^{2}}=\sqrt{81+1}=\sqrt{82}\)
√82 is smaller than 10.
So the point (9, –1) is a point inside the circle.

Geometry and Algebra Memory Map

Distance between (x_1,y₁) and (x₃, y₂) is \(\sqrt{\left(x_{2}-x_{1}\right)^{2}+\left(y_{2}-y_{1}\right)^{2}}\)
Distance of (x, y) from (0, 0) is \(\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}\)

You can Download Electro Magnetic Induction Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 3 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

SSLC Physics Chapter 3 Electro Magnetic Induction Textbook Questions and Answers

SCERT Class 10th Standard Physics Chapter 3 Electro Magnetic Induction Solutions

Text Book Page No. 45

Sslc Physics Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
You know that electrical energy can be converted into many other forms. Write down some examples.
Answer:

Text Book Page No. 46

Electromagnetic Induction Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Record your observations in the table given below.

Answer:

Text Book Page No. 47

Sslc Physics Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Using magnet of high strength, and increasing the number of turns in the solenoid, the experiment is repeated. On the basis of the experiments complete the table (3.2).

Answer:

Physics Chapter 3 Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
→ Why did the galvanometer needle deflect in the experiment?
Answer:
Whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with a coil, an emf is induced in the coil.

→ Which were the instances in which there was a flow of current through the solenoid?
Answer:
Whenever there is a relative motion between the magnet and the solenoid, there is flow of electricity.

→ Which were the instances in which the current increased?
Answer:
Number of turns increased.Strong Magnet used Magnet / Solenoid moves with greater speed.

Text Book Page No. 48

Sslc Physics Chapter 3 Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Observe the figure given below.
(The figure indicates the two stages of doing the experiment)

→ On which instance will the magnetic flux linked with the solenoid be less?
Answer:
Magnet is moved away from it solenoid.

→ On which instance will the magnetic flux linked with the solenoid be greater?
Answer:
When magnet is moved into the solenoid.

→ On which instance does a change in magnetic flux linked with the solenoid occur? (while it is moving/ while it is stationary)
Answer:
while it is moving.

Electromagnetic Induction Class 10 Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
What may be the factors affecting the induced emf?
Answer:

• Number of turns of the coiled conductor.
• Magnetism.
• Movement of magnet and solenoid.

Class 10 Physics Chapter 3 Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Which are the factors on which the direction of induced current in electromagnetic induction depend?
Answer:

• Direction of magnetic field
• Direction of conductor
• Direction of induced current

Text Book Page No. 49

Physics Chapter 3 Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Table 3.3

Answer:

Text Book Page No. 50

10th Physics Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
The current obtained from the cell is unidirectional and is of the same magnitude. But what are the peculiarities of the current obtained by electromagnetic induction?
Answer:

• Direction changes.
• Magnitude changes.

Class 10 Physics Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
We use mechanical energy in generators to move the magnet or coiled conductor continuously. In that case what shall be the energy change in a generator?
Answer:
Mechanical energy → Electrical energy

Class 10 Physics Chapter 3 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
Observe Fig 3.5(a) and write down the parts given in Fig. 3.5(b)

Answer:
ABCD: Armature.
B1, B2: Brush.
R1, R2: Slip rings.

Hsslive Guru 10th Physics Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
ABCD indicates one turn of the armature coil. When the coil rotates about the axis in the clockwise direction, the portion AB moves upward and the portion CD moves downward.
Then according to the Fleming’s Right-Hand Rule.

→ What is the’direction of induced current in the portion AB? ( from A to B/ from B to A).
Answer:
from A to B.

→ What is the direction of induced current in the portion CD? (from C to D/from D to C).
Answer:
from C to D.

→ What is the direction of induced current in the coil ABCD? ( from A to D/from D to A).
Answer:
from A to D.

→ What is the direction of induced current in the external circuit? (through the galvanometer) (from B2 to B1/ from B1 to B2.
Answer:
from B2 to B1.

Class 10 Physics Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
What will be the positions of AB and CD when the armature completes 180° or one-half rotation?
Answer:
AB will be near the south pole of the magnet and CD will be near the north pole.

Physics 3rd Chapter Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Depict this stage of rotation of the armature in the science diary. At this instance,

→ What is the direction of movement of AB?
Answer:
Direction of AB is downward.

→ What is the direction of movement of CD?
Answer:
Direction of CD is upward.

→ What is the direction of current in the armature?
Answer:
from D to A.

→ What is the direction of current through the external circuit (through the galvanometer)?
Answer:
from B1 to B2.

Text Book Page No. 52

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Physics Chapter 3 Question 15.

Answer:

Text Book Page No. 52

Hss Live Physics 10th Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
When 50 Hz AC is used, how many times will the direction of current change in the circuit?
Answer:
100 times.

Electromagnetic Induction Hsslive Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
Current is induced when the armature of a generator rotates. Slip rings and brushes are the ways and means by which this current is brought to the outer circuit. Is this arrangement necessary if the magnet in generator is made to rotate?
Answer: No

Hss Live Guru 10th Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 18.
Record in your science diary, the other ways by which mechanical energy can be made available for the working of a generator.
Answer:
From coal, naphtha, water from dam, exciters and big batteries. Field magnets are used as electromagnets. Mechanical energy also obtained from heat released by nuclear fusion.

Sslc Physics Chapter 3 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 19.
Now write down in your science diary how the power for operating the generator which Babu saw near the stage was generated.
Answer:
The device which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. When the armature rotates on its axis in the magnetic field, the magnetic flux linked within the coil changes. As a result, current is induced in the coil.

Sslc Physics 3rd Chapter Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 20.
Is it possible to produce DC (Direct Current) using a generator?
Answer:
Possible. If split-ring commutator is used in a generator instead of slip rings, we will get DC.

Text Book Page No. 54

Hsslive Guru 10th Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 21.
What are the similarities between the DC motor that we saw in the previous chapter and a DC generator?
Answer:

• Permanent magnet.
• Armature.
• Brushes.

Physics 10th Class Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 22.
Connect the output of a small DC generator to a galvanometer and rotate the armature continuously.

→ How is the needle deflected?
Answer:
Same direction.

→ Is the direction of current changing?
Answer:
No.

→ Is the magnitude of current the same?
Answer:
No. emf increases and decreases.

Physics Class 10 Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 23.

Answer:


Text Book Page No. 55

Physics Class 10 Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 24.
Turn on & turn off the switch continuously. What do you observe?
Answer:
Bulb glows and then goes off.

Physics Class 10 Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Kerala Syllabus Question 25.
If the switch is kept in the on position what do you observe?
Answer:
Bulb does not glow continuously.

Question 26.
On what occasions do the flux change?
Answer:
When the switch is made to go on or off continuously.

Question 27.
What are the occasions when current flows through the second coil?
Answer:
When the switch in the first coil is kept on or off.

Question 28.
Can you suggest a method by which change can be brought in magnetic flux without switching on and off continuously?
Answer:
If AC is given to the primary coil instead of j DC, emf will be continuously induced in the secondary coil.

Text Book Page No. 56

Question 29.
Examine the diagrams of step up and stepdown transformers and list out the differences in their designs.
Answer:

Text Book Page No. 57

Question 30.

Answer:

Question 31.
A transformer working on a 240 V AC supplies a voltage of 8 V to an electric bell in the circuit. The number of turns in the primary coil is 4800. Calculate the number of turns in the secondary coil.
Answer:
V_p = 240V
V_s = 8V
N_p = 4800
\(\begin{array}{l}{\frac{V_{s}}{V_{p}}=\frac{N_{s}}{N_{p}}} \\ {N_{s}=\frac{V_{s} \times N_{p}}{V_{p}}=\frac{8 \times 4800}{240}=160}\end{array}\)

Question 32.
The input voltage of a transformer is 240V AC. There are 80 turns in the secondary coil and 800 turns in the primary. What is the output voltage of the transformer?
Answer:
V_p = 240V
N_s = 80
N_p = 800
\(\begin{array}{l}{\frac{V_{s}}{V_{p}}=\frac{N_{s}}{N_{p}}} \\ {V_{s}=\frac{N_{s} \times V_{P}}{N_{p}}=\frac{80 \times 240}{800}=24 \mathrm{V}}\end{array}\)

Question 33.
If voltage and current are known, what is the formula for finding power?
Answer:
Power = Voltage x Current

Text Book Page No. 58

Question 34.
In a transformer, if the voltage of the primary is V_p and the current in the primary is I_p, voltage in the secondary is V_s and the current I_s, write down the formulae connecting them.
Answer:
Power in the primary = V_p x I_p
Power in the secondary = V_s x I_s

Question 35.
In a transformer without any loss in power, there are 5000 turns in the primary and 250 turns in the secondary. The primary voltage is 120 V and the primary current is 0.1 A. Find the voltage and current in the secondary.
Answer:
N_p = 5000
N_s = 250
V_p = 120
I_p = 0.1A

Question 36.
Categorize the following relations appropriately as step up or step down transformers.

Answer:

Question 37.
As a result of the flow of current through a solenoid, is there any chance of inducing an electric current in the same solenoid?
Answer:
Yes. By self-induction.

Text Book Page No. 59

Question 38.

→ In which circuit does the bulb give a light with low intensity?
Answer:
Second circuit

→ Why does the intensity of light de-crease in that circuit?
Answer:
Back emf more

→ In which circuit is a magnetic field developed around the solenoid?
Answer:
On both circuits

→ If so in which circuit is a continuous emf induced?
Answer:
On second circuit

→ Have you understood the reason behind the decrease in the intensity of light in the second circuit? Write it down in the science diary.
Answer:
When AC passes through a solenoid, a changing magnetic field is generated around it. Due to this, an induced emf is generated inside the solenoid. This induced emf is in a direction opposite to that applied on the coil. Hence this is a back emf. This back emf reduces the effective voltage in the circuit.

Text Book Page No. 60

Question 39.
Inductors are widely used in AC circuits. Why?
Answer:
Inductors are used in the electronic circuits, to control and decrease current without power loss.

Question 40.
If resistors are used instead of inductors, what will be the disadvantage?
Answer:
Electric energy is lost in the form of heat.

Question 41.
Inductors are not used in DC circuits. Find out the reason and write it down in the science diary.
Answer:
Back emf is not produced as the flux formed by the current has no variation. So current control by inductor in DC is not possible.

Question 42.
Which are the main parts of a moving coil microphone?
Answer:
Diaphragm, Permanent magnet and Voice coil.

Question 43.
Which is the moving part in it?
Answer:
Diaphragm and Voice coil.

Question 44.
If a sound is produced in front of a movable diaphragm, what will happen to the diaphragm?
Answer:
Vibrates corresponding to the sound signals.

Question 45.
What happens to the voice coil then?
Answer:
Vibrates.

Question 46.
What will be the result?
Answer:
Creates electric signal corresponding to the sound.

Text Book Page No. 61

Question 47.
Find out the similarities and differences between a moving coil microphone and a moving coil loudspeaker and write them down in the science diary.
Answer:
Similarities:

• Both have voice coil.
• Have permanent magnet.
• Have diaphram.

Differences:

• Loudspeaker:
  Electrical energy → sound energy.
• Microphone:
  Sound energy → Electrical energy.

Question 48.
What is the energy transformation that takes place in a moving coil microphone?
Answer:
Sound energy → Electrical energy.

Text Book Page No. 62

Question 49.
How do we get mechanical energy for such generators?
Answer:

• Water from dam.
• Nuclear energy.
• Heat produced during the combustion of Naphta, Coal, Lignite ….etc

Question 50.
Write down the name of some power stations in Kerala.
Answer:

• Idukki – Moolamattom.
• Idukki – Pallivasal.
• Alappuzha – Kayamkulam.

Question 51.
Heat is generated in accordance with the equation H = I2Rt. In that case

→ What are the methods to reduce the heat generated?
Answer:

• Reduce current.
• Reduce resistance.
• Reduce the time taken.

→ If current (I) is reduced to half, how much will be the reduction in heat? (half, one fourth)
Answer:
one fourth.

→ If current (I) is reduced to 1/10 time show much will be the reduction in heat?
Answer:
1/100

→ How can we reduce the current without change in power? Find out on the basis of the equation P = V x I.
Answer:
by increasing voltage.

Text Book Page No. 63

Question 52.
→ What is the method to reduce the transmission loss?
Answer:
Power can be increased using a step-up transformer so that power loss can be minimized during power transmission.

→ Which type of transformer is there in a power station?
Answer:
Step-up transformer.

→ Which type of transformer is there in a substation?
Answer:
Step down transformer.

→ Which type of transformer is a distribution transformer?
Answer:
Step down transformer.

→ If a person standing on the earth touches a phase line, will she get an electric shock? Why?
Answer:
The person will get an electric shock because there is a potential difference (400V) between phase and earth.

→ Which are the lines essential for household electrification?
Answer:
Neutral, Phase and Earth lines.

Text Book Page No. 64

Question 53.
Analyze Fig.3.14 and find the answers to the questions given below.

→ To which device is the electric line reaching our home connected first?
Answer:
Watt-hour meter.

→ From where does the earth line start?
Answer:
From the main switch.

→ What is the use of a watt-hour meter?
Answer:
The electricity used is measured using a Watthour meter.

→ In which line are the fuses connected?
Answer:
Phase line.

→ What is the function of the main switch? Where is its position in the circuit?
Answer:
The electricity reaches the electrical appliances through the main switch. Therefore instead of turning each switch OFF, the main switch can be switched OFF. The main switch is placed just after the Watthour meter.

→ In the household electrical circuit, which is the third line, other than the phase and the neutral?
Answer:
Earth line.

→ What are the colors used for wires in phase, neutral and earth lines?
Answer:

• Phase – Red.
• Neutral – Black.
• Earth – Green.

→ Where is the earth wire connected in a three-pin socket?
Answer:
Pin E.

→ How are the household devices connected? Series/parallel.
Answer:
Parallel.

Question 54.
The advantages of connecting devices in parallel. Write them down.
Answer:

• Devices work according to the marked power.
• Devices can be controlled using switches as per need.
• The bulbs will get the required voltage.

Text Book Page No. 65

Question 55.
In a house, 5 CF lamps each of 20 W, works for 4hours, 4 fans each of 60 W work for 5 hours and a TV of 100 W works for 4 hours in a day. What will be the daily consumption shown by the watt-hour meter?
Answer:
4hour’s consumption of 5 CFL having 20 W
\(\frac { 5 × 20 × 4 }{ 1000 }\) = 0.4 kWh
5 hour’s consumption of 4 Fan having 60 W
\(\frac { 4 × 60 × 5 }{ 1000 }\) = 1.2 kWh
4 hour’s consumption of one T.V having 100 W
\(\frac { 1 × 100 × 4 }{ 1000 }\) = 0.4 kWh
Total unit = 2 kWh

Text Book Page No. 66

Question 56.
→ Which are the circumstances that lead to the flow of excess current in a house hold circuit?
Answer:
Over loading or Short circuit.

→ What happens to the circuit when there is an excess current in a circuit?
Answer:
More heat is generated. So appliances and circuit will get damaged.

→ How does a safety fuse protect a circuit?
Answer:
The current in the circuit may increase due to reasons such as short circuit, overload, excess flow of current or any problems in the insulation. As the higher temperature produced in the circuit due to these reasons makes the fuse wire to melt and the flow of current stops. Thus the circuit and the appliances are protected.

Text Book Page No. 67

Question 57.
What are the differences between ordinary fuse and MCB?
Answer:
Ordinary fuse works making use of heating effect of electricity while MCB works mak-ing use of heating and magnetic effects of electricity. The current in the circuit may increase due to reasons such as short circuit, overload, excess flow of current or any problems in the insulation.

As the higher temperature produced in the circuit due to these reasons makes the fuse wire to melt and the flow of current stops. Thus the circuit and the appliances are protected. MCB automatically breaks the circuit whenever there is an excess flow of current due to short circuit or overloading. After rectifying the circuit we can switch on the MCB and make the circuit as it was.

Question 58.
What is the advantage of MCB over a safety fuse?
Answer:
MCB is more sensitive to current than fuse, In case of MCB, the faulty zone of electrical circuit can be easily identified, With MCB it is very simple to resume to the supply, MCB is reusable and hence has less maintenance and replacement cost.

Question 59.
What is the function of ELCB/RCCB in the circuit?
Answer:
ELCB helps to break the circuit automatically whenever there is a current leak due to insulation failure or any other reason. Hence a person touching the electric circuit or a device does not get an electric shock. Nowadays RCCB, which ensures more safety than ELCB is made use of. In an ELCB one end of the relay coil is connected to the outer metallic cover and the other end is earthed.

If current leaks into the earth due to insulation failure or any other reason, a potential difference is developed between the ends of the relay coil. As a result, ELCB gets tripped off if the current exceeds a particular limit. This is with the help of a relay. In RCCB there is a provision to distinguish between the phase current and neutral current and to break the circuit if needed.

Question 60.
In the figure, which are the lines that are connected to the coil of the electric iron?

Answer:
Earth, Phase and Neutral lines.

Question 61.
If the phase line comes into contact with the body of the appliance due to defects in the insulation, what happens to the person who touches the body of the appliance?
Answer:
The person will get shock.

Question 62.
How can safety be ensured using a three-pin plug?
Answer:
The pin E of a three-pin plug comes into contact with the earth line. This pin is now connected to the body of the appliance. If the body comes into contact with an electrie connection, electricity flows to the earth through the earth wire. The flow of current to the earth through a circuit of low resistance increases the current. Hence heat generated in the fuse wire increases, the fuse wire melts and the circuit is broken. This will protect the instrument and the person handling it.

Question 63.
Which line comes into contact with the pin E.
Answer:
Earthline.

Question 64.
Howdoestheearth pin differs from the other pins? Why is it made different in this way?
Answer:
The earth pin is thick and long. As it is long it first comes in contact with the earth. Similarly, it loses the contact with the earth only at the end. As it is thick it offers less resistance. It carries more current than the amount of current coming from the phase.

Question 65.
Which part of the instrument is connected to the earth line?
Answer:
The earth line is connected to the metal casing of the electrical appliances.

Question 66.
Is TV working on AC or DC?
Answer:
on AC

Question 67.
We get DC from a mobile phone battery. But we use AC for charging it. What may be the reason?
Answer:
Most of the devices that work only on DC work by converting AC into DC. Mobile charger is a device that converts AC into DC.

Question 68.
Classify the devices known to you as those working in AC and DC.

Answer:

Text Book Page No. 71

One way switch:
Use to start/stop current flow and to change the direction of current flow.

Two-way switch:
Having two or more switches in different locations to control one electrical device.

Three-pin socket:
Electricity can be supplied to electrical appliances safely.

Ceiling rose:
Ceiling rose helps in that one live wire that is needed for ceiling light or fan to go in continuation.

ELCB:
Helps to break the circuit automatically whenever there is a current leak due to insulation failure or any other reason.

Regulator:
Automatically maintain a constant voltage level.

Indicator:
A device which provides visual or remote indication of a fault on the electric power system.

RCCB:
Distinguish between the phase current and neutral current and to break the circuit if needed.

MCB:
Automatically breaks the circuit whenever there is an excess flow of current due to short circuits or overloading.

Kit Kat Fuse:
Protecting a circuit against excess current.

Switchboard:
To control the flow of power.

Meter:
Instrument used to measure the magnitude of a quantity.

Main switch:
The main power supply of the RC models.

Bulb holder:
Holding a light bulb or lamp.

Clamp Ammeter:
The vector sum of the currents flowing in all the conductors passing through the probe.

Multimeter:
Can measure voltage, current, and resistance.

AC Voltmeter:
To measure the AC voltage across any two points of electric circuit.

Wire stripper:
Used to strip the electrical insulation from electric wires.

Screwdriver (*):
Tool, usually hand-operated, for turning screws with shaped slotted heads.

Screwdriver (-):
Tool, usually hand-operated, for turning screws with shaped slotted heads.

Tester:
Touched to the conductor being tested.

Plier:
For gripping something round like a pipe or rod, some are used for twisting wires.

Gloves:
Leather protector gloves – Worn over rubber insulating gloves to help provide the mechanical protection needed against cuts, abrasions and punctures.

Insulation tape:
To insulate electrical wires and other materials that conduct electricity.

Wire ( cable):
To carry electrical currents.

PVC Pipe fittings:
Used for plumbing and drainage.

PVC channel:
In Control Panels and Electrical Cabinets.

PVC Pipe:
Used as the insulation on electric wires.

Text Book Page No. 72

Question 69.
Construct such a circuit in aplywood as shown in Fig 3.19. The list of materials required and the number of items are given in the table.

Answer:

• Main switch.
• Fuse.
• MCB.
• Main fuse.
• Switchboard.
• ELCB.
• Fan.
• Bulb.

Electro-Magnetic Induction Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Write down the names of some devices that work based on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:

• Electric generator,
• Transformer,
• Moving coil galvanometer,
• Induction cooker etc.

Question 2.
What are the components essential for proving electromagnetic induction experimentally?
Answer:
Magnet, soft iron core connecting wire and Galvanometer.

Question 3.
Which are the factors that affect the induced emf in electromagnetic induction?
Answer:

• Number of turns in the armature.
• Strength of magnetic field.
• Speed of armature or field magnet.

Question 4.
Take a used cell from a calculator or remote control and connect it to a galvanometer as shown in the figure. What do you observe?

Answer:
The galvanometer needle deflects to one direction because there is a slight current flow.

Question 5.
Write down the names of DC sources.
Answer:
Cell battery, Solar cell, Generator, Thermocouple, etc.

Question 6.

a. Write down the names of parts numbered.
b. State the working principle of this device.
Answer:
a. 1. Field magnet,
2.Armature,
3. Slip rings.

b.Generators convert mechanical energy into electrical energy. Flux is changed and current is produced in the coil when the armature rotates from an axis. So current is induced due to flux change.

Question 7.
Write down the special features of AC and DC.
Answer:
Direct current (DC): Direction constant, emf increases and decreases.
Alternating current (AC): Direction changes continuously, emf increases and decreases.

Question 8.
Analyze the given graph and find out the instances at which the emf is maximum and minimum.

Answer:
Maximum: T/4, 3T/4
Minimum : 0, T/2, T

Question 9.
There is only one type of generator AC generator. Write down your responses about this statement.
Answer:
According to the nature of output, generators can be classified into 2 types AC generator and DC generator. Though ac current is produced in a DC generator with the help of split-ring commutator ac is converted into dc current.

Question 10.
Line diagrams of a generator are given.

a. What is the specialty of the electricity reaching the galvanometer if the armatures of both the generators are made to rotate?
b. What is the speciality of the electricity reaching the galvanometer if the field magnets of both the generators are made to rotate?
c. Draw the graphical representation of electricity obtained in both.
Answer:
a. DC in first and AC in second.
b. AC in both.

Question 11.
Electromagnetic induction is
a. charging a substance.
b. process of developing a magnetic field around a coil by passing electricity through a coil.
c. process of rotating the armature of a generator.
d. process of making electricity by the relative motion of a magnet or a coiled conductor.
Answer:
d. process of making electricity by the relative motion of a magnet or a coiled conductor.

Question 12.
Which is the device used to generate electricity?
a. generator.
b. galvanometer.
c. motor.
d. ammeter.
Answer:
a. generator.

Question 13.
Write down the similarities and differences in the structure of an AC generator and a DC generator.
Answer:
Similarities:

• Field magnet and Armature are present.
• Works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
• AC produced on armature.

Differences:

Question 14.
A conductor hung horizontally in the north-south direction is connected to a galvanometer. The conductor is situated in a magnetic field acting in the East-west direction, In which direction should you move the conductor if maximum current is to be induced in the conductor in the north-south direction? Justify your answer.
a. towards east.
b. downwards.
c. upwards.
d. towards north.
Answer:
b. downwards. According to Fleming’s Right-hand rule.

Question 15.
Copper wires of the same length and thickness are connected to points A and B in all the three circuits. In-circuit (a) copper wire is not coiled. In circuits (b) and (c), the copper wire is coiled. Observe the circuits and answer the following questions.

a. When circuit (a) is switched on, what do you observe?
b.When circuit (b) is switched on, what change do you observe in the intensity of light? Justify your answer.
c. When circuit (c) is switched on, what change do you observe in the intensity of light? Justify your answer.
Answer:
a. Bulb glows.
b. No change in the intensity of light. There is no back emf produced as DC current is used in the circuit.
c. Intensity of light decreases. Back emf is produced in the circuit as A.C current flows through it and current is decreased.

Question 16.
The current in the secondary coil of a transformer is 1A and that in the primary is 0.5 A.
a. What type of transformer is this?
b.If 200 V is available in the secondary coil of this transformer, what is the voltage in the primary?
c. Explain the working principle of a transformer.
Answer:
a. Step down Transformer.

c.Mutual Induction:
Keep two sets of coils side by side. When the direction of current flow or its intensity is changed in one, the magnetic flux around it also changes. An emf and current is induced in the secondary coil. This phenomenon is called mutual induction.

Question 17.
In connection with the working of a microphone, a few statements are given inboxes. Arrange them in the proper sequence.

Answer:
Sound is produced → diaphragm vibrates → Voice coil vibrates → electrical signals are produced in the voice coil.

Question 18.
Thick insulated copper wires are used in the primary coil of a step-up transformer and in the secondary of a step-down transformer. What is the necessity of this?
Answer:
The power in the primary and secondary.of a transformer is equal. Current is more where voltage is less because P = VI. Thick wires are needed to flow more quantity of current. In the primary of step up and in the secondary of step down, quantity of current is more.

Question 19.
Which situation causes short circuit?
Answer:
When a phase and neutral comes into direct contact in a household circuit or when two-phase come in contact or when a phase and neutral comes into direct contact in a distribution line.

Question 20.
What is the role of earthing wire in a household circuit?
Answer:
The pin E of a three-pin plug comes into contact with the earth line. This pin is now connected to the body of the appliance. If at all the body comes into contact with an electric connection, electricity flows to the; earth through the earth wire.

The flow of current to the earth through a circuit of low resistance increases the current. As a result heat generated in the fuse wire increases and the circuit gets broken. This ensures the safety of instrument and the person handling it.

Question 21.
Why do we say that metallic devices should be earthed?
Answer:
Chances of electric shock are” more when metallic devices are used. When metallic devices are earthed, chances of electric shock can be prevented.

Question 22.
An electric heater calibrated 1.5 kW, 230 V is connected to a household branch circuit having 5 Afuse wire and is, made to work. What will happen?
Answer:
Current produced the circuit when the device works is
I = \(\frac { P }{ V }\) = \(\frac { 1500 }{ 230 }\) = 6.52 A
So 5 Amperage fuse bums.

Question 23.
Which are the devices connected in series in a household circuit?
Answer:
Fan, Switch, Regulator, etc.

Question 24.
What can be done to save electrical energy in schools and houses?
Answer:

• Use devices of good efficiency.
• Use electricity only when required.
• Reduce cooking using electricity.
• Reduce the use of air conditioners and refrigerators.
• Use LED bulbs instead of other bulbs.

Question 25.
Why do some mobile phones use three-pin plugs?
Answer:
In mobile phones, instead of earth pin, a plastic pin is used. For safety purpose, the phone neutral socket will have caps. Only if the pin enters the earth socket the other two sockets will open. It will be difficult to connect two-pin in such sockets. To solve this problem in mobile charges three-pin plug can be used.

Electro Magnetic Induction Extended Activities

Question 1.
Michael Faraday, the Father of electricity, did not even get elementary education. Are j you not inspired by the achievements of Faraday in the field of science? Conduct a seminar on “Contributions df Faraday and the hard work behind it.”
Answer:
Michael Faraday, an eminent scientist in the fields of physics and chemistry. He made his first invention in 1821. He proved that when a wire is kept in the magnetic field and current is passed through it, the wire moves.

By the series of experiments conducted in 1831 by using magnetic power Faraday found the important theory of production of current. He was called the father of electric current. He made valuable contributions in the field of chemistry also. It is wonderful to know that he didn’t get any formal education.

Question 2.
Energy is precious, especially electrical energy. Society must be convinced of the necessity of reducing the consumption of electrical energy. Prepare and propagate posters for this purpose.
Answer:

• Control the consumption of current, or else we will be in darkness.
• Next-generation also deserves current.
• Electricity is only for essential purpose.
• Use only efficient machinery to use minimum current.

Question 3.
Compare the induced current obtained when the armature coil rotates once in between the poles of a magnet, and the induced current obtained when the experiment using a magnet and coil was performed.
Answer:

Question 4.
Exhibit a model of electrical distribution network.
Answer:

Question 5.
Draw an electrical circuit containing the electrical appliances required for your classroom.
Answer:

Question 6.
How can the earthing be done in order to ensure safety in electrical circuits? Discuss and prepare a note.
Answer:
Overloading or short-circuiting may occur during the working of electrical devices due to some problems in the mains or within the circuit. The excess current produced is discharged to the ground through the earth wire. This is known as earthing.

Thus earthing provides safety in the electrical circuits. In household electrical circuits for the effective functioning of the earth wire, the earthing system should be proper.

• The pit in which the earth wire is placed should be filled with salt and coal.
• During summers it is required to wet the places where it is earthed.

Question 7.
Observe and record the meter reading in your house for 10 consecutive days. Based on this, find out the average consumption per day. Find out methods to reduce consumption and record them. Present your findings in the Energy Club.
Answer:
Average usage = \(\frac { Total usage }{ no.of days }\)
Methods to reduce the usage of electricity.

• Use devices of good efficiency.
• Use electricity only when required.
• Reduce cooking using electricity.
• Reduce the use of air conditioners and refrigerators.

Electro Magnetic Induction Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the figure.

a. Identify the device in figure 1?
b.What is Rj and Bj indicate in the figure?
c. What is the working principle of that device?
d. Identify the graph which indicate the emf produced by that device?
e. Suggest a way of method to increase the value of emf produced in armature coil of the device?
f. Which law is related with the direction of the induced emf in the armature? Explain?
g. Which part is used as rotor?
h.Which part is used as stator?
i. What are the advantages of armature used as stator?
j. Field magnets in power generator are electromagnet. Why?
k. Identify the device in figure 2?
l. Identify the graph given above of emf which is produced by that device?
m.What is the angle between the armature coils of a three-phase generator?
n. Some statements are given below which related to single-phase generator and three-phase generator. Classify them.
a. For each field magnet, there is only one armature.
b. There are three sets of armature coils for each field magnet.
c. AC generated in all the armature coils will be of the same phase at the same time.
d. AC generated in all the three armature coils will be of different phase at the same time.
Answer:
a. AC generator.
b. R1 – Slip Rings,
B1 – Brushes.
c. Electromagnetic Induction.
d. Graph 1.
e. Increase the number of turns.
f. Refer page no: 39
g. Field magnet.
h. Armature.
i. We can avoid rings and graphite brushes when the armature is used as stator. So there is no possibility of producing sparks.
j. Refer page no: 72 Question No: 1
k. Three-phase generator.
l. Graph 2.
m. 120°.
n. Single-phase generator – a, c.
Three phase-generator – b,d.

Question 2.
Observe the graph and answer the following.

a. In which angles are the rate of changes of flux is maximum?
b. In which angles are the induced emf maximum?
c. What is meant by period of AC?
d. What is meant by frequency of AC?
e. What is the aim of increasing number of magnetic pole and armature coil in a power generator?
Answer:
a. 90° and 270°
b. 90° and 270°
c. The time taken by the armature coil for a full rotation is called Period.
d. The number of cycles per second is the frequency of AC.
e. To increase the amount of electricity produced.

Question 3.
Observe the figures.

a. What kind of transformer is in figure 1?
b. What kind of transformer is in figure 2?
c. What is the working principle of a transformer?
d. Some statements are given below related to step-up transformer and step down transformer. Classify them. Number of turns in primary is less than secondary.

• Thick wires are used in secondary.
• Thick wires are used in primary.
• Voltage in secondary is high.
• Voltage in secondary is low.

e. Some relations are given about step-up transformer and stepdown transformer. Classify them.
Answer:
a. Step-up transformer.
b. Step down transformer.
C. Mutual induction.

Question 4.
Construct the circuit as in the figure. Observe the intensity of light when switch in the circuit is turn on.

a. What change is observed when 6V battery is connected instead of 6V AC in the circuit?
b. What change will occur in magnetic flux when 6V battery is connected to the circuit and 6V AC connected to the circuit?
c. What is the peculiarity of the induced emf when AC source is connected in the circuit instead of DC.
d. What is the name of this induced emf?
e. Name the phenomenon caused to reduce the intensity of light in the circuit.
f. What is the change in intensity of light will be occurred when soft iron core is inserted into the inductor?
g. What is the reason for the change in the intensity of light?
h. What is the phenomenon which caused to glow the LED?
i. Explain the phenomenon.
Answer:
a. Intensity of light decreases
b. When 6V AC is given, there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with the solenoid. Due to the change in flux, an induced emf is developed.
c. Emf will be in the opposite direction.
d. Back emf.
e. Self Induction.
f. Intensity of light decreases.
g. Change in flux increased.
h. Mutual Induction.
i. When the strength or direction of the current in one coil changes, the magnetic flux around it changes. As a result, an emf is induced in the secondary coil. This phenomenon is called Mutual induction.

Question 5.
Match the following related to ideas of different kind of power stations are given below.
Pallivasal, coal, Nuclear power station, Flowing water, Thermal power station. Kalpakam, Hydroelectric power station, Kayamkulam, Nuclear energy.
Answer:
Pallivasal :
Flowing water – Hydroelectric power station.

Kalpakam:
Nuclear energy – Nuclear power station

Kayamkulam:
Coal – Thermal power station.

Question 6.
There are some terms in connection with various power stations given. Fill in the blanks suitably.

Answer:
a. Nuclear Power station.
b. Kinetic energy.
c. Electrical energy.
d. Chemical energy.
e. Mechanical energy.
f. Heat energy.
g. Electrical energy.

Question 7.
Power stations are centers that generate and distribute large quantities of electricity. Power transmission is the process of sending electricity to distant places through wires from the power stations.
a. What is the voltage at which electricity is generated at the power station?
b. What is the voltage of electricity supplied for domestic consumption?
c. In which stage of power transmission is the step-up transformer used?
d. Which are the stages in which step down transformers are used in power transmission?
e. What are the problems arises during distant energy transmission?
f. What are the factors which depend when electricity passes through the conductor?
g. What are the methods to reduce the resistance?
h. What change will occur in power when intensity of current is reduced in the circuit?
i. How is it possible to reduce the intensity of current without power loss?
j. What will be the change in secondary current when secondary voltage of a step-up transformer is increased 10 times?
Answer:
a. 11 kV or 11000 V.
b. 230 V.
c. Phase I
d. Phase ii, iii, iv.
e. Voltage drop, Power loss.
f. Current, Resistance, Time.
g. Increase the thickness of the conductor.
h. Power decreases
i. Increase the voltage.
j. Become less by 1/10.

Question 8.
Step-up or Step down transformer in the power distribution system erected for the purpose of household distribution.
a. How many lines reach the input of the distribution transformer?
b.What is the potential of each phase line?
c. How many lines go out of the distribution transformer? Which are they?
d.Which method is adopted for connecting secondary coil in the distribution transformer?
e. Three-phase lines from output of distribution transformer are connected into a common point. What is the name of the common point?
f. What is the potential difference between a phase line and neutral line?
g. What is the potential difference between any two-phase line?
h.What is the potential difference between the earth and the neutral line?
i. What is the potential difference between a phase line and the earth line?
Answer:
a. 3 lines.
b. 400 V.
c. 4 lines come out, 3 phase and one neutral.
d.Star connection.
e. Neutral.
f. 230 V.
g. 400 V.
h.0 V.
i. 0 V.

Question 9.

a. How are the bulbs arranged in figure 1?
b. How are the bulbs arranged in figure 2?
c. Which circuits has more resistance?
d. All the switches in both the circuits may be turned on, in which circuit do the bulb give brighter light?
e. In which circuit current flowing through each bulb is maximum?
f. Which mode of connecting devices in your household electrical circuit is advisable?
Answer:
a. Series.
b. Parallel.
c. Series Connection.
d. Parallel Connection.
e. Parallel Connection.
f. Parallel Connection.

Electro Magnetic Induction Some more activities

Question 1.
Three-pin plug is used in the circuit of power devices like electric iron.
a. In three pin plug, what each pin indicate?
b. Which part of the device is connected to the earth pin?
Answer:
a. E-Earth line, N-Neutral line, P-Phase line.
b. To the body of the device.

Question 2.
What is the reason for massaging the body of a person who got electric shock?
Answer:
To increase the body temperature.

Electro Magnetic Induction SCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Four identical solenoids and magnets are, depicted in the diagram. Magnets are shown as moving in the figures 1 and 2 and solenoids are shown as moving in figures 3 and 4.

a. Which are the figures showing inducing of emf? How?
b. Pair the pictures in which the galvanometer needle deflects in the same direction. What does the deflection indicate?
c. Draw the picture of a device that can produce continuous electricity using the same principle as shown above for producing electricity.
Explain its working.
Answer:
a. Emf will be induced in all the 4 coils in the diagrams; flux change happens in all the four activities.
b. Pairs (1) and (4), (2) and (3). deflection of galvanometer needle indicates the direction of the flow of current.

Question 2.
Certain factors that influence the induced emf in electromagnetic induction are listed below:
i. Increasing the speed of magnet.
ii. Decreasing the strength of magnet.
iii. Increasing the number of turns.
iv. Reducing the speed of rotation of the magnet.
v. Increasing the strength of magnetic field.
vi. Using solenoid with less number of turns.
Which of the above ideas can be used to get maximum emf by electromagnetic induction?
Answer:
i, iii, v.

Question 3.
The diagram shown below is an arrangement for producing 10V AC using electromagnetic induction. Observe the diagram carefully and answer the questions.

a. Which law is used to find out the direction of induced emf when the armature coil ABCD starts rotating?
b. In which direction the side CD should move (up/down) to produce a flow of current from x to y? What should be the direction of movement of the side AB (up/down) to produce a flow of current in the same direction?
C. Find out the frequency by drawing a time emf graph if the armature completes 10 cycles in 5 seconds.
Answer:
a. Fleming s Right Hand Rule.
b.Upward, side AB moves down.

Question 4.
Parts of an AC generator are given below. Field magnet, Armature, Slip rings, Brush.
a. Explain the position of these parts in an AC generator.
b. Write down the functions of any two.
Answer:
a. Armature rotates in the magnetic field of the field magnet. Springs are soldered to the ends of armature coil, Graphite Brush is connected in such a way as to have constant contact with springs.
b. Armature – Generate emf.
Field magnet – creates magnetic flux.

Question 5.
The various stages of rotation of an armatures coil while completing one rotation in a magnetic field and the graph of the emf produced by the coil are shown below:

a. Select the appropriate points from the pictures m,n,o,p corresponding to the positions 1,2,3,4 and 5 in the graph.
b. Explain the scientific basis for the pairing.
c. Which two pictures show the maximum flux changes? Point out one difference between the two.
Answer:
a. 1-m, 2-0, 3-n, 4-p, 5m OR 1-n, 2-p, 3-m,4-0, 5-n
b. The change in direction and intensity of magnetic flux in armature file.
c. n and o. Magnetic flux change takes place in the opposite directions in these two.

Question 6.
Maximum voltage produced in an AC generator completing 60 cycles in 30 seconds is 250 V.
a. What is the period of the armature?
b. How many cycles are completed in T/2 seconds?
c. What is the maximum emf produced when the armature completes 1800 rotation?
Answer:
a. Period = Time taken to complete one full rotation.
Period = \(\frac { Time taken for rotation }{ Number of rotations }\) = \(\frac { 30 }{ 60 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = 0.5s
When the Armature ABCD rotates, change in the magnetic flux depends on its direction and intensity.
b. only \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) of a rotation. T \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\),\(\frac { T }{ 2 }\),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\)
c. 250V

Question 7.
In single-phase generators armature functions as rotor whereas in power generators armature functions as stator.
a. List out the other differences between single-phase and three-phase generators?
b. What are the advantages of using armature as stator in power generators?
Answer:
a.

b.

• Can increase the no.of turns of the armature coil.
• Can avoid slip rings and also the subsequent sparks.

Question 8.
If a rotor in a power generator completes 3000 rotations in a minute.
a. Which type of AC is produced here, single-phase or three-phase?
b. What will be the frequency of the AC produced if a pair of magnetic poles are ) used in the generator?
c. What would be the time interval to produce the same emf in the two phases if j the rotor completes 20 rotations in a minute?
Answer:
a. Three phase AC
b. Frequency = \(\frac { 3000 }{ 1 × 60 }\) = 50Hz
c. 20 rotations in a minute -3 seconds for completing one rotation. So the time interval to produce same emf is 1 second.

Question 9.

a. Observe the picture and identify the parts labeled as a, b, and c in the picture shown.
b. What is the energy change taking place in a moving coil microphone? What are the roles of the parts a,b, and c?
c. Why is the output signal of a moving coil microphone sent to the loudspeaker only after feeding it directly into an amplifier?
Answer:
a.1. Diaphragm.
2. Permanent magnet.
3. Voice coil.
b.
Mechanical energy to electrical energy Diaphragm – Vibrates in accordance with the sound falling on it.
Permanant magnet – Creates a magnetic field.
Voice coil – Creates electric signals corresponding to the sound.
c. The weak signals obtained from the microphone are strengthened by an amplifier.

Question 10.
Coils wound around a soft iron core connects two bulbs, B1 and B2 of 6 V. Analyse the figure and answer the questions.

a. If 6 V, DC is given in the coil A and the switch is on, which of the bulbs, B, & B2 will glow? Why?
b. If AC is given to the coil A instead of DC, which of the bulbs will glow B1 or B2?
c. Was there any variation in the brightness of Bulb B1 when AC and DC were supplied? Why?
d. Write down the names of two instruments that use the principle of mutual induction.
Answer:
a. Only B1 because electricity flows only through B1
b. B1 and B2 because of mutual induction.
c. Light of B1 will be reduced when AC is passed through it. This is due to the back emf produced due to self-induction.
d. Transformer, Relay switch.

Question 11.

Two solenoids A and B made of insulated copper wire are shown in the diagram. Observe the diagram and answer the questions below:
a. Write down different methods to light up the bulb connected in the coil B using the principle of electromagnetic induction.
b. What is the scientific principle applied to light up the bulb B?
Answer:
a.i. Switching S1 on and off by giving a DC supply.
ii. Keeping switched on after giving AC supply to the coil A.
iii.When coil A is moved relatively after supplying DC.
b. Mutual induction.

Question 12.
A transformer without power loss carries 4000 turns in the primary and 2000 turns in the secondary. If the primary voltage is 120 V and the current is 0.2 A.
a. What is the output voltage of transformer?
b. What is the current in the secondary?
c. What is the maximum output power?
d. Where are the thick wires to be used in this transformer in the primary or secondary? Why?
Answer:

d. In the secondary. Since P = V1 current is more in the secondary.

Question 13.
In a step up transformer, primary power is 50 W and output voltage is 100 V. If the current in the primary is 1 A.
a. What is the primary voltage?
b. What will be the current in the second ary?
c. \(\frac { Secondary power }{ Primary power }\) =
Answer:
a. P = V_p × I_p
500 W = V_p × 1A, V_p = 500 V
b. I_s = \(\frac { I_p × V_p }{ V_s }\) = \(\frac { 1 × 500 }{ 100 }\) = 5A
c. Primary and secondary powers are equal
\(\frac { Secondary power }{ Primary power }\) = 1

Question 14.
Power Station A :
Potential energy → Kinetic energy → Mechanical energy → Electrical energy.
Power Station B :
Chemical energy → Heat energy → Mechanical energy → Electrical energy.
Power Station C :
Nuclear energy → Heat energy → Mechanical energy → Electrical energy.
a. Identify the above power stations A, B, and C based on the energy change taking place in them.
b. Write down the merits and demerits of the power stations A, B, and C.
c. Name other three energy sources that can be used instead of these.
Answer:
a. A- Hydroelectric power station.
B- Thermal power station.
C- Nuclear power station.

b.1. Merits: No pollution, Energy of waterfall is used.
Demerits: Deforestation, Extinction of rare species of flora and fauna.

2. Merits: less area needed, danger possibility is less.
Demerits: Pollution, High consumption of fossil fuels.

3. Merits: Energy production on large scale, Less area needed.
Demerits: Pollution, Problems of radiation.

c. (1) Solar energy.
(2) Tidal energy.
(3) Windmills.

Question 15.
Names of power stations and statements related to them are given below in two groups. Match them suitably.
A. (1) Uses the energy of water stored at a height.
(2) Uses the heat generated by the burning of fuels.
(3) Uses nuclear energy.
B. (a) Pallivasal Power Station.
(b) Ramagundam Power Station.
(c) Kalpaklcam Power Station.
Answer:
a – 1,
b – 2,
c – 3.

Question 16.
Different stages of power production and transmission are given. Arrange them in the proper sequence.
a. Distribution transformer reduces the voltage from 11 kV to 230 V.
b. Voltage is reduced from 220 kV to 66 \ kV to supply electricity to large scale industries.
c. Turbine is rotated to operate the generator.
d. Transmission of electricity from the Power Station starts at 220 kV.
e. Electricity is produced at 11 kV.
f. Domestic consumers get electricity.
Answer:
c,
e,
d,
b,
a,
f.

Question 17.
Different stages of power transmission and distribution are given in a flow chart.

i. Choose the suitable terms from the bracket given below and arrange them in the given boxes in the correct order. (Power generator, substation, power transformer, star connection, distribution transformer, household connection, power grid)
ii. What do you mean by power grid? Give two advantages of power grid.
Answer:
i.
a. Power generator.
b. Power transformer.
c. Substation.
d. distribution transformer.
e. Star connection.
f. household connection.
ii. Power grid is the network that connects different power generating center and distribution systems to one another. Due to this arrangement, if any defect occurs either at the generator or transmission lines, electricity can be taken from any other power generating center through another set of transmission lines.

Question 18.
We use 230 V for our household purpose.
But the power produced at 11 kV is transmitted to distant places after increasing the voltage.
a. Why is electricity transmitted to distant places at high voltage?
b. Write down one disadvantage of transmitting electricity at high voltage.
c. What are the use of substations? Which type of transformer is used here?
Answer:
a. To reduce energy loss in the form of heat high voltage is used for long-distance transmission.
b. Transmission through populated areas is difficult. Transmission lines must be at a great height to ensure safety.
c. To reduce high transmission line voltage as and when required. Step down transformers are used for this purpose.

Question 19.
Power stations are centers where electricity is produced and distributed on a large scale.
a. What is the voltage of power production in our country?
b. Calculate the current if the power produced here in 11 MW.
Answer:
a. 11kV
b. p = VI
I = \(\frac { P }{ V }\) = \(\frac { 11 MV }{ 11 kV }\)

Question 20.
Identify the relation and fill up the blank.
Step up transformer: power transformer
Step down transformer:
Answer:
Distribution transformer.

Question 21.
Given diagram shows the star connection drawn by a child in his science diary.

a Can you draw a neutral line from the diagram? Why?
b.Draw the correct diagram of star connection.
Answer:
a. No: Three-phase lines do not meet at a single point.

Question 22.
Identical five bulbs of 230V and 40W are connected using star connection in the diagram given below.

a. What do you call the point N which is earthed in the circuit?
b. State the voltage differences between two phases and between a phase and neutral line in a star connection.
c. Which of the connected bulbs will glow? Why?
d. Two houses have electric connection from the same distribution transformer, but unfortunately one of the houses suffers power failure frequently; Explain it on the basis of household distribution.
Answer:
a. Neutral point.
b. 400 V in between two phases.
230 V in between a phase and neutral.
c. B4 glows because it is connected between the lines phase and neutral B, and B2 glows with low brightness. Each bulb gets 200 V as it is connected in series with 400 V.
d. Three phases in a transformer have separate fuses. So power supply problem in a line need not affect the other phases.

Question 23.
Examine the given circuits and answer the questions.

a. Identify series and parallel connection from the given circuits,
b. Parallel mode of connected devices is advisable for household electrification? Why?
Answer:
a. Figure A in series connection.
Figure B in parallel connection.
b. If the appliances are connected in parallel it will help to control each appliance with separate switches. It gives the needed voltage and current to appliances.

Question 24.
Four 60W, 230V bulbs are connected between a phase and a neutral as shown in the diagram. (Line voltage is 230 V)

a. How are the bulbs B, and B, are connected? What about B1 and B2?
b. Which bulb will glow at 60W power?
c. Which bulbs will glow with low power? Why?
d. Which bulbs in the circuit can be controlled using separate switches.
Answer:
a. B, and B, in series B₁ and B₂ in parallel.
b. B, and B₂.
c. B₃ and B₄ because each bulb gets less voltage as they are in series. So the bulb’s intensity will be less.
d. B₁ and B₂.

Question 25.
A flowchart of art household wiring is given in the diagram below. Fix the suitable devices in the space provided by picking from the given list.

(ELCB, MCB, Main switch, Watt-hour meter, Three-pin plug)
Answer:
(A) Main switch.
(B) ELCB.
(C) MCB.
(D) Three-pin plug.

Question 26.
We know that earth is an electron bank and that it has zero potential. But quite often we get electric shock from computer despite proper earthing.
a. Can electric shock from electric devices be avoided by earthing alone?
b. Proper earthing will give us safety from electric shock. What is meant by proper earthing? How can the earthing arrangement by done properly to ensure safety?
Answer:
a. No
b. Earth wire should carry all charge from the metal body of an electrical device to the earth effectively.

• Wire of suitable thickness must be used.
• Pits must be prepared to ensure effective earthing.
• Metal plates having large area as in plate earthing can be used.

Question 27.
Examine the diagram.

a. How would you connect the wires A, B and C from the electric iron to the wires of three-pin top correctly?
b.What is your response to the opinion that two pin top can be used instead of three-pin top in an electric iron?
Answer:
a. X wire is to be connected’ to earth pin. So connection should be made to be B. A and C must be connected to the wires Y and Z respectively.
b. Do not agree.
Insulation damage will carry electricity to the metallic part of electric iron. If one touches the metallic part he will get a electric shock. If the metallic part is earthed the charge will flow to the earth through the less resistance path.

Due to low resistance path the electric flow increases and the fuse burns out, thus safety is ensured or Agree. Special techniques are employed in new type iron boxes for avoiding shocks. Two pins shall be used only in such type appliances.

Question 28.
Which is the electric line to be connected to the point marked E in the diagram?

Answer:
The pin marked E must be connected to the earth line.

Question 29.
A bulb of 60W in a classroom remains switched on for a long time from 9 am to 5 pm due to the negligence of students in the class.
a. Calculate in joule the electric energy consumed by the bulb?
b. If similar negligence had happened in 3 classrooms, how many units of electric energy would have been wasted?
c. List out the different ways that can be adopted to save energy.
Answer:
a. Energy consumed =
= 60 x 8 x 60 x 60
= 1,728,000 J = 1728 KJ

b. Energy loss = \(\frac { 60 × 8 × 3 }{ 1000 }\) = 2.4 unit.

c.i. Avoid unnecessary use of lights and bulbs.
ii. Promote maximum use of natural light and wind.
iii. Use energy-efficient electrical appliances.
iv. Promote use of LED bulbs instead of filament lamps and CFL.

Question 30.
In a house 5 CF lamps each of 24 W work for a period of 5 hours and fans of 80W work for 5 hours.
a. What will be the electric consumption in kWh for a month?
b. Calculate the bill amount for one month by collecting the rate from the given table.

c. Find out the change in the monthly bill amount if CF lamps are replaced by LED lamps of 3W.
Answer:
a. One month’s consumption of energy by CFL
= \(\frac { 24 × 5 × 5 }{ 1000 }\) × 30 = 18 Unit
One month’s consumption of energy by
= \(\frac { 80 × 5 × 5 }{ 1000 }\) × 30 = 24 Unit
One month’s total consumtion of energy
= 18 + 24 = 42 Unit.
One months total bill amount
= 2.80 × 42 = Rs.118
c. One month’s total energy consumption by LED
= \(\frac { 3 × 5 × 5 }{ 1000 }\) × 30 = 2.25 Unit
2.25 + 24 = 26.25 Unit
One months bill amount
= 26.25 × 1.50
=Rs. 39.375 ≈ 40
Difference in bill amount
= 118 – 40 = 78

Electro Magnetic Induction Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Type Questions (Score 1)

Question 1.
Instead of permanent magnets, electromagnets are used as field magnets in power generators. Find out reasons from the following and write them down.
a. The strength of permanent magnets goes on decreasing.
b. The strength of electromagnets goes on decreasing.
c. Electromagnets can retain the required magnetic strength.
Answer:
a & c

Question 2.
Using the relation from the first pair, complete the other.
AC generator: slip rings
DC generator:
Answer:
Split rings.

Question 3.
Find the odd one in the group and write the reason.
[Voice coil, permanent magnet, slip rings, diaphragm]
Answer:
Slip rings. Others are parts of microphone.

Question 4.

Name the type of transformer.
Answer:
Step-up transformer.

Question 5.
What is the basic principle of working of a transformer?
Answer:
Mutual induction

Question 6.
A solenoid is connected to a galvanometer. A magnet is moved into and out of the solenoid frequently.

Which of the following will be most similar to the time emf graph of the electricity available from the solenoid.

Answer:
Figure 1

Question 7.
Using the relation from the first pair, complete the other.
AC generator: armature.
Moving coil galvanometer:
Answer:
Voice coil

Question 8.
Name the solenoid which is used to control emf.
Answer:
Inductor.

Question 9.
What is the number of turns 6f a secondary coil of a step-down transformer compared to primary?
(increasing, decreasing, doesn’t change)
Answer:
Increasing.

Question 10.
Which is used as rotor in the power generators?
Answer:
Field magnet.

Question 11.
Name the network which is connected in different power generating centers and distribution systems.
Answer:
Grid.

Question 12.
Using the relation from the first pair, complete the other.
Moolamattom – Hydroelectric power station
Kota –
Answer:
Nuclear power station

Question 13.
Find the odd one in the group and write the reason.
[Nuclear energy, Thermal energy, Kinetic energy, Electrical energy]
Answer:
Kinetic energy. Others are energy changes related to nuclear power stations.

Question 14.
What is the potential of the point where all the 3 phase lines are connected together?
Answer:
Zero potential.

Question 15.
What is the voltage of electricity supplied for domestic consumption?
a. 400 V
b. 250V
c. 230V
d. 50V
Answer:
230V

Question 16.
Using the relation from the first pair, complete the other.
Armature – Stator
Field magnet –
Answer:
Rotor.

Question 17.
The following diagram shows a three-pin Plug.

To which line is the fuse connected.
Answer:
The fuse is connected to the phase line.

Question 18.
In a household electric circuit. Where is the MCB (Miniature Circuit Breaker) connected?
Answer:
MCB is connected to the main fuse board.

Question 19.
Using the relation from the first pair, complete the other.
Hydroelectric power station flowing water Thermal power station –
Answer:
Steam at high pressure and temperature.

Question 20.
From given below, which device is used to measure electrical energy.
a. Transformer.
b. Watt-hour meter.
c. Three-pin plug.
d. Generator.
Answer:
b. Watt-hour meter.

Very Short Answer Type Questions (Score 2)

Question 21.
The figure shows a conductor PQ situated in a magnetic field, connected to circuit.

a. If the conductor is moved in the direction A, what is the direction of induced current?
b. State the rule used to find out the direction of induced current.
Answer:
a. from Q to P
b. Fleming’s right-hand rule. It states that hold the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of the right hand in mutually perpendicular direction, forefinger represents the direction of the magnetic field, middle finger represents the direction of current and thumb finger represents the direction of motion of the conductor.”

Question 22.
There are 10000 turns in the primary and 500 turns in the secondary of a transformer. The primary voltage is 240V and intensity of current in the primary is 0.1 A. Find the intensity of current if the secondary voltage is 12V?
Answer:

Question 23.
Match the following suitably.

Answer:

Question 24.
Arun decided to construct a transformer to change 240V to 12V.
a. Where does it need more number of turns in the primary or in the secondary?
b. Find the number of turns in the primary if 200 turns are used in the secondary.
Answer:
a. More number of turns are used in the primary.
B. \(\frac { Vs }{ Vp }\) = \(\frac { Ns }{ Np }\),
V_p = 240 V,
N_s = 200,
V_s = 12 V
N_p = \(\frac { Vp × Ns }{ Ns }\)
= \(\frac { 240 × 200 }{ 12 }\)
= 4000 Turns

Question 25.
Back e.m.f reduces the effective, voltage in the circuit. What is your opinion about this statement? Substantiate.
Answer:
When an AC passes through a solenoid, a changing magnetic field is generated around it. Due to this, an induced emf is generated inside the solenoid. This induced emf is in a direction opposite to the emf applied on the coil. Hence this is called back emf. Back e.m.f reduces the effective voltage in the circuit.

Question 26.
Arrange the following in given order.
Distribution transformer → Power generator → Substation → Power transformer
Answer:
Power generator → Power transformer → Substation → Distribution transformer.

Question 27.
In a household electric circuit
a. Where is the MCB (Miniature Circuit Breaker) connected?
b. What is the function of ELCB (Earth Leakage Circuit Breaker)
Answer:
a. MCB is connected to the main fuse board.
b. Prevents loss of. electricity through the circuits.

Question 28.
Write the voltages of the labeled parts a, b, c and d

Answer:
a. 11 KV
b. 220 KV
c. 11 KV
d. 230 V

Question 29.
Given is a schematic diagram of a household circuit which includes bulbs and a three-pin socket.

i. What does the dotted line represent?
ii. Which three parts are marked wrong in the diagram?
iii. Suggest methods to correct this.
Answer:
i. Earth line.
ii. 1. fuse is connected to the neutral
2. The switches S₁ and S₂ are connected to the neutral.
3. Three-pin socket is connected to the earth.

Very Short Answer Type Questions (Score 3)

Question 30.

Identify the device shown in the figure.

b. Suggest two methods to increase the emf obtained when such device work.
Answer:
a. ac generator
b. Increase the number of turns in the coil Use high strength magnets. Increase the speed of the motion of magnet.

Question 31.

a. Where is thick wire used in the primary or secondary?
b. Find the number of turns in the primary if there are 50 turns in the secondary coil?
Answer:
a. Secondary coil.
b. \(\frac { V_s }{ V_p }\) = \(\frac { N_s }{ N_p }\)
Primary Voltage V_p = 100 V
Secondary Voltage V_s = 10 V
No. of turns in the secondary (Ns) = 50
= \(\frac { 10s }{ 100p }\) = \(\frac { 50 }{ N_p }\)
N_p = \(\frac { V_p × N_s }{ V_s }\)
= \(\frac { 100 × 50 }{ 10 }\)
= 500 turns

Question 32.
Secondary coil is arranged near the primary coil both made up of insulated copper wire without touching on an iron core. A bulb is connected in the secondary coil. When an A.C was given in the primary it is found that the bulb glows.

i. How is current reached into the secondary coil from the primary even though they do not touch?
ii. Name the phenomenon.
Answer:
i. When an A.C flows through the primary coil a changing magnetic field is produced in it. This magnetic field induces a current in the secondary coil. So bulb in the secondary coil glows.,

ii. Mutual induction.

Question 33.
i. Which part produces magnetic field for the working of a generator?
ii. What is the function of the armature coil in the generator?
iii. Which parts in the A.C generator helps to reach current in the external circuit from the moving armature?
Answer:
i. Field magnet
ii. The armature coil cuts the magnetic flux lines and an induced emf is produced in the armature coil.
iii.Brushes and slip rings.

Question 34.
Convert 1 Kilowatt-hour of electric energy into Joules.
Answer:
1k Wh = 1000W × 1 hr
= 1000 W × 60 × 60 s = 3600000 Ws
= 3600000 J

Question 35.

Answer:
a. Hydroelectric power station.
b. Hydroelectric power station.
c. Water from dams.
d. Thermal power station.
e. Thermal power station.
f. Lignite.

Question 36.
Answer the following questions related to a three-pin plug.
a. How is the earth pin different from other pins?
b. In which of the three connecting wires should a switch be connected?
Answer:
a. The length and thickness of the earth pin is more than that of other pins. Since the length is more, when the three-pin is introduced into the socket, the earth pin comes into contact with the circuit first.
b. Phase wire.

Question 37.
a. Some energy sources are given below.
From them find out which source produces green energy.
i. Energy from fossil fuel.
ii. Nuclear energy.
iii.Solar energy.
iv.Energy from wind.
b. Write any two applications of green energy at the time of making of a house.
Answer:
a. Solar energy, Energy from wind
b. Avoid solar panels.
Use biogas plants.

Question 38.
In a household, there are 4 CFL’s of 15W each working for 5 hrs a day, 2 fans of 60W working for 5 hrs daily, 500W iron box working for 15 minutes a day. How many units of electricity is used in this house. What is the cost of electricity costing Rs.3 per unit?
Answer:
CFL Power =15 × 4 = 60 W,
time = 5hrs.
Fan Power = 60 × 2 = 120 W,
time = 5 hrs.
Iron box Power = 500 W,
time = 15 min = 1/4 hrs .
Energy in k Wh = (\(\frac { Power used in house }{ 1000 }\) ) × time
= 1.025
Electricity used per day= 1.025 kWh
Electricity used per month = 1.025 × 30
= 30.75 kWh
Cost of electricity at Rs.3 per unit = 30.75 × 3
= Rs.92.25

Very Short Answer Type Questions (Score 4)

Question 39.
i. What is the basic principle of working of a transformer?
ii. Write the function of a step up and a step-down transformer.
iii.Transformers work only in AC. They do not work in DC. why?
Answer:
i. Mutual induction
ii. A step-up transformer raises AC voltage. A step-down transformer decreases AC voltage.
iii. The direction of current flow is changed in AC. When AC flows through the primary, current is induced in the secondary due to mutual induction. There is no mutual induction in DC as its direction does not change. So a transformer cannot work in DC.

Question 40.

a. Write the observation when the switch is kept on and off continuously.
b. What can we do for getting light continuously?
c. Explain the process.
Answer:
a. Bulb will light only alternatively. When switch is in the ON position bulb will not light.
b. When an AC current is given in primary the primary coil its primary coil its magnetic flux around will continuously change and electricity is induced in the secondary coil.
c. Mutual Induction
If two coils are set apart and the electric current through one of the coil changes by its intensity or direction, the magnetic flux around it changes and an electricity is induced in the second coil. This phenomenon is called Mutual Induction.

Question 41.
An experiment is performed using a magnet and a coil of wire as shown in the figure.

a. From the following activities, find out the instants in which the galvanometer deflects.
i. The magnet is placed at rest inside the solenoid.
ii. Magnet is quickly inserted into the solenoid.
iii. The magnet is placed in the solenoid and then solenoid and the magnet are moved with the same speed in the same direction.
iv. The magnet is placed within the solenoid and the solenoid alone is moved to one side.
b.Write down the principle of the above observations.
Answer:
a. (ii) and (iv).
b. Electromagnetic induction.

Question 42.
Given below are the readings obtained from a transformer.

a. What type of transformer is this?
b. What is the principle of a transformer?
c. If power loss occurs, how much is it?
Answer:
a. Step-up transformer
b. Electromagnetic Induction
c. Power in the primary P = VI
= 150 × 1 = 150 W
Power in the secondary = VI
= 1000 × 1/10 = 100 W
Power loss = 150 – 100
= 50 W

Question 43.
a. A transformer working on a 240V AC supplies 12 V. The number of turns in the primary coil is 1000. Calculate the number of turns in the secondary coil.
b. In this transformer thick wire is used in which coil primary or secondary and what is the reason for it?
Answer:
a. \(\frac { V_s }{ V_p }\) = \(\frac { N_s }{ N_p }\)
V_s × V_p = N_s × N_p
V_s = 12 V
N_p = 1000
V_p = 240 V
N_s = V_s × \(\frac { V_s }{ V_p }\)
= 12 V × \(\frac { 1000 }{ 240 V }\)
= 50 turns
b. For maintaining same power.
Power = Voltage × Current Therefore if voltage is lower, thickness of the coil must be increased. Therefore thick wire is used in the secondary coil.

Question 44.
Kuttiadi, Kayamkulam, Kaiga, Kalpakkam, Mooiamattom
Some power stations in India shown in above.
a. Tabulate the above power stations according to the energy changes.
b. How does the electricity produced from Moolamattam power station?
c. Industrially electricity produced in the form of a.c. Why?
Answer:
a.

b.Water stored at a height is allowed to flow down a penstock pipe. The energy of flowing water is used to rotate the turbine and generate electricity.
c. It helps the transformer for rising and decreasing voltage.

Memory Map

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Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 10 Civic Consciousness Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 10 Notes

Civic consciousness is an important’ idea in the contemporary world. A society lacking civic consciousness will become weak. For maintaining the unity and integrity of a nation, people having civic consciousness are unavoidable. A society with civic consciousness can only solve the problems of die society.

10th Standard Social Question 1.
Point out factors determining civic consciousness.
Answer:

• Family
• Education
• Organizations
• Social system
• Political system

Civic Consciousness Question 2.
Consider the following issues in your society and suggest remedial measures using your civic consciousness

Answer:

Kerala SSLC Social Science Notes 2017 Question 3.
How can children be educated about Civic consciousness?
Answer:
Children need to be taught civic consciousness early because unlike a specific skill, civic consciousness is a school of thought in itself. It is belief in hygiene, respect for other members of society, and humane behavior. Begin by teaching children to keep their immediate surroundings clean and tidy. If they learn to appreciate cleanliness, they will be able to practice it outside of home as well. Explain to them that just because other people dirty their surroundings do not mean them should too.

10th Standard Science Syllabus Question 4.
Suggest the activities that can be initiated by the school for developing civic consciousness in students.
Answer:

• Environmental day observation
• Planting of trees
• Class on importance of blood donation
• Visit of orphanages
• Awareness on storage of water and rainwater harvesting.

Civic Consciousness Example Question 5.
Analyze the role played by organizations in developing civic consciousness. ‘
Answer:

• Develops political sense
• Develops nationalism
• Teacher human rights,\olerance, etc.
• Participates in environment protection.

Question 6.
Give examples of great personalities who had shown civic consciousness
Answer:

• APJ Abdul Kalam
• Mother Theresa
• Mayilamma
• Dasharath Manjhi

Social Science Activity for Class 10 Question 7.
Find out relationship between civic sense and morality.
Answer:
Civic consciousness means social ethics. It reflects the actual personality and shows the responsibility of any person. Morality refers to those principles concerning the distinction between right and wrong or good and bad behavior.

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Describe the role of democracy in developing civic consciousness.
Answer:
Democracy plays significant role in developing civic consciousness. Democracy is the base of all factors contributing to civic consciousness. Rather than an administrative system, democracy is a lifestyle. In each and every human activity, there should be a democratic approach. It is the requirement of a democratic society to develop a group of people having co-operation and tolerance. So democracy will enable us to think about one fellow man, and protect their freedom, equality, and human rights. In short, democracy is the key element of civic sense.

10 Standard Science Question 9.
There are instances of moral and immoral activities in our society. Identify them and fill the following table.

Answer:

These are many factors which help the formation of civic consciousness. Family, education, democratic system, etc., help the formation of the civic consciousness. There is a close relation between civic consciousness and morality.

Question 10.
Given below-some activities with civic sense and with-out civic consciousness. Mark (✓) against the one having civic sense an (✗) against the one having no civic sense.

Answer:

Civic consciousness faces many challenges. The basis of civic consciousness is the activities for the betterment of the society. Media also play an important role in fostering civic consciousness.

Civic Consciousness Model Questions & Answers

Question 11.
What do you mean by civic consciousness?
Answer:
Civic consciousness means social ethics. It reflects the actual personality and shows the responsibility of any person.

Question 12.
Why is civic consciousness important?
Answer:
Separatism, vandalism, intolerance, racism, road rage etc. are all examples of lack of civic consciousness. People are becoming less and less tolerant of each other, of other’s cultures, backgrounds, and other similar traits. India has really diverse people and the need of the hour is general civic sense. It is not uncommon to read or hear about communal friction. Even living in the city has become difficult because people have no consideration whatsoever for fellow city-dwellers.

When civic consciousness is absent in a society, it leads to a lot of problems. Disregard for the law is a primary cause for lacking civic sense. A person who has high civic values does not resort to shortcuts and unethical tactics to get his work done. And being unethical in daily activities does not benefit anyone, as the behavior only gets emulated by other members of society. Ultimately, the situation will reach a point where hardly anything can be done to restore it.

For example, being inconsiderate towards fellow society members will only come right back at you. You have to be social, mature and unbiased when it comes to situations in public. The current state of public transport, for example, is disheartening. And we have no one to blame but ourselves for this condition. There are spit marks, urine, vulgar graffiti, random garbage and overflowing sewers at every nook and corner of India. No city in this country has managed to fight the menace. It is easy to pin everything on the government, but people must first question themselves and their own civic sense. Roads are not dirty because nobody cleaned it, but because somebody dirtied it in the first place.

And such dirt and grime is not acceptable to anybody; it exists only because everybody does it. Even swine flu, which is quickly spreading across the coun: try, was caused by the absence of hygiene. It does not help that people are irresponsible with the disposal of bio-waste. And people continue to indulge in such behavior in spite of knowing the harmful effect. Using everybody does it is an excuse. In India, even prominent personalities indulge in proud displays of lack of civic sense. Take, for example, ministers who delay planes with complete disregard for other passengers or companies that freely pollute rivers and lakes. Itis difficult for a country to change its mindset when its leaders themselves are setting bad examples, round the clock, all the time.

Question 13.
Point out the evils that will be developed in the absence of civic sense.
Answer:
Separatism, vandalism, intolerance, racism, road rage

Question 14.
Point out the I importance of family values in Life
Answer:

• A family is a unit of parents and the children. Value is defined as the quality or worth of a thing.
• Social standards and customs defined by a family prove the emotional and physical basis for a child.
• Values developed by a family are the foundation for how children learn, grow and function in the world. These beliefs transmit the way of life a child lives and changes into an individual in a
• society.
• These values and morals guide the individual every time in his actions. Children tun out to be a good person because of the value taught and given by his family members.
• Ideas passed down from generation to generation make up a family values. It answers the basic question of how one want to like the family life. Family values enhance the character and turn the children to be good human beings.
• Beliefs and trusts built around a family helps the children to be responsible and conscientious adults.
• A child has a strong sense of what is right and wrong and are less likely to become victim of deviant influences.
• Children who are influenced by strong moral values identify them in others quickly which then produces a new generation with similar beliefs.

Question 15.
Where and how does civic education take place? Many institutions help develop citizens’ knowledge and skills and shape their civic character and commitments. Family, religious institutions, the media, and community groups exert important influences. Schools, however, bear a special and historic responsibility for the development of civic competence and civic responsibility. Schools fulfill that responsibility through both formal and informal education beginning in the earliest years and continuing through the entire educational process.

Question 16.
What is the major challenge of civic consciousness?
Answer:
Standing for one’s own interest by neglecting general interests of the society is the major challenge of civic consciousness.

Let Us Assess

Question 17.
Point out the characteristics of persons having civic consciousness.
Answer:

• Social commitment.
• Tolerance.
• Helping Mentality
• Environmental concerns
• Moral values
• Sympathy

Question 18.
Explain Civic consciousness?
Answer:
Civic sense is nothing but social ethics. It is considered by the people for the unspoken norms of society. A lot of people assume that civic sense is just about keeping the roads, streets and public property clean. But civic sense is more than that; it has to do with law-abiding, respect for fellow men and maintaining decorum in public places. A lot of foreign countries function in a smooth manner because of the strong civic sense amongst its people.

Question 19.
Discuss the role of family in inculcating civic consciousness.
Answer:
The family is important in developing the moral values of child. There is a close contact between the parents and children, which determines the personality of child.
Family is the foundation on which values are built. Moral values like truthfulness, happiness, peace, justice are instilled in children’s thoughts, feelings and actions and they function as ideals and standards that govern their actions in their life.

The value system practiced in the family becomes automatic to the young family embers if they are taught moral values systematically. The family, shapes the child’s attitude towards people and society, and helps in mental growth in the child and supports his ambitions and values. Blissful and cheerful atmosphere in the family will develop the love, affection, tolerance, and generosity.

A child learns his behavior by modeling what he sees around him. Family plays a major role in helping a child socialize and has great influence and bearing on the progress of the child. Joint family stem, the presence of elders in the family plays the effective . role in social and moral development of the children. It will also help young generation of the family to imbibe human values and eradicate their negative mental tendencies when they are among elders. Children identify themselves with their parents, other family elders and adopt them as their personal models for emulation and imitation and hero-worship them.

The behavioral problems are set correct only by the involvement of family in the child’s life as they spend most of their time in adolescence with the parents. Family is the first social organization that provides the immediate proximity from which the kid can learn his behavior.

Question 20.
What is civic education?
Answer:
Civic Education in a democracy is education in self-government. Democratic self-government means that citizens are actively involved in their own governance; they do not just passively accept the dictums of others or acquiesce to the demands of others. As Aristotle put it in his Politics (c 340 BC), “If liberty and equality, as is thought by some, are chiefly to be found in democracy, they will be attained when all persons alike share in the government to the utmost. “In other words, the ideals of democracy are most completely realized when every member of the political community shares in its governance.

Members of the political community are its citizens, hence citizenship in a democracy in membership in the body politic. Membership implies participation, but not participation for participation’s sake. Citizen participation in a democratic society must be based on informed, critical reflection, and on the understanding and acceptance of the rights and responsibilities that go with that membership.

Question 21.
Suggest methods for overcoming the challenges feed by civic consciousness.
Answer:
i) Critically evaluate one’s own activities.
ii) Stand for own interests without hurting public interests.
iii) Develop democratic approach.
iv) Give equal consideration to rights and duties.

Question 22.
Discuss the role of education and media in developing civic consciousness.
Answer:
The aim of education is to enable a person to practice the knowledge he learnt from various subjects in the society. In this way, education helps in developing tolerance, values, leadership qualities, scientific awareness, and environmental awareness. A society with great civic sense can be produced by value-based education.

Media also play important role in developing civic sense. Both print and electronic media influence the society. News and information are brought to the society by these media. Correct and fact-based in-formation will help in creative idea dorm action. Thus media should be free and impartial. Their role should also be evaluated critically.

Question 23.
Prepare a note on “Social science learning and civic consciousness”.
Answer:
The study of social science helps in developing civic sense in people. Social science itself deals with studies related to man and society. The study of social studies help in civic sense development in the following ways.

• Social science studies help individuals to behave will in a society and respect the diversities of the nation wittolerance.
• Social studies helps to understand the socio-political-economic and environmental issues under various
• situations.
• Social studies studies enable a person to suggest creative and effective solutions to solve social issues.
• Social studies being the message of peace and coexistence into the propel.
• Social studies familiarise examples of great personalities and thereby enrich the society with great civic sense.

Question 24. (Qn. Pool-2017)
What is meant by civic consciousness?
Answer:
Civic consciousness is the awareness that each citizen is for the society and the best interests of the society are same that of the interests of the citizen.

Question 25. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Write two problems in society due to the lack of civic consciousness. Suggest two measures to rectify them.
Answer:
Problems — Measures to rectify
Water scarcity — Rainwater harvesting
Environmental pollution — Garbage treatment of source
Corruption — Awareness against corruption
Epidemics — Awareness, cleaning
Poisoned vegetables — Organic farming (Any two)

Question 26.
What are the important factors that formulate civic consciousness?
Answer:
Family, education, associations, social system, political system.

Question 27. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Family and education play significant role in fostering civil consciousness. Substantiate.
Answer:
Family:

• Respect elders
• Foster responsibility in members
• Encourage social-services

Education:

• Equips to utilize knowledge for the benefit of society.
• Creates value-based education, environmental awareness, scientific awareness, tolerance, etc.

Question 28. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Explain the role of media and democratic system in fostering civic consciousness.
Answer:
Media:

• Truthful news and information made possible to reaches the people.
• Do independent and impartial media work.
• Evaluate information critically.

Democratic system:

• Inevitable component of civic consciousness.
• Democracy is a way of life. Foster co-operation and create awareness about liberty, equality and right.
• Democracy is based on the rule of law.

Question 29. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Mother Teresa and Kallen Pokkudan became role models of civic consciousness based on their style of life. Substantiate.
Answer:
Mother Teresa: Nursing the destitute and charity work
Kallen Pokkudan: Planted mangroves and created environmental awareness

Question 30. (Qn. Pool-2017)
What is meant by morality?
Answer:
Morality means executing one’s duties as responsible persons with discretion to choose right from the wrong.

Question 31. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Those who tries to foster civic consciousness in society faces a number of challenges. Write two measures to overcome them.
Answer:

• Should take up work without denying public interest.
• Act democratically with tolerance. (Similar answers should be considered)

Question 32. (Qn. Pool-2017)
How can we utilize the study of social science in formulating civic consciousness?
Answer:

• Respects diversity through study to social science.
• Behave intolerance.
• Helps to understand the various backgrounds of political, social, economic and environmental problems.
• Equips the individual to suggest comprehensive solutions to different problems.
• Disseminate the message of peace and co-operation among the people in society.

10 Standard Science Part Question 33. (Qn. Pool -2017)
What are the problems faced by people due to the absence of civic consciousness?
Answer:
Selfishness, absence of peace and insecurity.

Question 34. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Civic consciousness helps to solve several problems faced by society. Substantiate.
Answer:
Problems — Measures to rectify
Scarcity of water — Rainwater harvesting
Environmental pollution — Garbage disposal at source
Corruption —Awareness against corruption

Question 35. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Associations can promote environmental awareness and awareness on human rights in individuals. Substantiate.
Answer:
Possible. Several associations are working in the fields of environmental protection, human rights protection, charity, etc.,

Question 36. (Orukkam – 2017)

Answer:

Question 37. (Orukkam – 2017)
The main challenge faced by civic consciousness is the mindset to do anything for the sake of one’s own personal interest by.negating public interest. Find out the ways to overcome the challenges of civic consciousness.

Answer:

Question 38. (Orukkam – 2017)
Prepare a table and classify the following statements as activities with civic consciousness and without civic consciousness.
1. Obey traffic rules even if you are busy.
2. There is nothing wrong in disposing of garbage in public places.
3. Don’t complain against injustice.
4. It is my duty to protect historical monuments.
5. Corruption is permissible during crucial situations.
Answer:

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 1 Revolutions that Influenced the World Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 1 Notes

Revolutions that Influenced the World

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Renaissance made significant changes in human thought, views, and life. Let us examine them.
Answer:

• Humanism
• Scientific temper
• Growth of Literature
• Rational thinking
• Spirit of Criticism
• Spirit of Inquiry

Revolutions That Influenced The World Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
“No taxation without representation” This was a slogan that thundered along different parts of North America in the second half of the 18th century. What did people demand through this slogan, framed by James Ottis?
Answer:

• Representation in government
• It is anti-people if no representation
• No taxation without representation

Revolution That Influenced The World Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Observe the map and list out the 13 British
colonies in North America.
Answer:

• Georgia
• Maryland
• Delaware
• Pennsylvania
• Newyork
• Massachusetts
• South Carolina
• Virginia
• New Jersey
• Connecticut
• Rhode Island
• New Hampshire

Revolutions That Influenced The World Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
“The mercantilist laws turned the American colonial people against their mother land”. Assess the statement.
Answer:

• Restrictions & Taxes in TradeSpoiled Domestic Trade in Colonies
• Restrictions in Export
• Meeting the Expense of British Troops
• British Stamps for all Legal Papers Restrictions in Export, Increase in Tax, Stamp Duty, Meeting the Expense of British Troops
• Mercantilist Law was against the Rights & Liberty of the People
• Increase in Tax, Stamp Duty

Those reasons make mercantilist laws turned the American colonial people against their mother land.

Sslc History Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Regarding human rights and freedom, what all can you find in this American Independence declaration?
Answer:

• All are equal
• Everyone has certain rights
• Rights should be secured
• Govt, with the consent of governed
• Right of the people to abolish govt.

Revolution That Influenced The World Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Prepare a flow chart illustrating the various events that led to the formation of the USA?
Answer:

Revolution That Influenced The World Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Prepare a note on the ideologies of the American War of Independence that are reflected in the constitution of India.
Answer:
Various ideologies could be seen in the constitution of India put forward by American War of In dependance. The concept of a republican form of government is the prominent one. Also, the first written constitution, the concept of federal system that ensured freedom and authority of states in the Union too are important.

Sslc History Chapter 1 Important Questions Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Analyse the chart and give answers for the foil owing questions.
(French society textbook page no:15)
Revolutions That Influenced The World Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Which estate enjoyed higher social privilege and status and led a luxurious life in France?
Answer:
First estate and second estate.
Revolutions That Influenced The World Questions And Answers Pdf Question 2.
To which estate did the majority of the people belong?
Answer:
Third estate
Revolution That Influenced The World Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Which estate exploited the common people and accumulated wealth?
Answer:
Clergy and Nobles
Revolutions That Influenced The World Focus Area Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Which estate desired a change in the system? Why?
Answer:
Third estate. Because they paid taxes and had low social status.

Revolutions That Influenced The World Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Examine the membership strength of each Estate given in the table below. Relate it with their demand regarding the voting system.
Answer:
State General
The First Estate  –  285
The Second Estate  –  308
The Third Estate  –  621
One vote for 1^st and second estate. In the third a vote for each member
Vote for first estate – 285
Vote for second estate – 308
Vote for third estate – 621
If one vote is given for each member of each estate the third estate will have the majority of one vote is given for each estate, when they stay united the first and second can easily beat the third.

10th History Notes Kerala Syllabus  Question 10.
Analyse the events related to French Revolution and evaluate how far it could attain the goals of liberty, equality, and fraternity.
Answer:
In 1789, Louis XVI summoned the French parliament. Instead of one vote for an estate, the concept of individual vote was overruled by 2 estates.
Third estate declared themselves as National Assembly of France which assembled in a Tennis Court nearby on 20^th June 1789 and swore not to leave until they had framed a constitution of France. This event is known as Tennis Court Oath, probably, the begining of French Revolution.

France turned into blood shed and captured the food products and sources. On 14^th July 1789, the Bastile prison of Paris wars demolished.

10th History Chapter 1 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
A part of the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen passed by the French National Assembly is given below. Discuss how far the aims and slogans of the French Revolution are reflected in it.
Answer:
Human rights declaration is a document that ensures equality and freedom to an individual. Some parts of the Human rights declaration passed by the National assembly of trance are given in the textbook. It is the ideology of Rousseau that is reflected in the Declaration of the Rights of Man. The national assembly put forward many rules for the welfare of the people during the time period. Many modifications were introduced in France through these laws.

History 10th Class Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Analyse the aims and influence of the French Revolution.
Answer:
To put an end to autocracy was the main aim of French Revolution. Also to ensure liberty, equality, and fraternity and to protect the human rights was an aim with the powerful struggle of French Revolution. All these aims were fulfilled.

Revolution That Influenced The World Chapter Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
Examine the reforms and policies of Napoleon and identify the ideologies of French Revolution reflected in them, (table)
Answer:
The concepts of French Revolution:

• Rise of the Middle Class
• End of feudalism
• Nationalism

Policies & Reforms of Napoleon:

• Constructed Roads
• New Code ofLaw
• Established Bank of France
• Sinking Fund
• Farmers were made the owners of land
• Exercised control over the clergy

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
These are the words of one of the characters in ‘The mother’, the novel written by world famous Russian writer Maxim Gorky. The plight of workers and farmers in Russia and their aims are reflected in them(Textbook Page no. 21). What else can you make out from these words about the then Russian society?
Answer:

• Workers are the basis of Production
• Workers have no Rights
• Workers were Exploited by Capitalists

What were the demands of the workers?
Answer:

• Abolish the private property system
• Everyone has to work
• Authority to People & Workers
• Production Control by People

Hss Live Social Science 10th Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Russian revolution was greatly motivated by the despotic rule of tzar” Discuss.
Answer:
Workers and farmers led a miserable life under the autocratic rule of the Tsar emperors who ruled over Russia. The low production on the agricultural field seriously affected the income of the farmers. Besides, the land less farmers were burdened with heavy taxes. Although Russia was rich in natural resources, but its industrial productiom was very low.

Most of the exisiting industries were controlled by the foriengers. The Marxist ideologies formulated by Karl Marx and Frederick Engels stirred the workers. They called for establishing the supremacy of the workers instead of that by the capitalists. Trade unions were formed to find remedies for the plight of the workers. Based on the Marxist ideologies, the Social Democratic Workers Party was formed. On behalf of this trade unions workers organized protest marches.

History Chapter 1 Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
Analyse the circumstances that led to form a provisional government in Russia.
Answer:
In 1914, many Russian soldiers were killed in the first world war and in 191 7, food shortage became severe and thousands of women marched along the streets on March 8 clamoring for bread. The workers organised a protest march in Petrograd, the soldiers clashed with the demonstrators in the beginning but later joined the workers.

It was the tragic experience during the First World War that induced them to do so. The workers captured Petrograd and Nicholas II was thrown out of power. A provisional government was formed under Alexander Kerensky, the Menshevik leader.

10th Class History Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
Discuss the role of the October Revolution in establishing the proletariat government in Russia.
Answer.
A part of soviets in Russia was against the provisional government under the relationship of Alexander Kerensky, the Mensherivik leader. Vladimer Lenin who was in Switzerland also critizized the provisional government of Russia. If the revolt has to the fruitful the authority must be completely transferred to the soviets was his dicussion. The Bolshevicks and the soviets welcomed the discussion. Bolshevik propagated the inequalities and the miseries could be eradicated only be the socialist. They put forward a few needs.

1. Russia must stay away from the First World War.
2. To distribute the land captured by the kings to the farmers.
3. Factories must be kept as the public prosperity.

Hsslive Guru 10th Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 18.
Compare the strategies of colonial powers in China with the strategies that they adopted in other colonies.
Answer:
The colonial powers exported raw materials from other colonies and imported products to the colonies. China gained profit through import to European countries. China dominated over colonies through wars. The people were financially exploited. As a remedy, the British traders imported Opium, an intoxicant to China which effected the Chinese trade and made them mentally imbalanced.

Question 19.
“Chinese Revolution of 1911 led to the liberation ofChina from foreign powers and monarchy” Examine the statement
Answer:

Question 20.
Prepare a note on the role played by Mao Zedong to make China a peoples republic.
Answer:
Chiang Kai-Shek ascertained military autocracy in China. He gave opportunity for foreign powers including America to freely interfere in China and did not co-operate with the Communists. Coal and iron industries, banking, and foreign trade were all controlled by foreign countries. The Communists protested against the policy of Chiang Kai-Shek. They were brutally suppressed.

At that time Mao Zedong rose to the leadership of the Communist party. In 1934, under the leadership of Mao Zedong, a journey started from Kiangsi in South China. The adventurous trip ended at Yanan in North-Western China. Throughout the journey, they seized out agricultural land and villages from lords and distributed them among the farmers.

The journey covered around 12000 kms. So it is known as the ‘Long March’. Hence Mao Zedong and the Communist Party became the symbol of struggle of the Chinese against foreign power. Chiang Kai-Shek had to seek political asylum in Taiwan, when the Red Army ofMao Zedong captured the centre of Kuomintang rule. China became the People’s Republic ofChina on 1st October 1949 under the leadership of Mao Zedong.

Question 21.
Compare the revolutions that took place in America, Europe and Asia and complete the table.
Answer:

Revolutions That Influenced The World Let US Assess

Question 1.
‘American War of Independence was a movement of the English against England.’ Substantiate the statement
Answer:
From the 16^th century onwards the Europeans began to migrate to North America. The major aim of the migration was to exploit the resources.

By the 18^th century, England had established 13 colonies in the eastern coast of North America. The British treated these colonies as centers for collecting raw materials for their industry and as market for selling their products. People of the colonies protested against the policies and rules of the British, submitted petition to the King of England. They demanded the revocation of the regulation enforced on industry and commerce.

This led to the war between England and the colonies. The second Continental Congress held at Philadelphia in 1775 elected George Washington as the commander-in-chief of the Continental Army. During this time, through the pamphlet titled “common sense”, Thomas Paine declared that it was wise for the Americans to break the ties with Britain. The American Continental Congress issued the famous Declaration ofIndependence on 4^th July 1776.

The war between En-gland and the colonies in North America that began with the declaration of freedom, ended in 1781. According to the Treaty of Paris in 1783, England ratified the freedom of 13 colonies. The constitution convention held at Philadelphia under the leadership of James Madison, framed the American constitution. Geor-ge Washington became the first president of the United States of America, formed in accordance with the new constitution. Since American War of Independence transformed the system existed there, it is known as American Revolution. It greatly influenced the later history of the world in different ways.

Question 2.
How did the resentment of the middle class lead to the French Revolution?
Answer:
The Revolution that took place in 1789 was against the Autocratic rule and feudal system is known as French Revolution. The middle class of the society consisted of traders, writers, lawyers, offici-als, teachers, and bankers. These middle class people were known as bourgeoisie meaning city dewellers. They did not enjoy any representation in administration. They realised that according to the constitution it is impossible to retain their rights and this led to French Revolution.

Question 3.
Arrange the following events in chronological order.

• February Revolution
• Long March
• American Declaration of Indepen¬dence
• Tennis Court Oath

Answer:
American Declaration of independence

• Tennis Court Oath
• February Revolution
• Long March

Social Science Class 10 State Syllabus Question 4.
How did the French Revolution influence the reforms of Napoleon?
Answer:
The French who revolted for noble aims had to survive under the autocratic rule of Napoleon Bonaparte for a short period. Napoleon played a crucial role in defeating the European alliance which was formed under the leaderhsip of Britain against France in the post revolution period. He seized the power in France in 1799. Though an autocrat, he instituted several reforms in France. Those reforms were stimulated by the ideas and aims of the French Revolution. They are given below.

• Farmers were made the owners of land.
• Formed sinking fund with the aim to avoid public debt.
• Constructed several roads for transportation.
• Excercised states control over the clergy.
• Established Bank of France to centralize finance.
• Prepared a new code of law by codifying the existing laws.

Through the strong revolution, the dreams of the French people were satisfied by the rise of the middle class and end of fuedalism.

French Revolution Question Answer Question 5.
How did the colonial rule influence the Latin American countries?
Answer:
The Europeans looted the wealth and resources of Latin American countries and even erased their traditional culture. The official language of most of the Latin American countries is Spanish.

After colonizing the entire Latin America, the Spanish, and the Portuguese propagated their language, religion, and customs there. They built houses and churches in Spanish style. Several schools were established for imparting Spanish system of education. The Spanish fanning methods and crops were adopted. New diseases spread from the Europeans to the Latin American people. Racial discrimination towards the people of the colonies was enforced in all walks of life.

• Took away gold, silver, etc. from the Latin American mines.
• Never allowed the people of the colonies to engage in trade with countries other than Spain.
• The things produced in Spain were not permitted to be produced in the colonies.
• People had to work in hazardous environment in mines without any safety measures.
• Enslaved the natives to work in plantations.

French Revolution Long Questions and Answers Question 6.
Russian Revolution helped the progress of the working class. Do you agree with this
statement? Why?
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Farmers and factory workers in Russia led a tragic life under the autocracy of the Tsarist emperors, who ruled Russia.
• The low agricultural production affected farmer’s income. Moreover, the landless farmers had to pay huge tax.
• Though Russia was rich in natural resources, their industrial production was meagre.

It was the foreigners who controlled majority of the industries that existed there.

The Marxist ideologies formulated by Karl Marx and Frederick Englles stirred the workers. They called for estrfl&shing the supremacy of the workers in stead of that by capitalists.

Trade unions were formed to find remedies for the plight of the workers. Based on the Marxist ideologies the social Democratic Workers Party was formed. Later, this party was split into the Men-sheviks (minority) and the Bolsheviks (majority). The main leaders of the Bolsheviks were Lenin and Trotsty. Alexander Kerensky led the Mensheviks. The crisis reached its worst when Russia was defeated in the Russia-Japan war in 1905. The workers organised a huge march at Petrograd on 9^th January 1905 demanding political rights and economic reforms. The march was fired by the soldiers and hundreds of demonstrators were massacred. This event is known as Bloody Sunday.

Workers organisation called the Soviets’ was formed all oyer Russia to conduct strikes. When the strikes gained massive strength, the emperor was compelled to form a legislative assembly called Duma. Ignoring the protest from Duma, Nicholas II, the then Tsar decided to participate in the First World War that started in 1914. A lot of Russian soldiers were killed in this war. Food shortage became severe by 1917. Thousands of women marched along the streets of Petrograd on 8 March 1917 clamouring for bread. The workers organized protest march in petrograd.

Though the soldiers clashed with the demonstrators in the beginning, later they joined the workers. It was the tragic experience during the first World War that induced them to do so. The workers captured Petrograd and Nicholas II was thrown out of power. A provisional government was formed under Alexander Kerensley, the Menshevik leader. This is known as February Revolution.

The main aim of this revolution was the growth of proletarians, and that vision had been acheived. So I totally agree with this statement that this Revolution helped the development of proletarians or workers class.

Scientific Thinkers Kerala Question 7.
How did China become a people’s Republic? Analyse.
Answer:
In the 20^th century, China witnessed revolutions against the foreign rule monarchy. The colonial powers of Europe and America adopted policies in China, different from the ones they had implemented in the colonies of other parts of the world. These policies are known as opium trade and open door policies. The Manchu dynasty in China favoured the foreign interference and domination in 1911, another revolution took place under the leadership of Dr. Sunyatsen against the Manchu Dynasty.

This ended monarchy in China. After the revolution, Kuomintang party established a Republican government in Southern China under the leadership of Sun Yat-Sen. He gave importance to idealogies like nationalism, democracy, and socialism.

He decided to nullify the unjust treaties signed with the foreign countries and wanted to maintain equality with western countries. The Kuomintang republic adopted measures for the progress of agriculture and industry. China received assistance from Russia in various fields and the Chinese Communist Party was formed.

In the beginning the Kuomintang and the communist cooperated with each other. But this cooperation was disturbed when Chiang Kai-Shek became the head of the republic following the death of Sun Yat-Sen.

Chiang Kai-Shek as certained military autocracy in China. He gave opportunity for foreign powers including America to freely interfere in China and did not cooperate with the communists. Coal and iron industries, banking and foreign trade were all controlled by foreign countries. The communists protested against the policy of Chiang Kai-Shek.

They were brutally suppressed. At that time Mao Zedong rose to the leadership of the Communist Party. In 1 934 under the leadership of Mao, a journey started from Kiangsi in South China.

The adventurous trip ended at Yanam in North-Western China. Through out the journey, they seized out agricultural land and villages from lords and distributed among the farmers. The journey covered around 12000 kms. So it is known as the “long March.” Hence Mao Zedong and Communist Party became the symbol of struggle of the Chinese against foreign power.

Chiang Kai-Shek had to seek political asylum in Taiwan, when the Red Army of Mao Zedong ca ptured the centre of Kuomintang rule. China became the people’s Republic ofChina on 1^st October 1949 under the leadership of Mao Zedong.

Revolutions That Influenced The World Orukkam Questions and Answers

Isboxer Looting Question 1.
Identify and write the ideas speed by the Enlightened thinkers.

Answer:

a. Democracy,
b. Freedom,
c. Nationalism.

Explain the Statement when France Sneezes the Rest of Europe Catches Off Question 2.
Lists out the mercantilist laws.

Answer:

a. Products of the colonies like sugar, wool, cotton, tobacco etc could only be exported to England.
b. British stamp must be affixed on all the legal documents, newspapers, pamphlets, license, etc.
c. Colonies must provide food and quarters for the British troops which were maintained in the colonies.

Question 3.
The names of some leaders and clinkers who have influenced certain revolutions in this world are given below. Complete the table by writing the names of revolutions related to items.

Answer:

a. French Revolution,
b. French Revolution,
c. Latin American Revolution,
d. American War of Independence,
e. Latin American Revolution,
f. Chinese Revolution,
g. French Revolution,
h. Chinese Revolution,
i. American War of Independence,
J. Russian Revolution

Question 4.
Complete the Time Line related to its American War of Independence.

Answer:

Question 5.
Complete the following.

Answer:

a. Contributed to the concept of federal system
b. Gave direction and motivation to the later freedom struggles and revolutions all over the world
c. Prepared the first written constitution
d. Put forward the concept of republican form of government.

Question 6.
Lists out the factors led to French Revolution.

• The autocracy that existed in France.

Answer:

• Rulers were squanders.
• Starvation and proverty.

Question 7.
Complete the table given related to the French society.

Answer:

a. Clergy
b. Controlled higher positions in administrative and military service
c. Held vast land
d. Collected the tax called ‘Tithe’ from farmers
e. Second Estate
f. Led luxurious life
g. Held vast lands
h. Engaged in military service
i. Collected various taxes from farmers
j. Made farmers work without wages
k. The middle class including traders, writers, lawyers, officials, teachers, and bankers. Farmers and craftsmen
l. Paid taxes to clergy and nobles, m. No role in administration
n. Paid land tax namely ‘Taille’ to the government.

Question 8.
Some ideas that influenced its French Revolution are given below. Name the thinkers related to these ideas.

Answer:

a. Rousseau
b. Montesquieu
c. Philospher

Question 9.
Arrange the following events in chronological order.

• Declaration of its Rights of men and its citizen was passed in France.
• Destruction of Bastille prison.
• France become a republic
• Tennis court Oath.
• Battle of Waterloo.

Answer:

• Tennis court Oath- 1789 June.
• Destruction of Bastille Prison – 1789 July
• Declaration of the Right of man and the citizen was passed in France – 1789 August
• France became a republic – 1792
• Battle of Waterloo – 1815

Question 10.
Complete the sun diagram given below.

Answer.
Helped the growth of the middle class, Contributed the concept of people’s sovereignty, Procliamed that nation in not merely a religion but the people.

Question 11.
Complete the table given below.

Answer:
Formed sinking fund with the aim to avoid public debt, Constructed several roads for transportation, Exercised state’s control over the clergy, Prepared a new code of law by codifying the existing laws.

Question 12.
Write the causes of the Latin American Revolution.

• European cultural domination.
• Exploitation

Answer:

• Racial discrimination towards the people of colonies.
• The people of colonies were made enslaved.

Question 13.
Lists out the factors that led to the Russian Revolution.

• Autocracy of its Traist Emperors.
• Meagre industrial production
• Defeat of Russia in its Russia-Japan War

Answer:

• Meagre Industrial Production
• Autocracy of Traist Emperors.
• The landless farmers had to pay huge tax.
• Influence of Marxist ideologies.
• Mensheviks and Bolsheviks
• Defeat of Russia in the Russia – Japan War
• Defeat in the first world war.

Question 14.
Complete its time line given below.

Answer:

• 1900 – Boxer Rebellion
• 1905 – Petrograd March, Formed Duma
• 1911- Revolution under leadership of Dr. Sun Yad – Sen
• 1917 March 15 – The February Revolution
• 1917 November 17 – The October Revolution
• 1924 Formation of USSR
• 1934 – Long March
• 1949 – Formation of the people’s Republic of China.

Question 15.
Complete the comparison table given below.

Answer:

a. Menshevik
b. 1917
c. Lenin
d. Cabinet Formation.

Question 16.
Lists out the results of the Russian Revolution.

• Meagre industrial production
• Withdrew from the First World War.
• Economic and scientific progress of Russia.
• Expansion of socialism.

Answer:

• Sieze the lands owned by the lords and distributed them among the farmers.
• Made factories public property.

Question 17.
Identify its ideas emphesised by Sun yat-sen.

• Nationalism

Answer:

• Nationalism – To expel the Manchu Dynasty and the imperial powers.
• Democracy – To establish democratic rule.
• Socialism – To control capital and distribute land equally.

Question 18.
Complete the comparison table given below.

Answer:

a. 1934,
b. Kuomintang Party,
c. Against the foreign power,
d. Republican Government.

Revolutions That Influenced The World Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
Arrange into following events in chronological order

• Latin American Revolution
• French Revolution
• October Revolution
• American war ofIndependence

Answer:

• American War ofIndependence – 1775
• French Revolution – 1789
• Latin American Revolution – 1800
• October Revolution – 1917

Question 2.
What do you mean by Revolution?
Answer:
A peace conference was convemed at Paris in 1919 to discuss post war situation under the leadership of the winning allies, Britain and France. They signed different treaties with the defeated nations. The treaty of Versailles, the important one was signed with Germany in 1919. German colonies were divided among the victorious powers and Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war internity. Germany had to accept the whole. Austria, Hungary, Salgaria, Turkey also signed treaties. Treaty of Versailles stood only for the interests of winning allies.

Question 3.
Analyse the background of the French Revolution.
Answer:
The French Society was divided into three strata and they were known as estates. The first estate included clergy and the second estate included nobility. Those who belonged to the first and second estates had vast land. They led a luxurious life and were exempted from all taxes. The third estate were the middle class including traders, writers, lawyers, officials, teachers, and bankers.

They had no role in the administration and had low social status. The luxurious life and squander of the Bourbon kings, clergy and lords and the frequent wars they waged, along with the frequent spells of drought and crop failure, brought trance to the brink of bankruptcy. Thinkers like voltaire, Rousseau, Montesquieu etc played an important role in making the people aware of the inequalities and exploitation. Among the three estates, the third estate had to face a horrible life. So they desired to change in the system and gave leadership to the French Revolution in 1789.

Question 4.
Explain how its mercantilist policies caused its out break of its American war of Independence.
Answer:
Domestic trade in Colonies: According to the Navigation Act in 1651 the goods to and from the colonies must be carried only in British ship or ships built in the British Colonies. According to another act in 1660 products of the colonies like sugar, wool, cotton, tobacco, etc. could be exported to England.

Inflation: England decided to levy tax for importing sugar in 1 764. This led to inflation which resulted in protest among the people.

Exploitation: The wealth of the colonies were used for the upliftment of the motherland. For eg. The Navigation Acts passed by the England Government(1650, 1660, 1699). Products of colonies like sugar, wool, cotton, tobacco, etc. could only be exported to England.

Denial of Rights: In 1 765 the Stamp Act was passed the British which stated that British stamp must be affixed on all the legal documents, newspapers, pamphlets, licence, etc. The slogan ‘No taxation without representation.’ Thundered along the people in the colonies.

Autocracy: The colonial rule was undertaken by the Governors sent from England. The Governors were not responsible to obey the decisions of the assembly. The people in the colonies were not given much importance in the rule.

Question 5.
Arrange its following table appropriately.

Answer:

Question 6.
How much it’s French Revolution influenced the reforms of Napoleon? Evaluate.
Answer:
Napoleon played a crucial role in defeating the European alliance which was formed under the leadership of Britain against France in the post-revolution period. He siezed the power in France in 1 799. Though an autocrat he instituted several reforms in France. He established the Bank of France to centralize finance. In France, nationalism strengthened
during the reign of Napolean. Napolean prepared a simple and uniform code of law for France.

Question 7.
Identify the fields in which the Latin American people faced discrimation from the Europeans? Explain.
Answer:
After colonizing the entire Latin America the Spanish and Portugese propogated their language, religions, and customs there. The Spanish farming methods and crops were adopted Racial discrimination towards the people of colonies were enforced in all walks of life. Took away gold, silver, etc. from the Latin American mines.

• Never allowed the people of the colonies to engage in trade with countries other than spain.
• The things produced in Spain were not permitted to be produced in the colonies.
• People had to work in hazardous environment in mines without any safety measures.
• Enslaved the natives to work in plantations.

Question 8.
The Russian Revolution greatly influenced the subsequent history of Russia.
Answer:
During the begining of the twentieth century, the workers and farmers in Russia led a tragic life. The traist emperors ruled India. Though Russia was rich in natural resources, their industrial production was meagre. It was the foreigners who controlled majority of the industries that existed there. Writers like Maxim Gorky, Leo Tolstoy, Ivan Turgenve and Anton Chekov depicted the plight of workers and farmers in their works.
The Marxist ideologies formulated by Karl Marx and Frederick Engels stirred the workers. They called for establishing the supremacy of workers instead of that by the capitalists.

The defeat of Russia in the first world war was the reason for a sudden war. A lot of Russian soldiers were killed in this war. Food shortage became severe in 1917. Thousands of women marched along the streets of Petrograd on 8^th March 1917 clamouring for bread. Lack of food and financial crisis made the life of the common people horrible. Hence revolutions took place in some parts of Russia.

Question 9.
Evaluate the importance of the French Revolution.
Answer:
The message of liberty, equality and fraternity of French Revolution during the 19^th and 20^th Century greatly influenced other revolutions. French Revolution stimulated all the later revolutions in the world. French Revolution proclaimed that nation is not merely a region but the people. The Austrian Chancellor Mettemich had made a remark on the impact of French Revolution ‘when France sneezes the rest of Europe catches cold.’
The other impacts of French Revolutions are

• Contributed the concept of people’s sovereignty.
• Led to the emergence of nationalism.
• Threatened the autocratic rulers in Europe.
• Helped the growth of middle class.

Question 10.
How much was Chinese Revolution helpful for the liberation of peasants and workers? Explain.
Answer:
In 1921 Communist party of China was formed Mao Zedong rose to the leadership of communist party. Chiang kai-shek who became the head of the Kuomintang party following the death of Sun- Yat-Sen asertained military autocracy in China. He gave opportunity for foreign powers including America to freely interfere in China and did not co-operate with the communists. Coal and iron industries, banking and foreign trade were all controlled by foreign countries. The communists protested against the policy of Chiang kai-shek but they were brutally suppressed.

In 1934, under the leadership ofMao Zedong, a journey started from Kiangsi in South China. The adventurous trip ended at Yanan in North-Western China. Throught the journey they siezed out agricultural land and villages from lords and distributed the among the farmers. The journey covered around 12000 kms. So it is known as the Long March. Hence Mao Ze dong and the communist party became the symbol of struggle of the Chinese ag ainst foreign power Chiang Kaishek had to seek political asylum in Taiwan when the red army of Mao zedong captured the centre of kuomi-ntang rule. China became the people’s Republic of China on 1^st October 1949 under the leadership of Mao Zedong.

Revolutions That Influenced The World SCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain, how did the Mercantilist Laws implemented by Britain in the American colonies becomes a cause for the American War of Independence.
Answer:

• Restrictions on the cargo ships
• Control over export
• Stamp duty
• Colonies should support the British troops
• Import duty.

Question 2.
Arrange the foliowing in chronological order.

• Second Continental Congress
• Paris Treaty
• First Continental Congress
• Declaration ofIndependence

Answer:
First Continental Congress, Second Continental Congress, Declaration of Independence, Paris Treaty.

Question 3.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

• Farmers- Third Estate
• Nobles – Second Estate

Question 4.
Explain, how various thinkers and ideologies paved the way for the French Revolution.
Answer:

• Ideologies of Voltaire
• Rousseau
• Montesquieu
• Physiocrats
• Philosophes.

Question 5.
‘The inequalities and exploitation suffered by the Third estate was the basic reason for the French Revolution.” Substantiate this statement
Answer:

• No right in administration
• Paid land tax to the government
• Low social status
• Paid taxes to the clergy and nobles.

Question 6.
Evaluate the significance of the ‘Tennis Court Oath’ in the history of France.
Answer:
Became the National Assembly and prepared the constitution

Question 7.
Match the following.

Answer:
Thomas Paine – Common Sense
Thomas Jefferson – Declaration of Independence
Louis XVI – Bourbon rule
Philosphes – Encyclopaedia

Question 8.
Explain, how the French revolution influenced the later history of the world.
Answer:
Stimulated the later revolutions of the world, Paved the way for the end of feudal system in Europe, People’s sovereignty, Emergence of Nationalism, Growth of the middle class, Threatened autocracy

Question 9.
Evaluate how French revolution influenced the reforms of Napoleon.
Answer:
Farmers were made owners of the land, Began sinking fund, Constructed roads, Control over clergy, Bank of France was established, New code of law was implemented

Question 10.
How did the exploitation and discrimination of the people of Latin America lead to revolution.
Answer:

• Exploitation and discrimination in language, religion, customs, architecture,education, agriculture.
• Looting of wealth, control of trade, slavery.

Question 11.
Identify the correlation between the two items in section A and Similarly complete Section B.

Answer.

i. Russian revolution,
ii. Latin American revolution,
iii. Mao Zedong,
iv. Russia.

Question 12.
Why the Bolsheviks under the leadership of Lenin did not approve the provincial government?
Answer:
Power should be handed over to the Soviets They propagated that only Proletarian’s government can eradicate economic back wardness and inequality, Withdraw from the First World War, Factories should be made public property, Land should be distributed among farmers.

Question 13.
Explain the significance of the October revolution in the history of Russia.
Answer:

• Land was distributed to the farmers
• Public ownership
• Withdrew from the First World War
• Became a super power
• Soviet Union

Question 14.
Why is Boxer rebellion considered as anticolonial struggle of the people of China?
Answer:
Rebellion against foreign dominance and the Manchu dynasty- Boxers

Question 15.
Explain the role played by Mao Zedong in making China a People’s Republic.
Answer:
Communist policies – Protest against the autocracy of Chiang – Kai-Shek. Long march Red volunteers – People‘s Republic.

Question 16.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

• French Revolution
• American War of Independence

Question 17.
“Liberty, equality and fraternity were the ideas given by the French Revolution to the world”. Evaluate this statement on the basis of the changes that occurred in the admini strative structure of France.
Answer:
• Uniform system of administration in France.
• Church was brought under the control of the state.
• Equal taxation over all sections of people.
• Abolished the special privileges enjoyed by the nobility
• End of Feudalism.

Question 18.
Analyse the circumstances which led to the transition of the Third estate of the French parliament called ‘Commons’ into National Assembly.
Answer:

• The status of one vote for each estate was against the interests of the ‘Commons’.
• The commons wanted one vote for each person instead of one vote for each estate
• It was opposed by other two estates.
• The commons declared themselves as the National Assembly of France and assembled in the nearby tennis court.

Question 19.
Write the following events in chronological order.

• The army of Napoleon was defeated at Waterloo.
• The French people captured and demolished the Bastille prison, the symbol of Bourbon monarchy.
• France was declared a republic.
• Napoleon Bonaparte captured power.

Answer:

• The French people captured and demolished the Bastille prison, the symbol of Bourbon monarchy.
• France was declared a republic
• Napoleon Bonaparte captured power.
• The army of Napoleon was defeated at Waterloo.

Question 20.
What was the social background that forced the Third estate to struggle against the First and Second estates of the French Society?
Answer:

• The nobility lived by exploiting the peasants
• The King, nobles, and clergy occupied majority of the cultivable land
• The luxurious life led by higher priests.

Question 21.
Evaluate the economic background that influenced the French Revolution.
Answer.

• The rulers of France who occupied all powers were extravagant and pleasure seeking.
• Louis XVI summoned the French parliament Estate General in 1789 to overcome the economic crisis.

Question 22.
What were the changes brought about in the social, economic and political fields of France during the time of Napoleon?
Answer.

• Clergy became under the control of the state
• Farmers were made the owners of land
• Bank of France was established to centralise finance
• A new code of law was prepared by codifying the existing laws.

Revolutions That Influenced The World Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The first written rigid constitution ever framed in history.
Answer:
American Constitution

Question 2.
The incident that took place on 14^th July 1789 in France.
Answer:
The Fall ofBastille.

Question 3.
The slogan, “No taxation without representation” was raised in connection with the:
Answer:
American Revolution.

Question 4.
In 1789 members of the Third Estate declared themselves the:
Answer:
National Assembly

Question 5.
Write the following events in the chronological order

• George Washington was made the Commander – in – Chief of the colonial army.
• Treaty of Paris.
• Formation of the United States of America.
• Olive Branch Petition.

Answer:

• Olive Branch Petition.
• George Washington was made the Commander – in – Chief of the colonial army
• Treaty of Paris
• Formation of the United States of America.

Question 6.
Prepare a report on Boxer Rebellion.
Answer:
The foreign supremacy in China made people to protest and they formed revolutionary movements. Youth were tibined for musti yuddham. As the foreigners in the China were tried to conquer through boxing the westerners redicated and named it Boxer Rebellion. The foreigners conquered with modem tricks and weapons.

Question 7.
What were the ideologies of Sun Yat-Sen in China?
Answer:
Nationalism: Drive away the Manchu Dynasty and imperialist powers.
Democracy: To establish democratic rule.
Socialism: To bring about equitable distribution of land.

Question 8.
When France sneezes all Europeans catches a called on the basis of statement by Metternich. Evaluate how French revolt influenced Europe.
Answer:
French revolution is a memorable one it was a success of democracy. It was reached in the western nations of the world in the 19^th centuary revolution was epidimic all over Europe. The revolution was in Spain, Italy,
Poland between 1820 and 1821 and that which happened in European in 1848 got influenced from French Revolution. The progress seen in Europe from 1815 was the reflection of French Revolution.

Question 9.
Prepare a note on Enlightenment?
Answer:
Enlightenment was an advancement in the intellectual activities of man which tried to explain the natural world and the role of man in it in the light of rationalism. The enlightenment thinkers tried to understand and explain things in the light of reason based on facts and evidences.

Question 10.
What is French revolution?
Answer:
The rulers of France were Autocratic and squanders. The majority in France lived in misery and the minority, including the rulers, led a life of luxuary and extravagance. This situation gave a clean picture of the social-economic inequality existed in France. This led to French Revolution.

Question 11.
Explain “American War ofIndependence”.
Answer:
“No taxation without representation” is the slogan that thundered in North America during 18^th century. This slogan was raised by the people of America as a part of a powerful agitation. Various circumstances that led to the agitation are as follows:

• 16^th century onwards the Europeans began to migrate to North America mainly to exploit the natural resources.
• By the 18^th– centrury England had established 13 colonies in the Eastern coast of North America.
• The British treated these colonies as centers for collecting raw materials for their industry and as market for selling their products.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Revolution?
Answer:
In several places the common people did not have as much freedom as we have today. The people who were deprived of freedom had a fight for it. Some adopted peacful means, whereas others preferred armed rebellion. All these struggles tried to change the system that denied freedom and rights and to establish a new one. Therefore they are known as revolutions.

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Culture and Nationalism Textbook Questions and Answers in Malayalam

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 8 Resource Wealth of India Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 8 Notes

Resource wealth of India Question 1.
Name the different sectors that are the basis of Indian economy
Answer:

• Agriculture
• Transport
• Communication
• Energy production
• Mining

Zaid Crops Examples Question 2.
Observe the map and identify major rice producing states in India.

Answer:

1. West Bengal
2. Assam
3. Odisha
4. UP
5. Bihar
6. Andra Pradesh
7. Telangana
8. Tamil Nadu

Universal Fiber Crop Question 3.
What are the favorable conditions for the cultivation of diverse agricultural crops in India?
Answer:

• Suitable agricultural climate that extends throughout the year
• Fertile soil
• Suitable physiography
• Irrigation facilities

Which Crop is Known as Universal Fiber Question 4.
…………. is called golden fiber
Answer:
Jute

Question 5.
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

1. Cash crops
2. Fibre crops
3. Plantation crops
4. Beverages

Universal Fibre Crop Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:

Coffee Raw Material Question 7.
Distinguish between Kharif crops, Rabi crops and Zaid crops. Give examples for each
Answer:
Kharif crops: Crops that are cultivated at the beginning of monsoon and harvested by the end of monsoon.
Eg. rice, cotton.
Rabi crops: Crops that are cultivated by the beginning of winter season and harvested by the beginning of summer.
Eg. wheat
Zaid crops: Crops that are cultivated by the beginning of summer and harvested by the beginning of monsoon.
Eg. fruits, vegetables.

Electroplating Plant Question 8.
Which crop is called universal fibre? Why?
Answer:
Cotton is called universal fibre. Cotton is widely used all over the world as the raw material for textile industry. Hence it is known as ‘Universal fibre’.

Rubber Industry Question 9.
Categories the following crops into food crops and cash crops
Rice, wheat, cotton, tea, coffee, pulses, tobacco, maize, ragi, rubber

Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the map of India and name the major wheat-producing states in India.
Answer:

• Punjab
• U.P.
• Hariyana
• Himachal Pradesh
• Utterakhand
• M.P
• Rajastan
• Bihar

Question 11.
What are the geographical conditions suitable for wheat cultivation?
Answer:
The geographical conditions suitable for wheat cultivation are:

• Fertile plain lands.
• Temperate regions conducive for wheat cultivation
• Availability of porous or well-drained fertile soil with content of lime.
• Average temperatures of 10°C during planting and 15°C to 26°C during harvesting period and 75 cm of rainfall are needed for wheat cultivation. These conditions are available in these states.
• Rainfall received from western disturbance is suitable for the cultivation of rabi crops like wheat.

Question 12.
Wheat is not cultivated in Kerala. Why?
Answer:
Wheat cultivation is not possible in Kerala because,

• Scarcity of alluvial soil
• High temperature
• Poor irrigation facilities

Question 13.
Which are the soils ideal for cotton cultivation?
Answer:

• Black soil of Deccan plateau
• Alluvial soil of North Indian Plain.

Question 14.
What are the raw materials for iron and steel industry?
Answer:

• Irone ore
• Manganese
• Coal
• Limestone

Question 15.
Distinguish between metallic minerals and non- metallic minerals.
Answer:

• Minerals with metallic content are called metallic minerals. Eg. iron ore.
• Minerals without metallic content are called non-metallic minerals. Eg. Mica.

Question 16.
Iron is considered as the basis of all industries. Why?
Answer:

• Machines and tools made of iron are used widely.
• The amount of iron used in a country determines its standard of living.

Question 17.
Which are the four varieties of iron ore?
Answer:

• Magnetite
• Hematite
• Limonite
• Siderite

Question 18.
Name the non-metallic minerals.
Answer:

• Limestone
• Mica
• Gypsum
• Coal
• Petroleum

Question 19.
Is there any metro project in Kerala?
Answer:
Yes, Kochi metro

Question 20.
How many international airports are there in Kerala? Which are they?
Answer:
4 airports.

1. Thiruvananthapuram
2. Nedumpasseri
3. Kozhikode (Karipur)
4. Kannur

Question 21.
Which are the major iron and steel industries in India?
Answer:

• Tata Iron and Steel factor (TISCO)
• Visvesvaraya Iron and steel factory limited (VISL)
• Bhilai Steel Plant
• Durgapur Steel Plant
• Rourkela Steel Plant
• Bokaro Steel Plant
• Indian Iron and Steel Company
• Visakhapatnam Steel Plant.

Question 22.
Describe the two agro-based industries in India. Agro-based industries are those that use agricultural products as raw material. The two major agro-based industries of India are cotton textile industry and sugar industry.

Cotton textile industry: This is the biggest agro-based industry in India. India has been renowned for cotton clothes since very old times. The first cotton mill in India was established at Fort Gloster near Kolkata in 1818. The large scale cotton textile industry began to function at Mumbai in 1854. Mumbai is the largest cotton textile manufacturing centre in India. Though cotton textile mills function in various parts of the country, the majority of them are located in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Sugar industry: Among agro-based industries, sugar holds the second place. If sugarcane is kept for a longer period after their cropping, the content of sugar (sucrose) in it decreases. Therefore all sugar factories have been located near sugar fields. About 60% of the sugar being manufactured in India is from the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Maharashtra. Uttar Pradesh leads both in the production of sugarcane and sugar. The majority of the sugar industries in India are concentrated in the states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. So these states are known as the sugar belt of India.

Question 23.
Compared to road transport, what are the advantage of rail, water, and air transport?
Answer:
Each means of transport has its own advantage. Road transport is the best for short distances. But the other means of transport have certain advantages over road transport.
Rail transport:

• Suitable for long-distance travel and cargo.
• Can rest while traveling.

Water transport:

• Less air pollution.
• Less sound pollution.
• Less cost for construction and maintenance of water transport route.
• Transportation of heavy cargo.
• Helps international trade.

Air transport:

• Suitable for rugged terrain and in places which cannot be reached by roads and railways.
• Most speedy form of transport.

Question 24.
Which are the Indian states leading in spice production?
Answer:
Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu

Question 25.
The states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are known as the ‘Sugar Belt of India’. Why?
Answer:
Among the sugar industries in India, majority of them are set up in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

Question 26.
Complete the chart

Answer:

Question 27.
All sugar industries have been located near sugar fields, Why?
Answer:
The juice is to be extracted immediately after the harvest of sugarcane. Otherwise, the quantity of juice and the amount of sucrose in the juice will be less. That is why sugar industries are located near sugar fields.

Question 28.
What are the raw materials for agro-based industries?
Answer:
Sugarcane, cotton, jute, rubber, oil seeds

Question 29.
Which are the major agro-based industries in In-dia?
Answer:
Sugar industry, cotton textile industry, jute industry, paper industry, woollen industry, silk industry, paint industry, varnish industry, soap industry, rubber industry, etc.

Question 30.
Identify the Indian states where sugar factories are located.
Answer:
Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu.

Question 31.
Name major tea producing states in India.
Answer:

• Assam
• West Bengal
• Kerala
• Tamil Nadu

Question 32.
Complete the flow chart of industries in India.

Answer:

Question 33.
Match the following.}

Answer:

Question 34.
Rail and road transports are not developed in north-east states of India and in the regions lying close to the Himalayas. Why?
Idukki and Wayanad districts in Kerala have no railway lines. Why?
Answer:
The construction of road and railway network is difficult in mountainous regions, hilly areas, valleys, and slopes. The above-said regions belong to such places.

Question 35.
What is the importance of agro-based industries?
Answer:
These industries contribute substantially to India’s national income.
They are a base for huge employment potential

Question 36.
What are the conclusions to be drawn on the analysis of the location of the agro-based industries in relation to agricultural regions?
Answer:
All the agro-based industries of India are located near to places where the raw materials for them are cultivated. This enables to get raw materials cheaply and in plenty. For eg: Mumbai and Ahmedabad, the centers of cotton textile industry in India are located near to places where cotton is cultivated on a large scale.

Question 37.
Which are the fossil fuels?
Answer:

• Coal
• Petroleum
• Natural gas

Question 38.
Point-out conditions required for rubber cultivation.
Answer:
Temperature raging from 25°C to 35°C and annual rainfall of over 150 cm are ideal. Laterite soil is ideal.
Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are the leading producers.

Question 39.
Mumbai is the largest cotton textile manufacturing center in India. What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

• Availability of abundant raw materials
• Humid climate
• Availability of electricity at cheaper rate
• Availability of freshwater
• Nearness to harbor

Question 40.
Classify the roads in India

Answer:

Question 41.
Which is the largest mineral-based industry in India? Why is it called basic industry?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is the largest mineral-based industry in India. The measuring rode of the industrial progress of any nation is calculated on the basis of the production and consumption of iron. The present progress in the country is due to the growth of iron and steel industry. Many other industries depend on this industry. It laid the foundation for rapid industrialization in India. So it is called the basic industry.

Question 42.
Consider the map showing parts of India

Answer:
Name the important ports

1. Kandla
2. Mumbai
3. Goa
4. Mangalore
5. Kochi
6. Thoothukudi
7. Chennai
8. Vishakhapatnam
9. Vishakhapatnam
10. Paradweep
11. Kolkatta

Let Us Assess

Question 43.
Starting cultivation by the end of winter season and take harvest before rainy season’. Which agricultural season is mentioned here? Which are the main crops of this season?
Answer:
Zaid season
Main crops: Fruits and vegetables

Question 44.
Prepare short notes
i) Golden quadrangle
ii) Universal fibre
Answer:
Golden quadrangle: Golden quadrangle is the Express Highway that links the four metropolitan cities of India. In addition to this, the Government of India has planned under the category of Expressways, a North-South (Srinagar to Kanyakumari) and east-West (Silcharto Porbandar) corridor.

Universal fibre: Cotton is called universal fibre. Cotton is widely used all over the world as the raw material for textile industry. Hence it is known as ‘Universal fibre’.

Question 45.
Identify the following ports.
i) Port at southern end
ii) Main port of Karnataka
iii) Important port in West Bengal other than Kolkotta
Answer:
i) Thoothukudi
ii) Mangalore
iii) Haldia

Question 46.
During which season are crops like Maize, Cotton and Jute are cultivated.
Answer:
Kharif

Question 47.
Which one of the following is a winter crop?
a. Wheat
b. Sugarcane
c. Groundnut
d. Millet
Answer:
a. Wheat

Question 48.
Name the agricultural season that starts in June and ends in June.
Answer:
Zaid

Question 49.
Differentiate food crops and cash crops.
Answer:
The crops which can directly be consumed as food are called food crops. Cash crops are those having industrial and commercial significance.

Question 50.
Explain the geographical factors required for rice cultivation.
Answer:
Alluvial soil is most suitable for rice cultivation. Rice requires high temperature (24°C) and a good amount of Rainfall (more than 150cm) Rice is being cultivated on regions with less rainfall with the aid of irrigation.

Question 51.
Why is it said that maize is a suitable crop for In-dia?
Answer:

1. In India Maize is cultivated in both summer and winter.
2. Cultivated in regions receiving an annual average rainfall of 75cm.
3. Well drained fertile soil is ideal.

Question 52.
How are roads classified in India?
Answer:
Roads in India are classified based on the con-struction and management.

Question 53.
What is Golden Quadrilateral Superhighway?
Answer:
The six lane superhighways connecting the metropolitan cities in India such as Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata are together named as the golden quadrangle superhighway.

Question 54.
Which type of waterways are used for inland navigation?
Answer:
Rivers, Backwaters, Canals, etc.

Question 55.
Which are the major inland waterways in India?
Answer:

1. Godavari – Krishna rivers and itstributories
2. Buckingham canal of Andhra-Tamilnadu Region
3. Mandovi and Zuvari rivers of Goa
4. Back water of Kerala.

Question 56.
Through which mineral, the following places are known
i) Neyveli
ii) Jharia
iii) Digboy
Answer:
i) Lingnite
ii) Coal
iii) Petroleum

Question 57. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Prepare a note on any three cash crops cultivated in India, its geographical requirements and the states where it is cultivated.
Answer:
Cotton: Forest free growing seasons, 200 to 30°C temperature small amount of rainfall. Black soil in the best soil. Jute: Hot and humid conditions. High temperature and rainfall above 150cm is essential well-drained alluvial soil is suitable.
Sugareane: 4 tropical crop, requires hot and humid climate. Black soil and alluvial soil are ideal.

Question 58. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Presence of mineral resources has made some regions industrial centers. Substantiate this statement based on two industrial centers and the factors responsible for it.
Answer:
Iron and steel industry, Aluminium industry availability of raw materials, transport facilities.

Question 59. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Write the favorable geographical factors required for the cultivation of major cash crops – cotton and jute and the states in which they are cultivated.
Answer:
Cotton — Jute
1. Frost-free growing season — Hot and humid conditions
2. 20°C to 30°C temperature — High temperature
3. Black soil — Rainfall above 150cm
4. GujratMaharastra — Well drained alluvial soil
5. Andrapradesh, Tamilnadu — West Bengal,

Question 60.
(Qn. Pool-2017)
Write any two mineral-based industries in India. Find out the favorable factors for their development and prepares short note.
Answer:
Iron and steel industries, Aluminium industries. Availability of new materials, transport facilities, cheap power, availability of water.

Question 61. (Orukkam – 2017)
Complete the following flow chart about the major Minerals in India.

Answer:
a) Ferrous metals
b) Non-ferrous metals
c) Other minerals
d) Iron ore manganese
e) Gold silver copper
f) Coal, Petroleum
g) Mica

Question 62. (Orukkam – 2017)
Complete the following table of Major Iron and Steel Industry in India.
Answer:

Question 63. (Orukkam- 2017)
Complete the table about the major Minerals in India, Uses, and the major state that produce these minerals.
Answer:

Question 64. (Orukkam – 2017)
Classify and write the Characteristics of Mineral
Fuels
Coal:
1. The major Thermal energy source in India
2. …………………..
3. …………………..
4. …………………..
5. …………………..
Petroleum and Natural gas:
1. Main energy source of Bus, Rail and Air transport
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
4. ……………….
Non – Conventional energy source:
1. Comparatively cheap
2. …………………
3. …………………
Answer:
Coal:

1. Coal is a major industrial fuel
2. Most of coal of fund in India is of medium grade of bituminous type.
3. West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chattisgarh are the major states producing coal.
4. The largest coalfield in India is Jharia in Jharkhand.
5. The less energy-efficient coal is lignite.

Petroleum and Natural gas:

1. Other than petrol and diesel etc. numerous by-products are also obtained.
2. Petroleum mining in India started at Digboi in Assam.
3. Petroleum producing states in India are Assam Gujrat and Maharashtra.
4. Natural gas is the fuel obtained along with petroleum.

Non – Conventional energy source:

1. Environment-friendly
2. Renewable

Question 65. (Orukkam – 2017)
Classify Roads in India and list down the features. National Highways
1. Major roads of the country
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
State Highways
1. ……………..
2. …………….
3. …………….
District roads
1. ……………
2. …………..
3. …………..
Village Roads
1. ……………
2. …………..
3. …………..
Answer:
National Highways:

1. Major roads of the country
2. Maintained and constructed by the central government
3. Links the state capitals, major cites, etc.

State Highways:

1. Major roads of the state.
2. Links state capital with the district headquarters.
3. Construction and maintenance by the government

District roads:

1. Major roads in the district.
2. links district headquarters with important places with in the roads

Village Roads:

1. Built and maintained by the district panchayath
2. Ensures the domestic movements both in the state
3. Construction and maintenance by local self-government

Question 66. (Orukkam – 2017)
List down the characteristics of Water Transport.
1. Cheapest mode of transport
2. …………………
3. …………………
4. …………………
5. …………………
Answer:
2. Suitable for large scale cargo transport
3. Does not cause environmental pollution.
4. Does not cause environmental pollution.
5. Most suitable for international trade.

Question 67. (Orukkam-2017)
List down the areas where inland navigation is more
1. The rivers Ganges, Brahmaputra, and its tributaries.
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
4. ………………..
5. ………………..
Answer:
2. Godavari – Krishna and their tributaries.
3. Buckingham canal of Andhra – Tamilnadu region
4. Mandovi and Zuari rivers of Goa
5. Backwaters of Kerala

Question 68. (Orukkam – 2017)
List down the major National Waterways in India
Answer:

You can Download Struggle and Freedom Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 6 Struggle and Freedom Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 6 Notes

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
How did Gandhiji become the leader of Indian society?
Answer:
Gandhiji was aware of the miseries Indians had with the British while he was in South Africa. Sathyagraha was his principle. He demanded the people to withdraw from wars. He informed the people that sathyagraha stays in “Ahimsa and Truth”.

The methods of agitation made changes in the people. The movements which was concentrated in towns were expanded to villages. His ideologies were attracted by many people and the common people too joined his principle. Thus Gandhiji become a savior to all.

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Examine the early Struggles led by Gandhiji and discuss his method of protest.
Answer:
Gandhiji started his social activities in India with the Champaran satyagraha in 1917. Champaran struggle, Ahemadabad cotton mill strike and the peasant struggle in Kheda were the struggles of his involvement. Champaran satyagraha was based on Indigo farmers protest in Bihar.

Kheda protest was withdrawn when the authorities reduced the tax rates. Gandhiji adopted the method of peace for all these three struggles. In the Non-cooperation movements, Gandhiji adopted the method of boycott. The British goods were boycotted.

Rowlatt Act of the British Intensified the Freedom Struggle in India Substantiate Question 3.
How did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.influence Indian National Movement? Discuss.
Answer:
Jallianwala Bagh massacre had a vital role in Indian National Movement.The massacre intensified the protests at the national level. Those who believed in British too turned against them. The executive council under the membership of Sir. C. Sankaran Nair resigned.

Sslc History Chapter 6 Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Explain the circumstances that led Gandhiji to support the Khilafat Movement.
Answer:
Gandhiji believed that the Hindu-Muslim unity could be restored through Khilafat Movement. The people joined in the struggle of independence through Khilafat Movement as a part of National Movement the active participation of Muslims in the freedom struggle could be ensured.

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
How far the demands of Ghandhiji are appropriate to attain the freedom of India ?
Answer:

• Satyagraha was his policy.
• Ahimsa was the principle he adopted against enemies.
• Foreign textiles were put down and Indian goods were promoted.
• He violated salt law as a part of civil disobedience movement.

Sslc History Chapter 6 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
The Salt Sathyagraha played a major role in making national movement a mass movement. Substantiate.
Answer:
The Salt March also known as the Dandi March and the Dandi Satyagraha, was an act of nonviolent civil disobedience in colonial India initiated by Mohandas K Gandhi to produce salt from sea water.

This was the practice of the local people until British officials introduced taxation on salt production, deemed their sea salt reclamation activities illegal, and then repeatedly used force to stop it.

The 24-day march began on 12 March 1930 as a direct action campaign of tax resistance and nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly, and it gained worldwide attention which gave impetus to the Indian Independence Movement and started the nationwide Civil Disobedience Movement.

Freedom Movement 10th Class Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
‘The Quit India movement was a turning point in India’s freedom struggle’. Discuss.
Answer:
This was the call of Gandhiji in the conference of the National Congress held in Bombay in 1942. The Quit India Movement was the last popular protest organised by the Indian National Congress under leadership of Ghandhiji. Quit India was yet another popular movement like the Civil Disobedience Movement.

It was a mass movement based on the ideology of non-violence (Ahimsa) meant to force the British to leave the country offering complete freedom to Indians. The Quit India Movement was a clear indication of the peoples determination to grab freedom for their country.

Freedom Movement Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Conduct a quiz competition on ‘Gandhiji and the freedom struggle of India’.
Answer:

• Year in Which Gandhiji reached india -1915.
• First revolt of Gandhiji – Champaran.
• Year of Champaran Struggle -1947.
• Gandhiji s struggle in 1918 – Ahmedabad Textile mill strike.

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Conduct a seminar on the organisations which were formed as an alternative to Gandhian way of struggle for the freedom of India.
Answer:
Anusheelan Samithi – Bareender Kumar Ghose:
The brother of Aravinda Ghosh formed Anusheelan Samithi in Bengal in 1902. To stop British rule through violence was the goal.

Abhinava Bharat:
The secret agency formed by Savarkar in 1904. They helped Indians from foreign countries.

Yuganthar Party:
Formed as a result of the news paper ‘ Yugaathar’ published by Bhupendra Dutta and his friends. Hemachandra Das was the leader.

Gaddar Party of rebellion:
Formed in 1913. Mostly Hindus and Muslims Lala Harddayal gave leadership. The meaning of word Gaddar is rebellion. The main aim was to free India from Britain.

Hindustan Republic Association:
Socialist activist Sughdev, Bhagat Singh, Chandrasekhar Azad formed in 1928.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Question 10.
Discuss the role of laborers and farmers in the struggle for Indian independence.
Answer:
The unity and protest of farmers and laborious strengthened Indian National Movement. The workers and farmers who was against the feudal system of British protested in various freedom struggles.

The most important one was the struggle of cotton workers in 1884 in Mumbai to reduce the working hours Bombay mill Association was for med in 1890. Revolutionary methods were adopted by the workers for their needs.

Peasant revolt:
In India were against landlords and money lenders. Tax policies were the reason. Peasant got united against British exploitation. The Mappila Rebellion Indigo Revolt, Peasant Revolt in Madhurai are perfect examples.

Struggle and Freedom Let Us Assess

Social Science 10th Kerala Syllabus  Question 1.
What are the regional agitations in which Gandhiji participated after his arrival in India?
Answer:
There are some regional struggles in which Gandhiji was involved after returning to India from South Africa. They are the struggle of indigo farmers in Champaran, Ahmedabad cotton mill strike, Peasant struggle in Kheda.

Social 10th Class Notes State Syllabus Question 2.
What are the strategies of strike used in the peasant struggle in Kheda?
Answer:
Due to drought and crop failure farmers in Kheda were living in utter misery. The rulers decided to collect tax from these poor villagers starting sathyagraha Gandhiji protested against the decision.

He advised people not to pay tax. Consequently, the authorities were forced to reduce tax rates. His early struggles based on Satyagraha and Ahimsa made Gandhiji a popular leader.

Question 3.
Analyse the outcomes of Gandhiji’s earlier struggles.
Answer:
There are some regional struggles in which Gandhiji was involved after returning to India from South-Africa. They are

• The struggle of Indigo farmers in Champaran.
• Ahmedabad cotton mill strike
• Peasant struggle in Kheda.
• Due to these regional struggles some results took place.
• The struggles he took up popularized his ideologies and method of protest.
• Till his entiy into the political scenario,national movement was confined to the educated section of the society.
• His methods of protest attracted the laymen to the movement.
• The city eccentric national movement spread to rural areas.
• Gandhiji became a national leader acceptable to all strata of the society.

Question 4.
Name the law made by the British in the pretest of preventing extremist activities.
Answer:
In the pretext of preventing extremist activities, the British parliament passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919 limiting the civil rights. The committee which recommended this Act was led by Sir Sydney Rowlatt. Hence the Act was known as Rowlatt Act. As per this act any person could be arrested and imprisoned without trial.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Answer:
People gathered at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar on 13 April, 1919 to protest against the arrest of SaifuddinKitchlew and Satyapal who led the anti Rowlatt act agitations in Punjab. The city was under the control of the army.

Accusing that the protesters violated his instructions, the army chief General Dyer ordered to shoot without warning. The innocent aimless people were trapped as the ground was surrounded by buildings and the only entrance was blocked by the armed British soldiers.

As per the British Records, the shooting of ten minutes killed 379 protesters. In fact, the death toll was actually double than this.The massacre at Jallianwala Bagh intensified the protests at the national level. Gandhiji said “if the Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, Jallian Wala Bagh shock the foundation.”

Question 6.
List out the outcomes of the Non-cooperation movement under Gandhiji.
Answer:
The first national level struggle by the Indian National Congress under the leaderhsip of Mah atma Gandhi was the Non-cooperation movement. The confidence gained from the Rowlatt protest motivated Gandhiji to declare Non-cooperation against the British.

Various effects of Non-cooperation movement are given below. Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes. The tribal groups in Northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest products violating the forest laws.

• Farmers in Uttar Pradesh refused to carry the luggage of the colonial officials.
• Workers struck work.
• Lawyers boycotted courts . Students acquitted colleges and schools run by the British
• The public, including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

In addition to his appeal for non-cooperation, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmers. Inspired by this, people began to make indigenous products, Spin Khadu cloth using charka, establish national schools and popularise Hindu.

Question 7.
Which incident forced Gandhiji to withdraw the non-cooperation movement?
Answer:
Gandhiji withdraw theNon-cooperation Movement due to a untoward incident in Chawri Chawra village in Uttar Pradesh. In response to the police firing at a mob, the villagers set ablaze the police station and 22 policemen died.

This incident disappointed Gandhiji and he released that people could not fully understand the essence of the principle of Ahimsa. So he called for stopping the Non-cooperation Movement.

Question 8.
Which session of the congress declared Poorna Swaraj as the ultimate aim of Indians freedom struggle?
Answer:
The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress held in 1929 under the charimanship of Jawaharlal Nehru declared the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle was Pooma Swaraj.

Question 9.
Prepare a seminar paper on the significance of the civil disobedience movement in the freedom struggle. .
Answer:

• The Labour session of the Indian National Congress held in 1929 under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru was a turning point in the history of freedom movement in India.
• The session declared that the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle was to attain complete.
  freedom (Pooma Swaraj) for the country.
• Civil Disobedience Movement started under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
  With the Civil Disobedience Movement’.
• Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic civil laws made by the British Government.

As a part of this Gandhiji’s proposed the following.

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of top officials.
• To dissolve the secret surveillance wing formed to watch Indians.
• To start coastal shipping service.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Gandhiji gave top priority to reducing salt tax. There are various reasons why Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon against the British.

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• This tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• The British government burned small scale indigenous salt production.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Question 10.
Prepare a note on the Quit India Movement.
Answer:
The Quit India Movement was the last popular protest organized by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Gandhiji. Quit India was yet another popular movement like civil disobedience movement.

It was a mass movement based on the ideology of non-violence (Ahimsa) meant to force the British to leave the country offering complete freedom to Indians. Various factors that caused Quit India movement are

• Reluctance of the British to implement constitutional reforms in India.
• Public disgust with price hike and famine
• The assumption that the British would be defeated in the second world war.
• As a part of this movement, Gandhiji called for the following.
• Princely states shall recognize the sovereignty of their people.
• Farmers shall not pay land tax.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• Without quitting their position in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Struggle and Freedom Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare a short note on the life of Gandhiji in South Africa.
Answer:
Gandhi was 24 when he arrived in South Africa in 1893 to work as a legal representative for the Muslim Indian Traders based in the city of Pretoria. He spent 21 years in South Africa, where he developed his political views, ethics and political leadership skills.In South Africa, Gandhi faced the discrimination directed at all colored people.

He was thrown off a train at Pietermaritzburg after refusing to move from the first class. He protested and was allowed on first class the next day. Travelling farther on by stagecoach, he was beaten by a driver for refusing to move to make room for a European passenger.

He suffered other hardships on the journey as well, including being barred from several hotels. The magistrate of a Durban court ordered Gandhi to remove his turban, which he refused to do.

The government successfully repressed the protesters, but the public outcry over the harsh treatment of peaceful Indian protesters by the South African government forced South African leader Jan Christiaan Smuts to negotiate a compromise with Gandhi, Gandhi’s ideas took shape, and the concept of Satyagraha matured during this struggle.

Struggle and Freedom Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List down the reasons that helped Gandhiji to gain the trust and recognition of the common people.
His priests in south Africa made him famous.
Answer:

• Gandhiji became familiar to the Indians after his involvement in addressing the problems of the Indian expatriates in South Africa.
• His protests in South Africa made him famous.
• Gandhiji was very popular because he lived among the common people and his food and clothing was similar to that of the common man in India and he spoke in their language.
• Common people found in Mahatma Gandhi a savior who could solve their problems.

Question 2.
Complete the table.

Answer:
a. Farmers in Champaran,
b. 1917,
c. Gujarat,
d. 1918,
e. Peasant struggle in Kheda,
f. Gujarat.

Question 3.
List down the result of the Early struggle of Gandhiji in India.
The struggle he took up porpoised his ideologies and method of protest.
Answer:

• Till his entry into the political scenario, national movement was confined to the educated section of the society.
• His methods of protest attracted the laymen to the movement.
• The city centric national movement spread to rural areas.
• Gandhiji became a national leader acceptable to all strata of the society.

Question 4.
Complete the word web given below.

Answer:

• Students Shall boycott English schools.
• Lawyers Shall boycott Courts.
• The Public Shall boycott foreign products.
• Denial of tax.
• Returning the British awards and prizes.
• Boycott elections.

Question 5.
List down the examples of how the Indian Society responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for Non-cooperation.
Farmers in Awadh referred to pay taxes.
Answer:

• The Tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest produces violating the forest laws.
• Farmers in Uttar Pradesh refused to carry the luggage of the colonial officials.
• Workers struck work.
• Lawyers boycotted courts.
• Students quitted colleges and schools run by the British.
• The public including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Question 6.
Write down some examples for Gandhiji’s constructive programmes.
People made indigenous products.
Answer:

• Spin khadi cloth using Charka.
• Establish National Schools.
• Popularized Hindi.
• Inspired people to participate actively in eradicating accountability.

7. Complete the Diagram.

Answer:

• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of top officials.
• To dissolve the secret surveillance wing formed to watch Indians.
• To start coastal shipping service.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Question 8.
List down the reasons why Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon against the British.
The tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
Answer:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• This tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• The British government banned small scale indigenous salt production.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan.
• Suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Question 9.
Complete the following time line.

Answer:
A. 1919.
B. Lahore session of Indian National.
C. 1942.

Question 10.
Find out the factors that caused the Quit India Movement.
Public disgust with price hike and famine.
Answer:

• Reluctance of the British to implement constitutional reforms in India.
• Public disgust with price hike and famine.
• The assumption that the British would be defeated in the second world war.

Question 11.
Complete the following Diagram.

Answer:

• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• Princely states shall recognize the sovereignity of their people.

12. Complete the table.

Answer:
a. Abhinar Bharat Society.
b. Bareender Kumar Ghose, Pulin Bihari Das.
c. Ghadar party.
d. Suryasen.

Question 13.
Complete the following table.

Answer:
a. Swaraj Party.
b CR Das and Mothilal Nehru.
c. Bhagat Singh Chandra Sekhar Azad, Guru and Sukh Dev.
d. 1928.
e. Congress Socialist Party.
f. 1934.

Question 14.
List down the main objectives of the All Indian Trade Union Congress.
To participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.
Answer:

• To Participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.
• To facilitate Indian working class to cooper ate with the working class outside India.
• To organise and act as a working class.

Question 15.
Complete the table.

Answer:
a. Bengal.
b. Telengana Struggle.
c. Bombay.

Question 16.
Complete the following word web.

Answer:

• To divide Punjab and Bengal.
• To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per the Muslim wish.
• To appoint a commission to determine the borders in Punjab and Bengal.
• To conduct a referendum to determine whether to add North West frontier province to Pakistan or not.

Struggle and Freedom Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
Which Act resulted in the Jalianwala Bagh Messacre?
Answer:
Anti-Rowlatt Act.

Question 2.
Which incident forced Gandhiji to Stop the Non-cooperation movement.
Answer:
Chauri chaura Incident.

Question 3.
Analyse the significance of non-cooperation movement in the Indian National Movement.
Answer:
The First national level struggle by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi was the non-cooperation movement.The confidence gained from the anti-Rowlatt j protest motivated Gandhiji to declare non-cooperation against the British. Some of the examples of how the Indian society responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for non-cooperation.

• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest produces violating the forest laws.
• Farmers in Uttar Pradesh refused to carry the luggage of the colonial officials.
• Workers struck work.
• Lawyers boycotted courts.
• Students quieted colleges and schools run by the British.
• The public, including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

In addition to his appeal for non-cooperation, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes. Inspired by this, people began to make indigenous products, spin khadi cloth using charka, establish national schools and popularity Hindi.

Students who boycotted English education were attracted to national educational institutions. Along with these activities, Gandhiji inspired people to participate actively in eradicating accountability.

Question 4.
Evaluate the decisions of the Lahore session.
Answer:
The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress held in 1929 under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru was a turning point in the history of freedom movement in India.

• The session declared that the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle was to attain freedom (Pooma Swaraj) for the country.
• It also resolved to start the civil disobedience movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 5.
Analyse the role played by Mahatma Gandhi in the Indian National Movement.
Answer:
Gandhiji entered Indian national movement with his rich experience and knowledge of regional struggle in various parts of the country. His protest against the Rowlatt Actencated by the British paved the way for it.

In the pretext of preventing extremist activities, the British Parliament passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919 limiting the civil rights. The committee which recommended this Act was led by Sir Sydney Rowlatt. Hence, the act was known as Rowlatt Act. As per this act any person could brarrested and imprisoned without trial.

When the protests against this Act failed. Gandhiji suggested starting Sathygraha Vigorously reacting to his proposal, people in various part of the country went to the streets anosiarteo demonstration and strikes. But the government resorted to oppressive measures towards the public protest.

The worst example of the British approach to public protest was the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh in 1919. The masscare at Jalianwala Bagh intensified the protests at the natio nal level. Gandhiji said: If the battle of Plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation.

Question 6.
Complete the following table.

Answer:
1-d,
2-c,
3 -a,
4-b.

Question 7.
Evaluate the contributions of the organisations and leaders to the Indian National Move ment who differed from Gandhian Methods and ideologies.
Answer:
Many such movements and persons who had difference of opinion towards the Gandhian approach to the struggle for independence also played crucial roles in attaining freedom for our country. Their objective was also nothing but India’s freedom from colonial cinches.

C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru, who opposed Gandhian idea of boycott movement, formed the Swaraj Party in 1923. They argued for making legislative assemblies as platforms for raising our voices instead of boycotting them and they contested elections.

Gradually, the opposition to Gandhian method of struggle intensified. Revolutionaries from Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar gathered in Delhi and Formed the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928.

Question 8.
Explain the demands of the kissan manifesto.
Answer:

• Reduce 50% of land tax and lease charge.
• Write off debts.
• Cancel feudal taxes.
• Ensure minimum wage for agricultural workers.
• Recognize peasant unions.

Question 9.
Analyse the role played by Subash Chandra Bose in the Indian Freedom struggle.
Answer:
At various stages of the national movement Subash Chandra Bose expressed his difference of opinion on Gandhian ideas of struggle. Quitting the congress he formed a political party called forward bloc.

He took the charge of the Indian National Army (INA) formed by Rash Bihari Bose to attain freedom for India. He formed a provisional government for free India in Singapore, with the aim of forcing British to quit India.

The Indian National Army had a women wing called the Jhansi Regiment. Captain Lekshmi, a keralite was in charge of this regiment with the support of the Japanese army the Indian National Army marched to the east west border of India and hoisted Indian flag in Impala.

Question 10.
Evaluate the significance of salt satyagraha.
Answer:
Gandhi gave top priority to reducing salt tax due to a variety of reasons. The reasons why Gandhiji selected salt on a powerful weapon against the British are

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• This tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• The British government banned small scale indigenous salt production.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Inspired by the call of Gandhiji people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations.

Question 11.
Arrange the following incidents chronologically.
1. Jallianwala Bhagh Massacre.
2. Lahore Session.
3. Chouri-Choura Incident.
4. Champaran Satyagraha.
Answer:

1. Champaran Satyagraha – 1917.
2. Jalianwala Bagh Massacre – 1919.
3. Chouri-Chaura Incident – 1922.
4. Lahore Session – 1929.

Struggle and Freedom SCERT Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Which were the early struggles in India in which Gandhiji was involved? What change did happen in the national movement through these struggles?
Answer:

• Champaran struggle, 1917
• Ahmedabad Cotton Mill strike, 1918
• Peasant struggle in Kheda, 1918
• Gandhian methods of struggle and ideologies became popular.
• The ideology of national movement spread to the villages.
• Common people were attracted to the national movement.
• Gandhiji became acceptable to all as a national leader.

Question 2.
People’s protest against the act which violated civil rights resulted in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. Which was that Act?
Answer:
Rowlatt Act – 1919

Question 3.
How did Gandhiji respond to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
Answer:
“If the Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, the Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation.”

Question 4.
How did people respond to Gandhiji’s appeal for non-cooperation?
Answer:

• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra violated the forest laws.
• Workers started strike.
• Women burnt foreign clothes on the streets.
• Lawyers boycotted the courts.

Question 5.
Along with Non-cooperation, constructive programmes were also given importance. Elucidate.
Answer:

• People began to make indigenous products.
• Spun Khadi cloth.
• Started national schools.
• Popularized Hindi instead of English.

Question 6.
Why did Gandhiji travel across India with the Khilafat leaders and propagate his ideologies?
Answer:

• To spread anti.
• British feeling to the nook and comer of India.
• To intensify Hindu.
• Muslim unity.

Question 7.
Why did Gandhiji stop non -cooperation mov. ement after the Chauri-Chaura incident
Answer:
The people of Chauri-Chaura village in Uttar Pra desh set ablaze the police station. This is known as the Chouri-Choura incident. This incident disappointed Gandhiji as people turned to violence and he withdrew the Non-cooperation movement.

Question 8.
Which session of the Congress declared that Poorna Swaraj is the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle? Who was the chairman of this session?
Answer:
The Lahore session of 1929, Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 9.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:

• To implement total prohibition of liquor.
• To lift tax on salt.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To release political prisoners.
• To increase tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of the military officials.

Question 10.
Why did Gandhiji select salt as a powerful weapon as part of the Civil Disobedience movement?
Answer:

• Salt constituted two fifth of the income Collected by the British through taxes.
• Three fold hike on salt price.
• The tax was heavy burden for the po r people.
• The British government banned small scale indigenous salt production.
• Being an issue common to all Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon.

Question 11.
What did Gandhiji achieve through Salt Satyagraha?
Answer:

• Secured massive support of the people.
• Proved that any trivial issue can be snowballed into a popular strategy.
• Sensitized the public in very sim pie way to the exploitation of the British.

Question 12.
Which struggle was organised in India against the British for constitutional reforms? As part of this, what direction did Gandhiji give to the people?
Answer:

• Quit India Movement, 1942,
• Farmers shall not pay land tax.
• Princely state shall recognize the sovereignty of the people.
• The soldiers shall disobey the order to shoot the Indians.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without quitting their positions.
• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Question 13.
Many organisations and people who differed from Gandhian methods and ideologies had played a significant role in India’s National struggle. Write any three such organisations and explain their activities.
Answer:
Swaraj party, Motilal Nehru, C R Dascon tested to the legislative assemblies and made legi slative assemblies platforms for raising the voice.

Hindustan Socialist Republican Association Bhagat Singh, Chandrasekhar Azad, Raj Guru and Sukh Dev were at the helm of this organisation. They planned to overthrew the colonial government through military action and establish a federal republic of Indian states. To show protest against the attempt to pass laws curtailing civil rights, threw bombs at the central legislative assembly.

Forward Bloc was formed by Subhash Chandra Bose. He took the leadership of I N A formed by Rash Bihari Bose. He formed a provincial government of India in Singapore with an aim of forcing the British to quit India. With the Support of the Japanese army, the Indian National Army marched to the north eastern border of India and hoisted the Indian flag in Imphal.

Question 14.
Which were the labour and peasant organisations formed after the Russian Revolution? What were their major objectives?
Answer:

• Ahmedabad Textile Association Madras Lab our Union.
• All India Trade Union Congress.
• To organise and act as a working class.
• To facilitate Indian working class to cooperate with the working class outside India.
• To participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.

Question 15.
Who prepared the Farmer’s Manifesto? Write any three demands included in it.
Answer:
All India Kisan Samithi conference held in Bombay prepared the Farmer’s Manifesto.

• Reduce 50%of land tax and lease charge.
• Write off debts.
• Cancel feudal taxes.
• Ensure minimum wage for agricultural workers.
• Recognize peasant unions.

Question 16.
Which plan proposed that Punjab and Bengal should be portioned? Write other two recommendations of this plan.
Answer:

• Mount Batten Plan.
• To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per their wish.
• To appoint a commission to determine the borders in Punjab and Bengal.

Question 17.
Which were the three major struggles organised under the leadership of Gandhiji during the freedom struggle of India? Explain each of them.
Answer:

• Refusal to pay taxes.
• Boycott of foreign clothes.
• Returning the British awards and prizes.
• Boycott elections.
• Lawyers shall boycott courts.

Result:

• Boycotted foreign clothes.
• Started spinning Khadi clothes.
• Started national school.
• Popularized Hindi.

Salt Satyagraha:

• To lift tax on salt.
• Declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• Release political prisoners .
• Start coastal shipping service.
• Implement total prohibition of liquor.

Result:
Strong protest arose in different parts of India against the salt tax.

Quit India Movement:

• Farmers shall not pay land tax.
• Princely states shall recognize the sovereignty of the people.
• The soldiers shall disobey the order to shoot the Indians.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without quitting their positions.
• If possible students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Question 18.
What is the significance of the Kheda movement?
Answer:
The struggle was against the British decision to collect tax from the people who were in misery due to drought and famine. As a result of this Government agreed to reduce tax.

Question 19.
Which were the national schools started during the Non co-operation Movement.
Answer:

• Kashi Vidya Pith.
• Gujarat Vidya Pith.
• JamiaMillia.

Question 20.
What did Gandhiji aim by Civil disobedience?
Answer:
With the civil disobedience movement, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti democratic civil laws made by the British government.

Question 21.
Who gave leadership to Dharasana struggle?
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu.

22. Who were the leaders of the Congress Socialist party?
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru,
Subhash Chandra Bose,
Arana Asaf Ali,
Jay Prakash Narayan.

Question 23.
What were the factors that forced Britain to give independence to India?
Answer:
Britain became economically weak, Freedom straggles were intensified in Asia and Africa, Soviet Union and America were against colonialism.

Struggle and Freedom Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who was the founder of Swaraj Party ?
Answer:
C.R Das and Motilal Nehru

Question 2.
Write the full form of AITUC?
Answer:
All India Trade Union Congress.

Question 3.
Who was in charge of Jhansi Regiment of INA?
Answer:
Captain Lakshmi

Question 4.
How is the Non-cooperation Movement different from other freedom movements led by Gandhiji?
Answer:
In all the three regional straggles Gandhiji adopted satyagraha. But the method of boycott was chosen in Non-cooperation Movement. The straggle for independence that was completely confined to the educated section extended to all the section of the people.

But when the police fired at the mob in Chauri Chaura in Uttarpradesh the villagers set fire to the police station and 22 policemen died. Gandhiji was disappointed and declared to suspend the Non-cooperation Movement.

Question 5.
What are the results of Non-cooperation Movement.
Answer:

• Gandhiji become the leader accepted by all.
• People were united free of caste and religion.
• Hindu-Muslim unity.
• Boycott was successful.
• The imported British textiles in 1921 -22 was 30% less than the previous years.
• People gained confidence.
• Indian textile growth strengthened.

Question 6.
How did Non-cooperation movement become the movement for all?
Answer:
Non-cooperation movement in 1921-22. People from all sections played an important role. Students boycotted English education and foreign textiles. Lawyers boycotted counts farmers workers and all sections of people took part in the straggle. Thus it become the movement for all.

Question 7.
Why did Gandhiji support the Khilafat Movement?
Answer:
During the activities of Gandhiji, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Maulana Shoukath Ali intensified the Khilafat Movement. By declaring the Khilafat Movement as a part of the Indian National Movement, Gandhiji ensured active participation of Muslims in the freedom straggle.

He traveled across India with Khilafat leaders and propagated his ideologies. As a result, anti- British feeling spread to every nook and comer of the nation.Hindu Muslim Unity was intensified.

Question 8.
How are the methods of rebellion different from Gandhian methods?
Answer:

• Gandhiji’s principle was Ahimsa.
• Others adopted violence.

Question 9.
Reasons for the movements formed away from Gandhian movements.
Answer:

• Level measures adopted by British.
• Results of rebellions in India.
• Anti-human activities of British
• Present measures adopted were not enough to attain freedom.

Question 10.
How did Rowlatt Act influence the Indian National Movement? Explain.
Answer:
The British Parliament passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919 limiting the civil rights. As per that Act, any person can be imprisoned without trial. Gandhiji suggested starting satyagraha. People in various part of the country went to the street and started demonstrations and strikes.

But the government resorted to oppressive measures to put down the public protest. The worst example of the British approach to public protect was the massacre at Jallian Bagh in 1919. The massacre at Jallianwala Bagh intensified the protest at the national level. This incident shook the foundation of the British rule in India.

Question 11.
Prepare a note on Jallianwallabagh Massacre.
Answer:
The Rowlatt Act become rebellious in most of the parts in India. It was strengthened in Punjab. Dr. Satyapal, Dr. Sai-fudheen Kitchlew led the anti-Rowlett Act agitations in Punjab, and they were arrested. The people gathered in Jallianwallabagh peacefully.

General Dyer who was the chief of police, commanded to fire without warning. Hundreds of people were killed. Five thousand of them were deeply wounded. This National Movement strengthened among people.

Question 12.
List of freedom struggles led by Gandhiji.
Answer:

Students can Download Social Science Part 1 Chapter 9 The State and Political Science Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus Class 10th Standard Social Science History Chapter 9 Notes Malayalam Medium സംസ്ഥാനവും പൊളിറ്റിക്കൽ സയൻസും

The State and Political Science Textbook Questions and Answers in Malayalam

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 2  Chapter 2 In search of the Source of Wind Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 2 Notes

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Did you notice the places marked A and B in the diagram? Which of these places will have a higher atmospheric pressure? Why?

Answer:
The place marked B will have a higher atmospheric pressure, because atmospheric pres-sure decreases with altitude.

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Why do mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders ?
Answer:
When height increases the amount of air decreases in atmosphere. So mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders.

Sslc Geography Chapter 1 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Compare the two pictures. Identify the situations of low and high atmospheric pressure and suitably mark ‘H’ and ‘I? in the pictures.
Answer:
During day time air gets heated. So the density of the air decreases. Then he weight of the air decreases. It causes decrease in pressure

Sslc History Chapter 1 Malayalam Medium Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Compared to the colder regions, the tropical regions experience low atmospheric pres¬sure why?
Answer:
Very high temperature experienced in lower latitude so air starts to rise. That leads to low atmospheric pressure. But in a colder region air is dense so that leads to high atmospheric pressure.

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes English Medium Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Two places at the same elevation are marked as A and B in the figure. Which of these has a low atmospheric pressure? Why?

Answer:
A located in the coastal area, B is located away from the coastal area. Humidity in the atmosphere of the region near coastal area will be more, the the atmospheric pressure will be less here. So A has a low atmospheric pressure

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Question 6.
Observe the distribution of isobars in the given figure and mark the places experiencing high pressure and low pressure as H and L respectively.
Answer:

10th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Find out the position of the sub tropical high pressure belt from the given figure (Text-book fig 2.5).
Answer:
Situated on 30° latitude of North and’South hemisphere.

Sslc Social Science Chapter Wise Questions Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Find out the location of the sub polar low pressure belt from Fig (Textbook fig 2.5).
Answer:
Situated on 60° latitude of North and South hemisphere.

Question 9.
If the earth did not rotate, would there have been low pressure in the sub polar region ?
Answer:
No, Besides if the earth did not rotate the direction of the winds would be another.

Question 10.
Find out the latitudinal location of the polar high pressure belts.
Answer:
90° North and South

Question 11.
Based on different types of pressure belts and their latitudes
Answer:

Question 12.
Mark the direction of winds in both the diagrams, using arrow marks.
In which of these situations will the speed of the wind be higher? Why?

Answer:
The speed of the wind will be higher in diagram A. In this diagram, isobars are depicted closely in diagram B the distance between isobars is more. So the speed of the wind will be less.

Question 13.
Find out the direction and the name of the trade winds in the Southern Hemisphere from Fig 2.9.
Answer:
Direction: South east
Name : South east trade winds

Question 14.
What could be the reason for the trade winds blowing from south east and north east directions?
Answer:
Trade wind blows from sub-tropical high pressure belts to the equatorial low pressure belts. It is due to the Coriolis effect that the direction of trade winds is from north east in northern hemisphere and southeast in the southern hemisphere.Otherwise it will be from exact north and south.

Question 15.
Identify and note the direction of the westerlies in both the hemispheres from Fig 2.9.
Answer:
In northern hemisphere direction of westerlies is mostly from the west to north. In southern hemisphere direction of westerlies from west to south.

Question 16.
Prepare a chart describing the planetary winds, the areas where they blown and their features.
Answer:

Question 17.
Find out from the atlas the countries along the southern slope of the Alps.
Answer:
Italty, Slovania

Question 18.
Prepare a report on the distress caused by Ockhi and suggest measures to mitigate the impact of such disasters in future by collecting information from internet and other sources.
Answer:
Based on the climatic region of their formation, cyclones can be classified as tropical cyclones and temperate cyclone. Cyclones often cause extensive damage and destruction wherever they occur. The Ockhi cyloninc winds that struck the coastlines of Kerala and Lakshdweep during November 2017.

This was a tropical cyclone. Tropical cylones are caused due to local pressure differences in the tropical oceans, especially the Indian ocean.Ockhi cyclones left the Indian coasts after wreaking havoc on life and property. While near Kanyakumari in mainland India, Cyclone Ockhi changed course and intensified while heading towards Lakshadweep in the Arabian Sea.

Ockhi impacted Lak-shadweep on December 2, uprooting coconut trees and causing extensive damage to houses, power lines and other infrastructure on the islands. Ockhi weakened into a well- marked low near the south coast of Gujarat, India, on December 6, before crossing the coastline and dissipating shortly afterward. In its entirety, Cyclone Ockhi left a trail of massive destruction in Sri Lanka, Lakshadweep, South India, and The Maldives, as it strengthened from a depression to a mature cyclone.

Though it rapidly weakened during its final stages over the Arabian Sea, it caused heavy rainfall along the western coast of India, particularly in Maharashtra and Gujarat. Ockhi caused at least 245 fatalities, including 218 in India and 27 in Sri Lanka, and the storm left at least 550 people missing, mainly fishermen.

Weather forecasting offices has given a warning that Okhi cyclone can travel at a speed of 120 Kilometers. If cyclones like Okhi are reported never ignore such news and take necessary precautions. If the offices give introduction to shift from your houses, obey the orders, fisherman have to be cautious.

Question 19.
Complete the following flow chart showing the classification of winds.

In search of the Source of Wind Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Temperature, altitude and humidity are inversely proportional to atmospheric pressure. Justify?
Answer:
When temperature increases air gets heated and expands. The expanded air is less dense and it ascends. This leads to lowering of pressure. When temperature decreases, air becomes dense and descends.

This will increase atmospheric pressure. So there is an inverse relationship between temperature and pres sure. When altitude increases air becomes rarefied. So it exerts less pressure. But when altitude decreases earth gravity pulls the gas molecules towards the ground.

So air becomes dense and it exert high pressure. Humidity means the amount of water vapor present in the atmosphere. Water vapor is lighter than air. If the amount of water vapor is more in a unit volume of air, then atmospheric pressure will be less because moist air contains less oxygen and nitrogen and exerts less pressure.While dry air exerts high pressure as it contains more oxygen and nitrogen.

Question 2.
Prepare notes on the role of solar energy and the earth’s rotation in the formation of pressure belts.
Answer:
Solar energy and earth’s rotation plays an important role in the formation of pressure belts. Earth rotation and apparent movement of the sun, which causes an inequality in the amount of heat received by different parts of the earth and its atmosphere. At the equator throughout the year the amount of heat received is intense. Heated air being light, rises, creating low pressure area.

While at the poles, sun rays are slanting and air is so heavy and a high pressure area is created. Rotation of the earth also leads to the formation of various pressure belts on the earth. The pole rotates more slowly than the equator, and the air should be pushed away from the poles towards the equator, where it pile to form a high pressure belt and at the poles it should be a low pressure. But this is just reverse near equatorial region, where the air gets heated and rises, creates low pressure. The poles where cold air sinks, is the high pressure area

Question 3.
Describe how the Coriolis Effect causes the deflection of winds on the basis of the direction of the winds mentioned below,
a. Trade winds
b. Westerlies.
Answer:
Due to the rotation of the earth winds curve as they blow. This curving motion of wind is called coriolis effect. According to this any freely moving bodies get deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. Winds that blows from sub-tropical high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt are called trade winds. In Northern Hemisphere trade wind blows from North East direction due to deflection. So it is called North East trade winds.

In southern Hemisphere trade winds blows from South East direction hence it is called South East trade winds. Westerlies winds blow from the sub-tropical high pres sure to sub-polar low pressure. Due to coriolis effect in Northern Hemisphere it is from south west direction and in Southern Hemisphere North west direction. Westerlies are just opposite of trade winds in terms of their direction so westerlies are also called an ti trade winds.

In search of the Source of Wind Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe and analyse the pictures 2.1,2.3 in the chapter.
List out the factors which influence the atmospheric pressure

• Height
• Temperature

Answer:
Humidity

Question 2.
Observe and analyse the picture 2.1,2.2,2.3 in the chapter and find out how do the following factors influence the atmosphere pressure
Altitude
Temperature
Humility
Answer:
Altitude — When altitude increases atmospheric pressure decreases.
Temperature — When temperature increases atmospheric pressure decreases.
Humidity — When humidity increases atmospheric pressure decreases.

Question 3.
How does the term ‘High pressure’ differ from the ‘Low pressure’

Answer:
High Pressure:
Atmospheric pressure is more when com pared to surroundings.
Low Pressure:
Atmospheric pressure is low when compared to surroundings.

Question 4.
Complete the following table based on global pressure belts.

5. List out the factors influencing the speed • Coriolis effect and the direction of winds

• Coriolis effect
• Pressure Gradient

Answer:
Friction

Question 6.
Write the main features of planetary winds and complete the table.

Answer:

Question 7.
List out the reasons which result in the formation of monsoon.

• The apparent movement of the sun

Answer:
Coriolis force, Differences in heat.

Question 8.
Complete the following table by distinguishing between Sea breeze and Land breeze.

Answer:
Land Breeze:

• Blows during the night.
• Blows from land to sea.

Sea Breeze:

• Blows during the daytime.
• Blows from sea to land.

Question 9.
Complete the following table by distinguishing between Mountain breeze and Valley breeze.

Answer:
Mountain Breeze:

• Blows from mountain towards the valley.
• Blows during the night.

Valley Breeze:

• Blows from valley towards the mountain.
• Blows during the day time.

Question 10.
List out the local winds based on their nature and places where they blow, to complete the following table.

Answer:

In search of the Source of Wind Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between
a. Land breeze and Sea breeze
b. Mountain breeze and Valley breeze
Answer:
Land breeze:
As the land cools faster than the sea during the right, it would be high pressure over the land and low pressure over the sea. This results in the movement of air from the land to sea. This is the Land Breeze.

Sea Breeze:
Land heats up and cools down quickly than water that leads to the formation of low pressure over the land. So cooler air starts to blow from the sea. This is known as Sea Breeze.

Mountain Breeze:
During night, the air in the mountainous regions cools due to the intense cold conditions in that region. As cool air is denser, it blows towards the valley. This is known as Mountain Breeze.

Valley Breeze:
During the day time, the air in the valley gets heated up more than the air on the mountain tops. As a result the wind blows up slope from the valley. This is known as Vally Breeeze

Question 2.
The trade winds blow from North East direction and from south east direction substantiate.
Answer:
It is due to the coriolis effect that the direction of trade winds is from north east in northern hemisphere and southeast in the southern hemisphere.Otherwise it will be from exact north and south. Freely moving bodies get deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere due to a force generated as a result of earth’s rotation.

Question 3.
Find out how do the ‘Coriolis effect’ influence the direction of winds.
Answer:
Trade Winds are those which blow from sub tropical high pressure belt to equtorial law pressure belt. Due to the Coriolis effect trade winds blow from north east direction in the northern hemisphere and from the southeast direction in the southern hemisphere Westerlies blow from the subtropical high pressure belts towards the sub polar low pressure belts. It is due to the Coriolis effect that the westerlies blow in the south west direction in the northern hemisphere and in the north west direction in the southern hemisphere.

Question 4.
Which local wind is known as ‘snow eater’ why is it called so?
Answer:
Chinook.The red indian word ‘Chinook’ means snow eater. It causes the melting of snow

Question 5.
The speed of the wind is high over plains and oceans. How do you interpret this statement
Answer:
Since the friction is less over plains and oceans the speed of wind will be high in such places. However places with difficult terrain and dense forest cover will have less speed of wind.

In search of the Source of Wind SCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following diagrams and find answers to the following Questions.

which diagram represents the low pressure region? Substantiate your answer.
What is the name by which the smooth curved lines in the diagrams are known? What does it indicate?

Answer:
Figure B represents the low pressure region

• The value of isobars decreases towards the center.
• Isobars
• Imaginary lines joining places having equal atmospheric pressure.

Question 2.
Distinguish between
a. Land breeze and Sea breeze
b. Mountain breeze and Valley breeze
Answer:

• Characteristic features of land and sea breezes
• Characteristic features of mountain and valley breezes

Question 3.
Which are the pressure belts on either side of subtropical high pressure belts?
Write notes on the winds formed from this pressure belt in the northern hemisphere. Which among these winds is most influenced by the Coriolis force? Why?
Answer:

• Sub polar low pressure belt and equatorial low pressure belt.
• Features of westerlies and north east trade winds.
• Westerlies are most influenced by the Coriolis force.
• Coriolis force increases while advancing from the equator.

Question 4.
Rearrange the table on the basis of the planetary winds blowing in between different pressure belts.
1. Between the sub-tropical high pressure belt and the sub polar low pressure belt. – Trade winds
2. Between the polar high pressure belt and the sub polar low pressure belts – Westerlies
3. Between the sub-tropical high pressure belts and the equatorial low pressure be Its – Polar winds
Answer:

• Westerlies
• Polar winds
• Trade winds

Question 5.
Read the following information’s.
• The atmospheric pressure at A is 740 mb and it is 730 mb at a place 10 km away from A.
• Atmospheric pressure at B is 740 mb and it is 730 mb at a place 5 km away from B Which among these places experience stronger winds? Why?
Answer:

• Place B experience stronger winds
• Pressure gradient force is more at B. The isobars are drawn close to each other.

Question 6.
Which among the following winds are called as Roaring forties?
A. Polar winds
B. Monsoon winds
C. Westerlies
D. Trade winds
Answer:
C. Westerlies

Question 7.
Identify the wrong statement among the following.
i. The location of mountains is one among the factors causing the formation of monsoon.
ii. South west trade winds also moves north ward with the equatorial low pressure belt in the northern hemisphere during summer.
iii. South east trade winds moves northward along with the equatorial low pressure belt in the northern hemisphere during summer.
iv. Coriolis effect is one of the factors influencing the formation of monsoon.
a. i, iii and iv are correct, ii is wrong
b. i, ii, and iv are correct, iii is wrong
c. iii and iv are correct, i and ii are wrong
d. i and iv are correct, ii and iii are wrong
Answer:
c is the correct answer

Question 8.
Suppose at a place A the level of mercury in the mercury barometer touches 76cm. What may be the atmospheric pressure then? Calculate the atmospheric pressure experienced at a height of 50 metres over the same.place.
Answer:

• Atmospheric pressure 1013.2 mb
• Atmos pheric pressure at 50 m height = 1013.2 – (1 mb × 5)= 1008.2 mb

Question 9.
The equatorial low pressure region was a nightmare for the ancient mariners. Why?
Answer:

• In ancient times the ocean voyages were – in yachts by making use of winds.
• The winds are feeble in the equatorial low pressure region because of massive rising up of air.
• This region is also known as Doldrum.
• The voyage across this region in yachts was difficult due to the lack of winds.

Question 10.
Explains that the atmospheric pressure is not uniform everywhere.

a. Name the smooth lines in the diagram,
b. Among the places A and B, identify the place experiencing high pressure and the place experiencing low pressure,
c. The sun is in which hemisphere during the period?
Answer:

• Isobars
• A- Low pressure, B- High pressure
• Northern hemisphere

Question 11.
Is the atmospheric pressure the same at all places given below? Write a note based on the factors influencing the atmospheric pressure. .
1. Polar region
2. Central pacific region
3. Ooty
Answer:

1. Polar region – Low temperature, high pressure
2. Central pacific region – high temperature, low pressure
3. Ooty – low temperature, high pressure

Question 12.
Following are a few facts related to two global pressure belts. Identify the pressure belts.
1. Extends to about 5° to 10° north and south of the equator.
2. Located at 30° north and south latitudes on both the hemispheres.
3. Trade winds and Westerlies blows from either side of this belt.
4. Known as Doldrum
Answer:
1 .Equatorial low pressure belt
2. Sub tropical high pressure belt
3. Sub tropical high pressure belt
4. Equatorial low pressure belt

Question 13.
Winds are named according to the place from which they blow. Mention any two winds named accordingly.
Answer:

• South west monsoon winds
• North east monsoon winds ( name any suitable winds)

Question 14.
Illustrated below are the directions of winds in the northern and southern hemispheres. Identify the figures which are not correct and illustrate them correctly.

Answer:

• Figures – b and d are not correct
• Correctly illustrate them.

Question 15.
Arrange the items in B and C columns suitable to column A.

Answer:

In search of the Source of Wind Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the hot Local wind which blows from the Rajastan desert.
Answer:
Loo

Question 2.
Choose the correct example for periodic winds given below.
Trade winds, Westerlies, Monsoon winds
Answer:
Monsoon winds

Question 3.
Identify the winds that helped Gama to reach Kerala coast from Malindi?
Answer:
South west monsoon winds.

Question 4.
Westerties are stronger in the southern hemisphere that in the northern hemisphere why?
Answer:
This is due to vast expanse of oceans in the southern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Name the instrument used to measure at-mospheric pressure
Answer:
Barometer (Mercury Barometer, Aneroid Ba¬rometer)

Question 3.
In which unit atmospheric pressure is measured?
Answer:
Hectopascal (hpa), Milibar (mb)

Question 7.
Define the meaning of Atmospheric pressure
Answer:
Pressure exerted by the air is called atmospheric pressure. ,

Question 8.
Atmospheric pressure is not the same in all places on the Earth? Ex plain
Answer:
Attitude, Temperature and humidity are the various factors that effects atmospheric pressure.

Attitude :- When height increases pressure decreases when height increases the amount of air present in atmosphere decreases.

Temperature :- When air gets heated, air starts to expend. As a result air become dense and it rises. This leads to decrease in pressure.

Humidity:- The amount of water vapour present in air is called humidity. The water vapour is less dense than air. So when the amount of water vapour increases atmospheric pressure decreases.

Question 9.
Define high pressure and low pressure? Ans.If the atmospheric pressure of an area is higher than that of the surrounding regions it can be designated as high pressure (H). If the atmospheric of the surrounding region it can be designated as low pressure (L).

Question 10.
What are Isobars? What are the various uses of isobars?
Answer:
isobars are imaginary lines joining places having the same atmospheric pressure. We can easily understand the distribution of the atmospheric pressure of any region by observing the Isobars.

Question 11.
Write a brief note on global pressure belts based on location and factor responsible for the formation.
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure is uniform between certain latitudes. These belts are called Global pressure belts.
Equatorial low pressure belts:

• This belts is situated between 5° N and 5°S latitudes.
• This is the Zone where the sun rays fall vertically throughout the year.
• Hence air expands due to Sun’s heat and riser up on a massive scale

Sub tropical high pressure belts:

• This belt lies between latitudes in both Northern and Southern Hemisphere.
• The hot air ascending from the equatorial low pressure belts cools gradually and subsides at the Sub tropical Zone due to rotation of the Earth.

Sub polar low pressure belts:

• This belt lies bear 60° latitudes in both North and South of the equator.
• This zone in close to the pole, the air is colder here.
• Though the cold air remains close to theearth, the air is thrown up due to rotation of the Earth. As a result, low pressure is experienced all along the sub polar region.

Polar high pressure belts:

• This belt lies 90° latitudes in both the hemispheres.
• This zone experience severe cold throughout the year.

Question 12.
What are the factors that contribute to the formation of different pressure belts.
Answer:
Variations in the amount of solar energy received. The rotation of the Earth.

Question 13.
How are the winds formed?
Answer:
Pressure differences lead to the formation of winds. Winds blow from high pressure regions to low pressure in a horizontal manner. This is called wind.

Question 14.
What is the main faction behind the name given to a particular wind?
Answer:
Winds are named on the basis of the direction from which they blow. For example, South wind the wind blowing from South.

Question 15.
The peculiarities of the source regions influence the nature of wind. How?
Answer:
Winds blowing from the sea will be saturated with moisture whereas, the moisture content will be less in winds blowing from drier regions.

Question 16.
Write some factors that determines velocity and direction of wind?
Answer:
Pressure gradient, Force coriolis, Force friction.

Question 17.
What is pressure gradient force?
Answer:
The pressure gradient is said to be sleeper when the pressure difference is more. This can be understand by the pattern of isobar in two different situations. If the isobar are distributed away from each other the pressure gradient will be less. So the speed of wind is feeble.

Question 18.
What is meant by Coriolis force?
Answer:
Freely moving bodies get deflated to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern hemisphere due to the force generated as a result of Earth’s rotation. This is known as Coriolis force.

Question 19.
Who introduced Ferrels’sLaw? Explain the Law?
Answer:
Admiral Ferrel introduced this law, an American Scientist. According to this Ferrel’s law winds right and those in the Southern hemisphere deflect towards their left due to the Coriolis effect.

Question 20.
Two different pictures are given be low under two situations. In which of these situations do winds blow smoothly? Why?
Answer:
The speed of wind will be high over ocean surfaces and level lands as the friction is less. On the other hand, the friction being more along difficult terrains and places with dense forest cover, the speed of wind will be less in those places.

Question 21.
Write a short note on planetary winds?
Answer:
The winds developed between the global pressure belts can be generally called as pla-netary. The different planetary winds are listed below:

• Trade winds
• Westerlies
• Polar easterlies

Trade winds : The winds that blow from sub tropical high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt is called Trade winds.

Westerlies: The winds that blow from Sub- tropical high pressure belt to sub-polar low pressure belt is called Westerlies.

Polar easterlies: The winds that below from polar high pressure to sub-polar low pressure is called Polax easterlies.

Question 22.
What is Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (TTCZ)?
Answer:
The zone where the trade winds from both the hemispheres converge is known as the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone.

Question 23.
The ancient mariners had given different names to the rough westerlies in the southern hemisphere what are those names? Why it is known is different names?
Answer:
Roaring Forties (along 40° latitude), Furious Fifties (along 50° latitudes) and shrieking sixties (60° latitudes).

Question 24.
Why the polar winds are called polar Easter lies?
Answer:
These winds blow from the east in both the hemispheres due to the coriolis force. Hence these are known as polar easterlies.

Question 25.
Winds that change direction is accordance with season. Explain.
Answer:
Monsoon is the seasonal reversal of wind in a year it changes their direction according to the season. There are many factors responsible for the formation of the monsoon winds. Some of these are:

• The apparent movement of the sun
• Coriolis force
• Differences in heating

Sun’s rays fall vertically to the north of the equator during certain months due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis. This leads to an increase in temperature along the region through which topic of cancer passes. The pressure belts also shifts slightly northwards in accordance with this. The south east trade winds also cross the equator and moves towards the north- wards during the summer in the northern hemisphere. As the trade winds cross the equator they get deflected and transform into south west moon winds under the influence of the coriolis effect. As a result of the formation of high pressure zones over the Asian land mass during winder and low pressure Zones over the Indian Ocean, the north-east trade winds get strengthened. These are the north east monsoon winds. In a year wind deflects their direction twice.

Question 26.
Explain the formation of valley breeze and mountain breeze?
Answer:
During the day time air in the valley gets heated up more than the air on the mountain tops. As a result, the wind blows up shope from the valley. This is known as Valley Breeze. But during right the air in the mountain ous regions cools due to the intense cold conditions in that region. As cool air is demer, it blows towards the valley. This is known as Mountains Breeze.

Question 27.
What are the different types of local winds blows in different parts? Explain?
Answer:
Local winds are winds whose effects are limited to a comparatively it is formed as a result of local pressure differences. Such winds exist in different parts of the world. Loo, Mango Showers and Kalbaisathi are the local winds experienced in India. Chinook, Harmattan and Foehn are some of the local winds in other parts of the world.

Question 28.
What is Chinook? Write a note on features of Chinook.
Answer:
Chinook is a local wind that blows down the eastern slope of the Rocky mountains in North America. As a result of these winds, the snow along the eastern slopes of the Rocks melts. This wind reduces the severity of the cold, it is helpful for the wheat cultivation in the Canadian lowlands.

Question 29.
In which region the wind Foehn blows? What is the main feature of this wind?
Answer:
Foehn is the wind that blows towards the southern valleys of the Alps. As the air heats up due to pressure from the descend, it helps in reducing the severity of cold in that’ region.

Question 30.
In which region the wind Harmattan blows? What are the characteristics of this wind?
Answer:
Harmattan is a day wind which blows from the Sahara desert towards the West Africa.On of the arrival of these winds, the humied and sultry conditions of west Africa is improved significantly. Hence people call these winds as doctor Harmattan.

Question 31.
Name the different types of local winds blow¬ing in India. Write a short note on vari- ous local winds blowing in India?
Answer:
Loo:

• Not wind blowing in the North Indian plain.
• Hot wind blows is hot dry season.
• It increases the summer temperature.
• It is experienced in the afternoon.

Mango Showers:

• It blows in South India during hot season.
• It acquires its name owing to the fall of ripe mangoes on its arrival.

Question 32.
What does thid picture indicate ? Analyse the picyure and prepare a note.

Answer:
The picture indicates Coriolis Force. Freely moving bodies get deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere due to a force generated as a result of earth’s rotation. This is known as the Coriolis Force. This force increases as it moves towards the poles from the Equator. Admiral Ferrell found out that the winds in the northern hemisphere deflect towards their right and those in the southern hemisphere deflect towards their left due to the Coriolis effect. The law put forward by him on the basis of this known as Ferrell’s Law.

Question 33.
There are different types of winds on the earth’s surface. Complete the following flow.

Answer: