Plus Two

Students can Download Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Plus Two Chemistry in Everyday Life One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is a hypnotic drug?
(a) Luminal
(b) Salol
(c) Catechol
(d) Ranitidine
Answer:
(a) Luminal

Question 2.
Alitame is an example of ……………………….
Answer:
Artificial sweetner

Question 3.
Say TRUE or FALSE: Non-ionic detergents are used for dishwashing purpose.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Which of the following is a bacteriostatic antibiotic?
(a) Pencillin
(b) Aminoglycosides
(c) Chloramphenicol
(d) Ofloxacin
Answer:
(c) Chloramphenicol

Question 5.
Antipyretics are medicinal compounds which
(a) lower body temperature
(b) relieve pain
(c) control hypertension
(d) remove acidity
Answer:
(a) lower body temperature

Question 6.
Name the macromolecules that are chosen as drug targets.
Answer:
Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids.

Question 7.
Which of the following s not used as a neurologicaly active drug?
(a) Veronal
(b) Bithional
(c) Equanil
(d) Nardil
Answer:
(b) Bithional

Question 8.
Bithional is added to soap as an additive which per¬form as
(a) Herdenel
(b) Softness
(c) perfume
(d) Antiseptic
Answer:
(d) Antiseptic

Question 9.
Chemicaly Aspirin is …………….
Answer:
Acetyl Salicylic acid

Question 10.
Chemical compound used for the treatment stress are called ……………..
Answer:
tranquilizer

Question 11.
Terfenadine is commonly used as ……………
Answer:
Antibiotic

Plus Two Chemistry in Everyday Life Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the term ‘target molecules’ or ‘drug-targets’ as used in medicinal chemistry.
Answer:
Target molecules or drug-targets are the macromolecules such as carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, noucleic acids with which the drug interacts in our body to produce therapeutic effect.

Question 2.
What you mean by the term broad spectrum antibiotics? Explain.
Answer:
Antibiotics which are effective against several different types of harmful micro-organisms and thus capable of curing several infections are called broad spectrum antibiotics, e.g. Chloramphenicol.

Question 3.
Describe the following with suitable examples.

1. Tranquilizers
2. Antihistamines

Answer:

1. They are used for the treatment of stress or mental diseases. e.g. Barbituric acid
2. These are anti-allergic drugs and are used to treat allergy. e.g. skin rashes, conjunctivitis, nasal discharge, etc. e.g. brompheniramine, terfenadine

Question 4.
Bithional is added to soap. Give reason.
Answer:
It eliminates undesirable odour resulting from bacterial decompostion of organic matter on skin.

Question 5.
How do antiseptic and disinfectant differ? Explain with example.
Answer:
Both antiseptics and disinfectants are chemicals which either kill or prevent the growth of micro organisms. Antiseptics can be applied to living tissues. But disinfectants are applied to inanimate objects. They are harmful to living tissues, eg. Antiseptic – Dettol, Disinfectant – Phenol

Question 6.

1. What are artificial sweetening agents?
2. Name any two artificial sweetners.

Answer:

1. Substances which are used as sweetening agents in place of sugar but have no nutritive value are called artificial sweetening agents,
2. Sacharine and Aspartame are artificial sweetners.

Question 7.
What problem arises in using alitame as artificial sweetener?
Answer:
Alitame is a high potency sweetener. It is about 2000 times sweeter than sucrose. Therefore, the control of sweetness of food is difficult while using it.

Question 8.
Classify the following drugs into antihistamines transquilizers, analgesics and antibiotics.
Barbituric acid, Ranitidine, Morphine, Amoxycillin
Answer:

• Antihistamines – Rantidine
• Tranquilisers – Barbituric acid
• Analgesics – Morphine
• Antibiotics – Amoxycillin

Question 9.
What do you mean by bacteriocidal and bactereostatic antibiotics? Give example.
Answer:
Bacteriocidal antibiotics kills bacteria, e.g. pencillin Bacteriostatic antibiotics has inhibitory effects on bacteria, e.g. Tetracycline.

Question 10.
Why should not medicines be taken without consulting doctors?
Answer:
Only a doctor can diagnose the disease properly and prescribe the correct medicine in appropriate dose.

Question 11.
Which forces are involved in holding the drugs to the active site of enzymes?
Answer:
Forces such as ionic bonding, hydrogen bonding, van der Waals interaction or dipole-diple interaction.

Plus Two Chemistry in Everyday Life Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question. 1
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 2.

1. Give an example of tranquilizers.
2. Aspirin belongs to which type of analgesic?
3. Give an example for narcotic analgesic.

Answer:

1. Barbituric acid and its derivatives.
2. Non-narcotic/Non-addictive analgesics
3. Morphine

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 4.
Chemistry plays a major role in our daily life.

1. How are synthetic detergents better than soaps?
2. Give one example each for cationic and anionic detergents.

Answer:

1. Detergents can be used even in hard water and also in acidic medium.
2. Cationic detergent – Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
   Anionic detergent – Sodium lauryl sulphate

Question 5.
Match A and B:

Answer:

Question 6.
While antacids and antiallergic drugs interfere with the function of histamines, why do these not interfere with the function of each other?
Answer:
Antacids and antiallergic drugs do not interfere with the function of each other because they work on different receptors. Thus, antihistamines (antiallergic drugs) do not affect the secretion of acid in stomach because they do not interact with the receptors present in the stomach wall.

Question 7.
A low level of noradrenaline is the cause of depression. What type of drugs are needed to cure this problem? Name two drugs.
Answer:
Drugs which can inhibit the enzymes which catalyse the degradation of noradrenaline are needed. This will slow down the process of metabolism of noradrenaline and will thus help in counteracting the effect of depression. Iproniazid and phenelzine are two such drugs.

Plus Two Chemistry in Everyday Life Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. What are the main constituents of dettol?
2. What is tincture of iodine? What is its use?
3. Name the substance which can be used as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant.

Answer:

1. Chloroxylenol and terpineol.
2. A 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture is called tincture of iodine. It is used as an antiseptic.
3. Phenol can be used as an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant. 0.2% solution of phenol is used as an antiseptic and 1% solution of phenol is used as disinfectant.

Question 2.

1. Differentiate between antagonists and agonists.
2. What are broad spectrum antibiotics?

Answer:
1. Drugs that bind to receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called antagonists. They are usefull when blocking of message is required. Drugs that mimic natural messenger by switching on the receptor are called agonists. They are useful when there is lack of natural chemical messenger.

2. They can kill or inhibit a wide range of bacteria.

Plus Two Chemistry in Everyday Life NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the macromolecules that are chosen as drug targets.
Answer:
Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids.

Question 2.
Why should not medicines be taken without consulting doctors?
Answer:
Medicines should always be taken after consulting a doctor because any medicine if taken in overdose may act as a poison. Moreover, only a doctor can diagnose the disease properly and prescribe the correct medicine in appropriate dose.

Question 3.
Which forces are involved in holding the drugs to the active site of enzymes?
Answer:
Drug is held to the amino acid residues of the protein present on the active site of the enzyme through forces such as ionic bonding, hydrogen bonding, van der Waals’ interaction ordipole-diple interaction.

Question 4.
While antacids and antiallergic drugs interfere with the function of histamines, why do these not interfere with the function of each other?
Answer:
Antacids and antiallergic drugs do not interfere with the function of each other because they work on different receptors. Thus, antihistamines (antiallergic drugs) do not affect the secretion of acid in stomach because they do not interact with the receptors present in the stomach wall.

Question 5.
A low level of noradrenaline is the cause of depression. What type of drugs are needed to cure this problem? Name two drugs.
Answer:
Drugs which can inhibit the enzymes which catalyse the degradation of noradrenaline are needed. This will slow down the process of metabolism of noradrenaline and will thus help in counteracting the effect of depression. Iproniazid and phenelzine are two such drugs.

Students can Download Chapter 7 Directing Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Directing

Plus Two Business Studies Directing One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“It is an important managerial function that initiates action” What this managerial function is called?
Answer:
Directing

Question 2.
Supervision is an element of ………………………….
(a) Staffing
(b) Directing
(c) Organizing
Answer:
(b) Directing

Question 3.
Overseeing the subordinates at work is called …………
Answer:
Supervision

Question 4.
Which among the following is an example of upward communication?
(a) Circular
(b) Complaints
(c) Memos
(d) Notices
Answer:
(b) Complaints

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not an element of direction?
(a) Motivation
(b) Communication
(c) Delegation
(d) Supervision
Answer:
(c) Delegation

Question 6.
Arrange the following elements in the correct sequence.
Receiver → Sender → Message → Decoding → Feedback → Encoding → Channel
Answer:
Sender → Message → Channel →Encoding → Receiver → Decoding → Feedback

Question 7.
The network of informal communication is called ………………
Answer:
Grapevine communication

Question 8.
Grapevine is
(a) Formal communication
(b) Barrier to communication
(c) Lateral communication
(d) Informal communication
Answer:
(d) Informal communication

Question 9.
Status comes under the following type of barriers.
(a) Semantic barrier
(b) Organisational barrier
(c) Non Semantic barrier
(d) Psychological barrier
Answer:
(b) Organisational barrier

Question 10.
Ability of a leader to look at things from others point of view is called ……………
Answer:
Empathy

Question 11.
The production manager and the marketing manager in KEL communicates directly. Identify the type of communication.
Answer:
Horizontal communication

Question 12.
“Translation of ideas into meaningful language by the sender” Identify this concept.
Answer:
Encoding

Question 13.
The process of converting the message into communication symbols is known as ……………….
Answer:
Encoding

Question 14.
The communication network in which all subordinates under a supervisor communicate through supervisor only is:
(a) Single chain
(b) Y pattern
(c) Wheel
(d) Freeflow
Answer:
(c) Wheel

Question 15.
People interpret the same message in different ways depending upon their attitude, experience, education… etc. This is an example of ……………..
(a) Status barrier
(b) Semantic barrier
(c) Channel barrier
(d) Organizational barrier
Answer:
(b) Semantic barrier

Question 16.
Horizontal and Diagonal communication reduces ………………. barrier in communication.
(a) Semantic Barrier
(b) Status Barrier
(c) Organization Barrier
(d) Overload Barrier
Answer:
(c) Organization Barrier

Question 17.
Which among the following is an example of downward communication?
a) Suggestions
b) Complaints
c) Requests
d) Orders
Answer:
(d) Orders

Question 18.
“Persons of lower status do not feel free to talk to superiors”. Identify the Communication Barrier.
(a) Semantic Barrier
(b) Status Barrier
(c) In attention Barrier
(d) Barrier in Superior
Answer:
(b) Status Barrier

Question 19.
The communication network in which all subordinates under a manager communicate through the manager only is:
(a) Wheel Pattern
(b) Chain Pattern
(c) Circular
(d) Free flow
Answer:
(a) Wheel Pattern

Question 20.
The highest level need in the need Hierarchy of Abraham Maslow:
(a) Safety needs
(b) Belongingness needs
(c) Self actualisation needs
(d) Prestige needs
Answer:
(c) Self actualisation needs

Question 21.
Two messages are given below.

1.  “You must complete the work before 2 pm tommorrow”, the Factory Manager said to the Factory Supervisor.
2.  “Increase the sales as there is huge stock in hand”, the production Manager said to the Marketing Manager.

Identify the flow of communication in the above situations.

Answer:

1. Downward communication
2. Horizontal communication

Question 22.
Correct the following diagram.

Answer:
Sender → Message → Encoding → Channel → Receiver → Decoding → Feedback

Question 23.

Identify the communication network.
Answer:
Wheel Pattern

Question 24.
Observe the following diagram.

1. Identify the type of communication depicted in the diagram.
2. If all the persons can communicate with one another, what should the pattern be called?

Answer:

1. Circle pattern
2. Free flow

Question 25.
Sometimes emotions or state of mind stand in way of effective communication. Name the type of barriers cited above.
Answer:
Psychological barriers

Question 26.
Sometimes subordinates may feel reluctant to transit correct information to the superiors. The subordinate most often held back the unpleasant facts or may not report the true facts.

1. Identify the type of communication barrier referred to this context.

Answer:
1. Status barrier

Question 27.
There are some basic needs of an individual like need for food, clothing and shelter in the Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory. These needs are called:
(a) Esteem needs
(b) Social needs
(c) Physiological needs
(d) Safety needs
Answer:
(c) Physiological needs

Question 28.
The motivation theory which classifies needs in hierarchical order is developed by …………………
a) Fred Luthans
b) Scott
c) Abraham Maslow
d) Peter F. Drucker
Answer:
(c) Abraham Maslow

Question 29.
Arrange the following human desires in the hierarchy as suggested by Abraham Maslow.

1. Pension for old age
2. Feeling of self-confidence
3. Need to belong to a group
4. Need for food
5. Need for realization of goals in life

Answer:

1. Safety need
2. Esteem need
3. Social need
4. Physiological need
5. Self actualisation need

Question 30.
Arrange the following desires of a human being in the hierarchy as suggested by Abraham H Maslow.

1. Friendship
2. Life ambitious
3. Status
4. Food
5. Job security

Answer:

Question 31.
Distinguish between financial & non-financial incentives.

1. Commission
2. Bonus
3. Perquisites
4. Promotion
5. Recognition
6. Sharing of profit
7. Participation in decision making
8. Retirement benefits

Answer:

Question 32.
Take his own decisions and compel others to follow it. Which type of leadership style is mentioned here?
Answer:
Autocratic style

Question 33.
Give freedom to the subordinates to take part in decision making process is …………………
Answer:
Laissez-faire style

Question 34.
A communication network which allows a subordinate to communicate with his immediate superior and superior of his immediate superior is called ………………..
(a) Free flow
(b) Inverted V
(c) Circle
(d) Wheel
Answer:
(b) Inverted V

Question 35.
Distinguish the following channels as formal & informal.

1. Gossip network
2. Circle network
3. Probability network
4. Wheel network
5. Free flow
6. Single strand network
7. Cluster network

Answer:

Plus Two Business Studies Directing Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw a diagram showing the elements of direction.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is directing?
Answer:
Directing refers to the process of instructing, guiding, counselling, motivating and leading people in the organisation to achieve its objectives.

Question 3.
Enumerate any two features of directing.
Answer:
Features

1. Directing initiate action
2. Directing takes place at every level of management
3. Directing is a continuous process
4. Directing flows from top to bottom

Question 4.
Explain the term Motivation.
Answer:
Motivation:
Motivation is the process of stimulating people to action to accomplish desired goals. Motivation depends upon satisfying needs of people.

Question 5.
In Maslow’s need hierarchy identify the needs which can be satisfied with financial incentives and also those which can be satisfied with non-financial incentives?
Answer:
Needs which can be satisfied with financial incentives are physiological needs, safety needs and social needs. Needs satisfied by non-financial incentives are esteem needs and self actualization needs.

Question 6.
What is incentive?
Answer:
An incentive is something which induces an individual to respond in a desired manner.

Question 7.
Define leadership.
Answer:
Leadership:
Leadership can be defined as the process of influencing the behaviour of employees at work towards the accomplishment of organisational objectives.

Plus Two Business Studies Directing Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The diagram of communication network system adopted by Sahara Ltd is as follows.
Answer:
1)

2)

3)

Question 2.
“Informal communication is also known as grapevine communication”. Explain.
Answer:
Informal Communication:
Communication that takes place without following the formal lines of communication is said to be informal communication. It results from the social interaction among the members.

It satisfies the social needs of members in the organisation. The network of informal communication is known as Grapevine. It is so called because the origin and direction of flow of communication cannot be easily traced out.

Plus Two Business Studies Directing Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Managerial functions cannot be carried out without an efficient system of communication.”

1. Do you agree?
2. Give any three reasons in support of your answer.

Answer:
1. Yes. Communication is one of the most important function of management.
2. Importance of Communication:

• Acts as basis of co-ordination: Communication acts as the basis of co-ordination.
• Helps in smooth working of an enterprise: It is only communication, which makes smooth working of an enterprise possible.
• Acts as basis of decision making: Comm Plication provides needed information for decision making.
• Increases managerial efficiency: Communication lubricates the entire organisation and keeps the organisation at work with efficiency.

Question 2.
Give the communication process.
Answer:
Grapevine communication

Question 3.

1. What is grapevine communication?
2. How is both useful and a cause for disturbance in an organization?

Answer:
1. grapevine communication:
The network or pathway of Informal communication is known as grapevine communication. Because the origin and direction of flow of the informal mes-sages cannot be easily traced.

2. useful and a cause for disturbance in an organization:
a. Advantages of Informal Communication:

1. Employees can develop friendly relationship.
2. It is very flexible and faster than formal communication.
3. Employees attitudes, reactions, etc. to the plans and policies can be easily ascertained.
4. It reduces tension in employer-employee relations.
5. It can be used in conveying certain information which cannot be passed through official channel.
6. Special efforts and expenses are not necessary for informal communication.

b. Disadvantages of Informal Communication:

1. It tends to carry inaccurate information.
2. Its origin cannot be traced and responsibility cannot be fixed.
3. It is unsystematic and cannot be relied upon.
4. It leads to leakage of confidential information.
5. It often carries rumours and misunderstanding.

Plus Two Business Studies Directing Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the ‘communication network’.
Answer:
Communication network:
It refers to the pattern through which members of work groups communicate.
The pattern through which communication flows within the organisation is generally indicated through communication network. Some of the communication networks are:

1. Single Chain:
This network exists between a supervisor and his subordinates. Here communication flows from every superior to his subordinate through single chain.

2. Wheel:
In wheel network, all subordinates under one superior communicate through him only. The subordinates are not allowed to communicate among themselves.

3. Circular:
In circular network, the communication moves in a circle. Each person can communicate with his adjoining two persons.

4. Free flow:
In this network, each person can communicate with others freely.

5. Inverted V:
In this network, a subordinate is allowed to communicate with his immediate superior as well as his superior’s superior.

Question 2.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 3.
Discuss the steps involved in the process of communication.
Answer:
Elements of Communication Process

1. Sender: The sender is the person who sends message or idea to the receiver.
2. Message: Message is the subject matter of communication.
3. Encoding: It is converting the message into communication symbols such as words, pictures, etc.
4. Media: It is the path through which encoded message is transmitted to receiver.
5. Decoding: It is the process of converting encoded symbols of the sender.
6. Receiver: Receiver is the person who receives the message.
7. Feedback: It includes all those actions of receiver indicating that he has received and understood message of sender.
8. Noise: Noise means some obstruction or hindrance to communication.

Question 4.
Re-arrange the following needs in the order of Abraham Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory of Human Needs.

Answer:

Question 5.
Mr.Valsalan, a manager of Shatu Ltd, traces out the needs of the employees in the organization which are as follows.

• Security in old age, state of illness.
• Dignity, self respect
• Protection against fire and accidents
• Better clothing and shelter
• Economic security
• Self-fulfilment
• Love and affection, friendship

Arrange the needs under the framework of Abraham Maslow’s theory. Prepare a chart based on it.
Answer:

Question 6.

1. The function of a lower level manager by which he oversee the working of employees and control their activities is called …………………
2. What is its need?

Answer:

1. Supervision

2. Importance of supervision:

• A good supervisor acts as a guide, friend and philosopher to the workers.,
• Supervisor acts as a link between workers and management. It helps to avoid misunderstandings and conflicts among the management and workers.
• Supervisor provides good On the Job training to the workers and employees.
• A supervisor with good leadership qualities can build up high morale among workers.
• A good supervisor analyses the work performed and gives feedback to the workers.
• Supervisors help to maintains harmony among workers.

Question 7.
Explain Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation.
Answer:
Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation:
Abraham Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory is considered fundamental to understanding of motivation. His theory was based on human needs. Various human needs are:
1. Physiological Needs:
These are the basic needs which include food, clothes, hunger, thirst, shelter, sleep and sex. If physiological needs are not satisfied, the higher level needs will not be emerged.

2. Safety/Security Needs:
These needs provide security and protection from physical and emotional harm. These needs include job security, stability of income, pension plans, etc.

3. Social Needs:
These needs refer to affection, sense of belongingness, acceptance and friendship. Informal organisation helps to satisfy the social needs of an individual.

4. Esteem Needs:
These include factors such as self-respect, autonomy status, recognition and attention.

5. Self Actualisation Needs:
It is the highest level of need in the hierarchy. Self actualisation is the need to maximise one’s potential, whatever it may be. These needs include growth, self-fulfilment and achievement of goals.

Question 8.
Explain the importance of communication in a business organisation.
Answer:
Importance of Communication:
1. Acts as basis of co-ordination: Communication acts as the basis of co-ordination.

2. Helps in smooth working of an enterprise: It is only communication, which makes smooth working of an enterprise possible.

3. Acts as basis of decision making: Comm Plication provides needed irftormation for decision making.

4. Increases managerial efficiency: Communication lubricates the entire organisation and keeps the organisation at work with efficiency.

5. Promotes co-operation and industrial peace: Communication promotes co-operation and mutual understanding between the management and workers.

6. Establishes effective leadership: Commu-nication is the basis of leadership. Effective communication helps to influence subordinates.

7. Boosts morale and provides motivation: An efficient system of communication enables management to motivate, influence and satisfy the subordinates. It helps to boost morale of employees and managers.

Question 9.
Explain various communication networks.
Answer:
Communication network:
It refers to the pattern through which members of work groups communicate.
The pattern through which communication flows within the organisation is generally indicated through communication network. Some of the communication networks are:

1. Single Chain:
This network exists between a supervisor and his subordinates. Here communication flows from every superior to his subordinate through single chain.

2. Wheel:
In wheel network, all subordinates under one superior communicate through him only. The subordinates are not allowed to communicate among themselves.

3. Circular:
In circular network, the communication moves in a circle. Each person can communicate with his adjoining two persons.

4. Free flow:
In this network, each person can communicate with others freely.

5. Inverted V:
In this network, a subordinate is allowed to communicate with his immediate superior as well as his superior’s superior.

Question 10.
Explain the forms of communication
Answer:
Communication may be classified as follows

Question 11.
“Leadership is considered as the most important element of the directing function of the management.” In the light of this statement, explain the importance of leadership.
Answer:
Importance of Leadership:

1. A leader inspires, supports and influences the behaviour of subordinates to achieve the organisational objective.
2. Effective leadership helps to achieve a harmonious relation between the management and subordinates.
3. Leadership helps to create job satisfaction among employees by providing good working condition.
4. A good leader persuades the people to accept and carry out the desired change.
5. A leader handles conflicts effectively.
6. Leader provides training to their subordinates.
7. Effective leadership helps to increase efficiency and productivity.

Question 12.
“To be successful as a manager one must be a good leader”. Outline the qualities of a good leader in the light of the above statement.
Answer:
Qualities of Good Leader:

• Physical Features: Physical features like height, weight, health, appearance determine the physical personality of a leader.
• Knowledge: A good leader should have required knowledge and competence.
• Honesty: A leader should possess high level of honesty.
• Initiative: A leader should have courage and initiative.
• Communication Skills: A leader should have the capacity to clearly explain the ideas.
• Motivation Skills: The leader should have the ability to motivate the subordinates by satisfying their needs.
• Self Confidence: A leader should have high level of self confidence.

Question 13.
What are the points to be kept in mind while communicating a message?
Answer:
Measures to overcome barriers to communication:

1. The entire problem to be communicated should be studied in depth, analysed and stated in such a manner that it is clearly conveyed to subordinates.
2. Communication must be according to the education and understanding levels of subordinates.
3. Before communicating.the message, it is better to consult with others.
4. The contents of the message, tone, language used, etc. are important aspects of effective communication.
5. While conveying message to others, it is better to know the interests and needs of the receiver.
6. Ensure proper feedback.
7. Manager should be a good listener.

Plus Two Business Studies Directing Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Radha Krishnan, the personal manager of an organisation recently conducted a survey among the employees of his organisation to identify theirdesires and needs. The needs and desires of the employees identified by him are listed below.

• Love and affection
• Accepted by one peer’s
• Self fulfilment
• Better clothing and shelter
• Economic stability
• Security in old age
• Protection against accidents
• Dignity

1. Arrange these needs and desires under the frame-work of Maslow’s theory.
2. What are the important features of this theory?

Answer:
1. Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory of Motivation:
Abraham Maslow’s Need Hierarchy Theory is considered fundamental to understanding of motivation. His theory was based on human needs. Various human needs are:
1. Physiological Needs:
These are the basic needs which include food, clothes, hunger, thirst, shelter, sleep and sex. If physiological needs are not satisfied, the higher level needs will not be emerged.

2. Safety/Security Needs:
These needs provide security and protection from physical and emotional harm. These needs include job security, stability of income, pension plans, etc.

3. Social Needs:
These needs refer to affection, sense of belongingness, acceptance and friendship. Informal organisation helps to satisfy the social needs of an individual.

4. Esteem Needs:
These include factors such as self-respect, autonomy status, recognition and attention.

5. Self Actualisation Needs:
It is the highest level of need in the hierarchy. Self actualisation is the need to maximise one’s potential, whatever it may be. These needs include growth, self-fulfilment and achievement of goals.

2. important features of this theory:
1. Physiological needs – Better clothing and shelter Economic stability
2. Safety needs – Security in old age Protection against accidents
3. Social needs – Love and affection Accepted by one peer’s
4. Esteem needs – Dignity
5. Self actualisation – Self fulfilment needs

Question 2.
“Direction is the heart of management”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reasons in support of your answer.

Answer:
1. Directing:
Directing refers to the process of instructing, guiding, counselling, motivating and leading people in the organisation to achieve its objectives.

2. Importance of Directing:

• Directing helps to initiate action by people in the organisation towards attainment of desired objectives.
• Directing integrates employees’ efforts in the organisation in such a way that every individual effort , contributes to the organizational performance.
• Directing guides employees to fully realise their potential and capabilities by motivating and providing effective leadership.
• Directing facilitates introduction of needed changes in the organization.
• Effective directing helps to bring stability and balance in the organization.

Question 3.
“Supervision is needed in all organizations so as to get the best out of the employees”

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. Supervision:
Supervision means overseeing the subordinates at work. Supervision is instructing, guiding and controlling the workforce with a view to seethatthey are working according to plans, policies, programmes and instructions.

2. Importance of Supervision:

• A good supervisor acts as a guide, friend and philosopher to the workers.,
• Supervisor acts as a link between workers and management. It helps to avoid misunderstandings and conflicts among the management and workers.
• Supervisor provides good On the Job training to the workers and employees.
• A supervisor with good leadership qualities can build up high morale among workers.
• A good supervisor analyses the work performed and gives feedback to the workers.
• Supervisors help to maintains harmony among workers.

Question 4.
“Motivation means a process of stimulating people to action to accomplish desired goals.”

1. Do you agree with this statement?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. Motivation:
Motivation is the process of stimulating people to action to accomplish desired goals. Motivation depends upon satisfying needs of people.

2. Importance of Motivation:

• Motivation helps to improve performance levels of employees as well as the organisation.
• Motivation helps to change negative attitudes of employee to positive attitudes.
• Motivation helps to reduce employee turnover.
• Motivation helps to reduce absenteeism in the organisation.
• Motivation helps managers to introduce changes smoothly.

Students can Download Chapter 6 Staffing Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Staffing

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which functions of management helps in obtaining right people and putting them on the right jobs.
Answer:
Staffing.

Question 2.
Name the process concerned with searching for prospective candidates for vacant job position.
Answer:
Recruitment.

Question 3.
Name the function which is concerned with discovering the sources of manpower required and tapping these sources.
Answer:
Recruitment.

Question 4.
It is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organisation Identify the concept.
Answer:
Recmitment.

Question 5.
Selection starts where ends.
Answer:
Recruitment.

Question 6.
Which among the following is not a case of external recruitment?
(a) Advertisement
(b) Transfer
(c) Employment
(d) Field trip
Answer:
(b) Transfer.

Question 7.
Since more candidates will be rejected than hired through this process, it is described as a negative process. Identify the process?
Answer:
Selection.

Question 8.
Shifting of an employee from one position to another without changes in status and remuneration is called
Answer:
Transfer.

Question 9.
“It is the breaking up of a job into basic elements or operations and studying in details each of the operations to know the nature and characteristics of the job.” This is called; (job specification, job analysis, job identification, job study)
Answer:
Job analysis.

Question 10.
The management of XY Ltd., asks the labour unions to provide a list of candidates for the vacancy of two persons in the office. Identify the source and explain.
Answer:
External sources of recruitment.

Question 11.
The final year students of National Institute of Management were sent to various industrial concerns for practical training. Identify the type of training and state its relevance.
Answer:
Internship training.

Question 12.
Vestibule training is given
Answer:
Outside the job; inside the factory.

Question 13.
Vijay chemicals selected 15 workers for their chemical plant. They intend to train the workers without effecting normal work. Suggest the best method of training.
Answer:
Vestibule training.

Question 14.
This is a method of training where business units make agreement with professional and vocational institutes to provide practical experience. Identify the method of training mentioned here.
Answer:
Internship training.

Question 15.
Face to face contact between the employer and candidate is called
Answer:
Interview

Question 16.
Which one of the following functions is not related with staffing function?
(a) Recruitment of employees
(b) Selection of employees
(c) Compensation of employees
(d) Motivation of employees
Answer:
(d) Motivation of employees

Question 17.
Mr. Sajan is working as Human Resource Manager of an automobile manufacturing unit. One of the following combinations represents his functions. Identify it.
(a) Recruitment, branding, dividend decision
(b) Selection, training, recruitment
(c) Selection, recruitment, marketing
(d) Training, pricing, promotion
Answer:
(b) Selection, training, recruitment

Question 18.
Mr. Abraham seeks new employees for his business. Name any two external sources of recruitment.
Answer:

1. Advertising
2. Empolyment exchange

Question 19.
Mr. Mohan Kumar, the HR Manager of Global Bank Ltd. wants to appoint 50 computer operators for their different branches in Kerala from internal sources. Name any two internal sources forthe recruitment.
Answer:

1. Transfer
2. Promotion

Question 20.
The cheapest method of recruitment is
Answer:
Internal sources of recruitment.

Question 21.
The training method of shifting employee from one job to another is called
Answer:
Job rotation.

Question 22.
Which one of the following is not an On the Job Training method?
(a) Apprenticeship training
(b) Case studies
(c) Computer modelling
(d) Programme instructions
Answer:
(a) Apprenticeship training

Question 23.
is a measure of individual’s potential for learning new skills.
Answer:
Aptitude test.

Question 24.
Which among the following statements are fake?
(a) Training is job oriented process and development is career oriented process.
(b) Internal sources of recruitment motivates the existing staff.
(c) Recruitment is a positive process.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above.

Question 25.
Match the following.

Answer:
a → b
b → c
c → a

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by staffing?
Answer:
Meaning:
Staffing is concerned with determining the manpower requirement of enterprise and includes functions like recruitment, selection, placement, promotion, training, growth and development and performance appraisal of employees in the organization.

Question 2.
Staffing is an important function of management in all organisations. Explain, in brief, any 4 reasons.
Answer:
Importance of Staffing

1. Helps in discovering and obtaining competent personnel for various jobs.
2. Makes for higher performance, by putting right person on the right job.
3. Ensures continuous survival and growth of the enterprise.
4. Helps to ensure optimum utilization of human resources.
5. Improves job satisfaction and morale of employees.

Question 3.
What is recruitment?
Answer:
It is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for the job in the organisation.

Question 4.
What is selection?
Answer:
Selection:
Selection is the process of identifying and choosing the best person out of a number of prospective candidates for a job.

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why recruitment is regarded as a Positive Process and selection is a negative process.
Answer:
Recruitment is Positive Process because it is concerned with attracting qualified and competent individuals to apply for a job while selection is choosing the best among them and rejecting the unsuitable candidates. So selection is regarded as a negative process.

Question 2.
What is training?
Answer:
Training:
Training is any process by which the aptitudes, skills and abilities of employees to perform specific jobs are increased.

Question 3.
You know that tests are conducted to know the level of ability, knowledge, interest, aptitude, etc. of a particular candidate. Can you suggest an appropriate test for the following and justify.

1. Data entry operator
2. KSRTC driver
3. Personnel manager

Answer:

1. Trade test
2. Trade test
3. Interest test

Question 4.
What are the functions of Human Resource Management?
Answer:
Functions of Human Resource Management

1. Recruitment, i.e., search for qualified people.
2. Analysing jobs, collecting information about jobs to prepare job descriptions.
3. Developing compensation and incentive plans.
4. Training and development of employees.
5. Maintaining labour relations
6. Handling grievances and complaints.
7. Providing for social security and welfare of employees.
8. Maintaining relation with trade unions.

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Matha Ltd. invited applications for 20 sales representatives through an advertisement in a daily newspaper. 106 applications were received out of which nine were rejected due to lack of sufficient experience and qualification. The remaining applicants have undergone a written test and an interview. After this, the most efficient 20 applicants were selected. Identify the two major activities processes mentioned in the above situation and also differentiate between them.
Answer:
The above activities are recruitment and selection. The following are the difference between them.

Question 2.
Excel Sugars is a newly established sugar company where a large number of employees are required for different jobs.

1. As a commerce student can you say which source of recruitment is suitable?
2. Why?

Answer:
Excel Sugars is a newly established business organisation. So Internal sources of recruitment is not possible. The company can select employees from various external sources. External sources of Recruitment
a. External Sources:
Selection of employees from outside the enterprise is known as external recruitment.
The important external sources of recruitment are:

1. Direct Recruitment:
Under the direct ‘ recruitment, a notice is placed on the notice-board of the enterprise specifying the details of the jobs available. Job seekers assemble outside the premises of the organisation on the specrfied date and selection is done on the spot. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies.

2. Casual callers:
Many reputed business organisations keep a database of unsolicited applicants in their office. These list can be used for recruitment.

3. Advertisement:
Advertisement in newspapers or trade and professional journals is generally used when a wider choice is required.

4. Employment Exchange:
Employment exchanges keep records of job seekers and will be supplied to business concern on the basis of their requisition.

5. Placement Agencies and Management Consultants:
These agencies compile bio-data of a large number of candidates and recommend suitable names to their clients.

6. Campus Recruitment:
Business enterprises may conduct campus recruitment in educational institutions for selecting young and talented candidates.

7. Recommendations of Employees:
Applicants introduced by present employees, ortheirfriends and relatives may prove to be a good source of recruitment.

8. Labour Contractors:
Labour contractors maintain close contacts with labourers and they can provide the required number of unskilled workers at short notice.

9. Web Publishing:
There are certain websites specifically designed and dedicated forthe purpose of providing information to the job seekers.

Question 3.
Classify the following as internal and external sources of recruitment

1. Advertisement
2. Transfer
3. Campus recruitment
4. Promotion
5. Employment Exchange
6. Job Contractors

Answer:
Internal sources of recruitmentTransfer, Promotion. External sources of recruitment – Advertisement, Campus recruitment, Employment exchange, Job contractors.

Question 4.
In a classroom debate, Jith argues that recruitment and selection are same. Anoop argues that both are different.

1. Whom do you support? Give justification.
2. If you are supporting Anoop, which one comes first?

Answer:
1. We can support the argument of Anoop Staffing Process.
a. Manpower planning:
It is concerned with forecasting the future manpower needs of the organisation, i.e. finding outnumber and type of employees need by the organisation in future.

b. Recruitment:
Recruitment may be defined as the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organisation.

c. Selection:
Selection is the process of selecting the most suitable candidates from a large number of applicants.

d. Placement and Orientation:
Placement refers to putting the right person on the right job. Orientation is introducing the selected employee to other employees and familiarising him with the rules and policies of the organisation.

e. Training and Development:
The process of training helps to improve the job knowledge and skill of the employees. It motivates the employees and improve their efficiency.

f. Performance Appraisal:
Performance appraisal means evaluating an employee’s current and past performance as against certain predetermined standards.

g. Promotion and Career Planning:
Promotion means movement of an employee from his present job to a higher level job.

h. Compensation:
Compensation refers to all forms of pay or rewards going to employees. It may be in the form of direct financial payments like wages, salaries, commissions and indirect payments like employer paid insurance and vacation.

Selection:
Selection is the process of identifying and choosing the best person out of a number of prospective candidates for a job.

2. Recruitment is the first process.

Question 5.
Explain any four methods of Off the Job Training.
Answer:
Off the Job Method:
It refers to those methods under which an individual is provided training away from the work place. It means learning before doing.
The important Off the Job Methods are:

a. Classroom Lectures/Conferences:
The lecture approach is well adapted to convey specific information such as rules, procedures or methods. The use of audio-visuals can often make a formal classroom.

b. Films:
They can provide information and demonstrate skills.

c. Case Study:
Trainee studies the cases to determine problems, analyses causes, develop alternative solutions and select the best solution to implement.

d. Computer Modelling:
It stimulate the work environment by programming a computer to imitate the realities of the job and allows learning to take place without the risk or high cost.

e. Vestibule Training:
Under this method, separate training centres are set up to give training to the new employees. Actual work environment is created in that centre and employees used the same material, equipment, etc. which they use while doing the actual job.

f. Programmed Instruction:
Here information is broken into meaningful units and these units are arranged in a proper way to form a logical and sequential learning package.

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between internal sources and external sources of recruitment.
Answer:

Question 2.
Identify the following types of training.

1. Its purpose is to familiarize the existing employees with the latest methods.
2. The employee has to rotate from one job to another.
3. Emphasis is given to learning by doing.
4. A large number of persons are to be trained at the same time for the Same kind of work.
5. It is for introducing a new employee to the organisation.

Answer:

1. Refresher Training
2. Job Rotation
3. Apprenticeship Training
4. Vestibule Training
5. Induction Training

Question 3.
List down the advantages of training to the employees.
Answer:
Benefits to the Employee

1. Training helps in securing promotion and career growth.
2. Increased performance by the individual helps him to earn more.
3. Training helps to reduce the chances of accident and wastages.
4. Training increases the satisfaction of employees

Question 4.
Explain the importance of staffing in management.
Answer:
Importance of Staffing

1. Helps in discovering and obtaining competent personnel for various jobs.
2. Makes for higher performance, by putting right person on the right job.
3. Ensures continuous survival and growth of the enterprise.
4. Helps to ensure optimum utilization of human resources.
5. Improves job satisfaction and morale of employees.

Question 5.
Training helps to increase the efficiency of employees Explain.
Answer:
1. On the Job Method:
Under this method, the employee is given training when he is on the job. It means learning while doing.
The important On the Job Methods are:

a. Apprenticeship Programme:
Under apprenticeship training, a trainee is put under the supervision of a master worker.

b. Coaching:
In this method, the superior guides and instructs the trainee as a coach.

c. Internship Training:
It is a joint programme of training in which vocational and professional institutes enter into an agreement with business enterprises for providing practical knowledge to its students.

d. Job Rotation:
Here the trainee is transferred from one job to another job or from one department to another department so that he can learn the working of various sections.

2. Off the Job Method:
It refers to those methods under which an individual is provided training away from the workplace. It means learning before doing.
The important Off the Job Methods are:

a. Classroom Lectures/Conferences:
The lecture approach is well adapted to convey specific information such as rules, procedures or methods. The use of audio-visuals can often make a formal classroom.

b. Films:
They can provide information and demonstrate skills.

c. Case Study:
Trainee studies the cases to determine problems, analyses causes, develop alternative solutions and select the best solution to implement.

d. Computer Modelling:
It stimulate the work environment by programming a computer to imitate the realities of the job and allows learning to take place without the risk or high cost.

e. Vestibule Training:
Under this method, separate training centres are set up to give training to the new employees. Actual work environment is created in that centre and employees used the same material, equipment, etc. which they use while doing the actual job.

f. Programmed Instruction:
Here information is broken into meaningful units and these units are arranged in a proper way to form a logical and sequential learning package.

Plus Two Business Studies Staffing Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain briefly steps involved in staffing.
Answer:
Staffing Process
1. Manpower planning:
It is concerned with forecasting the future manpower needs of the organisation, i.e. finding outnumber and type of employees need by the organisation in future.

2. Recruitment:
Recruitment may be defined as the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organisation.

3. Selection:
Selection is the process of selecting the most suitable candidates from a large number of applicants.

4. Placement and Orientation:
Placement refers to putting the right person on the right job. Orientation is introducing the selected employee to other employees and familiarising him with the rules and policies of the organisation.

5. Training and Development:
The process of training helps to improve the job knowledge and skill of the employees. It motivates the employees and improve their efficiency.

6. Performance Appraisal:
Performance appraisal means evaluating an employee’s current and past performance as against certain predetermined standards.

7. Promotion and Career Planning:
Promotion means movement of an employee from his present job to a higher level job.

8. Compensation:
Compensation refers to all forms of pay or rewards going to employees. It may be in the form of direct financial payments like wages, salaries, commissions and indirect payments like employer-paid insurance and vacation.

Question 2.
Aparna textiles decided to open a new Branch in Ernakulam. For the new showroom, they estimated 3 cashiers, 30 salesmen, 10 supervisors.

1. As a commerce student can you suggest the important sources for recruiting for the above vacancies?
2. Explain its advantages and disadvantages.

Answer:
a. Internal Sources:
It refers to the recruitment for jobs from within the organisation. It includes:
1. Transfer:
It involves shifting of an employee from one job to another without change in responsibility or compensation.

2. Promotion:
It refers to shifting of a person from lower position to a higher position carrying higher status, responsibility and more salary.

b. External Sources:
Selection of employees from outside the enterprise is known as external recruitment.
The important external sources of recruitment are:

1. Direct Recruitment:
Under direct recruitment, a notice is placed on the notice-board of the enterprise specifying the details of the jobs available. Job seekers assemble outside the premises of the organisation on the specified date and selection is done on the spot. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies.

2. Casual callers:
Many reputed business organisations keep a database of unsolicited applicants in their office. This list can be used for recruitment.

3. Advertisement:
Advertisement in newspapers or trade and professional journals is generally used when a wider choice is required.

4. Employment Exchange:
Employment exchanges keep records of job seekers and will be supplied to business concern on the basis of their requisition.

5. Placement Agencies and Management Consultants:
These agencies compile bio-data of a large number of candidates and recommend suitable names to their clients.

6. Campus Recruitment:
Business enterprises may conduct campus recruitment in educational institutions for selecting young and talented candidates.

7. Recommendations of Employees:
Applicants introduced by present employees, or their friends and relatives may prove to be a good source of recruitment.

8. Labour Contractors:
Labour contractors maintain close contacts with labourers and they can provide the required number of unskilled workers at short notice.

9. Web Publishing:
There are certain websites specifically designed and dedicated for the purpose of providing information to the job seekers.

Question 3.
Mr. Tom the newly appointed personnel manager of Hindustan Ltd. was given full responsibility for hiring people for the company to fill various positions in the production department.

1. He is confused as to which recruitment sources he would use?
2. Can you help him in this regard?

Answer:
a. Internal Sources:
It refers to the recruitment for jobs from within the organisation It includes:
1. Transfer:
It involves shifting of an employee from one job to another without change in responsibility or compensation.

2. Promotion:
It refers to shifting of a person from lower position to a higher position carrying higher status, responsibility and more salary.

b. External Sources:
Selection of employees from outside the enterprise is known as external recruitment.
The important external sources of recruitment are:

1. Direct Recruitment:
Under the direct ‘ recruitment, a notice is placed on the notice-board of the enterprise specifying the details of the jobs available. Job seekers assemble outside the premises of the organisation on the specified date and selection is done on the spot. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies.

2. Casual callers:
Many reputed business organisations keep a database of unsolicited applicants in their office. This list can be used for recruitment.

3. Advertisement:
Advertisement in newspapers or trade and professional journals is generally used when a wider choice is required.

4. Employment Exchange:
Employment exchanges keep records of job seekers and will be supplied to business concern on the basis of their requisition.

5. Placement Agencies and Management Consultants:
These agencies compile bio-data of a large number of candidates and recommend suitable names to their clients.

6. Campus Recruitment:
Business enterprises may conduct campus recruitment in educational institutions for selecting young and talented candidates.

7. Recommendations of Employees:
Applicants introduced by present employees, or their friends and relatives may prove to be a good source of recruitment.

8. Labour Contractors:
Labour contractors maintain close contacts with labourers and they can provide the required number of unskilled workers at short notice.

9. Web Publishing:
There are certain websites specifically designed and dedicated for the purpose of providing information to the job seekers.

Question 4.
The banking recruitment board gave an advertisement for selection of candidates to various posts in the bank. A large number of applications has been received. Can you suggest the various steps that have to be followed by the board to choose the right candidates?
Answer:
Process of Selection
1. Preliminary Screening:
Preliminary screening helps the manager to eliminate unqualified job seekers.

2. Selection Tests:
Various tests are conducted to know the level of ability, knowledge, interest, aptitude, etc. of a particular candidate. The various types of tests are:

1. Intelligence Tests: This is one of the important psychological tests used to measure the level of intelligence quotient (IQ) of an individual.
2. Aptitude Test: It is a measure of an individual’s potential for learning new skills.
3. Personality Tests: Personality tests provide clues to a person’s emotions, reactions, maturity and value system, etc.
4. Trade Test: These tests measure the existing skills of the individual.
5. Interest Tests: Interest tests are used to know the pattern of interests or involvement of a person.

3. Employment Interview:
Interview is a formal, in-depth conversation conducted to evaluate the applicant’s suitability for the job.

4. Reference and Background Checks:
Many employers request names, addresses, and telephone numbers of references for the purpose of verifying information and, gaining additional information on an applicant.

5. Final Selection:
The final decision has to be made from among the candidates who pass the tests, interviews and reference checks.

6. Medical Examination:
After selection, the candidates are required to appear for a medical examination for ensuring that he is physically fit for the job.

7. Job Offer:
After a candidate has cleared all the hurdles in the selection procedure, he is formally appointed through an order. It contains the terms and conditions of the employment, pays scale, joining time, etc.

8. Employment Contract:
Basic information that should be included in a written contract of employment are job title, duties, responsibilities, date of joining, pay and allowances, hours of work, leave rules, disciplinary procedure, work rules, termination of employment, etc.

Students can Download Chapter 8 Controlling Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Controlling

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which function of management consists of the following elements?

1. Determination of standards
2. Measuring performance
3. Comparing performance with standards
4. Taking corrective actions

Answer:
Controlling

Question 2.
The first step in the control process which a manager has to do is ………………………
Answer:
Setting standards

Question 3.
If managers try to control everything, they may end up controlling nothing. Identify the relevant management principle underlying this statement.
Answer:
Management by exception (MBE)

Question 4.
Identify the principle which indicates that only significant deviations from standards require the attention of management.
Answer:
Management by Exception (MBE)

Question 5.
An efficient control system helps to
(a) Accomplish organisational objectives
(b) Boost employee morale
(c) Judge accuracy of standards
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 6.
Pick out one statement which is not limitation of controlling.
(a) Standards cannot be fixed properly.
(b) Controlling has little control on external factors.
(c) It is costly and time-consuming process.
(d) Controlling is applicable at all levels of management.
Answer:
(d) Controlling is applicable at all levels of management.

Question 7.
Choose the right statement.
(a) Planning – Staffing are the two sides of the same coin.
(b) Planning – Controlling are the two sides of the same coin.
(c) Organising – Staffing are the two sides of the same coin.
(d) Directing-Planning are the two sides of the same coin.
Answer:
(b) Planning – Controlling are the two sides of the same coin.

Question 8.
Write two examples for modern controlling techniques.
Answer:

• Return on Investment method
• PERT & CPM

Question 9.
Choose the right tool for controlling.
(a) Critical Path Method (CPM)
(b) Common Policy Method (CPM)
(c) Production Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
(d) Personality Evaluation and Rare Technique (PERT)
Answer:
(a) Critical Path Method (CPM)

Question 10.
Return on Investment = ………………
Answer:
\(\frac{\text { Net Income }}{\text { Total Investment }}\)

Question 11.
Comparing the values in a financial statement is called ……………..
(a) Return on Investment
(b) Ratio analysis
(c) Responsibility Accounting
(d) PERT & CPM
Answer:
(b) Ratio Analysis

Question 12.
Entrusting the responsibility of expenses to different departments is called …………………
Answer:
Responsibility accounting

Question 13.
Modem controlling techniques used to both planning and controlling are ……………………
Answer:
PERT & CPM

Question 14.
What is management audit?
(a) Evaluate the efficiency of management.
(b) Analyse the financial statement by using ratios.
(c) Charge the expenses to departments and evaluate the responsibilities.
(d) No profit No loss.
Answer:
(a) Evaluate the efficiency of management.

Question 15.
Comparing Investment & Profit is ………………
Answer:
Return on Investment

Question 16.
Traditional method of controlling which helps to motivate employees is …………………..
Answer:
Personal observation

Question 17.
……………… is a network technique useful in planning and controlling.
Answer:
Critical Path Method (CPM)

Question 18.
B.E.P. =
Answer:
Break Even Point = \(\frac{\text { Fixed cost }}{\text { Selling Price per Unit – Variable Cost per Unit }}\)

Question 19.
…………………. is a technique of managerial control in which standards are expressed in terms of money.
Answer:
Budgetary Control

Question 20.
………………. is a computer based managerial control technique.
Answer:
Management Information System (MIS)

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the significance of standard?
Answer:
Helpful in analysing deviation. It is compulsary to fix a standard in order to compare the actual performance.

Question 2.
What is deviation in controlling?
Answer:
It is the difference between actual performance and standard performance.

Question 3.
Rearrange the following in a correct sequence of steps in controlling.

Answer:

Question 4.
In the controlling process only these deviations from standard which seem exceptionally are brought to the attention of top management. Identify the relevant principle behind this.
Answer:
Management by exception / Control by exception.

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by budgetary control?
Answer:
Budgetary Control:
Budgetary control is a technique of managerial control in which all operations are planned in advance in the form of budgets and actual results are compared with budgetary standards.

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 2.
“They are the two blades of a scissor; one cannot work without the other”.

1. Identify the management functions referred to this context.
2. Explain the nature of relationships between these managerial functions.

Answer:
1. I agree with this statement.

2. Relationship between Planning and Controlling:

1. Planning and control are interdependent and inseparable functions of management.
2. Planning is a prerequisite for controlling.
3. Planning initiates the process of management and controlling complete the process.
4. Planning is prescriptive where as controlling is evaluative.
5. Planning and controlling are both backward looking as well as forward looking functions.
6. Planning based on facts makes controlling easier and effective.

Question 3.
Planning and control are interdependent and inseparable functions of management.

1. Do you agree with this statement?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. I agree with this statement.

2. Relationship between Planning and Controlling:

• Planning and control are interdependent and inseparable functions of management.
• Planning is a prerequisite for controlling.
• Planning initiates the process of management and controlling complete the process.
• Planning is prescriptive where as controlling is evaluative.
• Planning and controlling are both backward looking as well as forward looking functions.
• Planning based on facts makes controlling easier and effective.

Question 4.
‘Planning is useless without control and control is aimless without plans.’

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. I agree with this statement.

2. Relationship between Planning and Controlling:

1. Planning and control are interdependent and inseparable functions of management.
2. Planning is a prerequisite for controlling.
3. Planning initiates the process of management and controlling complete the process.
4. Planning is prescriptive where as controlling is evaluative.
5. Planning and controlling are both backward looking as well as forward looking functions.
6. Planning based on facts makes controlling easier and effective.

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between Traditional & Modem Controlling Techniques.

1. Return on Investment
2. Ratio Analysis
3. Budgetery Control
4. Management Audit
5. Statistical Data
6. Responsibility Accounting
7. Break Even Analysis
8. PERT & CPM
9. Personal Observation

Answer:

Question 2.
Explain the limitations of Controlling.
Answer:
Limitations of Controlling:

1. Difficulty in setting quantitative standards:
Control system loses some of its effectiveness when standards cannot be defined in quantitative terms.

2. Little control on external factors:
Generally an enterprise cannot control external factors such as government policies, technological changes, competition, etc.

3. Resistance from employees:
Control is often resisted by employees. They see it as a restriction on their freedom.

4. Costly affair:
Control is a costly affair as it involves a lot of expenditure, time and effort.

Question 3.
List down the importance of Controlling.
Answer:
Importance of Controlling:

1. Accomplishing organisational goals:
The controlling function measures progress towards the organisational goals and brings to light the deviations, if any, and indicates corrective action.

2. Judging accuracy of standards:
A good control system enables management to verify whether the standards set are accurate.

3. Making efficient use of resources:
By exercising control, a manager seeks to reduce wastage of resources.

4. Improving employee motivation:
A good control system motivates the employees and helps them to give better performance.

5. Ensuring order and discipline:
Controlling creates an atmosphere of order and discipline in the organisation.

6. Facilitating co-ordination:
An efficient system of control helps to co-ordinate all the activities in the organisation.

Question 4.
Explain the different Techniques of Managerial Control.
Answer:
Techniques of Managerial Control:
1. Traditional Techniques:

a. Personal Observation:
It creates psychological pressure on the employees to perform well as they are aware that they are being observed personally on their job.

b. Statistical Reports:
Statistical analysis in the form of averages, percentages, ratios, correlation, etc. present useful information to the managers regarding performance of the organisation.

c. Break Even Analysis:
Break even analysis is a technique used by managers to study the relationship between costs, volume and profits. The sales volume at which there is no profit, no loss is known as break even point. It helps in estimating profits at different levels of activities.
B.E.P = \(\frac{F}{s-v}\)
F = Fixed cost
S = Selling price per unit
V = Variable cost per unit

d. Budgetary Control:
Budgetary control is a technique of managerial control in which all operations are planned in advance in the form of budgets and actual results are compared with budgetary standards.

2. Modem Techniques:

a. Return on Investment:
Return on Investment (ROI) can be used to measure overall performance of an organisation. It helps to know the invested capital has been used effectively for generating reasonable amount of return.

Return on investment = \(\frac{\text { Net Income }}{\text { Total Investment }}\)

b. Ratio Analysis:
Ratio Analysis refers to analysis of financial statements through computation of ratios.

c. Responsibility Accounting:
Responsibility accounting is a system of accounting in which different sections, divisions, and departments of an organisation are set up as ‘Responsibility Centres’. The head of the centre is responsible for achieving the target set for his centre. E.g. Cost centre, Revenue centre, Profit centre, Investment centre, etc.

d. Management Audit:
Management audit may be defined as evaluation of the functioning, performance, and effectiveness of management of an organisation.

e. PERT and CPM:
PERT (Programme Evaluation and Review Technique) and CPM (Critical Path Method) are important network techniques useful in planning and controlling.

Plus Two Business Studies Controlling Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Controlling is a systematic function of management. Explain.
Answer:
Controlling Process:
Controlling is a systematic process involving the following steps.

• Setting performance standards
• Measurement of actual performance
• Comparison of actual performance with standards
• Analysing deviations
• Taking corrective action

1. Setting Performance Standards:
Standards are the criteria against which actual performance would be measured. Standards can be set in both quantitative as well as qualitative terms.

2. Measurement of Actual Performance:
After establishing standards, the next step is measurement of actual performance. Performance should be measured in an objective and reliable manner.

3. Comparing Actual Performance with Standards:
This step involves comparison of actual performance with the standard. Such comparison will reveal the deviation between actual and desired results.

4. Analysing Deviations:
The deviations from the standards are assessed and analysed to identify the causes of deviations.

5. Taking Corrective Action:
The final step in the controlling process is taking corrective action. No corrective action is required when the deviations are within acceptable limits.

Students can Download Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields Questions and Answers, Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields NCERT Text Book Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the force between two small charged spheres having charges of 2 × 10^-7C and 3 × 10^-7 C placed 30cm apart in air?
Answer:
Given q₁ = 2 × 10^-7C, q₁ = 3 × 10^-7 C
r = 30cm = 0.3m
Force of repulsion

Question 2.
When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, charges appear on both. A similar phenemenon is observed with many other pairs of bodies. Explain how this observation is consistent with the law of conservation of charge.
Answer:
When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, the charges developed on the glass rod and the piece of silk are equal and opposite. Similar is the case in other pair of bodies. So electric charge is neither be produced nor destroyed but simply transferred from one body to another, hence is consistent with the law of conservation of charge.

Question 3.
An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 × 10⁹ cm is aligned at 30° with the direction of a uniform electric field of magnitude 5 × 10⁴NC^-1. Calculate the magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole.
Answer:
Given
p = 4 × 10^-9cm, θ = 30°, E = 5 × 10⁴ NC^-1, τ = ?
Since τ = pEsinθ
= 4 × 10⁹ × 5 × 10⁴ × sin 30°
= 20 × 10^-5 × 1/2 = 10^-4Nm.

Question 4.
A Polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 3 × 10⁷C.

1. Estimate the number of electrons transferred from which to which?
2. Is there a transfer of mass from wool to polythene?

Answer:
1. Charge on one electron
∴ Number of electrons in the given charge

= 1.875 × 10¹² = 2 × 10¹²

2. Since woold gets negative charge on rubbing with polythene, wool must gain electrons from polythene.
∴ Ideally speaking there must be a transfer of mass due to transfer of electrons but since the mass of electron is very small, this transfer of mass may be negligible (=2 × 10¹⁸kg).

Question 5.
A uniformly charged conducting spheres of 2.4m diameter has a surface change density of 80.0m cm^-2.

1. Find the charge on the sphere.
2. What is the total electric flux leaving the surface of the sphere?

Answer:
Given σ = 80.0µcm^-2 = 80 × 10^-6cm^-2
D = 2.4m, r=1.2m
1. Charge on the sphere,
q = σ × 4πr²
= 80 × 10^-6 × 4 × 3.142 ×(1.2)²
= 1.45 × 10^-3C.

2. Electric flux,
Φ = \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}=\frac{1.45 \times 10^{-3}}{8.854 \times 10^{-12}}\)
= 16 × 10⁸ NC^-1m²

Question 6.
An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 × 10⁴ NC^-1 at a distance of 2cm. Calculate the linear charge density.
Answer:
Given E = 9 × 10⁴ NC^-1, r = 2cm = 0.02m

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A point charge Q is place at the center of a cube of side, i the electric flux emerging the cube is.

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)

Question 2.
A hollowing insulated conduction sphere is given a positive charge of 10p. what will be the electric field at the center of the sphere if its radius is 2 meters?
(a) 20 μ Cm^-2
(b) 5 Cm
(c) zero
(d) 8 Cm
Answer:
(a) 20 μ Cm^-2

Question 3.
A charge Q μ C is placed at the center of a cube, the flux coming out from each face will be.

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{Q}{6 \varepsilon_{0}} \times 10^{-6}\)
Explanation: For complete cube Φ = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}} \times 10^{-6}\)
For each face Φ = \(\frac{1}{6}\) \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}} \times 10^{-6}\)

Question 4.
Pick the odd one out of the following based on electric field intensity.
(i) Point charge
(ii) Uniformly charged sphere
(iii) Uniformly charged cube
(iv) Uniformly charged sheet
Answer:
(iv) Uniformly charged sheet (The electric field does not depend on distance)

Question 5.
“Electrostatic force is medium dependent that is why NaCI dissolves in water” comment on this statement.
Answer:
Dielectric constant of water is 81. Hence the force between Na⁺ and cl^– reduces by 81 times.

Question 6.
Classify into true or false

1. In a charged conductor charges reside inside and out side the conductor
2. In a charged conductor net field is zero inside the conductor.

Answer:

1. False
2. True

Question 7.
Electrostatic force is a_____force
(i) Conservative
(ii) non conservative
(iii) medium independent
(iv) dissipative Conservative
Answer:
(i) Conservative

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It is safe to be inside a vehicle rather than outside, even when there is lightning and thunder. Comment on this.
Answer:
Inside a spherical shell electrical field is zero. This is called electrostatic shielding. Hence it is safe to be inside a vehicle rather than outside.

Question 2
There are two types of charges namely positive and negative.

1. List any two basic properties of electric charge.
2. Can a body have a charge of 0.8 × 1o^-19 C? Which basic property of electric charge is the reason for your answer?

Answer:
1. Quantization of electric charge. Conservation of electric charge.

2. No. According to quantisation of charge, total charge is Q = ne when ‘n’ is an intiger. Here
n = \(\frac{0.8 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 0.5 n is a fractional value.

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A cubical iron block is given a charge of +40m C and placed in vacuum.

1. Give the direction of electric field at the centre of one face.
2. Calculate the net flux due to the charged cube through one face.
3. Will there be any change in the flux if it is placed underwater of dielectric constant 81. Justify.

Answer:
1. Normally outwards from the surface.
Total flux = \(\frac{40 \times 10^{-3}}{8.85 \times 10^{-12}}\) = 4.51 × 10⁹Nm²C^-1

2. Through one face = \(\frac{4.51 \times 10^{9}}{6}\) = 0.75 × 10⁹Nm²C^-1

3. Electric flux decreases because flux depends on permittivity of medium.

Question 2.
When a rubber sheet is rubbed with woolen carpet, the carpet is found to acquire a positive charge of 8 × 10^-7C
1. In the above process charging is by

• conduction
• friction
• induction
• polarization

2. Among Rubber shoe and woolen carpet which one acquire both mass and charge during rubbing? Explain.
Answer:
1. In the above process charging is by:

• Friction

2. Carpet is found to be positive body which means that electrons are lost from carpet to rubber shoe. Hence rubber shoe acquires charge and mass.

Question 3.
A glass rod rubbed with silk found to have acquired a positive charge 6.4 × 10^-7C.
1. In the above process charging is by

• Induction
• Conduction
• Friction
• Electromagnetic induction

2. Regarding above process which statement is false

• glass rod loss some mass
• silk gain negative charge but no mass
• Silk gain charge arid mass
• Total charge of the silk glass system is zero

3. Will the above process obey law of quantization of electric charge? Clarify your answer by finding numbers of electrons transferred to silk.
Answer:
1. In the above process charging is by:

• Friction

2. Regarding above process which statement is false:

• Silk gains charge and mass

3. yes
Number of electrons transferred to Silk,
n = \(\frac{q}{e}=\frac{6.4 \times 10^{-7}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 4 × 10¹²

Question 4.
In a NaCI molecule there is an attractive force between Na+ ion and Cl^– ion

1. Which law help us to find this attractive force? State the law.
2. State the law and write it’s mathematical form
3. Why NaCI molecule is easily soluble in water? [Hint;- Dielectric constant of water is 81]

Answer:
1. Coulombs law.

2. The force between two changes is directly proportional to product of their charges and inversely proportional to square of the distance between them. Force on q₁ due q₂.

3. Force between two charges depends on the medium in between them.
i.e. F = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} k} \frac{q_{1} q_{2}}{r^{2}}\)
For water molecule K=81. Hence the force between two charge in water decreases by 81 times. As result NaCl molecule is easily soluble in water.

Question 5.
There are two types of charges namely positive and negative.
1. List any two basic properties of electric charge. (1)

2. Can a body have a charge of 0.8 × 10^-19 C? Which basic property of electric charge is the reason for your answer? (1)

3. Name the basic property of electric charge that you can see in the equation. (1)
Rn₈₆ → P0₈₄ + He₂

Answer:
1. Quantization of electric charge. Conservation of electric charge.

2. No. According to quantisation of charge, total charge is Q = ne when ‘n’ is an intiger. Here
n = \(\frac{0.8 \times 10^{-19}}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 0.5 n is a fractional value.

Question 6.
The rectangular block shown in the figure attracts the flowing water.

Identify the rectangular block as a magnet or electrically charged body. Justify your answer.
Answer:

• Electrically charged body.
• Charged body attracts water flow.

Question 7.
Figure represent an infinite sheet of charge of surface charge density σ. You have to find electric field intensity at P due to this infinite charge.

1. Can you apply Coulomb’s inverse square law to find electric field at P?
2. Find electric field intensity at P due to this sheet

Answer:
1. No.

2. Field due to A uniformly charged infinite plane sheet:

Consider an infinite thin plane sheet of change of density σ.
To find electric field at a point P (at a distance ‘r’ from sheet), imagine a Gaussian surface in the form of cylinder having area of cross section ‘ds’.
According to Gauss’s law we can write,

But electric field passes only through end
surfaces ,so we get ∫ ds = 2ds

E is directed away from the charged sheet, if σ is positive and directed towards the sheet if σ is negative.

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two charges +3µC and -3µC are separated by a very small distance of 5mm.
1. What is the name of the above arrangement?

2. If the above arrangement is placed in a uniform electric field of intensity 3 × 10^-5 N/C with its axis perpendicular to the field direction. What is the torque acting on it?

3. If the arrangement is placed in a non uniform electric field, what happens?

Answer:
1. Electric dipole.

2. τ = P × E
= PE (θ = 90°) = q2aE
= 3 × 10^-6 × 5 × 10^-3 × 3 × 10^-5 Nm(∴ 2a = 5 × 10^-3)

3. The dipole undergoes for both translation and rotational motion.

Question 2.
NaCI when placed in a uniform electric field 20VM^-1, both Na⁺ and Cl^– ions experience a force (average distance between Na⁺ and Cl^– is 1.3A°).

1. In what way the NaCI will orient in the electric field.
2. Arrive an expression for torque experienced by the dipole.
3. Calculate the maximum torque experience by the NaCl molecule in the electric field.

Answer:
1. ‘Na’ is orienting towards -ve side and cl ions towards +ve side.

2.

Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment P = 2aq kept in a uniform external electric field, inclined at an angle θ to the field direction.
torque = any one force × perpendicular distance τ = qE × 2 a sin θ
Since P = 2aq
τ = p E sin θ
Vectorialy

3. τ = q2a.E
τ = 1.6 × 10^-19 × 1.3 × 10^-10 × 20 Nm
= 41.6 × 10^-29 Nm.

Question 3.
A metal sphere of radius R carrying q (+ve) charges is shown in the figure.

1. Draw the electric lines of force related to this metal sphere.

2. Derive the strength of electric field at a distance ‘r’ from the centre of sphere.

3. “A sphere of radius 1cm can hold a charge of 1 coulomb” Comment on the statement.
[Hint:- The dielectric strength of air is 3 × 10⁶ v/m]
Answer:
1.

2. Field due to A uniformly charged thin spherical shell:
Consider a uniformly changed hollow spherical conductor of radius R. Let ‘q’ be the total charge on the surface.

To find the electric field at P (at a distance r from the centre), we imagine a Gaussian spherical surface having radius r.
Then, according to Gauss’s theorem we can write,

The electric field is constant, at a distance ‘r’. So we can write,

Case -1: Electric field inside the shell is zero.
Case – II: At the surface of shell r = R
∴ E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{R^{2}}\)

3. The Electric field intensity due to Ic,

E = 9 × 10¹³v/m.
This Electric field is higher than the dielectric strength of air (3 × 10⁶v/m). Hence the charge will leak through air.

Question 4.
Two metal plates A and B are connected to cell of emf 2V is shown in the figure

1. Redraw the diagram and draw lines of forces to represent electric field.
2. Calculate the value of electric field between A and B.
3. A charged particle starting from rest moves in the opposite direction of electric field, is it an electron or proton?
4. Calculate acceleration of above particle.

Answer:
1. Diagram and draw lines of forces to represent electric field:

2. E = \(\frac{v}{d}=\frac{2}{1 \times 10^{-3}}\) = 2 × 10³ v/m.

3. Electron. Electron flows from lower potential to higher potential ie. flows from -ve terminal to +ve terminal.

4. F = eE , ma = eE

a = 3.5 × 10¹⁴ m/sec².

Question 5.
Two closed surface S₁ and S₂ enclose two charges q₁ and q₂ as shown in the figure.

1. State the law in electrostatic that relates the electric flux passing through the surface with the charge enclosed. (1)
2. If q₁ = +6µC and q₂ = -4µC find the ratio of the flux passing through surfaces S₁ and S₂. (2)
3. Let the surface S₂ expands to double its area while S₁ remains as such. What will happen to the above ratio? (1)

Answer:
1. The net flux of electric field passing through a closed surface is equal to 1/ε₀ times the charge enclosed by the surface.

2. By Gauss’ theorem flux passing through a

3. Remains the same (because electric flux is independent of the size and shape of the enclosed surface).

Question 6.
A spherical shell of radius R is uniformly charged to a surface charge density σ.

1. State the theorem which can be used to find the electric field outside the shell.
2. Using the theorem arrive at an expression for electric field at a distance r from the centre of the spherical shell.
3. It is safe to be inside a vehicle rather than outside, even when there is lightning and thunder. Comment on this. (HSES.Q.P)

Answer:
1. Gauss’s theorem states that the total electric flux over a closed surface is 1/ε₀ times the total charge enclosed by the surface.

2. Field due to A uniformly charged thin spherical shell:
Consider a uniformly changed hollow spherical conductor of radius R. Let ‘q’ be the total charge on the surface.

To find the electric field at P (at a distance r from the centre), we imagine a Gaussian spherical surface having radius r.
Then, according to Gauss’s theorem we can write,

The electric field is constant, at a distance ‘r’. So we can write,

Case -1: Electric field inside the shell is zero.
Case – II: At the surface of shell r = R
∴ E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{q}{R^{2}}\).

3. Inside a spherical shell electrical field is zero. This is called electrostatic shielding. Hence it is safe to be inside a vehicle rather than outside.

Question 7.
q₁, q_2, and q₃ are three point charges located in free space

1. What is the force between q₁ and q₂, if q₃ is absent?
2. What is the force between q₁ and q₂ if q₃ is present?
3. State the principle used to find total force on q₁ and calculate total force F₁ on q₁
4. Draw the vector diagram representing individual forces and total force on q₁.

Answer:
1.

2.

3. Total force on q₁ can be found using super position principle ie.


Where r₁₂ is the distance between q₁ and q₂ and r₁₃ is the force between q₁ and q₃

Question 8.
Variation of field with distance of a charged conducting shell is given below. R is the radius of the sphere
1. field is maximum at

• centre of the sphere
• at r<R
• at r>R
• at r = R (surface)

2. From the graph find value of field at centre. Give on practical application of this result

3. Draw the potential -distance graph in the above case

Answer:
1. at r = R

2. E = 0

• It is safe to be sit inside car during lightning
• Sensitive electrical instruments can be pro-tected from external electric field by placing inside a metal box.

3.

Plus Two Physics Electric Charges and Fields Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two-point charges q₁ and q₂ are separated by a distance ‘r’ in space
1. What happens to the force between the charges;

• When the magnitude of the point charges increases
• When the distance of separation decreases

2. Three-point charges +2µC each are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side 1 m. Find the magnitude of the force between charge q₁ and q₁ [F₁₂] and q₁ and q₃ [F₁₃].

3. Draw \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{13}\) at A and find the total force acting on q₁.
Answer:
1. The force between the charges:

• Force increases
• Force decreases

2. Force between q₁ and q₂

= 36 × 10^-3 N.

3.

= 62.35 × 10^-6 N.

Question 2.
Match the following

Answer:
(a) E = constant
(b) E ∝ 1/r
(c) E ∝ 1/r³
(d) E ∝ 1/r²
(e) E = O

Question 3.
An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field . of Intensity E as shown in the figure.

1. What are the forces on +q and -q?
2. What is the net force on the system?
3. Copy the diagram, mark the forces and derive an expression for torque.
4. If the dipole is placed in a non uniform electric field what nature of motion does it show?

Answer:
1. Force on ⁺q, F₊ = ⁺qE (along the direction of electric field)
Force on -q, F_– = -qE (Opposite to the direction of electronic field)

2. Net force on the system is zero.

3.

Consider an electric dipole of dipole moment P = 2aq kept in a uniform external electric field, inclined at an angle θ to the field direction.
torque = any one force × perpendicular distance τ = qE × 2 a sin θ
Since P = 2aq
τ = p E sin θ
Vectorialy

4. In nonuniform electric field, total force is not zero. Hence the dipole undergoes for both translational and rotational motion.

Question 4.
In electrostatics, Electric charge is a feature of particles like protons, electrons, etc. that decides the
force of interaction among them.
1. Write the name of the law that is used to measure the above force of interaction.

2. Express the above law in vector form.

3. Two charged spheres when placed in air attract with a force F. Keeping the distance between the charges constant, the spheres are immersed in a liquid of relative permittivity K. Then the spheres will.

• attract with a force KF
• repel with a force KF
• attract with a force F/K
• repel with a force F/K

4. Two small aluminum spheres are separated by 80cm. How many electrons are to be transferred from one sphere to the other so that they attract with a force of 10⁴N.
Answer:
1. Coulomb’s law in electrostatics

2.

3. Attract with a force F/K

4. If n electrons are transferred, charge on each sphere Q = ne

n = 5.27 × 10¹⁵

Question 5.
Intensity of electric field is a vector quantity.
1. Define intensity of electric field at a point.

2. Two small spheres A and B carrying charges 2µC and 6µC respectively are separated by a fixed distance. Intensity of electric field at the location of B due to A is E. Intensity of electric field at the location of A due B is

• E
• 3E
• 6E
• 12E

3. Two-point charges +4nC and +5nC are placed at x = 0.2m and x = 0.3m respectively along the x-axis. Find the magnitude and direction of intensity of electric field at the origin.
Answer:
1. Intensity of electric field at point is the electrostatic force experienced by unit positive charge placed at that point.

2. 3E

3.

Intensity of electric field at the origin due to the negative charge

E_(-) = 500NC^-1 along -ve x axis
Intensity of electric field at the origin due to the positive charge

E₍₊₎ = 900NC^-1 along -ve x axis
Net intensity of electric field at the origin
E = E₍₊₎ + E_(-) = 500 + 900 = 1400 NC^-1 along -ve x axis.

Question 6.
You find a sealed box on your door step. You suspect that the box contain charged metal spheres packed in insulating material.

1. Which law explains relation between charge of spheres and electric flux.
2. State the law.
3. Give a mathematical proof for this law.
4. Using this law, can you estimate the total charge inside the box without opening the box?

Answer:
1. Gauss’s theorem

2. Gauss’s theorem states that electric flux over a closed surface is 1/ε₀ times the total charge enclosed by the surface.
Gauss’s theorem may be expressed as

3. Gauss’S Law:
Gauss’s theorem states that the total electric flux over a closed surface is 1/ε₀ times the total charge enclosed by the surface.
Gauss’s theorem may be expressed

Proof:

Consider a charge +q .which is kept inside a sphere of radius ‘r’.
The flux at ‘P’ can be written as,

But electric field at P, E =


Important points regarding Gauss’s law:

• Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface.
• Total charge enclosed by the surface must be added (algebraically). The charge may be located anywhere inside the surface.
• The surface that we choose for the application of Gauss’s law is called the Gaussian surface.
• Gauss’s law is used to find electric field due to system of charges having some symmetry.

4.

Question 7.

• Write an expression to find electric flux passing through small element ds
• Which law helps to find total flux passing through a closed surface? State the law.
• Using this law, derive an expression for electric field due to thin uniformly charged shell.
• How can we protect delicate instruments from external electric field?

Answer:
1.

2. Gauss’s law:
Guass’s law states that total flux over a closed surface is 1/s0 times net charge enclosed by the surface.

3. Field due to A uniformly charged infinite plane sheet:

Consider an infinite thin plane sheet of change of density σ.
To find electric field at a point P (at a distance ‘r’ from sheet), imagine a Gaussian surface in the form of cylinder having area of cross section ‘ds’.
According to Gauss’s law we can write,

But electric field passes only through end
surfaces ,so we get ∫ ds = 2ds

E is directed away from the charged sheet, if σ is positive and directed towards the sheet if σ is negative.

4. Delicate instruments can be protected from ex-ternal electric field by keeping it in a metal cavity.

Students can Download Chapter 9 Financial Management Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Financial Management

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
………………. is the objective of modern financial management.
Answer:
Wealth maximisation

Question 2.
A decision to acquire a new and modern plant to upgrade an old one is a ……………..
(a) financing decision
(b) working capital decision
(c) investment decision
(d) dividend decision
Answer:
(c) investment decision

Question 3.
The decision to maximise the return of equity shareholders by introducing more debt capital in the total capital structure. Identify the concept.
(a) Financial leverage
(b) Undercapitalisation
(c) Over capitalisation
(d) Fair capitalisation
Answer:
(a) Financial leverage

Question 4.
Use of fixed interest bearing source of funds to enhance the return of equity shareholders is called ………………
(a) Trading on profit
(b) Trading on equity
(c) Trading on assets
(d) Trading on liability
Answer:
(b) Trading on equity

Question 5.
Identify the term referred here. Use of debt capital along with equity capital with total capital of a company.
Answer:
Trading on equity

Question 6.
The cheapest source of finance is …………….
(a) Debenture
(b) Equity share
(c) Preference share
(d) Retained earning.
Answer:
(d) Retained earning

Question 7.
Current assets are those assets which get converted into cash ……………….
(a) within six month
(b) within one year
(c) between one and three year
(d) between three and five year
Answer:
(b) within one year

Question 8.
Amount invested in Fixed assets is known as ………………………
(a) Working capitalisation
(b) Circulating capital
(c) Fixed capital
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Fixed capital

Question 9.
Gross Working capital means ……………
Answer:
Total current assets

Question 10.
………………………….. is the excess of current asset over current liabilities.
Answer:
Working Capital

Question 11.
Jasim one of your classmates, confused with the two different concept of working capital. Help him.
Answer:

1. Gross working capital
2. Net working capital

Question 12.
Generally in trading concerns there is a time gap between sales of goods and their actual realisation of cash. Write down the term used to describe the time gap.
Answer:
Operating cycle of working capital/ Working capital cycle

Question 13.
Decision of allocation of funds to long term assets is ………………
Answer:
Capital budgeting

Question 14.
………………….. is the reward of shareholders for investment made by them.
Answer:
Dividend

Question 15.
Which among the following is not a factor affecting dividend decision?
(a) Nature of industry
(b) Taxation policy
(c) Competition
(d) Legal restrictions
Answer:
(c) Competition

Question 16.
A finance manager of a firm has to take many decisions, which can be put under three main categories. Besides dividend decisions, what are the other two categores?
Answer:

1. Investment decision
2. Financing devision

Question 17.
Which among the following is not a finance function? (Investment decision, Compensation decision, Dividend decision, Financing decision)
Answer:
Compensation devision

Question 18.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:

1. Financing decision
2. Investment decision
3. Dividend decision

Question 19.
Choose any two factors which affect the working capital. <0>6)sn$aKO)3<e>.
(a) Tax policy
(b) Credit policy
(c) Pcocurement of fixed assets
(d) Dividend policy
(e) Seasonal factors
(f) Investment ratio
Answer:
(b) Credit policy
(e) Seasonal factors

Question 20.
Ensuring the availability of fund from different sources is called …………….
Answer:
Financial planning

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Moli, the finance manager of Chikk Ltd, has to take the following decisions in connection with expansion of appropriate heads. What decisions are they?

1. Amount to be spent on current assets.
2. Sharing profits to shareholder.
3. Raising funds through issue of debenture.
4. Determining the proportion of owned fund and borrowed fund.

Answer:

1. Investment decision
2. Dividend decision
3. Finance decision
4. Finance decision

Question 2.
When is a capital structure said to be optimum?
Answer:
A capital structure is said to be optimum when the proportion of debt and equity is such that it results in an increase in the value of the shares.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The primary objective of financial management is to maximise shareholders wealth. Explain.
Answer:
The primary aim of financial management is to maximise shareholder’s wealth, which is referred to as the wealth maximisation concept . It means maximisation of the market value of equity shares.

The shareholders are the owners of the company. So it is the responsibility of the company to pay reasonable dividend and also to maximize the value of its shares. All financial decisions aim at ensuring that each decision is efficient to increase the market price of shares.

Question 2.
Explain the term ‘Trading on Equity or Capital gearing’
Answer:
Factors Affecting Capital Structure:
1. Trading on Equity (Financial Leverage):
It refers to the use of fixed income securities such as debentures and preference capital in the capital structure so as to increase the return of equity shareholders.

2. Stability of Earnings:
If the company is earning regular and reasonable income, the management can rely on preference shares or debentures. Otherwise issue of equity shares is recommended.

3. Cost of Debt:
A firm’s ability to borrow at lower rate, increases its capacity to employ higher debt.

4. Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR):
The interest coverage ratio refers to the number of times earnings before interest and taxes of a company covers the interest obligation. Higher the ratio, better is the position of the firm to raise debt.

5. Desire for control:
If the management has a desire to control the business, it will prefer preference shares and debentures in capital structure because they have no voting rights.

6. Flexibility:
Capital structure should be capable of being adjusted according to the needs of changing conditions.

7. Capital Market Conditions:
In depression, debentures are considered good. In a booming situation, issue of shares will be more preferable.

8. Period of Finance:
If funds are required for short period, borrowing from bank should be preferred. If funds are required for longer period company can issue shares and debentures.

9. Taxation Policy:
interest on loan and debentures is deductible item under the Income Tax Act whereas dividend is not deductible. In order to take advantage of this provision, companies may issue debentures.

10. Legal Requirements:
The structure of capital of a company is also influenced by the statutory requirements. For example, Banking Regulation Act, Indian Companies Act, SEBI, etc.

Question 3.
Distinguish between fixed capital and working capital.

Fixed Capital:

• Investment made in fixed assets
• Uses long term sources of capital fund
• Increase the efficiency and effectiveness of an organisation

Working Capital:

• Investment made in current assets
• Uses short term sources of capital fund
• Sustain the efficiency and effectiveness of an organisation

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a classroom debate Arun argued that “profit as a criteria for judging the financial performance is suitable only for sole proprietorship concerns”.

1. Do you agree with the views of Arun? Justify your answer.
2. Suggest operationally feasible criteria for assessing the financial performance of a company form of organisation.

Answer:

1. Yes. I agree with the views of Arun because the main objective of sole proprietorship concerns are profit maximization. In sole proprietorship, only a single person invests capital and the whole profit is enjoyed by himself.
2. The feasible criteria for assessing the financial performance of a company is wealth maximization.

Question 2.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 3.
Mr. Vishnu is appointed financial manager of a company. As a commerce student can you state the primary duties of Vishnu as the financial manager? You have to identify the finance functions of the company.
Answer:
Finance Functions:
The finance function is concerned with three broad decisions which are:

1. Finance Decision:
It relates to the amount of finance to be raised from various long term sources. The main sources of funds for a firm are shareholders’ funds (equity capital and the retained earnings) and borrowed funds (debentures or other forms of debt). A firm needs to have a judicious mix of both debt and equity in making financing decisions.

2. Investment Decision:
The investment decision relates to how the firm’s funds are invested in different assets. Investment decision can be long-term or short term. A long-term investment decision is also called a Capital budgeting decision.

Short-term investment decisions (also called working capital decisions) are concerned with the decisions about the levels of cash, inventory and receivables.

3. Dividend Decision:
Dividend is that portion of profit which is distributed to shareholders. The decision involved here is how much of the profit earned by company (after paying tax) is to be distributed to the shareholders and how much of it should be retained in the business.

Question 4.
Clearly state the role of a financial manager in a business.
Answer:
Role of finance manager in a business:

1. The finance manager determines size and com-position of fixed assets in the business.
2. The finance manager determines the quantum of current assets as well as working capital.
3. He must also determine the long term and short term financing to be used.
4. The finance manager determines break up of long term finances into debt and equity.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Every manager has to take three major decisions while performing the finance function. Explain them.
Answer:
Mr. Vishnu is appointed financial manager of a company. As a commerce student can you state the primary duties of Vishnu as the financial manager? You have to identify the finance functions of the company.
Answer:
Finance Functions:
The finance function is concerned with three broad decisions which are:

1. Finance Decision:
It relates to the amount of finance to be raised from various long term sources. The main sources of funds for a firm are shareholders’ funds (equity capital and the retained earnings) and borrowed funds (debentures or other forms of debt). A firm needs to have a judicious mix of both debt and equity in making financing decisions.

2. Investment Decision:
The investment decision relates to how the firm’s funds are invested in different assets. Investment decision can be long-term or short term. A long-term investment decision is also called a Capital budgeting decision.

Short-term investment decisions (also called working capital decisions) are concerned with the decisions about the levels of cash, inventory and receivables.

3. Dividend Decision:
Dividend is that portion of profit which is distributed to shareholders. The decision involved here is how much of the profit earned by company (after paying tax) is to be distributed to the shareholders and how much of it should be retained in the business.

Question2.
Kurian Jose, the financial manager in Aravinda Ltd. has to take the following decision in connection with expansion of business:

1. Amount to be spent on fixed assets
2. Sources of finance
3. Sharing of profit to shareholders
4. Ratio of debt and equity
5. Retain profit for expansion
6. Amount to be provided for working capital.

Categorise these finance functions into appropriate heads.
Answer:

1. Investment decision
2. Financing decision
3. Dividend decision
4. Financing decision
5. Dividend decision
6. Investment decision

Question 3.
Explain the term Financial Planning.
Answer:
Financial Planning:
The process of estimating the fund requirement of a business and specifying the sources of funds is called financial planning. It ensures that enough funds are available at right time.

The twin objectives of financial planning are:

• To ensure availability of fund at the right time and its possible sources.
• To see that firm does not raise fund unnecessarily.

Question 4.
Explain briefly the importance of financial planning.
Answer:
Importance of Financial Planning

1. It ensures adequate funds from various sources.
2. It reduces the uncertainty about the availability of funds.
3. It integrates the financial policies and procedures.
4. It helps the management to eliminate waste of funds and reduce cost.
5. It helps to achieve a balance between the inflow and outflow of funds and ensure liquidity.
6. It serves as the basis of financial control
7. It helps to reduce cost of financing to the minimum.
8. It helps to ensure stability and profitability of business.
9. It makes the firm better prepared to face the future.

Question 5.
Capital structure means the mix or composition of long term sources of funds. As a financial expert, what are the factors you would consider while determining it?
Answer:
Capital Structure:
Capital structure refers to the mix between owners funds and borrowed funds. Owners fund consists of equity share capital, preference share capital and reserves and surpluses or retained earnings. Borrowed funds can be in the form of loans, debentures, public deposits, etc.

A capital structure will be said to be optimal when the proportion of debt and equity is such that it results in an increase in the value of the equity share.

Factors Affecting Capital Structure:
1. Trading on Equity (Financial Leverage):
It refers to the use of fixed income securities such as debentures and preference capital in the capital structure so as to increase the return of equity shareholders.

2. Stability of Earnings:
If the company is earning regular and reasonable income, the management can rely on preference shares or debentures. Otherwise issue of equity shares is recommended.

3. Cost of Debt:
A firm’s ability to borrow at lower rate, increases its capacity to employ higher debt.

4. Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR):
The interest coverage ratio refers to the number of times earnings before interest and taxes of a company covers the interest obligation. Higher the ratio, better is the position of the firm to raise debt.

5. Desire for control:
If the management has a desire to control the business, it will prefer preference shares and debentures in capital structure because they have no voting rights.

6. Flexibility:
Capital structure should be capable of being adjusted according to the needs of changing conditions.

7. Capital Market Conditions:
In depression, debentures are considered good. In a booming situation, issue of shares will be more preferable.

Question 6.
‘No business can run successfully without adequate working capital’. By considering this fact:

1. Narrate the significance of adequacy of working capital.
2. The important factors influencing working capital.

Answer:
1. Working Capital:
Working capital is that portion of capital required for investing in current assets for meeting day to day working of an organization. Current assets can be converted into cash within a period of one year. They provide liquidity to the business.

2. Working capital is of two types:

• Gross working capital = Total of current asset
• Networking capital = Current assets – Current Liabilities

Factors affecting Working Capital:
1. Nature of Business:
A trading organisation usually needs a smaller amount of working capital as compared to a manufacturing organisation.

2. Scale of Operations:
A large scale organisation requires large amount of working capital as compared to the organisations which operate on a lower scale.

3. Business Cycle:
In the boom period larger amount of working capital is needed to meet the demand. In case of depression, demand for goods declines so less working capital is required.

4. Seasonal Factors:
During peak season demand of a product will be high and thus high working capital will be required as compared to the lean season.

5. Production Cycle:
Production cycle is the time span between the receipt of raw material and their conversion into finished goods. Working capital requirement is higher in firms with longer processing cycle and lower in firms with shorter processing cycle.

6. Credit Policy:
A liberal credit policy results in higher amount of debtors, increasing the requirement of working capital.

7. Operating Efficiency:
If cash, debtors and inventory are efficiently managed, working capital requirement can be reduced.

8. Availability of Raw Materials:
If the raw materials are easily available in the market and there is no shortage, huge amount need not be blocked in inventories, so it needs less working capital.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Management Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Zee Ltd. is a well established company engaged in the production of cosmetics. They propose to undertake an expansion programme for product diversification, such as toys and perfumes.

1. Being a business consultant, explain to them various steps involved in formulating plans relating to the financial aspects of this new project.
2. Also state the importance of financial planning.

Answer:
1. Financial Planning:
The process of estimating the fund requirement of a business and specifying the sources of funds is called financial planning. It ensures that enough funds are available at right time.

The twin objectives of financial planning are:

• To ensure availability of fund at the right time and its possible sources.
• To see that firm does not raise fund unnecessarily.

2. Importance of Financial Planning

• It ensures adequate funds from various sources.
• It reduces the uncertainty about the availability of funds.
• It integrates financial policies and procedures.
• It helps the management to eliminate waste of funds and reduce cost.
• It helps to achieve a balance between the inflow and outflow of funds and ensure liquidity.
• It serves as the basis of financial control
• It helps to reduce cost of financing to the minimum.
• It helps to ensure stability and profitability of business.
• It makes the firm better prepared to face the future.

Question 2.
You are the finance manager of a new company. The management of the company asked you to suggest a suitable capital structure. What are the factors you will take into account while designing the company’s capital structure.
Answer:
Capital Structure:
Capital structure refers to the mix between owners funds and borrowed funds. Owners fund consists of equity share capital, preference share capital and reserves and surpluses or retained earnings. Borrowed funds can be in the form of loans, debentures, public deposits, etc.

A capital structure will be said to be optimal when . the proportion of debt and equity is such that it results in an increase in the value of the equity share.

Factors Affecting Capital Structure:
1. Trading on Equity (Financial Leverage):
It refers to the use of fixed income securities such as debentures and preference capital in the capital structure so as to increase the return of equity shareholders.

2. Stability of Earnings:
If the company is earning regular and reasonable income, the management can rely on preference shares or debentures. Otherwise issue of equity shares is recommended.

3. Cost of Debt:
A firm’s ability to borrow at lower rate, increases its capacity to employ higher debt.

4. Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR):
The interest coverage ratio refers to the number of times earnings before interest and taxes of a company covers the interest obligation. Higher the ratio, better is the position of the firm to raise debt.

5. Desire for control:
If the management has a desire to control the business, it will prefer preference shares and debentures in capital structure because they have no voting rights.

6. Flexibility:
Capital structure should be capable of being adjusted according to the needs of changing conditions.

7. Capital Market Conditions:
In depression, debentures are considered good. In a booming situation, issue of shares will be more preferable.

8. Period of Finance:
If funds are required for short period, borrowing from bank should be preferred. If funds are required for longer period company can issue shares and debentures.

9. Taxation Policy:
interest on loan and debentures is deductible item under the Income Tax Act whereas dividend is not deductible. In order to take advantage of this provision, companies may issue debentures.

10. Legal Requirements:
The structure of capital of a company is also influenced by the statutory requirements. For example, Banking Regulation Act, Indian Companies Act, SEBI, etc.

Question 3.
Sree Lakshmi Ltd. is a newly promoted company. While taking the investment decision, the financial manager of the company allotted the investment outlay of Rs. 25 crore in Land & Buildings, Furniture, and copyrights.

1. Identify the type of capital referred to this context.
2. Explain the factors influencing the investment in these assets.

Answer:
1. Fixed Capital:
Fixed capital refers to the capital needed for the the acquisition of fixed assets to be used for a longer period.

2. Factors affecting Fixed Capital
1. Nature of Business:
A trading concern needs lower investment in fixed assets compared with a manufacturing organization.

2. Scale of Operations:
An organisation operating on large scale require more fixed capital as compared to an organisation operating on small scale.

3. Choice of Technique:
A capital-intensive organisation requires more amount of fixed capital than labour intensive organisations.

4. Technology Upgradation:
Organisations using assets which become obsolete faster require more fixed capital as compared to other organisations.

5. Growth Prospects:
Higher growth of an organisation generally requires higher investment in fixed assets.

6. Diversification:
The firms dealing in number of products (Diversification) requires more investment in fixed capital.

7. Use of Fixed Assets:
Companies acquiring fixed assets on hire purchase or lease system require lesser amount as against cash purchases.

Question 4.

1. What do you mean by Financial Planning?
2. List down the importance of financial planning.

Answer:
1. Financial Planning:
The process of estimating the fund requirement of a business and specifying the sources of funds is called financial planning. It ensures that enough funds are available at right time.

The twin objectives of financial planning are:

• To ensure availability of fund at the right time and its possible sources.
• To see that firm does not raise fund unnecessarily.

2. Importance of Financial Planning:

• It ensures adequate funds from various sources.
• It reduces the uncertainty about the availability of funds.
• It integrates the financial policies and procedures.
• It helps the management to eliminate waste of funds and reduce cost.
• It helps to achieve a balance between the inflow and outflow of funds and ensure liquidity.
• It serves as the basis of financial control
• It helps to reduce cost of financing to the minimum.
• It helps to ensure stability and profitability of business.
• It makes the firm better prepared to face the future.

Students can Download Chapter 5 Organising Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Organising

Plus Two Business Studies Organising One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which level of managers are responsible for determining formal organisation?
Answer:
Top level management

Question 2.
Name the type of organisation which does not have any predetermined objectives.
Answer:
Informal organisation

Question 3.
In ABC Ltd. all the decisions are taken by top level management only. Which policy is followed by organisation?
Answer:
Centralisation.

Question 4.
‘It is an organisation which is consciously coordinated towards a common objective’. State the type of Organisation.
Answer:
Formal organisation.

Question 5.
An organisation officially created by the management is called
Answer:
Formal organisation.

Question 6.
Name the organisation which emerges due to authority-responsibility relationship.
Answer:
Formal organisation.

Question 7.
A network of social relationship that arises spontaneously due to interaction at work is called.
Answer:
Informal organization

Question 8.
The form of organisation known for giving rise to rumours is called
Answer:
Informal organisation

Question 9.
In an organisation, the network of small social groups based on friendship is called
Answer:
Informal organisation

Question 10.
This structure is followed by large scale service organisation whose activities are geographically spread. Identify the type of organisation structure
Answer:
Divisional organisation.

Question 11.
Which of the following is not an element of delegation?
(a) Accountability parole
(b) Authority
(c) Responsibility
(d) Informal organisation
Answer:
(d) Informal organisation

Question 12.
A company has its registered office in Delhi, manufacturing unit at Chennai and marketing and sales department at Bangalore. The company manufactures consumer products. Which type of organisational structure should it adopt to achieve its target?
Answer:
Divisional organisation.

Question 13.
Which organisational structure is suitable for a multiproduct manufacturing company?
Answer:
Divisional organisation

Question 14.
Which organisational structure is suitable for a uni-product manufacturing company?
Answer:
Functional organisation

Question 15.
In this structure, activities are grouped on the basis of function. Identify the organisation structure.
Answer:
Functional organisation

Question 16.
Grouping of activities on the basis of product lines is a part of
(a) Delegated organisation
(b) Divisional organisation
(c) Functional organisation
(d) Autonomous organisation
Answer:
(b) Divisional organisation

Question 17.
Participation of lower levels in management is
Answer:
Decentralisation

Question 18.
Suggest the most suitable terminology to describe “the systematic dispersal of authority to the lower levels”.
Answer:
Decentralisation.

Question 19.
‘It is the right to give orders and the power to exact obedience.’ This is called
Answer:
Authority.

Question 20.
Name the concept which reduces the workload of a manager.
Answer:
Delegation of Authority.

Question 21.
Anything that goes to increase the importance of subordinates is called
Answer:
Decentralisation.

Question 22.
The technical term4which denotes the number of subordinates that a superior can effectively supervise.
Answer:
Span of control.

Question 23.
The following are different steps involved in the process of Organising.
(i) Grouping of similar jobs.
(ii) Division of work.
(iii) Co-ordination of activities.
(iv) Creation of authority relationship
Which of the following sequence is correct?
(a) iv, iii, i, ii
(b) ii, i, iv, iii
(c) ii, i, iii, iv
(d) iv, i, ii, iii
Answer:
(b) ii, i, iv, iii

Question 24.
Match the following.

Answer:
(a) → ii)
(b) → iv)
(c) → i)
(d) → iii)

Question 25.
Span of management refers to
(a) Number of managers
(b) Length of term for which a manager is appointed
(c) Number of subordinates under a superior
(d) Number of members in top management.
Answer:
(c) Number of subordinates under a superior

Plus Two Business Studies Organising Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by organising?
Answer:
Organising is one of the most important functions of management, which includes

1. Identifying and grouping the work to be performed.
2. Defining and delegating authority and responsibility.
3. And establishing relationships for the purpose of accomplishing objectives.

Question 2.
What do you mean by organisation as ‘process’?
Answer:
The process of organising involves division of work, grouping of jobs into departmentation, establishing authority relationships and co-ordination of activities. Therefore organising is treated as a process.

Question 3.
State the circumstances in which functional organisation is more suitable.
Answer:
It is most suitable when the size of the organisation is large and, has diversified activities and operations require a high degree of specialisation

Question 4.
Mr. Satheesh Babu, the General Manager of Venad automobiles decided to share some of his work with his newly appointed assistant manager Mr. Raju. This helped him to concentrate more on important tasks. Which management concept is referred here?
Answer:
Delegation of Authority:
Delegation means the granting of authority to subordinates to operate within the prescribed limits. It enables the manager to distribute his workload to others so that he can concentrate on important matters.

Question 5.
Suggest the most appropriate term used to describe the process of entrusting part of the work by the superior to his subordinates.
Answer:
Delegation of Authority:
Delegation means the granting of authority to subordinates to operate within the prescribed limits. It enables the manager to distribute his workload to others so that he can concentrate on important matters.

Plus Two Business Studies Organising Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why does informal organisation exist within the framework of formal organisation? Give any two reasons for the emergence of informal organization
Answer:

1. To fulfil the social needs of the members.
2. To make the communication easy.

Advantages

• There can be faster spread of communication.
• It helps to fulfil the social needs of the members and this enhances their job satisfaction.
• Top level managers can know the real feedback of employees on various policies and plans.

Question 2.
In a classroom discussion Saleem, a Plus Two Commerce student, argues that delegation and decentralisation are one and same.

1. Do you agree with his argument?
2. Give any two points to justify your answer.

Answer:

1. I am not agreeing with this statement
2. Difference between Delegation and Decentralisation

Plus Two Business Studies Organising Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘It is an organisation which is consciously coordinated towards a common objective’.

1. What this organisation is called?
2. State any 3 important features of this organisation.

Answer:
1. This is a formal organisation.
2. The important features are:

• It is deliberately created by the top management to achieve the objectives.
• It is based on division of labour and specialisation.
• It is impersonal – Does not take into consideration emotional aspect of employees.
• It clearly defines the authority and responsibility of every individual.^
• The principle of scalar chain is followed informal organisation

Question 2.
The employees of Manik Ltd., a software company, have formed a Dramatic group for their recreation.

1. Name the type of organisation so formed.
2. State its three features.

Answer:
1. Informal organisation
2. features are:

• It originates from within the formal organisation as a result of personal interaction among employees.
• It has no written rules and procedures.
• It does not have fixed lines of communication.
• It is not deliberately created by the management.
• It has no definite structure.

Question 3.
Explain the differences between Formal Organisation and informal Organisation.
Answer:

Question 4.
Delegation of authority is based on the elementary principle of division of work. Explain.
Answer:
In division of work, the work is divided into small tasks. Same way in the delegation, the manager divides some of his work and authority among his subordinates.

No manager can perform all the functions himself. To get the work done efficiently and in a specialized manner, the manager divides the work among his subordinates according to their qualification and capability.

Plus Two Business Studies Organising Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Formal organisation when blends with informal organisation result in organisational success.” Comment.
Answer:
Formal organisation refers to intentional structure of well-defined jobs informally organised enterprises. Such jobs are well defined in terms of authority, responsibility and accountability. It is based on division of labour and specialisation.

But informal organisation refers to relationship between individuals in the organisation based on interest, personal attitude, emotions, likes, dislikes etc.

The informal organisation is a part of the formal organisation; it cannot be separated. They are the two aspects of the same organisation and are linked to each other. Both are required for the success of an organisation.

Question 2.
“It is an organisation structure followed by large scale service organisations whose activities are geographically spread”.

1. Find out the organisation structure.
2. State its merits and demerits.

Answer:
1. It is divisional organisation.

2. merits and demerits are:
Divisional Structure:
Grouping of activities on the basis of different product manufactured are known as divisional structure of organisation. Each division has a divisional manager responsible for performance. Each division is multifunctional because within each division functions like production, marketing, finance etc. are performed together to achieve a common goal.

Advantages:

1. Each division functions as an autonomous unit which leads to faster decision making.
2. It helps in fixation of responsibility in cases of poor performance of the division
3. It helps to develop the skill of the divisional head.
4. It facilitates expansion and growth as new divisions can be added without interrupting the existing operations.

Disadvantages

1. Conflict may arise among different divisions with reference to allocation of funds.
2. It may lead to increase in costs since there may be a duplication of activities across products.
3. It is not suitable for small organisations.

Question 3.
Arunima Pvt. Ltd. is a new company for manufacturing soaps at Mysore. They decided to have four functional departments – viz, Production, Marketing Finance and Administration.

1. Recommend the most suitable organisation structure of the company.
2. Give the diagrammatic representation of this organisational structure.

Answer:
1. It is functional organisation

2. organisational structure are:
Divisional Structure:
Grouping of activities on the basis of different product manufactured are known as divisional structure of organisation. Each division has a divisional manager responsible for performance. Each division is multifunctional because within each division functions like production, marketing, finance etc. are performed together to achieve a common goal.

Advantages:

1. Each division functions as an autonomous unit which leads to faster decision making.
2. It helps in fixation of responsibility in cases of poor performance of the division
3. It helps to develop the skill of the divisional head.
4. It facilitates expansion and growth as new divisions can be added without interrupting the existing operations.

Disadvantages

1. Conflict may arise among different divisions with reference to allocation of funds.
2. It may lead to increase in costs since there may be a duplication of activities across products.
3. It is not suitable for small organisations.

Question 4.
Identify the organisation structure of a transport company having operations throughout India. Explain.
Answer:
It is divisional structure.
Types of Organisation Structures:
The organisational structure can be classified as undertwo categories.

1. Functional Organisation
2. Divisional Organisation

Question 5.
Distinguish between functional organisation and divisional organisation.
Answer:

Question 6.
“Delegation of authority leads to reduction in the workload of superiors.” In the light of this statement, comment briefly on the importance of delegation of authority.
Answer:
a. Delegation of Authority:
Delegation means the granting of authority to subordinates to operate within the prescribed limits. It enables the manager to distribute his workload to others so that he can concentrate on important matters.

b. Importance of Delegation of Authority:

1. Reduces the work load of managers:
The managers are able to function more efficiently as they get more time to concentrate on important matters.

2. Employee development:
Delegation empowers the employees by providing them the chance to use their skills,’gain experience and develop themselves for higher positions.

Plus Two Business Studies Organising Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Organising is the backbone of management and it contributes to the success of an enterprise”. Point out your arguments in favour of this statement.
Answer:
a. Organising is one of the most important functions of management which includes:

1. Identifying and grouping the work to be performed.
2. Defining and delegating authority and responsibility.
3. And establising relationships for the purpose of accomplishing objectives

b. Importance of Organising
1. Specialisation:
Since the activities are divided into convenient jobs and are assigned to a particular employee, it leads to specialisation, more productivity and efficiency.

2. Clarity in working relationship:
It helps in creating well-defined jobs and also clarifying authority – responsibility relationship between the superior and subordinates.

3. Optimum utilisation of resources:
The proper assignment of jobs avoids overlapping of work and also makes possible the best use of resources.

4. Adaptation of change:
It allows a business enterprise to adapt itself according to changes in the business environment.

5. Effective administration:
Clarity in working relationships enables proper execution of work and brings effectiveness in administration.

6. Development of personnel:
Organising stimulates creativity amongst the managers and subordinates.

7. Expansion and growth:
Organising helps in the growth and diversification of an enterprise by adding more job positions, departments and product lines.

Question 2.
ABC Ltd is a newly registered company. As a commerce student, can you help the management by providing the various steps involved in the managerial organisation functions?
Answer:
Step in the Process of Organising
1. Division of Work:
The first step in the process of organising involves identifying and dividing the work that has to be done. Division of work leads to specialisation.

2. Departmentation:
The second step is to group similar or related jobs into larger units, called departments. The grouping of activities is known as departmentation.

3. Assignment of duties:
The next step is to allocate the work to various employees according to their ability and competencies.

4. Establishing authority – responsibility relationship:
The last step is creation of authority – responsibility relationship among the job positions. It helps in the smooth functioning of the organisation.

Question 3.
Mr. Hassan, the General Manager of Almonsa Ltd. has decided to give some responsibility and decision making authority to the different levels of management so that he will be relieved of all daily routine activities.

1. What is the concept referred to?
2. State the benefit derived through this process.
3. How does it differ from delegation of authority?

Answer:
1. Delegation of Authority:
Delegation means the granting of authority to subordinates to operate within the prescribed limits. It enables the manager to distribute his workload to others so that he can concentrate on important matters.

2. Importance of Delegation of Authority:

a. Reduces the workload of managers:
The managers are able to function more efficiently as they get more time to concentrate on important matters.

b. Employee development:
Delegation empowers the employees by providing them with the chance to use their skills, gain experience and develop themselves for higher positions.

c. Motivation of employees:
Responsibility for work builds the self-esteem of an employee and improves his confidence. He feels encouraged and tries to improvers performance.

d. Facilitation of growth:
Delegation helps in the expansion of an organisation by providing a ready workforce to take up leading positions in new ventures.

e. Superior-subordinate relations:
Delegation of authority establishes superior-subordinate relationships, which are the basis of hierarchy of management.

f. Better co-ordination:
The elements of delegation – authority, responsibility and accountability help to avoid overlapping of duties and duplication of effort

Students can Download Chapter 10 Financial Markets Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Financial Markets

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It is a market for medium and long-term instruments having a period of maturity of more than one year is?
(a) Money market
(b) Capital market
(c) Commercial bill market
(d) Call market
Answer:
(b) Capital market

Question 2.
Identify the related term from the following.

1. Share : Capital Market
2. Commercial Paper : ………………………

Answer:
2. Money Market

Question 3.
Identify the odd one.
(a) Bill of Exchange
(b) Treasury bills
(c) Certificate of deposits
(d) Equity shares
Answer:
(d) Equity shares

Question 4.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Call money market
(b) Commercial bill market
(c) Treasury bill market
(d) New issue market
Answer:
(d) New issue market.

Question 5.
Which among the following is not related with Money Market?
(a) Call money market
(b) Equity shares
(c) Commercial Paper
(d) Certificate of Deposit
Answer:
(b) Equity shares

Question 6.
Offering the shares to existing shareholders whenever fresh issue is made. Identify the method of primary issue.
Answer:
Right issue

Question 7.
These shares are issued as fully paid shares to the existing shareholders in the ratio of shares held by them. Identify the share.
Answer:
Bonus shares

Question 8.
Birla White Ltd., a leading cement manufacturing company, proposes to give 1 Equity share to every 10 shares held by the existing Equity shareholders as dividend due to poor liquidity position. Identify the type of dividend the company proposes to declare.
(a) Cash dividend
(b) Property dividend
(c) Script dividend
(d) Stock dividend
Answer:
(d) Stock dividend

Question 9.
Treasury Bills are basically ……………….
(a) An instrument to borrow short term funds
(b) An instrument to borrow long term funds
(c) An instrument of capital market
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) An instrument to borrow short term funds

Question 10.
………………….. securities are not required to be listed in the
stock exchange.
Answer:
Government securities

Question 11.
A Method of floating new issues does not deal directly to public but operates issuing houses and brokers. Name the Method.
Answer:
Offer for sale

Question 12.
Identify the watchdog of the capital market.
Answer:
SEBI (Securities Exchange Board of India)

Question 13.
Complete the series.
Money market: RBI
Capital market: ………….
Answer:
SEBI

Question 14.
National Stock Exchange of India was recognized as stock exchange in the year.
(a) 1992
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
Answer:
(b) 1993

Question 15.
NSE commenced futures trading in the year.
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Answer:
(c) 2001

Question 16.
To be listed on OTCEI, the minimum capital requirement for a company is …………….
(a) Rs. 5 crore
(b) Rs. 30 lakh
(c) Rs. 6 crore
(d) Rs. 1 crore
Answer:
(b) Rs. 30 lakh

Question 17.
Admission of a company for trading its securities in the stock exchanged is called ………….
Answer:
Listing

Question 18.
Certificate of Deposit is issued by
(a) Bank
(b) Mutual Fund
(c) Government
Answer:
(a) Bank

Question 19.
The process by which physical share certificate are converted into an equivalent number of securities to be held in electronic form is termed as …………………..
Answer:
Dematerialisation

Question 20.
The issuing company will give a price band at which securities will be offered and gives the investors an opportunity to bid. Can you suggest the name for this method?
Answer:
Book building

Question 21.
At present trading in stock exchanges is taking place through ………………..
Answer:
Online trading

Question 22.
Smt. Faseela is a shareholder of ABC Co. Ltd, She gets an allotment of 50 shares free of cost from the company. ABC Ltd.

1. Find out the method of share allotment referred here.
2. Will it affect ownership?

Answer:

1. Bonus shares
2. Will not affect the ownership

Question 23.
Certain instruments of money market is short term, self – liquidating and used to finance credit sales. Name the instruments.
Answer:
Commercial bill

Question 24.
It is a long term financial market. It is divided as ………….. and ………………..
Answer:
Capital market, Primary market, Secondary market

Question 25.
Issue of shares through online trading system of stock exchange is called …………………
Answer:
Electronic – Initial Public Offer (e-IPO)

Question 26.
Which is the organised market where second hand securities are traded?
Answer:
Stock Exchange

Question 27.
………………. is the mirror which reflects the economic policies of a nation?
Answer:
Stock exchange

Question 28.
Exchange of paper certificate of securities into electronic form is called …………….
Answer:
De-mat (De Materialisation)

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Financial market perform an allocative function”. How?
Answer:
Financial markets channelise savings of investors and makes them available for needs of industry and hence they are set to perform the allocated function.

Question 2.
State the two categories into which financial markets are classified?
Answer:
Two categories into which financial markets are classified:

1. Money Market
2. Capital Market

Question 3.
Explain the features of Certificate of Deposit (CD).
Answer:
Money Market Instruments
1. Treasury Bill:
They are issued by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short term requirement of funds. They are issued at a discount on the face value of the instruments and repayable at par.

They are issued in the form of promissory notes. They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds as no interest is paid on such bills.They are highly liquid. The maturity period of these bills may be between 14 to 364 days.

2. Commercial Paper:
Commercial paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note, negotiable and transferable by endorsement and delivery with a maturity period of 15 days to one year. It is sold at a discount and redeemed at par.

3. Call Money:
Call money is short term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period of one day to fifteen days, used for inter-bank transactions.

4. Certificate of Deposit:
Certificates of Deposit (CDs) are short-term instruments issued by Commercial Banks and Special Financial Institutions (SFIs), which are freely transferable from one party to another. The maturity period of CDs ranges from 91 days to one year.

5. Commercial Bill:
A commercial bill is a Bill of Exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business firms. When goods are sold in credit, the seller draws the bill and the buyer accepts it. The seller can discount the bill before its maturity with the bank. When a trade bill is accepted by a commercial bank it is known as commercial bills.

Question 4.
Define stock exchange.
Answer:
Stock Exchange:
According to Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act 1956, stock exchange means any body of individuals, whether incorporated or not, constituted for the purpose of assisting, regulating or controlling the business of buying and selling or dealing in securities.

Question 5.
Explain briefly how stock exchanges provide liquidity and marketability to existing securities?
Answer:
Stock exchange provides a continuous market where securities are brought and sold. It provides opportunities for investors to disinvest and reinvest in securities. It there by provides liquidity and easy marketability to securities.

Question 6.
Write the full form of

1. OTCEI
2. NSE

Answer:

1. OTCEI is Over the Counter Exchange of India.
2. NSE is National Stock Exchange.

Question 7.
State the minimum capital requirement for a company to be listed with OTCEI
Answer:
For company to be listed with OTCEI minimum paid up capital Rs. 30 Lack or more.

Question 8.
In a classroom discussion, Asharaf argued that only listed securities are permitted to be in a stock exchange. While, Sundar argued that certain unlisted securities are also tilled in a stock exchange.

1. Whose argument do you support?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. We support the argument of Sundar.
2. Government securities do not require to be listed.

Question 9.
What is Primary Market?
Answer:
Primary Market:
The primary market is also known as the new issues market. It deals with new securities being issued for the first time. A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of equity shares, preference shares, debentures, loans and deposits.

Funds raised may be for setting up new projects, expansion, diversification, etc. of existing enterprises. The investors in this market are banks, financial institutions, insurance companies, mutual funds and individuals.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It is a market for short term financial assets having a maturity period of less than one year.

1. Explain the concept referred above.
2. How does it differ from capital market?

Answer:

1. Money market
2. Difference between capital market and money market

Question 2.
Define primary market. State any two methods of issuing securities in primary market.
Answer:
Primary Market:
The primary market is also known as the new issues market. It deals with new securities being issued for the first time. A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of equity shares, preference shares, debentures, loans and deposits.

Funds raised may be for setting up new projects, expansion, diversification, etc. of existing enterprises. The investors in this market are banks, financial institutions, insurance companies, mutual funds and individuals.

Methods of flotation:
There are various methods of floating new issues in the primary market. They are:

a. Offer through Prospectus:
Prospectus is an invitation to the public for the subscription of shares and debentures of a company. The issues may be underwritten and also are required to be listed on at least one stock exchange.

b. Offer for Sale:
Under this method new securities are not offered directly to the public. Initially the entire lots of securities are sold to an intermediary at a fixed price. The intermediary sells these securities to the public at a higher price.

c. Private Placement:
Private placement is the allotment of securities by a company to institutional investors or some selected individuals. It is less expensive and saves time.

d. Rights Issue:
According to the Companies Act, if a public company wants to issue additional shares, it must first be offered to the existing shareholders, in proportion to the amount paid up on their shares. This right is known as ‘Pre-emptive right’ and such an issue is called right issue.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following documents traded in a capital market and money market. Treasury bill, Debentures, Certificate of deposit, Bonds, Equity shares, Commercial paper, Trade bill, and Preference shares.
Answer:

• Treasury bill – Money market
• Debentures – Capital market
• Certificate of deposit – Money market
• Bonds – Capital market
• Equity shares – Capital market
• Commercial paper – Money market
• Trade bill – Money market
• Preference shares – Capital market

Question 2.
During late 1990’s trading took place in the trading ring of the stock exchange through direct auction. In the trading, ring brokers assemble together and make a bargain on the price of securities. Therefore, investors felt difficulty in taking the delivery of securities soon after the execution of the transaction.

1. Explain the new system emerged to overcome these limitations.
2. Explain the merits of the new system.

Answer:

1. Online Trading.
2. Advantages of electronic trading system (Screen based online trading)
On line trading means buying and selling of shares and debentures are done through a computer terminal.

• On line trading ensures transparency in dealing.
• It helps in fixing prices of securities efficiently.
• It increases efficiency of operations by reducing time, cost and risk of errors.
• People from all over the country can buy or sell securities through brokers.
• All trading centres have been brought into one trading platform.

Question 3.
“NSEI” is the largest stock exchange of the country”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain its features.

Answer:
1. National Stock Exchange of India (NSE):
NSE is the most modern stock exchange in India. It was incorporated in 1992 and was recognised as a stock exchange in April 1993. It commenced operations in 1994. NSE has set up a nationwide fully automated screen based trading system.

2. Objectives of NSE:

• Establishing a nationwide trading facility for all types of securities.
• Ensuring equal access to investors all over the country.
• Providing a transparent securities market using electronic trading system.
• Enabling shorter settlement cycles and book entry settlements.
• Meeting international benchmarks and standards.

Question 4.
What are the objectives of SEBI?
Answer:
Objectives of SEBI

• To regulate stock exchange and the securities market to promote their orderly functioning.
• To protect the rights and interests of investors and to guide and educate them.
• To prevent trade malpractices.
• To regulate and develop a code of conduct to intermediaries like brokers, merchant bankers etc.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In India, a major portion of money market transaction is conducted by commercial banks like SBI, PNB, etc. Development banks like IFC, IDBI, etc. and special financial institutions like DFHI, UTI, etc. The indigenous banks, moneylenders and chitty funds are also other participants in the market.

1. Categorise these money market participants into appropriate heads.
2. Identify the submarkets in which these institutions participate for short term dealings.

Answer:
1. Capital market can be divided into organized market and unorganized market.

2. The submarkets are called money market, commercial bill market, treasury bill market, commercial paper market, etc.

Question 2.
Listing of securities with a stock exchange involves stringent procedures. Small companies find it difficult to undergo is such formalities. Therefore, when such companies issue shares, there are only a few buyers for them.

1. Identify the stock exchange promoted to solve these problem faced by small companies.
2. List out the main features and advantages of this stock exchange.

Answer:
1. Over the Counter Exchange of India (OTCEI):
The OTCEI is a company incorporated under the Companies Act 1956. It was set-up to provide smalt and medium companies an access to the capital market.

It is fully computerised, transparent, single window exchange which provides quicker liquidity to securities at a fixed and fair price, liquidity for less traded securities. It is commenced trading in 1992.

2. Objectives of OTCEI

• Provide a trading platform to smaller and less liquid companies.
• Provide online trading facilities to the investors.
• Ensure a transparent system of trading.
• Ensure liquidity to the listed securities.
• Help the investors to exchange the securities at minimum cost.

Question 3.
Shareholders in India were facing a lot of problems in handling the paper based certification, such as delay in transfer of ownership, forgery and theft of certification, bad delivery, etc. But nowadays there are no such difficulties. Paper forms of shares are not seen.

1. What is this paperless security called?
2. What are its merits?

Answer:
1. Dematerialisation

2. Dematerialisation:
It is a process by which physical share certificates are converted into an equivalent number of securities to be held in electronic form and credited in the investors’ account. For this, the investor has to open a Demat account with an organisation called a depository.

Question 4.
Explain the steps involved in the Purchase / Sale of securities.
Answer:
Trading Procedure on a Stock Exchanges:

• Selection of a broker.
• Opening Demat account with the Depository Participant (D.P.).
• Placing an order for the purchase or sale of securities with the broker.
• Purchase or sale of securities through on-line.
• Delivery of the contract note to the investor.
• Effecting changes in the Demat account.
• Making payment or receiving of money.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of depository services and Demat Account?
Answer:
Benefits of Depository Services and Demat Account:

• Sale and Purchase of shares and stocks of any company make easy.
• Saves time.
• No paperwork.
• Lower transaction costs.
• Ease in trading.
• Transparency in transactions.
• No counterfeiting of security certificate.
• Physical presence of investor is not required in stock exchange.

Question 6.
“SEBI is the watchdog of the security market”. Do you agree? Comment.
Answer:
Yes.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
In order to protect the investors and to promote the development of stock market, the Govt, of India established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1988. In 1992 it becomes a statutory body under a special law of the Parliament.

SEBI is the supervisory body for regulation and promotion of securities market in the country. Investor protection is the major responsibility of SEBI. It’s head office is at Mumbai.

Question 7.

1. What do you mean by dematerialisation?
2. What are the benefits of Demat account?

Answer:
1. Dematerialisation:
It is a process by which physical share certificates are converted into an equivalent number of securities to be held in electronic form and credited in the investors’ account. For this, the investor has to open a Demat account with an organisation called a depository.

2. Benefits of Depository Services and Demat Account:

• Sale and Purchase of shares and stocks of any company make easy.
• Saves time.
• No paperwork.
• Lower transaction costs.
• Ease in trading.
• Transparency in transactions.
• No counterfeiting of security certificate.
• Physical presence of investor is not required in stock exchange.

Plus Two Business Studies Financial Markets Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. What is the Secondary market?
2. Explain the functions of Secondary Market.
3. Distinguish it from the Primary Market.

Answer:
1. Secondary market:
The secondary market is also known as the stock market or Stock exchange. It is a market for the purchase and sale of existing securities. It also provides liquidity and marketability to existing securities

2. Functions of a Stock Exchange:

a. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

b. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

c. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

d. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

e. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

f. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

3. Differences between Primary Market and Secondary Market:

Question 2.
“In today’s commercial world, the stock exchange performs vital functions”. Explain the functions.
Answer:
Functions of a Stock Exchange:

1. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

2. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

3. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

4. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

5. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

6. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

Question 3.
Prepare a seminar report on various segments of the money market.
Answer:

Money Market Instruments:

1. Treasury Bill:
They are issued by the RBI on behalf of the Central Government to meet its short term requirement of funds. They are issued at a discount on the face value of the instruments and repayable at par. They are issued in the form of promissory notes.

They are also known as Zero Coupon Bonds as no interest is paid on such bills. They are highly liquid. The maturity period of these bills may be between 14 to 364 days.

2. Commercial Paper:
Commercial paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note, negotiable and transferable by endorsement and delivery with a maturity period of 15 days to one year. It is sold at a discount and redeemed at par.

3. Call Money:
Call money is short term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity period of one day to fifteen days, used for inter-bank transactions.

4. Certificate of Deposit:
Certificates of Deposit (CDs) are short-term instruments issued by Commercial Banks and Special Financial Institutions (SFIs), which are freely transferable from one party to another. The maturity period of CDs ranges from 91 days to one year.

5. Commercial Bill:
A commercial bill is a Bill of Exchange used to finance the working capital requirements of business firms. When goods are sold in credit, the seller draws the bill and the buyer accepts it. The seller can discount the bill before its maturity with the bank. When a trade bill is accepted by a commercial bank it is known as commercial bills.

Question 4.
“Stock exchange is the barometer of the country’s economic health”. Discuss.
Answer:
Functions of a Stock Exchange:

1. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

2. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

3. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

4. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

5. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

6. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

Question 5.
Prepare an assignment on functions of stock exchange.
Answer:

Functions of a Stock Exchange:

1. Providing Liquidity and Marketability to Existing Securities:
Stock Exchange provides a ready and continuous market for the sale and purchase of securities.

2. Pricing of Securities:
A stock exchange is a mechanism of constant valuation through which the prices of securities are determined. It is based on the forces of demand and supply.

3. Safety of Transaction:
Stock exchange has its own well-defined rules and regulations. This ensures safety and fair dealings to investors.

4. Contributes to Economic Growth:
Stock exchange provides a platform by which savings are channelised into the most productive investment proposals, which leads to capital formation and economic growth.

5. Providing Scope for Speculation:
Stock exchange provides scope within the provisions of Law for speculation in a restricted and controlled manner.

6. Economic barometer:
A stock exchange serves as a barometer of a country’s economic condition. Price trends in stock exchange indicate whether economy is going through boom or depression.

Question 6.
RBI is the controller and guide of banks in India. In the field of stock market an institution similar to RBI is there. Can you name it and explain its objectives and functions?
Answer:
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
In order to protect the investors and to promote the development of stock market, the Govt, of India established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1988. In 1992 it becomes a statutory body under a special law of the Parliament.

SEBI is the supervisory body for regulation and promotion of securities market in the country. Investor protection is the major responsibility of SEBI. It’s head office is at Mumbai.

Question 7.
“It is the regulatory and development agency of Indian Capital Market.”

1. Identify the agency referred here.
2. Explain its functions.

Answer:
1. SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)

2. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
In order to protect the investors and to promote the development of stock market, the Govt, of India established the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 1988. In 1992 it becomes a statutory body under a special law of the Parliament.

SEBI is the supervisory body for regulation and promotion of securities market in the country. Investor protection is the major responsibility of SEBI. It’s head office is at Mumbai.

Question 8.

1. What is Primary Market?
2. How it differs from Secondary Market?

Answer:
1. Primary Market:
The primary market is also known as the new issues market. It deals with new securities being issued for the first time. A company can raise capital through the primary market in the form of equity shares, preference shares, debentures, loans, and deposits.

Funds raised may be for setting up new projects, expansion, diversification, etc. of existing enterprises. The investors in this market are banks, financial institutions, insurance companies, mutual funds, and individuals.

2. Differences between Primary Market and Secondary Market:

Students can Download Chapter 4 Planning Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Planning

Plus Two Business Studies Planning One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Planning function is required to be performed by all managers at all levels. This feature of planning is
Answer:
Planning is pervasive.

Question 2.
When planning is reduced to black and white, it is known as
Answer:
Formal planning.

Question 3.
Operational plan is undertaken at
Answer:
Lower level management.

Question 4.
Plans are intended to be used repeatedly
Answer:
Standing Plans.

Question 5.
Is a plan which states the expected results of a given future period in numerical terms.
Answer:
Budget.

Question 6.
Which function of management is considered as the base of all other functions?
Answer:
Planning.

Question 7.
Identify the management function which insists on ‘thinking before doing’.
Answer:
Planning.

Question 8.
“These are assumptions on the basis of which plans are formed”. Find the appropriate term used to denote this.
Answer:
Planning premises.

Question 9.
I am a general statement and i provide guidelines in decision making to members of an organization. Who am i?
(a) Procedure
(b) Rule
(c) Policies
(d) Project
Answer:
(c) Policies

Question 10.
‘Mobile phones are restricted in schools’. What type of plan is this? (Method, Programme, Rule, Policy)
Answer:
Rule.

Question 11.
Find out the correct pair.
(a) Objective – Promotion is based on merit only
(b) Policy – Time rate system of wage payment
(c) Rule – No smoking
(d) Method – Make a profit of 40% on capital invested
Answer:
(c) Rule – No smoking

Question 12.
The management of Arun Industries decided to implement the following with effect from the year2007 – “Every employees should mark their attendance before 8 am”. Which aspect of planning is referred here?
Answer:
Rule.

Question 13.
State the type of plan involved in the following two sentences.

1. Promotion is based on merit only
2. Smoking is prohibited in the factory premises.

Answer:

1. Policy
2. Rule

Question 14.
“We sell goods only on cash basis.” Which type of plan is mentioned here?
Answer:
Policy.

Question 15.
Select an example each of objecvitves, goals and policies from the following plans.

1. Increase sales by 10%
2. Every employee should mark attendance before 10 a.m.
3. Maximise the profit.

Answer:

1. Objective
2. Rule
3. Objective

Question 16.
‘Offering 30% of jobs to women.’ What type of plan is it?
Answer:
Policy.

Question 17.
Name the type of plan which provides a basis for interpreting the strategy.
Answer:
Policies.

Question 18.
Name the type of plan in which the minutest details are worked out, that is procedures, rule and budget within the broad framework of policy.
Answer:
Programme.

Question 19.
Name the type of plan which is also a control device from which deviation can be taken care of
Answer:
Budget.

Question 20.
Sony electronics decides to sell television sets through exchange of old television sets. What type of plan is it?
Answer:
Strategy.

Question 21.
Which plan suggests acts and non-action of employees?
Answer:
Rules.

Question 22.
Detect the differences in the following statements contained in a firm’s plan.

1. We sell goods only on Cash basis
2. Smoking is prohibited in the factory Premises.

Answer:

1. Policy
2. Rule

Question 23.
Which among the following is not a limitation of planning?
(a) It reduces flexibility
(b) It is futuristic
(c) Does not guarantee success
(d) Planning is pervasive
i) a&b ii) b&d iii) a, b&d iv)c
Answer:
(ii) b&d

Question 24.
Match the following.

Answer:
a – ii
b – v
c – i
d – iii

Question 25.
Classify the following as single use plan and standing plan.
Budget, Method, Rule, Programmes, Procedure & Policies
Answer:
1. Single use Plan
Budget, Programme.
2. Standing Plan
Method, Rule, Procedure, Policies.

Plus Two Business Studies Planning Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is planning?
Answer:
Planning – Meaning:
Planning is deciding in advance what to do and how to do. It is one of the basic managerial functions. Planning is closely connected with creativity and innovation. Planning involves setting objectives and developing appropriate courses of action to achieve these objectives.

Question 2.
State any two consequences if there was no planning.
Answer:

1. If there was no planning employees would be working in different directions.
2. The management would not be able to achieve.

Plus Two Business Studies Planning Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a classroom discussion, Kalesh argued that planning is a function to be performed only at the top-level management. But Suresh is of the opinion that planning is required at all levels of management.

1. Do you support the argument of Kalesh or Suresh?
2. Justify your answer

Answer:
1. support the argument of Suresh
2.Planning function is required to be performed by the managers at all levels. Board of Directors plan at top level, Functional managers at departmental level and foreman at lower level. The degree and importance of planning depend on the level at which it is undertaken.

Question 2.
“Planning is needed in every function and at every level”. Explain.
Answer:
Planning function is required to be performed by the managers at all levels. Board of Directors plan at top level, Functional managers at departmental level and foreman at plant level. The degree and importance of planning depend on the level at which it is undertaken.

Question 3.
Planning is not a guarantee of success of a business. Comment.
Answer:
It is right to say that planning is not a guarantee of success of business. Since it based on assumptions regarding future and assumptions cannot be hundred percent accurate.

Question 4.
How does planning help in co-ordination?
Answer:
Planning makes co-ordination of various activities, departments and groups relatively easy. Co-ordination of departmental operations is facilitated by planning through the establishment of common goals.

Plus Two Business Studies Planning Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Planning is a continuous process”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Planning is an ongoing and dynamic process. Business environment undergoes constant changes and accordingly, plans have to be modified. The completion of one plan requires the other plan to be undertaken. Hence planning is a never-ending activity.

Question 2.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 3.
What do you mean by “Single Use Plan” and “Standing Plan”?
Answer:
Types of Plans
1. Single-use plan:
A single-use plan is developed for a one-time event or project. Such plans are not to be repeated in future. E.g. budgets, programmes, projects, etc.

2. Standing plan:
A standing plan is used for activities that occur regularly over a period of time. E .g. policies, procedures, methods and rules.

Plus Two Business Studies Planning Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Forecasting is the essence of planning.”

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Forecasting is the essence of planning. Forecasting involves assessing the future. Forecasting is a process of predicting relevant future situations that are likely to affect the activities of the organisation. Customer’s demand, competition, government policies, etc. can be assessed through forecasting. Forecasting helps an organisation to prepare plan efficiently and effectively.

Question 2.

1. Explain the following diagram and identify the management function.
2. Explain its features.

Answer:
1. management function.

2. Features of planning:

• Planning is goal oriented
• It is the primary function of management
• It is required at all levels of management
• Planning is a continuous process
• Planning is futuristic (forward looking)
• It is a decision making function
• It is a mental process

Question 3.
The Board of Directors of Karunya Ltd. decided to implement the following plans in their personnel department during the year 2006.

1. Filling up the vacancies through promotion
2. Selection of workers through various tests such as aptitude test, trade test, interview, etc.
3. Newly selected workers should be given two weeks apprenticeship training.
4. All employees should mark their attendance before 8 am.
5. Increase production of a product by 10% in the year 2018-19.

You are required to

• Classify the plans adopted by Karunya Ltd.
• Establish the reasons for such classification.

Answer:

1. Policy – Guide in decision making
2. Procedure – Manner in which activities are performed
3. Programmes – All activities necessary for achieving a given objective
4. Rules – Rule is a rigid policy which cannot be altered.
5. Objective – Target to be achieved.

Question 4.
“Planning, the primary function of management, suffers from a number of limitations.” Elucidate.
Answer:
Limitations of Planning

1. Planning makes the activities rigid.
2. Long term plans are insignificant in the rapidly changing business environment.
3. It reduces creativity.
4. It involves cost.
5. It involves a lot of time.
6. Planning does not guarantee success.

Plus Two Business Studies Planning Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“No enterprise can achieve its objectives without systematic planning.”

1. Do you agree with this statement?
2. Give reasons in support of your answer.

Answer:
Importance of Planning
1. Planning provides directions:
By stating in advance how work is to be done planning provides direction for all actions.

2. Planning reduces the risk of uncertainty:
Planning enables an organisation to predict future events and prepare to face unexpected events.

3. Planning reduces wasteful activities:
Planning serves as the basis of co-ordinating the activities and efforts of different departments and individuals. It helps to eliminate useless and redundant activities.

4. Planning promotes innovative ideas:
Since planning is thinking in advance, there is scope for finding better and different methods to achieve the desired objectives.

5. Planning facilitates decision making:
Planning helps in decision making by selecting the best alternative among the various alternatives.

6. Facilitates control:
Planning provides the basis for control. Planning specifies the standard with which the actual performance is compared to find out deviation and taking corrective action.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the steps in planning.
Answer:
Planning Process (Steps in Planning)
1. Setting Objectives:
The first step in planning

2. Developing premises:
Planning is based on certain assumptions about the future. These assumptions are called planning premises. Forecasting is important in developing planning premises.

3. Identifying alternative courses of action:
The next step in planning is to identify the alternative courses of action to achieve the objectives.

4. Evaluating alternative Courses:
The pros and cons of various alternatives must be evaluated in terms of their expected cost and benefits.

5. Selecting an alternative:
After evaluating the alternatives the manager will select that alternative which gives maximum benefit at minimum cost.

6. Implement the plan:
Implementation of a plan means putting plans, into action so as to achieve the objectives of the business.

7. Follow up action:
Plans are to be evaluated regularly to check whether they are being implemented and activities are performed according to schedule.

Students can Download Chapter 8 Environmental Issues Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Environmental Issues

Plus Two Botany Environmental Issues One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
CPCB stand for
(a) Central pollution consistent board
(b) Central particulate collection & analysis board
(c) Central pollution Control Board
(d) Central phenomenon coexisting Board (pollution)
Answer:
(c) Central pollution Control Board

Question 2.
Catalytic converters may contain expensive metals like……….as catalytic in automobiles
(a) Platinum
(b) Palladium
(c) Rhodium
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 3.
The participation of local communities helps to conserve the forest in sustainable manner. Name the recently started project of Govt, of India.
Answer:
In 1980s Government of India has introduced the concept of Joint Forest Management (JFM).

Question 4.
According to the Central Pollution Control Board, particles that are responsible for causing great harm to human health are of diameter:
(a) 2.50 micrometers
(b) 5.00 micrometers
(c) 10.00 micrometers
(d) 7.5 micrometers
Answer:
(a) 2.50 micrometers

Question 5.
Match the items in column I and column II and choose the correct option:

(a) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(b) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(c) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(d) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-i
Answer:
(c) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

Question 6.
Three-mile Island, Chernobyl incidents are typical example for………pollution
(a) Sound
(b) Radioactivity
(c) Water
(d) Physical
Answer:
(b) Radioactivity

Question 7.
Match correctly the following and choose the correct option

The correct matches is:
(a) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
(b) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D
(c) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C
(d) i-C, ii-D, iii-B. iv-A
Answer:
(a) i-C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B

Question 8.
Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unbumt hydrocarbons into:
(a) carbon dioxide and water
(b) carbon mono oxide
(c) methane
(d) carbon dioxide and methane
Answer:
(a) carbon dioxide and water

Question 9.
In the modern world there are different types of substance that may cause pollution. A prominent waste in the modern computer world is “e-waste” The “e-waste” stand for
(a) Eliminated waste
(b) Eroded waste
(c) Electronic waste
(d) Enriched waste
Answer:
(c) Electronic waste

Question 10.
Humans, as well as other animals, have been dumping their wastes into the environment for thousands of years. What is the reason that this appears to be such a problem today?
Answer:
The human population is increasing rapidly, produc-ing more wastes, and a significant amount of the wastes are non-biodegradable.

Question 11.
Air pollution is maximally caused by
(a) Household detergents and pesticides
(b) Automobile exhausts and chemicals from industry
(c) Sewage and pesticides
(d) Sewage and industrial effluents
Answer:
(b) Automobile exhausts and chemicals from industry

Question 12.
Observe the figure given below. Identify the equipment and write its use.

Answer:
Scrubber: A Scrubber can remove gases like sulphur dioxide.

Question 13.
Government of India has instituted an award for individuals or communities from rural areas who have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting wild life. Name that award.
Answer:
Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award.

Question 14.
Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system of handling human excreta, using dry composting toilets. Write the advantages of this method.
Answer:
It is Hygienic .efficient, cost effective and human excreta can be recycled into a natural fertilizer.

Question 15.
Choose the correct answer. Substances that cause biomagnification are
(a) Mercury and DDT
(b) Mercury and Phosphorus
(c) DDT and Phosphorus
(d) Phosphorus and nitrogen
Answer:
(a) Mercury and DDT

Question 16.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blank. Green house effect: carbon dioxide; ozone depletion:…………..
Answer:
Chlonofluorocarbons.

Question 17.
Choose the correct statement regarding biomagnification in an aquatic ecosystem.
(a) Decrease in concentration of the toxicant in successive tropic levels.
(b) Higher concentration of toxicant is seen in the first trophic level.
(c) Bird population is least affected.
(d) Causes decline in bird population.
Answer:
(d) Causes decline in bird population.

Question 18.
In 1986 Govt, of India passed Environment Act. Write the purpose of its implementation.
Answer:
To protect and improve the quality of our environment (air, water, and soil).

Question 19.
The participation of local communities helps to conserve the forest in sustainable manner. Name the recently started project of Govt, of India.
Answer:
In 1980s Government of India has introduced the concept of Joint Forest Management (JFM).

Question 20.
Give the term for reradiating of heat radiations by atmosphere dust, water vapours, CO-₂ CH-₄, O₂, etc.
Answer:
Green house effect

Question 21.
How CFCS cause the depletion of Ozone shield?
Answer:
By producing active chlorine which breaks ozone.

Plus Two Botany Environmental Issues Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand CPCB – Write its significance.
Answer:
CPCB – Central Pollution Control Board.
CPCB – Aims for controlling particulate matter in the air. According to CPCB the particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less than in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing greatest harm to human health.

Question 2.
Working condition of electrostatic precipitator is given. By analysing the figure explain the process.

Answer:
At high voltage the electrons produced are attached to dust particles giving them a net negative charge. These charged dust particles are attracted by collecting plates. Then reducing the velocity of air between the plates which help the dust to fall.

Question 3.
Pollutant free Metropolitan cities can be raised by the use of CNG.

1. Expand CNG?
2. What are the?

Answer:
1. CNG is compressed natural gas.

2. advantages of CNG:

• CNG is better than diesel
• It burns most efficiently
• CNG is cheaper than petrol or diesel
• It cannot be adulterated like petrol or diesel.

Question 4.
Montreal protocol is a procedure signed at Montreal (Canada) in 1987.

1. Identify the environmental issue related to this.
2. Which is the chemical causing the environmental problem?

Answer:

1. Ozone hole
2. Chloro fluro carbons release active chlorine atoms which results in degradation of the ozone in the stratosphere.

Question 5.
“Pollutant free Metroes” – Can this be achieved in future?

OR

Pollutant free Metropolitan cities can be raised by the use of CNG. What does CNG implies? Can you suggest the priorities and limitations of CNG?

Answer:
CNG is compressed natural gas. It burns more efficiently than Petrol and diesel, thus brings down the amount of pollutants from automobiles (unburnt hydrocarbons).

CNG is cheaper than petrol or diesel. It cannot be siphoned out by thieves and adultered like petrol or diesel.

The problem in using CNG as fuel is the difficulty of laying down pipelines to deliver CNG through distribution points.

Question 6.
If motor vehicles are equipped with catalytic converter the pollution rate can be reduced.

1. Give reason.
2. Catalytic converters have its limitations. Mention the limitations.

Answer:
1. Catalytic converters are used in motor vehicles to reduce pollutants. Catalytic converters convert unburnt hydrocarbons into CO₂ and water. The catalytic converter uses expensive metals like Platinum, Palladium or rhodium as catalysts.

2. These catalysts are inactivated if leaded petrol is used.

Question 7.
Particulate and gaseous pollutants along with harmless gases are released from the thermal power plants.

1. Name any two harmless gases released.
2. Name the most widely used device of removing particulate pollutants from the air. Explain how the device is used.

Answer:
1. NO₂ & O₂.

2. Electrostatic precipitator
It has electrodes which are maintained at several 1000 watts which releases electrons. These electron attach to dust particle giving them a net -ve charge. The collecting plates attract the charged dust particle. The velocity of air between the plates are lowered to allow dust to fall.

Question 8.
Higher BOD could lower the D.O.

1. Do you agree with the statement.
2. Give reason.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Higher BOD lower the D.O. content of water. D.O. is the dissolved 02 content of water. When organic content is increased in water the D.O. is consumed for its oxidation by bacteria which is referred as BOD (Biochemical Oxygen demand) when B.O.D. is greater the D.O. becomes low.

Question 9.
Pesticide DDT was used to control insect such as mosquitoes and agricultural pests. But DDT persisted in the environment and transported from one trophic level to higher trophic levels.

1. Name the phenomenon and explain it.
2. What happens to the concentration of DDT in each trophic level?

Answer:
1. Biomagnification.
Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.

2. Non biodegradable toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted and it is passed to the next higher trophic level.

Question 10.
Sewage from common hospitals if disposed to water bodies may cause the outbreak of serious water-borne diseases.

1. Mention 2 water-borne diseases.
2. Which is the popular method used to remove hospital waste?

Answer:

1. Dysentry, typhoid, jaundice, etc.
2. Incineration

Question 11.
Match the following.

Answer:

1. Catalytic converters – Air pollution
2. Polyblend – Plastic wastes
3. Organic farming – Agro chemicals
4. Sanitary land fills – Solid wastes

Question 12.
Solid waste can create a major problems in metro cities.

1. Which is the best way for the safe disposal of the solid waste
2. Classify solid waste into 3 groups, which is the alternative remedy for the use of plastic

Answer:
1. Sanitary land fills.

2. The Solid wastes can be categorised into 3 types

• bio degradable
• Recyclable
• non-biodegradable.

The biodegradable waste material can be disposed in deep pits for natural break down. Recycling of material is made easy by the separation done by rag pickers.

Non-biodegradable waste should reduced by using eco-friendly packaging & natural fiber carry bags. State government can play important role by applying laws for reducing the use of plastics.

Question 13.
Integrated organic farming is a zero waste procedure.

1. Do you agree with the statement.
2. Give reason.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Integrated organic farming is a cyclical zero waste procedure, where waste products from one process are cycled and act as nutrients for other processes. This allows the maximum utilization of resources and increases the efficiency of production.

For example if dung is used as manure for the crop, the crop waste can be used to create compost which in turn can be used as fertilizer after generating energy needs of the farm.

Question 14.
Analyse the situation given below and comment on it. “Fertilizers from a paddy field flows to nearby pond.’’
Answer:
Presence of large-amount of nutrients caused by sewage disposal causes excessive growth of planktonic algae which imparts distinct color & decreases quality of water & increases mortality of fishes.

Question 15.
Rag pickers do a great job for our nation. Justify this statement.
Answer:
The Solid wastes can be categories into 3 types

• biodegradable
• Recyclable
• non-biodegradable.

The biodegradable waste material can be disposed in deep pits for natural break down. Recycling of material is made easy by the separation done by rag pickers.

Question 16.
Ecologist argued that organic fertilizers are better for the soil than the chemical fertilizers, (hint – organic fertilizers:- green manures, cattle dung, biofertilizers). Write your opinions.
Answer:
Organic fertilizers are better for the soil as they do not cause pollution of soil and water. Chemical fertilizers which drained into the water bodies will cause eutrophication and algal blooms.

They also cause increase in BOD and lead to the destruction aquatic flora & fauna. Organic fertilizers are cheaper they tend to remain in the soil for long period.

Question 17.
Ahmed khan in Bangalore proved himself a good citizen in using his talents in solving a social issue. Comment on his contribution.
Answer:
Ahamed khan in Bangalore who is a plastic sac manufacturer effectively use poly blend – a fine powder produced from recycled plastic & mixed it with bitumen that is used to lay roads.

By doing so he could enhance the water repellent property of bitumen & which in turn help to road life by three times. It also reduced pollution caused by plasticis. It is an example for the effective way for recycling non biodegradable – plastic.

Question 18.
The concentration of DDT like toxins are higher in man and eagle.

1. Name the process.
2. Give the reason

Answer:
1. Biomagnification

2. Non bio degradable chemical which accumulate in the body of organism and is passed on to the organisms belonging to the next trophic level. Human beings & Eagle belong to the last trophic level of the food chain. Hence the bio magnification threaten human life.

Question 19.

1. Identify the process
2. Find out the reason for these.

Answer:
1. Biomagnification.

2. The concentration of DDT is increased at successive trophic levels. It starts at 0.003 ppm in water, it can ultimately can reach 25 ppm in fish-eating birds, through biomagnification.

High concentrations of DDT disturb calcium metabolism in birds, which causes the thinning of eggshell and their premature breaking, causing decrease in bird populations.

Question 20.
Integrated organic farming is a zero waste procedure. Do you agree with the statement. Justify.
Answer:
Yes. Integrated organic farming is a cyclical zero waste procedure, where waste products from one process are cycled and act as nutrients for other processes. This allows the maximum utilization of resources and increases the efficiency of production.

Question 21.
Solid waste can create a major problems in metro cities.

1. Which is the best way for the safe disposal of the solid waste
2. Classify solid waste into 3 groups, which is the alternative remedy for the use of plastic

Answer:
1. Sanitary land fills

2. The Solid wastes can be categorised into 3 types

• biodegradable
• Recyclable
• non-biodegradable.

Non-biodegradable waste should reduced by using eco-friendly packaging & natural fiber carry bags.

Question 22.
Ahmed khan in Bangalore proved himself a good citizen in using his talents in solving a social issue. Comment on his contribution.
Answer:

• Ahmed Khan in Bangalore has found a solution for problem of accumulating plastic waste.
• Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, is mixed with the bitumen that is used to lay roads.
• Bitumen is a water repellant substance helps to increase road life.
• The raw material for creating Polyblend is any plastic film waste that brought about by rag pickers.

Question 23.
In north- eastern state of India major hectors of Forest land is degraded by a mode of cultivation.

1. Name the cultivation method
2. Explain the procedure of this cultivation

Answer:
1. Jhum cultivation.

2. In Jhum cultivation or slash & burn cultivation, forest land is converted to agricultural land by cutting and burning trees, ash obtained is used as fertilizer for crop cultivation and other land is used for grazing cattle. The process repeated and it leads to deforestation.

Question 24.
What are Euro II norms?
Answer:

1. Sulphur be controlled at 350 ppm in diesel and 150 ppm in the petrol.
2. Aromatic hydrocarbons are to be contained at 42% of concerned fuel.

Question 25.
It has been recorded that the temperature of the earth’s atmosphere has increased by 0.6°C.

1. What has caused this increase?
2. Explain its consequences.

Answer:
1. Increase in the level of green house gases causes global warming.

2. Its consequences:

• Polar ice caps and glaciers will melt
• rise in sea level

Question 26.
Air pollution causes serious health problems in men, in industries ECP is a fitted in place of exhaust coming from smokestack to control pollution.

1. Which is the device used to control Sulphur Dioxide pollution?
2. Name the agency of Government of India monitor air pollution.

Answer:

1. Scrubber
2. CPCB (Central pollution control board)

Question 27.
Higher concentration of DDT is found in third trophic level than first trophic level

1. Name the phenomenon associated with the accumulation of DDT
2. Bird population is decreased by the accumulation of DDT. How is it occurs?

Answer:

1. biomagnification
2. DDT affects the calcium metabolism of birds, causes the thinning of egg shell and premature breaking that it result the reduction in bird population.

Question 28.
Many low lying land become submerged in coming centuries due to the increasing temperature of atmosphere

1. Name two greenhouse gases causes global warming
2. Write down the measures to reduce the emission of greenhouse gases

Answer:
1. Carbon dioxide and chioro fluoro carbon

2. Measures to reduce the emission of greenhouse gases:

• Cutting down the use of fossil fuels
• Reduce deforestation activities.

Question 29.
Plastic film waste that is used to made modified recycle plastic by Ajmal Khan in collaboration with RV College of Engineering

1. Name the product formed after the recycling of film waste
2. Name the water repellent substances is mixed with modified a plastic to lay down Road in Bangalore city Corporation

Answer:

1. Polyblend
2. Bitumen

Question 30.
There is a balance between production and degeneration of ozone in the stratosphere.

1. Name the gas that disturbs this balance.
2. Explain how this balance is disrupted?

Answer:

1. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
2. In stratosphere ,UV rays act on CFCs and release active Cl atoms, that degrades ozone releasing molecular oxygen.

Question 31.
The amount of biodegradable organic matter in sewage water can be estimated by measuring BOD.

1. Expand BOD
2. Write the impact of the discharge of sewage into a river

Answer:

1. BOD – Biochemical Oxygen Demand
2. Polluted water contains microorganisms they consume lot of oxygen from water for the biodegradation of organic material that Causes sharp decline in dissolved oxygen.

Question 32.
Radiation by nuclear waste is extremely dangerous to organisms.

1. Write any two dangers.
2. Write the recommendations for the storage of nuclear waste.

Answer:

1. Causes mutation at a very high rate At high doses nuclear radiation is lethal
2. Nuclear waste must be stored after sufficient pre-treatment. It must be done in suitable shielded containers buried within the rocks, about 500m deep below the earth’s surface.

Question 33.
There is a balance between production and degeneration of ozone in the stratosphere.

1. Name the gas that disturbs this balance.
2. Explain how this balance is disrupted?

Answer:

1. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
2. In stratosphere, UV rays act on CFCs and release active Cl atoms, that degrades ozone releasing molecular oxygen.

Question 34.
Algal bloom and eutrophication are the two effects of water pollution. Write the differences between the two.
Answer:
1. Algal bloom:
Excessive growth of planktonic algae due to the presence of large amount of nutrients in water.

2. Eutrophication: Natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.

Question 35.
Match the items of column A with B.

Answer:

Question 36.
A number of human activities contribute to deforestation.

1. Write any one such activity.
2. Write the consequences of deforestation.

Answer:
1. Cutting trees for timber and firewood.

2. consequences of deforestation:

• Increase carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere
• Loss of biodiversity due to habitat destruction
• Disturbs hydrologic cycle
• Causes soil erosion

Question 37.
In 1980s the Government of India has introduced JFM to conserve forests.

1. Expand JFM.
2. Write its significance.

Answer:

1. Joint Forest Management.
2. Participation by local communities for protecting and managing forest and these communities get benefit of various forest products.

Question 38.
Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases into the atmosphere. Write its working in reducing pollution.
Answer:
As the exhaust from the automobiles passes through the catalytic converter, hydrocarbons are converted into harmless carbon dioxide and water. Carbon monoxide is changed into carbon dioxide.

Plus Two Botany Environmental Issues Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
As a part of project work, a group of students collected water samples from different locations. Water samples and its BOD contents are given below.

1. Analyse the data given below and find out the sample which is highly polluted.
2. Give reason. Expand BOD.

Answer:

1. Sample. A is highly polluted.
2. BOD (Biochemical Oxygen demand).- refers to the amount of O₂ that is consumed when organic matter is oxidised by bacteria. If greater the BOD of water, the rate of pollution is high.

Question 2.
Global warming leads to so many hazards in the environment.

1. What are the green house gases?
2. How does it leads to global warming
3. Suggest any three methods to control it.

Answer:
1. Green house gases- CFC, N₂O, CH₄, CO.

2. In the atmosphere green house gases causes re radiation of infrared radiation & results in the over heating of earth. This is called global warming. Global warming causes changes in the climate Eg. EL Nino effect, Increased melting of polar ice caps rise in sea levels & submerging of coastal areas.

3. Suggest any three methods to control it:

• Cutting down the use of fossil fuel,
• Improving efficiency of energy usage,
• Reducing deforestation, planting trees

Question 3.
Ramu is comparing the graph given in the magazine and recognized that the content of aromatic hydrocarbons, CO, and NOx were decreased from 1997 to 2006 period. Give the reason of your findings.
Answer:
The new auto fuel policy introduced by the government of India is to reduce the sulphur,carbon monoxide and aromatics content in petrol and diesel fuels. The above mentioned things can be put in practice by different engine norms.

1. Bharat Stage II (equivalent to Euro-llnorms)
2. Euro III emission specifications
3. Euro-IV

Question 4.
A factory drains its waste water into the nearby lake. It has caused algal bloom.

1. How was the algal bloom caused?
2. What would be the consequences?
3. Name the phenomenon that caused it?

Answer:

1. Nutrients of waste water causes extensive growth of planktonic algae or free floating algae (algal bloom).
2. Algae use oxygen .biochemical oxygen demand go high, high fish mortality, deterioration of water quality.
3. Eutrophication.

Question 5.
The existence of human beings is under great threat due to the uncontrolled emission of green house gases. Can you suggest any 2 remedial measures to reduce this effect?
Answer:
The emission of green house gases can be reduced by cutting down use of fossil fuel, improving the efficiency of energy usage, reducing deforestation planting trees & slows down the growth of human population.

Question 6.
The balance between the formation and degradation of ozone disrupt due to the overuse of chloro fluoro carbons.

1. Name the degraded product of chlorofluorocarbon causes of ozone depletion
2. Which is the unit used to measure ozone thickness in stratosphere
3. Give two diseases affects men due to ozone depletion

Answer:
1. Active chlorine
2. Dobson (Du)
3. Two diseases affects men due to ozone depletion:

• snow blindness
• cataract

Question 7.
In Kerala, the major source of atmospheric pollution comes from automobile sector.

1. Expand CNG
2. State some novel practical steps to minimize this type of pollution.
3. Which is the govt, agency monitor pollution?

Answer:
1. CNG -Compressed Natural Gas.

2. Air pollution can be controlled by using lead free petrol & by using catalytic converters. The catalytic converters convert unburned hydro carbons into CO₂, H₂O, CO & nitric oxide are converted to CO₂ & N₂ gas.

3. CPCB (Central pollution control board).

Question 8.
Ozone balance has been disrupted due to enhancement of ozone degradation by CFC’s.

1. Enumerate the role of Cl in O₃ depletion.
2. Give a note on Montreal protocol.

Answer:
1. Ozone is found in the stratosphere It acts as shield by absorbing UV radiation from the sun. UV rays are injurious to living organisms since DNA & proteins of living organism are affected by UV rays. The refrigerators use CFC.

The CFC’s discharged into the atmosphere it reaches the stratosphere. In stratosphere UV rays act on them releasing chlorine atom. Chlorine degrade ozone and releasing molecular oxygen. As the chlorine atom are not consumed in this reaction they remain in the stratosphere & will have permanent & continuing effect on ozone level.

2. Recognizing the deleterious effects of ozone depletion an international treaty known as Montreal Protocol was signed at Montreal(canada) in 1987 & is effective from 1989. This protocol emphasizes to control the emission of ozone depleting substances.

Question 9.
Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin. What is the cause of snow blindness.
Answer:
Due to ozone hole the UVB rays reach the earth and its high dose causes inflamation of cornea called snow blindness, cataract, etc. Such an exposure permanently damage the cornea.

Question 10.
Discuss the role of women and communities in protection and conservation of forests.
Answer:
Amrita devi bishnoi wild life protection award (in the name of lady who sacrificed her life for protecting trees), chipko movement( women belonging to garhwal showed courage by hugging trees to protect them from axe of contractors).

Question 11.
If the ESP is not fitted across the way of exhaust come out from thermal power plant. How does it affect humans.
Answer:
The particulate matter present in exhaust spread the air and causes respiratory problems like asthma, chronic bronchitis, hay fever, etc.

Question 12.
Two years ago, the lake was pure, clean and rich in variety of organisms. While now it is colourless, rich in algae and have a dirty smell. Name the pollutants and the phenomenon.
Answer:
The pollutans are phosphatic and nitrogenous in organic fertilisers. The phenomenon is called eutrophication.

Question 13.
Hundred metre surroundings of hospitals and schools are considered as silent zone. Justify it.
Answer:
It is considered as silent zone because in hospitals sound intensity increases the heart beat altering respiratory patterns of patients etc.but in schools it affects the teaching and learning process.

Question 14.
In 1990, the ozone thickness in a particular area was 190 Du while in 2001 and 2005 it was decreased to 150 Du and 135 Du respectively.

1. What is the causes of fall of Du level.
2. Which is the good ozone situated and named so?

Answer:
1. Itis due to the increased emission of chlorofluro carbons. It causes the upset of balance between formation and degradation of ozone and results in ozone depletion or thinning of ozone layer.

2. Ozone found in stratosphere filter uv rays coming into the earth.

Question 15.
CO and SO₂ are pollutants but they are different from, DDT. BHC etc. Do you agree. Give justifications of your answer.
Answer:
Yes. The former pollutants are gaseous, biodegradable and inorganic but latter are organic and non biodegradable.

Question 16.
What you meant by the auto fuel policy of Govt, of India? Name the latest reformed engine norm.
Answer:
The aim of auto fuel policy is to decrease the emission of sulphur, carbon monoxide and aromatics content in petrol and diesel fuels. Euro-IVnorms- April 1, 2010.

Question 17.
Now a days the acuumulation of plastic waste is the major problem because such wastes are non biodegradable. In some places it is used for beneficial purpose

1. Name the mixtures used by Ahmed Khan to lay down roads in Bangalore.
2. How was it minimized the accumulation of solid wastes?

Answer:

1. Polyblend and bitumen.
2. The raw material for creating Polyblend is any plastic film waste. So the accumulation of plastic wastes can be controlled.

Question 18.
Thermal Power plants are inevitable in an industrial and densely populated country like our-what harm they do to the environment? Also mention any precaution that could be taken to save our environment.
Answer:
Hot effluents of thermal power plants are generally released in the nearby water bodies. This causes rise in temperature of such water bodies which causes deoxygenation of water leading to decomposition of organic wastes and killing of aquatic animals. Thermal water pollution can be checked by employing dry or wet cooling towers.

Question 19.
Accumulation of solid waste (e-waste) is the major problem in developed countries.

1. What do you mean by e-waste?
2. Give its ill effects.

Answer:

1. It is formed of irreparable computers and other electronic goods.
2. During manual recycling of such waters in the developing countries the workers are exposed to toxic compounds present in them.

Question 20.
It is said that the use of refrigerators cause ozone depletion.

1. How is it possible?
2. Explain the process of ozone depletion.
3. Name any one treaty signed in the international level to control this phenomenon.

Answer:
1. The refrigerators emit CFC (Chloro flora carbon).

2. The CFC’s discharged into the atmosphere reaches the stratosphere. In stratosphere UV rays act on them releasing chlorine atom, chlorine Degrade ozone releasing molecular oxygen. As the chlorine atom are not consumed in this reaction they remain in the stratosphere and have permanent and continuing effect on ozone level.

3. Montreal protocol and Kyoto protocol.

Question 21.
Mention the two major environmental issues of global nature.
Answer:

1. Increasing greenhouse effect.
2. Depletion of ozone in the stratosphere.

Question 22.
Thermal power plants are inevitable in an industrial and densely populated country like ours. What harm do they do to the environment? Also mention any precaution that could be taken to save our environment.
Answer:

1. They release particulate and gaseous air pollutants, hot thermal waste kills organisms sensitive to high temperature, indigenous flora ad fauna lose.
2. Use of electrostatic precipitator.

Question 23.
1. On seeing bad state of roads in your locality, as a student, you have recommended to the Municipal corporation to use polyblend.

• What is poly blend? Point out its raw material.
• How will it be advantageous?

2. What are e-wastes? Explain the method of their disposal.
Answer:
1.

• It is a fine powder of recycled modified plastic. This mixture is mixed with bitumen used to lay roads. Raw material – Plastic film waste
• Blends of polyblend and bitumen, when used to lay roads, enhances the bitumen’s water repellent properties and helps to increase road life.

2. Irreparable computers and other electronic goods are known as e-wastes. Burried in landfills or incinerated.

Question 24.
Eutrophication is the main problem in of rivers due to the adding of more and more nitrates and phosphates.

1. How does it affect aquatic water body
2. What is algal bloom?
3. How does it related to D.O. in water bodies.

Answer:

1. It change the colour and quality of water and causes the mortality of fish
2. Presence of large amounts of nutrients in waters also causes excessive growth of planktonic(free-floating) algae, called an algal bloom
3. This results in the decrease of D.O. in water.

Question 25.
DDT content in the water of a lake, that supplies drinking water to the nearby villages, is found to 0.0Q3ppm. The kingfishers of that area are reported to have2ppm DDT.

1. Why has the concentration increased in these birds?
2. What harm will this cause to bird population?
3. Name the Phenomenon.

Answer:
1. Increase in concentration of DDT (non biodegradable) from the water bodies (0.003ppm) to the final consumers like kingfishers (2ppm) is due to increase in cone, of DDT in successive tropic levels (eg. Phytoplankton → Zooplanktons → Fishes → King Fishers) of food chain.

2. It affects ca metabolism and finally premature breaking of egg and declining bird population.

3. Biomagnification.

Question 26.
Observe the figure below.

1. Identify the greenhouse gases 1,2 and write their percentage of contribution to total global warming.
2. Write any four measures to control global warming.

Answer:
1. greenhouse gases 1,2 and write their percentage of contribution to total global warming:

• CO₂ – 60%
• CFCs 14%

2. four measures to control global warming:

• Cutting down use of fossil fuel
• Improving efficiency of energy usage
• Reducing deforestation
• Planting trees

Question 27.
Presence of large amounts of nutrients in water cause excessive growth of plankton.

1. Name this process.
2. Write the dangers caused by this process.

Answer:
1. Algal bloom.

2. Dangers caused by this process:

• Imparts a distinct colour to the water bodies
• Deterioration of the water quality
• Fish mortality
• Toxic to human beings and animals.

Question 28.
Pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from the industries and homes accelerate the aging process of lakes.

1. Name this phenomenon.
2. Write any four harmful effects of this process.

Answer:
1. Cultural or Accelerated eutrophication.

2. Any four harmful effects of this process:

• Over stimulate the growth of algae
• Cause unpleasant odor
• depletes dissolved oxygen
• Death of fish

Question 29.
CNG is better than diesel. Substantiate this statement writing any four advantage of CNG. Expand CNG.
Answer:
1.

• CNG bums most efficiently
• Cheaper than petrol or diesel
• Cannot be siphoned off by thieves
• cannot be adulterated like petrol or diesel

2. Compressed Natural Gas

Question 30.
Observe the flow chart given below.

1. Fill in the blanks 1 and 2.
2. Identify the process illustrated in the flow chart.

Answer:
1.

• Small fish (DDT 0.5 ppm)
• Large fish (DDT 2 ppm)

2. Biomagnification

Question 31.
People in the town of Areata created an integrated waste water treatment within a natural system. Explain the method.
Answer:
The cleaning of waste water is conducted in two stages. In the first stage conventional sedimentation, filtering, and chlorine treatment are given.

Through this step all materials present in water can be removed except dangerous pollutants like dissolved heavy metals.

In the second stage this heavy metal containing water is passed through a series of six connected marshes over 60 hectares of marshland.

In marshy area, plants, algae, fungi, and bacteria were seeded, they can neutralise, absorb and assimilate the pollutants as the water flows through the marshes, after this process water gets purified naturally.

Question 32.
Match the items of column A with B and C.

Answer:

Plus Two Botany Environmental Issues NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the items given in column A and B.

Answer:
(a) – (ii)
(b) – (i)
(c) – (iii)
(d) – (iv)

Question 2.
Write critical notes on following:

1. Eutrophication
2. Biological magnification
3. Ground-water depletion and ways for its replenishment.

Answer:
1. Natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.

2. Biomagnification, also known as bio amplification or biological magnification, is any concentration of a toxin, such as pesticides, in the tissues of tolerant organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain.

3. The level of ground water is falling day by day due to high demand in urban areas as well as in agriculture. Due to over use of surface water, people rely on ground water for irrigation, drinking, and industrial use.

About 85% of rural water supply and more than 50% of urban and industrial supply is mined. This results in depletion of ground water.

Ground water can be replenished by-

1. Rain water harvesting
2. Reduction in consumption and waste.

Question 3.
Why ozone hole forms over Antarctica? How will enhanced ultraviolet radiation affect us?
Answer:
Decline in the thickness of ozone layer over a restricted area is called ozone hole. It was first discovered over Antarctica. Antarctica air is completely isolated from the rest of the world by natural circulation of wind called as Polar Vertex.

CFCs released in the atmosphere slowly enters the stratosphere and wind push them towards the poles. Environmental conditions prevailing in Antarctica during winter months are conductive for the formation of ozone hole.

During winter months, lack of sunlight and low temperature facilitates the formation of ice clouds, which provide the catalytic surface for the reaction of chlorine.

Effect of Ultraviolet Rays

1. UV-B radiations are very harmful.Coronea of eye absorbs these radiations and becomes inflamed. This disorder is known as ‘snow blindness’ cataract and leads to diminishing of eye sight.
2. UV-B radiations damage skin cells and cause skin cancer.

Question 4.
Discuss the role of women and communities in protection and conservation of forests.
Answer:
Women and tribal communities have played a significant role in protection and conservation of forests. Amritha devi Devi Bishnoi Wild Lide Protection Award, has instituted by government of India for individuals and rural communities for their contribution in protection of wild life.

In 1731, a woman Amritha Devi showed exemplary courage by hugging a tree to prevent its cutting. Her three daughters and hundreds of other Bishnoi followed her. They were killed by soldiers of Jodhpur.

Question 5.
What measures, as ah individual, you would like to reduce environmental pollution?
Answer:

1. I will use those articles which are either disposable or can be recycled.
2. I would help in tree plantation in my school and surroundings.
3. I will minimize the use of fossil fuels.

Plus Two Botany Environmental Issues Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The maximum biological magnification of DDT through food web is seen in.
(a) Bacteria
(b) Algae
(c) Man
(d) Higher plants
Answer:
(c) Man

Question 2.
Eutrophication leads to death of fish due to
(a) Increased O₂ content
(b) Increased algae content
(c) Decreased algae content
(d) Decreased O₂ content
Answer:
(d) Decreased O₂ content

Question 3.
Match the following:-

(a) 1 – d, 2 – c,  3 – b, 4 – a
(b) 1 – a, 2 – d,  3 – c,  4 – b
(c) 1 – a, 2 – b,  3 – c,  4 – d
(d) 1 – c, 2 – d,  3 – a, 4 – b
Answer:
(c) 1 – a, 2 – b,  3 – c,  4 – d

Question 4.
Nitrogen oxides produced from the emission of automobiles and power plants are the source of fine air borne particles which lead to
(a) photochemical smog
(b) dry acid deposition
(c) industrial smog
(d) wet acid deposition
Answer:
(d) wet acid deposition

Question 5.
Drinking of mineral water with very low level of pesticides (about 0.02 ppm) For long periods may
(a) produce immunity against mosquito
(b) cause leukemia (blood cancer) in
(c) cause cancer of the intestine
(d) lead to accumulation of pesticide residues in body fat
Answer:
(d) lead to accumulation of pesticide residues in body fat

Question 6.
The soil pollutants that affect the food chain and food web by killing microorganisms and plants are
(a) nitrogen oxides
(b) pathogens chemical fertilizers
(c) agricultural waste
(d) pesticides
Answer:
(d) pesticides

Question 7.
In a coal-fired power plant, electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of
(a) SO
(b) NOX
(c) SPM
(d) CO
Answer:
(c) SPM

Question 8.
Green-house effect is due to the presence of
(a) ozone layer in the atmosphere
(b) moisture layer in the atmosphere
(c) CO₂ layer in the atmosphere
(d) infrared light reaching the earth
Answer:
(c) CO₂ layer in the atmosphere

Question 9.
Which one of the following pairs pf organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
(a) Ficusreligiosa, Lantana camara
(b) Lantana camara, water hyacinth
(c) water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
(d) Nile perch, Ficusreligiosa
Answer:
(b) Lantana camara, water hyacinth

Question 10.
A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
(a) drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
(b) an increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients
(c) death of fish due to lake of oxygen
(d) increased population of aquatic food web organisms
Answer:
(c) death of fish due to lake of oxygen

Question 11.
A substantial fall in C02 and S02 level has been found in Delhi between 1997 and 2005 due to
(a) use of purified, unleaded petrol
(b) use of purified, unleaded diesel
(c) use of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) in public transports
(d) use of LiquifiedPetroleam Gas (LPG) in public transports
Answer:
(c) use of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) in public transports

Question 12.
Electrostatic precipitator is used to remove
(a) CO
(b) particulate matter
(c) lead
(d) secondary pollutant
Answer:
(b) particulate matter

Question 13.
CNG is used to control
(a) water pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) radioactive pollution
(d) thermal pollution
Answer:
(b) air pollution

Question 14.
Major pollutant present in automobile exhaust is
(a) lead
(b) CO
(c) CO₂
(d) hydrocarbon
Answer:
(b) CO

Question 15.
If there is no green house gases present in an atmosphere, the average temperature of earth surface is
(a) 100c
(b) 1000 c
(c) 00 c
(d) -150 c
Answer:
(d) -150 c

Question 16.
Deforestation activities and forest fires leads to the rise in global temperature, it is due to
(a) increase in CO level
(b) decrease in CO level
(c) increase in CO₂ level
(d) decrease in CO₂ level
Answer:
(c) increase in CO₂ level

Question 17.
A geing of lake is mainly caused by the accumulation of nutrients such as
(a) N₂ & P
(b) N₂ & P
(c) P & Ca
(d) Ca & N₂
Answer:
(b) N₂ & P

Question 18.
Appearance of hole in strato spheric ozone layer is caused by the emission of green gases, it is due to the reaction between
(a) O₃ and Cl
(b) O₃ and F
(c) O₂ and F
(d) O₂ and Cl
Answer:
(a) O₃ and Cl

Question 19.
The pollutant that seriously affect the marble monuments mainly contains the chemical have the nature is
(a) acidic
(b) basic
(c) neutral
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) acidic

Question 20.
Chlorinated hydrocarbons enters through one trophic level and its concentration is increased as ppm in successive trophic levels, its nature is
(a) biodegradable
(b) non biodegradable
(c) degradable on combustion
(d) not degradable on combustion
Answer:
(b) non biodegradable

Question 21.
Increase in noise level above particular dB affect the hearing abilities, that is
(a) 20 dB
(b) 60 dB
(c) 80 dB
(d) 150dB
Answer:
(d) 150dB

Students can Download Chapter 11 Marketing Management Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Marketing Management

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It begins even before production of goods and continues even after the sale has taken place. Identify it.
Answer:
Marketing

Question 2.
Modern Marketing Concept Consist of ………………………………
Answer:
Customer satisfaction

Question 3.
Main focus of production concept of marketing is: …………………………
Answer:
Quantity/number of products

Question 4.
means putting identification marks on the package.
Answer:
Labelling

Question 5.
“Mousy cola” a soft drink company used ‘Apple’ as their symbol for advertisement. They duly registered the symbol as per the Act. Identify the symbol as …………….
Answer:
Trademark

Question 6.
When a brand gets registerd and legalized it is called
(a) Branding
(b) Trademark
(c) Copyright
(d) Label
Answer:
(b) Trademark

Question 7.
Setting up of standards or specification of a product and maintaining these standards are ………….
Answer:
Standardisation

Question 8.
“Grand Kerala shopping festival” is concerned with which of the promotion techniques?
(a) Publicity
(b) Advertising
(c) Sales promotion
(d) Personal selling
Answer:
(c) Sales promotion

Question 9.
During Gnam season Khadi Board declared 20% reduction on all its product. This technique is known as ……..
(a) Refund
(b) Free gift
(c) Rebate
(d) Samples
Answer:
(c) Rebate

Question 10.
Which of the following is not included in the sales promotion technique.
(a) Coupon
(b) Samples
(c) Fair and exhibition
(d) Personal selling
Answer:
(d) Personal selling

Question 11.
Face to face interaction between the seller and the prospective buyer for the purpose of making a sale is …………
(a) Promotion
(b) Public Relations
(c) Personal Selling
(d) Grape – Vine Communication
Answer:
(c) Personal Selling

Question 12.
Identify four P’s in marketing mix.
Answer:

1. Product
2. Price
3. Place and
4. Promotion

Question 13.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:
Price, Promotion

Question 14.
Nonpersonal paid form of sales promotion technique is ………………
(Advertising, Personal Selling, Trade, Marketing)
Answer:
Advertisement

Question 15.
Nonpersonal non paid form of sales promotion technique is …………
Answer:
Publicity

Question 16.
which is not a method of publicity?
(a) News
(b) Medias
(c) Conferences
(d) Exhibitions
Answer:
(d) Exhibitions

Question 17.
Rebate, discount, free gift, etc. are the examples of …………..
Answer:
Sales promotion techniques

Question 18.
Offering more quantity than the quantity recorded in package is called …………
Answer:
Quantity gift

Question 19.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 20.
What is meant by ‘place’ in marketing mix?
Answer:
Distribution channel, Physical distribution

Question 21.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:
Publicity, Sales promotion

Question 22.
Compensation provided by the buyer to the seller is called ………………….
Answer:
Price

Question 23.
Intermediaries in channel of distribution are given below. Draw appropriate channel.
(a) Producer
(b) Agent
(c) Wholesaler
(d) Retailer
(e) Consume

1. Zero level channel
2. One level channel
3. Two level channel
4. Three level channel

Answer:

1. a → e
2. a → d → e
3. a → c → d → e
4. a → b → c → d → e

Question 24.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:
Warehousing, Inventory control

Question 25.
What are the different layers of packages?

Answer:

1. Primary package
2. Secondary package
3. Transportation package

Question 26.
Which is not suitable for good brand name?
(a) It is easy to read and speak.
(b) Similar to existing brand names.
(c) Can be written in various languages.
(d) It can be registered as trademark.
Answer:
(b) Similar to existing brand names

Question 27.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) Trademark – Registered brand
(b) Brand name – ……………….
(c) Brand mark – ……………….
Answer:
(b) Indicate the product name
(c) Symbol or word or combination of both which indicate a product.

Question 28.
Make suitable pairs from the following.
(a) Production concept – (a) Quality products
(b) Product concept – (b) Sales promotion techniques
(c) Sales concept – (c) Customer satisfaction
(d) Marketing concept – (d) Maximum production
Answer:
(a) Production concept – (d) Maximum production
(b) Product concept – (a) Quality products
(c) Sales concept – (b) Sales promotion techniques
(d) Marketing concept – (c) Customer satisfaction

Question 29.
Differentiate the given concepts in an appropriate way.

Answer:

Question 30.
Buying a product by spending a lot of time and effort is called ………………..
Answer:
Speciality products

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 31.
Explain the concept of ‘Market’.
Answer:
Market: It refers to a place where the buyers and sellers meet each other for sale and purchase of the commodity.

Question 32.
Define Marketing.
Answer:
Marketing:
Marketing may be defined as all activities that are facilitating the movement of goods and services from producer to the ultimate consumer.

Question 33.
What do you mean by Marketing Mix?
Answer:
Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Question 34.
Super Bakers intended to introduce a new brand of Bread in the market. Lists out the factors to be taken into account while deciding the labelling of the product.
Answer:
Labelling means putting identification marks on the package. It is a simple tag attached to the product.
Functions of Labelling:

1. It describes the product, its usage, cautions in use, etc. and specify its contents.
2. It helps in identifying the product.
3. It helps grading the products into different categories.
4. It helps in promotion of products.
5. It provides information required by law.

Question 35.
Distinguish between advertisement and publicity.
Answer:

Question 36.
Write a short note on

1. Consumer goods
2. Industrial goods

Answer:
1. Consumers’ products:
Products, which are purchased by the ultimate consumers for satisfying their personal needs and wants are referred to as consumer products. Consumer products are classified as:

• Shopping efforts involved
• Durability of products

2. Industrial Products:
Industrial products are those products, which are used as inputs in producing other products. The examples of such products are raw materials, engines, lubricants, machines, tools, etc.
Types of industrial products:

1. Materials and Parts – These include goods that enter the manufacture’s products completely.
2. Capital Items – These goods are used in the production of finished goods.
3. Supplies and Business Services – These are short lasting goods and services that facilitate developing or managing the finished product.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 37.
Customer is the King in the Modern concept of marketing. Explain.
Answer:
According to modem marketing concept, the producer gives more importance to the tastes and needs of the consumer. The objective of modem marketing is maximum profit through consumer satisfaction. Now a days, producers produce products according to the needs of the customers. Consumer is the key to marketing and hence consumer is the king.

Question 38.

1. What do you mean by Product Mix?
2. Explain its elements.

Answer:
1. Product:
Product may be defined as anything that can be offered to a market to satisfy a want or need. Products may broadly be classified into two categories.
2. Elements:

• Consumers products
• Industrial products

Question 39.
Why Packaging is called as a silent salesman?
Answer:
Packaging is called as a silent salesman because attractive packing encourages people to buy a product just like a salesman.

Question 40.
Explain promotion mix.
Answer:
Promotion Mix:
Promotion mix refers to combination of promotional tools such as Advertising, Personal Selling, Sales Promotion, and Publicity used by an organisation to achieve its communication objectives.

Question 41.

1. What do you mean by Public Relation?
2. State any three features of public relations.

Answer:
1. Public Relation:
It can be defined as publicity through media. The basic purpose of public relation is to create successful relation with the public. It helps to keep different public group satisfied. In order to create public image, the public relation department uses various tools such as.

2. Features of public relations:

• News
• Speeches
• Events
• Written materials
• Public service activities, etc.

Question 42.
‘‘Marketing Mix represents a blending of decisions in four interrelated elements.” Explain.
Answer:
Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 43.
In a classroom debate ‘Smitha’ argues that marketing and selling are same. But ‘Sujith’ argues that marketing and selling are different.

1. Whose argument is relevant?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Sujith’s argument is correct.
2. Marketing and selling are different. The differences between marketing and selling are

Question 44.
There are four elements which constitute the core of a marketing system.

1. Suggest a suitable term to describe those elements.
2. Explain any three elements.

Answer:
1. Marketing mix
2. Marketing Mix: It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Elements / 4 P’s of Marketing Mix:
1. Product:
Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market for sale. The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.

2. Price:
Price is the amount of money paid by the customers to pay to obtain the product. In most of the products, price affects the demand of the products. Desired profits, cost of production, competition, demands, etc. must be considered before fixing the price of a product.

3. Place:
Place or Physical Distribution includes activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers, storage, warehousing and transportation of goods from the place of production to the place of consumption.

4. Promotion:
Promotion includes activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. It includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity to promote the sale of products.

Question 45.
“It rightly says that packaging works as silent salesman”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Packaging is the process of enclosing a product in containers, bottles, boxes, plastic bags, tubes, etc. Packaging protects the product from spoilage, breakage, leakage, etc. while goods in transit or storing in warehouses.

Functions of packaging:

• Packaging helps in identification of the products.
• Packaging protects the product from spoilage, breakage, leakage, etc.
• It facilitates easy transfer of goods to customers.
• Packaging provides convenience in the storage of the product.
• It attracts the consumers to purchase the product.

Question 46.
These are various channel levels which help in the proper distribution of goods from the producers to the consumers. Identify the channel levels.
Answer:
Types of Channels:

1. Direct channel (Zero level): Producer → Consumer
2. One level channel: Producer → Retailer → Consumer
3. Two level channel: Producer → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer
4. Three level channel: Producer → Agent → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer

Question 47.

1. What do you mean by Physical distribution?
2. Explain its components.

Answer:
1. Physical Distribution:
Physical distribution covers all the activities required to physically move goods from manufacturers to the customers.

2. Components of Physical Distribution:

• Order Processing
• Transportation
• Warehousing
• Inventory Control

Question 48.
What are the features of Salesmanship?
Answer:
Personal Selling:
Personal selling involves face to face contact between the seller and prospective customer with an intension of selling some products. It is a personal form of communication.

Features of Personal Selling:

1. It is a direct presentation of the product to the consumers.
2. Develop personal relationships with the prospective customers.
3. The sales presentation can be adjusted according to the specific needs of the individual customers.
4. It is possible to take a direct feedback from the customer.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 49.
Explain different concepts of marketing.
Answer:
Marketing Concepts:
1. The Production Concept:
This concept believed that profits could be maximised by producing at large scale, thereby reducing the cost of production. Here greater emphasis was given on improving the production and distribution.

2. The Product Concept:
According to this concept quality of the product is more important than quantity. Product improvement became the key to profit maximisation of a firm, under the concept of product orientation.

3. The Selling Concept:
This concept focuses on the sale of products through aggressive selling and promotional techniques to persuade the buyers to buy the products.

4. The Marketing Concept:
Marketing concept implies that focus on the satisfaction of customer’s needs is the key to the success of any organisation in the market. Customer’s satisfaction becomes the focal point of all decision making in the organisation.

5. The Societal Marketing Concept:
This concept stresses not only the customer satisfaction but also gives importance to the welfare of the society.

Question 50.
Following are the statements pertaining to functions performed in marketing. Identify the function of marketing from each statement.

1. Physical movement of goods from one place to another.
2. Holding goods from the time of production till the time of their sale.
3. Collection and analysis of relevant facts to solve marketing problems.
4. This includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity.
5. Separating products into different classes on the basis of certain predetermined standards.

Answer:

1. Transportation
2. Warehousing
3. Marketing research
4. Sales Promotion
5. Grading

Question 51.
Give any 6 advantages of branding
Answer:
Advantages of branding:
1. Advantages to the Firm

• Branding helps a firm in distinguishing its product from that of its competitors.
• It helps in advertising and display Programmes.
• Branding enables a firm to charge competitive price for its products than that charged by its competitors.
• It helps in Introduction of new product in the market.

2. Advantages to Customers

• Branding helps the customers in identifying the products.
• Branding ensures a particular level of quality of the product.
• Some brands become status symbols because of their quality. It creates a feeling of proud and satisfaction in the consumers.

Question 52.
Explain the difference between Personal selling and Advertising.
Answer:
Difference between Personal Selling and Advertising

Question 53.
List down the difference between Marketing and Selling.
Answer:

Question 54.
What are the factors affecting price of a product?
Answer:
Factors Affecting Price Determination:
1. Product Cost:
One of the most important factors affecting price of a product or service is its cost of production and distribution. Fixed Costs, Variable Costs and Semi- Variable Costs are to be considered for determining the price.

2. Demand:
The price of a product is affected by the elasticity of demand of the product. If the demand of a product is inelastic, the firm is in a better position to fix higher prices.

3. Competition:
Competitors’ prices and their anticipated reactions must be considered before fixing the price of a product. In case of high competition, it is desirable to keep price low.

4. Government and Legal Regulations:
In order to protect the interest of public against unfair practices, prices of some essential products are regulated by the government underthe Essential Commodities Act., e.g. Medicines.

5. Pricing Objectives:
Another important factor affecting the fixation of price of a product is pricing objectives, e.g. maximisation of profit, market share, etc.

Question 55.
What are the limitations of advertising?
Answer:
Disadvantages / Objections to Advertising:

• Advertisement encourages consumers to buy unwanted goods.
• Most of the advertisements are misleading.
• Advertisement may lead to monopoly of a brand.
• Advertisement is a costly affair. So, ultimately it increases the price of the product.
• Advertisement persuades people to purchase even the interior products.
• It undermines social and ethical values.

Question 56.
“Marketing Mix means a firm’s total marketing programme”.

1. Discuss the components that you would consider while finalizing marketing mix of an organisation.
2. Explain its importance.

Answer:
1. Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

2. Elements / 4 P’s of Marketing Mix:
1. Product:
Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market for sale. The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.

2. Price:
Price is the amount of money paid by the customers to pay to obtain the product. In most of the products, price affects the demand of the products. Desired profits, cost of production, competition, demands, etc. must be considered before fixing the price of a product.

3. Place:
Place or Physical Distribution includes activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers, storage, warehousing and transportation of goods from the place of production to the place of consumption.

4. Promotion:
Promotion includes activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. It includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity to promote the sale of products.

Question 57.
Jyoythi Ltd., a manufacturer of leather bag, has decided to undertake production of leather shoes. As a sample, they produced one model of ladies shoe. Suppose you are the marketing manager of the company and are entrusted with the task of fixing the. price for the shoes. What are the factors to be considered by you while fixing the price of this new pair of shoes.
Answer:
Factors Affecting Price Determination:
1. Product Cost:
One of the most important factors affecting price of a product or service is its cost of production and distribution. Fixed Costs, Variable Costs and Semi- Variable Costs are to be considered for determining the price.

2. Demand:
The price of a product is affected by the elasticity of demand of the product. If the demand of a product is inelastic, the firm is in a better position to fix higher prices.

3. Competition:
Competitors’ prices and their anticipated reactions must be considered before fixing the price of a product. In case of high competition, it is desirable to keep price low.

4. Government and Legal Regulations:
In order to protect the interest of public against unfair practices, prices of some essential products are regulated by the government under the Essential Commodities Act., e.g. Medicines.

5. Pricing Objectives:
Another important factor affecting the fixation of price of a product is pricing objectives, e.g. maximisation of profit, market share, etc.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 58.
“The present day marketing is customer oriented . rather than product oriented”. Explain the statement bringing out clearly the nature and objectives of marketing management.
Answer:
Marketing:
Marketing may be defined as all activities that are facilitating the movement of goods and services from producer to the ultimate consumer.

Functions of Marketing:
1. Marketing Research:
Marketing Research is a process of collecting and analysing market information to identify the needs and wants of the customers.

2. Marketing Planning:
Another function of marketing is to develop appropriate marketing plans so that the marketing objectives of the organisation can be achieved.

3. Product Designing and Development:
The products are designed and developed according to the needs and wants of the consumers. It requires decision making on various aspects such as the product to be manufactured, its packing, selling price, quality of the product, etc.

4. Standardisation and Grading:
Standardisation refers to producing goods of predetermined specifications. Grading is the process of classification of products into different groups, on the basis of quality, size, etc.

5. Packaging and Labelling:
Packaging refers to designing and developing the package for the products. Packaging gives protection to goods. Also it attracts the consumers to buy the product. Labelling refers to designing and developing the label to be put on the package.

6. Branding:
A brand is a name, term, sign, symbol, design or some combination of them, used to identify the products of one seller and to differentiate them from those of the competitors.

7. Customer Support Services:
An important function of the marketing management is to develop customer support services such as after sales services, handling customer complaints, etc. which provides maximum satisfaction to the customers.

8. Pricing:
Price of a product refers to the amount of money which customers have to pay to obtain a product. Price is an important factor affecting the success or failure of a product in the market. Price is fixed after taking into account the cost of production, desired profit, competitor’s price, govt, policy, etc.

9. Promotion:
Promotion of products and services involves informing the customers about the firm’s product, its features, etc. and persuading them to purchase these products. It includes Advertising, Personal Selling, Publicity and Sales Promotion.

10. Physical Distribution:
It includes decision regarding channels of distribution and physical movement of the product from the production centre to the consumption centre.

11. Transportation:
Transportation involves physical movement of goods from one place to another. It removes the hindrance of place and creates time utility.

12. Storage or Warehousing:
In order to maintain smooth flow of products in the market, there is a need for proper storage of the products. It stabilizes the prices of products and keep the product without damage until they are sold.

Question 59.
The manager of Impact Enterprises dealing in cosmetics is facing the problem, of poor sales. Suggest and explain the important promotional measures that he can undertake to improve the sales.
Answer:
Techniques of Sales Promotion:

1. Rebate: Offering products at special prices, to clear off excess inventory.
2. Discount: Offering products at less than maximum retail price.
3. Refund: The seller offers to refund a part of the price paid by the customer on production of some proof of purchase.
4. Free gifts: Offering another product as gift along with the purchase of a product.
5. Quantity Gift: Offering extra quantity of the product.
6. Contests: Prize contests are organized for the consumers and winners are given attractive prizes.
7. Money refund: There are certain manufacturers who promise to refund the price of the product, if it does not satisfy the consumer.
8. Samples: Offer of free samples of a product to customers at the time of introduction of a new product.

Question 60.
“Money spent on advertising is wasteful”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reasons for your answer.

Answer:
Merits of Advertising:
1. Advantages to Manufacturers and Traders:

1. Advertising helps in introducing new products.
2. It stimulates the consumers to purchase the new products.
3. Advertisement helps to increase the sales of new and existing products.
4. It helps to increase the goodwill of the firm.
5. It helps to face the competition in the market.
6. It increases profit of the firm through large sales.

2. Advantages to Consumers:

• It helps the consumers to know about the various products and their prices.
• Consumers can purchase the better products easily.
• It helps in maintaining high standard of living.
• It educates the consumers about the various uses of products.

3. Advantages to the Society:

1. Advertisement helps to create more employment opportunities.
2. It provides an important source of income to the press, radio, T.V., etc.
3. It is a source of encouragement to artists.
4. It plays an important role in economic development of the country.
5. It reduces number of middlemen and consumers get quality products at lower cost.

Disadvantages / Objections to Advertising:

• Advertisement encourages consumers to buy unwanted goods.
• Most of the advertisements are misleading.
• Advertisement may lead to mono poly of a brand.
• Advertisement is a costly affair. So, ultimately it increases the price of the product.
• Advertisement persuades people to purchase even the interior products.
• It undermines social and ethical values.

Students can Download Chapter 3 Business Environment Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Business Environment

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify the factor which comes under social environment of a business. (Tax rates, Labour laws, Demographic features, political).
Answer:
Demographic features.

Question 2.
Growing consumerism is
Answer:
Social Environment.

Question 3.
Pick out the factors which do not form part of economic environment of a business firm. (Degree of competition, Customs, and traditions, Business cycle, Capital market)
Answer:
Customs and traditions.

Question 4.
‘Disinvestment’ comes under environment.
Answer:
Economic Environment.

Question 5.
Name the process which makes a detailed analysis about the business environment.
Answer:
Environmental Scanning.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an example of social environment?
(a) Money supply in the economy
(b) Consumer Protection Act
(c) The Constitution of the country
(d) Composition of family
Answer:
(d) Composition of family

Question 7.
Liberalisation means
(a) Integration among economies
(b) Reduced government controls and restrictions
(c) Policy of planned disinvestments
(d) None of them
Answer:
(b) Reduced government controls and restrictions.

Question 8.
Which among the following is not a component of the economic environment?
(a) Economic system
(b) Stability of government
(c) Interest rates and tax rates
(d) Foreign trade balance
Answer:
(b) Stability of government

Question 9.
Which among the following is not a component of social environment?
(a) Attitude of people
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Educational system
(d) Employment rate
Answer:
(d) Employment rate

Question 10.
Pick out the factor which does not form part of the economic environment of a business firm.
(a) tax rate
(b) disinvestment
(c) internet banking
(d) economic policy
Answer:
(c) internet banking

Question 11.
Pick out the factors which do not form part of social environment of a business firm.
(a) Degree of competition
(b) Customs & traditions
(c) Business cycle
(d) Demographic distribution
(i) a & b (ii) b & c (iii) b & d (iv) a & c
Answer:
(iv) a & c.

Question 12.
There are a number of legislations which regulate the day to day operations of business in India.

1. Identify the type of environment referred in this context.
2. Name any 2 legislations which regulate the business activities.

Answer:
1. Legal Environment
2. Two legislations which regulate the business activities:

• Trade Marks Act 1968
• Essential Commodities Act 1955

Question 13.
Which of the following business environment affects the growth of IT industry in Ernakulam?
(a) Social environment
(b) Technological environment
(c) Political environment
(d) Legal environment
Answer:
(b) Technological environment

Question 14.
Identify the factor which does not come under the economic environment of business.
(a) Inflation rate
(b) Employment rate
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Infrastructure facilities
Answer:
(c) Literacy rate

Question 15.
Identify the type of environmental change in the following case “Digital camera in place of film cameras.”
Answer:
Technological environment

Question 16.
Find the odd one.
(a) Unstable Government
(b) Import-Export policy
(c) Taxation Policy
(d) Licencing Policy
Answer:
(a) Unstable Government

Question 17.
Find the odd one out.
lifestyles, tradition, culture, disinvestment
Answer:
disinvestment.

Question 18.
Granting autonomy of operations to the private sector and foreign companies is called
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 19.
The process by which an organization monitors its environment is called
Answer:
Environment Scanning.

Question 20.
environment consists of new approaches to production.
Answer:
Technological environment.

Question 21.
environment describes the characteristics of society.
Answer:
Social Environment

Question 22.
Find the odd one among the following
(a) Industrial & Labour Laws
(b) Consumer Organisation
(c) Commercial Laws
(d) Constitutional provision
Answer:
(b) Consumer Organisation

Question 23.
“In this modern era it has become possible to book railway tickets through Internet from home, office, etc” Identify the environment.
Answer:
Technological environment

Question 24.
The present nuclear family system totally changed our lifestyle. Moreover, women’s liberation movements have added to the freedom of women in society. Identify the business environment referred to in this context.
Answer:
Social Environment.

Question 25.
On November 1, 2008, Reserve Bank of India reduced the cash reserve ratio to 5.5% to improve the availability of credit. Identify the environment to which it relates.
Answer:
Economic Environment.

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Liberalisation?
Answer:
Liberalisation:
Liberalization of economy means to free it from direct control imposed by the government. Liberalisation of the Indian industry has taken place with respect to the following.

1. Abolishing licensing requirement in most of the industries
2. Freedom in deciding the scale of business activities
3. Removal of restrictions on the movement of goods and services
4. Freedom in fixing the prices of goods and services
5. Reduction in tax rates
6. Simplifying procedures for imports and exports
7. Attract foreign capital and technology to India.

Question 2.
Explain the two methods of Privatisation.
Answer:
Privatisation:
Privatisation means transfer of the public sector enterprises to the private sector. The role of private sector is encouraged. This can be done in two ways.

1. Disinvestment of a part of the shares held by the government in public sector units,
2. Dereservatiion of areas formerly reserved for the public sector.

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw a diagram showing the dimensions of the Business environment.
Answer:

Question 2.
Mr. Babu Raj, an engineering graduate who wants to know the factors of legal environment approaches you. Give him an idea about the legal environment affecting business.
Answer:
A business has to work within the framework of the legal systems of the country. Legal environment includes the Acts that have been passed by the Parliament and State Legislature. The important laws that affect business include The Contract Act, Companies Act, Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Essential Commodities Act, etc.

Question 3.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization:
Globalisation means the integration of the various economies of the world-leading towards the emergence of a cohesive global economy. Features of Globalisation:

1. Free flow of goods and services across nations
2. Free flow of capital across nations
3. Free flow of information and technology
4. Free movement of people across borders

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following factors of business environment under appropriate heads.

1. Attitude of People
2. Economic Policies
3. Acts and Laws
4. Information Technology

Answer:

Question 2.
“Understanding family lifestyle and customs is important for the food processing industries”.

1. Observe this statement and identify the type of business environment referred to this context.
2. State its significance in business.

Answer:
1. Social environment.

2. Social environment:
The social factors include attitude of people, cultural heritage, customs and beliefs of people, literacy rate, educational system, demographic distribution, etc. The socio-cultural environment very much influences the business to follow a code of conduct. A business concern must understand the society in its various dimensions for its success.

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following environmental factors into Economic, Social and Legal factors.

1. Tax Rates
2. Labour Laws
3. Level of Education
4. Human Rights
5. Foreign Trade
6. Demographic Composition
7. Liberalisation
8. Customs and Belief
9. trademark

Answer:

Question 2.
“It is the forces outside the control of a business”

1. What is it?
2. List out the importance of such forces.

Answer:
1. Identification of opportunities:
Environment provides numerous opportunities for business success. Early identification of opportunities helps an enterprise to be the first to exploit them.

2. Identification of threats:
Environmental awareness help managers to identify various threats on time and serves as an early warning signal.

3. Tapping useful resources:
Business environment helps to know the availability of resources and making them available on time.

4. Coping with rapid changes:
Environmental scanning enables the firms to adapt themselves to the changes in the market.

5. Assistance in planning and policy formulation:
Environmental understanding and analysis is the basis for planning and policymaking.

6. Improving performance:
Environment scanning helps an organisation in improving its performance

Question 3.
“The success of a business depends on correctly forecasting the environmental factors.”

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain its importance

Answer:
1. Yes. The business environment refers to the totality of all factors which are external and beyond the control of business enterprise.

2. The importance of Business Environment are:
a. Identification of opportunities:
Environment provides numerous opportunities for business success. Early identification of opportunities helps an enterprise to be the first to exploit them.

b. Identification of threats:
Environmental awareness help managers to identify various threats on time and serves as an early warning signal.

c. Tapping useful resources:
Business environment helps to know the availability of resources and making them available on time.

d. Coping with rapid changes:
Environmental. scanning enables the firms to adapt themselves to the changes in the market.

e. Assistance in planning and policy formulation:
Environmental understanding and analysis is the basis for planning and policymaking.

f. Improving performance:
Environment scanning helps an organisation in improving its performance

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Identify the various environmental factors influencing the operations of a company in your locality.
2. Also, classify them and present in a suitable diagram.

Answer:

1. Economic Environment:
Interest rates, inflation rates, changes in disposable income of people, stock market indices and the value of rupee are some of the economic factors that can affect the business enterprise.

2. Social Environment:
The social environment of business includes social forces like customs and traditions, values, social trends, literacy rate, educational levels, lifestyle, etc.

3. Technological Environment:
Technological environment consists of new products, new technologies, new approaches to product, new methods, and equipment, etc.

4. Political Environment:
Political environment includes constitution, political parties, and their ideology, types of govt., political stability, attitude towards business, etc,

5. Legal Environment:
Legal environment includes various legislations passed by the central, state or local governments.

Question 2.
List out the impact of Government policy changes in business and industry.
Answer:
Impact of Government Policy Changes on Business and Industry:
The government policy of liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation has made a definite impact on the working of enterprises in business and industry in terms of the following.

1. Competition for Indian firms has increased.
2. The customer’s wider choice in purchasing better quality of goods and services.
3. Rapid technological advancement has changed/ improved the production process.
4. Enterprises are forced to continuously modify their operations.
5. Need for Developing Human Resources arise.
6. There is a shift from production oriented concept to market oriented concept.

Students can Download Chapter 7 Ecosystem Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Ecosystem

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The 10% law is associated with an important function of an ecosystem is
(a) Productivity
(b) Nutrient cycling
(c) Decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels
(d) Increases the calorific value in successive trophic levels.
Answer:
(c) Decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels

Question 2.
In the second step of trophic level, the energy storage is primarily associated with
(a) gross primary productivity
(b) net primary productivity
(c) secondary productivity
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) secondary productivity

Question 3.
If the energy storage at second trophic level is 4000 KJ what is the energy level of primary and secondary carnivore?
Answer:
In primary carnivore level the energy storage is 400 KJ while in second carnivore level it is 40 KJ.

Question 4.
Give an example for gaseous and sedimentary cycle
Answer:

• Gaseous cycle -Nitrogen cycle
• Sedimentary cycle – Phosphorus cycle

Question 5.
Which is the community next to lichen that occur in xerarch succession.
Answer:
Moss stage

Question 6.
In food chain transfer of energy takes place from one tropic level to the next is
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 7.
The second trophic level in a lake is………….
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Answer:
(b) Zooplankton

Question 8.
Food chain in which microorganisms breakdown the food formed by primary producers
(a) Parasitic food chain
(b) Detritus food chain
(c) Consumerfoodcahin
(d) Predator food cahin
Answer:
(b) Detritus food chain

Question 9.
What is true of ecosystem?
(a) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers
(b) Primary consumers out number producers
(c) Producers are more than primary consumers
(d) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerfull
Answer:
(c) Producers are more than primary consumers

Question 10.
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) The base of the energy pyramid contains the largest trophic level.
(b) About 10% of energy available in food is actually incorporated into any trophic level.
(c) Humans are at the top of energy pyramids.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
The energy pyramid is always upright because the energy content
(a) decreases in successive trophic levels
(b) increases in successive trophic levels
(c) increases from the base to the top
(d) decreases from primary consumer to secondary consumer only
Answer:
(a) decreases in successive trophic levels

Question 12.
Which one of the following is not coming under decomposition
(a) catabolism
(b) anabolism
(c) mineralization
(d) the surface area of detritus increases
Answer:
(b) anabolism

Question 13.
Most useful step of decomposition for plants is
(a) mineralization
(b) catabolism
(c) humification
(d) fragmentation of detritus
Answer:
(a) mineralization

Question 14.
Food chains are not always linear, it is branched in some steps. Name the network of food chains.
Answer:
The network of the food chain is called food web.

Question 15.
The biotic community along with physical environment forms an interacting system called………..
Answer:
Ecosystem

Question 16.
If the energy storage at second trophic level is 4000 KJ what is the energy level of primary and secondary carnivore?
Answer:
In primary carnivore level the energy storage is 400 KJ while in second carnivore level it is 40 KJ.

Question 17.
Cite an example of an inverted ecological pyramid.
Answer:
Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem & pyramid of biomass in sea ecosystem is inverted.

Question 18.
Which among the following equation is related with net primary productivity?
(a) GPP + R = NPP
(b) NPP + GPP = R
(c) GPP – R = NPP
(d) R + R = GPP
Answer:
(c) GPP-R = NPP

Question 19.
Find out the stage given below which is not included in hydrarch succession.
(a) Forest
(b) Phytoplanktons
(c) Lichens
(d) Marsh-Meadow
Answer:
(c) Lichens

Question 20.
Which among the following decomposers.
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Saprotrophs
(c) Heterotrophs
(d) Herbivores
Answer:
(b) Saprotrophs

Question 21.
Which one of the following is a primary consumer in an aquatic ecosystem.
(a) Phytoplanktons
(b) Aquatic birds
(c) Zooplanktons
(d) Large Fishes
Answer:
(d) Zooplanktons

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
GPP-R= NPP is an equation indicating productivity. Illustrate the terms denoted in the equation.
Answer:
GPP is the gross primary productivity which is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. R- is the respiration loses which is the amount of GPP utilized by plants in respiration. NPP is the available biomass for the consumption to hetrotrophs. (Herbivores and Decomposers).

Question 2.
Decomposition is the breakdown of complex organic matter into inorganic substances like C0₂, Water, etc.

1. Identify the gas which is most essential for decomposition.
2. Find out any two conditions which inhibit decomposition.

Answer:

1. Oxygen
2. Low temperature Anaerobiosis

Question 3.
Vast area of vegetation is destroyed mostly by fires and it results in clearing of lush vegetation. How long it takes to re-form climax community. Name the process is related in the above case.
Answer:
Time taken is about 50-100 years in case of a grassland and about 100-200 years for a forest. Secondary succession.

Question 4.
Healthy ecosystems are the base for a wide range of goods and services. Find out any four ecosystem services provided by a healthy forest ecosystem.
Answer:

1. Purify air and water
2. Mitigate drought and floods
3. Cycling of nutrients
4. Generate fertile soils

Question 5.
Differentiate between Standing state and Standing Crop.
Answer:
1. Standing crop
The amount of living material present in each trophic level.

2. Standing state
The amount of nutrients like carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, etc present in the soil at a given time.

Question 6.
Distinguish between Grazing food chain and Detritus food chain.
Answer:
1. Grazing food chain
It starts with producers. In aquatic ecosystem major fraction of energy flow take place through GFCthan DFC.

2. Detritus food chain
It starts with detritus. In terrestrial ecosystem major fraction of energy flow take place through DFC than GFC.

Question 7.
Xerarch succession is mainly occurs in desert conditions

1. Name the pioneefspecies on a bare rock.
2. How do pioneer species help in establishing the next type of vegetation.

Answer:

1. Lichens
2. They secrete carbonic acid and dissolve rocks. This process forms soil to help growth of mosses.

Question 8.
Energy flow is always unidirectional, never return back. Do you agree. Give the justification of your answer.
Answer:
Yes. The flow of energy is based on thermodynamic laws.lt starts from producers and flows through successive trophiclevels, The efficiency of energy transfer from one trophic level to the next is 10%.

Question 9.
A Volcano erupted in Hawaii, and lava covered land that had been framed for centuries. Eventually, new lichens, and then plants, grew on the lava.

1. Is this an example of primary or secondary successions?
2. Give the reason also.

Answer:

1. This is an example of primary succession
2. Because it begins from a state of little or no life.

Question 10.
Decomposition is the process in which complex dead matters are broken down into simpler inorganic substances,

1. Name the step of decomposition in which biological activity not found?
2. Chemical composition of detritus influence decomposition why?

Answer:

1. Humification
2. If the detritus rich in Lignin and c.hitinthe rate of decomposition is very slow but it is rich in nitrogenous compounds and Sugars the rate of decomposition is very high.

Question 11.
Decaying Biomass is formed through the process of decomposition, from which different types of mineral ions are released based on the mineralisers act on it.

1. Name the microorganisms that helps to release phosphate and nitrate into the soil
2. Give an example for nutrient cycling that helps in the photosynthesis of land plants.

Answer:

1. Phosphate solubilizing bacteria and nitrifying bacteria
2. Carbon cycle

Question 12.
In Barren lands succession continuous and forms climax vegetation after many years

1. Name the Pioneer community formed.
2. Which is the community comes next to Pioneer community?

Answer:

1. lichen
2. bryophytes

Question 13.
Productivity is one of the key function of an ecosystem, it varies in different ecosystems.

1. Distinguish between primary productivity and secondary productivity.
2. Some Terrestrial ecosystem shows abundant and least productivity. Name it.

Answer:

1. The primary productivity is associated with producers while secondary productivity is associated with consumers.
2. Abundant productivity is found in tropical rainforest Least productivity is found in desert.

Question 14.
How can you differentiate primary productivity from secondary productivity?
Answer:

1. Primary productivity-productivity at producer level
2. Secondary productivity – productivity at consumer level

Question 15.
Mention the functions of ecosystem.
Answer:

• Productivity
• Decomposition
• Energy flow
• Nutrient cycling

Question 16.
Connect the terms in the column A with suitable definition given below and fill up column B.

(a) Rate of biomass production.
(b) Rate of storage of organic matter by producers in excess of their metabolic consumption.
(c) Rate of production of organic matter by plants during photosynthesis.
(d) Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
Answer:

1. b
2. c
3. a
4. d

Question 17.
Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate than fresh weight. Why?
Answer:
Fresh Weight contains weight of water present inside the cells as cell sap. Where as dry weight is the actual weight of the materials making up the body of the organism.

Question 18.
Leaching, detritus, catabolism, humification, fragmentation, mineralization, detritivores, humus. Given above are the terms involved in the process of decomposition. Arrange them in correct sequence.
Answer:
Detritus ? detritivore ? fragmentation ? leaching ? catabolism ? humification ? humus ? Mineralization.

Question 19.
The given table shows the dry weight of different trophic levels of forest ecosystem.

1. From the given data construct a pyramid of biomas.

2. if you select Lake ecosystem to construct pyramid of biomas, it contain producers (Phytoplanktons), Herbivores (Short lived fishes) and Carnivores (Long lived fishes) with dry weight 2mgm-3, 7mgm-3 and 9mgm-3 respectively. From the data construct a pyramid of biomas.
Answer:
1.

2.

Question 20.
Energy is an important key functional component of ecosystem and pyramid of energy is always upright.

1. Do you agree with this statement.
2. Give reason.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. Energy transfer in a pyramid follows the ll nd law of thermodynamics . It also obeys the 10 % law (only 10 % of energy is transferred to each tropic level from the lower tropic level).

Question 21.
In nature there is no independent food chain.

1. Do you agree with the statement? Justify?
2. Decomposers have important role in nutrient cycling. Substantiate.

Answer:
1. Yes. The members of one food chain depends the members of other food chains and forms interconnections.

2. Detritus or dead remains are broken down by detritivores catabolism results in breaking down of complex molecules by decomposers. This results in the formation of mineral nutrients into the soil, thereby recycling of nutrients are achieved.

Question 22.
While visiting a forest, Ranjan’s grandfather told that long back it was a pond.

1. Name the phenomenon takes place here.
2. Write down the different stages of that process.

Answer:

1. Hydrach
2. Phytoplankton stage – Submerged plant-stage – Submerged free floaloting plant stage – Reed swamp stage – Marsh meadow stage — Scrub stage – Forest stage.

Question 23.
Human activities have a significant role in carbon cycle.

1. Do you agree with the statement?
2. Mention the environmental hazard caused by excess release of CO₂?

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Deforestation activities and massive burning of fossil fuels increase the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere that causes reradiation of reflected solar radiations. This leads to heating of the troposphere called green house effect.

Question 24.
Ecological succession and species evolution would have been a parallel process. Justify.
Answer:
As succession gives to the replacement of one community by another and establishment of dominant species it can be considering as parallel steps to evolution.

Question 25.
Sedimentary cycle that occure in lithosphere

1. Give an example for sedimentary cycle.
2. Give a flow chart representing the above cycle.

Answer:
1. Phosphorous cycle.

2. The cycle consists of following steps.

Question 26.
The atmosphere contains only about 1% of total global carbon. But carbon cycle is an gaseous cycle since the reservoir is atmospheric CO₂. Justify.
Answer:
71% of carbon is found dissolved in oceans which regulates the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere. Fossil fuels also represents a reservoir of carbon. Carbon cycle is considered as gaseous cycle since the cycling occurs through atmosphere, ocean and through living and dead organisms.

The CO₂ is released to the atmosphere by burning of fuels, processing of waste materials in land and ocean and hence it act as a reservoir of CO₂ in an ecosystem.

Question 27.
Why is the length of a food chain in an ecosystem generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels?
Answer:
Energy requirement for maintenance of body rises successively with higher level. As 90% energy is lost when it moves from one trophic level to the next, the residual energy decreases drastically within 2-3 trophic levels, as a result an ecosystem can support only limited number of trophic levels.

Question 28.
Name the type of food chain responsible for the flow of larger fraction of energy in aquatic and a terrestrial ecosystem respectively. Mention one difference between two food chains.
Answer:
In an aquatic ecosystem GFC is the major conduits for energy flow where as in terrestrial ecosystem a much larger fraction of energy flow through the detritus food chain than through the GFC. Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels.

Difference between two food chains:
Detritus food chain always start with dead organic matter where as GFC starts with plants.

Question 29.
A volcano erupted in Hawaii, and lava covered land that had been framed for centuries. Eventually new lichens and then plants grew on the lava.

1. Is this an example of primary or secondary successions ?
2. Give the reason.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. This is an example of primary succession because this begins from a state of little or no life.

Question 30.
Distinguish between grazing and detritus food chain. Name the type of food chain helps in the flow of major fraction of energy through aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:

• The food chain start with producers are called grazing food chain.
• It start with dead organic matters is called detritus food chain.
• In an aquatic ecosystem, majorfraction of energy flow occurs through GFC.

Question 31.
In lake ecosystem .biomass of trophic levels are different

1. Do you agree the pyramid of biomass is inverted.
2. Give reason.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. In lake ecosystem producers are phyto-planktons. The short lived and long lived fishes are arranged above the lelvel of producers.Here biomass is increased from base to the top of pyramid.

Question 32.
How much PAR is used by producers for gross primary productivity?
Answer:
Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 percent of it is photosynthetically active radiation(PAR. Plants capture only 2-10 per cent of the PAR for gross primary productivity.

Question 33.
Differentiate between a detrivore and a decomposer giving an example of each.
Answer:
Detrivores are the primary consumers of a detritus food chain which feed upon the detritus and include protozoan, bacteria, and fungi, while decompers form the last trophic level of both detritus and grazing food chains and break down complex organic compounds of dead plants and animals and include bacteria and fungi.

Question 34.
Why is the length of a food chain in an ecosystem generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels?
Answer:
Energy requirement for maintenance of body rises successively with higher level. As 90% energy is lost when it moves from one trophic level to the next, the residual energy decreases drastically within 2 – 3 trophic levels. As a result an ecosystem can support only a limited number of trophic levels.

Question 35.
Due to uncontrolled excessive hunting the population of tigers in a forest becomes zero. What are the long term effects of this situation on the population of deer in that forest.
Answer:
The reduction in predator population may result in the increase of prey population (deer), since they are not preyed upon. Increase in the number of deer will lead to overgrazing, hence, shortage of herbs and eventually reduction in the number of deer.

Question 36.
A Volcano erupted in Hawaii, and lava covered land that had been framed for centuries. Eventually, new lichens, and then plants, grew on the lava. Is this an example of primary or secondary successions? Give the reason also.
Answer:
This is an example of primary succession Because this begins from a .state of little or no life.

Question 37.
How can you differentiate primary productivity from secondary productivity?
Answer:

1. Primary productivity-productivity at producer level
2. Secondary productivity – productivity at consumer level

Question 38.
Observe the flow chart on functional components of ecosystem given below.

1. Identify the components given as A and B
2. What is stratification?

Answer:
1. components given as A and B:
A = Energy flow
B = Nutrient cycling

OR

A = Nutrient cycling
B = energy flow

2. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels.

Question 39.
Observe the food chain given below. Grass? Goat? Man

1. Identify the type of food chain,
2. How does it differ from detritus food chain?

Answer:

1. Grazing Food Chain
2. Grazing food chain starts with producers while detritus food chain starts with dead organic matter.

Question 40.
Given below is the flow chart of ecological succession occur in water bodies.

1. Identify the stages A, B, C, D, E and F
2. What is this succession called?

Answer:
1. The stages A, B, C, D, E, and F:

• A = Submerged plant stage
• B = Submerged free floating plant stage
• C = Reed-swamp stage
• D = Marsh-meadow stage
• E = Scrub stage
• F = Forest stage

2. Hydrarch succession

Question 41.
Given below is a simplified model of a nutrient cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem.

1. Identify the cycle?
2. How does it differ from a gaseous cycle?

Answer:

1. Phosphorus cycle
2. This cycle starts from earth’s crust(lithosphere) but gaseous cycle exists in atmosphere.

Question 42.
Decomposition of detritus is a complex process. Decomposition has various steps. Identify the steps given below and fill the blanks.

Answer:

1. Fragmentation
2. Leaching
3. Catabolism
4. Humification

Question 43.
Decomposition is the breakdown of complex organic matter into inorganic substances like CO₂, Water, etc.

1. Identify the gas which is most essential for decomposition.
2. Find out any two conditions which inhibit decomposition.

Answer:

1. Oxygen
2. Low temperature, Anaerobiosis.

Question 44.
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids of number, biomass, and energy are upright. Suggest on occasion each where the pyramid of number and pyramid of biomass are inverted.
Answer:
When a big tree is considered as an ecosystem- pyramid of number is inverted. Pyramid of biomass in sea is also inverted.

Question 45.
Ecological pyramids express the food or energy relationship between organisms, Write any three limitations of ecological pyramids.
Answer:

1. In some cases same species may belong to two or more trophic levels
2. It does not represent food web
3. Saprophytes are not given any place

Question 46.
Analyze the table given below and fill in the blanks suitably.

Answer:

1. Standing crop
2. The amount of nutrients presents in the soil or eosystem at any given time

Question 47.
Match the items of column A with column B
VAnswer:
(a) – (v)
(b) – (iii)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

Question 48.
Human activities have significantly influenced the carbon cycle by increasing the amount of C02- production. Justify this statement with minimum two points.
Answer:

1. It lead to rapid deforestation.
2. Massive burning of fossil fuel for energy and transport.

Question 49.
Given below is simplified mode of a biogeochemical cycle.
Fill up the blanks a), b), c) and d)

Answer:

1. Rock minerals
2. Producers
3. Consumers
4. Detritus

Question 50.
Construct a pyramid of biomass using the data given below.
PC 37Kgm^-2 TC 1.5Kgm^-2
PP 809Kgm^-2 SC 11Kgm^-2
Answer:

Question 51.
Carbon cycle and phosphorus cycle are two common biogeochemical cycles. Write any three differences between these two cylces.
Answer:

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Primary succession is a long term process, while secondary succession is a short term process.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reasons.
3. Name the pioneer species in hydrarch succession

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. In primary succession development of forest climax on a barren land may take about 1,000 years but in secondary succession it takes 50 – 100 years in case of a grassland and about 100 – 200 years for a forest.

3. Phtoplanktons.

Question 2.
Succession on different habitat are different in nature

1. Name the pioneer species on a bare rock.
2. How do they help in establishing the next type of vegetation?
3. Mention the type of climax community that will ultimately get established.

Answer:

1. Lichens are the pioneer species:
2. They absorb water due to their spongy structure and secrete carbonic acid which loosens rock particles and help in weathering of rocks and soil formation; thus, they pave way to some small plants like bryophytes.
3. The climax community will be a forest.

Question 3.
Most of the existing communities are evolved through a series of intermediate stage.

1. Name three plant communites that appear during ecological succession.
2. Elucidate the dynamic changes that happens in a water body.

Answer:
1. three plant communites that appear during ecological succession:

• Pioneer community
• Serai community (transitional community)
• Climax community

2. Phytoplankton stage? Submerged plant stage? Submerged free floating plant stage? Reed swamp stage? Marsh meadow stage? Scrub stage? Forest stage.

Question 4.
If decomposition not occur in nature huge amount of detritus of plants and animals may fill our ecosystems, it is seriously harm to living organisms of our environment

1. Define decomposition
2. Give the steps
3. Decomposers are known as scavengers of earth”. Justify.

Answer:
1. Breaking down of complex organic matter into simple inorganic substance like C02, H20 and Nutrients is called decomposition.

2. Decomposition steps are

• Fragmentation – It is the breaking down of detritus into smaller particle by the detrivores like earthworm.
• Leaching – Precipitation of water soluble or inorganic nutrient into soil horizon.
• Catabolism – It is the degradation of detritus into simple inorganic substances by the action of micro organism.
• Humification – It is the accumulation of dark coloured amorphous substance called humus. Humus serve as the reservoir of nutrients.
• Mineralization – The degradation of humus & release of nutrients from it by microbes is called mineralization.

3. Decomposers split the complex detritus into simple inorganic compounds while doing so they also bring about nutrient cycling. The degradation of detritus into simple organic substances by micro organism involves catabolic process. Without micro organism the earth would have been filled with dead organisms.

Question 5.
In an ecosystem there is unidirectional flow of energy and cyclic flow of matter.

1. Do you agree with the statement.
2. Give reason?
3. Mention the significance of standing crop and standing state in this contest.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Energy in an ecosystem flows unidirectionally from producers to different consumers through different tropic level. The constant supply of matter (nutrients like C, N„, P, Ca, etc.) are never lost from the ecosystem. Their constant supply is maintained by nutrient cycling.

3. The mass of living material in a tropic level at a particular time is a standing crop. The amount of nutrients present in a soil at a given time is called standing state.

Question 6.
Robert Constanza and his colleagues put price tags on nature’s life-support services. Price tag of US $ 33 trillion a year

1. What is meant by, ecosystem services? Give example.
2. Which is the most price lagged ecosystem service in nature?

Answer:
1. The product ecosystem process

• Generate fertile soil
• Pollinate crops

2. Soil creation is the most prize tagged ecosystem service.

Question 7.
Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process. Rate of decomposition depend upon many factors.

1. What are the factors influence the rate of decomposition
2. Explain it.

Answer:
1. The factors influencing the rate of decomposition are:

• Chemical nature of detritus
• Climatic condition (temperature and soil moistures)

2. Detritus which is rich in N₂ and water soluble substances like sugar decompose quickly than detritus containing lignin and chitin.

Warm and moist environment favour decomposition whereas low temperature and anaerobic condition inhibit decomposition.

Question 8.
The number of individuals in grass land ecosystem is given below.
Grass – 5842,000
Grasshopper – 7,08,000
Frogs – 3,54,000
Snakes – 3

1. Draw a pyramid representing the relationship of the given organisms in terms of number.
2. Give justification for the shape of pyramid.

Answer:
1.

2. The pyramid is an upright one the largest number being producers (grasses) forms the base of the pyramid. The Herbivores or primary consumer at the next level (grass hopper) are second to producers in number.

The third layer is occupied by secondary consumers (Frogs) which are smaller in number compared to the primary consumer. The tertiary consumer (snakes) are the least in number and occupies the top most level. Thus an upright pyramid is obtained.

Question 9.
Food chain ensures unidirectional flow of energy from producerto different levels of consumers. Construct a food chain? Is the flow of energy obey the law of thermodynamics?
Answer:

Yes, the first law of thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it can be converted from one form to another. In an ecosystem the plants capture 2-10% of PAR (Photosynthetically active radiation) from the sun.

The solar energy captured by plants flows through different organisms of an ecosystem in the form of food energy. This unidirectional flow of solar energy in accordance with 10% law.

Question 10.
Most of the existing communities are evolved through a series of intermediate stage.

1. Substantiate the above statement with the process involved in the above phenomenon.
2. Elucidate the dynamic changes that happens in a water body.

Answer:
1. Plant succession:
The gradual & predictable change in species composition or communities of a given area is called ecological successions. It occurs due to the change of communities in response to environmental changes. Important features of ecological successions are

• Invasion of a bare area by pioneer community
• sequence of communities that successfully change or modify the particular area called seres
• change in the diversity of species and organism in the successive serai communities
• formation of climax community.

2. Phytoplankton stage → Submerged plant stage → Submerged free floating plant stage → Reed swamp stage → Marsh meadow stage → Scrub stage → Forest stage.

Question 11.
In an ecosystem flow of energy through successive trophic levels decreases, this is very common in aquatic and terrestrial habitat.

1. Write down the first and second thermodynamic laws supports energy flow
2. What do you meant by 10% law

Answer:
1. In first law of thermodynamics energy can be transferred from one state to other while in second law of thermodynamics energy losses in the form of heat.

Question 12.
The average price tag of US is 22 trillion US dollars a year.

1. What does this data indicate?
2. How is it related to GNP?'(Gross National Production)
3. Which is the most price lagged ecosystem service in nature?

Answer:
1. Ecosystem are the base of wide range of economic, environmental and aesthetic goods and services. The products of ecosystem process are named as ecosystem services.

These services are usually taken for granted because they are free. Researches have tried to put prize tags on nature’s life support services in order to understand the values of services provided by nature.

2. Gross national production is the value of human resources and services of a particular country. It is only half the value of ecosystem services.

3. Soil creation is the most prize tagged ecosystem service.

Question 13.
Primary productivity varies in different types of ecosystems.

1. What is meant by primary productivity.
2. Give reason with suitable examples.

Answer:
1. Primary productivity is the amount of biomass or organic matter produced during photosynthesis. The gross primary productivity is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.

A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plant in respiration. The gross primary productivity – Respiration losses is the net primary productivity.

2. In some ecosystems producers number and nutrient content are not stable.

Question 14.
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids are upright. But there are exceptions to this generalisation.

1. Give any of the cases where pyramid of number and biomass becomes inverted.
2. What is detritus food chain?

Answer:
1. The pyramid of number in a tree ecosystem is inverted. The primary producer tree is a single unit. The consumers like insects, small birds & large birds are the primary consumers secondary consumers &territory consumers respectively.

Thus the no. of consumer in tree ecosystem is more than that of the producer. The pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted because the biomass of fishes (Consumers) exceeds that of phytoplankton (producer).

2. Food chain starts with detritus called as detritus food chain.

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Plants are called as_____because they fix carbon dioxide.
2. In an ecosystem dominated by trees, the pyramid (of numbers) is_____type.
3. In aquatic eco systems, the limiting factor for the productivity is_______
4. Common ditritivores in our eco system are______
5. The major reservoir of carbon on earth is______

Answer:

1. Producers
2. Upright
3. Availability of sunlight.
4. Earthworm
5. Ocean

Question 2.
Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain______
(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Decomposers
Answer:
The decomposers can have the maximum population but they are excluded from food chain, hence the correct answer is – (a) Producers

Question 3.
The second trophic level in a lake is______
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Answer:
(b) Zooplankton

Question 4.
What is the percentage of photosyntheticaliy active radiation (PAR) , if incident solar radiation is considered 100%?
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 1-5%
(d) 2-10%
Answer:
(b) 50%

Question 5.
Give an account for flow of energy in an ecosystem.
Answer:
1. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional from producers to consumers.

2. The flow of energy obeys the laws of the thermodynamics 2-10% of radiant energy (50% of which reaches the earth) is photosyntheticaliy active radiation. It travels through different tropic levels from producers in the form of food energy.

The producers convert radiant energy into chemical energy which is stored as biomass. When energy flows from one tropic level to another only 10% of the total energy is transferred, as certain amount of energy is utilized by the organism belonging to a particulartropic level.

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight
Answer:
(d) Fresh weight

Question 2.
Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a Grassland ecosystem?
(a) Secondary production
(b) Tertiary production
(c) Gross production
(d) Net production
Answer:
(c) Gross production

Question 3.
Which of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary Productivity?
(a) Tropical rain forest
(b) Tropical deciduous forest
(c) Temperate evergreen forest
(d) Temperate deciduous forest
Answer:
(a) Tropical rain forest

Question 4.
An ecosystem, which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops, will be having
(a) low stability and high resilience
(b) high stability and low resilience
(c) low stability and low resilience
(d) high stability and high resilience
Answer:
(a) low stability and high resilience

Question 5.
The minimum number of components required for an ecosystem to survive
(a) Producer and primary consumer
(b) Producer and decomposer
(c) primary Consumer and decomposer
(d) primary and secondary Consumer
Answer:
(b) Producer and decomposer

Question 6.
In plant succession, when climax is reached, the net productivity
(a) continues to increase
(b) becomes halved
(c) becomes stable
(d) becomes zero
Answer:
(c) becomes stable

Question 7.
Detrivores are
(a) detritus eating vertebrates
(b) detritus eating fungus
(c) detritus decomposing bacteria
(d) detritus eating invertebrates
Answer:
(d) detritus eating invertebrates

Question 8.
How fig tree is benefited to its pollinator wasp?
(a) Pollens are edible
(b) Wasp lays eggs in fig fruits
(c) Floral petal resembles female to pseudo coupulate
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Wasp lays eggs in fig fruits

Question 9.
Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Fossil fuel combustion
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 10.
Weathering of rocks makes phosphorous available to
(a) Decomposers
(b) Consumers
(c) Producers
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Producers

Question 11.
The 10% law associated with an important function of an ecosystem is
(a) productivity
(b) nutrient cycling
(c) decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels
(d) increases the calorific value in successive trophic levels.
Answer:
(c) decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels

Question 12.
In the reductive process, the conversion of nitrogen into ammonia occurs by
(a) nitrosomonas
(b) rhizobium
(c) nitrococcus
(d) pseudomonas
Answer:
(b) rhizobium

Question 13.
The primary productivity is least in
(a) coral reef
(b) grassland
(c) coniferous forest
(d) desert
Answer:
(d) desert

Question 14.
Choose the correct arrangement of plant communities
(a) marsh meadow stage, free floating stage, scrub stage and forest stage
(b) free floating stage, marsh meadow stage, scrub stage and forest stage
(c) marsh meadow stage, free floating stage, scrub stage and forest stage
(d) marsh meadow stage, woodland stage, scrub stage and forest stage
Answer:
(b) free floating stage, marsh meadow stage, scrub stage and forest stage

Question 15.
In the second step of trophic level, the energy storage is primarily associated with
(a) gross primary productivity
(b) net primary productivity
(c) secondary productivity
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) secondary productivity

Question 16.
Detritus is the
(a) dead remains of plants only
(b) dead remains of plants and animals
(c) excretory products of animals
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(d) both b and c

Question 17.
The plants efficiency of N₂ absorption is promoted when the nitrogen source available in the form of
(a) NO^3-
(b) NO^2-
(c) NH⁴⁺
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) NO^3-

Question 18.
Which one of the following process is associated with oxidation
(a) ammonification
(b) nitrification
(c) denitrification
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) nitrification