Prasanna

Students can Download Chapter 2 Relations and Functions Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Relations and Functions

Plus One Maths Relations and Functions Three Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Maths Relations And Functions Previous Questions And Answers Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}. Let R be the relation on A defined by R = {(a, b): a, b ∈ A, b is exactly divisible by a}

1. Write R in roster form. (1)
2. Find the domain of R. (1)
3. Find the range of R. (1)

Answer:

1. R = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 4), (2, 2), (4,4), (6,6), (3,3), (3,6)}
2. Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}
3. Range of R = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}

Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 2.
Determine the domain and range of the relation R defined by R = {(x, x + 5) : x ∈ {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}}
Answer:
R = {(0, 5), (1, 6), (2, 7), (3, 8), (4, 9),(5, 10)}
Domain of R = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Range of R = {5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

Relations And Functions Class 11 Important Questions Pdf Question 3.
A function f is defined as f(x) = 2x – 5, Write down the values of f(0), f(7), f(-3).
Answer:
Given; f(x) = 2x – 5
f(0) = -5;
f(7) = 2(7) – 5 = 14 – 5 = 9
f(-3) = 2(-3) – 5 = -6 – 5 = -11

Hsslive Maths Textbook Answers Plus One Question 4.
Find the range of the following functions.

1. f(x) = 2 – 3x, x ∈ R, x>0 (1)
2. f(x) = x² + 2, x is a real number. (1)
3. f(x) = x, x is a real number. (1)

Answer:

1. Given; f(x) = 2 – 3x is a first degree polynomial function, therefore the range is R.
2. Given; f(x) = x² + 2, The range of x2 is [0, ∞) , then the range of f(x) = x² + 2 is [2, ∞)
3. Given; f(x) = x is the identity function, therefore the range is R.

Plus One Maths Relations and Functions Four Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, C = {5, 6} and D = {5, 6, 7, 8}. Verify that

1. A × (B ∩ C) = (A × B) ∩ (A × C) (2)
2. A × C is a subset of B × D (2)

Answer:
1. A × (B ∩ C) ={1, 2} × Φ = Φ
A × B = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4)}
A × C = {(1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 5), (2, 6)}
(A × B) ∩ (A × C) = Φ
Hence; A × (B ∩ C) = (A × B) ∩ (A × C)

2. A × C = {(1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 5), (2, 6)}
B × D = {1, 2, 3, 4} × {5, 6, 7, 8}
= {(1, 5), (1, 6), (1, 7), (1, 8), (2, 5), (2, 6), (2, 7), (2, 8), (3, 5), (3,6), (3, 7), (3, 8), (4, 5), (4, 6), (4, 7), (4, 8)}
Hence A × C is a subset of B × D.

Relations And Functions Class 11 Important Questions Question 2.
The arrow diagram given below shows a relation R from P to Q. Write the relation in roster form, set-builder form. Find its domain and range.

Answer:
R – {(9, -3), (9, 3), (4, -2), (4, 2), (25, -5), (25, 5)}
R = {{x, y) : y² = x}
Domain of R = {9, 4, 25}
Range of R = {5, 3, 2, -2, -3, -5}

Question 3.
Find the domain of the following.

1. f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+2 x+1}{x^{2}-8 x+12}\) (2)
2. f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+3 x+5}{x^{2}-5 x+4}\) (2)

Answer:
1. Given; f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+2 x+1}{x^{2}-8 x+12}\)
The function is not defined at points where the denominator becomes zero.
x² – 8x +12 = 0 ⇒ (x – 6)(x – 2) = 0 ⇒ x = 2, 6
Therefore domain of fis R – {2, 6}.

2. Given; f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+3 x+5}{x^{2}-5 x+4}\)
The function is not defined at points where the denominator becomes zero.
x² – 5x + 4 = 0 ⇒ (x – 4)(x -1) = 0 ⇒ x = 1, 4
Therefore domain of f is R – {1, 4}.

Plus One Maths Questions And Answers Question 4.
Let f(x) = \(=\sqrt{x}\) and g(x) = x be two functions defined over the set of nonnegative real numbers. Find (f + g)(x), (f – g)(x), (fg)(x) and \(\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)\).
Answer:
(f + g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) = \(=\sqrt{x}\) + x
(f – g)(x) = f(x) – g(x) = \(=\sqrt{x}\) – x
(fg)(x) = f(x) × g(x) = \(=\sqrt{x}\) × x = \(x^{\frac{3}{2}}\)

Plus One Maths Relations And Functions Question 5.
Let f(x) = x² and g(x) = 2x + 1 be two functions defined over the set of nonnegative real numbers. Find (f + g)(x), (f – g)(x), (fg)(x) and \(\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)(x)\).
Answer:
(f + g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) = x² + 2x + 1
(f – g)(x) = f(x) – g(x) = x² – 2x – 1
f(fg)(x) = f(x) × g(x)
= x²(2x +1) = 2x³ + x²

Relations And Functions Questions And Answers Pdf Question 6.
A = {1, 2}, B = {3, 4}

1. Write A × B
2. Write relation from A to B in roster form. (1)
3. Represent all possible functions from A to B (Arrow diagram may be used) (2)

Answer:
1. A × B = {(1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4)}

2. Any Subset of A × B (say R={(1, 3),(2, 4)})

3.

Plus One Maths Relations and Functions Six Mark Questions and Answers

Relations And Functions Class 11 Important Questions With Solutions Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3, 4} and C = {4, 5, 6}. Find

1. A × (B ∩ C) (1)
2. (A × B) ∩ (A × C) (2)
3. A × (B ∪ C) (1)
4. (A × B) ∪ (A × C) (2)

Answer:
1. A × (B ∩ C) = {1, 2, 3} × {4}
= {(1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 4)}

2. (A × B) ∩ (A × C)
= {(1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 3), (3, 4)} ∩ {(1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 4), (2, 5) , (2, 6), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}
= {(1, 4), (2, 4), (3, 4)}

3. A × (B ∪ C) = {1, 2, 3} × {3, 4, 5, 6}
= {(1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}

4. (A × B) ∪ (A × C)
= {(1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 3), (3, 4)} ∪ {(1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}
= {(1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)}

Question 2.
Find the domain and range of the following

Answer:
i) Given; f(x) = -|x|
D(f) = R, R(f) = (-∞, 0]

ii) Given; f(x) = \(\sqrt{9-x^{2}}\)
x can take values where 9 – x² > 0
⇒ x² ≤ 9 ⇒ -3 ≤ x ≤ 3 ⇒ x ∈ [-3, 3]
Therefore domain of f is [-3, 3]
Put \(\sqrt{9-x^{2}}\) = y, where y ≥ 0
⇒ 9 – x² = y²⇒ x² = 9 – y²
⇒ x = \(\sqrt{9-x^{2}}\)
⇒ 9 – y² ≥ 0 ⇒ y² ≤ 9 ⇒ -3 ≤ y ≤ 3
Therefore range of fis [0, 3].

iii) Given; f(x) = |x – 1|
Domain of f is R
The range of |x| is [0, ∞) , then the range of
f(x) = |x -1| is [0, ∞)

iv) Given; f(x) = \(\sqrt{x-1}\)
x can take values where x – 1 ≥ 0
⇒ x ≥ 1 ⇒ x ∈ [1, ∞]
Therefore domain of fis [1, ∞]
The range of \(\sqrt{x}\) is [0, ∞), then the range of
f(x) = \(\sqrt{x-1}\) is [0, ∞).

Plus One Maths Relations and Functions Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
If (x + 1, y – 2) = (3, 1), find the values of x and y.
Answer:
(x + 1, y – 2) = (3, 1) ⇒ x + 1 = 3, y – 2 = 1 ⇒ x = 2, y = 3.

Question 2.
If \(\left(\frac{x}{3}+1, y-\frac{2}{3}\right)=\left(\frac{5}{3}, \frac{1}{3}\right)\), find the values of x and y.
Answer:

Question 3.
If G = {7, 8}; H = {2, 4, 5}, find G × H and H × G.
Answer:

• G × H ={(7, 2), (7, 4), (7, 5), (8, 2), (8, 4), (8, 5)}
• H × G ={(2, 7), (2, 8), (4, 7), (4, 8), (5, 7), (5, 8)}

Question 4.
if A = {-1, 1} find A × A × A
Answer:
A × A ={-1, 1} × {-1, 1}
= {(-1, -1), (-1, 1), (1, -1), (1, -1)}
A × A × A
= {(-1, -1), (-1, -1), (1,-1), (1, -1)} × {-1, 1}
= {(-1, -1, -1), (-1, 1, -1), (1, -1, -1), (-1, 1, -1), (-1, -1, 1), (-1, 1, 1), (1, -1, 1), (-1, 1, 1)}.

Question 5.
Write the relation R = {(x, x³): x is a prime number less than 10} in roster form.
Answer:
2, 3, 5, 7 are the prime number less than 10.
R = {(2, 8),(3, 27),(5, 125),(7, 343)}

Question 6.
If f(x) = x², find \(\frac{f(1.1)-f(1)}{(1.1-1)}\)?
Answer:

Question 7.
Let \(\left\{\left(x, \frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}\right), x \in R\right\}\) be a real function from R to R. Determine the domain and range of f.
Answer:
Domain of f is R.
Let \(\frac{x^{2}}{1+x^{2}}\) = y ⇒ x² = y(1 + x²)
⇒ x² = y + yx² ⇒ x² – yx² = y
⇒ x²(1 – y) = y

⇒ y ≥ 0, 1 – y > 0
⇒ y ≥ 0, y < 1 ⇒ 0 ≤ y ≤ 1
Therefore range of f is [0, 1).

Question 8.
Graph the following real functions. (each carries 2 scores)

1. f(x) = |x – 2|
2. f(x) = x²
3. f(x) = x³
4. f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x}\)
5. f(x) = (x – 1)²
6. f(x) = 3x² – 1
7. f(x) = |x| – 2

Answer:
1. f(x) = |x – 2| = \(\left\{\begin{aligned}x-2, & x \geq 2 \\-x+2, & x<2 \end{aligned}\right.\)

2. f(x) = x²

3. f(x) = x³

4. f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x}\)

5. f(x) = (x – 1)²

6. f(x) = 3x² – 1

7. f(x) = |x| – 2

Question 9.
Consider the relation, R = {(x, 2x – 1)/x ∈ A) where A = (2, -1, 3}

1. Write R in roster form. (1)
2. Write the range of R. (1)

Answer:
1. x = 2 ⇒ 2x – 1 = 2(2) – 1 = 3
x = -1 ⇒ 2x – 1 = 2(-1) – 1 = -3
x = 3 ⇒ 2x – 1 = 2(3) – 1 = 5
R = {(2, 3), (-1, -3), (3, 5)}

2. Range of R = {3, -3, 5}

Question 10.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6} and R be a relation on A defined by R = {(a, b): a, b ∈ A, b is exactly divisible by a}

1. Write R in the roster form. (1)
2. Find the domain and range of R. (1)

Answer:

1. R = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 2), (2, 4), (2, 6), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)}
2. Domain = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}; Range = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}

Question 11.
Consider the real function

1. \(f(x)=\frac{x^{2}+2 x+3}{x^{2}-8 x+12}\)
2. Find the value of x if /(x) = 1
3. Find the domain of f.

Answer:
1. Given; f(x) = 1 ⇒ 1 = \(\frac{x^{2}+2 x+3}{x^{2}-8 x+12}\)
⇒ x² – 8x + 12 = x² + 2x + 3
⇒ 10x = 9 ⇒ x = \(\frac{9}{10}\)

2. Find the value for which denominator is zero.
⇒ x² – 8x + 12 = 0
⇒ (x – 6)(x – 2) = 0 ⇒ x = 6, 2
Therefore domain of f is R – {2, 6).

Question 12.
If f(x) = x³ + 5x and g(x) = 2x +1, find (f + g)(2) and {fg)(1).
Answer:
(f + g)(2) = f(2) + g(2) = (2)³ + 5(2) + 2(2) + 1
= 8 + 10 + 4 + 1 = 23
(fg)(1) = f(1)g(1) = (1 + 5)(2 + 1) = 6 × 3 = 18.

Question 13.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and R be a relation on A defined by R = {(a, b):b = a²}

1. Write R in the roster form.
2. Find the range of R.

Answer:

1. R ={(1, 1), (2, 4)}
2. Range = {1, 4}

Question 14.
Draw the graph of the function
f(x) – |x| + 1, x ∈ R
Answer:

Question 15.
Draw the graph of the function.
f(x) = x³, x ∈ R
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 4 Bank Reconciliation Statement Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Bank Reconciliation Statement

Plus One Accountancy Bank Reconciliation Statement One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Accountancy Bank Reconciliation Statement Question 1.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared with the balance
(a) Passbook
(b) Cashbook
(c) Both pass book and cash book
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both pass book and cash book

Plus One Accountancy Chapter 4 Questions And Answers Question 2.
Passbook is a copy of
(a) Copy of customers account
(b) Bank column of cash book
(c) Cash column of cash book
(d) Copy of receipts and payments
Answer:
(c) Copy of customers’ accounts.

Bank Reconciliation Statement Problems And Solutions Question 3.
………… is a statement showing the causes of the difference between the cash book and passbook balance.
Answer:
Bank Reconciliation statement.

Bank Reconciliation Questions And Solutions Question 4.
Bank Reconciliation Statement is prepared by ………….
Answer:
Businessman/Debtor/Account holder

Bank Reconciliation Statement Problems And Solutions Pdf Question 5.
Credit balance in the passbook means a/an ………… to the depositor.
Answer:
Asset

Bank Reconciliation Statement Questions And Answers Question 6.
Normally, the cash book shows a ………. balance, passbook shows …………. balance.
Answer:
Debit, Credit

Bank Reconciliation Statement Questions Question 7.
Favourable balance as per the cash book means …………… balance in the bank column of the cash book.
Answer:
Debit

Plus One Accountancy Bank Reconciliation Statement Two Mark Questions and Answers

Bank Reconciliation Questions For Class 11 Question 1.
What is a Bank Reconciliation Statement?
Answer:
A statement prepared to reconcile the bank balance as per cash book with the balance as per passbook or bank statement, by showing the items of difference between the two accounts. By the preparation of bank reconciliation statement, one of the balances (either the cash book balance or passbook balance) may be equalized with the other.

Bank Reconciliation Statement Questions And Answers Pdf Question 2.
State the need for the preparation of bank reconciliation statement.
Answer:
It is generally experienced that when a comparison is made between the bank balance as shown in the firms cash book, the two balances do not tally, to reconcile (tally) the two balances of cash book and passbook, bank reconciliation statement is prepared.

Plus One Accountancy Bank Reconciliation Statement Five Mark Questions and Answers

Bank Reconciliation Statement Solutions Question 1.
From the following particulars, prepare the Bank Reconciliation Statement of Asha & Co. as on 31.3.2012.

1. Credit balance as per passbook is Rs. 10,000.
2. Bank collected a cheque of Rs. 500 on behalf of Asha & Co. but wrongly credited it to Asha’s account.
3. Bank recorded a cash book deposited of Rs. 1589 as Rs. 1598.
4. Withdrawal column of the passbook undercast by Rs.100.
5. The credit balance of Rs. 1500 as on the passbook was recorded in the debit balance.
6. The payment of a cheque of Rs. 350 was recorded twice in the passbook.
7. The passbook showed a credit balance for a cheque of Rs. 1000 deposited by Asha & Co.

Answer:
Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31.3.2012

Bank Reconciliation Statement Class 11 Question 2.
The cash book of Reji showed a debit balance of Rs. 4,900 on may 31,2009. On comparing the cash book with a passbook, the following were found.

1. Cheques deposited into bank for collection, but not collected till date Rs. 720.
2. Cheques issued, but not paid by bank Rs. 650.
3. Direct payment by a customer to the bank not recorded in cash book Rs. 520.
4. Interest on deposit credited in passbook Rs. 310. Discounted bill dishonoured, entered on in the passbook Rs. 400.
5. Bank charges debited in passbook Rs. 75. Prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement of Reji as on May 31, 2009.

Answer:
Bank Reconciliation Statement of Reji as on 31/05/09

Bank Reconciliation Statement Problems Question 3.
The Bank overdraft of Smith Ltd. on December 31, 2010, as per cash book is Rs. 18,000. From the following information, ascertain the adjusted cash balance and prepare bank reconciliation statement.
Rs.

1. Unpresented cheque 6000
2. Uncleared cheque 3400
3. Bank charges debited in the passbook only 1000
4. Bill collected and credited in the passbook only 1600
5. Cheque of Biju traders dishonored 1000
6. Cheque issued to Varma & Co. not yet entered in the cash book 600

Answer:
Adjusted Cashbook (Bank column)

Bank Reconciliation Statement Questions And Answers Class 11 Question 4.
Prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement of Mr. Syam on 31, March 2009 from the following details.

1. On 31/3/2009 his passbook show a credit balance of Rs. 1,150 Which was different from his cash book balance.
2. On comparison it was found that the cheque of Rs. 1,500 issued on 27^th March was paid by the bank oh 4^th April.
3. Cheques amounting to Rs. 1,700 were deposited . on 28^th March but in the passbook only Rs.
   700 was credited.
4. A customer made direct deposit in the bank on 31^st March amounting to Rs. 500, this was not recorded in the cash book.
5. A discounted bill receivable of Rs. 700 was returned dishonored to the bank on 29^th March. This entry was made in the cash book on 3^rd April.

Answer:
Bank Reconciliation Statement of Mr. Syam as on 31/03/09

Questions On Bank Reconciliation Statement Question 5.
Balance as per passbook of Mr Kumar is 3,000.

1. Cheque paid into bank but not yet cleared. Ram Kumar ₹1,000 Kishorekumar ₹500 1
2. Bank charges ₹300
3. Cheque issued but not presented Hameed₹2,000 Kapoor₹500
4. Interest entered in the passbook but not entered in the Cashbook ₹100

Prepare a bank reconciliation statement.
Answer:
Bank reconciliation Statement of Mr Kumar as on …………

Bank Reconciliation Problems And Solutions Question 6.
The passbook of Mr Mohit current account showed a credit Balance of ₹20,000 on dated December 31, 2005. Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement, with the following information.

1. A cheque of ₹400 drawn on his saving account has been shown on the current account.
2. He issued two cheques of ₹300 and ₹500 on December 25, but only the 1^st cheque, was presented for payment.
3. One cheque issued by Mr. Mohit of ₹ 500 on December 25, but it was not presented for payment whereas it was recorded twice in the cash book.

Answer:
Bank Reconciliation Statement of Mr Mohit as on December 31^st, 2010

Question 7.
On 1^st January 2010, Rakesh had an overdraft of ₹8,000 as showed by his cash book. Cheques amounting to ₹2,000 had been paid in by him but were not collected by the bank by January 1, 2010.
He issued cheques of ₹ 800 which were not presented to the bank for payment up to that day. There was a debit in his passbook of ₹60 for interest and ₹100 for buffet charges. Prepare bank reconciliation statement for comparing both the balance.
Answer:
Bank Reconciliation Statement of Mr Rakesh as on 1^st January 2010.

Question 8.
Prepare bank reconciliation statement.

1. Overdraft shown as per cash book on December 31, 2010, ₹10,000.
2. Bank charges for the above period also debited in the passbook, ₹100.
3. Interest on overdraft for six months ending December 31, 2010, ₹380 debited in the passbook.
4. Cheques issued but not encashed prior to December 31, 2010, amounted to₹2,150.
5. Interest on Investment collected by the bank and credited in the passbook, ₹600.
6. Cheques paid into bank but not cleared before December31,2010were₹1,100.

Answer:
Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31^st December, 2010.

Question9.
Prepare a bank reconciliation statement from the following particulars and show the balance as per cash book.

1. Balance as per pass book on December 31, 2010, overdrawn₹20,000.
2. Interest on bank overdraft not entered in the cash book ₹2,000.
3. ₹200 insurance premium paid by bank has not been entered in the cash book.
4. Cheques drawn in the last week of December 2010, but not cleared till date for ₹3,000 and ₹3,500.
5. Cheques deposited into bank in November 2010, but yet to be credited on dated December 31, 2010, ₹6,000.
6. Wrongly debited by bank, ₹500.

Answer:
Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31^st March, 2010

Plus One Accountancy Bank Reconciliation Statement Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the various reasons for the difference between balance as per cash book and passbook?
Answer:
There are several reasons that contribute for the disagreement of the balance as shown by cash book and passbook. They are as under:

1. Cheques issued but not presented for payment:
When the trader issues a cheque, he credits its amount immediately in his cash book. The same will be entered in the passbook only on presenting the cheque and making payment by the bank. If the cheque is not presented for payment before the date of preparation of bank reconciliation statement, the balance as per Pass Book will be more than the balance as per Cash Book.

2. Cheque paid in for collection but not collected:
On deposition cheques into the bank for collection, the trader debits the same amount in the bank account. The bank credit the amount in the passbook only on getting the amount collected. Such uncleared cheques make the cash book balance to be more than the passbook balance.

3. Direct payment by a customer to the bank:
Customers of the trader occasionally make some payments directly into the trader’s bank account. The trader may come to know of an only later. But the banker gives immediate credit to the trader on receipt of the amount. If it remains unrecorded in the cash book, the balance as per pass book will be more than the balance as per cash book.

4. Interest on deposit credited by the banker:
At regular intervals, banks allow interests on the deposit balance of the trader and credit the amount in the passbook. The same usually remains unrecorded in the cash book. In such a case, the passbook balance will be more than the cash book balance.

5. Interest, dividend, rent, etc. collected by bank:
Bank collects interest, dividend, rent, etc. on behalf of the customer and credits the same to his account. The trader comes to know of it only on a later date. If such collection remains unrecorded in the cash book, the passbook balance will be more than the cash book balance.

6. Payment made on behalf of the customer:
The banker makes payment for rent, insurance, etc., for the customer as per standing instructions. The banker debit the trader’s account with such payments. The trader comes to know of it only later. Due to such payments that remain unrecorded in cash book, the balance as per pass book will be less than the balance as per cash book.

7. Bank charges as per Pass Book:
Bank charges and commission for collection of cheques, bills, etc., are debited in the passbook. The corresponding credits are often not given in the cash book. As these items are not entered in the cash book, its balance will be more than that of the passbook.

8. Bills Receivable discounted, but dishonored:
When a trader discounts bills of exchange, the banker credits the trader’s account with the amount due. The same amount is debited by the trader in cash book. If such a bill is later dishonored, the banker immediately debits it in the passbook. But the same remains unrecorded in the cash book. This cause the balance as per cash book to be more than the passbook balance.

9. Interest on overdraft debited in passbook:
Periodically the bank calculates interest due by the trader on his overdraft and debits the amount in the passbook. Corresponding credit is often not made by the trader in his cash book. It leads to difference in the balance as per cash book and passbook.

10. Credit instruments credited by bank but not recorded in cash book:
Bills of exchange, promissory notes and other credit instruments collected by bank are credited in the passbook. But if they remain unrecorded in the cash book it may lead to disagreement between the balance as per the two books.

11. There may also be instance of cheque recorded as paid in for collection but failed to be deposited into the bank, by which the cash book balance will be more than the balance as per passbook.

Kerala Plus One English Model Question Papers Paper 2

General Instructions to Candidates

• There is a ‘Cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time.
• Use the ‘Cool off time’ to get familiar with questions and to plan your answers.
• Read the instructions carefully.
• Read the questions carefully before answering.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except nonprogrammable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Read the following lines and answer the questions given below:

Look to this day
For it is life, the very life of life,
In its brief course lie all the
varieties and realities of your existence.
The bliss of growth,
The glory of action,
The splendor of beauty;
For yesterday is but a dream
And tomorrow is only a vision,
But today well lived makes
Every yesterday a dream of happiness,
And every tomorrow a vision of hope,
Look well therefore to this day!
Such is the salutation of the dawn.
Complete the sentences, choosing the right option.

Question 1.
The‘theme’of the poem is about
a. the importance of life
b. the importance of concentrating on the reality of the present
c. in the importance of thinking about the past and the future
d. the importance of having a dream and a vision

Question 2.
The expression ‘brief course’ means
a. the course of study
b. a short report
c. lasting for only a short timed
. in a few words

Question 3.
What is the implied meaning of the lines given below? ,
‘Look well therefore to this day!
Such is the solution of the dawn.’
Write your answer in a paragraph.

Question 4.
Choose appropriate words from the box to complete the passage.

In developing countries, only 30% of the buildings are constructed (a) ………….. with the regulations laid down for ensuring safety and security, (b) ………….. the lack of a master plan and the inferior quality of materials used for construction also aggravate the casualties arising out of disasters, (c) ………….. both private and public buildings should be constructed according to the guidelines prescribed by law (d) ………….. constructions should strictly adhere to the master plan approved by the authorities.

Questions 5 and 6: Read the following excerpt from the story, ‘His First Flight’ and answer the questions.
He waited a moment in surprise, wondering why she did not come nearer and then maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish with a loud scream; he fell outwards and downwards into space. His mother had swooped upwards. As he passed beneath ‘ her, he heard the swish of her wings.

Question 5.
Who is ‘she’ referred to here?

Question 6.
What prompted the young seagull to fly finally?

Question 7.
Read the following excerpt from ‘Is society Dead?’,
there are four errors in the passage. Identify the errors and correct them. What we do get from this? The chance to slip away for a while from everydayness, to give your lives its own soundtracks, to still the monotony of the commute, to listen more closely and carefully on music that can lift you up and can keep you go.

Question 8.
Rewrite the following conversation between Gupta and the waitress (The Price of flowers) in reported speech.
Gupta: Do you know the girl who was sitting over there?
Waitress: No, sir, I do not know her, to speak of. I’ve noticed she has lunch here on Saturdays.
Gupta: Doesn’t she come on any other day?
Waitress: I never see her on other days?

Questions (9 -14): Answer any five of the following questions in not more than 80 words. Each question carries 4 scores.

Question 9.
Stephen Hawking has overcome his crippling disease to become the ‘supernova’ of world physics. On the occasion of the release of a book on Stephen Hawking, you are asked to deliver a speech describing him to the audience. Prepare the script of the speech.

Question 10.
India has faced a number of natural disasters like floods, landslides etc. We may not be able to avert many of these disasters, but We can definitely mitigate their impact. Prepare an essay on the various stages involved in the effective management of disasters.

Question 11.
If you could bring yourself to tell mother only once, after looking into the crystal, that Frank is all right, that he is alive will be too much of a lie? Will it be very, very wrong? As she spoke, tears streamed from her eyes. (From Price of Flowers) What trait of Maggie’s character is evident here? Sketch the character of Maggie in a short paragraph.

Question 12.
Your class is conducting a group discussion on ‘ The Relevance of Gandhian ideas in the 21st century. ‘Imagine that you are also participating in it. What would you speak? Prepare a script for your presentation. (Word Limit: 50 to 60 words)

Question 13.
Analyze the news headlines given below.

In the light of the news headlines, prepare an article about the relevance of Gandhian ideas on nonviolence, cleanliness and equal rights.

Question 14.
‘What kind of a country is India, Sir?’ asked Mrs. Clifford, as she resumed her cooking. What impression of India is created by Mr. Gupta in the mind of Mrs. Clifford

Questions(15 -19): Answer any four of the following questions in not less than 100 words. Each question carries 5 scores.

Question 15.
Imagine that you are a tourist guide working with the tourism department of Fiji. Make an introductory speech to a group of tourists from Europe to welcome them to Namuana

Question 16.
Here is an advertisement for the ‘Walkers Club’

In the advertisement, you see that the box for Don’ts has been left blank. Write four points to be included in that box.
(Need not to copy the whole advertisement. Write only the points)

Question 17.
Nowadays? our rivers are rapidly getting polluted. Many reasons are cited but seldom are measures adopted to prevent the pollution of rivers. Write a letter to the editor of a local newspaper highlighting the gravity of the issue.

Question 18.
A group of foreigners from France visit your locality. They intend to visit a few tourist destinations in our state. Prepare a short write-up about one or two famous tourist centers in your district.
[Hints : Name -location – major attractions – how to reach there]

Question 19.
Captain }ovis was interviewed by a news reporter before the take-off of Le-Horla. There are the few questions that the reporter puts forth. Read the questions and prepare the likely responses.

Reporter Captain Jovis Reporter Captain Jovis Reporter Captain Jovis Reporter

Reporter: Sir, this is your first experience in a hot air balloon. How do you feel?
Captain Jovis: Yes, I am really excited as well as nervous.
Reporter: Will you please introduce your supporting crew?
Captain Jovis: 1) ……………………………………………….
Reporter: What all are the arrangements made for the flight?
Captain Jovis: 2) ……………………………………………….
Reporter: Is guiding a balloon an easy task?
Captain Jovis: 3) ……………………………………………….

Questions (20 -23): Answer any three of the following each in not more than 250 words. Each question carries 8 scores.

Question 20.
Study the graph given below about the money spent on fast food by people of different age groups over the last 20 years.

Interpret the data and prepare an analytical report in the form of a short essay.

Question 21.
The following information is about the famous deaf German composer Ludwig Van Beethoven. Prepare a profile of him.

Birth: 16th December 1770 in Germany
Parents: John Van Beethoven and Maria Magdalena Keverich
Childhood: Fond of music – father teaches him music day and night – first public performance at the age of seven (March 26, 1778)- publishes first work in 1782 (age 12)
Turning point: Deafness begins in 1796 decides to commit suicide realizes his abilities – decides to explore, discover and to pass on.
Achievements: Becomes an outstanding instrumentalist, playing both piano and violin- publishes first three sonatas (October 14, 1783) becomes an excellent keyboard composer (1795) – sets new standards for conveying emotions and passion through music – creates melody and harmonies-composes ten symphonies (1800 -1824).
Death: 26 March 1827- funeral rites at the church of Holy Trinity -about 30000 people attends the funeral

Question 22.
Go through the points listed below.

• Lantern festival signals the end of the new year festival period.
• People get together watching lanterns and fireworks, guessing lantern idles and performing a folk dance.
• Long ago, a sacred bird from heaven accidentally got lost and fell into the mortal world.
• An ignorant hunter thought the bird was a kind of fierce animal and killed it.
• The emperor planned a firestorm in retaliation.
• The villagers sought a way out.
• A wise man told them -hang red lanterns outside your homes – make bonfires and light firecrackers for 3 days.
• People, even today, light up lanterns and fireworks.

Prepare a write-up on this ritual/ practice, highlighting the plot, characters, local culture, social/ historical aspects, the relevance of the ritual in the current scenario and its impact on society.

Question 23.
Read the poem given, below and write a note of appreciation.

Good Deeds by Sasikanth Nishanth Sarma
The World is a double-edged knife
And we have only one life
Enjoy it, live it well.
In good company do well.
Always do good deeds
Sow in yourself character’s seeds
Cultivate mind with manure of thought
For ages, the experiences brought.
Feed your life with good deeds
So that there is no place for weeds.
To harm, that oft leads
The decay of character’s seeds
The one who wants to succeed
He must always heed
And must seek
The good qualities
And not the quantities
A wise man can only plead
But you have to pay heed
What are you needs?
Then decide what to do
And what not to do

Answers

Answer 1.
The theme of the poem is about the importance of concentrating on the reality of the present.

Answer 2.
The expression ‘brief course’ means ‘last-ing only for a short time’.

Answer 3.
Focus on today’s happiness. The dawn addresses you for the sake of having the short span of today’. It is today or the present that you should count; not the past or the future. This day is reality for you. On this day is your bliss.

Answer 4.
a. in accordance with
b. similarly
c. therefore
d. moreover

Answer 5.
The young seagull’s mother.

Answer 6.
Hunger prompted the young seagull to fly.

Answer 7.
What do we get from this? The chance to slip away from the every day ness, to give your lives its own soundtracks, to still the monotony of the commute, to listen more closely and carefully to music that can lift you up and can keep you going.

Answer 8.
Gupta asked the waitress whether she knew the girl who had been sitting over there.

The waitress replied that to speak of, she did not know her and that she had noticed she had lunch there on Saturdays.

Gupta again asked whether she didn’t come on any other day.

The waitress then answered that she never saw her on other days.

Answer 9.
Honorable dignitaries on and off the dais, and my dear friends, Almost everyone wishes to be successful and all of us feel proud of the successful people. But no one ever tries to see how the so-called successful people have become successful. Success is not a matter of luck, nor is it easily attained. It needs a lot of effort and determination. It needs the power to dare challenges.

The life of Stephen Hawking, the world-renowned astrophysicist teachers us this. Let me take this opportunity to introduce him to you. Stephen Hawking has earned an international reputation as the most brilliant theoretical physicist since Einstein. He is an insightful, absorbing, and inspiring person of extraordinary courage who dared his challenges and the threat- ‘ ending disease with his strong willpower.
His life and works bear witness to his brilliant mind.

He was not a born prodigy. Many times he met with borderline results. At age of 21, he was diagnosed with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis. It was devastating news for Hawking and his family. A few events, however, prevented him from becoming completely pessimistic.

In a sense, Hawking’s disease helped him become the noted scientist he is today. With the sudden realization that he might not even live long enough to earn his Ph.D., Hawking poured himself into his work and research and despite his devastating illness, he has done groundbreaking work in physics and cosmology, ’and his several books have helped to make science accessible to everyone.

Today, we are releasing his book A Brief History of Time.’ The book articulates the physicist’s personal search for science’s Holy Grail: a single unifying theory that can combine cosmology with quantum mechanics to explain how the universe began. Dear sir, my hearty congratulations and I wish that you may continue giving such valuable contributions in the future too.

I really wonder, how he could do all these and become the supernova of physics even against your handicaps. Of course, his life will be a source of inspiration to us all. I wish everyone has the courage to face life boldly like this, and then the world will be a different one.

Thank you.

Answer 10.
Effective management of Disasters
Disasters, both natural and manmade, have become a challenge for all humanity and people become vulnerable as the intensity and frequency increase. It affects both developing and developed countries equally.

There are both direct and indirect impacts for disasters like destruction and death, failure of lifeline support systems, severe stress experienced by health care and hospitals, disturbance in commercial and economic activities etc. which make the situation drastic. The poor sections are the most affected usually.

There are many causes for disasters. Defects in the construction of a building are the major reasons for high risk due to disasters. The scenario in the developing countries is worse as only 30% of buildings are constructed in accordance with rules. Lack of master- plan and inferior quality of building materials also aggravate the situation.

We cannot avert or avoid disasters. But we can adopt measures to mitigate the gravity. Destruction can be minimized if private and public buildings adhere to master -plan and constructed in accordance with rules and good quality materials are used. Existing buildings also should be technically assessed and people concerned are to be informed. Purpose of management in India is not prevention, but reduction of impact.

State government plays a major role and should ensure effective functioning of the state-level committee. The central government has got only a facilitating role i.e to coordinate crisis management committee and provide support like defense services, air dropping, rescuing, searching, transport of relief goods, conveyance etc. Rehabilitation of victims is an integral part of disaster management.

Disasters are non-routine events and therefore need non-routine responses for effective management. Proper coordination among different departments is needed to bring speedy relief. Rescue teams should have additional skills and should be equipped with latest technology.

Answer 11.
The full name of Maggie was Alice Marga-ret Clifford. She was thirteen or fourteen years old. Her clothes betrayed her poverty. Her hair hung in a heavy stream down her back. Her eyes were very large. They had a sad expression. Maggie worked as a typist in the civil service stores. She lived with her old widowed mother. Her only brother Frank was in the Indian army. She loved her brother very much. Maggie is ambitious and she is not happy with her job as a typist. She wants to do a job where her brain can be used. When she gets a better job she will rent a better house and take her mother there. This shows how much she cares for her mother. When her mother is in a critical condition she even asks Mr. Gupta to lie about her brother so that the mother feels better by hearing that her son is alive and doing well in India.

Answer 12.
I would say that some of the Gandhian ideas are quite relevant even in the twentieth century. The biggest idea of Gandhi was non-violence. Every day we hear of wars and killings. People are killing one another in the name of religion. Even India is not free from religious intolerance. Gandhi taught us that though the names of God is different- some people call him Ishwar and some call him Allah. Both are the names of the same Almighty. So there is no need to fight, as we all – Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Buddhists and Christians are the children of the same father. Gandhi taught people to practice truth. He also taught us the dignity of labor. His ideas of truth, non- violence, hard work, respect of human rights etc are still very much relevant in the 21st century.

Answer 13.
Gandhi provided the world with his timeless philosophy. It was not meant for the Independence of India only. Nonviolence is itself normative. It applies to any situation. Though Gandhi is dead, his philosophy remains alive. He is a living power, more powerful in death than life. Through Gandhi, we can now understand that the philosophy of non-violence can be applied in economics, politics, religion, society etc. Gandhi’s Satyagraha has been applied to bring about useful changes. Many Institutes have been founded to propagate Gandhi’s philosophy of Non-violence. On 2nd October 2014, the Indian Prime Minister, Narendra Modi, launched a nationwide cleanliness campaign on the occasion of Mahatma Gandhi birth anniversary. The concept of Swachh Bharat is to provide sanitation facilities to every family, including toilets, solid and liquid waste disposal systems, village cleanliness and safe and adequate drinking water supply. Mahatma said that women must realize their full status and play their part as equal as men.

Answer 14.
Mr. Gupta described to Mrs. Clifford that India was a beautiful country. It is not cold like England, but somewhat hot. Of course, there are tigers and snakes in India, but they live in the jungles. If they came to places where people live, they would be killed. There are fevers in some places in India. But they differ with places and seasons. This impression of India given by Mr. Gupta removed from her the fear she had about her sons living conditions in India.

Answer 15.
Ladies and gentlemen, you are welcome to this beautiful island. I am guided Fernandez. I wish you all a nice time here. Fiji is a multi-cultured island nation, having the cultural tradition of the people of Oceanic, European, South -Asian, and East Asian origins. lt consists of nearly 320 islands in the South West Pacific Ocean. It is 3152 km away from Sydney, Australia. Nearly a hundred of these islands are inhabited. You can enjoy the little ports and beautiful seacoasts. You can enjoy boat journeys and also tasty dishes of various kinds of fish. So ladies and gentlemen, let us enjoy ourselves.

Answer 16.
Don’t eat while walking.
Don’t think about serious matters while walking.
Don’t talk while you walk. ’
Avoid the use of mobile phone when you are walking fast.

Answer 17.
Rupali Tharun,
Pranavam,
5/15 High Street, Alappuzha.
30th May 2018

The Editor,
The City Chronicle,
Thiruvananthapuram.

Dear Sir,

Through the columns of your esteemed daily, I would like to draw the attention of the •public and the authorities to a very important concern of Kerala. The water in most of our rivers is highly polluted. The pollution of river water is caused by the dumping of untreated sewage and industrial wastes. In addition to sewage and industrial wastes, the pollution is also caused by other human activities like bathing, washing of clothes, animals etc. The industries also discharge chemical effluents into the river water. The toxicity of these chemical effluents kills the fish in many parts of the river. Pollutions also lead to scarcity of pure drinking water.
I shall be happy if you could project this problem through the valuable pages of your newspaper. Hope, the Government would take note of the matter and take some drastic steps to adopt measures to prevent water pollution.

Yours truly,
Sd /-
Rupali Tharun.

Answer 18.
Thusharagiri is a beautiful spot which tourists must visit. Its location is in the Western Ghats, below the Wayanadan hills. It is 55 kilometers away from Kozhikode city. There are roads leading to Thusharagiri from Kozhikode, Kap- pad beach and Wayand. The attractions of Thusharagiri are the three waterfalls, the Thanni Muthassi and the panoramic beauty of the Wayanad forests. Tourists can bath in the cool and pure water. For those who want to enjoy trekking, there is the facility, accompanied by guides. Good food also is available here.

Answer 19.

1. Well, this is Lieutenant Mallet, this is M.Etierine Beer, and this is M.Paul Bessant and this is Guy de Maupassant.
2. The basket for the traveler to sit in was attached to the balloon and barometers were brought. The two trumpets, the eatables, the overcoats and raincoats and all the small articles that could go with the men in the flying basket were arranged.
3. Guiding the balloon is not an easy task. Winds and storms may change its course

Answer 20.
The given graph provides us with a clear picture of the money spent on fast food by people of different age groups over the last 20 years. It is startling to know that our young people are spending a lot of money for buying these junk food nowadays.

In 1995, 3000 rupees per year had been spent by the youths whereas in 2010 they had spent around 7000 rupees per year for fast food. The people in the age group 25- 35 had spent only around 4000 rupees per year in 2000 for junk food. Their consumption through the years is not that much alarming. In 2010 they had spent around 5000 rupees per year. In the case of the age group between 35-45 in 1995 fast food consumption was the lowest, ie. only 1500 rupees per year.

From these data, we can conclude that our youngsters are addicted to fast food. On the contrary, our middle-aged people seem to be not excited in the thought of consuming fast food recently.

Answer 21.
Ludwig van Beethoven
The world-renowned German music composer and pianist Ludwig van Beethoven was born on 16th December 1770 in Germany. His parents were John Van Beethoven and Maria Magdalena Kever- ich. In childhood, Beethoven was fond of music. His father was his first music teacher. He taught his son music day and night. Little Beethoven’s first public performance was at the age of seven. Later he published his first composition in 1782 at the age 12. Unfortunately, deafness at-tacked this young genius in 1796. He decided to commit suicide. But soon he recognized his talents and determined to explore much more in the field of music.

Beethoven, well-known as a pianist and violinist, published his first three Sonatas in 1783. He conveyed new standards and emotions through music by creating melodies and harmonies. Altogether he composed ten symphonies during the period between 1800 and 1824. The great musician passed away on March 26, 1827. About 3000 people attended his funeral.

Answer 22.
Lantern Festival
Lantern festival signals the end of the new year festival period. People get together watching lanterns and fireworks, guessing lantern riddles and performing folk dance during this festival.

A common legend dealing with the origin of the lantern festival speaks of a secured bird that flew down to the earth from heaven. After it landed on earth it was hunted and killed by a hunter and some villagers. This angered the emperor in heaven. So he planned a firestorm to destroy the village. However, a Wiseman suggested that every family should hang red lanterns outside their homes, set up bonfires on the screen and light firecrackers for 3 days. Even today this festival is celebrated.

Answer 23.
Good Deeds – Sasikanth Nishanth Sarma. As the title of the poem suggests, the poem is about the good deeds that we do and the good results they produce.

The world is a mixture of happiness and sorrow. The poet reminds the readers that there is only one life and it should be enjoyed. At the same time, we should take care to keep company with good people. We should saw the seeds of virtues and cultivate the mind with healthy thoughts obtained from the experiences for ages. Keep on doing good deeds so that you do not have time to do bad things. If you do any harm to anyone, it will be a blemish on your character. One, who wants to succeed in life, must always pay attention to acquire good qualities. It is not the quantity but the quality that matters. A wise man can only give advice. But it is you who should know what your needs are. Then you decide what to do and what not to do.

It is a moral poem written in twenty-two lines. The poem is written in rhyming couplets. Every two lines rhyme. Knife/ life, well/dwell are examples. The poem is written in simple language.

Plus One English Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus One Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 4 Uravu Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Kerala Plus One Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 4 Uravu

Uravu Questions and Answers

Students can Download Chapter 3 Morphology of Flowering Plants Notes, Plus One Botany Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Botany Notes Chapter 3 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Define Morphology:
It is study of external features of a plant i.e presence of roots, stems, leaves, flowers and fruits.

Morphology Of Flowering Plants Class 11 Notes The Root:
Root system:
In dicotyledonous plants, the direct elongation of the radicle leads to the formation of primary root which bears lateral roots that are secondary, tertiary, etc.

1. Tap root system:
The radical elongate and forms primary root or tap root that bears number of lateral roots. It is found in dicot root. eg: the mustard plant.

2. Fibrous root system:
In monocotyledonous plants, the primary root is short lived from there thin fibre roots originates. eg: wheat plant.

3. Adventitious roots:
In grass, Monstera and the banyan tree, roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle.

Anatomy Of Flowering Plants Class 11 Notes Hsslive Regions of the Root:
1. Region of Root cap:
It is the covering of root apex that protects the tender apex.

2. Region of Meristem:
This is the region just behind the the root cap that is capable of active cell division.

3. Region of elongation:
The cells proximal to this region undergo rapid elongation and enlargement for the growth

4. Region of maturation:
This is proximal to the region of elongation gradually differentiate and mature

5. Region root hairs:
From the region of maturation root hairs arise. These root hairs absorb water and minerals from the soil.

Plus One Botany Chapter Morphology Of Flowering Plants Modifications of Root:
Roots are modified for

1. Mechanical support
2. Storage of food
3. Respiration

1. Mechanical support:
(a) Prop roots:
In banyan tree, adventitious roots are modified and provide mechanical support

(b) Stilt roots:
In maize and sugarcane adventitious roots are supporting and coming out from the lower nodes of the stem. .

2. Storage of food:
In carrot, turnips tap roots are modified for food storage. In sweet potato adventitious roots are swollen and store food.

3. Respiration:
Rhizophora growing in swampy areas, many roots come out of the ground and grow vertically upwards. Such roots are called pneumatophores.
Function:
It help in the process of respiration.

Plus One Morphology Of Flowering Plants The Stem:
Salient features:

1. The stem arise from the plumule of the embryo of a germinating seed.
2. The stem bears nodes and internodes.
3. The region of the stem where leaves are born are called nodes while internodes are the portions between two nodes.

Function:
Support leaves, flowers and fruits. It also conducts water, minerals and do photosynthesis.

Plus One Botany Morphology Of Flowering Plants Modifications of Stem:
1. Storage of food:
Underground stems of potato, ginger, turmeric, zaminkand, Colocasia are modified to store food

2. Climbing:
Stem tendrils which develop from axillary buds, are slender and spirally coiled that help the plants to climb. eg: in gourds (cucumber, pumpkins, watermelon) and grapevines.

3. Protection:
Axillary buds of stem are modified into woody, straight and pointed thorns. eg: in Citrus, Bougainvillea Thev nrotect Dlants from browsina animals

4. Photosynthesis:
Some stems are lattened (Opuntia), or fleshy cylindrical (Euphorbia) structures. They contain chlorophyll and carry out photosynthesis.

5. Vegetative propagation:

• In grass and strawberry, etc. stem spread to new niches and when older parts die new plants are formed.
• In mint and jasmine lateral branch arises from the base of the main axis and after growing aerially and arch downwards to touch the ground.
• In Pistia and Eichhornia the lateral branch with short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots
• In banana, pineapple and Chrysanthemum, the lateral branches originate from the basal underground portion of the main stem, grow horizontally beneath the soil and then come out obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots.

Plus One Botany Chapter 3 Notes The Leaf:
Salient features:

1. It is the flattened structure develops at the node and bears a bud in its axil.
2. The axillary bud later develops into a branch.
3. They are the most important vegetative organs for photosynthesis.
4. some plants leaf base bear two lateral stipules.
5. In monocotyledons, the leaf base expands into a sheath covering the stem.
6. In some leguminous plants the leaf base become swollen, which is called the pulvinus.
7. The lamina or the leaf blade is the green expanded part of the leaf with veins and veinlets.
8. The middle prominent vein, which is known as the midrib.

Function of veins:
Veins act as channels of transport for water, minerals and food materials.
A typical leaf consists of three main parts:

• Leaf base
• petiole
• lamina

Morphology Of Flowering Plants Class 11 Pdf Venation:
1. Reticulate Venation:
The arrangement of veins and the veinlets in the lamina of leaf. Veinlets repeatedly branched to form a network. eg: dicotyledonous plants.

2. Parallel Venation:
When the veins run parallel to each other within a lamina. eg: monocotyledons plants.

Morphology Of Flowering Plants Pdf Download Types of Leaves:

1. Siimple leaf: In this lamina is entire or the incisions do not touch the midrib.
2. Compound leaf: In this incisions of the lamina reach up to the midrib breaking it into a number of leaflets.

Can you see the bud in the axil of leaflet of compound leaf?
A bud is not present in the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf.

Two types of compound leaves:

1. Pinnately compound leaf: Number of leaflets are present on a common axis, the rachis, which represents the midrib of the leaf eg neem.
2. Palmately compound leaf: In this leaflets are attached at the tip of petiole, eg silk cotton.

Morphology Of Flowering Plants Notes Pdf Phyllotaxy:
It is the arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch Three types of phyllotaxy in plants alternate, opposite and whorled.

1. Alternate type: A single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner. eg: china rose, mustard and sunflower.
2. Opposite type: A pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other. eg: Calotropis and guava.
3. Whorled type: More than two leaves arise at a node. eg: Alstonia.

Morphology Of Flowering Plants Class 11 Notes Pdf Download Modifications of Leaves:

1. Food storage: The fleshy leaves of onion and garlic store food.
2. Protection: The spines are developed in cacti act as organ of defence
3. Climbing: In peas Leaves are modified into tendrils for climbing
4. Photosynthesis: In Australian acacia, the leaves are small and short-lived. The petioles in these plants expand become green and synthesise food
5. Insect capture: In pitcher plant and venus-fly trap (insectivorous plants) leaves are modified for Capturing insects.

Morphology Of Flowering Plants Pdf The Inflorescence:
The arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is termed as inflorescence. Two major types of inflorescences are

1. Racemose
2. Cymose.

How will you differentiate recemose inflorescence from cymose?
In racemose type, the main axis continues to grow, the flowers are arranged in an acropetal succession. In cymose type, the main axis terminates in a flower. The flowers arranged in a basipetal order.

Morphology Of Flowering Plants Class 11 The Flower:
The flower is the reproductive unit in the angiosperms. It consists of different kinds of whorls (calyx, corolla, androecium and Gynoecium) arranged successively on the swollen end of the stalk or pedicel, called thalamus or receptacle.

What are the accessory and reproductive organs?
Calyx and corolla are accessory organs,while androecium and gynoecium are reproductive organs.

Did you see single accessory organ of a flower:
In lily plant, the calyx and corolla are not distinct, it is called as perianth. This is the single accessory organ of a flower. When a flower has both androecium and gynoecium, it is bisexual. A flower having either only stamens or only carpels is unisexual.
1. Actinomorphic Flower:
A flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane passing through the centre, eg: mustard, datura, chilli.

2. Zyqomorphic:
A flower can be divided into two similar halves only in one particular vertical plane, eg: pea, gulmohur, bean, Cassia.

3. Asymmetric (irregular):
A flower cannot be divided into two similar halves by any vertical plane passing through the centre, as in canna. Afloweristrimerous, tetramerous or pentamerous when the floral appendages are in multiple of 3, 4 or 5, respectively.

Bracteate and ebracteate flower:
Flowers with reduced leaf found at the base of the pedicel, are called bracteate and those without bracts, ebracteate.

Classification of flower:
It is based on the position of calyx, corolla and androecium in respect of the ovary on thalamus
1. Hypogynous flower:
The position of gynoecium is highest when compared to other. The ovary in such flowers is said to be superior, eg: mustard, china rose and brinjal.

2. Perigynous flower:
The position of gynoecium is situated in the centre and other parts of the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus almost at the same level. The position of ovary is half inferior, eg: plum, rose, peach.

3. Epigynous flowers:
The margin of thalamus grows upward and other parts of flower arise above the ovary. The position of ovary is inferior. eg: guava and cucumber, and the ray florets of sunflower.

Morphology In Plants Class 11 Notes Parts of a Flower:
Each flower has four floral whorls -calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium.

Morphology Of Flowering Plants Class 11 Notes Pdf Calyx:
Act as protective whorl:
The calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower and segments are called sepals. The sepals are green, leaf like and protect the flower in the bud stage. The calyx may be gamosepalous (sepals united) or polysepalous (sepals free).

Plus One Botany Morphology Of Flowering Plants Notes Corolla:
Act as an attractive whorl:
Petals are brightly coloured that attract insects for pollination. Corolla may be free (polypetalous) or united (gamopetalous).

Aestivation:
The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud is known as aestivation. The main types of aestivation are:

1. Valvate
2. Twisted
3. Imbricate
4. Vexillary.

1. In valvate sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin, without overlapping, Eg -Calotropis
2. In twisted the one margin of the appendage overlaps the next one and so on. g. china rose, lady’s finger and cotton
3. In imbricate the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction. eg: Cassia and gulmohur

Can vou find out aestivation type in papillionaceous corolla?
There are five petals, the largest (standard) overlaps the two lateral petals (wings) which in turn overlap the two smallest anterior petals (keel). This is vexillary aestivation; Eg pea and bean flowers.

Androecium:
Structure of stamen:
Androecium is composed of stamens. Stamen is the male reproductive organ consists of a filament and an anther. Each anther is usually bilobed and each lobe has two chambers, the pollen-sacs. The pollen grains are produced in pollen-sacs. A sterile stamen is called staminode.

Differentiate between epibetalous and epiphvllous condition:
When stamens are attached to the petals, they are epipetalous as in brinjal, or epiphyllous when attached to the perianth as in the flowers of lily.

Free and fused nature of stamens:
The stamens in a flower remain free called as polyandrous. If the stamens are united into one bundle called as monoadelphous. eg: china rose, or two bundles called as diadelphous eg: pea, or into more than two bundles called as polyadelphous eg: citrus.

Variation in the length of filaments:
eg: Salvia and mustard.

Gynoecium:
Structure of carpel/pistil:
Gynoecium is the female reproductive part of the flower and is made up of one or more carpels. Acarpel consists of three parts namely stigma, style and ovary. Ovary is the enlarged basal part, on which lies the elongated tube, the style.

The style connects the ovary to the stigma. The stigma is the receptive surface for pollen grains. Each ovary bears one or more ovules attached to a flattened, cushion-like placenta.

Free and fused nature of carpel:
If carpels are free they are called apocarpous, eg lotus and rose. If carpels are fused they are called syncarpous. eg: mustard and tomato.

What happens to ovule and ovary after fertilization?
After fertilisation, the ovules develop Into seeds and the ovary matures into a fruit.

Placentation:
The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is known as placentation. Different types of placentation are marginal, axile, parietal, basal, central and free central.

The Fruit:
It is a ripened ovary developed after fertilisation.
Parthenocarpic fruit:
If a fruit is formed without fertilisation of the ovary, it is called a parthenocarpic fruit. The fruit consists of a wall called pericarp and seeds.

Meaning of Drupe:
Fruit that develops from monocarpellary superior ovaries and are one seeded. Eg:- mango and coconut.

Different layers of pericarp:
In mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer thin epicarp, a middle fleshy edible mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp. In coconut fruit is drupe, the mesocarp is fibrous.

The Seed:
Seed consists of a seed coat and an embryo. The embryo is made up of a radicle, an embryonal axis, one cotyledons as in wheat, maize or two cotyledons as in gram and pea.

Structure of a Dicotyledonous Seed:
The seed coat has two layers, the outer testa and the inner tegmen. The hilum is a scar on the seed coat .Above the hilum is a small pore called the micropyle. It consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons. The cotyledons are fleshy and contains reserve food materials. At the two ends of the embryonal axis are present the radicle and the plumule.

What is non endospermic seed?
In plants such as bean, gram and pea, the endosperm is not present in mature seeds and such seeds are called non endospermous.

Structure of Monocotyledonous Seed:
Monocotyledonous seeds are endospermic but it is non-endospermic in orchids. The seed coat is membranous and fused with the fruit wall. The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinous layer called aleurone layer The embryo is situated in one end of the endosperm.

It consists of Vy one large and shield shaped cotyledon known as scutellum and a short axis with a plumule and a radicle. The plumule is enclosed in sheaths called coleoptile and radicle are enclosed in sheaths called as coleorhiza.

Some Technical Description Of A Typical Flowering Plant:
In the floral formula, Br stands for bracteate K stands for calyx, C for corolla, P for perianth, A for androecium and G for Gynoecium, for superior ovary and for inferior ovary, for male, for female, for bisexual plants, for for actinomorphicand forforzygomorphic nature of flower

Description Of Some Important Families:
Fabaceae (Papilonoideae ):
It is a subfamily of family Leguminosae.

Vegetative Characters:

• Stem: Erect or climber
• Leaves: alternate, pinnately compound or simple; leaf base, pulvinate; stipulate; venation reticulate.

Economic importance:
Sources of pulses (gram, arhar.sem, moong, soyabean; Edible oil (soyabean, groundnut); dye (indigofera); Fibres (sunhemp); Fodder (Sesbania, Trifolium), Ornamentals (lupin, sweet pea) Medicine (muliathi).

Solanaceae (‘potato family’):
Vegetative Characters:
1. Stem:
herbaceous rarely woody, aerial; erect, cylindrical, branched, solid or hollow, hairy or glabrous, underground stem in potato (Solatium tuberosum).

2. Leaves:
alternate, simple, rarely pinnately compound, exstipulate; venation reticulate

Floral Characters:

• Inflorescence: Solitary, axillary or cymose as in Solanum
• Flower: bisexual, actinomorphic
• Calyx: sepals five, united, persistent, valvate aestivation
• Corolla: petals five, united; valvate aestivation
• Androecium: stamens five, epipetalous
• Gynoecium: bicarpellary, syncarpous; ovary superior, bilocular, placenta swollen with many ovules
• Fruits : berry or capsule
• Seeds: many, endospermous.

Economic Importance:
source of food (tomato, brinjal, potato)spice (chilli); Medicine (belladonna, ashwagandha) Fumigatory (tobacco); ornamentals (petunia).

Lilaceae (‘Lily family’):
Vegetative characters:
Perennial herbs with underground bulbs/corms/rhizomes. Leaves mostly basal, alternate, linear, exstipulate with parallel venation.

Floral characters:

• Inflorescence: solitary/cymose; often umbellate clusters.
• Flower: bisexual; actinomorphic
• Perianth: tepal six (3 + 3), often united into tube valvate aestivation.
• Androcium: stamen six, 3 + 3
• Gynoecium: tricarpellary, syncarpous, ovar ovules; axile placentation.
• Fruit: capsule, rarely berry
• Seed: endospermous

Economic Importance:
Ornamentals (tulip, Gloriosa), Source of medicine (Aloe), Vegetables (Asparagus), and colchicine (Colchicum autumnale).

Students can Download Chapter 3 Structural Organisation in Animals Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Structural Organisation in Animals

Plus One Structural Organisation in Animals One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Questions And Answers Question 1.
Which one of the following types of cell is involved in making of the inner walls of large blood vessels?
(a) Cuboidal epithelium
(b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Squamous epithelium
(d) stratified epithelium
Answer:
(c) Squamous epithelium

Plus One Zoology Previous Question Papers Chapter Wise Question 2.
To which one of the following categories does adipose tissue belong?
(a) Epithelial
(b) Connective
(c) Muscular
(d) Neural
Answer:
(b) Connective

Plus One Zoology Previous Question Papers Chapter Wise Hsslive Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a connective tissue?
(a) Bone
(b) Cartilage
(c) Blood
(d) Muscles
Answer:
(d) Muscles

Plus One Zoology Structural Organisation Of Animals Question 4.
Which one of the following statements is true for cockroach?
(a) The number of ovarioles in each ovary are ten.
(b) The larval stage is called caterpillar
(c) Anal styles are absent in females
(d) They are ureotelic
Answer:
(c) Anal styles are absent in females

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 5.
Match the following with reference to Cockroach and choose the correct option.

(a) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i
(b) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(c) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i
(d) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
Answer:
(b) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 6.
Complete the following sentences:

1. The most common species of frog found in India is
2. Blood Vascular system of cockroach is

Answer:

1. Ranatigrina
2. Open

Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 7.
Name the respiratory organs of insects.
Answer:
Trachea

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Download Question 8.
Note the relationship between the first two words and suggests a suitable word.

1.  Dendrons: Dendrites
   Axon: _________
2. Mast cells: Histamine
   Fibroblast: ________

Answer:

1. Myelin sheath
2. Fibres

Hsslive Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 9.

1. Which among the following is the bone cell _____________.
   (Leucocyte, Chondrocyte, Osteocyte, Thrombocyte)
2. In earthworm, segments 14-16 are covered by a prominent dark band of glandular tissue called __________. (Setae, Clitellum, Typlosol, None of these)

Answer:

1. Osteocyte
2. Clitellum

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Hsslive Question 10.
‘Neuroglia make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body’. Write the function of neuroglial cells.
Answer:
Neuroglia cells protect and support neurons in our neural system.

Plus One Zoology Animal Kingdom Questions Question 11.
From the following segments, find out the segments in which, Clitellum is situated in a mature earthworm.
(a) 12-16
(b) 14 -16
(c) 10-14
(d) 16-18
Answer:
(b) 14 -16

Zoology Previous Year Question Paper Plus One Question 12.
Name the cells present in areolar tissue.
Answer:
Fibroblasts, Macrophages, Mast cells

Structural Organisation In Animals And Plants Question 13.
_____________ make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body.
Answer:
Neuroglia

Hsslive Zoology Plus One Previous Questions Question 14.
Given below are different types of epithelial tissues. Find out the tissue that are present in the tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys.
Answer:
Cuboidal

Plus One Zoology Previous Question Papers And Answers Question 15.
Heart is made of
1. Epithelial tissue and Muscular tissue.
2. Muscular tissue and neural tissue.
3. Musculartissue and connective tissue.
4. All the four types of tissues.
Answer:
4. All the four types of tissues.

Structural Organisation In Plants Question 16.
Write the cellular components of blood.
Answer:
Red blood cells (RBC), White blood cells (WBC) and platelets.

Plus One Zoology Questions And Answers Question 17.
In earthworm, setae are absent in the segments.
(a) First and last
(b) Clitellum only
(c) First, last and clitellum
(d) Peristomium and Clitellum
Answer:
(c) First, last and Clitellum.

Function Of Hepatic Caeca In Cockroach Question 18.
Intestine of earthworm contain a special organ which help in absorption. Identify the organ.
Answer:
Typhlosole

Question 19.
Name the structures which help in locomotion in Earthworm.
Answer:
Setae

Question 20.
In cockroach the fertilized eggs are encased in capsule called __________
Answer:
Oothecae

Plus One Structural Organisation in Animals Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Regarding the blood vascular system of frog, some statements are given below. Check whether these are True or False and make corrections if necessary.

1. Open type.
2. Sinus venosus join the right atrium.
3. RBC is non-nucleated.
4. Circulation is achieved by the pumping action of the heart.

Answer:

1. False – Closed type
2. True
3. False – RBC is nucleated
4. True

Question 2.
You are given two cockroaches and the teacher asked to display the mouthparts of male cockroach.

1. How will you identify the male cockroach
2. Name the mouthparts of cockroach.

Answer:

1. In males styles are present and the abdomen is narrow and V shaped. In females abdomen is broad and anal styles are absent.
2. Labrum, mandibles, Hypopharynx, maxilla and Labium.

Question 3.
Give one word for the following.

1. Tissue attach one bone to another.
2. The structures protect and support neurons in neural system.

Answer:

1. Ligaments
2. Neuroglial cell

Question 4.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 5.
Copy the diagram and label the numbered parts.

Answer:

1. Pharynx
2. Gizzard
3. Intestinal caecum
4. Typhlosole

Question 6.
Observe the diagram

1. Name the above connective tissue. Where they found in our body?
2. Name any two principle cell found in it.

Answer:

1. Areolar connective tissue, present beneath the skin.
2. Fibroblast and macrophage

Question 7.
Observe the pool of connective tissues carefully. Classify them under three headings.

Answer:

Question 8.
Anatomical structures of 3 animals are given below. Identify the 3 animals and arrange the structures into 3 separate groups.  (Typhlosole, Malpighian tubules, Blood glands, Cloaca, Phallic gland, Kidney, Collateral Gland)
Answer:

Question 9.
Copy the diagram and label the numbered parts.

Answer:

1. Testis
2. Vasa efferentia
3. Fat bodies
4. Urino genital duct

Question 10.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 11.
Name the labeled parts A, B in the diagram given below

Answer:
A. Chondocyte

B. Collagen fibers

Question 12.
Circulating fluid of cockroach is colourless.

1. Name the circulating fluid.
2. Name the cell concerned in it.

Answer:

1. hemolymph
2. hemocytes

Question 13.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 14.
Give one word for the following.

1. Tissue specialised to store fats.
2. Tissue contains fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells.
3. Tissue attach skeletal muscles to bones.

Answer:

1. Adipose tissue
2. Areolar tissue
3. Tendons

Question 15.
You are given permanent slides of a bone and cartilage. How will you identify them using a microscope.
Answer:

1. Bone: Presence of Haversian system.
   Presence of Haversian canal in the centre.
2. Cartilage: Matrix contain spaces called lacunae.
   Lacunae contain chondrocyte.

Question 16.
Frogs maintain ecological balance. As a biological student do you agree with this statement? Why?
Answer:
Frogs maintain ecological balance because they serve as an important link of food chain and food web in the ecosystem.

Question 17.
Ratheesh mounted the mouthparts of cockroach in the following manner. If there is any error, correct it.

Answer:
A) Labium
B) Labrum
C) Mandibles
D) Hypopharynx
E) Maxilla.

Question 18.
Observe the diagram given below and label the parts
A, B, C, D.

Answer:
A – Liver
B – Stomach
C – Intestine
D – Rectum

Question 19.
While viewing the fallopian tube through CT scan we can find large number of cilia.

1. Identify the tissue present in the fallopian tube.
2. Mention the function of cilia.

Answer:

1. Ciliated epithelium
2. Ovum is moved by the help of cilia.

Question 20.
‘An earthworm respires through skin and excretes through nephridia’ Rewrite the above sentence beginning with ‘A cockroach ………………..’ making appropriate
changes.
Answer:
A cockroach respires through trachea and excretes through malpighian tubules.

Question 21.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 22.
Identify the diagram and label the part marked A.

Answer:
Frog female reproductive system Part A is Oviduct

Question 23.
Observe the given diagram.

1. Identify X and Y.
2. Write any two characters of X and Y.

Answer:

1. X – Striated muscle
   Y – Cardiac muscle
2. Striated muscle – Skeletal muscle, voluntary muscle, striations present Cardiac muscle – Muscles of heart, branched muscle fibres, intercalated disc.

Question 24.
Observe the table given below and fill in the blanks from the list given below:
(Pancreas, Liver, Salivary gland, Tear gland, Adrenal gland, Thyroid gland)

Answer:

Question 25.
There are some physiological similarities between typhlosole and villi. Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Both typhlosole and villi are part of intestine of earthworm and human beings respectively. Typhlosole and villi increase the effective area of absorption in the intestine.

Question 26.
Observe the given diagrams.

1. Identify A and B.
2. Write any one function of each.

Answer:

1. A – Non-striated muscle (smooth muscle)
   B – Ciliated epithelium
2. A – Found in the wall of internal organs and concerned with the movement of these organs. B – Ciliated epithelium is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium.

Question 27.
Write the significance of

1. Blood
2. Neuroglia

Answer:

1. Blood – The main circulating fluid that help in the transport of various substances.
2. Neuroglia – Protect and support neurons. Neuroglia make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body.

Question 28.
Classify the given terms into three columns and give appropriate headings.
Striated, heart muscle, intercalated disc, biceps, visceral organs, no striation.
Answer:

Question 29.
Where do you find the following structures in human body.

1. Chondrocytes
2. Axon
3. Osteocytes
4. Plasma

Answer:

1. Cartilage
2. Neuron
3. Bone
4. Blood

Question 30.
Write the suitable world for the 4^th place.

1. Muscle to bone – Tendon; Bone to Bone – _____________
2. Bone – osteocytes; Cartilage – __________
3. Cardiac Muscle – Involuntary; Striated Muscle – __________
4. Contractile cell – Muscle; Excitable cell – ______________

Answer:

1. Ligament
2. Chondrocytes
3. Voluntary
4. Neuron

Question 31.
Give an account on Nephridia of earthworm.
Answer:
Excretory organs in earthworm is nephridia. There are three types:

1. Septal nephridia: Present on both the sides of intersegmental septa of segments 5 to the last that open into intestine.

2. Integumentary nephridia: attached to lining of the body wall of segment 3 to the last that open on the body surface.

3. Pharyngeal nephridia: present as three paired tufts in the 4^th, 5^th, and 6^th segments.

Question 32.
Flow chart showing flow of food through the alimentary canal of an earthworm given. Correct the flow chart if there is any mistake.
Mouth→Pharynx → Stomach → intestine → Gizzard → Oesophagus.
Answer:
Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Stomach → Intestine

Question 33.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 34.
You are given an earthworm for dissection, how will you identify its anterior, posterior, dorsal and ventral sides.
Answer:
The dorsal surface of the body is marked by a dark median mid dorsal line along the longitudinal axis of the body. The ventral surface is distinguished by the presence of genital openings. Anterior end consists of the mouth and the prostomium. The posterior end is slightly rounded.

Question 35.
Blood cell of earthworm lack hemoglobin. But blood of earthworm is red in colour. How do you account for it?
Answer:
Blood cell of earth worm lack hemoglobin. But blood of earthworm is red in colour because hemoglobin is dissolved in blood plasma.

Question 36.
Match the related items from B and C with Column A.

Answer:

Question 37.
Copy and complete the animals on the table and the excretory organs.

Answer:

Question 38.
Identify the animals from the hints given below.

1. Invertebrate, Burrowing in moist soil, Nephridia, Genital pore.
2. Chordata, Amphibian, Kidney, Cloaca
3. Invertebrate, Insecta, Malpighian tubules, gonapophysis.

Answer:

1. Earthworm
2. Frog
3. Cockroach

Question 39.
Identify the statements as True or False.

1. First segment of earthworm is Prostomium.
2. Peristomium contain mouth.
3. Clitellum is on segments 14-16.
4. Earthworm has only a single female genital aperture.

Answer:

1. False (First segment is peristomium)
2. True
3. True
4. Tare

Question 40.
Earthworm feeds on humus, which contain large amount of humic acid.

1. How does the earthworm neutralises the humic acid?
2. Name the region of alimentary canal where humic acid is neutralised.

Answer:

1. Calciferous gland, present in the stomach, neutralise the humic and present in humus.
2. In stomach.

Question 41.
Write a note on typhlosole.
Answer:
The special structure present in the intestine of earthworm between 26-35 segment is called typhlosole. It is an internal median fold of dorsal wall of intestine. Typhlosole increases the effective area of absorption in the intestine.

Question 42.
Blood glands are important in earthworm. Give reason.
Answer:
Blood glands are present on the 4^th, 5^th and 6^th segments of earthworm. They produce blood cells and hemoglobin which is dissolved in blood plasma.

Question 43.
Earthworm is a hermaphrodite animal. Where are its sex organs situated?
Answer:
Two pairs of testes present in the 10^th and 11^th segments. One pair of ovaries is attached at the inter-segmental septum of the 12^th and 13^th segment.

Question 44.
Earthworms are known as ‘Friends of farmers’. Give reason.
Answer:
Earthworms are known as ‘friends of farmers’ because they make burrows in the soil and make it porous which helps in respiration and penetration of the developing plant roots. The process of increasing fertility of soil by the earthworm is called vermicomposting. They are also used as bait in the game fishing.

Question 45.
Write the missing word in 4^th place.

1. Dorsally – Tergites; Ventrally – ……………
2. Earthworm – Nephridia; Cockroach – …………….

Answer:

1. Stern items
2. Malpighian tubules

Question 46.
Cockroach show sexual dimorphism. Write any two morphological differences between male and female cockroaches.
Answer:

1. In females, the 7^th sternum is boat-shaped and there is presence of a brood pouch.
2. In males, there is presence of anal style and genital pore in the 9^th segment.

Question 47
While dissecting a cockroach to display its digestive system, a student observed certain thick white tubules. Teacher explained it as part of respiratory system.

1. Name the tubules.
2. Draw a flow chart showing the flow of air through this system.

Answer:

1. Tracheal tubules
2. Spiracle → Trachea → Tracheoles → Tissue

Question 48.

1. Identify the diagram given below.
2. Label the parts a to e.

answer:

1. Digestive system of cockroach
2. parts from a to e
   • a – Oesophagus
   • b – Crop
   • c – Hepatic caeca
   • d – Mesentrorr
   • e – Malpighian tubules

Question 49.
Blood of cockroach is colourless. Give reason.
Answer:
Blood of cockroach is composed of colourless plasma and hemocytes. No respiratory pigments present in the blood of cockroach. So blood is colourless.

Question 50.
Cockroach is uricotelic animal. Give reason.
Answer:
Cockroach excrete nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid. So cockroach is known as uricotelic animal.

Question 51.
Name the four structure helps in excretion in cockroaches.
Answer:

1. Malpighian tubule
2. fat body
3. nephrocytes
4. urecose gland.

Question 52.
If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still alive for as long as one week. Give reason.
Answer:
The head of cockroach holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body. So, if the head of cockroach is cut off it will still live for long as one week.

Question 53.
Name the sensory organs of cockroaches.
Answer:
Antennae, Compound eyes, anal cerci, maxillary palps, Labial palps.

Question 54.
Compound eyes are more effective than vertebrate eye. Give reason.
Answer:
Each compound eyes in cockroach consists of about 200 ommatidia. With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach can receive several images of an object. This kind of vision is known as mosaic vision. Compound eye is more effective than vertebrate eye because it can detect the movement of other animals more easily and efficiently.

Question 55.
Frog show sexual dimorphism. Write the morphological difference present only in male frog.
Answer:

1. Presence of vocal sacs
2. Presence of copulatory pad on the 1^st digit of the forelimb.

Question 56.
Prepare a flow chart showing the flow of food in the alimentary canal of frog. Compare it with alimentary canal of cockroach.
Answer:
1. In frog:
Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → Intestine → Rectus → Cloacal aperture

2. In coackroach:
Mouth → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Mesentron → ileum → Colon → Rectum → Anus

Question 57.
Cloaca is a common opening of 3 tubes or tracts.

1. Name the tracts which opens to cloaca.
2. Name the animal which possess cloaca.

Answer:

1. Tracts which opens to cloaca
   • Alimentary canal
   • Urinary canal
   • Reproductive tract
2. Frog

Question 58.
Name the portal systems found in frog

1. Between liver and intestine.
2. Between kidney and lower parts of the body.

Answer:

1. Hepatic portal system
2. Renal portal system

Question 59.

1. Frog is ureotelic animal. How?
2. Name the different parts of the excretory system- off rog.

Answer:

1. Frog excrete nitrogenous waste in the form of urea. So they are called ureotelic animal,
2. A pair of kidneys, ureters, cloaca and urinary bladder.

Question 60.
Answer in one word.

1. Covering of eyes in frog.
2. Number of cranial nerves in frog.
3. Membranous covering of Heart of frog.
4. Brain of frog is enclosed in a bony structure named ____________
5. Larval stage of frog.

Answer:

1. Nictitating membrane
2. Ten pairs
3. Pericardium
4. Cranium
5. Tadpole

Question 61.
Frogs are beneficial for mankind. Justify.
Answer:
Frogs are beneficial for mankind because they eat insects and protect the crop. Frogs maintain ecological balance because these serve as an important link of food chain and food web in the ecosystem. In some countries the muscular legs of frog are used as food by man.

Plus One Structural Organisation in Animals Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Compare the circulatory system and blood of frog with that of an earthworm.
Answer:
In Frog blood circulatory system is closed type. Frog have a lymphatic system also. Heart is three chambered – two atria and one ventricle. Blood is composed of plasma and cells. The blood cells are RBC, WBC and platelets. RBC’s are nucleated and contain red coloured pigment namely hemoglobin. In earthworm blood circulatory system is closed type.

Blood glands are present on the 4^th, 5^th and 6^th segments. They produce blood cells and hemoglobin. Hemoglobin is dissolved in the plasma. Blood cells are phagocytic in nature.

Question 2.
The mounting of mouthparts of cockroach are given below. If there is any error, correct it.

Answer:
a. Labrum
b. Mandible
c. Hypopharynx
d. Maxilla
e. Labium

Question 3.
Answer in one word or one line.

1. Give the common name of Periplaneta Americana.
2. How many spermathecae are found in earthworm?
3. What is the position of a ovaries in cockroach?
4. How many segments are present in the abdomen of cockroach.
5. Where do you find Malpighian tubules?
6. Development through nymphal stage.

Answer:

1. Cockroach
2. 4 pairs of spermathecae are located 6^th – 9^th segments.
3. 2^nd – 6^th abdominal segments
4. 10 segments
5. At the junction of midgut and hindgut.
6. Paurometabolous

Question 4.
“All glands in our body do not have ducts of their own.” Do you agree with this statement.

1. Justify your answer using example.
2. Name three types of cell junctions in the epithelium.

Answer:

1. No. There are two types of glands in our body. Exocrine gland and Endocrine gland.
   • Exocrine gland – ducted gland
     • eg: Salivary gland
   • Endocrine gland – ductless gland
     • eg: Thyroid gland
2. Three types of junctions:
   • Tight junction
   • Adhering junction
   • Gap junction

Question 5.
Observe the following diagram carefully.

1. Identify and compare two diagrams.
2. Mention its location and function.

Answer:

1. A – squamous epithelium
   B – Columnar epithelium
2. Its locations and functions are
   • Both squamous and columnar epithelium are simple epithelium. Squamous epithelium is made up of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. The columnar epithelium is composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells.
   • Squamous epithelium is found in the walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs and are involved in the functions like forming a diffusion boundary.
     Columnar epithelium is found in the lining of stomach and intestine and help in secretion and absorption.

Question 6.
Compare the excretory System in Cockroach and Frog.
Answer:
1. Cockroach:
Excretion is performed by malpighian tubules. They absorb nitrogenous waste products and convert them into uric acid which is excreted out through the hind gut. Therefore, cockroach is called Uricotelic. In addition, the fat body nephrocytes and urecose gland also help in excretion.

2. Frog:
Excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys. Ureter, Urinary bladder and cloaca. Excretory wastes are carried by blood into the kidney where it is separated and excreted. The frog excrete urea and thus a ureotelic animal.

Question 7.
Mention the mode of respiration in a frog while it is

1. In water
2. On land
3. When under aestivation or hibernation.

Answer:

1. Gills
2. Lungs
3. Skin (cutaneous respiration)

Question 8.
Arrange the columns A, B, and C in the table below and match them properly.

Answer:

Question 9.
Give reasons.

1. Simple epithelium functions as lining for the body cavities, ducts, tubes etc. where as compound epithelium is protective in function.
2. Cockroach does not possess respiratory pigment.
3. Frog in ureotelic where as tadpole is ammonotelic.

Answer:

1. Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells. The compound epithelium consists of two or more cell layers and has protective function.
2. Cockroach respiratory organ is trachea. These tracheal tubules carry oxygen from the air to all the parts of their body. So they does not require any respirations pigment.
3. Ammonotelism demands an excess of water in the body. Tadpole is aquatic and there is availability of large amount of water. So tadpole is ammonotelic. Whereas Ureotelism requires only a moderate quantity of water. Frog is semiaquatic. So frog is ureotelic.

Plus One Structural Organisation in Animals NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer in one word or one line:

1. Give the common name of Periplanata americana.
2. How many spermathecae are found in earthworm?
3. What is the position of ovaries in cockroach?
4. How many segments are present in the abdomen of cockroach?
5. Where do you find Malpighian tubules?

Answer:

1. Cockroach
2. 4 pair of spermathecae are found in earthworm
3. 2 large ovaries are found lying laterally in the 2^nd to the abdominal segment.
4. The abdomen of cockroach consists of 10 segments.
5. Malpighian tubules are the main excretory organs of the cockroach.

Question 2.
Answer the following:

1. What is the function of nephridia?
2. How many types of nephridia are found in earthworm based on their location?

Answer:

1. Nephridia is the excretory organ of the earthworm or pheretima.
2. There are three types of nephridia in the earthworm:
   • septal nephridia, present on both the sides of intersegmental septa of segment 15 to the last that open into intestine,
   • integumentary nephridia, attached to lining of the body wall of segment 3 to the last that open on the body surface and pharyngeal nephridia, present as three paired tufts in the 4^th, 5^th and the segments.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the following:

1. Prostomium and peristomium
2. Septal nephridium and pharyngeal nephridium

Answer:

1. Prostomium is the frontmost part of the earth-worm. This is not called a true segment as it doesn’t contain typical organs of an annelida. Peristomium is from where the true segment of the earthworm body starts.
2. Septal nephridia, present on both the sides of intersegmental septa of segment 15 to the last that open into intestine.

Pharyngeal nephridia, present as three paired tufts in the 4^th, 5^th and 6^th segments Both are same structurally and functionally.

Question 4.
What are the cellular components of blood?
Answer:
Red Blood Cells and White Blood Cells are the cellular components of the blood.

Question 5.
What are the following and where do you find them in animal body?

1. Chondriocytes
2. Axons
3. Ciliated epithelium

Answer:

1. Chondriocytes are cells of cartilage.
2. Axons it is the tail like structure of a neuron
3. Ciliated epithelium is found in the inner lining of bronchioles, Cilia help trap and clear dust and foreign particles.

Question 6.
Distinguish between

1. Simple epithelium and compound epithelium
2. Cardiac muscle and striated muscle
3. Dense regular and dense irregular connective tissues
4. Adipose and blood tissue
5. Simple gland and compound gland

Answer:

1. Simple epithelium is composed of one layer of cells, while compound epithelium is composed of more than one layer of cells.

2. Cardiac muscles are present in the cells of heat only. They have contractile property which helps in the pumping action of the heart. Striated muscles are present near articulatory joints. Their role is to facilitate movement of organs like hands and feet.

3. Dense Connective Tissue. Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed in the dense connective tissues. Orientation of fibres show a regular or irregular pattern and are called dense regular and dense irregular tissues. In the dense regular connective tissues, collagen fibres are present in rows between may parallel bundles of fibres.

Tendons, which attach skeletal muscles to bones and ligments which attach one bone to another are examples of this tissue. Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblasts and many fibres (mostly collagen) that are oriented differently. This tissue is present in the skin.

4. Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue located mainly beneath the skin. The cells of this tissue are specialised to store fats. The excess of nutrients which are not used immediately are converted into fats and are stored in this tissue. Blood is a fluid connective tissue. The main function of blood is to transport gases, nutrients and easte products in the body.

5. Simple gland is composed of single cell, while compound gland is composed of multiple cells.

Question 7.
Mark the odd one in each series:

1. Areolar tissue, blood, neuron, tendon
2. RBC, WBC, platelets, cartilage
3. Exocrine, endocrine, salivary gland, ligament
4. Maxilla, mandible, labrum, antennae
5. Protonema, mesothorax, metathorax, coxa

Answer:

1. Neuron is not a connective tissue
2. Cartilage is not part of blood
3. Ligament is not part of gland
4. Antennae is not a masticating part of cockroach
5. Protonema is thread like chain of cells, all others are about morphological structure of cockroach.

Plus One Structural Organisation in Animals Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Carotene pigment is found in the cells of
(a) dermis
(b) epidermis
(c) adipose cell
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 2.
The lining of intestine and kidneys in human is
(a) keratinised
(b) brush bordered
(c) ciliated
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) brush bordered

Question 3.
The type of cell junction, which facilitates cell to cell communication is
(a) tight junction
(b) adhering junction
(c) gap junction
(d) desmosomes
(e) brush borders
Answer:
(c) gap junction

Question 4.
Keratinised dead layer of skin is made up of
(a) stratified squamous
(b) simple cuboidal
(c) simple columnar
(d) stratified columnar
Answer:
(a) stratified squamous

Question 5.
Endothelium of blood vessels is made up of
(a) simple cuboidal epithelium
(b) simple squamous epithelium
(c) simple columnar epithelium
(d) simple non-ciliated columnar
Answer:
(b) simple squamous epithelium

Question 6.
In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?
(a) Ciliated epithelium
(b) Thrombocyte
(c) Tendon
(d) Hyaline cartilage
Answer:
(a) Ciliated epithelium

Question 7.
Bowman’s glands are located in the
(a) proximal end of uriniferous tubules
(b) anterior pituitary
(c) female reproductive system of cockroach
(d) olfactory epithelium of our nose
Answer:
(d) olfactory epithelium of our nose

Question 8.
Compound squamous epithelium is found in
(a) stomach
(b) intestine
(c) trachea
(d) pharynx
Answer:
(d) pharynx

Question 9.
Find out the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Squamous epithelium – Skin of frog
(b) Columnar epithelium – Peritoneum of body cavity
(c) Ciliated epithelium – Bronchioles
(d) Stratified squamous – Oesophagus epithelium
(e) Glandular epithelium Salivary gland
Answer:
(b) Columnar epithelium – Peritoneum of body cavity

Question 10.
The type of tissue lining the nasal passage, bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
(a) columnar ciliated epithelium
(b) cuboidal epithelium
(c) neurosensory epithelium
(d) germinal epithelium
(e) stratified columnar epithelium
Answer:
(a) columnar ciliated epithelium

Question 11.
The nasal chamber of rabbit has three thin twisted bony plates called conchae. They are lined by
(a) striated cuboidal epithelium
(b) simple cuboidal epithelium
(c) simple squamous epithelium
(d) simple ciliated columnar epithelium
Answer:
(d) simple ciliated columnar epithelium

Question 12.
The cavities of alveoli of lungs are lined by
(a) cuboidal epithelium
(b) columnar epithelium
(c) stratified cuboidal epithelium
(d) squamous epithelium
Answer:
(d) squamous epithelium

Question 13.
The type of epithelial cells, which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi, are known as
(a) squamous epithelium
(b) columnar epithelium
(c) ciliated epithelium
(d) cubical epithelium
Answer:
(c) ciliated epithelium

Question 14.
Agranulocytes are
(a) lymphocytes and monocytes
(b) eosinophils and basophils
(c) lymphocytes and eosinophils
(d) basophils and monocytes
Answer:
(a) lymphocytes and monocytes

Question 15.
________ acts as a shock absorber to cushion when tibia and femur came together.
(a) Ligament
(b) Cartilage
(c) Tendon
(d) Disc
Answer:
(b) Cartilage

Question 16.
Erythropoiesis starts in
(a) kidney
(b) liver
(c) spleen
(d) red bone marrow
Answer:
(b) liver

Question 17.
Largest single mass of lymphatic tissue in the body is
(a) lung
(b) spleen
(c) liver
(d) kidney
Answer:
(b) spleen

Question 18.
Hypochronic microcytic anaemia and leucopenia are caused by the deficiency of respectively.
(a) pyridoxine and riboflavin
(b) pyridoxine and folacin
(c) biotin and folacin
(d) biotin and cyanocobalamin
Answer:
(b) pyridoxine and folacin

Students can Download Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids Questions and Answers, Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids

Plus One Physics Mechanical Properties of Solids One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Physics Mechanical Properties Of Solids Chapter 9 Question 1.
If longitudinal strain fora wire is 0.03 and its poisson’s ratio is 0.5, then its lateral strain is
(a) 0.003
(b) 0.0075
(c) 0.015
(d) 0.4
Answer:
(c) 0.015
Poisson’s ratio σ = \(\frac { Lateral\quad strain }{ Longitudina\quad strain } \)
Lateral strain = Longitudinal strain × σ
= 0.03 × 0.5 = 0.015.

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Question Bank Chapter 9 Question 2.
Between steel and diamond, which is more elastic?
Answer:
Steel.

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Important Questions Chapter 9 Question 3.
What is the value of Y for a perfectly elastic body?
Answer:
Infinity.

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Neet Questions And Answers Pdf Chapter 9 Question 4.
Young’s modulus of the wire depends on
(a) length of the wire
(b) diameter of the wire
(c) material of the wire
(d) mass hanging from the wire
Answer:
(c) material of the wire
Young’s modulus of wire depends only on the nature of the material of the wire.

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Class 11 Important Questions Pdf Question 5.
Two solid spheres of the same material have the same radius but one is hollow while the other is solid. Both spheres are heated to same temperature. Then
(a) the solid sphere expands more
(b) the hollow sphere expands more
(c) expansion is same for both
(d) nothing can be solid about their relative expansion if their masses are not given
Answer:
(c) expansion is same for both.

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Chapter 9 Question 6.
For most materials the Young’s modulus is n times the rigidity modulus, where n is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3
For most materials, the modulus of rigidity, η is one third of the Young’s modulus, Y.
η = \(\frac{1}{3}\)Y or Y = 3η
∴ n = 3.

Hsslive Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Chapter 9 Question 7.
The stress required to double the length of a wire of Young’s modulus Y is
(a) Y/2
(b) 2Y
(c) Y
(d) 4Y
Answer:
(c) Let L be the length of a wire.
If the length of a wire is doubled, the longitudinal strain will be

Young’s modulus Y = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Strain }}\)
∴ Y = Stress (∵ Strain = 1).

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Hsslive Chapter 9 Question 8.
What is the bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body?
Answer:
Infinity

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Neet Questions Chapter 9 Question 9.
What is shear modulus of liquid?
Answer:
Zero

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Pdf Chapter 9 Question 10.
What is rigidity modulus of liquid?
Answer:
Zero.

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Class 11 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 11.
Identify the type of modulus in twisting of cylinder.
Answer:
Shear modulus

Plus One Physics Important Questions And Answers Pdf Chapter 9 Question 12.
Why work is required to be done to stretch a wire?
Answer:
Work is required to be done against the inter molecular forces of attraction.

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Questions And Answers Chapter 9 Question 13.
Name the material which is famous for a large elastic after effect.
Answer:
Glass

Plus One Physics Mechanical Properties of Solids Two Mark Questions and Answers

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Neet Questions Pdf Chapter 9 Question 1.
Find stress required to double the length of a wire of Young’s modulus Y
Answer:
Let L be the length of a wire.
If the length of a wire is doubled, the longitudinal strain will be

Young’s modulus Y = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Strain }}\)
∴ Y = Stress (∵ Strain = 1).

Hss Live Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Chapter 9 Question 2.
When wire is bent back and forth, it becomes hot. Why?
Answer:
When wire is bent back and forth, the deformations are beyond elastic limit. A part of work done is converted in to heat energy. Hence wire becomes hot.

Plus One Physics Mechanical Properties of Solids Three Mark Questions and Answers

Class 11 Physics Chapter Mechanical Properties Of Solids Chapter 9 Question 1.
The stress strain graph of two bodies A and B are given in the figure

1. Which of the material has greater youngs modulus?
2. Which of the two material is preferable to be used as a rope in a crane?
3. Redraw the graph and mark the regions in the graphs where the elastic force is strictly conservative

Answer:
1. Youngs modulus, Y = \(\frac{\text { Stress }}{\text { Strain }}\)
The slope of above graph gives youngs modulus. The body A has larger slope. Hence youngs modulus of ‘A ‘is greater than ‘B’.

2. The fracture point is greater for A. Hence A is stronger. Due to high strength, the material A is used as rope in a crane.

3.

Up to the point C, the elastic force is strictly conservative.

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Solutions Chapter 9 Question 2.
Hook’s law is said to be that fundamental law in elasticity.

1. State Hook’s law of Elasticity.
2. Name the different types of modulus of elasticity with their equations.

Answer:
1. For small deformations, the stress and strain are proportional to each other, ie: stress ∝ strain stress = k × strain. Where k is the proportionality constant and is known as modulus of elasticity.

2.

Plus One Physics Mechanical Properties of Solids Four Mark Questions and Answers

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Class 11 Solutions Chapter 9 Question 1.
When an external force deforms a solid, internal restoring forces are developed in the body giving rise to stress and strain.

1. Define stress and strain.
2. Draw the stress-strain diagram and mark the positions of elastic limit and the regions of elastic and plastic behaviors.

Answer:
1. Stress: It is the restoring force developed per unit area of cross section.
Strain: The ratio of change in dimension to original dimension is called strain.

2.

Plus One Physics Mechanical Properties of Solids Five Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Chapter 9 Question 1.

1. Distinguish between perfectly plastic and perfectly elastic materials.
2. What is the quantity obtained from the slope of a stress-strain graph and what is the area under the curve?
3. Two wires have their lengths in the ratio 1:3 and radii in the ratio 2:1. What will be the ratio of elongations for the same linear stress?

Answer:
1. When deforming forces are applied on a body its volume or shape will change. On removing the deforming forces it regains its original size and shape. It is called elastic body.

On removing the deforming forces. The body which cannot retain the original shape and size is called plastic body.

2. Modulus of elasticity. Area under stress strain graph gives workdone.

3. we know l₁: l₂, 1 : 3
r₂ : r₁, 2 : 1

Mechanical Properties Of Solids Questions Pdf Chapter 9 Question 2.
The modulus of elasticity of rubber is higher than that of steel.

1. Do you agree with this statement? Why?
2. Give your explanation.
3. Prove that the elastic potential energy density of a stretched wire is half the product of stress and strain.

Answer:
1. No

2. Y = \(\frac{F l}{A \Delta l}\)
∆l is higher for rubber than steel. Hence youngs modulus is smaller for rubber than steel.

3. Workdone in stretching a wire.
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × stretching force × extension
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) Fe
Let ‘a’ be the area of cross section and ‘L’ the length of the wire. The volume ‘aL’
Workdone for a volume ‘aL’ = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Workdone per unit volume

Important Questions From Mechanical Properties Of Solids Class 11 Question 3.
We have common experience that a thin thread breakes if pulled at its ends. Also a thin metallic wire, when pulled at the ends elongates and then contracts, when released.

1. What do you mean by elasticity?
2. Draw a the stress-strain graph of a metal and mark elastic limit, plastic region, and fracture point.
3. A lift is tied with thick iron wires and its mass is 1000kg. What should be the minimum diameter of the wire if the maximum acceleration of the lift is 1.2 m/s² and maximum safe stress of the wire is 1.4 × 10⁸ N/m² (g = 9.8m/s²)

Answer:
1. Elasticity of a body is the property of the body by virtue of which the body gains its original shape and size when the deforming force is removed.

2. Stress strain curve

3. When the lift goes upward with as acceleration a, then tension in the wires,
T = m (g + a)
= 1000(9.8 + 1.2)
= 11000N
Let r be the minimum radius of the wire
Then maximum stress = \(\frac{T}{\pi r^{2}}\)
But the maximum stress the wire can withstand = 1.4 × 10⁸

r = 0.005m
∴ diameter = 0.01m.

Question 4.
The property of material bodies to regain its original size on the remaoval of deforming force is called elasticity.

1. What are the values of
   • Young’s modulus for a perfectly rigid body
   • Rigidity modulus of a liquid
2. Why do we prefer steel to copper in the manufacture of spring?
3. How much should the pressure on a littre of water be changed to compress it by 0.10%?
   (B = 2.2 × 10⁹N/m²)

Answer:
1. The values:

• infinity
• Zero

2. Young’s modulus of steel is more than that of copper. Hence steel is more elastic than copper.

3.

Plus One Physics Mechanical Properties of Solids NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A steel wire of length 4.7m and cross sectional area 3 × 10^-5m² stretches by the same amount as a copper wire of length 3.5m and cross sectional area of 4 × 10^-5m² under a given load. What is the ratio of the Young’s modulus of steel to that of copper?
Answer:
For steel
l₁ = 4.7m, a₁ = 3 × 10^-5m²
If F newton is the stretching force and ∆l metre the extension in each case, then


For copper
l₂ = 3.5m, a₂ = 4 × 10^-5m²

Dividing (1) by (2), we get

Question 2.
Following figure shows the strain-stress curve for a given material. What are

1. Young’s modulus and
2. approximate yield strength for this material?

Answer:
1. It is clear from the graph that for a stress of 150 × 10⁶Nm^-2, the strain is 0.002
∴ Young’s modulus of the material

= 7.5 × 10¹⁰Nm^-2.

2. It is clear from the graph that A corresponds to the yield point. So, the approximate yield strength of them material is 300 × 10⁶Nm^-2 or 3 × 10⁸Nm^-2.

Question 3.
The edge of an aluminium cube is 10cm long. One face of the cube is firmly fixed to a vertical wal. A mass of 100kg is then attached to the opposite face of the cube. The shear modulus of aluminium is 25GPa. What is the vertical deflection of this face?
Answer:

3.92 × 10^-7m
≃ 4 × 10^-7m.

Question 4.
A steel cable with a radius 1.5cm supports a chair lift. If the maximum stress is not to exceed 10⁸Nm^-2, what is the maximum load the cable can support?
Answer:
Maximum load = Maximum Stress × Cross sectional area
= 10⁸Nm^-2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × (1.5 × 10^-2)^-2N
= 7.07 × 10⁴N.

Question 5.
Compute the fractional change in volume of a glass slab when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of 10atm.
Answer:
Given : Bulk modulus of elasticity of glass
= 37 × 10⁹Nm² and 1 atm
= 1.013 × 10⁵Pa
p = 10 atm = 10 × 1.013 × 10⁵Pa
Fractional change in volume = Volumetric strain

Question 6.
Determine the volume of contraction of a solid copper tube 10cm on an edge, when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of 7 × 10⁶Pa. Bulk modulus of copper =140 × 10⁹Pa.
Answer:
V = L³ = (10cm)³ = (0.1m)³
p = 7 × 10⁶Pa, K = 140 × 10⁹Pa

Students can Download Chapter 8 Gravitation Questions and Answers, Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Gravitation

Plus One Physics Gravitation One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Physics Gravitation Questions And Answers Question 1.
If a satellite of mass m is revolving around the earth with distance rfrom centre, then total energy is

Answer:
(c) \(-\frac{G M m}{2 r}\)
The satellite revolving around the earth has two types of energies.
1. Gravitational potential energy U due to position of the satellite is given by
U = \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{r}}\).

2. Kinetic energy K due to orbital velocity of satellite is given by

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 2.
The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are
(a) [M^-2L³T^-2]
(b) [M^-2L²T^-1]
(c) [M^-1L³T^-2]
(d) [ML²T^-1]
Answer:
(c) [M^-1L³T^-2]
According to Newton’s law of gravitation

Hsslive Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 3.
When a radius of earth is reduced by 1% without changing the mass, then change in the acceleration due to gravity will be
(a) increased by 2%
(b) decreased by 1.5%
(c) increased by 1 %
(d) decreased by 1 %
Answer:
(a) increased by 2%

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Hsslive Question 4.
The kinetic energy of a satellite is 2MJ. What is the total energy of the satellite?
(a) -2M J
(b) -1MJ
(c) -1/2MJ
(d) -4MJ
Answer:
(a) -2MJ
Total energy of satellite – Kinetic energy of satellite.

Plus One Physics Important Questions And Answers Pdf Question 5.
If total energy of this stone is negative, can it escape from the earth’s surface? Justify.
Answer:
It will not escape as the force is attractive.

Gravitation Questions And Answers Question 6.
Why a man can jump higher on the moon than on earth?
Answer:
The value of g on the moon is one sixth of that on earth.

Hss Live Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 7.
The gravitational potential energy of a body of mass ‘m’ is -10⁷J. What energy is required to project the body out of gravitational field of earth?
Answer:
10⁷J

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 8.
How much energy is required by a satellite to keep it orbiting? Neglect air resistance.
Answer:
No energy is required because work done by centripetal force is zero.

Gravitation Class 11 Important Questions With Answers Question 9.
What would happen to an artificial satellites, if its orbital velocity is slightly decreased due to some defects in it?
Answer:
It will fall on to earth.

Questions On Gravitation For Class 11 Question 10.
Why a tennis ball bounces higher on hills than in plain?
Answer:
As height increases ‘g’ decreases. The value of g on hills is less than that on the surface of earth. Hence tennis ball bounces higher on hills than in plains.

Gravitation Class 11 Questions And Answers Question 11.
The orbiting velocity of an earth-satellite is 8 km/s. What will be the escape velocity?
Answer:
V_e = \(\sqrt{2}\) V₀
V_e = \(\sqrt{2}\) × 8 = 11.3 kms^-1.

Plus One Physics Gravitation Two Mark Questions and Answers

Gravitation Class 11 Derivations Pdf Question 1.
1. A comet orbits the sun in a highly elliptical orbit. Does the comet have a constant

• linear speed
• total energy
• angular momentum

2. What are the consequences if the angular momentum is conserved?
Answer:
1. Highly elliptical orbit:

• No
• Yes
• Yes

2. consequences if the angular momentum:

• Areal velocity of planet becomes constant
• Angular velocity changes according to the position of planet around sun.

Numericals On Gravitation Class 11 Question 2.
Fill in the blanks
R – Radius of earth, g – Acceleration due to gravity h – Height from surface of earth, d – Depth from surface of earth

Answer:
a) g(h) = g(1 – \(\frac{2 h}{R}\))
b) Variation of g with depth
c) g Decreases with depth
d) (Change with radius (polar, equitorial org is maximum on the earth’s surface)

Plus One Physics Gravitation Three Mark Questions and Answers

Gravitation Numericals Class 11 Question 1.
The Earth moving round the Sun in a circular orbit is acted upon by a force.

1. Name the force acting on the Earth.
2. Obtain a mathematical expression for the force.
3. What is the work done by the force?

Answer:

1. Centripetal force
2. F_e = ma
   F_c = m \(\frac{v^{2}}{r}\)
3. zero. (Displacement is always perpendicular to centripetal force).

Question 2.
Escape velocity of objects in a planet depends on the mass and size of the planet.

1. Write down the expression for the escape velocity on the surface of the earth.
2. What is its value on the surface of our planet?
3. Give the reason why the moon does not have an atmosphere around it.

Answer:

1. Escape velocity Ve = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 G M}{R}}\)
2. 11.2km/sec
3. The escape velocity of moon is very low. Hence all the gas molecules can escape from the moon’s surface.

Question 3.
The acceleration due to gravity is measured using ticker timer and is found to be 9.8ms^-2

1. What does the value 9.8 for the acceleration implies?
2. One of your friends argues that the acceleration due to gravity at the centre of earth is infinity. Do you agree with it?
3. Justify your answer with mathematical support.

Answer:
1. An acceleration of 9.8m² implies that velocity change by 9.8ms¹ in every second.

2. No, at centre g = 0

3. At centre d = R
g_d = g × 0 = 0

Plus One Physics Gravitation Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A body of mass ‘m’ falls freely under gravity, near the surface of earth.

1. Will the acceleration of the body change if a part of the mass is thrown away from it?
2. What will be the free fall acceleration if it is falling from a height equal to R, the radius of earth?
3. If the mass is taken to the moon’s surface, will the free fall acceleration increase or decrease?

Answer:
1. No. The acceleration of body does not depend on the mass of falling body.

2. We know acceleration due to gravity

3. Decrease.

Question 2.
Geo Stationary satellites are commonly used for communication purpose.

1. Name one geostationary satellite of earth.
2. What are the requirements of a geostationary satellite for its orbital motion.
3. Explain the phenomenon of ‘weightlessness’ in orbiting satellites.
4. Distinguish between gravitational mass and inertial mass.

Answer:

1. INSAT.
2. The period of this satellite must be same as the period of the rotation of earth about its own axis. Its direction of rotation must be the same as that of the earth (from west to east).
3. The weight of satellite is used for providing centripetal force required for rotation. Hence anybody inside the satellite appears to be weightlessness.
4. The mass related with newtons second law of motion is called inertial mass. But the mass related with newtons law of gravitation is called gravitational mass.

Question 3.

1. What is acceleration due to gravity?
2. Does a body have the same weight at the equator and at the poles? Explain.
3. If the value of gravitational constant is 6.6 × 10^-11 Nm²kg^-2 and g = 9.8 m/s², find the mass of the earth. Given, radius is 6.4 × 10⁶m.

Answer:
1. 9.8 m/se²

2. No. The weight of the body depends on the acceleration due to gravity at a place. The magnitude of acceleration due to gravity at equator and poles are different.

3.

Question 4.
Two identical satellites are orbiting in circular orbits around the earth at heights R and 3R respectively from the surface of the earth. The radius of the earth is R.

1. Define orbital velocity.
2. What is its value on the surface of the earth?
3. How do you compare the periods of revolution of these two satellites?

Answer:
1. The minimum velocity required for a satellite to revolve around earth in a stable orbit is called orbital velocity.

2.

3.

Question 5.
The uniform acceleration produced in a freely falling body due to gravitational pull of the earth is known as acceleration due to gravity.

1. What is the value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth.
2. Obtain an expression for acceleration due to gravity at a depth ‘d’ from the surface of earth
3. What is the value of gat the centre of earth?

Answer:
1. 9.8m/s^-2

2.

If we assume the earth as a sphere of radius R with uniform density?
mass of earth = volume × density

Substituting eq(1) in eq(2), we get
g = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πGR_ρ ……(3)
Therefore the acceleration due to gravity at a depth d is given by
g_d = \(\frac{4}{3}\) πG(R – d)ρ ……(4)
eq(4)/eq(3) and solving we get

g_d = g(1 – d/R)
The above equation shows that, when depth increases g decreases.

3. Increase.

Plus One Physics Gravitation Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Earth can be treated as a sphere of radius R and mass M. A is a point at a height h above the Earth’s surface and B is another point at a depth h1 below the Earth’s surface. The acceleration due to gravity at Earth’s surface is g.

1. Obtain a formula to evaluate the acceleration due to gravity at A.
2. What is the value of acceleration due to gravity at B?
3. If we move from equator to pole, the value of g.
   • increases
   • decreases
   • remains the same
   • first increases and then decreases
   • first decreases and then increases
4. What is the value of g at the centre of Earth? Explain.

Answer:
1. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth,
g = \(\frac{G m}{R^{2}}\) …..(1)
At a height h, the acceleration due to gravity can be written as,

eq(1)/eq(2) and solving we get
g_h = g(1 – \(\frac{2 h}{R}\))
This equation shows that acceleration due to gravity decreases as height increases. The above equation is valid when h << R.

2.

3. Increase

4. Zero. At centre, the force acting on the body is zero.

Question 2.
Fora particle to leave from earth’s gravitational field it should be projected with a minimum velocity.

1. Name the velocity.
2. Derive an expression for this velocity.
3. What is the magnitude of this velocity when this particle is projected from another planet whose mass and radius is twice that of the earth?

Answer:
1. Escape velocity

2. Expression for escape speed:
Force on a mass m at a distance r from the centre of earth = \(\frac{G M m}{r^{2}}\)
Work done in taking the body to infinity from surface of earth,

This energy is given in the form of K.E. = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv_e²,
where v_e is the escape speed.

This escape velocity \(\sqrt{2 \mathrm{Rg}}\) is estimated to be 11.2 km/son the earth.

3. Escape velocity of planet,

Question 3.
Moon is the only satellite of earth. Mass of moon is very much lower than that of earth.

1. Is there any difference in gravitational force of moon and earth? Explain.
2. Deduce an equation for gravitational potential energy.
3. A girl argues that even today if we visit moon, we can see the foot steps of Neil Armstrong. What is your opinion?

Answer:
1. Yes. Gravitational force of earth longer than gravitational force of moon.

2. Expression for gravitational P.

Consider the earth as a uniform sphere of radius R and mass M. Considera point A at distance ‘r’ from the centre of earth. P is another point at a distance ‘x’ from O. Q lies at distance dx from P.

By definition, the gravitational potential energy of the body at point A, is the work done in bringing the body of mass ‘m’ from infinity to that point A The gravitational force on the body at the point P.
is given by F = \(\frac{G M m}{x^{2}}\).
If the body is displaced from P to Q Work done, dw = F.dx
= \(\frac{G M m}{x^{2}}\) Therefore, workdone in bringing the body from infinity to the point A,

Since this workdone is stored inside the body as its gravitational potential energy, the gravitational potential energy (U) of a body of mass m at distance rfrom the centre of the earth is given by,

The gravitational potential energy of a body at a point is defined as the amount of workdone in bringing the body from infinity to that point without acceleration.

3. There is no atmosphere on the moon. Hence we can see the foot steps of Neil Armstrong.

Plus One Physics Gravitation NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Suppose there existed a planent that went around the Sun twice as fast as the earth. What would be its orbital size as compared to that of the earth?
Answer:
T_e = 1 year, T_p = \(\frac{1}{2}\) year, R_p = ?, R_e = 1 AU
Using Kepler’s third law

Question 2.
lo, one of the satellites of Jupiter has an orbital period of 1.769 days and the radius of the orbit is 4.22 × 10⁸m. Show that the mass of the Jupiter is about one-thousandth that of the Sun.
Answer:

Substituting the given data for Jupiter
Mass of Jupiter

Substituting the known data forthe revolution of earth around Sun,

Question 3.
Let us assume that our galaxy consists of 2.5 × 10¹¹ stars each of one solar mass. How long will a star at a distance of 50,000 ly from the galactic centre take to complete on revolution? Take the diameter of the Milky way to be 10⁵ly.
Answer:

Question 4.
A rocket is fired from the earth towards the Sun. At what distance from the earth’s centre is the gravitational force on the rocket zero? Mass of the Sun = 2 × 10³⁰ kg, Mass of the earth = 6 × 10²⁴kg. Neglect the effect of other planets etc. (Orbital radius = 1.5 × 10¹¹m).
Answer:
Mass of Sun, M = 2 × 10³⁰ kg
Mass of Earth m = 6 × 10²⁴kg.
Distance between Sun and Earth, r= 1.5 × 10¹¹m
Suppose, at the point P, the gravitational force on the rocket due to earth = gravitational force on the rocket due to Sun
Let x be the distance of the point P from the earth

Question 5.
How will you “weigh the Sun’, that is estimate its mass? The mean orbital radius of the earth around the Sun is 1.5 × 10⁸km.
Answer:
For the revolution of earth around sun, the gravitational force between the sun and the earth provides the necessary centripetal force.

Question 6.
A geostationary satellite orbits the earth at a height of nearly 36,000km from the surface of the earth. What is the potentional due to earth’s gravity at the site of this sattelite? (Take the potential energy at infinity to be zero). Mass of the earth = 6 × 10²⁴ kg., radius of earth = 6,400 km.
Answer:
Required potential

Question 7.
A satum year is 29.5 times the earth year. How far is the saturn from the sun if the earth is 1.50 × 10⁸km away from the sun?
Answer:
We know that T² α R³

where subscripts s and e refer to the satum and earth respectively.
Now \(\frac{T_{s}}{T_{e}}\) = 29.5 (given); R_e = 1.50 × 10⁸km

R_s = R_e × [(29.5)²]^1/3 = 1.50 × 10⁸ × (870.25)^1/3km
= 1.43 × 10⁹km = 1.43 × 10¹²m.

Question 8.
A body weighs 63N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?
Answer:
Let g_h be the acceleration due to gravity at a height equal to half the radius of the earth (h = R/2) and g its value on earth’s surface. Let the body have mass m, we know that

Let W be the weight of body on the surface of earth and W_h the weight of the body at height h.
Then,

Students can Download Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation in India Notes, Plus One Economics Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Economics Notes Chapter 5 Human Capital Formation in India

Plus One Economics Chapter 5 Notes Human Capital
Human capital is defined as a human resource where people as a capital asset which yields a stream of economic benefit over their working span of life. Converting human beings through education and training into human resources like teachers, doctors, scientists, etc. can be termed as human capital formation.

Hsslive Plus One Economics Malayalam Notes Sources of Human Capital
Sources of human capital can be classified into five. They are given below:

1. Investment in Education: Investment in education is considered one of the main sources of human capital. Education increases the efficiency and productivity of the population which will enhance the welfare of people and facilitate growth and economic development.

2. Investment in Health: Good health of a person helps him to produce goods and services to his optimum level. Therefore, spending on health to improve the health status of the population is other way of spending on human capital.

3. Investment in Job Training: On-the-job training under the supervision of skilled professionals increases productivity. Expenditure regarding on the job-training is a source of human capital formation as the return of it is in the form of enhanced labour productivity.

4. Migration: Migration means the movement of people from one place to another. Migration happens due to marriage, education and employment. People migrate in search of jobs that fetch them higher salaries than what may get in their native places. In India, rural-urban migration is very rampant in which rural people migrate to cities in search of better jobs.

5. Investment in Information Acquisition: People spend to obtain information regarding labour market and other markets like education and health. This information is necessary to make decisions regarding investments in human capital for efficient utilization of the acquired human capital stock. So, expenditure incurred for acquiring information relating to labour market is also a source of human capital information.

Plus One Labour India Pdf Human Capital and Economic Growth
Human capital is essential for economic growth. We know that the labour skill of an educated person is more than that of an uneducated person and that the former generates more income than the latter. Economic growth means thd increase in real national income of a country; naturally, the contribution of the educated person to economic growth is more than that of an illiterate person. If a healthy person could provide an uninterrupted labour supply for a longer period of time, then health is also an important factor for economic growth. Thus, both education and health, along with many other factors like on-the-job training, job market information and migration, increase an individual’s income-generating capacity.

Sources Of Human Capital Formation Class 12 Human Capital and Human Development
Human capital considers education and health as a means to increase labour productivity. Human development is based on the idea that education and health are integral to human well-being. When people attain certain ability to read and write and acquire ability to lead a long and healthy life, their productivity will go up. Human welfare should be increased through investments in education and health. Education and health improve human welfare. In a welfare state, every individual has the right to get basic right to be literate and lead a healthy life.

Class 12 Human Capital Formation Notes Human Capital Formation in India
We have seen that human capital formation is essential for economic growth and development. Various institutions are operating in India for human capital formation. They are

• NCERT (National Council of Educational Research and Training) regulates school level education.
• UGC (University Grants Commission) regulates higher education (colleges, universities and research institutes.
• AICTE (All India Council of Technical Education) regulates technical education.
• ICMR (Indian Council for Medical Research) regulates medical education.

Hsslive Plus One Economics Notes Educational Achievements in India
India made significant improvements in the education sector since independence. Our literary rate was 18.3% in 1951. It increased to 74% in 2011. Similarly, the number of students seeking higher education increased in the country. The government also enacted the Right to Education Act in 2010 to ensure free and compulsory education for children.

Students can Download Chapter 3 Private, Public and Global Enterprises Notes, Plus One Business Studies Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Notes Chapter 3 Private, Public and Global Enterprises

Plus One Business Studies Chapter 3 Contents

• Private sector and Public sector – Meaning
• Departmental Undertakings – Meaning – Features Advantages & Disadvantages
• Public Corporation – Meaning – Features Advantages & Disadvantages
• Government Company – Meaning – Features Advantages & Disadvantages
• Changing Role of Public Sector – Public Sector Reforms since 1991
• Global Enterprises – Meaning – Features Joint Ventures – Meaning – Benefits

The economy may be classified into two sectors viz., private sector and public sector:
1. Private Sector:
The private sector consists of business owned by individuals or a group of individuals. The various forms of organisation are sole proprietorship, partnership, joint Hindu family, cooperative and company.

2. Public Sector:
The business units owned, managed and controlled by the central, state or local government are termed as public sector enterprises or public enterprises. These are also known as public sector undertakings.

Plus One Business Studies Chapter 3 Notes Characteristics of Public Sector Enterprises:

1. The public enterprises are owned and managed by the central or state government, or by the local authority.
2. The public enterprises get their capital from Government Funds
3. The main objective of public sector enterprises is providing the service or commodity at reasonable prices.
4. Public sector enterprises concentrate on providing public utility services like transport, electricity, telecommunication etc.
5. Public enterprises are are accountable to the public through the Parliament.

Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 3 Notes Forms of organizing Public sector Enterprises

1. Departmental Undertaking
2. Statutory Corporation (public corporation)
3. Government Company

Enterprise Meaning In Malayalam Departmental Undertaking:
This is the oldest and most common form of organization. These are established as departments of the ministry and are financed, managed and controlled by either central govt, or state govt.. They are managed by government employees and work under the control of a minister. eg: Railways, Post & Telegraph, All India Radio, Doordarshan, Defense undertakings etc.

Features

1. The enterprise is financed by annual appropriation from the budget of the Government and all revenue is paid to the treasury.
2. The enterprise is subject to accounting and audit control.
3. It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
4. Its employees are govt, employees and are recruited and appointed as per govt, rules.
5. They are accountable to the concerned ministry.

Merits:

1. These undertakings facilitate the Parliament to exercise effective control over their operations.
2. These ensure a high degree of public accountability.
3. The revenue earned by the enterprise goes directly to the treasury and hence is a source of income for the Government.
4. Where national security is concerned, this form is most suitable since it is under the direct control and supervision of the concerned Ministry.

Limitations:

1. Departmental undertakings lack flexibility because its policies cannot be changed instantly.
2. The employees are not allowed to take independent decisions, without the approval of the ministry concerned. This leads to delay in decision making.
3. These enterprises are unable to take advantage of business opportunities.
4. There is red tapism in day-to-day operations.
5. There is a lot of political interference through the ministry.
6. These organisations are usually insensitive to consumer needs and do not provide adequate services to them.

Business Studies Class 11 Chapter 3 Question Answers Statutory Corporations ( Public Corporation):
Statutory corporations are public enterprises brought into existence by a Special Act of the Parliament. The Act defines its powers and functions, rules and regulations governing its employees and its relationship with government departments. eg: LIC, IFCI, RBI, SBI, ONGC, UTI, Air India etc.
Features:

1. Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament and are governed by the provisions of the Act.
2. It is wholly owned by the state.
3. It has a separate legal entity, i.e it can sue and be sued, enter into contract and acquire property in its own name.
4. It is usually independently financed.
5. It is not subject to budget, accounting, and audit laws.
6. The employees of these enterprises are not government or civil servants.

Merits:

• They enjoy independence in their functioning and a high degree of operational flexibility
• It enjoys administrative and financial autonomy
• Since they are autonomous organizations, they can frame their own policies and procedures
• A statutory corporation is a valuable instrument for economic development

Limitations:

• A statutory corporation does not enjoy as much operational flexibility
• Government and political interference has always been there in major decisions
• Where there is dealing with public, rampant corruption exists
• Commercial principles are ignored in the operation of public corporations which leads to inefficiency.

Chapter 3 Business Studies Class 11 Government Company:
A Government Company is established under the Indian Companies Act, 1956. According to the Indian . Companies Act 1956, a government company means any company in which not less than 51 percent of the paid up capital is held by the central Private, Public and Global Enterprises government, or by any state government or partly by central government and partly by one or more state governments.
Features:

1. It is registered under the Companies Act, 1956.
2. It has a separate legal entity. It can sue and be sued and can acquire property in its own name.
3. The management of the company is regulated by the provisions of the Companies Act.
4. Employees are recruited and appointed as per the rules and regulations contained in Memorandum and Articles of association.
5. These companies are exempted from the accounting and audit rules and procedures.
6. The government company obtains its funds from government shareholdings and other private shareholders.

Merits:

1. It has a separate legal entity, apart from the Govt.
2. It enjoys flexibility and autonomy in all management decisions
3. These companies by providing goods and services at reasonable prices are able to control the market.
4. The formation of a Government company is easy as compared to other forms of Government enterprises.
5. It can appoint professional managers on high salaries.

Limitations:

1. It evades constitutional responsibility as it is not directly answerable to parliament.
2. They are autonomous only in name. Company is operated by the controlling ministry.
3. The law relating to the companies, in general is meaningless for the government companies, as it requires fulfillment of various formalities.

Comparative Features of the various forms of Public Enterprises:

Business Studies Class 11 Chapter 3 Notes Role and importance of Public Sector:
1. Development of infrastructure:
It is the responsibility of the Government to provide infrastructural facilities to the core sector which requires huge capital investment, complex and upgraded technology etc.

2. Regional balance:
The government is responsible for developing all regions and states in a balanced way and removing regional disparities.

3. Economies of scale:
Public sector enterprises are large in size and are, able to avail the advantages of large scale operations.

4. Check over concentration of economic power:
The development of public enterprises prevents concentration of economic power and wealth in the hands of private sector.

5. Employment opportunities:
Public sector enterprises helps to generate a large number of employment opportunities.

6. Import substitution:
It is also necessary for the economic progress of the country that industries which can decrease imports and increase exports are only promoted. Public enterprises also ensure promotion of such industries.

Private Public And Global Enterprises Class 11 Notes Public Sector Reforms:
In the industrial policy 1991, the govt, of India introduced four major reforms in public sector.
They are:
1. Reduction in number of industries reserved for public sector:
The number of industries reseved for public sector is reduced from 17 to 8 in 1991. But in 2001 it is again reduced to 3 industries. These three industries are atomic energy, arms and rail transport.

2. Memorandum of Understanding (MOU):
Under this govt, lays down performance targets for the management and gives greater autonomy to hold the management accountable for the results.

3. Disinvestment:
Disinvestment involves the sale of equity shares to the private sector and public. The objective was to raise resources and encourage wider participation of the general public in the ownership of these enterprises.

4. Restructure and Revival:
All public sector sick units were referred to Board of Industrial and financial Reconstruction (BIFR). Units which were potentially viable were restructured and which could not be revived were closed down by the board.

Objectives of privatizing public sector enterprises:

1. Releasing the large amount of public resources locked up in nonstrategic Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs), so that they may be utilized on other social priority areas such as basic health, family welfare and primary education.
2. Reducing the huge amount of public debt and interest burden;
3. Transferring the commercial risk to the private sector so that the funds are invested in able projects;
4. Freeing these enterprises from government control and introduction of corporate governance; and
5. In many areas where the public sector had a monopoly, for example, telecom sector the consumers have benefitted by more choices, lower prices and better quality of products and services.

Global enterprises (Multi National Companies):
Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their industrial and marketing operations through a network of their branches in several countries. Their branches are also called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA).

They are characterised by their huge size, large number of products, advanced technology, marketing strategies and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Susuki etc.
Features of MNCs:
1. Huge capital resources:
Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources such as equity shares, debentures, bonds etc. They can also borrow from financial institutions and international banks.

2. Foreign collaboration:
Global enterprises usually enter into agreements relating to the sale of technology, production of goods, use of brand name etc. with local firms in the host countries.

3. Advanced technology:
Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology so that they can provide quality products.

4. Product innovation:
Multinational companies are able to conduct sophisticated research so that they can develop new products.

5. Marketing strategies:
They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period. Their advertising and sales promotion techniques are normally very effective.

6. International Market:
They operate through a network of subsidiaries, branches and affiliates in host countries. Due to their giant size, they occupy a dominant position in the market.

7. Centralised control:
They have their headquarters in their home country and exercise control over all branches and subsidiaries.

Ch 3 Business Studies Class 11 Notes Joint Ventures:
When two or more independent firms together establish a new enterprise by pooling their capital, technology and expertise, it is known as a joint venture. The risks and rewards of the business are also shared.

The aim of joint venture is business expansion, development of new products or moving into new markets, particularly in another country. Benefits
1. Increased resources and capacity:
Since two or more firms join together to form a joint venture, there is availability of increased capital and other resources, able to face market challenges and take advantage of new opportunities.

2. Access to new markets and distribution networks:
A foreign company gain access to the vast Indian market by entering into a joint venture with Indian Company. They can also take advantage of the established distribution channels.

3. Access to technology:
It provides access to advanced techniques of production which increases efficiency and then helps in reduction in cost and improvement in quality of product.

4. Innovation:
Foreign partners can come up with innovative products because of new ideas and technology.

5. Low cost of production:
Low cost of raw materials, technically qualified workforce, management professionals, excellent manpower etc. helps to reduce cost of production and it results increased productivity.

6. Established brand name:
When one party has well established brands and goodwill, the other party gets its benefits.

Students can Download Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990 Notes, Plus One Economics Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Economics Notes Chapter 2 Indian Economy 1950-1990

Plus One Economics Chapter 2 Notes The Goals of Five Year Plans
A plan should have some clearly specified goals. The goals of the five-year plans are growth, modernization, self-reliance, and equity. This does not mean that all the plans have given equal importance to all these goals. Let us now learn about the goals of planning in some detail.

1. Growth: It refers to an increase in the country’s capacity to produce the output of goods and services within the country. It implies either a larger stock of productive capital, or a larger size of supporting services like transport and banking, or an increase in the efficiency of productive capital and services. A good indicator of economic growth, in the language of economics, is a steady increase in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

2. Modernization: To increase the production of goods and services the producers have to adopt new technology Adoption of new technology is called modernization.

3. Self-reliance: A nation can promote economic growth and modernization by using its own resources or by using resources imported from other nations. The first seven five-year plans gave importance to self-reliance which means avoiding imports of those goods which could be produced in India itself. This policy was considered a necessity in order to reduce our dependence on foreign countries, especially for food. It is understandable that people who were recently freed from foreign domination should give importance to self-reliance.

4. Equity: Now growth, modernization, and self-reliance, by themselves, may not improve the kind of life which people are living. A country can have high growth; the most modem technology developed in the country itself.

Plus One Economics Chapter 2 Agriculture
Land reforms and the green revolution were the two important changes in India’s agricultural sector during the initial periods of independence.

Land Reforms: The purpose of land reforms is twofold. On the one hand, it aims to make rational use of the scarce land resource by enforcing conditions on holding land. Secondly, it aims at the redistribution of land in favour of landless farmers.
Land reform consists of the following measures:

1. Abolition of intermediaries like Zamindars
2. Tenancy reforms, ie. regulation of rent, the security of tenure, etc.
3. Ceiling of landholding
4. Distribution of land among landless by acquiring surplus land from big landlords
5. Consolidation of holding and prevention of subdivision and fragmentation
6. Organization of cooperative farming

The policy decisions and legislative initiatives of the government on land reforms were very progressive. As a result of it, tillers were able to undertake the permanent improvement of their land and this contributed to growth in agriculture. However, the implementation of land reforms was not free from limitations. Some loopholes in the law were conveniently exploited by the landlords and transferred surplus land in the name of their relatives or binamies. But states like Kerala and West Bengal implemented the land reform measures in a relatively successful way.

The Green Revolution: Planners and policymakers of independent India gave top priority to the development of agriculture. In the 1960s the new technology in agriculture was tried in seven districts and was called the Intensive Agricultural Districts Programme (IADP). Later, the High Yielding Varieties Programme (HYVP) “was extended to the entire country, which is popularly known as Green Revolution or modem agricultural technology, seed fertilizer water technology. Norman Borlaug, an American Biologist was known as the father of the green revolution. Prof. M.S. Swaminathan is known as the father of the green revolution in India.
Features of the green revolution are:

1. Use of high yielding variety (HYV) seeds
2. Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides
3. Use of modem farm implements like power tillers, tractors, water pump sets, etc.
4. Better irrigation facilities
5. Easy availability of credit to farmers at lower interest rates

Plus One Economics Second Chapter Notes Industry and Trade
Economic growth and development depend upon industry and trade. The industry provides employment. In order to promote the industrial sector government introduced industrial policies.

Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 (IPR-1956)
To mould the economy into a socialist pattern, where the state ‘holds the commanding heights’ the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 (IPR1956) was adopted. This resolution classified industries into three categories:

1. Industries exclusively owned by the state.
2. Industries in which the private sector could supplement the efforts of the state.
3. Remaining industries were to be in the private sector. But they will be kept under state control through a system of licenses.

Plus One Economics Chapter Notes Small Scale Industries
Small scale industries are crucial for economic development. A small scale industry is defined with the reference to the maximum investment allowed to set up a unit. This limit of investment has changed over a period of time. In 1950 a small-scale industry unit was one which invests a maximum of rupees five lakhs, in 1966 it was raised to rupees 7.5 lakhs, in 1990 it was raised to rupees 60 lakhs and from 2000 it has been fixed at rupees one crore.
Small scale industries have the following advantages:

1. Less capital investment
2. Labour intensive technology – generates more employment opportunities
3. Less dependence on imports
4. Less pollution-environment friendly
5. Rural development

Plus One Economics Notes In Malayalam Pdf Import Substitution
The practice of replacing imports with the products made within the country is known as import substitution. The government allowed a policy of protection in order to protect domestic industries.

HSE Kerala Board Syllabus HSSLive Plus One Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Pdf Free Download in both English Medium and Malayalam Medium are part of Plus One Kerala SCERT. Here HSSLive.Guru has given Higher Secondary Kerala Plus One Chapter Wise Previous Year Important Questions and Answers based on CBSE NCERT syllabus.

Kerala Plus One Chapter Wise Previous Year Questions and Answers

• Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers
• Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers
• Plus One Chemistry Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers
• Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers
• Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers
• Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers
• Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers
• Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers
• Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers
• Plus One Computer Application Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers

We hope the given HSE Kerala Board Syllabus HSSLive Plus One Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Pdf Free Download in both English Medium and Malayalam Medium will help you. If you have any query regarding Higher Secondary Kerala Plus One Chapter Wise Previous Year Important Questions and Answers based on CBSE NCERT syllabus, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

HSSLive Plus One

Students can Download Chapter 4 Business Services Notes, Plus One Business Studies Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Notes Chapter 4 Business Services

Plus One Business Studies Chapter 4 Contents

• Meaning – Nature of Service – Differences between Services and Goods – Types of services
• Banks – Types of banks – Commercial bank – Functions of Commercial bank – e-Banking – Benefits of e-banking
• Insurance – Functions of insurance – Principles of insurance
• Types of insurance – Life insurance – Fire insurance – Marine insurance
• Communication services – Postal services Telecom services
• Transportation – Functions of Transportation
• Warehouse – Functions – Types of warehouses Services are those identifiable, essentially intangible activities that provides satisfaction of wants. For example, consulting a doctor for medical help, getting legal opinion from an advocate etc.

Business Studies Class 11 Chapter 4 Notes Pdf Nature of Services:
1. Intangibility:
Services are intangible, i.e., they cannot be touched. They are experiential in nature, eg: Treatment by a doctor.

2. Inconsistency:
Since there is no tangible product, services have to be performed according to the demand and expectations of the different customers, eg: Mobile services/Beauty parlour.

3. Inseparability:
Another important characteristic of services is the simultaneous activity of production and consumption being performed, i.e. They are inseparable, eg: ATM may replace clerk but presence of customer is a must.

4. Less Inventory:
Services cannot be stored for future use.

5. Involvement:
Participation of the customer in the service delivery is a must.

Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 4 Notes Difference between Services and Good:

Business Services Class 11 Explanation Types of service:
1. Business Services:
Business services are those services which are used by business enterprises for the conduct of their activities. For example, banking, insurance etc.

2. Social Services: Social services are generally provided voluntarily in pursuit of certain social goals. Eg. improve the standard of living for weaker sections of society, to provide educational services to their children etc.

3. Personal Services: Personal services are those services which are experienced differently by different customers, eg: tourism, restaurants, etc. Banking.

According to Banking Regulation Act 1949, banking means “accepting, for the purpose of lending and investment of deposits of money from the public, repayable on demand or otherwise and withdrawable by cheques, draft, order or otherwise”. Banks can be classified into the following:

1. Commercial banks
2. Cooperative banks
3. Specialised banks
4. Central bank

1. Commercial Banks:
Commercial Banks are banking institutions that accept deposits and grant short-term loans and advances to their customers. There are two types of commercial banks, public sector and private sector banks.
(a) Public Sector Bank:
Public sector banks are those banks, which are owned and managed by the Government. eg. SBI, PNB, IOB etc. Presently there are 28 public sector banks in India

(b) Private Sector Bank:
Private sector banks are owned and managed by private parties. Eg. HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Kotak Mahindra Bank and Jammu and Kashmir Bank etc. ICICI bank is the largest private sector bank in India.

2. Cooperative Banks:
Cooperative Banks are governed by the provisions of State Cooperative Societies Act. They managed on the principles of co-operation, self help and mutual help.

3. Specialised Banks:
Specialised banks are foreign exchange banks, industrial banks, development banks, export-import banks which provide financial aid to industries, joint venture projects and foreign trade.

4. Central Bank:
The Central bank supervises, controls and regulates the activities of all the commercial banks of that country. It also acts as a government banker. It controls and coordinates currency and credit policies of any country. The Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of our country.

Business Services Class 11 Notes Insurance:
Insurance is an agreement between two parties whereby one party undertakes, in exchange for a consideration, to pay the other party an agreed sum of money to compensate the loss, damage or injury caused as a result of some unforeseen events.

• Policy: The agreement or contract entered into by the insured and insurer is known as a ‘policy’.
• Insurer: The firm which insures the risk of loss is known as ‘insurer’.
• Insured: The person whose risk is insured is called ‘insured’.
• Premium: The consideration in return for which the insurer agrees to compensate the insured is known as ‘Premium’.

Functions of Insurance:
1. Providing certainty:
Insurance provides certainty of payment for the risk of loss. The insurer charges premium for providing the certainty

2. Protection:
Insurance provides protection from probable chances of loss.

3. Risk sharing:
Insurance helps in sharing of risk. The premium collected from a large number of people are used for compensating the loss of a few.

4. Assist in capital formation:
The accumulated funds of the insurer received by way of premium are invested in various income generating schemes.

Functions Of Warehousing Class 11 Principles of Insurance:

1. Utmost good faith:
The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insured. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract. The insurer must disclose all the terms and conditions jn the insurance contract to the insured.

2. Insurable interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means the interest shown by the insured in the continued existence of the subject matter or the financial loss he is subjected to on the happening of an event against which it has been insured.

3. Indemnity:
All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured which ever is less. The objective behind this principle is nobody should treat insurance contract as the source of profit.

4. Subrogation:
According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss to the property insured by him the right of ownership of such property passes on to the insurer. This is because the insured should not be allowed to make any profit, by selling the damaged property.

5. Causa proxima:
When the loss is the result of two or more causes, the proximate cause for the loss alone will be considered by the insurance company for admitting the claim.

6. Contribution:
In certain cases, the same subject matter is insured with one or more insurer. In case there is a loss, the insured is eligible to receive a claim only up to the amount of actual loss suffered by him.

7. Mitigation of loss:
This principle states that it is the duty of the insured to take reasonable steps to minimize the loss or damage to the insured property. If reasonable care is not taken then the claim from the insurance company may be rejected.

Types of Insurance:

Business Studies Insurance Notes Life Insurance:
It is a contract whereby the insurer undertakes to pay a certain sum of money either on the death of the insured or on the expiry of a specified period of time in consideration of a certain amount (premium) paid by the insured either in lump sum or in installments.
Elements of Life insurance contract:

1. The life insurance contract must have all the essentials of a valid contract
2. Life insurance is a contract of utmost good faith
3. The insured must have insurable interest in the life assured
4. Life insurance is not a contract of indemnity

Types of life insurance policies:
1. Whole Life Policy:
In this kind of policy, the sum assured becomes payable only on the death of the policy holder.

2. Endowment Life Policy:
Here, the sum assured becomes payable either at the end of the stipulated period or on the premature death of the policyholder which ever is earlier.

3. Joint Life Policy:
Under this policy, the lives of two or more persons are insured jointly. The sum assured becomes payable on the death of any one, to the survivor. Usually, this policy is taken up by husband and wife jointly or by two partners of the firm.

4. Annuity Policy:
Under this policy, the assured sum or policy money is payable after the assured attains a certain age in monthly, quarterly, half yearly or annual installments.

5. Children’s Endowment Policy:
This policy is taken by a person for his/ her children to meet the expenses of their education or marriage. The agreement states that a certain sum will be paid by the insurer when the children attain a particular age.

Business Studies Class 11 Business Services Notes Fire Insurance:
Fire insurance is a contract whereby the insurer, in consideration of premium, undertakes to compensate the insured for the loss or damage suffered due to fire. The premium is payable in single installment.
A claim for loss by fire must satisfy the two following conditions:

• There must be actual loss;
• Fire must be accidental and non intentional.

Elements of Fire insurance contract:

1. The insured must have insurable interest in the subject matter.
2. Fire insurance is a contract of utmost good faith.
3. It is a contract of indemnity.
4. Fire must be the proximate cause of damage or loss.

Meaning Of Business Services Class 11 Marine Insurance:
Marine insurance is an agreement by which the insurance company agrees to indemnify the owner of a ship or cargo against risks which are incidental to marine adventures. eg: collision with other ship, collision of ship with the rocks, fire, storm etc. Marine insurance insures ship hull, cargo and freight.
Elements of Marine insurance contract:

1. Marine insurance is a contract of indemnity
2. It is a contract of utmost good faith
3. Insurable interest must exist at the time of loss
4. The principle of causa proxima will apply to it.

There are three types of Marine insurance. They are:
Ship or hull insurance:
when the owner of a ship is insured against loss on account of perils of the sea, it is known as Ship or Hull insurance.

Cargo insurance:
Marine insurance that covers the risk of loss of cargo is known as Cargo Insurance.

Freight insurance:
The shipping company may seek insurance of the risk of loss of freight. Such a marine insurance is known as freight insurance.

Differences between Life, Fire and Marine insurance:

Business Studies Class 11 Chapter 4 Notes Communication services:
Communication services are helpful to business for establishing links with the outside world viz., suppliers, customers, competitors etc. The main services which help business can be classified into postal and telecom.
1. Postal services:
Indian post and telegraph department provides various postal services across India. Various facilities provided by postal department are:
(a) Financial facilities:
They provide postal banking facilities to the general public and mobilise their savings through the saving schemes like public provident fund (PPF), Kisan Vikas Patra, National Saving Certificate, Recurring Deposit Scheme and Money Order facility.
(i) Mail facilities: Mail services consist of

• Parcel facilities that is transmission of articles from one place to another
• Registration facility to provide security of the transmitted articles
• Insurance facility to provide insurance cover for all risks in the course of transmission by post.

(b) Allied Postal Services

1. Greetings Post: Greetings card can be sent through post offices.
2. Media Post: Corporate can advertise their brands through post cards, envelops etc.
3. Speed Post: It allows speedy transmission of articles to people in specified cities.
4. e-bill post: The post offices collect payment of telephone, electricity, and water bills from the consumers.
5. Courier Services: Letters, documents, parcels etc. can be sent through the courier service.

2. Telecom Services:
The various types of telecom services are
1. Cellular mobile services:
Mobile communication device including voice and non-voice messages, data services and PCO services utilising any type of network equipment within their service area.

2. Radio paging services:
It means of transmitting information to persons even when they are mobile.

3. Fixed line services:
It includes voice and non-voice messages and data services to establish linkage for long distance traffic.

4. Cable services:
Linkages and switched services within a licensed area of operation to operate media services which are essentially one way entertainment related services.

5. VSAT services (Very small Aperture Terminal):
It is a Satellite based communication service. It offers government and business agencies a highly flexible and reliable communication solution in both urban and rural areas.

6. DTH services (Direct to Home):
It is a Satellite based media services provided by cellular companies with the help of small dish antenna and a set up box.

Chapter 4 Business Studies Class 11 Notes Transportation:
Transport refers to the activity that facilitates physical movement of goods and individuals from one place to another transportation removes the hindrance of place, i.e., it makes goods available to the consumer from the place of production.
Functions of Transport:

1. Helps in the movement of goods and materials from one place to another
2. Helps in the stabilisation of prices.
3. Helps in the social, economic and cultural development of the country
4. Helps in national and international trade
5. Facilitates large scale production
6. Generates employment opportunities
7. Increases growth of towns and cities
8. Connects all part of the world

Types of Transport:

1. Land Transport
   • Road Transport
   • Rail Transport
   • Pipeline Transport
2. Water Transport
   • Inland water Transport
   • Ocean Transport
3. Air Transport.

Business Studies Class 11 Chapter 4 Question Answers Warehousing:
Warehousing means holding or preserving goods in huge quantities from the time of their purchase or production till their consumption. Warehousing is one of the important auxiliaries to trade. It creates time utility by bridging the time gap between production and consumption of goods.
Functions of Warehousing

1. Warehouse helps in supplying the goods to the customers when it is needed.
2. By maintaining a balance of supply of goods warehousing leads to price stabilization.
3. By keeping the goods in the warehouse, the trader can relieve himself of the responsibility of keeping of goods.
4. The warehouse performs the function of dividing the bulkquantity of goods into smaller quantities.
5. Warehousing helps in the seasonal storage of goods to select businesses.
6. The functions of grading, branding and packing of goods can be done in warehouses.
7. The warehousing receipt can be used as a collateral security for obtaining loans.

Business Services Class 11 Notes Pdf Types of Warehouses:

(a) Private warehouses: Private warehouses are owned by big business concerns or wholesalers for keeping their own products.

(b) Public warehouses:
They are owned by some agencies, offer storage facilities to the public after charging certain fees. The working of public warehouses is subject to some govt, regulations. They are also known as Duty paid warehouses.

(c) Bonded warehouses:
These warehouses are used to keep the imported goods before the payment of import duties. It offers many advantages to the importer, i.e. The importer can releases the goods in part by paying the proportionate amount of duty. The goods can be branded, blended and packed in the warehouse itself.

(d) Government warehouses:
These warehouses are fully owned and managed by the government. For example, Food Corporation of India, State Trading Corporation, and Central Warehousing Corporation.

(e) Co-operative warehouses:
Marketing co-operative societies and agricultural oo operative societies have set up their own warehouses for members of their cooperative society.