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Students can Download Social Science Part 1 Chapter 4 Medieval India Concept of Kingship and Nature of Administration Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus Class 9th Standard Social Science History Chapter 4 Notes Malayalam Medium മധ്യകാല ഇന്ത്യാ ഭരണസങ്കല്പവും ഭരണത്തിൻ്റെ സ്വഭാവവും

Medieval India: Concept of Kingship and Nature of Administration Textual Questions and Answers in Malayalam

Students can Download Social Science Part 1 Chapter 5 Culture and Nationalism Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus Class 10th Standard Social Science History Chapter 5 Notes Malayalam Medium സംസ്കാരവും ദേശീയതയും

Culture and Nationalism Textbook Questions and Answers in Malayalam

You can Download Economic Systems and Economic Policies Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 9 Economic Systems and Economic Policies Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 9 Notes

9 Class Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Name the different economic systems
Answer:

• Capital economy
• Socialist economy
• Mixed economy

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf In English Question 2.
What do you mean by capitalist economy? Point out its important features.
Answer:
Capitalist economy is the economy in which the ownership of means of production is with private individuals who work with the motive of making profits. Other features of capitalist economy are as follows:

• Freedom for the entrepreneurs to produce any commodity
• Right to private property
• Profit motive
• Transfer of wealth to legal heir
• Free market with no control over price
• Consumers sovereignty
• Competition among entrepreneurs to sell products.

9th Standard Social Science Guide Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
In a capitalist economy, major economic decisions are taken by
Answer:
Price Mechanism

Scert Class 9 Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 4.
Define socialist economy. What are the features of a socialist economy?
Answer:
Socialist economy is an economic system in which the means of production are owned by the public sector. This economic system works on centralised planning. Let us analyse other features of a socialist economy:

• Activities aimed at social welfare
• Absence of private entrepreneur
• Absence of private ownership of wealth and transfer of wealth to legal heir
• Economic equality

Scert Class 9 Social Science Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Point out demerits of socialism
Answer:

• Less investment.
• Absence of private ownership of wealth
• Limited choice of products.

Social Science Class 9 Notes State Syllabus  Question 6.
What is mixed economy? What are its features?
Answer;
Mixed economy is the economy that has certain features of both the capitalist economy and socialist economy. India has adopted mixed economy. Let us analyse some of the features of a mixed economy.

• Existence of both private and public sectors.
• Economy works on the principle of planning
• Importance to welfare activities
• Existence of both freedom of private ownership of wealth and economic control.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Categorise the following countries into different economic systems.
1. USA
2. China
3. Cuba
4. India
5. Sri lanka
6. U.K.
Answer:
Capitalist economy:
1. USA
6 U.K.
Socialist economy
2. China
3. Cuba
Mixed Economy
4. India
5. Sri lanka

Class 9 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Relaxation of government control and influence over the economic activities in a country is:
a) Privatisation
b) Liberalisation
c) Globalisation
d) Marketisation
Answer:
b) Liberalisation

Social Notes For Class 9 State Syllabus Question 9.
India adopted new economic policy in
Answer:
1991

9 Class Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 10.
Mention the changes that were brought about as a result of liberalisation.
Answer:

• Relaxation of control in setting up industries.
• Reduction of import tariff and tax.
• Changes in foreign exchange rules.
• Abolition of market control
• Permission of foreign investment in many sectors.
• Reduced the role of government in the basic industries and basic infrastructure development.

Social Guide For Class 9 State Syllabus Question 11.
Prepare a note on globalization.
Answer
Globalisation is the economic integration and interdependence of nations as a result of free flow of capital, labour, goods and services, and exchange of technology irrespective of boundaries.

Towards the end of the twentieth century, developments in computer, mobile phones, internet, etc helped in improved communication. Container ships, flights, bullet trains, etc. contributed to the fast means of transportation these changes helped globalization.

Social Science Textbook Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Pdf Download Question 12.
WTO was formed on
Answer;
1^st January 1995

Social Science Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
Name Bretton woods twins
Answer;
IMF and World Bank

Let Us Assess

Social Science Class 9 Malayalam Medium Question 14.
Why is the capitalist economy known as Market economy?
Answer;
Capital economy functions aiming profit, complete each other and there is no control over prices. So capital economy is also called market economy.

State Syllabus Class 9 Social Science  Question 15.
Elucidate the concept of police state.
Answer;
In capital economy there is very little government intervention in the economic activities in capitalist economy. The main functions of the nation are to maintain law and order and to defend the country from foreign invasion. Such nations are known as police state.

9th Class Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
Planning is the main feature of the socialist economy. Explain.
Answer;
It is through planning that the basic problems of an economy are solved by the socialist economy. Regarding what to produce, how to produce and for whom to produce is done to ensure social welfare. Goods and services are produced and distributed accordingly. The amount of goods and services required for the society is calculated and production is done accordingly.

Std 9 Geography Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
Today, purely capitalist and socialist economies can not be found in the world. Substantiate.
Answer;
Pure form of capitalist or socialist economies can not be seen anywhere today. There is government intervention in capitalist economies like those in the United Kingdom and the United States of America. Private ownership of wealth and freedom of market have been permitted in socialist countries like China and Cuba.

Class 9 Social Science Notes State Syllabus Question 18.
List the actions taken by the government of India as a part of liberalisation.
Answer:

• Relaxation of control in setting up industries.
• Reduction of import tariff and tax
• Changes in foreign exchange rules
• Abolition of market control
• Permission of foreign investment in many sectors.
• Reduced the role of government in the basic industries and basic infrastructure development.

Question 19.
Make a note on the working of multinational companies.
Answer:
Multinational companies are those companies registered in the home country but operating in many countries. These companies with high technology and huge capital viewed neoliberalisation as an opportunity. Instead of producing goods in a country and exporting it to other countries, the multinational companies have invested their capital in developing countries so that raw materials, labour and market available there can be used in their favour.

Question 20.
Do you support globalisation policies? Why?
Answer:
Globalisation have its own merits and demerits. As part of globalisation a wide variety of products, ability to use the most advanced technology, increased competition in the market, more employment opportunities and increase in national income are possible and at the same time increase economic disparity, excess exploitation of natural resources, fall in the price of domestic products lose of government control over economic system happens. Even though globalisation is good for developed nations but it has adverse effect for developing nations.

Question 21.
What are the features of mixed economy?
Answer:

• Existence of both public and private sectors.
• Economy works on the principle of planning.
• Importance to welfare activities.
• Existence of both freedom of private ownership of wealth and economic control.

Question 22.
What is known as globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation is the economic integration and inter-dependence of nations as a result of free flow of capital, labour, goods and services and exchange of technology irrespective of boundaries.

You can download Resource Wealth of India Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 8 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 8 Resource Wealth of India Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 8 Notes

Resource wealth of India Question 1.
Name the different sectors that are the basis of Indian economy
Answer:

• Agriculture
• Transport
• Communication
• Energy production
• Mining

Zaid Crops Examples Question 2.
Observe the map and identify major rice producing states in India.

Answer:

1. West Bengal
2. Assam
3. Odisha
4. UP
5. Bihar
6. Andra Pradesh
7. Telangana
8. Tamil Nadu

Universal Fiber Crop Question 3.
What are the favorable conditions for the cultivation of diverse agricultural crops in India?
Answer:

• Suitable agricultural climate that extends throughout the year
• Fertile soil
• Suitable physiography
• Irrigation facilities

Which Crop is Known as Universal Fiber Question 4.
…………. is called golden fiber
Answer:
Jute

Question 5.
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

1. Cash crops
2. Fibre crops
3. Plantation crops
4. Beverages

Universal Fibre Crop Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:

Coffee Raw Material Question 7.
Distinguish between Kharif crops, Rabi crops and Zaid crops. Give examples for each
Answer:
Kharif crops: Crops that are cultivated at the beginning of monsoon and harvested by the end of monsoon.
Eg. rice, cotton.
Rabi crops: Crops that are cultivated by the beginning of winter season and harvested by the beginning of summer.
Eg. wheat
Zaid crops: Crops that are cultivated by the beginning of summer and harvested by the beginning of monsoon.
Eg. fruits, vegetables.

Electroplating Plant Question 8.
Which crop is called universal fibre? Why?
Answer:
Cotton is called universal fibre. Cotton is widely used all over the world as the raw material for textile industry. Hence it is known as ‘Universal fibre’.

Rubber Industry Question 9.
Categories the following crops into food crops and cash crops
Rice, wheat, cotton, tea, coffee, pulses, tobacco, maize, ragi, rubber

Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the map of India and name the major wheat-producing states in India.
Answer:

• Punjab
• U.P.
• Hariyana
• Himachal Pradesh
• Utterakhand
• M.P
• Rajastan
• Bihar

Question 11.
What are the geographical conditions suitable for wheat cultivation?
Answer:
The geographical conditions suitable for wheat cultivation are:

• Fertile plain lands.
• Temperate regions conducive for wheat cultivation
• Availability of porous or well-drained fertile soil with content of lime.
• Average temperatures of 10°C during planting and 15°C to 26°C during harvesting period and 75 cm of rainfall are needed for wheat cultivation. These conditions are available in these states.
• Rainfall received from western disturbance is suitable for the cultivation of rabi crops like wheat.

Question 12.
Wheat is not cultivated in Kerala. Why?
Answer:
Wheat cultivation is not possible in Kerala because,

• Scarcity of alluvial soil
• High temperature
• Poor irrigation facilities

Question 13.
Which are the soils ideal for cotton cultivation?
Answer:

• Black soil of Deccan plateau
• Alluvial soil of North Indian Plain.

Question 14.
What are the raw materials for iron and steel industry?
Answer:

• Irone ore
• Manganese
• Coal
• Limestone

Question 15.
Distinguish between metallic minerals and non- metallic minerals.
Answer:

• Minerals with metallic content are called metallic minerals. Eg. iron ore.
• Minerals without metallic content are called non-metallic minerals. Eg. Mica.

Question 16.
Iron is considered as the basis of all industries. Why?
Answer:

• Machines and tools made of iron are used widely.
• The amount of iron used in a country determines its standard of living.

Question 17.
Which are the four varieties of iron ore?
Answer:

• Magnetite
• Hematite
• Limonite
• Siderite

Question 18.
Name the non-metallic minerals.
Answer:

• Limestone
• Mica
• Gypsum
• Coal
• Petroleum

Question 19.
Is there any metro project in Kerala?
Answer:
Yes, Kochi metro

Question 20.
How many international airports are there in Kerala? Which are they?
Answer:
4 airports.

1. Thiruvananthapuram
2. Nedumpasseri
3. Kozhikode (Karipur)
4. Kannur

Question 21.
Which are the major iron and steel industries in India?
Answer:

• Tata Iron and Steel factor (TISCO)
• Visvesvaraya Iron and steel factory limited (VISL)
• Bhilai Steel Plant
• Durgapur Steel Plant
• Rourkela Steel Plant
• Bokaro Steel Plant
• Indian Iron and Steel Company
• Visakhapatnam Steel Plant.

Question 22.
Describe the two agro-based industries in India. Agro-based industries are those that use agricultural products as raw material. The two major agro-based industries of India are cotton textile industry and sugar industry.

Cotton textile industry: This is the biggest agro-based industry in India. India has been renowned for cotton clothes since very old times. The first cotton mill in India was established at Fort Gloster near Kolkata in 1818. The large scale cotton textile industry began to function at Mumbai in 1854. Mumbai is the largest cotton textile manufacturing centre in India. Though cotton textile mills function in various parts of the country, the majority of them are located in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Sugar industry: Among agro-based industries, sugar holds the second place. If sugarcane is kept for a longer period after their cropping, the content of sugar (sucrose) in it decreases. Therefore all sugar factories have been located near sugar fields. About 60% of the sugar being manufactured in India is from the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Maharashtra. Uttar Pradesh leads both in the production of sugarcane and sugar. The majority of the sugar industries in India are concentrated in the states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. So these states are known as the sugar belt of India.

Question 23.
Compared to road transport, what are the advantage of rail, water, and air transport?
Answer:
Each means of transport has its own advantage. Road transport is the best for short distances. But the other means of transport have certain advantages over road transport.
Rail transport:

• Suitable for long-distance travel and cargo.
• Can rest while traveling.

Water transport:

• Less air pollution.
• Less sound pollution.
• Less cost for construction and maintenance of water transport route.
• Transportation of heavy cargo.
• Helps international trade.

Air transport:

• Suitable for rugged terrain and in places which cannot be reached by roads and railways.
• Most speedy form of transport.

Question 24.
Which are the Indian states leading in spice production?
Answer:
Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu

Question 25.
The states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are known as the ‘Sugar Belt of India’. Why?
Answer:
Among the sugar industries in India, majority of them are set up in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

Question 26.
Complete the chart

Answer:

Question 27.
All sugar industries have been located near sugar fields, Why?
Answer:
The juice is to be extracted immediately after the harvest of sugarcane. Otherwise, the quantity of juice and the amount of sucrose in the juice will be less. That is why sugar industries are located near sugar fields.

Question 28.
What are the raw materials for agro-based industries?
Answer:
Sugarcane, cotton, jute, rubber, oil seeds

Question 29.
Which are the major agro-based industries in In-dia?
Answer:
Sugar industry, cotton textile industry, jute industry, paper industry, woollen industry, silk industry, paint industry, varnish industry, soap industry, rubber industry, etc.

Question 30.
Identify the Indian states where sugar factories are located.
Answer:
Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu.

Question 31.
Name major tea producing states in India.
Answer:

• Assam
• West Bengal
• Kerala
• Tamil Nadu

Question 32.
Complete the flow chart of industries in India.

Answer:

Question 33.
Match the following.}

Answer:

Question 34.
Rail and road transports are not developed in north-east states of India and in the regions lying close to the Himalayas. Why?
Idukki and Wayanad districts in Kerala have no railway lines. Why?
Answer:
The construction of road and railway network is difficult in mountainous regions, hilly areas, valleys, and slopes. The above-said regions belong to such places.

Question 35.
What is the importance of agro-based industries?
Answer:
These industries contribute substantially to India’s national income.
They are a base for huge employment potential

Question 36.
What are the conclusions to be drawn on the analysis of the location of the agro-based industries in relation to agricultural regions?
Answer:
All the agro-based industries of India are located near to places where the raw materials for them are cultivated. This enables to get raw materials cheaply and in plenty. For eg: Mumbai and Ahmedabad, the centers of cotton textile industry in India are located near to places where cotton is cultivated on a large scale.

Question 37.
Which are the fossil fuels?
Answer:

• Coal
• Petroleum
• Natural gas

Question 38.
Point-out conditions required for rubber cultivation.
Answer:
Temperature raging from 25°C to 35°C and annual rainfall of over 150 cm are ideal. Laterite soil is ideal.
Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are the leading producers.

Question 39.
Mumbai is the largest cotton textile manufacturing center in India. What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

• Availability of abundant raw materials
• Humid climate
• Availability of electricity at cheaper rate
• Availability of freshwater
• Nearness to harbor

Question 40.
Classify the roads in India

Answer:

Question 41.
Which is the largest mineral-based industry in India? Why is it called basic industry?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is the largest mineral-based industry in India. The measuring rode of the industrial progress of any nation is calculated on the basis of the production and consumption of iron. The present progress in the country is due to the growth of iron and steel industry. Many other industries depend on this industry. It laid the foundation for rapid industrialization in India. So it is called the basic industry.

Question 42.
Consider the map showing parts of India

Answer:
Name the important ports

1. Kandla
2. Mumbai
3. Goa
4. Mangalore
5. Kochi
6. Thoothukudi
7. Chennai
8. Vishakhapatnam
9. Vishakhapatnam
10. Paradweep
11. Kolkatta

Let Us Assess

Question 43.
Starting cultivation by the end of winter season and take harvest before rainy season’. Which agricultural season is mentioned here? Which are the main crops of this season?
Answer:
Zaid season
Main crops: Fruits and vegetables

Question 44.
Prepare short notes
i) Golden quadrangle
ii) Universal fibre
Answer:
Golden quadrangle: Golden quadrangle is the Express Highway that links the four metropolitan cities of India. In addition to this, the Government of India has planned under the category of Expressways, a North-South (Srinagar to Kanyakumari) and east-West (Silcharto Porbandar) corridor.

Universal fibre: Cotton is called universal fibre. Cotton is widely used all over the world as the raw material for textile industry. Hence it is known as ‘Universal fibre’.

Question 45.
Identify the following ports.
i) Port at southern end
ii) Main port of Karnataka
iii) Important port in West Bengal other than Kolkotta
Answer:
i) Thoothukudi
ii) Mangalore
iii) Haldia

Question 46.
During which season are crops like Maize, Cotton and Jute are cultivated.
Answer:
Kharif

Question 47.
Which one of the following is a winter crop?
a. Wheat
b. Sugarcane
c. Groundnut
d. Millet
Answer:
a. Wheat

Question 48.
Name the agricultural season that starts in June and ends in June.
Answer:
Zaid

Question 49.
Differentiate food crops and cash crops.
Answer:
The crops which can directly be consumed as food are called food crops. Cash crops are those having industrial and commercial significance.

Question 50.
Explain the geographical factors required for rice cultivation.
Answer:
Alluvial soil is most suitable for rice cultivation. Rice requires high temperature (24°C) and a good amount of Rainfall (more than 150cm) Rice is being cultivated on regions with less rainfall with the aid of irrigation.

Question 51.
Why is it said that maize is a suitable crop for In-dia?
Answer:

1. In India Maize is cultivated in both summer and winter.
2. Cultivated in regions receiving an annual average rainfall of 75cm.
3. Well drained fertile soil is ideal.

Question 52.
How are roads classified in India?
Answer:
Roads in India are classified based on the con-struction and management.

Question 53.
What is Golden Quadrilateral Superhighway?
Answer:
The six lane superhighways connecting the metropolitan cities in India such as Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata are together named as the golden quadrangle superhighway.

Question 54.
Which type of waterways are used for inland navigation?
Answer:
Rivers, Backwaters, Canals, etc.

Question 55.
Which are the major inland waterways in India?
Answer:

1. Godavari – Krishna rivers and itstributories
2. Buckingham canal of Andhra-Tamilnadu Region
3. Mandovi and Zuvari rivers of Goa
4. Back water of Kerala.

Question 56.
Through which mineral, the following places are known
i) Neyveli
ii) Jharia
iii) Digboy
Answer:
i) Lingnite
ii) Coal
iii) Petroleum

Question 57. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Prepare a note on any three cash crops cultivated in India, its geographical requirements and the states where it is cultivated.
Answer:
Cotton: Forest free growing seasons, 200 to 30°C temperature small amount of rainfall. Black soil in the best soil. Jute: Hot and humid conditions. High temperature and rainfall above 150cm is essential well-drained alluvial soil is suitable.
Sugareane: 4 tropical crop, requires hot and humid climate. Black soil and alluvial soil are ideal.

Question 58. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Presence of mineral resources has made some regions industrial centers. Substantiate this statement based on two industrial centers and the factors responsible for it.
Answer:
Iron and steel industry, Aluminium industry availability of raw materials, transport facilities.

Question 59. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Write the favorable geographical factors required for the cultivation of major cash crops – cotton and jute and the states in which they are cultivated.
Answer:
Cotton — Jute
1. Frost-free growing season — Hot and humid conditions
2. 20°C to 30°C temperature — High temperature
3. Black soil — Rainfall above 150cm
4. GujratMaharastra — Well drained alluvial soil
5. Andrapradesh, Tamilnadu — West Bengal,

Question 60.
(Qn. Pool-2017)
Write any two mineral-based industries in India. Find out the favorable factors for their development and prepares short note.
Answer:
Iron and steel industries, Aluminium industries. Availability of new materials, transport facilities, cheap power, availability of water.

Question 61. (Orukkam – 2017)
Complete the following flow chart about the major Minerals in India.

Answer:
a) Ferrous metals
b) Non-ferrous metals
c) Other minerals
d) Iron ore manganese
e) Gold silver copper
f) Coal, Petroleum
g) Mica

Question 62. (Orukkam – 2017)
Complete the following table of Major Iron and Steel Industry in India.
Answer:

Question 63. (Orukkam- 2017)
Complete the table about the major Minerals in India, Uses, and the major state that produce these minerals.
Answer:

Question 64. (Orukkam – 2017)
Classify and write the Characteristics of Mineral
Fuels
Coal:
1. The major Thermal energy source in India
2. …………………..
3. …………………..
4. …………………..
5. …………………..
Petroleum and Natural gas:
1. Main energy source of Bus, Rail and Air transport
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
4. ……………….
Non – Conventional energy source:
1. Comparatively cheap
2. …………………
3. …………………
Answer:
Coal:

1. Coal is a major industrial fuel
2. Most of coal of fund in India is of medium grade of bituminous type.
3. West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chattisgarh are the major states producing coal.
4. The largest coalfield in India is Jharia in Jharkhand.
5. The less energy-efficient coal is lignite.

Petroleum and Natural gas:

1. Other than petrol and diesel etc. numerous by-products are also obtained.
2. Petroleum mining in India started at Digboi in Assam.
3. Petroleum producing states in India are Assam Gujrat and Maharashtra.
4. Natural gas is the fuel obtained along with petroleum.

Non – Conventional energy source:

1. Environment-friendly
2. Renewable

Question 65. (Orukkam – 2017)
Classify Roads in India and list down the features. National Highways
1. Major roads of the country
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
State Highways
1. ……………..
2. …………….
3. …………….
District roads
1. ……………
2. …………..
3. …………..
Village Roads
1. ……………
2. …………..
3. …………..
Answer:
National Highways:

1. Major roads of the country
2. Maintained and constructed by the central government
3. Links the state capitals, major cites, etc.

State Highways:

1. Major roads of the state.
2. Links state capital with the district headquarters.
3. Construction and maintenance by the government

District roads:

1. Major roads in the district.
2. links district headquarters with important places with in the roads

Village Roads:

1. Built and maintained by the district panchayath
2. Ensures the domestic movements both in the state
3. Construction and maintenance by local self-government

Question 66. (Orukkam – 2017)
List down the characteristics of Water Transport.
1. Cheapest mode of transport
2. …………………
3. …………………
4. …………………
5. …………………
Answer:
2. Suitable for large scale cargo transport
3. Does not cause environmental pollution.
4. Does not cause environmental pollution.
5. Most suitable for international trade.

Question 67. (Orukkam-2017)
List down the areas where inland navigation is more
1. The rivers Ganges, Brahmaputra, and its tributaries.
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
4. ………………..
5. ………………..
Answer:
2. Godavari – Krishna and their tributaries.
3. Buckingham canal of Andhra – Tamilnadu region
4. Mandovi and Zuari rivers of Goa
5. Backwaters of Kerala

Question 68. (Orukkam – 2017)
List down the major National Waterways in India
Answer:

You can Download Sun: The Ultimate Source Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 1 Sun: The Ultimate Source Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 1 Notes

Sun The Ultimate Source Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.

Look at the above maps showing the atmospheric temperatures of a few cities in India.
i) Is the temperature the same at different places on the same day?
ii) Is the temperature experienced at a particular place the same in all seasons?
Answer:
i) The temperature is not the same at different places on the same day.
ii) The temperature at a place will be different in summer season and winter season. It can be seen from the above figures. Figure A shows winter season and figure B shows summer season in India. Thus at a place temperature in different in both the seasons.

Sun The Ultimate Source Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Some gases present in the atmosphere can absorb terrestrial radiation. Which are those gases? What is the consequence of such absorption?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, methane, and ozone are the gases that can absorb terrestrial radiation. The atmosphere is heated by terrestrial radiation.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Question 3.
Terrestrial radiation occurs mostly at night. Why?
Answer:
The sun rays coming from the sun to the earth is insolation. It can take place only in the day time. The surface of the earth is heated by the process of terrestrial radiation and this heat is transferred to the atmosphere. This transfer takes place mostly at night.

Hss Live Guru 9th Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
What is the difference between insolation and terrestrial radiation?
Answer:
The earth receives energy from the sun. The incom¬ing solar radiation is called insolation. The sun’s rays reach the earth as short waves. They do not heat the atmosphere directly. Heat is transferred from the surface of the earth to the outer space in the form of long waves. This process is terrestrial radiation. The atmosphere is heated by this process.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes English Medium Question 5.
Discuss why are the maximum and minimum temperatures being recorded at 2 pm and just before sunrise respectively?
Answer:
The maximum intensity of the sun’s rays is at 12 noon. But the maximum temperature of the atmosphere is felt at about 2 in the afternoon because it takes about two hours to heat the atmosphere by the terrestrial radiation. That is why the maximum temperature of the day is recorded at 2 in the afternoon.

Similarly, the atmospheric temperature decreases very slowly. It is only after 4 in the morning that the atmospheric temperature falls. The minimum temperature of a day is recorded at 5 in the morning (just before sunrise).

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Geography Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Which instrument is used to measure temperature?
Answer:
Thermometer

9th Std Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Calculate diurnal range and daily mean temperature of the places shown in the picture.

Answer:

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Question 8.
How is sunlight distributed in temperate and frigid zones?
Answer:
The regions between the tropic of cancer and arctic circle in the northern hemisphere and tropic of Capricorn and antarctic circles in southern hemisphere are the temperate zones. Slanting sunrays fall on temperate zones. So less heat is experienced here. The summer is warm, mild and comfortable but the winter is severe.

The regions between the arctic circle and north pole and antarctic circle and south pole are the frigid zones. Here the sun’s rays are very much inclined and so, the heat received by this region is comparatively very low.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Guide Question 9.
The temperature in the atmosphere decreases approximately at the rate of 1°C per 165 m of altitude. What is this process called?
Answer:
Normal Lapse Rate

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Notes Question 10.
The temperature experience in places like Idukki and Wayanad is much lower than that of the neighboring districts Ernakulam and Kozhikode respectively. Why?
Answer:

• Idukki and Wayanad are located in the Western Ghat Zone.
• Temperature decreases with height.
• As these regions have high altitude, the temperature there is very low.
• Ernakulam and Kochi are located in a low altitude.
• So these districts experience more temperatures.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science English Medium Question 11.
Generally, Kerala experiences moderate temperature. Why?
Answer:
It can be inferred that the range of temperatures will be higher at places away from the sea and vice versa. Temperature remains moderate at places close to the sea. This is because the heating of land causes wind to blow from sea to land and cooling of land causes wind to blow from land to sea. Since Kerala in located near to sea, the state experiences moderate temperatures.

Social Science Notes Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Explain the influence of winds in regulating the temperature of a region.
Answer:
The winds influence the temperature of a place. While the hot winds raise the temperature of a place and the cold winds reduce the temperature.

Std 9 Geography Kerala Syllabus Question 13.

Observe the above figure. The smooth curved lines represent the temperature recorded at different places throughout the earth’s surface. What are these lines called?
Answer:
Isotherms

Hss Live Class 9 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Isotherms in the southern hemisphere are almost parallel to the Equator compared to those in the northern hemisphere. Why?
Answer;
During summer, high temperature prevails over the land compared to the sea and during winter, the condition is reversed. The bending of isotherms is due to the differential heating of land and water.

9th Geography Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
In the weather maps for summer and winter, the iso-therms behave differently. Why?
Answer:
During summer, high temperature prevails over the land compared to the sea and in winter, low temperature is experienced. The bending of isotherms is due to the differential heating of land and water. Inland areas during summer the isotherms bend facing the poles, and in the oceanic region, isotherms bend facing the equator. During winter the condition is reversed.

Hss Live Guru 9th History Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
What is the role of temperature in bringing water con-tent to the atmosphere?
Answer:

• Evaporation is the process that brings water content to the atmosphere. Temperature affects the rate of evaporation.
• Evaporation is high when temperature is high.

Question 17.
Is humidity uniform at all places?
Answer:
No, humidity is not uniform at all places. Humidity varies not only with place, but also with time.

Question 18.
Can you suggest a suitable experiment to demon demonstrate the condensation process?
Answer:
Take a steel glass. Fill it with lime juice. Add an ice cube and stir the glass gently. Continue the process. After some time, drops of water begin to form on the side of the glass. Water drops appear on the cold side (outside) of the glass due to the process of condensation.

Question 19.
Dew disappears as the sun rises. Why?
Answer:
Dew is the Atmospheric vapor condensing in small drops on cool surfaces at night. When the sun rises the atmospheric temperature increases and the waterdrops in the form of dew become moisture.

Question 20.
Observe the sky and try to identify the different types of clouds.
Answer:
When we observe the sky, we can identify 4 types of clouds. They are

1. Cirrus clouds
2. Stratus clouds
3. Cumulus clouds
4. Nimbus clouds

Question 21.
Which form of precipitation is most familiar to you?
Answer:
Most familiar and common form of precipitation is water drops. This is the rainfall.

Question 22.
When Kerala receives southwest monsoon rainfall the western parts of Tamil Nadu remain dry. Why?
Answer:

• South West Monsoon rainfall is an example to orographic rain.
• Kerala is located in the western part of the West- em Ghat.
• Kerala lies in the windward side of the mountain.
• So Kerala receives good rainfall.
• This is orographic rainfall
• After shedding rains on the windward side, the dry wind then reaches on the leeward side, which fail to give rain in this area. It is a rain-shadow region.
• Tamil Nadu lies in the rain shadow region. When Kerala receives rain, Tamil Nadu does not get rain.

Question 23.
Due to high-temperature air gets heated and rises up. What is this process of heat transfer called?
Answer:
Convection

Sun: The Ultimate Source Model Questions and Answers

Question 24.
What is meant by insolation?
Answer:
Solar energy reaches earth in the form of short waves. This is termed as insolation.

Question 25.

The given diagrams indicate the processes of heat transfer in the atmosphere. Analyse the diagrams and write a note.
Answer:
Heat transfer in the atmosphere takes place due to four processes:
Conduction – The sun’s rays reach the earth as short waves. The incoming solar radiation is called as insolation. Insolation does not heat the atmosphere directly as it passes through. The earth’s surface gets heated due to insolation. This heat is transferred to the part of the atmosphere close to the hot surface of the earth.
Convection- Heated air expands and rises up. Cold air in the upper part of the atmosphere comes down, gets heated and rises up again. This circular process heats the atmosphere.
Advection – It is the horizontal transfer of heat through wind. Hot wind that blows to a region increases the temperature in that region. Similarly, cold wind that blows to a region reduces the temperature in that region.
Terrestrial Radiation- The re-radiation of energy from the surface of the earth back to the outer space in the form of long waves is called terrestrial radiation.

Question 26.
Define heat budget.
Answer:
The balance between insolation and terrestrial radiation is called heat budget.

Question 27.
Write the terms:
(i) Maximum temperature – Minimum temperature

Answer:
(i)Diurnal range temperature
(ii) Daily mean temperature

Question 28.

Based on the picture given above, complete the table given below. Supposing the amount of insolation as 100 units.

Answer:
a) Heat Budget
b) 35 units
c) 51 units
d) 14 units
e) 17 units
f) 48 units
g) 65 units
h) 65 units

Question 29.
What do you mean by thermal equator?
Answer:
If isotherms are plotted by connecting the places having the highest temperature on earth it will run almost parallel to the equator. Such an imaginary line is called thermal equator.

Question 30
What would happen if there was no heat balancing process?
Answer:
Through the heat balancing process, the surface temperature of the earth is kept balanced. The highest heat in the day and the highest cold at night would . have experienced if there was no heat balancing process. Flora and fauna on earth could not have existed.

Question 31.
Is the presence of water content the same in all regions in the atmosphere?
Answer:

• Water content is greater in the atmosphere near the coastal areas where the temperature is high.
• The reason is the high rate of evaporation.
• In the atmosphere over the deserts, there is very little water content. It is because only very little water is available there.
• The drier the air, the greater is the rate of evaporation.

Question 32.
Point out the atmospheric phenomena taken place due to fluctuations in atmospheric temperature.
Answer:

• Pressure
• Cloud
• Wind
• Precipitation

Question 33.
What is humidity?
Answer:
Water content in the atmosphere is called humidity.

Question 34.
Prepare a note on the working of the maximum-mini-mum thermometer.
Answer:

• The maximum-minimum thermometer is the instrument for measuring the maximum and minimum temperature in a day.
• Here the two thermometers are connected using a U – shaped glass tube.
• The mercury-filled in the maximum thermometer expands with rise in temperature and pushes up the metal indicator.
• The indicator remains at the position showing the maximum temperature of the day.
• According to the position of the indicator the maximum temperature can be read at any time during a day.
• The minimum thermometer has alcohol-filled above the indicator.
• When the temperature falls the indicator is pushed up as the alcohol contract.
• The minimum temperature can bread from the position of the indicator at any time.

Question 35.
What is the difference between Absolute Humidity and Relative Humidity?
Answer:
The actual amount of water present in the atmosphere is called absolute humidity. It is measured as the amount of water vapor present per cubic meter volume of air (g/m3).

Question 36.
Define in solution
Answer:
The earth receives energy from the sun. The incoming solar radiation is called insolation.

Question 37.
Relative humidity is measured by using
a) thermometer
b) seismograph
c) wet and dry bulb thermometer
Answer:
c) wet and dry bulb thermometer

Question 38.
Identify different forms of condensation
Answer:

• Dew
• Mist/fog
• Frost
• Cloud

Question 39.
Clouds can be classified according to their and ………..
Answer:
form and height

Question 40.
Clouds are classified into four types. Name them.
Answer:

1. Cirrus clouds
2. Stratus clouds
3. Cumulus clouds
4. Nimbus clouds

Question 41.
Rewrite the items given in column B to suit the items in column A.

Answer:

Question 42.
Name the following clouds
i) feather-like clouds
ii) dark rain clouds
iii) combination of cumulus and nimbus clouds
Answer:
i) Cirrus clouds
ii) Nimbus clouds
iii) Cumulo-nimbus clouds

Question 43.
Name 3 forms of precipitation
Answer:

1. Rainfall
2. Snowfall
3. Hailstones

Question 44.
Distinguish between snowfall and hailstones.
Answer:
When the temperature falls below 0° Celsius, precipitation reaches the earth in the form of tiny crystals of ice. This is snowfall. If the water droplets released from the clouds happen to passthrough colder layers of the atmosphere, they may reach the earth in the form of ice pellets. This form of precipitation is called hailstones.

Question 45.
Which are the different types of rainfall?
Answer:

• Orographic rain
• Convectional rain
• Border rain

Let Us Assess

Question 46.
Explain how latitudinal location influences the distribution of temperature on earth.
Answer:

• As the shape of the earth is round all places on the earth do not get the same amount of solar energy.
• The places in between the tropic of cancer and tropic of Capricorn get vertical rays of the sun.
• The temperature will be high in this region.
• The places in between the tropic of cancer and arctic circle in northern hemisphere and tropic of Capricorn and antarctic circle in southern hemisphere get slanting rays.
• So the temperature will not be high.
• The places in between the arctic circle and north pole and antarctic circle and south pole get very much inclined rays of the sun.
• So these regions experience very low temperatures.

Question 47.
The isotherms in the northern hemisphere are more curved while those in the southern hemisphere are almost parallel to the Equator. Why?
Answer:

• There are both continents and oceans in the northern hemisphere. There exists difference in the heating of land and water. Compared to the oceans, the land area becomes hot soon. So the isotherms in the northern hemisphere are more curved.
• Oceans constitute the most part of the southern hemisphere. Land area is very small there.
• So the isotherms in the southern hemisphere are almost parallel to the Equator.

Question 48.
Suppose the relative humidity is 100%. Write your inferences regarding the atmospheric condition.
Answer:
If the relative humidity is 100%, the condensation process begins and cloud formation takes place. When the number and size of water droplets increase in the cloud, they cannot remain in the air. So they fall on the earth. It is called precipitation.

Question 49.
Differentiate between
a) Dew and frost
b) Fog and mist
Answer:
The land absorbs heat during the day, and at night the land becomes cold soon. The result is that the cooled air deposits its moisture on the surface of objects which come into contact with it. This deposit of water is called dew.
Frost: There are places on the earth where the night temperature falls below 0° Celsius. Tiny ice crystals are formed in such places. This form of condensation is called frost.

Fog and mist:
Fog or mist is the result of condensation around the minute dust. Particles in the lower atmosphere. If the range of visibility is less than one kilometer, it is termed fog. If the rate of visibility is more than one kilometer, it is called mist.

Question 50.
Illustrate the concept of orographic rainfall with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

You can Download Medieval World: Centres of Power Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 2 Medieval World: Centres of Power Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 1 Notes

Medieval World Centres Of Power 9th Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
The middle Age was an era of the growth of civilization worldwide. The economic transformation brought by the medieval life and its characteristics were the causes of the revolutionary changes in the 16^th century.
J.D. Bemal
Science in History (vol.1)
Examine the statement given above.
a) What does this statement refer to?
b) What are the characteristic features of the medi¬eval world?
Answer:
a) The statement refers to the Medieval world,
b) The period between the fifth and fifteenth centuries CE is known as the medieval period.
The political structure of the medieval world was similar. But there were differences in the forms of authority. They were different in Europe, Asia, America, and Africa.

Learning Excellence Record Std 9 Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 2.

Observe the map of Eastern Roman Empire and find out the regions of West Asia, Europe and Africa included in it. Prepare a list of the countries in which they are located.

Medieval World Centres Of Power Textbook Pdf 9th Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Complete the flow chart

Answer:

Medieval World: Centres Of Power Questions And Answers Pdf 9th Question 4.
History will judiciously forget the wars and Justinian and remember him for his laws.
a) Whose observation is given above?
b) About whom is the observation made?
c) What was his major achievement?
d) What are its features?
Answer:
a) Will Durant
b) Justinian. He was the famous Eastern Roman Emperor
c) Corpus Juris Civilis
(Codification of all the existing Roman laws: into a code of law)
d) Corpus Juris Civilis, the code is based on the principles of

• Reasoning
• Justice and
• Generocity

Medieval World: Centres Of Power Questions And Answers 9th Question 5.
Observe the world map and list the present European countries that were part of the Holy Roman Empire.

Answer:

• Portugal Spain
• France
• Italy
• Germany
• Bulgaria
• Serbia
• Austria
• Romania

Medieval World: Centres Of Power Class 9 Notes Pdf Question 6.
Prepare a note on the history of the formation of the Holy Roman Empire.
Answer;
The Western Roman Empire with its capital at Rome came to an end due to the continuous invasions of the Germanic tribes. The territories of the Roman Em¬pire were captured by different tribes. The most prominent among them was the Franks. The empire established by the Franks was the Frankish Empire. The famous Emperor of the Frankish Empire was Charlemagne of the Carolingian dynasty. The empire of Charlemagne was larger than the Eastern Roman empire.

Charlemagne saved Pope Leo III, the spiritual head of the Catholic Church from the tribal attack of the Lombards. As a token of gratitude, the pope crowned him as the Holy Roman Emperor. Hence his em¬pire came to be known as the Holy Roman Empire.

Learning Excellence Record Std 9 Answers Samagra Question 7.
Charlemagne was a great conqueror as well as an efficient administrator. What were his administrative achievements?
Answer:

• He brought almost all of the Western European regions under his sway.
• He expanded his empire through political alliances and matrimonial relations.
• He introduced centralized administration in his empire.
• Local administration was entrusted to officers known as ‘Counts’.
• To keep and effective check upon the activities of the Counts, he created a secret department named ‘Micci Dominici.
• Relief funds were created for helping the poor.
• A network of educational institutions was established under the leadership of Charlemagne. The resultant intellectual awakening was known as the Carolingian Renaissance.

Medieval India: The Centres Of Power Questions And Answers Pdf 9th Question 8.
Observe the map of Arabia and find out the location of the places given below. In which countries are they located now.
1. Mecca
2. Medina
3. Damascus
4. Baghdad
Answer:
1. Mecca – Saudi Arabia
2. Medina – Saudi Arabia
3. Damascus – Syria
4. Arabia – Iraq

Learning Excellence Record Std 9 Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Why is it said that Harun-al-Rashid was different from other Medieval rulers?
Answer:

• Harun-al-Rashid was the most famous ruler of the Albbasid dynasty
• He implemented many welfare measures.
• Hospitals were established in Arabia for the first time.
• Judicial administration was based on the principles of Islam and the rule of law was strictly observed.
• The people were free to travel anywhere in the empire without fear.
• Established contacts with the Holy Empire.

Learning Excellence Record Std 9 Answer Key Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Observe the map of the world and list the regions which were part of the Ottoman Empire.

Answer:

1. Alexandria
2. Jerusalem
3. Damascus
4. Constantinople
5. Athens
6. Belgrade
7. Mecca
8. Medina
9. Tripoli
10. Salonica

Medieval World Centres Of Power Questions And Answers Question 11.
Observe the map given and find out the continents in which the Mongolian Empire was spread over.

Answer:

1. Asia
2. Europe

Question 12.
What were the administrative reforms introduces by Genkhis khan that set an example to the modern world? Prepare a short note based on its characteristics.
Answer;
The chief characteristic feature of the Mongol army was its strong cavalry. Genhis Khan arranged his army in the multiples often (10,100,1000,10000). The main attraction of the army was the small canons which could be used while sitting on horseback. Genghis Khan also maintained a well-organized espionage.

To connect the distant places of the empire with the administrative center, the Mongolians introduced postal system using horses. This communication system was known as the ‘courier’. The courier system of Genghis Khan was speedy and effective.

Question 13.
Discuss the economic and cultural development of Medieval Africa on the basis of Mali Empire.
Answer:

1. The Mali Empire was one of the famous empires of medieval Africa. The center of administration was Mali in West Africa.
2. Kankan Musa was a famous ruler of Medieval Africa who has known in European records as Mansa Musa.
3. Timbuktu in the Empire of Mali was the most important cultural and commercial center of medieval Africa. Merchants from Venice, Granada and Genoa reached Timbuktu for marketing their merchandise such as gold and ivory. It was also a centre of slave trade. The University of Timbuktu was one of the leading centers of knowledge of that period. The university attracted students from all parts of the world. The ‘Great Mosque’ constructed by Kankan Musa at Timbuktu was the leading centre of Islamic studies during the medieval period.

Question 14.
Compare the forms of power that existed in Medieval China and Japan.
Answer;
China and Japan were the countries in Asia where efficient administrative system existed during the medieval period. In the initial stage of the Medieval period, China was ruled by the Tang Dynasty. The sovereignty of the country was vested in the emperor. State officials were selected after conducting competitive examinations based on the criteria of education and excellence. The Tang rulers were tolerant towards all regions and were great promoters of trade and commerce. After the Tang Dynasty, China was ruled by the Song, Ming and Manchu dynasties.

In Medieval Japan also, the emperor was the supreme head in political affairs. But the administration was overhauled by the feudal lords known as Shoguns. Land was under their control. It was under the Shoguns that Tokyo emerged as the center of power.

Question 15.
What are the causes that lead to the decline of Feudalism?
Answer:

• Decline in agricultural production due to climate change
• Outbreak of famine in many parts of Europe
• The continuous occurrence of plague, known as ‘Black Death’ wiped off nearly half of the population of Europe.
• The crusades shattered many of the feudal lords.
• The monopoly of gun powder enabled the kings to suppress feudal lords.
• The new middle class that emerged as a result of the growth of trade also helped the rulers to subdue the feudal lords.
• The outbreak of many peasant revolts and wars in different parts of Europe weakened the lords and strengthened the authority of the kings.

Let Us Assess

Question 17.
Understand the relationship between the items in ‘A’ and complete ‘B’ accordingly.
1. Byantine Empire – Justinian
B ………… – Charlemagne
2. A. Timbuktu – Mali Empire
B. Baghdad – ……………
3. A.Tang Dynasty – China
B. Shoguns – ……………..
4. A. Hijra – 622CE
B. Invasion of Constantinople – ………………. by Turkey
Answer;

1. Holy Roman empire
2. The Arab empire
3. Japan
4. C.E. 1453

Question 18.

Answer:

Question 19.
What are the peculiarities of the code of Justinian?
Answer:
1. Justinian codified all the Roman laws into a code of law, known as ‘Corpus Juris Civilis’.
2. The code is based on principles of reasoning justice and generosity.
3. The code is divided into three, namely

• Code
• Digest
• Institutes

Question 20.
What are the major causes for the fall of the Eastern Roman Empire?
Answer:
The fall of the Eastern Roman Empire began after Justinian. It collapsed with the capture of Constantinople by the Turks in the 15th century.

Question 21.
‘Harun -al-Rashid was the most famous among the Abbasid Caliphs’. Examine the relevance of this statement.
Answer:
Harun-al-Rashid was the most famous ruler of the Albbasid dynasty. He implemented many welfare measures. Hospitals were established in Arabia for the first time. Judicial administration was based on the principles of Islam and the rule of law was strictly observed. The people were free to travel anywhere in the empire without fear. Established contacts with the Holy Empire.

Question 22.
What were the major characteristics of the Mongolian army?
Answer:
The chief characteristic feature of the Mongolian army was its strong cavalry. Genhis Khan arranged his army in the multiples often (10,100, 1000,10000).
The main attraction of the army was the small canons which could be used while sitting on horseback. Genghis Khan also maintained a well-organized espionage.

Question 23
What was the name of the postal system introduced by Genghis Khan? What were its characteristics?
Answer:
Courier
To connect the distant places of the empire with the administrative center, the Mongolians introduced postal system using horses. This communication system was known as the ‘courier’. The courier system of Genghis Khan was speedy and effective.

Question 24.
List the characteristics of the medieval towns such as Constantinople, Baghdad, and Timbuktu.
Answer;
1. Constantinople is located at the most strategic place in the Gulf of Bosphorus, between the Mediterranean Sea and the Black sea. This city was named after the Roman Emperor, Constantine. It remained as the capital city even during the reign of the OttomanTurks. It was a great center of art and architecture. At present Constantinople is known by the name Istambul.
2. Baghdad is located on the banks of the River Tigris. This city is the background of the book Thousand and One Nights’. In the Thousand and One Nights, the city is depicted as the biggest and richest city in the world. It was here that the world-famous University of Baghdad and the palace of the Abbasids are situated. Baghdad was conquered by the Mongolian rulerTimurandthe Ottoman ruler, Suleiman. During the Mongolian invasion, it is said that there were 36 public libraries in Baghdad city. It was also a cultural center of that period.
3. Timbuktu in the Empire of Mali was the most important cultural and commercial center of medieval Africa. Merchants from Venice, Granada, and Genoa reached Timbuktu for marketing their merchandise such as gold and ivory. It was also a center of slave trade. The University of Timbuktu was one of the leading centers of knowledge of that period. The university attracted students from all parts of the world. The ‘Great Mosque’ constructed by Kankan Musa at Timbuktu was the leading center of Islamic studies during the medieval period.

Question 25.
Analyze the circumstances that led to the disintegration of feudalism.
Answer:
Decline in agricultural production due to climate change

• Outbreak of famine in many parts of Europe
• The continuous occurrence of plague, known as ‘Black Death’wiped off nearly half of the population of Europe.
• The crusades shattered many of the feudal lords.
• The monopoly of gun powder enabled the kings to suppress feudal lords.
• The new middle class that emerged as a result of the growth of trade also helped the rulers to subdue the feudal lords.
• The outbreak of many peasant revolts and wars in different parts of Europe weakened the lords and strengthened the authority of the kings.

Question 26.
Identify the location of Constantinople, Baghdad, Mecca, Medina, Damascus, Karakorum, Mali, Timbuktu and Tokyo on the world map. Prepare the list of the countries in which these cities are located now.

Answer:
Constantinople – Turkey,
Baghdad-lraq,
Mecca- Saudi Arabia,
Medina-Saudi Arabia,
Damascus – Syria,
Karakoram – Siberia,
Mali – West Africa,
Timbuktu-Mali,
Tokyo-Japan.

Medieval World: Centres of Power Model Questions and Answers

Question 27.
Eastern Roman Empire was called the Byzantine Empire. Give reason.
Answer:
Constantinople was earlier known as Byzantine. When the Eastern Roman Empire came into being, Constantinople was its capital. That is why eastern Roman empire was called the Byzantine empire.

Question 28.
Suleiman was called Al-Qanuni (the lawgiver). Why?
Answer:
Suleiman codified the Ottoman laws. Hence he was called Al-Qanuni.

Question 29.
Give reason for the downfall of the Eastern Roman empire.
Answer:
The Turkish leader Muhammed II captured Constantinople in 1453 CE. By then many territories of Eastern Roman Empire became a part of the Ot¬toman empire

Question 30.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 31.
What was the ‘Mcci Dominicci’?
Answer:
Charlemagne, the emperor of the Holy Roman Empire, introduced centralized administration in his empire. Local administration was entrusted to officers known as Counts. To keep an effective check upon the activities of the Counts, he created a secret department named ‘Mcci Dominicci’

Question 32.
Who were the Franks? Which was the empire founded by the Franks?
Answer:
The Western Roman Empire with its capital at Rome came to an end due to the continuous invasions of the Germanic tribes. The most prominent among them was the Franks. The empire established by the Franks was the Frankish empire.

Question 33.
What do you mean by Carolingian Renaissance?
Answer:
Carolingian established a network of educational institutions. This resultant intellectual awakening was called Carolingian Renaissance.

Question 34.
How did Ottoman empire receive its name?
Answer:
Ottoman empire was founded towards the last part of the 13^th century by one of the tribal leaders of Turkey, Usman. He was called ‘Uthaman’ and it was form this that the name Ottoman was derived.

Question 34.
Mongolian empire was founded by
Answer:
Genghis Khan

Question 36.
Arrange the following events which is related to the Arab Empire chronologically.
a) Umayyad rule
b) The period of the prophet Muhammad
c) Abbasid rule
d) Rule of the Caliphs.
Answer:
a) The period of the prophet Muhammad
b) Rule of the Caliphs,
c) Umayyad rule
d) Abbasid rule

Question 37.
The coins Dinar and Dirham existed in the Arab Empire.
a) Who issued these coins?
b) What was the difference between these coins?
Answer:
a) The coins were issued by the Umayyads.
b) Dinar was gold coin, whereas.
Dirham was silver coin

Question 38.
Who was the successor, Genghis Khan? What were his contributions?
Answer:
Timur. He was called Tamerane. In 1398 he crossed the river Indus and reached Delhi. On his way back, he took with him a great treasure.

Question 39.
Who is known as Mansa Musa?
Answer:
Kankan Musa

Question 40.
Under whose rule was Tokyo emerged as the center of power?
a) During the rule of the Shoguns
b) During the rule of the Manchus.
c) During the rule of the Song dynasty.
d) During the rule of the Ming dynasty
Answer:
d) During the rule of the Shoguns

Question 41.
Which of the following groups is related to the North American Civilization?
a) Mississippi, Mayan, Caribbean
b) Inca, Aztec, Mogollon
c) Mississippi, Patayan, Caribbean
d) Caribbean, Mogollon, Toltec.
Answer:
c) Mississippi, Patayan, Caribbean

Question 42.
Define feudalism.
Answer:
The socio-political-economic system existed in medieval Europe based on land was known as Feudalism.

Question 43.
What is ‘Back Death’?
Answer:
Continuous occurrence of plague is known as ‘Black Death’.

Question 44.
What led to the emergence of nation-states?
Answer:
The outbreak of many peasant revolts and wars in different parts of Europe weakened the lords and strengthened the authority of the kings. This led to the emergence of nation-states.

Question 45.
Prepare a note on the ‘Crusades.
Answer:
The Crusades were the wars fought between Western Europe and the Turks from the eleventh to the thirteenth centuries. These wars were fought for appropriating Jerusalem, which is considered as the Holy City of the jews, the Christians and the Muslims. Crusades were considered as one of the major factors for the spread of eastern culture in Europe.

Question 46.
Identify to which empire the following names are related?
i) Courier
ii) Timbuktu
iii) Al-Qununi
iv) Cavalry
Answer:
i) Mongolian
ii) Mali Empire
iii) Ottoman empire
iv) Mongolian Empire

Question 47.
Complete the following table

Answer:

1. Justinian
2. Charlemagne
3. Harun-al-Rashid
4. Suleiman
5. Genghis khan
6. Kankan Musa

You can Download Struggle and Freedom Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 6 Struggle and Freedom Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 6 Notes

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
How did Gandhiji become the leader of Indian society?
Answer:
Gandhiji was aware of the miseries Indians had with the British while he was in South Africa. Sathyagraha was his principle. He demanded the people to withdraw from wars. He informed the people that sathyagraha stays in “Ahimsa and Truth”.

The methods of agitation made changes in the people. The movements which was concentrated in towns were expanded to villages. His ideologies were attracted by many people and the common people too joined his principle. Thus Gandhiji become a savior to all.

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Examine the early Struggles led by Gandhiji and discuss his method of protest.
Answer:
Gandhiji started his social activities in India with the Champaran satyagraha in 1917. Champaran struggle, Ahemadabad cotton mill strike and the peasant struggle in Kheda were the struggles of his involvement. Champaran satyagraha was based on Indigo farmers protest in Bihar.

Kheda protest was withdrawn when the authorities reduced the tax rates. Gandhiji adopted the method of peace for all these three struggles. In the Non-cooperation movements, Gandhiji adopted the method of boycott. The British goods were boycotted.

Rowlatt Act of the British Intensified the Freedom Struggle in India Substantiate Question 3.
How did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.influence Indian National Movement? Discuss.
Answer:
Jallianwala Bagh massacre had a vital role in Indian National Movement.The massacre intensified the protests at the national level. Those who believed in British too turned against them. The executive council under the membership of Sir. C. Sankaran Nair resigned.

Sslc History Chapter 6 Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Explain the circumstances that led Gandhiji to support the Khilafat Movement.
Answer:
Gandhiji believed that the Hindu-Muslim unity could be restored through Khilafat Movement. The people joined in the struggle of independence through Khilafat Movement as a part of National Movement the active participation of Muslims in the freedom struggle could be ensured.

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
How far the demands of Ghandhiji are appropriate to attain the freedom of India ?
Answer:

• Satyagraha was his policy.
• Ahimsa was the principle he adopted against enemies.
• Foreign textiles were put down and Indian goods were promoted.
• He violated salt law as a part of civil disobedience movement.

Sslc History Chapter 6 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
The Salt Sathyagraha played a major role in making national movement a mass movement. Substantiate.
Answer:
The Salt March also known as the Dandi March and the Dandi Satyagraha, was an act of nonviolent civil disobedience in colonial India initiated by Mohandas K Gandhi to produce salt from sea water.

This was the practice of the local people until British officials introduced taxation on salt production, deemed their sea salt reclamation activities illegal, and then repeatedly used force to stop it.

The 24-day march began on 12 March 1930 as a direct action campaign of tax resistance and nonviolent protest against the British salt monopoly, and it gained worldwide attention which gave impetus to the Indian Independence Movement and started the nationwide Civil Disobedience Movement.

Freedom Movement 10th Class Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
‘The Quit India movement was a turning point in India’s freedom struggle’. Discuss.
Answer:
This was the call of Gandhiji in the conference of the National Congress held in Bombay in 1942. The Quit India Movement was the last popular protest organised by the Indian National Congress under leadership of Ghandhiji. Quit India was yet another popular movement like the Civil Disobedience Movement.

It was a mass movement based on the ideology of non-violence (Ahimsa) meant to force the British to leave the country offering complete freedom to Indians. The Quit India Movement was a clear indication of the peoples determination to grab freedom for their country.

Freedom Movement Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Conduct a quiz competition on ‘Gandhiji and the freedom struggle of India’.
Answer:

• Year in Which Gandhiji reached india -1915.
• First revolt of Gandhiji – Champaran.
• Year of Champaran Struggle -1947.
• Gandhiji s struggle in 1918 – Ahmedabad Textile mill strike.

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Conduct a seminar on the organisations which were formed as an alternative to Gandhian way of struggle for the freedom of India.
Answer:
Anusheelan Samithi – Bareender Kumar Ghose:
The brother of Aravinda Ghosh formed Anusheelan Samithi in Bengal in 1902. To stop British rule through violence was the goal.

Abhinava Bharat:
The secret agency formed by Savarkar in 1904. They helped Indians from foreign countries.

Yuganthar Party:
Formed as a result of the news paper ‘ Yugaathar’ published by Bhupendra Dutta and his friends. Hemachandra Das was the leader.

Gaddar Party of rebellion:
Formed in 1913. Mostly Hindus and Muslims Lala Harddayal gave leadership. The meaning of word Gaddar is rebellion. The main aim was to free India from Britain.

Hindustan Republic Association:
Socialist activist Sughdev, Bhagat Singh, Chandrasekhar Azad formed in 1928.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Question 10.
Discuss the role of laborers and farmers in the struggle for Indian independence.
Answer:
The unity and protest of farmers and laborious strengthened Indian National Movement. The workers and farmers who was against the feudal system of British protested in various freedom struggles.

The most important one was the struggle of cotton workers in 1884 in Mumbai to reduce the working hours Bombay mill Association was for med in 1890. Revolutionary methods were adopted by the workers for their needs.

Peasant revolt:
In India were against landlords and money lenders. Tax policies were the reason. Peasant got united against British exploitation. The Mappila Rebellion Indigo Revolt, Peasant Revolt in Madhurai are perfect examples.

Struggle and Freedom Let Us Assess

Social Science 10th Kerala Syllabus  Question 1.
What are the regional agitations in which Gandhiji participated after his arrival in India?
Answer:
There are some regional struggles in which Gandhiji was involved after returning to India from South Africa. They are the struggle of indigo farmers in Champaran, Ahmedabad cotton mill strike, Peasant struggle in Kheda.

Social 10th Class Notes State Syllabus Question 2.
What are the strategies of strike used in the peasant struggle in Kheda?
Answer:
Due to drought and crop failure farmers in Kheda were living in utter misery. The rulers decided to collect tax from these poor villagers starting sathyagraha Gandhiji protested against the decision.

He advised people not to pay tax. Consequently, the authorities were forced to reduce tax rates. His early struggles based on Satyagraha and Ahimsa made Gandhiji a popular leader.

Question 3.
Analyse the outcomes of Gandhiji’s earlier struggles.
Answer:
There are some regional struggles in which Gandhiji was involved after returning to India from South-Africa. They are

• The struggle of Indigo farmers in Champaran.
• Ahmedabad cotton mill strike
• Peasant struggle in Kheda.
• Due to these regional struggles some results took place.
• The struggles he took up popularized his ideologies and method of protest.
• Till his entiy into the political scenario,national movement was confined to the educated section of the society.
• His methods of protest attracted the laymen to the movement.
• The city eccentric national movement spread to rural areas.
• Gandhiji became a national leader acceptable to all strata of the society.

Question 4.
Name the law made by the British in the pretest of preventing extremist activities.
Answer:
In the pretext of preventing extremist activities, the British parliament passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919 limiting the civil rights. The committee which recommended this Act was led by Sir Sydney Rowlatt. Hence the Act was known as Rowlatt Act. As per this act any person could be arrested and imprisoned without trial.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Answer:
People gathered at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar on 13 April, 1919 to protest against the arrest of SaifuddinKitchlew and Satyapal who led the anti Rowlatt act agitations in Punjab. The city was under the control of the army.

Accusing that the protesters violated his instructions, the army chief General Dyer ordered to shoot without warning. The innocent aimless people were trapped as the ground was surrounded by buildings and the only entrance was blocked by the armed British soldiers.

As per the British Records, the shooting of ten minutes killed 379 protesters. In fact, the death toll was actually double than this.The massacre at Jallianwala Bagh intensified the protests at the national level. Gandhiji said “if the Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, Jallian Wala Bagh shock the foundation.”

Question 6.
List out the outcomes of the Non-cooperation movement under Gandhiji.
Answer:
The first national level struggle by the Indian National Congress under the leaderhsip of Mah atma Gandhi was the Non-cooperation movement. The confidence gained from the Rowlatt protest motivated Gandhiji to declare Non-cooperation against the British.

Various effects of Non-cooperation movement are given below. Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes. The tribal groups in Northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest products violating the forest laws.

• Farmers in Uttar Pradesh refused to carry the luggage of the colonial officials.
• Workers struck work.
• Lawyers boycotted courts . Students acquitted colleges and schools run by the British
• The public, including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

In addition to his appeal for non-cooperation, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmers. Inspired by this, people began to make indigenous products, Spin Khadu cloth using charka, establish national schools and popularise Hindu.

Question 7.
Which incident forced Gandhiji to withdraw the non-cooperation movement?
Answer:
Gandhiji withdraw theNon-cooperation Movement due to a untoward incident in Chawri Chawra village in Uttar Pradesh. In response to the police firing at a mob, the villagers set ablaze the police station and 22 policemen died.

This incident disappointed Gandhiji and he released that people could not fully understand the essence of the principle of Ahimsa. So he called for stopping the Non-cooperation Movement.

Question 8.
Which session of the congress declared Poorna Swaraj as the ultimate aim of Indians freedom struggle?
Answer:
The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress held in 1929 under the charimanship of Jawaharlal Nehru declared the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle was Pooma Swaraj.

Question 9.
Prepare a seminar paper on the significance of the civil disobedience movement in the freedom struggle. .
Answer:

• The Labour session of the Indian National Congress held in 1929 under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru was a turning point in the history of freedom movement in India.
• The session declared that the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle was to attain complete.
  freedom (Pooma Swaraj) for the country.
• Civil Disobedience Movement started under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.
  With the Civil Disobedience Movement’.
• Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic civil laws made by the British Government.

As a part of this Gandhiji’s proposed the following.

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of top officials.
• To dissolve the secret surveillance wing formed to watch Indians.
• To start coastal shipping service.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Gandhiji gave top priority to reducing salt tax. There are various reasons why Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon against the British.

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• This tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• The British government burned small scale indigenous salt production.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Question 10.
Prepare a note on the Quit India Movement.
Answer:
The Quit India Movement was the last popular protest organized by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Gandhiji. Quit India was yet another popular movement like civil disobedience movement.

It was a mass movement based on the ideology of non-violence (Ahimsa) meant to force the British to leave the country offering complete freedom to Indians. Various factors that caused Quit India movement are

• Reluctance of the British to implement constitutional reforms in India.
• Public disgust with price hike and famine
• The assumption that the British would be defeated in the second world war.
• As a part of this movement, Gandhiji called for the following.
• Princely states shall recognize the sovereignty of their people.
• Farmers shall not pay land tax.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• Without quitting their position in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Struggle and Freedom Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare a short note on the life of Gandhiji in South Africa.
Answer:
Gandhi was 24 when he arrived in South Africa in 1893 to work as a legal representative for the Muslim Indian Traders based in the city of Pretoria. He spent 21 years in South Africa, where he developed his political views, ethics and political leadership skills.In South Africa, Gandhi faced the discrimination directed at all colored people.

He was thrown off a train at Pietermaritzburg after refusing to move from the first class. He protested and was allowed on first class the next day. Travelling farther on by stagecoach, he was beaten by a driver for refusing to move to make room for a European passenger.

He suffered other hardships on the journey as well, including being barred from several hotels. The magistrate of a Durban court ordered Gandhi to remove his turban, which he refused to do.

The government successfully repressed the protesters, but the public outcry over the harsh treatment of peaceful Indian protesters by the South African government forced South African leader Jan Christiaan Smuts to negotiate a compromise with Gandhi, Gandhi’s ideas took shape, and the concept of Satyagraha matured during this struggle.

Struggle and Freedom Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List down the reasons that helped Gandhiji to gain the trust and recognition of the common people.
His priests in south Africa made him famous.
Answer:

• Gandhiji became familiar to the Indians after his involvement in addressing the problems of the Indian expatriates in South Africa.
• His protests in South Africa made him famous.
• Gandhiji was very popular because he lived among the common people and his food and clothing was similar to that of the common man in India and he spoke in their language.
• Common people found in Mahatma Gandhi a savior who could solve their problems.

Question 2.
Complete the table.

Answer:
a. Farmers in Champaran,
b. 1917,
c. Gujarat,
d. 1918,
e. Peasant struggle in Kheda,
f. Gujarat.

Question 3.
List down the result of the Early struggle of Gandhiji in India.
The struggle he took up porpoised his ideologies and method of protest.
Answer:

• Till his entry into the political scenario, national movement was confined to the educated section of the society.
• His methods of protest attracted the laymen to the movement.
• The city centric national movement spread to rural areas.
• Gandhiji became a national leader acceptable to all strata of the society.

Question 4.
Complete the word web given below.

Answer:

• Students Shall boycott English schools.
• Lawyers Shall boycott Courts.
• The Public Shall boycott foreign products.
• Denial of tax.
• Returning the British awards and prizes.
• Boycott elections.

Question 5.
List down the examples of how the Indian Society responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for Non-cooperation.
Farmers in Awadh referred to pay taxes.
Answer:

• The Tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest produces violating the forest laws.
• Farmers in Uttar Pradesh refused to carry the luggage of the colonial officials.
• Workers struck work.
• Lawyers boycotted courts.
• Students quitted colleges and schools run by the British.
• The public including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Question 6.
Write down some examples for Gandhiji’s constructive programmes.
People made indigenous products.
Answer:

• Spin khadi cloth using Charka.
• Establish National Schools.
• Popularized Hindi.
• Inspired people to participate actively in eradicating accountability.

7. Complete the Diagram.

Answer:

• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of top officials.
• To dissolve the secret surveillance wing formed to watch Indians.
• To start coastal shipping service.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Question 8.
List down the reasons why Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon against the British.
The tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
Answer:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• This tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• The British government banned small scale indigenous salt production.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan.
• Suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Question 9.
Complete the following time line.

Answer:
A. 1919.
B. Lahore session of Indian National.
C. 1942.

Question 10.
Find out the factors that caused the Quit India Movement.
Public disgust with price hike and famine.
Answer:

• Reluctance of the British to implement constitutional reforms in India.
• Public disgust with price hike and famine.
• The assumption that the British would be defeated in the second world war.

Question 11.
Complete the following Diagram.

Answer:

• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• Princely states shall recognize the sovereignity of their people.

12. Complete the table.

Answer:
a. Abhinar Bharat Society.
b. Bareender Kumar Ghose, Pulin Bihari Das.
c. Ghadar party.
d. Suryasen.

Question 13.
Complete the following table.

Answer:
a. Swaraj Party.
b CR Das and Mothilal Nehru.
c. Bhagat Singh Chandra Sekhar Azad, Guru and Sukh Dev.
d. 1928.
e. Congress Socialist Party.
f. 1934.

Question 14.
List down the main objectives of the All Indian Trade Union Congress.
To participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.
Answer:

• To Participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.
• To facilitate Indian working class to cooper ate with the working class outside India.
• To organise and act as a working class.

Question 15.
Complete the table.

Answer:
a. Bengal.
b. Telengana Struggle.
c. Bombay.

Question 16.
Complete the following word web.

Answer:

• To divide Punjab and Bengal.
• To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per the Muslim wish.
• To appoint a commission to determine the borders in Punjab and Bengal.
• To conduct a referendum to determine whether to add North West frontier province to Pakistan or not.

Struggle and Freedom Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
Which Act resulted in the Jalianwala Bagh Messacre?
Answer:
Anti-Rowlatt Act.

Question 2.
Which incident forced Gandhiji to Stop the Non-cooperation movement.
Answer:
Chauri chaura Incident.

Question 3.
Analyse the significance of non-cooperation movement in the Indian National Movement.
Answer:
The First national level struggle by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi was the non-cooperation movement.The confidence gained from the anti-Rowlatt j protest motivated Gandhiji to declare non-cooperation against the British. Some of the examples of how the Indian society responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for non-cooperation.

• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest produces violating the forest laws.
• Farmers in Uttar Pradesh refused to carry the luggage of the colonial officials.
• Workers struck work.
• Lawyers boycotted courts.
• Students quieted colleges and schools run by the British.
• The public, including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

In addition to his appeal for non-cooperation, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes. Inspired by this, people began to make indigenous products, spin khadi cloth using charka, establish national schools and popularity Hindi.

Students who boycotted English education were attracted to national educational institutions. Along with these activities, Gandhiji inspired people to participate actively in eradicating accountability.

Question 4.
Evaluate the decisions of the Lahore session.
Answer:
The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress held in 1929 under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru was a turning point in the history of freedom movement in India.

• The session declared that the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle was to attain freedom (Pooma Swaraj) for the country.
• It also resolved to start the civil disobedience movement under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 5.
Analyse the role played by Mahatma Gandhi in the Indian National Movement.
Answer:
Gandhiji entered Indian national movement with his rich experience and knowledge of regional struggle in various parts of the country. His protest against the Rowlatt Actencated by the British paved the way for it.

In the pretext of preventing extremist activities, the British Parliament passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919 limiting the civil rights. The committee which recommended this Act was led by Sir Sydney Rowlatt. Hence, the act was known as Rowlatt Act. As per this act any person could brarrested and imprisoned without trial.

When the protests against this Act failed. Gandhiji suggested starting Sathygraha Vigorously reacting to his proposal, people in various part of the country went to the streets anosiarteo demonstration and strikes. But the government resorted to oppressive measures towards the public protest.

The worst example of the British approach to public protest was the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh in 1919. The masscare at Jalianwala Bagh intensified the protests at the natio nal level. Gandhiji said: If the battle of Plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation.

Question 6.
Complete the following table.

Answer:
1-d,
2-c,
3 -a,
4-b.

Question 7.
Evaluate the contributions of the organisations and leaders to the Indian National Move ment who differed from Gandhian Methods and ideologies.
Answer:
Many such movements and persons who had difference of opinion towards the Gandhian approach to the struggle for independence also played crucial roles in attaining freedom for our country. Their objective was also nothing but India’s freedom from colonial cinches.

C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru, who opposed Gandhian idea of boycott movement, formed the Swaraj Party in 1923. They argued for making legislative assemblies as platforms for raising our voices instead of boycotting them and they contested elections.

Gradually, the opposition to Gandhian method of struggle intensified. Revolutionaries from Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar gathered in Delhi and Formed the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928.

Question 8.
Explain the demands of the kissan manifesto.
Answer:

• Reduce 50% of land tax and lease charge.
• Write off debts.
• Cancel feudal taxes.
• Ensure minimum wage for agricultural workers.
• Recognize peasant unions.

Question 9.
Analyse the role played by Subash Chandra Bose in the Indian Freedom struggle.
Answer:
At various stages of the national movement Subash Chandra Bose expressed his difference of opinion on Gandhian ideas of struggle. Quitting the congress he formed a political party called forward bloc.

He took the charge of the Indian National Army (INA) formed by Rash Bihari Bose to attain freedom for India. He formed a provisional government for free India in Singapore, with the aim of forcing British to quit India.

The Indian National Army had a women wing called the Jhansi Regiment. Captain Lekshmi, a keralite was in charge of this regiment with the support of the Japanese army the Indian National Army marched to the east west border of India and hoisted Indian flag in Impala.

Question 10.
Evaluate the significance of salt satyagraha.
Answer:
Gandhi gave top priority to reducing salt tax due to a variety of reasons. The reasons why Gandhiji selected salt on a powerful weapon against the British are

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• This tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• The British government banned small scale indigenous salt production.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Inspired by the call of Gandhiji people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations.

Question 11.
Arrange the following incidents chronologically.
1. Jallianwala Bhagh Massacre.
2. Lahore Session.
3. Chouri-Choura Incident.
4. Champaran Satyagraha.
Answer:

1. Champaran Satyagraha – 1917.
2. Jalianwala Bagh Massacre – 1919.
3. Chouri-Chaura Incident – 1922.
4. Lahore Session – 1929.

Struggle and Freedom SCERT Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Which were the early struggles in India in which Gandhiji was involved? What change did happen in the national movement through these struggles?
Answer:

• Champaran struggle, 1917
• Ahmedabad Cotton Mill strike, 1918
• Peasant struggle in Kheda, 1918
• Gandhian methods of struggle and ideologies became popular.
• The ideology of national movement spread to the villages.
• Common people were attracted to the national movement.
• Gandhiji became acceptable to all as a national leader.

Question 2.
People’s protest against the act which violated civil rights resulted in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. Which was that Act?
Answer:
Rowlatt Act – 1919

Question 3.
How did Gandhiji respond to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
Answer:
“If the Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, the Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation.”

Question 4.
How did people respond to Gandhiji’s appeal for non-cooperation?
Answer:

• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra violated the forest laws.
• Workers started strike.
• Women burnt foreign clothes on the streets.
• Lawyers boycotted the courts.

Question 5.
Along with Non-cooperation, constructive programmes were also given importance. Elucidate.
Answer:

• People began to make indigenous products.
• Spun Khadi cloth.
• Started national schools.
• Popularized Hindi instead of English.

Question 6.
Why did Gandhiji travel across India with the Khilafat leaders and propagate his ideologies?
Answer:

• To spread anti.
• British feeling to the nook and comer of India.
• To intensify Hindu.
• Muslim unity.

Question 7.
Why did Gandhiji stop non -cooperation mov. ement after the Chauri-Chaura incident
Answer:
The people of Chauri-Chaura village in Uttar Pra desh set ablaze the police station. This is known as the Chouri-Choura incident. This incident disappointed Gandhiji as people turned to violence and he withdrew the Non-cooperation movement.

Question 8.
Which session of the Congress declared that Poorna Swaraj is the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle? Who was the chairman of this session?
Answer:
The Lahore session of 1929, Jawaharlal Nehru.

Question 9.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:

• To implement total prohibition of liquor.
• To lift tax on salt.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To release political prisoners.
• To increase tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of the military officials.

Question 10.
Why did Gandhiji select salt as a powerful weapon as part of the Civil Disobedience movement?
Answer:

• Salt constituted two fifth of the income Collected by the British through taxes.
• Three fold hike on salt price.
• The tax was heavy burden for the po r people.
• The British government banned small scale indigenous salt production.
• Being an issue common to all Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon.

Question 11.
What did Gandhiji achieve through Salt Satyagraha?
Answer:

• Secured massive support of the people.
• Proved that any trivial issue can be snowballed into a popular strategy.
• Sensitized the public in very sim pie way to the exploitation of the British.

Question 12.
Which struggle was organised in India against the British for constitutional reforms? As part of this, what direction did Gandhiji give to the people?
Answer:

• Quit India Movement, 1942,
• Farmers shall not pay land tax.
• Princely state shall recognize the sovereignty of the people.
• The soldiers shall disobey the order to shoot the Indians.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without quitting their positions.
• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Question 13.
Many organisations and people who differed from Gandhian methods and ideologies had played a significant role in India’s National struggle. Write any three such organisations and explain their activities.
Answer:
Swaraj party, Motilal Nehru, C R Dascon tested to the legislative assemblies and made legi slative assemblies platforms for raising the voice.

Hindustan Socialist Republican Association Bhagat Singh, Chandrasekhar Azad, Raj Guru and Sukh Dev were at the helm of this organisation. They planned to overthrew the colonial government through military action and establish a federal republic of Indian states. To show protest against the attempt to pass laws curtailing civil rights, threw bombs at the central legislative assembly.

Forward Bloc was formed by Subhash Chandra Bose. He took the leadership of I N A formed by Rash Bihari Bose. He formed a provincial government of India in Singapore with an aim of forcing the British to quit India. With the Support of the Japanese army, the Indian National Army marched to the north eastern border of India and hoisted the Indian flag in Imphal.

Question 14.
Which were the labour and peasant organisations formed after the Russian Revolution? What were their major objectives?
Answer:

• Ahmedabad Textile Association Madras Lab our Union.
• All India Trade Union Congress.
• To organise and act as a working class.
• To facilitate Indian working class to cooperate with the working class outside India.
• To participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.

Question 15.
Who prepared the Farmer’s Manifesto? Write any three demands included in it.
Answer:
All India Kisan Samithi conference held in Bombay prepared the Farmer’s Manifesto.

• Reduce 50%of land tax and lease charge.
• Write off debts.
• Cancel feudal taxes.
• Ensure minimum wage for agricultural workers.
• Recognize peasant unions.

Question 16.
Which plan proposed that Punjab and Bengal should be portioned? Write other two recommendations of this plan.
Answer:

• Mount Batten Plan.
• To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per their wish.
• To appoint a commission to determine the borders in Punjab and Bengal.

Question 17.
Which were the three major struggles organised under the leadership of Gandhiji during the freedom struggle of India? Explain each of them.
Answer:

• Refusal to pay taxes.
• Boycott of foreign clothes.
• Returning the British awards and prizes.
• Boycott elections.
• Lawyers shall boycott courts.

Result:

• Boycotted foreign clothes.
• Started spinning Khadi clothes.
• Started national school.
• Popularized Hindi.

Salt Satyagraha:

• To lift tax on salt.
• Declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• Release political prisoners .
• Start coastal shipping service.
• Implement total prohibition of liquor.

Result:
Strong protest arose in different parts of India against the salt tax.

Quit India Movement:

• Farmers shall not pay land tax.
• Princely states shall recognize the sovereignty of the people.
• The soldiers shall disobey the order to shoot the Indians.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without quitting their positions.
• If possible students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Question 18.
What is the significance of the Kheda movement?
Answer:
The struggle was against the British decision to collect tax from the people who were in misery due to drought and famine. As a result of this Government agreed to reduce tax.

Question 19.
Which were the national schools started during the Non co-operation Movement.
Answer:

• Kashi Vidya Pith.
• Gujarat Vidya Pith.
• JamiaMillia.

Question 20.
What did Gandhiji aim by Civil disobedience?
Answer:
With the civil disobedience movement, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti democratic civil laws made by the British government.

Question 21.
Who gave leadership to Dharasana struggle?
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu.

22. Who were the leaders of the Congress Socialist party?
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru,
Subhash Chandra Bose,
Arana Asaf Ali,
Jay Prakash Narayan.

Question 23.
What were the factors that forced Britain to give independence to India?
Answer:
Britain became economically weak, Freedom straggles were intensified in Asia and Africa, Soviet Union and America were against colonialism.

Struggle and Freedom Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who was the founder of Swaraj Party ?
Answer:
C.R Das and Motilal Nehru

Question 2.
Write the full form of AITUC?
Answer:
All India Trade Union Congress.

Question 3.
Who was in charge of Jhansi Regiment of INA?
Answer:
Captain Lakshmi

Question 4.
How is the Non-cooperation Movement different from other freedom movements led by Gandhiji?
Answer:
In all the three regional straggles Gandhiji adopted satyagraha. But the method of boycott was chosen in Non-cooperation Movement. The straggle for independence that was completely confined to the educated section extended to all the section of the people.

But when the police fired at the mob in Chauri Chaura in Uttarpradesh the villagers set fire to the police station and 22 policemen died. Gandhiji was disappointed and declared to suspend the Non-cooperation Movement.

Question 5.
What are the results of Non-cooperation Movement.
Answer:

• Gandhiji become the leader accepted by all.
• People were united free of caste and religion.
• Hindu-Muslim unity.
• Boycott was successful.
• The imported British textiles in 1921 -22 was 30% less than the previous years.
• People gained confidence.
• Indian textile growth strengthened.

Question 6.
How did Non-cooperation movement become the movement for all?
Answer:
Non-cooperation movement in 1921-22. People from all sections played an important role. Students boycotted English education and foreign textiles. Lawyers boycotted counts farmers workers and all sections of people took part in the straggle. Thus it become the movement for all.

Question 7.
Why did Gandhiji support the Khilafat Movement?
Answer:
During the activities of Gandhiji, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Maulana Shoukath Ali intensified the Khilafat Movement. By declaring the Khilafat Movement as a part of the Indian National Movement, Gandhiji ensured active participation of Muslims in the freedom straggle.

He traveled across India with Khilafat leaders and propagated his ideologies. As a result, anti- British feeling spread to every nook and comer of the nation.Hindu Muslim Unity was intensified.

Question 8.
How are the methods of rebellion different from Gandhian methods?
Answer:

• Gandhiji’s principle was Ahimsa.
• Others adopted violence.

Question 9.
Reasons for the movements formed away from Gandhian movements.
Answer:

• Level measures adopted by British.
• Results of rebellions in India.
• Anti-human activities of British
• Present measures adopted were not enough to attain freedom.

Question 10.
How did Rowlatt Act influence the Indian National Movement? Explain.
Answer:
The British Parliament passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919 limiting the civil rights. As per that Act, any person can be imprisoned without trial. Gandhiji suggested starting satyagraha. People in various part of the country went to the street and started demonstrations and strikes.

But the government resorted to oppressive measures to put down the public protest. The worst example of the British approach to public protect was the massacre at Jallian Bagh in 1919. The massacre at Jallianwala Bagh intensified the protest at the national level. This incident shook the foundation of the British rule in India.

Question 11.
Prepare a note on Jallianwallabagh Massacre.
Answer:
The Rowlatt Act become rebellious in most of the parts in India. It was strengthened in Punjab. Dr. Satyapal, Dr. Sai-fudheen Kitchlew led the anti-Rowlett Act agitations in Punjab, and they were arrested. The people gathered in Jallianwallabagh peacefully.

General Dyer who was the chief of police, commanded to fire without warning. Hundreds of people were killed. Five thousand of them were deeply wounded. This National Movement strengthened among people.

Question 12.
List of freedom struggles led by Gandhiji.
Answer:

Students can Download Social Science Part 1 Chapter 9 The State and Political Science Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus Class 10th Standard Social Science History Chapter 9 Notes Malayalam Medium സംസ്ഥാനവും പൊളിറ്റിക്കൽ സയൻസും

The State and Political Science Textbook Questions and Answers in Malayalam

Students can Download Social Science Part 1 Chapter 9 Towards a Bright Future Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus Class 9th Standard Social Science History Chapter 9 Notes Malayalam Medium ശോഭനമായ ഭാവിയിലേക്ക്

Towards a Bright Future Questions and Answers in Malayalam

You can Download In search of the Source of Wind Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 2  Chapter 2 In search of the Source of Wind Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 2 Notes

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Did you notice the places marked A and B in the diagram? Which of these places will have a higher atmospheric pressure? Why?

Answer:
The place marked B will have a higher atmospheric pressure, because atmospheric pres-sure decreases with altitude.

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Why do mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders ?
Answer:
When height increases the amount of air decreases in atmosphere. So mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders.

Sslc Geography Chapter 1 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Compare the two pictures. Identify the situations of low and high atmospheric pressure and suitably mark ‘H’ and ‘I? in the pictures.
Answer:
During day time air gets heated. So the density of the air decreases. Then he weight of the air decreases. It causes decrease in pressure

Sslc History Chapter 1 Malayalam Medium Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Compared to the colder regions, the tropical regions experience low atmospheric pres¬sure why?
Answer:
Very high temperature experienced in lower latitude so air starts to rise. That leads to low atmospheric pressure. But in a colder region air is dense so that leads to high atmospheric pressure.

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes English Medium Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Two places at the same elevation are marked as A and B in the figure. Which of these has a low atmospheric pressure? Why?

Answer:
A located in the coastal area, B is located away from the coastal area. Humidity in the atmosphere of the region near coastal area will be more, the the atmospheric pressure will be less here. So A has a low atmospheric pressure

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Question 6.
Observe the distribution of isobars in the given figure and mark the places experiencing high pressure and low pressure as H and L respectively.
Answer:

10th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Find out the position of the sub tropical high pressure belt from the given figure (Text-book fig 2.5).
Answer:
Situated on 30° latitude of North and’South hemisphere.

Sslc Social Science Chapter Wise Questions Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Find out the location of the sub polar low pressure belt from Fig (Textbook fig 2.5).
Answer:
Situated on 60° latitude of North and South hemisphere.

Question 9.
If the earth did not rotate, would there have been low pressure in the sub polar region ?
Answer:
No, Besides if the earth did not rotate the direction of the winds would be another.

Question 10.
Find out the latitudinal location of the polar high pressure belts.
Answer:
90° North and South

Question 11.
Based on different types of pressure belts and their latitudes
Answer:

Question 12.
Mark the direction of winds in both the diagrams, using arrow marks.
In which of these situations will the speed of the wind be higher? Why?

Answer:
The speed of the wind will be higher in diagram A. In this diagram, isobars are depicted closely in diagram B the distance between isobars is more. So the speed of the wind will be less.

Question 13.
Find out the direction and the name of the trade winds in the Southern Hemisphere from Fig 2.9.
Answer:
Direction: South east
Name : South east trade winds

Question 14.
What could be the reason for the trade winds blowing from south east and north east directions?
Answer:
Trade wind blows from sub-tropical high pressure belts to the equatorial low pressure belts. It is due to the Coriolis effect that the direction of trade winds is from north east in northern hemisphere and southeast in the southern hemisphere.Otherwise it will be from exact north and south.

Question 15.
Identify and note the direction of the westerlies in both the hemispheres from Fig 2.9.
Answer:
In northern hemisphere direction of westerlies is mostly from the west to north. In southern hemisphere direction of westerlies from west to south.

Question 16.
Prepare a chart describing the planetary winds, the areas where they blown and their features.
Answer:

Question 17.
Find out from the atlas the countries along the southern slope of the Alps.
Answer:
Italty, Slovania

Question 18.
Prepare a report on the distress caused by Ockhi and suggest measures to mitigate the impact of such disasters in future by collecting information from internet and other sources.
Answer:
Based on the climatic region of their formation, cyclones can be classified as tropical cyclones and temperate cyclone. Cyclones often cause extensive damage and destruction wherever they occur. The Ockhi cyloninc winds that struck the coastlines of Kerala and Lakshdweep during November 2017.

This was a tropical cyclone. Tropical cylones are caused due to local pressure differences in the tropical oceans, especially the Indian ocean.Ockhi cyclones left the Indian coasts after wreaking havoc on life and property. While near Kanyakumari in mainland India, Cyclone Ockhi changed course and intensified while heading towards Lakshadweep in the Arabian Sea.

Ockhi impacted Lak-shadweep on December 2, uprooting coconut trees and causing extensive damage to houses, power lines and other infrastructure on the islands. Ockhi weakened into a well- marked low near the south coast of Gujarat, India, on December 6, before crossing the coastline and dissipating shortly afterward. In its entirety, Cyclone Ockhi left a trail of massive destruction in Sri Lanka, Lakshadweep, South India, and The Maldives, as it strengthened from a depression to a mature cyclone.

Though it rapidly weakened during its final stages over the Arabian Sea, it caused heavy rainfall along the western coast of India, particularly in Maharashtra and Gujarat. Ockhi caused at least 245 fatalities, including 218 in India and 27 in Sri Lanka, and the storm left at least 550 people missing, mainly fishermen.

Weather forecasting offices has given a warning that Okhi cyclone can travel at a speed of 120 Kilometers. If cyclones like Okhi are reported never ignore such news and take necessary precautions. If the offices give introduction to shift from your houses, obey the orders, fisherman have to be cautious.

Question 19.
Complete the following flow chart showing the classification of winds.

In search of the Source of Wind Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Temperature, altitude and humidity are inversely proportional to atmospheric pressure. Justify?
Answer:
When temperature increases air gets heated and expands. The expanded air is less dense and it ascends. This leads to lowering of pressure. When temperature decreases, air becomes dense and descends.

This will increase atmospheric pressure. So there is an inverse relationship between temperature and pres sure. When altitude increases air becomes rarefied. So it exerts less pressure. But when altitude decreases earth gravity pulls the gas molecules towards the ground.

So air becomes dense and it exert high pressure. Humidity means the amount of water vapor present in the atmosphere. Water vapor is lighter than air. If the amount of water vapor is more in a unit volume of air, then atmospheric pressure will be less because moist air contains less oxygen and nitrogen and exerts less pressure.While dry air exerts high pressure as it contains more oxygen and nitrogen.

Question 2.
Prepare notes on the role of solar energy and the earth’s rotation in the formation of pressure belts.
Answer:
Solar energy and earth’s rotation plays an important role in the formation of pressure belts. Earth rotation and apparent movement of the sun, which causes an inequality in the amount of heat received by different parts of the earth and its atmosphere. At the equator throughout the year the amount of heat received is intense. Heated air being light, rises, creating low pressure area.

While at the poles, sun rays are slanting and air is so heavy and a high pressure area is created. Rotation of the earth also leads to the formation of various pressure belts on the earth. The pole rotates more slowly than the equator, and the air should be pushed away from the poles towards the equator, where it pile to form a high pressure belt and at the poles it should be a low pressure. But this is just reverse near equatorial region, where the air gets heated and rises, creates low pressure. The poles where cold air sinks, is the high pressure area

Question 3.
Describe how the Coriolis Effect causes the deflection of winds on the basis of the direction of the winds mentioned below,
a. Trade winds
b. Westerlies.
Answer:
Due to the rotation of the earth winds curve as they blow. This curving motion of wind is called coriolis effect. According to this any freely moving bodies get deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. Winds that blows from sub-tropical high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt are called trade winds. In Northern Hemisphere trade wind blows from North East direction due to deflection. So it is called North East trade winds.

In southern Hemisphere trade winds blows from South East direction hence it is called South East trade winds. Westerlies winds blow from the sub-tropical high pres sure to sub-polar low pressure. Due to coriolis effect in Northern Hemisphere it is from south west direction and in Southern Hemisphere North west direction. Westerlies are just opposite of trade winds in terms of their direction so westerlies are also called an ti trade winds.

In search of the Source of Wind Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe and analyse the pictures 2.1,2.3 in the chapter.
List out the factors which influence the atmospheric pressure

• Height
• Temperature

Answer:
Humidity

Question 2.
Observe and analyse the picture 2.1,2.2,2.3 in the chapter and find out how do the following factors influence the atmosphere pressure
Altitude
Temperature
Humility
Answer:
Altitude — When altitude increases atmospheric pressure decreases.
Temperature — When temperature increases atmospheric pressure decreases.
Humidity — When humidity increases atmospheric pressure decreases.

Question 3.
How does the term ‘High pressure’ differ from the ‘Low pressure’

Answer:
High Pressure:
Atmospheric pressure is more when com pared to surroundings.
Low Pressure:
Atmospheric pressure is low when compared to surroundings.

Question 4.
Complete the following table based on global pressure belts.

5. List out the factors influencing the speed • Coriolis effect and the direction of winds

• Coriolis effect
• Pressure Gradient

Answer:
Friction

Question 6.
Write the main features of planetary winds and complete the table.

Answer:

Question 7.
List out the reasons which result in the formation of monsoon.

• The apparent movement of the sun

Answer:
Coriolis force, Differences in heat.

Question 8.
Complete the following table by distinguishing between Sea breeze and Land breeze.

Answer:
Land Breeze:

• Blows during the night.
• Blows from land to sea.

Sea Breeze:

• Blows during the daytime.
• Blows from sea to land.

Question 9.
Complete the following table by distinguishing between Mountain breeze and Valley breeze.

Answer:
Mountain Breeze:

• Blows from mountain towards the valley.
• Blows during the night.

Valley Breeze:

• Blows from valley towards the mountain.
• Blows during the day time.

Question 10.
List out the local winds based on their nature and places where they blow, to complete the following table.

Answer:

In search of the Source of Wind Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between
a. Land breeze and Sea breeze
b. Mountain breeze and Valley breeze
Answer:
Land breeze:
As the land cools faster than the sea during the right, it would be high pressure over the land and low pressure over the sea. This results in the movement of air from the land to sea. This is the Land Breeze.

Sea Breeze:
Land heats up and cools down quickly than water that leads to the formation of low pressure over the land. So cooler air starts to blow from the sea. This is known as Sea Breeze.

Mountain Breeze:
During night, the air in the mountainous regions cools due to the intense cold conditions in that region. As cool air is denser, it blows towards the valley. This is known as Mountain Breeze.

Valley Breeze:
During the day time, the air in the valley gets heated up more than the air on the mountain tops. As a result the wind blows up slope from the valley. This is known as Vally Breeeze

Question 2.
The trade winds blow from North East direction and from south east direction substantiate.
Answer:
It is due to the coriolis effect that the direction of trade winds is from north east in northern hemisphere and southeast in the southern hemisphere.Otherwise it will be from exact north and south. Freely moving bodies get deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere due to a force generated as a result of earth’s rotation.

Question 3.
Find out how do the ‘Coriolis effect’ influence the direction of winds.
Answer:
Trade Winds are those which blow from sub tropical high pressure belt to equtorial law pressure belt. Due to the Coriolis effect trade winds blow from north east direction in the northern hemisphere and from the southeast direction in the southern hemisphere Westerlies blow from the subtropical high pressure belts towards the sub polar low pressure belts. It is due to the Coriolis effect that the westerlies blow in the south west direction in the northern hemisphere and in the north west direction in the southern hemisphere.

Question 4.
Which local wind is known as ‘snow eater’ why is it called so?
Answer:
Chinook.The red indian word ‘Chinook’ means snow eater. It causes the melting of snow

Question 5.
The speed of the wind is high over plains and oceans. How do you interpret this statement
Answer:
Since the friction is less over plains and oceans the speed of wind will be high in such places. However places with difficult terrain and dense forest cover will have less speed of wind.

In search of the Source of Wind SCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following diagrams and find answers to the following Questions.

which diagram represents the low pressure region? Substantiate your answer.
What is the name by which the smooth curved lines in the diagrams are known? What does it indicate?

Answer:
Figure B represents the low pressure region

• The value of isobars decreases towards the center.
• Isobars
• Imaginary lines joining places having equal atmospheric pressure.

Question 2.
Distinguish between
a. Land breeze and Sea breeze
b. Mountain breeze and Valley breeze
Answer:

• Characteristic features of land and sea breezes
• Characteristic features of mountain and valley breezes

Question 3.
Which are the pressure belts on either side of subtropical high pressure belts?
Write notes on the winds formed from this pressure belt in the northern hemisphere. Which among these winds is most influenced by the Coriolis force? Why?
Answer:

• Sub polar low pressure belt and equatorial low pressure belt.
• Features of westerlies and north east trade winds.
• Westerlies are most influenced by the Coriolis force.
• Coriolis force increases while advancing from the equator.

Question 4.
Rearrange the table on the basis of the planetary winds blowing in between different pressure belts.
1. Between the sub-tropical high pressure belt and the sub polar low pressure belt. – Trade winds
2. Between the polar high pressure belt and the sub polar low pressure belts – Westerlies
3. Between the sub-tropical high pressure belts and the equatorial low pressure be Its – Polar winds
Answer:

• Westerlies
• Polar winds
• Trade winds

Question 5.
Read the following information’s.
• The atmospheric pressure at A is 740 mb and it is 730 mb at a place 10 km away from A.
• Atmospheric pressure at B is 740 mb and it is 730 mb at a place 5 km away from B Which among these places experience stronger winds? Why?
Answer:

• Place B experience stronger winds
• Pressure gradient force is more at B. The isobars are drawn close to each other.

Question 6.
Which among the following winds are called as Roaring forties?
A. Polar winds
B. Monsoon winds
C. Westerlies
D. Trade winds
Answer:
C. Westerlies

Question 7.
Identify the wrong statement among the following.
i. The location of mountains is one among the factors causing the formation of monsoon.
ii. South west trade winds also moves north ward with the equatorial low pressure belt in the northern hemisphere during summer.
iii. South east trade winds moves northward along with the equatorial low pressure belt in the northern hemisphere during summer.
iv. Coriolis effect is one of the factors influencing the formation of monsoon.
a. i, iii and iv are correct, ii is wrong
b. i, ii, and iv are correct, iii is wrong
c. iii and iv are correct, i and ii are wrong
d. i and iv are correct, ii and iii are wrong
Answer:
c is the correct answer

Question 8.
Suppose at a place A the level of mercury in the mercury barometer touches 76cm. What may be the atmospheric pressure then? Calculate the atmospheric pressure experienced at a height of 50 metres over the same.place.
Answer:

• Atmospheric pressure 1013.2 mb
• Atmos pheric pressure at 50 m height = 1013.2 – (1 mb × 5)= 1008.2 mb

Question 9.
The equatorial low pressure region was a nightmare for the ancient mariners. Why?
Answer:

• In ancient times the ocean voyages were – in yachts by making use of winds.
• The winds are feeble in the equatorial low pressure region because of massive rising up of air.
• This region is also known as Doldrum.
• The voyage across this region in yachts was difficult due to the lack of winds.

Question 10.
Explains that the atmospheric pressure is not uniform everywhere.

a. Name the smooth lines in the diagram,
b. Among the places A and B, identify the place experiencing high pressure and the place experiencing low pressure,
c. The sun is in which hemisphere during the period?
Answer:

• Isobars
• A- Low pressure, B- High pressure
• Northern hemisphere

Question 11.
Is the atmospheric pressure the same at all places given below? Write a note based on the factors influencing the atmospheric pressure. .
1. Polar region
2. Central pacific region
3. Ooty
Answer:

1. Polar region – Low temperature, high pressure
2. Central pacific region – high temperature, low pressure
3. Ooty – low temperature, high pressure

Question 12.
Following are a few facts related to two global pressure belts. Identify the pressure belts.
1. Extends to about 5° to 10° north and south of the equator.
2. Located at 30° north and south latitudes on both the hemispheres.
3. Trade winds and Westerlies blows from either side of this belt.
4. Known as Doldrum
Answer:
1 .Equatorial low pressure belt
2. Sub tropical high pressure belt
3. Sub tropical high pressure belt
4. Equatorial low pressure belt

Question 13.
Winds are named according to the place from which they blow. Mention any two winds named accordingly.
Answer:

• South west monsoon winds
• North east monsoon winds ( name any suitable winds)

Question 14.
Illustrated below are the directions of winds in the northern and southern hemispheres. Identify the figures which are not correct and illustrate them correctly.

Answer:

• Figures – b and d are not correct
• Correctly illustrate them.

Question 15.
Arrange the items in B and C columns suitable to column A.

Answer:

In search of the Source of Wind Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the hot Local wind which blows from the Rajastan desert.
Answer:
Loo

Question 2.
Choose the correct example for periodic winds given below.
Trade winds, Westerlies, Monsoon winds
Answer:
Monsoon winds

Question 3.
Identify the winds that helped Gama to reach Kerala coast from Malindi?
Answer:
South west monsoon winds.

Question 4.
Westerties are stronger in the southern hemisphere that in the northern hemisphere why?
Answer:
This is due to vast expanse of oceans in the southern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Name the instrument used to measure at-mospheric pressure
Answer:
Barometer (Mercury Barometer, Aneroid Ba¬rometer)

Question 3.
In which unit atmospheric pressure is measured?
Answer:
Hectopascal (hpa), Milibar (mb)

Question 7.
Define the meaning of Atmospheric pressure
Answer:
Pressure exerted by the air is called atmospheric pressure. ,

Question 8.
Atmospheric pressure is not the same in all places on the Earth? Ex plain
Answer:
Attitude, Temperature and humidity are the various factors that effects atmospheric pressure.

Attitude :- When height increases pressure decreases when height increases the amount of air present in atmosphere decreases.

Temperature :- When air gets heated, air starts to expend. As a result air become dense and it rises. This leads to decrease in pressure.

Humidity:- The amount of water vapour present in air is called humidity. The water vapour is less dense than air. So when the amount of water vapour increases atmospheric pressure decreases.

Question 9.
Define high pressure and low pressure? Ans.If the atmospheric pressure of an area is higher than that of the surrounding regions it can be designated as high pressure (H). If the atmospheric of the surrounding region it can be designated as low pressure (L).

Question 10.
What are Isobars? What are the various uses of isobars?
Answer:
isobars are imaginary lines joining places having the same atmospheric pressure. We can easily understand the distribution of the atmospheric pressure of any region by observing the Isobars.

Question 11.
Write a brief note on global pressure belts based on location and factor responsible for the formation.
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure is uniform between certain latitudes. These belts are called Global pressure belts.
Equatorial low pressure belts:

• This belts is situated between 5° N and 5°S latitudes.
• This is the Zone where the sun rays fall vertically throughout the year.
• Hence air expands due to Sun’s heat and riser up on a massive scale

Sub tropical high pressure belts:

• This belt lies between latitudes in both Northern and Southern Hemisphere.
• The hot air ascending from the equatorial low pressure belts cools gradually and subsides at the Sub tropical Zone due to rotation of the Earth.

Sub polar low pressure belts:

• This belt lies bear 60° latitudes in both North and South of the equator.
• This zone in close to the pole, the air is colder here.
• Though the cold air remains close to theearth, the air is thrown up due to rotation of the Earth. As a result, low pressure is experienced all along the sub polar region.

Polar high pressure belts:

• This belt lies 90° latitudes in both the hemispheres.
• This zone experience severe cold throughout the year.

Question 12.
What are the factors that contribute to the formation of different pressure belts.
Answer:
Variations in the amount of solar energy received. The rotation of the Earth.

Question 13.
How are the winds formed?
Answer:
Pressure differences lead to the formation of winds. Winds blow from high pressure regions to low pressure in a horizontal manner. This is called wind.

Question 14.
What is the main faction behind the name given to a particular wind?
Answer:
Winds are named on the basis of the direction from which they blow. For example, South wind the wind blowing from South.

Question 15.
The peculiarities of the source regions influence the nature of wind. How?
Answer:
Winds blowing from the sea will be saturated with moisture whereas, the moisture content will be less in winds blowing from drier regions.

Question 16.
Write some factors that determines velocity and direction of wind?
Answer:
Pressure gradient, Force coriolis, Force friction.

Question 17.
What is pressure gradient force?
Answer:
The pressure gradient is said to be sleeper when the pressure difference is more. This can be understand by the pattern of isobar in two different situations. If the isobar are distributed away from each other the pressure gradient will be less. So the speed of wind is feeble.

Question 18.
What is meant by Coriolis force?
Answer:
Freely moving bodies get deflated to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern hemisphere due to the force generated as a result of Earth’s rotation. This is known as Coriolis force.

Question 19.
Who introduced Ferrels’sLaw? Explain the Law?
Answer:
Admiral Ferrel introduced this law, an American Scientist. According to this Ferrel’s law winds right and those in the Southern hemisphere deflect towards their left due to the Coriolis effect.

Question 20.
Two different pictures are given be low under two situations. In which of these situations do winds blow smoothly? Why?
Answer:
The speed of wind will be high over ocean surfaces and level lands as the friction is less. On the other hand, the friction being more along difficult terrains and places with dense forest cover, the speed of wind will be less in those places.

Question 21.
Write a short note on planetary winds?
Answer:
The winds developed between the global pressure belts can be generally called as pla-netary. The different planetary winds are listed below:

• Trade winds
• Westerlies
• Polar easterlies

Trade winds : The winds that blow from sub tropical high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt is called Trade winds.

Westerlies: The winds that blow from Sub- tropical high pressure belt to sub-polar low pressure belt is called Westerlies.

Polar easterlies: The winds that below from polar high pressure to sub-polar low pressure is called Polax easterlies.

Question 22.
What is Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (TTCZ)?
Answer:
The zone where the trade winds from both the hemispheres converge is known as the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone.

Question 23.
The ancient mariners had given different names to the rough westerlies in the southern hemisphere what are those names? Why it is known is different names?
Answer:
Roaring Forties (along 40° latitude), Furious Fifties (along 50° latitudes) and shrieking sixties (60° latitudes).

Question 24.
Why the polar winds are called polar Easter lies?
Answer:
These winds blow from the east in both the hemispheres due to the coriolis force. Hence these are known as polar easterlies.

Question 25.
Winds that change direction is accordance with season. Explain.
Answer:
Monsoon is the seasonal reversal of wind in a year it changes their direction according to the season. There are many factors responsible for the formation of the monsoon winds. Some of these are:

• The apparent movement of the sun
• Coriolis force
• Differences in heating

Sun’s rays fall vertically to the north of the equator during certain months due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis. This leads to an increase in temperature along the region through which topic of cancer passes. The pressure belts also shifts slightly northwards in accordance with this. The south east trade winds also cross the equator and moves towards the north- wards during the summer in the northern hemisphere. As the trade winds cross the equator they get deflected and transform into south west moon winds under the influence of the coriolis effect. As a result of the formation of high pressure zones over the Asian land mass during winder and low pressure Zones over the Indian Ocean, the north-east trade winds get strengthened. These are the north east monsoon winds. In a year wind deflects their direction twice.

Question 26.
Explain the formation of valley breeze and mountain breeze?
Answer:
During the day time air in the valley gets heated up more than the air on the mountain tops. As a result, the wind blows up shope from the valley. This is known as Valley Breeze. But during right the air in the mountain ous regions cools due to the intense cold conditions in that region. As cool air is demer, it blows towards the valley. This is known as Mountains Breeze.

Question 27.
What are the different types of local winds blows in different parts? Explain?
Answer:
Local winds are winds whose effects are limited to a comparatively it is formed as a result of local pressure differences. Such winds exist in different parts of the world. Loo, Mango Showers and Kalbaisathi are the local winds experienced in India. Chinook, Harmattan and Foehn are some of the local winds in other parts of the world.

Question 28.
What is Chinook? Write a note on features of Chinook.
Answer:
Chinook is a local wind that blows down the eastern slope of the Rocky mountains in North America. As a result of these winds, the snow along the eastern slopes of the Rocks melts. This wind reduces the severity of the cold, it is helpful for the wheat cultivation in the Canadian lowlands.

Question 29.
In which region the wind Foehn blows? What is the main feature of this wind?
Answer:
Foehn is the wind that blows towards the southern valleys of the Alps. As the air heats up due to pressure from the descend, it helps in reducing the severity of cold in that’ region.

Question 30.
In which region the wind Harmattan blows? What are the characteristics of this wind?
Answer:
Harmattan is a day wind which blows from the Sahara desert towards the West Africa.On of the arrival of these winds, the humied and sultry conditions of west Africa is improved significantly. Hence people call these winds as doctor Harmattan.

Question 31.
Name the different types of local winds blow¬ing in India. Write a short note on vari- ous local winds blowing in India?
Answer:
Loo:

• Not wind blowing in the North Indian plain.
• Hot wind blows is hot dry season.
• It increases the summer temperature.
• It is experienced in the afternoon.

Mango Showers:

• It blows in South India during hot season.
• It acquires its name owing to the fall of ripe mangoes on its arrival.

Question 32.
What does thid picture indicate ? Analyse the picyure and prepare a note.

Answer:
The picture indicates Coriolis Force. Freely moving bodies get deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere due to a force generated as a result of earth’s rotation. This is known as the Coriolis Force. This force increases as it moves towards the poles from the Equator. Admiral Ferrell found out that the winds in the northern hemisphere deflect towards their right and those in the southern hemisphere deflect towards their left due to the Coriolis effect. The law put forward by him on the basis of this known as Ferrell’s Law.

Question 33.
There are different types of winds on the earth’s surface. Complete the following flow.

Answer:

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Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 6 Economic Growth and Economic Development Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 6 Notes

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium Question 1.
What changes in an economy can be found in an economy as a result of economic growth?
Answer:
As a result of economic growth, several changes take place in an economy. Such changes include.

• Increase in industrial production.
• Increase in agricultural production.
• Growth in the service sector.
• Increase in purchasing power.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Some statements relating to economic growth and. development are given below. Classify them economic growth and development:
a) National income increased
b) Production of what increased to 150 crore tonnes.
c) National Highways were developed into four lanes.
d) Skill training was provided to the laborers.
e) Implemented modem facilities in the health sector.
f) Basic facilities of education institutions were improved.
Answer:
Economic growth:
a) National income increased
b) Production of what increased to 150 crore tonnes.
c) National Highways were developed into four lanes.
Economic development:
d) Skill training was provided to the laborers.
e) Implemented modem facilities in the health sector
f) Basic facilities of education institutions were improved

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 3.
Complete the following flow chart:

Answer:
Establishment of new hospitals
↓
More people receive hospital facilities
↓
Improvement in health condition of people
↓
Better health leads to better standard of living

9th Standard Social Science Textbook Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Human Development Index values of some of the countries in 2014 are as follows. List them under the three categories of human development.
1. India – 0.586
2. Japan – 0.891
3. Mali – 0.407
4. Sri Lanka – 0.751
5. Norway – 0.944
6. Haiti – 0.471
Answer:
High Human Development
1. Japan – 0.891
2. Norway – 0.944
Medium Human Development
1. India – 0.586
2. Sri Lanka – 0.751
Low Human Development
1. Mali – 0.407
2. Haiti – 0.471

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Question 5.
Define economic development
Answer:
Increase in the standard of living with economic growth is called economic development.

Let Us Assess

9th Class Geography Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Write down the difference between economic growth and economic development
Answer:

9th Class Social Science Malayalam Medium Question 7.
Explain in detail the limitations of per capita income as a development index.
Answer:
Per capita income as a development index has
certain limitations:

• Per capita income is an average income. For example, assume that the per capita income of a country is Rs. 40,000. This does not mean that each individual of the country receives an income
• of Rs. 40,000. It includes the population earning crores of rupees as well as those with very low income. So, this is merely a numerical calculation.
• While calculating economic development on the basis of per capita income, It cannot be claimed that improvement in the quality of living has been attained if the rich-poor disparity persists.
• Per capita income as a development index ignores factors like education, availability of nutritious food and health care facilities that improve the quality of living.
• Concerned only with economic growth, percapita income as a development index does not take into account social welfare and the equitable distribution of income.

9th Class Social Science Malayalam Medium Notes Question 8.
What is Human Resource Development?
Answer:
Human development is the expansion process of opportunities that helps the people to improve their human resources.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf In English Medium Question 9.
What are the components of Human Development Index?
Answer:

• Percapita income.
• Literacy and gross school enrolment rate.
• Life expectancy.

9th Class Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
What is sustainable development? Write down a few suggestions to achieve sustainable development.
Answer:
Sustainable development is defined as the development which meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own need.
Suggestions

• Rainwater harvesting.
• Use of organic fertilizers
• Reducing the use of plastics
• Protecting water resources and paddy fields

9th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
What are the challenges faced by modern development initiatives?
Answer:

• Excessive exploitation of natural resources.
• Polluting and wasting water resources.
• Intensive use of pesticides.
• Leveling of paddy fields and hills.
• Poverty
• Inequality of income and wealth.
• Unemployment.

Economic Growth and Economic Development Model Questions and Answers

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Guide Question 12.
Define economic growth.
Answer:
Economic Growth means an increase in the total output of a country compared to that of the previous year.

9th Class Social Science Textbook Malayalam Medium Question 13.
What is meant by economic growth rate?
Answer:
Economic growth rate in the rate of increase in the national income during the current years as compared to the previous years.

9 Class Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Economicdevelopment = economic growth + …….
Answer:
Better standard of living.

9th Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 15.
Suggest any 4 conditions that will improve the standard of living.
Answer:

• Better education facilities.
• Better health care facilities.
• Availability of Clearwater.
• Availability of nutritious food.

Question 16.
Complete the chart.
Answer:

Question 17.
Percapita income equals:
Answer:
\(\frac{\text { National income }}{\text { Population }}\)

Question 18.
Prepare a note on PQLI
Answer:
Physical Quality of Life Index came into use in 1979, when. an index more scientific than the per capital income was found necessary.
Instead of using per capital income as a single criterion for development, the Physical Quality of Life Index takes into consideration the following three factors:

• Life expectancy
• Infant mortality rate
• Basic literacy

Question 19.
Human Development Index is published by
Answer:
UNDP

Question 20.
What is meant by human development? Point out the factors that help in attaining human development.
Answer:
According to, United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). “Human development is the expansion process of opportunities that help the people to improve their human resource”
There are various factors that help in attaining human development. Let us see a few:

• Improved educational facilities.
• Better healthcare facilities.
• Increased training.

Question 21.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:
Better educational facilities
↓
Increase in the number of people receiving education
↓
Increase in employment opportunities to educated people
↓
Increase in income and purchasing power
↓
Better standard of living

Question 22.
The value of HDI lies between:
a) -1 and +1
b) -1 and 0
c) 0 and 1
d) 1 and 100
Answer:
c) 0 and 1

Question 23.
Human Happiness Index was originally developed by ………..
Answer:
Bhutan

Question 24.
Make pairs : PQLI, Bhutan, HDI, Morris D Morris, Happiness Index, UNDP
Answer:
PQLI : Morris D. Morris
HDI: UNDP
Happiness Index : Bhutan

Question 25.
Human Happiness Index is based on 9 indicators. Which are they?
Answer:
Nine indicators are considered for the calculation of
Human Happiness Index. They are as follows:

• Health,
• Standard of living
• Education
• Cultural diversity
• Effective use of time
• Good governance
• Conservation of nature and biodiversity
• Social life and neighbor relations
• Mental health

Question 26.
Inequality is of 3 types. Name them.
Answer:

• Economic inequality
• Inequality of Income
• Regional inequality

Question 27.
Point out major challenges faced by development in India.
Answer:

• Poverty
• Unemployment
• Illiteracy
• Malnutrition
• Economic inequality,

Question 28.
Identify main goals of sustainable development.
Answer:

• Environmental goals
• Economic goals
• Social goals

Question 29.
What are the three types of inequality?
Answer:

• Economic inequality
• Inequality in income
• Regional inequality

Question 30.
List down the factors for deciding Human Development Index.
Answer:

• Per Capita Income
• Literacy and gross school enrolment rate
• Life expectancy

Question 31.
What are the challenges faced by modern development initiatives?
Answer:

• Poverty
• Illiteracy
• Malnutrition
• Economic inequality
• Death by starvation
• Unemployment

Question 32.
For an improvement in the standard of living, several other living conditions should be made available along with an increase in national income. What are they? Answer:
Availability of nutritious food for all better health care facilities for all educational facilities for all and availability of clean water for all.

Question 33.
What are things to be considered when per capita income is taken as development index?
Answer:
Growth rate of national income.
Population growth rate.

Question 34.
List down the three main components which forms like basis in preparing Human Development Index.
Answer:
Per Capita Income
Literacy and Gross School enrolment rate Life expectancy

Question 35.
List down the three basic components for calculating the Human Poverty Index.
Answer:

• Longevity
• knowledge
• Decent standard of living

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 5 Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 5 Notes

Classification of Public Revenue Question 1.
Observe the pictures given above. They are related to certain activities performed by the government. What are they ? Find out other activities of the government.
Answer:

• Distribution of drinking water
• Distribution of welfare pension
• Protection of environment
• Protection of the country
• Road construction
• Health centers
• Center for distributing food

Vehicle Tax Kerala Question 2.
Given below is the graph showing the public expenditure of India from 2010-11 to 2016-17.

Answer:
The public expenditure of the year 2010-ll was 1197328 Crore. In the year 2011-12 it increased by 107037 Crore and became 130463 Crore. In 2012-13 it increased by 106007 Crore and became 141037 Crore. In 2013 -14, it increased by 149075 Crore and became 1559447 Crore.

In 2014-15 the public expenditure increased by 121711 Crore and became 1681158 Crore. In 2015-16 the public expenditure increased by 96319 Crores and became 1777477 Crores. In 2016-17 the public expenditure increased by 197717 Crores and became 1975194 Crores.

Types of Public Revenue Question 3.
Find out of the government expenditure in your ward and classify them into developmental and non-developmental expenditure.
Answer:

Standard Social Question 4.
Discuss how these factors lead to an increase in public expenditure and make inferences.
Answer:
Government undertakes welfare activities in the form of education, health, infrastructure, food, urbanization which leads to increase in public expenditure automatically. Natural calamities makes more expenditures and unemployment also rise the expenditure that is to control unemployment and to attain economic, development industrialization must be encouraged. Thus starting new industries and protecting industries increase Public expenditure.

What is Public Revenue Question 5.
Can you identify the receipt given? Where do we remit land tax? (Textbook page no. 75)
Answer:
Land tax remitted receipt.
Land tax will remit at their own village offices.

10th Public Question 6.
Discuss whether direct or indirect tax seriously affect common people.
Hints – Tax burden, rise price, income inequality.
Answer:
In direct tax payer bears the burden himself. So the tax payer known the burden of tax. But indirect tax collected by raising the price of commodities. Tax payer is ignorant of the tax. Evading a tax means giving up the wants. Direct tax is based on the principle of the ability to pay.

But indirect tax will not ensure social justice as it falls upon the rich and to poor alike. The rate of increase in the direct tax j may cause increase in the price of commodities. Thus we can assess that direct tax affects common man more public debt.

Public Finance Syllabus Question 7.
With the help of reading material, find out the main taxes of the state government.
Answer:

• Land tax
• Vehicle tax
• Excise duty
• Entertainment tax

Define Public Revenue Question 8.
Calculate the annual per capital debt of India.
Answer:
We get annual percapita debt of India by dividing total debt of a year with population of the year. According to 2011 population census our population is 1, 21, 01, 93, 422.
Public debt of 2015 = 5, 50, 36, 75
Per capita debt = 1, 21, 01, 93, 422 – 5503675
= 00, 45, 47, 76 crores

Question 9.
Statistics shows that India’s public debt is increasing. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of this and report the findings?
Answer:
Under development and increase in population results increase of public debt. If the public debt is increased, major portion of the public income will be allocated to interest and repayment. As a result allotment to welfare schemes will below and it adversely affect the economic 1 development of a country.

Public Revenue Question 10.
Prepare a note by analyzing the major items of the central govt.
Items — Expenditure
Interest and repayments — 456145
Defense — 246727
Subsidies — 243811
Grants to state and union territories — 108552
Pension — 88521
Police — 51791
Social service — 29143
Economic service — 28984
Grants to foreign govt — 4342
Other public services — 30936
Answer:

• The largest amount is spent on interest and repayment.
• The least amount is spent on grants to foreign government.
• The expenditure on welfare schemes and defense is more or less same.
• Rs. 29143 crores, Rs 28984 crores and Rs 30936 crores are allotted social economic service and to public services respectively.

Question 11.
Observe the diagram related to the major income sources of the central budget 2017-18.

Find out the following after observing the diagram.

a. From which item does the central government receive maximum tax revenue?
Answer:
Corporate tax

b. Which is the source of non tax revenue that yields maximum income to the central government?
Answer:
Profit

c. Which source yields more income to the central government – tax revenue or non tax revenue?
Answer:
444631

Question 12.
What are the goals of the fiscal policy ?
Answer:

• Attain economic stability
• Create employment opportunities
• Control unnecessary expenditure
• Increase the aggregate output of the economy
• Keep prices and wages stable
• Used to curtail inflation, increase aggregate demand and other macroeconomic issues

Question 13.
How do public expenditure, public income and public debt benefit a country? Discuss.
Answer:
Public expenditure is the governmental expenditure for social welfare. Public expenditure is very important for the development of a country. Under Govt taken various initiation on welfare activities public expenditure increases.To meet this expenditure govt mobilizes income from various sources.

This income is called public revenue. It includes both tax revenue and non tax revenue. In a developing and under developed nation budget will be deficit budget became they have to undertake various developmental activities.

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Compare developmental and non -develop-mental expenditure and give examples for each.
Answer:
Public expenditure can be classified into developmental and non developmental expenditure. Any expenditure that creates assets for the future is called developmental expenditure.
Examples :- construction of roads, bridges, and harbors, setting up of educational institutions, starting up new enterprises etc.
Expenditures that does not create any assets are called non-developmental expenditure.
Examples :- expenditure incurred by way of war. interest, pension etc.

Question 2.
Describe the features of direct tax and indirect tax.
Answer:
Taxes are the main source of income of’the government. The amount to be compulsorily paid by the public to the government is called tax. There are two types of taxes. Direct tax and indirect tax.

Question 3.
What are the important functions of GST council.
Answer:

• Taxes, cess and surcharges that are to be merged into GST.
• The goods and services that are to be brought under GST.
• Determining GST rates.
• The time frame for including the excluded items into GST.
• Determining the tax exemption limit on the basis of total turnover.

Question 4.
Explain with examples Public revenue and Public expenditure.
Answer:
Public Revenue:
Income of the government is known as Pub- lie revenue. The government earns income primarily from two sources. They are tax revenue and non-tax revenue. Tax revenue are of two types: Direct tax and indirect tax. Tax is paid by the person on whom it is imposed is called direct tax.

Examples:- Personal income tax, Corporate tax etc. While tax is imposed on one person and paid by another is called Indirect tax. Exam pie:- Value added tax, Excise duty, Sales tax, Customs duty, Service tax etc. Along with tax government receives in from two other sources such as surcharge and cess. Additional tax imposed on tax is called surcharge. Additional tax imposed by the government for certain specific purposes is called Cess

Public Expenditure:
Expenditure incurred by the government for various development and non-developmental activities are called Public expenditure. Examples for developmental expenditure are construction of roads, railways, bridges, harbors, setting up of new enterprises, educational institutions and medical institutions. Examples for non-developmental expenditure are expenditure on war, pension, interest etc. India’s public expenditure is increasing because when population increases, facilities for education, health, shelter etc for more people have to be given. For this, the government has to spend more money. There are various reasons for the increase in expenditure.

• Increase in the defense expenditure
• Welfare activities
• Urbanization
• Increase in population

Question 5.
What are the sources of non tax revenue?
Answer:
Fees, fines and penalties, grants, interest and profit are the various sources of non tax revenue.

Question 6.
Rewrite if required
Deficit budget → Income = Expenditure
Surplus budget → Income < Expenditure
Balanced budget → Income > Expenditure
Answer:
Balanced budget → Income = Expenditure
Deficit budget → Income < Expenditure
Surplus budget → Income > Expenditure

Question 7.
What is fiscal policy? Explain its aims.
Answer:
Governments policy regarding public revenue, public expenditure and public debt is called fiscal policy.
There are various aims of fiscal policy.

• Attain Economic stability
• Create employment opportunities
• Controls unnecessary expenditure
• It helps to maintain price stability
• For efficient resource allocation.

Question 8.
Public finance and fiscal policy determines a country’s progress. Substantiate.
Answer:
Public finance and fiscal policy determines a country’s progress. Public finance is the branch of economics that relates to public income, public expenditure and public debt. It is presented through the budget. Fiscal policy is the government policy regarding public revenue, public expenditure and public debt.

These policies are implemented through the budget. Fiscal policy influences a countries progress. A sound fiscal policy helps in nourishing the developmental activities and to attain growth.

Fispal policy controls inflation and deflation which affect economic security. The tax rate is increased when there is inflation. As a result of this, the purchasing power of the people falls. Similarly tax is reduced at the time of deflation. That will increase purchasing power of the people. As a result the demand for products increases. This results in an increase in the price of the products. The timely application of fiscal policy helps the government to over-come such situations.

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the chart.

Answer:
a. By government,
b. Non-developmental,
c. For constructing road,
c. Agriculture,
d. interest, pension.

Question 2.
One of the factors which is responsible for the increase in government expenditure has been given. Find out and write some other factors.
1. Population increase
Answer:

• Increase in defense expenditure
• Welfare activities
• Urbanization
• Inflation.

Question 3.
In the above activity you found out the factors responsible for the increase in public expenditure in India. Prepare a small write up using these points.
Answer:
Government undertakes welfare activities in the form of education, health, infrastructure, food, urbanization which leads to increase in public expenditure automatically. Natural calamities makes more expenditures and unemployment also rise the expenditure that is to control unemployment and to attain economic development industrialization must be encouraged. Thus starting new industries and protecting industries increase Public expenditure.

Question 4.
Complete the flow chart, connected with ‘different types of taxes’.

Answer:
a. Indirect Tax,
b. Personal income tax,
c. Tax imposed on the net income or profit of a company,
d. Land tax,
e. Excise duty,
f. Imposed on import and export of products,
g. Service Tax,
h. Taxes imposed on services.

Question 5.
The names of different types of taxes are given below. Categorize them, and fill the tables.

Answer:
Central government taxes

• Corporate tax
• Personal income tax
• Union excise duty

State government taxes

• Land tax
• Stamp duty
• Value Added Tax
• State Excise Duty

Local Self Government Taxes

• Property tax
• Professional tax
• Entertainment tax

Question 6.
Complete the picture.

Answer:
a. Grants
b. Fees
c. Interest
d. Profit

Question 7.
You have successfully found out the main sources of non-tax revenue, in the above activity. Now clarify each of them. An example is given for you.
Interest: Interest is the amount received for the loans provided by the government
Answer:
Fees: Reward collected for the government’s services.
Eg: License fees, Tuition fees, Registration fees etc.

Fines and penalties:Punishments for violating the laws.

Grants: Financial aid provided by one government to another.
For example, grants are provided by central and state government to local self governments.

Interest: Amount received for loans provided by the government to various enterprises, agencies and countries.

Profit: Income received from the enterprises operated by the government.
Eg. Profit from Indian Railways.

Question 8.
Complete the chart

Answer:
a. Loans taken by the government,
b. External Debts,
c. Loans availed by the government from individuals and institutions within the country.

Question 9.
Complete the world wheel.
increase in population.

Answer:

• Increase in Import
• Developmental activities
• Increased Defense expenditure
• Social Welfare Activities.

Question 10.
Find out correct answers from the box given below the table.

Answer:
a. Budget
b. Expenditure = Revenue
c. Surplus Budget
d. Expenditure Revenue
e. Deficit Budget

Question 11.
Fill the blank parts, suitably.
1. Government policy regarding public revenue, public expenditure and public debt is called ……………….
2. There policies are implemented through ………………..
3. Attainment of economic stability is one of its goals. Two other goals are ………….
Answer:
1. Fiscal Policy
2. Budget
3. Create employment opportunities
4. Control Unnecessary expenditure

Question 12.
Put the symbols ↓ or ↑ appropriately, in the blanks.
1. During inflation the tax rate ………….
2. As a result, the purchasing power of the people …………..
3. During deflation the tax rate …………..
4. As a result the purchasing power of the people ……………..
Answer:
1. During inflation the tax rate ↑
2. As a result, the purchasing power of the people ↓
3. During deflation the tax rate ↓
4. As a result the purchasing power of the people ↑

Question 13.
As a following up activity of the former, prepare a short note on ‘Timely application of the fiscal policy during Inflation and Deflation’, by the government.
Answer:
The tax rate is increased when there is inflation. As a result of this the purchasing power of the people falls.Tax is reduced at the time of deflation. This will increase the purchasing power of the people. As a result the demand for products increases. This results in an increase in the price of products.The timely application of fiscal policy helps the government to overcome such situations.

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
What is Public expenditure? Which are its two divisions?
Answer:
Public Expenditure: Expenditure incurred by the government is known as Public expenditure. Developmental Expenditure and Non Developmental Expenditure.

The Expenditure incurred by the government for constructing roads, bridges and harbors starting up new enterprises, setting up educational institutes etc are considered as Developmental expenditure. Expenditure incurred by the way of war, interest, pension etc are considered as Non developmental expenditure

Question 2.
Why does India’s, public expenditure in-crease?
Answer:
Welfare Activities, Urbanization, Increase in Defense expenditure.

Question 3.
What is public revenue? Which are its main sources?
Answer:
The income of the government is known as Public revenue.There are two types of public revenue.

1. Tax Revenue
2. Non Tax Revenue

Question 4.
What is the differences between Direct tax and Indirect tax?
Answer:
Direct Tax:

• Tax is paid by the person on whom it is imposed
• Tax burden is felt by the tax payer
• Comparatively high expenditure is incurred for tax collection.

Indirect Tax:

• Tax is imposed on one person and paid by another
• Tax burden is not felt by the tax payer
• Comparatively low expenditure is incurred for tax collection.

Question 5.
What is Corporate tax?
Answer:
It is the tax imposed on the net income or profit of a company.

Question 6.
Differentiate ‘Surcharge and ‘Cess’
Answer:
Additional tax imposed on tax is called surcharge. Generally surcharge is imposed for a specific period. Additional tax is imposed by the government for certain specific purposes is called Cess. Cess will be discontinued when enough money is received.

Question 7.
Who imposes Entertainment tax?
Answer:
Entertainment tax is imposed by Local self government.

Question 8.
Increase is defence expenditure is one of the reasons for the increase in India’s pub-lic debt. Find out 3 other for the same.
Answer:

• Increase in population
• Social Welfare Activities
• Developmental activities.

Question 9.
What is ‘budget’? Which are its three types?
Answer:
Budget is the financial statement showing the expected income and expenditure of the government during a financial year. Three types of budget are Balanced Budget, Surplus Budget, Deficit budget.

Question 10.
What is fiscal policy? What is the merit of a sound fiscal policy?
Answer:
Government’s policy regarding public revenue, public expenditure and public debt is called a Fiscal policy. A sound fiscal policy helps in nourishing the developmental activities and to attain growth.

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue SCERT Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Some of the activities performed by welfare governments are given below.Complete the table by incorporating other two activities.
1. Distribution of welfare pension
2. Empowering General education
3. a ……………………..
4. b ………………….
Answer:
a. Public health care protection
b. Environment protection.

Question 2.
What is meant by public expenditure?
Answer:
Expenditure of the government for public welfare.

Question 3.
Which are the two main sources of public revenue of the government?
Answer:

• Tax revenue
• Non-tax revenue

Question 4.
What is the major difference between direct tax and indirect tax.
Answer:

• Tax is paid by the person on whom it is imposed
• Tax is imposed on one and paid by another.

Question 5.
List down the main features of direct tax and indirect tax.
Answer:
Direct tax:

• Tax paid by the tax payer
• Tax burden is felt by the tax payer
• Comparatively expensive

Indirect tax:

• Tax is imposed on one and paid by another
• Tax burden is not felt by the tax payer
• Comparatively low expenditure.

Question 6.
Two major direct taxes are given below. Explain them.
1. Personal income tax
2. Corporate tax
Answer:
1. Tax imposed on the income of the individuals
2. Tax imposed on the net income or profit of a company.

Question 7.
Prepare a description about the indirect taxes in India.
Answer:
Describe value added tax, excise duty, customs duty and service tax.

Question 8.
Classify the taxes given below as direct tax and indirect tax.
a. Personal income tax,
b. Excise duty,
c. Corporate income tax
d. Value added tax
Answer:
a. Direct tax – Personal income tax,
b. corporate tax
c. Indirect tax – Excise duty,
d. Value added tax

Question 9.
Classify the following taxes properly as mentioned in the table.
1. Entertainment tax
2. Value added tax
3. Property tax
4. Personal income tax
5. Corporate tax
6. tamp duty
7. and tax
8. Professional tax
Answer:

• Central Government: Corporate tax, Personal Income tax.
• State Government: Value added tax, Stamp duty, Land tax.
• Local Self Government: Property tax, Entertainment tax, Professional tax.

Question 10.
Prepare a note on the different sources of income of the state government.
Answer:
Describes the tax income of the state government such as value added tax, stamp duty, state excise duty, land tax.

Question 11.
Write your opinion about the taxes that affect ordinary people.
Answer:
Write about indirect tax and your opinion on price hike, economic inequality.

Question 12.
Some non-tax income are given below. Ex-plain them.
1. Fees
2. Grant
3. Interest
4. Profit
Answer:
Explain fees, grant, interest and profit.

Question 13.
Prepare a short note on the impact of public debt in India.
Answer:
Write and explain the negative result of in-creasing public debt.

Question 14.
Table showing the internal and external debt of India from 2010 -11 to 2015 -16 is given below. Observe the table and answer the following.
a. When compared to 2010 -11 how much was the increase in public debt in 2015-16
b. What conclusions do you arrive at by comparing the internal and external debt?
c. What might be the reasons for increasing public debt in India?
Answer:
a. Debt doubled
b. Internal debt is more than external debt
c. Expenses for Defense, Increase in population, Social welfare activities, Development activities.

Question 15.
What is meant by public finance?
Answer:
A branch of Economics that deals with public income, public expenditure and public debt.

Question 16.
How do you think that the payment and nonpayment of tax with affect the development of a nation?
Answer:

• Explains the advantages of paying tax
• Explains the disadvantages of not paying tax.

Question 17.
What is budget? What is the importance of budget in economic activities of the government?
Answer:

• An economic document that shows the income and expenditure of the government in a financial year.
• Explains the importance of the budget.

Question 18.
How do you differentiate direct tax from in¬direct tax?
Answer:
In direct tax, tax is imposed one and another person pays the tax

Question 19.
What are the features of public income and public expenditure?
Answer:
The features of public expenditure and public revenue. Explain different type of budgets.

Question 20.
Explain different type of budgets.
Answer:

• Balanced budget : Income and expenditure are equal.
• Surplus budget : Income is more than expenditure.
• Deficit budget: Expenditure is more than income

Question 21.
What are the major features of the fiscal policy?
Answer:
The features of fiscal policy

Question 22.
Which are the major sources of income in Central budget?
Answer:
Corporate tax, Personal income tax, Customs duty, Excise duty.

Question 23.
What are the features of internal debt and external debt.
Answer:
The features of internal debtapd external debt.

Question 24.
Compare developmental expenditure and non-developmental expenditure.
Answer:
Write and explains developmental expenditure and non-developmental expenditure.

Question 25.
Public finance and fiscal policy determines the development of nation. Substantiate.
Answer:
Write and substantiates public finance and fiscal policy.

Question 26.
Explain what is fiscal policy and what are its objectives.
Answer:
Write and explains fiscal policy

• Economic stability
• Employment opportunity
• Control unnecessary expenses
• Control inflation and deflation
• Economic discipline

Question 27.
Analyse the pie diagram given below and answer the following.

a. Through which tax did government get more income?
b.How much income is received through service tax?
c. Which is the highest source of non tax revenue to the Central Government?
d Does tax revenue or non-tax revenue bring more income to the government?
Answer:
a. Corporate tax,
b. 209774 crores,
c. Profit,
d. Tax income.

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who collects professional tax ?
Answer:
Local self government institutions.

Question 2.
The government servants in a Panchayat area pay tax to the Panchayat. Which type of tax is this ?
Answer:
This is professional tax

Question 3.
Give some examples for direct taxes in India.
Answer:
Personal income tax, Corporate tax.

Question 4.
What are the source of Non- tax revenue ?
Answer:
Fees, fines and penalties. Grants, interest, Profit.

Question 5.
What are the two types of customs duty?
Answer:
Export duty and import duty.

Question 6.
a. For what purpose, the government spend money ?
b. Identify the areas where local self government under takes expenditure ?
Answer:
a.The government money for undertaking public institution and for attaining social welfare.
b. Education sector, Health sector, Social welfare, Public work, Drinking water.

Question 7.
Complete the following table based on the institutions which collects the different types of taxes given below.
Answer:

Question 8.
What is public revenue ? What are the two source of public revenue ?
Answer:
The income of the Govt is known as public revenue. Tax revenue and non-tax revenue are the two sources of public revenue.

Question 9.
What is public expenditure? What are the two source of public expenditure ?
Answer:
The expenditure incurring by the government is known as public expenditure. Developmental and non-developmental expenditures are the two sources of public expenditure.

Question 10.
Why does India’s Public expenditure in-creases ? Suggest some reasons.
Answer:

• Increase in the defense expenditure
• Welfare activities
• Urbanization
• Increasing Population
• Various developmental activities.

Question 11.
Give a brief account on Taxes ?
Answer:
Taxes are the main source of income for the Government. The amount to be compulsorily paid by the public to the government for expenditure such as welfare activities, developmental activities etc incurred in public interest is called tax. The person who pays tax is called tax payer. Taxes are of two types. Direct tax and indirect taxes.

Question 12.
What is personal income tax and corporate tax.
Answer:
The tax imposed on the income of individuals is called income tax. Tax rate increases with income. Tax is imposed on income beyond a certain limit. It is the tax imposed on the net income or profit of a company.

Question 13.
What are the major indirect taxes in India.
Answer:
Value added tax, Excise duty, Customs duty, Service tax.

Question 14.
What is Value added tax ? Write its advantages and disadvantages ?
Answer:
It was introduced in France in 1954. A product reaches the consumers through different stages. Value is added at each stage. Taxes which are imposed on such value is called Value Added Tax (VAT).

Advantages:

• Can avoid conceding effect
• As tax is paid at different stages, malpractices can be minimized.
• Help to collect correct information on production and trade
• As there are chances for giving tax subsidy it promotes exports.
• Easy to introduce tax is not concentrated in a place alone.

Disadvantages:

• Tax collection is expensive
• Not a simple tax system, especially for developing countries.
• Success depends on the co-operation of tax collectors.
• Chance of small purchase exist.
• Difficult for small traders as they have to keep correct accounts.
• Everybody has to keep correct accounts.

Question 15.
Give a brief accounts on non- tax re venue ?
Answer:
Fees Fees is the reward collected for the governments services. License fee, registration fee, tuition fee, etc. are the examples.

Fine and penalties :- Fines and penalties are punishments for violating the laws.

Grants:- Grants are the financial aid provided by one government to another. For example grants are provided by central and state goveminent to local self Governments.

Interest:- Interest is the amount received for the loans provided by the government to various enterprises, agencies and countries.

Profit:- Profit is the income received from the enterprises operated by the government.
For example profit from the Indian railways.

Question 16.
Explain about various indirect taxes in India?
Answer:
Excise duty :- Tax imposed at the production stage of a commodity.
Customs duty :- Imposed on import and export of products.
Service tax :- The tax imposed on services called service tax.

Question 17.
What is surcharge?
Answer:
Additional tax imposed on tax is called surcharge. Generally surcharge is imposed for a specific period.

Question 18.
What do you mean by Cess?
Answer:
Additional tax imposed by the government for certain specific purpose is called Cess. Cess will be discontinued when enough money is received.

Question 19.
Give a brief account on taxes imposed by the central, the state, and the local self government
Answer:
Central Government:

• Corporate tax
• Personal income tax
• Union excise duty

State Government:

• Value added tax
• Stamp duty
• State excise duty
• Land tax

Local Self Government:

• Property tax
• Professional tax
• Entertainment tax.

Question 20.
Increase in tax rate leads to increase in the price of commodities. Which of the following will you recommend for tax imposition ? Why ? Gold jeweler, Diamond jeweler, Life saving medicines, Petroleum products, Salt, Luxury cars.
Answer:
I will recommend to impose tax on gold jeweler, Diamond jeweler and luxury cars. I will not recommend to impose tax on petroleum product, salt, life saving medicines etc because they are essential commodities. The price of there will increase as a result of tax imposition and it will affect the standard of living of the common people. .

Question 21.
Classify the following taxes into Direct and Indirect taxes.
1. Agricultural tax,
2. Entertainment tax,
3. Profes-sional tax,
4. Income tax,
5. Customs duty,
6. Excise duty – Land tax,
7. Property tax,
8. Vehicle tax.
Answer:
Direct tax :-
Income tax, Agricultural tax, Professional tax, Land tax, Property tax, Vehicle tax.

Indirect tax :-
Customs duty, Excise duty, Entertainment tax, Service tax.

Question 22.
High rate is imposed on liquor and drugs, What is the objective behind this ?
Answer:
By imposing high tax on liquor and drug the government get high income, and spend it for social welfare. Now a days the number of ; people, using drugs are increased. Through , imposing high tax on liquor and drug the government brings a social control, that is the j aim of the government is social welfare with j increased income.

Question 23.
Grant is an example of non- tax revenue to government. Identify the other non-tax sources of Income to a government ?
Answer:
Profit :- Central government gets profits from public sector undertakings like Railways, BSNL etc. The state government receives pro fit from state enterprises like KSFE, KEL- TRONetc.

Income from public property :- It includes rent for government owned land and rent for govt buildings.

Payments for government service :- Tuition fee registration fee and license fee etc.

Debts :- Internal and external borrowings

Fines :- Government imposes a fine upon who violate some rules. This is a source of income of the government.

Question 24.
What are public debt? Write two types of public debt ?
Answer:
The loans taken by the government is called public debt. Internal debt and external debt are the two kinds of public debt.

Question 25.
Distinguish between Internal debt and external debt
Answer:
internal debt :- The loans availed by the government from individuals and institution with in the country.

External debt :- The loans availed from foreign governments and international institutions.

Question 26.
Given below is the table indicating the internal and external debt of India from 2010-11 to 2015-16.

Question 27.
How much did public debt increase in 2015-16 compared to 2010-11 ? What conclusion can be arrived at while comparing internal debt with external debt?
Answer:

• 2678921 crores.
• Internal debt is more than external debt.

Question 28.
What are the reason for the increase in Indian public debt ?
Answer:

• Increased defense expenditure.
• Expense on educator and other service. Social welfare activities
• Developmental activities
• Urbanization
• Increase in import
• Unemployment benefit
• Expenses for periodic elections.
• To meet loss caused by natural calamities.

Question 29.
Apart from internal and external debt what are the various kinds of debts ?
Answer:
Productive debt and unproductive debt :- If the borrowed amount is used for productive purposes it is known as productive debt. Unproductive debt includes expenses like war finance and covering budgetary deficit. Compulsory and voluntary debt Compulsory debt is done in times of war, inflation etc. If the people are free to buy or not to buy the bonds debentures issued by the government. It is voluntary debt.

Redeemable and Irredeemable debt :- Redeem able debts are repaid with in a specific period of time. It there is no time limit for repayment it is redeemable debt.

Funded and Unfunded debt :- Funded debts are taken for a long period and for specific purpose. Short term debts are called unfunded debts.

Question 30.
What is public finance ?
Answer:
Public finance is the branch of economics that relates to public income, public expenditure and public debt. Public finance is presented through the budget.

Question 31.
Define the term budget ?
Answer:
Budget is the financial statement showing the expected income and expenditure of the government during a financial year. In India, financial year is from April 1 to March 31.

Question 32.
What are the three types of Budget
Answer:

• Surplus budget
• Deficit budget
• Balanced budget

Question 33.
Fill in those aspects which are missing in facts related with budget
1. Budget deficit :- Total budget expenditure …………..
2. Revenue deficit :- Revenue expense ………………
3. Surplus Budget :- Expenditure ………………..
4. ………………. = Budget deficit+borrowing
Answer:

• Total budget income
• Revenue income
• Income
• Fiscal deficit

Question 34.
What are the various aims of budget?
Answer:

• To ensure accountability
• To serve as a tool of management for controlling administration.
• To help economic planning.
• To work as a method for collection public fund.
• To work as a basis for public welfare.
• As a tool for policy formulation to government.
• To work as a source of information to the public about government programmes.

Question 35.
Distinguish between inflation and deflation.
Answer:
A general rise in price of commodities is called inflation. A general fall in price of commodities is called deflation.

Question 36.
What is fiscal policy ? Explain is main goals. The policy relating to taxes, public expenditure and borrowings is known as fiscal policy.
Answer:
Goals:

• Attain economic stability
• Create employment opportunities.
• Control Unnecessary expenditure
• Economic development of a nation.
• Control monopoly.
• Increase employment opportunities
• Eradication of poverty
• Maintain equilibrium in international trade
• Reducing economic inequality

Question 37.
The following are the features related to certain taxes. Find out the type of taxes.
a. Taxes burden is not to the tax payer.
b. Tax payer himself bears the burden of tax
Answer:
a. Indirect tax
b. Direct tax

Question 38.
How do fiscal policy controls inflation and deflation of a country.
Answer:
The tax rate is increased when there is inflation as a result of this purchasing power of the people falls. Tax is reduced when there is deflation.This will increase purchasing power of the people. So the demand for the products increases. The timely application of fiscal policy helps the government.

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Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Textbook Questions and Answers in Malayalam