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Students can Download Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Meiosis results in
(a) Production of gametes
(b) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
(c) Introduction of variation
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 2.
At which stage of meiosis does the genetic constitution of gametes is finally decided
(a) Metaphase I
(b) Anaphase II
(c) Metaphase II
(d) Anaphase I
Answer:
(d) Anaphase I

Question 3.
Meiosis occurs in organisms during
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Vegetative reproduction
(c) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sexual reproduction

Question 4.
During anaphase-l of meiosis
(a) Homologous chromosomes separate
(b) Non-homologous autosomes separate
(c) Sister chromatids separate
(d) non-sister chromatids separate
Answer:
(a) Homologous chromosomes separate

Question 5.
Mitosis is characterised by
(a) Reduction division
(b) Equal division
(c) Both reduction and equal division
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Equal division

Question 6.
A bivalent of meiosis-l consists of
(a) Two chromatids and one centromere
(b) Two chromatids and two centromere
(c) Four chromatids and two centromere
(d) Four chromatids and four centromere
Answer:
(c) Four chromatids and two centromere

Question 7.
Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at
(a) G1
(b) G2
(c) Go
(d) S phase
Answer:
(c) Go

Question 8.
Which type cell divisions occur in meristematic cell of root apex?
Answer:
Mitosis

Question 9.
In which stage the actual reduction of chromosome number occurs in meiosis.
Answer:
Anaphase 1

Question 10.
Give the term for the failure of separation of homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
Non-disjunction

Question 11.
Name the cell divisions which help in growth and recombination of genes.
Answer:
Mitosis and meiosis

Question 12.
It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell division. Such cells do not divide further and exit ____ phase to enter an inactive stage called ____ of cell cycle. Fill in the blanks.
Answer:
G₁ and G₀

Question 13.
In the case of plant cells, the formation of new cell wall begins with a simple precursor. What is this precursor?
Answer:
Middle lamella

Question 14.
It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human cells (eukaryotic cells) takes 24 hours. Which phase of the cycle, do you think occupies the maximum part of cell cycle?
Answer:
Interphase.

Question 15.
At what stage of cell cycle does DNA synthesis take place?
Answer:
substage of Interphase

Question 16.
If the failure of division of cytoplasm occurs after nuclear division, What will happen to the cell?
Answer:
Free nucleii are formed

Question 17.
An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them?
Answer:
300 pollen mother cells

Question 18.
What is the peculiarity of zygotene?
Answer:
The pairing of the homologous chromosome called synapsis

Question 19.
It is the inactive stage of cell division but cell differentiation occurs. Name it.
Answer:
G₀ Phase /Quiscent stage.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Meiosis is the type of cell division which maintain the race. Discuss.
Answer:
Reduces the chromosome number to half, so that chromosome number is maintained in the next generation.

Question 2.
Interphase in cell cycle is sometimes referred to as resting phase. Do you consider this statement true? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
No.

1. Nucleus and cytoplasm are metabolically very active.
2. Amount of DNA becomes doubled.

Question 3.
A diagram of typical cell cycle of a higher plant is shown here. Identify each stage of the cycle and explain what happens during these stages.

Answer:

• G₁ – pre mitotic gap -synthesis of RNA &Proteins
• S – phase of synthesis – DNA replication
• G₂ – Post mitotic Gap phase synthesis of RNA &Proteins continues
• M – Mitotic phase
• G₀ – Inactive phase

Question 4.
Cytokinesis differs in plant and animal cell. Substantiate this statement.
Answer:

• Plant cell – formation of cell plate.
• Animal cell – Invagination of cell membrane.

Question 5.
Analyse the column A and B arrange the matter is an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 6.
Identify the stages of Mitosis in which the following events take place:

1. Synapsis
2. Terminalisation of chiasmata.

Answer:

1. Zygotene
2. Diakinesis

Question 7.
Different stages of Prophase I of Meiosis are given in column A, arrange them in correct order and match them with the events in column B.

Answer:

1. (i) – d
2. (ii) – c
3. (iii) – a
4. (iv) – b

Question 8.
The pairing of homologous chromosomes is called synapsis.

1. Name each pair of homologous chromosomes.
2. Name the stage of prophase at which it takes place.

Answer:

1. Bivalent
2. Zygotene

Question 9.
Specific chromosome number of each species is conserved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms. What is the reason for this? Write the different steps of this process.
Answer:

1. Meiosis (meiosis I & II)
2. Prophase Meta phase Ana phase Telophase

Question 10.
The life cycle of a cell is called cell cycle. It consists of four stages such as Gv S, G2, and M.

1. Construct a pie diagram showing the different stages indicated above.
2. State the major events occurring in G, S, and G2 phases.

Answer:
1. Pie diagram of cell cycle.

2. G1 Phase -1, Cell grows in size and prepares the machinery needed for the DNA replication. RNA and proteins are synthesized. S phase – DNA replication. G2 phase – Synthesis of RNA and proteins.

Question 11.
Arrange the following stages of cell cycle in correct sequence S, G2, G1, M.
Answer:
S, M, G1, S, G2

Question 12.
X’ shaped structure called ‘chiasmata occurs during a particular stage of cell division.

1. Name the stage?
2. What is the significance of this type of cell division?

Answer:

1. Pachytene
2. The exchange of genes takes place between homologous chromosomes.

Question 13.
Given below are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I. Arrange them in correct order.
Zygotene, diakinesis, diplotene, leptotene, pachytene
Answer:
Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis

Question 14.
Give the scientific term of the following.

1. Interchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of the homologues chromosomes
2. The plane of alignment of the chromosomes at metaphase

Answer:

1. Crossing over
2. Equatorial

Question 15.
Identify the diagram and label a, b,c and write the events during this.

Answer:
(a)G1
(b) S
(c)G2

• G1 – Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
• S – DNA synthesis or replication of DNA occurs.
• G2 – In this phase proteins are synthesised for mitosis.

Question 16.
You have supplied I set of glass slides showing gametogenesis or garnets formation in an animal In one of the slide you observed the following features. Four cells with haploid number of chromosomes. Your friend told you that this is a meiotic division. (Hint: The diploid number of chromosome is 16.)
Are you agree with this statement. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Meiosis takes place in diploid cell or meiocyte to form four haploid cells. These cells contain 8 chromosomes each.

Question 17.
Differentiate reduction division from equational division.
Answer:
1. Reduction division:
It occurs in diploid cells to form 4 haploid cells, ie, the Chromosome number reduced to half in Meiosis I and results 2 daughter cells, which again divides to form 4 daughter cells. All cells formed in meiosis are haploid.

2. Equational division:
It is the mitotic division results 2 daughter cells carrying same set of chromosomes as that of parent cell. No genetic variation occurs.

Question 18.
Can there be mitosis without DNA replication in S phase?
Answer:
There cannot be mitosis without DNA replication in 5 phase of interphase because the trigger for mitosis is disturbance of nucleocytoplasmic ratio caused by DNA replication in S phase. Mitosis restores the quantity of genetic material to the species-specific level.

Question 19.
How does anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis differ from each other?
Answer:
In anaphase of mitosis chromatids separate while in anaphase 1 of meiosis homologous chromosomes separate.

Question 20.
How does cytokinesis in plant cells differ from that in animal cells?
Answer:
1. In an animal cell a furrow in the plasma membrane.lt joins in the centre and dividing the cell cytoplasm into two.

2. In-plant cells, wall formation starts in the centre of the cell and grows outward to meet the existing lateral walls. Then Cell division occurs.

Question 21.
How cytokinesis is different in an animal and a plant cell?
Answer:
In-plant cell cytokinesis occurs by cell plate formation while in the animal cell it occurs by cell furrow formation.

Question 22.
Why mitosis is called equational division ? Give the occurrence of mitosis.
Answer:
It keeps the chromosome number constant. It occurs in somatic cells.

Question 23.
What is the feature of a metacentric chromosome?
Answer:
The metacentric chromosome has a centromere in the middle region with two equal arms of the chromosome.

Question 24.
What is kinetochore? Give its function.
Answer:
It is a disc-like area in each chromatid and is site of attachment of spindle microtubule.

Question 25.
Why is meiosis essentially in sexually reproducing organisms?
Answer:
Meiosis reduces the chromosome number to half as it is followed by fertilization which restores diploidy.

Question 26.
Name the stage of cells cycle at which one of the following events occurs.

1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate
3. Pairing between homologous chromosomes. takes place
4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Zygotene
4. Pachytene

Question 27.
Downs syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs due to mistake in cell division. What does it indicate?
Answer:
It is due to the failure of separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Question 28.
The events occur in prophase and telophase are one opposite to other,

1. Name the cell structures shown the above events
2. How many daughter nuclei are formed at the end of mitotic and meiotic prophase?

Answer:

1. Nuclear membrane, nucleolus and spindle fibres
2. Two

Question 29.
Mangolism or Trisomy is due to the failure of one event in cell division.

1. Which is the improperly functioning stage?
2. What is the event that not occurs?

Answer:

1. Anaphase I of meiosis
2. Separation of homologous chromosomes

Question 30.

1. What will be the ploidy level of dyad and tetrad of cells in meiosis?
2. How is it occurs?

Answer:

1. Dyad – haploid, Tetrad – Haploid
2. It occurs in meiosis due to separation of homologous chromosomes and chromosome number reduced to half.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which phase of meiosis is the following formed? Choose the answers from hint points given below.

1. Synaptonemal complex ______
2. Recombination nodules ______
3. Appearance/activation of enzyme recombinase _____
4. Termination of chiasmata _______
5. Interkinesis ________
6. Formation of dyad of cells ________

Answer:

1. Zygotene
2. pachytene
3. pachytene
4. diakinesis
5. After Meiosis-I before meiosis II
6. after first cytokinesis

Question 2.
The interphase stage is significant in mitotic and meiotic cell division

1. Give one specific event
2. Name the stage of interphase this event occurs
3. How will you differentiate interphase from interkinesis?

Answer:

1. DNA replication
2. S – phase
3. Interphase – cell prepares for cell division Interkinesis – short interval between meiosis I and meiosis II

Question 3.
The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle, Write the phase against each of the events.

1. Appearance of nucleolus
2. Division of centromere
3. Replication of DNA

Answer:

1. Telophase
2. Anaphase
3. Interphase

Question 4.
Life cycle of a cell is called cell cycle. ‘S’ phase is an important phase of cell cycle.

1. Justify your answer.
2. Name the stages of cell cycle at which the following events occur.
   • Crossing over of homologous chromosome.
   • Pairingof homologous chromosomes.
   • Chromosomes are arranged at the equatorial plane.

Answer:

1. phase of DNA synthesis
2. stages of the cell cycle
   • Pachytene
   • Zygotene
   • Metaphase

Question 5.
Name the stages of cell division in which the following events occur?

1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
3. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Pachytene

Question 6.
Match the words listed in column I with suitable words from column II.

Answer:

1. a) – Gametic meiosis
2. b) – Nuclear division
3. c) – Zygotic meiosis
4. d) – Cytoplasmic division
5. e) – Meiocytes
6. f) – Plant cells

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish cytokinesis from karyokinesis.
Answer:
The division of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis, while the division of the nucleus is called Karyokinesis.

Question 2.
What is G0 (quiescent phase) of cell cycle?
Answer:
Some cells in the adult animals do not appear to exhibit division (e.g., heart cells and many other cells divide only occasionally, as needed to replace cells that have been lost because of injury or cell death.

These cells do not divide further exit G₁ phase to enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage (G₀) of the cell cycle. Cells in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of the organism.

Question 3.
Describe the event taking place during interphase.
Answer:
The interphase is divided into three further phases:
1. G₁ phase (Gap 1). G₁ phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis initiation of DNA replication. During G, phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA.

2. S phase (Synthesis). S or synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

3. During this time the amount of DNA per cell doubles. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to 4C. However, there is no increase in the chromosome number, if the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G₁, even after S phase the number of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n.

4. G₂ phase (Gap 2). In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm during the G₂ phase, proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis White cell growth continues.

Question 4.
Why is mitosis called equational division?
Answer:
Since the number of chromosomes remains same in parent and daughter cells so mitosis is also called a equational division.

Question 5.
Name the stage of cell cycle at which one of the following events occur.

1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
3. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place.
4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Metaphase I of meiosis
4. Prophase I of meiosis

Question 6.
What is the significance of meiosis?
Answer:
Significance of Meiosis:

1. Maintaining genetic identity by maintaining number of chromosomes.
2. Bringing variations to ensure better species.
3. Facilitates sexual reproduction.

Question 7.
Discuss with your teacher about.

1. haploid insects and lower plants where cell division occurs, and
2. Some haploid cells in higher plants where cell division does not occur.

Answer:

1. Male bees, wasps and ants are haploid organisms because they are produced from unfertilized eggs.
2. Synergids and antipodal cells in the ovule don’t undergo cell division.

Question 8.
Can there be mitosis without DNA replication in ‘S’ phase?
Answer:
DNA replication is necessary for cell division, and cell division cannot happen without DNA replication.

Question 9.
Can there be DNA replication without cell division?
Answer:
DNA replication takes place in order to prepare for cell division. Cell division is the next logical step after DNA replication.

Question 10.
Analyse the events during every stage of cell cycle and notice how the following two parameters change

1. number of chromosomes (N) per cell
2. amount of DNA content (C) per cell

Answer:

1. Number of chromosomes remains same after mitotic cell division and becomes half after meiotic cell division.
2. During S phase the DNA content doubles, but number of chromosomes remains the same.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell division in which
(a) there is no growth of cells
(b) the nucleus does not participate
(c) no spindle develops to guide the cells
(d) the plasma membranes of daughter cells do not separate.
Answer:
(a) there is no growth of cells

Question 2.
In animal cells, cytokinesis involves
(a) the separation of sister chromatids
(b) contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament
(c) depolymerisation of kinetochore microtubules
(d) a protein kinase that phosphorylates other enzymes
Answer:
(b) contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament

Question 3.
During mitosis, the number of chromosomes gets
(a) change
(b) no change
(c) maybe change if cell is mature
(d) maybe change if cell is immature
Answer:
(b) no change

Question 4.
A diploid living organism develops from zygote by which type of the following repeated cell divisions?
(a) Meiosis
(b) Amitosis
(c) fragmentation
(d) Mitosis
Answer:
(d) Mitosis

Question 5.
If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into?
(a) Metaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Prophase
Answer:
(a) Metaphase

Question 6.
At which stage of mitosis, chromatids separated and passes to different poles
(a) prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) anaphase
(d) Telophase
Answer:
(c) anaphase

Question 7.
The two chromatids of a metaphase chromosome represent
(a) replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase
(b) homologous chromosomes of a diploid set
(c) non-homologous chromosomes joined at the centromere
(d) maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere
Answer:
(a) replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase

Question 8.
The process of cytokinesis refers to the division of
(a) nucleus
(b) chromosomes
(c) cytoplasm
(d) nucleus and cytoplasm
Answer:
(c) cytoplasm

Question 9.
Which of the following serves as mitotic spindle poison?
(a) Ca2
(b) azide
(c) Tubulin
(d) Colchicine
Answer:
(d) Colchicine

Question 10.
Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs at which stage?
(a) Zygotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Metaphase
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(a) Zygotene

Question 11.
In meiosis, division is
(a) I reductional and II equational
(b) I equational and II reductional
(c) Both reductional
(d) Both equational
Answer:
(a) I reductional and II equational

Question 12.
Which type of chromosomes segregate when a cell undergoes meiosis?
(a) Homologous chromosomes
(b) Non-homologous chromosomes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) centric and acentric chromosomes
Answer:
(a) Homologous chromosomes

Question 13.
Chiasmata are most appropriately observed in meiosis during
(a) diakinesis
(b) diplotene
(c) metaphase-ll
(d) pachytene
Answer:
(b) diplotene

Question 14.
During cell division, sometimes there will be failure of separation of homologous chromosomes. This event is called
(a) interference
(b) complementation
(c) non-disjunction
(d) coincidence
Answer:
(c) non-disjunction

Question 15.
The second meiotic division leads to
(a) separation of sex chromosomes
(b) fresh DNA synthesis
(c) separation of chromatids and centromere
(d) separation of homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
(c) separation of chromatids and centromere

Question 16.
Term meiosis was proposed by
(a) Farmer and Moore
(b) Flemming
(c) Strasburger
(d) Darlington
Answer:
(a) Farmer and Moore

Question 17.
Synapsis occurs in the phase of meiosis.
(a) zygotene
(b) diplotene
(c) pachytene
(d) leptotene
Answer:
(a) zygotene

Question 18.
When the number of chromosomes is already reduced to half in the first reductional division of meiosis, where is the necessity of second meiotic division
(a) The division is required for the formation of four gametes
(b) Division ensures equal distribution of haploid chromosomes
(c) Division ensures equal distribution of genes on chromosomes
(d) Division is required for segregation of replicated chromosomes
Answer:
(d) Division is required for segregation of replicated chromosomes

Students can Download Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Plus One Digestion and Absorption One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Hepato-pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and carries
(a) Bile
(b) Pancreatic juice
(c) Both bile and pancreatic juice
(d) Saliva
Answer:
(c) Both bile and pancreatic juice

Question 2.
One of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system
(a) Tetanus
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Jaundice
(d) Dysentery
Answer:
(a) Tetanus

Question 3.
A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is
(a) Pancreas
(b) Adrenal
(c) Liver
(d) Salivary gland
Answer:
(b) Adrenal

Question 4.
Liver is the largest gland and is associated with various functions, choose one which is not correct
(a) Metabolism of carbohydrate
(b) Digestion of fat
(c) Formation of bile
(d) Secretion of  hormone called gastric
Answer:
(d) Secretion of hormone called gastric

Question 5.
Mark the right statement among the following
(a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme
(b) Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa
(c) Enterokinase is secreted by pancrease
(d) Bile contains trypsin
Answer:
(a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme

Question 6.
The major health and nutritional problems mainly arises due to low amount of minerals and vitamins in diet. Name the two PEMs.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor, Marasmus

Question 7.
Deficiency symptoms of a disease are given below: Identify it.
Thin Limbs, retarded growth of body and brain, swelling of legs due to retention of water (oedema), reddish hair, pot belly and diarrhea.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor

Question 8.
Find the set most suitable with “succus entericus”
(a) bilirubin and biliyerdin
(b) salivary amylase and lysozymes
(c) disaccharides, dipeptidases and lipases
(d) Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen procarboxypep-tidases
Answer:
(c) Disaccharides, dipeptidase and lipases

Question 9.
Complete the columns a, b, c, d, e & f

1. Maltose _______a_______ + ________b_________
2. Sucrose _______c_______ + ________d_________
3. Lactose _______e_______ + ________f__________

Answer:

1. Meltose Glucose + Glucose
2. Sucrose Glucose + Fructose
3. Lactose Glucose + Galactose

Question 10.
From this which statement is correct?
(a) Human denititian is heterodont
(b) Fat is soluble in water
(c) Fructose absorbed passively
(d) Small intestine devoid of villi
Answer:
(a) Human dentitian is heterodont

Question 11.
The human intestine is long because
(a) Bacteria in food can be killed gradually
(b) It increases surface are for absorption of food
(c) It provides more space for food storage
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) It increases surface area for absorption of food.

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is most suitable for gastrin?
(a) It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.
(b) It stimulates the secretion of bile.
(c) It inhibits gastric gland to produce gastric secretion.
Answer:
(a) It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.

Question 13.
Name the end product of digestion of following?

1. Starch
2. Protein

Answer:

1. Glucose
2. Amino acids

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Copy the diagram and label the parts.

Answer:

Question 2.
A 15 year old boy was admitted in a hospital with severe case of stomach ulcer. At the end of various tests it is found that Mucus glands are absent. Do you agree with this? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Highly concentrated HCL is presented in gastric juice. Mucus from the mucus gland protect the epithelium lining of the stomach from the action of HCL. So the absence of mucus gland cause stomach ulcer.

Question 3.

1. Name the process (a).
2. Name the enzyme (b).
3. Name the product (c).

Answer:

1. (a) – bile salt – emulsification
2. (b) – pancreatic lipase
3. (c) – Glycerol

Question 4.
Distinguish between Renin and Rennin.
Answer:
1. Rennin: A proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins.

2. Renin: It is an enzyme releasing from JGA, when there is a fall in glomerular filtration rate. Renin converts angiotensinogen into antigotensin II and regulate urine formation.

Question 5.
Complete the passage.
Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated into small droplets called _______ which move into intestinal mucosa. They are reformed into very small _______ coated fat globules called _________ which are transported to the __________ in the villi.
Answer:
Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into intestinal mucosa. They are reformed into very small Protein coated fat globules called Chylomicrons which are transported to the lacteals in the villi.

Question 6.

1. It is not necessary to produce amylase in an inactive form in our body, but it is not in the case of Trypsin.
2. In certain circumstances, peptic ulcer are found on the gut wall.

Answer:

1. Proteins are body building molecules. If proteins digesting enzymes are secreted inactive forms, they would hydrolyse the cellular and extracellular proteins of the organism itself. So the protein-digesting enzyme trypsin is secreted in their inactive form.

2. Mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric and intestinal secretion protects the gut wall from the action of HCL and protein-digesting enzymes. In the absence of mucus and bicarbonates, peptic ulcer are found on the gut wall.

Question 7.
Construct a flow chart showing the passage of food through the alimentary canal of man.
Answer:
Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine → Rectum → Anus.

Question 8.
Differentiate between Serosa and Lumen.
Answer:
The outermost layer of the wall of alimentary canal is called serosa. The inner hollow space in the alimentary canal is called lumen.

Question 9.
Find the odd one out and justify your answer.
Salivary gland, milk gland, gastric gland, thyroid gland.
Answer:
Thyroid gland. Thyroid gland is an endocrine gland. All others are exocrine gland.

Question 10.
Give below in bracket are the names of some digestive enzymes group them into A – Gastric, B – Pancreatic and C – Intestinal (Trypsin, Dipeptidase, Rennin, Maltase, Pepsin, Chymotrypsin, Nuclease, Amylase)
Answer:

Question 11.
Ramu ate boiled rice, what are the changes that it undergoes before being absorbed in the small intestine.
Answer:

Question 12.
The dental formula of human is represented as \(i \frac{2}{2}\), \(\mathrm{C} \frac{1}{1}, \mathrm{Pm} \frac{2}{2}, \mathrm{m} \frac{3}{3}\). What do i, c, pm, m indicate?
Answer:
i – Incisors, c-Canines, pm – Pre molars, m – Molars

Question 13.
Describe the Diphyodont and Thecodont characteristics of human dentition.
Answer:
1. Thecodont: It is a dentition in which the teeth are placed in the sockets of jawbones.

2. Diphyodont: It is a dentition in which the teeth appear twice in the lifetime of man. They are milk teeth and permanent teeth.

Question 14.
Observe the figure given below and answer the following questions.

1. ‘x’ is a substance needed for digestion. What is the function of ‘x’?
2. Name the gastrointestinal hormone responsible for the contraction of gall bladder to release ‘x’.

Answer:

1. Bile – emulsification
2. Cholecystokinin

Question 15.
Given below are the layers of human gut. Write a flow chart from inner region.
Serosa, mucosa, muscularis, submucosa
Answer:
Mucosa → Submucosa → Muscularis → Serosa

Question 16.
After observing the model of the lumen of human intestine your friend said that “the villi projected into the lumen actually block the movement of food through the intestine, if the villi are absent food can easily pass through the intestine.” How will you respond to this comment?
Answer:
Villi actually decrease the movement of chyme. The function of villi is to increase the surface area of the intestine for the absorption of digested nutrients.

Question 17.
Out of the following list, pick out the enzymes that take part in carbohydrate digestion.
Maltase, Lactase, Sucrase, Peptidase, Salivary amylase, Isomaltase.
Answer:
Maltase, Lactase, Sucrase, Salivary amylase, Isomaltase

Question 18.

1. Mention the factor ‘x’ involved in the process.
2. Identify the process and write its importance.

Answer:

1. Bile salts
2. Emulsification. The conversion large fat globules into tiny fat droplets is called emulsification. Bile salt helps emulsification. Emulsification increase the surface area for lipase action.

Question 19.
Below are given the names of the enzymes and their source of secretion. Match them.

Answer:

Question 20.
Strong acidic food in the stomach stimulate the secretion of secretin from duodenal wall.

1. On which part of the digestive tract, secretion act?
2. What is the role of secreting in digestion?

Answer:

1. Secretin acts on exocrine part of pancreas.
2. Secretin stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions from pancreas. It protects the intestinal mucosa from acid as well as provide an alkaline medium for enzymatic activity in intestine.

Question 21.
Fatty chyme in duodenum decreases the speed of peristalsis. How the fatty chyme affects the speed of peristalsis?
Answer:
Fatty chyme in duodenum stimulate the release of GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide Hormone). GIP produced by duodenum, inhibit gastric mobility.

Question 22.
Mention whether the following statements true or false. Justify your answer.

1. Chymotrypsin is a fat digesting enzyme.
2. Deglutition occurs in the intestine.
3. Intestinal juice is also known as succus entericus.
4. Function of enterokinase is to break peptide bond in proteins.

Answer:

1. False – It is prominent protein digesting enzyme present in pancreaticjuice.
2. False – It is the process of swallowing of food . from the pharynx to oesophagus.
3. True – The collective secretion of intestinal gland is known as intestinal juice or succus entericus.
4. False – Enteokinase present in succus entericus activates the inactive trypsinogen into active trypsin.

Question 23.
The following diagram shows the action of protein digesting enzymes of pancreas.

(a) Label the number 1, 2 and 3.
(b) Trypsinogen and Chymotrypsinogen are proenzymes (inactive enzymes). Why do they being produced inactive?

Answer:
(a) Label the number 1, 2 and 3.

1. Enterokinase
2. Chymotrypsin
3. Peptides

(b) Trypsin and Chymotrypsin are protein digesting enzyme formed from their respective inactive forms at the time of digestion of the protein food. If they are available all time in active form, they would damage the intestinal wall.

Question 24.
The calorific value of respiratory substrates are different. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, The calorific values of carbohydrates, proteins and fats are 4.1 kcal /g, 5.65 kcal /g and 9.45 kcal /g, respectively.

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Gastric glands are formed of three types of secretory cells. Name them and mention their function.
Answer:

1. Mucous cell – Secrete mucus
2. Chief cells – Secrete proteolytic enzyme Pepsin
3. Parietal cells – Secrete HCL

Question 2.
Observe the flow chart and answer the questions.

1. What is the purpose of micelles in fat absorption?
2. Identify ‘e’.

Answer:
1. Fatty acids and glycerol being insoluble, cannot be absorbed into the blood. They are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into the intestinal mucosa. Micelles are formed with the help of bile salts and phospholipids,

2. Chylomicrons

Question 3.
Observe and analyse the graph and answer the following questions.

1. Which region of the alimentary canal has maximum acidic pH?
2. Why different regions of alimentary canal has different pH How this is maintained?

Answer:
1. Stomach

2. pH is the buccal cavity – in between 6.5 and 7, which is maintained by HCO₃ – in the saliva. pH in the stomach is in between 1.8 and 2, which is maintained by HCL, secreted from gastric gland. The pH in the intestine is in between 8 and 9, which is maintained by HCO₃– present in the bile and pancreatic juice.

Question 4.
Observe the given diagram.

1. Identify the parts a, b, c.
2. If part ‘c’ has removed from a person due to a disease. What will be the changes in the digestive process of that person?

Answer:
1. a – Liver, b – Gall bladder, c – Pancreas

2. If the pancreas is totally removed from a person, he will die in a short period. Even if pancreas is only partially removed it will collapse the digestive process. In addition to this, the body cannot regulate the glucose level in blood.

The digestive juice secreted by pancreas contains three enzymes trypsin, amylase and lipase. Thus if pancreas is removed, the production of digestive enzyme will collapse.

Question 5.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:
(a) Emulsification
(b) Pancreatic lipase
(c) Fatty acids
(d) Glycerol
(e) Micelles
(f) Chylomicrons

Question 6.
Observe the diagram. Complete the boxes A, B and C appropriately.

Answer:

Question 7.
Observe the diagram.

1. Identify the ducts A and B.
2. B is guarded by a sphincter in its opening to duodenum. Name it.
3. Write any two functions of liver.

Answer:

1. Ducts A and B are
   • A – Common bile duct
   • B – Hepato – pancreatic duct
2. Sphincter of Oddi.
3. Functions of liver are:
   • Production and secretion of bile
   • Production of albumin, Fibrinogen, Prothrombin, etc.
   • Detoxification.

Question 8.
Given the diagram of intestinal villus.

1. Identify the part labelled as ‘a’ and ‘b’ in figure.
2. Give the function of part ‘a’.
3. What is the role of ‘b’ in digestion?

Answer:

1. Identify the part labelled as ‘a’ and ‘b’ in figure
   • ‘a’ Lacteal
   • ‘b’ Crypts of Liberkuhn
2. Absorption of fat and fat soluble vitamins.
3. Crypts of Lieberkuhn produce intestinal juice helps in digestion.

Question 9.
Find the odd one out from each group and justify.

1. Cardiac, Villi, Fundic, Pyloric
2. Duodenum, Jejunum, ileum, villi
3. Parotid, gastric, sublingual, submaxillary

Answer:

1. Villi:
Cardiac, fundic and pyloric are the three major parts of stomach. But villi are small finger like foldings in the intestine.

2. Villi:
Duodenum, jejunum and ileum are three regions of intestine but villi are small finger like foldings inside the intestine.

3. Gastric:
Parotid, Sublingual and submaxillary are three pairs of salivary gland produce saliva. But gastric gland is stomach gland produce gastric juice.

Plus One Digestion and Absorption NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer among the following:

• Gastricjuice contains
  1. pepsin, lipase and rennin
  2. trypsin, lipase and rennin
  3. trypsin, pepsin and lipase
  4. trypsin, pepsin and rennin
• Succus entericus is the name given to
  1. a junction between ileum and large intestine
  2. intestinal juice
  3. swelling in the gut
  4. appendix

Answer:

• Gastricjuice contains
  1. Pepsin, Lipase and Rennin
• Succus entericus is the name given to
  2. Intestinal Juice

Question 2.
Match column I with and Rennin
Column I Column II

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

Question 3.
Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?
Answer:
The major portion of absorption takes palce in small intestines. In stomach simple sugars, water and alcohol absorbed. Villi are specialized projections in small intestine with large absorbent area. This facilities better absorbtion of complex molecules as well.

As food is fit to be absorbed only after complete digestion so villi’s turn comes after all the digestive processes are complete.

Question 4.
State the role pancreatic juice in digestion of proteins.
Answer:
The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes – trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypetidases, amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin which in turn activities the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.

Question 5.
Describe the process of digestion of protein in stomach.
Answer:
The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to hydrochloric acid gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin, the proteolytic enzyme of the stomach. Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).

Question 6.
Give the dental formula of human beings.
Answer:
Arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper and lower jaw in the order I, C, PM, M is represented by a dental formula which in human is as follows:
\(\frac{2123}{2123}\)

Question 7
Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes, yet it is important for digestion. Why?
Answer:
Bile emulsifies the fat making it easier digest by enzymes. Bile juice also helps inactivation of lipase, the enzyme which digests fat. Additionally, bile converts the acidic chyme to alkaline so that other enzymes can work on food.

Question 8.
Describe the digestive role of chymotrypsin. Which two other digestive enzymes of the same category are secreted by its source gland?
Answer:
Chymotrypsin digests proteins and converts it into dipeptides. Other digestive enzymes of the same category are Trypsin and Carboxypeptidase and they perform similar function.

Question 9.
Discuss the main steps in the digestion of proteins as the food passes through different parts of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
In the stomach the proenzyme pepsinogen gets converted into pepsin which acts on protein to convert it into peptone.

In small intestine enzymes Chymotrypsin, trypsin and carboxypeptdase do the rest of the digestion of protein.

Question 10.
Explain the term thecodont and diphyodont.
Answer:
Thecodont. In human beings each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone. This type of attachment is called the codont.

Diphyodont. Majority of mammals including human beings form two sets of teeth during their life, a set of temporary milk or deciduous teeth replaced by a set of permanent or adult teeth. This type of dentition is called diphyodont.

Question 11.
Name different types of teeth and their number in an adult human.
Answer:
An adult human has 32 permanent teeth which are four different types (Heterodont dentition)

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In intestine, food materials are absorbed through
(a) villi
(b) subtentacular cells
(c) sub-mucosa
(d) gastric glands
Answer:
(a) villi

Question 2.
Diastema refers to
(a) gap between the teeth
(b) gap between tongue and teeth
(c) ciliary cells on alimentary wall
(d) cell lining along pharynx
Answer:
(a) gap between the teeth

Question 3.
Pylorus is present between
(a) small and large intestine
(b) pancreas and small intestine
(c) oesophagus and stomach
(d) stomach and duodenum
Answer:
(d) stomach and duodenum

Question 4.
Elephant tusks are
(a) molars
(b) canines
(c) incisors
(d) premolars
Answer:
(c) incisors

Question 5.
Which of the following cells produce HCL
(a) beta-cells
(b) alpha-cells
(c) Oxyntic cells
(d) Chief cells
Answer:
(c) Oxyntic cells

Question 6.
Most abundant mineral of animal body is
(a) iron
(b) sodium
(c) potassium
(d) calcium
Answer:
(d) calcium

Question 7.
Bile salts act as activator of which enzyme?
(a) Pepsinogen
(b) Trypsinogen
(c) Lipase
(d) Pancreatic amylase
Answer:
(c) Lipase

Question 8.
When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from
(a) marasmus
(b) rickets
(c) kwashiorkor
(d) pellagra
Answer:
(a) marasmus

Question 9.
Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?
(a) protein and starch
(b) Starch and fat
(c) fat and cellulose
(d) Starch and cellulose
Answer:
(c) fat and cellulose

Question 10.
A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother’s milk, which is white in colour but the stools, which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. This yellow colour is due to
(a) intestinal juice
(b) bile pigments passed through bile juice
(c) undigested milk protein casein
(d) pancreaticjuice poured into duodenum
Answer:
(b) bile pigments passed through bile juice

Question 11.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?
(a) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
(b) Fructose and amino acids arc abosrbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+
(c) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries
(d) About 60°o of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
Answer:
(c) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries

Question 12.
Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in
(a) oesophagus
(b) ileum
(c) pancreas
(d) duodenum
Answer:
(d) duodenum

Question 13.
FAD is a coenzyme derived from
(a) riboflavin
(b) vitamin-B12
(c) thiamine
(d) niacin
Answer:
(b) vitamin-B12

Question 14.
The pH of the digestive juices within the human small intestine is between 7.5 and 8.5. This environment is slightly.
(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) neutral
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) basic

Question 15.
Lipids, which can be found in oil based salad dressings and ice cream, during digestion are splitted into
(a) fatty acids and glycerol
(b) glycerol and amino acids
(c) glucose and fatty acids
(d) glucose and amino acids
Answer:
(a) fatty acids and glycerol

Question 16.
Crypts of Leiberkuhn are involved in
(a) secretion of succus entericus
(b) secretion of rennin
(c) secretion of ptyalin
(d) digestion of food
Answer:
(a) secretion of succus entericus

Question 17.
Which of the following is an organic molecule needed by the body in small amounts?
(a) Protein
(b) Zinc
(c) Vitamin-C
(d) Monosaccharide
Answer:
(c) Vitamin-C

Question 18.
Which one is not true about vitamins?
(a) Vitamins are organic catalysts
(b) Vitamins are indispensable for life
(c) Vitamins act as a source of energy
(d) Tocopherol is anti-sterility vitamin
Answer:
(c) Vitamins act as a source of energy

Question 19.
The malnutrition disease in man is
(a) Cridu chat syndrome
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Potbelly syndrome
(d) Edward’s syndrome
Answer:
(c) Potbelly syndrome

Question 20.
The process of resynthesis of food materials from simpler food molecules is called
(a) biosynthesis
(b) catabolism
(c) absorption
(d) assimilation
Answer:
(a) biosynthesis

Students can Download Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which organelle is not a part of the endomembrane system?
(a) lysosome
(b) vacuole
(c) mitochondria
(d) Golgi complex
Answer:
(c) mitochondria

Question 2.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in cells which synthesise
(a) steroids
(b) proteins
(c) carbohydrates
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) steroids

Question 3.
The type of ribosome found in prokaryotes is
(a) 70 S
(b) 80 S
(c) 60 S
(d) 50 S
Answer:
(a) 70 S

Question 4.
Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane in 1972?
(a) Singer and Nicolson
(b) Rober Hooke
(c) Rrobertsons model
(d) Camilo golgi
Answer:
(a) Singer and Nicolson

Question 5.
An organelle with internal cross section showing the characteristic 9 + 2 arrays is
(a) microtubule
(b) microfilament
(c) cilia and flagellum
(d) tubulin
Answer:
(c) cilia and flagellum

Question 6.
Smaller, lipid-soluble molecules diffuse faster through cell membrane, but the movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by certain biomolecules named as ____________
Answer:
Proteins.

Question 7.
Name the cell organelle rich in acid hydrolase.
Answer:
Lysosome

Question 8.
Name the stacked particle present on the inner sur¬face of inner mitochondrial membrane.
Answer:
Oxysomes

Question 9.
Give the chemical nature of ribosomes.
Answer:
rRNAs and proteins

Question 10.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill up the blanks.

1. Mitochondria: Cristae
   Chloroplast: ……….
2. Moss: Capsule
   Fern: ………….

Answer:

1. Grana
2. Sporangium

Question 11.
Mark the odd one out.

1. Nucleus; Nucleoli; Centriole; Chromosome
2. Family, class, taxon, phylum

Answer:

1. Centriole
2. Taxon

Question 12.
Name the protein associated with chromosomes.
Answer:
Histones

Question 13.
The cell wall of Bacterium is made up of
(a) Cellulose
(b) Hemi cellulose
(c) Lignin
(d) Peptidoglycan
Answer:
(d) Peptidoglycan.

Question 14.
ETS is associated with F0-F1 particles and many respiratory enzymes. What is the role of F0-F1 particles in mitochondria?
Answer:
ATP synthesis

Question 15.
Why is nucleus called the director of the cell?
Answer:
It controls and coordinates all the cellular functions.

Question 16.
What will you call a cell not having ER, Golgi body, mitochondria, nuclear membrane, etc.
Answer:
Prokaryotic cell

Question 17.
Which organelles are called ribonucleoprotein particles of the cell?
Answer:
Ribosome

Question 18.
Name which cell organelle is associated with secretory activity.
Answer:
Golgi body

Question 19.
Identify the powerhouse of a cell. Give justification.
Answer:
Mitochondria – synthesis of ATP

Question 20.
Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?
(a) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria
(b) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA
(d) Membrane-bound organelles are present
Answer:
(a) lt has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria.

Question 21.
Which of the following statements is true for a secretory cell?
(a) Golgi apparatus is absent
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell
(c) Only Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is present
(d) Secretory granules are formed in nucleus.
Answer:
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell

Question 22.
Name the compound which gives fluidity and functional specificity to biomembranes.
Answer:
Fluidy by lipids and functional specificity by proteins

Question 23.
Which of the following is correct?

1. Cells of all living organisms have a definite nucleus
2. Both animal and plant cells have a well-defined cell wall.

Answer:

1. false
2. false

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
While studying the stages of meiosis following features observed at one stage.

1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
2. Formation of synaptonemal complex. Identify the stage.

Answer:

1. Zygotene
2. Pachytene

Question 2.
Make a list of organelles that function as the cytoskeleton.
Answer:
The endoplasmic reticulum, microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate fibers.

Question 3.
Name two cell organelles that are double membrane-bound. Write the main functions of each.
Answer:

1. Chloroplast- Photosynthesis
2. Mitochondria – cellular respiration

Question 4.
Name the cell organelles in the cell which act as the following.

1. Protein factories
2. Powerhouse
3. Disposal unit
4. Control centres

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Mitochondria
3. Lysosomes
4. Nucleus

Question 5.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:
1) Ribosome – 70S
2) Porin – Protein
3) Lignin – Secondary wall
4) Nucleus – Chromosome

Question 6.
Bacterial cell envelope is a complex structure. It is made up of various layers. Name the different layers in the Bacterial cell envelope.
Answer:
Glycocalyx, cell wall, and plasma membrane.

Question 7.
Pick up the odd one and state reason for your answer.
Golgi bodies, Nucteolus, Nucleus, Lysosome.
Answer:
Nucleolus. Remaining three are major cell organells seen in cytoplasm.

Question 8.
Mitochondria is called powerhouse of the cell. Comment.
Answer:
Mitochondria are the centres of production, storage, and distribution of energy for various metabolic activities of cell.

Question 9.
Table which shows a comparison of cell organisation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the diagrams of two different phases of mitosis given below and write their names..

Answer:

• A- Metaphase
• B – Anaphase

Question 11.
Interphase in cell cycle is referred to as resting phase. Do you consider this statement true? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
No. Synthesis of DNA, RNA & Protein occurs hence it is active stage.

Question 12.
Some statements related to certain cell organelles are given in column A. Identify the organelles and give their names correctly against each statement in column B.

Answer:

Question 13.
How RER is different from SER?
Answer:

1. RER – Rough endoplasmic reticulum
   Contains ribosomes – protein synthesis
2. SER – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
   Devoid of ribosome – lipid synthesis & storage

Question 14.
Most accepted model of Biomembrance is best referred as ‘Protein Icebergs in the sea of Lipid”.

1. Name the most accepted structural model for the Biomembrane.
2. Who proposed it?

Answer:

1. Fluid mosaic model
2. Singer & Nicholson

Question 15.
Functions and names of organells are given below arrange them into a table.
Mitochondria, Endoplasic reticulum, Ribosome, Chloroplast, protein synthesis, storage of energy, cytoskeleton, photosynthesis.
Answer:

• Mitochondria – Storage of energy
• Endoplasmic reticulum – Cytoskeleton
• Ribosome – Protein synthesis
• Chloroplast – Photosynthesis

Question 16.
Identify the given diagram. Copy and label the parts.

Answer:

• 1 – Stroma
• 4 – Fret channels

Question 17.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 18.
Different types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere are given below.

1. Classify them with necessary explanation.
2. What is the peculiarity of the chromosome “C”?

Answer:
1.

• A – Acrocentric chromosome – The centromere is near the end of the chromosome.
• B – Sub-metacentric chromosome – the centromere is near the middle of the chromosome.
• C – Metacentric chromosome – The centromere is at the middle of the chromosome,

2. It has both secondary constriction and a satellite.

Question 19.
Name the organelles which act as the following.

1. cell’s circulatory system
2. protein factories
3. powerhouse
4. disposal units
5. control centres

Answer:

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Ribosomes
3. Mitochondria
4. Lysosomes
5. Nucleus

Question 20.
Different types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere are given below. Classify them with necessary explanation. What is the peculiarity of the chromosome “D”?

Answer:

1. A- metacen trie – media nee centromere/Satel I ite chromosome.
2. B – sub metacentric – centromere just away from median position
3. C – acrocentric
4. D – Telocentric – Centromere close to the end or terminal

Question 21.
Membrane-bound distinct structures are called organelle. An organelle that is not bounded by membrane is seen in the chloroplast and mitochondria.

1. Identify cell organelle.
2. Write down its functions.

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Protein synthesis

Question 22.
Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in ascending order of their size. Choose the correct option among the following.
i. Mycoplasma
ii. Ostrich eggs
iii. Human RBC
iv. Bacteria
Answer:
i – iv – iii – ii

Question 23.
Is extra genomic DNA present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? If yes, indicate their location in both the types of organisms.
Answer:
It is present in cytoplasm of prokaryotes called plasmids

Question 24.
The genomic content of the nucleus is constant for a given species whereas the extrachromosomal DNA is found to be variable among the members of a population. Explain.
Answer:

• Transfer of hereditary characters from one generation to next takes place with the help of nucleus. But
• extrachromosomal DNA is not under the control of nuclear DNA its copy number varies in different organism.

Question 25.
Briefly give the contributions of the following scientists in formulating the cell theory.

1. Robert Virchow
2. Schielden and Schwann

Answer:

1. Omnis cellula-e-cellular means new cells arise from pre-existing cells. It is the contribution of Rudolf Virchow.
2. They have independently formulated the concept of cell theory i.e all cells are composed of cells and their products.

Schielden and Schwann-botanist and zoologist respectively.

Question 26.
Since the functions of certain membranous organelles are coordinated they are considered together as endomembrane system. Name the organelles included in this group.
Answer:
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, Lysosome, and vacuole.

Question 27.
An organelle is called “The powerhouse of the cell”

1. Name the organelle.
2. Why is it said so?

Answer:

1. Mitochondria
2. Here the Energy (ATP) production, storage, and distribution takes place. So it is called a powerhouse of the cell.

Question 28.
The fluid mosaic model is a widely accepted model of cell membrance. Why?. Who proposed this model?
Answer:
It is the model of the plasma membrane consists of proteins and phospholipid bilayer. It is otherwise known as protein and iceberg in a sea of lipids. Singer and Nicolson

Question 29.
Match the column A, B & C Appropriately

Answer:

Question 30.
A non-membrane cell organelles is common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

1. Which is that cell organelle?
2. What is its function?

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. It helps in protein synthesis. Ribosome is the protein synthesising machinery in both prokaryotes & Eukaryotes.

Question 31.
While looking through the microscope Ramesh saw few organisms. Help him to distinguish these organisms into Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
Answer:

• Prokaryotic organisms are single celled but without definite nucleus.
• Eukaryotic organisms are many celled with definite nucleus.

Question 32.
Cancer cells have numerous ribosomes’ Comment.
Answer:
Cancer cells undergoes uncontrolled and unwanted multiplication. It requires protein in large amounts. Hence numerous ribosomes are found in cancer cells.

Question 33.

Answer:

Question 34.
What is a tonoplast?
Answer:

1. Outer membrane of mitochondria
2. Inner membrane of chloroplast
3. Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells
4. Cell membrane of a plant cell
5. Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells

Question 35.
What structural and functional attributes must a cell have to be called a living cell?
Answer:
Living cell must possess cell membrane and protoplasm (cytoplasm and nucleus)

Question 36.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention its function?
Answer:

• Mesosome is the infoldings of plasma membrane of gram +bacteria.
• Respiration, wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells

Question 37.
Multicellular organisms have division of labour Explain.
Answer:
In multicellular organisms .different cells become specialized in their structure to perform a specialized function by coordinating to form different types of tissues that coordinate to form different organs. Each organ is specialized to perform a specific function.

Question 38.
Give the significance of osmosis.
Answer:
It helps in the absorption of water by roots, opening, and closing of stomata, seed germination, etc.

Question 39.
Why is ER called cell circulatory system?
Answer:
Because it helps in transportation of materials between cytoplasm and nuclueus.

Question 40.
What are thylakoids? Why are these called structural and funcional unit of chloroplasts?
Answer:

• They are oval shaped sacs which lie superimposed in the stroma of chloroplast to form grana.
• These have enzymes for photochemical reactions of photosynthesis as have chlorophyll-containing quatasomes.

Question 41.
Name two cell-organelles that are double membrane-bound. What are the characteristics of these two organelles? State their functions.
Answer:
Golgi body and Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
1. Golgi body:

• It perform the function of packaging materials.
• The site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

2. Endoplasmic reticulum:

• RER type involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
• SER is the major site of synthesis of lipids.

Question 42.
In some bacteria cell envelope consists of loose layer but in others, it appears as thick and tough layer. Name the two types of layers.
Answer:

• Loose layer – slime layer
• Thick and tough layer – Capsule

Question 43.
Phospho lipid bilayer with peripheral and integral proteins are arranged and forms quasifluid nature is found in almost all organisms.

1. Which is the best method explains the above statement?
2. Give its function.

Answer:

1. Fluid mosaic concept
2. Transport of molecules

Question 44.
The cross-section of cilia/flagella shows 9 + 2 arrangement and 9 + 0 in centriole.

1. What is the difference between the above two arrangements?
2. What is the function of cilia and centriole?

Answer:

1. In first case 9 doublet fibrils with 2 singlet fibrils and in the second case 9 triplet fibrils but no central fibrils
2. cilia helps in locomotion and centriole helps in assembly of spindle apparatus.

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do neutral solutes move to cross the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecule also move across it in the same way? If not then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
1. Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane by diffusion along the concentration gradient.

2. Polar molecule cannot move across it in the same way. Polar molecules require a carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane.

3. Some ions or molecules are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient, which is an energy-dependent process. It is called active transport.

Question 2.
When a 5% glucose solution and an 8%glucose solution are separated by a semipermeable membrane, explain

1. Which solution has a greater osmotic pressure
2. In which direction osmosis occurs
3. Which solution will increase in volume

Answer:

1. 8% glucose solution
2. 5 – 8% glucose solution
3. 8% glucose solution

Question 3.
Structure of a chloroplast is given below. Write the parts in the place of numbers.

Answer:

1. Stroma
2. Lamella
3. Granum
4. Fret
5. Periplastidial space

Question 4.
Differentiate the following terms:

1. Polysome and Mesosome
2. Amyloplast and Aleuroplast
3. RER and SER

Answer:
1. Polysome contains ribosome – Protein synthesis
Mesosome – cellular respiration

2. Aleuroplast-store Protein
Amyloplast – store Starch

3. RER- Rough endo plasmic reticulum
SER – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 5.
Match the terms in column A & B.

Answer:

Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 7.
Identify the statement given below is true /false.

1. Robert Brown discovered cell.
2. Schleiden and 9chwann formulated cell theory.
3. Virchow explained that cells are formed from preexisting cells.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True

Question 8.
Some cell organells are given below Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, mitochondria, chloroplast, vacuole, lysosome, microbodies, and centriole

1. Identify the cell organelles belongs to the endomembrane system.
2. Differentiate the cell organelles into membrane-bound and non-membrane bound.
3. which is the cell organelle only found in animal cell but not in a plant cells.

Answer:
1. Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex .vacuole, lysosome
2.

3. centriole

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.
(b) Schleiden and Schwann formulated the cell theory.
(c) Virchow explained that cells are formed from preexisting cells.
(d) A unicellular organism carries out its life activities within a single cell.
Answer:
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.

Question 2.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 3.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention the functions that it performs.
Answer:
In prokaryotes, the extension of plasma membrane into cell makes a membranous structure called mesosoma. They help in cell wall formation and DNA replication.

Question 4.
How do neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecules also move across it in the same way? If not, then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane through osmosis. On the other hand, polar molecules cannot pass through the non-polar membrane. They require a carrier protein to help them to move across the membrane. Such transport requires energy and is called active transport.

Question 5.
What is stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves. Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange. Each stomata is composed of two bean-shaped cells known as guard cellls. In grasses, the guard cells are dumbbell-shaped.

The outer walls of guard cells (away from the stomatal pore) are thin and the inner walls (towards the stomatal pore) are highly thickened. The guard cells possess chloroplasts and regulate the opening and closing of stomata.

Question 6.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) cells of all living organisms have a nucleus.
(b) Both animal and plant cells have a well-defined cell wall.
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles.
(d) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials.
Answer:
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles.

Question 7.
New cells generate from
(a) bacterial fermentation
(b) regeneration of old cells
(c) pre-existing cells
(d) abiotic materials
Answer:
(c) Pre-existing cells

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one is single membrane cell organelle?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(c) Lysosomes

Question 2.
The main function of lysosome is
(a) sexual reproduction
(b) extracellular digestion
(c) intracellular digestion
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 3.
Endoplasmic reticulum is in continuation with
(a) Golgi body
(b) nuclear wall
(c) mitochondria
(d) cell wall
Answer:
(b) nuclear wall

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a function of vacuole in plant cell?
(a) Storage
(b) Waste disposal
(c) Cell elongation and protection
(d) Production of hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
(c) Cell elongation and protection

Question 5.
The ATP synthase of chloroplasts is like that of
(a) peroxisomes
(b) Golgi body
(c) microsomes
(d) mitochondria
Answer:
(d) mitochondria

Question 6.
Fat is stored in the plant cell in
(a) lysosome
(b) spherosome
(c) microsome
(d) peroxisome
Answer:
(b) spherosome

Question 7.
F1 -particles comprise of
(a) head and base
(b) base and stalk
(c) head and stalk
(d) head, base, and stalk
Answer:
(a) head and base

Question 8.
Term basal body is associated with the development of
(a) cilia and flagella
(b) cell plate
(c) phragmoplast
(d) kinetochore
Answer:
(a) cilia and flagella

Question 9.
Golgi body receives materials from
(a) lysosome
(b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) mitochondria
(d) cell membrane
Answer:
(b) endoplasmic reticulum

Question 10.
Quantasomes are found in
(a) mitochondria
(b) chloroplast
(c) lysosome
(d) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
(b) chloroplast

Question 11.
The term mitochondria was given by
(a) Benda
(b) Altmann
(c) Palade
(d) de Duve
Answer:
(a) Benda

Question 12.
The prokaryotic cell does not contain
(a) chromosome
(b) mitochondria
(c) plasma membrane
(d) ribosome
Answer:
(b) mitochondria

Question 13.
Organelle important in spindle formation during nuclear division is
(a) Golgi body
(b) chloroplast
(c) centriole
(d) mitochondrion
Answer:
(c) centriole

Question 14.
The surface of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is covered with
(a) ribosome
(b) DNA
(c) RNA
(d) glucose
Answer:
(a) ribosome

Question 15.
Spindles are formed by
(a) microtubules
(b) golgi body
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) peroxisome
Answer:
(a) microtubules

Question 16.
In plants, vacuole contains
(a) soil
(b) water and dissolved substance
(c) cytoplasm
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) water and dissolved substance

Question 17.
Which cell organelle is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell?
(a) Ribosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) ER
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Ribosome

Question 18.
Cilia are
(a) short (5-10 pm) hair-like narrow protoplasmic process
(b) with sweeping or bendular movements
(c) more numerous
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 19.
Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chioroplasts and mitochondria is based on
(a) proton gradient
(b) accumulation of K ions
(c) accumulation of Na ions
(d) membrane potential
Answer:
(a) proton gradient

Question 20.
An organism exclusively with 70S type of ribosomes contains one of the following
(a) DNA enclosed within the nuclear membrane
(b) circular naked DNA
(c) double-stranded DNA with protein coat
(d) single-stranded DNA with protein coat
Answer:
(b) circular naked DNA

Students can Download Chapter 4 Anatomy of Flowering Plants Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Both apical and intercalary meristems are meristems
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) lateral
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) primary

Question 2.
Sclerieds present in
(a) fruit wall of nuts
(b) pulp of guava
(c) seed coat of legumes
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 3.
Which of the following condition of xylem is present in both monocot and dicot stems
(a) exarch
(b) endarch
(c) polyarch
(d) mesarch
Answer:
(b) endarch

Question 4.
Bark does not include
(a) secondary xylem
(b) secondary phloem
(c) periderm
(d) primary phloem
Answer:
(a) secondary xylem

Question 5.
…………… is the living mechanical tissue
(a) collenchyma
(b) parenchyma
(c) sclerenchyma
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) collenchyma

Question 6.
What are the cells that make the leaves curl in plants during water stress?
Answer:
Bulliform cells/motor cells

Question 7.
What part of the plant would show the following:
(a) Radial vascular bundle
(b) Polyarch xylem
(c) Well developed pith
Answer:
(a) Radial vascular bundle

Question 8.
Apical meristem for elongation of Stem, Lateral meristem for ………..
Answer:
Increase in thickness.

Question 9.
While analysing the anatomy of a given slide, phloem, cambium & xylem are present. Identify the material.
Answer:
Dicot stem.

Question 10.
Tissues are specialised to perform mechanical function have thickening at corners, living and cellulosic. Name it.
Answer:
Collenchyma

Question 11.
A cross-section of plant materials show the following features under microscope there are many vascular bundles scattered in the parenchymatous tissue, xylem is endarch. What kind of plant part shows the above anatomy.
Answer:
Monocot stem

Question 12.
Name tissue which provides mechanical strength to the plant’s organs.
Answer:
Sclerenchyma and xylem

Question 13.
What does the fascicular cambium gives rise to?
Answer:
Secondary vascular tissues and medullary rays

Question 14.
From where do the secondary cambium appear?
Answer:
From permanent tissues

Question 15.
Which type of meristems can be classified on the basis of positions in the plant body.
Answer:
Apical, intercalary and lateral

Question 16.
Find the odd one and give reason:
Phellem, Phellogen, Phloem, Phelloderm
Answer:
Phloem. The other components are part of periderm

Question 17.
Fill in the blanks:
Stem: Endarch:: Root: ……….
interfascicular cambium: secondary xylem:: cork cambium: …………
Answer:
Exarch, phelloderm

Question 18.
Activity of cambium is different in two seasons and xylem vessels formed have narrow and wider lumens. Give the type of wood formed during the different seasons.
Answer:
Springwood and autumn wood.

Question 19.
What use are phloem fibres put to
Answer:
Phloem fibers of plants like jute are used for making ropes.

Question 20.
Identify the plant group from the data given below.
(a) Habit-Tree
(b) Xylem vessels present
(c) Absence of companion cells in phloem
(d) No fruits
Answer:
Gymnosperm

Question 21.
Ramu observed the growth of a plant in his garden. He realised that the plant grow both in length and width. Name the tissue responsible for the growth of the plant.
Answer:
Meristems

Question 22.
A cross-section of plant materials show the following anatomical features under microscope.

1. Vascular bundles are radially arranged
2. Four xylem strands with exarch condition of the protoxylem. To which organ should it be assigned?

Answer:
Dicot root

Question 23.
The transverse section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features.

1. vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
2. Phloem parenchyma is absent. What will you identify as?

Answer:
The plant is a monocotyledon.

Question 24.
The cross-section of a plant material showed the following features when viewed under the microscope.

1. The vascular bundles were radially arranged.
2. Four xylem strands with exarch condition of protoxylem.

To which organ should it be assigned?
Answer:
Dicot root

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
During the secondary thickening of a dicot stem, from the outer cotical region, a meristematic tissue is developed. Name this tissue and write the function of it.
Answer:
Phellogen/cork cambium – It produces phellum towards the outer sides & phelloderm towards the inner side. These 3 layers are known as periderm

Question 2.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter is an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 3.
Differentiate the following characters of dicot stem and monocot stem.
Differentiated cortex, Protoxylem lacuna present, open bundle, bundle sheath, starch sheath, sclerenchymatous hypodermis, scattered bundles, V.Bs. arranged in a ring, closed bundles, phloem parenchyma absent, presence of pith, collenchymatous hypodermis.
Answer:

Question 4.
Xylem is the complex tissue that transports water in plants.

1. Name the main components of xylem.
2. Which of these is most likely suitable for conducting water?

Answer:

1. Xylem parenchyma, vessels, tracheid, xylem fibers.
2. Vessels

Question 5.
Examine the anatomy of two plants

1. Xylem vessels and tracheids are seen
2. Xylem vessels absent and tracheids present

Answer:

1. Angiosperm
2. Gymnosperm

Question 6.
Identify the figure ‘A’ and ‘B’ and differentiate between ‘A’ and ‘B’.

Answer:

Question 7.
Secondary growth occurs in dicots and no such growth in monocots. Justify.
Answer:
In dicots, cambium is present in their vascular bundle. In monocot, cambium is absent in the vascular bundles. So secondary growth occurs in dicotyledons and not in monocotyledons.

Question 8.
Phloem is called the complex tissue while parenchyma is a simple tissue. Make the differences
Answer:
Phloem is made up of more than one type of cells namely, sieve tube, companion cell, phloem parenchyma & phloem fiber. Parenchyma consists of same types of cells.

Question 9.
When the cross-section of a stem was examined, a student could notice collenchymatous hypodermis, Limited number of open vascular bundles, cortex, endodermis, and pith.

1. Identify the material.
2. Draw the diagram of the material showing these parts and label.

Answer:
1. Dicot stem
2.

Question 10.
Observe the diagrams and identify the tissue types.

Answer:
a. Collenchyma
b. Sclerenchyma

Question 11.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 12.
While doing anatomy practical, students observe ten following characters:

• Undifferentiated ground tissue.
• Numerous vascular bundles and are scattered.
• Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
• Presence of bundle sheath

1. Identify the material.
2. Write any one example of a plant having such characters.
Answer:

1. Monocot stem.
2. Grass/Bamboo

Question 13.
What is the function of phloem parenchyma?
Answer:
The phloem parenchyma stores food material and other substances like resins, latex, and mucilage.

Question14.
How do you correlate the activity of cambium with changing seasons?
Answer:
During winter season the cambium stops its activity. In spring season cambium becomes more active and produce large quantity of secondary tissue. The secondary xylem produced during spring season is called springwood. During autumn season and summer season the cambium becomes less active and produces small quantity of secondary tissue. The secondary xylem produced during this period is called autumn wood.

Question 15.
Mention the characteristic features of sieve-tube members.
Answer:
Sieve tubes are cylindrical have endplates called sieve plates. They are dead elements of phloem.

Question 16.
It is difficult to open and close wooden doors and windows during the rainy season. What is the reason?
Answer:
Imbibition It is the absorption of water by water-loving particles without forming a solution

Question 17.
Heartwood is resistant to microorganisms. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Contains alkalloids , tannins & resins

Question 18.
The microscopic observation is given below.

1. Identify A and B.
2. Write any two distinguishing characters of the above diagram.

Answer:

1. A dicot stem B monocot stem
2. In dicot stem vascular budles open, limited no.&arranged in the form of a ring. In monocot stem, vascular bundles closed, numerous & scattered

Question 19.
Simple tissues that perform mechanical support in plants are usually dead tissues’
Name the living simple tissue that provides mechanical support to plant organs. In which category of plants (dicots/monocots) do they found?
Answer:
Sclerenchyma tissues Monocots

Question 20.
What is present on the surface of the leaves which helps the plant prevent loss of water but is absent in roots?
Answer:
The cuticle is the waxy substance prevents the excessive water loss.

Question 21.
What is the epidermal cell modification in plants which prevents water loss?
Answer:
The presence of bulliform cells in the leaves of monocot plants, which helps in rolling and unrolling of lamina and prevents water loss.

Question 22.
Arrange the following in the sequence you would find them in a plant starting from the periphery – phellem. phellogen. phelloderm.
Answer:
phellem, phellogen, phelloderm.

Question 23.
A transverse section of the trunk of a tree shows concentric rings which are known as growth rings. How are these rings formed? What is the significance of these rings?
Answer:
It is formed due to the activity of vascular ambium. The growth ring comprises springwood and autumn wood that is formed in spring season and winter season respectively. These are used to determine the age of tree by counting the number of concentric rings.

Question 24.
While eating peach or pear it is usually seen that some stone-like structures get entangled in the teeth, what are these stone-like structures called?
Answer:
USB Non-elongated sclerenchyma(sclereids)

Question 25.
When your teacher asked to collect different types of seeds. One of the students collected some seeds from a tree. These seeds have no covering or naked.

1. In which group of plants does this tree belong?
2. Which portion of the plant develops into the seed?

Answer:

1. Gymnosperms
2. Ovule

Question 26.
We cannot find the woody trunk in monocot plants. Why?
Answer:
Monocots do not possess cambium Hence, the secondary tissues are not formed.

Question 27.
Identify the following materials under microscope.

1. Xylem polyarch, Round vessels, homogenous cortex with xylem & phloem in radial manner.
2. Endarch xylem, conjoint bundle, surrounded by bundle sheath, palisade and spongy tissues distinguished and kidney-shaped guard cells

Answer:

1. Monocot root
2. Dicot leaf

Question 28.
The product of photosynthesis is transported from the leaves to various parts of the plants and stored in some cells before being utilised. What are the cells/ tissues that store them?
Answer:
parenchyma tissue

Question 29.
Name the kind of vascular bundle in Fig. a and b.

Answer:
a. Closed bundle
b. Open bundle

Question 30.
Heartwood is resistant to micro-organisms. Justify the statement.
Answer:
The deposition of substances like Tannin, resin, oil, gum, aromatic substances and essential oil in the central part of wood helps to resist the attack of microorganisms.

Question 31.
Cambial ring is responsible for the formation of secondary vascular tissues both in Dicot stem and Dicot root. Differentiate the origin of cambial ring in Dicot stem and Dicot root.
Answer:
1. In Dicot stem, the conjuctive tissues in between the vascular bundles become meristematic and form. interfascicular cambium, it joins with intrafascicular cambium to form a cambial ring.

2. In Dicot root, the tissue just below phloem and part of pericycle tissue above the protoxylem join together to form a wavy ring. Later it becomes circular.

Question 32.
Give reason

1. Grittiness nature of sapota fruit pulp
2. Increase thickness of stem intake and not in coconut

Answer:

1. Due to the presence of nonelogated sclerenchyma tissues (sclereids)
2. In Teak, cambium is present (dicot plant) In coconut, cambium is absent because it is a monocot plant.
   Cambial activity causes an increase in thickness

Question 33.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 34.
You may have observed droplets of water at the tip of leaves of grasses during early morning. Your sister told it is a dewdrop.
As a science student do you agree with her? Explain. Compare this process with transpiration.
Answer:
No.

1. The droplets of water are found in the tip of grass leaves. This is called Guttation. It occurs in early morning.
2. Water drops come out from Hydathode seen in the vien endings of leaf.
3. Transpiration is the loss of water in the form of water vapour from stomata of leaves.

Question 35.
How can we correlate the activity of cambium with changing season?
Answer:
In spring season the activity of cambium is more and produces large no. of xylem vessels with wide lumen. But in Autumn season the activity of cambium is less and produces fewer no.of xylem vessels with narrow lumen.

Question 36.
Classify the following characters under dicot and monocot stem?
Bundle sheath is present, open bundle, bundle cap is present, closed bundle, arranged in a broken ring, scattered bundle, collenchymatous hypodermis, sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
Answer:

Question 37.
Distinguish between cork cambium and vascular cambium.
Answer:
1. Cork cambium is the meristematic layer that cut of the tissues outside called phellem and inside phelloderm.

2. Vascular cambium is the meristematic layer that cut of the tissues outside called secondary phloem and inside secondary xylem.

Question 38.
Identify the following diagram and write its function.

Answer:
Hydathode. It is the pore found in the vein ending of the grass leaf through which water loss occurs in the form of droplets.

Question 39.
Which one out of the root or stem shows endarch arrangement of xylem? What is meant by endarch arrangement?
Answer:
Stem, In edarch xylem protoxylem, is present towards the centre (pith) and metaxylem is faced towards outside.

Question 40.
Observe the diagram and identify the tissue types. Justify your answer.

Answer:

• The first figure is the Sclerenchymatus tissue.
• The second figure is the collenchymatous tissue.
• In sclerenchyma tissue, the cell walls are lignified and dead.
• In collenchymatous tissue, the cell walls are thick and living.

Question 41.
What are bulliform cells? Mention its significance
Answer:
These are the specialised cells found in the epidermis of monocot leaf. They are otherwise called as motor cells.
It helps in the rolling and unrollong of lamina

Question 42.
Where are the companion cells located in the flowering plants? What are their functions?
Answer:
Companion cells are located in the phloem cells of vascular tissue. They support the sieve tubes.

Question 43.
What category of permanent plant cell is a companion cell?
Answer:
Companion cells are specialised thin-walled parenchymatous cells found to be associated with sieve tubes.

Question 44.
Sieve tubes in angiosperms are associated with specialised parenchyma cells. Name those cells. How do they help sieve-tube members?
Answer:
Companion cells, help in physiological working of sieve-tube members.

Question 45.

1. Name the various components of xylem.
2. Which of them does not have a nucleus?

Answer:

1. Tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma, and xylem fibers.
2. Tracheids, vessels, and xylem fibers

Question 46.
How are exarch and endarch conditions different anatomically in stem and root?
Answer:
1. The anatomical condition is endarch in dicot as well as monocot stem.

2. In endarch condition protoxylem lie towards inner side of vascular budle However, in anatomy of root.the condition is exarch.i.e protoxylem is towards outer side and metaxylem is towards centre.

Question 47.
Cork cambium forms tissues that form the cork. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:
Cork cambium develops in cortex region during secondary growth in stem. Cork cambium cut off cork (phellum) towards the outside and secondary cortex or phellodem towards the inner-side.

Question 48.
If one debarks a tree, what parts of the plant is being removed?
Answer:
Phloem is removed and food translocation becomes difficult.

Question 49.
What is periderm? How does periderm formation take place in the dicot stems?
Answer:
Phellogen, phellem, and phelloderm are together known as periderm. Due to secondary growth of the stem, the outer cortical and epidermis layer broken and replaced by another meristematic issue called phellogen. Phellogen or cork cambium cuts off cells on both sides the outer cells are called cork or phellem and the inner cells are phelloderm or secondary cortex.

Question 50.
Some anatomical details of material are given below vascular bumdles are conjoint and open, medullary rays are present, hypodermis collenchymatous, cortex heterogenous

1. Identify the material
2. Name the tissue given above from which interfascicular cambium develops during secondary growth.

Answer:

1. Dicot stem
2. Medullary ray

Question 51.
Three type of tissues formed during secondary growth together have protective functions.

1. Name the three types
2. Name the opening found in outer part of mature woody dicot stem and give its function

Answer:

1. phellem, phellogen, and phelloderm
2. lenticel, gaseous exchange

Question 52.

1. Distinguish between heartwood and sapwood.
2. Heartwood is durable why?

Answer:
1. Distinguish between heartwood and sapwood
Heartwood

• found in the central part
• nonfunctional
• dark coloured

Sapwood

• found in peripheral part
• functional
• light coloured

2. Heartwood is resistant to microbial attack and it is filled with resin, gum, essential oil, aromatic oil, and tannins. Hence heartwood is durable.

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A portion of the transverse section of maize stem is shown in the diagram.
Label a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h and i.

Answer:

1. a – Cuticle
2. b – Epidermis
3. c – Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
4. d – Sclerenchymatous sheath
5. e – Parentchymatous sheath
6. f – Phloem
7. g – Metaxylem
8. h – Protoxylem
9. i – Water cavity.

Question 2.
Differentiate the following

1. Bark & Periderm
2. Heartwood &Sapwood
3. Endarch & Exarch

Answer:
1. Bark – It is the tissue outside vascular cambium.
Periderm – It is the outer protective tissue It includes phellem, phellogen, and phelloderm.

2. Heartwood – It is the dark coloured, nonfunctional central part of wood resistant to the attack of microorganisms.
Sap wood – It is the light coloured, functional and peripheral part of wood.

3. Endarch – It is the arrangement of xylem in which protoxylem facing towards cente and metaxylem towards the periphery, eg. stem.
Exarch – It is the arrangement of xylem in which Metaxylem facing towards centre and protoxylem towards periphery.eg: Root.

Question 3.
Match column A with B and C.

Answer:

Question 4.
Match the Following.

Answer:

Question 5.
The following are the characters of Dicot stem and Monocot stem. Identify the character and write in appropriate column.

1. collenchymatous hypodermis
2. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
3. Open bundle
4. Closed bundle
5. Bundle cap present
6. Bundle sheath present
7. Xylem polygonal
8. Xylem circular

Answer:

Question 6.
Plant growth is indeterminate in most plants it can go on indefinitely at the tips of roots and shoots. Special types of tissues are located at these regions

1. Name those tissues
2. Classify these tissues based on the position and origin.

Answer:

1. Meristematic tissues
2. Based on the position they are classified into three types,
   • apical meristem
   • intercalary meristem and
   • lateral meristem

Based on the origin, they are classified into 2.

1. primary meristem and
2. Secondary Meristem

Question 7.
1. Choose from among the following key terms and
complete the chart given below.
conjoint, closed, exarch open, …………. large, ……………. small endarch, radial ……….. few in a ring, ……….. many xylem and phloem bundles
few.

2. Comment on the utility of this chart.
Answer:

Question 8.
The following schematic representation shows the classification of complex tissues. Complete it.

Answer:

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the three basic tissue systems in the flowering plants. Give the tissue names under each system.
Answer:
On the basis of their structure and location, there are three types of tissue systems:

1. Epidermal Tissue System. Epidermis, Stomata.
2. Ground or Fundamental Tissue System Parenchyma, Sclerenchyma and Collenchyma.
3. Vascular or conducting Tissue System. Phloem and Xylem.

Question 2.
The transverse section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features

1. the vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
2. phloem parenchyma is absent. What will you identify as?

Answer:
As is clear from above TS of monocot stem vascular bundles are scattered in monocot stems and phloem parenchyma is absent.

Question 3.
Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues?
Answer:
Xylem and phloem are composed of several types of cells and they work as a unit. Hence they are called complex tissues.

Question 4.
What is the stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves. Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange. Each stomata is composed of two bean-shaped cells known as guard cells. In grasses, the guard cells are dumbbell-shaped.

The outer walls of guard cells (away from the stomatal pore) are thin and the inner walls (towards the stomatal pore) are highly thickened. The guard cells possess chloroplasts and regulate the opening and closing of stomata.

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Interfascicular cambium is a
(a) primary meristematic tissue
(b) primordial meristem
(c) type of proto deny
(d) secondary meristematic tissue
Answer:
(d) secondary meristematic tissue

Question 2.
In an annual ring, the light coloured part is known as
(a) earlywood
(b) late wood
(c) heartwood
(d) sapwood
Answer:
(a) earlywood

Question 3.
The layer of cells outside the phloem meant for giving rise to the root branches is called
(a) cambium
(b) cork
(c) endodermis
(d) pericycle
Answer:
(d) pericycle

Question 4.
Cork cambium of dicot originates from
(a) epiblema
(b) pericycle
(c) the cambium of vascular bundles
(d) endodermis
Answer:
(b) pericycle

Question 5.
Alburnum is otherwise known as
(a) periderm
(b) sapwood
(c) heartwood
(d) cork
Answer:
(b) sapwood

Question 6.
Duramen is present in
(a) inner region of secondary wood
(b) part of sapwood
(c) outer region of secondary wood
(d) region of pericycle
Answer:
(a) inner region of secondary wood

Question 7.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of tissues present in dicot stem during secondary growth
(a) Phellogen, cork, primary cortex, secondary cortex
(b) Cork, primary cortex, secondary cortex, phellogen
(c) Primary cortex, secondary cortex, phellogen, cork
(d) Secondary Cortex, phellogen, cork .primary cortex
Answer:
(d) Secondary Cortex, phellogen, cork .primary cortex

Question 8.
The meristem responsible for extra stelar secondary growth in dicot stem is
(a) interfascicular cambium
(b) intrafascicular cambium
(c) intercalary meristem
(d) phellogen
Answer:
(d) phellogen

Question 9.
Tracheids
(a) are the dominant cell types of xylem in angiosperms
(b) are primarily found in mosses and liverworts
(c) are responsible for water conduction and support in many land plants.
(d) first appeared during Palaeozoic era
Answer:
(c) are responsible for water conduction and support in many land plants.

Question 10.
In the following, how the sapwood is converted into heartwood?
(a) By degeneration of protoplast of living cells
(b) Tyloses formation
(c) By deposition of resins, oils, gums, etc
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 11.
As secondary growth proceeds in a dicot stem, the thickness of
(a) sapwood increases
(b) heartwood increases
(c) both sapwood and heartwood increase
(d) both sapwood and heartwood remains the same
Answer:
(c) both sapwood and heartwood increase

Question 12.
Which is not a characteristic of plant cell walls?
(a) Found only in the sporophyte phase of life cycle
(b) Among other compounds contains compounds built of simple sugars
(c) May contain enzymes that are biologically active
(d) Often contain strengthening polymers
Answer:
(a) Found only in the sporophyte phase of life cycle

Question 13.
Identify the correct order of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stern.

1. Secondary cortex
2. Autumn wood
3. Secondary phloem
4. Phellem

(a) 2,3, 1,4
(b) 3,4,2,1
(c) 4, 1,3,2
(d) 1,2,4,3
Answer:
(c) 4, 1,3,2

Question 14.
Removal of ring wood of tissue outside the vascular cambium from the tree trunk kills it because
(a) water cannot move up
(b) food does not travel down and root become starved
(c) shoot become starved
(d) annual rings are not produced
Answer:
(b) food does not travel down and root become starved

Question 15.
Which tissue gives rise to secondary growth?
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Adventitious roots
(c) Germinating seed
(d) Vascular cambium
Answer:
(d) Vascular cambium

Question 16.
Growth rings are formed due to activity of
(a) extrastelar cambium
(b) intrastelar cambium
(c) interstelar cambium
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 17.
A nail is driven into the trunk of a 30 years old tree at a point l in above the soil level. The tree grows in height at the rate of 0.5m a year. After three years, the nail will be
(a) 1m above the soil
(b) 1.5 m above the soil
(c) 2 in above the soil
(d) 2.5 m above the soil
Answer:
(a) 1m above the soil

Question 18.
In which of the following, there is no differentiation of bark, sapwood, and heartwood?
(a) Ashok
(b) Neem
(c) Mango
(d) Datepalm
Answer:
(d) Datepalm

Question 19.
A tree grows at a rate of 0.5 m per year. What will be the height of the board fixed at 1.5 m above the base five years ago?
(a) 4.0 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 1.5 m
(d) 4.5 m
Answer:
(c) 1.5 m

Question 20.
Secondary phloem remains functional generally
(a) for one year
(b) for less than one year
(c) for many years
(d) as long as the plant is alive
Answer:
(d) as long as the plant is alive

Students can Download Chapter 4 Biomolecules Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Biomolecules

Plus One Biomolecules One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Many elements are found in living organisms either free or in the form of compounds. One of the following is not, found in living organisms.
(a) Silicon
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Sodium
Answer:
(a) Silicon

Question 2.
Aminoacids, as the name suggests, have both an amino group and a carboxyl group in their structure. In addition, all naturally occurring amino acids (those which are found in proteins) are called L-aminoacids. From this, can you guess from which compound can the simplest amino acid be made?
(a) Formic acid
(b) Methane
(c) Phenol
(d) Glycine
Answer:
(b) Methane

Question 3.
When we homogenise any tissue in an acid the acid soluble pool represents
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Cell membrane
(c) Nucleus
(d) Mitochondria
Answer:
(a) Cytoplasm

Question 4.
Many organic substances are negatively charged e.g., acetic acid, while others are positively charged e.g., ammonium ion. An amino acid under certain conditions would have both positive and negative charges simultaneously in the same molecule. Such a form of amino acid is called
(a) Positively charged form
(b) Negatively charged form
(c) Neutral form
(d) Zwitter ionic form
Answer:
(d) Zwitter ionic form

Question 5.
Sugars are technically balled carbohydrates, referring to the fact that their formulae are only multiple of C(H₂O). Hexoses, therefore, have six carbons, twelve hydrogens and six oxygen atoms. Glucose is a hexose.
Choose from among the following another hexose.
(a) Fructose
(b) Erythrose
(c) Ribulose
(d) Ribose
Answer:
(a) Fructose

Question 6.
Fill the gap:
Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by Malonate is an example for _____________
Answer:
Competitive Inhibition

Question 7.
Name the phospholipid found in cell membrane.
Answer:
Lecithin

Question 8.
The metabolic pathway from glucose to lactic acid which occurs in 10 metabolic steps is called ________________
Answer:
Glycolysis

Question 9.
Energy currency in living systems is _______________
Answer:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Question 10.
Find the off one out.
Rubber, Amino Acids, Drugs, Pigments
Answer:
Amino acids: Amino acids are primary metabolites. All others are secondary metabolites.

Question 11.
Arrange the following Carbo-hydrates in the order of increasing complexity of chemical structure.
Glucose, Oligosaccharides, Lactose, Starch.
Answer:
Glucose → Lactose → Oligosaccharides → Starch

Question 12.
One full turn of the DNA double helix would involve.
(a) 8 steps
(b) 10 steps
(c) 20 steps
(d) 12 steps
Answer:
(b) 10 steps

Question 13.
Match the column A with B and C.

Answer:

• Glucose – Glycoside – Carbohydrate
• Aminoacids – Peptide – Protein
• Nucleotide – Phosphor diester – Nucleic acid

Question 14.
A short length of DNA double helix contains 60 Adenine nucleotides and 40 cytosine nucleotides. What will be the total number of nucleotides in it? (60, 120, 80, 200)
Answer:
200

Question 15.
Add suitable word in the gap.

1. A protein molecule is a polymers of _____________
2. Nucleic acids are polymers of _____________
3. DNA has _________ instead of uracil.
4. Single stranded structure is found in ___________

Answer:

1. Aminoacids
2. Nucleotides
3. Thymine
4. RNA

Question 16.

The structure of amino acids in solutions of different PH are given above. Identify the structure ‘B’.
Answer:
Zwitterionic form

Question 17.

Name the enzyme catalyse this reaction.
Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase

Plus One Biomolecules Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the table and fill the blanks from the brackets.
(Collagen, Cholesterol, chitin, Lecithin)

Answer:

Question 2.
Building blocks of proteins are amino acids and that of polysaccharides are monosaccharides. Many polysaccharides are called homopolymers but all proteins are known as heteropolymers.

1. Do you agree with the above statement? Give reason.
2. Give one example for a homopolymer.

Answer:

1. Yes. Many polysaccharides are made up of only one type of monosaccharide. They are known as homopolymers. But all protein contain different type of amino acids. So they all are heteropolymers.
2. Cellulose. Cellulose is made up of only one type of monosaccharide ie. glucose.

Question 3.
Classify the following as polypeptide and polysaccharide.
(Insulin, Glycogen, Chitin, Paper)
Answer:

Question 4.

1. Observe the graph and comment.
2. List out the factors which influence enzyme activity.

Answer:

1. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature called the optimum temperature. Activity declines both below and above the optimum value.
2. Temperature, pH, change in substrate concentration, binding of specific chemicals that regulate enzyme activity.

Question 5.
Write the general names of the following.

1. Enzymes catalyzing the linking together of two compounds.
2. Enzymes that catalyze removed of groups from substrates by mechanism other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds.

Answer:

1. Ligases
2. Lyases

Question 6.
Find out the differences between DNA and RNA and fill the table given below.

Answer:

Question 7.

Two polymers are given. In this chain how are monomers linked ?
Answer:
a. Glycosidicbond
b. Peptide bond

Question 8.
The following graph shows the relationship between subtrate concentration and rate of enzymatic reaction.

1. What is the effect of subtrate concentration on rate of reaction ?
2. Identify ‘A’.

Answer:
1. With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity of the enzymatic reaction rise at first. The reaction ultimately reaches a maximum velocity V(max) which is not exceeded by any further rise in concentration of the substrate.

This is because the enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate molecule and after saturation of these molecules, there are no free enzyme molecules to bind with the additional substrate molecule.

2. V_(max)

Question 9.
Identify the class of enzyme which catalyse the following reaction.

1. S reduced + S’ oxidised ? S oxidised + S’ reduced
2. S – G + S’→ S + S’ – G
   X Y
   I I
3. C – C → X-Y+C
4. C-O, C-S, C-N bonds

Answer:

1. Oxidoreductase
2. Transferase
3. Lyases
4. Ligases

Question 10.
A portion of DNA double helix is given below. Copy the diagram and make correction if any.

Answer:

Question 11.
Adenine, Guanine, thymine, Cytosine, Uracil, are the nitrogen bases present in the living organisms. Write their nucleosides and nucleotides.
Answer:

Question 12.

1. Prepare a graph showing the action of temperature on enzyme activity.
2. What is optimum temperature.

Answer:
1.

2. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature called optimum temperature.

Question 13.

1. Identify the given graph
2. If we add more substrate after reaching Vmax, What will be the effect in the reaction rate?

Answer:

1. Effect of change in concentration of substrate on enzyme activity.
2. There is no further increase in the velocity of reaction because there are no free enzyme molecules to bind with the additional substrate molecule.

Question 14.

The table shows the percentage composition of different elements of a living matter and a non-living matter represented as X and Y. Identify X and Y.
Answer:

1. X – Non living matter (Earth’s crust)
2. Y – Living matter (human body)

Question 15.
Fatty acids could be saturated or unsaturated. Give an account on it.
Answer:
1. Fatty acids are saturated if they do not have any double bond between the carbons of the molecular chain.
eg: Palmitic acid.

2. Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bond between carbon of the molecular chain,
eg: linoleic acid.

Question 16.

Identify the structure.
Answer:
Cholesterol

Question 17.
General Formula of amino acid is given below.

(a) Prepare the amino acids – Glycine and Serine using this formula.
(b) State the influence of pH in the nature of amino acid.
Answer:

(b) Amino acids are of basic amino acids, acidic amino acids, Neutral amino acids and aromatic amino acids. Hence in solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acids changes.

Question 18.
Chemical structure of an Amino acid is given.

(a) Prepare its Zwitter ionic form.
(b) What happens to the Zwitter ion if it is placed in acidic medium?
Answer:

(b) In acidic medium it gains H and become positive charged

Question 19.
Write the missing word.

1. Amino acid: Protein, Nucleotide: __________
2. Glucose: Monosaccharide, Starch: __________
3. Adenine: Thymine, Guanine: ________
4. Animals: Glycogen, Plants: _________

Answer:

1. Nucleic acid
2. Polysaccharide
3. Cytosine
4. Starch

Question 20.
(a) Identify the structure of protein A and B.

(b) Write an example for a protein with a quaternary structure.
Answer:
(a) A) Secondary structure
B) Tertiary structure

(b) Hemoglobin

Question 21.
Proteins carry out many functions in living organisms. List them.
Answer:

1. Some protein functions as enzymes.
2. Some protein functions as Hormones.
3. Some protein fight infectious organisms.
4. Some protein transport nutrients across the cell membrane.

Question 22.
Give an example forthe following.

1. Phospholipids
2. Saturated fatty acid
3. Nucleoside
4. Nucleotide

Answer:

1. Lecithin
2. Palmitic acid
3. Adenosine
4. Adenylic acid

Question 23.
B-DNA is the most common DNA. Write the salient features of this DNA.
Answer:
The length of one full turn of a B-DNA molecule is 34A⁰. The distance between two adjacent nucleotides in a chain is 3.4A⁰. Thus there are 10 pairs of nucleotides in one full turn of DNA molecule.

Question 24.
Identify the structure.

Answer:
(a) Adenine
(b) Adenosine

Question 25.
The given structure showing the molecule give ready energy for biological activities. Identify the structure.

Answer:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Question 26.
Schematic diagram of DNA is given. Copy the structure and correct it, if there is any mistake.

Answer:

Question 27.
Classify the given terms into two columns and give appropriate heading.
rubber, Glucose, amino acids, drugs, gums, spices, cholesterol, Fatty acids.
Answer:

Question 28.
Progress of a chemical reaction and potential energy changes associated with it is plotted as curve.

1. What happens to the activation energy of the substrate, when enzyme is added to the reaction system?
2. Redraw the above graph and also plot another curve showing the progress of the reaction and associated potential energy change, when enzyme is added to the system.

Answer:
1. Activation energy decreases

2.

Question 29.
Observe the given graph a and

1. State how temperature and pH influences enzyme activity.
2. Does the substrate concentration influence enzyme activity. If so, how?

Answer:
1. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature. This is called optimum temperature. Low temperature or high temperature reduces the enzyme activity. Same as, there is an optimum pH for enzyme activity. Deviation from this pH reduces the enzyme activity.

2. With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity of the enzymatic reaction increase at first, as the substrate concentration continues to increase, the increase in the rate of reaction begins to slow down and finally no further rise in velocity occurs. This is because there is no free enzyme molecule to bind additional substrate molecule.

Question 30.

The graph shows the relation between potential energy and progress of reaction. Observe the graph and answer the questions.

1. Is this reaction”exothermic or endothermic? Give reason.
2. What happen to the amount of enzyme at completion of reaction?

Answer:

1. Exothermic. The energy level of substrate is higher than that of product.
2. No change to enzyme

Question 31.
Observe the diagram.

1. Name the process showing here.
2. How is this process would be useful?

Answer:

1. Competitive inhibition
2. Competitive inhibitor are often used in the control of bacterial pathogen.

Question 32.
Fill in the blank columns with the correct terms/ sentences.

Answer:

Plus One Biomolecules Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Structure of a nucleotide pair in DNA is showing below.

Identify the bonds A, B and C.
Answer:

• A – Hydrogen bond
• B – Glycosidic bond
• C – Ester bond

Question 2.
Give examples.

1. Prosthetic group
2. Co-enzyme
3. Metal ion required for enzyme activity.

Answer:

1. Haem is the prosthetic group of enzyme peroxidase.
2. NADP and NAD contain the Vitamin Niacin.
3. Zinc present in carboxy peptidase.

Question 3.
Give one word.

1. The nucleic acids that behave like enzymes
2. The organic compound tightly bound to the apo enzyme.
3. The non protein organic compound that are not tightly bound to the apoenzyme.
4. The protein portion of the enzyme.

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Prosthetic group
3. Co-enzyme
4. Apoenzyme

Question 4.

Identify the molecules A and B and name the bond marked C.
Answer:

• A – Glucose
• B – Maltose
• C- Glycosidicbond

Question 5.
Observe the structure.

1. Identify the bond formed between amino acids.
2. How many types of amino acids are present in animal body?
3. In nutrition some amino acids are required. Write a note on it.

Answer:

1. Peptide bond
2. 20 types of amino acids
3. Note on amino acids:
   • Essential amino acids: The amino acids can not be synthesisecHn the animal body and must be obtained through diet are called essential amino acids.
   • Non-essential amino acids: The amino acids which can be synthesised in the body are called non essential amino acids.

Question 6.
Give name.

1. The most abundant protein in animal.
2. The most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
3. A polymer of fructose.
4. Paper made from plant pulp is
5. Complex polysaccharide present in the exoskeleton of Arthropods
6. Polysaccharide with helical structure

Answer:

1. Collagen
2. RuBisCo
3. Insulin
4. Cellulose
5. Chitin
6. Starch

Question 7.

1. Identify the structures A, B, C and D.
2. Name the molecule formed by the esterification of one ‘D’ molecule and three ‘C’ molecule.

Answer:

1. Structures:
   • A) Glucose
   • B) Amino acid (Glycine)
   • C) Fatty acid
   • D) Glycerol
2. 1 glycerol + 3 fatty acid Triglyceride

Question 8.
Match the column A and B.

Answer:

Question 9.
The activity of the enzyme is inhibited by certain chemicals having close resemblance to the substrate in its molecular structure.

1. Name the type of inhibition
2. Point out a suitable example
3. Mention the Significance of this type of inhibition.

Answer:

1. Competitive inhibition
2. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate. Which closely resembles the substrate succinate in structure.
3. Competitive inhibition are often used in the control of bacterial pathogen.

Question 10.

The figure shows the bonding of a biomolecule

1. Identify the monomer
2. Name the bond between the molecules
3. Name the macromolecule formed

Answer:

1. Glucose
2. Glycosidic bond
3. Starch

Plus One Biomolecules NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Proteins have primary structure. If you are given a method to know which amino acid is at either of the two termini (ends) of a protein, can you connect this information to purity or homogeneity of a protein?
Answer:
In there is one type of amino acid at both termini then it is homopolymer and it cannot be a pure protein. When there are different types of amino acids on both termini then it is a pure protein as proteins are heteropolymer. This property of protein in because of presence of 21 types of amino acids.

Question 2.
Find out and make a list of proteins used as therapeutic agents. Find other applications of proteins (e.g., Cosmetics art)
Answer:

1. Therapeutic Agents:
   • Contraceptive pills: As they are hormones so they are made up of protein.
   • Nutritional Supplements: Many brands are available as protein supplements. Example: Protinex.
2. Other Uses: Chicken cubes are used in making soups and dishes.

Question 3.
Explain the composition of triglyceride.
Answer:
Triglycerides are formed from a single molecule of glycerol, combined with three fatty acids on each of the OH groups, and make up most of fats digested by humans. Easter bonds from between each fatty acid and the glycerol molecule.
General structure of a triglyceride Chemical formula:

RCOO-CH₂CH(-OOCR)CH₂-OOCR,
where R, R’, and R” are longer alkyl chains. The three fatty acids RCOOH, RCOOH and RCOOH can be all different, all the same, or only two the same. Chain lengths of the fatty acids in naturally occurring triglycerides can be of varying lengths, but 16, 18 and 20 carbons are the most common.

Natural fatty acids found in plants and animals are typically composed only of even numbers of carbon atoms due to the way they are biosynthesized from acetyl CoA. Bacteria, however, possess the ability to synthesise odd – and branched – chain fatty acids. Consequently, ruminant animal fat contains odd num¬bered fatty acids, such as 15, due to the action of bacteria in the rumen.

Question 4.
Can you describe What happens when milk is converted into curd or yogurt, from your understanding of proteins?
Answer:
Casein is the predominant phosphoprotein, that accounts for nearly 80% of proteins in cow milk and cheese. Milk-clotting proteases act on the soluble portion of the caseins. K Casein, thus originating an unstable micellar state that results in clot formation. When coagulated with chymosin, casein is sometimes called paracasein.

Casein is not coagulated by heat. It is precipitated by acids and by rennet enzymes, a proteolytic enzyme typically obtained from the stomachs of calves.

Question 5.
Can you attempt building models of biomolecules using commercially available atomic models (Ball and Stick models)?
Answer:
Following three-dimensional structure of cellulose can be made using balls and sticks. Similarly, models of other biomolecules can be made.

Question 6.
Attempt titrating an amino acid against a weak base and discover the number of dissociating (ionizable) functional groups in the amino acid.
Answer:
On titrating against a weak base the amino acid ionizes into following functional groups.

• NH2 (amino group)
• COOH (Carboxyl group)

Question 7.
Draw the structure of the amino acid, alanine.

Answer:

Question 8.
What are gums made of? Is Fevicol different?
Answer:
Natural gums are polysaccharides of natural origin, capable of causing a large viscosity increase in solution, even at small concentrations. Fevicol is a synthetic glue. These adhesives are a mixture of ingredients (typically polymers) dissolved in a solvent. As the solvent evaporates, the adhesive hardens.

Depending on the chemical composition of the adhesive, they will adhere to different materials to greater or lesser degrees. These adhesives are typically weak and are used for household applications.

Question 9.
Explain the basic structure of a nucleotide.
Answer:
A nucleotide is a building block of nucleic acids. A nucleotide has following components:

1. A heterocyclic compound (base)
2. A mnonosaccharide, and
3. A phosphoric acid or a phosphate.

Plus One Biomolecules Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Enzyme often have additional parts intheirstructures that are made up of molecules otherthan proteins. When this additional chemical part is an organic molecule, it is called
(a) cofactor
(b) coenzyme
(c) substrate
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) cofactor

Question 2.
Nucleotides are formed by
(a) sugar and phosphate
(b) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(c) purine, pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
Answer:
(b) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate

Question 3.
The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by
(a) temperature
(b) concentration of the substrate
(c) original activation energy of the system
(d) concentration of the enzyme
Answer:
(c) original activation energy of the system

Question 4.
Which is an organic compound found in most cells?
(a) Glucose
(b) Water
(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(a) Glucose

Question 5.
Enzymes that catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometrical or positional isomers are
(a) ligases
(b) lyases
(c) hydrolases
(d) isomerases
Answer:
(d) isomerases

Question 6.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Fungi – Chitn
(b) Phospholipid – Plasma membrane
(c) Enzyme – Lipopolysacchande
(d) ATP – Nucleotide derivative
Answer:
(c) Enzyme – Lipopolysacchande

Question 7.
An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called
(a) coenzyme
(b) holoenzyme
(c) apoenzyme
(d) isoenzyme
Answer:
(a) coenzyme

Question 8.
The ‘Repeating unit of glycogen is
(a) fructose
(b) mannose
(c) glucose
(d) galactose
Answer:
(c) glucose

Question 9.
Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following?
(a) Enzyme
(b) Substrate
(c) End products
(d) Intermediate end products
Answer:
(c) End products

Question 10.
The enzyme, which combines with non-protein part to form a functional enzyme, is known as
(a) coenzyme
(b) holoenzyme
(c) apoenzyme
(d) prosthetic group
Answer:
(b) holoenzyme

Question 11.
Benedict’s reagent test is conducted to confirm the presence of
(a) polysaccharides like starch
(b) lipids
(c) reducing sugars
(d) proteins
Answer:
(c) reducing sugars

Question 12.
Which disaccharide has different linkage?
(a) Maltose
(b) Starch
(c) Sucrose
(d) Lactose
Answer:
(c) Sucrose

Question 13.
Select the wrong statement.
(a) The building blocks of lipids are amino acids
(b) Majority of enzymes contain a non-protein part called the prosthetic group
(c) The thylakoids are arranged one above the other like a stack of coins forming a granum
(d) Crossing over occurs at pachytene stage ofmeiosis-l
Answer:
(a) The building blocks of lipids are amino acids

Question 14.
Which of the following is a disaccharide?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Galactose
Answer:
(c) Sucrose

Question 15.
Lactose is composed of following components.
(a) glucose and fructose
(b) glucose and glucose
(c) glucose, fructose and galactose
(d) glucose and galactose
Answer:
(d) glucose and galactose

Question 16.
The simple polyhydroxy ketone molecule containing 3-7 carbons is a
(a) disaccharide
(b) monosaccharide
(c) polysaccharide
(d) dipeptide
Answer:
(b) monosaccharide

Question 17.
How many of the twenty two amino acids are essential for children?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 7
Answer:
(c) 9

Question 18.
Starch and cellulose are compounds of many units of
(a) glycerol
(b) amino acids
(c) simple sugars
(d) fatty acids
Answer:
(c) simple sugars