Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Students can Download Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1
Which one of the following is also known as an antidiuretic hormone?
(a) Oxytocin
(b) Vasopressin
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Calcitonin
Answer:
(b) Vasopressin

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 2.
A large quantity of one of the following is removed from our body by lungs.
(a) CO2 only
(b) H2O only
(c) CO2 and H2O
(d) ammonia
Answer:
(c) CO2 and H2O

Question 3.
The pH of human urine is approximately
(a) 6.5
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 7.5
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 4.
Which of the following pairs is wrong?
(a) Uricotelic ________ Birds
(b) Ureotelic _________ Insects
(c) Ammonotelic ________ Tadpole
(d) Ureotelic _________ Elephant
Answer:
(c) Ammonotelic ________ Tadpole

Question 5.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids projecting into the calyces.
(b) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis.
(c) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called the renal corpuscle.
(d) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tabule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of kidney.
Answer:
(b) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis.

Question 6.
Take the odd one justify?
GFR, JGA, ANF, ADH, TSH
Answer:
TSH: all others are the hormones regulate urine formation.

Question 7.
Identify the ammonotelic animal from the following and give reason. (Man, Crow, Lizard, Tadpole)
Answer:
Tadpole

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 8.
While studying the excretory system in man, a student noticed some words.
RAAS and JGA. Can you help him to expand these terms.
Answer:
RAAS – Renin – Angiotensin – Aldosterone System
JGA – Juxta glomerular apparatus

Question 9.
In ureotelic animals, urea is produced in
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Flame cells
(d) Malpighian tubules
Answer;
(b) Liver

Question 10.
State whether true or false and correct the false statements if any:

  1. Flame cells are the excretory structures in round worms.
  2. Fat is absorbed in the form of chylomicrons through the intestinal villi.
  3. Blood is absent in cockroach.
  4. Joint between atlas and axis vertebrae is a pivot joint.

Answer:

  1. False – Flame cells are the excretory structures in flat worms.
  2. True
  3. False – Blood is present in cockroach. It is colourless.
  4. True

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the schematic diagram of the urine formation. (Hint: Show all the three process involved)
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 1

Question 2.
Complete the following sentences.

  1. Reabsorption of water from DCT is facilitated by the hormone __________
  2. Kidney failure can cause a bone disorder called _________
  3. Angiotensin II activates the adrenal cortex to release __________
  4. In cases of Kidney failure, urea can be removed by the process called __________

Answer:

  1. ADH
  2. Gout
  3. Aldosterone
  4. Hemodialysis

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 3.
Pick out the correct word from list provided (Myasthenia gravis, Uremia, Angina, diuresis)

  1. Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction is __________
  2. Reduce loss of water through urine is _________
  3. A system of acute chest pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle is _________
  4. Accumulation of urea in blood is __________

Answer:

  1. Myasthenia gravis
  2. Diuresis
  3. Angina
  4. Uremia

Question 4.
Classify the following animals according to their type of excretion.
Frog, Tadpole, birds, man, Turtle, shark, insect, camel
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 2

Question 5.
Tadpole is ammonotelic while the frog is ureotelic. Comment on this statement.
Answer:
Tadpole larvae’s habitat is aquatic whereas the frog lives in the terrestrial habitat. So in the aquatic habitat due to the presence of water, ammonia can be excreted easily.

But in frog the water must be conserved. So ammonia is changed into urea which needs only small quantity of water for excretion.

Question 6.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 3

  1. Label the parts (1) and (2).
  2. Name the functional unit of the kidney.

Answer:

  1. The parts are:
    • (1) – Renal cortex
    • (2) – Ureter
  2. Nephron

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 7.
Rearrange the following parts in their correct way.
Glomerulus → Capsular space → loop of Henle → PCT → DCT → Collecting duct → Collecting tubule → Ureter → Renal pelvis → Urethra → Urinary bladder.
Answer:
Glomerulus → Capsular space → PCT → Loop of Henle → DCT →Collecting tubule → Collecting duct → Renal pelvis → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra.

Question 8.
Fill in the gaps:

  1. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is ____(1)____ to water. Whereas the descending limb is _____(2)_____ to it.
  2. Reabsorption of water from distal parts of the tubules is facilitated by hormone __________
  3. Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except ________
  4. A healthy adult human excretes (on an average) _______ gm of urea/day.

Answer:

  1. (1) – Impermeable, (2) -Permeable
  2. ADH
  3. Nitrogenous wastes
  4. 25-30 gm of urea/day

Question 9.
Brain controls the kidney action.

  1. Name the hormones involved in this.
  2. How do they act on kidney?

Answer:

  1. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
  2. The pituitary gland release the hypothalamic hormone ADH and its is transported to the kidney. The presence of ADH makes the tubules permeable to water. Thus the water is conserved or excreted according to the presence of fluid level in the body.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 10.
A patient approaches a doctor having symptoms like excretion of large amount of urine, excessive thirst and dehydration.

  1. Identify the disease.
  2. Which hormone deficiency causes this disease?

Answer:

  1. Diabetes insipidus
  2. ADH

Question 11.
A table showing the average quantity of urine in a person in two different seasons are given.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 4

  1. Compare it. Do you agree with this table? State the reason for producing different Quantity in different season.
  2. Name the hormone responsible for that.

Answer:

  1. Amount of water in the body is low in summer season and increase its quantity in winter season. In summer season water lose is very high due to various reasons like evaporation. So body eliminate less amount of waterthrough urine to conserve water in the body
  2. ADH or vasopressin

Question 12.
Teacher asks one of the student to name the excretory organs in man. He names three organs beside kidney. Teacher appreciates him for the correct answer.

  1. What was his answer?
  2. Give the excretory role of the above organs

Answer:

  1. Liver, skin, lungs
  2. the excretory role of the above organs
    • Liver – Excretes cholesterol, bile pigments, etc.
    • Skin – Sweat gland- Excretes excess sodium chloride, small amount of urea lactic acid etc. Sebaceous gland excretes lipids such as waxes, steroles, fatty acid etc.
    • Lungs – Excretes CO2 and water

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 13.
Observe the diagram
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 5

  1. Copy the diagram and fill the gaps.
  2. Write the concentration of glomerular filtrate (Isotonic, Hypotonic, Hypertonic) in the given regions of the nephron.
    • Proximal convoluted tubule
    • Descending limb
    • Ascending limb
    • Distal convoluted tubule

Answer:
1.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 6

2. Concentration of glomerular filtrate

  • Proximal convoluted tubule – isotonic
  • Descending limb – hypertonic
  • Ascending limb – hypotonic
  • Distal convoluted tubule – Hypertonic

Question 14.
A patient with renal failure in waiting for a kidney donor for a transplantation operation. The urea level is high and the patient is developing symptoms of uremia. What method you can suggest to keep the patient live till a donor can be found. Explain the principle behind it.
Answer:
Haemodialysis. The haemodialyser has a cellophane tube bathed in a fluid with ionic concentration similarto that of plasma. The process of separation of small solutes from macromolecular colloids is done hereby the process of diffusion. So the blood will be free from urea, uric acid and creatinine.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 15.
About 125ml of glomerular filtrate is produced per minute in our kidney. However 1ml of urine is produced each minute. What happens to the other 124ml of the filtrate.
Answer:
In man about 125ml of glomerular filtrate is formed per minute. But most of the substances are reabsorbed into tubular network of capillaries. This process is known as selective reabsorption. High threshold substances reabsorbed by active transport and low threshold substances reabsorbed by diffusion.

Question 16.
Consumption of alcohol tends to frequent urination.

  1. Name the hormone that control it.
  2. Draw a flow chart showing the action of ethanol present in alcohol and its consequences on urinary system.

Answer:
1. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

2.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 7

Question 17.
Prepare a flow chart showing hormonal control by Juxta glomerular apparatus (JGA) in regulation of kidney function.
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 8

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 18.
Flow of blood in vasa recta is known as counter current system. Give reason.
Answer:
The vasa recta is thin walled capillaries lying parallel to the loop of Henle. The blood entering the descending limb of each vasarecta come in close contact with the outgoing blood in ascending limb. This system is called counter current system.

The two limbs of the loop of Henle form another counter current system. These two systems are concentrating the urine in mammalian kidney by diffusion and osmosis.

Question 19.
‘Micturition is an involuntary as well as a voluntary process.’ Justify the statement.
Answer:
The elimination of urine from the urinary bladder is called micturition. The gradual filling of the urinary bladder causes stretching. When the bladder is filled to its limit, the stretch receptors send impulses to the brain to excrete the urine.

The initiation and inhibition of micturition is voluntary in adult but involuntary in children. Due to lack of nervous control the micturition in some humans become involuntary causing bed wetting.

Question 20.
In alcoholic drinkers the urine is dilute. Why?
Answer:
The process of reabsorption of water by the distal parts ofthe kidney tubules become low efficient. This occurs due to the deficiency of ADH. lt leads to diabetes insipedus.

Question 21.
Distinguish between diabetis mellitus and diabetis insipedus.
Answer:
Insulin deficiency causes large amounts of blood sugar to be lost in the urine. It leads to diabetis melitus while the deficiency of ADH leads to diabetes insipedus i.e dilute urine disease.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 22.
The failure of removing toxic substances from the blood ultimately leads kidney failure.

  1. How is it temporarily solved.
  2. Name the machine is used.

Answer:

  1. Hemodialysis is an artificial process of removing toxic substances from the blood
  2. Artificial kidney or Hemodialysis machine.

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State the differences between the following.

  1. Tubular reabsorption and Tubular secretion.
  2. ADH and RAAS.

Answer:
1. Tubular reabsorption:
The process of selective reabsorption of most of the useful substances from the glomerular filtrate in the renal tubule.

Tubular secretion:
It is the process of active secretion of certain substances such as Hydrogen ions, ammonia etc. from the blood into the lumen of the urinary tubules by the tubular epithelium during urine formation.

2. ADH:
ADH is the hormone from posterior pituitary gland, makes the wall of the distal convoluted tube and collecting tubule permeable to water so that more water is reabsorbed.

RAAS:
Renin – Angiotensin – Aldosterone system increases the blood pressure by constricting arterioles and increases the blood volume by stimulating proximal convoluted tubule.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 2.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 9

  1. What does the diagram represent?
  2. Name the parts A, B, C, D.
  3. What is the physiological function taking place in part ‘B.

Answer:

  1. Nephron
  2. The parts are
    • A – Bowman’s capsule
    • B – Henle’s loop
    • C – Proximal convoluted tubule
    • D – Collecting duct

3. Henle’s loop is the site of osmoregulation in human kidney. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes. The ascending limb is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolyte actively or passively.

Therefore, as the concentrated filtrate pass upward, it gets diluted due to the passage of electrolytes to the medullary fluid.

Question 3.
Observe the diagram and answer the questions.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 10

  1. Identify the labelled parts A, B, C, D.
  2. What does the diagram represents?

Answer:

  1. The labelled parts are
    • A – Afferent arteriole
    • B – Efferent arteriole
    • C – Glomerulus
    • D – Bowman’s capsule
  2. Glomerular Filtration

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 4.
Observe the diagram given below which represents the counter current system in nephron and vasa recta. This mechanism helps in maintaining concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium. Substantiate.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 11
Answer:
The flow of Glomerular filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s loop is in opposite directions and thus forms a counter current. The flow of blood through the two limbs of vasa recta is also in a counter current pattern.

The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the counter current in them help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium i.e, from 300 mOsmolL1 in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmolL1 in the inner medulla.

This gradient is mainly caused by NACI and urea. NaCl is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the descending limb of vasa recta.

Similarly, small amounts of urea enter the thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which in transported back to the interstitium by the collecting tubule. This counter current mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium.

Question 5.
The steps involved in the treatment of a uremic patient is given below.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 12

  1. Complete the missing steps (a) and (b)
  2. Diagonise the treatment
  3. Name the organ which is under failure

Answer:

  1. The missing steps are
    • (a) – Anticoagulant like heparin
    • (b) – Anti – heparin
  2. Hemodialysis
  3. Kidney

Question 6.

  1. Name the mechanism by which JGA plays a complex regulatory role.
  2. Draw a flow chart showing the mechanism.
  3. Mention the feed back which act as a check on the above mechanism,

Answer:
1. Renin-Angiotensin mechanism

2.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination - 13
3. An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of Atrial Natriuretic factor (ANF). ANF can cause vasodilation and thereby decrease the blood pressure. ANF mechanism act as a check on the renin-Angiotensin mechanism.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 7.
Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest a suitable word in the missing place.

  1. Cockroach – Malpighian Tubule : Flatworm – _________
  2. Man – Kidney : Earthworm – _________
  3. Prawn – Greengland : Amphioxus – __________

Answer:

  1. Flame cells
  2. Nephridia
  3. Protonephridia

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Glomerular Filtration Rate(GFR)
Answer:
Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR). The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys per minute is called glomercular filtration rate (GFR). GFR in a healthy individual is approximately 125ml/minute, i.e., 180 litres per day. On an average, 1100 -1200 ml of blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute.

Question 2.
Explain the autoregulatory mechanism of GFR.
Answer:
Regulation of GFR. The kidney have built-in mechanisms for the regulation of glomerular filtration rate. One such efficient mechanism is carried out by juxta glomerular apparatus(JGA).

JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the distal convoluted tubule and the afferent arteriole at the location of their contact. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release renin which can stimulate the glomercular blood flow and thereby the GFR back to normal.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 3.
Indicate whether the following statements are true or false:

  1. Micturition is carried out by a reflex
  2. ADH helps in water elimination, making the urine hypotonic.
  3. Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman’s capsule.
  4. Henle’s loop plays an important role in concentrating the urine.
  5. Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tublue.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. True
  4. True
  5. True

Question 4.
Give a brief account of the counter mechanism.
Answer:
Counter current Mechanism. The Henle’s loop and vasa recta play a significant role in this. The flow of filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s loop is in opposite directions and thus forms a countercurrent.

The flow of blood through the two limbs of vasa recta is also in a countercurrent pattern. The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the counter current in them help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary in terstitium, i.e., from 300 mOsmolL-1 in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmolL-1 in the inner medulla.

This gradient is mainly caused by NaCI and urea. NaCI is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the descending limb of vasa recta. NaCI is returned to the intestitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta.

Question 5.
What is meant by the term osmoregulation?
Answer:
Osmoregulation is the regulation of blood volume, body fluid volume and ionic concentration

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 6.
Match the items of column I with those of column II.
Column I Column II

Column IColumn II
(a) Ammonotelism(i) Birds
(b) Bowman’s capsule(ii) Water reabsorption
(c) Micturition(iii) Bony fish
(d) Uricotelism(iv) Urinary bladder
(e) ADH(v) Renal tubule

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (v)
(c) – (iv)
(d) – (i)
(e) – (ii)

Question 7.
Name the following.

  1. A chordate animal having flame cells as excretory structures.
  2. Cortical portions projecting between the medullary pyramids in the human kidney.
  3. A loop of capillary running parallel to the Henle’s loop.

Answer:

  1. Cephalochordata
  2. Columns of Bertini
  3. Vasa Recta

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 8.
Fill in the gaps:

  1. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is ________ to water whereas the descending limb is __________ to it.
  2. Reabsorption of water from distal parts of the tubules is facilitated by hormone ___________
  3. Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except ___________
  4. A healthy adult human excretes (on an average) _________gm of urea/day.

Answer:

  1. impermeable, permeable
  2. ADH
  3. nitrogenous waste
  4. 25 to 30

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed’?
(a) Urine will not collect in the bladder
(b) Micturition will continue
(c) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
(d) There will be no micturition
Answer:
(c) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder

Question 2.
Green glands present in some arthropods help in
(a) respiration
(b) excretion
(c) digestion
(d) reproduction
Answer:
(b) excretion

Question 3.
Excretory product of spider is
(a) uric acid
(b) ammonia
(c) guanine
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) guanine

Question 4.
Which one is the component of ornithine cycle
(a) Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid
(b) Ornithine, citrulline and arginine
(c) Ornithine, citrulline and alanine
(d) Amino acids are not used
Answer:
(b) Ornithine, citrulline and arginine

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 5.
Urea synthesis occurs in
(a) kidney
(b) liver
(c) brain
(d) muscles
Answer:
(b) liver

Question 6.
Renin is secreted from
(a) juxtaglomerular cells
(b) podocytes
(c) nephridia
(d) stomach
Answer:
(a) juxtaglomerular cells

Question 7.
Loop of Henle is associated with
(a) excretory system
(b) respiratory system
(c) reproductive system
(d) digestive system
Answer:
(a) excretory system

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 8.
If one litre of water is introduced in human blood, then
(a) BMR increases
(b) RBC collapses and urine production increases
(c) RBC collapses and urine production decreases
(d) BMR decreases
Answer:
(b) RBC collapses and urine production increases

Question 9.
The urine is
(a) hypotonic to blood and isotonic in medullary fluid
(b) hypotonic to bloodand isotonic to medullary fluid
(c) isotonic to blood and hypotonic to medullary fluid
(d) hypertonic to blood and isotonic to medullary fluid
Answer:
(d) hypertonic to blood and isotonic to medullary fluid

Question 10.
Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in glomerular filtrate’?
(a) Water
(b) Glucose
(c) Urea
(d) Plasma proteins
Answer:
(d) Plasma proteins

Question 11.
A large quantity of fluid is filtered everyday by the nephrons in the kidneys. Only about 1% of it is excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of the filtrate
(a) gets coiected in the renal pelvis
(b) is lost as sweat
(c) is stored in the urinary bladder
(d) is reabsorbed into the blood
Answer:
(d) is reabsorbed into the blood

Question 12.
The characteristic that is shared by urea, uric acid and ammonia is/are
I. They are nitrogenous wastes.
II. They all need very large amount of water for excretion.
III. They are all equally toxic.
IV. They are produced in the kidneys.
(a) I and III
(b) I and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I only
Answer:
(d) I only

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 13.
A bird excretes nitrogenous waste materials in the form of?
(a) uric acid
(b) ammonia
(c) urea
(d) amino acids
Answer:
(a) uric acid

Question 14.
Which of the following is correct with reference to haemodialysis?
(a) Absorbs and resends excess of ions
(b) The dialysis unit has a coiled cellophane tube
(c) Blood is pumped back through a suitable artery after haemodialysis
(d) Anti-heparin is added priorto haemodialysis
Answer:
(b) The dialysis unit has a coiled cellophane tube

Question 15.
Find the incorrect statement regarding mechanism of urine formation in man.
(a) the glomerular filtration rate is about 125 mL/min
(b) the ultra filtration is opposed by the colloidal osmotic pressure of plasma
(c) tubular secretion takes place in the PCT
(d) aldosterone induces greater reabsorption of sodium
Answer:
(c) tubular secretion takes place in the PCT

Question 16.
The excretory material of bony fish is
(a) urea
(b) protein
(c) ammonia
(d) amino acid
Answer:
(c) ammonia

Question 17.
The yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of
(a) urea
(b) uric acid
(c) urochrome
(d) bilirubin
Answer:
(c) urochrome

Question 18.
Malpighian tubules are
(a) excretory organs of insects
(b) excretory organs of frog
(c) respiratory organs of insects
(d) endocrine glands of insects
Answer:
(a) excretory organs of insects

Question 19.
The size of filtration slits of glomerulus
(a) 10wn
(b) 15nm
(c) 20nm
(d) 25nm
Answer:
(d) 25nm

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Question 20.
The conversion of dangerous nitrogenous waste into less toxic excretory matter is carried out in man in the
(a) blood
(b) liver
(c) kidney
(d) skin
Answer:
(b) liver

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Students can Download Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Plus Two Computer Application Trends and Issues in ICT One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
SIM is_____.
(a) Subscriber Identity Module
(b) Subscriber Identity Mobile
(c) Subscription Identity Module
(d) Subscription Identity Mobile
Answer:
(a) Subscriber Identity Module

Question 2.
The protocol used to send SMS message is______.
Answer:
SS7 (Signalling System No.7)

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 3.
_____is a standard way to send and receive short text message using mobile phone.
Answer:
Short Message Service(SMS)

Question 4.
_____is a standard way to send and receive message with multimedia content using mobile phone.
Answer:
Multimedia Messaging Service (MMS)

Question 5.
From the following which generation network has more speed?
(a) 1G
(b) 3G
(c) 2G
(d) 4G
Answer:
(d) 4G

Question 6.
GSM stands for______.
Answer:
Global System for Mobiles.

Question 7.
CDMA stands for_____.
Answer:
Code Division Multiple Access

Question 8.
GPRS stands for______.
Answer:
Global Packet Radio Sysetm.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 9.
GPS stands for______.
Answer:
Global Positioning System.

Question 10.
EDGE stands for____.
Answer:
Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution

Question 11.
_____technology provides speed, voice quality, wider coverage, better security to the mobile network than GSM network.
Answer:
CDMA

Question 12.
Write down the popular standards introduced by 2G network.
Answer:
GSM and CDMA

Question 13.
From the following which one is used analog signals instead of digital signals.
(a) 2G
(b) 3G
(c) 1G
(d) 4G
Answer:
(c) 1G

Question 14.
Consider a person while using internet through mobile phone, it shows G on the network coverage icon. Which type of network is he using and name the communication feature.
Answer:
The network is 2G and the communication feature is GPRS.

Question 15.
Consider a person while using internet through mobile phone, it shows E on the network coverage icon. Which type of network is he using and name the communication feature.
Answer:
The network is 2G and the communication feature is EDGE.

Question 16.
Consider a person while using internet through mobile phone, it shows H on the network coverage icon. Which type of network is he using and name the technology.
Answer:
The network is 3G and the technology is WCDMA

Question 17.
_____is the technology used in 3G.
Answer:
WCDMA (Wideband Code Division Multiple Access)

Question 18.
______is the technology used in 4G.
Answer:
OFDMA(Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access)

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 19.
From the following which generation network provides good quality images and videos than TV.
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 3G
(d) 4G
Answer:
(d) 4G

Question 20.
SMS stands for_______.
Answer:
Short Message Service

Question 21.
MMS stands for_______.
Answer:
Multimedia Messaging Service

Question 22.
______is a plastic card with small chip.
Answer:
Smart card

Question 23.
MOS stands for_______.
Answer:
Mobile Operating systems

Question 24.
Name a Mobile Operating System.
Answer:
Android.

Question 25.
KitKat, Jelly Bean, Donut, Cupcake are the different versions of______OperatingSystem.
KitKat, Jelly Bean, Donut, Cupcake 4rmloi
Answer:
Android.

Question 26.
RFID stands for______.
Answer:
Radio Frequency Identification

Question 27.
_______technology helped in Business Logistics to identify, track, sort or detect objects.
Answer:
RFID technology

Question 28.
IPR stands for_______.
Answer:
Intellectual Property Right

Question 29.
WIPO stands for_______.
Answer:
World Intellectual Property Organisation

Question 30.
_______is the exclusive rights to prevent unauthorized copying of inventions by a Creator from the Unauthorised person or company.
Answer:
Patent

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 31.
______is a unique, simple and memorable sign to promote a brand and hence increase the business and goodwill of a company.
Answer:
Trademark

Question 32.
A product or article is designed so beautifully to attract the customers. This type of design is called______.
Answer:
Industrial Design.

Question 33.
Aranmuia Kannadi, Palakkadan Matta, Marayoor Sarkkara, etc are example of______.
Answer:
Geographical indications.

Question 34.
_______is the property right that arises automatically when a person creates a new work by his own and by Law it prevents the others from the unauthorized or intentional copying of this without the permission of the creator.
Answer:
Copyright

Question 35.
From the following which is the symbol for copyright.
(a)  $
(b) ©
(c) ®
(d) ™
Answer:
(b) ©

Question 36.
From the following which is the symbol for Unregistered trademark.
(a)  $
(b) ©
(c) ®
(d) ™
Answer:
(d) ™

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 37.
From the following which is the symbol for Registered trademark.
(a)  $
(b) ©
(c) ®
(d) ™
Answer:
(c) ®

Question 38.
Unauthorized copying or use of Intellectual property rights such as Patents, Copy rights and Trademarks are called_______.
Answer:
Intellectual Property Infringement.

Question 39.
______prevents others from the unauthorized or intentional copying or use of Patent without the permission of the creator.
Answer:
Patent Infringement

Question 40.
______is the illegal copying, distribution, or use of software.
Answer:
Piracy

Question 41.
_______prevents others from the unauthorized or intentional copying or use of Trademark without the permission of the creator.
Answer:
Trademark Infringement

Question 42.
_______prevents others from the unauthorized or intentional copying or use of Copy right without the permission of the creator.
Answer:
Copy right Infringement

Question 43.
______is a virtual environment created by computer systems connected to the internet.
Answer:
Cyber space

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 44.
A person committing crimes and illegal activities with the use of computer over Internet. This crime is included as______crime.
Answer:
Cyber crime

Question 45.
State True or False.
Cyber crimes can be classified into three categories such as against individual, property, and Government.
Answer:
True

Question 46.
Phishing, hacking, denial of service attacks, etc are______crimes.
Answer:
Cyber

Question 47.
Odd one out
(a) Identity theft
(b) Harrassment
(c) vilation of privacy
(d) credit card fraud
Answer:
(d) credit card fraud, it is a cyber crime against individual others are cyber crimes against property

Question 48.
Odd one out
(a) Credit card theft
(b) Intellectual property theft
(c) Internet time theft
(d) Dissemination of obscene material
Answer:
(d) Dissemination of obscene material, It is cyber crime against individual, the others are cyber against property

Question 49.
Odd one out
(a) cyber terrorism
(b) Attacks against e-Governance websites
(c) Impersonation and cheating
(d) Website defacement
Answer:
(c) Impersonation and cheating, it is cyber crime against individual others are cyber crimes against Government

Question 50.
IT Act amended in_______
(a) 2015
(b) 2008
(c) 1900
(d) 1998
Answer:
(b) 2008

Question 51.
IT Act passed in Indian parliament is_______.
Answer:
2000

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 52.
The laws to prevent cyber crimes is termed as______.
Answer:
Cyber law

Question 53.
_______ is the excessive enthusiasm for acquiring knowledge.
Answer:
Infomania

Question 54.
Phishing is an example of_______.
Answer:
Cyber crime

Question 55.
Expand the term GPRS.
Answer:
General Packet Radio Services.

Question 56.
SMS messages are exchanged using the protocol called_______.
Answer:
SS7(Signaling System No.7)

Question 57.
Pick the odd one out and justify your answer.
(A) SMS
(B) MMS
(C) GPS
(D) Android
Answer:
(D) Android. It is a mobile operating System. Others are mobile communication services.

Question 58.
Which among the following statements is wrong in relation with 2G network?
(A) It support MMS.
(B) It can provide only voice Service.
(C) GSM and CDMA are two popular standards introduced in 2G.
(D) 2G Network were later expanded to include GPRS and EDGE.
Answer:
(B) It can provide only voice service.

Question 59.
Pick the odd one out.
(A) Windows
(B) Android
(C) IOS
(D) Linux
Answer:
(D) Linux. Others are mobile Operating Systems.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 60.
_____refers to the exclusive right given to a person over the creation of his/her mind fora period of time.
Answer:
Patent / Intellectual Property Right

Question 61.
Which among the following are considered as violation to privacy?

  1. Keeping hidden cameras in private places
  2. Publishing private photos of individual in social media without their permission
  3. Use of unauthorized software
  4. Using simple password

(A) All the above are correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 2 only
Answer:
(D) 1 and 2 only

Plus Two Computer Application Trends and Issues in ICT Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is mobile computing?
Answer:
The drawbacks of Desk computers are, it is heavy and power consumption rate is high and it is not portable (not mobile).

The advancements in computing technology, light weight, and low power consumption have led to the developments of more computing power in hand held devices like laptops, tablets, smart phones, etc.

Nowadays instead of desktops, light weight and low power consumption devices are used because they are cheap and common. Moreover, people are able to connect to others through internet even when they are in move.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 2.
Write short notes on SMS.
Answer:
It allows transferring short text messages containing up to 160 characters between mobile phones. The sent message reaches a Short Message Service Center(SMSC), that allows ‘store and forward’ systems.

It uses the protocol SS7(Signaling System No7). The first SMS message ‘Merry Christmas’ was sent on 03/12/1992 from a PC to a mobile phone on the Vodafone GSM network in UK.

Question 3.
Expand GPS? Explain?
Answer:
It is a space-based satellite navigation system that provides location and time information in all weather conditions, anywhere on or near the Earth where there is an unobstructed line of sight to four or more GPS satellites.

The system provides critical capabilities to military, civil and commercial users around the world. It is maintained by the United States government and is freely accessible to anyone with a GPS receiver. GPS was created and realized by the U.S.

Department of Defense (DoD) and was originally run with 24 satellites. It is used for vehicle navigation, aircraft navigation, ship navigation, oil exploration, Fishing, etc. GPS receivers are now integrated with mobile phones.

Question 4.
What is a smart card? How is it useful?
Answer:
A smart card is a plastic card with a computer chip or memory that stores and transacts data. A smart card (may be like your ATM card) reader used to store and transmit data. The advantages are it is secure, intelligent and convenient. The smart card technology is used in SIM for GSM phones. A SIM card is used as an identification proof.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 5.
How do trademark and industrial design differ?
Answer:
1. Trademark:
This is a unique, simple and memorable sign to promote a brand and hence increase the business and goodwill of a company. It must be registered. The period of registration is for 10 years and can be renewed. The registered trademark under Controller General of Patents Design and Trademarks cannot use or copy by anybody else.

2. Industrial designs:
A product or article is designed so beautifully to attract the customers. This type of designs is called industrial design. This is a prototype and used as a model for large scale production.

Question 6.
Explain the exclusive right given to the owner by IPR?
Answer:
The exclusive right given to the owner by IPR is owner can disclose their creations for money.

Question 7.
What is piracy?
Answer:
It is the unauthorized copying, distribution, and use of a creation without the permission of the creator. It is against the copy right act and hence the person committed deserve the punishment.

Question 8.
What do you meant by infringement?
Answer:
Unauthorized copying or use of Intellectual property rights such as Patents, Copy rights and Trademarks are called intellectual property lnfringement(violation). It is a punishable offence.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 9.
Match the following.

(a) 1 G(i)  LTE (Long Term Evolution)
(b) 2 G(ii) GSM & CDMA
(c) 3 G(iii) Analog system which support only voice facility
(d) 4 G(iv) WCDMA

Answer:

  • (a) – (iii)
  • (b) – (ii)
  • (c) – (iv)
  • (d) – (i)

Plus Two Computer Application Trends and Issues in ICT Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Compare GSM and CDMA standards.
Answer:
1. Global System for Mobile (GSM):
It is the most successful standard. It uses narrow band TDMA(Time Division Multiple Access), allows simultaneous calls on the same frequency range of 900 MHz to 1800 MHz. The network is identified using the SIM(Subscriber Identity Module).

2. GPRS (General Packet Radio Services):
It is a packet oriented mobile data service on the 2G on GSM. GPRS was originally standardized by European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSlJ GPRS usage is typically charged based on volume of data transferred. Usage above the bundle cap is either charged per megabyte or disallowed.

3. EDGE(Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution):
It is three times faster than GPRS. It is used for voice communication as well as an internet connection.

4. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA):
It is a channel access method used by various radio communication technologies. CDMA is an example of multiple access, which is where several transmitters can send information simultaneously over a single communication channel.

This allows several users to share a band of frequencies To permit this to be achieved without undue interference between the users, and provide better security.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 2.
Differentiate GPRS and EDGE?
Answer:
1. GPRS(General Packet Radio Services):
It is a packet oriented mobile data service on the 2G on GSM. GPRS was originally standardized by European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) GPRS usage is typically charged based on volume of data transferred. Usage above the bundle cap is either charged per megabyte or disallowed.

2. EDGE(Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution):
It is three times faster than GPRS. It is used for voice communication as well as an internet connection.

Question 3.
Explain the features of Android OS.
Answer:
It is a Linux based OS for Touch screen devices such as smart phones and tablets.lt was developed by Android Inc. founded in Palo Alto, California in 2003 by Andy Rubin and his friends. In 2005, Google acquired this.

Ateam led by Rubin developed a mobile device platform powered by the Linux Kernel. The interface of Android OS is based on touch inputs like swiping, tapping, pinching in and out to manipulate on screen objects.

In 2007 onwards this OS is used in many mobile phones and tablets. Android SDK(Software Development Kit) is available to create applications(apps) like Google Maps, FB, What’s App.etc. It is of open source nature and many Apps are available for free download from the Android Play Store hence increase the popularity.

Question 4.
What is cyberspace?
Answer:
Earlier Traditional communication services such as postal service(Snail mail) are used for communication. It is a low speed and not reliable service. In order to increase the speed Telegram Services were used. Its speed was high but it has lot of limitations and expensive too. Latertelephoneswere used for voice communication.

Nowadays telephone system and computer system are integrated and create a virtual(unreal) environment. This is called cyber space. The result for this integration is that tremendous speed and it is very cheap.

Question 5.
Why is cyberspace called a virtual world?
Answer:
The telephone system and computer system are integrated and create a virtual(unreal) environment. This is called cyber space. The result for this integration is that tremendous speed and it is very cheap.

This is an imaginary world. We can see persons with different behaviour. Because of good and bad people we can’t believe blindly. If we search a solution fora problem thousands of answers will get instantly and may confused us.

Question 6.
What is copyright? How does it differ from patent?
Answer:
1. Copyright:
The trade mark is ©, copy right is the property right that arises automatically when a person creates a new work by his own and by Law it prevents the others from the unauthorized or intentional copying of this without the permission of the creator for 60 years after the death of the author.

2. Patents:
A person or organization invented a product or a creation can be protected from unauthorized copying or creation without the permission of the creator by law. This right is called Patent. In India the validity of the right is up to 20 years. After this anybody can use freely.

Question 7.
Why is Cyber law important?
Answer:
Just like normal crimes (theft, trespassing private . area, destroy, etc.) Cyber crimes (Virus, Trojan Horse, Phishing, Denial of Service, Pornography, etc.) also increased significantly. Due to cyber crime, the victims lose money, reputation, etc. and some of them commit suicide.

Cyber law ensures the use of computers and Internet by the people safely and legally. It consists of rules and regulations like Indian Penal Code (IPC) to stop crimes and for the smooth functions of Cyber world. Two Acts are IT Act 2000 and IT Act Amended in 2008.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 8.
“Infomania has became a psychological problem”. Write your opinion.
Answer:
Infomania is the excessive desire(lnfatuation) for acquiring knowledge from various modern sources like Internet, Email, Social media, Instant Message Application(WhatsApp) and Smart Phones. Due to this the person may neglect daily routine such as family, friends, food, sleep, etc. hence they get tired.

They give first preference to Internet than others. They create their own Cyber World and no interaction to the surroundings and the family. They are more anxious and afraid that they will be out from the cyber world unless they updated.

Question 9.
What do you mean by big data in business? Explain big data analytics.
Answer:
Earlier before buying a product people may consult two or three shop keepers or local friends and take decisions. But nowadays before taking decisions people search shopping sites, social network groups(Facebook, WhatsApp, Instagram, twitter, etc), web portals etc.forthe best prices. Almost all online sites have product comparison menus.

By this we can compare the price, features, etc. Earlier a product is created and customers are forced to buy. But today customer is the King of the market, so products are created for the choices of the customers.

So companies gathering information about the customers from various sources such as social medias like Internet forums, social blogs, Micro blogs, etc. The volume of such data is very large and considered as big data in business.

With the help of a s/w analysis this big data and generate a report that contain all the information such as choices, taste, needs, status, etc of a customer.

Question 10.
What do you mean by business logistics?
Answer:
It is the management of the flow(transportation) of resources such as food, consumer goods, services, animals, etc in a business between the point of origin (source) and the point of consumption (destination) in order to meet the needs of companies and customers.

Business logistics consists of many more complexities. The effective use of hardware and software reduces the complexities faced in Business logistics. For this the hardware used is RFID(Radio Frequency Identification) tag and the reader.

It is like the barcode. The RFID tag contains all the details of a product and it consists of a combination of transmitter and a receiver. The data stored in the RFID tag can be accessed by a special reader and to read the data no need of RFID tag and reader in a line of site instead both are within a range.

This tag is used in Vehicles as a prepaid tag and makes the payments easier in Toll booths. Similarly, it is useful to take the Census of wild animals also.

Question 11.
How does RFID improve the way business is done?
Answer:
The data stored in the RFID tag can be accessed by a special reader and to read the data no need of RFID tag and reader in a line of site instead both are within a range.

This tag is used in Vehicles as a prepaid tag and makes the payments easier in Toll booths. Similarly, it is useful to take the Census of wild animals also.

In business the tag(contains details about Product code, Price, Batch no., Manufacturing Date, Expiry date, etc.) is stick on the cartons and by using RFID reader process it speedily.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 12.
Define Mobile computing.
Answer:
1. Mobile computing:
The drawbacks of Desk computers are, it is heavy and power consumption rate is high and it is not portable(not mobile).

The advancements in computing technology, light weight, and low power consumption have led to the developments of more computing power in hand held devices like laptops, tablets, smart phones, etc.

Nowadays instead of desktops, light weight and low power consumption devices are used because they are cheap and common. Moreover, people are able to connect to others through internet even when they are in move.

Question 13.
“2G networks introduced data services for the mobile. Two popular standards of 2G systems are GSM and CDMA.”

  1. Expand CDMA.
  2. Discuss the different technologies that are used to enhance data communication features of GSM.

Answer:
1. Code Division Multiple Access.

2. different technologies:

a. GPRS (General Packet Radio Services):
It is a packet oriented mobile data service on the 2G on GSM. GPRS was originally standardized by European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) GPRS usage is typically charged based on volume of data transferred. Usage above the bundle cap is either charged per megabyte or disallowed.

b. EDGE(Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution):
It is three times faster than GPRS. It is used for voice communication as well as an internet connection.

Question 14.
“Mobile communication offers many services apart from the basic voice calling facility”

  1. Name the service which helps to locate a geographical position anywhere on the earth.
  2. Differentiate SMS and MMS.

Answer:
1. GPS

2. Differentiate SMS and MMS:

a. Short Message Service(SMS):
It allows transferring short text messages containing up to 160 characters between mobile phones. The sent message reaches a Short Message Service Center(SMSC), that allows ‘store and forward’ systems. It uses the protocol SS7(Signaling System No7). The first SMS message ‘Merry Christmas’ was sent on 03/ 12/1992 from a PC to a mobile phone on the Vodafone GSM network in UK.

b. Multimedia Messaging Service (MMS):
It allows sending Multi-Media(text, picture, audio and video file) content using mobile phones. It is an extension of SMS.

Question 15.
Write a short note on GPS.
Answer:
Global Positioning System(GPS):
It is a space-based satellite navigation system that provides location and time information in all weather conditions, anywhere on or near the Earth where there is an unobstructed line of sight to four or more GPS satellites.

The system provides critical capabilities to military, civil and commercial users around the world. It is maintained by the United States government and is freely accessible to anyone with a GPS receiver.

GPS was created and realized by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and was originally run with 24 satellites. It is used for vehicle navigation, aircraft navigation, ship navigation, oil exploration, Fishing, etc. GPS receivers are now integrated with mobile phones.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 16.
Write a short note on Android OS.
Answer:
1. Android OS:
It is a Linux based OS for touch screen devices such as smart phones and tablets.lt was developed by Android Inc. founded in Palo Alto, California in 2003 by Andy Rubin and his friends.

In 2005, Google acquired this. A team led by Rubin developed a mobile device platform powered by the Linux Kernel. The interface of Android OS is based on touch inputs like swiping, tapping, pinching in and out to manipulate on screen objects. In 2007 onwards this OS is used in many mobile phones and tablets.

Question 17.
“In some of the states ration cards have been replaced by smart cards”. What is a smart card? List any two advantages of replacing ration card using smart cards?
Answer:
Smart Cards:
A smart card is a plastic card with a computer chip or memory that stores and transacts data. A smart card (may be like your ATM card) reader used to store and transmit data.

The advantages are it is secure, intelligent and convenient. The smart card technology is used in SIM for GSM phones. A SIM card is used as an identification proof.

Question 18.
Business firms have started watching the conversation and opinions posted in social media. Why?
Answer:
Business firms gathering information about the customers from various sources such as social medias like Internet forums, social blogs, Micro blogs, etc. The volume of such data is very large and considered as big data in business.

With the help of a s/w, analyses this big data and generate a report that contain all the information such as choices, taste, needs, status, opinions, suggestions etc of a customer.

Question 19.
“The following is a figure of a tag which helps in business logistics”
Plus Two Computer Application Trends and Issues in ICT Three Mark Questions and Answers 1

  1. Name the tag shown in the figure.
  2. How it helps business logistics?

Answer:
1. RFID tag

2. The data stored in the RFID tag can be accessed by a special reader and to read the data no need of RFID tag and reader in a line of site instead both are within a range.

This tag is used in Vehicles as a prepaid tag and makes the payments easier in Toll booths. Similarly, it is useful to take the Census of wild animals also.

In business the tag(contains details about Product code, Price, Batch no., Manufacturing Date, Expiry date, etc.) is stick on the cartons and by using RFID reader process it speedily.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 20.
“IPR (Intellectual Property Right) encourages innovation” Justify.
Answer:
Some people spend lots of money, time body and mental power to create some products such as a classical movie, album, artistic work, discoveries, invention, software, etc.

These type of Intellectual properties must be protected from unauthorized access by law. This is called Intellectual Property right(IPR). It enables to earn recognition, financial benefit, can sell the innovation, etc. It motivates further innovation.

Question 21.
Write a short note on

  1. Trademark
  2. Industrial design

Answer:
1. Trademark:
This is a unique, simple and memorable sign to promote a brand and hence increase the business and goodwill of a company. It must be registered. The period of registration is for 10 years and can be renewed. The registered trademark under Controller General of Patents Design and Trademarks cannot use or copy by anybody else.

2. Industrial designs:
A product or article is designed so beautifully to attract the customers. This type of designs is called industrial design. This is a prototype and used as a model for large scale production.

Question 22.
Compare patent and Trade mark.
Answer:
1. Patents:
A person or organization invented a product or a creation can be protected from unauthorized copying or creation without the permission of the creator by law. This right is called Patent. In India the validity of the right is up to 20 years. After this anybody can use freely.

2. Trademark:
This is a unique, simple and memorable sign to promote a brand and hence increase the business and goodwill of a company. It must be registered. The period of registration is for 10 years and can be renewed. The registered trademark under Controller General of Patents Design and Trademarks cannot use or copy by anybody else.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 23.
Write a short note on intellectual property theft.
Answer:
Intellectual property theft: The violation of Intellectual Property Right of Copy right, Trademark, Patent, etc. In film industry crores of investment is needed to create a movie. Intellectual Property thieves upload the movies on the Releasing day itself. Hence the revenue from the theatres are less significantly and undergoes huge loss. (Eg: Premam, Bahubali, etc).

Question 24.
What is cyberspace?
Answer:
a. CyberSpace:
Earlier Traditional communication services such as postal service (Snail mail) are used for communication. It is a low speed and not reliable service. In order to increase the speed Telegram Services were used.

Its speed was high but it has lot of limitations and expensive too. Later telephones were used for voice communication. Nowadays telephone system and computer system are integrated and create a virtual (unreal) environment. This is called cyber space. The result for this integration is that tremendous speed and it is very cheap.

Question 25.
Write a short note on the importance of IT Act 2000.
Answer:
Information Technology Act 2000 (amended in 2008):
IT Act 2000 controls the use of Computer(client), Server, Computer Networks, data and Information in Electronic format and provide legal infrastructure for E-commerce, in India.

This is developed to promote IT industry, control e-commerce, also ensures the smooth functioning of E-Governance and it prevents cyber crimes.

The person those who violate this will be prosecuted. In India IT bill introduced in the May 2000 Parliament Session and it is known as Information Technology Act 2000. Some exclusions and inclusions are introduced in December 2008.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 26.
“Informania affects people’s lives and their loved ones” Justify.
Answer:
Infomania is the excessive desire(lnfatuation) for acquiring knowledge from various modern sources like Internet, Email, Social media, Instant Message Application(WhatsApp) and Smart Phones. Due to this the person may neglect daily routine such as family, friends, food, sleep, etc.

Hence they get tired. They give first preference to Internet than others. They create their own Cyber World and no interaction to the surroundings and the family. They are more anxious and afraid that they will be out from the cyber world unless they updated.

Plus Two Computer Application Trends and Issues in ICT Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain generations in mobile communication?
Answer:
The mobile phone was introduced in the year 1946. Early stage it was expensive and limited services hence its growth was very slow. To solve this problem. Cellular communication concept was developed in 1960’ satBell Lab. 1990’s onwards cellular technology became a common standard in our country.
The various generations in mobile communication are:

a. First Generation networks (1 G):
It was developed around 1980, based on analog system and only voice transmission was allowed.

b. Second Generation networks (2G):
This is the next generation network that was allowed voice and data transmission. Picture message and MMS(Multimedia Messaging Service) were introduced. GSM and CDMA standards were introduced by 2G.

1. Global System for Mobile (GSM):
It is the most successful standard. It uses narrow band TDMA(Time Division Multiple Access), allows simultaneous calls on the same frequency range of 900 MHz to 1800 MHz. The network is identified using the SIM(Subscriber Identity Module).

(i) GPRS (General Packet Radio Services):
It is a packet oriented mobile data seivice on the 2G on GSM. GPRS was originally standardized by European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) GPRS usage is typically charged based on volume of data transferred. Usage above the bundle cap is either charged per megabyte or disallowed.

(ii) EDGE (Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution):
It isthree times faster than GPRS. It is used for voice communication as well as an internet connection.

2. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA):
It is a channel access method used by various radio communication technologies. CDMA is an example of multiple access, which is where several transmitters can send information simultaneously over a single communication channel. This allows several users to share a band of frequencies To permit this to be achieved without undue interference between the users, and provide better security.

c. Third Generation networks(3G):
It allows high data transfer rate for mobile devices and offers high speed wireless broadband services combining voice and data. To enjoy this service 3G enabled mobile towers and hand sets required.

d. Fourth Generation networks(4G):
It is also called Long Term Evolution(LTE) and also offers ultra broadband Internet facility such as high quality streaming video. It also offers good quality image and videos than TV.

e. Fifth Generation networks:
This is the next generation network and expected to come in practice in 2020. It is more faster and cost effective than other four generations. More connections can be provided and more energy efficient.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 2.
Explain different categories of cyber crimes in detail.
Answer:
Just like normal crimes(theft, trespassing private area, destroy, etc,) Cyber crimes(Virus, Trojan Horse, Phishing, Denial of Service, Pornography, etc) also increased significantly. Due to cyber crime, the victims lose money, reputation, etc and some of them commit suicide.

A. Cyber crimes against individuals:

1. Identity theft:
The various information such as personal details(name, Date of Birth, Address, Phone number, etc.), Credit / Debit Card details(Card number, PIN, Expiry Date, CW, etc), Bank details, etc. are the identity of a person. Stealing these information by acting as the authorized person without the permission of a person is called Identity theft. The misuse of this information is a punishable offence.

2. Harassment:
Commenting badly about a particular person’s gender, colour, race, religion, nationality, in Social Media is considered as harassment. This is done with the help of Internet is called Cyber stalking (Nuisance). This is a kind of torturing and it may lead to spoil friendship, career, self image and confidence. Sometimes may lead to a big tragedy of a whole family or a group of persons.

3. Impersonation and cheating:
Fake accounts are created in Social Medias and act as the original one for the purpose of cheating or misleading others. Eg: Fake accounts in Social Medias (Facebook, Twitter, etc), fake sms, fake emails, etc.

4. Violation of privacy:
Trespassing into another person’s life and try to spoil the life. It is a punishable offence. Hidden camera is used to capture the video or picture and black mailing them.

5. Dissemination of obscene material:
With the help of hidden camera capture unwanted video or picture. Distribute or publish this obscene clips on Internet without the consent of the victims may mislead the people specifically the younger ones.

B. Cyber crimes against property:
Stealing credit card details, hacking passwords of social media accounts or mail account or Net banking, uploading latest movies, etc, are considered as cyber crimes against property.

1. Credit card fraud:
Stealing the details such as credit card number, company name, expiry date, cvv number, password, etc. and use these details to make payment for purchasing goods or transfer funds also.

2. Intellectual property theft:
The violation of Intellectual Property Right of Copy right, Trademark, Patent, etc. In film industry crores of investment is needed to create a movie. Intellectual Property thieves upload the movies on the Releasing day itself.

Hence the revenue from the theatres are less significantly and undergoes huge loss. (Eg: Premam, Bahubali, etc). Copying a person’s creation and present as a new creation is called plagiarism. This can be identified some tools (programs) available in the Internet.

3. Internet time theft:
This is deals with the misuse of WiFi Internet facility. If it is not protected by good password there is a chance of misuse our devices (Modem/Router) to access Internet without our consent by unauthorized persons. Hence our money and volume of data (Package) will lose and we may face the consequences if others make any crimes.

C. Cyber crimes against government:
The cyber crimes against Govt, websites is increased significantly. For example in 2015 the
website of Registration Department of Kerala is hacked and destroys data from 2012 onwards.

1. Cyber terrorism:
It is deals with the attacks against very sensitive computer networks like computer-controlled atomic energy power plants, air traffic controls, Gas line controls, telecom, Metro rail controls, Satellites, etc. This is a very serious matter and may lead to huge loss (money and life of citizens). So Govt is very conscious and give tight security mechanism for their services.

2. Website defacement:
It means spoil or hacking websites and posting bad comments about the Govt.

3. Attacks against e-governance websites:
Its main target is a Web server. Due to this attack the Web server/ computer forced to restart and this results refusal of service to the genuine users.

If we want to access a website first you have to type the web site address in the URL and press Enter key, the browser requests that page from the web server. Dos attacks send huge number of requests to the web server until it collapses due to the load and stops functioning.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 3.
Discuss various generations of mobile communication.
Answer:
The various generations in mobile communication are:

a. First Generation networks(1 G):
It was developed around 1980, based on analog system and only voice transmission was allowed.

b. Second Generation networks (2G):
This is the next generation network that was allowed voice and data transmission. Picture message and MMS(Multimedia Messaging Service) were introduced. GSM and CDMA standards were introduced by 2G.

1. Global System for Mobile(GSM):
It is the most successful standard. It uses narrow band TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access), allows simultaneous calls on the same frequency range of 900 MHz to 1800 MHz. The network is identified using the SIM(Subscriber Identity Module).

(i) GPRS (General Packet Radio Services):
It is a packet oriented mobile data service on the 2G on GSM. GPRS was originally standardized by European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) GPRS usage is typically charged based on volume of data transferred. Usage above the bundle cap is either charged per megabyte or disallowed.

(ii) EDGE(Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution):
It is three times faster than GPRS. It is used for voice communication as well as an internet connection.

2. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA):
It is a channel access method used by various radio communication technologies. CDMA is an example of multiple access, which is where several transmitters can send information simultaneously over a single communication channel. This allows several users to share a band of frequencies To permit this to be achieved without undue interference between the users, and provide better security.

c. Third Generation networks (3G):
It allows high data transfer rate for mobile devices and offers high speed wireless broadband services combining voice and data. To enjoy this service 3G enabled mobile towers and hand sets required.

d. Fourth Generation networks (4G):
It is also called Long Term Evolution(LTE) and also offers ultra broadband Internet facility such as high quality streaming video. It also offers good quality image and videos than TV.

e. Fifth Generation networks (5G):
This is the next generation network and expected to come in practice in 2020. It is more faster and cost effective than other four generations. More connections can be provided and more energy efficient.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Question 4.
“Due to anonymous nature of Internet it is possible for the people to engage in variety of criminal activities”. Justify the statement with special reference to cyber crimes taking place against Individual.
Answer:
Cyber crimes against individuals:
1. Identity theft:
The various information such as personal details(name, Date of Birth, Address, Phone number, etc), Credit / Debit Card details(Card number, PIN, Expiry Date, CW, etc), Bank details, etc. are the identity of a person. Stealing these information by acting as the authorized person without the permission of a person is called Identity theft. The misuse of this information is a punishable offence.

2. Harassment:
Commenting badly about a particular person’s gender, colour, race, religion, nationality, in Social Media is considered as harassment. This is done with the help of Internet is called Cyber stalking (Nuisance). This is a kind of torturing and it may lead to spoil friendship, career, self image and confidence. Sometimes may lead to a big tragedy of a whole family or a group of persons.

3. Impersonation and cheating:
Fake accounts are created in Social Medias and act as the original one for the purpose of cheating or misleading others. Eg: Fake accounts in Social Medias(Facebook,Twitter,etc), fake sms, fake emails etc.

4. Violation of privacy:
Trespassing into another person’s life and try to spoil the life. It is a punishable offence. Hidden camera is used to capture the video or picture and black mailing them.

5. Dissemination of obscene material:
With the help of hidden camera capture unwanted video or picture. Distribute or publish this obscene clips on Internet without the consent of the victims may mislead the people specifically the younger ones.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Students can Download Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Plus Two Computer Application Enterprise Resource Planning One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
______is a group of people and other resources working together for a common goal.
Answer:
An enterprise

Question 2.
ERP stands for_______.
Answer:
Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 3.
The 4 M’s related to resources are
Answer:
Man, Material, Money, and Machine.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 4.
_____consists of single database and a collection of programs to handle the database hence handle the enterprise efficiently and hence enhance the productivity.
Answer:
ERP

Question 5.
state True or False
An ERP package consists of only one module
Answer:
False. It consists of many modules.

Question 6.
_____module is the core of ERP package
Answer:
Financial

Question 7.
ERP stands for_____.
(a) Entertain Resource Package
(b) Enterprise Retain Plan
(c) Enterprise Resource Planning
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 8.
_____module of ERP contains rules to manage production process.
Answer:
Manufacturing Module

Question 9.
_____module of ERP contains rules to plan the production process.
Answer:
Production Planning Module

Question 10.
_____module of ERP focus on human resource and human capital.
Answer:
HR module

Question 11.
______module of ERP is used to get the raw materials in the right time and right price.
Answer:
Purchasing Module

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 12.
______module of ERP is used for monitoring and tracking customer oriented activities.
Answer:
Marketing Module

Question 13.
______module of ERP deals with important parts of sales cycle.
Answer:
Sales and distribution module

Question 14.
______module of ERP is used for managing the quality.
Answer:
Quality management module

Question 15.
BPR stands for ______.
Answer:
Business Process Re-engineering (BPR)

Question 16.
In general_____is the series of activities such as rethinking and redesign of the business process to enhance the enterprise’s performance such as reducing the cost (expenses), improve the quality, prompt and speed (time bound) service.
Answer:
BPR (Business Process Re-engineering)

Question 17.
Odd one out
(a) Inputs
(b) Processing
(c) Outcome
(d) SAP
Answer:
(d) SAP is a ERP package the others are 3 elements of business process.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 18.
Odd one out
(a) Oracle
(b) SAP
(c) Odoo
(d) C++
Answer:
(d) C++ is a general purpose programming language. The others are ERP packages.

Question 19.
Odd one out
(а) html
(b) C++
(c) JavaScript
(d) Tally ERP
Answer:
(d) Tally ERP is a ERP package.

Question 20.
From the following select the open source ERP.
(a) Microsoft Dynamics
(b) Tally ERP
(c) Odoo
(d) SAP
Answer:
(c) Odoo

Question 21.
Odd one out. Give the reason.
(a) Microsoft Dynamics
(b) Tally ERP
(c) Odoo
(d) SAP
Answer:
(c) Odoo is an open source ERP. The others are not.

Question 22.
PLM stands for_____.
Answer:
Product Life cycle Management

Question 23.
CRM stands for______.
Answer:
Customer Relationship Management

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 24.
MIS stands for______.
Answer:
Management Information System

Question 25.
SCM stands for______.
Answer:
Supply Chain Management

Question 26.
DSS stands for_____.
(a) Decision Signal System
(b) Decision Support System
(c) Decision Support Scheme
(d) Design Support System
Answer:
(b) Decision Support System

Question 27.
Pick the odd one out and justify.
(a) SAP
(b) Oracle
(c) C++
(d) Tally
Answer:
(c) C++. This is a programming Language. The others are ERP packages

Question 28.
SAP stands for______.
Answer:
Systems, Applications, and Products for data processing

Question 29.
Pick the odd one out from the following list and justify the selection.
CRM, MIS, SCM, SAP
Answer:
SAP others are ERP related technologies. SAP is an ERP package.

Question 30.
Consider the following two statements.
Statement 1: “The number of functional modules in an ERP vary with nature of enterprise” Statement 2: “There is no connection between BPR and ERP”
Then choose the correct one from the following.
(i) Both statements are true
(ii) Both statements are false
(iii) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(iv) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
Answer:
(iii) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 31.
Choose the correct answer from the following: Implementation of ERP in an enterprise ______.
(a) minimize planning risks.
(b) integrates different functional units of an enter-prise.
(c) uses centralized data base.
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

Question 32.
State True or False

  1. Every ERP package can manage all the functional units of an enterprise.
  2. In ERP, a centralized database is used for integrating functional units.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True

Question 33.
ERP stands for_____.
(a) Enterprise Resource Project
(b) Enterprise Resource Processing
(c) Enterprise Resource Planning
(d) Enterprise Requirement Planning
Answer:
(c) Enterprise Resource Planning

Plus Two Computer Application Enterprise Resource Planning Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define an Enterprise.
Answer:
An Enterprise is a group of people and other resources working together for a common goal. It is also an example for System.

Question 2.
Define Enterprise Resource Planning ERP.
Answer:
An enterprise(organization) is considered as a system (A system is an orderly grouping of interdependent components linked together to achieve an objective, according to a plan. Human body is an example for System).

All the departments of an enterprise are connected to a centralized data base. ERP consists of single database and a collection of programs to handle the database hence handle the enterprise efficiently and hence enhance the productivity.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 3.
Give the significance of HR module in an ERP package.
Answer:
This model ensures the effective use of Human resources and Human capital and enhance the productivity of the Enterprise hence increase the profit.

Question 4.
Give the relation between business process reengineering (BPR) and enterprise resource planning.
Answer:
ERP and BPR will not make much change if they are in stand alone. To improve the efficiency of an enterprise integrate both ERP and BPR because they are the two sides of a coin.

For the better results conducting BPR before implementing ERP, this will help an enterprise to avoid unnecessary modules from the software.

Question 5.
“The key concept of ERP is a centralised database management system”. Justify.
Answer:
ERP is an integrated business management system which uses a single database to store and communicate information of various departments of an enterprise.

Question 6.
Match the following.

(i) Financial module(a) Supply chain
(ii) Oracle(b) Functional unit of ERP
(iii) BPR(c) ERP package
(iv) SCM(d) Reengineering

Answer:
(i) – (b), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (a)

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 7.
Briefly explain the importance of Business Process Re-engineering (BPR) in the implementation of ERP in an enterprise.
Answer:
Business Process Reengineering: In general BPR is the series of activities such as rethinking and redesign of the business process to enhance the enterprise’s performance such as reducing the cost(expences), improve the quality, prompt and speed(time bound) service.

Plus Two Computer Application Enterprise Resource Planning Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write short notes about BPR.
Answer:
In this world, tight competition is based on price, quality, wide variety of selection and quick service. To increase the business and hence increase the profit of a Business firm various activities are involved.

IT and Re-engineering plays major roles to increase the productivity. In general BPR is the series of activities such as rethinking and redesign of the business process to enhance the enterprise’s performance such as reducing the cost(expenses), improve the quality, prompt and speed(time bound) service. BPR enhances the productivity and profit of an enterprise.

Question 2.
Give an example for an enterprise from your real life and identify different departments/functional units in it.
Answer:
Indian Oil Corporation is an example for an enterprise. The activities involved are planning, purchasing raw material, production, storing finished goods (warehouse), sales, finance, etc. These activities are performed by different departments and their duties are interlinked.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 3.
The first five phases of ERP implementation are listed below. Rearrange them in correct order.
Package selection, BPR, Gap analysis, pre evaluation screening, project planning.
Answer:
The correct order is as follows

  1. Pre evaluation screening
  2. Package selection
  3. Project planning
  4. Gap analysis
  5. Business Process Reengineering

Question 4.
Write a short note about the following terms:

  1. DSS
  2. MIS

Answer:
1. Decision Support System (DSS):
It is a computer based system that takes inputs as business data and after processing it produces good decisions as output that will make the business easier. Management Information.

System (MIS):
Management is the decision and policy makers. A good management can take good decision and that will help to do the business well. The good relationship between Management and employees is a key to success.

MIS will collect relevant data from inside and outside of a company. Based upon this information produce reports and take appropriate decisions.

Plus Two Computer Application Enterprise Resource Planning Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain functional units of ERP in detail.
Answer:
Different modules are given below:

1. Financial Module:
It is the core. This is used to generate financial report such as balance sheet, general ledger, trial balance, financial statement, etc.

2. Manufacturing Module:
It provides information for the production and capable to change the methods in manufacturing sector.

3. Production planning Module:
This module ensures the effective use of resources and helps the enterprise to enhance the productive hence increase the profit.

4. HR (Human Resource) Module:
This model ensures the effective use of Human resources and Human capital.

5. Inventory control Module:
This model is useful to maintain the appropriate level of stock(includes raw material, work in progress and finished goods)

6. Purchasing Module:
This module is useful to make available the required raw materials in good condition and in the right time and price.

7. Marketing Module:
It is used for handle the orders of customers.

8. Sales and distribution Module:
Existence of a company is based on the income from sales. This module will help to handle the sales enquiries, order placement, and scheduling, dispatching and invoicing.

9. Quality (Ql & QC) management module:
Quality of a product or service is very much important to a company. This module helps to maintain the quality of the product. Quality planning, inspection, and control are the main activities involved in this module.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 2.
Explain the different phases of ERP implementation.
Answer:
The different phases of ERP implementation are given below

1. Pre evaluation screening:
Many ERP packages are available in the markets. At most care should be taken before implementing a ERP. Select a few from from the available ERP packages.

2. Package selection:
Selection of right ERP to our enterprise is a laborious task and it needs huge investment. Various factors should be keep in mind before you purchase an ERP that should meet our complete needs.

3. Project planning:
A good planning is essential to implement an ERP. From the beginning to the end activities are depicted in this phase.

4. Gap analysis:
A cent percent(100%) problem solving ERP is not available in the market. Most of them solve a maximum of 70% to 80% problems. The rest (30% to 20%) of the problems and their solutions are mentioned here.

5. Business Process Reengineering:
In general BPR is the series of activities such as rethinking and redesign of the business process to enhance the enterprise’s performance such as reducing the cost(expences), improve the quality, prompt and speed(time bound) service. BPR enhances the productivity and profit of an enterprise.

6. Installation and configuration:
In this phase the new system are installing, before implementing the whole system a miniature of the actual system is going to be implemented as a test dose. Then check the reactions if it is good it is the time to install the whole system completely.

7. Implementation team training:
In this phase the company trains its employees to implement and run the system.

8. Testing:
This phase is very important. It determines whether the system produces proper result. Errors in design and logic are identified.

9. Going live:
Here a change over is taken place to new system from old system. It is not an easy process without the support and service from the ERP vendors.

10. End user training:
This phase will start familiarising the users with the procedures to be used in the new system. It is very important.

11. Post implementation:
Once the system is implemented maintenance and review begin. In this phase repairing or correcting previously ill defined problems and upgrade or adjust the performance according to the company needs.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 3.
Write short notes regarding ERP package Companies.
Answer:
Popular ERP packages are given below
1. Oracle:
American based company famous in database(Oracle 9i-SQL) packages situated in Redwood shores, California. Their ERP packages is a solution for finance and accounting problems. Their other products are

  • Customer Relationship Management(CRM)
  • Supply Chain Management (SCM)Software SAP

2. SAP:
stands for Systems, Applications, and Products for data processing. It is a German MNC in Walldorf and founded in 1972. Earlier they developed ERP packages for large MNC. But nowadays they developed for small scale industries also.
The other software products they developed are

  • Customer Relationship Management(CRM)
  • Supply Chain Management(SCM)
  • Product Life cycle Management(PLM)

3. Odoo:
Formerly known as OpenERP.
It is an open source code ERP. Unlike other companies their source code is available and can be modified as and when need arises.

4. Microsoft Dynamics:

  • American MNC in Redmond, Washington
  • ERP for midsized companies.
  • This ERP is more user friendly
  • Other s/w is Customer Relationship Management(CRM)

5. Tally ERP:

  • Indian company situated in Bangalore.
  • This ERP provides total solution for accounting, inventory, and Payroll.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 4.
Explain the merits and demerits of ERP packages.
Answer:
ERP packages have a lot of advantages as well as many drawbacks also.
Benefits of ERP system:

1. Improved resource utilization:
Resources such as Men, Money, Material, and Machine are utilized maximum hence increase the productivity and profit.

2. Better customer satisfaction:
Without spending more money and time all the customer’s needs are considered well. Because customer is the king of the market. Nowadays a customer can track the status of an order by using the docket number through Internet.

3. Provides accurate information:
Right information at the right time will help the company to plan and manage the future cunningly. Acompany can increase or reduce the production based upon the right information hence increase the productivity and profit.

4. Decision making capability:
Right information at the right time will help the company to take good decision.

5. Increased flexibility:
A good ERP will help the company to adopt good things as well as avoid bad things rapidly. It denotes the flexibility.

6. Information integrity: A good ERP integrates various departments into a single unit. Hence reduce the redundancy, inconsistency, etc.

Risks of ERP implementation:

1. High cost:
Very huge investment is required to purchase and configure an ERP. Moreover, it requires up gradation or. replacement of hardware(Man, computer or machine) is an additional investment. So small scale enterprise cannot afford this.

2. Time consuming:
The full fledge implementation of ERP package needs one or two years. That is highly time consuming.

3. Requirement of additional trained staff:
The existing staffs may not capable to work with ERP. To overcome this give proper training to them otherwise appoint trained and experienced employees to Cop up.

4. Operational and maintenance issues:
The first major problem is that the resistance from the existing employees. To overcome this give awareness to the existing employees. The second problem is that ERP package is a cyclic process oriented package. It is a continuous process and should be maintained well otherwise the correct output will not available.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 5.
Explain in detail the ERP packages and related technologies.
Answer:
It is an all in one system. It integrates various functions such as raw material purchase, production planning, marketing, financial, etc., into a single application.

1. Product Life Cycle Management (PLM):
It manages the entire life cycle of a product. PLM consists of programs to increase the quality and reduce the price by the efficient use of resources.

2. Customer Relationship Management (CRM):
As we know that customer is the king of the market. The existence of a company mainly the customers. CRM consists of programs to enhance the customer’s relationship with the company.

3. Management Information System (MIS):
Management is the decision and policy makers. A good management can take good decision and that will help to do the business well. The good relationship between Management and employees is a key to success. MIS will collect relevant data from inside and outside of a company. Based upon this information produce reports and take appropriate decisions.

4. Supply Chain Management (SCM):
This is deals with moving raw materials from suppliers to the company as well as finished goods from company to customers. The activities includes are inventory(raw materials, work in progress and finished goods) management, warehouse management, transportation management, etc.

5. Decision Support System (DSS):
It is a computer based system that takes inputs as business data and after processing it produces good decisions as output that will make the business easier.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 6.
“The number and functioning of modules vary with the nature of enterprise and the type of ERP package.” List any six common modules of an enterprise.
Answer:
Different modules are given below

1. Financial Module:
It is the core. This is used to generate financial report such as balance sheet, general ledger, trial balance, financial statement, etc.

2. Manufacturing Module:
It provides information for the production and capable to change the methods in manufacturing sector.

3. Production planning Module:
This module ensures the effective use of resources and helps the enterprise to enhance the productive hence increase the profit.

4. HR (Human Resource) Module:
This model ensures the effective use of Human resources and Human capital.

5. Inventory control Module:
This model is useful to maintain the appropriate level of stock(includes raw material, work in progress and finished goods)

6. Purchasing Module:
This module is useful to make available the required raw materials in good condition and in the right time and price.

7. Marketing Module:
It is used for handle the orders of customers.

8. Sales and distribution Module:
Existence of a company is based on the income from sales. This module will help to handle the sales enquiries, order placement, and scheduling, dispatching and invoicing.

9. Quality (Ql & QC) management module:
Quality of a product or service is very much important to a company. This module helps to maintain the quality of the product. Quality planning, inspection, and control are the main activities involved in this module.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 7.
Mr. Suresh uses separate software for managing different functional units of an enterprise and Mr. Saleem uses an integrated software package formanaging overall functioning of the enterprise. Compare the benefits and risks of above two methods of an enterprise management.
Answer:
Benefits of ERP system:

1. Improved resource utilization:
Resources such as Men, Money, Material, and Machine are utilized maximum hence increase the productivity and profit.

2. Better customer satisfaction:
Without spending more money and time all the customer’s needs are considered well. Because customer is the king of the market. Nowadays a customer can track the status of an order by using the docket number through Internet.

3. Provides accurate information:
Right information at the right time will help the company to plan and manage the future cunningly. A company can increase or reduce the production based upon the right information hence increase the productivity and profit.

4. Decision making/apability:
Right information at the right time will help the company to take good decision.

5. Increased flexibility:
A good ERP will help the company to adopt good things as well as avoid bad things rapidly. It denotes the flexibility.

6. Information integrity:
A good ERP integrates various departments into a single unit. Hence reduce the redundancy, inconsistency, etc.

Risks of ERP implementation:

1. High cost:
Very huge investment is required to purchase and configure an ERP. Moreover, it requires up gradation or replacement of hardware(Man, computer or machine) is an additional investment. So small scale enterprise cannot afford this.

2. Time consuming:
The full fledge implementation of ERP package needs one or two years. That is highly time consuming.

3. Requirement of additional trained staff:
The existing staffs may not capable to work with ERP. To overcome this give proper training to them otherwise appoint trained and experienced employees to cop up.

4. Operational and maintenance issues:
The first major problem is that the resistance from the existing employees. To overcome this give awareness to the existing employees. The second problem is that ERP package is a cyclic process oriented package. It is a continuous process and should be maintained well otherwise the correct output will not available.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 8.
“Implementation of an ERP system in an enterprise is not a single step action”. Justify this statement by listing all the phases of ERP implementation in correct order.
Answer:
The different phases of ERP implementation are given below:

1. Pre evaluation screening:
Many ERP packages are available in the marketfs. At most care should be taken before implementing a ERP. Select a few from from the available ERP packages.

2. Package selection:
Selection of right ERP to our enterprise is a laborious task and it needs huge investment. Various factors should be keep in mind before you purchase an ERP that should meet our complete needs.

3. Project planning:
A good planning is essential to implement an ERP. From the beginning to the end activities are depicted in this phase.

4. Gap analysis:
A cent percents 00%) problem solving ERP is not available in the market. Most of them solve a maximum of 70% to 80% problems. The rest (30% to 20%) of the problems and their solutions are mentioned here.

5. Business Process Reengineering:
In general BPR is the series of activities such as rethinking and redesign of the business process to enhance the enterprise’s performance such as reducing the cost(expences), improve the quality, prompt and speed(time bound) service.

BPR enhances the productivity and profit of an enterprise:

1. Installation and configuration:
In this phase the new system are installing, before implementing the whole system a miniature of the actual system is going to be implemented as a test dose. Then check the reactions if it is good it is the time to install the whole system completely.

2. Implementation team training:
In this phase the company trains its employees to implement and run the system.

3. Testing:
This phase is very important. It determines whether the system produces proper result. Errors in design and logic are identified.

4. Going live:
Here a change over is taken place to new system from old system. It is not an easy process without the support and service from the ERP vendors.

5. End user training:
This phase will start familiarising the users with the procedures to be used in the new system. It is very important.

6. Post implementation:
Once the system is implemented maintenance and review begin. In this phase repairing or correcting previously ill defined problems and upgrade or adjust the performance according to the company needs.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Question 9.
“Selection of ERP package is one of the important phases of ERP implementation”.
Write a short note about any of the ERP packages.
Answer:
Popular ERP packages are given below:

1. Oracle:
American based company famous in database (Oracle 9i-SQL) packages situated in Redwood shores, California. Their ERP packages is a solution for finance and accounting problems. Their other products are

  • Customer Relationship Management(CRM)
  • Supply Chain Management (SCM)Software

2. SAP:
SAP stands for Systems, Applications, and Products for data processing. It is a German MNC in Walldorf and founded in 1972. Earlier they developed ERP packages for large MNC. But nowadays they developed for small scale industries also.
The other software products they developed are

  • Customer Relationship Management(CRM)
  • Supply Chain Management(SCM)
  • Product Life cycle Management(PLM)

3. Odoo:
Formerly known as OpenERP.
It is an open source code ERP. Unlike other companies their source code is available and can be modified as and when need arises.

4. Microsoft Dynamics:

  • American MNC in Redmond, Washington
  • ERP for midsized companies.
  • This ERP is more user friendly
  • Other s/w is Customer Relationship Management(CRM)

5. Tally ERP:

  • Indian company situated in’Bangalore.
  • This ERP provides total solution for accounting, inventory, and Payroll.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Students can Download Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Plus One Botany Photosynthesis in Higher Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which metal ion is a constituent of chlorophyll?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Magnesium
(d) Zinc
Answer:
(c) Magnesium

Question 2.
Which pigment acts directly to convert light energy to chemical energy?
(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Xanthophyll
(d) Carotenoid
Answer:
(a) Chlorophyll a

Question 3.
Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)?
(a) 100 – 390
(b) 390 – 430
(c) 400 – 700
(d) 760 – 100,00
Answer:
(c) 400-700

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 4.
Which light range is most effective in photosynthesis?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Red
(d) Violet
Answer:
(c) Red

Question 5.
Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from
(a) Sun
(b) Infra red rays
(c) Organic substances
(d) Inorganic chemicals
Answer:
(d) Inorganic chemicals

Question 6.
What is the name given to the process of splitting of water during light reaction?
Answer:
Photolysis

Question 7.
What tissues and cells of a leaf contain the chloroplast
Answer:
Mesophyll

Question 8.
What colour of visible spectrum is least effective in the process of photosynthesis?
Answer:
Green

Question 9.
How many molecules of ATP and how many molecules of NADPH are spent to fix three molecules of CO2 in Calvin cycle?
Answer:
ATP and 6 NADPH

Question 10.
Name the two photosynthetic pigments belonging to carotenoides.
Answer:
Carotene and xanthophylls

Question 11
The most abundant enzyme in the world plays a dual role in rice, tomato etc. Identify the enzyme.
Answer:
RUBISCO

Question 12
Which products formed during the light reaction of photosynthesis are used to drive the dark reaction?
Answer:
ATP and NADPH2

Question 13
By looking at which internal structure of a plant can you fill whether a plant is C3 or C4. Explain.
Answer:
C4 – Plants shows kranz anatomy -chloroplast dimorphism

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 14
Why does the rate of photosynthesis decrease at higher temperatures?
Answer:
Enzymes present in stroma undergoes denaturation in the presence of high temperatures.

Question 15
Name the only natural process by which oxygen is liberated for the use of respiration.
Answer:
By photolysis of water during photosynthesis

Plus One Botany Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
If we study vertical sections of leaves of C3 plant and C4 plant, there are some anatomical differences.

  1. What are the anatomical peculiarities of a C4 plant?
  2. Explain C4 pathway by listing the main steps.

Answer:
1. C4 plants show kranz anatomy – Chloroplast dimorphism

2.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img1

Question 2.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img2
The above graph indicates absorption spectrum related to chlorophyll pigments. On the basis of. this graph answer the following.

  1. The peak a & b represents for what?
  2. Which pigments shows a & b peak of absorption?

Answer:

  1. Absorption maxima
  2. Chlorophyll

Question 3.
C4 cycle is called so because of the presence of a C4 acid in this cycle.

  1. Name that C4 acid.
  2. How does it form?

Answer:

  1. Oxalic acetic acid.
  2. It is formed by combining CO2 with PEP in the presence of PEP case enzyme.

Question 4
The response of plant towards periods of day/night is termed as photo peroidism’.

  1. Mention three plant groups based on photoperiodism.
  2. Would a defoliated plant respond to the photoperiodic cycle? Why?

Answer:

  1. Long day plants, short-day plants, day-neutral plants.
  2. No. Photo periodic receptors are located in leaves.

Question 5
Melvin Calvin was awarded the nobel prize in 1961 for the discovery of one of the most important biological process in nature.

  1. Name the process.
  2. Name site for photosynthesis.

Answer:

  1. C3 cycle
  2. Chloroplast

Question 6
Analysis the given and write down the photosynthetic response of the C3 and C4 plant in terms of CO2 concentration.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img3
Answer:
High light intensity induces the opening of stoma. When stoma opens CO2 uptake increases. At high CO2 concentration, the rate of photosynthesis becomes high under high light in both C3 and C4 plants.

Question 7.
C4 plants have a special type of anatomy in leaves to avoid photorespiration.

  1. What is the special anatomy called?
  2. Name any two plants having this anatomy.

Answer:

  1. Kranz
  2. Wheat, Sugarcane

Question 8.
Fill up the blanks:

  1. Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from …………
  2. Inhibition of lateral buds growth by terminal bud is known as …………

Answer:

  1. Water
  2. Apical dominance

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 9.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img4
Based on the above diagram answer the following questions.
i) Write the steps of
a) Carboxylation
b) Reduction
c) regeneration
ii) Name the major enzyme involved in C3 pathway.
Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img5

Question 10.
Give the diagram of a chloroplast and label the following parts.

  • thylakoids
  • grana
  • stroma
  • fret

Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img6

Question 11.
Certain distinguishing characters of C3 and C4 plants are given below. Arrange them in the correct table provided.

  1. The primary CO2 acceptor is a PEP, RuBP;
  2. The first stable product is PGA, OAA;
  3. Kranz anatomy is seen not seen;
  4. Carboxylase enzyme in RuBisCo, PEP carboxylase, and RubisCo.

Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img7

Question 12.
Given below is the schematic diagram of calvin cycle, which completes in three stages.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img8

  1. Where does this cycle takes place?
  2. State the three stages of calvin cycle?
  3. Calculate the energy budget for each stage to synthesise one molecule of glucose during the process.

Answer:

  1. Stroma
    • Carboxylation
    • Carbon reduction
    • Regeneration
    • 18 ATP
    • 12NADPH2

Question 13.
ADP is converted into ATP as a result of phosphorylation which takes place in photosynthesis and respiration during electron transport system. What is the difference between these two.
Answer:
Photophosphorylation in the case of photosynthesis and oxidative phosphorylation in respiration.

Question 14.
Rubisco is an enzyme that catalyse two different processes in plants.

  1. What are those reactions?
  2. Name the full form of Rubisco.
  3. What are the site of reaction that takesplace in high oxygen concentration?

Answer:

  1. Carboxylation in C3 cycle. Oxygenation in photorespiration
  2. Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase.
  3. Chloroplast, peroxisomes & mitochondria

Question 15.
Some plants are called C3 and some others are called C4.

  1. Why they are called so?
  2. Explain with examples.

Answer:

  1. C3 plants – First stable product is a 3 carbon compound – PGA
  2. C4 plants – First stable product is a 4 carbon compound – OAA

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 16.
Do reactions of photosynthesis called, as ‘Dark Reaction’ need light? Explain.
Answer:
photosynthesis is a two-step process which involves light and dark reaction. CO2 fixation takes place in dark reaction.

Question 17.
Where is NADP reductase enzyme located in the chloroplast? What is the role of this enzyme in proton gradient development?
Answer:

  • The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane.
  • Oxidation of NADPH2 is involved in the accumulation of more proton concentration inside the thylakoid than outside.

Question 18.
What conditions enable RUBISCO to function as an oxygenase? Explain.
Answer:
Under high O2 concentration and low CO2 concentration, RUBISCO to function as an oxygenase and doing photorespiration.

Question 19.
Chlorophyll ‘a’ is the primary pigment for light reaction. What are accessory pigments? What is their role in photosynthesis?
Answer:
Clorophyll b,c ,d and carotenoides. These pigments harvest light energy and hand over to chlorophylla.

Question 20.
2H2O → 2H+ + O2 + 4e –
Based on above equation, answer the following questions:

  1. Where does this reaction take place in plants?
  2. What is the significance of this reaction?

Answer:

  1. Lumen of the thylakoids.
  2. O2 is evolved during this reaction, moreover, electrons are made available to PS-II continuously.

Question 21.
What is the basis for designating C3 and C4 pathways of photosynthesis?
Answer:
The first stable product formed in some plants are 3 carbon compound but in others 4 carbon compound, therefore such plants designated as C3 and C4 respectively.

Question 22.
Chlorophyll b and carotenoids are known as accessory pigments. Give reason?
Answer:
Chlorophyll b and carotenoids harvest light energy and hand over to chlorophyll a (reaction centre)

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 23.
C4 plants show high rate of photosynthesis than C3 plants. Are you agree with the statement? Give reason?
Answer:
Yes. In C4 plants photorespiration does not occur. It is a wastage process that occur in C3 plants only, because RUBISCO present in C3 plants can act as carboxylase and oxygenase.

Question 24.
How many ATP molecules are required for the synthesis of one molecule of glucose in

  1. C3 pathway
  2. C4 pathway

Answer:

  1. C3 pathway – 18 ATPs
  2. C4 pathway – 30 ATPs

Question 25.
Cyanobacteria and some other photosynthetic bacteria don’t have chloroplasts. How do they conduct photosynthesis?
Answer:
Cyanobacteria and other photosynthetic bacteria have thylakoids suspended freely in the cytoplasm (i.e., they are not enclosed in membrane), and they have bacteriochlorophyll.

Question 26.
What would happen to the rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants if CO2 concentration level almost doubles from the present level in the atmosphere?
Answer:
The rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants increases with increase in CO2 concentration

Question 27.
Does photorespiration pose threat to plants yet it occurs in angiosperms why?
Answer:
Any angiospermic plants bear only one type of chloroplast and CO2 acceptor is RUBP in these cases. Thus there is no other possibility except to undergo C3 pathway which may ultimately lead to photorespiration.

Question 28.
Secondary CO2 fixation is inevitable for C4 plants. Do you agree? Give justification of your answer.
Answer:
Yes. This type of CO2 fixation takes place in bundle sheath chloroplast and carbohydrate is formed.

Question 29.
Carboxylation of C3 plants are interrupted in changed environmental conditions. Why?
Answer:
Normally carboxylation takes place in C3 plants but in high O2 and low CO2 concentration, the energy wasteful process (photorespiration ) occur.

Question 30.
RuBisco is an enzyme that acts both as a carboxylase and oxygenase. Why do you think RuBisco carries out more carboxylationin in C4 plants.
Answer:
1. The C4 plants have dimorophic chloroplasts. In mesophyll cells chloroplast are granal but in bundle sheath cells the chloroplasts are agranal.

2. So in the these plants when CO2 is fixed in bundle sheath cells, the intracellular CO2 concentration is increased that is why RuBisco enzyme carries out more carboxylation in C4 plants.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 31.
Succulents are known to keep their stomata closed during the day to check transpiration. How do they meet their photosynthetic CO2 requirements?
Answer:
1. Succulent (water-storing) plants such as cacti, euphorbias fix CO2 into organic compound using. PEP carboxylase at night, when the stomata are open.

2. PEP + CO2 → OAA → Malic acid
The organic compound (malic acid) accumulates throughout the night and is decarboxylated during the day to produce CO2.

Question 32
In C4 plants RUBISCO is present but photorespiration does not occur. Why?
Answer:
Because intracellular CO2 concentration is high. Hence RUBISCO do not show oxygenase activity.

Question 33
The statements are given below. Identify true and false

  1. Carbohydrate (glucose) is formed in mesophyll chloroplast of C4 pathway
  2. Calvin cycle involves 3 steps
  3. The absorption peak of PS I is 680nm
  4. Calvin cycle takes place in Temperate plants

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. False
  4. True

Plus One Botany Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A plant physiologist while studying the light reaction step of photosynthesis using Chlorella, could detect the following facts.

  1. Name the reaction
  2. What is meant by photolysis?
  3. Draw the electron transport schematically.

Answer:

  1. Noncyclic photophosphorylation
  2. Splitting of water

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img9

Question 2.
The enzyme catalysing C4 and C3 pathway is different but they are coming under dark reaction.

  1. Name the enzyme shows CO2 fixation in such plants
  2. Where is the second CO2 fixation occurs in C4 plants
  3. Which is the primary CO2 acceptor and stable product of C3 pathway

Answer:

  1. C4 pathway – PEPCO, C3 pathway-RUBISCO
  2. Bundle sheath chloroplast
  3. CO2acceptor-RUBP, Stable product— 3- phosphoglycerate

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 3.
CO2 fixation is associated with wasteful process and efficiency is decreased

  1. Name the wasteful process.
  2. Identify the enzyme catalysing the above process
  3. Which is the chief organelle responsible for this?

Answer:

  1. Photorespiration
  2. Oxygenase activity of RUBISCO
  3. peroxisome

Question 4.
Answer the following questions based on carbon fixation by plants.

  1. which is the key enzyme involved in carbon fixation of photosynthesis in C3 plants?.
  2. Rubisco has a dual role. Comment.
  3. Give the name of two cell organells other than chloroplast involved in the process that catalysed by Rubisco.

Answer:

  1. Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
  2. Carboxylation & oxygenation
  3. Peroxisome & mitochondria

Question 5.
Type of CO2 fixation in tropical plants is different from temperate plants

  1. Identify the plants in which efficient CO2 fixation occurs.
  2. Tropical plants do not show the wasteful process why?
  3. Give two example for such plants

Answer:

  1. C4 plants (Tropical plants)
  2. Because intracellular CO2 concentration is very high
  3. Sugarcane and Maize.

Question 6.
Cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation is associated with light reaction of photosynthesis.

  1. Where does photolysis occurs?
  2. Give two difference between cyclic and noncyclic

Answer:

  1. Inside thylakoid
    • Cyclic – It involves PSI (P700)
    • Only ATP is formed
    • Noncyclic – It involves PSI and PSII (P680)
    • ATP and NADPH2 are produced

Question 7.
Do you think that synthesis of glucose occur during light reaction?

  1. If not what is the function of light reaction?
  2. name the CO2 acceptor in C3 cycle and C4 cycle

Answer:

  1. In light reaction, energy-rich molecules like ATP and NADPH2 are produced. These are used in Dark reaction for Glucose synthesis,
    • RUBP – CO2 acceptor in C3 cycle
    • PEP – CO2 acceptor in C4 cycle

Question 8.
Sugar cane has a special leaf anatomy which make the plant photosynthetically more efficient.

  1. Name the leaf anatomy
  2. Write a note on carbon dioxide fixation in sugarcane.

Answer:
1. Kranz anatomy

2. In sugarcane CO2 fixation tapseplace in mesophyll chloroplast. Initially CO2 is accepted by PEP and by using Pepco it is converted into OAA. It is then transported to bundle sheath chloroplast.

After the transport, decarboxylation occurs and forms pyruvic acid which is transported to mesophyll chloroplast and converted into PEP. The CO2 released during decarboxylation enters into calvin cycle for the synthesis of Glucose.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 9.
C4 plants have a special leaf anatomy in which C3 cycle also take place.

  1. Name the primary acceptor of CO2 and first stable product in C4 cycle.
  2. Why is photorespiration absent in C4 plants?
  3. Name the special type of leaf anatomy and explain.

Answer:
1. CO2 acceptor in C4 is PEP and the stable product is OAA.

2. Because in C4 plants, the primary CO2 acceptor is PEP but in C3 plants the primary CO2 acceptor is RUBP. The enzyme RUBISCO present C3 plants have dual function ie, carboxylase and oxygenase activity. Oxygenase activity promotes photorespiration.

3. Kranz anatomy in C4 plants. In this bundle sheath chloroplast are arranged in the form of a ring or wreath.

Question 10.
Explain how during light reaction of photosynthesis, ATP synthesis is a chemiosmotic phenomenon.
Answer:
The conditions helpful in chemiosmotic ATP synthesis are:

1. The splitting of the water molecule takes place on the inner side of the membrane, it causes the accumulation of protons or hydrogen ions within the lumen of the thylakoids.

2. As electrons move through the photosystems, protons are transported across the membrane, and proton is released into the inner side or the lumen side of the membrane.

3. The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane. Along with electrons that come from the accepter of electrons of PS I, protons are necessary for the reduction of NADP+ to NADPH+ H+. These protons are also removed from the stroma.

Question 11.
Chemiosmotic hypothesis explains the mechanism of ATP synthesis during respiration and photosynthesis.

  1. Write the difference in the accumulation of proton during the above process.
  2. What causes the proton gradience across the thylakoid membrane within the chloroplast?

OR

C3 plants complete the Biosynthetic phase through 3 stages and sometimes they are affected by high concentration of O2.

  1. Name the 3 stages of Biosynthetic phase.
  2. Name the assimilatory powers used during this phase and specify the number.
  3. Write the process carried out by C3 plants during high concentration of O2.
  4. How does the high O2 concentration affect RUBISCO?

Answer:
1.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img10
2. Movement of electrones through electron carrier

OR

  1. Carboxylation, carbon reduction and regeneration
  2. ATP & NAD PH2
  3. Photorespiration
  4. RUBISCO – undergoes oxygenase activity

Question 12.
ATP and NADPH2 molecules synthesized in Light reaction of Photosynthesis are used for the synthesis glucose in Dark reaction.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img11

  1. Who proposed the Dark reaction?
  2. List out three phases in Dark reaction.
  3. Location of dark reaction in the chloroplast.
  4. Expense of ATP and NADPH2 for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose in Dark reaction.

Answer:

  1. Melvin Calvin
  2. Carboxylation, carbon reduction and regeneration
  3. Stroma
  4. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2

Question 13.
Observe the labeled and write down the following :
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img12

  1. Which gas is passed out into the atmosphere at A?
  2. What raw material required for photosynthesis, enters the leaf at B?
  3. Describe the major steps involved at C in the synthesis of sugar.

Answer:

  1. O2
  2. H2O
  3. CO2 is reduced to sugar (glucose or fructose), by the biochemical reaction of photosynthesis (Calvin cycle). It has 3 major steps.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img13

  • Carboxylation – During which CO2 combines with RuBP.
  • Reduction – During which carbohydrate is formed at the expense of the photochemically made ATP and NADPH.
  • Regeneration – During which is the CO2 acceptor (RuBP) is formed again so that the cycle continues.

Plus One Botany Photosynthesis in Higher Plants NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
By looking at a plant externally can you tell whether a plant is C3 or C4? Why and how?
Answer:
Usually plants growing in dry conditions use ( pathways. It cannot be said conclusively if the plant is a C3 or C4 by looking at fleshy leaf structure of C4 plants.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 2.
By looking at which internal structure of a plant can you tell whether a plant is C3 or C4? Explain.
Answer:
The particularly large cells around the vascular bundles of the C4 pathway plants are called bundle sheath cells, and the leaves which have such anatomy are said to have ‘Kranz’ anatomy. ‘Kranz’ means ‘wreath’ and is a reflection of the arrangement of cells.

The bundle sheath cells may form several layers around the vascular bundles; they are characterised by having a large number of chloroplasts, thick walls impervious to gaseous exchange and no intercellular spaces.

Plus One Botany Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The ATP production in photosynthesis is called
(a) Phototropism
(b) phosphorylation
(c) Photo-oxidation
(d) photophosphorylation
Answer:
(d) photophosphorylation

Question 2.
Conditions helpful in photorespiration are
(a) more oxygen and less carbon dioxide
(b) less oxygen and more carbon dioxide
(c) more temperature and less oxygen
(d) more humidity and less temperature
Answer:
(a) more oxygen and less carbon dioxide

Question 3.
What is common between chloroplasts, chromoplasts, and leucoplasts?
(a) Presence of pigments
(b) Possession of thylakoids and grana
(c) Storage of starch, proteins, and lipids
(d) Ability to multiply by a fission-like process
Answer:
(d) Ability to multiply by a fission-like process

Question 4.
A student set up an experiment on photosynthesis as follow: He takes soda water in a glass tumbler and keeps the tumbler exposed sunlight hoping that he has provided necessary ingredient for photosynthesis to proceed (viz, CO2 H2O chlorophyll and light)
What do you think what will happen after, say few hours of exposure of light?
(a) Photosynthesis will take place and glucose will produced
(b) Photosynthesis will take place and starch will be produced which will turn the mixture turbid
(c) Photosynthesis will not take place because CO2 dissolved in soda water escapes into the atmosphere
(d) Photosynthesis will not take place because intact chloroplasts are needed for the process
Answer:
(a) Photosynthesis will take place and glucose will produced

Question 5.
Photochemical reactions in the chloroplasts are directly involved in
(a) Fixation of carbon dioxide
(b) synthesis of glucose and starch
(c) formation of Phosphoglyceric acid
(d) photolysis of water and phosphorylation of ADP
Answer:
(d) photolysis of water and phosphorylation of ADP

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 6.
Match the following with correct combination
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img14
Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants img15

Question 7.
Choose the correct statement.
(a) The C4 – plants do not have RUBISCO
(b) Carboxylation of RuBP leds to the formation of PGA and phosphoglycolate
(c) Carboxylation of phosphoenolpyruvate results in the formation of C4 – acids
(d) Decarboxylation of C4 – acids occurs in the mesophyll cells
Answer:
(c) Carboxylation of phosphoenolpyruvate results in the formation of C4 – acids

Question 8.
In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, there are photolysis of 12 water molecules, How many H+ are formed?
(a) 24 H+
(b) 36 H+
(c) 12 H+
(d) 32 H+
Answer:
(a) 24 H+

Question 9.
In Hatch and Slack pathway.
(a) chloroplasts are of same type
(b) occurs in Kranz anatomy where mesphyll have small Chloroplasts whereas bundle sheath have granal chloroplasts
(c) occurs in Kranz anatomy where mesphyll have small Chloroplasts whereas bundle sheath have larger agranal chloroplasts
(d) Kranz anatomy where mesphyll cells are diffused
Answer:
(c) occurs in Kranz anatomy where mesphyll have small Chloroplasts whereas bundle sheath have larger agranal chloroplasts

Question 10.
To form one molecule of glucose in Calvin cycle
(a) 9ATP and 36 NADPH are required
(b) 6 ATP and 6 NADPH are required
(c) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH are required
(d) 18ATPand12 NADPH are required
Answer:
(d) 18ATPand12 NADPH are required

Question 11.
Photosynthesis is correctly explained by the equation
(a) 6 CO2 + 12H2 O → C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
(b) 6 CO2 + 6H2 O → C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 + 6H2
(c) 6CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12 O6+ 6O2
(d) 2CO2+ 12H2O → C6H12 O6+ 2CO2
Answer:
(a) 6 CO2 + 12H2 O C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O

Question 12.
In sugarcane plant, CO2is fixed into malic acid, in which the enzyme that fixes carbon dioxide is
(a) ribulose phosphate kinase
(b) fructose phosphatase
(c) ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase
(d) phosphoenol pyruvate carboxlase
Answer:
(d) phosphoenol pyruvate carboxlase

Question 13.
Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of higher plants?
(a) Red and violet
(b) Violet and blue
(c) Blue and green
(d) Green and red
Answer:
(b) Violet and blue

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Question 14.
Which factor is not limiting in normal condition for photosynthesis?
(a) Air
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Water
(d) Chlorophyll
Answer:
(a) Air

Question 15.
Which of the following is used during discovery of Calvin cycle?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Volvox
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Chlorella
Answer:
(d) Chlorella

Question 16.
Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric carbon dioxide levels because
(a) Four carbon acids are the primary initial carbon dioxide fixation products
(b) the primary Fixation of carbon dioxide is mediated via PEP caroxylase
(c) effective pumping of CO2 into bundle sheath cells.
(d) Rubisco in C4_ plants has higher affinity for CO2
Answer:
(b) the primary Fixation of carbon dioxide is mediated via PEP caroxylase

Question 17.
NADP is converted into NADPH2 in
(a) photosystem I
(b) photosystem II
(c) calvin cycle
(d) non cyclic photophosphorylation
Answer:
(d) noncyclic photophosphorylation

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Students can Download Chapter 9 Structured Query Language Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
______form of SQL is designed for use with in general purpose programming languages such as COBOL, C, etc.
Answer:
Embedded SQL.

Question 2.
What is TCL?
Answer:
Transaction Control Language- component of SQL includes commands for specifying transactions.

Question 3.
Data dictionary is a special file in DBMS. What is it used for?
Answer:
Table details are stored in this file

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 4.
What does the following statement mean?
Name VARCHAR(30)
Answer:
Field Name can store up to 30 characters. It is a column definition.

Question 5.
Is there any data type available in SQL to store your date of birth information?
Answer:
Ip Yes. DATE data type

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out.
(DEC, NUMBER, INT, DATE)
Answer:
DATE

Question 7.
How do you ensure that the field ‘ name’ will have some value always?
Answer:
using the constraint NOT NULL

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 8.
How to set the default value of column District in a table to ‘Thrissur’?
Answer:
District VARCHAR(30) DEFAULT ‘ Thrissur’

Question 9.
_______symbol is used as substitution operator in SQL
Answer:
&

Question 10.
Is there any method to find the strings starting with letter ‘a’ from a field in SQL?
Answer:
Use LIKE operator, LIKE ‘a%’

Question 11.
Howto check whether a particular field contains null values or not?
Answer:
Use operator IS NULL

Question 12.
“ORDER BY” clause is used for_______
Answer:
Sorting the results of a query by ascending(Asc) or Descending (Desc).

Question 13.
The built-in functions in SQL that return just a single value for a group of rows in a table are called______
Answer:
Summary functions or aggregate functions.

Question 14.
How to find the number of values in a column in the table?
Answer:
Using the function COUNT()

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 15.
______is the clause in SQL used for categorization.
Answer:
GROUP BY

Question 16.
Thomas wants to remove a table that he were using. How could you help him doing this?
Answer:
Using DROP TABLE command

Question 17.
Pick the odd one out.
(SELECT, UPDATE, DELETE, DROP TABLE)
Answer:
DROP TABLE

Question 18.
Name the aggregate function that can be used to find the total number of records.
Answer:
COUNT()

Question 19.
Which of the following is an essential clause used with SELECT command?
(GROUP BY, ORDER BY, WHERE, FROM)
Answer:
FROM

Question 20.
Which of the following is not a column constraint?
(CHECK, DISTINCT, UNIQUE, DEFAULT)
Answer:
DISTINCT

Question 21.
Which of the following is a DDL command?
(SELECT, UPDATE, CREATE TABLE, INSERT INTO)
Answer:
CREATETABLE

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 22.
What are the logical operators used in SQL?
Answer:
And, Or, Not

Question 23.
The______operator of SQL is used to match a pattern with the help of %. February 2009
(a) BETWEEN
(b) AND
(c) LIKE
(d) OR
Answer:
(c) LIKE

Question 24.
The structure of a table Book is given below.

BookNoInteger
TitleVarchar (200)
AuthorVarchar(100)
PriceDec(5, 2)

Write SQL query to Insert an additional column Purchase date of date type to the. Books table.
Answer:
Alter table Book add(PurchaseDate Date);

Question 25.
Suppose we want to include a column in a table in which serial numbers are to be stored automatically on adding new records. Which constraint is to be used for that column during table creation?
Answer:
The constraint Autojncrement is used.

Question 26.
Which of the following cannot be used to name a table in SQL? Give the reason.
(a) Studnt50
(b) Table
(c) $Employee
(d) Stock_123
Answer:
(b) Table. This is a keyword hence it cannot be used.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 27.
Which of the following commands is used to view the strucutre of a table?
(a) SHOW TABLES
(b) DESC
(C) SELECT
(d) DISPLAY
Answer:
(b) DESC

Question 28.
The command to eliminate the table CUSTOMER from a database is:
(a) REMOVE TABLE CUSTOMER
(b) DROP TABLE CUSTOMER
(c) DELETE TABLE CUSTOMER
(d) UPDATE TABLE CUSTOMER
Answer:
(b) DROP TABLE CUSTOMER

Question 29.
Which SQL command is used to open a database?
(a) OPEN
(b) SHOW
(c) USE
(d) CREATE
Answer:
(c) USE

Question 30.
Which is the keyword used with SELECT command to avoid duplication of rows in the selction?
Answer:
DISTINCT

Question 31.
Pick odd one out and write reason:
(a) WHERE
(b) ORDER BY
(c) UPDATE
(d) GROUP BY
Answer:
(c) UPDATE. It is a command and others are clauses.

Question 32.
Which of the following clause is not used with SELECT command in SQL?
(a) GROUP BY
(b) WHERE
(c) SET
(d) ORDER BY
Answer:
(c) SET. This clause is used with UPDATE.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 33.
______operator in SQL is used with wildcard characters for selection of records,
(a) LIKE
(b) IN
(c) NOT IN
(d) IN and NOT IN
Answer:
(a) LIKE

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is SQL different from other computer high level languages?
Answer:
SQL means Structured Query Language. It is a relational database language, not a programming language like other high level languages. It provides facilities to create a table, insert data into a table, retrieve information from a table, modify data in the table, etc.

Question 2.
Distinguish the SQL keywords UNIQUE and DISTINCT.
Answer:

  1. Unique: It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column while storing data. It is used with create command.
  2. Distinct: This keyword is used to avoid duplicate values in a column of a table while retrieving data. It is used with select command.

Question 3.
Identify errors in the following SQL statement and rewrite it correctly. Underline the corrections.
CREATE student TABLE
(admno PRIMARY KEY,
roll no INT,
name CHAR);
Answer:
The correct SQL statement is as follows.
CREATE TABLE student(
admno INT PRIMARY KEY,
roll_no INT,
name CHAR(3));

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 4.
Suppose a column named Fee does not contain any value for some records in the table named STUDENT. Write SQL statement to fill these blanks with 1000.
Answer:
UPDATE STUDENT SET Fee = 1000 WHERE Fee IS NULL;

Question 5.
Identify the errors in the following SQL statement and give reason for the error.
SELECT FROM STUDENT
ORDER BY Group
WHERE Marks above 50;
Answer:
In this query Group is the key word hence it cannot be used. The correct query is as follows.
SELECT * FROM STUDENT WHERE Marks > 50 ORDER BY Marks;

Question 6.
Differentiate CHAR and VARCHAR data types of SQL.
Answer:

  • Char: It is used to store fixed number of characters. It is declared as char(size).
  • Varchar: It is used to store characters but it uses only enough memory.

Question 7.
Assume that CUSTOMER is a table with columns Cust_code, Cust_name, Mob_No and Email. Write an SQL statement to add the details of a customer who has no e-mail id.
Answer:
INSERT INTO CUSTOMER VALUES(1001, ‘ALVIS’, 9447024365, NULL);

Question 8.
Find the correct clause from the 2nd column for each SQL command in the1 st column.

CommandClause
INSERTSET
SELECTFROM
UPDATEINTO
ALTERADD

Answer:

CommandClause
INSERTINTO
SELECTFROM
UPDATESET
ALTERADD

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 9.
Is ALL a keyword in SQL? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, ALL retains all the duplicate values of a field

Question 10.
Differentiate LIKE ‘a%’ and LIKE ‘a_’
Answer:
%, it replaces a string but _ replaces only one character at a time.LIKE ‘a%’ retrieve all strings of any length that start with letter ‘a.’ while LIKE ‘a_’ retrieve all two letter strings that start with letter ‘a’.

Question 11.
Is multiple sorting possible using ORDER BY clause? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, by giving multiple field names separated by comma in the ORDER BY clause.

Question 12.
While inserting records into a table, Raju finds it is not possible to give more than 20 characters in the ‘name’ field. How can you help Raju solve this problem?
Answer:
Using ALTER TABLE command he can modify the width of field so that it can accommodate more than 20 characters.

Question 13.
After executing a query Mohan gets a message like ‘Table Altered’. What would have he done? Give the syntax.
Answer:
He would have used the ALTER TABLE command.
Syntax, ALTER TABLE <name> ADD/MODIFY (<column>);

Question 14.
During discussion one student said that DELETE and DROP TABLE commands are same. Do you agree with that? Justify.
Answer:
No, DROP TABLE remove a table entirely from the database whereas DELETE command deletes only records from an existing table.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 15.

  1. Pick odd one out .
    DROP TABLE, DELETE, ALTER TABLE, CREATE VIEW
  2. Justify your answer

Answer:

  1. DELETE
  2. All others are DDL commands

Question 16.

  1. Pick odd one out from the following.
    NOT NULL, Group By, Check, Unique, Default
  2. Justify your answer

Answer:

  1. Group By
  2. Group By is not a Constraint.

Question 17.
Consider the following SQL statements.
DELETE Name
From Student
Where name = “Raju”
Find the error in the SQL if any and correct it.
Answer:
Delete from student where name = ‘Raju’

Question 18.
Consider the following Query in SQL.
SELECT Department, avg(salary)
From Employee
Where branch = ‘Kannur’
Group By Department
Having avg (salary) > 7000,
Compare the ‘where’ clause and ‘Having’ Clause using the above query.
Answer:
‘where’ clause applies on single rows but Having clause applies on a group.

Question 19.
Some constraints in SQL are called column constraints. Some constraints are called table constraints. How do they differ?
Answer:
Column constraints are specified while defining each column, table constraints are specified once for the entire table at the end of table definition.

Question 20.

  1. Choose the odd one from the following.
    Primary key, Unique, Distinct, Default, Check
  2. Justify your choice

Answer:

  1. Distinct
  2. Distinct is used with select command while others are column constraints of create table command.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 21.
Name the most appropriate SQL data type required to store the following data.

  1. Name of a student (maximum 70 characters)
  2. Date of Birth of a student.
  3. RollNo. of a student (in the range 1 to 50)
  4. Percentage of marks obtained (correct to 2 decimal places)

Answer:

  1. Varchar(70)
  2. Date
  3. Smallint OR Integer Or decimal(2)
  4. Dec(5, 2)

Question 22.

  1. From the list given below select the names that cannot be used as a table name.
    Adm_No, Date, Salary 2006, Table, Column_Name, Address.
  2. Justify your selection.

Answer:

  1. Date, Table
  2. There is a data type Date and Table is a key word used to create a table. So these two are not used.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 23.
Classify the following SQL elements into two and give proper title for each category.
NOT NULL. AVG. COUNT. CHECK. SUM. DEFAULT
Answer:
1. Aggregate functions:
AVG
COUNT
SUM

2. Column Constraints:
NOT NULL
CHECK
DEFAULT

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
As a part of your school project you are asked to create a table Student with the fields RollNo, Name, Date of Birth and Score in IT. The constraints required are RollNo. is the primary key. Name cannot be empty.
Answer:
Create table student(RollNo decimal(2) not null primary key, Name varchar(20) not null, DOB date, Score number(2));

Question 2.
A table Employee consists of fields EmployeeNo, Name, Designation and Salary. Consider that you are forced to give access to this table for an engineer from another company. But for security reasons you need to hide Salary from him.

  1. Name the concept that provides this engineer, a facility to work on this table without viewing salary.
  2. Write SQL query for implementing this.

Answer:

  1. Views
  2. Create view Empview as select employee no, Name, Designation from Employee.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 3.
Explain the keywords in the following query.
SELECT DISTINCT course FROM Student;
Answer:
SELECT allows to retrieve a subset of rows from the table, DISTINCT avoids duplication of courses from the table STUDENT, FROM is a key word used to specify the name of the table

Question 4.
A table named student is given below.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 1
Write answers for the questions based on the above table.

  1. SQL statement to display the different courses available without duplication.
  2. SQL statement to display the Name and Batch of the students whose percentage has a null value.
  3. Output of the query select count (percentage) from Student.

Answer:

  1. Select distinct batch from Student;
  2. Select name, batch from Student where percent is null
  3. 5

Question 5.
Once the creation of a table is over, one can perform two changes in the schema of the table. What are they? Give syntax.
Answer:
We can alter the table in two ways.

  • We can add a new column to the existing table using the following syntax,
    ALTER TABLE <tablename>ADD(<cloumnname> <type> <constraint>);
  • We can also change or modify the existing column in terms of type or size using the following syntax, ALTER TABLE<tablename>MODIFY(<column> <newtype>);

Question 6.
Explain how pattern matching can be done in SQL with an example.
Answer:
Pattern matching can be done using the operator LIKE while setting the condition with pattern matching.

for eg., to display the names of all students whose name begins with letters ‘ma’, we can write the following query, SELECT name FROM STUDENT WHERE name LIKE ‘ma%’; here the character ‘%’ substitutes any number of characters in the value of the specified column. Another character substitutes only one character of the specified column.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 7.
During the discussion of study your friend say that table and view are the same. How can you correct him?
Answer:
Tables and views are different. A view is a single virtual table that is derived from other physically existing tables. When we access a view we actually access the base tables.

We can use all the DML commands with the views but care should be taken as operation actually reflects in the base tables. The advantage of view is that without sparing extra storage space, we can use same table as different virtual tables. It also implements sharing along with privacy).

Question 8.
Find the errors if any of the following code. Create table emp (name char, R0IIN0 int(20));
Answer:
Here the argument size of data type char of field name is missing. So we can’t store a character only. The second error is the data type int has no argument. The correct statement is as follows Create table emp (name char(20), RollNo int);

Question 9.
Consider the following variable Declaration in SQL.

  • name char (25)
  • name Varchar (25)
    1. Considering the utilisation of memory, which variable declaration is more suitable.
    2. Justify your answer

Answer:
1. name varchar (25)

2. Because char data type is fixed length. It allocates maximum memory i.e, here it allocates memory for 25 characters may be there is a chance of memory wastage. But Varchar allocates only enough memory to store the actual size.

Question 10.
Mr. Dilip wants to construct a table and implement some restrictions on the table.

  1. Column can never have empty values.
  2. One of the columns must be a key to identify the rows etc.

Can you help him to create that table satisfying the above restrictions with an example.
Answer:

  1. Use of create table, Not NULL,
  2. Primary key

Eg: Create table employee(RollNo decimal(3) not null primary key, Name Varchar(70) not null, Desgn Varchar(30), DOB Date, Salary Dec(7,2));

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 11.
Write SQL query to construct a table student with fields Reg No, Stud Name, Sex, Course, grade, etc. As per the following conditions.

  1. Reg No should not be empty and using this column any rows in that table can be identified.
  2. Student name should have some value.
  3. Default value of sex be Female.
  4. Grade should be any of the values: A+, A, B+, B, C+, C, D+, D, E

Answer:
Create table Student(RollNo decimal(3) not null primary key,Name Varchar(70) not null, sex char default ‘Female’, Grade char(2));

Question 12.
Ramu create Table employee with fields empld, empname, Designation, salary using SQL statements. Later he found that data type of emPId is typed as Integer instead of character and missed a field ‘Department’. Can you help him to solve this problem without recreating ‘employee’ table.
Answer:

  • Alter Table Employee Modify(Empld char(4));
  • Alter Table Employee Add(Dept char(15));

Question 13.
While creating a table Alvis give “Emp Details” for table name. Is it Possible. Write down the rules for naming a Table.
Answer:
It is not possible because there is a space between Emp and Details. The rules are given below:

  1. It must not be a keywond(Key words are reserved words and have predefined meaning)
  2. It must begin with alphabets
  3. Digits can be used followed by alphabets
  4. Special characters cannot be used except under score
  5. We cannot give a name of another table

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the table ITEMS.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 2

  1. SELECT ITEMCODE, NAME FROM ITEMS WHERE CATEGORY = ‘Stationery’;
  2. SELECT * FROM ITEMS WHERE SALES_ PRICE < UNIT_PRICE;
  3. SELECT CATEGORY, COUNT(*) FROM ITEMS GROUP BY CATEGORY;’

Answer:
1.

ltem_CodeName
0001Pencil
0002Pen
0003Notebook
0007Pen

2.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 3

3.

CategoryCount(*)
Stationery4
Footwear1
Fruits2

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 2.
Write SQL queries to
1. Create a table Employee with the fields given below.

EmpNoInteger
NameCharacter of size 70
DesignationCharacter size 30
Date of birthDate
SalaryDecimal (7,2)

2. List the name of all employees whose name’s second letter is ‘a’.
3. List the Name and Designation of employees whose Designation is not ‘Manager’.
4. Increase the salary of all employees by 10 percent.
5. Remove all managers whose salary is less than Rs. 10,000 from the table.
Answer:

  1. Create table employee(Name Varchar(70), Desgn Varchar(30), DOB Date, Salary Dec(7,2));
  2. Select Name from Employee where Name like ‘_a%’;
  3. Select Name, Desgn from Employee where Desgn<> ’Manager’;
  4. Update Employee set Salary = Salary + Salary * .01;
  5. Delete from Employee where Desgn = ‘Manager’ and Salary < 10000;

Question 3.
A table Student consists of fields Roll No, Name, Batch and Percent. Write SQL statements to

  1. Display RollNo and Name of students whose percentage is Iessthan90 and greater than 70.
  2. Display RollNo and Name of all students in science batch whose percentage is more than
  3. Display Names of all students in commerce and science batches.
  4. Display the average Percent of students in each batch.
  5. Display RollNo and Name in the ascending order of Batch and descending order of Percent.

Answer:

  1. Select RollNo.Name from Student where percent < 90 and percent > 70;
  2. Select RollNo.Name from Student where Batch = ’Science’ and percent > 90;
  3. Select Name from Student where batch = ’Science’ Or batch = ’Commerce’;
  4. Select batch, Avg(percent) from Student group by batch;
  5. Select RollNo.Name from Student order by batch, percent desc;

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 4.

  1. Classify the following SQL commands. Create table, Insert Into, AlterTable, Delete, Update, Drop Table, Select.
  2. List the features of each category.

Answer:
1. DDL – Create Table, Alter Table, Drop Table DML- Insert Into, Delete, Update, Select.

2. DDL – DDL means Data Definition Language. It is used to create the structure of a table, modify the structure of a table and delete the structure of a table.

DML -DML means Data Manipulation Language. It is used to insert records into a table, modify the records of a table, delete the records of a table and retrieve the records from a table.

Question 5.
Explain the available database integrity constraints.
Answer:

  1. NOT NULL: it specifies that a column can never have null values, i.e., not empty
  2. UNIQUE: it ensures that no two rows have same value in the specified column.
  3. PRIMARY KEY: it declares a column or a set of columns as the primary key of the table. This constraint makes a column NOT NULL and UNIQUE.
  4. DEFAULT: it sets a default value for a column when the user does not enter a value for that column.
  5. Auto_increment: This constraint is used to perform auto_increment the values in a column. That is automatically generate serial numbers. Only one auto_increment column per table is allowed.

Question 6.
Consider a table student with fields Reg No, Stud Name, Sex, Course, total score.
Write Sql queries for the following:

  1. Enter a Record
  2. List the Detail’s of all students
  3. Display Details of the student whose name ends with ‘Kumar’.
  4. List all Female students who got more than 50 marks.
  5. List all students who are studying either science or in Commerce group.
  6. List details of those students who are studying Humanities in the Descending order of their names.

Answer:

  1. Insert into Student values. (52, ‘JOSE’, ‘Male’, ‘Science’, 500);
  2. Select * from Student;
  3. Select * from Student where name like ‘%Kumar’;
  4. Select * from Student where sex=’Female’ and Total > 50;
  5. Select * from Student where course = ‘science’ or course = ‘commerce’;
  6. Select * from Student where course=’Humanities’ order by name desc;

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 7.
Construct a Table Product with the following fields using SQL.
Product code – Consist of Alphanumeric code
Product name – Consist of maximum of 30 Alphabets
Unit price – Numeric values
Quantity – Numeric values
Product price – Numeric Values
Write Query for the following:

  1. Enter 5 records in the table (not give values for product prices)
  2. Calculate product price (unit price x quantity)
  3. List all product whose unit price ranging from 10 to 20
  4. Calculate total price of all product.

Answer:
Create table Product(ProdCode Varchar(20) not null primary key, ProdName char(30), UPrice decimal(7, 2), Qty decimal(6), ProdPricedecimal(7, 2));

  1. Insert into Product(Product Code,Product Name, Unit Price, Quantity) values (‘101’, ‘LUX’, 29.50, 500); Similarly insert four more records
  2. Update Product set ProdPrice = Qty * UPrice;
  3. Select ProdName from Product where UPrice between 10 and 20;
  4. Select sum(ProdPrice) from Product;

Question 8.
Mr. Wilson wants to store the details of students. The details consists of different types of data. Explain different data types used in SQL to store data.
Answer:
The different data types are:

1. Char (Fixed):
It is declared as char (size). This data type is used to store alpha numeric characters. We have to specify the size. If no size is specified, by default we can store only one character. Eg: name char(20).

2. Variable Character:
It is declared as varchar (size). This data type is also used to store alpha numeric characters. But there is a slight difference.lt allocates only enough memory to store the actual size.
Eg: namevarchar(20)

3. Decimal:
It is declared as Dec(size, scale), where size is the number of digits and scale is the maximum number of digits to the right of the decimal point.
Eg: weight dec(3,2)

4. Integer:
It is declared as int. It does not have any arguments. It takes more memory.
Eg: RollNo int.

5. Small Integer:
It is declared as small int. It takes less memory RollNo int.

6. Date:
It is used to store date.
Eg: DOB date.

7. Time:
It is used to store time.
Eg: Joining_Time Time.

Question 9.
A company wants to create a table to store its employees details. Write SQL Commands for the following :

  1. Create a table with EMP table having fields EMPNO primary key varchar(10), Name varchar(20), Salary number(6), Department varchar(3)
  2. Insert values to table
  3. List all employees whose salary > 10,000
  4. Display name and salary in the order of name.

Answer:

  1. Create table EMP (EMPNO varchar(10) not null primary key, Name varchar(20), Salary decimal(6), Dept varchar(3));
  2. Insert into EMP values (‘1001’, ‘ALVIS’, 50000, ‘Sales’);
  3. Select * from EMP where salary > 10000;
  4. Select name,salary from EMP order by name;

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 10.
Create a table ‘Savings’ with the following fields.
Acc No (Integer), Name (char), age (Integer) and balance (Number) where Acc No is the primary key. Write SQL commands for the following.

  1. Insert data in all the fields for 3 records
  2. Display the list of account holders in the ascending order of their names.
  3. Display the list of all account holders having age between 20 and 30
  4. Display the name and Acc No of customers having a balance > 10 lakhs

Answer:
Create table Savings(Accno decimal(4) not null primary key, name char(2), age decimal(3), Balance decimal(8,2));

  1. Insert into savings values (501, ‘Andrea’, 18,45000)
  2. Select * from Savings order by name
  3. Select * from Savings where age between 20 and 30
  4. Select name.accno from Savings where balance > 100000

Question 11.
Which are the components of SQL? How do they help to manage database?
Answer:
The components of SQL are given below.
DDL commands (3 commands)

  • Create table: Used to create a table.
  • Alter table: Used to modify existing column or add new column to an existing table. There are 2 keywords used ADD and MODIFY.
  • Drop table: Used to remove a table from the memory.

DML commands (4 commands)

  • Select: Used to select rows from a table. The keyword From is used with this. Where clause is used to secify the conition.
  • Insert: Used to insert new records into a table. So the keyword used is INTO.
  • Delete: Used to delete records in a table.
  • Update: Used to modify the records in a table the keyword used is set.

DCL (Data Control Language) commands

  • Grant: It grants permission to the users to the database
  • Revoke: It withdraws user’s rights given by using Grant command.

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Let Us Practice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of marks scored by students in an examination. (5 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 4
Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements:

  1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
  2. Display the details of all students.
  3. List the details of Science group students.
  4. Count the number of students in each course.
  5. Add a new column named Total to store the total marks.
  6. Fill the column Total with the sum of the six marks of each student.
  7. Display the highest total in each group.
  8. Find the highest, lowest and average score in Subject 6 in Commerce group.
  9. Display the names in the alphabetical order in each course.
  10. Display the name of the student with the highest total.

Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 5
1.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 6

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

2.

3. mysql>select * from student1 where course = ’Science’;

4. mysql>select course,count(*) from → student1 group by course;

5. mysql>altertable student1 add(total int);

6. mysql>update studentl set total=mark1 + mark2 + mark3 + mark4 + mark5 + mark6;

7. mysql>select course,max(total) from student1 group by course;

8. mysqt>select max(mark6), min(mark6), avg(mark6) from student1;

9. mysql>select course, name from studentl order by course, name;

10. mysql>select name from studentl where total=(select max(total) from student1);

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 2.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of items in a computer shop. (5 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 9
Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements.

  1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
  2. Display the details of all items in the table.
  3. Display the names of items and total price of each.
  4. List the items manufactured by a company (specify the name) available in the table.
  5. Find the number of items from each manufacturer.
  6. Display the details of items with the highest price.
  7. List the names of items whose price is more than the average price of all the items.
  8. Display the names of items purchased after 1 -1 -2015.
  9. Get the details of items manufactured by two or three companies (specify the names) available in the table.
  10. Display the details of items from a company (specify the name) with a stock of more than 20 pieces.

Answer:
mysql>create table shop (ItemNo int primary key, name char(30) not null,
DOP date,
UnitPrice float(8, 2),
Qty int,
mfrer char(30));
1. mysql>insert into shop values(1,’Keyboard’, ’2014-08-21’, 300.00, 100, ’Tech Com’);
mysql>insert into shop values(2,’Mouse’, ‘2014-08-21 ’, 300.00, 100, ‘Tech Com’);
mysql>insert into shop values(3,’Speaker’,’2015-08-21’, 550.00, 100, ’I Ball’);
mysql>insert into shop values(4,’CPU’,’2015-07-21’, 3500.00, 100, ’AMD’);
mysql>insert into shop values(5,’RAM’, ‘2015-08-1’, 1300.00, 100, ’Hynix’);

2. mysql>select * from shop;

3. mysql>select name, UnitPrice*Qty from shop;

4. mysql>select name from shop where mfrer=’Tech Com’;

5. mysql>select mfrer,count(*) from shop group by mfrer;

6. mysql>select * from shop where UnitPrice = (select max(UnitPrice) from shop);

7. mysql>select name from shop where UnitPrice > (select avg(UnitPrice) from shop);

8. mysql> select “from shop where DOP>’2015-1-1’;

9. mysql> select name frogi shop where mfrer=’l Ball’ and Qty>20;

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 3.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of higher secondary school teachers. (5 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 10
Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements:

  1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
  2. Display the details of all female teachers in the table.
  3. List the details of male teachers in the Science department.
  4. Display the names and basic pay of teachers in the Language department whose basic pay is Rs. 21000/-or more.
  5. Display the names and 71 % of basic pay of the teachers.
  6. Find the number of teachers in each department.
  7. Display the details of teachers whose basic pay is less than the average basic pay.
  8. List the male teachers who joined before 1-1-2010.
  9. Increment the basic pay of all teachers by Rs. 1000/-.
  10. Delete the details of teachers from the Language department.

Answer:
mysql>create table hsst(Teacherld int primary key, name varchar(30) not null,
gender char,
DOJ date,
Dept varchar(15),
BP float(8, 2));
1. mysql>insert into hsst values(1 ,’Jose’,’M’, ‘2002-01-01’,’Science’, 25660);
mysql> insert into hsst values(2,’Christy’,’F’, ‘2012-01-01′,’Commerce’, 20740);
mysql>insert into hsst values(3,’Geejo George’,’M’, ‘2007-01-01’,’Humanities’, 22360);

2. mysql>select * from hsst where gender=’F’;

3. mysql>select * from hsst where gender=’M’ and Dept=’Science’;

4. mysql>select name, BP from hsst where dept=’Language’ and BP >21000;

5. mysql>select name, BP*.71 from hsst;

6. mysql>select Dept,count(*) from hsst group by Dept;

7. mysql>select * from hsst where BP < (select avg(BP) from hsst);

8. mysql>select * from hsst where gender=’M’ and DOJ<’2010-01-01’;

9. mysql>update hsst set BP=BP+1000;

10. mysql>delete from hsst where Dept= ’Language’;

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 4.
The structure of a table is given to store the details of customers in a bank. (5 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 11
Write SQL statements for the creation of the table and the following requirements:

  1. Insert data into the fields (at least 10 records).
  2. Display the details of customers having SB account.
  3. Display the names of customers with a balance among greater than Rs. 5000/-.
  4. Display the details of female customers with a balance amount greater than Rs. 10000/-
  5. Count the number of male and female customers.
  6. Display the names of customers with the highest balance amount.
  7. Display the names of customers whose names end with ‘kumar’.
  8. Update the balance amount of a particular customer with a deposit amount of Rs. 2000/-.
  9. Display the details of customers with a tax deduction of 2% of the balance amount for those who have Rs. 2,00,000/- in their account.
  10. Delete the details of customers with current account.

Answer:
mysql>create table customer
AccNo int primary key,
name varchar(30),
gender char,
DOJ date,
TypeOfAcc char(8),
Balance double(10, 2));
1. mysql>insert into customer values (1001,’Adeline’,’F’,’2008-11-26’,’SB’, 50000.00);
mysql>insert into customer values (1002,’Aivis’.’M’,’2007-05-19’,’Current’, 500000.00);
mysql>insert into customer values (1003,’Andrea’,’F’,’2012-07-29’,’SB’, 450000.00);

2. mysql>select * from customer where TypeOfAcc=’SB’;

3. mysql>select name from customer where Balance>5000;

4. mysql>select name from customer where gender=’F’ and Balance>10000;

5. mysql>select gender, count(*) from customer group by gender;

6. mysql>select name from customer where Balance=(select max(Balance) from customer);

7. mysql> select name from customerwhere name like “%kumar”;

8. mysql>update customer set Balance= Balance+ 2000 where Accno= 1001;

9. mysql>select Accno.name, Balance*.02 from customerwhere Balance>=200000;

10. mysql > delete from customerwhere Type Of Acc = ‘Current’;

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language Let Us Assess Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The command to remove rows from a table ‘CUSTOMER’ is: (1 Mark)
(a) REMOVE FROM CUSTOMER
(b) DROP TABLE CUSTOMER
(c) DELETE FROM CUSTOMER
(d) UPDATE CUSTOMER
Answer:
(c) DELETE FROM CUSTOMER

Question 2.
If values for some columns are unknown, how is a row inserted? (2 Mark)
Answer:
In this occasion the column list must be included, following the table name.
Eg. INSERT INTO <TABLE NAME> (COLUMN NAME1, COLUMN NAME2,….) VALUES (VALUE1, VALUE2, );

Question 3.
Distinguish between CHAR and VARCHAR data types of SQL. (2 Mark)
Answer:

  • Char: It is used to store fixed number of characters. It is declared as char(size).
  • Varchar: It is used to store characters but it uses only enough memory. It is declared as varchar(size).

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 4.
What is the difference between PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints? (2 Mark)
Answer:

  • Unique: It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column.
  • Primary key: Similar to unique but it can be used only once in a table.

The strings (i) and (iv) only

Question 5.
What do you mean by NULL value in SQL? (1 Mark)
Answer:
Null is a key word in SQL that represents an empty value.

Question 6.
Which of the following is the correct order of clauses for the SELECT statements? (1 Mark)
(a) SELECT, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY
(b) SELECT, FROM, ORDER BY, WHERE
(c) SELECT, WHERE, FROM, ORDER BY
(d) SELECT, WHERE, ORDER BY, FROM
Answer:
(a) SELECT, FROM, WHERE, ORDER BY

Question 7.
The SQL operator______is used with pattern matching. (1 Mark)
Answer:
LIKE OPERATOR

Question 8.
Read the following strings : (1 Mark)
(i) ‘Sree Kumar’
(ii) ‘Kumaran’
(iii) ‘Kumar Shanu’
(iv) ‘Sreekumar’
Choose the correct option that matches with the pattern ‘%Kumar’, when used with LIKE operator in a SELECT statement.

  1. Strings (i) and (ii) only
  2. Strings (i), (iii) and (iv) only ,
  3. Strings (i) and (iii) only
  4. All the strings

Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 12

Question 9.
List any five built-in functions of SQL and the value returned by each. (2 Mark)
Answer:
Aggregate functions:

  1. Sum()- find the total of a column.
  2. Avg()- find the average of a column.
  3. Min() – find the smallest value of a column.
  4. Max() – find the largest value of the column.
  5. Count() – find the number of values in a column.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 10.
Distinguish between WHERE clause and HAVING clause. (2 Mark)
Answer:
Where clause is used to specify the condition.
Syntax: Select * from student where roll=1;
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 13
Having clause is used with Group By to give to form groups of records, not conditions and individual rows.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 14

Question 11.
Write any four DML commands in SQL. (2 Mark)
Answer:
The four DML commands are:

  1. INSERT
  2. UPDATE
  3. SELECT
  4. DELETE

Question 12.
Write the essential clause required for each of the following SQL command. (2 Mark)

  1. INSERT INTO
  2. SELECT
  3. UPDATE

Answer:

  1. INSERT INTO – VALUES
  2. SELECT – FROM
  3. UPDATE – SET

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 13.
Consider the given table Customer and write the output of the following SQL queries: (5 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 15

  1. SELECT * FROM customer WHERE Amount>25000;
  2. SELECT Name FROM customer
    WHERE Branch IN (‘Calicut, ‘Kannur’);
  3. SELECT COUNT (*) FROM customer WHERE Amount < 20000;
  4. SELECT Name FROM customer WHERE Name like “%m%”;
  5. SELECT * FROM customer ORDER BY Amount DESC;

Answer:
1.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 16

2.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 17

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

3.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 18

4.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 19

5.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 20

Question 14.
Distinguish between COUNT (*) and COUNT (column-name). (2 Mark)
Answer:

  • Count(): find the number of non null values in a column.
  • Count(*): This is used to find the number of records with at least one field.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 15.
Considerthe given table ITEMS. (5 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 21

  1. Suggest a suitable primary key for the above table. Give justification.
  2. Write SQL statements for the following:
    • To list all stationery items.
    • To list item code, name, and profit of all items.
    • To count the number of items in each category.
    • To list all stationery items in the descending order of their unit price.
    • To find the item with the highest selling price.
    • To create a view that contains the details of all stationery items.

Answer:
1. Item code is the primary key for the table

2. SQL statements:

(i)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 22

(ii)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 23

(iii)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 24

(iv)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 25

(v)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 26

(vi)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Languag - 27

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 16.
What are the different modifications that can be made on the structure of a table? Which is the SQL command required for this? Specify the clauses needs for each type of modification. (3 Mark)
Answer:
Alter table command is used to modify existing column or add new column to an existing table. There are 2 keywords used ADD and MODIFY.
We can alter the table in two ways.

  • We can add a new column to the existing table using the following syntax,
    ALTER TABLE <tablename>ADD(<cloumnname> <type> <constraint>);
  • We can also change or modify the existing column in terms of type or size using the following syntax,
    ALTER TABLE<tablename>MODIFY(<column> <newtype>);

Question 17.
A table is created in SQL with 10 records. Which SQL command is used to change the values in a column of specified rows? Write the format. (2 Mark)
Answer:
UPDATE command is used for this.
Syntax : UPDATE <table name> set <column name>=value where condition.

Question 18.
Name the keyword used with SELECT command to avoid duplication of values in a column. (1 Mark)
Answer:
DISTINCT.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Question 19.
Distinguish between DISTINCT and UNIQUE in SQL. (2 Mark)
Answer:

  • DISTINCT: This keyword is used to avoid duplicate values in a column of a table.
  • Unique: It ensures that no two rows have the same value in a column.

Question 20.
Pick the odd one out and give reason: (1 Mark)
(a) CREATE
(b) SELECT
(c) UPDATE
(d) INSERT
Answer:
(a) CREATE, It is a DDL command the others are DML commands.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Students can Download Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Plus One Body Fluids and Circulation One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the double walled membrane of human heart. (Cuticle, Pleura, Pericardium, Sarcolemma)
Answer:
Pericardium

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 2.
Which metal is responsible for blood clotting?
(a) Iron
(b) Calcium
(c) Copper
(d) Magnesium
Answer:
(b) Calcium

Question 3.
In a case sheet, doctor denoted a patients BP as 140/90. What it shows?
Answer:
Hypertension

Question 4.
Mark the pair of substances among the following which is essential for coagulation of blood.
(a) Heparin and calcium ions
(b) Calcium ions and platelet factors
(c) Oxalates and citrates
(d) Platelet factors and heparin
Answer:
(b) Calcium ions and platelet factors

Question 5.
Which one of the following type of cells lack nucleus?
(a) RBC
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Eosinosphils
(d) Monocytes
Answer:
(a) RBC

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 6.
ECG depicts the depolarisation and repolarisation processes during the cardiac cycle. In the ECG of a normal healthy individual one of the following waves is not represented.
(a) Depolarisation of atria
(b) Repolarisation of atria
(c) Depolarisation of ventricles
(d) Repolarisation of ventricles
Answer:
(b) Repolarisation of atria

Question 7.
Which one of the following blood cells is involved in antibody production?
(a) B-Lymphocytes
(b) T-Lymphocytes
(c) RBC
(d) Neutrophils
Answer:
(a) B-Lymphocytes

Question 8.
The cells involved in inflammatory reactions are
(a) Basophils
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Lymphocytes
Answer:
(a) Basophils

Question 9.
Name the incompatibility observed between the Rh-ve blood of a pregnant mother with Rh+ve blood of the foetus.
Answer:
Erythroblastosis foetalis

Question 10.
Tricuspid valve is present in between _______ and _________?
(a) Right auricle and right ventricle
(b) Left auricle and left ventricle
(c) Right auricle and left auricle
(d) Right ventricle and left ventricle
Answer:
(a) Right auricle and right ventricle

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 11.
Rhythmic heartbeat is maintained by a highly specialized excitatory and conductive system. The correct sequence of events will be
(a) AV node → Bundle of His → S A node → Purkinje fibers
(b) Purkinje fibers → AV node → S A node → Bundle of His
(c) A V node → S A node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers
(d) S A node → A V node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers
Answer:
(d) S A node → A V node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers

Question 12.
The normal cardiogram of man is shown below.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 1
In the diagram, QRS wave has largest amplitude, which represents ventricular depolarization. What condition is obtained if QRS wave is enlarged?
Answer:
Myocardial infarction or cardiac arrest.

Plus One Body Fluids and Circulation Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The diagrammatic figure given below represents two types of blood circulations.

  1. Identify the A and B
  2. Write hepatic portal system

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 2

Answer:

  1. A – Pulmonary circulation B – Systemic circulation
  2. Hepatic portal system is a portal system which carries blood from intestine to liver.

Question 2.
Doctor advised to administer Anti Rh antibodies to Seetha immediately after the first delivery. Justify this statement.
Answer:
If the mother’s blood group is Rh- and foetus blood group is Rh+, there is chance for the condition of erythroblastosis foetalis. This can be avoided by administering Anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately afterthe delivery of the first child.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 3.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 3

  1. Identify A & B
  2. Mention the role of A in the myogenic property of Heart.

Answer:
1. A – SA node B – AV node

2. In myogenic heart cardiac impulse in originated from SA node. So the SA node is called pacemaker. The rate of heart beat in determined by the rate of discharge of cardiac impulse from SA node.

Question 4.
Silicosis, T.B., Pneumonia, asbestosis are the diseases affecting respiratory system. Name four diseases affecting circulatory system.
Answer:

  1. Hypertension
  2. Coronary artery disease (CAD)
  3. Angina
  4. Heart failure

Question 5.
The average life span of RBC is 120 days.

  1. Write the places where RBC is produced and destroyed?
  2. Name respiratory pigment in Human RBC.

Answer:

  1. RBS are produced in red bone marrow and destroyed in spleen
  2. Haemoglobin

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 6.
The stroke volume of a normal person is 70ml/min. Find out his cardiac output?
(Hint: Cardiac output = stroke volume × No. of heartbeats/min.)
Answer:
HP No.of heartbeats/min = 72
Stroke volume = 70
Cardiac output = 70 × 72 = 5040 ml

Question 7.
Suppose your friend is suffering from obesity, diabetes and hypertension, etc. What are the type of food materials would you suggest?
Answer:
Fried items and bakery items must not be used. Sugar and sugary materials should be avoided. Fiber-rich vegetarian food is recommended.

Question 8.
Study the table. Correct the mistakes to match column A, B & C.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 4
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 5

Question 9.
Copy the diagram and fill (a) and (b).
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 6
Answer:
(a) Hypertension

(b) Coronary Artery Disease.

Question 10.
Complete the table.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 7
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 8

Question 11.
Observe the diagram.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 9

  1. Which step of cardiac cycle is shown here?
  2. Which sound is produced during the step and how is it produced?

Answer:

  1. Ventricular systole
  2. The ‘lub’ sound. This is produced by the closing of AV valve in orderto prevent backward flow of blood to auricle.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 12.
Some of the features of the body fluids are listed below. Analyse the features and categorise them into two groups.

  1. Transparent fluid found in tissue space.
  2. Extra cellular fluid of the blood.
  3. Contains 91% water, 7% proteins and 1% inorganic and organic substances.
  4. Absorbs the digested fats and lipids and transports in the form of chylomicrons.

Answer:

PlasmaLymph
2. Extra cellular fluid of blood1. Transparent fluid found in tissue space
3. Contains 91% water, 7% proteins and 1% inorganic and organic substances4. Absorbs the digested fats and lipids and transports in the form chylomicrons

Question 13.
‘Bundle of His’ is divided into finer branches known as Purkinje Tissue. Impulses are conducted rapidly along these fibres at 5 m/s and spread from these to all parts of the chambers.

  1. What is the function of Purkinje Tissue?
  2. Which are the chambers mentioned in the paragraph?

Answer:

  1. Conduction of impulse from the Bundle of His and rapidly transfers to the wall of the ventricles,
  2. Right and Left ventricles

Question 14.
“All veins carry deoxygenated blood and all arteries carry oxygenated blood.”

  1. Do you agree?
  2. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Statement is incorrect.

2. Arteries are the blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart. Veins are the blood vessels which carry blood towards the heart. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except pulmonary artery.

All veins carry deoxygenated blood except pulmonary vein. Pulmonary artery carry deoxygenated blood towards the lungs and pulmonary vein carry oxygenated blood toward heart.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 15.
Using the terms given, prepare a flow chart incorrect order.
Right auricle, aorta, left ventricle, left auricle, superior vena cava, capillaries, lungs, right ventricle, pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery.
Answer:
Right Auricle → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left Auricle → Left ventricle → Aorta → Capillaries → Superior vena cava → Right Auricle.

Question 16.
Complete the table using ‘open’ or ‘close’.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 10
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 11

Question 17.
The human blood vascular system is diagrammatically represented below.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 12

  1. What is the significance of Pulmonary circulation in the cardiac cycle?
  2. Why circulation in human considering as double circulation?

Answer:
1. The to and fro circulation between the lungs and heart is known as Pulmonary circulation. The purpose of pulmonary circulation is oxygenation of blood.

2. In human circulation is double circulation, it involves Pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation. Right half receives and pumps the deoxygenated blood while the left half the oxygenated blood.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 18.
You know when you cut your finger or hurt yourself, your wound does not continue to bleed for long time. Usually blood stops flowing after sometime. State how?
Answer:
When blood oozes out of a cut, it set into gel within a few minutes. This is known as coagulation. The mechanism of blood coagulation is as follows.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 13

Question 19.
Copy the table and fill in the gap with appropriate words.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 14
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 15

Question 20.
Study the diagrammatic representation :
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 16

  1. ‘X’ marked in the figure is a blood vessel. Name the blood vessel.
  2. Give the importance of circulation between these two organs.

Answer:

  1. hepatic portal vein
  2. hepatic portal vein carries nutrients from intestine to liver.

Question 21.
Heparin is a substance which prevents clotting of blood. Histamine is an anti-inflammatory substance.

  1. Mention the leucocytes that secretes the above said substances.
  2. Draw and label its nucleus.

Answer:
1. Basophil
2.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 17

Plus One Body Fluids and Circulation Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill up the blanks with appropriate words.

  1. Thrombocytes are produced from _________
  2. Pace maker of the heart is _________
  3. The nervous band that connects the two cerebral hemispheres is _________

Answer:

  1. Megakaryocytes
  2. Sino – atrial node (SAN)
  3. Corpus callosum

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 2.
The given figure shows a Systole.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 18

  1. Identify the Systole in the figure?
  2. How long does it lasts?
  3. What happens to the bicuspid and tricuspid valves during this systole?

Answer:

  1. Ventricular systole
  2. 0.25 seconds
  3. Closed

Question 3.
Draw a Schematic diagram showing the circulation of blood in man, starting from left ventricle of heart and ending in the right auricle.

  1. Name the type of circulation.
  2. Mention the significance of this circulation.

Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 19

  1. Systemic circulation
  2. The systemic circulation provides nutrients, O2 and other essential substances to the tissues and takes CO2 and other harmful substances away for elimination.

Question 4.
A unique vascular connection exists between the digestive tract and liver.

  1. Name the vascular connection.
  2. Name the vascular connection found in frog between kidney and lower parts of body.
  3. What is CAD?

Answer:

  1. Hepatic portal system
  2. Renal portal system
  3. CAD – Coronary Artery Disease

Question 5.
Complete the table using the terms given in bracket. (Lymphocyte, granulocyte, eosinophil, basophil, plasma, leucocyte)
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 20
Answer:

  • a – Plasma
  • b – leucocyte
  • c – granulocyte
  • d – basophil
  • e – Eosinophil
  • f – lymphocyte

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 6.
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions.

  1. Identify the type of circulation.
  2. Prepare a flow chart showing the above circulation.
  3. Write the purpose of this circulation.

Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 21

  1. Pulmonary circulation
  2. Right, ventricle → Pulmonary artery → lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left auricle
  3. Oxygenation of blood

Question 7.
Leukocytes are the soldiers of the body. Justify?
Answer:
Leukocytes provides defence mechanism to the body against infection. For example Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body.

Basophils secrete histamine, heparin etc. and are involved in inflammatory reactions. Eosinophils resist infections and are also associated with allergic reactions. Lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses of the body.

Question 8.
Listed below are some of the features of open and closed circulatory system. Arrange them into two categories.

  1. Usually low-pressure system
  2. Found in vertebrates
  3. Blood returns to heart rapidly
  4. High pressure system
  5. Blood returns to heart slowly
  6. Found in Arthopods

Answer:

Open circulationClosed circulation
1. Usually low pressure system4. High pressure system
5. Blood returns to heart slowly3. Blood returns to heart rapidly
6. Found in Arthropods2. Found in vertebrates

Question 9.
The heart of fish is said to be a venous heart, whether your heart is a venous one or not? Justify.
Answer:
The heart of fish is a venous heart, because it is a 2 chambered heart and only deoxygenated blood flows through the heart chambers.
Human heart is four chambered heart and carry both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. So human heart is not a venous heart.

Question 10.
Observe the diagram.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 22

  1. Identify the blood cell A and B.
  2. How can they differentiate?
  3. What are their function?

Answer:

  1. The blood cells A and B
    • A – Monocyte
    • B – Neutrophil
  2. They can be differentiated in two ways
    • Monocyte – Agranulocyte, Horseshoe shaped nucleus
    • Neutrophil – Granulocyte, multilobed nucleus
  3. Their functions
    • Monocyte – They protect the body by engulfing the pathogen (Phagocytosis)
    • Neutrophil – Phagocytic cells

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 11.
During a clinical check-up doctor diagnosed that the patient’s heart murmurs.

  1. What are murmurs?
  2. Why does a heart murmur?
  3. The heart sound ‘dub’ is caused by the closure of AV valve. Do you agree with this statement?

Answer:
1. Due to the abnormalities in chambers or valves of the heart, some abnormal sounds may be audible in addition to normal heart sound. These are called murmurs.

2. Heart may murmur due to valvular damage.

3. The statement is incorrect because ‘dub’ is caused by the sudden closure of semilunar valve.

Question 12.
Observe the diagram and answer the following
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 23

  1. Name the area labelled here.
  2. What is the importance of this area?
  3. Name the area associated with this.
  4. Draw a flow chart showing conducting system of heart.

Answer:

  1. Sino-atrial node (SAN)
  2. Cardiac impulse originates from SAN.
  3. AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibres.
  4. SAN → AVN → Bundle of His→ Purkinje fibres → Ventricle.

Question 13.
Match the following.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 24
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 25

Question 14.
A person’s blood pressure is found to be about 140/ 100mm Hg.

  1. What is the condition the person is suffering?
  2. How do you measure BP?
  3. Blood pressure is 100/60mm Hg. How you interpret it?

Answer:

  1. Hypertension
  2. Sphygmomanometer
  3. Hypotension

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 15.
The major findings of a health survey conducted in a corporation area are

  • 25% of the population are suffering from hypertension.
  • 15% of male above 40 years are suffering from various cardiac disorders.

1. List any three cardio vascular disorders.
2. Suggest any two possible reason for this disorders.
3. Suggest any two advices to the disease.

Answer:

  1. Hypertension, Atherosclerosis, Cardiac arrest
  2. Two possible reason for cardio vascular disorders:
    • Regular intake of fatty food
    • Smoking
    • Lack of exercise
  3. Advices to the disease:
    • Avoid fatty food
    • Do regular exercise

Question 16.
Match Column I with Column II.

Column IColumn II
(a) EosinophilsCoagulation
(b) RBCUniversal Recipient
(c) AB GroupResist infections
(d) PlateletsContraction of Heart
(e) SystoleGas transport

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) EosinophilsResist infections
(b) RBCGas transport
(c) AB GroupUniversal Recipient
(d) PlateletsCoagulation
(e) SystoleContraction of Heart

Question 17.
Select the correct statement from the following:

  • Monocyte is a granulocyte.
  • Frog has 4 chambered heart.
  • Blood is a tissue.
  • The respiratory organs of insects are gills.

Answer:

  • Blood is a tissue. (Monocyte is an agranulocyte Frog has 3 chambered heart Respiratory organs of insects are trachea)

Question 18.
Today we can measure blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer at home. This shows that people are very much concerned about high blood pressure. Find out why?
Answer:
High blood pressure can harm the vital organs like heart, brain and kidneys. High blood pressure compels the heart to work excessively due to which the congestive heart disease may set in at an early age. This is the reason why people are very much concerned with their high B.P.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 19.
Erythroblastosis foetalis is an Rh incompatibility disorder.

  1. Describe the circumstances in which erythroblastosis foetalis might arise.
  2. How is the problem usually averted?

Answer:
1. If the first child of a Rh- woman is Rh+, she develops anti-Rh antibodies in her blood. During subsequent pregnancies if the foetus is Rh+ and Rh antibodies enter the foetal blood from the mother blood causing agglutination resulting erythroblastosis foetalis.

2. This problem can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first child.

Question 20.
Write the odd one out and give the reason for your answer.

  1. P wave, QRS wave, T wave, beta wave.
  2. Renal artery, Pulmonary artery, Hepatic artery, Coronary artery.
  3. SA node, lymph node, AV node, Purkinje fibres

Answer:

  1. Beta wave: These are the waves of normal EEG, whereas all others are the components of a normal ECG.
  2. Pulmonary artery: This blood carries deoxygenated blood whereas all others carry oxygenated blood.
  3. Lymph node: It is found in lymphatic system whereas all other structures are found in the mammalian heart related to auto rhythmicity.

Question 21.
Cardiac output increases when we engage in physical exercises. However, it may fall after the exercise stops. We can see that it is a fully heart controlled event.

  1. What is a cardiac output?
  2. How does heart increase cardiac output during exercise?

Answer:

  1. Cardiac output is the volume of the blood ejected by. each ventricle into the arterial system per minute,
  2. In response to the sensory impulses and the adrenal medullary hormone, the excitability of the pacemaker is increased and thereby heart rate is increased during exercise. This in turn increases the heart rate.

Question 22.
Copy and complete the table on blood group, antigen and antibody.
1.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 26

2. Name the blood groups commonly known as Universal donor and Universal recipient.
Answer:
1.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation - 27

2. The blood groups commonly known as Universal donor and Universal recipient.

  • Universal donor: ‘O’ group.
  • Universal recipient: ‘AB’ group.

Plus One Body Fluids and Circulation NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the importance of plasma proteins?
Answer:
Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major proteins. Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood. Globulins primarily are involved in defense mechanisms of the body and the albumins help in osmotic balance.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 2.
Match Column I with Column II:

Column IColumn II
(a) Eosinophils(i) Coagulation
(b) RBC(ii) Universal Recipient
(c) AB Group(iii) Resist Infections
(d) Platelets(iv) Contraction of Heart
(e) Systole(v) Gas transport

Answer:

Column IColumn II
(a) Eosinophils(iii) Resist Infections
(b) RBC(v) Gas transport
(c) AB Group(ii) Universal Recipient
(d) Platelets(i) Coagulation
(e) Systole(iv) Contraction of Heart

Question 3.
Why do we consider blood as a connective tissue?
Answer:
Blood is considered a connective tissue for two basic reasons:

  1. embryologically, it has the same origin (meso-dermal) as do the other connective tissue types and
  2. Blood connects the body systems together bringing the needed oxygen, nutrients, hormones and other signaling molecules, and removing the wastes.

Question 4.
Sino-atrial node is called the pacemaker of our heart. Why?
Answer:
Sino-atrial node is a bundle of nerves which initiates the conduction of heartbeat. So, this is also called the pacemaker of our heart.

Question 5.
What is the significance of atrioventricular node and atrioventricular bundle in the functioning of heart?
Answer:
AV Node and atrioventricular bundles are responsible for conduction of cardiac beat cycle to further parts of heart.

Question 6.
Define a cardiac cycle and the cardiac output.
Answer:
Cardiac Cycle. The rhythmic contraction and dilatation of different parts of heart in one beat is called cardiac cycle. Cardiac Output. The heart beats 72 times per minute, i.e., that many cardiac cycles are performed per minute. From this it could be deduced that the duration of a cardiac cycle is 0.8 seconds.

During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately 70mL of blood which is called the stroke volume. The stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate (no. of beats per min.) gives the cardiac output. Therefore, the cardiac output can be defined as the volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute and averages 5000 mL or 5 litres in a healthy individual.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 7.
What is the difference between lymph and bllod?
Answer:

BloodLymph
RBC PresentRBC Absent
Found in arteries, veins and capillariesFound in interstitial space
Can transport gasesCannot transport gases

Plus One Body Fluids and Circulation Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In higher vertebrates, SA – node helps in
(a) conduction of blood
(b) initiation of heartbeat
(c) opening of tricuspid valve
(d) opening of bicuspid valve
Answer:
(b) initiation of heartbeat

Question 2.
An oval depression called fossa ovalis, is seen on
(a) inter atrial septum
(b) inter ventricular septum
(c) right auriculo-ventricular septum
(d) left auriculo-ventricular septum
(e) papullary muscles
Answer:
(a) inter atrial septum

Question 3.
The deposition of lipids on the wall lining, the lumen of large and medium-sized arteries is referred to as
(a) deep vein thrombosis
(b) Stokes-Adam’s syndrome
(c) osteoporosis
(d) atherosclerosis
Answer:
(d) atherosclerosis

Question 4.
Which of the following are located in tunica media of human blood vessels?
(a) Collagen fibres and smooth muscle
(b) Squamous epithelium and striated muscle
(c) white fibres and smooth muscle
(d) Yellow fibres and smooth muscle
Answer:
(d) Yellow fibres and smooth muscle

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 5.
The important function of lymph is to
(a) transport oxygen to the brain
(b) transport carbon dioxide to the lungs
(c) return RBCstothe lymph nodes
(d) return interstitial fluid to the blood
Answer:
(d) return interstitial fluid to the blood

Question 6.
Cardiac output is determined by
(a) heart rate
(b) stroke volume
(c) blood flow
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 7.
Which of the following matches correctly?
(a) Inferior vena cava – Receives deoxygenated blood from the head and body
(b) Superior vena – Receives deoxygenated blood from the lower body and organs
(c) pulmonary artery – carries deoxygenated blood to lungs
(d) hepatic artery – carries deoxygenated blood to the gut
Answer:
(c) pulmonary artery – carries deoxygenated blood to lungs

Question 8.
The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site made up of
(a) atrioventricular bundle
(b) Purkinje system
(c) sinuatrial node
(d) atrioventricular node
Answer:
(c) sinuatrial node

Question 9.
Generally artificial pacemaker consists of one battery made up of
(a) nickel
(b) dry cadmium
(c) photo sensitive material
(d) lithium
Answer:
(d) lithium

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 10.
which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin?
(a) Neutrophils
(b) Basophils
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Monocytes
Answer:
(b) Basophils

Question 11.
In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to
(a) pushing open of the venous valves
(b) suction pull
(c) stimulation of the sino-auricular node
(d) pressure difference between the caval and atrium
Answer:
(d) pressure difference between the caval and atrium

Question 12.
which one of the following has an open circulator system?
(a) Pheretima
(b) Periplaneta
(c) Hirudinaria
(d) Octopus
Answer:
(b) Periplaneta

Question 13.
in higher vertebrates, SA – node helps in
(a) conduction of blood
(b) initiation of heartbeat
(c) opening of tricuspid valve
(d) opening of bicuspid valve
Answer:
(b) initiation of heartbeat

Question 14.
The opening of auricles and ventricles on the right side is guarded by
(a) tricuspid valve
(b) bicuspid valve
(c) semilunar valve
(d) Eustachian tube
Answer:
(a) tricuspid valve

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 15.
Which of the following sequences is truly a systemic circulation pathway?
(a) Right ventricle → Pulmonary aorta → Tissues Pulmonary veins → Left auricle
(b) Right auricle → Left ventricle → Aorta → Tissues → Veins → Right auricle
(c) Left auricle → Left ventricle → Pulmonary aorta + Tissues → Right auricle
(d) Left auricle → Left ventricle → Pulmonary aorta → Arteries → Tissues → Veins → Right atrium
Answer:
(d) Left auricle → Left ventricle → Pulmonary aorta → Arteries → Tissues → Veins → Right atrium

Question 16.
Open circulatory system is present in
I. Arthropods
II. Annelids
III. Chordates
IV. Molluscs
(a) III only
(b) III and II
(c) I and IV
(d) IV only
Answer:
(c) I and IV

Question 17.
The artery, which supplies blood to the pericardium is
(a) brachial artery
(b) pulmonary vein
(c) vertebral artery
(d) coronary artery
Answer:
(d) coronary artery

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Question 18.
In diastole, heart is filled by
(a) mixed blood
(b) venous blood
(c) oxygenated blood
(d) deoxygenated blood
Answer:
(d) deoxygenated blood

Question 19.
You are required to draw blood from patient and to Keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which of them will you not use for the purpose?
(a) Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate
(b) Chilled test tube
(c) Test tube containing heparin
(d) Test tube containing sodium oxalate
Answer:
(c) Test tube containing heparin

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Students can Download Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following roles is not characteristic of an essential element?
(a) being a component of biomolecules
(b) changing the chemistry of soil
(c) being a structural component of energy-related chemical compounds
(d) activation or inhibition of enzymes
Answer:
(b) changing the chemistry of soil

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an essential element?
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.
(c) essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase.
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.

Question 3.
During protein synthesis subunits of ribosomes are combined due to the presence of the particular element. Name it.
Answer:
Magnesium

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 4.
Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves.
It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?
(a) sulphur
(b) Magnesium
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) sulphur

Question 5.
With regard to the Biological Nitrogen Fixation by Rhizobium in association with soybean, which one of the following statement/statements does not hold true.
(a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning
(b) Nitrogenase is MO- Fe protein
(c) Leg-hemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment.
(d) Nitrogenase helps to convert N2 gas into two molecules of ammonia.
Answer:
(a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning

Question 6.
Name the free-living microorganisms which can fix nitrogen.
Answer:
Azotobactor and Rhodospirillum

Question 7.
In what form do plants absorb molebdenum from the soil.
Answer:
Molybdate ions MoO22+

Question 8.
Mineral requirements of plants is explained by a method in the nutrient solution is Called ………. and it was demonstrated by ……….. for the first time.
Answer:
Hydroponics,Julius von sachs

Question 9.
Find the odd one out.
Boron, Copper, Zinc, Phosphorous
Answer:
Phosphorous

Question 10.
A plant cell when kept in a certain solution got plasmolysed. What was the nature of the solution?
Answer:
Hypertonic Solution.

Question 11.
Plants can be cultivated in water. Name the type of cultivation.
Answer:
Hydroponics

Question 12.
Find the odd one among the following Carbon, Manganese, potassium, Nitrogen
Answer:
Manganese

Question 13.
A farmer adds Azotobacter culture to the soil before sowing maize. Which mineral element is being replenished?
Answer:
Nitrogen

Question 14.
In the diagram below, Label the cell Ain Nostoc
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition img1
Answer:
Heterocyst

Question 15.
Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an essential element?
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.
(c) essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase.
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 16.
Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?
Answer:
Sulphur or calcium

Question 17.
From where do plants receive hydrogen?
Answer:
Water absorbed by plants.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give example for

  1. Free-living N2 fixing bacteria.
  2. Symbiotic N2 fixing bacteria.

Answer:

  1. Acetobacter, Nitrococcus
  2. Rhizobium

Question 2.
Crop plants cannot grow well in the nitrogen-deficient soil while plants like Drosera and Nepenthes show vigorous growth.

  1. Justify the statement
  2. Mention any two deficiency shown by such crop plants.

Answer:
1. These plants are insectivorous plants. They capture and feed on insects in order to maintain the N2 content of their body.

2. Two deficiency shown by such crop plants

  • Stunted growth
  • Chlorosis

Question 3.
Study the relation of the given pair and fill up the blanks:

  1. Potassium: Stomatal movement:………… Constituent of chlorophyll
  2. ………………: pollen germination Zinc: biosynthesis of auxin.
  3. Ion exchange: Passive absorption ………….: Active absorption
  4. Protoplasmic streaming theory: De Vries: ………….Active absorption

Answer:

  1. Mg
  2. Boron
  3. Carrier concept
  4. Munch

Question 4.
Plants can be grown in defined nutrient solution in the absence of soil.

  1. Name the technique.
  2. Who demonstrated the technique for the first time?

Answer:

  1. Hydroponics
  2. Julius von sachs

Question 5.
How is nitrogenase enzyme protected?
Answer:
In leguminous plants, the enzyme nitrogenase is protected from Oxygen by the pigment leghaemoglobin.

Question 6.
The functional roles of certain essential elements are given below. Identify the element based on the function.

  1. Essential for the formation of Chlorophyll.
  2. Involved in the pollen germination.

Answer:

  1. Mg
  2. Boron

Question 7.
Explain the scientific reason for growing legume crops prior to cereal crops.
Answer:
Increase the fertility of the soil. Biological N2 fixation.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 8.
Name the pink coloured pigment present in the root nodules? Write its role in N2 fixation?
Answer:
Leghemoglobin is an oxygen scavenger. It creates anaerobic condition for the action of nitrogenase enzyme to fix N2.

Question 9.
Give example for the following taking part in biological nitrogen fixation.

  1. Free-living N2 fixing bacteria
  2. Free-living N2 fixing cyanobacteria
  3. Symbiotic N2 fixing bacteria.
  4. Symbiotic N2 fixing cyanobacteria

Answer:

  1. Azotobacter, Clostridium
  2. Nostoc, Anabaena, Oscillatonia.
  3. Rhizobium leguminosarum
  4. Nostoc, Anabaena

Question 10.
Prepare a flow chart which shows the conversion of N2 to ammonia in biological N2 fixation.
Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition img2

Question 11.
A pigment similar to hemoglobin is present in leguminous plants. Name the pigment and write its role.

OR

How is nitrogenase enzyme protected?
Answer:
Leghemoglobin which is the scavenger of 02. Nitrogenase enzyme needs oxygen-free condition.

Question 12.
Observe the figure given below and answer the following questions.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition img3

  1. Name this technique.
  2. Write two uses of this technique.

Answer:

  1. Hydroponics
  2. uses
    • Used as kitchen garden,
    • Used to study jdeficiency symptoms.

Question 13.
For the normal growth of plants it requires minerals. Write two examples of micro and macro elements.
Answer:

  • Macro – N, P
  • Micro-Boron, copper

Question 14.
In a survey done in an agricultural area the crops in the area shows various symptoms.

  • Chlorosis
  • Necrosis
  • Delay flowering.

Name the elements whose deficiency causes these symptoms.
Answer:

  • N, P, K, Mg
  • Chlorosis – N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, etc.
  • Necrosis – K, Mg, Ca and Cu Delay flowering – N, S, and Mo

Question 15.
Iron is not a structural component of chlorophyll but its deficiency causes yellowing of leaves. Give reason.
Answer:
Iron activates catalise enzyme in the formation of chlorophyll.

Question 16.
Amides are derivatives of amino acids in which the hydroxyl group is replaced by the amino group (NH2)
a) How are asparagine and glutamine formed.
b) Amides contain more than amino acids.
Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition img4

Question 17.
In a survey done in an agricultural area the crops in the area shows various symptoms.

  • Chlorosis
  • Necrosis
  • Delay flowering

Name the elements whose deficiency causes these symptoms.
Answer:

  • N, P, K, Mg
  • Chlorosis – N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, etc.
  • Necrosis – K, Mg, Ca and Cu
  • Delay flowering – N, S, and Mo

Question 18.
A farmer supplies Nitrogen fertilizer to pea plants.

  1. Is there any necessity to supply Nitrogen fertilizer?
  2. Justify your answer with reason.

Answer:

  1. No
  2. Symbiotic N2 fixation

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 19.
Name the respecive mineral nutrient element that

  1. Forms the core constituent of the ring structure of chlorophyll
  2. Activates carboxylases
  3. Forms the components of nitrogenase
  4. Synthesises middle lamella of plant cell.

Answer:

  1. Magnesium
  2. Manganese
  3. Molybdenum and iron
  4. Calcium

Question 20.
Observe the relationship between the first pair and fill in the blanks.
Posassium: Opening and closing of stomata::
Boron: …………
Answer:
Boron: Pollen germination/ pollen tube growth

Question 21.
State whether True or False.

  1. Potassium plays an important role in opening and closing of stomata.
  2. The movement of ions is usually called flux.
  3. In an LHC (Light-Harvesting complex), Chlorophyll b is the reaction center.
  4. The first stable product in calvin cycle is 3-PGA.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. False
  4. True

Question 22.
A few inorganic elements are given. Match them with their specific functions.

ElementsFunction
1. Potassiuma. Absorption and translocation
2. Magnesiumb. Pollen germination
3. Molybdenumc. Opening and closing of Stomata
4. Borond. Maintain ribosome structure

Answer:

ElementsFunction
1. PotassiumOpening and closing of stomata
2. MagnesiumMaintain ribosome structure
3. MolybdenumAbsorption and translocation
4. BoronPollen germination

Question 23.
Pick the suitable minerals from the list, for following processes?

  1. Synthesis of auxin
  2. Pollen germination
  3. Photolysis of water
  4. Nitrogen metabolism

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition img5
Answer:

  1. Zn
  2. B
  3. Mn
  4. Mo

Question 24.
Rhizobium leguminosarum cannot do N2 fixation outside root nodules. Give reasons.
Answer:
Rhizobium can fix atmospheric N2 only if the symbiotic relationship with leguminose plant is established.

Question 25.
What type of conditions are created by leghaemoglobin in the root nodule of a legume?
Answer:
It acts as 02 scavenger that means it helps in preventing the combining of 02 with nitrogenase.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 26.
Leguminous plants can be cultivated in between rice cultivation. Why?
Answer:
Because it increases the fertility of soil (enrich N2 content) for next year rice cultivation.

Question 27.
Match the element with its associated functions/ roles.

A. Boroni. Splitting of H2O to liberate o2 during photosynthesis
B. Manganeseii. needed for the synthesis of auxins
C. Molybdenumiii. component of nitrogenase
D. Zinciv. Pollen germination
E. Ironv component of ferredoxin

Answer:

  1. A – iv
  2. B – i
  3. C – iii
  4. D – ii
  5. E – v

Question 28.
To get maximum yeild a farmer added exess amount of manganese-containing fertiliser. The plants showed some deficiency symptoms. Can you give the reason for this?
Answer:
Excess of the micronutrient -Mn causes Toxicity because it prevent the uptake of Iron, Magnesium, and calcium. This results in deficiency symptom.

Question 29.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition img6

  1. Identify the phenomenon?
  2. A pink coloured protein protects nitrogenase from oxygen. Name that protein.

Answer:

  1. Ammonification
  2. Leghemoglobin

Question 30.

AB
MagnesiumOpening and closing of stomata
CalciumSplitting of water
PotassiumMiddle lamella
ChlorineChlorophyll

Answer:

AB
MagnesiumChlorophyll
CalciumMiddle lamella
PotassiumOpening and closing of stomata
ChlorineSplitting of water

Question 31.

  1. Name the oxygen-binding pigment found in the root nodule of plants like pea and bean.
  2. What is the normal colour of this pigment?

Answer:

  1. Leghemoglobin
  2. Pink-colored

Question 32.
How the presence of magnesium fulfills the requirements of the essentiality of elements from growth and development of plants?
Answer:

  1. It is a constituent of chlorophyll molecule and is essential for photosynthesis.
  2. It cannot be replaced by any other element for the same function.
  3. It is also required as a co-factor by many enzymes involved in cellular respiration and other metabolic pathways.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 33.
Nitrogen fixation is shown by prokaryotes and not eukaryotes. Comment?
Answer:
In prokaryotes, photosynthetic autotrophs (cyanobacteria) like nostoc and Anabaena have special N2 fixing cell which helps in N2 fixation.

Question 34.
How is sulphur important for plants? Name the amino acids in which it is present.
Answer:
Sulphur, besides being present in some amino acids essential for protein synthesis, is also a constituent of several coenzymes, vitamins, and ferrodoxin which are involved in some biochemical pathways.

Question 35.
How do some bacteria carry out nitrification? What are such bacteria called?
Answer:
Such types of bacteria convert ammonia into nitrates and obtain energy for their activities. They are called chemosynthetic autotrophs.

Question 36.
Name the respective mineral nutrient elements of plants that:

  1. Is needed in the synthesis of auxins
  2. Is a constituent of ferredoxin
  3. Forms the core constituent of the ring structure of chlorophyll
  4. forms the components of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase

Answer:

  1. Zinc
  2. Sulphur
  3. Magnesium
  4. Molybdenum

Question 37.
Why do plants of legume family contain more protein than the other plants?
Answer:
Plants in legume family bears root nodules which bear symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria i.e rhizobium

Question 38.
Nepenthes carries out photosynthesis and still traps insects. Why?
Answer:
Nepenthes grow in nitrogen-deficient soils so these trap, digest and absorb amino acids from the insects supplementing their nitrogen supply.

Question 39.
Mycorrohiza is a mutualistic association. How do the organisms involved in this association gain from each other?
Answer:
It is an association of root and fungi in which surface area of root is increased and more minerals can be absorbed. Fungus get nutrients and sugar from the plant.

Question 40.
Carnivorous plants like Nepenthes and Venus flytrap have nutritional adaptations. Which nutrient do they especially obtain and from where?
Answer:
In these, insect body is digested and plant gets Nitrogen as nutrients.

Question 41.
How are organisms like Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus of significance in nitrogen cycle?
Answer:
Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus carry out denitrification process wherein the nitrate present in the soil is reduced to nitrogen thus contributing to the atmospheric nitrogen.

Question 42.
Think of a plant which lacks chlorophyll. From where will it obtain nutrition? Give an example of such a type of plant.
Answer:
This case is observed in total parasites. In such plants they absorb food, water, and minerals from host. Eg cuscuta.

Question 43.
Nitrogen is essential element for plants and is found in abundance as atmospheric nitrogen. But most plants unable to use it. Why is it so and in what form do plants utilize them?
Answer:
Most plants cannot use it because atmospheric nitrogen is inert in its nature. Nitrogen fixers in soil can convert nitrogen gas into nitrates or nitrite or ammonium forms. These compounds enter the plants as nutrients through the roots and are assimilated as organic nitrogen.

Question 44.
How insectivorous plants fulfill their nitrogen requirements?
Answer:
Insectivorous plants fulfill their nitrogen requirements from insects and small animals trapped by their leaves(a pitcher).

Question 45.
All elements that are present in a plant need not be essential to its survival. Give reasons.
Answer:
The Criteria for essentiality are

  1. The element must be necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction
  2. In the absence of elements, the plants do not complete their life cycle or set the seeds.
  3. The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant.
  4. The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another.

Question 46.
Why is that in certain plants deficiency symptoms appear first in younger parts of the plant while in others they do so in mature organs?
Answer:

  • If the elements are actively mobilized, the older part of plant show deficiency symptoms.
  • If they are not mobilized, the deficiency symptoms are first observed in younger regions.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 47.
Mineral elements are re-exported from one place to other or some are immobile and deficiency symptoms observed

  1. Which is the part of the plant show deficiency symptoms in the former?
  2. Name the mineral element is immobile and which part of the plant shows deficiency symptoms?

Answer:

  1. Older regions because minerals are remobilised from older regions into younger regions.
  2. Ca, Deficiency symptoms are noticed in younger tissues because it forms the structural part.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give the technical term for the following.

  1. Leaf yellowing
  2. death of tissues
  3. soilless cultivation

Answer:

  1. chlorosis
  2. Necrosis
  3. Hydroponics

Question 2.
Plants pick up nitrogen from the soil in the form of ammonia ions or nitrate ions, ammonia being the main product of biological nitrogen fixation. From the above view answer the following.
a) Which soil bacteria convert ammonia to NO2 – and NO3.
b) Draw a schematic diagram of progressive reduction of one molecule of nitrogen in the presentee of enzyme nitrogenase to yield two molecule of ammonia.
c) Name the enzyme for nitrogen assimilation in plants.
Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition img7

Question 3.
Macro and micronutrients are required in particular amount for plants.

  1. What will be the moderate increase of micronutrient affect the plants
  2. Name the micronutrient helps in pollen germination
  3. What is the concentration of macro and micronutrients required for plants?

Answer:

  1. It cause toxicity to plants and affect the uptake and utilisation of macronutrients
  2. Boron
  3. Macronutrients – Excess 10 millimole /kilogram of dry matter
    Micronutrients – Less than 10 millimole /kilogram of dry matter

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 4.
During formation of nitrate in plants, different steps occur.

  1. Name the steps leading to the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to nitrate
  2. Which is the reductive and oxidative steps?
  3. Name the pigments and Enzymes that are required and the steps they act on.

Answer:

  1. Nitrogen fixation, Nitrification
  2. Nitrogen fixation—reductive process, Nitrification—Oxidative process
  3. pigment—Leghaemoglobin, Enzyme— Nirogenase Pigments and enzymes acts on Nitrogen fixation step

Question 5.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition img8

  1. Name the process
  2. Which enzyme catalyses the process
  3. How the enzyme in the process is protected from oxygen in root nodules?

Answer:

  1. N2 fixation
  2. Nitrogenase
  3. Due to the presence of pigment Leghemoglobin. It acts as the scavenger of oxygen.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘All elements that are present in a plant need not be essential to its survival’. Comment.
Answer:
The criteria for essentially of an element are given below:

1. The element must be absolutely necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction. In the absence of the element, the plants do not complete their life cycle or set the seeds.

2. The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another element. In other words, deficiency of any one element cannot be met by supplying some other element.

3. The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant. All elements that are present in a plant do not fulfill these criteria hence cannot be essential for plant survival.

Question 2.
Why is purification of water and nutrient salts so important in studies involving mineral nutrition using hydroponics?
Answer:
In 1860, Julius von Sachs, a prominent German botanist, demonstrated, for the first time, that plants could be grown to maturity in a defined nutrient solution in complete absence of soil. The essence of all these methods involves the culture of plants in a soil-free, defined mineral solution. These methods require purified water and mineral nutrient salts.

Purification of water and nurtient salt is important to rule out other influencing factors. The presence of pure nutrients will give clearcut scientific results. This will help in making a sound basis for the right prediction.

Question 3.
What are the steps involved in the formation of a root nodule?
Answer:
Steps in the development of root nodules:
1. Rhizobium bacteria contact a susceptible root hair, divide near it.

2. Upon successful infection of the root hair cause it to curl

3. Infected thread carries the bacteria to the inner cortex. The bacteria get modified into rod-shaped bacteriods and cause inner cortical and pericycle cells to divide. Division and growth of cortical and pericycle cells lead to nodule formation.

4. A mature nodule is complete with vascular tissues continuous with those of the root.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that premature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause a decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield?
(a) Frequent irrigation of the crop
(b) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer
(c) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5- thchlorophenoxy acetic acid
(d) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll
Answer:
(d) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll

Question 2.
For nitrogen fixation, useful pigment is
(a) nitrogenase
(b) hemoglobin
(c) myoglobin
(d) leghaemoglobin
Answer:
(d) leghaemoglobin

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 3.
Plants cultivated in nutrient solution without soil is called
(a) somatic hybridization
(b) tissue culture
(c) hydroponics
(d) suspension culture
Answer:
(c) hydroponics

Question 4.
The process of decay of dead organic matter is known as
(a) denitrification
(b) nitrification
(c) nitrogen fixation
(d) ammonification
Answer:
(d) ammonification

Question 5.
Zn, Mo, Fe, Cu are
(a) trace elements
(b) non-essentials
(c) macronutrients
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(a) trace elements

Question 6.
An essential element is that which
(a) improves health of the plant
(b) is irreplaceable and indispensable for the growth of plants
(c) is found in plant ash
(d) is available in the soil
Answer:
(b) is irreplaceable and indispensable for the growth of plants

Question 7.
N2 +8e +8H +16ATP → 2NH3+2H+ + 16ADP + 8e The above equation refers to
(a) amnionification
(b) nitrification
(c) nitrogen fixation
(d) denitrification
Answer:
(c) nitrogen fixation

Question 8.
Micronutrients are
(a) as important as macronutrients but are required in small amount
(b) less important than macronutrients
(c) called micro as they play only a minor role in plant nutrition
(d) required greater than 10m mole/Kg of dry matter
Answer:
(a) as important as macronutrients but are required in small amount

Question 9.
Which element is located at the centre of the porphyrin ring in chlorophyll?
(a) Potassium
(b) Manganese
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium
Answer:
(d) Magnesium

Question 10.
Which element is required for the germination of pollen grains?
(a) Boron
(b) Calcium
(c) Chlorine
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) Boron

Question 11.
Select the correct statement.
(a) Legumes are incapable of fixing nitrogen
(b) Legumes fix nitrogen through bacteria living fruits
(c) Legumes fix nitrogen only by bacteria present in root nodules
(d) frankia forms symbiotic association with algae
Answer:
(c) Legumes fix nitrogen only by bacteria present in root nodules

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 12.
Chlorosis is caused due to deficiency of
(a) magnesium
(b) calcium
(c) boron
(d) manganese
Answer:
(a) magnesium

Question 13.
Enzyme nitrogenase is responsible for
(a) nitrification
(b) nitrogen fixation
(c) nitrite reduction
(d) nitrate reduction
Answer:
(b) nitrogen fixation

Question 14.
Maximum percentage of which element occurs in plant ash?
(a) Magnesium
(b) Zinc
(c) Potassium
(d) Calcium
Answer:
(d) Calcium

Question 15.
Which of the following metals causes bone cancer
(a) Lead
(b) Cobalt
(c) Uranium
(d) strontium90
Answer:
(d) strontium90

Question 16.
Premature leaf fall is due to deficiency of
(a) phosphorus
(b) nitrogen
(c) calcium
(d) potassium
Answer:
(a) phosphorus

Question 17.
The function of leg haemoglobin during biological nitrogen fixation in root nodules of legumes is to
(a) convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
(b) convert ammonia to nitrite
(c) transport oxygen for activity of nitrogenase
(d) protect nitrogenase from oxygen
Answer:
(d) protect nitrogenase from oxygen

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Question 18.
Which of the following gene is responsible for biological nitrogen fixation?
(a) Nitrogenase
(b) N if gene
(c) Yeast alanine tRNA synthetase
(d) RNA synthetase
Answer:
(b) N if gene

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Students can Download Chapter 8 Database Management System Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Plus Two Computer Application Database Management System One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Select the property which is desirable for a database.
(a) Redundancy
(b) Inconsistency
(c) Integrity
(d) Complexity
Answer:
(c) Integrity

Question 2.
Pick the odd man out.
(a) Create
(b) Select
(c) Update
(d) Insert
Answer:
(a) Create

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 3.
______is the ability to modify a schema definition in one level without affecting the schema definition in the next higher level.
Answer:
Data Independance.

Question 4.
For accessing data from a database, provides an interface with programming languages.
Answer:
SQL (or DML)

Question 5.
Give an example for RDBMS package.
Answer:
Packages such as Oracle, My SQL, etc.

Question 6.
Name the key that acts as a candidate key but not a primary key.
Answer:
Alternate key

Question 7.
With the help of_______the process of storing, retrieving and modifying date are greatly simplified.
Answer:
DBMS

Question 8.
If______is controlled , DBMS can guarantee that database is never inconsistent.
Answer:
Redundancy.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 9.
The property of a DBMS that guarantees that the database is never inconsistent.
Answer:
Redundancy.

Question 10.
______and_____are the two types of integrity checks.
Answer:
Range checks, Value checks.

Question 11.
Which component of DBMS provides interfaces with programming Languages.
Answer:
DML

Question 12.
The level of database abstraction that describes how the data is actually stored in the storage medium.
Answer:
Physical level.

Question 13.
The level of database abstraction that describes what data are stored in the database.
Answer:
Logical level.

Question 14.
Data Base Administrators (DBA) are more concerned with level______of Abstraction.
Answer:
Logical level.

Question 15.
The programmers are connected with______level of abstraction.
Answer:
Logical level.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 16.
The teller at a bank sees only that part of the database that has information on customer accounts. Which level of Database abstraction he is at?
Answer:
View level.

Question 17.
As part of project work, Ashish defines the type of data and the relationship among them. He is at_______level of database abstraction.
Answer:
Logical.

Question 18.
_______is the other name for logical level.
Answer:
Conceptual level

Question 19.
If the modifications made on storage format does not affect the structure of data, then we achieve______data independence.
Answer:
Physical data independence.

Question 20.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) net work model
(b) hybrid model
(c) relational model
(d) hierarchical model
Answer:
(b) Hybrid model.

Question 21.
“I am a data model. My records can have more than one parent record” Who am I?
Answer:
Network model.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 22.
Name the language that enables user to access or manipulate data as organized by RDBMS.
Answer:
DBML

Question 23.
ADatabaseAdministratorisableto modify the structure a programmer changes data types and length of a database without affecting certain fields in a database of a bank and the program. Identify the data independence associated in it.
Answer:
Logical data Independence.

Question 24.
Name the language that used to define a database scheme.
Answer:
DDL

Question 25.
Name the person who has central control over the database and programs in DBMS
(a) Naive user
(b) Programmer
(c) Database Administrator
(d) System Analyst
Answer:
(c) Database Administrator.

Question 26.
Oracle DBMS package is based on______model.
Answer:
Relational

Question 27.
Match the following.

AB
(a) Relation(i)  Field
(b) Tuple(ii)  Table
(c) Atribute(iii)  Record

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i).

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 28.
Name the Relational operation which selects certain columns from the table while discarding others.
Answer:
Project.

Question 29.
How to define the Domain of a column ‘subject 1’ of MARKS relation.
Answer:
Range of values from 0 to 100.

Question 30.
State whetherTrue or False. A view is a kind of table whose contents are taken from other tables.
Answer:
True

Question 31.
State True or False. A view can be queried, inserted into, updated and deleted from.
Answer:
True.

Question 32.
Name an efficient way to provide only required data to users hiding other data from the database.
Answer:
View

Question 33.
Pick the key which can not be used to uniquely identify a tuple on a relation:
(Candidate Key, Primary Key, Alternate Key, Super Key, None of these)
Answer:
None of these.

Question 34.
π(pi) Greek letter is used to denote________operation in relational algebra.
Answer:
Project.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 35.
Which relational Algebra operation returns all possible combinations of tuples from two relations.
Answer:
Cartesian product.

Question 36.
Pick the odd one out.
(Select, Cartesian product, Union, intersection)
Answer:
Select – unary operator.

Question 37.
What will be the cardinality of the resultant table if after the following operation if the cardinality of STUDENT is 5 and INSTRUCTOR is 3?
Answer:
15

Question 38.
Consider two relations FOOTBALL AND CRICKET, How to get the names of players play only cricket not also FOOTBALL.
Answer:
CRICKET – FOOTBALL

Question 39.
Why we call a Foreign Key so?
Answer:
It is a candidate Key in another table, A foreigner.

Question 40.
_______is range of values from which actual values are appearing in a given columns are drawn.
Answer:
Domain

Question 41.
Name the table that does not contain data of its own, but is derived from a base table.
Answer:
view

Question 42.
Name a way to uniquely identify a tuple in a relation.
Answer:
By using primary key.

Question 43.
Give two Unary operations performed on a relation in Relational Algebra.
Answer:
Select, Project

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 44.
Data redundancy is not a desirable property. But All redundancy can not or should not be eliminated. Do you agree with this statement. Justify.
Answer:
Yes. Because sometimes there can be technical or business reasons for maintaining several distinct copies of same data.

Question 45.
Anju is able to do all the internal operations in a DBMS. What type of user is she? What are the other type of users?
Answer:
DBA, Other type users are Appl Prograammer and Naive users.

Question 46.
Which of the following statements are true?

  1. DBMS facilitates storage, retrieval, and management of databases.
  2. We must keep more copies of the same data in databases.
  3. Data inconsistency is eliminated in DBMS.
  4. DBMS allows sharing of data, but does not ensure security.

Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) Both 1 and 3 are true
(b) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are true
(c) Statements 1, 2 and 4 are true
(d) All statements are true
Answer:
(a) Both 1 and 3 are true

Question 47.
Which of the following refers to duplication of data in files?
(a) Data redundancy
(b) Data inconsistency
(c) Data integrity
(d) Data security
Answer:
(a) Data redundancy

Question 48.
The following are some responsibilities of database users. Which of them belong to Database Administrator?

  1. Design the conceptual schema of the database.
  2. Develops programs to interact with the database.
  3. Interacts with the database through queries.
  4. Ensures authorised and secured access of data

(a) Both 1 and 3
(b) Except 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) All the four
Answer:
(b) Except 2 and 3

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 49.
Which of the keys in a relation do not allow null values? Choose the most appropriate option from the following.
(a) Primary key
(b) Candidate key
(c) Both primary key and candidate key
(d) Either primary key or candidate key
Answer:
(c) Both primary key and candidate key

Question 50.
Choose the level of database abstraction that describes what data is stored in the database and what relationships exist among them.
(a) External
(b) Logical
(c) Physical
(d) View
Answer:
(b) Logical

Question 51.
Which of the following operations can extract the specified columns of a table?
(a) Selection
(b) Projection
(c) Intersection
(d) Set Difference
Answer:
(b) Projection

Plus Two Computer Application Database Management System Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The schema of a table is EMPLOYEE(emp_code, emp_name, designation, salary). Write down the relational expressions for the following:

  1. To get the name and designation of all employees.
  2. To get the details of employees whose salary is above 25000.
  3. To get the names of employees who designation is Manager.
  4. To get the details of Managers with salary less than 25000.

Answer:

  1. πname, designation (EMPLOYEE)
  2. σsalary>25000 (EMLOYEE)
  3. πname( σdesignation=”Manager”(EMPLOYEE))
  4. σdesignation = “Manager” and salary < 25000 (EMLOYEE).

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 2.
Data sharing is an essential feature of DBMS. How data sharing reduces the data inconsistency in a database? Data sharing is an essential feature of DBMS. How data sharing reduces the data inconsistency in a database?
Answer:
Instead of storing more than one copy of the same data, it stores only one copy. This can be shared by several users. If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.

Question 3.
Pick the odd one out and justify your answer:
(a) Column
(b) Attribute
(c) Field
(d) Tuple
Answer:
(d) Tuple. The other three terminologies indicate the same characteristic of a table.

Question 4.
Suppose a table (relation) contains the details of customers in a bank. Which attribute of the customer will be set as primary key for the table? Give reason for your opinion.
Answer:
Account number can be set as primary key since account number is different for different customers. That is it is unique hence it can be set as primary key.

Question 5.
How many distinct tuples and attributes are there in a relation with cardinality 22 and degree 7. Answer:

  • Cardinality is the number of rows (tuples)
  • Hence number of tuples is 22
  • Degree is the number of coloums (attributes)
  • Hence number of attributes 7

Question 6.
Distinguish primary key and alternate key.
Answer:

  1. Primary key: It is a set of one or more attributes used to uniquely identify a row Alternate
  2. key: A candidate key other than the primary key.

Question 7.
Write an example for relational data model.
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 1

Question 8.
Observe the following table and choose the correct match from the following options:

Column AColumn B
(1) Cardinality(A) Row of a table
(2) Degree(B) Table
(3) Relation(C) Number of rows
(4) Tuple(D) Number of columns
(E) Attribute

(a) 1 → B, 2 → D, 3 → E, 4 → C
(b) 1 → C, 2 → D, 3 → E, 4 → A
(c) 1 → C, 2 → D, 3 → B, 4 → A
(d) 1 → D, 2 → C, 3 → B, 4 → E
Answer:
(c) 1 → C, 2 → D, 3 → B, 4 → A

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 9.
Consider the table with the following fields Name, RollNumberand Mark for a set of students. Suggest a field among them, which is suitable for primary key. Justify your answer.
Answer:
field RollNumberis suitable for the primary key. The name and mark can have same values so they are not suitable for the primary key.

Question 10.
Raju is confused with the statement ‘logical data independence is more difficult to achieve than physical data independence’. How can you help Raju to understand the statement.
Answer:
Because Appl. Programs heavily dependent on the logical structure of data. So any change in structure means chance of rewriting Appl. Programs.

Question 11.
Match the following.

                  AB
(a) DBA(i) querying and updation
(b) Application programmer(ii) ensures consistency
(c) Naive users(iii) defines conceptual view

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i)

Question 12.
Match the following.

AB
(a) Hierarchical model(i) data as tables
(b) Network model(ii) Network as storage medium
(c) Relational model(iii) Child record can have more than one parent
(iv) Tree structure

Answer:
(a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i)

Question 13.
Your friend tells you that only relational model is used nowadays as DBMS. Will you agree with that? Justify.
Answer:
Yes. Other two models are complex. In RDMS, no redundancy and relationships can be formed easily.

Question 14.
The telephone number of Gokul is entered in Library file as 802111 and in admission register file as 802171.

  1. Can you correlate this problem with a concept in DBMS
  2. Can you propose a solution to avoid this.

Answer:

  1. Consistency problem
  2. Remove data redundancy.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 15.
What is a DBMS?
Answer:
A DBMS is used to store large volume of data and it is used to retrieve data whenever needed, edit the existing data, update the data and it is possible to delete also.

Question 16.
“View provides an excellent way to access data from data.” Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Views can have data from more than one table, view can be queried, inserted into, deleted from and updated like a normal table.

Question 17.
A relation is given below.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 2
Mark the following:
Tuple, Attributes, Cardinality, Degree
Answer:

  • Tuple- It is the Rows
  • Attributes – It is the columns
  • Cardinality – 3(Number of Rows)
  • Degree – 4 (Number of Columns)

Question 18.
State whetherTrue or False.

  1. Primary key cannot be composite key.
  2. Only a candidate key can become a Primary Key.
  3. Foreign key of a table is a candidate key in another table.
  4. Super key uniquely identifies a row in a relation.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. True
  4. True

Question 19.
Explain the meaning of following operations.
Answer:
select the tuples whose department is sales and who have salary >5000.

Question 20.
Two relations are given below.
FOOTBALL

NameAge
Jose23
Raju22

CRICKET

NameAge
Jomon22
Raju22

Is it possible to find the players those who play both FOOTBALL AND CRICKET by applying any of the Relational Algebra Operations? Explain.
Answer:
Intersection operation.
FOOTBALL ∩ CRICKET.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 21.
How will you differentiate Primary key and Super Key? Answer:
Answer:

  • primary key- one of the candidate keys chosen to uniquely identifies the rows of a table.
  • Super key – Combination of a Primary key with any other attribute or group of attributes.

Question 22.
Cardinality of a table T1 is 10 and of table, T2 is 8 and the two relations are union compatible. If the cardinality of result T1 ∪ T2 is 13, then what is the cardinality of T1 ∩ T2? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Cardinally of table T1 is 10 means it has 10 rows Cardinally of table T2 is 8 means it has 8 rows Normally T1 ∪ T2 is 10 + 8 = 18 But Here T1 ∪ T2 is 13 means after eliminating duplication of 5 rows this happened. This means 5 rows are common. That is T1 ∩ T2 is 5.

Question 23.
Cardinality of a table T1 is 10 and of table, T2 is 8 and the two relations are union compatible.

  1. What will be the maximum possible cardinality of T1 ∪ T2?
  2. What will be the minimum possible cardinality of T1 ∩ T2?

Answer:
1. Degree(CD) -the number of Columns is the Degree
Cardinality (RC)-: the number of Rows is the Cardinality
T1 ∪ T2 = Sum of cardinalities of Table 1 and Table 2
i.e. T1 ∪ T2 = 10 + 8 = 18.

2. T1 ∩ T2 is the common rows(tuples) in T1 and T2 If there is no common tuples then T1 n T2 is 0 hence the cardinality is 0.

Plus Two Computer Application Database Management System Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
For catering to the needs of users, a database is implemented through three general levels. Name the three levels and discuss them.
Answer:

  1. Physical Level is the lowest level.lt describes how the data is actually stored in the storage medium. At physical level complex low-level data structures are described in detail.
  2. Logical level describes what data are stored in the database and what relationships exist among data. Here database is described in terms of simple structures. Records are defined in this level. Programmers work at this level.
  3. View level is the highest level of data abstraction. It is concerned with the way in which the users view the database. It describes only part of the database.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 2.
Consider the following table and write relational algebra operations for the following DEPOSIT.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 3

  1. To display those tuples from DEPOSIT relation where amount is greater than 25,000.
  2. To display only AccNo. and Amoun to fall depositors.

Answer:

  1. σamount >25000 (Deposit)
  2. πAccNo, amount (deposit)

Question 3.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 4
Show the output of the following relational operations.

  1. R1 – R2
  2. R1 ∩ R2
  3. R1 ∪ R2

Answer:
1.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 5

2.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 6

3.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 7

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 4.
Developers hide the complexity of Database system three several levels of abstraction. What are they?
Answer:

  1. Physical – (how data)
  2. logical – (what data)
  3. view level – (view data)

1. Physical Level is the lowest level. It describes how the data is actually stored in the storage medium. At physical level complex low-level data structures are described in detail.

2. Logical level describes what data are stored in the database and what relationships exist among data. Here database is described in terms of simple structure. Records are defined in this level. Programmers work at this level.

3. View level is the highest level of data abstraction. It is concerned with the way in which the users view the database. It describes only part of the database.

Question 5.
How data are organized in a database.
Answer:

  1. Field: Smallest unit of data. Eg: RolINo, Name.
  2. Record: Collection of related fields. Eg: The information of a particular student.
  3. File: Collection of related records. Eg: The informations of 10 students.

Question 6.
Salih check his account details using an ATM machine.

  1. Identify the levels of abstraction associated with this?
  2. Specify other levels.

Answer:

  1. View level
  2. Logical level, Physical level

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 7.
Match the following.

AB
(1) Database Administrator(a) Not concerned with or even aware of details of the DBMS
(2) Application Programer(b) Person who has a central control over definition and DBMS
(3) Users(c) Computer professionals who interact with the DBMS through Application programs

Answer:
(1) – (b), (2) – (c), (3) – (a)

Question 8.
Match the following.

AB
DomainTable
TupleNo. of rows in a relation
AttributeNo. of columns in a relation
CardinalityRows in a relation
DegreeA pool of values
RelationColumn in a Table

Answer:

AB
DomainA pool of values
TupleRows in a relation
AttributeColumn in a Table
CardinalityNo. of rows in a relation
DegreeNo. of columns in a relation
RelationTable

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 9.
Explain the major components of DBMS.
Answer:
Components of DBMS:

  1. Databases – It is the main component.
  2. Data Definition Language (DDL) – It is used to define the structure of a table.
  3. Data Manipulation Language (DML) – It is used to add, retrieve, modify and delete records in a database.
  4. Users – With the help of programs users interact with the DBMS.

Question 10.
Categorise the users of DBMS and write their functions.
Answer:
Users of Database:

  1. Database Administrator: It is a person who has a central control over the DBMS.
  2. Application Programmer: These are computer professionals who interact with the DBMS through programs.
  3. Naive users: He is an end user. He does not know the details of DBMS.

Question 11.
A table with three columns is given below. For each relational operation given in the 1st column find the best matches from 2nd and 3rd columns.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 8
Answer:

  1. Select → c) σ → (ii)
  2. Union → d) ∪ → (iv)
  3. Set difference → b) → (i)

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 12.
Observe the given table BOOK and write down the outputs of the following relational expressions:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 9
Answer:
1. This query returns all the tuples(rows) that contain BPB in column Publisher.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 10

2. This query returns the column Book_Title with price<200.
Book Title

  • Computer Fundamentals
  • C++ Programming
  • Mystery of Chemistry

Plus Two Computer Application Database Management System Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Cardinality of a table A is 10 and of table, B is 8 and the two relations are union compatible.

  1. What will be the maximum possible cardinality of (A ∪ B) and (A ∩ B)?
  2. What will be the minimum possible cardinality of (A ∪ B) and (A ∩ B)?

Give justifications for your answers.
Answer:
There are two possibilities:

  1. Both relations contain different tuples (rows).
  2. The 8 tuples (rows) of table B are same as that of table A.

Case 1.
If both relations contain different tuples then the maximum possible cardinality of A ∪ B is 10 + 8 = 18.

Case 2.
If 8 tuples of table B are same as that of table A then the maximum possible cardinality of A ⊂ B is 8.

Case 3
If 8 tuples of table B are same as that of table then the minimum possible cardinality of A ∪ B is 10.

Case 4.
If both relations contain different tuples then the minimum possible cardinality of A ∩ B is 0.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 2.
There are different data models of which one is currently used in all business transactions. Specify it and discuss in detail.
Answer:
Relational data model is currently used in all business transactions. It is based on the concept introduced by E F Codd. It is composed of one or more tables. Tables are made up of rows and columns.

Here tables are called relations, rows are called tuples and the columns are called attributes. The advantages of this model is neither data redundancy nor complexity. Eg:

CustomerAddress
GitaAdd1
LataAdd 2
RamAdd3

Question 3.
You have to present a seminar on the topic “Keys in RDBMS”. Prepare the seminar report.
Answer:
1. Candidate Key:
It is a set of attributes that uniquely identifies a row. There may be more than candidate key and may be a combination of more than one attribute.

2. Primary Key:
A primary key is one of the Candidate Keys. It is a set of one or more attributes that can uniquely identify tuples in a relation.

3. Alternate Key:
The Candidate key that is not the primary key is called the alternate key.

4. Super Key:
A combination of a primary key with any other attribute or group of attributes is called a super key.

5. Foreign Key:
A single attribute or a set of attributes, which is a candidate key in another table, is called foreign key.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 4.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 11
Consider the relations STUDENT and GRADE given above and predict the output of the following relational operations in table format.

  1. σ (STUDENT)
    Score > 80
  2. π (STUDENT)
    RegNo, Score
  3. σ (GRADE)
    RegNo <103
  4. σ (GRADE)
    Grade = ‘B+’
  5. πRegNo, Name( σScores >70(STUDENT))

Answer:
1.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 12

2.

RegNoScores
10170
10268
10394
10487
10577

3.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 13

4.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 14

5.

RegNoName
103Ruksana
104Nancy
105Anu

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 5.
Explain any 4 Relational Algebra Operations.
Answer:
A. SELECT operation:
SELECT operation is used to select tuples in a relation that satisfy a selection condition. Greek letter σ (sigma) is used to denote the operation. Syntax,
σcondition (relation)
eg. σsalary < 10000 (EMPLOYEE) – selects tuple whose salary is less than 10000 from EMPLOYEE relation.

B. PROJECT operation:
PROJECT operation selects certain columns from the table and discards the other columns. Greek letter π(pi) is used to denote PROJECT operation. Syntax,
πcondition (relation)
eg. πname, salary (EMPLOYEE) displays only the name and salary of all employees.

C. UNION operation:
This operation returns a relation consisting of all tuples appearing in either or both of the two specified relations. It is denoted by U. duplicate tuples are eliminated.

Union operation can take place between compatible relations only, i.e., the number and type of attributes in both the relations should be the same and also their order.

e.g. SCIENCE ∪ COMMERCE gives all the tuples in both COMMERCE and SCIENCE.

D. INTERSECTION operation:
This operation returns a relation consisting of all the tuples appearing in both of the specified relations. It is denoted by n. It can takes place only on compatible relations, e.g. FOOTBALL ∩ CRICKET returns the players who are in both football and cricket teams.

Question 6.
Why should you choose a database system instead of simply storing data in conventional files?
Answer:
Advantages of DBMS over conventional files:
1. Data Redundancy:
It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.

2. Inconsistency can be avoided:
If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.

3. Efficient data access:
It stored huge amount of data. efficiently and can be retrieved whenever a need arise.

4. Data can be shared:
The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.

5. Standards can be enforced:
The data in the database follows some standards. Eg: a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.

6. Security restrictions can be applied:
The data is of great value so it must be kept secure and private. Data security means the protection of data against accidental or intentional disclosure or unauthorized destruction or modification by unauthorized person.

7. Integrity can be maintained:
It ensures that the data is to be entered in the database is correct.

8. Crash recovery:
Some times all or a portion of the data is lost when a system crashes. A good DBMS helps to recover data after the system crashed.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 7.
We have admission register, attendance register, marks register, etc. in our school to keep various details of students. Briefly describe how DBMS can replace these registers by stating any five merits.
Answer:
Advantages of DBMS:
1. Data Redundancy:
It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.

2. Inconsistency can be avoided:
If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.

3. Data can be shared:
The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.

4. Standards can be enforced:
The data in the database follows some standards. Eg : a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.

5. Security restrictions can be applied:
The data is of great value so it must be kept secure and private. Data security means the protection of data against accidental or intentional disclosure or unauthorized destruction or modification by unauthorized person.

6. Integrity can be maintained:
It ensures that the data is to be entered in the databse is correct.

7. Efficient data access:
It stored huge amount of data efficiently and can be retrieved whenever a need arise.

8. Crash recovery:
Some times all or a portion of the data is lost when a system crashes. A good DBMS helps to recover data after the system crashed.

Plus Two Computer Application Database Management System Let Us Assess Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who is responsible for managing and controlling the activities associated with the database? (1 Mark)
(a) Database administrator
(b) Programmer
(c) Native user
(d) End user
Answer:
(a) Database administrator

Question 2.
In the relational model, cardinality is the (1 Mark)
(a) number of tuples
(b) number of attributes
(c) number of tables
Answer:
(a) number of tuples

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 3.
Cartesian product in relational algebra is (1 Mark)
(a) a Unary operator
(b) a Binary operator
(c) a Ternary operator
(d) not defined
Answer:
(b) a Binary operator

Question 4.
Abstraction of the database can be viewed as (1 Mark)
(a) two levels
(b) four levels
(c) three levels
(d) one level
Answer:
(c) three level

Question 5.
In a relational model, relations are termed as (1 Mark)
(a) tuples
(b) attributes
(c) tables
(d) rows
Answer:
(c) tables

Question 6.
In the abstraction of a database system the external level is the (1 Mark)
(a) physical level
(b) logical level
(c) conceptual level
(d) view level
Answer:
(d) view level

Question 7.
Related fields in a database are grouped to form a (1 Mark)
(a) datafile
(b) data record
(c) menu
(d) bank
Answer:
(b) data record

Question 8.
A relational database developer refers to a record as (1 Mark)
(a) criteria
(b) relation
(c) tuple
(d) attribute
Answer:
(c) tuple

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 9.
An advantage of the database management approach is (1 Mark)
(a) data is dependent on programs
(b) data redundancy increases
(c) data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs

Question 10.
Data independence means (1 Mark)
(a) data is defined separately and not included in programs
(b) programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data
(c) programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question 11.
Key to represent relationship between tables is called (1 Mark)
(a) primary key
(b) candidate Key
(c) foreign Key
(d) alternate Key
Answer:
(c) foreign key

Question 12.
Which of the folowing operations is used if we are interested only in certain columns of a table? (1 Mark)
(a) PROJECTION
(b) SELECTION
(c) UNION
(d) SELECT
Answer:
(a) PROJECTION

Question 13.
Which of the following operations need the participating relations to be union compatible? (1 Mark)
(a) UNION
(b) INTERSECTION
(c) SET DIFFERENCE
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 14.
Which database level is closest to the users? (1 Mark)
(a) External
(b) Irttemal
(c) Physical
(d) Conceptual
Answer:
(a) View level (External)

Question 15.
The result of the UNION operation between R1 and R2 is a relation that includes (1 Mark)
(a) all the tuples of R1
(b) all the tuples of R2’
(c) all the tuples of R1 and R2
(d) all the tuples of R1 and R2 which have common columns
Answer:
(c) All the tuples of R1 and R2 (eliminating the duplication)

Question 16.
A file manipulation command that extracts some of the records from a file is called (1 Mark)
(a) SELECT
(b) PROJECT
(c) JOIN
(d) PRODUCT
Answer:
(a) SELECT

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 17.
An instance of relational schema R (A, B, C) has distinct values of A including NULL values. Which one of the following is true? (1 Mark)
(a) A is a candidate key
(b) A is not a candidate key
(c) A is a primary key
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) A is a candidate key

Question 18.
How many distinct tuples are there in relation instance with cardinality 22? (1 Mark)
(a) 22
(b) 11
(c) 1
(d) none
Answer:
(a) 22

Question 19.
A set of possible data values is called (1 Mark)
(a) Attribute
(b) Degree
(c) Tuple
(d) Domain
Answer:
(d) Domain

Question 20.
Why should you choose a database system instead of simply storing data in conventional files? (5 Mark)
Answer:
Advantages of DBMS over conventional files:
1. Data Redundancy:
It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.

2. Inconsistency can be avoided:
If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.

3. Efficient data access:
It stored huge amount of data efficiently and can be retrieved whenever a need arise.

4. Data can be shared:
The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.

5. Standards can be enforced:
The data in the database follows some standards. Eg: a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.

6. Security restrictions can be applied:
The data is of great value so it must be kept secure and private. Data security means the protection of data against accidental or intentional disclosure or unauthorized destruction or modification by unauthorized person.

7. Integrity can be maintained:
It ensures that the data is to be entered in the database is correct.

8. Crash recovery:
Some times all or a portion of the data is lost when a system crashes. A good DBMS helps to recover data after the system crashed.

Question 21.
Explain the different levels of data abstraction in DBMS? (3 Mark)
Answer:
Levels of Database Abstraction:

  1. Physical Level (Lowest Level): It describes how the data is actually stored in the storage medium.
  2. Logical Level (Next Higher Level): It describes what data are stored in the database.
  3. View Level (Highest level): It is closest to the users. It is concerned with the way in which the individual users view the data.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 22.
How are schema layers related to the concepts of logical and physical data independence? (3 Mark)
Answer:
Data Independence:
It is the ability to modify the scheme definition in one level without affecting the scheme definition at the next higher level.

  1. Physical Data Independence: It is the ability to modify the physical scheme without causing application programs to be rewritten.
  2. Logical Data Independence: It is the ability to modify the logical scheme without causing application programs to be rewritten.

Question 23.
Consider the instance of the EMPLOYEE relation shown in the following table. Identify the attributes, degree, cardinality, and domain of Name and Emp_code. (3 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 15
Answer:

  1. Attributes: These are column names, i.e, Emp_Code, Name, Department, Designation, and Salary.
  2. Degree(CD): The number of Columns is the Degree i.e Degree is 5(Here 5 columns).
  3. Cardinality (RC): the number of Rows is the Cardinality.

i.e. Cardinality is 4(Here 4 rows)
Domain is the pool of possible values. Domain of Name is a String(Sudheesh, Dhanya,
Fathima, Shajan.etc). Domain of Emp_Code is a number (1000,1001,1002, 1003, etc).

Question 24.
Identify primary key, candidate keys and alternate keys in the instance of EMPLOYEE relation in Question 23. (3 Mark)
Answer:
Candidate key: It is used to uniquely identify the row.

  1. Emp_code and Emp_Code + Department (Composite) are the candidate keys:
    Primary key: It is a set of one or more attributes used to uniquely identify a row.
  2. Emp_code is the primary key:
    Alternate key: A candidate key other than the primary key.

We set Emp_code as the primary key then Emp_code+ Department is the alternate key.

Question 25.
Consider the instance of the STUDENT relation shown in the following table Assume Reg_no as the primary key. (3 Mark)

  1. Identify the candidate keys and alternate keys in the STUDENT relation
  2. How are the primary key and the candidate key related?

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 16
Answer:

  1. Reg_no and Reg_no+Batch are the candidate keys. We set Reg_no as the primary key hence Reg_no+Batch is the alternate key
  2. Candidate Key: It is a set of attributes that uniquely identifies a row. There may be more than candidate key and may be a combination of more than one attribute.
  3. Primary Key: A primary key is one of the Candidate Keys. It is a set of one or more attributes that can uniquely identify tuples in a relation.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 26.
What is a database? Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using DBMS. (5 Mark)
Answer:
A Database is a collection of large volume of data.
Advantages of DBMS:
1. Data Redundancy: It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.

2. Inconsistency can be avoided: If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed then inconsistency cannot occur.

3. Efficient data access: It stored huge amount of data efficiently and can be retrieved whenever a need arise.

4. Data can be shared: The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.

5. Standards can be enforced: The data in the database follows some standards. Eg: a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.

6. Security restrictions can be applied: The data is of great value so it must be kept secure and private. Data security means the protection of data against accidental or intentional disclosure or unauthorized destruction or modification by unauthorized person.

7. Integrity can be maintained: It ensures that the data is to be entered in the database is correct.

8. Crash recovery: Some times all ora portion of the data is lost when a system crashes. A good DBMS helps to recover data after the system crashed.

Question 27.
What is data independence? Explain the difference between physical and logical data independence. (3 Mark)
Answer:
Data Independence: It is the ability to modify the scheme definition in one level without affecting the scheme definition at the next higher level.

  1. Physical Data Independence: It is the ability to modify the physical scheme without causing application programs to be rewritten.
  2. Logical Data Independence: It is the ability to modify the logical scheme without causing application programs to be rewritten.

Question 28.
Enforcement of standard is an essential feature of DBMS. How are these standards applicable in a database? (3 Mark)
Answer:
There is a standard BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards) in the field of Gold and ISBN (International Standard Book Number) in the field of publication. Similarly here is also some standards like ANSI(American National Standards Institute), ISO (International Organization for standardization), etc.. For example a filed “Name” should have 40 characters is a standard.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 29.
Cardinality of a table T1 is 10 and of table, T2 is 8 and the two relations are union compatible. If the cardinality of result T1 ∪ T2 is 13, then what is the cardinality of T1 ∩ T2? Justify your answer. (3 Mark)
Answer:
Cardinalty of table T1 is 10 means it has 10 rows Cardinalty of table T2 is 8 means it has 8 rows Normally T1 ∪ T2 is 10 + 8 = 18 But Here T1 ∪ T2 is 13 means after eliminating duplication of 5 rows this happened. This means 5 rows are common. That is T1 ∩ T2 is 5.

Question 30.
Cardinality of a table T1 is 10 and of table, T2 is 8 and the two relations are union compatible.

  1. What will be the maximum possible cardinality of T1 ∪ T2?
  2. What will be the minimum possible cardinality of T1 ∩ T2? (3 Mark)

Answer:
1. Degree(CD): the number of Columns is the Degree.
Cardinality (RC)-: the number of Rows is the Cardinality
T1 ∪ T2 = Sum of cardinalities of Table1 and Table2
i.e. T1 ∪ T2 = 10 + 8 = 18.

2. T1 ∩ T2 is the common rows(tuples) in T1 and T2 If there is no common tuples then T1 ∩ T2 is 0 hence the cardinality is 0.

Question 31.
Consider the relations, City (city_name, state) and Hotel (name, address, city_name). Answer the following queries in relational algebra (5 Mark)

  1. Find the names and address of hotels in Kochi.
  2. List the details of cities in Kerala state.
  3. List the names of the hotels in Thrissur.
  4. Find the names of different hotels.
  5. Find the names of hotels in Kozhikode or Munnar.

Answer:

  1. πname, address (σCity_name = “Kochi” (Hotel))
  2. πcity_name (σstate = “Kerala” (City))
  3. πname (σcity_name = “Thrissur” (Hotel))
  4. πname (Hotel)
  5. πname(σcity_name = “Kozhikode” V city_name = “Munnar” (Hotel)).

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 32.
Using the instance of the EMPLOYEE relation shown in question 23, write the result of the following relational algebra expressions. (5 Mark)

  1. σDepartments=“Sales”(EMPLOYEE).
  2. σsalary> 20000 ∧ Department = “Sales” (EMPLOYEE).
  3. σSalary>20000 ∨ Department = “Sales” (EMPLOYEE).
  4. πname, salary (EMPLOYEE).
  5. πname, salaryDesignations=“Manager” (EMPLOYEE)).
  6. πname, DepartmentDesignation = “Clerk” salary > 20000(EMPLOYEE)).

Answer:
1.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 17

2.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 18

3.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 19

4.

NameSalary
Sudheesh25000
Dhanya25000
Fathima12000
Shajan13000

5.

NameSalary
Sudheesh25000
Dhanya25000

6. No rows selected.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 33.
Consider the instance of the BORROWER and DEPOSITOR relations shown in following figure which stores the details of customers in a Bank. Answer the following queries in relational algebra. (5 Mark)

  1. Display the details of the customers who are either a depositor or a borrower.
  2. Display the name of customers who are both a depositor and a borrower.
  3. Display the details of the customers who are d positors but not borrowers.
  4. Display the name and amount of customer who is a borrower but not depositor.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 20
Answer:
1.

Acc_NoName
AC 123Albin
AC105Shabana
AC116Vishnu
AC 108Aiswarya
AC 103Rasheeda
AC 106Vishnu

2.

Acc_NoName
AC123Albin
AC108Aiswarya

3.

Acc_NoName
AC 105Shabana
AC116Vishnu

4.

NameAmount
Rasheeda25000
Vishnu25000

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System

Question 34.
Consider the instance of the CUSTOMER and BRANCH relations shown in the following table. Write the Cartesian Product of the two relations. (3 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 21
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 22
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System - 23

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Students can Download Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Plus One Breathing and Exchange of Gases One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Respiration in insects is called direct because
(a) The tissues exchange O2/ CO2 directly with the air in the tubes.
(b) The tissues exchange O2/ CO2 directly with coelomic fluid.
(c) The tissues exchange O2/ CO2 directly with the air outside through body surface.
(d) Tracheal tubes exchange O2/ CO2 directly with the haemocoel which then exchange with tissues.
Answer:
(d) Tracheal tubes exchange O2/ CO2 directly with the haemocoel which then exchange with tissues.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 2.
Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing
(a) Inspiration is a passive process where as expiration is active
(b) Inspiration is a active process where as expiration is passive
(c) Inspiration and expiration are active processes
(d) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes
Answer:
(b) Inspiration is a active process where as expiration is passive

Question 3.
Inspiration and expiration are passive processes A person breathes in some volume of air by forced inspiration after having a forced expiration. This quantity of air taken in is
(a) Total lung capacity
(b) Tidal volume
(c) Vital capacity
(d) Inspiratory capacity
Answer:
(c) Vital capacity

Question 4.
Incidence of Emphysema – a respiratory disorder is high in cigarette smokers. In such cases
(a) The alveolar walls are found damaged
(b) The plasma membrane is found damaged
(c) The bronchioles are found damaged
(d) The respiratory muscles are found damaged
Answer:
(b) The plasma membrane is found damaged

Question 5.
Respiratory process is regulated by certain specialized centres in the brain. One of the following listed centres can reduce the inspiratory duration upon stimulation.
(a) Medullary inspiratory centre
(b) Pneumotaxic centre
(c) Apneustic centre
(d) Chemosensitive centre
Answer:
(b) Pneumotaxic centre

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 6.
CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 → HCO3 + H+
These all the reactions that takes place in accordance with respiration.

  1. Where these reactions takes place
  2. Which is the enzyme present here?

Answer:

  1. In blood
  2. Carbonic anhydrase

Question 7.
Fill in the table with appropriate heading values.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 1
Answer:

  1. a – Blood (Deoxygenated)
  2. b – Blood (oxygenated)
  3. c – 40
  4. d – 45

Question 8.
In the following diagram A represents Total lung capacity and B represents Vital capacity and then C represents what?
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 2
Answer:
C – Residual volume

Question 9.
Name the biological principle involved in the exchange of gas between lungs and blood.
(Transmittance, Osmosis, Diffusion, Incorporation)
Answer:
Diffusion

Question 10.
What is the percentage of oxygen transported by Haemoglobin in the form of Oxyhaemoglobin? (67%, 97%, 32%, 50%)
Answer:
97%

Plus One Breathing and Exchange of Gases Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the flow chart showing inspiration

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 3
Answer:

  1. A – Nasal opening
  2. B – Nasopharynx
  3. C – Trachea
  4. D – Bronchiole

Question 2.
Oxyhaemoglobin → Oxygen + Hb

  1. Where does this process takes place?
  2. What are the factors that influence O2 dissociation curve?

Answer:

  1. In tissues
  2. pO2, pCO2, H+ concentration, temperature.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 3.
The given diagram shows the exchange of gases between alveolus and alveolar capillary.

  1. Identify X and Y.
  2. Name the Physical Process involved in gas exchange.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 4
Answer:

  1. X – CO2, Y – O2
  2. Diffusion

Question 4.
Bardiagram showing oxygen transport is shown below.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 5

  • Name the two methods of oxygen transport.
  • How much of oxygen is transported in method 1 and method 2.

Answer:

  • Methods of oxygen transport
    1. O2 is transported by RBC in the blood (oxyhaemoglobin).
    2. O2 is transported in a dissolved state through plasma.
  • About 97% of O2 is transported as oxyhemoglobin and remaining 3% is carried in a dissolved state through the plasma.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 5.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 6
From this diagram prepare a table which show the pressure difference in various regions in respiration.
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 7

Question 6.
Match the following.

PrawnSkin
CockroachLungs
ViperGills
EarthwormTrachea

Answer:

PrawnGills
CockroachTrachea
ViperLungs
EarthwormSkin

 

Question 7.
‘Emphysema’ is a term linked with ‘Respiratory system’. What is emphysema?
Answer:
Emphysema is respiratory system disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased. Cigarette smoking is one of the major cause of emphysema.

Question 8.
Draw a flow chart showing the air passage in the human respiratory system.
(Trachea, nasal cavity, nasopharynx, bronchi, nostrils, alveoli, bronchioles, larynx)
Answer:
Nostrils → nasal cavity → nasopharynx → larynx alveoli ← branchioles ← bronchi ← Trachea.

Question 9.
Study the graph and answer the following questions.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 8

  1. What is represented by the graph?
  2. Find out the pressure at which Haemoglobin is 50% saturated with O2?

Answer:

  1. Oxygen dissociation curve
  2. 28 mm Hg

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 10.

  1. Name the structural and functional unit of lungs.
  2. Why the lungs replaces the skin in Mammals as respiratory organ.

Answer:

  1. Alveoli
  2. Lungs contain millions of alveoli which serves to store oxygen and it is richly supplied with blood capillaries. These alveolar surface area exceeds the skin.

Question 11.
The pO2 in cell cytoplasm is always lower than the capillary blood while pCO2 is greater. How do you account for this?
Answer:
In the cell cytoplasm, as a result of metabolism the CO2 accumulates and oxygen content is reduced. So pO2 in cell cytoplasm is always lower than the capillary blood.

Question 12.
A dog expires CO2. How can you correlate the relationship between the dog and grazing cattle in terms of CO2.
Answer:
Dog expires CO2 to atmosphere and it is utilised by grass during photosynthesis and that grass is utilised by cattle.

Question 13
Observe the pie diagram given below and answer the following questions.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 9
Figure showing the percentage of carbon dioxide transport.

  1. What are the three methods of CO2 transport mentioned by the letters P, Q, R?
  2. If the amount of Haemoglobin in the blood of a patient is very low. What changes you expect in the processes?

Answer:

  1. Methods of CO2 transport
    • P – Carbamino haemoglobin in combination with amino group of protein.
    • Q – Carbonic acid dissolved in plasma
    • R – as bicarbonates
  2. Reduce the formation of carbaminohaemoglobin and formation of bicarbonates also reduces.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 14.
Find the odd one in each group in Column Awrite in Column B and write the reason in Column C.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 10
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 11

Question 15.
Analyse the concept map given below and if have mistakes reconstruct it.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 12
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 13

Question 16.
A person exhaled nearly more than 3000ml of air during a breathing exercise. How do you justify that act?
Answer:
During breathing excercise one can exhale the air nearly of his vital capacity which averages to 3500ml. During normal respiration only tidal volume (500ml) is exhaled.

Question 17.
In orderto give the awareness about healthy practices to reduce respiratory disorders, prepare a pamphlet.
Answer:

  • Bronchitis, Bronchial asthma, Emphysema, Pneumonia, occupational lung disease are some respiratory disorders.
  • Stop cigarette smoking to prevent emphysema, bronchitis and bronchial asthma.
  • Use protective clothes and gears in work places to prevent occupational lung diseases.
  • Regular health check-up, use of antibiotic drugs and bronchodilator drugs by the advice of doctor.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 18.
The venous blood in the lungs has a pCO2 of 46mm Hg. Should the alveolar pCO2 exceeds or be less than 46mm Hg to result in diffusion of CO2 from the blood into alveolus?
Answer:
The alveolar pCO2 must be less than 46mm Hg. Then only there will be difference in the partial pressure and diffusion occurs from the higher concentration to a lower concentration.

Question 19.
Human respiration is controlled by intercostal muscles in the ribs and diaphragm. Justify this statement.
Answer:
The human respiration is controlled by the contraction and relaxation of intercostal muscles in the ribs. Due to the contraction the thoracic space increases and the atmospheric air comes inside to maintain the pressure.

When intercostal muscles relax the thoracic volume reduces and due to high pressure the air expels outward. This is known as expiration.

Question 20.
Observe the figure explaining difference in partial pressure of oxygen in different parts of body.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 14

  1. Explain the importance of partial pressure of oxygen in the gas exchange.
  2. What may be the partial pressure of oxygen in the tissue for effective gas transport?

Answer:

  1. Difference in the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar air and in the blood results in the exchange of gases by simple diffusion.
  2. The partial pressure of oxygen in the tissue is less than 90mm Hg.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 21.
While analysing the blood of normal healthy person, it has been found that the amount of HCO3 ions in his venous blood is much higher than his arterial blood. How do you account for this increase of HCO3 ions.
Answer:
The amount of CO2 in venous blood is much higher than that of arterial blood. Since major portion of CO2 is transported through blood as HCO3 ions. The amount of HO3 remains high in venous blood.

Question 22.
Place the following in the correct order.
Lungs expand, rib rise, air enters lungs, external intercostal muscle contract, thorax expands.
Answer:
External intercostal muscle contract → rib rise Lungs expand ← Thorax expands air enters lungs.

Question 23.
Pneumatoxic centre has an important role in regulating rate of respiration. Prepare a flow chart representing the regulation of respiration by pneumatoxic centre during strenuous exercise.
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 15

Plus One Breathing and Exchange of Gases Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Transport of CO2 as Bicarbonates.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 16

  1. Copy the diagram and fill the gaps.
  2. Name the other ways of CO2 transport.
  3. If blood chlorine level decrease, does it affect gas transport? Justify.

Answer:

1.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 17

2. Other ways of CO2 transport:

  • Carbamino haemoglobin
  • Carbonic acid

3. Yes. Decrease in chloride level affects CO2 transport. During CO2 transport bicarbonate ions formed within the erythrocytes (RBC) diffuse out into the plasma. It upsets the ionic equilibrium and electrical balance between RBC and plasma.

To regain the lost balance an equal number of chloride (Cl ) ions diffuse into RBC from plasma. This is called chloride shift or Hamburger phenomenon.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 2.
Analyse the flow chart.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 18

  1. Distinguish the function of external and internal intercostal muscles.
  2. Draw a flow chart explaining inspiration.

Answer:

1. During inspiration external intercostal muscle contracts and internal intercostal muscle relaxes. External intercostal muscle and internal intercostal muscles are antagonistic in action

2.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 19

Question 3.
Pharynx is a common passage for air and food.

  1. Name the part for the passage of food.
  2. Name the part for the passage of air.
  3. How do these passagework without any problems?

Answer:

  1. Oropharynx
  2. Nasopharynx
  3. Glottis is the opening of nasopharynx into trachea. During swallowing glottis can be covered by a thin elastic cartilagenous flap called epiglottis to prevent the entry of food into the larynx.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 4.
Following figure shows a microscopic section through the alveoli in the lungs of man.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 20
Give the features visible in the diagram that help to increase the rate of diffusion across the wall of the alveoli into the blood.
Answer:

  1. Surface area is increased by alveoli.
  2. Presence of capillaries
  3. Thin wall helps to increase the rate of diffusion. (The diffusion membrane is made up of three layers namely the thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, the endothelium of alveolar capillaries and the basement substance in between)

Question 5.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 21

  1. Which of the above graph represents normal condition?
  2. What would be the reason of abnormality of graph?
  3. What are the symptoms shown in such condition?

Answer:

  1. ‘A’ represents normal condition.
  2. The abnormality is due to the low pO2 in blood.
  3. The symptoms include headache, nausea, dizziness and even death.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 6.
A person inhales to his maximum capacity and then he exhales also to his maximum.

  1. What term would you use for the volume of air thus breathed out.
  2. What is the volume of air thus breathed out?
  3. Suppose he hold his breath after that maximum expiration for 5 seconds would there be any exchange of respiratory gases occuring in lungs during that period. How?

Answer:

  1. Vital capacity
  2. 3.5 – 4.5 litres
  3. Yes. Because of residual volume. The volume of air that still remains in the lungs after a forceful expiration is called residual volume. It is about 1500ml in man.

Question 7.
Human beings have a significant ability to maintain and moderate the respiratory rhythm to suit the demand of body tissues-substantiate.
Answer:
This is done by the neural system. A specialised centre present in the medulla region of the brain called respiratory rhythm centre is primarily responsible for this regulation. Another centre present in the pons region of the brain called pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre.

Neural signal from this centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory rate. Achemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to CO2 and hydrogen ions.

Increase in these substances can be activate this centre and make necessary adjustments in the respiratory process. Receptors associated with aortic arch also send necessary signals to the rhythm centre to adjust respiratory rate.

Question 8.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 22

  1. Redraw the graph to correct the mistake
  2. Name the graph
  3. Which are the factors that affect this graph.

Answer:
1.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 23

2. Oxygen dissociation curve

3. pO2, pCO2, H+ concentration and temperature are the factors that affect oxygen dissociation curve.

Plus One Breathing and Exchange of Gases NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define vital capacity. What is its significance?
Answer:
Vital capacity (VC):
The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration. This includes ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume), TV (Tidal volume) and IRV (Inspiratory Reserve volume) of the maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 2.
State the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal breathing.
Answer:
Functional Residual Capacity (FRC). Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration.
This includes ERV + RV
ERV = 1000 to 1100ml
RV= 1100 to 1200ml
FRC = 2100 to 2300ml

Question 3.
What are the major transport mechanisms for CO2? Explain.
Answer:
Transport of Carbon dioxide CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin (about 20-25 per cent). This binding is related to the partial pressure of CO2, pO2 is a major factor which could affect this binding.

When pCO2 is high and pO2 is low as in the tissues, more binding of carbon dioxide occurs whereas, when the pCO2 is low and pO2 is high as in the alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino- haemoglobin takes place, i.e., CO2 which is bound to Haemoglobin from the tissues is delivered at the alveoli.

RBCs contain a very high concentration of enzyme, carbonic anhydrase and minute quantities of the same is present in the plasma too. This enzyme facilitates the following reaction in both directions
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases - 24
At the tissue site where partial pressure of CO2 is high due to catabolism, CO2 diffuses into blood (RBCs and plasma) and forms HCO3 and H+. At the alveolar site where pCO2 is low, the reaction proceeds in the opposite direction leading to the formation of CO2 and H2O.

Thus CO2 trapped as bicarbonate at the tissue level and transported to the alveoli is released out as CO2. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 4.
What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in the atmospheric air compared to those in the alveolar air?
(i) pO2 lesser, pCO2 higher
(ii) pO2 higher, pCO2 lesser
(iii) pO2 higher, pCO2 higher
(iv) pO2 lesser, pCO2 lesser
Answer:
(ii) pO2 higher will create the pressure gradient to facilitate the movement of O2 from atmosphere to alveoli and pCO2 lesser will create the movement of CO2 from alveoli to atmosphere.

Question 5.
What is the effect of pCO2 on oxygen transport?
Answer:
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of O2. Partial pressure of CO2, hydrogen ion concentration and temperature are the other factors which can interfere with this binding. Increased partial pressure of CO2 can increase haemoglobin’s affinity towards oxygen and vice-versa is also true.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 6.
What happens to the respiratory process in a man going up a hill?
Answer:
When a man going uphill or doing some strenuous exercise then there is more consumption of oxygen. This decreases the partial pressure of oxygen in haemoglobin resulting in more demand of haemoglobin. As a result there is an increased breathing rate to fill the gap.

Plus One Breathing and Exchange of Gases Multple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one is the cofactor of carbonic anhydrase?
(a) Iron
(b) Zinc
(c) Copper
(d) Magnesium
Answer:
(b) Zinc

Question 2.
Skin is an accessory organ or respiration in
(a) human
(b) frog
(c) rabbit
(d) lizard
Answer:
(b) frog

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 3.
Which of the following respiratory organs are present in spiders and scorpions?
(a) gill slit
(b) Gills
(c) Gill books
(d) Book lungs
Answer:
(d) Book lungs

Question 4.
When the body is rapidly oxidising fats, excess ketone bodies accumulate resulting in
(a) pyruvic acid
(b) lactic acid
(c) ketoacidosis
(d) ATP
Answer:
(c) ketoacidosis

Question 5.
Oxygen dissociation curve is
(a) sigmoid
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) straight line
Answer:
(a) sigmoid

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases
Question 6.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals
(b) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of respiration in birds
(c) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues
(d) The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates
Answer:
(a) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals

Question 7.
Haemoglobin is having maximum affinity with
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) oxygen
(d) ammonia
Answer:
(b) carbon monoxide

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 8.
Which is called Hamburger shift?
(a) Hydrogen shift
(b) Bicarbonate shift
(c) Chloride shift
(d) Sodium shift
Answer:
(c) Chloride shift

Question 9.
Left shift of oxyhaenoglobin curve is noticed under
(a) normal temperature and pH
(b) low temperature and high pH
(c) low pH and high temperature
(d) low pH and low temperature
Answer:
(b) low temperature and high pH

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 10.
Read the following statements and select the correct one.
(a) The H+ released from carbonic acid combines with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid
(b) Oxyhaemoglobjn of erythrocytes is alkaline
(c) More than 70% of carbon dioxide is transferred from tissues to the lungs in the form of carbamino compounds
(d) In a healthy person, the haemoglobin content is . more than 25gm per 100mL
Answer:
(a) The H+ released from carbonic acid combines with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid

Question 11.
In blood, carbon dioxide is transported majorly as
(a) sodium carbonate
(b) carboxyhaemoglobin
(c) bicarbonate
(d) carbon dioxide as such
Answer:
(c) bicarbonate

Question 12.
Most of the carbon dioxide is transported in blood as a gas
(a) gas
(b) carbaminohaemoglobin
(c) serum carbaminoproteins
(d) HCO3
Answer:
(b) carbaminohaemoglobin

Question 13.
How many molecules of oxygen can bind to a molecule of haemoglobin?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 14.
When carbon dioxide concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes
(a) shallower and slow
(b) there is no effect on breathing
(c) slow and deep
(d) faster and deeper
Answer:

Question 15.
The total number of lobes and alveoli present in both the lungs of man are
(a) 17 and 30 million, respectively
(b) 5 and 300 million, respectively
(c) 19 and 300 million, respectively
(d) 18 and 300 lakh, respectively
Answer:
(b) 5 and 300 million, respectively

Question 16.
What is vital capacity of our lungs?
(a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(b) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
(d) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
Answer:
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 17.
When the oxygen supply to the tissues is inadequate, the condition is
(a) hypoxia
(b) asphyxia
(c) pleuracy
(d) anoxia
Answer:
(a) hypoxia

Question 18.
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
(a) is caused by a variant of Pneumococcuspneumoniae
(b) is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus)
(c) is an acute form of asthma
(d) affects non-vegetarians much faster than
Answer:
(b) is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus)

Question 19.
During inspiration, the diaphragm
(a) expands
(b) shows no change
(c) contracts and flattens
(d) relaxes to become dome-shaped
Answer:
(c) contracts and flattens

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Question 20.
The oxygen toxicity is related with
(a) blood poisoning
(b) collapsing of alveolar walls
Answer:
(c) failure of venti

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Students can Download Chapter 7 Transport in Plants Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Plus One Botany Transport in Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following statements does not apply to reverse osmosis?
(a) it is used for water purification.
(b) In this technique, a pressure greater than the osmotic pressure is applied to the system
(c) It is a passive process
(d) It is an active process
Answer:
(c) It is a passive process

Question 2.
Which one of the following will not directly affect transpiration?
(a) Light
(b) wind speed
(c) temperature
(d) chlorophyll content of leaves
Answer:
(d) chlorophyll content of leaves

Question 3.
The lower surface of leaf will have a number of stomata in a
(a) isobilateral leaf
(b) dorsiventral leaf
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) dorsiventral leaf

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question 4.
The form of sugar transported through phloem is
(a) Fructose
(b) Sucrose
(c) glucose
(d) ribose
Answer:
(b) sucrose

Question 5.
The process of guttation takes place
(a) when the root pressure is high and the rate of transpiration is low
(b) when the root pressure is low and the rate of transpiration is high
(c) when the root pressure equals the rate of transpiration
(d) when the root pressure, as well as rate of transpiration, are high.
Answer:
(a) when the root pressure is high and the rate of transpiration is low

Question 6.
Which of the following is an example of imbibition
(a) uptake of water by root hair
(b) exchange of gases in stomata
(c) swelling of seed when putting in the soil
(d) opening of stomata
Answer:
(c) swelling of seed when putting in the soil

Question 7.
What will happen to a plant cell when kept in hypotonic solution?
Answer:
Cell become turgid

Question 8.
How are protoplasm of adjacent cells connected to each other?
Answer:
Plasmodesmata

Question 9.
Name the process in which water drops ooze out from margins of leaves.
Answer:
Guttation

Question 10.
The C4 plants are twice as efficient as C3 plants in terms of fixing C02 but lose only as much water as C3 plants for the same amount of C02 fixed.
Answer:
Half

Question 11.
Plants could be grown in a nutrient solution in the complete absence of soil. Name the technique.
Answer:
Hydroponics

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question 12.
Name the hormone which signals the closure of stomata during severe drought or severe solar radiation.
Answer:
Abscisic acid (ABA)

Question 13.
Name the physical phenomena associated with the first step of seed germination.
Answer:
Imbibition

Question 14.
What causes the leaves of grasses to roll in dry weather?
Answer:
Presence of bulliform cells or motor cells

Question 15.
The diagram below shows the cells placed in hypertonic solution and hypotonic solution. If the diagram ‘B’ is ‘turgid’ what will be diagram ‘A’?
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants img1
Answer:
A – Flaccid

Question 16.
The excess of one element may inhibit the uptake of another element. What is this effect called?
Answer:
Toxicity of micronutrients

Question 17.
Name the type of obligatory association found in pinus seeds that promote germination.
Answer:
Mycorrhiza

Question 18.
A plant cell when kept in a certain solution got plasmolysed. What was the nature of this solution?
Answer:
Hypertonic solution

Question 19.
Why turgidity of the cell essential for plants?
Answer:
It helps to maintain plant organs in normal shape

Question 20.
Absorption of water from the soil by dry seeds increases the, thus helping seedlings to come out of the soil.
Answer:
Pressure

Question 21.
A flowering plant is planted in an earthen pot and irrigated. Urea is added to make the plant grow faster, but after some time the plant dies. Give reason.
Answer:
It is due to exosmosis.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question. 22
Identify a type of molecular movement which is highly selective and requires special membrane proteins, but does not require energy.
Answer:
Facilitated diffusion

Question 23.
Smaller, lipid-soluble molecules diffuse faster through cell membrane, but the movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by certain biomolecules. Name it.
Answer:
Protein

Question. 24
The bending of wooden doors during rainy reasons is due to physiological phenomenon. Name it.
Answer:
Imbibition

Plus One Botany Transport in Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give below is a diagram, where hypotonic solution is separated by a semipermeable membrane from a hypertonic solution and kept for a few hours.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants img2

 

 

  1. In which direction will the solvent move? From X to Y or Y to X.
  2. Name the process of movement of the solvent.

Answer:

  1. X to Y
  2. Osmosis

Question 2.
Differences between the following.
Diffusion and Osmosis
Answer:
1. Diffusion:
It is the movement of solute from the region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration.

2. Osmosis:
It is the movement of solvent from the region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration through semipermiable membrane

Question 3.
Differences between Guttation and transpiration
Answer:
1. Guttation:
Loss of water in the form of water droplets from the margin of leaves through hydathode.
2. Transpiration:
It is the loss of water in the form of water vapour from the surface of leaves through stomata.

Question 4.
Both the xylem and phloem are tubular structures. One is unidirectional and the other is bi-directional. Comment on it.
Answer:
Phloem is bidirectional in order to transport prepared food from leaves to different parts of the plant and translocates stored food from downward to upward for the growth of buds.

Question 5.
Ramu while observing the root nodules of pea plant, noticed the pink colour. Sita said that it is due to the presence of a substance. Can you name the substance and write its role.
Answer:
Leg hemoglobin. It is an 02 scavenger. It create anaerobic condition for enzyme Nitrogenase during N2 Fixation

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question 6.
Match the following :

Column AColumn B
1) Imbibition

2)  Exosmosis

3) Diffusion

4) Transpiration

a) Leaves

b) Perfumes

c) Dried grapes

d)  Pickles

Answer:

Column AColumn B
1) Imbibition

2)  Exosmosis

3) Diffusion

4) Transpiration

Dried grapes

Pickles

Perfumes

Leaves

Question 7.
Water is absorbed by the root hairs, It can move deeper into root layers by two distinct pathways.

  1. Write the name of the pathways.
  2. Which substance controls water transport in the endodermal region?

Answer:

  1. Apoplast pathway & Symplast pathway
  2. Suberin

Question 8.
“Root pressure is inadequate to lift the water molecules in taller plants like Eucalyptus”.

  1. Which theory is successfully explaining the Ascent of sap in plants like Eucalyptus?
  2. Who proposed this theory?

Answer:

  1. Transpiration pull – cohesion tension theory
  2. Dixon & Jolly

Question 9.
Fresh mangoes can survive fora prolonged period of time when they are placed in highly concentrated salt solution. Some physiological changes take place in the cell. Comment on the changes.
Answer:

  • Exosmosis.
  • Bacteria can not survive in hypertonic solutions.

Question 10.
Pure Honey checks the growth of microorganisms. Justify based on your knowledge in osmosis.
Answer:
Pure honey is hypertonic .bacterial cells shrink and die due to plasmolysis.

Question 11.
A fesh mango pieces is placed in water containing high concentration of sodium chloride.
Exosmosis, Plasmolysis, Deplasmolysis, Imbibition

  1. Select and write down the appropriate terms given above to represent the sequence of events leading to shrinking.
  2. What is plasmolysis?

Answer:

  1. Exosmosis – Plasmolysis
  2. The withdrawal of the protoplast from the cell wall due to exosmosis.

Question 12.
Ψws + Ψp

  1. Expand the equation.
  2. Why solute potential is always negative?

Answer:
1.

  • Ψw – Water potential
  • Ψs – Solute potential,
  • Ψp – pressure potential

2. Since adding solute reduces water potential, it is always negative.

Question 13.
Observe the given figure showing the pathways of water movement in the plant body and answer the questions.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants img3

  1. Identify A and B pathways.
  2. In which of the above pathways does water move beyond endodermis?

Answer:

  1. A – Apoplast pathway
    B – Symplast pathway
  2. Apoplast pathway

Question 14.
Apoplast and symplast pathways are the two distinct pathways of water to move deeper into the root layers. Which is the only pathway through which water can enter the vascular cylinder and why?
Answer:
Symplast – Because endodermal wall is suberised.

Question 15.
When a freshly collected Spirogyra filament is kept in 10% potassium nitrate solution, it is observed that the protoplasm shrinks in size:

  1. What is this phenomenon called?
  2. What will happen if the filament is replaced in distilled water?

Answer:

1. This phenomenon is called plasmolysis. (The shrinkage of protoplast from the cell wall under the influence of a strong solution/ hypertonic solution is called plasmolysis.

2. If filaments are replaced in water the protoplast starts swelling. It comes in contact with cell wall and cell regains its original size.
The swelling up of plasmolyzed protoplast under the influence of a weak solution or water is called deplasmolysis.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question 16.
1. In an experiment, Deepa put a piece of raw mango in 0.5M salt solution and another piece in 1M salt solution. Which mango piece will get plasmolyzed fast?
2. Water potential of solution A is -0.3 bar and that of solution B is -0.1 bar. If solution A is separated from solution B by a semi-permeable membrane water molecules will flow from to
Answer:

  1. Mango piece put in 1 M salt solution get plasmolysed rapidly than. 0.5M solution.
  2. B (-1.1) to A (-0.3)

Question 17.
An unavoidable waste mechanism is found in higher plants during high temperature.

  1. Name the process.
  2. Why is it said so?

Answer:

  1. Transpiration
  2. It has merits and demerits. Since water and minerals are absorbed and translocated to distant sites by this process but 99% of water absorbed is transpired out.

Question 18.
Water moves up against gravity and even for a tree of 20 m height, the tip receives water within two hours. Which is the most important physiological phenomenon responsible for the upward movement of water is
Answer:
Transpirational pull.

Question 19.
Osmosis is a special kind of diffusion, in which water diffuses across the cell membrane. What are the factors influence rate and direction of osmosis?
Answer:
Pressure and concentration gradient.

Question 20.
When a tea bag is placed in a cup of water, which phenomenon is observed? Explain the phenomenon.
Answer:
Diffusion. It is the movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration.

Question 21.
Phloem transport is bidirectional while xylem transport is unidirectional. Give a reason?
Answer:
Phloem transport is bidirectional because prepared food materials translocated to storage regions. These storage food materials are again transported to growing regions for the growth of buds. So, through phloem downward and upward transport takes place. Xylem transport is unidirectional because water and minerals are absorbed and conducted upwards.

Question 22.
Write the suitable term in each pair

  1. apoplast: through cell wall; ………: through cytoplasm
  2. endosmosis: turgid; exosmosis: ………..
  3. ………..: unidirectional; phloem transport: bidirectional
  4. Mg : macroelement: …………: microelement

Answer:

  1. Symplast
  2. Flaccid
  3. Xylem
  4. Mn

Question 23.
‘Ψw = Ψs + Ψp Expand the equation
Answer:

  • Ψw = Water potential is the sum of
  • Ψs = Solute potential solute potential
  • Ψp = pressure potential and pressure potential.

Question 24.
Bacteria cannot live in highly salted pickle. Why?
Answer:
The bacterial cell undergoes plasmolysis in saltwater. This results shrinking of protoplast. Hence, Bacteria cannot live in saltwater.

Question 25.
Observe the following diagram showing the movement of water in plant cells. Identify 1 & 2.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants img4
Answer:

  1. Apoplastic pathway
  2. Sym plastic pathway

Question 26.
A few Pieces of potato were weighed and kept in saltwater overnight. In the morning they are weighed again.

  1. What will be the change in weight?
  2. Name the process responsible for the change.

Answer:

  1. The weight of potato is decreased.
  2. Exosmosis results the loss of water from the potato, it leads to plasmolysis.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question 27.
Before eating Grapes, it is advised to wash them well by keeping them in water for some time to wash off the pesticides on them. However, it is more advisable to keep the Grapes in saltwater than in fresh water to make them safer for consumption. Suggest an explanation for this.
Answer:
The grapes put in saltwater are safer for consumption because poisonous chemicals present in grapes are come out by the process of exosmosis.

Question 28.
The cytoplasm in a plant cell is surrounded by both cell wall and cell membrane. The specificity of transport of substances are mostly across the cell membrane. Give reason.
Answer:
The cell wall is freely permeable to water and substances in solutions but membrane is selectively permeable.

Question 29.
In a girdled plant, when water is supplied to the leaves above the girdle, leaves may remain green for sometime then wilt and ultimately die. What does it indicate?
Answer:
Girdling removes phloem and hence phloem transport is blocked.

Question 30.
Movement of substances in xylem is unidirectional while in phloem it is bidirectional. Why?
Answer:
Xylem conducts”Water and minerals in upward direction only but phloem conducts food in downward direction and in spring season stored food is again transported to upward for bud growth. Hence movement of substances in xylem is unidirectional while in phloem it is bidirectional.

Question 31.
Plants absorb water from the soil through root hairs by two pathways?

  1. Name the pathways
  2. Explain any one of them

Answer:

  1. Apoplastic pathway and symplastic pathway
  2. In apoplastic pathway, water transport takes place through the nonliving part of the cell (cell wall).

Question 32.
What is the water potential of pure water at atmospheric pressure? What happens to it when solutes are added to it?
Answer:
Zero, Water potential is decreased and comes to more negative values.

Question 33.
Transport of hydrophilic substances through cell membrane is difficult. Do you agree ? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes, because the cell membrane contains lipids.

Question 34.
What is meant loading and unloading of phloem?
Answer:
The entering of sugar into sieve tube is called loading and movement of sugar out of sieve tube into storage tissues is called unloading.

Question 35.
Root pressure theory is not adequate for explaining water movement up a long day plant. Why?
Answer:
It is used for explaining water movement up in herbaceous plants but in long plants, it is explained by the transpiration pull theory.

Question 36.
Why is energy required to develop root pressure?
Answer:
Every activity requires energy. Root pressure develops due to activity of living cells of the root.

Question 37.
What happens when a pressure greater than the atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution?
Answer:
When a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution, its water potential is increased.

Question 38.
How is mycoorrhizal association helpful in absorption of water and mineral in plants?
Answer:
Mycorrhizal association help in water and mineral absorption. Fungal hyphae have a very large surface area that absorbs mineral ions and water from a much larger volume of soil.

Question 39.
Give an example for obligate mycorrhizal asociation.
Answer:
Mycorrhizal association is found in pinus seeds i.e Pinus seeds do not germinate and establish without mycorrhiza.

Question 40.
Downhill and uphill movement are used in transport of molecules through membrane.

  1. Which is the above process that requires energy?
  2. Which is the above process not dependent on concentration gradient. Why?

Answer:

  1. uphill transport is active transport requires energy.
  2. Downhill transport, because molecules move from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question 41.
Two pathways of water movement into the deeper layers of root ie; from epidermis to xylem vessels

  1. Name the two pathways
  2. Which is the substance present in the endodermis block one pathway?

Answer:

  1. Apoplastic pathway and symplastic pathway
  2. suberin in casperian strips

Question 42.
In plants translocation of photosynthates occur in 2 ways but water and mineral transport in one way.

  1. Which is the two way suggested?
  2. Name the conducting channel for both.

Answer:
1. Food translocated from leaves to storage regions called downward transport. During spring season food again transported upward for bud growth. So such type of transport is bidirectional.

2. Food transported through phloem and water and mineral transported through the xylem.

Question 43.
In plants stomata opens during day time and close during night time.
How is decreasing water potential of guard cell affect the opening and closing of stomata?
Answer:
If decreasing the water potential of guard cell, water enters into guard cell from the subsidiary and it becomes turgid, stomata open.

Plus One Botany Transport in Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Water is transient in plants. Less than 1% of water reaching the leaves is used in photosynthesis and plant growth’’. What is the fate of remaining percentage of water? Specify the phenomenon? Give its significance in plants?
Answer:
99% of water absorbed is lost through transpiration.

  1. It provides cooling effect to leaves and other organs.
  2. It promotes mineral absorption.
  3. It helps to maintain the shape and structure of plants by keeping up its turgidity.

Question 2.
What are the factors responsible for ascent of xylem sap in plants?
Answer:

  • Cohesion: The mutual attraction between water molecules
  • Adhesion: The attraction of molecules to polar surface e g., the surface of tracheary elements
  • Surface Tension: The water molecules are attracted to each other in liquid phase more than to water in gas phase.

All these properties provide water high tensile strength (an ability to resist a pulling force) as well as high capillarity (ability to rise in a thin tube).
In plants, capillarity is aided by the small diameter of both tracheids and vessels.

Question 3.
The solution taken in the beaker have lower solute concentration than thistle funel, osmosis starts and continues

  1. What will hapen if more solute is added in the thistle funel ?
  2. Which is the solution mentioned above have higher water potential?
  3. Which is the method possible to change flow of solvent molecules?

Answer:

  1. Diffusion takes place faster
  2. solution was taken in the beaker
  3. apply greater pressure than atmospheric pressure in solution of thistle funel.

Question 4.
Look at the following figure in which two chambers, A and B, containing solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane. Answer the following questions.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants img5

  1. Solution of which chamber has a lower water potential
  2. In which direction will osmosis occur?
  3. Which solution has a higher solute potential?
  4. If one chamber has a Ψ of -2000KPa and the other -1000 KPa, which is the chamber that has the higher Ψ?

Answer:

  1. Solution in B chamber has lower water potential.
  2. Osmosis occurs from a to b.
  3. A solution has higher solute potential.
  4. The chamber having -ve 1000K Pa has the higher psi

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question 5.
Identify the following.

  1. Stress hormone
  2. The shrinking of protoplasm due to continuous exosmosis
  3. The positive pressure develops within the xylem of roots due to the absorption of water and minerals.

Answer:

  1. Abscisic acid
  2. Plasmolysis
  3. Root pressure

Plus One Botany Transport in Plants NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the factors affecting the rate of diffusion?
Answer:

  • Factors affecting the rate of diffusion:
  • Gradient of Concentration
  • Permeability of membrane
  • Temperature
  • Pressure

Question 2.
What are porins? What role do they play in diffusion?
Answer:
The porins are proteins that form huge pores in the outer membranes of the plastids, mitochondria and some bacteria allowing molecules up to the size of small proteins to pass through. Thus porins faciliate diffusion.

Question 3.
Decribe the role played by protein pumps during active transport in plants.
Answer:
Active transport uses energy to pump molecules against a concentration gradient. Active transport is carried out by membrane – proteins.

Question 4.
Explain why pure water has maximum water potential?
Answer:
Water molecules possess kinetic energy. In liquid and gaseous form they are in random motion that is both rapid and constant. The greater the concentration of water in a system, the greater is its kinetic energy or ‘water potential’.

Hence, it is obvious that pure water will have the greatest water potential if two systems containing water are in contact, random movement of water molecules will result in net movement of water molecules from the system with higher energy to the one with lower energy. Thus water will move from the system containing water at higher water potential to having low wate potential.

This process of movement of substances down a gradient of free energy is called diffusion. Water. potential is denoted by the Greek symbol Psi and is expressed in pressure units such as pascals(Pa). By convention, the water potential of pure water at standard temperatures, which is not under any pressure, is taken to be zero.

Question 5.
What happens when a pressure greater than the atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution?
Answer:
Under constant temerature the volume of liquid varies inversely to pressure. Moreover, if greater pressure is applied then it will change the state of the matter from liquid to soild at a given temperature. Any liquid will abide by these laws.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question 6.
Discuss the factors responsible for ascent of xylem sap in plants.
Answer:
The transpiration driven ascent of xylem sap depends mainly on the following physical properties of water:

  • Cohesion – the mutual attraction between water molecules.
  • Adhesion – the attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces (such as the surface of tracheary elements).
  • Surface Tension – water molecules are attracted to each other in the liquid phase more than to water in the gas phase.

These properties give water high tensile strength, i.e., an ability to resist a pulling force, and high capillarity, I ‘.e., the ability to rise in thin tubes. In plants capillarity is aided by the small diameter of the tracheary elements – the tracheids and vessel elements.

Plus One Botany Transport in Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Closure of stomata due to water stress is brought about by
(A) Auxin
(B) Ethylene
(C) Abscisic acid
(D) Cytokinin
Answer:
(C) Abscisic acid

Question 2.
The most common type of transpiration is
(A) Stomatal
(B) Cuticular
(C) Lenticular
(D) Foliar
Answer:
(A) Stomatal

Question 3.
All the following include osmosis except
(A) Passage of water from root hair to adjacent cells
(B) Passage of water from lower xylem to upper xylem
(C) Passage of water from xylem vessel to mesophyll cell
(D) The entry of water into root hair from soil solution
Answer:
(B) Passage of water from lower xylem to upper xylem

Question 4.
Stomatal opening and closure are due to
(A) Presence of gases inside leaves
(B) Gene action
(C) Pressure offered by guard cells
(D) Pressure offered by subsidiary cells
Answer:
(C) Pressure offered by guard cells

Question 5.
Translocation of sugars is correlated by
(A) Boron
(B) Iron
(C) Molybdenum
(E) Calcium
Answer:
(A) Boron

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question 6.
Identify the wrong statement of the following
(A) Root pressure is a positive pressure that develops in the xylem sap of the root of some plants.
(B) Water molecules remain attached to one another by a strong mutual force called cohesion force
(C) Guttation is frequently seen in herbaceous plants growing under the conditions of low soil moisture and low atmospheric humidity
(D) In monocot leaves, guard cells remain dumbbell-shaped and their cell walls are thickened only in the middle
Answer:
(C) Guttation is frequently seen in herbaceous plants growing under the conditions of low soil moisture and low atmospheric humidity

Question 7.
In which of the following plants, will there be no transpiration?
(A) Plants living in deserts
(B) Plants growing in hilly regions
(C) Aquatic submerged plants
(D) Aquatic plants with floating leaves
Answer:
(C) Aquatic submerged plants

Question 8.
When a cell is placed in hypertonic solution
(A) Exosmois occurs and the cell becomes turgid
(B) Endosmosis occurs and the cell becomes turgid
(C) Exosmosis occurs and the cell becomes plasmolysed
(D) Endosmosis occurs and the cell becomes plasmolysed
Answer:
(C) Exosmosis occurs and the cell becomes plasmolysed

Question 9.
The thin film of water covering soil particles and held strongly by attractive forces is called
(A) Hygroscopic water
(B) Runaway water
(C) Gravitational water
(D) Capillary water
Answer:
(A) Hygroscopic water

Question 10.
Plants die when over-fertilized because of the fertilizer
(A) Damages the wall of delicate root hairs
(B) Blocks absorption of nitrogenous ions
(C) Causes dehydration of plants by exosmosis
(D) Upsets soil environment by poisoning
Answer:
(C) Causes dehydration of plants by exosmosis

Question 11.
Movement of individual molecules of substance from a region of their higher concentration to a region of their lower concentration is called
(A) Osmosis
(B) Turgor pressure
(C) Diffusion
(D) Osmotic potential
Answer:
(A) Osmosis

Question 12.
The proteins that form large pores in the outer membranes of the plastids, mitochondria, etc are
(A) Porins
(B) Aquaporins
(C) Symporins
(D) Both A & B
Answer:
(A) Porins

Question 13.
Transport of molecules across the membrane in the same direction is
(A) Antiport
(B) Symport
(C) Permeability
(D) Uniport
Answer:
(B) Symport

Question 14.
Rate of osmosis depends on
(A) Diffusion
(B) Pressure gradient
(C) Concentration gradient
(D) BothB&C
Answer:
(D) BothB&C

Question 15.
One of the following is selectively permeable
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Suberised cell wall
(C) Copperferrocyanide membrane
(D) Cellulosic cell wall
Answer:
(A) Tonoplast

Question 16.
What will happen if a flaccid cell is placed in hypotonic solution?
(A) Plasmolysis
(B) Exosmosis
(C) Endosmosis
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Endosmosis

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Question 17.
Pressure that occurs in a cell due to osmotic diffusion of water inside is called
(A) Osmotic pressure
(B) Turgor pressure
(C) Water pressure
(D) Diffusion pressure
Answer:
(A) Osmotic pressure

Question 18.
Movement of water through the cell wall without crossing any membrane is
(A) Apoplastic
(B) Symplastic
(C) Tonoplastic
(D) Cytoplastic
Answer:
(A) Apoplastic

Question 19.
Cytoplasmic strands that connects two neighbouring cells through
(A) Pits
(B) Semipermiable membrane
(C) Plasmodesmata
(D) Root hair
Answer:
(C) Plasmodesmata

Question 20.
Guttation occurs in leaves through
(A) Stomata
(B) Epithelium
(C) Hydathode
(D) Leaf margin
Answer:
(C) Hydathode

Question 21.
Dry seeds swells when they are placed in water due to
(A) Imbibition
(B) Plasmolysis
(C) Diffusion
(D) Osmosis
Answer:
(A) Imbibition

Question 22.
Transpiration in plants helps to
(A) The supply of water for photosynthesis
(B) Maintains cells turgidity
(C) Transport minerals from the soil to all parts of the plant
(D) All the above
Answer:
(D) All the above

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Students can Download Chapter 7 Web Hosting Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Plus Two Computer Application Web Hosting One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The companies that provide web hosting services are called_____.
Answer:
Web Hosts

Question 2.
The service of providing storage space in a web server to make a website available on Internet is called______.
Answer:
web hosting

Question 3.
Which of the following is true in the case of dedicated hosting?
(a) It shares server with other websites.
(b) It is usually inexpensive.
(c) It does not guarantee performance.
(d) It offers freedom for the clients to choose the hardware and the software.
Answer:
(d) It offers freedom for the clients to choose the hardware and the software.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 4.
Choose the odd one out, and justify your answer,
(a) Shared hosting
(b) Dedicated hosting
(c) DNS
(d) Virtual Private Server
Answer:
(c) DNS others are types of web hosting.

Question 5.
______is the service of providing storage space in a Webserver.

OR

Storing the web pages of a website in a server is popularly known as_____.
Answer:
Web hosting

Question 6.
The companies that provides web hosting services are called______.
Answer:
Web hosts

Question 7.
Odd one out.
(a) Shared
(b) Dedicated
(c) VPS
(d) DNS
Answer:
(d) DNS, means Domain Name System. The others are types of web hosting.

Question 8.
VPS stands for______.
Answer:
Virtual Private Server

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 9.
From the following select the most commonly used web hosting.
(a) Shared
(b) Dedicated
(c) VPS
(d) DNS
Answer:
(a) Shared hosting

Question 10.
DNS stands for_____.
Answer:
Domain Name System

Question 11.
‘A record’ means_____.
Answer:
Address record

Question 12.
FTP stands for______.
Answer:
File Transfer Protocol

Question 13.
Odd one out.
(a) Mozilla Firefox
(b) FileZilla
(c) CuteFTP
(d) SmartFTP
Answer:
(a) Mozilla Firefox, it is a web browser, the others are popular FTP client software.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 14.
______hosting provides web hosting services free of change.
Answer:
Free hosting

Question 15.
Give an example for Free web hosting services with sub domain website address.
Answer:
www.bvmhsskaiparamba.facebook.com

Question 16.
Give an example for Free web hosting services with directory service website address.
Answer:
www.facebook.com/bvm hss kalparamba

Question 17.
CMS stands for______.
Answer:
Content Management System

Question 18.
The term ‘responsive web designing’ was introduced by______.
Answer:
Ethan Marcotte.

Question 19.
The method of Flexible designing of web pages to suit the various types of screens is called______.
Answer:
Responsive web design method

Question 20.
In dedicated hosting, if the client is allowed to place his own purchased web server in the service
provider’s facility, then it is called______.
Answer:
Co-location

Question 21.
What are the information contain in a ICANN database?
Answer:
Registered domain names/name, address, telephone number and e-mail address of the registrants.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 22.
What is ‘A record’?
Answer:
‘A record’ is used to store the IP address and the corresponding domain name.

Question 23.
Joomla is an example for______.
(a) CMS
(b) ISP
(c) DNS
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) CMS

Question 24.
The responsive web design feature that converts horizontal menu to a dropdown menu in mobile phones is called______.
Answer:
Media queries.

Question 25.
The organization that maintains the WHOIS data-base of domain names is______.
Answer:
ICANN

Plus Two Computer Application Web Hosting Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider that your school is planning to host a website. What are the factors that you will consider while choosing the type of web hosting?
Answer:
Following factors to be considered

  1. Buying sufficient amount of memory space for storing our website files
  2. If the web pages contain programming contents supporting technology must be consider
  3. Based upon the programs select Windows hosting or Linux hosting.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 2.
Emmanuel wishes to buy a suitable domain for his company. Unfortunately, the domain name he chose is already registered by someone else. Name the feature that will help him to find the current owner. List the details will he get.
Answer:
WHOIS. Name, address, telephone number and e-mail address of the registrant.

Question 3.
What is the use of FTP client software? Give an example.
Answer:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) client software. When a client requests a website by entering website address. Then FTP client software helps to establish a connection between client computer and remote server computer.

Unauthorised access is denied by using username and password hence secure our website files for that SSH(Secure Shell) FTP simply SFTP is used. Instead of http://, it uses ftp://.

By using FTP client s/w we’ can transfer(upload) the files from our computer to the web server by using the ‘drag and drop’ method. The popular FTP client software are FileZilla, Cute FTP, Smart FTP, etc.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 4.
Haseena has decided to host her new website using free hosting facility; her friend Rinisha is against this move. Can you guess her argument against the utilization of free hosting facility?
Answer:
In free web hosting service, the expense is meet by the advertisements. Some service providers allow limited facility such as limited storage space, do not allow multimedia (audio and viedo) files.

Plus Two Computer Application Web Hosting Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Priya has developed a website for her shop. She has purchased a domain name and hosting space.

  1. Name the software that will help her to transfer her files from her computer to the web server.
  2. List the requirements in that software that are necessary to connect to the web server.

Answer:

  1. FTP software such as FileZilla, Cute FTP, Smart FTP
  2. Following are the requirements to connect to the web server
    • Domain name/IP address
    • Username
    • Password

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 2.
Explain the advantages of using SFTP protocol in FTP client software.
Answer:
Un authorised access is denied by using username and password hence secure our website files, for this SSH (Secure Shell) FTP simply SFTP is used. It encrypts and sends usernames, passwords, and data to the web server.

Question 3.
Merin plans to create a website for their family without spending money.

  1. List some of the limitations that Merin will face regarding the hosting space for website.
  2. How will she provide a domain name for the website?

Answer:
1. In free web hosting service, the expense is meet by the advertisements. Some service providers allow limited facility such as limited storage space, do not allow multimedia (audio and viedo) files.

2. Usually two types of free web hosting services as follows.

  • as a directory service: service provider’s website address/our website address
    eg: www.facebook.com/bvmhsskalparamba
  • as a sub domain: Our website address.service providers website address
    eg: www.bvmhsskalparamba.facebook.com

Question 4.
Recentlly more and more people are using Content Management Systems (CMS) for developing professional websites. What can be the reasons for this?
Answer:
CMS means Content Management System. Do you heard about Data Base Management System (DBMS). DBMS is a software (collection of programs) used to create, alter modify, delete and retrieve records of a Data Base.

Similarly CMS is a collection of programs that is used to create, modify, update and publish website contents. CMS can be downloaded freely and is useful to design and manage attractive and interactive websites with the help of templates that are available in CMS. WordPress, Joomla, etc. are the examples of CMS.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 5.
Suggest a hosting type for the following websites given below. Justify.

  1. Website for a medical shop in your city.
  2. Website for Public Service Commission (PSC) of Kerala.
  3. Website for an online shopping facility.

Answer:

  1. Shared hosting
  2. Dedicated/VPS
  3. Dedicated/VPS

Question 6.
Consider that a college in your locality plans to shift its website from shared type of hosting to VPS hosting. List the advantages that the website will gain from this change.
Answer:
Virtual Private Server (VPS):
A VPS is a virtual machine sold as a service by an Internet hosting Service. A VPS runs its own copy of an OS(Operating System) and customers have super level access to that OS instance, so they can install almost any s/w that runs on that OS.

This type is suitable for websites that require more features than shared hosting but less features than dedicated hosting.
Eg: It is similar to owning a Condo

Question 7.
Mr. Mohan wants to host a personal website with minimal cost. Which type of web hosting would you advise for him? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Shared Hosting:
This type of hosting sharing resources, like memory, disk space, and CPU hence the name shared. Several websites share the same server. This is suitable for small websites that have less traffic and it is not suitable for large websites that have large bandwidth, large storage space and have large volume of traffic.

Eg: Shared hosting is very similar to living in an Apartment(Villas) complex. All residents are in the same location and must share the available resources(Car parking area, Swimming pool, Gymnasium, playground, etc) with every one.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 8.
A super market in a city wishes to take its business online. It plans to accept orders for its products through a website and receive payments online.

  1. Which type of hosting is suitable for this website?
  2. Explain the reason for your choice,

Answer:
1. Dedicated Hosting.

2. A web server and its resources are exclusively for one website that have large volume of traffic means large volume of requests by the visitors.

Some Govt, departments or large organizations require uninterrupted services for that round the clock power supply is needed. It is too expensive but it is more reliable and provide good service to the public.

Eg: It is similar to living in an Our own house. All the resources in your house is only for you. No one else’s account resides on the computer and would not be capable of tapping into your resourses.

Question 9.
Emil wishes to purchase the web hosting space required to host a website for his medical shop. List the features to be taken into consideration while buying hosting space on a web server.
Answer:
Following factors to be considered

  1. Buying sufficient amount of memory space for storing our website files
  2. If the web pages contain programming contents supporting technology must be consider
  3. Based upon the programs select Windows hosting or Linux hosting.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 10.
How can we connect a website hosted in a Webserver to a domain name?
Answer:
Millions of websites are available over Internet so that our website must be registered with a suitable name. Domain Name registration is used to identify a website over Internet.

A domain name must be unique(i.e. no two website with same name is available). So you have to check the availability of domain name before you register it, for this www.whois.net website will help.

If the domain name entered is available then we can register it by paying the Annual registration fees through online. Consider a Post Office, it has two addresses one string address (Irinjalakuda) and one numeric(pin) code (680121).

Just like this, the website has also two addresses a string address for example www.agker.cag.gov in and a numeric address (http:/ /210.212.239.70/). We are following string address, hence this domain name has to be connected to the corresponding IP address of the web server.

This is done by using ‘A record’(Address record) of the domain. ‘A record’ is used to store the IP address and the corresponding domain name.

Question 11.
What is the advantage of using SFTP protocol in FTP software?
Answer:
FTP(File Transfer Protocol) client software. When a client requests a website by entering website address. Then FTP client software helps to establish a connection between client computer and remote server computer.

Unauthorised access is denied by using username and password hence secure our website files for that SSH(Secure Shell) FTP simply SFTP is used. Instead of http://, it uses ftp://.

By using FTP client s/w we can transfer(upload) the files from our computer to the web server by using the ‘drag and drop’ method. The popular FTP client software are FileZilla, CuteFTP, SmartFTP, etc.

Question 12.
Raju wishes to host a website for his family. What are the advantages that free web hosting companies provide?
Answer:
The name implies it is free of cost service and the expense is meet by the advertisements. Some service providers allow limited facility such as limited storage space, do not allow multimedia(audio and video) files.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

A paid service website’s address is as follows
eg: www.bvmhsskalparamba.com
Usually two types of free web hosting services as follows

  1. as a directory service: Service provider’s website address/our website address
    eg: www.facebook.com / bvm hss kalparambu
  2. as a Sub domain: Our website address.service providers website address
    eg: www.bvmhsskalparamba.facebook.com

Earlier web hosting services are expensive but nowadays it is cheaper hence reduced the need for free web hosting.

Question 13.
What is CMS? What are the features of CMS? Give Examples.
Answer:
CMS means Content Management System. Do you heard about Data Base Management System (DBMS). DBMS is a software(collection of programs) used to create, alter, modify, delete and retrieve records of a Data Base.

Similarly, CMS is a collection of programs that is used to create, modify, update and publish website contents. CMS can be downloaded freely and is useful to design and manage attractive and interactive websites with the help of templates that are available in CMS. WordPress, Joomla, etc. are the examples of CMS.

Plus Two Computer Application Web Hosting Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain different types of web hosting?
Answer:
Types of web hosting:
Various types of web hosting services are available. We can choose the web hosting services according to our needs depends upon the storage space needed for hosting, the number of visitors expected to visit, etc.

1. Shared Hosting:
This type of hosting sharing resources, like memory, disk space, and CPU hence the name shared. Several websites share the same server.

This is suitable for small websites that have less traffic and it is not suitable for large websites that have large bandwidth, large storage space and have large volume of traffic.

Eg: Shared hosting is very similar to living in an Apartment(Villas) complex. All residents are in the same location and must share the available resources(Car parking area, Swimming pool, Gymnasium, play ground, etc) with every one.

2. Dedicated Hosting:
A web server and its resources are exclusively for one website that have large volume of traffic means large volume of requests by the visitors.

Some Govt, departments or large organizations require uninterrupted services for that round the clock power supply is needed. It is too expensive but it is more reliable and provide good service to the public.

Eg: It is similar to living in an Our own house. All the resources in your house is only for you. No one else’s account resides on the computer and would not be capable of tapping into your resourses.

3. Virtual Private Server (VPS):
A VPS is a virtual machine sold as a service by an Internet hosting Service. A VPS runs its own copy of an OS (Operating System) and customers have super level access to that OS instance, so they can install almost any s/w that runs on that OS.

This type is suitable for websites that require more features than shared hosting but less features than dedicated hosting.
Eg: It is similar to owning a Condo.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 2.

  1. What is responsive web design? (3)
  2. Why is it gaining importance recently? (2)

Answer:
1. The home page is displayed differently according to the screen size of the browser window(different screen sized devices mobile phone, palmtop, tablet, laptop, and desktop) we used.

The website is designed dynamically (flexibly) that suit the screen size of different device introduced by Ethan Marcotte. Before this, companies have to design different websites for different screen sized devices.

By responsive web design, companies have to design only one website that suitably displayed according to the screen size of the devices. It is implemented by using flexible grid layout, images, and media queries.

Flexible grid layouts: It helps to set the size of the web page to fit the screen size of the device.

Flexible image and video: It helps to set the image or video dimension to fit the screen size of the
device.

Media queries: There is an option(settings) to select the size of the web page to match our device, this can be done by using media queries inside the CSS file.

A well known Malayalam daily Malayala Manorama launched their responsive website.

2. Insted of using desktops or laptops many people nowadays visit websites using tablets and mobiles phones. Portability is the main reason for this.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 3.
Today, we visit websites using tablets and mobile phones also. You might have noticed that the same website is displayed in a different layout in different devices.

  1. Name the concept used for this. (1)
  2. List and explain the technologies used for implementing this concept. (5)

Answer:

  1. Responsive web design.
  2. It is implemented by using flexible grid layout, images, and media queries.

Flexible grid layouts: It helps to set the size of the web page to fit the screen size of the device.

Flexible image and video: It helps to set the image or video dimension to fit the screen size of the device.

Media queries: There is an option(settings) to select the size of the web page to match our device, this can be done by using media queries inside the CSS file.

A well known Malayalam daily Malayala Manorama launched their responsive website.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Web Hosting

Question 4.

  1. What is responsive web design? (3)
  2. How is responsive web design implemented? (2)

Answer:
1. The home page is displayed differently according to the screen size of the browser window(different screen sized devices mobile phone, palmtop, tablet, laptop, and desktop) we used.

The website is designed dynamically(flexibly) that suit the screen size of different device introduced by Ethan Marcotte. Before this, companies have to design different websites for different screen sized devices.

By responsive web design, companies have to design only one website that suitably displayed according to the screen size of the devices.

2. It is implemented by using flexible grid layout, images, and media queries

Flexible grid layouts: It helps to set the size of the web page to fit the screen size of the device.
Flexible image and video: It helps to set the image or video dimension to fit the screen size of the device.

Media queries: There is an option(settings) to select the size of the web page to match our device, this can be done by using media queries inside the CSS file.

A well known Malayalam daily Malayala Manorama launched their responsive website.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Students can Download Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Meiosis results in
(a) Production of gametes
(b) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
(c) Introduction of variation
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 2.
At which stage of meiosis does the genetic constitution of gametes is finally decided
(a) Metaphase I
(b) Anaphase II
(c) Metaphase II
(d) Anaphase I
Answer:
(d) Anaphase I

Question 3.
Meiosis occurs in organisms during
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Vegetative reproduction
(c) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sexual reproduction

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 4.
During anaphase-l of meiosis
(a) Homologous chromosomes separate
(b) Non-homologous autosomes separate
(c) Sister chromatids separate
(d) non-sister chromatids separate
Answer:
(a) Homologous chromosomes separate

Question 5.
Mitosis is characterised by
(a) Reduction division
(b) Equal division
(c) Both reduction and equal division
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Equal division

Question 6.
A bivalent of meiosis-l consists of
(a) Two chromatids and one centromere
(b) Two chromatids and two centromere
(c) Four chromatids and two centromere
(d) Four chromatids and four centromere
Answer:
(c) Four chromatids and two centromere

Question 7.
Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at
(a) G1
(b) G2
(c) Go
(d) S phase
Answer:
(c) Go

Question 8.
Which type cell divisions occur in meristematic cell of root apex?
Answer:
Mitosis

Question 9.
In which stage the actual reduction of chromosome number occurs in meiosis.
Answer:
Anaphase 1

Question 10.
Give the term for the failure of separation of homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
Non-disjunction

Question 11.
Name the cell divisions which help in growth and recombination of genes.
Answer:
Mitosis and meiosis

Question 12.
It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell division. Such cells do not divide further and exit ____ phase to enter an inactive stage called ____ of cell cycle. Fill in the blanks.
Answer:
G1 and G0

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 13.
In the case of plant cells, the formation of new cell wall begins with a simple precursor. What is this precursor?
Answer:
Middle lamella

Question 14.
It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human cells (eukaryotic cells) takes 24 hours. Which phase of the cycle, do you think occupies the maximum part of cell cycle?
Answer:
Interphase.

Question 15.
At what stage of cell cycle does DNA synthesis take place?
Answer:
substage of Interphase

Question 16.
If the failure of division of cytoplasm occurs after nuclear division, What will happen to the cell?
Answer:
Free nucleii are formed

Question 17.
An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them?
Answer:
300 pollen mother cells

Question 18.
What is the peculiarity of zygotene?
Answer:
The pairing of the homologous chromosome called synapsis

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 19.
It is the inactive stage of cell division but cell differentiation occurs. Name it.
Answer:
G0 Phase /Quiscent stage.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Meiosis is the type of cell division which maintain the race. Discuss.
Answer:
Reduces the chromosome number to half, so that chromosome number is maintained in the next generation.

Question 2.
Interphase in cell cycle is sometimes referred to as resting phase. Do you consider this statement true? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
No.

  1. Nucleus and cytoplasm are metabolically very active.
  2. Amount of DNA becomes doubled.

Question 3.
A diagram of typical cell cycle of a higher plant is shown here. Identify each stage of the cycle and explain what happens during these stages.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division img1
Answer:

  • G1 – pre mitotic gap -synthesis of RNA &Proteins
  • S – phase of synthesis – DNA replication
  • G2 – Post mitotic Gap phase synthesis of RNA &Proteins continues
  • M – Mitotic phase
  • G0 – Inactive phase

Question 4.
Cytokinesis differs in plant and animal cell. Substantiate this statement.
Answer:

  • Plant cell – formation of cell plate.
  • Animal cell – Invagination of cell membrane.

Question 5.
Analyse the column A and B arrange the matter is an appropriate order.

AB
1)  Pachytene

2)  S phase

3) Dyad

4) M phase

a) Interphase

b) Telophase I

c)  Mitotic phase

d) Prophase I

Answer:

AB
1)  Pachytene

2)  S phase

3)  Dyad

4)  M phase

Prophase I

Interphase

Telophase I

Mitotic phase

Question 6.
Identify the stages of Mitosis in which the following events take place:

  1. Synapsis
  2. Terminalisation of chiasmata.

Answer:

  1. Zygotene
  2. Diakinesis

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 7.
Different stages of Prophase I of Meiosis are given in column A, arrange them in correct order and match them with the events in column B.

AB
i) Diplotenea) Chromosomes become gradually visible under the light microscope
ii) Pachyteneb) The pairing of Homologous chromosomes
iii) Leptotenec) The appearance of recombination nodules and crossing over takes place
iv) Zygotened) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex and separation of bivalents.
e) Terminalisation of Chiasmata

Answer:

  1. (i) – d
  2. (ii) – c
  3. (iii) – a
  4. (iv) – b

Question 8.
The pairing of homologous chromosomes is called synapsis.

  1. Name each pair of homologous chromosomes.
  2. Name the stage of prophase at which it takes place.

Answer:

  1. Bivalent
  2. Zygotene

Question 9.
Specific chromosome number of each species is conserved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms. What is the reason for this? Write the different steps of this process.
Answer:

  1. Meiosis (meiosis I & II)
  2. Prophase Meta phase Ana phase Telophase

Question 10.
The life cycle of a cell is called cell cycle. It consists of four stages such as Gv S, G2, and M.

  1. Construct a pie diagram showing the different stages indicated above.
  2. State the major events occurring in G, S, and G2 phases.

Answer:
1. Pie diagram of cell cycle.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division img2
2. G1 Phase -1, Cell grows in size and prepares the machinery needed for the DNA replication. RNA and proteins are synthesized. S phase – DNA replication. G2 phase – Synthesis of RNA and proteins.

Question 11.
Arrange the following stages of cell cycle in correct sequence S, G2, G1, M.
Answer:
S, M, G1, S, G2

Question 12.
X’ shaped structure called ‘chiasmata occurs during a particular stage of cell division.

  1. Name the stage?
  2. What is the significance of this type of cell division?

Answer:

  1. Pachytene
  2. The exchange of genes takes place between homologous chromosomes.

Question 13.
Given below are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I. Arrange them in correct order.
Zygotene, diakinesis, diplotene, leptotene, pachytene
Answer:
Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis

Question 14.
Give the scientific term of the following.

  1. Interchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of the homologues chromosomes
  2. The plane of alignment of the chromosomes at metaphase

Answer:

  1. Crossing over
  2. Equatorial

Question 15.
Identify the diagram and label a, b,c and write the events during this.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division img3
Answer:
(a)G1
(b) S
(c)G2

  • G1 – Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
  • S – DNA synthesis or replication of DNA occurs.
  • G2 – In this phase proteins are synthesised for mitosis.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 16.
You have supplied I set of glass slides showing gametogenesis or garnets formation in an animal In one of the slide you observed the following features. Four cells with haploid number of chromosomes. Your friend told you that this is a meiotic division. (Hint: The diploid number of chromosome is 16.)
Are you agree with this statement. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Meiosis takes place in diploid cell or meiocyte to form four haploid cells. These cells contain 8 chromosomes each.

Question 17.
Differentiate reduction division from equational division.
Answer:
1. Reduction division:
It occurs in diploid cells to form 4 haploid cells, ie, the Chromosome number reduced to half in Meiosis I and results 2 daughter cells, which again divides to form 4 daughter cells. All cells formed in meiosis are haploid.

2. Equational division:
It is the mitotic division results 2 daughter cells carrying same set of chromosomes as that of parent cell. No genetic variation occurs.

Question 18.
Can there be mitosis without DNA replication in S phase?
Answer:
There cannot be mitosis without DNA replication in 5 phase of interphase because the trigger for mitosis is disturbance of nucleocytoplasmic ratio caused by DNA replication in S phase. Mitosis restores the quantity of genetic material to the species-specific level.

Question 19.
How does anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis differ from each other?
Answer:
In anaphase of mitosis chromatids separate while in anaphase 1 of meiosis homologous chromosomes separate.

Question 20.
How does cytokinesis in plant cells differ from that in animal cells?
Answer:
1. In an animal cell a furrow in the plasma membrane.lt joins in the centre and dividing the cell cytoplasm into two.

2. In-plant cells, wall formation starts in the centre of the cell and grows outward to meet the existing lateral walls. Then Cell division occurs.

Question 21.
How cytokinesis is different in an animal and a plant cell?
Answer:
In-plant cell cytokinesis occurs by cell plate formation while in the animal cell it occurs by cell furrow formation.

Question 22.
Why mitosis is called equational division ? Give the occurrence of mitosis.
Answer:
It keeps the chromosome number constant. It occurs in somatic cells.

Question 23.
What is the feature of a metacentric chromosome?
Answer:
The metacentric chromosome has a centromere in the middle region with two equal arms of the chromosome.

Question 24.
What is kinetochore? Give its function.
Answer:
It is a disc-like area in each chromatid and is site of attachment of spindle microtubule.

Question 25.
Why is meiosis essentially in sexually reproducing organisms?
Answer:
Meiosis reduces the chromosome number to half as it is followed by fertilization which restores diploidy.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 26.
Name the stage of cells cycle at which one of the following events occurs.

  1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator
  2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate
  3. Pairing between homologous chromosomes. takes place
  4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

  1. Metaphase
  2. Anaphase
  3. Zygotene
  4. Pachytene

Question 27.
Downs syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs due to mistake in cell division. What does it indicate?
Answer:
It is due to the failure of separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Question 28.
The events occur in prophase and telophase are one opposite to other,

  1. Name the cell structures shown the above events
  2. How many daughter nuclei are formed at the end of mitotic and meiotic prophase?

Answer:

  1. Nuclear membrane, nucleolus and spindle fibres
  2. Two

Question 29.
Mangolism or Trisomy is due to the failure of one event in cell division.

  1. Which is the improperly functioning stage?
  2. What is the event that not occurs?

Answer:

  1. Anaphase I of meiosis
  2. Separation of homologous chromosomes

Question 30.

  1. What will be the ploidy level of dyad and tetrad of cells in meiosis?
  2. How is it occurs?

Answer:

  1. Dyad – haploid, Tetrad – Haploid
  2. It occurs in meiosis due to separation of homologous chromosomes and chromosome number reduced to half.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which phase of meiosis is the following formed? Choose the answers from hint points given below.

  1. Synaptonemal complex ______
  2. Recombination nodules ______
  3. Appearance/activation of enzyme recombinase _____
  4. Termination of chiasmata _______
  5. Interkinesis ________
  6. Formation of dyad of cells ________

Answer:

  1. Zygotene
  2. pachytene
  3. pachytene
  4. diakinesis
  5. After Meiosis-I before meiosis II
  6. after first cytokinesis

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 2.
The interphase stage is significant in mitotic and meiotic cell division

  1. Give one specific event
  2. Name the stage of interphase this event occurs
  3. How will you differentiate interphase from interkinesis?

Answer:

  1. DNA replication
  2. S – phase
  3. Interphase – cell prepares for cell division Interkinesis – short interval between meiosis I and meiosis II

Question 3.
The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle, Write the phase against each of the events.

  1. Appearance of nucleolus
  2. Division of centromere
  3. Replication of DNA

Answer:

  1. Telophase
  2. Anaphase
  3. Interphase

Question 4.
Life cycle of a cell is called cell cycle. ‘S’ phase is an important phase of cell cycle.

  1. Justify your answer.
  2. Name the stages of cell cycle at which the following events occur.
    • Crossing over of homologous chromosome.
    • Pairingof homologous chromosomes.
    • Chromosomes are arranged at the equatorial plane.

Answer:

  1. phase of DNA synthesis
  2. stages of the cell cycle
    • Pachytene
    • Zygotene
    • Metaphase

Question 5.
Name the stages of cell division in which the following events occur?

  1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
  2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
  3. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

  1. Metaphase
  2. Anaphase
  3. Pachytene

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 6.
Match the words listed in column I with suitable words from column II.

Column IColumn II
a) Diplontic cycle

b) Karyokinesis

c) Haplontic cycle

d) Cytokinesis

e) Meiosis

f)  Cell plate

i)  Meiocytes

ii) Gametic meiosis

iii)  Plant cells

iv) Nuclear division

v) Zygotic meiosis

vi) Cytoplasmic division

Answer:

  1. a) – Gametic meiosis
  2. b) – Nuclear division
  3. c) – Zygotic meiosis
  4. d) – Cytoplasmic division
  5. e) – Meiocytes
  6. f) – Plant cells

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish cytokinesis from karyokinesis.
Answer:
The division of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis, while the division of the nucleus is called Karyokinesis.

Question 2.
What is G0 (quiescent phase) of cell cycle?
Answer:
Some cells in the adult animals do not appear to exhibit division (e.g., heart cells and many other cells divide only occasionally, as needed to replace cells that have been lost because of injury or cell death.

These cells do not divide further exit G1 phase to enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage (G0) of the cell cycle. Cells in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of the organism.

Question 3.
Describe the event taking place during interphase.
Answer:
The interphase is divided into three further phases:
1. G1 phase (Gap 1). G1 phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis initiation of DNA replication. During G, phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA.

2. S phase (Synthesis). S or synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

3. During this time the amount of DNA per cell doubles. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to 4C. However, there is no increase in the chromosome number, if the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G1, even after S phase the number of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n.

4. G2 phase (Gap 2). In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm during the G2 phase, proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis White cell growth continues.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 4.
Why is mitosis called equational division?
Answer:
Since the number of chromosomes remains same in parent and daughter cells so mitosis is also called a equational division.

Question 5.
Name the stage of cell cycle at which one of the following events occur.

  1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
  2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
  3. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place.
  4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

  1. Metaphase
  2. Anaphase
  3. Metaphase I of meiosis
  4. Prophase I of meiosis

Question 6.
What is the significance of meiosis?
Answer:
Significance of Meiosis:

  1. Maintaining genetic identity by maintaining number of chromosomes.
  2. Bringing variations to ensure better species.
  3. Facilitates sexual reproduction.

Question 7.
Discuss with your teacher about.

  1. haploid insects and lower plants where cell division occurs, and
  2. Some haploid cells in higher plants where cell division does not occur.

Answer:

  1. Male bees, wasps and ants are haploid organisms because they are produced from unfertilized eggs.
  2. Synergids and antipodal cells in the ovule don’t undergo cell division.

Question 8.
Can there be mitosis without DNA replication in ‘S’ phase?
Answer:
DNA replication is necessary for cell division, and cell division cannot happen without DNA replication.

Question 9.
Can there be DNA replication without cell division?
Answer:
DNA replication takes place in order to prepare for cell division. Cell division is the next logical step after DNA replication.

Question 10.
Analyse the events during every stage of cell cycle and notice how the following two parameters change

  1. number of chromosomes (N) per cell
  2. amount of DNA content (C) per cell

Answer:

  1. Number of chromosomes remains same after mitotic cell division and becomes half after meiotic cell division.
  2. During S phase the DNA content doubles, but number of chromosomes remains the same.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell division in which
(a) there is no growth of cells
(b) the nucleus does not participate
(c) no spindle develops to guide the cells
(d) the plasma membranes of daughter cells do not separate.
Answer:
(a) there is no growth of cells

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 2.
In animal cells, cytokinesis involves
(a) the separation of sister chromatids
(b) contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament
(c) depolymerisation of kinetochore microtubules
(d) a protein kinase that phosphorylates other enzymes
Answer:
(b) contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament

Question 3.
During mitosis, the number of chromosomes gets
(a) change
(b) no change
(c) maybe change if cell is mature
(d) maybe change if cell is immature
Answer:
(b) no change

Question 4.
A diploid living organism develops from zygote by which type of the following repeated cell divisions?
(a) Meiosis
(b) Amitosis
(c) fragmentation
(d) Mitosis
Answer:
(d) Mitosis

Question 5.
If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into?
(a) Metaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Prophase
Answer:
(a) Metaphase

Question 6.
At which stage of mitosis, chromatids separated and passes to different poles
(a) prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) anaphase
(d) Telophase
Answer:
(c) anaphase

Question 7.
The two chromatids of a metaphase chromosome represent
(a) replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase
(b) homologous chromosomes of a diploid set
(c) non-homologous chromosomes joined at the centromere
(d) maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere
Answer:
(a) replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase

Question 8.
The process of cytokinesis refers to the division of
(a) nucleus
(b) chromosomes
(c) cytoplasm
(d) nucleus and cytoplasm
Answer:
(c) cytoplasm

Question 9.
Which of the following serves as mitotic spindle poison?
(a) Ca2
(b) azide
(c) Tubulin
(d) Colchicine
Answer:
(d) Colchicine

Question 10.
Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs at which stage?
(a) Zygotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Metaphase
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(a) Zygotene

Question 11.
In meiosis, division is
(a) I reductional and II equational
(b) I equational and II reductional
(c) Both reductional
(d) Both equational
Answer:
(a) I reductional and II equational

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 12.
Which type of chromosomes segregate when a cell undergoes meiosis?
(a) Homologous chromosomes
(b) Non-homologous chromosomes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) centric and acentric chromosomes
Answer:
(a) Homologous chromosomes

Question 13.
Chiasmata are most appropriately observed in meiosis during
(a) diakinesis
(b) diplotene
(c) metaphase-ll
(d) pachytene
Answer:
(b) diplotene

Question 14.
During cell division, sometimes there will be failure of separation of homologous chromosomes. This event is called
(a) interference
(b) complementation
(c) non-disjunction
(d) coincidence
Answer:
(c) non-disjunction

Question 15.
The second meiotic division leads to
(a) separation of sex chromosomes
(b) fresh DNA synthesis
(c) separation of chromatids and centromere
(d) separation of homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
(c) separation of chromatids and centromere

Question 16.
Term meiosis was proposed by
(a) Farmer and Moore
(b) Flemming
(c) Strasburger
(d) Darlington
Answer:
(a) Farmer and Moore

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Question 17.
Synapsis occurs in the phase of meiosis.
(a) zygotene
(b) diplotene
(c) pachytene
(d) leptotene
Answer:
(a) zygotene

Question 18.
When the number of chromosomes is already reduced to half in the first reductional division of meiosis, where is the necessity of second meiotic division
(a) The division is required for the formation of four gametes
(b) Division ensures equal distribution of haploid chromosomes
(c) Division ensures equal distribution of genes on chromosomes
(d) Division is required for segregation of replicated chromosomes
Answer:
(d) Division is required for segregation of replicated chromosomes

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Students can Download Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Plus Two Computer Application Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Among the following which one is the most correct. JavaScript is used mostly at the
(a) client side
(b) server side
(c) client side and server side
Answer:
(a) client side

Question 2.
Name the tag that is used to embed scripts in a web page.
Answer:
<SCRIPT>

Question 3.
In JavaScript, a variable is declared using the keyword______.
Answer:
var

Question 4.
_____are small programs embedded in the HTML pages.
Answer:
Scripts

Question 5.
Who developed JavaScript?
Answer:
Brendan Eich

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 6.
_____are the scripts that are executed by the browser (client).
Answer:
Client Scripts

Question 7.
_____are the scripts that are executed by the web server.
Answer:
Server Scripts

Question 8.
_____Script is a platform-independent script.
Answer:
Java Script

Question 9.
______Script is a platform dependent script.
Answer:
VB Script

Question 10.
______makes the tags meaningful.
Answer:
Attribute

Question 11.
_____attribute specifies the name of the scripting language used.
Answer:
Language

Question 12.
State True or False. The identifiers are case sensitive Identifiers case.
Answer:
True

Question 13.
Which part of the browser executes the JavaScript.
Answer:
JavaScript engine

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 14.
Odd one out
(a) Google Chrome
(b) Internet Explorer
(c) Mozila FireFox
(d) C++
Answer:
(d) C++, It is a programming language others are browsers.

Question 15.
A group of codes with a name is called_____.
Answer:
function

Question 16.
To declare a function the keyword_____is used.
Answer:
function

Question 17.
A function contains a function____and function_____.
Answer:
header, body

Question 18.
State true or false
Even though a function is defined within the body section, it will not be executed, if it is not called.
Answer:
True

Question 19.
Write down the purpose of the following code snippet
function print()
{
document .write (“ Welcome to JS”);
}
Answer:
This code snippet is used to display the string, “Welcome to JS” on the screen(monitor).

Question 20.
From the following select which one is Not the data type in JavaScript
(a) Number
(b) String
(c) Boolean
(d) Time
Answer:
(d) Time

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 21.
_____keyword is used to declare a variable in JavaScript.
Answer:
var

Question 22.
______function is used to return the data type.
Answer:
typeof()

Question 23.
_____is a special data type to represent variables that are not defined using var.
Answer:
undefined

Question 24.
Odd one out
(a) +
(b) –
(c) %
(d) ==
Answer:
(d) ==, it is a relational operator the others are arithmetic operator.

Question 25.
Odd one out
(a) &&
(b) ||
(c) !
(d) %
Answer:
(d) %, it is an arithmetic operator, others are logical operator.

Question 26.
Odd one out
(a) <
(b) >
(c) ==
(d) !
Answer:
(d) ! , it is a logical operator, the others are relational operator.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 27.
Consider the following declaration var b;
From the following which value can be used for the variable b as boolean value.
(a) true
(b) TRUE
(c) True
(d) FALSE
Answer:
(a) true, The value is case sensitive.

Question 28.
Predict the output of the following.
var a, b;
a = ”0480″;
b = 2828159;
document.write(a+b);
Answer:
The out Put is “04802828159”. That is the string “0480” concatenates(joins) the number 2828159. The output is a string not a number.

Question 29.
Predict the output
var x, y;
x = ”8″;
y = 3;
document.write(x+y);
Answer:
The output is a string “83”; String addition means concatenation.

Question 30.
From the following which method is used to display a message (dialog box) on the screen.
(a) alert()
(b) isNaN()
(c) toUpperCase()
(d) toLowerCase()
Answer:
(a) alert()

Question 31.
Raju wants to convert a lower case text to Upper case text, which function is to be used.
Answer:
toUpperCase()

Question 32.
Christy wants to convert an upper case text to lower case text, which function is to be used.
Answer:
toLowerCase()

Question 33.
Andrea wants to check a value is a number or not. From the following which function is used for that.
(a) isNumb()
(b) isNaN()
(c) isNotNumb()
(d) isNotNumber()
Answer:
(b) isNaN().

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 34.
Predict the output of the following code snippet
var x=” HIGHER SECONDARY”;
alert(x.charAt(4));
Answer:
It displays a message box with character ‘E’ from the fifth (4 + 1) place

Question 35.
Read the following three statements regarding JavaScript.

  1. JavaScript can be used at the client side for data validation.
  2. JavaScript statements are case sensitive.
  3. JavaScript can be used only for creating web pages.

Answer:
All the three statements are correct.

Question 36.
Write the output of the following web page.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 1
Answer:
welcome welcome.

Question 37.
Following is the web page that accepts a string from a text box, converts in to uppercase and display it on the screen. Complete the missing portion in the page.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 2
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 3
Answer:
document.forml.text1.value

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 38.
Name the attribute of <SCRIPT> tag that is used to include an external JavaScript file into a web page.
Answer:
src

Plus Two Computer Application Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A javaScript code has the following three variables and values.
x = “Script”;
y = “3”;
z = “2”;
Then match the following table.

AB
x.length()false
isNaN(x)5
isNaN(y)6
y + ztrue
32

Answer:

AB
x.length()6
isNaN(x)true
isNaN(y)false
y + z32

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 2.
“Placing JavaScript as an external file has some advantages”. Do you agree with this statement?
Why?
Answer:
External (another) JavaScript file:
We can write scripts in a file and save it as a separate file with the extension .js. The advantage is that this file can be used across multiple HTML files and can be enhance the speed of page loading.

Question 3.
Explain the difference between the statements.
documerit.write (“welcome”);
and
alert (“welcome)”;
Answer:

  1. document.write () is a JavaScript command used to print anything on the browser window.
  2. document write (“welcome”) prints “welcome” on the browser window.
  3. alert (“welcome”). This is a built in function used to display a message here the message “welcome” in a separate window.

Question 4.
Is it necessary to use Language – ‘JavaScript” in the <SCRIPT>tag to specify the JavaScript code? Why?
Answer:
No, it is not nece^ary. If the language attribute is not specified, it will take the default value as Javascript.

Question 5.
Write the output of the following web page:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 4
Answer:
It will not display anything on the screen. This code snippet contains a function that will not do anything unless it is invoked(called).

Question 6.
Write the output of the following web page:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 5
Answer:

  • The output is as follows
  • welcome to JavaScript
  • welcome to JavaScript
  • The message repeats 2 times.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 7.
Among the following, identify the data types used in JavaScript
int, float, number, char, boolean, long
Answer:
From the list there is only two, number and boolean are the types used in JavaScript.

Question 8.
Write the output of the following web page and jus¬tify your answer.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 6
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 7
Answer:
x = “10” means x is a string variable
y = “20” means y is a string variable
x + y means the string x and y will be concatenated Hence it displays 1020.

Question 9.
What do you mean by Scripts? Explain?
Answer:
Scripts are small programs embedded in the HTML pages.
<SCRIPT> tag is used to write scripts The attributes used are

  • Type-To specify the scripting language
  • Src-Specify the source file
  • Two types of scripts
    1. Client scripts: These are scripts executed by the browser.
      Eg: VB Script, Javascript, etc.
    2. Server scripts: These are scripts executed by the server.
      Eg: ASP, JSP, PHP, Perl, etc.
  • The languages that are used to write scripts are known as scripting languages.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 10.
Suppose you have written a JavaScript function named checkData(). You want to execute the function when the mouse pointer is just moved over the button. How will you complete the following to do the same?
<INPUT Type=”button”_____= “checkData()”>
Answer:
<INPUT Type=”button” onMouseEnter = “checkData()”>

Plus Two Computer Application Client-Side Scripting Using JavaScript Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Categorize the following as UpperCamelCase or lowerCamelCase and explain.
(a) DateOfBirth
(b) dateOfJoining
(c) timeOfJoining
(d) PlaceOfBirth
Answer:
a. CamelCase: An identifier does not use special characters such as space hence a single word is formed using multiple words. Such a naming method is called CamelCase (without space between words and all the words first character is in upper case letter).
These are two types

  1. Upper CamelCase: when the first character of each word is capitalised,
  2. lowerCamelCase: when the first character of each word except the first word is capitalised.

b. UpperCamelCase: DateOfBirth, PlaceOfBirth

c. lowerCamelCase: dateOfJoining, timeOfJoining

Question 2.
Explain the method of working of a JavaScript.
Answer:
Every browser has a JavaScript engine. If the code snippet contains JavaScript code, it is passed to the JavaScript engine for processing, the engine executes the code.

If there is no script then it processes without the help of script engine. Hence an HTML file without JavaScript is faster than with JavaScript code.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 3.
Write down the various data types used in JavaScript.
Answer:

  1. Number: Any number(whole or fractional) with or without sign.
    Eg: +1977,-38.0003,-100, 3.14157,etc
  2. String: It is a combination of characters enclosed within double quotes.
    Eg: “BVM”, “[email protected]”, etc
  3. Boolean: We can use either true or false.lt is • case sensitive. That means can’t use TRUE OR
    FALSE

Question 4.
Explain how a variable is declaring in JavaScript.
Answer:
For storing values you have to declare a variable, for that the keyword var is used. There is no need to specify the data type.
Syntax:
var<variable name1 > [, <variable name2>, <variable name3>,etc…]
Here square bracket indicates optional.
Eg: var x, y, z;
x= 11;
y = ”BVM”;
z = false;
Here x is of number type, y is of string and z is of Boolean type.

Question 5.
What are the different ways to add Scripts to a web page?
Answer:
The three different ways to add Scripts as follows

  1. Inside <BODY> section: Scripts can be placed inside the <BODY> section.
  2. Inside <HEAD> section: Scripts can be placed inside the <HEAD> section. This method is widely accepted method
  3. External (another) JavaScript file

We can write scripts in a file and save it as a separate file with the extension .js. The advantage is that this file can be used across multiple HTML files and can be enhance the speed of page loading.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 6.
Create a web page that checks whether a student has passed or not?
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 8
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 9

Question 7.
Create a web page to display the squares of first 10 numbers Sp <HTML>
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 10
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 11

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 8.
Create a web page to display even numbers upto 10.
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 12

Question 9.
Following web page is used to show “Passed” or “Failed” based on a mark. Mark less than 30 is cosidered as failed. There are some errors in the code. Correct them.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 13
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 14

Plus Two Computer Application Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the following declarations
var a, b, c, d;
a= “BVM”;
b=100;
c=true;
d=3.14157;
Predict the output of the following

  1. document.write(typeof(a)); (1)
  2. document.write(typeof(b)); (1)
  3. document.write(typeof(c)); (1)
  4. document.whte(typeof(d)); (1)
  5. document.write(typeof(e)); (1)

Answer:

  1. string
  2. number
  3. boolean
  4. number
  5. undefined

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 2.
Create a web page to print the day of a week
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 15
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 16
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 17

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 3.
What is an operator? Explain in detail.
Answer:
Operators are the symbols used to perform an operation.
1. Arithmetic operators:
It is a binary operator. It is used to perform addition(+), subtraction(-), division (/), multiplication(*), modulus(%-gives the remainder), increment(++) and decrement(—) operations.
Eg. If x=10 and y=3 then
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 18
lf x=10 then
document.write(++x); → It prints 10+1=11
If x=10 then
document.write(x++); → It prints 10 itself.
If x=10 then
document.write(—x); It prints 10-1=9
lf x=10 then
document.write(x—); → It prints 10 itself.

2. Assignment operators:
If a=10 and b=3 then a=b. This statement sets the value of a and b are same, i.e. it sets a to 3.
It is also called short hands If X=10 and Y= 3 then
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 19

3. Relational(Comparison) operators:
It is used to perform comparison or relational operation
between two values and returns either true or false.
Eg: If X=10 and Y=3 then
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 20

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

4. Logical operators:
Here AND(&&), OR(||) are binary operators and NOT(!) is a unary operator. It is used to combine relational operations and it gives either true or false
If X=true and Y=false then
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 21
Both operands must be true to get a true value in the case of AND(&&) operation
If X=true and Y=false then
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 22
Either one of the operands must be true to get a true value in the case of OR(||) operation
If X= true and Y=false then

!X!Y
falsetrue

5. String addition operator(+):
This is also called concatenation operator. lt joins(concatenates)two strings and forms a string.
Eg: var x, y, z;
x= “BVM HSS;
y= “Kalparamba”;
z=x+y;
Here the variable z becomes “BVM HSS Kalparamba”.
Note: If both the operands are numbers then addition operator(+) produces number as a result otherwise it produces string as a result. Consider the following
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 23

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 4.
Write down the control structures used in JavaScript.
Answer:
Control structures in JavaScript. In general the execution of the program is sequential, we can change the normal execution by using the control structures.
1. simple if
Syntax:
if(test expression)
{
statements;
}
First the test expression is evaluated, if it is true then the statement block will be executed otherwise not.

if-else
Syntax:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 24
First the test expression is evaluated, if it is true then the statement block1 will be executed otherwise statement block? will be evaluated.

2. switch
It is a multiple branch statement. Its syntax is
given below.
switch(expression)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 25
First expression evaluated and selects the statements with matched case value.
Eg.
switch (n)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 26

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

3. for loop
If a statement wants to execute more than once.
Loop is used.
for loop is an entry controlled loop.
The syntax of for loop is given below
For(initialisation; testing; updation)
{
Body of the for loop;
}

4. while loop
If a statement wants to execute more than once.
Loop is used.
It is also an entry controlled loop The syntax is given below
Loop variable initialised
while(expression)
{
Body of the loop;
Update loop variable;
}
Here the loop variable must be initialised out side the while loop. Then the expression is evaluated if it is true then only the body of the loop will be executed and the loop variable must be updated inside the body. The body of the loop will be executed until the expression becomes false.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 5.
Write down the different mouse events used in JavaScript.
Answer:
Different mouse events and their description is given below

EventDescription
onClickIt occurs when the user clicks on an object by using mouse
onMouseEnterIt occurs when the mouse pointer is moved onto an object
onMouseLeaveIt occurs when the mouse pointer is moved out of an object
onKeyDownIt occurs when the user presses a key on the keyboard
onKeyUpIt occurs when the user releases a key on the keyboard

Question 6.
Create a web page that displays the capital of a state.
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 27
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 28

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 29

Plus Two Computer Application Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script Let Us Practice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Develop a web page to display the following screen. (3 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 30
User can enter a number in the first text box. On clicking the show button, product of all numbers from 1 to the entered limit should be displayed in the second text box.
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 31
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 32
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 33

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 2.
Develop a web to display the following screen. (5 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 34
User can enter a number in the first text box. On clicking the show button, Even or Odd should be displayed in the second text box depending on whetherthe number is even or odd.
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 35
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 36

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 3.
Develop a web page to display the following screen. (5 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 37
The user can enter an age in the text box. If the user enters an alphabet, instead of a number in the text box, on clicking the show button, it should display a message “Invalid Age” to the user. Otherwise it should display a message “Correct Data”.
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 38
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 39

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 4.
Develop a login page as shown in the following figure. (5 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 40
The page must contain one text box for entering the username and one password box for entering the password. The user name must contain at least 4 characters and the password must contain at least 6 characters. The first two characters in the password must be numbers. On clicking the show button, if the valid data are given in boxes, a message “Correct Data” should be displayed. Otherwise, “Wrong Data” message should be displayed.
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 41
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 42
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 43

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 5.
Develop a web page to implement a simple calculator. The page should have two text boxes to enter two numbers. It should also have 4 buttons to add, subtract, multiply and divide the two numbers. The answer should be displayed in a third text box on clicking the button. The web page should be as shown in the following figure. (5 Mark)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 44
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 45
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 46
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 47

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 48

Plus Two Computer Application Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script Let Us Assess Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the value of the variable z in each of the following. (5 Mark)
(a) var x, y, z;
x = 5;
y = 3;
z = ++x – y—;
Answer:
z = 6 – 3 = 3 Hence z=3.

(b) var x, y, z;
x = ”12″;
y = 13;
z = x+y;
Answer:
z = “12” + 13 = 1213. If one of the operand is a string the two strings concatenates the strings. That is it concatenates two strings.

(c) var x, y, z;
x = 20;
y = 8;
x % = y;
z = x++;
Answer:
x % = y means x = x%y.
that is x= 20 % 8.
i. e. x= 4.
Then z= 4. (x++ first use the value then change).

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

(d) var x, y, z;
x = 1;
y = 4;
z = !(x<y);
Answer:
The answer is false. z = !(1 <4) z = !(true) z = false.

(e) var x, y, z;
x = 5;
y = 6;
Z = (x>y) || (y% 2 == 0);
Answer:
The answer is true.
Steps
z = (5>6) || (6%2==0)
= (false) || (0 == 0)
= (false) || (true)
= true.

Question 2.
Predict the output of the following. (5 Mark)
(a)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 49
Answer:
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 50

(b)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 51
Answer:
The output is 2500.

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

(c)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 52
Answer:
The output is 275.

(d)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 53
Answer:
The output is 120(5 factorial).

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 3.
Following is an html code segment in a web page (1 Mark)
<FORM Name=”frmStud”>
<INPUT Type=”text” Name=”studentName”>
</FORM>
Fill in the blanks to store the value of the text box to the variable n.
var n;
n =______;
Answer:
n = document.frmstud.studentName.value;

Question 4.
Suppose you have written a JavaScript function named checkData(). You want to execute the function when the mouse pointer is just moved over the button. How will you complete the following to do the same? (1 Mark)
<INPUT Type=”button”_____= “checkData()”>
Answer:
<INPUT Type=”button” onMouseEnter= “checkData()”>

Question 5.
Explain <SCRIPT> tag and its attributes. (2 Mark)
Answer:
Scripts are small programs embedded in the HTML pages, to write scripts <SCRIPT> tag is used.
Language attribute specifies the name of the scripting language used.
Example:
<SCRIPT Language=”JavaScript”>
_______
</SCRIPT>

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 6 .
Write the syntax of a built in function in JavaScript. (5 Mark)
Answer:
Built in functions(methods)
1. alert(): This is used to display a message(dialogue box) on the screen.
eg: alert(“Welcome to JS”);

2. isNaN(): To check whether the given value is a number or not. It returns a Boolean value. If the value is not a number(NaN) then this function returns a true value otherwise it returns a false value.
Eg:

  • isNaN(“BVM”); returns true
  • isNaN(8172); returns false
  • isNaN(“680121”); returns false
  • alert(isNaN(8172); displays a message box as false.

3. toUpperCase(): This is used to convert the text to uppercase.
Eg:
var x=“bvm”;
alert(x.toUpperCase());
Output is as follows
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 54

4. toLowerCase(): This is used to convert the text to lower case.
Eg:
var x=“BVM”;
alert(x.toLowerCase());
Output is as follows
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 55

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

5. charAt(): It returns the character at a particular position.
Syntax: variable.charAt(index);
The index of first character is 0 and the second is 1 and so on.
Eg:
var x=”HIGHER SECONDARY”;
alert(x.charAt(4));
Output is as follows
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 56

Eg 2.
var x=”HIGHER SECONDARY”;
alert(“The characters @ first position is “+ x.charAt(0));
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 57

6. length property: It returns the number of characters in a string.
Syntax: variable.length;
Eg.
var x=”HIGHER SECONDARY”;
alert(“The number of characters is “+ x.length);
Output is as follows(note that space is a character)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 58

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 7.
Classify the following values in JavaScript into suitable data types. (3 Mark)
“Welcome”, “123”, “true”, 67.4, .98, false, “hello”
Answer:

  • Number: 67.4 and .98.
  • String: “Welcome”, “123″, “true” and “hello”.
  • Boolean: false.

Question 8.
What is meant by undefined data type in JavaScript mean? (2 Mark)
Answer:
undefined: It is a special data type to represent variables that are not defined using var.

Question 9.
Explain operators in JavaScript. (5 Mark)
Answer:
Operators in JavaScript. Operators are the symbols used to perform an operation
1. Arithmetic operators:
It is a binary operator. It is used to perform add i-tion (+), subtraction(-), division(/), multiplication(*), modulus(%-givesthe remainder), increment(++) and decrement(—) operations. Eg. If x = 10 and y = 3 then
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 59
If x = 10 then
document.write(++x); → It prints 10+1=11
If x = 10 then
document.write(x++); → It prints 10 itself.
If x = 10 then
document.write(—x); It prints 10-1=9
If x = 10 then
document.write(x—);→ It prints 10 itself.

2. Assignment operators:
If a = 10 and b = 3 then a = b. This statement sets the value of a and b are same,i.e. it sets a to 3. It is also called short hands
lf X = 10 and Y = 3 then
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 60

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

3. Relational(Comparison) operators:
It is used to perform comparison or relational operation between two values and returns either true or false.
Eg:
lf X = 10 and Y= 3 then
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 62

4. Logical operators:
Here AND(&&), OR(||) are binary operators and NOT(!) is a unary operator. It is used to combine relational operations and it gives either true or false
If X = true and Y= false then
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 63
Both operands must be true to get a true value in the case of AND(&&) operation If X = true and Y = false then
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 64
Either one of the operands must be true to get a true value in the case of OR(||) operation If X = true and Y = false then

!X!Y
falsetrue

5. String addition operator(+):
This is also called concatenation operator. It joins (concatenates) two strings and forms a string.
Eg:
var x, y, z;
x= “BVM HSS”;
y= “Kalparamba”;
z = x + y;
Here the variable z becomes “BVM HSS Kalparamba”.
Note: If both the operands are numbers then addition operator(+) produces number as a result otherwise it produces string as a result. Consider the following.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 65
Eg:

  • 8(number) + 3(number) = 11 (Result is a number)
  • 8 (number)+ “3”( string) = “83″ (Result is a string)
  • “8” (string) + 3 (number) = “83”(Result is a string)
  • “8” (string) + “3” (string) = “83” (Result is a string).

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 10.
Write JavaScript functions to perform the following (5 Mark)

  1. To check whether a variable N contains a number
  2. To convert the string “scert” to all capitals.
  3. To convert the string “HTML” to all small letters.
  4. To display a message “Welcome to functions”.
  5. To display the third character in the string “Computer”.

Answer:
1.
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 66
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 67

2. <HTML>
<head>
<title>
check
</title>
<SCRIPT Language=”JavaScript”>
function convert()
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Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

3. <HTML>
<head>
<title>
check
</title>
<SCRIPT Language=”JavaScript”>
function convert()
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 69

4. <HTML>
<head>
<title>
check
</title>
<SCRIPT Language=”JavaScript”>
function display()
{
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 70

5. <HTML>
<head>
<title>
check
</title>
<SCRIPT Language=”JavaScript”>
function display()
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Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 11.
Write JavaScript code to display the length of the string “Computer”. (3 Mark)
Answer:
<HTML>
<head>
<title>
length of a string
</title>
</head>
<BODY>
<SCRIPT Language=”JavaScript”>
var str.len;
str=”Computer”;
len=str.length;
alert(“The length of the string Computer is “+len);
</SCRIPT>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 12.
A web page contains a putton. Write HTML code for the button which executes a function Message() on the occurance of the following events. (2 Mark

  1. When a user clicks the mouse on the button.
  2. When user moves the mouse over the button.

Answer:

  1. <input type=”button”value=”Message” onClick=”Message()”>
  2. <inputtype-button”value=”Message” onMouseEnter=”Message()”>

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

Question 13.
What are the advantages of writing JavaScript code in the head section of an HTML page? (2 Mark)
Answer:
Scripts can be placed inside the <HEAD> section. This method is widely accepted method. The main reason for this is that body section contains a large volume of text contents to be displayed on the web page. More over the head section is loaded before the body section.

Question 14.
Design an HTML page that contains a text box to enter the marks in a given subject. (5 Mark)
(a) Write HTML code for this web page
(b) Provide validations for this text box in a separate JavaScript file and link it with the HTML file. The validations are

  • it should not be empty
  • it should be a number
  • it should be between 0 and 60.

(c) List the advantages of writing the script in a separate file.
Answer:
(a)
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 72

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script

(b) Step 1.
Take a Notepad and type the following and save it as check.js.
function checkData()
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 73
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 74

Step 2.
Take another Notepad and type the following and save it as valid.html and execute valid.html file
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 75
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 76

Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script
Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Client-Side Scripting Using Java Script - 77

(c) We can write scripts in a file and save it as a separate file with the extension .js. The advantage is that this file can be used across multiple HTML files and can be enhance the speed of page loading

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Students can Download Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Plus One Digestion and Absorption One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Hepato-pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and carries
(a) Bile
(b) Pancreatic juice
(c) Both bile and pancreatic juice
(d) Saliva
Answer:
(c) Both bile and pancreatic juice

Question 2.
One of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system
(a) Tetanus
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Jaundice
(d) Dysentery
Answer:
(a) Tetanus

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 3.
A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is
(a) Pancreas
(b) Adrenal
(c) Liver
(d) Salivary gland
Answer:
(b) Adrenal

Question 4.
Liver is the largest gland and is associated with various functions, choose one which is not correct
(a) Metabolism of carbohydrate
(b) Digestion of fat
(c) Formation of bile
(d) Secretion of  hormone called gastric
Answer:
(d) Secretion of hormone called gastric

Question 5.
Mark the right statement among the following
(a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme
(b) Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa
(c) Enterokinase is secreted by pancrease
(d) Bile contains trypsin
Answer:
(a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme

Question 6.
The major health and nutritional problems mainly arises due to low amount of minerals and vitamins in diet. Name the two PEMs.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor, Marasmus

Question 7.
Deficiency symptoms of a disease are given below: Identify it.
Thin Limbs, retarded growth of body and brain, swelling of legs due to retention of water (oedema), reddish hair, pot belly and diarrhea.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 8.
Find the set most suitable with “succus entericus”
(a) bilirubin and biliyerdin
(b) salivary amylase and lysozymes
(c) disaccharides, dipeptidases and lipases
(d) Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen procarboxypep-tidases
Answer:
(c) Disaccharides, dipeptidase and lipases

Question 9.
Complete the columns a, b, c, d, e & f

  1. Maltose _______a_______ + ________b_________
  2. Sucrose _______c_______ + ________d_________
  3. Lactose _______e_______ + ________f__________

Answer:

  1. Meltose Glucose + Glucose
  2. Sucrose Glucose + Fructose
  3. Lactose Glucose + Galactose

Question 10.
From this which statement is correct?
(a) Human denititian is heterodont
(b) Fat is soluble in water
(c) Fructose absorbed passively
(d) Small intestine devoid of villi
Answer:
(a) Human dentitian is heterodont

Question 11.
The human intestine is long because
(a) Bacteria in food can be killed gradually
(b) It increases surface are for absorption of food
(c) It provides more space for food storage
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) It increases surface area for absorption of food.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is most suitable for gastrin?
(a) It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.
(b) It stimulates the secretion of bile.
(c) It inhibits gastric gland to produce gastric secretion.
Answer:
(a) It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.

Question 13.
Name the end product of digestion of following?

  1. Starch
  2. Protein

Answer:

  1. Glucose
  2. Amino acids

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Copy the diagram and label the parts.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 1
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 2

Question 2.
A 15 year old boy was admitted in a hospital with severe case of stomach ulcer. At the end of various tests it is found that Mucus glands are absent. Do you agree with this? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Highly concentrated HCL is presented in gastric juice. Mucus from the mucus gland protect the epithelium lining of the stomach from the action of HCL. So the absence of mucus gland cause stomach ulcer.

Question 3.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 3

  1. Name the process (a).
  2. Name the enzyme (b).
  3. Name the product (c).

Answer:

  1. (a) – bile salt – emulsification
  2. (b) – pancreatic lipase
  3. (c) – Glycerol

Question 4.
Distinguish between Renin and Rennin.
Answer:
1. Rennin: A proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins.

2. Renin: It is an enzyme releasing from JGA, when there is a fall in glomerular filtration rate. Renin converts angiotensinogen into antigotensin II and regulate urine formation.

Question 5.
Complete the passage.
Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated into small droplets called _______ which move into intestinal mucosa. They are reformed into very small _______ coated fat globules called _________ which are transported to the __________ in the villi.
Answer:
Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into intestinal mucosa. They are reformed into very small Protein coated fat globules called Chylomicrons which are transported to the lacteals in the villi.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 6.

  1. It is not necessary to produce amylase in an inactive form in our body, but it is not in the case of Trypsin.
  2. In certain circumstances, peptic ulcer are found on the gut wall.

Answer:

1. Proteins are body building molecules. If proteins digesting enzymes are secreted inactive forms, they would hydrolyse the cellular and extracellular proteins of the organism itself. So the protein-digesting enzyme trypsin is secreted in their inactive form.

2. Mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric and intestinal secretion protects the gut wall from the action of HCL and protein-digesting enzymes. In the absence of mucus and bicarbonates, peptic ulcer are found on the gut wall.

Question 7.
Construct a flow chart showing the passage of food through the alimentary canal of man.
Answer:
Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine → Rectum → Anus.

Question 8.
Differentiate between Serosa and Lumen.
Answer:
The outermost layer of the wall of alimentary canal is called serosa. The inner hollow space in the alimentary canal is called lumen.

Question 9.
Find the odd one out and justify your answer.
Salivary gland, milk gland, gastric gland, thyroid gland.
Answer:
Thyroid gland. Thyroid gland is an endocrine gland. All others are exocrine gland.

Question 10.
Give below in bracket are the names of some digestive enzymes group them into A – Gastric, B – Pancreatic and C – Intestinal (Trypsin, Dipeptidase, Rennin, Maltase, Pepsin, Chymotrypsin, Nuclease, Amylase)
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 4

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 11.
Ramu ate boiled rice, what are the changes that it undergoes before being absorbed in the small intestine.
Answer:
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 5

Question 12.
The dental formula of human is represented as \(i \frac{2}{2}\), \(\mathrm{C} \frac{1}{1}, \mathrm{Pm} \frac{2}{2}, \mathrm{m} \frac{3}{3}\). What do i, c, pm, m indicate?
Answer:
i – Incisors, c-Canines, pm – Pre molars, m – Molars

Question 13.
Describe the Diphyodont and Thecodont characteristics of human dentition.
Answer:
1. Thecodont: It is a dentition in which the teeth are placed in the sockets of jawbones.

2. Diphyodont: It is a dentition in which the teeth appear twice in the lifetime of man. They are milk teeth and permanent teeth.

Question 14.
Observe the figure given below and answer the following questions.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 6

  1. ‘x’ is a substance needed for digestion. What is the function of ‘x’?
  2. Name the gastrointestinal hormone responsible for the contraction of gall bladder to release ‘x’.

Answer:

  1. Bile – emulsification
  2. Cholecystokinin

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 15.
Given below are the layers of human gut. Write a flow chart from inner region.
Serosa, mucosa, muscularis, submucosa
Answer:
Mucosa → Submucosa → Muscularis → Serosa

Question 16.
After observing the model of the lumen of human intestine your friend said that “the villi projected into the lumen actually block the movement of food through the intestine, if the villi are absent food can easily pass through the intestine.” How will you respond to this comment?
Answer:
Villi actually decrease the movement of chyme. The function of villi is to increase the surface area of the intestine for the absorption of digested nutrients.

Question 17.
Out of the following list, pick out the enzymes that take part in carbohydrate digestion.
Maltase, Lactase, Sucrase, Peptidase, Salivary amylase, Isomaltase.
Answer:
Maltase, Lactase, Sucrase, Salivary amylase, Isomaltase

Question 18.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 7

  1. Mention the factor ‘x’ involved in the process.
  2. Identify the process and write its importance.

Answer:

  1. Bile salts
  2. Emulsification. The conversion large fat globules into tiny fat droplets is called emulsification. Bile salt helps emulsification. Emulsification increase the surface area for lipase action.

Question 19.
Below are given the names of the enzymes and their source of secretion. Match them.

EnzymesSource of secretion
AmylaseStomach
NucleasePancreas
LipaseSmall intestine
ProteaseSalivary gland

Answer:

EnzymesSource of secretion
AmylaseSalivary gland
NucleaseSmall intestine
LipasePancreas
ProteaseStomach

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 20.
Strong acidic food in the stomach stimulate the secretion of secretin from duodenal wall.

  1. On which part of the digestive tract, secretion act?
  2. What is the role of secreting in digestion?

Answer:

  1. Secretin acts on exocrine part of pancreas.
  2. Secretin stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions from pancreas. It protects the intestinal mucosa from acid as well as provide an alkaline medium for enzymatic activity in intestine.

Question 21.
Fatty chyme in duodenum decreases the speed of peristalsis. How the fatty chyme affects the speed of peristalsis?
Answer:
Fatty chyme in duodenum stimulate the release of GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide Hormone). GIP produced by duodenum, inhibit gastric mobility.

Question 22.
Mention whether the following statements true or false. Justify your answer.

  1. Chymotrypsin is a fat digesting enzyme.
  2. Deglutition occurs in the intestine.
  3. Intestinal juice is also known as succus entericus.
  4. Function of enterokinase is to break peptide bond in proteins.

Answer:

  1. False – It is prominent protein digesting enzyme present in pancreaticjuice.
  2. False – It is the process of swallowing of food . from the pharynx to oesophagus.
  3. True – The collective secretion of intestinal gland is known as intestinal juice or succus entericus.
  4. False – Enteokinase present in succus entericus activates the inactive trypsinogen into active trypsin.

Question 23.
The following diagram shows the action of protein digesting enzymes of pancreas.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 8

(a) Label the number 1, 2 and 3.
(b) Trypsinogen and Chymotrypsinogen are proenzymes (inactive enzymes). Why do they being produced inactive?

Answer:
(a) Label the number 1, 2 and 3.

  1. Enterokinase
  2. Chymotrypsin
  3. Peptides

(b) Trypsin and Chymotrypsin are protein digesting enzyme formed from their respective inactive forms at the time of digestion of the protein food. If they are available all time in active form, they would damage the intestinal wall.

Question 24.
The calorific value of respiratory substrates are different. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, The calorific values of carbohydrates, proteins and fats are 4.1 kcal /g, 5.65 kcal /g and 9.45 kcal /g, respectively.

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Gastric glands are formed of three types of secretory cells. Name them and mention their function.
Answer:

  1. Mucous cell – Secrete mucus
  2. Chief cells – Secrete proteolytic enzyme Pepsin
  3. Parietal cells – Secrete HCL

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 2.
Observe the flow chart and answer the questions.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 9

  1. What is the purpose of micelles in fat absorption?
  2. Identify ‘e’.

Answer:
1. Fatty acids and glycerol being insoluble, cannot be absorbed into the blood. They are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into the intestinal mucosa. Micelles are formed with the help of bile salts and phospholipids,

2. Chylomicrons

Question 3.
Observe and analyse the graph and answer the following questions.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 10

  1. Which region of the alimentary canal has maximum acidic pH?
  2. Why different regions of alimentary canal has different pH How this is maintained?

Answer:
1. Stomach

2. pH is the buccal cavity – in between 6.5 and 7, which is maintained by HCO3 – in the saliva. pH in the stomach is in between 1.8 and 2, which is maintained by HCL, secreted from gastric gland. The pH in the intestine is in between 8 and 9, which is maintained by HCO3– present in the bile and pancreatic juice.

Question 4.
Observe the given diagram.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 11

  1. Identify the parts a, b, c.
  2. If part ‘c’ has removed from a person due to a disease. What will be the changes in the digestive process of that person?

Answer:
1. a – Liver, b – Gall bladder, c – Pancreas

2. If the pancreas is totally removed from a person, he will die in a short period. Even if pancreas is only partially removed it will collapse the digestive process. In addition to this, the body cannot regulate the glucose level in blood.

The digestive juice secreted by pancreas contains three enzymes trypsin, amylase and lipase. Thus if pancreas is removed, the production of digestive enzyme will collapse.

Question 5.
Complete the flow chart.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 12
Answer:
(a) Emulsification
(b) Pancreatic lipase
(c) Fatty acids
(d) Glycerol
(e) Micelles
(f) Chylomicrons

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 6.
Observe the diagram. Complete the boxes A, B and C appropriately.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 13
Answer:

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 14

Question 7.
Observe the diagram.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 15

  1. Identify the ducts A and B.
  2. B is guarded by a sphincter in its opening to duodenum. Name it.
  3. Write any two functions of liver.

Answer:

  1. Ducts A and B are
    • A – Common bile duct
    • B – Hepato – pancreatic duct
  2. Sphincter of Oddi.
  3. Functions of liver are:
    • Production and secretion of bile
    • Production of albumin, Fibrinogen, Prothrombin, etc.
    • Detoxification.

Question 8.
Given the diagram of intestinal villus.
Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 16

  1. Identify the part labelled as ‘a’ and ‘b’ in figure.
  2. Give the function of part ‘a’.
  3. What is the role of ‘b’ in digestion?

Answer:

  1. Identify the part labelled as ‘a’ and ‘b’ in figure
    • ‘a’ Lacteal
    • ‘b’ Crypts of Liberkuhn
  2. Absorption of fat and fat soluble vitamins.
  3. Crypts of Lieberkuhn produce intestinal juice helps in digestion.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 9.
Find the odd one out from each group and justify.

  1. Cardiac, Villi, Fundic, Pyloric
  2. Duodenum, Jejunum, ileum, villi
  3. Parotid, gastric, sublingual, submaxillary

Answer:

1. Villi:
Cardiac, fundic and pyloric are the three major parts of stomach. But villi are small finger like foldings in the intestine.

2. Villi:
Duodenum, jejunum and ileum are three regions of intestine but villi are small finger like foldings inside the intestine.

3. Gastric:
Parotid, Sublingual and submaxillary are three pairs of salivary gland produce saliva. But gastric gland is stomach gland produce gastric juice.

Plus One Digestion and Absorption NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer among the following:

  • Gastricjuice contains
    1. pepsin, lipase and rennin
    2. trypsin, lipase and rennin
    3. trypsin, pepsin and lipase
    4. trypsin, pepsin and rennin
  • Succus entericus is the name given to
    1. a junction between ileum and large intestine
    2. intestinal juice
    3. swelling in the gut
    4. appendix

Answer:

  • Gastricjuice contains
    1. Pepsin, Lipase and Rennin
  • Succus entericus is the name given to
    2. Intestinal Juice

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 2.
Match column I with and Rennin
Column I Column II

Column IColumn II
(a) Bilirubin and biliverdin(i) Parotid
(b) Hydrolysis of starch(ii) Bile
(c) Digestion of fat(iii) Lipases
(d) Salivary gland(iv) Amylases

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

Question 3.
Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?
Answer:
The major portion of absorption takes palce in small intestines. In stomach simple sugars, water and alcohol absorbed. Villi are specialized projections in small intestine with large absorbent area. This facilities better absorbtion of complex molecules as well.

As food is fit to be absorbed only after complete digestion so villi’s turn comes after all the digestive processes are complete.

Question 4.
State the role pancreatic juice in digestion of proteins.
Answer:
The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes – trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypetidases, amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin which in turn activities the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 17

Question 5.
Describe the process of digestion of protein in stomach.
Answer:
The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to hydrochloric acid gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin, the proteolytic enzyme of the stomach. Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 18

Question 6.
Give the dental formula of human beings.
Answer:
Arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper and lower jaw in the order I, C, PM, M is represented by a dental formula which in human is as follows:
\(\frac{2123}{2123}\)

Question 7
Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes, yet it is important for digestion. Why?
Answer:
Bile emulsifies the fat making it easier digest by enzymes. Bile juice also helps inactivation of lipase, the enzyme which digests fat. Additionally, bile converts the acidic chyme to alkaline so that other enzymes can work on food.

Question 8.
Describe the digestive role of chymotrypsin. Which two other digestive enzymes of the same category are secreted by its source gland?
Answer:
Chymotrypsin digests proteins and converts it into dipeptides. Other digestive enzymes of the same category are Trypsin and Carboxypeptidase and they perform similar function.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 9.
Discuss the main steps in the digestion of proteins as the food passes through different parts of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
In the stomach the proenzyme pepsinogen gets converted into pepsin which acts on protein to convert it into peptone.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 19
In small intestine enzymes Chymotrypsin, trypsin and carboxypeptdase do the rest of the digestion of protein.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption - 20

Question 10.
Explain the term thecodont and diphyodont.
Answer:
Thecodont. In human beings each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone. This type of attachment is called the codont.

Diphyodont. Majority of mammals including human beings form two sets of teeth during their life, a set of temporary milk or deciduous teeth replaced by a set of permanent or adult teeth. This type of dentition is called diphyodont.

Question 11.
Name different types of teeth and their number in an adult human.
Answer:
An adult human has 32 permanent teeth which are four different types (Heterodont dentition)

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In intestine, food materials are absorbed through
(a) villi
(b) subtentacular cells
(c) sub-mucosa
(d) gastric glands
Answer:
(a) villi

Question 2.
Diastema refers to
(a) gap between the teeth
(b) gap between tongue and teeth
(c) ciliary cells on alimentary wall
(d) cell lining along pharynx
Answer:
(a) gap between the teeth

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 3.
Pylorus is present between
(a) small and large intestine
(b) pancreas and small intestine
(c) oesophagus and stomach
(d) stomach and duodenum
Answer:
(d) stomach and duodenum

Question 4.
Elephant tusks are
(a) molars
(b) canines
(c) incisors
(d) premolars
Answer:
(c) incisors

Question 5.
Which of the following cells produce HCL
(a) beta-cells
(b) alpha-cells
(c) Oxyntic cells
(d) Chief cells
Answer:
(c) Oxyntic cells

Question 6.
Most abundant mineral of animal body is
(a) iron
(b) sodium
(c) potassium
(d) calcium
Answer:
(d) calcium

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 7.
Bile salts act as activator of which enzyme?
(a) Pepsinogen
(b) Trypsinogen
(c) Lipase
(d) Pancreatic amylase
Answer:
(c) Lipase

Question 8.
When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from
(a) marasmus
(b) rickets
(c) kwashiorkor
(d) pellagra
Answer:
(a) marasmus

Question 9.
Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?
(a) protein and starch
(b) Starch and fat
(c) fat and cellulose
(d) Starch and cellulose
Answer:
(c) fat and cellulose

Question 10.
A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother’s milk, which is white in colour but the stools, which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. This yellow colour is due to
(a) intestinal juice
(b) bile pigments passed through bile juice
(c) undigested milk protein casein
(d) pancreaticjuice poured into duodenum
Answer:
(b) bile pigments passed through bile juice

Question 11.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?
(a) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
(b) Fructose and amino acids arc abosrbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+
(c) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries
(d) About 60°o of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
Answer:
(c) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 12.
Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in
(a) oesophagus
(b) ileum
(c) pancreas
(d) duodenum
Answer:
(d) duodenum

Question 13.
FAD is a coenzyme derived from
(a) riboflavin
(b) vitamin-B12
(c) thiamine
(d) niacin
Answer:
(b) vitamin-B12

Question 14.
The pH of the digestive juices within the human small intestine is between 7.5 and 8.5. This environment is slightly.
(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) neutral
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) basic

Question 15.
Lipids, which can be found in oil based salad dressings and ice cream, during digestion are splitted into
(a) fatty acids and glycerol
(b) glycerol and amino acids
(c) glucose and fatty acids
(d) glucose and amino acids
Answer:
(a) fatty acids and glycerol

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 16.
Crypts of Leiberkuhn are involved in
(a) secretion of succus entericus
(b) secretion of rennin
(c) secretion of ptyalin
(d) digestion of food
Answer:
(a) secretion of succus entericus

Question 17.
Which of the following is an organic molecule needed by the body in small amounts?
(a) Protein
(b) Zinc
(c) Vitamin-C
(d) Monosaccharide
Answer:
(c) Vitamin-C

Question 18.
Which one is not true about vitamins?
(a) Vitamins are organic catalysts
(b) Vitamins are indispensable for life
(c) Vitamins act as a source of energy
(d) Tocopherol is anti-sterility vitamin
Answer:
(c) Vitamins act as a source of energy

Question 19.
The malnutrition disease in man is
(a) Cridu chat syndrome
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Potbelly syndrome
(d) Edward’s syndrome
Answer:
(c) Potbelly syndrome

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Question 20.
The process of resynthesis of food materials from simpler food molecules is called
(a) biosynthesis
(b) catabolism
(c) absorption
(d) assimilation
Answer:
(a) biosynthesis

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Students can Download Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which organelle is not a part of the endomembrane system?
(a) lysosome
(b) vacuole
(c) mitochondria
(d) Golgi complex
Answer:
(c) mitochondria

Question 2.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in cells which synthesise
(a) steroids
(b) proteins
(c) carbohydrates
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) steroids

Question 3.
The type of ribosome found in prokaryotes is
(a) 70 S
(b) 80 S
(c) 60 S
(d) 50 S
Answer:
(a) 70 S

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 4.
Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane in 1972?
(a) Singer and Nicolson
(b) Rober Hooke
(c) Rrobertsons model
(d) Camilo golgi
Answer:
(a) Singer and Nicolson

Question 5.
An organelle with internal cross section showing the characteristic 9 + 2 arrays is
(a) microtubule
(b) microfilament
(c) cilia and flagellum
(d) tubulin
Answer:
(c) cilia and flagellum

Question 6.
Smaller, lipid-soluble molecules diffuse faster through cell membrane, but the movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by certain biomolecules named as ____________
Answer:
Proteins.

Question 7.
Name the cell organelle rich in acid hydrolase.
Answer:
Lysosome

Question 8.
Name the stacked particle present on the inner sur¬face of inner mitochondrial membrane.
Answer:
Oxysomes

Question 9.
Give the chemical nature of ribosomes.
Answer:
rRNAs and proteins

Question 10.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill up the blanks.

  1. Mitochondria: Cristae
    Chloroplast: ……….
  2. Moss: Capsule
    Fern: ………….

Answer:

  1. Grana
  2. Sporangium

Question 11.
Mark the odd one out.

  1. Nucleus; Nucleoli; Centriole; Chromosome
  2. Family, class, taxon, phylum

Answer:

  1. Centriole
  2. Taxon

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 12.
Name the protein associated with chromosomes.
Answer:
Histones

Question 13.
The cell wall of Bacterium is made up of
(a) Cellulose
(b) Hemi cellulose
(c) Lignin
(d) Peptidoglycan
Answer:
(d) Peptidoglycan.

Question 14.
ETS is associated with F0-F1 particles and many respiratory enzymes. What is the role of F0-F1 particles in mitochondria?
Answer:
ATP synthesis

Question 15.
Why is nucleus called the director of the cell?
Answer:
It controls and coordinates all the cellular functions.

Question 16.
What will you call a cell not having ER, Golgi body, mitochondria, nuclear membrane, etc.
Answer:
Prokaryotic cell

Question 17.
Which organelles are called ribonucleoprotein particles of the cell?
Answer:
Ribosome

Question 18.
Name which cell organelle is associated with secretory activity.
Answer:
Golgi body

Question 19.
Identify the powerhouse of a cell. Give justification.
Answer:
Mitochondria – synthesis of ATP

Question 20.
Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?
(a) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria
(b) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA
(d) Membrane-bound organelles are present
Answer:
(a) lt has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria.

Question 21.
Which of the following statements is true for a secretory cell?
(a) Golgi apparatus is absent
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell
(c) Only Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is present
(d) Secretory granules are formed in nucleus.
Answer:
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell

Question 22.
Name the compound which gives fluidity and functional specificity to biomembranes.
Answer:
Fluidy by lipids and functional specificity by proteins

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 23.
Which of the following is correct?

  1. Cells of all living organisms have a definite nucleus
  2. Both animal and plant cells have a well-defined cell wall.

Answer:

  1. false
  2. false

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
While studying the stages of meiosis following features observed at one stage.

  1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
  2. Formation of synaptonemal complex. Identify the stage.

Answer:

  1. Zygotene
  2. Pachytene

Question 2.
Make a list of organelles that function as the cytoskeleton.
Answer:
The endoplasmic reticulum, microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate fibers.

Question 3.
Name two cell organelles that are double membrane-bound. Write the main functions of each.
Answer:

  1. Chloroplast- Photosynthesis
  2. Mitochondria – cellular respiration

Question 4.
Name the cell organelles in the cell which act as the following.

  1. Protein factories
  2. Powerhouse
  3. Disposal unit
  4. Control centres

Answer:

  1. Ribosome
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Lysosomes
  4. Nucleus

Question 5.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img1
Answer:
1) Ribosome – 70S
2) Porin – Protein
3) Lignin – Secondary wall
4) Nucleus – Chromosome

Question 6.
Bacterial cell envelope is a complex structure. It is made up of various layers. Name the different layers in the Bacterial cell envelope.
Answer:
Glycocalyx, cell wall, and plasma membrane.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 7.
Pick up the odd one and state reason for your answer.
Golgi bodies, Nucteolus, Nucleus, Lysosome.
Answer:
Nucleolus. Remaining three are major cell organells seen in cytoplasm.

Question 8.
Mitochondria is called powerhouse of the cell. Comment.
Answer:
Mitochondria are the centres of production, storage, and distribution of energy for various metabolic activities of cell.

Question 9.
Table which shows a comparison of cell organisation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Complete the table.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img2
Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img3

Question 10.
Observe the diagrams of two different phases of mitosis given below and write their names..
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img4
Answer:

  • A- Metaphase
  • B – Anaphase

Question 11.
Interphase in cell cycle is referred to as resting phase. Do you consider this statement true? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
No. Synthesis of DNA, RNA & Protein occurs hence it is active stage.

Question 12.
Some statements related to certain cell organelles are given in column A. Identify the organelles and give their names correctly against each statement in column B.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img5
Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img6

Question 13.
How RER is different from SER?
Answer:

  1. RER – Rough endoplasmic reticulum
    Contains ribosomes – protein synthesis
  2. SER – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    Devoid of ribosome – lipid synthesis & storage

Question 14.
Most accepted model of Biomembrance is best referred as ‘Protein Icebergs in the sea of Lipid”.

  1. Name the most accepted structural model for the Biomembrane.
  2. Who proposed it?

Answer:

  1. Fluid mosaic model
  2. Singer & Nicholson

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 15.
Functions and names of organells are given below arrange them into a table.
Mitochondria, Endoplasic reticulum, Ribosome, Chloroplast, protein synthesis, storage of energy, cytoskeleton, photosynthesis.
Answer:

  • Mitochondria – Storage of energy
  • Endoplasmic reticulum – Cytoskeleton
  • Ribosome – Protein synthesis
  • Chloroplast – Photosynthesis

Question 16.
Identify the given diagram. Copy and label the parts.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img7
Answer:

  • 1 – Stroma
  • 4 – Fret channels

Question 17.
Match the following.

AB
CristaeChloroplast
ZygoteneGolgi apparatus
MesosomeSynapsis
ThylakoidMitochondria
CisternaePlasma membrane

Answer:

CristaeMitochondria
ZygoteneSynapsis
MesosomePlasma membrane
ThylakoidChloroplast
CisternaeGolgi apparatus

Question 18.
Different types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere are given below.

  1. Classify them with necessary explanation.
  2. What is the peculiarity of the chromosome “C”?

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img8
Answer:
1.

  • A – Acrocentric chromosome – The centromere is near the end of the chromosome.
  • B – Sub-metacentric chromosome – the centromere is near the middle of the chromosome.
  • C – Metacentric chromosome – The centromere is at the middle of the chromosome,

2. It has both secondary constriction and a satellite.

Question 19.
Name the organelles which act as the following.

  1. cell’s circulatory system
  2. protein factories
  3. powerhouse
  4. disposal units
  5. control centres

Answer:

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Ribosomes
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Lysosomes
  5. Nucleus

Question 20.
Different types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere are given below. Classify them with necessary explanation. What is the peculiarity of the chromosome “D”?
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img9
Answer:

  1. A- metacen trie – media nee centromere/Satel I ite chromosome.
  2. B – sub metacentric – centromere just away from median position
  3. C – acrocentric
  4. D – Telocentric – Centromere close to the end or terminal

Question 21.
Membrane-bound distinct structures are called organelle. An organelle that is not bounded by membrane is seen in the chloroplast and mitochondria.

  1. Identify cell organelle.
  2. Write down its functions.

Answer:

  1. Ribosome
  2. Protein synthesis

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 22.
Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in ascending order of their size. Choose the correct option among the following.
i. Mycoplasma
ii. Ostrich eggs
iii. Human RBC
iv. Bacteria
Answer:
i – iv – iii – ii

Question 23.
Is extra genomic DNA present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? If yes, indicate their location in both the types of organisms.
Answer:
It is present in cytoplasm of prokaryotes called plasmids

Question 24.
The genomic content of the nucleus is constant for a given species whereas the extrachromosomal DNA is found to be variable among the members of a population. Explain.
Answer:

  • Transfer of hereditary characters from one generation to next takes place with the help of nucleus. But
  • extrachromosomal DNA is not under the control of nuclear DNA its copy number varies in different organism.

Question 25.
Briefly give the contributions of the following scientists in formulating the cell theory.

  1. Robert Virchow
  2. Schielden and Schwann

Answer:

  1. Omnis cellula-e-cellular means new cells arise from pre-existing cells. It is the contribution of Rudolf Virchow.
  2. They have independently formulated the concept of cell theory i.e all cells are composed of cells and their products.

Schielden and Schwann-botanist and zoologist respectively.

Question 26.
Since the functions of certain membranous organelles are coordinated they are considered together as endomembrane system. Name the organelles included in this group.
Answer:
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, Lysosome, and vacuole.

Question 27.
An organelle is called “The powerhouse of the cell”

  1. Name the organelle.
  2. Why is it said so?

Answer:

  1. Mitochondria
  2. Here the Energy (ATP) production, storage, and distribution takes place. So it is called a powerhouse of the cell.

Question 28.
The fluid mosaic model is a widely accepted model of cell membrance. Why?. Who proposed this model?
Answer:
It is the model of the plasma membrane consists of proteins and phospholipid bilayer. It is otherwise known as protein and iceberg in a sea of lipids. Singer and Nicolson

Question 29.
Match the column A, B & C Appropriately
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img10
Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img11

Question 30.
A non-membrane cell organelles is common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

  1. Which is that cell organelle?
  2. What is its function?

Answer:

  1. Ribosome
  2. It helps in protein synthesis. Ribosome is the protein synthesising machinery in both prokaryotes & Eukaryotes.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 31.
While looking through the microscope Ramesh saw few organisms. Help him to distinguish these organisms into Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
Answer:

  • Prokaryotic organisms are single celled but without definite nucleus.
  • Eukaryotic organisms are many celled with definite nucleus.

Question 32.
Cancer cells have numerous ribosomes’ Comment.
Answer:
Cancer cells undergoes uncontrolled and unwanted multiplication. It requires protein in large amounts. Hence numerous ribosomes are found in cancer cells.

Question 33.

AB
a. Ribosomesphotosynthesis
b. Golgi Apparatushydrolytic enzymes
c. Lysosomesprotein synthesis
d. Plastidsglycolipids

Answer:

AB
Ribosomesprotein synthesis
Gogi apparatusGlycolipids
LysosomeHydrolytic enzyme
PlastidsPhotosynthesis

Question 34.
What is a tonoplast?
Answer:

  1. Outer membrane of mitochondria
  2. Inner membrane of chloroplast
  3. Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells
  4. Cell membrane of a plant cell
  5. Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells

Question 35.
What structural and functional attributes must a cell have to be called a living cell?
Answer:
Living cell must possess cell membrane and protoplasm (cytoplasm and nucleus)

Question 36.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention its function?
Answer:

  • Mesosome is the infoldings of plasma membrane of gram +bacteria.
  • Respiration, wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells

Question 37.
Multicellular organisms have division of labour Explain.
Answer:
In multicellular organisms .different cells become specialized in their structure to perform a specialized function by coordinating to form different types of tissues that coordinate to form different organs. Each organ is specialized to perform a specific function.

Question 38.
Give the significance of osmosis.
Answer:
It helps in the absorption of water by roots, opening, and closing of stomata, seed germination, etc.

Question 39.
Why is ER called cell circulatory system?
Answer:
Because it helps in transportation of materials between cytoplasm and nuclueus.

Question 40.
What are thylakoids? Why are these called structural and funcional unit of chloroplasts?
Answer:

  • They are oval shaped sacs which lie superimposed in the stroma of chloroplast to form grana.
  • These have enzymes for photochemical reactions of photosynthesis as have chlorophyll-containing quatasomes.

Question 41.
Name two cell-organelles that are double membrane-bound. What are the characteristics of these two organelles? State their functions.
Answer:
Golgi body and Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
1. Golgi body:

  • It perform the function of packaging materials.
  • The site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

2. Endoplasmic reticulum:

  • RER type involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
  • SER is the major site of synthesis of lipids.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 42.
In some bacteria cell envelope consists of loose layer but in others, it appears as thick and tough layer. Name the two types of layers.
Answer:

  • Loose layer – slime layer
  • Thick and tough layer – Capsule

Question 43.
Phospho lipid bilayer with peripheral and integral proteins are arranged and forms quasifluid nature is found in almost all organisms.

  1. Which is the best method explains the above statement?
  2. Give its function.

Answer:

  1. Fluid mosaic concept
  2. Transport of molecules

Question 44.
The cross-section of cilia/flagella shows 9 + 2 arrangement and 9 + 0 in centriole.

  1. What is the difference between the above two arrangements?
  2. What is the function of cilia and centriole?

Answer:

  1. In first case 9 doublet fibrils with 2 singlet fibrils and in the second case 9 triplet fibrils but no central fibrils
  2. cilia helps in locomotion and centriole helps in assembly of spindle apparatus.

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do neutral solutes move to cross the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecule also move across it in the same way? If not then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
1. Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane by diffusion along the concentration gradient.

2. Polar molecule cannot move across it in the same way. Polar molecules require a carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane.

3. Some ions or molecules are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient, which is an energy-dependent process. It is called active transport.

Question 2.
When a 5% glucose solution and an 8%glucose solution are separated by a semipermeable membrane, explain

  1. Which solution has a greater osmotic pressure
  2. In which direction osmosis occurs
  3. Which solution will increase in volume

Answer:

  1. 8% glucose solution
  2. 5 – 8% glucose solution
  3. 8% glucose solution

Question 3.
Structure of a chloroplast is given below. Write the parts in the place of numbers.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img12
Answer:

  1. Stroma
  2. Lamella
  3. Granum
  4. Fret
  5. Periplastidial space

Question 4.
Differentiate the following terms:

  1. Polysome and Mesosome
  2. Amyloplast and Aleuroplast
  3. RER and SER

Answer:
1. Polysome contains ribosome – Protein synthesis
Mesosome – cellular respiration

2. Aleuroplast-store Protein
Amyloplast – store Starch

3. RER- Rough endo plasmic reticulum
SER – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 5.
Match the terms in column A & B.

AB
1. Polyribosome1. Peroxisomes
2. Oxysomes2. Lysosomes
3. Photorespiration3. Centiole
4. Grana4. Protein synthesis
5. Acid hydrolysis5. Thylakoids
6. Spindle fibres6. Cristae

Answer:

AB
Polyribosomeprotein synthesis
Oxysomescristae
Photorespirationperoxisomes
Granathylakoids
Acid hydrolaseslysosomes
Spindle fiberscentriole

Question 6.
Match the following.
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img13
Answer:
Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life img14

Question 7.
Identify the statement given below is true /false.

  1. Robert Brown discovered cell.
  2. Schleiden and 9chwann formulated cell theory.
  3. Virchow explained that cells are formed from preexisting cells.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. True

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 8.
Some cell organells are given below Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, mitochondria, chloroplast, vacuole, lysosome, microbodies, and centriole

  1. Identify the cell organelles belongs to the endomembrane system.
  2. Differentiate the cell organelles into membrane-bound and non-membrane bound.
  3. which is the cell organelle only found in animal cell but not in a plant cells.

Answer:
1. Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex .vacuole, lysosome
2.

Membrane-boundnon-membrane-bound
Endoplasmic reticulum

Golgi complex

Mitochondria

Chloroplast

Vacuole

Lysosome

Centriole

3. centriole

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.
(b) Schleiden and Schwann formulated the cell theory.
(c) Virchow explained that cells are formed from preexisting cells.
(d) A unicellular organism carries out its life activities within a single cell.
Answer:
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.

Question 2.
Match the following.

Column IColumn II
a) Cristaei) Flat membranous sacs in the stroma
b) Cistenaeii) Infoldings in mitochondria
c) Thylakoidsiii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus

Answer:

Column IColumn II
a) Cristae.i) Infoldings in mitochondria
b) Cristinaii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
c) Thylakoidsiii) Flat membranous sacs in the stroma

Question 3.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention the functions that it performs.
Answer:
In prokaryotes, the extension of plasma membrane into cell makes a membranous structure called mesosoma. They help in cell wall formation and DNA replication.

Question 4.
How do neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecules also move across it in the same way? If not, then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane through osmosis. On the other hand, polar molecules cannot pass through the non-polar membrane. They require a carrier protein to help them to move across the membrane. Such transport requires energy and is called active transport.

Question 5.
What is stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves. Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange. Each stomata is composed of two bean-shaped cells known as guard cellls. In grasses, the guard cells are dumbbell-shaped.

The outer walls of guard cells (away from the stomatal pore) are thin and the inner walls (towards the stomatal pore) are highly thickened. The guard cells possess chloroplasts and regulate the opening and closing of stomata.

Question 6.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) cells of all living organisms have a nucleus.
(b) Both animal and plant cells have a well-defined cell wall.
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles.
(d) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials.
Answer:
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 7.
New cells generate from
(a) bacterial fermentation
(b) regeneration of old cells
(c) pre-existing cells
(d) abiotic materials
Answer:
(c) Pre-existing cells

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one is single membrane cell organelle?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(c) Lysosomes

Question 2.
The main function of lysosome is
(a) sexual reproduction
(b) extracellular digestion
(c) intracellular digestion
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 3.
Endoplasmic reticulum is in continuation with
(a) Golgi body
(b) nuclear wall
(c) mitochondria
(d) cell wall
Answer:
(b) nuclear wall

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a function of vacuole in plant cell?
(a) Storage
(b) Waste disposal
(c) Cell elongation and protection
(d) Production of hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
(c) Cell elongation and protection

Question 5.
The ATP synthase of chloroplasts is like that of
(a) peroxisomes
(b) Golgi body
(c) microsomes
(d) mitochondria
Answer:
(d) mitochondria

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 6.
Fat is stored in the plant cell in
(a) lysosome
(b) spherosome
(c) microsome
(d) peroxisome
Answer:
(b) spherosome

Question 7.
F1 -particles comprise of
(a) head and base
(b) base and stalk
(c) head and stalk
(d) head, base, and stalk
Answer:
(a) head and base

Question 8.
Term basal body is associated with the development of
(a) cilia and flagella
(b) cell plate
(c) phragmoplast
(d) kinetochore
Answer:
(a) cilia and flagella

Question 9.
Golgi body receives materials from
(a) lysosome
(b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) mitochondria
(d) cell membrane
Answer:
(b) endoplasmic reticulum

Question 10.
Quantasomes are found in
(a) mitochondria
(b) chloroplast
(c) lysosome
(d) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
(b) chloroplast

Question 11.
The term mitochondria was given by
(a) Benda
(b) Altmann
(c) Palade
(d) de Duve
Answer:
(a) Benda

Question 12.
The prokaryotic cell does not contain
(a) chromosome
(b) mitochondria
(c) plasma membrane
(d) ribosome
Answer:
(b) mitochondria

Question 13.
Organelle important in spindle formation during nuclear division is
(a) Golgi body
(b) chloroplast
(c) centriole
(d) mitochondrion
Answer:
(c) centriole

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 14.
The surface of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is covered with
(a) ribosome
(b) DNA
(c) RNA
(d) glucose
Answer:
(a) ribosome

Question 15.
Spindles are formed by
(a) microtubules
(b) golgi body
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) peroxisome
Answer:
(a) microtubules

Question 16.
In plants, vacuole contains
(a) soil
(b) water and dissolved substance
(c) cytoplasm
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) water and dissolved substance

Question 17.
Which cell organelle is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell?
(a) Ribosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) ER
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Ribosome

Question 18.
Cilia are
(a) short (5-10 pm) hair-like narrow protoplasmic process
(b) with sweeping or bendular movements
(c) more numerous
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 19.
Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chioroplasts and mitochondria is based on
(a) proton gradient
(b) accumulation of K ions
(c) accumulation of Na ions
(d) membrane potential
Answer:
(a) proton gradient

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Question 20.
An organism exclusively with 70S type of ribosomes contains one of the following
(a) DNA enclosed within the nuclear membrane
(b) circular naked DNA
(c) double-stranded DNA with protein coat
(d) single-stranded DNA with protein coat
Answer:
(b) circular naked DNA