Prasanna

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may – use the time to read and plan your answers.
2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 1 score. [4 × 1 = 4]

Question 1.
Find the relation between the first pair and complete the second pair.
Electric oven : Heating effect
Mixie : _______.
Answer:
Mechanical effect.

Question 2.
What is. the voltage of electricity supplied to the distribution transformer?
Answer:
11 KV.

Question 3.
Select the odd one
Solar cells, tidal energy, atomic reactor, Hydroelectric power.
Answer:
Atomic reactor

Question 4.
Arrange the given media in the increasing order of their optical densities
Water, Diamond, Glass, Air
Answer:
Air < Water < glass< diamond.

Question 5.
Which mirror always forms diminished and erect image?
Answer:
Convex mirror.

Section – B

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 2 score. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 6.
a) What is the relation between the deviation of component colours of white light through a prism and their wavelength?
b) Classify the colours green, red, indigo and yellow in the descending order of their wavelengths.
Answer:
a) When wavelength increases deviation decreases. When wavelength decreases deviation increases.
b) Red, yellow, green, Indigo.

Question 7.
Write down 2 limitations of wind mills?
answer:

• This can be established only at those places where wind is available for most time of the year.
• We may require storage systems to use electricity when there is no wind.

Question 8.
The telescope called ‘Chandra X – ray Observatory’ is placed in the outer space. What is the advantage of placing it there? Explain with, reference to the scattering of light in the atmosphere.
Answer:
In the outer space, there is no atmosphere and scattering of light does not take place. So clear images can be captured.

Question 9.
Give reasons for the following.
a) Red light is used as signal lamps.
b) Sky in the moon appears dark.
Answer:
a) Wave length of red is greater. So rate of scattering is less.
b) Due to the absence of atmosphere, light does not undergo scattering.

Question 10.
In an AC generator which part is kept stationary, Why?
Answer:
Armature is kept stationary and field magnet is allowed to rotate. The armature is too heavy to rotate. Also this helps to eliminate the graphite brushes and thereby avoid sparks.

Section – C

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 3 score. [4 × 3 = 12]

Question 11.
In a house 5 lamps of 60 w used in 3 hours and 6 lamps of 40 w are used in 5 hours daily.
a) Which is the device used to measure the used electric current?
b) Find the amount of current used for 30 days?
Answer:
a) Kwh meter
b) The amount of current used 60 w of 5 lamps for 3 hours = \(\frac{60 \times 5 \times 3}{1000}\) = 0.9 unit
The amount of current used 40 w of 6 lamps for 5 hour’s = \(\frac{40 \times 6 \times 5}{1000}\) = 1.2 unit
Total current used in one day = 0.9 + 1.2 = 2.1 unit
Amount of current used in one month = 2.1 × 30 = 63 Unit

Question 12.
The following statements in the boxes are related to working of a loudspeaker. Arrange them in the correct order.

Answer:

Question 13.
Write down the advantages and limitations of solar cooker.
Answer:
Advantages of solar cooker:

1. Renewable source of energy is used in it
2. It does not cause environmental pollution
3. Low expense

Limitations:

1. Not practical in rainy seasons and during night.
2. Fried items can not be prepared
3. Long time is needed.

Question 14.
A motor cyclist observes a car coming from behind with a magnification 1/6. If the actual distance between the car and the bike is 30 m calculate the radius of curvature of the mirror.
Answer:

Question 15.
When Newton’s colour disc rotates fast it appears white.
a) Mention the phenomenon related to this?
b) Define this phenomenon.
c) Write another example related to this?
Answer:
a) Persistence of vision.
b) When a person sees an object, its image remains in the retina for a time interval of a 1/16 second. This phenomenon is called persistence of vision.
c) At the time of rain fall drops, we feel that they are glass rods.

Section – D

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 4 score. [4 × 4 = 16]

Question 16.
All the constituent colours of sunlight do not have same rate of scattering.
a) Write the reason for this? (1)
b) Describe an experiment to demonstrate that scattering of all colours are not equal. (2)
c) Under what condition all the colours are scattered equally. (1)
Answer:
a) Rate of scattering is directly proportional to the wavelength of the wave and the size of the particles.

b) Allow light from a torch to fall on the water form one side of the beaker. The light emerging form the beaker is focussed on a white screen. Sodium thiosulphate is dissolved in water. Add, hydochloric acid to the water. Blue colour spreads at the beginning. Then the colours emerging from the solution in the order of VIBGYOR.

c) If the size of the particles is greater than the wave¬length of light, then the scattering is same for all colours.

Question 17.
a) What is the principle of a transformer?
b) When 240 V was applied to the primary of a transformer, the voltage in the secondary was 12 V. If the number of turns in the primary is 4,800 what will be the number of turns in the secondary?
c) To which coil of this transformer thick wire is to be used?
Answer:
a) Mutual induction
b) V_p = 240 v
V_s = 12 v
N_p = 4800
N_s = ?

c) Secondary

Question 18.
Two electric irons working on 230 V AC. The resistance passed by one is 800 W and by the second is 1200 W. If so
a) Which electric iron posses more intensity of current?
b) Which one posses more power consumption?
c) Calculate the amount of consumed energy while the electric-iron of resistance 800 Ω is to be worked for 2 hours?
Answer:
a) Electric iron having resistance 800 W
b) Electric iron having less resistance
c) H =I²RT
V = 230 V, t = 2 × 60 × 60s, R = 800 Ω

Question 19.
The calorific value of hydrogen is 1,50,000 KJ/Kg and that of LPG is 55,000 KJ/Kg.
a) What do you mean by calorific value?
b) What is the unit of calorific values?
c) Which among the above is a good fuel?
d) Which one is selected as a fuel in home? Illustrate your answer.
Answer:
a) The amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel is.its calorific value.
b) Its unit is kilojoule/kilogram.
c) Hydrogen, because its calorific value is greater than that of LPG.
d) LPG. There is a chance for explosion when hydrogen is burnt. Moreover, it is difficult to store hydrogen safely. This is why we can’t select hydrogen as a fuel in homes.

Question 20.
Observe the figures and answer the following questions:

a) Of the circuit A and B which is the one used for household electrical circuit?
b) Write three advantages of making circuits in this manner.
Answer:
a)

b)

• We can control electric appliances with separate switches.
• Every instrument in the circuit gets maximum and equal voltage. All instruments can separate switches, low effective resistance.

Students can Download Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – I

Choose one correct answer

Question 1.
To change the animation speed or time using the tool
a) Toggle night N
b) Adjust progress value G
c) Time backward B
d) Time forward A
Answer:
b) Adjust progress value G

Question 2.
According to you, what is the biggest advantage of data base management system?
a) We can made one report
b) can’t make a report
c) We can make different types of reports
d) We can’t save the reports
Answer:
c) We can make different types of reports

Question 3.
Name the extension of project file in synfig studio?
a) svg
b) pdf
c) sif z
d) ods
Answer:
c) sif z

Question 4.
Which is the first working computer?
a) Desktop
b) Analytical Engine
c) ENIAC
d) Laptop
Answer:
c) ENIAC

Question 5.
The tool used to display the map of the world showing time zones
a) Toggle Tropic tool
b) Clock and map tool
c) Toggle meridian
d) Sun/moon toggle menu
Answer:
b) Clock arid map tool

Question 6.
More than two pictures are placed on over the other, the option to raise lower to top by
a) Object → Lower to bottom
b) Object → Raise to top
c) Insert → Lower to bottom
d) Object → group
Answer:
b) Object → Raise to top

Question 7.
A correct statement related to clone formatting is
a) Use clone formatting for a large report
b) Formattings of headings can be changed by changing the formatting of each heading separately
c) Formattings of headings can be changed by changing the formatting of one heading
d) Formattings of heading cannot be copped to another
Answer:
b) Formattings of headings can be changed by changing the formatting of each heading separately

Question 8.
What is the full form of CSS?
a) Computer System Style
b) Cascading Style Sheet
c) Cascading Style System
Answer:
b) Cascading Style Sheet

Question 9.
What is the use of the command fd()
a) Move the Turtle to the right ,
b) Move the Turtle in a circle
c) Mark a point on the graphic screen
d) Specify the colour of the line to be drawn on the screen
Answer:
a) Move the Turtle to the right

Question 10.
In computer, data is processed and stored in the form of signal.
a) Digital
b) Analog
c) Hybrid
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Digital

Section – II

Choose two correct answers.

Question 11.
From the following name the people who considered to be started grid computing
a) Ian foster
b) Carl Kesselman
c) Steve Tuecke
d) Bert bos
Answer:
a) I an foster, b) Carl Kesselman & c) Steve Tuecke

Question 12.
What are the phenomena to explain through sun clock software
a) Concept of time zones of earth
b) India
c) The features of the earth surface
d) World map
Answer:
a & c

Question 13.
Bell Laboratories build Unix operating system. These versions used later, with a lot of modifications and addition in other operating systems made by.
a) GNU/Linux
b) Berkeley
c) Microsoft
d) Apple Corporation
Answer:
b & d

Question 14.
Give the two activities done before starting animation from first key frame
a) Current time is 60 f
b) Current time is-0 f
c) Before editing the motion, animate the edit mode button is active
d) press the play button to see the animation
Answer:
b & c

Question 15.
What are the differences of a server computer compared to a normal computer
a) can give one IP address
b) can give morethan one IP address
c) can host a website
d) can host different websites to different IP addresses
Answer:
b & d

Students can Download Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section- I

Choose one correct answer

Question 1.
Name the utility used in inkscape to give a 3D effect to 2D images?
a) Radial Gradient
b) Blur
c) opacity
d) Difference
Answer:
a) Radial Gradient

Question 2.
Anu was prepared a style named main head. Then he select the all headings in a report and click on the style named main head. What happens for the headings?
a) All headings are changed to same type
b) No change to the headings
c) Headings are changed to different sizes
d) Headings are seen in different colours
Answer:
a) All headings are changed to same type

Question 3.
A loop statement contains another loop statement then it is called
a) Nested loop
b) Direct loop
c) Indirect loop
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Nested loop

Question 4.
The idea of was suggested by Hakon Wium Lie and Bert Bos.
a) CSS
b) HTML
c) Python
Answer:
a) CSS

Question 5.
What is the network related icon displayed on the screen of the computer connected to a Network.
a) Network Manager Applet
b) Network Neighbourhood
c) Network system
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Network Manager Applet

Question 6.
The land that is being used for widening the road. The buildings that are get affected by this. How much can be saved by changing the width of the road? Above things are easily determind by a technology available in QGIS. Name that technology available in QGIS.
a) vector
b) Layer
c) Attributes
d) Suffer(s)
Answer:
d) Buffer (s)

Question 7.
are web sites to publish our works like stories, poems and articles.
a) blogs
b) www
c) Internet
d) HTTP
Answer:
a.

Question 8.
What are the activities can conduct through queries
a) To add records
b) To create tables
c) To change the records
d) To create a database file
Answer:
a & c

Question 9.
Give the order of activity to create a new user
a) Application → graphics → administration → user and group
b) Application → Office → User and groups → User accounts
c) Application → System Tools → User and groups user accounts
d) Application → system tools → User and groups
Answer:
c) Application → System Tools → User and groups user accounts

Question 10.
Which tool is used to fill colours to the objects in synfig studio?

Answer:

Section – II

Choose two correct answers

Question 11.
Correct statements for proprietary softwares
a) Computer programms are made free to copy and share
b) Able to examine the programms for study purposes
c) No freedom to copy and share
d) No freedom to examine them for study purposes
Answer:
d) No freedom to examine them for study purposes

Question 12.
What are the uses of multi-coloured buttons on the handle of a image?
a) To switch on the Animate editing mode
b) To adjust size
c) To take copy
d) To rotate if needed
Answer:
b & d

Question 13.
Who are the email service providers
a) www.gmail.com
b) IETF
c) www.yahoo.com
d) ICANN
Answer:
a & c

Question 14.
Select the order activity to get open attribute table in QGIS.
a) Select a layer from the layer palette
b) Right click on the layer
c) Right click on the layer and select open attribute table
d) Right click on the layer and select delete
Answer:
a & c

Question 15.
The different ways to select all created images in a canvas
a) Click and drag the mouse in such a way that it covers all images
b) While pressing on the shift key and click on all images separately
c) Select using mouse
d) Selectthrough the menu
Answer:
a & b

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may – use the time to read and plan your answers.
2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

Answer any four questions. Each question carries 1 score. [4 × 1 = 4]

Question 1.
Find the relation and complete the word pair
Transformer: Mutual induction
Inductor : __________.
Answer:
Self induction

Question 2.
Select the odd one
Cock, ammonia, coal tar, Naphtha
Answer:
Naphtha

Question 3.
Write down 2 properties of fuse wire.
Answer:
Low melting point, high resistance

Question 4.
Which of the given does not indicate power
I²R, 1/I, IR², V²/R
Answer:
IR²

Question 5.
What is the relation between anlage of incidence and angle of reflection?
Answer:
Equal.

Section – B

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 2 score. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 6.
Write down two advantages and two limitations of Hydrogen as a fuel
Answer:
Advantages:

1. Greater calorific value
2. Easily available

Limitations:

1. Highly inflammable and explosive
2. Difficult to store and transport.

Question 7.
The electricity generated at the power stations is transmitted to distant places in high voltage.
a) What is the voltage at which electricity is generated in the power station?
b) What are the problems facing in long distant power transmission?
Answer:
a) 11 KV
b) Power loss, Voltage drop

Question 8.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 9.

a) What is the intensity of current through the circuit?
b) Calculate the heat developed in the circuit for 20 minutes?
Answer:
a) I = \(\frac{V}{R}=\frac{10}{30}\)
= 0.3 A

b) H = I²Rt
= 0.3² × 30 × 20 × 60
= 3240 J

Question 10.
Mention the phenomena responsible for the following
a) Formation of rainbow
b) Tyndal effect
Answer:
a) Dispersion
b) Scattering

Section – C

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 3 score. [4 × 3 = 12]

Question 11.
Observe carefully the following diagram which show the splitting up of a composite light into its constituent coloures.

a) Which among the above figure is correct ? Give reason. (2)
b) Write the name of the phenomenon. (1)
Answer:
a)

Light undergoes refraction and the extend of deviation depends on the wavelength. Violet having least wavelength undergoes maximum deviation and red rays having highest wavelength undergoes minimum deviation.
b) Dispersion.

Question 12.
Thickness of insulated copper wire used in the primary turns and secondary turns of a transformer are not equal.
a) In a step up transformer which set of turns (primary/secondary) is made of thicker copper wire? Justify your answer.  (2)
b) Write down the working principle of transformer.   (1)
Answer:
a) Primary
Reason: In a transformer if there is no power loss, power in the primary coil is equal to the power in the secondary P = Iv, in a step up transformer, in the primary coil, voltage will be low and .current will be high. To carry high current, thick wires are needed.
b) Mutual induction.

Question 13.
Wind mill, Hydro electric power, Nuclear reactor and Solar cell are four energy sources.
a) Classify the above four energy sources as green energy and brown energy. (2)
b) What is meant by green energy? (1)
Answer:
a)

b) Green energy is the energy produced from natural sources which does not cause environmental pollution.

Question 14.
An electric bulb is labelled 40W, 200V.
a) Calculate the current flowing through it?
b) What is the resistance of the filament?
Answer:
a)

Question 15.

a) Identify the figure in which bulbs are being connected in series?
b) Select the figure with which the bulbs connected in parallel?
c) Which circuit is suitable for household circuit? Justify your answer.
Answer:
a)

b)

c) Parallel connection.
Each devices can be controlled by separate switches. Voltage remains same. Effective voltage will be very less.

Section – D

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 4 score. [4 × 4 = 16]

Question 16.
White light splits into its constituent colours when passed through a glass prism.
a) Name the process of splitting
b) Give the reasons for this type of splitting
c) Draw the diagram for recombining these colours produced by the prism.
Answer:
a) Dispersion
b) Each colour differs in their wavelength. Red having greater wavelength deviates least. Violet having less wavelength deviates most. So colour splitted up.
c)

Question 17.
Analyse the circuit and answer the following questions.

1) What is the current through A?
2) What is the current through B?
3) What will be the ammetdr reading?
4) To decrease the q reading in the ammeter, how should the resistors be connected?
Answer:
1. Current through A = I₁ = \(\frac{v}{R}=\frac{12}{3}\) = 4A
2. Current through B = I₂ = \(\frac{v}{R}=\frac{12}{2}\) = 2A
3. Ammeter reading = I₁ + I₂ = 4 + 2 = 6A
4. Resistors should be connected in parallel. Then effective resistance = 3 + 6 = 9W
I = \(\frac{12}{9}\) = 1.33 A

Question 18.
There are 10000 turns in a transformer. Voltage in the primary is 240 V and current is 0.2 A. The transformer is wound so as to get a current 0.4 A in the secondary.
a) What type of transformer is this?
b) What is the secondary voltage. Also find the number of turns in the secondary.
c) What is the maximum output power that received from this transformer?
Answer:
a) Step up transformer
b)

c) P = VI = 240 × 0.2
= 48 w

Question 19.
When an object is placed infront of a spherical mirror at a distance 30 cm, the magnification is -1.
a) Write down the properties of the image?
b) What kind of mirror is this?
c) If the object is placed at 10 cm. What changes occur to the properties of the image?
d) Illustrate the conclusions.
Answer:
a) Image will be real, inverted, same size of the object.
b) Concave mirror
c) Image will be erect, virtual and enlarged.
d) 10 cm means object is in between F and P, then the image is erect, enlarged, and virtual behind the mirror.

Question 20.
State the Motor Rule. If the directions of current in the conductor and the magnetic field are the same, in which way will the conductor move?
Answer:
A conductor, which can move freely and which is kept in a magnetic field experiences a force when current passes through it and it moves.
If the direction of current in the conductor and the magnetic field are the same, the conductor will not move.

Students can Download Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Paper 2 Malayalam Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Paper 2 Malayalam Medium

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may use the time to read and plan your answers.
2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

(Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each question carries 1 score) (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
The outermost subshell of inert gases except helium
contains electrons. (1)
(2,6,10,14)
Answer:
6

Question 2.
How much is the volume of 32 g of O₂ at STP? (1) (Atomic mass O = 16)
Answer:
22.4 L

Question 3.
The functional group present in organic acids is (1)
Answer:

Question 4.
To which category of medicines does paracetamol belong? (1)
Answer:
Antipyretic

Question 5.
What is the major constituent of LPG? (1)
Answer:
Butane

Section – B

(Answer any 4 questions from 6 to 10. Each question carries 2 scores)(4 × 2 = 8)

Question 6.
The order of reactivity of certain metals are as follows:
Mg > Zn > Fe> Cu
a) Which among these does notreactwith dil.HCl?(1)
b) A piece of Mg ribbon is dipped in ZnSO₄ solution.
Write down the equation showing the redox reaction taking place. (1)
Answer:
a) Cu
b) Mg + ZnSO₄ → MgSO₄ + Zn / Mg + Zn⁺ → Mg²⁺ + Zn

Question 7.
Magnetite (Fe₃O₄), haematite (Fe₂O₃) and copper pyrites are some ores.
a) Which of the ores is concentrated by froth floatation? (1)
b) Which one is concentrated by magnetic separation? (1)
Answer:
a) Copper pyrites
b) Magnetite (Fe₃O₄)

Question 8.
Some samples of certain elements are given.

a) Which among the above has the highest number of molecules? (1)
b) Which samples occupies a volume of 22.4 L at STP? (1)
[Atomic mass: H=1, He = 4, N = 14 and O = 16]
Answer:
a) 8g H₂
b) 28 g N₂

Question 9.
An organic compound has 3 carbon atoms and an OH functional group on the second carbon atom.
a) Give its IUPAC name. (1)
b) Write down the structure of a position isomer of this compound. (1)
Answer:

Question 10.
The third shell of an atomX has 6 electrons.
a) Write the subshell electronic configuration of X. (1)
b) What will be the normal valency of X? (1)
Answer:
a) 1s²2s²2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁴
b) -2

Section – C

(Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each question carries 3 scores) (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
Cement is an important building material.
a) What are the main raw materials of cement production? (1)
b) What is the role of gypsum in cement manufacute? (1)
c) Cement is not kept in moist places. Why? (1)
Answer:
a) Limestone, Clay
b) To regulate the setting time of cement
c) Cement absorbs moisture and hardens permanently,

Question 12.
Atomic number of iron is 26.
a) To which group of the periodic table does iron belong? (1)
b) What is the oxidation state of iron in Fe₂O₃? (1)
c) Write down the subshell electronic configuration of the ion of iron with this oxidation state. (1)
Answer:
a) 26Fe- 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d⁶4s²(group-8)
b) +3
c) Fe³⁺ -1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵

Question 13.
Consider the equilibrium given
N₂O₄ + Heat ⇌ 2NO₂
a) When does a reversible reaction attain equilibrium? (1)
b) What will happen to the rate of forward reaction if
a high pressure is applied on the system? (1)
(c) At low temperature N₂O₄ decomposes only slowly. Why? (1)
Answer:
a) When the speed of forward reaction and backward reaction becomes equal.
b) Rate of foward reaction decreases because due to forward reaction volume (no. of- mols) . increases.
c) Forward reaction is endothermic.,

Question 14.
Complete the following equations:
a) C₂H₆ + Cl₂ → ………+ HCI (1)
b) C₃H₆ + Cl₂ → …………(1)
c) nCH₂ = CH₂ → …………(1)
Answer:
a) C₂H₅Cl
b) C₃H₆Cl₂
c) [CH₂ – CH₂]_n

Question 15.
The equation showing the reaction of hydrogen with oxygen to form water is given below:
2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
a) What is the ratio of reactant molecules hydrogen and oxygen of the reaction? (1)
b) Suppose 32 g oxygen and 10 g of’hydrogen are allowed to react together.
i) How many molecules of water will be for¬med? (1)
ii) Which reactant will be left behind after the reaction? Hoyv’many moles? (1)
Answer:
a) 2 : 1
b) i) 2 molecules.
ii) 6 g of H₂ will be left behind after the reaction.

Section – D

(Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each question carries 4 scores)(4 × 4 = 16)

Question 16.
Aluminium is the most abundant metal on the earth’s crust.
a) Name the ore of aluminium. (1)
b) This ore is concentrated by Leaching. What is meant by Leaching? (1)
c) What is the role of cryolite in a aluminium production? (1)
d) Give the name and any one use of an alloy of aluminium (1)
Answer:
a) Bauxite (Al₂O₃.2H₂O)
b) The ore is dissolved in a suitable solvent and the impurities are filtered out.
c) During the electrolytic refining of aluminium, alumina is dissolved in molten cryolite. Cryolite lowers the melting point of alumina and increase electrical conductivity.
d) Alnico. Used to produce strong magnets.

Question 17.

Answer the following questions based on the above . structure.
a) Correctly number the chain. CO
b) Name the side chains. (1)
c) Write the IUPAC name of the compound. (1)
d) Give the structure of the straight chain isomer of this hydrocarbon. (1)
Answer:

b) Methyl
c) 2, 4- dimethyl hexane
d) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃ (Hectane)

Question 18.
a) How is ethanol manufactured? (2)
b) Complete the equation (1)
CH₃ – CH₂ – OH + CH₃COOH →………….. + H₂O
c) To which category of organic compounds does the product of the above reaction belong? (1)
Answer:
a) Ethanol is manufactured by the fermentation of molasses (sugar solution)
b) CH₃ – CH₂ – OH + CH₃-COOH → CH₃ – CO – CH₂ – CH₃ + H₂O
c) Esters

Question 19.

A Galvanic cell is represented above .
a) At which metal electrode does oxidation take place? (1)
b) From which metal to which metal do the electrons flow? (1)
c) Which metal acts as the cathode. (1)
d) Write down the equation showing the redox reaction taking place in the.cell. (1)
(Hint: Reactivity Mg>Fe)
Answer:
a) Magnessium (Mg)
b) Mg to Fe
c) Iron(Fe)
d)

Question 20
Sodium thiosulphate and hydrochloric acid are given.
a) Write an experiment to demonstrate the effect of temperature on reaction rate. (2)
b) What happens to the rate of reaction on increasing the temperature? (1)
c) Write another method to increase the rate of the reaction. (1)
Answer:
a) Take equal volume of dilute sodium thiosulphate solution in two boiling tubes. Heat one of them. Add equal volume of dil.HCl in to both the boiling tubes. Reaction takes place faster on heated boiling tube.
b) When temperature increases rate of reaction also increases.
c) Use concentrated solutions of sodium thiosulphate and HCl.

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may use the time to read and plan your answers.
2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

(Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each question carries 1 score) (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Which one of the following electron configuration is not correct?
a) 1s²2s²3s²
b) 1s²2s²
c) 1s²2s²2p⁶
d) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹
Answer:
a) 1s²2s²3s²

Question 2.
The volume of 5 mol ammonia (NH30 at STP will be …….
a) 5L
b) 22.4L
c) 17L
d) 112L
Answer:
1121

Question 3.
The metal that cannot liberate hydrogen when react with dilute hydrochloric acid is …….
a) Copper
b) Magnesium
c) Zinc
d) Aluminium
Answer:
Copper

Question 4.
To which category the compound CH₃-COO-CH₃ belongs to?
a) Carboxylic acid
b)Ethene
c) alcohol
d) Ester
Answer:
Ester

Question 5.
Which of the following substance is used to identify a sulphate salt?
a) Hydrochloric acid
b) Silver nitrate
c) Barium chloride
d) Liquor Ammonia
Answer:
Barium chloride

Section-B

(Answer any 4 questions from 6 to 10. Each question carries 2 scores)(4 × 2 = 8)

Question 6.
From the statements given below select those applicable to ‘s’ block elements.
a) high electronegativity
b) high ipnisation energy
c) loses electrons in chemical reactions
d) forms acidic oxides
Answer:
Loses electrons in chemical reactions.

Question 7.
Complete the blanks in the table given below.

Answer:
a) 17 × 3 = 51 g
b) 22.4 L
c) 10 × 6.022 × 10²³
d) 22.4 × 5 = 112L

Question 8.
An iron nail is immersed in copper sulphate solution.
a) What will be the observation after some time?
b) Which of the following reactions include in this change?

Answer:
a) Iron nail will be coated with copper
b) Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e^–
Cu²⁺ + 2e^– → Cu

Question 9.
Match those given in the columns A, B and C suitably.

Answer:
Blast Furnace – Production of Iron – Reduction using CO
Hall – Heroult process – Production of Aluminium – Electrolysis
Calcination-Concentration of ore-Calamine

Question 10.
Find out a pair of isomers from those given below. Also write what type of isomers they are?
a) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-OH
b) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃
c) CH₃-O-CH₂-CH₃
d) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-OH
Answer:
CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-OH and CH₃-O-CH₂-CH₃ Funtional group isomers

Section – C

(Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each question carries 3 scores) (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
The subshell electron configuration of two ions are given below. (Symbols are not real)
X²⁺ = 1s²2s²2p⁶
Y^1- = 1 s²2s²2p⁶
a) Write the subshell configuration of the elements X, and Y.
b) Write the chemical formula of the compound formed by the elements X and Y.
Answer:
a) X – 1s²2s² 2p⁶3s²
Y – 1s²2s²2p⁵
b) XY₂

Question 12.
The atomic mass of oxygen is 16. Match those in – the following table suitably.

Answer:
16g Oxygen – 1 GAM – 6.022 × 10²³ atoms
16g Oxygen – 5 mol – 112 L volume at STP
32g Oxygen – 1 GMM – 6.022 × 10²³ molecules

Question 13.
Write the products obtained in the following circumstances.
a) Molten NaCl is electrolysed.
b) Aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolysed
Answer:
a) Molten NaCI
At anode – Chlorine
At cathode – Sodium

b) Aqueous solution of NaCI
At anode-Chlorine
At cathode-Hydrogen.

Question 14.
The different stages involved in the concentration of the ore Of aluminium is given as a flow chart. Complete the missing columns.
Answer:
A – Sodium aluminate – NaAlO₂
B – Aluminium hydroxide-AI(OH)₃
C – Alumina -Al₂O₃

Question 15.
a) Complete the following equations by writing the formula/name of the products.

b) Write balanced equation for the combustion of the fuel propane'(C₃H₈).
Answer:

Section – D

(Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each question carries 4 scores)(4 × 4 = 16)

Question 16.
Analyse the structural formula of a Compound given below.

a) Write the IUPAC name of this compound.
b) Write the structural formula of a possible isomer of this compound.
c) Which type of isomers these compounds are?
Answer:
a) 2,3-dimethyl butane

c) Chain isomers

Question 17.
The alloys Nichrome and Alnico contains same components.
a) Which are the component elements in these alloys?
b) Write any one use of each alloy.
c) Why does these alloys differ in properties eventhough they contain same components?
Answer:
a. Al, Ni, Cr, Fe
b. Alnico – used to omake magnets Nichrome – used to makeJieating coil of heating appliances.
c. The ratio of components is different

Question 18.
The equation of a reversible reaction is given below.
N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g) + Heat
What is the influence of the following factors?
a) Increases pressure
b) Increases the concentration of N₂
c) Ammonia (NH₃) is continuously removed from the sytem.
d) A catalyst is used.
Answer:
a) Forward reaction increases
b) Forward reaction increases
c) Forward reaction increases
d) Both forward and backward reaction increases and equillibrium state is attained at an early stage.

Question 19.
Write the observation and the reason for it in the following experiments.
a) Barium chloride (BaCl₂) is added to the solution of a sulphate salt.
b) Cone. H₂SO₄ is added to cane sugar crystals.
c) Cone. H₂SO₄ is added to water taken in a beaker.
d) Cone. H₂SO₄ is poured in a dry paper.
Answer:
a. A white precipitate is formed. Sulphate salts reacts with Barium chloride to form white Barium sulphate.
b. Sugar changes to sugar charcol. Con. H₂SO₄ absorbs hydrogen and oxygen present in sugar in the ratio as that of water. (2:1)
c. Heat is liberated. Dissolution of H₂SO₄ in water is exothermic!
d. Paper get charred. Dehydration property of H₂SO₄

Question 20.
a) How ethanol is manufactured on a large scale?
b) Write any two uses of ethanol
c) What is power alcohol?
d) What is methylated spirit?
Answer:
a) Ethanol is manufactured by the fermentation of ‘ sugar solution.
b) As a solvent
As a preservative
As beverage
c) Power alcohol is a mixture of absolute alcohol and petrol. It is used as a fuel for motor vehicles.
d) Ethanol added with poisonous substances is called methylated spirit.

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium, Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Instructions

• Read each question carefully before writing the answer.
• Give explanations wherever necessary.
• First 15 minutes is Cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• No need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, π etc., using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 1.
In quadrilateral ABCD, ∠A = 100°, ∠B = 110°, ∠C = 50°
a) Where is the position of B?
b) Where is the position of D?
Answer:

a) Inside the circle
b) ∠D = 360 – 270 = 90°
On the circle.

Question 2.
In an arithmetic sequence, the 6th term is 14 and 14th term is 6.
a) Find a common difference.
b) Find the 20th term.
Answer:
a) d = \(\frac{6-14}{14-6}\) = \(\frac{-8}{8}\) = 1
b) t₂₀ = t₁₄ + 6d = 6 + 6 × -1 = 6 – 6 = 0

Question 3.
First, five odd numbers which are multiples of five are given
a) Find mean.
b) Find the median.
Answer:
5, 15, 25, 35, 45
\(\frac{5+15+25+35+45}{5}=\frac{125}{5}=25\)
b) Median = 25

Question 4.
In a box, there are pieces of paper in which the digits 1.5 are written. If we take a paper without looking.
a) Probability of being odd is.
b) What is the probability of being prime?
Answer:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
a) 3/5
b) 3/5

Answer any 5 questions from 5 to 11. Each question carries 3 marks each. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 5.
Consider the arithmetic sequence \(\frac{17}{7}, \frac{31}{7}, \frac{45}{7}, \ldots \ldots\)
a) Write the algebric form of this sequence.
b) Find wheather.natural numbers are a term of this sequence.
Answer:
17, 31, 45, ……….
a) 14n + 3/7
b) No
Reason = \(\frac{14 n+3}{7}=2 n+3 / 7\)

Question 6.
When a circle of radius 13 unit and mid-point (4, 5) is drawn, the point A and B cuts the x-axis.
a) Find the coordinates of A and B
b) Find the length of AB.
Answer:

a) (x – 4)² + 5² = 13²
(x – 4)² = 169 – 25
(x – 4)² = 144
x – 4 = 12, x – 4 = -12
x = 8, x = -8
A (8, 0), B (-8, 0)
b) AB = 16

Question 7.
a) Draw a circle of radius 3 cm
b) Draw a triangle with angles 55° and 75°, and the abovecirle as the incircle of the triangle.
Answer:

Question 8.
A chord AB is drawn 4 cm away from the centre of a circle. Chord makes an angle of 120° at the centre.
a) Draw a rough figure.
b) Find the radius of the circle.
c) Find the length of AB.
Answer:

Question 9.
In polynomial x² – 3x
a) What should be added with this polynomial for (x – 2) to be a factor.
b) If (x – 1) is a factor of x² – kx + 2. What is the value of k?
Answer:
a) P(2) = 2² – 3 × 2 = 4 – 6 = -2
P(2) = 0
(To make P(2) = 0 add 2)
b) x² – kx + 2 if x – 1 is a factor
P(1) = 0
⇒ 1 – k ×1 + 2 = 0
⇒ 3 – k = 0
⇒ k = 3

Question 10.
In the picture, a rhombus is drawn joining the mid-points of a rectangle and another rectangle is drawn joining the mid-points of the rhombus and it is shaded. If we put a dot on the figure without looking at what is the probability that it is inside the shaded part.

Answer:

PQ = ½ AB
SR = ½ AB
PS = ½ CD
QR = ½ CD
Area of PQSR = PQ × QR
= ½ AB × ½ CD
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) (AB × CD)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) × (area of large rectangle)
Probability = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) or \(\frac{4}{16}=\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 11.
If the first term of the arithmetic sequence is x and the common difference is 3.
a) What is the next term?
b) Write arithmetic sequences in which the product of the first two terms is 28, and the common difference is 3.
Answer:
First term = x
a) Second term = x + 3
b) x (x + 3) = 28
x² + 3x = 28
x² + 3x – 28 = 0
(x + 7) (x – 4) = 0
x = -7, 4
Sequence = -7, -4, -3 … or 4, 7, 10

Answer any 7 questions from 12 to 21. Each question carries 4 score. (7 × 4 = 28)

Question 12.
2x + 1, 4x + 2, 6x + 3
a) If this is an arithmetic sequence what is the common difference?
b) What is the 10th term?
c) If the 10th term is 70. Find the value of x.
Answer:
a) d = 4x + 2 – (2x + 1) = 2x + 1
b) t₁₀ = 2x + 1 + 9 (2x + 1) = 20x + 10
c) 20x + 10 = 70
20x = 60
x = 60/20 = 3

Question 13.
In the figure ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral PQ, R are the tangents of points at A, C.
∠BAQ = 50°, ∠ABD = 60°, ∠BCR = 30°.
Find the following angles.

a) ∠ADB
b) ∠CDB
c) ∠BCD
d) ∠DCS
Answer:
a) ∠ADB = 50°
b) ∠CDB = 30°
c) ∠BCD = 110°
d) ∠DCS = ∠DBC = 40°

Question 14.
The distance from the centre to a point outside the circle of radius is 3 units larger than 2 times its radius. The length of the tangent is 1 unit less than the distance between the centre and external point.
a) If the radius is x. Find the distance between the centre and external point and length at a tangent.
b) Find its length using a second-degree equation.
Answer:

a) 2x + 3
2x + 3 – 1 = 2x + 2
b) (2x + 3)² = (2x + 2)² + x²
⇒ 4x² + 12x + 9 = 4x² + 8x + 4 + x²
⇒ x² + 8x – 12x + 4 – 9 = 0
⇒ x² – 4x -5 = 0
⇒ (x – 5)(x + 1) = 0
⇒ x = 5, -1
∴ r = 5, d = 13, l = 12

Question 15.
The angle between lateral edge and base diagonal of a square pyramid is 30°. If the length of lateral edge is 20 cm.
a) Find the height of the square pyramid.
b) Find the length of diagonal.
c) Find the length of base edge.
d) Find slant height.
Answer:

Question 16.
If x² – 1 is a factor of P(x) = ax³ + bx² + cx + d
a) Write two first degree factors of P(x)
b) Prove a + c = b + d
Answer:
a) (x + 1), (x – 1)
b) P(1) = 0, P(-1) = 0
If P(-1) = 0 P(-1) = 0
⇒ – a × (-1)³ + b × (-1)² + c × -1 + d = 0
⇒ -a + b – c + d = 0
⇒ a + c = b + d

Question 17.

The centre of a regular hexagon is the origin with sides 4 cm.
Write the co-ordinates of all its vertices.
Answer:

x = 2, y = 2√3
E = (-2, 2√3)
D = (2, 2√3)
C = (4, 0)
B = (2, -2√3)
A = (-2, -2√3)
F = (-4, 0)

Question 18.
The radius of a vessel of cone shape is 6 cm and height 18 cm. It is filled with water. The radius of another cone-shaped vessel is 27 cm and height 24 cm.
a) What is the volume of the first cone?
b) Find the volume of the larger cone.
c) If we pour the water from the small cone to the larger one by holding it upside down. What will be the height of the water level?
Answer:

Question 19.
The number of students in the 10th standard is arranged in a table according to their height.

a) Find the height of the student in 16th place, if all are arranged according to their heights in order.
b) Which student’s height comes as a median.
c) Find the median height.
Answer:
Less than 135 – 2
Less than 140 – 7
Less than 145 – 15
Less than 150 – 25
Less than 155 – 32
Less than 160 – 38
Less than 165 – 41
N = 41
N/2 = 20.5

b) 21st
c) 145.25 + 5 × 0.5 = 145.25 + 2.5 = 147.75

Question 20.
a) Draw a rectangle with sides 3 cm, 5 cm.
b) Draw a square with one sides √15 cm and the same area that of the rectangle.
Answer:

Question 21.
The line joining A(1, 3), B(5, 2) and C(1, 1), D (5, 4) intersects at P.
a) Write the equation of the line AB.
b) Write the equation of the line CD
c) Find the coordinates of P.
Answer:

Write any 5 questions from 22 to 28. Each question carries 5 marks. (5 × 5 = 25)

Question 22.
In the figure a model of aframe which hangs a weight is given BC = 5 unit, BE = 2 unit, AE = 6 unit. ∠BDC = 35°

a) Find the length of AB.
b) Find the length of CD
c) Find the length of ED
Answer:

Question 23.
Consider the following arithmetic sequences
8, 14, 20, 26, …………
34, 38, 42, 46, ………….
a) Write the common difference of the above two sequences.
b) Write the algebraic form of two sequences.
c) Check whether is there any common term at the same position for these two series.
Answer:
a) 6, 4
b) 6n + 2
2n + 30
c) 6n + 2 = 4n + 30
2n = 28
n = 14
(14th term will be equal)
6 × 14 + 2 = 84 + 2 = 86
Equal term = 86

Question 24.
There are two taps for a tank. One is to fill and the other is to empty. The second tap takes 5 minutes more to empty the full tanks than the first tap to fill the tank. If two were open it took 1 hr to fill the tank.
a) If the first tap takes x minutes to fill the tank. What is the time taken to empty the tank by the second tap?
b) From a quadratic equation by taking the volume fill in the tank in a minute,
c) Find the time taken by the two taps.
Answer:
a) x + 5

Question 25.
A solid hemisphere is attached at one end of a solid core. Height of the cone is equal to the diameter of the hemisphere. This solid figure is melted and recast into a sphere of radius equal to \(\frac{1}{3}^{\mathrm{rd}}\) of the diameter of the hemisphere.

a) If the radius of the hemisphere is ‘r’. What is the height of the cone?
b) Find the volume of the solid shape.
c) What is the radius of the sphere?
d) Find the volume of the sphere.
e) How many such spheres can be made from the solid shape?
Answer:
a) 2r

Question 26.
Two lines 2x – 3y + 7 = 0, 3x + 2y – 9 = 0 intersects at P.
a) Find the co-ordinates of P.
b) Find the equation of the line which passes through P and has a slope ½.
c) Prove that the two lines 2x – 3y + 7 = 0 and 3x + 2y – 9 = 0 are perpendicular.
Answer:

Question 27.
CQ and CS are tangent from C to the outer circle of ∆ABC. I is the centre of the incircle and J is the centre of the outer circle.

a) Prove that the perimeter of ∆ABC is equal to CQ + CS.
b) If CP = 5 cm, CQ = 8 cm, IP = 2 cm. Find the radius of the outer circle.
Answer:
Perimeter of ∆ABC = CB + BR + AR + AC
= (CB + BQ) + (AS + AC)
= CQ + CS

Question 28.
a) Draw a square of side 5 cm.
b) Draw the incircle and circumcircle of the square.
c) Find the ratio of the incircle and circumcircle of the square.
Answer:

Read the mathematical concept carefully and answer the following question. (6 × 1 = 6)

Question 29.
We can draw an incircle and circumcircle to a triangle. What about in the case of quadrilaterals….?. Can we draw both to a quadrilateral…?
No. we cannot. If we can draw a circumcircle to a quadrilateral. It is known as a cyclic quadrilateral. What is its property…?. The sum of opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral will be 180°. What about if we can draw an incircle to a quadrilateral…?. The sum of opposite sides of that quadrilateral will be equal. If these two properties come together for a quadrilateral then we can draw both circumcircle and incircle. These type of quadrilaterals are known as “Bicentric quadrilaterals”. The area of a “Bicentric quadrilaterals” is given by the formula √abcd where a, b, c, d are the sides of the quadrilateral.
a) Can we draw both circumcircle and incircle to a rectangle? (1)
b) Write two examples of “Bicentric quadrilateral. (1)
c) If one angle of a “Bicentric quadrilateral” is 110°, find its opposite angle. (1)
d) If the sum of two opposite sides of a “Bicentric quadrilateral” is 15 cm. Find its perimeter. (1)
e) If the four sides of a “Bicentric quadrilateral” is 10 cm, 7 cm, 12 cm, 15 cm. Find its area. (2)
Answer:
a) No
b) Square, Rhombus
c) 70° (180 – 110)
d) 2 × 15 = 30 cm

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may – use the time to read and plan your answers.
2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

Answer any four questions, Each question carries 1 score. [4 × 1 = 4]

Question 1.
Identify the first word pair relation and complete the second pair.
m : \(\frac{\mathbf{v}}{\mathbf{u}}\)
\(\frac{1}{f}\) : ______.
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{u}+\frac{1}{v}\)

Question 2.
Find the odd one

Answer:
I₂ > I_p

Question 3.
What is the unit of calorific value?
Answer:
Kilojoule/Kilogram.

Question 4.
What is meant by optic centre?
Answer:
The mid point of lens.

Question 5.
Which is the colour seen on the outer edge of the rainbow?
Answer:
Red.

Section – B

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 2 score. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 6.
Whenever there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with a coil, an emf is induced in the coil.
a) What is the phenomenon called?
b) Name a device that works on this principle.
Answer:
a) Electromagnetic induction
b) Generator/Moving coil microphone

Question 7.
Which figures are correct, so that they can recombine the component colours of light.

Answer:
(b)

(d)

Question 8.
Choose the statements related with nuclear fusion.
1. Nuclei of greater mass splits into lighter nuclei
2. Lighter nuclei combine to form heavier ones
3. Process behind energy production in stars
4. Principle of atom bomb.
Answer:
2, 3

Question 9.
When a fuse wire is included in a household wiring, what are the precautions to be taken?
Answer:

• The ends-of the fuse wire must be connected firmly at appropriate points.
• The fuse wire should not project out of the carrier base.

Question 10.
a) What is the difference in structure of an AC generator and a DC generator?
b) How is AC generated in the armature of a DC generator is converted into DC in the outer circuit?
Answer:
a) Slip rings are used in AC generator and split ring commutator is used in DC generator
b) Split ring commutator converts AC into DC.

Section – C

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 3 score. [4 × 3 = 12]

Question 11.
Observe the figure.

a) If 6V AC is supplied instead of 6 VDC, the intensity of light decreases. Which .is the phenomenon behind this? Explain.
b) Suggest a method to decrease the intensity of light again.
Answer:
a) Self induction
The change in magnetic flux due to the flow of an AC in a solenoid will generate a back emf in the same solenoid in a direction opposite to that applied to it. This phenomenon is called self induction.
b) Insert a soft iron core into the solenoid in the AC circuit.

Question 12.
Match the following

Answer:
Heater → Heating coil → Heating effect
Bulb → filaments → lighting effect
Microphone → Voice coil → electro magnetic induction

Question 13.
a) What is the full form of LPG?
b) What is the main constituent of LPG?
c) What is the purpose of adding ethyl mercaptan to LPG?
Answer:
a) Liquified petroleum gas
b) Butane
c) As an indicator to detect gas leakage

Question 14.
A convex lens of focal length 15 cm, it is used to obtain an image on the screen the size of the images twice the size of the object.

a) Find out the distance between lens to object?
b) Find out the distance between lens to image?
c) Find out the focal length of the lens using ray diagram? Verity focal length of the lens using lens formula.
Answer:
f = +15 cm (check answer)
m = -2 (convex lens create real image so its magnification i negative)
m = \(\frac{u}{v}\)
-2 = \(\frac{v}{u}\)
v = – 2u

b) v = -2u
= -2 × – 22.5
= 45 cm

Question 15.
It is due to the power of accommodation of our eyes, we can see objects clearly.
a) What is meant by power of accommodation?
b) How is power of accommodation related to ciliary muscles?
Answer:
a) The ability of the eye to form an image on the retina by adjusting the focal length of the lens in the eye by varying the curvature of the lens.
b) When we look at nearer objects, the ciliary muscles are contracted and focal length decreases. While looking at far objects the ciliary muscles are released and the curvature of the lens decreases, The focal length of the lens increases.

Section – D

Answer any 4 questions. Each question carries 4 score. [4 × 4 =16]

Question 16.
A ray of light travels from air to glass slab is depicted below.
Observe the figure and answer the questions

a) Find out the incident ray?
b) Find out the refracted ray?
c) Which is the angle of incidence?
d) Which is the angle of refraction?
e) What happens when a ray of light obliquely travel from air to glass slab?
f) Name this phenomenon of light?
Answer:
a) PQ
b) QR
c) 30°
d) 19°
e) It bend towards the normal (refraction takes place)
f) Refraction

Question 17.
a) What is meant by energy crisis?
b) Write down two reasons for energy crisis
c) Give 4 methods to reduce energy crisis.
Answer:
a) Energy crisis is the consequence of increasing demand but decreasing availability
b) Increased population, Industrial revolution
c)

• Maximum utilisation of solar energy
• Judicious utilisation of energy
• Timely maintenance of machines
• Ensure maximum efficiency of machines.

Question 18.
An object ‘OB’ is placed in front of the lens is given below.

a) Name the lens?
b) Complete the figure, then find out the position of the image.
c) Identify the two nature of the image.
Answer:
(a) Convex lens
(b)

Images formed in between F and 2F
(c) Real and inverted images formed.

Question 19.
A person use a spectacle of power of lens -1.25 D
a) What type of lens is this?
b) What is mean by power of a lens?
c) Find the focal length of the lens?
Answer:
a) Power of the lens is negative. So it is a concave lens.
b) Power of a lens is the reciprocal of its focal length
c)

Question 20.

a) Which device is shown in the figure? What is the principle of this device?
b) When 100 V is applied in A, the current was 2A. Calculate the voltage and power received in B.
c) If 100 V is applied in B, find out the voltage and current in A.
Answer:
a) Transformer, mutual induction.

(b)

= 50 V
P = VI
= 100 x 2
= 200 W

c) V_s = 200 V
I = 1 A

Students can Download Kerala SSLC English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Kerala SSLC English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC English Model Question Paper 3

Instructions:

• The first fifteen minutes is cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan the answers.
• Read the questions carefully before answering.
• Certain Sections of the questions have choices. Follow the instructions.

Time: 2½  Hours
Maximum: 80 Scores

Questions 1 – 6: Read the excerpt from ‘Vanka’ and answer the questions that follow. Each question carries one score. (1 x 6 = 6)

Grandfather would drag the tree to the big house, and they would start decorating it. Miss. Olga Ignatyevna, Vanka’s favorite, was the busiest of all. While Pelageya, Vanka’s mother, was alive and in service at the big house, Olga Ignatyevna used to give Vanka sweets, and amuse herself by teaching him to read, write and count to a hundred, and even to dance the quadrille. But when Pelageya died, the orphaned Vanka was sent down to the back kitchen to his grandfather, and from there to Moscow, to Alyakhin the shoemaker.

Question 1.
Who is Vanka’s favorite?
Answer:
Olga Ignatyevna

Question 2.
What idea do you get about Vanka’s mother, from the passage?
Answer:
Vanka’s mother was a loving mother who took him with her when she went to work in the house of Olga Ignatyevna.

Question 3.
What did Vanka learn from Olga Ignatyevna?
Answer:
He learned to read, write, count to a hundred and to dance the quadrille.

Question 4
How did Vanka reach Moscow?
Answer:
His grandfather took him to Moscow.

Question 5.
Find out the word from the passage that means ‘to make someone laugh or happy’.
Answer:
Amuse

Question 6.
Read the following sentence:
‘Grandfather would drag the tree to the big house, and they would start decorating it’. Here two sentences are combined using the linking word ‘and’. Frame a sentence of your choice in the similar pattern.
Answer:
My father would bring fish from the market and my mother and sister would clean and cut it to make curry.

Score Questions 7 – 10: Read the lines from ‘Blowin in the Wind’ and answer the questions that follow. Each question carries one score. (1 x 4 = 4)

How many roads must a man walk down Before you call him a man?
How many seas must a y^hite dove sail Before she sleeps in the sand?
Yes, and how many times must the cannonballs fly Before they’re forever banned?
The answer, my friend, is blowin’ in the wind The answer is blowin’ in the wind.

Question 7.
‘White dove’symbolises ___________
Answer:
Peace

Question 8.
What do you mean by The answer is blowin’ in the wind’?
Answer:
‘Blowin’ in the wind’ means the answer is not easy to get, although it is around. The answers to the questions the poet asks are difficult to get.

Question 9.
What according to the poet will be banned forever? ’
Answer:
The cannonballs.

Question 10.
Pick out an example for alliteration from the above lines.
Answer:
Sleeps in the sand

Question 11.
Read the following lines from the poem ‘Poetry’ and attempt a brief appreciation focussing on the theme and poetic devices used. (5)
I did not know what to say, my mouth
had no way
with names,
my eyes were blind,
and something started in my soul,
fever or forgotten wings,
and I made my own way,
deciphering
that fire,
and I wrote the first faint line,
faint, without substance, pure
nonsense,
pure Wisdom
of someone who knows nothing,
and suddenly I saw
the heavens
unfastened and open,
planets,
palpitating plantations,
shadow perforated,
riddled
with arrows, fire and flowers,
the winding night, the universe.
Answer:
The poem “Poetry” is by the Chilean poet Neftali Ricardo Reyes Basoalto. He was a diplomat and a politician. He wrote using his pen-name Pablo Neruda. In the poem ‘Poetry’ the poet Pablo Neruda talks about poetry that arrived in search of him. He did not know where it came from, or how or when.

He did not hear any voices speaking to him. He says he was called away by an invisible force, and the poetry touched him. The theme of the poem is the blissful experience of the poet touched by poetic creativity. He had in his mind ideas which he could not express effectively before he was blessed by that touch.

Something started in his soul, like a fever, and he made his own way, learning about the fire of poetry. He wrote his first weak line, and suddenly, the heavens opened up and he could see everything from the planets to the shadows, fire, arrows and flowers, making up the universe.

With the arrival of poetic inspiration, his imagination became limitless. Although he was a small being, by the touch of poetry, he was suddenly lifted to a world of joy. The poem is in free verse. The tone is joyful. There is personification when he says poetry came in search of him and touched him’. The poet has not used end-rhyme, but there are instances of assonance.

Alliteration can be seen in lines, “and something started in my soul”, “fever or forgotten wings” and in “planets, palpitating plantations”. References to flowers, violent fires, the branches of night, the heavens, wings, planets, plantations, part of abyss etc. create beautiful and near-perfect visual images of the universe in the imagination of the readers.

Questions 12 – 16: Read the following story and answer the questions given below. Each question carries one score. (1 x 5 = 5)

Walt Disney was born in Chicago in 1901. He had three brothers and a younger sister. His family moved from Chicago to Missouri and then finally settled in Kansas city when Walt was nine. Since the family was financially backward, Walt and his brothers worked as paperboys and didn’t have much time for school. When Walt was 16 his life suddenly changed as America entered the Great War. A patriotic young man, Walt tried to join the army but was rejected because of his age.

Then he joined the Red Cross unit. When Walt returned to his family in Kansas, his brother Roy helped him get a job at the Pesmen- Rubin Art Studio. Here, he created advertisements for newspapers and magazines. At just 20-years-old, Walt and his friends were making funny short films based on fairy tales through a process of trial and error. In July 1923, Walt sold his camera and, with the little money he had, moved to Hollywood.

He had decided he wanted to be in the motion picture business instead and envisioned himself as a director. He moved in with his uncle Robert Disney and set out to look for a job. Every studio in town turned him down. As a last resort Walt returned reluctantly to animation,

Question 12. Where was Walt Disney born?
Question 13. Why didn’t Walt Disney have much time for school?
Question 14. What made a sudden change in Walt’s life?
Question 15. What was Walt’s work in the Pesmen-Rubin Axt Studio?
Question 16. ‘Walt returned reluctantly to animation.’ Why?
Answer:
Not in the Current Syllabus.

Score Questions 17 – 21: The details of certain books are given below. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. Each question carries one score. (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 17. When was Things Fall Apart’ published?
Question 18. Who wrote the book ‘Syntactic Structures’?
Question 19. The publisher of the novel The Alchemist’ is
Question 20. Identify the book written by Pablo Neruda.
Question 21. Which is the only essay collection in the list given above?
Answer:
Not in the Current Syllabus.

Questions 22 – 23: Answer any one of the following in about 120 words. (7 x 1 = 7)

Question 22.
Martha was shocked when she knew about the policy change regarding the scholarship jacket. Suppose you meet her and she narrates the incidents to you. Prepare the likely narrative.
(Hints: Straight ‘A grade’ – hopes to get the scholarship jacket – overheats the conversation – shocked – Principal calls – change in the policy – disappointed)
Answer:
In the School where Martha studied there was a tradition to award the Scholarship Jacket to the best standard 8 student for outstanding performance. It was given during the passing out day every year. Martha worked hard for it and she thought she would get the Jacket, But things were not as she thought.

She overheard a conversation between Mr. Schmidt and Mr. Boone, both her teachers. What she understood from their conversation was that the Management was planning to give Joanne, Martha’s classmate, the Jacket. Joanne was the daughter of a Member of the School Board.

With the support of some staff members, the Board Member wanted to manipulate things so that his daughter would get the scholarship jacket. Joanne was next to Martha in performance. A new proposal was made to charge $15 from the student eligible for the Award.

Martha knew that her parents could not afford such a sum and naturally Joanne would get the Jacket, The Principal had no choice but to agree with the decision of the Board. He asked Martha to bring $15. This made Martha very disappointed as she knew she would not be able to get that money.

Question 23.
“Taking only the stereotypical stories into consideration often mislead us”. Do you agree with the statement? Prepare a write-up based on Adichie’s speech The Danger of a Single Story’. (Hints: middle-class family – Fide – mother’s narrative – Fide’s family – feels sympathy – visit – surprised to see the dyed raffia – goes to America – roommate’s attitude)
Answer:
I quite agree with the statement that “Taking only the stereotypical stories into consideration often mislead us”. The experiences of Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie prove it. She is a Nigerian. She went to study in the USA when she was 19 years old. Her American roommate was shocked by her. She asked Adichie where she had learned to speak English so well. The roommate was confused when Adichie told her that English was the official language of Nigeria.

The roommate wanted Adichie to play some tribal music for her and was disappointed to see that Adichie’s tape had Mariah Carey, who is an American singer and songwriter. The roommate had felt sorry for Adichie even before she saw her. She had pity on Adichie as she was an African. The roommate had a single story of Africa and she could not imagine that anybody in Africa could be like her in any way.

People call Africa “The Dark Continent” and they think the Africans are uncivilized like the primitive savages. A professor once told Adichie that her novel was not authentically African. He told her that because her characters were like him – educated and middle class. Adichie’s characters drove cars. They were not starving. Therefore the professor thought they were not authentically African!

Questions 24 – 26: Answer any TWO of the following. Each question carries five scores. (5 x 2 = 10)

Question 24.
Mrs. John was very excited on the day her husband Mr. John met the doctor on board the ship. She writes her feeling in her diary. What would the diary entry be? Write it.
Answer:
My husband Mr. John and I were traveling in a ship that was taking us back home after a trip to America. Mr. John was trying to meet Dr. Cronin who was also a passenger in that ship. Cronin wanted to know why John was so eager to meet him. John then introduced himself to Dr. Cronin and told his story. John lost his parents early in life and so his uncle got him an employment in a London Lawyer’s office.

As he was without friends and relatives, he soon fell into bad company and started living beyond his means. He bet on horses and lost all his savings. He borrowed money which also he lost. He decided to steal some money from his office and make a final gamble. That also he lost. Now he would be caught and jailed and so he decided to commit suicide. He went to his room and turned the gas on.

John was lucky. He did not die. The landlady and the sergeant called a doctor to help him. The doctor soon revived John. The sergeant asked him why he decided to kill himself. He said he stole 7 pounds and 10 shillings from the office safe. If that was not returned, he would be caught and jailed. In his helpless condition, the three present there – the doctor, the landlady and the sergeant – decided to help him. The doctor gave him the money to be put back in the safe.

The sergeant agreed not to report the case. The landlady agreed to give John freeboard for a month. These virtuous acts on the part of his benefactors transformed John. He studies hard and becomes a lawyer and then the director of a charitable organization working for the rehabilitation of maladjusted and delinquent youth. We see John repaying generosity with generosity. Cronin, the doctor, had made the best investment he had ever made. It is such people that make this world a beautiful place to live in.

Question 25.
Satyajit Ray says that he felt a lot of difficulty while shooting a scene with the tiger. Suppose you meet him after the shooting of the scene. Write the likely conversation between Ray and you.
Answer:
I: Good Morning, Mr. Ray!
Ray: Good Morning!
I: Sir, I want to ask you some questions about the shooting with the tiger.
Ray: Okay! Go ahead!
I: For which film are you shooting the scene with the tiger?
Ray: For my next film titled “Goopy Gyne Baghe Byne”.
I: Sir, from where did you get the tiger?
Ray: I got it from Bharat Circus.
I: Why did you choose Notun Gram to shoot this scene?
Ray: I thought it was an ideal place for the shooting because of the bamboo grove there.
I: Wasn’t it dangerous to leave the tiger free while shooting?
Ray: Yes, it was.
I: Then how did you manage it?
Ray: The ringmaster Mr. Thorat had a solution to that problem. He tied a thin but strong wire round the tiger’s neck. A collar made of tiger skin was made and the wire was tied around the neck of the tiger. The end of the wire was tied to a 5 – foot iron rod fixed to ground, some 30 feet away from where the tiger was to walk. The rod and the wire were not seen in the film.
I: It was quite a risky job, wasn’t it?
Ray: Shooting an adventurous film of this kind is always risky.
I: Thank you, Sir! Thank you very much. Bye for now!
Ray: It’s alright! Bye!

Question 26.
The English Club of your school has decided to conduct a seminar on the topic ‘Live and Let Live’ in light of the story ’Adolf’. Draft a notice inviting all the teachers and students to attend the seminar.
Answer:
Not in the syllabus.

Questions 27 – 31: Answer any three of the following. Each question carries six scores. (6 x 3 = 18)

Question 27.
Vanka suffers a lot at the workplace. He is optimistic and hopes that one day his grandfather will come and save him. Prepare a character sketch of Vanka.
Answer:
Vanka is an unhappy nine-year-old orphan who is apprenticed to a cruel shoemaker, Alyakhin in Moscow. He is subjected to cruelty in Alyakhin’s house, not only by the master, but also by the mistress and fellow apprentices. He is not given enough food. Moreover, he is made to rock the baby of Alyakhin at night and so, he can’t sleep properly. The senior apprentices send him to buy Vodka and to steal cucumbers from the master. They also make fun of him. Unable to bear it further, Vanka wants to run away to his grandfather, but he has no shoes and he is afraid of the frost.

Tired of this miserable life, the innocent child longs for a family. Images of a loving family flash through his mind. Born out of these memories is the hope of living a better life in the company of his grandfather and his friends in the village. Therefore, Vanka decides to write a letter to his grandfather and makes a desperate plea. ‘Come to me dear Granddad…. I beg you for Christ’s sake, take me away from here,’ he pleads.

The letter is simply addressed To Konstantin make rich.’ We are left to wonder whether this cry for freedom will reach its objective as the letter doesn’t have a correct postal address and the cover is not stamped. Lulled by rosy hopes, reminiscent memories of better days, vivid images of his grandfather, the dogs, and life in the village, Vanka goes to sleep with an intense feeling of hope.

Question 28.
The narrator was disappointed when Adolf was sent back to the forest. He writes a letter to his friend describing all the incidents that happened in his house. Write the likely letter.
Answer:
Not in the syllabus.

Question 29.
Write a short profile of Satyajit Ray using the details given below:
Born: 2 May,1921
Place of Birth: Bihar, India
Nationality: Indian
Famous as: Filmmaker, screenwriter and graphic artist
Notable works: Pather Panchali, Apur Sansar, Charulata, Mahanagar
Awards and honors: Dadasahib Phalke Award, Bharat Ratna, Academy Award
Died: 23 April, 1992
Answer:
Satyajit Ray, the famous Indian Film Maker, was born on 2 May 1921, in Bihar, India. His films were mainly in Bengali. He was a genius with many talents. He was a film-maker, screenwriter and also a graphic artist. His notable films were “Pather Panchali”, “Apur Sansar”, “Charulata” and “Mahanagar”. He received many Awards and Honours for his notable contribution to the Indian film industry. He brought Indian film into international fame. He was given the Dadasahib Phalke Award, Bharat Ratna and the Academy Award. He died on 23 April 1992.

Question 30.
A news reporter comes to know about the sufferings of Vanka at Alyakhin’s house. He drafts a report to be published in the daily the next day. Prepare the likely news report.
Answer:
Vanka is an unhappy nine-year-old orphan who is apprenticed to a cruel shoemaker, Alyakhin in Moscow. He is subjected to cruelty in Alyakhin’s houe, not only by the master, but also by the mistress and fellow apprentices. He is not given enough food. Moreover, he is made to rock the baby of Alyakhin at night and so, he can’t sleep properly. The senior apprentices send him to buy Vodka and to steal cucumbers from the master. They also make fun of him. Unable to bear it further, Vanka wants to run away to his grandfather, but he has no shoes and he is afraid of the frost.

Tired of this miserable life, the innocent child longs for a family. Images of a loving family flash through his mind. Born out of these memories is the hope of living a better life in the company of his grandfather and his friends in the village. Therefore, Vanka decides to write a letter to his grandfather and makes a desperate plea. ‘Come to me dear Granddad. I beg you for Christ’s sake, take me away from here,’ he pleads.

The letter is simply addressed To Konstantin make rich.’ We are left to wonder whether this cry for freedom will reach its objective as the letter doesn’t have a correct postal address and the cover is not stamped. Lulled by rosy hopes, reminiscent memories of better days, vivid images of his grandfather, the dogs, and life in the village, Vanka goes to sleep with an intense feeling of hope.

Question 31.
‘One dusty old book of nursery rhymes saved the world from Martian invasion’. How? Describe the incidents in a paragraph,
Answer:
Not in the syllabus.

Question 32.
Complete the following conversation between Mr. John and Dr. A.J. Cronin. (5)
John: You still don’t remember me ______ (a) ______?
Cronin: Sorry, I don’t remember.
John: You saved a man’s life 25 years ago.
Cronin: Oh! I do remember it now ______ (b) ______?
John: Yes sir, I’m John and this is my wife.
Cronin: ______ (c) ______ ?
John: I’m a social worker. I help the derelict adolescents to come back to life.
Cronin: Good. Helping others makes one’s life meaningful.
John: If you hadn’t saved me,______ (d) ______ ?
Cronin: That’s my duty.
John: ______ (e) ______ ?
Cronin: Yes, I still live in London.
Answer:
a) do you?
b) Aren’t you John?
c) What are you doing now?
d) I would not have been here.
e) Do you still live in London?

Question 33.
Report the following dialogue. (2)
Mother: Where did you get it from?
Father: I got it on my way back home.
You may begin like this:
Mother asked Father ______ (a) ______
Father replied ______ (b) ______
Answer:
Mother asked father from where he had got it. Father replied saying that home. he had got it on his way back

Question 34.
Complete the passage choosing the right words from the ones given in brackets. (5)
Satyajit Ray wanted to shoot a scene with a tiger for his film. He decided ______ (a) ______ approach Bharat Circus Company to get a tiger. He took ______ (b) ______ appointment to meet ______ (c) ______ manager. The manager greeted Ray warmly and sent him ______
(d) ______ Mr. Thorat, the ringmaster. He was ______
(e) ______ South Indian.
(the, for, an, a, to)
Answer:
a) to
b) an
c) the
d) to
e) a

Question 35.
There are a few errors in the following passage. They are underlined. Edit them. (4)
What constant (a) recurs to me is The rain patters, the leaf quivers’. Whenever the joy that of day (b) come back to me, even now, I realises (c) why rhyme are (d) so needful in poetry.
Answer:
a) constantly
b) of that day
c) realise
d) is

Question 36.
Complete the passage choosing appropriate phrasal verbs from the ones given below: (4)
The principal ______ (a) ______ justifying the change impolicy in awarding the scholarship jacket. But Martha was able to ______ (b) ______ what their plan was. But she was not ready to ______ (c) ______ the partiality shown by the board. She knew that their demand for money would be ______ (d) ______ by her grandfather. (make out, turn down, put up with, went on)
Answer:
a) went on
b) make out
c) put up with
d) turned down

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may use the time to read and plan your answers.
2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section  – A

(Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each question carries 1 score) (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not possible?
a) 2s ²
b) 3p³
c) 2d⁵
d) 4F²
Answer:
NH₄OH

Question 2.
Which metal cannot displace copper from CuSO₄. solution.
a) Magnessium
b) Silver
c) Zinc
d) Iron
Answer:
Silver

Question 3.
The substance obtained at the cathode when NaCl solution is electrolysed is …………..
a) Sodium
b) Chlorine
c) Hydrogen
d) Sodium hydroxide
Answer:
Hydrogen

Question 4.
The chemical formula of liquor ammonia is ………..
a) NH₄OH
b) NH₄Cl
c) (NH₂)SO₄
d) NH₃
Answer:
NH₄OH

Question 5.
The symbol of carboxylase functional group is ……………
a) -OH
b) – COOH
c) -CH₃
d) – O –
Answer:
-COOH

Section – B

(Answer any 4 questions from 6 to 10. Each question carries 2 scores)(4 × 2 = 8)

Question 6.
The subshell electron Configuration of certain elements are given below.
Find out the wrong ones and correct them (symbols are not real)
a) ₁₂P = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²
b) ₆Q = 1s²2s²3s²
c) ₁₇₈R = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶
d) ₂₀S = 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d²
Answer:
Q – 1s²2s²2p²
S – 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶3d⁶4s²

Question 7.
Calculate the number of molecules in 90g of water.
(Hint -Atomic mass H = 1 O = 16)
Answer:
1 GMM of water = 18 g.
90 g water = \(\frac{90}{18}\) = 5 mol
No. of molecules in 5 mol = 5 x 6.022 x 10²³

Question 8.
Observe the solutions and the metals placed in three test tubes.

a) In which test tube a chemical reaction is likely to take place? Why. (1)
b) Write the name of the reaction. (1)
c) Write the equation of the redox reaction taking place here. (1)
Answer:
a) In test tube 2. More reactive iron displaces copper from CuSO₄ solution.
b) Displacement reactions
c) Fe + Cu²⁺ → Fe²⁺ + Cu

Question 9.
Metallurgy involves all the process leading to the separation of a pure metal from its ore.
a) Distinguish a mineral from an ore. (1)
b) What type of ores are usually concentrated by froth floatation process. Given an example. (2)
Answer:
a) Elements or their compounds, occurring naturally and obtained by mining are called minerals, Ore is the mineral from which a metal is extracted economically, easily and quickly.
b) Sulphide ores eg. Copper pyrites.

Question 10.
Analyse the chemical equations given below and answer the questions that follow.

a) Identify A, B and C. (2)
b) Write what type of chemical reactions (i) and (ii) are (1)
Answer:
a) A = CH₃-CH = CH₂ or C₃H₆
B = CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₃ or C₃H₈
C = CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – Cl

b) i) Addition reaction
ii) Substitution reaction

Section – C

(Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each question carries 3 scores) (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
The outermost electronic configuration of an element , X is 3s² 3p¹. Answer the questions given below related
to this element. (Symbol of the element is not actual).
a) What is the atomic number of this element? (1)
b) Write the group number and period number of X? (1)
c) Write the formula of the oxide of this element?(1)
Answer:
a) 13
b) Group-13, Period-3
c) X₂O₃

Question 12.
The atomic masses of certain elements are S = 32, O = 16, H = 1,C = 12
a) Find out 1 GMM of H₂SO₄ (1)
b) Find out the number of molecules in 220 gCO₂(2)
c) What will be the volume of 1 mole SO₂ at STP?(1)
Answer:
a) 98g
b) 220g CO₂ = \(\frac{220}{44}\) = 5 mol
No. of molecules in 5 mol = 5 x 6.022 x 10²³
c) 22.4 L

Question 13.
Analyse the picture of an electro chemical cell given below, and answer the questions that follow.

a) Which are the anode and cathode in this cell?(1)
b) Write the equation of chemical reaction taking
place at both of the electrodes. (2)
c) Write the equation of the redox reaction.
Answer:
a) Anode – Mg
Cathode – Cu
b) At anode Mg →Mg²⁺ + 2e^–
At cathode Ca²⁺ + 2e^– → Cu
c) Mg + Cu²⁺ → Mg²⁺ + Cu

Question 14.
Certain metals their characteristics and the method of refining are tabled below. Match them suitably.(3)

Answer:
Tin-Low melting point – Liquation
Mercury – Low boiling point – Distillation
Copper – Low electropositivity – Electrolysis

Question 15.
The structural formula of an organic compound is given below.
CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₂-OH
a) Write the IUPAC name of the compound. (1)
b) Write the structure of a position isomer of this compound. (1)
c) Write the structure of a functional group isomer of this compound. (1)
Answer:
a) Butan -1 – ol

(c) CH₃ – CH₂ – O – CH₂ – CH₃ (OR)
CH₃ – O – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃

Section – D

(Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each question carries 4 scores)(4 × 4 = 16)

Question 16.
The chemical equation showing the preparation of 8 -10% of ethnol is given below

a) Write the products A and B. (1)
b) How the product obtained is converted in to rectified spirit? (1)
c) What is denatured spirit? (1)
Answer:
a) A = C₆H₁₂O₆
A = CO₂
b) By fractional distillation
c) Ethanol added with poisonous substances to avoid its misuse as a beverage.

Question 17.
Analyse the compounds given below

a) Which among these compounds is an ester?(1)
b) Choose the compounds required to form this ester and write the chemical equation. (1)
c) Write any two uses of esters. (1)
Answer:
a) CH₃-COO-CH₃
b) CH₃-COOH-CH₃-OH →CH₃-COO-CH₃
c) Used as a flavouring agent for food. Used for making perfumes.

Question 18.
Two reversible reactions are given below:
i) H₂(g) + l₂(g)⇌ 2Hl(g)
ii) N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) + Heat
a) In which reaction change of pressure has no effect.
b) Suggest two methods to increase the amount of product in the second reaction.
c) Even though the forward reaction is exothermic the temperature is maintained at 450°C. Why?
Answer:
a) Pressure has no effect in reaction -1. Because there is no change in number of molecules due to forward and backward reactions.
b) Increase pressure Increase the concentration of the reactants Remove the products continuously from the system.
c) 450°C is the optimum temperature of this reaction. At this temperature maximum product is obtained. At low temperature NH₃ decomposes back in the reactants.

Question 19.
At one end of a glass tube cotton soaked in cone.
HCl and at the other end of it cotton soaked in cone.
NH₄OH solution is inserted.

a) What will be the observation after sometime?
b) What will happen if the glass tube is heated?
c) Write equations of the chemical reactions in a and b
Answer:
a) A white precipitate is formed inside the glass tube. NH₃ gas and HCI gas combines to form NH₄Cl.
b) The precipitate disappears on heating. On heating NH₄Cl decomposes into NH₃ and HCl

c) NH₃ + HCI → NH₄Cl
NH₄Cl → NH₃ + HCl

Question 20.
Match those given in columns A, B and C suitably.

Answer:

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium, Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Instructions

• Read each question carefully before writing the answer.
• Give explanations wherever necessary.
• First 15 minutes is Cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• No need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, π etc., using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 1.
The algebraic form of an arithmetic sequence is 6n + 8.
a) Find its first term.
b) What is the difference between its 100^m term and 98^m term?
Answer:
a) 6 × 1 + 8 = 14
b) 2 × 6 = 12

Question 2.
The centre of a circle is (0, 0), (4, 0) is a point on the circumference of the circle.
a) Find the radius of the circle.
b) Write the coordinates of another point on the circle.
Answer:
a) 4
b) (-4, 0)

Question 3.
In a place, there were 80 houses which as occupied. Due to recent floods \(\frac{3}{8}\) of houses were left.
a) Now how many houses were vacant?
b) What is the probability that a house is occupied?
Answer:
a) 80 × \(\frac{3}{8}\) = 30
b) 80 – 30 = 50
∴ \(\frac{50}{80}=\frac{5}{8}\)

Question 4.
Daily wages of some families are given below
350, 425, 280, 2300, 500
a) Find Mean
b) Find Median
Answer:
a) (350 + 425 + 280 + 2300 + 500)/5
= \(\frac{3855}{5}\)
= 771
b) 280, 350, 425, 500, 2300
∴ Median = 425

Write any 5 questions from 5 to 11. Each question carries 3 marks each. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 5.
a) Draw a line of length √5 cm.
b) Draw a right triangle of base 6 cm and height √5 cm.
Answer:

Draw AB = 6 m.
Divide AB into AP, PB such that 5, 1.
Draw a circle such that AB as diameter.
Draw a perpendicular at P then extend B to R such that BR = 5 cm.
Then draw ΔPQR

Question 6.
P(x) = x² + ax + b
x – 2, x – 3 are the factors of P(x)
a) What will be the values of P(2), P(3).
b) Find the values of a, b.
Answer:
a) 2² + a × 2 + b = 2a + b + 4
3² + a × 3 + b = 9 + 3a + b = 3a + b + 9
b) 2a + b + 4 = 0 ⇒ 2a + b = -4 ……(1)
3a + b + 9 = 0 ⇒ 3a + b = -9 ………(2)
(1) – (2) ⇒ -a = 5 ⇒ a = -5
2 × – 5 + b = -4
⇒ b = -4 + 10 = 6

Question 7.
Area of a square pyramid is 360 cm². Area of one lateral face is 65 cm².
a) What is the slant height?
b) Find the height of the pyramid.
Answer:

Question 8.
(6, 4), (11, 11) are two points on a line.
a) Find the slope of this line.
b) Write two more points on this line.
Answer:
Slope = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}=\frac{11-4}{11-6}=\frac{7}{5}\)
If (11, 11) a point on this line, other points
(11 + 5, 11 + 7) = (16, 18)
(11 – 5, 11 – 7) = (6, 4)

Question 9.

In the fig: PA, PB are the tangents to the circle.
∠ACB = ∠APB
a) If ∠PAB = x°, then what will be ∠PBA
b) Then prove that ∆PAB is equilateral.
Answer:
a) x°
b) ∠ACB = x°
∠APB = x° = ∠PAB = ∠PBA
∆PAB is an equilateral triangle.

Question 10.

In the fig: OA = 8 unit
a) Find the coordinates of A.
b) Find the coordinates of B.
Answer:

Question 11.
A semicircle is rolled up to make a cone of radius 12 cm. Through the apex, and perpendicular to the base, It is cut into two pieces.
a) What will be the radius of the semicircle?
b) What is the slant height of the cone?
c) Which type of triangle is got after cutting it into two as mentioned above?
Answer:

b) l = 24 cm
c) Equilateral triangle

Answer any 7 questions from 12 to 21. Each question carries 4 scores. (7 × 4 = 28)

Question 12.
Sum of the first 5 terms of an AP is 320.
Sum of next 5 terms is 395.
a) Write the third term and the 8th term of this sequence.
b) What is the common difference?
c) Find the sum of the next 10 terms of this sequence.
Answer:

Question 13.
There are 16 mangoes in a basket of which 6 are unripe and others are ripe. Another basket contains 35 mangoes in which 13 are unripe and others are ripe. On the next day, 3 of the unripe mangoes in the first basket became ripe and 7 mangoes of the second basket became ripe.
a) What is the probability that we will get ripe from the first basket?
b) What is the probability that both being unripe if we took one mango from each on the first day?
c) What is the probability that we will get unripe mangoes from the second basket on the day ?
d) What is the probability that one being ripe and other, being unripe, if we took one from each on the second day?
Answer:

Question 14.
A boy of height 1.5 m is looking upon a tower at an elevation of 25°. The distance between the boy and the tower is 47 m.
a) Draw a rough figure.
b) Calculate the height of the tower.
[sin 25° = 0.4226, cos 25° = 0.9120, tan 25° = 0.4663]
Answer:
a)

b) tan 25 = \(\frac{A B}{B C}\)
0.4226 = \(\frac{A B}{47}\)
AB = 47 × 0.4226 = 19.86 m
Height of tower = 19.86 + 1.5 = 21.36 m

Question 15.
The table shows 53 children in a class sorted according to their heights

a) If the children are arranged in ascending order of height which student has median height?
b) Find the median height.
Answer:
Less than 145 – 6
Less than 150 – 14
Less than 155 – 26
Less than 160 – 42
Less than 165 – 53
a) 27th
b) 27th student
lies in the class 155-160 dividing 5 cm among 16 students

Question 16.
x² + y² – 6x – 8y + 9 = 0 is the equation of a circle.
a) Write the coordinates of the circle.
b) Find the radius.
Answer:
a) centre = (-g, -f)
\(=\left(-\frac{(-6)}{2},-\frac{(-8)}{2}\right)=(3,4)\)
b) (x² – 6x + 9) + (y² – 8y + 16) = -9 + 9 + 16
(x – 3)² + (y – 4)² = 42
Radius = 4

Question 17.
a) Draw a circle of radius 2 cm.
b) Draw a triangle whose two angles are 70°, 60° also its sides touches the circle.
Answer:

Question 18.
In figure AP, AQ, BC are the tangents to the circle. The perimeter of ΔABC is 70 cm. BP = 10 cm, CQ = 7 cm.

a) Find the length of BC.
b) Find all the sides of ΔABC
Answer:

Question 19.
One asks 5 days more to complete a job than the second one. If both of them works together the job will finish within 6 days.
a) If the number of days to finish the job for the second one is x, how many days will be needed for the first one.
b) From a second degree equation and find the no. of days required by each one to complete the job.
Answer:
a) x + 5
b) \(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{x+5}=\frac{1}{6}\)
\(\frac{x+5+x}{x(x+5)}=\frac{1}{6}\)
\(\frac{2 x+5}{x^{2}+5 x}=\frac{1}{6}\)
x² + 5x = 12x + 30
x² – 7x – 30 = 0
(x – 10) (x + 3) = 0
x = 10, -3
Time taken by both 10, 10 + 5 = 10, 15

Question 20.
In figure AB, AC is tangents to the circle ∠OBC = 30°. Find the following angles.

a) ∠OCB
b) ∠BOC
c) ∠A
d) If ΔPBC is an equilateral triangle find ∠PCAQ
Answer:
a) ∠OCB = 30°
b) ∠BOC = 120
c) ∠A = 60° (180 – 120)
d) ∠PCQ = 60°

Question 21.
P(x) = 4x² + 6x + k
a) If P(-2) = 0 then write a factor of P(x).
b) Find the value of k.
Answer:
a) x + 2
b) P(2) = 0
⇒ 4 × (-2)² + 6 × -2 + k = 0
⇒ 4 × 4 – 12 + k = 0
⇒ 16 – 12 + k = 0
⇒ 4 + k = 0
⇒ k = -4

Answer any 5 questions from 22 to 28. Each question carries 5 marks. (5 × 5 = 25)

Question 22.
A conical vessel of base radius 12 cm and height 36 cm contains water up to 9 cm high. After closing the lid the vessel is turned upside down as shown.

a) Find the volume of water in the first figure.
b) Find the volume of vacant space in the second figure.
c) Find the height of the vacant part of the vessel in the second figure.
Answer:

Question 23.
a) Write the arithmetic sequence between 100 and 1000 which can be divisible by 7.
b) What is the common difference.
c) What is the last term.
d) Form an algebric expression to find the sum of ‘n’ terms of this sequence.
Answer:
a) 105, 112, 119, …….
b) 7
c) 994
d) \(\frac{n}{2}\) (2f + (n – 1)d)

Question 24.
a) Draw a triangle whose sides are 6 cm, 8 cm and angle between them is 70°.
b) Draw a rectangle whose area is equal to the triangle.
c) Draw another rectangle with side 7 cm and equal area of the first rectangle.
Answer:

Question 25.

Cartres of the two circles lies on the same line.
AP = 4 cm, CD = 2.5 cm, BF = 7 cm.
a) Find all the lenghts of sides of ∆ABC
b) If the radius of small circle is 3 cm, find the area of ∆ABC
Answer:
a) AB = AP + BF = 4 + 7 = 11 cm
BC = BF + CD = 7 + 2.5 = 9.5 cm
AC = AP + CD = 4 + 2.5 = 6.5 cm
b) r = \(\frac{11+9.5+6.5}{2}=\frac{27}{2}=13.5\)
Area = 3r = 3 × 13.5 = 40.5 cm²

Question 26.
A(2, 2), B(7, 4), C(5, 6) are the vertices of quadrilateral ABCD. P, Q, R and S are the midpoints of AB, BC, CD, AD.
a) Find the coordinates of P, Q, R, S.
b) Prove that the perimeter of PQRS is AC + BD.
Answer:

b) PQRS is a parallelogram.
SR || AC. Also SR = ½ AC
PQ || AC. Also PQ = ½ AC
SP || BD, SP = ½ BD
QR || BD, QR = ½ BD
Perimeter of PQRS = PQ + SR + SP + QR
= ½ AC + ½ AC + ½ BD + ½ BD
= AC + BD

Question 27.

In the figure PQ is the tangent, AB is the chord. ∠BAQ = 54°, AB = 8 cm.
a) Find ∠AOB
b) Find the radius of the circle.
c) If AC = BC then find the perimeter of ∆ABC (sin 54 = 0.81, sin 63 = 0.89)
Answer:
a) ∠AOB = 2 × 54 = 108°

AC = 2 × 4.94 × 0.89 = 8.79 cm
BC = 8.79
Perimeter = 8.79 + 8.79 + 8 = 25.88 cm

Question 28.
When Many opened his social textbooks, he found the product of page numbers in front of him in 1122.
a) If the first-page number is ‘x’, what is the next page number?
b) Form a second-degree equation and find out the page numbers.
c) In other occasions, when he added 6 with the product of page numbers he got 2759. So which are the page numbers…?
Answer:
a) x + 1
b) x (x + 1) = 1122
x² + x – 1122 = 0
(x + 34) (x – 33) = 0
x = 33
Page numbers = 33, 34
c) x (x + 1) + 3 = 2759
x² + x + 3 = 2759
x² + x – 2756 = 0
(x + 53) (x – 52) = 0
x = 52
Page Numbers = 52, 53

Read the mathematical concept carefully and an¬swer the following question. (6 × 1 = 6)

Question 29.
In polygons line joining the opposite vertices are the diagonals. A triangle has no diagonal. A quadrilateral has two diagonal and a paragon five.
The number of diagonals of a polygon written in order is 0, 2, 5, ………..

This can be expressed in terms of their sides.

Like this, there is a beautiful relation between the number of sides and the number of diagonals. That can be drawn from one vertex of a polygon that is also written in order ………..
No. of sides : 3, 4, 5, …………
No. of diagonals from one vertex : 0, 1, 2, …………
Subtract 3 from the number of sides.
a) How many diagonals can be drawn from one vertex of a hexagon?
b) How many diagonals are there in a hexagon?
c) What is the number of diagonals of a polygon with ‘n’ sides?
d) How many sides are there for a polygon with 35 diagonals?
e) How many more diagonals are there in a polygon with 51 sides than that of a polygon with 50 sides?
f) How many more diagonals are there in a polygon with (n + 1) sides that of a polygon with ‘n’ sides?
Answer:

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium, Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Instructions

• Read each question carefully before writing the answer.
• Give explanations wherever necessary.
• First 15 minutes is Cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• No need to simplify irrationals like √2, √3, π etc., using approximations unless you are asked to do so.

Answer any three questions from 1 to 4. Each question carries 2 scores. (3 × 2 = 6)

Question 1.
a) Write an arithmetic sequence with 7 as common difference
b) How much should be added with 4th term to get 15th term?
Answer:
a) 1, 8, 15, ………
b) 77 is added

Question 2.
In the picture AC, OB meets at point P. ΔBPC is an equilateral triangle.

a) Find ∠C
b) Find ∠AOB
Answer:
a) ∠C = 60°
b) ∠AOB = 2 × 60 = 120°

Question 3.
In ΔABC, ∠90°, BC = 15 cm, sin B = 0.35
a) Construct the figure approximately.
b) Find the length of AC.
Answer:

AC = 15 × 0.35 = 5.25 cm

Question 4.
The area of a solid sphere is 200 cm². If we cut and divide it into two hemispheres, what will be the area of the hemisphere?
Answer:
4πr² = 200 cm²
πr² = 50 cm²
3πr² = 3 × 50 = 150 cm²

Write any 5 questions from 5 to 11. Each question carries 3 marks each. (5 × 3 = 15)

Question 5.
The sides of a rectangle are parallel to x and y-axis. The co-ordinates of opposite vertices are (-2, 3), (6, 9)
a) Find the coordinates of the other two vertices.
b) Find the length of diagonals.
Answer:
a) (-2, 9), (6, 3)

Question 6.
A and B are points on a circle of radius 4 cm. O is the centres. ∠AOB = 120°. The tangents from A and B meet at point P.
a) Draw the appropriate figure
b) Find the length of the OP, AP
Answer:

Question 7.
P(x) = x² – 8x + 12
a) Find the value of P(2)
b) Write the factors of P(x)
Answer:
a) P(2) = 2² – 8 × 2 + 12 = 4 – 16 + 12 = 0
b) x² – 8x + 12 = (x – 6) (x – 2)

Question 8.
If 1 + 2 + 3 + ……… + 20 = 210
Find
a) 3 + 6 + 9 + …… + 60
b) 5 + 8 + 11 + ……. + 62
Answer:
a) 3(1 + 2 + 3 + …. + 20) = 3 × 210 = 630
b) 3 + 2 + 6 + 2 + 9 + 2 + ……….. + 60 + 2
= (3 + 6 + 9 + ……. 60) + (2 + 2 + …… 20 times)
= (3 + 210 + 2 × 20
= 630 + 40
= 670

Question 9.
One angle in a rhombus is 120°. One side = 6 cm. To find the length of its diagonal.
a) If ∠PAB = x°, then what will be ∠PBA
b) Then prove that ΔPAB is equilateral.
Answer:
Half of diagonals = \(\frac{6}{\sqrt{3}}\) = 2√3, 4√3
Diagonals = 4√3, 8√3 cm

Question 10.
The base edge of a square prism is 16 cm and height 15 cm. From this a square pyramid of maximum height is cut off
a) What is its maximum height?
b) Find slant height
c) Find lateral surface area?
Answer:
a) h = 15 cm
b) \(\sqrt{15^{2}+8^{2}}=\sqrt{289}\) = 17 cm
c) 2al = 2 × 16 × 17 = 544 cm²

Question 11.
a) What is the slope of the life 3x – 2y – 6 =0
b) Write the coordinates on which the line cuts x and y axis?
Answer:
a) slope = \(-\left(\frac{3}{-2}\right)=3 / 2\)
b) x axis : y = 0
3x – 2 × 0.6 = 0
3x = 6
x = 6/3 = 2
∴ (2, 0)
y axis : x = 0
3 × 0 – 2y – 6 = 0
y = \(\frac{6}{-2}\) = -3
∴ (0, -3)

Answer any 7 questions from 12 to 21. Each question carries 4 score. (7 × 4 = 28)

Question 12.
A box contains some paper pieces in which the numbers from 1 to 20 are written. If we take one without looking.
a) What is the probability of it being a prime number?
b) Probability of its being a perfect square.
c) What is the probability of being prime or perfect square?
Answer:
a) \(\frac{8}{20}=\frac{2}{5}\)
b) \(\frac{4}{20}=\frac{1}{5}\)
c) \(\frac{12}{20}=\frac{3}{5}\)

Question 13.
The sum of first n terms in an arithmetic sequence is \(\frac{5}{2} n^{2}+\frac{3}{2} n\)
a) What is the first term?
b) Find the common difference
c) Find the sum of first 12 terms.
Answer:

Question 14.
In a square pyramid, all edges are of the same length. Its height is 12√2 cm.
a) What is the length of its base edge?
b) Find volume.
Answer:
a) Base edge
b) Lateral edge
e) Slant height (l)

Question 15.
P(x) = kx² – 6x – 5. The reminder got when p(x) is divided by 2 is 3.
a) Find P(2).
b) Find the value of 4.
c) How much should be added to P(x), for (x + 2) to be a factor of P(x)?
Answer:
a) P(2) = 3
b) K × 2² – 6 × 2 – 5 = 3
4K – 12 – 5 = 3
4K = 20
K = \(\frac{20}{4}\) = 5
c) P(-2)= 5 × (-2)² – 6 × -2 – 5 = 20 + 12 – 5 = 27
∴ K = added – 27.

Question 16.
Consider the lines 2x + 3y = 12, x – 2y = -1
a) Find the coordinate at which both the lines meet.
b) Form the equation of the line which passes through this point and the slope ½.
Answer:

Question 17.
In figure 2 circles meet at the points Q, R. PA = PB
a) Prove PA × PC = PB × PD
b) Prove ∠C = ∠D
c) Prove ABDC is a cyclic quadrilateral.

Answer:
a) PA × PC = PQ × PR = PB × PD
∴ PA × PC = PB × PB
b) If PA = PB, PC = PD
ΔPCD is Isosceles
∠C = ∠D
c) ∴ ABCD is an isoscelless trapezium
∴ ABDC is cyclic

Question 18.
In the figure, the circle with O as center is the circum circle of ∆ABC. ∠A = 50°, ∠B = 65°. AB = 8 cm.
a) Find ∠C.
b) Find the diameter.
c) Find AC, BC. (sin 50° = 0.76, sin 65° = 0.90)

Answer:
∠C = 65°
b) \(2 r=\frac{A B}{\sin C}, 2 r=\frac{8}{0.9}\)
Diameter = 8.89
b) AC = 8.89 × sin 65 = 8.89 × 0.9 = 8 cm or isoscelles triangle.
So AC = AB
BC = 8.89 × sin 50 = 8.89 × 0.76 = 6.75 cm

Question 19.
The perimeter of a right triangle is 40 cm. The hypotenuse is 17 cm.
a) What is the sum of the other two sides?
b) If one side is x what is the other side?
c) Find the length of both sides.
Answer:
a) 23
b) 23 – x
c) x² + (23 – x)² = 172
x² + x² – 46x + 529 = 289
x² – 23x + 120 = 0
Value of x = 15 cm.
Sides = 8 cm, 15 cm, 17 cm

Question 20.
P(x) = 2x³ – 7x² + ax + b
a) If x – 1, x – 3 are factor of P(x) find P(1), P(3)
b) Find the value of a, b.
c) Find the third factor of P(x)
Answer:
a) P(1) = -5 + a + b = 0
P(3) = -9 + 3a + b = 0
b)

c) 2x³ – 7x² + 2x + 3
3rd factor (2x + 1)

Question 21.
From a hemisphere, a square pyramid of maximum size is cut off. Its height is 9 cm.
a) What is the radius of the hemisphere?
b) What is the base edge of the square pyramid?
c) Find the volume of the square pyramid.
Answer:
a) 9 cm
b) \(\frac{18}{\sqrt{2}}\) or 9√2 diameter is the diagonal of square.
c) Volume = \(\frac{1}{3} \times(9 \sqrt{2})^{2} \times 9\) = 486 cm³

Answer any 5 questions from 22 to 28. Each question carries 5 marks. (5 × 5 = 25)

Question 22.
Consider the arithmetic sequence 4, 7, 10, 13, ……..
a) Write its algebraic expression.
b) Is 169 a term of this sequence?
c) Prove that the square of any term of this sequence is also a term in this arithmetic sequence.
Answer:
a) 3n + 1
b) Yes 169 = 3 × 56 + 1
c) (3n + 1 )² = 9n² + 6n + 1
If we divde with 3 remainder is 1.
Square of any term is also a term in this sequence.

Question 23.
In ΔABC. AB = 6 cm, AC = 7 cm, ∠A = 70°
a) Draw the triangle and draw a rectangle of the same area.
b) Construct a square of equal area to the triangle.
Answer:
a) Draw the triangle, then draw its height, draw its perpendicular bisector. Taking the half of height and base complete the rectangle.
b) Then extend its breadth along with its length. Find its midpoint complete the semicircle. Draw a perpendicular from the end of the length. Taking that long to complete a square.

Question 24.
The area of a cone is 628 cm² slant height is 17 cm.
a) Find its radius.
b) Find volume.
Answer:
a) πr (R + r) = 628
⇒ πr (17 + r) = 628
⇒ r(17 + r) = \(\frac{628}{3.14}\) = 200
⇒ r² + 17r = 200
⇒ r² + 17r – 200 = 0
⇒ r = 3 and r = -25
Radius = 8 cm
Height = \(\sqrt{17^{2}-8^{2}}\) = 15 cm.
b) Volume = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi \times 8^{2} \times 15=320 \pi \mathrm{cm}^{3}\)

Question 25.
The daily wages of workers in a factory is given in the table.

a) If the workes are arranged according to their wages. Which members comes as the median?
b) What is the wage of the 23rd member?
c) Find the wage which comes as the median.
Answer:
300 – 3
400 – 8
500 – 14
600 – 22
700 – 32
800 – 39
900 – 44
1000 – 47
a) Coolie of 24th Man
b) 600 + 5 = 605
b) 605 + 10 = 615

Question 26.
Construct an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm and draw its incircle.
Answer:
Construction

Question 27.
A circle having the centre (3, 4) passes through the origin.
a) What is the radius?
b) It one point on the circle is (x, y) find the relation between x, y
c) Check whether (-2, 1) a point on the circle?
Answer:
a) \(r=\sqrt{3^{2}+4^{2}}=5 \text { unit }\)
b) \(r=\sqrt{(x-3)^{2}+(y-4)^{2}}\)
⇒ (x – 3)² + (y – 4)² = 52
⇒ x² + y² – 6x – 8y = 0
c) (-2)² + 12 – 6 × (-2) – 8 × 1
= 4 + 1 + 12 – 8 ≠ 0
-2, 1 is not a point on circle

Question 28.
The chord BD is perpendicular to the diameter AC. Find the angles.

a) ∠BAC
b) ∠BCD
c) ∠ADC
d)∠CDM
e) ∠BAP
Answer:
a) ∠BAC = 20°
b) ∠BCD = 140°
c) ∠ADC = 90°
d) ∠CDM = 70°
e) ∠BAP = 140°

Read the mathematical concept carefully and answer the following question. (6 × 1 = 6)

Question 29.
An arrangement of data in rows and columns. Using numbers is known as a matrix. Usually, the matrix is represented by English capital letters.
If a matrix contains 2 raw and 3 columns has an order of 2 × 3. It can be read as ‘2 by 3’ and is represented by 2 × 3. If you say an order say the number of rows, then namber of columns. For example
\(A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 2 \\
4 & 5 \\
7 & 8
\end{array}\right]\) order of this matrix is 2 × 3
If the number of rows, and number of columns are different. It is known as rectangular matrix. It both are same then it is square matrix. If the order of matrices are same men it can be add, subtract, ….
for example \(A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 4 \\
6 & 8
\end{array}\right] B=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 5 \\
7 & 9
\end{array}\right]\)
\(A+B=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2+3 & 4+5 \\
6+7 & 8+9
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
5 & 9 \\
13 & 17
\end{array}\right]\)
we can do the subtraction also like this.
a)
\(A=\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 2 & 3 \\
4 & 5 & 6
\end{array}\right]\)
i) Write the order of A
ii) Which type of matrix is A?
b) If B has ‘m’ rows as ‘n’ columns write the order of B
c) If \(C=\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 2 & 3 \\
4 & 5 & 6
\end{array}\right], D=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
7 & 8 & 9 \\
10 & 11 & -12
\end{array}\right]\)
i) Find C + D
ii) Find D – C
d) If the matrix X has an order 4 × 5, y has an order 4 × 5 what will be the order of x + y
Answer:
a) i) 3 × 2
ii) Square matrix
b) m × n
c) \(\mathrm{C}+\mathrm{D}\left[\begin{array}{l}
8,10,12 \\
14,16,18
\end{array}\right] ; \mathrm{C}+\mathrm{D}=\left[\begin{array}{l}
6,6,6 \\
6,6,6
\end{array}\right]\)
d) 4 × 5