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Students can Download Chapter 11 Marketing Management Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Marketing Management

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
It begins even before production of goods and continues even after the sale has taken place. Identify it.
Answer:
Marketing

Question 2.
Modern Marketing Concept Consist of ………………………………
Answer:
Customer satisfaction

Question 3.
Main focus of production concept of marketing is: …………………………
Answer:
Quantity/number of products

Question 4.
means putting identification marks on the package.
Answer:
Labelling

Question 5.
“Mousy cola” a soft drink company used ‘Apple’ as their symbol for advertisement. They duly registered the symbol as per the Act. Identify the symbol as …………….
Answer:
Trademark

Question 6.
When a brand gets registerd and legalized it is called
(a) Branding
(b) Trademark
(c) Copyright
(d) Label
Answer:
(b) Trademark

Question 7.
Setting up of standards or specification of a product and maintaining these standards are ………….
Answer:
Standardisation

Question 8.
“Grand Kerala shopping festival” is concerned with which of the promotion techniques?
(a) Publicity
(b) Advertising
(c) Sales promotion
(d) Personal selling
Answer:
(c) Sales promotion

Question 9.
During Gnam season Khadi Board declared 20% reduction on all its product. This technique is known as ……..
(a) Refund
(b) Free gift
(c) Rebate
(d) Samples
Answer:
(c) Rebate

Question 10.
Which of the following is not included in the sales promotion technique.
(a) Coupon
(b) Samples
(c) Fair and exhibition
(d) Personal selling
Answer:
(d) Personal selling

Question 11.
Face to face interaction between the seller and the prospective buyer for the purpose of making a sale is …………
(a) Promotion
(b) Public Relations
(c) Personal Selling
(d) Grape – Vine Communication
Answer:
(c) Personal Selling

Question 12.
Identify four P’s in marketing mix.
Answer:

1. Product
2. Price
3. Place and
4. Promotion

Question 13.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:
Price, Promotion

Question 14.
Nonpersonal paid form of sales promotion technique is ………………
(Advertising, Personal Selling, Trade, Marketing)
Answer:
Advertisement

Question 15.
Nonpersonal non paid form of sales promotion technique is …………
Answer:
Publicity

Question 16.
which is not a method of publicity?
(a) News
(b) Medias
(c) Conferences
(d) Exhibitions
Answer:
(d) Exhibitions

Question 17.
Rebate, discount, free gift, etc. are the examples of …………..
Answer:
Sales promotion techniques

Question 18.
Offering more quantity than the quantity recorded in package is called …………
Answer:
Quantity gift

Question 19.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 20.
What is meant by ‘place’ in marketing mix?
Answer:
Distribution channel, Physical distribution

Question 21.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:
Publicity, Sales promotion

Question 22.
Compensation provided by the buyer to the seller is called ………………….
Answer:
Price

Question 23.
Intermediaries in channel of distribution are given below. Draw appropriate channel.
(a) Producer
(b) Agent
(c) Wholesaler
(d) Retailer
(e) Consume

1. Zero level channel
2. One level channel
3. Two level channel
4. Three level channel

Answer:

1. a → e
2. a → d → e
3. a → c → d → e
4. a → b → c → d → e

Question 24.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:
Warehousing, Inventory control

Question 25.
What are the different layers of packages?

Answer:

1. Primary package
2. Secondary package
3. Transportation package

Question 26.
Which is not suitable for good brand name?
(a) It is easy to read and speak.
(b) Similar to existing brand names.
(c) Can be written in various languages.
(d) It can be registered as trademark.
Answer:
(b) Similar to existing brand names

Question 27.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) Trademark – Registered brand
(b) Brand name – ……………….
(c) Brand mark – ……………….
Answer:
(b) Indicate the product name
(c) Symbol or word or combination of both which indicate a product.

Question 28.
Make suitable pairs from the following.
(a) Production concept – (a) Quality products
(b) Product concept – (b) Sales promotion techniques
(c) Sales concept – (c) Customer satisfaction
(d) Marketing concept – (d) Maximum production
Answer:
(a) Production concept – (d) Maximum production
(b) Product concept – (a) Quality products
(c) Sales concept – (b) Sales promotion techniques
(d) Marketing concept – (c) Customer satisfaction

Question 29.
Differentiate the given concepts in an appropriate way.

Answer:

Question 30.
Buying a product by spending a lot of time and effort is called ………………..
Answer:
Speciality products

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 31.
Explain the concept of ‘Market’.
Answer:
Market: It refers to a place where the buyers and sellers meet each other for sale and purchase of the commodity.

Question 32.
Define Marketing.
Answer:
Marketing:
Marketing may be defined as all activities that are facilitating the movement of goods and services from producer to the ultimate consumer.

Question 33.
What do you mean by Marketing Mix?
Answer:
Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Question 34.
Super Bakers intended to introduce a new brand of Bread in the market. Lists out the factors to be taken into account while deciding the labelling of the product.
Answer:
Labelling means putting identification marks on the package. It is a simple tag attached to the product.
Functions of Labelling:

1. It describes the product, its usage, cautions in use, etc. and specify its contents.
2. It helps in identifying the product.
3. It helps grading the products into different categories.
4. It helps in promotion of products.
5. It provides information required by law.

Question 35.
Distinguish between advertisement and publicity.
Answer:

Question 36.
Write a short note on

1. Consumer goods
2. Industrial goods

Answer:
1. Consumers’ products:
Products, which are purchased by the ultimate consumers for satisfying their personal needs and wants are referred to as consumer products. Consumer products are classified as:

• Shopping efforts involved
• Durability of products

2. Industrial Products:
Industrial products are those products, which are used as inputs in producing other products. The examples of such products are raw materials, engines, lubricants, machines, tools, etc.
Types of industrial products:

1. Materials and Parts – These include goods that enter the manufacture’s products completely.
2. Capital Items – These goods are used in the production of finished goods.
3. Supplies and Business Services – These are short lasting goods and services that facilitate developing or managing the finished product.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 37.
Customer is the King in the Modern concept of marketing. Explain.
Answer:
According to modem marketing concept, the producer gives more importance to the tastes and needs of the consumer. The objective of modem marketing is maximum profit through consumer satisfaction. Now a days, producers produce products according to the needs of the customers. Consumer is the key to marketing and hence consumer is the king.

Question 38.

1. What do you mean by Product Mix?
2. Explain its elements.

Answer:
1. Product:
Product may be defined as anything that can be offered to a market to satisfy a want or need. Products may broadly be classified into two categories.
2. Elements:

• Consumers products
• Industrial products

Question 39.
Why Packaging is called as a silent salesman?
Answer:
Packaging is called as a silent salesman because attractive packing encourages people to buy a product just like a salesman.

Question 40.
Explain promotion mix.
Answer:
Promotion Mix:
Promotion mix refers to combination of promotional tools such as Advertising, Personal Selling, Sales Promotion, and Publicity used by an organisation to achieve its communication objectives.

Question 41.

1. What do you mean by Public Relation?
2. State any three features of public relations.

Answer:
1. Public Relation:
It can be defined as publicity through media. The basic purpose of public relation is to create successful relation with the public. It helps to keep different public group satisfied. In order to create public image, the public relation department uses various tools such as.

2. Features of public relations:

• News
• Speeches
• Events
• Written materials
• Public service activities, etc.

Question 42.
‘‘Marketing Mix represents a blending of decisions in four interrelated elements.” Explain.
Answer:
Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 43.
In a classroom debate ‘Smitha’ argues that marketing and selling are same. But ‘Sujith’ argues that marketing and selling are different.

1. Whose argument is relevant?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Sujith’s argument is correct.
2. Marketing and selling are different. The differences between marketing and selling are

Question 44.
There are four elements which constitute the core of a marketing system.

1. Suggest a suitable term to describe those elements.
2. Explain any three elements.

Answer:
1. Marketing mix
2. Marketing Mix: It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

Elements / 4 P’s of Marketing Mix:
1. Product:
Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market for sale. The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.

2. Price:
Price is the amount of money paid by the customers to pay to obtain the product. In most of the products, price affects the demand of the products. Desired profits, cost of production, competition, demands, etc. must be considered before fixing the price of a product.

3. Place:
Place or Physical Distribution includes activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers, storage, warehousing and transportation of goods from the place of production to the place of consumption.

4. Promotion:
Promotion includes activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. It includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity to promote the sale of products.

Question 45.
“It rightly says that packaging works as silent salesman”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Packaging is the process of enclosing a product in containers, bottles, boxes, plastic bags, tubes, etc. Packaging protects the product from spoilage, breakage, leakage, etc. while goods in transit or storing in warehouses.

Functions of packaging:

• Packaging helps in identification of the products.
• Packaging protects the product from spoilage, breakage, leakage, etc.
• It facilitates easy transfer of goods to customers.
• Packaging provides convenience in the storage of the product.
• It attracts the consumers to purchase the product.

Question 46.
These are various channel levels which help in the proper distribution of goods from the producers to the consumers. Identify the channel levels.
Answer:
Types of Channels:

1. Direct channel (Zero level): Producer → Consumer
2. One level channel: Producer → Retailer → Consumer
3. Two level channel: Producer → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer
4. Three level channel: Producer → Agent → Wholesaler → Retailer → Consumer

Question 47.

1. What do you mean by Physical distribution?
2. Explain its components.

Answer:
1. Physical Distribution:
Physical distribution covers all the activities required to physically move goods from manufacturers to the customers.

2. Components of Physical Distribution:

• Order Processing
• Transportation
• Warehousing
• Inventory Control

Question 48.
What are the features of Salesmanship?
Answer:
Personal Selling:
Personal selling involves face to face contact between the seller and prospective customer with an intension of selling some products. It is a personal form of communication.

Features of Personal Selling:

1. It is a direct presentation of the product to the consumers.
2. Develop personal relationships with the prospective customers.
3. The sales presentation can be adjusted according to the specific needs of the individual customers.
4. It is possible to take a direct feedback from the customer.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 49.
Explain different concepts of marketing.
Answer:
Marketing Concepts:
1. The Production Concept:
This concept believed that profits could be maximised by producing at large scale, thereby reducing the cost of production. Here greater emphasis was given on improving the production and distribution.

2. The Product Concept:
According to this concept quality of the product is more important than quantity. Product improvement became the key to profit maximisation of a firm, under the concept of product orientation.

3. The Selling Concept:
This concept focuses on the sale of products through aggressive selling and promotional techniques to persuade the buyers to buy the products.

4. The Marketing Concept:
Marketing concept implies that focus on the satisfaction of customer’s needs is the key to the success of any organisation in the market. Customer’s satisfaction becomes the focal point of all decision making in the organisation.

5. The Societal Marketing Concept:
This concept stresses not only the customer satisfaction but also gives importance to the welfare of the society.

Question 50.
Following are the statements pertaining to functions performed in marketing. Identify the function of marketing from each statement.

1. Physical movement of goods from one place to another.
2. Holding goods from the time of production till the time of their sale.
3. Collection and analysis of relevant facts to solve marketing problems.
4. This includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity.
5. Separating products into different classes on the basis of certain predetermined standards.

Answer:

1. Transportation
2. Warehousing
3. Marketing research
4. Sales Promotion
5. Grading

Question 51.
Give any 6 advantages of branding
Answer:
Advantages of branding:
1. Advantages to the Firm

• Branding helps a firm in distinguishing its product from that of its competitors.
• It helps in advertising and display Programmes.
• Branding enables a firm to charge competitive price for its products than that charged by its competitors.
• It helps in Introduction of new product in the market.

2. Advantages to Customers

• Branding helps the customers in identifying the products.
• Branding ensures a particular level of quality of the product.
• Some brands become status symbols because of their quality. It creates a feeling of proud and satisfaction in the consumers.

Question 52.
Explain the difference between Personal selling and Advertising.
Answer:
Difference between Personal Selling and Advertising

Question 53.
List down the difference between Marketing and Selling.
Answer:

Question 54.
What are the factors affecting price of a product?
Answer:
Factors Affecting Price Determination:
1. Product Cost:
One of the most important factors affecting price of a product or service is its cost of production and distribution. Fixed Costs, Variable Costs and Semi- Variable Costs are to be considered for determining the price.

2. Demand:
The price of a product is affected by the elasticity of demand of the product. If the demand of a product is inelastic, the firm is in a better position to fix higher prices.

3. Competition:
Competitors’ prices and their anticipated reactions must be considered before fixing the price of a product. In case of high competition, it is desirable to keep price low.

4. Government and Legal Regulations:
In order to protect the interest of public against unfair practices, prices of some essential products are regulated by the government underthe Essential Commodities Act., e.g. Medicines.

5. Pricing Objectives:
Another important factor affecting the fixation of price of a product is pricing objectives, e.g. maximisation of profit, market share, etc.

Question 55.
What are the limitations of advertising?
Answer:
Disadvantages / Objections to Advertising:

• Advertisement encourages consumers to buy unwanted goods.
• Most of the advertisements are misleading.
• Advertisement may lead to monopoly of a brand.
• Advertisement is a costly affair. So, ultimately it increases the price of the product.
• Advertisement persuades people to purchase even the interior products.
• It undermines social and ethical values.

Question 56.
“Marketing Mix means a firm’s total marketing programme”.

1. Discuss the components that you would consider while finalizing marketing mix of an organisation.
2. Explain its importance.

Answer:
1. Marketing Mix:
It refers to the combination of four basic marketing tools (Product, Price, Place and Promotion) that a firm uses to pursue its marketing objectives in a target market.

2. Elements / 4 P’s of Marketing Mix:
1. Product:
Product means goods or services or ‘anything of value’, which is offered to the market for sale. The important product decisions include deciding about the features, quality, packaging, labelling and branding of the products.

2. Price:
Price is the amount of money paid by the customers to pay to obtain the product. In most of the products, price affects the demand of the products. Desired profits, cost of production, competition, demands, etc. must be considered before fixing the price of a product.

3. Place:
Place or Physical Distribution includes activities that make firm’s products available to the target customers. Important decision areas in this respect include selection of dealers, storage, warehousing and transportation of goods from the place of production to the place of consumption.

4. Promotion:
Promotion includes activities that communicate availability, features, merits, etc. of the products to the target customers and persuade them to buy it. It includes advertising, personal selling, sales promotion and publicity to promote the sale of products.

Question 57.
Jyoythi Ltd., a manufacturer of leather bag, has decided to undertake production of leather shoes. As a sample, they produced one model of ladies shoe. Suppose you are the marketing manager of the company and are entrusted with the task of fixing the. price for the shoes. What are the factors to be considered by you while fixing the price of this new pair of shoes.
Answer:
Factors Affecting Price Determination:
1. Product Cost:
One of the most important factors affecting price of a product or service is its cost of production and distribution. Fixed Costs, Variable Costs and Semi- Variable Costs are to be considered for determining the price.

2. Demand:
The price of a product is affected by the elasticity of demand of the product. If the demand of a product is inelastic, the firm is in a better position to fix higher prices.

3. Competition:
Competitors’ prices and their anticipated reactions must be considered before fixing the price of a product. In case of high competition, it is desirable to keep price low.

4. Government and Legal Regulations:
In order to protect the interest of public against unfair practices, prices of some essential products are regulated by the government under the Essential Commodities Act., e.g. Medicines.

5. Pricing Objectives:
Another important factor affecting the fixation of price of a product is pricing objectives, e.g. maximisation of profit, market share, etc.

Plus Two Business Studies Marketing Management Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 58.
“The present day marketing is customer oriented . rather than product oriented”. Explain the statement bringing out clearly the nature and objectives of marketing management.
Answer:
Marketing:
Marketing may be defined as all activities that are facilitating the movement of goods and services from producer to the ultimate consumer.

Functions of Marketing:
1. Marketing Research:
Marketing Research is a process of collecting and analysing market information to identify the needs and wants of the customers.

2. Marketing Planning:
Another function of marketing is to develop appropriate marketing plans so that the marketing objectives of the organisation can be achieved.

3. Product Designing and Development:
The products are designed and developed according to the needs and wants of the consumers. It requires decision making on various aspects such as the product to be manufactured, its packing, selling price, quality of the product, etc.

4. Standardisation and Grading:
Standardisation refers to producing goods of predetermined specifications. Grading is the process of classification of products into different groups, on the basis of quality, size, etc.

5. Packaging and Labelling:
Packaging refers to designing and developing the package for the products. Packaging gives protection to goods. Also it attracts the consumers to buy the product. Labelling refers to designing and developing the label to be put on the package.

6. Branding:
A brand is a name, term, sign, symbol, design or some combination of them, used to identify the products of one seller and to differentiate them from those of the competitors.

7. Customer Support Services:
An important function of the marketing management is to develop customer support services such as after sales services, handling customer complaints, etc. which provides maximum satisfaction to the customers.

8. Pricing:
Price of a product refers to the amount of money which customers have to pay to obtain a product. Price is an important factor affecting the success or failure of a product in the market. Price is fixed after taking into account the cost of production, desired profit, competitor’s price, govt, policy, etc.

9. Promotion:
Promotion of products and services involves informing the customers about the firm’s product, its features, etc. and persuading them to purchase these products. It includes Advertising, Personal Selling, Publicity and Sales Promotion.

10. Physical Distribution:
It includes decision regarding channels of distribution and physical movement of the product from the production centre to the consumption centre.

11. Transportation:
Transportation involves physical movement of goods from one place to another. It removes the hindrance of place and creates time utility.

12. Storage or Warehousing:
In order to maintain smooth flow of products in the market, there is a need for proper storage of the products. It stabilizes the prices of products and keep the product without damage until they are sold.

Question 59.
The manager of Impact Enterprises dealing in cosmetics is facing the problem, of poor sales. Suggest and explain the important promotional measures that he can undertake to improve the sales.
Answer:
Techniques of Sales Promotion:

1. Rebate: Offering products at special prices, to clear off excess inventory.
2. Discount: Offering products at less than maximum retail price.
3. Refund: The seller offers to refund a part of the price paid by the customer on production of some proof of purchase.
4. Free gifts: Offering another product as gift along with the purchase of a product.
5. Quantity Gift: Offering extra quantity of the product.
6. Contests: Prize contests are organized for the consumers and winners are given attractive prizes.
7. Money refund: There are certain manufacturers who promise to refund the price of the product, if it does not satisfy the consumer.
8. Samples: Offer of free samples of a product to customers at the time of introduction of a new product.

Question 60.
“Money spent on advertising is wasteful”.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reasons for your answer.

Answer:
Merits of Advertising:
1. Advantages to Manufacturers and Traders:

1. Advertising helps in introducing new products.
2. It stimulates the consumers to purchase the new products.
3. Advertisement helps to increase the sales of new and existing products.
4. It helps to increase the goodwill of the firm.
5. It helps to face the competition in the market.
6. It increases profit of the firm through large sales.

2. Advantages to Consumers:

• It helps the consumers to know about the various products and their prices.
• Consumers can purchase the better products easily.
• It helps in maintaining high standard of living.
• It educates the consumers about the various uses of products.

3. Advantages to the Society:

1. Advertisement helps to create more employment opportunities.
2. It provides an important source of income to the press, radio, T.V., etc.
3. It is a source of encouragement to artists.
4. It plays an important role in economic development of the country.
5. It reduces number of middlemen and consumers get quality products at lower cost.

Disadvantages / Objections to Advertising:

• Advertisement encourages consumers to buy unwanted goods.
• Most of the advertisements are misleading.
• Advertisement may lead to mono poly of a brand.
• Advertisement is a costly affair. So, ultimately it increases the price of the product.
• Advertisement persuades people to purchase even the interior products.
• It undermines social and ethical values.

Students can Download Chapter 3 Business Environment Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Business Environment

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify the factor which comes under social environment of a business. (Tax rates, Labour laws, Demographic features, political).
Answer:
Demographic features.

Question 2.
Growing consumerism is
Answer:
Social Environment.

Question 3.
Pick out the factors which do not form part of economic environment of a business firm. (Degree of competition, Customs, and traditions, Business cycle, Capital market)
Answer:
Customs and traditions.

Question 4.
‘Disinvestment’ comes under environment.
Answer:
Economic Environment.

Question 5.
Name the process which makes a detailed analysis about the business environment.
Answer:
Environmental Scanning.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an example of social environment?
(a) Money supply in the economy
(b) Consumer Protection Act
(c) The Constitution of the country
(d) Composition of family
Answer:
(d) Composition of family

Question 7.
Liberalisation means
(a) Integration among economies
(b) Reduced government controls and restrictions
(c) Policy of planned disinvestments
(d) None of them
Answer:
(b) Reduced government controls and restrictions.

Question 8.
Which among the following is not a component of the economic environment?
(a) Economic system
(b) Stability of government
(c) Interest rates and tax rates
(d) Foreign trade balance
Answer:
(b) Stability of government

Question 9.
Which among the following is not a component of social environment?
(a) Attitude of people
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Educational system
(d) Employment rate
Answer:
(d) Employment rate

Question 10.
Pick out the factor which does not form part of the economic environment of a business firm.
(a) tax rate
(b) disinvestment
(c) internet banking
(d) economic policy
Answer:
(c) internet banking

Question 11.
Pick out the factors which do not form part of social environment of a business firm.
(a) Degree of competition
(b) Customs & traditions
(c) Business cycle
(d) Demographic distribution
(i) a & b (ii) b & c (iii) b & d (iv) a & c
Answer:
(iv) a & c.

Question 12.
There are a number of legislations which regulate the day to day operations of business in India.

1. Identify the type of environment referred in this context.
2. Name any 2 legislations which regulate the business activities.

Answer:
1. Legal Environment
2. Two legislations which regulate the business activities:

• Trade Marks Act 1968
• Essential Commodities Act 1955

Question 13.
Which of the following business environment affects the growth of IT industry in Ernakulam?
(a) Social environment
(b) Technological environment
(c) Political environment
(d) Legal environment
Answer:
(b) Technological environment

Question 14.
Identify the factor which does not come under the economic environment of business.
(a) Inflation rate
(b) Employment rate
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Infrastructure facilities
Answer:
(c) Literacy rate

Question 15.
Identify the type of environmental change in the following case “Digital camera in place of film cameras.”
Answer:
Technological environment

Question 16.
Find the odd one.
(a) Unstable Government
(b) Import-Export policy
(c) Taxation Policy
(d) Licencing Policy
Answer:
(a) Unstable Government

Question 17.
Find the odd one out.
lifestyles, tradition, culture, disinvestment
Answer:
disinvestment.

Question 18.
Granting autonomy of operations to the private sector and foreign companies is called
Answer:
Liberalisation

Question 19.
The process by which an organization monitors its environment is called
Answer:
Environment Scanning.

Question 20.
environment consists of new approaches to production.
Answer:
Technological environment.

Question 21.
environment describes the characteristics of society.
Answer:
Social Environment

Question 22.
Find the odd one among the following
(a) Industrial & Labour Laws
(b) Consumer Organisation
(c) Commercial Laws
(d) Constitutional provision
Answer:
(b) Consumer Organisation

Question 23.
“In this modern era it has become possible to book railway tickets through Internet from home, office, etc” Identify the environment.
Answer:
Technological environment

Question 24.
The present nuclear family system totally changed our lifestyle. Moreover, women’s liberation movements have added to the freedom of women in society. Identify the business environment referred to in this context.
Answer:
Social Environment.

Question 25.
On November 1, 2008, Reserve Bank of India reduced the cash reserve ratio to 5.5% to improve the availability of credit. Identify the environment to which it relates.
Answer:
Economic Environment.

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Liberalisation?
Answer:
Liberalisation:
Liberalization of economy means to free it from direct control imposed by the government. Liberalisation of the Indian industry has taken place with respect to the following.

1. Abolishing licensing requirement in most of the industries
2. Freedom in deciding the scale of business activities
3. Removal of restrictions on the movement of goods and services
4. Freedom in fixing the prices of goods and services
5. Reduction in tax rates
6. Simplifying procedures for imports and exports
7. Attract foreign capital and technology to India.

Question 2.
Explain the two methods of Privatisation.
Answer:
Privatisation:
Privatisation means transfer of the public sector enterprises to the private sector. The role of private sector is encouraged. This can be done in two ways.

1. Disinvestment of a part of the shares held by the government in public sector units,
2. Dereservatiion of areas formerly reserved for the public sector.

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw a diagram showing the dimensions of the Business environment.
Answer:

Question 2.
Mr. Babu Raj, an engineering graduate who wants to know the factors of legal environment approaches you. Give him an idea about the legal environment affecting business.
Answer:
A business has to work within the framework of the legal systems of the country. Legal environment includes the Acts that have been passed by the Parliament and State Legislature. The important laws that affect business include The Contract Act, Companies Act, Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Essential Commodities Act, etc.

Question 3.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization:
Globalisation means the integration of the various economies of the world-leading towards the emergence of a cohesive global economy. Features of Globalisation:

1. Free flow of goods and services across nations
2. Free flow of capital across nations
3. Free flow of information and technology
4. Free movement of people across borders

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following factors of business environment under appropriate heads.

1. Attitude of People
2. Economic Policies
3. Acts and Laws
4. Information Technology

Answer:

Question 2.
“Understanding family lifestyle and customs is important for the food processing industries”.

1. Observe this statement and identify the type of business environment referred to this context.
2. State its significance in business.

Answer:
1. Social environment.

2. Social environment:
The social factors include attitude of people, cultural heritage, customs and beliefs of people, literacy rate, educational system, demographic distribution, etc. The socio-cultural environment very much influences the business to follow a code of conduct. A business concern must understand the society in its various dimensions for its success.

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following environmental factors into Economic, Social and Legal factors.

1. Tax Rates
2. Labour Laws
3. Level of Education
4. Human Rights
5. Foreign Trade
6. Demographic Composition
7. Liberalisation
8. Customs and Belief
9. trademark

Answer:

Question 2.
“It is the forces outside the control of a business”

1. What is it?
2. List out the importance of such forces.

Answer:
1. Identification of opportunities:
Environment provides numerous opportunities for business success. Early identification of opportunities helps an enterprise to be the first to exploit them.

2. Identification of threats:
Environmental awareness help managers to identify various threats on time and serves as an early warning signal.

3. Tapping useful resources:
Business environment helps to know the availability of resources and making them available on time.

4. Coping with rapid changes:
Environmental scanning enables the firms to adapt themselves to the changes in the market.

5. Assistance in planning and policy formulation:
Environmental understanding and analysis is the basis for planning and policymaking.

6. Improving performance:
Environment scanning helps an organisation in improving its performance

Question 3.
“The success of a business depends on correctly forecasting the environmental factors.”

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain its importance

Answer:
1. Yes. The business environment refers to the totality of all factors which are external and beyond the control of business enterprise.

2. The importance of Business Environment are:
a. Identification of opportunities:
Environment provides numerous opportunities for business success. Early identification of opportunities helps an enterprise to be the first to exploit them.

b. Identification of threats:
Environmental awareness help managers to identify various threats on time and serves as an early warning signal.

c. Tapping useful resources:
Business environment helps to know the availability of resources and making them available on time.

d. Coping with rapid changes:
Environmental. scanning enables the firms to adapt themselves to the changes in the market.

e. Assistance in planning and policy formulation:
Environmental understanding and analysis is the basis for planning and policymaking.

f. Improving performance:
Environment scanning helps an organisation in improving its performance

Plus Two Business Studies Business Environment Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Identify the various environmental factors influencing the operations of a company in your locality.
2. Also, classify them and present in a suitable diagram.

Answer:

1. Economic Environment:
Interest rates, inflation rates, changes in disposable income of people, stock market indices and the value of rupee are some of the economic factors that can affect the business enterprise.

2. Social Environment:
The social environment of business includes social forces like customs and traditions, values, social trends, literacy rate, educational levels, lifestyle, etc.

3. Technological Environment:
Technological environment consists of new products, new technologies, new approaches to product, new methods, and equipment, etc.

4. Political Environment:
Political environment includes constitution, political parties, and their ideology, types of govt., political stability, attitude towards business, etc,

5. Legal Environment:
Legal environment includes various legislations passed by the central, state or local governments.

Question 2.
List out the impact of Government policy changes in business and industry.
Answer:
Impact of Government Policy Changes on Business and Industry:
The government policy of liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation has made a definite impact on the working of enterprises in business and industry in terms of the following.

1. Competition for Indian firms has increased.
2. The customer’s wider choice in purchasing better quality of goods and services.
3. Rapid technological advancement has changed/ improved the production process.
4. Enterprises are forced to continuously modify their operations.
5. Need for Developing Human Resources arise.
6. There is a shift from production oriented concept to market oriented concept.

Students can Download Chapter 7 Ecosystem Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Ecosystem

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The 10% law is associated with an important function of an ecosystem is
(a) Productivity
(b) Nutrient cycling
(c) Decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels
(d) Increases the calorific value in successive trophic levels.
Answer:
(c) Decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels

Question 2.
In the second step of trophic level, the energy storage is primarily associated with
(a) gross primary productivity
(b) net primary productivity
(c) secondary productivity
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) secondary productivity

Question 3.
If the energy storage at second trophic level is 4000 KJ what is the energy level of primary and secondary carnivore?
Answer:
In primary carnivore level the energy storage is 400 KJ while in second carnivore level it is 40 KJ.

Question 4.
Give an example for gaseous and sedimentary cycle
Answer:

• Gaseous cycle -Nitrogen cycle
• Sedimentary cycle – Phosphorus cycle

Question 5.
Which is the community next to lichen that occur in xerarch succession.
Answer:
Moss stage

Question 6.
In food chain transfer of energy takes place from one tropic level to the next is
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Answer:
(b) 10%

Question 7.
The second trophic level in a lake is………….
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Answer:
(b) Zooplankton

Question 8.
Food chain in which microorganisms breakdown the food formed by primary producers
(a) Parasitic food chain
(b) Detritus food chain
(c) Consumerfoodcahin
(d) Predator food cahin
Answer:
(b) Detritus food chain

Question 9.
What is true of ecosystem?
(a) Primary consumers are least dependent upon producers
(b) Primary consumers out number producers
(c) Producers are more than primary consumers
(d) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerfull
Answer:
(c) Producers are more than primary consumers

Question 10.
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) The base of the energy pyramid contains the largest trophic level.
(b) About 10% of energy available in food is actually incorporated into any trophic level.
(c) Humans are at the top of energy pyramids.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
The energy pyramid is always upright because the energy content
(a) decreases in successive trophic levels
(b) increases in successive trophic levels
(c) increases from the base to the top
(d) decreases from primary consumer to secondary consumer only
Answer:
(a) decreases in successive trophic levels

Question 12.
Which one of the following is not coming under decomposition
(a) catabolism
(b) anabolism
(c) mineralization
(d) the surface area of detritus increases
Answer:
(b) anabolism

Question 13.
Most useful step of decomposition for plants is
(a) mineralization
(b) catabolism
(c) humification
(d) fragmentation of detritus
Answer:
(a) mineralization

Question 14.
Food chains are not always linear, it is branched in some steps. Name the network of food chains.
Answer:
The network of the food chain is called food web.

Question 15.
The biotic community along with physical environment forms an interacting system called………..
Answer:
Ecosystem

Question 16.
If the energy storage at second trophic level is 4000 KJ what is the energy level of primary and secondary carnivore?
Answer:
In primary carnivore level the energy storage is 400 KJ while in second carnivore level it is 40 KJ.

Question 17.
Cite an example of an inverted ecological pyramid.
Answer:
Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem & pyramid of biomass in sea ecosystem is inverted.

Question 18.
Which among the following equation is related with net primary productivity?
(a) GPP + R = NPP
(b) NPP + GPP = R
(c) GPP – R = NPP
(d) R + R = GPP
Answer:
(c) GPP-R = NPP

Question 19.
Find out the stage given below which is not included in hydrarch succession.
(a) Forest
(b) Phytoplanktons
(c) Lichens
(d) Marsh-Meadow
Answer:
(c) Lichens

Question 20.
Which among the following decomposers.
(a) Autotrophs
(b) Saprotrophs
(c) Heterotrophs
(d) Herbivores
Answer:
(b) Saprotrophs

Question 21.
Which one of the following is a primary consumer in an aquatic ecosystem.
(a) Phytoplanktons
(b) Aquatic birds
(c) Zooplanktons
(d) Large Fishes
Answer:
(d) Zooplanktons

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
GPP-R= NPP is an equation indicating productivity. Illustrate the terms denoted in the equation.
Answer:
GPP is the gross primary productivity which is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. R- is the respiration loses which is the amount of GPP utilized by plants in respiration. NPP is the available biomass for the consumption to hetrotrophs. (Herbivores and Decomposers).

Question 2.
Decomposition is the breakdown of complex organic matter into inorganic substances like C0₂, Water, etc.

1. Identify the gas which is most essential for decomposition.
2. Find out any two conditions which inhibit decomposition.

Answer:

1. Oxygen
2. Low temperature Anaerobiosis

Question 3.
Vast area of vegetation is destroyed mostly by fires and it results in clearing of lush vegetation. How long it takes to re-form climax community. Name the process is related in the above case.
Answer:
Time taken is about 50-100 years in case of a grassland and about 100-200 years for a forest. Secondary succession.

Question 4.
Healthy ecosystems are the base for a wide range of goods and services. Find out any four ecosystem services provided by a healthy forest ecosystem.
Answer:

1. Purify air and water
2. Mitigate drought and floods
3. Cycling of nutrients
4. Generate fertile soils

Question 5.
Differentiate between Standing state and Standing Crop.
Answer:
1. Standing crop
The amount of living material present in each trophic level.

2. Standing state
The amount of nutrients like carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, etc present in the soil at a given time.

Question 6.
Distinguish between Grazing food chain and Detritus food chain.
Answer:
1. Grazing food chain
It starts with producers. In aquatic ecosystem major fraction of energy flow take place through GFCthan DFC.

2. Detritus food chain
It starts with detritus. In terrestrial ecosystem major fraction of energy flow take place through DFC than GFC.

Question 7.
Xerarch succession is mainly occurs in desert conditions

1. Name the pioneefspecies on a bare rock.
2. How do pioneer species help in establishing the next type of vegetation.

Answer:

1. Lichens
2. They secrete carbonic acid and dissolve rocks. This process forms soil to help growth of mosses.

Question 8.
Energy flow is always unidirectional, never return back. Do you agree. Give the justification of your answer.
Answer:
Yes. The flow of energy is based on thermodynamic laws.lt starts from producers and flows through successive trophiclevels, The efficiency of energy transfer from one trophic level to the next is 10%.

Question 9.
A Volcano erupted in Hawaii, and lava covered land that had been framed for centuries. Eventually, new lichens, and then plants, grew on the lava.

1. Is this an example of primary or secondary successions?
2. Give the reason also.

Answer:

1. This is an example of primary succession
2. Because it begins from a state of little or no life.

Question 10.
Decomposition is the process in which complex dead matters are broken down into simpler inorganic substances,

1. Name the step of decomposition in which biological activity not found?
2. Chemical composition of detritus influence decomposition why?

Answer:

1. Humification
2. If the detritus rich in Lignin and c.hitinthe rate of decomposition is very slow but it is rich in nitrogenous compounds and Sugars the rate of decomposition is very high.

Question 11.
Decaying Biomass is formed through the process of decomposition, from which different types of mineral ions are released based on the mineralisers act on it.

1. Name the microorganisms that helps to release phosphate and nitrate into the soil
2. Give an example for nutrient cycling that helps in the photosynthesis of land plants.

Answer:

1. Phosphate solubilizing bacteria and nitrifying bacteria
2. Carbon cycle

Question 12.
In Barren lands succession continuous and forms climax vegetation after many years

1. Name the Pioneer community formed.
2. Which is the community comes next to Pioneer community?

Answer:

1. lichen
2. bryophytes

Question 13.
Productivity is one of the key function of an ecosystem, it varies in different ecosystems.

1. Distinguish between primary productivity and secondary productivity.
2. Some Terrestrial ecosystem shows abundant and least productivity. Name it.

Answer:

1. The primary productivity is associated with producers while secondary productivity is associated with consumers.
2. Abundant productivity is found in tropical rainforest Least productivity is found in desert.

Question 14.
How can you differentiate primary productivity from secondary productivity?
Answer:

1. Primary productivity-productivity at producer level
2. Secondary productivity – productivity at consumer level

Question 15.
Mention the functions of ecosystem.
Answer:

• Productivity
• Decomposition
• Energy flow
• Nutrient cycling

Question 16.
Connect the terms in the column A with suitable definition given below and fill up column B.

(a) Rate of biomass production.
(b) Rate of storage of organic matter by producers in excess of their metabolic consumption.
(c) Rate of production of organic matter by plants during photosynthesis.
(d) Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
Answer:

1. b
2. c
3. a
4. d

Question 17.
Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate than fresh weight. Why?
Answer:
Fresh Weight contains weight of water present inside the cells as cell sap. Where as dry weight is the actual weight of the materials making up the body of the organism.

Question 18.
Leaching, detritus, catabolism, humification, fragmentation, mineralization, detritivores, humus. Given above are the terms involved in the process of decomposition. Arrange them in correct sequence.
Answer:
Detritus ? detritivore ? fragmentation ? leaching ? catabolism ? humification ? humus ? Mineralization.

Question 19.
The given table shows the dry weight of different trophic levels of forest ecosystem.

1. From the given data construct a pyramid of biomas.

2. if you select Lake ecosystem to construct pyramid of biomas, it contain producers (Phytoplanktons), Herbivores (Short lived fishes) and Carnivores (Long lived fishes) with dry weight 2mgm-3, 7mgm-3 and 9mgm-3 respectively. From the data construct a pyramid of biomas.
Answer:
1.

2.

Question 20.
Energy is an important key functional component of ecosystem and pyramid of energy is always upright.

1. Do you agree with this statement.
2. Give reason.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. Energy transfer in a pyramid follows the ll nd law of thermodynamics . It also obeys the 10 % law (only 10 % of energy is transferred to each tropic level from the lower tropic level).

Question 21.
In nature there is no independent food chain.

1. Do you agree with the statement? Justify?
2. Decomposers have important role in nutrient cycling. Substantiate.

Answer:
1. Yes. The members of one food chain depends the members of other food chains and forms interconnections.

2. Detritus or dead remains are broken down by detritivores catabolism results in breaking down of complex molecules by decomposers. This results in the formation of mineral nutrients into the soil, thereby recycling of nutrients are achieved.

Question 22.
While visiting a forest, Ranjan’s grandfather told that long back it was a pond.

1. Name the phenomenon takes place here.
2. Write down the different stages of that process.

Answer:

1. Hydrach
2. Phytoplankton stage – Submerged plant-stage – Submerged free floaloting plant stage – Reed swamp stage – Marsh meadow stage — Scrub stage – Forest stage.

Question 23.
Human activities have a significant role in carbon cycle.

1. Do you agree with the statement?
2. Mention the environmental hazard caused by excess release of CO₂?

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Deforestation activities and massive burning of fossil fuels increase the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere that causes reradiation of reflected solar radiations. This leads to heating of the troposphere called green house effect.

Question 24.
Ecological succession and species evolution would have been a parallel process. Justify.
Answer:
As succession gives to the replacement of one community by another and establishment of dominant species it can be considering as parallel steps to evolution.

Question 25.
Sedimentary cycle that occure in lithosphere

1. Give an example for sedimentary cycle.
2. Give a flow chart representing the above cycle.

Answer:
1. Phosphorous cycle.

2. The cycle consists of following steps.

Question 26.
The atmosphere contains only about 1% of total global carbon. But carbon cycle is an gaseous cycle since the reservoir is atmospheric CO₂. Justify.
Answer:
71% of carbon is found dissolved in oceans which regulates the amount of CO₂ in the atmosphere. Fossil fuels also represents a reservoir of carbon. Carbon cycle is considered as gaseous cycle since the cycling occurs through atmosphere, ocean and through living and dead organisms.

The CO₂ is released to the atmosphere by burning of fuels, processing of waste materials in land and ocean and hence it act as a reservoir of CO₂ in an ecosystem.

Question 27.
Why is the length of a food chain in an ecosystem generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels?
Answer:
Energy requirement for maintenance of body rises successively with higher level. As 90% energy is lost when it moves from one trophic level to the next, the residual energy decreases drastically within 2-3 trophic levels, as a result an ecosystem can support only limited number of trophic levels.

Question 28.
Name the type of food chain responsible for the flow of larger fraction of energy in aquatic and a terrestrial ecosystem respectively. Mention one difference between two food chains.
Answer:
In an aquatic ecosystem GFC is the major conduits for energy flow where as in terrestrial ecosystem a much larger fraction of energy flow through the detritus food chain than through the GFC. Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing food chain at some levels.

Difference between two food chains:
Detritus food chain always start with dead organic matter where as GFC starts with plants.

Question 29.
A volcano erupted in Hawaii, and lava covered land that had been framed for centuries. Eventually new lichens and then plants grew on the lava.

1. Is this an example of primary or secondary successions ?
2. Give the reason.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. This is an example of primary succession because this begins from a state of little or no life.

Question 30.
Distinguish between grazing and detritus food chain. Name the type of food chain helps in the flow of major fraction of energy through aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:

• The food chain start with producers are called grazing food chain.
• It start with dead organic matters is called detritus food chain.
• In an aquatic ecosystem, majorfraction of energy flow occurs through GFC.

Question 31.
In lake ecosystem .biomass of trophic levels are different

1. Do you agree the pyramid of biomass is inverted.
2. Give reason.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. In lake ecosystem producers are phyto-planktons. The short lived and long lived fishes are arranged above the lelvel of producers.Here biomass is increased from base to the top of pyramid.

Question 32.
How much PAR is used by producers for gross primary productivity?
Answer:
Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 percent of it is photosynthetically active radiation(PAR. Plants capture only 2-10 per cent of the PAR for gross primary productivity.

Question 33.
Differentiate between a detrivore and a decomposer giving an example of each.
Answer:
Detrivores are the primary consumers of a detritus food chain which feed upon the detritus and include protozoan, bacteria, and fungi, while decompers form the last trophic level of both detritus and grazing food chains and break down complex organic compounds of dead plants and animals and include bacteria and fungi.

Question 34.
Why is the length of a food chain in an ecosystem generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels?
Answer:
Energy requirement for maintenance of body rises successively with higher level. As 90% energy is lost when it moves from one trophic level to the next, the residual energy decreases drastically within 2 – 3 trophic levels. As a result an ecosystem can support only a limited number of trophic levels.

Question 35.
Due to uncontrolled excessive hunting the population of tigers in a forest becomes zero. What are the long term effects of this situation on the population of deer in that forest.
Answer:
The reduction in predator population may result in the increase of prey population (deer), since they are not preyed upon. Increase in the number of deer will lead to overgrazing, hence, shortage of herbs and eventually reduction in the number of deer.

Question 36.
A Volcano erupted in Hawaii, and lava covered land that had been framed for centuries. Eventually, new lichens, and then plants, grew on the lava. Is this an example of primary or secondary successions? Give the reason also.
Answer:
This is an example of primary succession Because this begins from a .state of little or no life.

Question 37.
How can you differentiate primary productivity from secondary productivity?
Answer:

1. Primary productivity-productivity at producer level
2. Secondary productivity – productivity at consumer level

Question 38.
Observe the flow chart on functional components of ecosystem given below.

1. Identify the components given as A and B
2. What is stratification?

Answer:
1. components given as A and B:
A = Energy flow
B = Nutrient cycling

OR

A = Nutrient cycling
B = energy flow

2. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels.

Question 39.
Observe the food chain given below. Grass? Goat? Man

1. Identify the type of food chain,
2. How does it differ from detritus food chain?

Answer:

1. Grazing Food Chain
2. Grazing food chain starts with producers while detritus food chain starts with dead organic matter.

Question 40.
Given below is the flow chart of ecological succession occur in water bodies.

1. Identify the stages A, B, C, D, E and F
2. What is this succession called?

Answer:
1. The stages A, B, C, D, E, and F:

• A = Submerged plant stage
• B = Submerged free floating plant stage
• C = Reed-swamp stage
• D = Marsh-meadow stage
• E = Scrub stage
• F = Forest stage

2. Hydrarch succession

Question 41.
Given below is a simplified model of a nutrient cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem.

1. Identify the cycle?
2. How does it differ from a gaseous cycle?

Answer:

1. Phosphorus cycle
2. This cycle starts from earth’s crust(lithosphere) but gaseous cycle exists in atmosphere.

Question 42.
Decomposition of detritus is a complex process. Decomposition has various steps. Identify the steps given below and fill the blanks.

Answer:

1. Fragmentation
2. Leaching
3. Catabolism
4. Humification

Question 43.
Decomposition is the breakdown of complex organic matter into inorganic substances like CO₂, Water, etc.

1. Identify the gas which is most essential for decomposition.
2. Find out any two conditions which inhibit decomposition.

Answer:

1. Oxygen
2. Low temperature, Anaerobiosis.

Question 44.
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids of number, biomass, and energy are upright. Suggest on occasion each where the pyramid of number and pyramid of biomass are inverted.
Answer:
When a big tree is considered as an ecosystem- pyramid of number is inverted. Pyramid of biomass in sea is also inverted.

Question 45.
Ecological pyramids express the food or energy relationship between organisms, Write any three limitations of ecological pyramids.
Answer:

1. In some cases same species may belong to two or more trophic levels
2. It does not represent food web
3. Saprophytes are not given any place

Question 46.
Analyze the table given below and fill in the blanks suitably.

Answer:

1. Standing crop
2. The amount of nutrients presents in the soil or eosystem at any given time

Question 47.
Match the items of column A with column B
VAnswer:
(a) – (v)
(b) – (iii)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (i)

Question 48.
Human activities have significantly influenced the carbon cycle by increasing the amount of C02- production. Justify this statement with minimum two points.
Answer:

1. It lead to rapid deforestation.
2. Massive burning of fossil fuel for energy and transport.

Question 49.
Given below is simplified mode of a biogeochemical cycle.
Fill up the blanks a), b), c) and d)

Answer:

1. Rock minerals
2. Producers
3. Consumers
4. Detritus

Question 50.
Construct a pyramid of biomass using the data given below.
PC 37Kgm^-2 TC 1.5Kgm^-2
PP 809Kgm^-2 SC 11Kgm^-2
Answer:

Question 51.
Carbon cycle and phosphorus cycle are two common biogeochemical cycles. Write any three differences between these two cylces.
Answer:

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Primary succession is a long term process, while secondary succession is a short term process.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reasons.
3. Name the pioneer species in hydrarch succession

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. In primary succession development of forest climax on a barren land may take about 1,000 years but in secondary succession it takes 50 – 100 years in case of a grassland and about 100 – 200 years for a forest.

3. Phtoplanktons.

Question 2.
Succession on different habitat are different in nature

1. Name the pioneer species on a bare rock.
2. How do they help in establishing the next type of vegetation?
3. Mention the type of climax community that will ultimately get established.

Answer:

1. Lichens are the pioneer species:
2. They absorb water due to their spongy structure and secrete carbonic acid which loosens rock particles and help in weathering of rocks and soil formation; thus, they pave way to some small plants like bryophytes.
3. The climax community will be a forest.

Question 3.
Most of the existing communities are evolved through a series of intermediate stage.

1. Name three plant communites that appear during ecological succession.
2. Elucidate the dynamic changes that happens in a water body.

Answer:
1. three plant communites that appear during ecological succession:

• Pioneer community
• Serai community (transitional community)
• Climax community

2. Phytoplankton stage? Submerged plant stage? Submerged free floating plant stage? Reed swamp stage? Marsh meadow stage? Scrub stage? Forest stage.

Question 4.
If decomposition not occur in nature huge amount of detritus of plants and animals may fill our ecosystems, it is seriously harm to living organisms of our environment

1. Define decomposition
2. Give the steps
3. Decomposers are known as scavengers of earth”. Justify.

Answer:
1. Breaking down of complex organic matter into simple inorganic substance like C02, H20 and Nutrients is called decomposition.

2. Decomposition steps are

• Fragmentation – It is the breaking down of detritus into smaller particle by the detrivores like earthworm.
• Leaching – Precipitation of water soluble or inorganic nutrient into soil horizon.
• Catabolism – It is the degradation of detritus into simple inorganic substances by the action of micro organism.
• Humification – It is the accumulation of dark coloured amorphous substance called humus. Humus serve as the reservoir of nutrients.
• Mineralization – The degradation of humus & release of nutrients from it by microbes is called mineralization.

3. Decomposers split the complex detritus into simple inorganic compounds while doing so they also bring about nutrient cycling. The degradation of detritus into simple organic substances by micro organism involves catabolic process. Without micro organism the earth would have been filled with dead organisms.

Question 5.
In an ecosystem there is unidirectional flow of energy and cyclic flow of matter.

1. Do you agree with the statement.
2. Give reason?
3. Mention the significance of standing crop and standing state in this contest.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Energy in an ecosystem flows unidirectionally from producers to different consumers through different tropic level. The constant supply of matter (nutrients like C, N„, P, Ca, etc.) are never lost from the ecosystem. Their constant supply is maintained by nutrient cycling.

3. The mass of living material in a tropic level at a particular time is a standing crop. The amount of nutrients present in a soil at a given time is called standing state.

Question 6.
Robert Constanza and his colleagues put price tags on nature’s life-support services. Price tag of US $ 33 trillion a year

1. What is meant by, ecosystem services? Give example.
2. Which is the most price lagged ecosystem service in nature?

Answer:
1. The product ecosystem process

• Generate fertile soil
• Pollinate crops

2. Soil creation is the most prize tagged ecosystem service.

Question 7.
Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process. Rate of decomposition depend upon many factors.

1. What are the factors influence the rate of decomposition
2. Explain it.

Answer:
1. The factors influencing the rate of decomposition are:

• Chemical nature of detritus
• Climatic condition (temperature and soil moistures)

2. Detritus which is rich in N₂ and water soluble substances like sugar decompose quickly than detritus containing lignin and chitin.

Warm and moist environment favour decomposition whereas low temperature and anaerobic condition inhibit decomposition.

Question 8.
The number of individuals in grass land ecosystem is given below.
Grass – 5842,000
Grasshopper – 7,08,000
Frogs – 3,54,000
Snakes – 3

1. Draw a pyramid representing the relationship of the given organisms in terms of number.
2. Give justification for the shape of pyramid.

Answer:
1.

2. The pyramid is an upright one the largest number being producers (grasses) forms the base of the pyramid. The Herbivores or primary consumer at the next level (grass hopper) are second to producers in number.

The third layer is occupied by secondary consumers (Frogs) which are smaller in number compared to the primary consumer. The tertiary consumer (snakes) are the least in number and occupies the top most level. Thus an upright pyramid is obtained.

Question 9.
Food chain ensures unidirectional flow of energy from producerto different levels of consumers. Construct a food chain? Is the flow of energy obey the law of thermodynamics?
Answer:

Yes, the first law of thermodynamics states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed; it can be converted from one form to another. In an ecosystem the plants capture 2-10% of PAR (Photosynthetically active radiation) from the sun.

The solar energy captured by plants flows through different organisms of an ecosystem in the form of food energy. This unidirectional flow of solar energy in accordance with 10% law.

Question 10.
Most of the existing communities are evolved through a series of intermediate stage.

1. Substantiate the above statement with the process involved in the above phenomenon.
2. Elucidate the dynamic changes that happens in a water body.

Answer:
1. Plant succession:
The gradual & predictable change in species composition or communities of a given area is called ecological successions. It occurs due to the change of communities in response to environmental changes. Important features of ecological successions are

• Invasion of a bare area by pioneer community
• sequence of communities that successfully change or modify the particular area called seres
• change in the diversity of species and organism in the successive serai communities
• formation of climax community.

2. Phytoplankton stage → Submerged plant stage → Submerged free floating plant stage → Reed swamp stage → Marsh meadow stage → Scrub stage → Forest stage.

Question 11.
In an ecosystem flow of energy through successive trophic levels decreases, this is very common in aquatic and terrestrial habitat.

1. Write down the first and second thermodynamic laws supports energy flow
2. What do you meant by 10% law

Answer:
1. In first law of thermodynamics energy can be transferred from one state to other while in second law of thermodynamics energy losses in the form of heat.

Question 12.
The average price tag of US is 22 trillion US dollars a year.

1. What does this data indicate?
2. How is it related to GNP?'(Gross National Production)
3. Which is the most price lagged ecosystem service in nature?

Answer:
1. Ecosystem are the base of wide range of economic, environmental and aesthetic goods and services. The products of ecosystem process are named as ecosystem services.

These services are usually taken for granted because they are free. Researches have tried to put prize tags on nature’s life support services in order to understand the values of services provided by nature.

2. Gross national production is the value of human resources and services of a particular country. It is only half the value of ecosystem services.

3. Soil creation is the most prize tagged ecosystem service.

Question 13.
Primary productivity varies in different types of ecosystems.

1. What is meant by primary productivity.
2. Give reason with suitable examples.

Answer:
1. Primary productivity is the amount of biomass or organic matter produced during photosynthesis. The gross primary productivity is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.

A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plant in respiration. The gross primary productivity – Respiration losses is the net primary productivity.

2. In some ecosystems producers number and nutrient content are not stable.

Question 14.
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids are upright. But there are exceptions to this generalisation.

1. Give any of the cases where pyramid of number and biomass becomes inverted.
2. What is detritus food chain?

Answer:
1. The pyramid of number in a tree ecosystem is inverted. The primary producer tree is a single unit. The consumers like insects, small birds & large birds are the primary consumers secondary consumers &territory consumers respectively.

Thus the no. of consumer in tree ecosystem is more than that of the producer. The pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted because the biomass of fishes (Consumers) exceeds that of phytoplankton (producer).

2. Food chain starts with detritus called as detritus food chain.

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Plants are called as_____because they fix carbon dioxide.
2. In an ecosystem dominated by trees, the pyramid (of numbers) is_____type.
3. In aquatic eco systems, the limiting factor for the productivity is_______
4. Common ditritivores in our eco system are______
5. The major reservoir of carbon on earth is______

Answer:

1. Producers
2. Upright
3. Availability of sunlight.
4. Earthworm
5. Ocean

Question 2.
Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain______
(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Decomposers
Answer:
The decomposers can have the maximum population but they are excluded from food chain, hence the correct answer is – (a) Producers

Question 3.
The second trophic level in a lake is______
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos
(d) Fishes
Answer:
(b) Zooplankton

Question 4.
What is the percentage of photosyntheticaliy active radiation (PAR) , if incident solar radiation is considered 100%?
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 1-5%
(d) 2-10%
Answer:
(b) 50%

Question 5.
Give an account for flow of energy in an ecosystem.
Answer:
1. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional from producers to consumers.

2. The flow of energy obeys the laws of the thermodynamics 2-10% of radiant energy (50% of which reaches the earth) is photosyntheticaliy active radiation. It travels through different tropic levels from producers in the form of food energy.

The producers convert radiant energy into chemical energy which is stored as biomass. When energy flows from one tropic level to another only 10% of the total energy is transferred, as certain amount of energy is utilized by the organism belonging to a particulartropic level.

Plus Two Botany Ecosystem Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight
Answer:
(d) Fresh weight

Question 2.
Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a Grassland ecosystem?
(a) Secondary production
(b) Tertiary production
(c) Gross production
(d) Net production
Answer:
(c) Gross production

Question 3.
Which of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary Productivity?
(a) Tropical rain forest
(b) Tropical deciduous forest
(c) Temperate evergreen forest
(d) Temperate deciduous forest
Answer:
(a) Tropical rain forest

Question 4.
An ecosystem, which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops, will be having
(a) low stability and high resilience
(b) high stability and low resilience
(c) low stability and low resilience
(d) high stability and high resilience
Answer:
(a) low stability and high resilience

Question 5.
The minimum number of components required for an ecosystem to survive
(a) Producer and primary consumer
(b) Producer and decomposer
(c) primary Consumer and decomposer
(d) primary and secondary Consumer
Answer:
(b) Producer and decomposer

Question 6.
In plant succession, when climax is reached, the net productivity
(a) continues to increase
(b) becomes halved
(c) becomes stable
(d) becomes zero
Answer:
(c) becomes stable

Question 7.
Detrivores are
(a) detritus eating vertebrates
(b) detritus eating fungus
(c) detritus decomposing bacteria
(d) detritus eating invertebrates
Answer:
(d) detritus eating invertebrates

Question 8.
How fig tree is benefited to its pollinator wasp?
(a) Pollens are edible
(b) Wasp lays eggs in fig fruits
(c) Floral petal resembles female to pseudo coupulate
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Wasp lays eggs in fig fruits

Question 9.
Which of the following contribute to the carbon cycle?
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Respiration
(c) Fossil fuel combustion
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 10.
Weathering of rocks makes phosphorous available to
(a) Decomposers
(b) Consumers
(c) Producers
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Producers

Question 11.
The 10% law associated with an important function of an ecosystem is
(a) productivity
(b) nutrient cycling
(c) decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels
(d) increases the calorific value in successive trophic levels.
Answer:
(c) decreases the calorific value in successive trophic levels

Question 12.
In the reductive process, the conversion of nitrogen into ammonia occurs by
(a) nitrosomonas
(b) rhizobium
(c) nitrococcus
(d) pseudomonas
Answer:
(b) rhizobium

Question 13.
The primary productivity is least in
(a) coral reef
(b) grassland
(c) coniferous forest
(d) desert
Answer:
(d) desert

Question 14.
Choose the correct arrangement of plant communities
(a) marsh meadow stage, free floating stage, scrub stage and forest stage
(b) free floating stage, marsh meadow stage, scrub stage and forest stage
(c) marsh meadow stage, free floating stage, scrub stage and forest stage
(d) marsh meadow stage, woodland stage, scrub stage and forest stage
Answer:
(b) free floating stage, marsh meadow stage, scrub stage and forest stage

Question 15.
In the second step of trophic level, the energy storage is primarily associated with
(a) gross primary productivity
(b) net primary productivity
(c) secondary productivity
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) secondary productivity

Question 16.
Detritus is the
(a) dead remains of plants only
(b) dead remains of plants and animals
(c) excretory products of animals
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(d) both b and c

Question 17.
The plants efficiency of N₂ absorption is promoted when the nitrogen source available in the form of
(a) NO^3-
(b) NO^2-
(c) NH⁴⁺
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) NO^3-

Question 18.
Which one of the following process is associated with oxidation
(a) ammonification
(b) nitrification
(c) denitrification
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) nitrification

Question 19.
PAR belongs to the wavelength of
(a) 300-400 A0
(b) 400-700A0
(c) 600-800A0
(d) 700-1000A0
Answer:
(b) 400-700A0

Students can Download Chapter 2 Principles of Management Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Principles of Management

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the job of ‘speed boss’ under Functional Foremanship?
Answer:
He supervises matter relating to the speed of work.

Question 2.
Who is the father of Modem Management?
Answer:
Henry Fayol

Question 3.
Which principle of management suggest that employees should be treated with justice and kindness?
Answer:
Equity.

Question 4.
Fayol pointed out the danger and costs of unnecessary labour turnover in one of his principles. Name the principle.
Answer:
Stability of personnel.

Question 5.
Obedience, respect for authority and observation of established rules is known as
(a) Order
(b) Discipline
(c) Equity
(d) Initiative
Answer:
(b) Discipline

Question 6.
Systematic concentration of authority at top level is known as
Answer:
Centralisation

Question 7.
Identify the management principle which states that ‘Union is Strength’.
Answer:
Esprit De Corps

Question 8.
“Have a place for everything and everything should be in its place”. Which management principle is referred here?
Answer:
Order

Question 9.
Identify the management principle which is based on an idea of “one head and one plan”.
Answer:
Unity of direction

Question 10.
Lack of this principle may lead to conflict among subordinates. Briefly explain this principle of management.
Answer:
Unity of command

Question 11.
A factory has three departments – Production, Marketing and Finance. These departments take decisions without mutual understanding and consultation. So conflicts, confusion and duplication are quite common. State which function of management is violated here?
Answer:
Unity of direction.

Question 12.
A subordinate receives orders from three senior officers in an organization. Which principle of management is violated here.
Answer:
Unity of command

Question 13.
Study the diagram and mention the shortcut used for direct communication between ‘D’ and ‘P’.

Answer:
Gangplank

Question 14.
Identify the management principle which promotes specialization.
Answer:
Division of work

Question 15.
This principle is against the policy of divide and rule. Which principle of Henry Fayol is referred to in this context?
Answer:
Esprit de corps

Question 16.
It is a chain of command from the highest level to the lowest level. It’is called
Answer:
Scalar Chain.

Question 17.
“Workers should be encouraged to develop and carry out their plans for development. “Identify the principle of management formulated by Fayol.
Answer:
Initiative.

Question 18.
The father of scientific management is
Answer:
F.W. Tayor.

Question 19.
‘She/he keeps machines, materials, tools, etc., ready for operations by concerned workers’. Whose work is described by this sentence under functional foremanship?
(a) Instruction Card Clerk
(b) Repair Boss
(c) Gang Boss
(d) Route Clerk
Answer:
(c) Gang Boss

Question 20.
Management should find ‘One best way’ to perform a task. Which technique of scientific management is defined in this sentence?
(a) Time Study
(b) Motion Study
(c) Fatigue Study
(d) Method Study
Answer:
(d) Method Study

Question 21.
Find the odd one.
(a) Order
(b) Equity
(c) Fatigue study
(d) Unity of direction
Answer:
(c) Fatigue study

Question 22.
The scientific technique of task setting is known as
(a) Method study
(b) Motion study
(c) Work-study
(d) Time study
Answer:
(c) Work-study

Question 23.
Which technique of scientific management gives high compensation to better performer?
Answer:
Differential piece rate system

Question 24.
Name the technique of scientific management which focuses on separation of planning and execution function.
Answer:
Functional foremanship.

Question 25.
It involves the study of movement of operations of a worker. It is
Answer:
Motion study

Question 26.
The change in attitudes of employers and employees towards each other referred to as
Answer:
Mental revolution

Question 27.
Which principle of Taylor advocates scientific enquiry as opposed to hit and trail?
Answer:
Science; not rule of thumb

Question 28.
Taylor advocated that specialization must be introduced in an organization. He developed a technique for this purpose, which consists of 8 specialist foremen. Identify technique of scientific management referred here.
Answer:
Functional foremanship

Question 29.
Complete the following circle.

Answer:

Question 30.
Name the personnel who work under the production in charge?
Answer:
Speed Boss, Gang Boss, Repair Boss, and Inspector.

Question 31.
Link column A with B and C.

Answer:

Question 32.
Mr. Syam, the Production Manager of a firm, instructs Mr. Kiran to produce 50 units of a product per day. Mr. Arun, the Assistant Production Manager, instructs Mr. Kiran to produce 75 units. Which management principle is violated here?
Answer:
Unity of command.

Question 33.
Find out the odd one and state the reason.
(a) Stability of tenure of personnel.
(b) Scientific selection and training of workers.
(c) Maximum output.
(d) Replacement of old rule of thumb method.
Answer:
(a) Stability of tenure of personnel.

Question 34.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 35.
Avoiding unnecessary efforts, expenses and tools in the factory is called in scientific management.
Answer:
Simplification of works.

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Which technique of scientific management suggests that each worker should be supervised by specialists?
2. Give the names of two designations of any two types of specialist.

Answer:

1. Functional foremanship
2. Gang boss, Speed boss

Question 2.
What do you mean by managerial principles?
Answer:
Management principles are statement of fundamental truth which provide guidelines for management decision making and action.

Question 3.
Distinguish between unity of command and unity of direction.
Answer:
1. Unity of Command:
The principle of unity of command state that each employee should receive orders from one superior only. It helps to avoid confusion and conflict in the employees

2. Unity of Direction:
Each group of activities having the same objective must have one head and one plan. This ensures unity of action and co-ordination.

Question 4.
What is ‘fatigue study’?
Answer:
Fatigue study:
Fatigue study seeks to determine the amount and frequency of rest intervals in completing a task.

Question 5.
How does ‘mental revolution’ helpful ineffective management?
Answer:
Mental revolution:
It involves a change in the mental attitude of workers and management towards each other. Both parties should realise each other’s importance and work towards the profit of the firm.

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Management principles are dynamic”. Comment
Answer:
Management principles are dynamic – Management principles are flexible and can be utilized under different conditions of the organizations. They are influenced by the need of the given situation.

Question 2.
Which principle of management is violated in the following situations?

1. When a worker receives order from more than one boss.
2. When the employee is given responsibility to achieve target production of 1000 units with no authority to access to raw materials.
3. Where a worker is wasting time in search of tools in the organization.

Answer:

1. Unity of command
2. Authority and responsibility
3. Order

Question 3.
Mr. Dileep, a newly recruited clerk for accounts department was initially posted in the cash section. After one month he was transferred to supplies section. Again a week later, he was transferred to EDP section.

1. Which principle is violated here?
2. What is the consequence of such frequent change?

Answer:
1. Stability of tenure of personnel.

2. If employees are frequently changed from one job to another, the entire production process will be disturbed. Also, both quantity and quality of work get reduced. Frequent change in job will create job dissatisfaction in employees.

Question 4.
Fayol points out the danger and cost of unnecessary labour turnover in one of these ‘Principles’. Name & explain the principle.
Answer:
a. Principle of stability of personnel

b. Stability of Personnel:
According to Fayol, workers should not be moved from one job to another frequently. It helps to minimize labour turnover in the organization.

Question 5.
Hina and Harish are typists in a company. They have the same educational qualifications. Hina is getting Rs. 3000 per month and Harish Rs. 4000 per month as salary for the same working hours. Which principle of management is violated in this case? Name and explain the principle.
Answer:
Principle of equity:
This principle requires the managers to be kind and just to workers. Superiors should be impartial while dealing with their subordinates.

Question 6.
Group the following persons coming under Planning incharge and production incharge based on F.W. Taylor’s functional foremanship.
Gang Boss, Instruction Card Clerk, Inspector, Disciplinarian, Speed Boss, Route Clerk.
Answer:

Question 7.
Distinguish between unity of command and unity of direction.
Answer:

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Briefly explain the nature or features of managerial principles.
Answer:
Nature of Principles of Management:
Principles of management are statements of fundamental truth which provides guidelines for management decision making and action. The nature of management principles are:

1. Universal applicability: Management principles ha/e universal application in all types of organizations.

2. General guidelines: The principles are guidelines to action.

3. Formed by practice and experimentation: The principles of management are formed by experience and experimentation of managers.

4. Flexible: The principles of management are not rigid. They are flexible and can be modified according to the situation.

5. Influencing human behaviour: Management principles aim at influencing behaviour of human beings.

6. Cause and effect relationship: The principles of management establish the relation between the cause and effect.

Question 2.
State any 4 points highlighting the importance of principles of management.
Answer:
1. Increase efficiency:
The understanding of the management principles provides guidelines to the managers for handling effectively the complex problems.

2. Optimum utilization of resources:
The principles of management helps in the optimum utilization of resources through division of work, delegation of authority, etc.

3. Scientific decision:
Management principles help in thoughtful decision-making. Such decisions are free from bias and prejudices.

4. Meeting the changing environmental requirements:
Management principles are flexible and can be modified to meet changing requirements of environment.

5. Fulfilling social responsibility:
Management principles help the managers to fulfill the social responsibilities towards society.

Question 3.
If we follow the principle of scalar chain strictly, there is a possibility of unnecessary delay in communication.

1. What is the alternative proposed by Fayol to overcome this issue?
2. Explain this principle.

Answer:
Gang Plank:
According to the concept of gangplank persons of the same rank can communicate with each other especially in emergency situations. It helps to save a lot of time in communication and possibility of distortion of messages can be reduced.

Question 4.
What contradiction do you find in the principle of unity of command and the technique of functional foremanship?
Answer:
In case of unity of command, every employee receives instructions from one boss only and he is responsible and accountable to him alone. In case of functional foremanship, every worker receives instructions from eight losses, four from planning department and four from production department. In this way, unity of command stresses on centralisation and functional foremanship on decentralization.

Question 5.
“Proper understanding of management principles makes the managers more realistic in their profession.” Explain the concept.
Answer:
Significance of the Principles of Management
1. Increase efficiency:
The understanding of the management principles provides guidelines to the managers for handling effectively the complex problems.

2. Optimum utilization of resources:
The principles of management helps in the optimum utilization of resources through division of work, delegation of authority, etc.

3. Scientific decision:
Management principles help in thoughtful decision-making. Such decisions are free from bias and prejudices.

4. Meeting the changing environmental requirements:
Management principles are flexible and can be modified to meet changing requirements of environment.

5. Fulfilling social responsibility:
Management principles help the managers to fulfill the social responsibilities towards society.

Question 6.
Henry Fayol is of the opinion that ‘workers should not be shifted from their job position frequently’.

1. Identify the functional principle referred to here.
2. State any 3 characteristics of management principles.

Answer:
1. Stability of personnel

2. Nature of Principles of Management:
Principles of management are statements of fundamental truth which provides guidelines for management decision making and action. The nature of management principles are:

1. Universal applicability: Management principles ha/e universal application in all types of organizations.

2. General guidelines: The principles are guidelines to action.

3. Formed by practice and experimentation: The principles of management are formed by experience and experimentation of managers.

4. Flexible: The principles of management are not rigid. They are flexible and can be modified according to the situation.

5. Influencing human behavior: Management principles aim at influencing behavior of human beings.

6. Cause and effect relationship: The principles of management establish the relation between the cause and effect.

Question 7.
Complete the diagram.
Answer:

1. Route Clerk
2. Time & Cost Clerk
3. Gang Boss
4. Inspector

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Arioop, a supervisor has been instructed to produce 100 units Jer day in a factory while the marketing manager instructs to produce 120 units per day in order to meet the demand.

1. Which principle of management is violated here?
2. Name any 5 adverse effects that may take place due to this violation.

Answer:
1. Unity of command
2. The violation of this principle will have the following consequences:

• It will be very difficult to maintain discipline.
• Duplication of work.
• Escaping responsibility.
• Disobeying the orders of superiors.
• Overlapping of orders and instructions

Question 2.
Explain the characteristics of Management Principles.
Answer:
Nature of Principles of Management:
Principles of management are statements of fundamental truth which provides guidelines for management decision making and action.
The nature of management principles are:

1. Universal applicability: Management principles ha/e universal application in all types of organizations.

2. General guidelines: The principles are guidelines to action.

3. Formed by practice and experimentation: The principles of management are formed by experience and experimentation of managers.

4. Flexible: The principles of management are not rigid. They are flexible and can be modified according to the situation.

5. Influencing human behavior: Management principles aim at influencing behaviour of human beings.

6. Cause and effect relationship: The principles of management establish the relation between the cause and effect.

Question 3.
Give a short note on importance of management principles.
Answer:
Significance of the Principles of Management
1. Increase efficiency:
The understanding of the management principles provides guidelines to the managers for handling effectively the complex problems.

2. Optimum utilization of resources:
The principles of management helps in the optimum utilization of resources through division of work, delegation of authority, etc.

3. Scientific decision:
Management principles help in thoughtful decision-making. Such decisions are free from bias and prejudices.

4. Meeting the changing environmental requirements:
Management principles are flexible and can be modified to meet changing requirements of environment.

5. Fulfilling social responsibility:
Management principles help the managers to fulfill the social responsibilities towards society.

Question 4.
Discuss the techniques and methods developed by Taylor.
Answer:
Techniques of Scientific Management
1. Functional foremanship:
Functional foremanship is a technique in which planning and execution are separated. He classified 8 specialist foremen into two departments viz. Planning and Production department. Both departments have four foremen each. Functional foremanship is based on the principle of division of work.

1. Route clerk: To lay down the sequence of operations through which the raw materials have to pass in the production process.
2. Time & cost clerk: To lay down the standard time for completion of the work.
3. Instruction card clerk: He is expected to deal the instructions to be followed by workers in handling the job.
4. Disciplinarian: He maintains proper discipline in the factory.
5. Gang boss: He arranges material, machine, tool, etc. for operation.
6. Speed boss: He supervises matters relating to the speed of work.
7. Repair boss: He ensures repairs and maintenance of the tools and machines.
8. Inspector: He checksthe quality of work done.

2. Standardisation and simplification of work:
Standardisation refers to the process of setting standards for every business activity. It includes use of standard tools and equipment, methods, working conditions, etc. for the maximisation of output. Simplification aims at eliminating unnecessary diversity of products. -It results in savings of cost of labour, machines, and tools.

3. Method study:
The objective of method study is to find out one best way of doing the job. The main objective is to minimize the cost of production and maximize the.quality of the work.

4. Motion study:
Motion study involves close observation of the movements of the workers and machines to perform a particular job. It helps to eliminate unnecessary movements of men, materials, and machine.

5. Time study:
It determines the standard time taken to perform a well-defined job. The objective of time study is to determine the number of workers to be employed, frame suitable incentive schemes and determine labour costs.

6. Fatigue study:
Fatigue study seeks to determine the amount and frequency of rest intervals in completing a task.

7. Differential piece wage system:
Under this system of wage payment, two kinds of rates are laid down.

• Higher rates are offered to those workers who produce more than standard output.
• Lower rates for those who produce below standard output.

8. Mental revolution:
It involves a change in the mental attitude of workers and management towards each other. Both the parties should realise each other’s importance and work towards the profit of the firm.

Plus Two Business Studies Principles of Management Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar report showing all the principles of management suggested by Henry Fayol.
Answer:
Fayol’s Principles of Management:
Henry Fayol (1841-1925) is known as the ‘Father of General Management’. The 14 principles of management given by him are:
1. Division of Work:
This principle states that a complex work should be divided into small tasks, and each task should be assigned a particular employee. Division of work leads to specialization.

2. Authority and Responsibility:
Authority is the right to give orders to the subordinates and responsibility is the obligation to perform the work in the mannerdirected by authority. There should be a balance between authority and responsibility.

3. Discipline:
it is the obedience to organizational rules and employment agreement which are necessary for working of the organization.

4. Unity of Command:
The principle of unity of command statej that each employee should receive orders ffom one superior only. It helps to avoid confusion and conflict in the employees.

5. Unity of Direction:
Each group of activities having the same objective must have one head and one plan. This ensures unity of action and co-ordination.

6. Subordination of Individual Interest to General Interest:
The Interest of an organization should take priority over the interests of any one individual employee.

7. Remuneration of Employees:
Remuneration should be just, equitable and fair to both employees and the organization.

8. Centralization and Decentralization:
Centralisation means concentration of authority at the top management. Decentralisation means dispersal of authority to the lower levels in the organisation. There should be a balance between Centralisation and decentralization.

9. Scalar Chain:
The formal lines of authority from highest to lowest ranks are known as scalar chain. According to this principle, communication should passthrough the established chain of command. It ensures unity of command and effective communication.

Gang Plank:
According to the concept of gang plank persons of the same rank can cprnmunicate with each other especially in emergency situations. It helps to save a lot of time in communication and possibility of distortion of messages can be reduced.

10. Order:
According to Fayol, “People and materials must be in suitable places at appropriate time for maximum efficiency.”

11. Equity:
This principle requires the managers to be kind and just to workers. Superiors should be impartial while dealing with their subordinates.

12. Stability of Personnel:
According to Fayol, workers should not be moved from one job to another frequently. It helps to minimise labour tumoverin the organization.

13. Initiative:
Workers should be encouraged to develop and carry out their plans for improvements. Maximum kpuKishcrs

14. Espirit De Corps (Union is strength):
According to Fayol, Management should promote a team spirit of unity and harmony among employees.

Question 2.

1. Who formulated principles for managing an organisation scientifically.
2. Explain the principles.

Answer:
1. Taylor’s Scientific Management:
Fredrick Winslow Taylor (1856-1915) is known as the Father of Scientific Management. His book ‘Principles of Scientific Management’was published in 1911.
In the words of Taylor, “Scientific management means knowing exactly what you want men to do and seeing that they do it in the best and cheapest way”.

2. Principles:

1. Principles of Scientific Management
2. Techniques of Scientific Management

1. Principles of Scientific Management
a. Science and not the rule of thumb :
The first principle of scientific management requires scientific study and analysis of each element of job in orderto replace old rule of thumb approach.

b. Harmony, not discord:
As per this principle, there should be complete harmony between the management and workers. Taylor called for complete mental revolution on the part of both management and workers. Both the parties should realize each other’s importance and work towards the profits of the firm.

c. Co-operation not individualism:
There should be complete co-operation between the labour and the management instead of individualism. According to Taylor, there should be an almost equal division of work and responsibility between workers and management.

d. Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity:
The growth and development of an organisation depends on the efficiency and prosperity of employees. The efficiency of employees can be developed by giving propertraining and development. This ensure the growth of an organisation.

2. Techniques of Scientific Management
a. Functional foremanship:
Functional foremanship is a technique in which planning and execution are separated. He classified 8 specialist foremen into two departments viz. Planning and Production department. Both departments have four foremen each. Functional foremanship is based on the principle of division of work.

1. Route clerk: To lay down the sequence of operations through which the raw materials have to pass in the production process.
2. Time & cost clerk: To lay down the standard time for completion of the work.
3. Instruction card clerk: He is expected to deal the instructions to be followed by workers in handling the job.
4. Disciplinarian: He maintains proper discipline in the factory.
5. Gang boss: He arranges material, machine, tool, etc. for operation.
6. Speed boss: He supervises matters relating to the speed of work.
7. Repair boss: He ensures repairs and maintenance of the tools and machines.
8. Inspector: He checks the quality of work done.

b. Standardisation and simplification of work:
Standardisation refers to the process of setting standards for every business activity. It includes use of standard tools and equipment, methods, working conditions, etc. for the maximisation of output. Simplification aims at eliminating unnecessary diversity of products. -It results in savings of cost of labour, machines, and tools.

c. Method study:
The objective of method study is to find out one best way of doing the job. The main objective is to minimize the cost of production and maximize the.quality of the work.

d. Motion study:
Motion study involves close observation of the movements of the workers and machines to perform a particular job. It helps to eliminate unnecessary movements of men, materials, and machine.

e. Time study:
It determines the standard time taken to perform a well-defined job. The objective of time study is to determine the number of workers to be employed, frame suitable incentive schemes and determine labour costs.

f. Fatigue study:
Fatigue study seeks to determine the amount and frequency of rest intervals in completing a task.

g. Differential piece wage system:
Under this system of wage payment, two kinds of rates are laid down.

• Higher rates are offered to those workers who produce more than standard output.
• Lower rates for those who produce below standard output.

h. Mental revolution:
It involves a change in the mental attitude of workers and management towards each other. Both parties should realise each other’s importance and work towards the profit of the firm.

Students can Download Chapter 13 Entrepreneurial Development Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 13 Entrepreneurial Development

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The factors which affect the success of an enterprise are called …………….
Answer:
Entrepreneurship values and attitudes.

Question 2.
Activities undertaken by an entrepreneur to bring a business unit into existence are known as ………………
Answer:
Entrepreneurship.

Question 3.
……………… is the reward of the entrepreneur for taking risks.
Answer:
Profit

Question 4.
Choose the right answer from the bracket given below.
(a) Employer
(b) Taking the responsibility of risk
(c) Maximise the wealth
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 5.
Entrepreneurship must be encouraged due to …………………..
(a) It helps regional development.
(b) Promote export trade.
(c) Create employment opportunities.
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
Entrepreneur + Enterprise = ………………………..
Answer:
Entrepreneurship

Question 7.
The owner of a new enterprise is called?
Answer:
Entrepreneur

Question 8.
KASH means
Answer:
Knowledge + Attitude + Skills + Habits

Question 9.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 10.
Pick out the false statement.
(a) Entrepreneurship is a systematic and purposeful activity.
(b) The object of entrepreneurship is lawful business.
(c) Entrepreneurship involves risk.
(d) Entrepreneurship and management are same.
Answer:
(d)Entrepreneurship and management are same

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the steps in setting up of a business.

Answer:

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a classroom discussion Raju stated that “entrepreneur is also a manager. But manager is not an entrepreneur”. Are there any differences between these two?
Answer:
Relationship between Entrepreneurship and Management:

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is entrepreneurial motivation?
Answer:
Entrepreneurial Motivation:
The entrepreneurial motivation may be defined as the process that activates and motivates the entrepreneur to exert higher level of efforts for the achievement of organisational goals.

1. Need for Achievement (N-Ach.):
Need for achievement implies a desire to accomplish something difficult. They are intrinsically motivated. They prefer work that has a moderate chance for success (about 50/50) and tend to avoid situations that are low-risk and those that are high-risk.

2. Need for Power (N-Pow):
Need for Power is the concern for influencing people or the behaviour of others for moving in the chosen direction and attaining the envisioned objectives.

3. Need for Affiliation (N-Aff.):
The need for affiliation is characterised by a desire to belong, and enjoyment of teamwork, a concern about interpersonal relationships, etc.

4. Need for Autonomy (N-Aut.):
The need for autonomy is a desire for independence and being responsible and accountable to oneself rather than some external authority for performance.

Question 14.
The qualities or competencies of an entrepreneur can be written as KASH. What is it?
Answer:
Qualities of an entrepreneur can be summarised as follows:

• K – Knowledge
• A – Attitude
• S – Skills
• H – Habits

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the features of Entrepreneurship.
Answer:
Characteristics of Entrepreneurship

• It is a systematic and purposeful activity.
• The object of entrepreneurship is a lawful business.
• Entrepreneurship is a creative response to the environment and the ability to exploit an economic opportunity.
• It is concerned with employing, managing, and developing the factors of production.
• Entrepreneurship involves risk. Profit is the reward of risk-taking.

Question 2.
Distinguish between entrepreneurship and Management.
Answer:

Question 3.
List down the process of setting up of a business.
Answer:
Process of Setting up a Business:

Question 4.
An entrepreneur is a leader, philosopher, planner, etc. He must have several qualities and competencies. List down any five entrepreneurial competencies.
Answer:
Entrepreneurial Competencies:

1. He has the ability to take or initiate the first move towards setting up of an enterprise.
2. He is always on the look out or searching for opportunity and is ready to exploit it in the best interest of the enterprise.
3. Successful entrepreneur finds ways to do things faster with fewer resources at tower costs.
4. He belives in systematic planning and its proper execution to reach goals.
5. An entrepreneur is never disheartened by failures. He follows try-try again for overcoming the obstacles.
6. An entrepreneur is always in search of new ideas from various sources.
7. He has the ability to understand and solve business problems.
8. He must be optimistic

Plus Two Business Studies Entrepreneurial Development Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An entrepreneur is responsible for doing several functions. What are the functions of an entrepreneur?
Answer:
Role of Entrepreneurs in Relation to their Enterprise

1. Perceiving market opportunities
2. Gaining command over scarce resources.
3. Marketing of the products.
4. Face the competition
5. Dealing with public bureaucracy (concession, licenses and taxes)
6. Managing the human relation within the firm.
7. Managing customer and supplier relations.
8. Managing finance.
9. Acquiring and overseeing assembly of the factory.
10. Improve the quality of the products

Question 2.
Write an essay on the role of entrepreneurs in economic development.
Answer:
Functions (Role) of Entrepreneurs in Relation to Economic Development:
1. Contribution to GDP:
Entrepreneurs explore and exploit opportunities, encourage effective resource mobilisation of capital and skill, bring in new products and services and develops markets for growth of the economy. In this way, they help increasing gross national product (GDP) as well as per capita income of the people in a country.

2. Capital Formation:
Entrepreneurs promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of public. They employ these resources for setting up an enterprise.

3. Generation of Employment:
With the setting up of more and more business units by entrepreneurs, a large number of employment opportunities are created.

4. Promotes Balanced Regional Development:
Entrepreneurs help to remove regional disparities through setting up of industries in less developed and backward areas.

5. Reduces Concentration of Economic Power:
A large number of entrepreneurs needs to be developed, which will help reduce the concentration of economic power amongst the population.

6. Improvement in the Standard of Living:
Entrepreneurs enables the people to avail better quality goods at lower prices which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

7. Promotes Export Trade:
Entrepreneurs help in promoting a country’s export-trade, which is an important ingredient of economic development.

8. Facilitates Overall Development:
The entrepreneurs multiply their entrepreneurial activities, thus creating an environment of enthusiasm and invite others for overall development of the area.

Students can Download Chapter 12 Consumer Protection Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 12 Consumer Protection

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consumer Protection Act was passed in the year ……………..
(a) 1964
(b) 1956
(c) 1932
(d) 1986
Answer:
(d) 1986

Question 2.
When did the provisions of consumer Protection Act come into force?
Answer:
1 July 1987

Question 3.
Which is acclaimed to be the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian consumers?
Answer:
Consumer Protection Act 1986

Question 4.
Consumer’s right to information means
(a) Right to advocate consumer’s interest.
(b) Right to be informed about the quality, quantity, price, etc. of the product.
(c) Right to be protected against marketing of hazardous goods.
Answer:
(b) Right to be informed about the quality, quantity, price, etc. of the product.

Question 5.
World consumer rights day is observed on ……………
Answer:
March 15

Question 6.
“Cigaratte smoking is injurious to health”. This information is mandatory in all cigarette packets. From this example identify consumer rights.
Answer:
Right to be Informed

Question 7.
Which consumer right gives the business firm freedom to set up their own consumer service & grievances cell?
Answer:
Right to be heard

Question 8.
Which consumer right entitles the consumer to get relief in case the product or service falls short of his expectation?
Answer:
Right to seek redressal

Question 9.
Which consumer right have access to a variety of products and services?
Answer:
Right to choose

Question 10.
Which consumer right suggests that a consumer must be protected from goods and services hazardous to life and health?
Answer:
Right to safety

Question 11.
Which judicial machineries are available to deal with consumer grievances?
Answer:

1. District Forum
2. State Commission
3. National Commission

Question 12.
Mr. X purchased a car for Rs.15 lakh but he is not satisfied with the quality and performance of the car. The company of the car did not provide any remedy to him. Under which authority of consumer protection Act 1986 can file an appeal?
Answer:
District Forum

Question 13.
Maximum amount of compensation that can be claimed in District consumer forum should not exceed:
Answer:
20 Lakhs

Question 14.
If a consumer is not satisfied with the order of the District forums, where can he appeal?
Answer:
State Commission

Question 15.
Find the odd one and state reason District Forum, State Commission, Law Adalats, National commission
Answer:
Law Adalats. All others are redressel agencies.

Question 16.
Within what period of purchase can the complaint be filed under Consumer Protection Act?
Answer:
Within 3 months

Question 17.
Name the apex institution to seek redressal under Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Answer:
National Commission

Question 18.
When the value of compensation claimed is in between 20 lakhs and 1 crore complaints can be filled with:
(a) District Forum
(b) State Commission
(c) National Commission
Answer:
(b) State Commission

Question 19.
ISI mark is given by
(a) Ministry of Finance.
(b) Ministry of Environment and Forest.
(c) Bureau of Indian Standard
(d) State Government.
Answer:
(c) Bureau of Indian Standard

Question 20.
…………………… is a means of consumer protection
to provide legal representation to previously represented groups and interest.
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

Question 21.
Amit wants to buy Gold Jewellery. As a knowledgeable customer how can he be sure about the quality of the jewellery?
Answer:
Hallmark

Question 22.
Which quality certification mark is used in case of electrical goods?
Answer:
ISI

Question 23.
Name the quality certification mark used is case of food products.
Answer:
F.P.O.

Question 24.
On which type of products can Eco Mark is used?
Answer:
Eco-friendly products

Question 25.
Smt. Sindhu purchased a silk saree costing Rs. 5,000. After first wash, it has lost the colour and caused huge loss to her. She lodged a complaint to the redressal forum. It was held that she will be given a sum of Rs. 5,000 as compensation. Identify the redressal forum she might have lodged the complaint.
Answer:
District Forum

Question 26.

Answer:

Question 27.
Demand the bill on purchase is the ………………. of a consumer.
Answer:
Responsibility

Question 28.
Where can a customer appeal within 30 days, if he is not satisfied with the order of National Commission?
Answer:
In Supreme Court

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Bejoy purchases a new computer from Ajitha traders. They give two years replacement guarantee. After six months use, the computer system fails to perform. Mr. Bejoy approaches the traders for replacement. But the traders refuse replacement.

1. Identify the law violated by the traders.
2. Point out redressal agencies where Bejoy should complain against the traders.

Answer:
1. Consumer Protection Act 1986.
2. Mr. Bejoy can approach the following redressal agencies for compensation.

• District Forum
• State Commission
• National Commission.

Question 2.
Mrs. Fathima, a house wife, while cooking food, the pressure cooker exploded, causing a big injury. She lodged a complaint to the redressal forum. Accordingly, the forum’s verdict was to pay a sum of Rs. 10,000/- as compensation.

1. Identify the right which has been violated.
2. In which redressal forums she might have lodged the complaints.

Answer:

1. Right to safety
2. District Forum

Question 3.
Cite a few examples of practices usually adopted by businessmen with view to deceiving the consumers and thereby exploit the poor customers to the maximum.
Answer:
Adulteration, black marketing, false weights, Poor quality of goods, duplication of brands, increasing the price of the product, etc.

Question 4.
If a case is decidedly the District Forum, can it be appealed before the Supreme Court.
Answer:
No. It can be challenged in the State Commission.

Question 5.
Name any two consumer organizations engaged in protecting and promoting consumers interest.
Answer:
Some of the important consumer organisations and NGOs engaged in consumer protection are

• Consumer Co-ordination Council, Delhi.
• Voluntary Organisation in Interest of Consumer Education (VOICE).
• Common Cause, Delhi.
• Consumer Protection Council, Ahmedabad.
• Consumer Guiderice Society of India, Mumbai.
• Consumer’s Association, Kolkatta, etc.

Question 6.
Who is a Consumer?
Answer:
Consumer: Under the Consumer Protection Act, a consumer is defined as

1. Any person who buys any goods for a consideration.
2. Any person who hires or avails of any service, for a consideration.

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Anju while on her shopping time is always vigilant to see that the products purchased come under “Eco mark”.

1. Why does she look for ‘eco mark’ while shopping? State its merits?
2. Cite a few examples of products which come under eco mark system.

Answer:
The ‘Eco mark’ label ensures consumers environment friendly products. Such products are not harmful to the environment in their manufacture, use and disposal.
E.g. AGMARK for wheat, flour, spices, etc.

Question 2.
Explain, in brief, any 3 reasons as to why consumer protection is needed in India.
Answer:

1. To protect the consumers against products that are unsafe to health and hygiene.
2. To protect the consumer against deceptive and unfair trade practices and to provide him with ad-equate means to get his grievance redressed.
3. To prevent abuse of monopoly position.

Question 3.
Mr. Balu gave a new dictionary as a gift to Manu, one of his friends. Manu found that some of its pages are unreadable due to over spreading of ink. He approached the shop keeper and demanded to replace it. But the shop keeper refused to replace the dictionary on the argument that Manu is not a consumer for him. Suggest your opinion.
Answer:
No. The argument of the shopkeeper is wrong. Manu is also a consumer. The term consumer means:

1. A person who buys any goods for a consideration.
2. A person who hires or avails of any services for a consideration.
3. Anyone who uses goods bought or services hired exclusively for earning livelihood by self employment.

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Which is acclaimed to be the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian Consumers?
2. Explain its importance.

Answer:

1. Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
2. Importance of Consumer Protection Act

a. From Consumers’ point of view:

• It is necessary to educate the customers about their rights.
• Consumers need to be organised in the form of consumer organisations which would take care of their interests.
• To protect the consumers from unscrupulous, exploitative and unfair trade practices.

b. From the Point of View of Business:

• Business firms should aim at long-term profit maximization through customer satisfaction.
• Business organisations use resources which belong to the society.
• A business has social responsibilities towards various interest groups.
• It is the moral duty of any business to take care of consumer’s interests and avoid any form of their exploitation.
• A business engaging in any form of exploitative trade practices would invite government intervention or action.

Question 2.
Who can file a complaint under Consumer Protection Act,1986?
Answer:
Complaint before the appropriate consumer forum can be made by

1. Any consumer.
2. The Central Government or any State Government.
3. One or more consumers, on behalf of numerous consumers having the same interest.
4. A legal heir or representative of a deceased consumer.

Question 3.
Explain any four functions of consumer association.
Answer:
Role of Consumer Organisations and Non-governmental Organizations (NGOs.)

1. Educating the general public about consumer rights by organising training programmes, seminars and workshops.
2. Publishing periodicals and other publications.
3. Collecting various samples of different goods and testing their quality.
4. Encouraging consumers to protest against exploitative and unfair trade practices of sellers.
5. Providing legal assistance to consumers by way of providing aid, legal advice, etc.
6. Filing complaints in appropriate consumer courts on behalf of the consumers.
7. Encouraging consumers to boycott defective goods.
8. Encouraging the consumers to purchase consumer friendly products.
9. Taking an initiative in filing cases in consumer courts in the interest of the general public.

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the various remedies available to a consumer under Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
Answer:
Relief Available to Consumers (Remedies)

1. To remove the defect in goods or deficiency in service.
2. To replace the defective product with a new one, free from any defect.
3. To refund the price paid for the product.
4. To pay a reasonable amount of compensation for any loss or injury suffered by the consumer.
5. To discontinue the unfair/restrictive trade practice.
6. Not to offer hazardous goods for sale.
7. To withdraw the hazardous goods from sale.
8. To issue corrective advertisement to neutralise the effect of a misleading advertisement.

Question 2.
Consumers are often exploited by profiteering business. What are the measures available to safeguard them?
Answer:
Ways and Means of Consumer Protection
1. Self Regulation by Business:
Many firms have set up their customer service and grievance cells to redress the problems and grievances of their consumers.

2. Business Associations:
The Associations of trade, commerce and business-like Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce of India (FICCl) and Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) have laid down their code of conduct for their members in their dealings with the customers.

3. Consumer Awareness:
A consumer, who is well informed about his rights, responsibilities and the reliefs available to him, would be in a position to raise his voice against any unfair trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation.

4. Consumer Organisations:
Consumer organisations play an important role in educating consumers about their rights and providing protection to them.

5. Government:
The government can protect the interests of the consumers by enacting various legislations.

Question 3.
What are the responsibilities of a consumer?
Answer:
Consumers Responsibilities

1. Be aware about various goods and services available in the market.
2. Buy only standardised goods as they provide quality assurance.
3. Learn about the risks associated with products and services, follow manufacturer’s instructions and use the products safely.
4. Read labels carefully so as to have information about prices, net weight, manufacturing and expiry dates, etc.
5. Choose only from legal goods and services.
6. Ask for a cash memo on purchase of goods or services.
7. File a complaint in an appropriate consumer forum in case of poor quality of goods or services.
8. Form consumer societies which would play an active part in educating consumers.

Plus Two Business Studies Consumer Protection Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a classroom discussion Vinod argues that Consumers have no right while purchasing or using a product.

1. Do you agree?
2. Explain various rights of consumers.

Answer:
Consumer Rights:
1. Right to Safety: The consumer has a right to be protected against goods and services which are hazardous to life and health.

2. Right to be Informed: The consumer has a right to have complete information about the product he intends to buy including its ingredients, date of manufacture, price, quantity, directions for use, etc.

3. Right to Choose: The consumer has the freedom to choose from a variety of products at competitive prices.

4. Right to be Heard: The consumer has a right to file a complaint and to be heard in case of dissatisfaction with goods or services.

5. Right to seek Redressal: The consumer has a right to get relief in case the product or service falls short of his expectations.

6. Right to Consumer Education: The consumer must be educated about the rights and remedies available under different laws.

Question 2.
Prepare an assignment on various consumer responsibilities.
Answer:
Consumers’ Responsibilities:

1. Be aware about various goods and services available in the market.
2. Buy only standardised goods as they provide quality assurance.
3. Learn about the risks associated with products and services, follow manufacturer’s instructions and use the products safely.
4. Read labels carefully so as to have information about prices, net weight, manufacturing and expiry dates, etc.
5. Choose only from legal goods and services.
6. Ask for a cash memo on purchase of goods or services.
7. File a complaint in an appropriate consumer forum in case of poor quality of goods or services.
8. Form consumer societies which would play an active part in educating consumers.

Students can Download Chapter 6 Organisms and Populations Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Organisms and Populations

Plus Two Botany Organisms and Populations One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Zero growth means
(a) Natality balance mortality
(b) Natality is more than mortality
(c) Natality is less than mortality
(d) Natality is zero
Answer:
(a) Natality balance mortality

Question 2.
Different types of interactions and the nature of interactions between species A and B are given in column I and II respectively. Choose the correct answer key where they are matched.

Answer:
(c) 2 5 4 3 1

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids?
(a) Dry weight
(b) Number of individuals
(c) Rate of energy flow
(d) Fresh weight
Answer:
(d) Fresh weight

Question 4.
In a pond there were 200 frogs, 40 more were born in a year. Calculate the birth rate of population.
Answer:
Birth rate = 40/200 = 0.2 offspring per year.

Question 5.
What is the cause of altitude sickness at high altitudes?
Answer:
Is due to the low atmospheric pressure of high altitudes that the body is unable to get enough oxygen.

Question 6.
Amensalism is an association between two species where:
(a) One species is harmed and other is benefitted
(b) One species is harmed and other is unaffected
(c) One species is benefitted and other is unaffected
(d) Both the species are harmed
Answer:
(c) One species is benefitted and other is unaffected.

Question 7.
According to Allen’s Rule, the mammals from colder climates have:
(a) Shorter ears and longer limbs
(b) longer ears and shorter limbs
(c) longer ears and longer limbs
(d) shorter ears and shorter limbs
Answer:
(c) longer ears and longer limbs

Question 8.
Lichens are the association of:
(a) bacteria and fungus
(b) algae and bacterium
(c) fungus and algae
(d) fungus and virus
Answer:
(c) fungus and algae

Question 9.
Salt concentration (Salinity) of the sea measured in parts perthousand is:
(a) 10-15
(b) 30-75
(c)  0-5
(d) 30-35
Answer:
(d) 30-35

Question 10.
Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation as:
(a) 18-25°C and 150-400 cm
(b) 5-15°C and 50-100 cm
(c) 30-50°C and 100-150 cm
(d) 5-15°C and 100-200 cm
Answer:
(a) 18-25°C and 150 – 400 cm

Question 11.
Observe the following statements. Select the correct one.
(a) Temperature increases progressively from equator towards the poles and from plain to mountain tops.
(b) Temperature is sub-zero level in polar areas and high altitude and increases to above 50°c in tropical desert in summer.
(c) In unique habitats such as thermal springs and deep sea hydrothermal vents average temperatures exceed 20°c.
(d) Mango trees grow in temperate countries like Canada and Germany.
Answer:
(a) Temperature is sub-zero level in polar areas and high altitude and increases to above 50°c in tropical desert in summer.

Question 12.
Cuscuta and vanda are growing on a mango tree. Which plant makes harm to the mango tree. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Cuscuta makes harm, it is a parasite that derives its nutrition from the host plant.

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not related to competition.
(a) Competition occurs when closely related species compete for the same resources that are limiting.
(b) Unrelated species also compete for same resources.
(c) Even if resources are abundant, the feeding effect of one species might be reduced due to the interfering and inhibitory presence of other species.
(d) Calotropis. growing in abandoned fields is an example of competition.
Answer:
(d) Calotropis growing in abandoned fields is an example of competition.

Question 14.
Parasitic mode of life ensures free lodging and meals. Identify the correct statements related to parasites.
(a) Parasites are not host specific and co-evolved.
(b) Parasites have special adaptations like loss of unnecessary sense organs, presence of suckers, loss of digestive systems, high reproductive capacity.
(c) Lice is an endoparasite.
(d) The female mosquito is a parasite.
Answer:
a, b.

Question 15.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blanks. Hibernation: Bear;……….: Snail
Answer:
Aestivation.

Question 16.
Read the statements properly and choose the correct one.
(a) Many desert plants have CAM pathway that enables their stomata to remain open during day time.
(b) In Opuntia, leaf reduced into green flattened structure.
(c) Kangaroo rat in North American deserts is capable of meeting all water requirements through the protein oxidation.
(d) Mammals from colder climate generally have shorter ears and limbs.
Answer:
(d) Mammals from colder climate generally have shorter ears and limbs.

Plus Two Botany Organisms and Populations Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a biotic community initially the population size was 250 during the year 2005 after a period of time 130 animals died of forest fire 20 were nearly born. During the next winter season 20 animals immigrated. Find out the change in population size.
Answer:
Nt = No + B + I – D + E
Therefore Nt = 250+ 20+ 20- 130 + 40
= 290- 170= 120

Question 2.
Some organism are different intheirtoleration level to temperature fluctuations

1. Name the type of organism that can tolerate wide range of temperature variation especially in increased global temperature?
2. Name the other type organisms restricted to narrow range.

Answer:

1. Eurythermal species,
2. Stenothermal.

Question 3.
In desert condition water availability very low hence normal plants cannot withstand. What are the adaptations are desert plants.
Answer:

1. Thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces
2. Stomata arranged in deep pits to minimise water loss through transpiration.
3. They show CAM pathway (they open stomata during night and closed during day time)
4. Opuntia, their leaves are reduced to spines and the flattened stems do photosynthesis.

Question 4.
In extreme summer and winter certain animals like frogs and lizard abandon their active life. This is popularly known as summer sleep and winter sleep respectively. Write down the technical term for summer sleep and winter sleep.
Answer:

• Summer sleep – Aestivation
• Winter sleep – Hibernation

Question 5.
What you meant by resource partitioning in an ecosystem.
Answer:
If two species compete for the same resource, they avoid competition by choosing different times for feeding or different foraging patterns.This is called resource partitioning.

Question 6.
Camouflaging is a method adopted by prey to lessen effect of predatien in animals. List out some mechanisms seen in plant species.
Answer:
Plants have evolved a variety of morphological and chemical defences against their predators (herbi-vores).

1. Thorns in plants are morphological means of defence.
2. Plants produce and store chemicals that make the herbivore sick. Eg: Glycosides, Quinine, Caf¬feine, Opuim etc.

Question 7.
Gause proposed the Competitive Exclusion Principle in 1934.

1. Define it
2. Give an example.

Answer:
1. Competitive Exclusion Principle states that the closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely The competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.

2. Abingdon tortoise compete with goats in galapagos island for same food source and tortoise became extinct.

Question 8.
Many tribes living in high altitudes of Himalayas have higher red blood cell count.

1. Do you agree?
2. Give reason

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. In high altitudes there is low oxygen availability. The tribes having high RBC production since the binding capacity of RBC with 02 decreases and ultimately results in high breathing rate.

Question 9.
Tribalsin high altitude are difficult to live in the initial phase of colonization but after few days they are adapted to live.

1. Write down 2 adaptations they developed
2. Name two disease symptoms in low 02 and atmospheric pressure conditions

Answer:
1. 2 adaptations they developed:

• increase RBC production
• increase breathing rate

2. nausea, fatigue.

Question 10.
The relationship between cattle egret and grazing cattle is considered as commensalism. Justify.
Answer:
Cattle egret gets food in the form of insects when the grazing cattle flushes out insects from the vegetation as it moves during grazing. The egret is benefited but there is no harm for the cattle.

Question 11.
Abingdon tortoise and goats are compete with each other in Galapagos Islands for common food finally one of them is eliminated.

1. Name the principle proposed by Gause to explain the elimination of one species due to other
2. Suggest one important method to reduce competition

Answer:

1. competitive exclusion principle
2. resource partitioning

Question 12.
Thermoregulation is expensive to small animals like Shrews and Hummingbirds live in colder climates. Do you agree? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes
Their body surface area is large compared to body volume, hence they have to spend more energy to increase metabolic rate when cold outside for producing more heat.

Question 13.
Ophrys is a Mediterranean orchid it’s petals shows resemblance to female be in colour size and markings but a male bee come into the flower and pollinate

1. Name the sexual deciet between male bees and orchid
2. Which is the interaction used to explain pollination method mentioned above

Answer:

1. pseudocopulation
2. mutualism

Question 14.
In sample A population growth under abandoned food supply violin sample B population growth under reduced food supply.

1. Name the two types of growth occurs in sample A and sample B
2. What will be the shape of curve get in sample A and sample B population

Answer:

1. In sample A exponential growth, in sample B Logistic growth
2. In sample A- J shaped, In sample B- S shaped

Question 15.
dN/dt = (b-d) × N
Let (b-d) = r, then
dN/dt = rN

1. What does r indicate in the above equation?
2. Which parameter is chosen for assessing impact of any biotic or abiotic factor on population growth?

Answer:

1. Intrinsic rate of natural increase
2. r parameter

Question 16.
Use proper terms of the statement given below.

1. Few organisms can tolerate and thrive in wide range of temperature.
2. Some organisms are tolerant to a narrow range of salinities.
3. The organism should try to maintain the constancy of its internal environment.
4. The organism may move temporarily from the stressful habitats to more hospitable area and return when stressful period is over.

Answer:

1. Eurythermal
2. Stenothermal
3. Homeostasis
4. Migrate

Question 17.
The integral form of the exponential growth equation is Nt = N₀e^rt. Expand the symbols in this equation.
Answer:

• Nt – Population density at time t
• No – Population density at time 0
• r – Intrinsic rate of natural increase
• e – base of natural logarithms.

Question 18.
In rocky intertidal communities of the American Pacific Coast the starfish Pisasterwere removed for an experimental purpose.

1. How did this affect the invertebrates in that region?
2. List out the important role of predators in nature.

Answer:
1. Pisaster is an important predator in the intertidal area. When Pisasters were removed, more than 10 invertebrate species became extinct because of interspecific competition.

2. important role of predators in nature:

• Predation helps to transfer energy to higher trohpic level from plants,
• Agricultural pest control or biological control is based on the ability of predator that important in regulating prey population.

Question 19.
Match A with B based on mutualism.

Answer:

• Lichen – cyanobacteria
• Mycorrhiza – fungi
• Fig tree – Wasp
• Sexual deceit – Ophrys

Question 20.
Define commensalism and write any two examples.
Answer:
Interaction in which one species benefited and the other is neither harmed nor benefited.
Example – Cattle egret and grazing cattle Sea anemone and clownfish.

Question 21.
Adaptations may be morphological, physiological or behavioural. Write the behavioural adaptations in desert lizard.
Answer:
Desert lizards bask in the sun and absorb heat when their body temperature drops below the comfort zone They move into shade when the temperature starts increasing.

Question 22.
Interaction between sea anemone and clown fish is termed as commensalism. Substantiate this statement.
Answer:
Sea anemone has stining tentacles and the clown fish lives among them, In this interaction the fish get protection from predators which stay away from the stinging tentacles but sea anemone does not derive any benefit or harm by hosting the clown fish.

Question 23.
Competition causes extinction of species. Substantiate this statement based on the extinction of Abingdon tortoise.
Answer:
A bingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct due to the introduction of goat on the island because goats have greater browsing efficiency than tortoise. Due to the lack of food tortoise became extinct.

Plus Two Botany Organisms and Populations Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Given below is the bar diagram showing the age structure of three countries. Answer the following questions by analyzing the diagram.

1. Which country has the highest population?
2. Which country has declining population?
3. One of the countries has a stable population. Explain.

Answer:

1. A has the highest population
2. C has declining population
3. B has stable population. In this population reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are more or less same. Hence it is stable.

Question 2.
Population growth curves (two types are given: observing the graph answer the following questions).

1. Identify the curves a & b.
2. Explain the signficance of K.
3. Which population growth has limited food supply?

Answer:

1. Curve ‘a’ is exponential growth curve and b is logistic growth curve.
2. K is the carrying capacity. Beyond K no further growth of population is possible.
3. Logistic growth

1. Name A, B and C pyramids.
2. Which one is ideal for a population. Suggest reason.
3. How does such age pyramids help policy makers of the country.

Answer:
1. Name A, B and C pyramids:

• Expaning
• Stable
• Declining

2. Expanding
Pre reproductive individuals are more in number than reproductive and post-reproductive.

3. It reflects the growth status

Question 4.
Scientist paul Ehrlich and Peter Raven developed the concept of co-evolution.

1. Give an example for co-evolution.
2. How did they show mutualistic association.
3. Name the mutualistic relationship shown by male bee and ophrys petal.

Answer:
1. Wasp and fig tree.

2. The female wasp lays its egg in the ovary locule and uses the developing seeds within the fruit for nourishing its larvae. The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable egg laying sites.

3. Pseudocopulation

Question 5.
Analyze the given graph which represents the population growth curve.

1. Which growth curves do ‘a’ and ‘b’ indicate?
2. Suggest an equation for ‘b’.
3. What parameters are required for calculating current r-value?

Answer:
1. growth curves do ‘a’ and ‘b’ indicate

• Exponential growth curve
• logistic growth curve

2. \(\frac{\mathrm{d}\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{dt}}=\mathrm{rN}\left(\frac{\mathrm{K}-\mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{K}}\right)\)

3. Current birth rate and death rate.

Question 6.
Observe the flow chart given below and answer the following questions.

1. Identify I, B, D and E.
2. Write the equation for population density.
3. B and I are positive, D and E are negative about population. Suggest reason.

Answer:
1. Identify I, B, D and E:

• l-Immigration
• D-Mortality
• B-Natality
• E-Emigration

2. N_t+1 = Nt + [(B+1)-(D + E)]

3. N and I are natality and immigration – Both contribute an increase in population density. D and E are mortality and emigration – Both contribute to decrease in population.

Question 7.
Analyse the given graph and answer the following questions.

1. Label a, b, c.
2. How a differs from b?

Answer:
1.

• Conformers
• Regulators
• Partial regulators

2.

• Organism Cannot maintain constant internal environment.
• Organism can maintain constant internal environment through thermoregulation and osmoregulation.

Question 8.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:
(a) Mutualism
(b) Competition
(c) Predation
(d) Parasitism
(e) Commensalism
(f) Amensalism

Plus Two Botany Organisms and Populations NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define phenotypic adaption. Give one example.
Answer:
Phenotypic adaptions are acquired non-genetic changes in individuals such as physiological modification, acclimatization or behavioural changes.

For examples, if a person has ever been to any high altitude, on visiting such as place he or she must have altitude sickness because body does not get enough oxygen. But gradually he or she gets acclimatized and stop experiencing altitude sickness.

Question 2.
Most living organisms cannot survive at temperature above 45°C. How are some microbes able to live in habitats with temperature exceeding 100°C?
Answer:
The microbes of high temperature area are known as thermo-acidophiles. They are able to survive at high temperature through.

1. Reduction in amount of free water.
2. Occurrence of branched chain lipids that reduce fluidity of cell membranes.

Question 3.
List the attributes that populations but not individuals possess.
Answer:

• Population density.
• Natality or birth rate.
• Mortality or death rate.
• Population growth.
• Sex ratio.
• Age distribution.

Question 4.
If a population growing exponentially double in size in 3 years, what is the intrinsic rate of increase (r) of the population?
Answer:
N_t = N₀ e^rt
Since N_t = 2; N0 = 1, e = 2.71828 ; t = 3
2 = (1 × 2.71828)^3r
Log 2 = 3 r log (2.71828)
0.3010 = 3 r × 0.4343
r= 0.2310
Intrinsic rate of increase=23.1 %.

Question 5.
Name important defence mechanisms in plants against herbivory?
Answer:
Leaves modified into thorns, development of spiny margins on the leaves. Many plants produce and store chemicals that make the herbivore sick.

eg: calotropis produces highly poisonous cardiac glycosides. Some other chemical substances like nicotine, quinine, opium etc are produced by plants and provide defence against grazing animals.

Question 6.
An orchid plant is growing on the branch of mango tree. How do you describe this interaction?
Answer:
It is an example of commensalism, where the or-chid gets space (benefitted) but the mango tree is neither benefited nor harmed.

Question 7.
What is the ecological principle behind the biological control method of managing with pest insects?
Answer:
The ecological principle behind the biological control of pest insects is based on the ability of predator to regulate prey population in that habitat. For example Gambusia fish prey upon the larvae of mosquito and acts as biological controller of malaria.

Plus Two Botany Organisms and Populations Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The niche of a population is defined as
(a) set of condition that interacts
(b) place where it lives
(c) set of conditions and resources it uses
(d) geographical’ area that it covers
Answer:
(c) set of conditions and resources it uses

Question 2.
Competition for food, light and space is most severe between two
(a) closely related species growing in different niches
(b) distantly related species growing in different niches
(c) closely related species growing in same niches
(d) distantly related species growing in same niches
Answer:
(c) closely related species growing in same niches

Question 3.
An ecosystem, which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops, will be having
(a) low stability and high resilience
(b) high stability and low resilience
(c) low stability and low resilience
(d) high stability and high resilience
Answer:
(a) low stability and high resilience

Question 4.
Assertion :Predaton is an interspecific ineraction with I a feeding strategy.
Reason : Predation and their prey maintain fairly stable population become abundant or scarce.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 5.
The assemblage of all the populations of different species that function as an Integrated unit through coevolved metabolic transformation in a specific area is Called
(a) biome
(b) biotic community
(c) population
(d) ecosystem
Answer:
(b) biotic community

Question 6.
A lake near a village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this
I) Lots of urea and phosphate fertilizers were used in the crops in the vicinity.
II) The area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft
III) The lake water turned green and stinky.
IV Phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis. Which two of the above were the main causes of fish mortality in the lake?
(a) II, III
(b) III, IV
(c) I, III
(d) I, II
Answer:
(d) I, II

Question 7.
In commensalism
(a) both partners are harmed
(b) weaker partner is benefitted
(c) both partners are benefitted
(d) None of the partners is benefited
Answer:
(b) weaker partner is benefitted

Question 8.
If the strong partner is benefitted and the weak partner is damaged. It is known as
(a) predation
(b) alleloathy
(c) symbiosis
(d) commensalisms
Answer:
(a) predation

Question 9.
Competition of species leads to
(a) extinction
(b) mutation
(c) greater number of niches are formed
(d) symbiosis
Answer:
(a) extinction

Question 10.
Which of the following statement regarding species interdependence are true?
I. An association of two species where one is benefitted and other remain unaffected is called mutualism.
II. An interspecific association where both partners derive benefit from each other is called commensalism.
III. A direct food relation between two species of animals in which one animals kills and feeds on another is referred as predation.
IV. A relationship between two of organisms where both the partners are benefitted from each other is called symbiosis.
(a) I and II only
(b) III and IV only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only
Answer:
(b) III and IV only

Question 11.
In India, human population is heavily weighed towards the younger age group as a result of
(a) Short life span of many individuals and low birth rate
(b) Short life span of many individuals and high birth rate
(c) long life span of many individuals and high birth rate
(d) long life span of many individuals and low birth rate
Answer:
(b) Short life span of many individuals and high birth rate

Question 12.
Ratio between mortality and natality is
(a) population ratio
(b) census proportion
(c) vital index
(d) density coefficient
Answer:
(c) vital index

Question 13.
The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in number during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
(a) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
(b) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
(c) Its population growth curve is of type
(d) The population of its predators increases enormously
Answer:
(c) Its population growth curve is of type

Question 14.
The annual variations in temperature results distinct seasons, these variations together with annual variation in precipitation leads to
(a) rain forest
(b) deserts ,
(c) lake
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Question 15.
Few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures they are called as
(a) eurythermal
(b) stenothermal
(c) euryhaline
(d) stenohaline
Answer:
(a) eurythermal

Question 16.
The type of benthic animals in ocean is determined by
(a) pH of water
(b) mineral composition
(c) sediment characteristics
(d) dissolved CO„ level
Answer:
(c) sediment characteristics

Question 17.
Important characteristics of mammals live in Antarctica or in the Sahara desert have
(a) osmoregulation
(b) thermoregulation
(c) thermoperiodicity
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Question 18.
The Smaller animals have a larger surface area, so they tend to lose body heat very fast when it is cold outside. This result in spending
(a) much energy for catabolism
(b) much energy for catabolism and anabolism
(c) low energy for catabolism
(d) much energy for anabolism
Answer:
(b) much energy for catabolism and anabolism

Question 19.
The Keolado National Park in Rajasthan host many
(a) bat population from warmer countries
(b) bird population from warmer countries
(c) bird population from winter countries
(d) bat population from winter countries
Answer:
(c) bird population from winter countries

Question 20.
Mammals of colder climates have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. This is come under
(a) Allen’s Rule
(b) bergmans rule
(c) jordans rule
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) Allen’s Rule

Question 21.
The number of births plus the number of immigrants is the major component in determining the
(a) density of population
(b) sex ratio
(c) age distribution
(d) species composition
Answer:
(a) density of population

Question 22.
If the resources in the habitat are unlimited, this results in the population have
(a) s- shaped curve
(b) j shaped curve
(c) parabolic curvature
(d) linear curve
Answer:
(b) j shaped curve

Question 23.
The equation dN/dt = rN(K-N/K) is represented as
(a) logistic population growth
(b) exponential population growth K
(c) Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(d) both a and c

Students can Download Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management Questions and Answers, Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In order to be successful, an organization must change its goals according to the needs of the environment. Which characteristic of management is highlighted in the statement?
Answer:
Management is dynamic.

Question 2.
Management consists of functions like planning, organizing, directing, controlling, etc. This characteristic of management is called(Management as a group activity, Management as a process, Management as a system of authority, Management as a profession)
Answer:
Management is a process.

Question 3.
Identify the concept of management depicted in the following diagram.
Answer:

Question 4.
“Management should have systematized body of knowledge and should establish cause and effect relationship” identify the concept of management?
Answer:
Management is a science

Question 5.
“The principles of management are applied to all types of activities.” Which characteristic of management is highlighted by this statement?
Answer:
Management is universal.

Question 6.
Good Managers require continuous practice and personal skills. Identify the Management concept referred in this context
Answer:
Management is a profession

Question 7.
Amina, who is working as the Managing Director of a company, comes under which level of management?
Answer:
Top-level

Question 8.
To meet the objectives of the firm, the Management of BPL limited offers employment to physically challenged persons. Identify the organisational objective it is trying to achieve.
Answer:
It is social objective

Question 9.
Almost all universities conduct several courses on management subject. Numerous research studies are still going on this subject. Identify the concept of management referred to in this context.
Answer:
Management as a discipline.

Question 10.
Find the odd one and state the reason.
Chief Executive, Managing Director, Foreman, General Manager
Answer:
Foreman.
All others are belongs to top-level management

Question 11.
Which level of management establishes policies, plans and objectives ?
Answer:
Top-level

Question 12.
The visiting card of a person is given below. Identify the level of management in which he belongs to?
Answer:
providing employment.

Question 13.
The visiting card of a person is given below. Identify the level of management in which he belongs to ?
Answer:

Question 14.
Choose the odd one from among the following persons working at different levels of management.
Answer:
(a) Purchase manager
(b) Production manager
(c) Marketing Manager
(d) Managing director
Answer:
(d) Managing director

Question 15.
Administrative functions are mainly performed by
(a) Top management
(b) Middle management
(c) Operational management
Answer:
(a) Top management

Question 16.
Mr. Arun is working as a supervisor. Identify the level of management he is working.
Answer:
Lower level management

Question 17.
Policy formulation is the function of
(a) Top-level managers
(b) Middle-level managers
(c) Operational managers
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Top-level managers

Question 18.
Which is not a function of management of the following?
(a) planning
(b) staffing
(c) co-operating
(d) controlling
Answer:
(c) co-operating

Question 19.
The following is not an objective of management
(a) earning profits
(b) growth of the organisation
(c) providing employment
(d) policymaking
Answer:
(c) providing employment

Question 20.
Identify the management function integrating the activities of different units of an organisation to achieve the organisational goals.
Answer:
Co-ordination

Question 21.
Which among the following is not an element of co-ordination?
(a) Integration
(b) balancing
(c) proper timing
(d) Direction
Answer:
(d) Direction

Question 22.
Co-ordination is
(a) Function of management
(b) The essence of management
(c) An objective of management
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The essence of management

Question 23.
Identification and grouping of activities to be undertaken and assigning them to different departments is (Planning, Directing, Organising, Co-ordinating)
Answer:
Organising

Question 24.
Which of the following is correct to the concept of the levels of management?
(a) Board of Directors come under the category of. middle-level management.
(b) Middle-level management plans day-to-day activities.
(c) Lower level management is also known as supervisory management.
(d) Top-level management is accountable to employees.
Answer:
(c) Lower level management is also known as supervisory management.

Question 25.
Which of the following is ‘not’ a function of Middle-level management?
(a) Reporting to top management.
(b) Participate in operational decisions.
(c) Lays down the objectives of the enterprise
(d) Directing the managers at lower levels.
Answer:
(c) Lays down the objectives of the enterprise

Question 26.
Mr. Goutham Krishna is the Production Manager of a joint stock company and he is always maintaining a close watch on day-to-day performance of his department. Identify the level of management he belongs to.
Answer:
Middle level management

Question 27.
Management is multidimensional. Which of the following is not a right statement?
(a) Management of machinery
(b) Management of work
(c) Management of people
(d) Management of operation’s
Answer:
(a) Management of machinery

Question 28.
The presence of management can be felt in the way the organisations’ functions. Which characteristics of management is mentioned here?
Answer:
Management is intangible

Question 29.
Which among the following is not an organisational objective of management?
(a) Existence
(b) Profit
(c) Creating employment opportunities
(d) Growth
Answer:
(d) Growth

Question 30.
Select the right pairfrom the following.
(a) Managing Director – Lower level management
(b) Production Manager-Top level management
(c) Foreman – Middle-level management
(d) Purchase Manager – Middle-level management
Answer:
(d) Purchase Manager – Middle-level management

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which level of management, the given persons are working?
(a) Supervisor
(b) Department heads
(c) General Manager
(d) Managing Director
Answer:
(a) Lower level
(b) Middle level
(c) Top-level
(d) Top-level

Question 2.
Management is a series of continuous interrelated functions. Comment.
Answer:
Management is a continuous process of planning, organising, staffing, directing and controlling. All these functions are interrelated.The success of a business organisation depends on the effective performance of all the managerial functions.

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. N S. Nair has retired as the director of a company.

1. At what level of management was he working?
2. What functions do you think he was performing at that level?

Answer:

1. He was working in Top-level Management

2. Top Management:
It consists of chairman, the Chief Executive Officer, Board of Directors, Managing Director, etc.

Functions of Top Level Management

• Lays down the objectives of the business
• Prepares strategic plans and policies
• Appoint middle level managers
• Issues necessary instructions to departmental heads.
• To maintain relations with outside agencies like govt., public, trade unions, etc.
• Co-ordinate and control all the departments in the organisation

Question 2.
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

Question 3.
“Management is a universal phenomenon.’

1. Do you agree with this statement?
2. Explain.

Answer:
I agree this statement. Management is universal in character because its principles and techniques are equally applicable in all types of organisation.

Question 4.
What do you mean by efficiency & effectiveness?
Answer:
Efficiency and effectiveness are both commonly used management terms. Efficiency means whatever we produce or perform; it should be done in a perfect way. Efficiency refers to doing things in a right manner. It is defined as the output to input ratio and focuses on getting the maximum output with minimum resources.

Effectiveness has a broader approach, which means the extent to which the actual results have been achieved to fulfill the desired outcome, ie, doing accurate things. Being Effective is about doing the right things while being Efficient is about doing things right.
Difference between Efficiency and Effectiveness:

Question 5.
The concept of Management has been interpreted in three different ways. Comment.
Answer:

1. Management as a discipline
2. Management as a process
3. Management as group

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Based on authority and responsibility, how the management levels are classified?
2. Explain the function of various levels of management.

Answer:
1. Management levels are classified as Top Level Management, Middle-Level Management, and Lower Level Management,
2. Functions of various levels of Management.
There are three levels in the hierarchy of an organisation. They are:

1. Top-Level Management
2. Middle-Level Management
3. Lower-Level Management

1. Top Management:
It consists of chairman, the Chief Executive Officer, Board of Directors, Managing Director, etc.
Functions of Top Level Management

• Lays down the objectives of the business
• Prepares strategic plans and policies
• Appoint middle-level managers
• Issues necessary instructions to departmental heads.
• To maintain relations with outside agencies like govt., public, trade unions, etc.
• Co-ordinate and control all the departments in the organisation

2. Middle Management:
All the functional epartment heads and branch managers come under the category of middle-level managers. E.g. Production Manager, Sales Manager, Finance manager, etc.,

Functions of Middle-Level Management

• Carry out the plans formulated by the top managers.
• To act as a link between Top Level Management and Lower Level Management.
• Assign necessary duties and responsibilities to the subordinates.
• Motivate them to achieve desired objectives.
• Co-operate with other departments.
• Reporting to top-level management.

3. Lower Management:
This level includes foremen, supervisors, finance and accounts officers, sales officers, etc. This level of managers have direct contact with employees.
Functions of Lower Level Management

1. Plan day-to-day production activities.
2. Assign workers to different jobs
3. Solve the problems of workers
4. Provide job training to workers
5. Looking after safety of workers.
6. Send periodical reports to middle level management.
7. Act as a link between management and employees.

Question 2.
Mr. Anand was appointed as a foreman in V. Guard Industries pump division.

1. Name the level of Management in which he was appointed.
2. What are the various functions he performed there?

Answer:
1. Lower Level Management.
2. Functions of Lower Level Management:

• Plan day-to-day production activities.
• Assign workers to different jobs
• Solve the problems of workers
• Provide job training to workers
• Looking after safety of workers.
• Send periodical reports to middle level management.
• Act as a link between management and employees.

Question 3.

1. Name the level of management which has direct contact with operative employees.
2. Also mention different functions performed by managers at this level.

Answer:

1. The level of managment which has direct contact with operative employees is lower-level managers.
2. Functions of lower lever management:

• Plan day-to-day production activities.
• Assign workers to different jobs
• Solve the problems of workers
• Provide job training to workers
• Looking after safety of workers.
• Send periodical reports to middle level management.
• Act as a link between management and employees.

Question 4.
Is ‘Management’ a science? Briefly explain.
Answer:
Yes. Management is a science.
Science is a systematised body of knowledge that is based on general truths. The features of science are as follows.

1. Science is a systematic body of knowledge.
2. Scientific principles are developed through experiments.
3. Universal validity and application.

Management can be treated as a science because:

1. Management has a systematized body of knowledge.
2. Management principles are developed after scientific enquiry, experimentation and observation.
3. Management principles are applicable to all types of organizations.

So management is also called science.

Question 5.
“Anything minus management is zero”. Explain the importance of management in light of this statement.
Answer:
Need and Importance of Management
1. Achieving Group Goals:
Efficient management coordinates all the activities for the achievement of organisational goals.

2. Increases Efficiency:
Management helps to reduce costs and increase productivity through better planning, organising, directing, staffing and controlling the activities of the organisation.

3. Creates Dynamic Organisation:
Good management enables the business to adapt and adjust according to the changes in the business environment.

4. Achieving Personal Objectives:
Through motivation and leadership, the management helps individuals to develop team spirit, co-operation and commitment to group success.

5. Development of Society:
Management helps to provide good quality products and services, creates employment opportunities, adopts new technology, etc., for the good of the people and society.

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is your opinion to the statement “management is both an art and a science”?
Answer:
Management can be rightly regarded as both a science and an art. It is a science with a systematised body of knowledge and universal application; It uses certain principles. Management principles are universal. Management is an art because it requires specific skills and experience for the attainment of organisational objectives.

Question 2.
The management function in a circular movement is shown below.

1. Re-arrange these management functions in the correct sequence.
2. Identify the concept of management depicted by the diagram.

Answer:
1.

2. Management is a continupus process.

Question 3.
All the functional departmental heads come under this category of management.

1. Identify the level of management.
2. What are the general functions performed by this level of management?

Answer:
1. Functional departmental heads are middle-level managers.
2. Functions of middle-level managers:

• Plan day-to-day production activities.
• Assign workers to different jobs
• Solve the problems of workers
• Provide job training to workers
• Looking after safety of workers.
• Send periodical reports to middle level management.
• Act as a link between management and employees.

Question 4.
Draw a diagram to show management as a process.
Answer:

Question 5.
Following are the lists of managerial personnels in an organization. State in which level of management they belong to:

1. Foreman
2. Departmental management
3. General manager
4. Supervisor
5. Divisional manager
6. Chief executive
7. Managing director
8. Deputy Manager
9. Superintendent
10. Section Officer

Answer:

1. Foreman – Lower level
2. Departmental manager – Middle level
3. General manager – Top level
4. Supervisor – Lower level
5. Divisional manager – Middle level
6. Chief executive – Top level
7. Managing director – Top level
8. Deputy manager – Top level
9. Superintendent – Lower level
10. Section officer – Middle level

Question 6.
In a classroom debate you argue that management is a Profession. What are the points you will raise to substantiate your argument?
Answer:
Management as a Profession :
Profession means an occupation for which specialised knowledge and skills are required. The main features of profession are as follows.

1. Well defined body of knowledge
2. Formal education and training
3. Professional Associations Management is a profession because:

• Management is based on a systematic body of knowledge comprising well-defined principles.
• A manager acquires management skills through formal education and training.
• All professions are affiliated to a professional association which regulates entry and frame code of conduct relating to the profession.

Question 7.
“Co-ordination is the essence of management”. Do you agree? If so why?
Answer:
Co-ordination:
The process by which a manager synchronises the activities of different departments is known as co-ordination. Coordination is the force that binds all the other functions of management.

Importance of Coordination
1. It increases efficiency:
Co-ordination increases organisational efficiency.

2. Key to other functions:
Co-ordination is the key to other managerial functions. Co-ordination makes planning more effective, organisation more well-knit and control more regulative.

3. Functional differentiation:
The process of linking the activities of various departments is accomplished by co-ordination.

4. Unity in diversity:
In an organization, there are large numbers of employees with different ideas, cultures, etc. Coordination brings unity in diversity.

5. Specialisation:
Coordination helps to coordinate the efforts of various specialists in ah organisation.

Question 8.
Mr. Santhosh and Mr. Pradeep are associates with a company. Mr. Santhosh is doing with policy decision in the company and Mr. Pradeep is overseeing the subordinates at work.

1. Name the levels of management they engaged in.
2. List out the functions of each level?

Answer:
1. Top-level and lower-level management.
2.
a. Top Management:
It consists of chairman, the Chief Executive Officer, Board of Directors, Managing Director, etc.
Functions of Top Level Management

1. Lays down the objectives of the business
2. Prepares strategic plans and policies
3. Appoint middle-level managers
4. Issues necessary instructions to departmental heads.
5. To maintain relations with outside agencies like govt., public, trade unions, etc.
6. Coordinate and control all the departments in the organisation

b. Lower / Supervisory / Operational Management:
This level includes foremen, supervisors, finance and accounts officers, sales officers, etc. This level of managers have direct contact with employees. Functions of Lower Level Management

1. Plan day-to-day production activities.
2. Assign workers to different jobs
3. Solve the problems of workers
4. Provide job training to workers
5. Looking after safety of workers.
6. Send periodical reports to middle-level management.
7. Act as a link between management and employees.

Question 9.
Read the following arguments of two students.
Anil: “Management is an ordinary job, which doesn’t require any special knowledge and skill”.
Sunil: Management is a profession, which requires specialised knowledge and skill.”

1. Whose argument do you favor?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Sunil’s argument is correct.
2. Management as a Profession:
Profession means an occupation for which specialised knowledge and skills are required. The main features of profession are as follows.
a. Well defined body of knowledge
b. Formal education and training
c. Professional Associations Management is a profession because:

• Management is based on a systematic body of knowledge comprising well defined principles.
• A manager acquires management skills through formal education and training.
• All professions are affiliated to a professional association which regulates entry and frame code of conduct relating to the profession.

Question 10.
As a commerce student advice your friend about the characteristics and objectives of modern management.
Answer:
a. Characteristics/Nature of Management
1. Management is goal oriented.
2. Management is universal in character.
3. Management is multidimensional, which include

• Management of works
• Management of people
• Management of operations

4. It is a continuous process.
5. It is a group activity.
6. It is a dynamic function,
7. It is an intangible force.

b. Objectives of Management:
Management fulfills three basic objectives like organisational, social and personal.
1. Organisational Objectives:
Management is responsible for setting and achieving objectives for the organisation.
It includes:

1. Survival: Management must strive to ensure the survival of the organisation.
2. Profit: Management has to ensure that the organization makes reasonable profit.
3. Growth: management must exploit fully the growth potential of the organisation.

Plus Two Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the functions of management.
Answer:
Functions of Management:
1. Planning:
Planning is the function of determining in advance what is to be done and who is to do it.

2. Organising:
It is the management function of assigning duties, grouping tasks, establishing authority responsibility relationship and allocating resources required to carry out a specific plan.

3. Staffing:
Staffing means finding the right people with the right qualifications to accomplish the goals of the organisation. It involves activities such as recruitment, selection, placement and training of personnel.

4. Directing:
Directing involves leading, supervising, communicating and motivating the employees to perform the tasks assigned to them.

5. Controlling:
It means monitoring organizational performance towards the attainment of organisational goals.

Question 2.
“Management is the function of getting things done, through and with people”. Explain the importance of management in light of this statement.
Answer:
Need and Importance of Management
1. Achieving Group Goals:
Efficient management co-ordinates all the activities for the achievement of organisational goals.

2. Increases Efficiency:
Management helps to reduce costs and increase productivity through better planning, organising, directing, staffing and controlling the activities of the organisation.

3. Creates Dynamic Organisation:
Good management enables the business to adapt and adjust according to the changes in the business environment.

4. Achieving Personal Objectives:
Through motivation and leadership, the management helps individuals to develop team spirit, co-operation and commitment to group success.

5. Development of Society:
Management helps to provide good quality products and services, creates employment opportunities, adopts new technology, etc., for the good of the people and society.

Question 3.
“Co-ordination is the orderly arrangement of group efforts to provide unity of action in the pursuit of a common purpose”. IF\ the light of this statement explain the importance of co-ordination in a business enterprise.
Answer:
Co-ordination:
The process by which a manager synchronises the activities of different departments is known as co-ordination. Coordination is the force that binds all the other functions of management.
Characteristics of Coordination:

1. Co-ordination integrates group efforts of different departments
2. Co-ordination ensures unity of action
3. Co-ordination is a continuous process
4. Co-ordination is an all pervasive function
5. Co-ordination is the responsibility of all managers
6. Co-ordination is a deliberate function

Importance of Coordination:
1. It increases efficiency:
Co-ordination increases organisational efficiency.

2. Key to other functions:
Co-ordination is the key to other managerial functions. Co-ordination makes planning more effective, organisation more well-knit’ and control more regulative.

3. Functional differentiation:
The process of linking the activities of various departments is accomplished by co-ordination.

4. Unity in diversity:
In an organization, there are large numbers of employees with different ideas, culture, etc. Coordination brings unity in diversity.

5. Specialisation:
Coordination helps to coordinate the efforts of various specialists in ah organisation.

Students can Download Chapter 5 Biotechnology and its Applications Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Biotechnology and its Applications

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology and its Applications One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Transgenic cotton plant which is resistant to boll worm got the gene from
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Spirulina
(c) Dictyostelium
(d) Trichonympha
Answer:
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 2.
A multinational company outside India tried to sell new varieties of turmeric without proper patent rights. What is such an act referred to?
Answer:
Biopiracy

Question 3.
Name the biological product that obtained from transgenic cow Rosie.
Answer:
Human Alpha Lactalbumin

Question 4.
Name the technique used to prevent the attack of nematode in root of tobacco plants
Answer:
RNA interference

Question 5.
Which is most important method used to correct the genetic defect.
Answer:
Gene therapy

Question 6.
Some times genetically modified organisms will make unpredictable results in future. Which is the organisation of Govt, of India monitor the validity of GM research
Answer:
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)

Question 7.
Give an example for organism that possess acidic PH in their stomach?
Answer:
Humans

Question 8.
An important food crop developed by genetic engineering technique solve the problem of it. A deficiency. Name it.
Answer:
Golden rice

Question 9.
The site of production of ADA in the body is:
(a) Bone marrow
(b) lymphocytes
(c) Blood plasma
(d) Monocytes
Answer:
(b) lymphocytes.

Question 10.
In RNAi, genes are silenced using:
(a) ss DNA
(b) ds DNA
(c) ds RNA
(d) ss RNA
Answer:
(c) ds RNA

Question 11.
The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of
(a) AIDS
(b) Cancer
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) SCID (Servere Combined Immuno Deficiency resulting form deficiency of ADA)
Answer:
(d) SCID (Servere Combined Immuno Deficiency resulting form deficiency of ADA)

Question 12.
ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in a genetic disorder SCID. What is the full form of ADA?
(a) Adenosine deoxy aminase
(b) Adenosine deaminase
(c) Aspartate deaminase
(d) Arginine deaminase
Answer:
(b) Adenosine deaminase

Question 13.
Siliencing of a gene could be achieved through the use of
(a) Short interfering RNA (RNAi)
(b) Antisense RNA
(c) By both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) By both

Question 14.
Which among the following plants is related with the issues of biopiracy?
(a) Bt cotton
(b) Basmati Rice
(c) Atlas 66
(d) Bt Brinjal
Answer:
(b) Basmati Rice

Question 15.
What is the major disadvantage of insulin taken from slaughtered cattle and pigs?
Answer:
It causes allergy and other types of reactions

Question 16.
Disorder due to ADA deficiency can be over came by…………….
(a) RNA interference
(b) PCR
(c) ELISA
(d) Gene Therapy
Answer:
(b) Gene Therapy

Question 17.
Bacillus thuringiensis produces insecticidal proteins. Why does this protein not kill the Bacillus?
Answer:
Bt toxin exist as inactive protoxins

Question 18.
Very low concentration of DNA of pathogen can be amplified and hence diagnosis becomes easy. Which method is suitable for this method?
Answer:
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

Question 19.
Which among the following plants is related with the issues of biopiracy?
(a) Bt cotton
(b) Basmati Rice
(c) Atlas 66
(d) Bt Brinjal
Answer:
(b) Basmati Rice

Question 20.
Crystals of Bt toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis do not kill the bacteria themselves because.
(a) Bacteria is resistant to toxin
(b) Toxins only kill animals
(c) Toxin is inactive
(d) Toxin is protein
Answer:
(c) Toxin is inactive

Question 21.
What is the major disadvantage of insulin taken from slaughtered cattle and pigs?
Answer:
It causes allergy and other types of reactions.

Question 22.
RNAi was first introduced in tobacco plants to restrict the infection of a nematode worm………..
Answer:
Meloidegyne incognitia

Question 23.
Manipulation of living organisms by the human race cannot go on any further, without regulations. Which committee in India makes decisions regarding GM research?
Answer:
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee).

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology and its Applications Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the two uses of PCR technique.
Answer:

1. It is used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
2. It is being used to detect mutations in gene in suspected cancer patients.

Question 2.
Bone marrow transplantation is not permanent cure for ADA deficiency why?
Answer:
Bone marrow transplantation is not permanent cure because the differentiated cells stops the production of ADA after the definite period.

Question 3.
In 1997 American Government got patent for producing a trasgenic plant.

1. Name the plant.
2. What are the evidences to show that Basmathi rice has been grown in India from centuries?

Answer:

1. Basmathi rice.
2. There are references of Basmathi rice in ancient texts, folklores, and poetry.

Question 4.
List out the advantages of genetically modified crops.
Answer:
Advantages

1. GM crops are more tolerant to abiotic stresses, Reduce post harvest loss
2. Increase efficiency of mineral usage
3. Increase nutritional value.
4. To supply alternate resources in the form of starches, fuels, and pharmaceuticals.

Question 5.
Bacillus thuringiensis produce insecticidal proteins. Called Bt toxins. Explain how Bt toxins works in insects and kill them.
Answer:
Inactive protoxin produced by Bacillus thuringinsis becomes active at the alkaline PH of the insect gut, the activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and creates pores that cause cell swelling and lysis.

Question 6.
Bt plants are genetically engineered insect resistant plants.

1. What does ‘Bt’ stand for?
2. Cite examples for any two ‘cry’ genes which produce Bt toxin.

Answer:

1. Bacillus thuringiensis
2. Cry I Ac, Cry II Ab.

Question 7.
Serious problems are associated with conventional agriculture.

1. Identify the problems
2. How is it solved?

Answer:
1. Low crop yield

• Use of expensive agrochemicals.
• The harmful effects of agrochemicals on the environment.

2. These problems can be solved by using genetically modified crops.

Question 8.
Why the crystals of Bt toxin do not kill the bacteria themselves?
Answer:
The toxin is active only at certain alkaline pH inside the gut of the insect. The toxin is inactive inside the bacteria as it exists as protoxin.

Question 9.
Cry genes are of different types.

1. Name 3 cry genes.
2. Write the uses of proteins produced by these genes?

Answer:

1. Cry I Ac, Cry ll Ab, Cry lAb
2. Cry IAc& Cry ll Ab – Produces toxic protein to control cotton boll worm Cry lAb – Produce toxic protein to control corn borer.

Question 10.
Insulin in man is normally produced by the (3 cells of the pancreas. But now a days it is commercially produced from bacteria like E.coli and marketed as ‘humulin’.

1. Write down the procedure used
2. Insulin is not taken from pancreas of slaughtered animals. Why?

Answer:
1. Human insulin was synthesized by American company Eli Lilly by recombinant DNA technology. The 2 DNA sequence coding for A & B polypeptide chain were introduced into E coli. The 2 polypeptide chains are synthesized independently and later linked by disulphide bond to form mature insulin.

2. It causes allergy

Question 11.
Specific genes of nematode are introduced into Tobacco plant through the vector.

1. Identify the used vector in above case.
2. Explain the role of that introduced gene in the Tobacco plant.

Answer:

1. Agrobacterium tumifaciens.
2. Offers resistance to the plant by silencing mRNA by the process of RNA interference.

Question 12.
The conventional methods are used for curing ADA deficiency. Identify the conventional methods. Write its demerits.
Answer:
Conventional methods of disease diagnosis like serum and urine analysis are not able to detect low concentration of viruses and other pathogens.

Question 13.
How can PCR detect very low amounts of DNA?
Answer:
PCR is a Polymerase Chain Reaction, which amplifies low amount of DNA making multiple copies of which it helps in the diagnosis of low amount of DNA.

Question 14.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 15.
Insulin in man is normally produced by Beta cells of pancreas. But now a days it is commercially produced from bacteria like E. coli and marketed as Humulin. Explain how this method is possible.
Answer:
An American company Eli Lilly in 1983 prepared two. DNA sequences corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin and inserted in plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.

Question 16.
One of the applications of biotechnology is the corrective therapy for hereditary diseases.

1. Do you agree with this? Which technique is used to achieve this?
2. How can this be done?

Answer:

1. Yes.Gene therapy
2. In gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are cultured and functional ADA cDNA is introduced in it. Then, these cells are return back to the patient. These cells can produce adenosine deaminase enzyme.

Question 17.
A nematode is found to be infecting the root of tobacco plant and there by decreasing the yield. Mention a novel technology adopted to check the infestation.
Answer:
The best method used to prevent the attack of nematode is RNA interference (RNAi), It involves silencing of a specific mRNA of nematode.

Question 18.
GM crops prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil. Give reason.
Answer:
GM crops have the ability to resist diseases So the use of chemical pesticide can be decreased. This helps to keep the nitrogen fixing and other useful microbes in the soil as live.

Question 19.
Suppose you have produced a GM plant. Which Govt, organisation will take decisions regarding the validity of your genetic research? Why is such a body necessary?
Answer:
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) They take decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the safety of introducing GM- organisms for public services.

Question 20.
Recently you heard a lot about HiNi virus from medias. PCR technique is used for proper diagnosis of the disease by our research institutes. What is the significance of PCR technique in the early diagnosis of H1N1?
Answer:
This technique is used for amplify the viral nucleic acid up to 1 billion copies. This helped in the early diagnosis of diseases.

Question 21.
Name the factors on which behavior of genetically modified organism (GMO) depends.
Answer:
The behavior of GM organism depends on the nature of genes transferred, nature of host plant and animal or bacterium.

Question 22.
What is a DNA probe?
Answer:
DNA probe is a small DNA segment that recognize complementary sequence in DNA molecule and allow identification and isolation of specific DNA sequence from an organism.

Question 23.
Write the two uses of PCR technique.
Answer:

1. It is used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients
2. It is being used to detect mutations in gene in suspected cancer patients.

Question 24.
How patent is given?
Answer:
Patent is given to

1. For producing new product or invention.
2. Modified and improved earlier invention.
3. Technical know how.
4. New designing concept.

Question 25.
Give example of vaccine safety in respect to transgenic animals.
Answer:
Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of polio vaccine

Question 26.
Which three options could be thought for increasing food production?
Answer:

1. Agro – chemical based agriculture
2. Organic agriculture
3. Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture.

Question 27.
What are genetically modified organisms (GMO)?
Answer:
Organisms such as plants, bacteria, fungi, and animals whose genes have been manipulated are known as GMO.

Question 28.
What was the speciality of the milk produced by the transgenic cow Rosie?
Answer:
Contains Human alpha-lactalbumin. Nutritionally more balanced than normal cow milk.

Question 29.
Explain why Bt cotton flowers undergo pollination by butterflies and bees in spite of being insect pest resistance.
Answer:
cotton is genetically engineered to produce a toxin which kills insect pests which eat the plant and cause the damage. Bees and butterflies only forage for nectar in flowers and do not eat any part of the plant so they do not die.

Question 30.
An important food crop developed by genetic engineering technique solve the problem of vitA deficiency.
Answer:
Golden rice is genetically engineered with vitA precursor of carotenoids.

Question 31.
RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a metffod of cellular defense. What is RNA interference?
Answer:
It is the silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation or protein synthesis of mRNA.

Question 32.
Pest resistant plants can be developed by genetic engineering. Explain how RNAi is successful in this area?
Answer:
In this process, nematode specific genes are introduced into the host plant through agrobacterium, it produce both sense and antisense RNA, since this two RNAs are complementary to each other, form a dsRNA, RNAi is operated and the nematode can’t produce proteins.

Question 33.
Given below is the diagram showing formation of insulin from pro-insulin. Explain how proinsulin develops to form insulin?

Answer:
Proinsulin is an immature and non functional that contains A, B and C chains, it is matured into insulin by the removal of short c peptide chain.

Question 34.
The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with ADA deficiency.

1. Write the steps involved in this method of treatment.
2. What is the major disadvantage of this process?

Answer:
1. In this method Lymphocytes taken from the blood of the patient and grown in a culture outside the body, into these, functional ADA cDNA are introduced, after this modified lymphocytes are returned back into the patients body.

2. Since the lymphocytes are not immortal, patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes.

Question 35.
Given below are two laboratory methods used for molecular diagnosis PCR, ELISA.

1. Expand PCR and ELISA
2. What is the principle of ELISA

Answer:

1. Polymerase Chain Reaction Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
2. Antigen-antibody interaction.

Question 36.
Given below are some biological products, which are produced by transgenic organisms

• a -1 – antitrypsin
• a-lactalbumin
• human insulin

1. Fill in the column given below suitably using the above terms

2. ……….is the transgenic cow, which produces human milk protein.
Answer:
1. A = human insulin
B = α lactalbumin
C = α-1-antitrypsin

2. Rosie

Question 37.
Genetically modified plants have been useful in many ways. Suggest some advantages of genetically modified plants in agriculture.
Answer:

• Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stress
• Reduced the use of chemical pesticides
• Reduced post harvest loss
• Increased mineral usage efficiency

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology and its Applications Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) and Enzyme-Linked Immuno – Sorbent Assay (ELISA) are some of the techniques that serve the purpose of early Diagnosis of disease like AIDS.

1. Write the scientific basis of this statement.
2. Write the name of pathogen causing AIDS.

Answer:
1. PCR – By amplification of the DNA of virus or bacteria present in the patient helps to identify even the concentration of pathogen is very low in the body of the patient. A single stranded DNA or RNA is tagged with a radio active molecule (probe) is allow to hybridized to its complementary DNA in clone of cells followed by detection using auto radiography .

Thus the mutated gene can be detected as it will not hybridize with the probe. ELISA – Enzyme linked immune sorbent assay is based on the principle of antigen antibody reaction. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of antigen or by detecting antibodies synthesized against the pathogen.

2. HIV-human immuno deficiency virus.

Question 2.
For effective treatment of a disease early diagnosis and understanding its patho physiology is very important. Mention the 3 techniques which are used for the purpose of early diagnosis.
Answer:
PCR-By amplification of the DNA of vims or bacteria present in the patient helps to identify even the concentration of pathogen is very low in the body of the patient.

A single stranded DNA or RNA is tagged with a radio active molecule (probe) is allow to hybridized to its complementary DNA in clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography. Thus the mutated gene can be detected as it will not hybridize with the probe.

ELISA – Enzyme linked immuno- sorbent assay is based on the principle of antigen-antibody reaction. Infection by pathogen is an antigen it can be detected by the presence of antibodies synthesized against it.

Question 3.
List out the milestones achieved in medicine by the introduction of recombinant DNA technique, citing examples.
Answer:
Recombinant DNA technology have made immense impact in the field of medicine both in diagnosis and therapeutics. Human insulin is produced by E.Coli which is engineered to produce A and B chains of polypeptide.

Gene therapy is curing of disease by delivery of a normal gene into the individual even at the embryo stage. Gene therapy is used to cure Adenosine deaminase deficiency.

Moleculardiagnosis involves PCR (Polymerase chain reaction)and ELISA. In polymerase chain reaction, the genes are amplified it helps to detect viral infection prior to the appearance of symptoms.

Question 4.
Animals that have their DNA manipulated and express foreign gene are called transgenic animals. Write any four characteristics of transgenic animals.
Answer:
1. Transgenic animal can be specifically designed to allow the study of the mechanism of gene expression, its regulation & how they effect the normal function & development.

2. It is also used to study the biological effects of certain gene product & also the biological role of these products in the body.

3. Transgenic animals serve as models for human disease. So that investigation of new treatment for disease is made possible.
Example : Alzheimer’s, cancer, Cystic, fibrosis, etc.

4. Transgenic animal are used produce medicine it is used to treat diseases like Emphysema. The transgenic cow rosie produced human protein enriched milk (alpha- lactalbumin).

5. They are also used for testing the safety of vaccines like polio. It is also used for testing toxicity of drugs.

Question 5.
ADA deficiency is permanently cured by gene therapy.

1. Expand ADA.
2. Write its normal function in human body.
3. If gene for ADA is deleted the person will become susceptible to attack of pathogens and die of ordinary diseases. By analysing the given statement can you explain the role of ADA.
4. Can you suggest alternative methods for curing the same disease?

Answer:

1. Adenosine deaminase
2. It is a crucial enzyme for the immune system to function.
3. The patients have non-functioning T- Lymphocytes. So they cannot produce immune responses against invading pathogens.
4. Yes. Gene therapy is used for permanent curing of ADA deficiency.

There are two methods for treatment of ADA deficiency.

• by bone-marrow transplantation
• and by enzyme replacement therapy.

Question 6.
Expand

1. ELISA
2. GEAC
3. RNA i

Answer:

1. Enzyme-Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
2. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
3. RNA interference

Question 7.
In 1990 first test of human gene therapy was performed in 4-year-old girl ‘De Silva’ with adenosine deaminase deficiency.

1. Name the method used to cure the disease
2. Explain the procedure of r DNA technology used to recover adenosine deaminase deficiency
3. Which is the best cure for this disease?

Answer:
1. Gene therapy.

2. Lymphocytes are taken from patient’s blood it is grown invitro culture. By using retroviral vector functional ADA cDNA (from WBC of normal person) is introduced into vitro cultured lymphocytes These genetically engineered lymphocytes (corrected functional lymphocytes) are reinjected into the patients.

3. If the ADA producing genes are introduced into cells at early embryonic stage it could be a permanent cure.

Question 8.
You have developed a GM plant.

1. Which govt, organization will you approach to obtain clearence for its mass production?
2. Is such a body is necessary?
3. Give two reasons.

Answer:

1. GEAC-genetic engineering approval committee
2. Yes
3. It will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research & the safety of introducing GM organism for public services. It also deals with the patenting problems.

Question 9.
In Tobacco plants pest resistance is achieved by a special technique.

1. Name the technique
2. Which is the pest killed by this way?
3. Explain the method.

Answer:

1. RNA interference
2. Meloidegyne incognitia(nematode)
3. It is the silencing of mRNA done by a double-stranded RNA (dsRNA).

In this technique the pest resistant gene (cDNA) is transferred into host plant by using agrobacterium vector, which become double stranded and silences the mRNA of the pest from expressing inside the host. Thus the plant become resistant to the pest which cannot survive inside the host.

Question 10.
Bacillus thuringienesis is a Bacteria, which produce a toxic insecticidal protein.

1. Write down the significance of this bacteria in GMO.
2. Insecticidal protein is not harmful to the body of man. Why?

Answer:
1. Bacillus thurungenesis produce a protein Cry protein coded by the cry gene. This protein kill certain insects like lepidopterarns (tobaccobud worm), boll worms, dipterans like mosquitoes.

These genes are isolated from Bacillus thuringenesis and incorporated into several crop plants like cotton. There are specific cry gene for specific toxin and each toxin controls or destroys specific insect.

2. Protein crystals solubilise only in the presence of alkaline pH but stomach of human body contains acidic pH .So it doesn’t make any harmful effect in humans.

Question 11.
Give example of vaccine safety in respect to transgenic animals.
Answer:
Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of polio vaccine.

Question 12.
Animals that have their DNA manipulated and express foreign gene are called transgenic animals. Write down the three significance of transgenic animals used as models.
Answer:
1. Normal physiology and development:
To study of how genes are regulated, and how they affect the normal functions of the body and its development.

2. Study of disease:
How genes contribute to the development of disease.

3. Chemical and vaccine safety testing:
Transgenic animals carry genes that sensitive to toxic substances and the effects can be studied.

Question 13.
An early diagonosis of disease can be detected by modern techniques.

1. How can PCR detect very low amounts of DNA?
2. What is Probe?

Answer:

1. PCR is a Polymerase Chain Reaction, which amplifies low amount of DNA making multiple copies of which ft helps in the diagnosis of low amount of DNA.
2. It is the single stranded radioactively labelled DNA.

Question 14.
Insecticidal protein crystal are not a solubilized in acidic PH but it is solubilized and become active in alkaline pH. Name the organism possess alkaline PH in their gut?
Answer:
Insects- lepidopterans, coleopterans and depterans.

Question 15.
RNA interference technology is used to prevent transcription process of protein synthesis. Justify the given statement
Answer:
It is used t0 silence the m RNA of nematode by using double-stranded RNA. Here nematode specific genes are introduced into host plant by using agrobacterium vectors, that produce double-stranded RNA and initiated RNA silencing process.

Question 16.
Earlier ADA deficiency can be cured by enzyme replacement therapy or bone marrow transplantation. Write down the procedure used in r-DNA technology to cure the disease.
Answer:
Lymphocytes taken from patients blood it is cultured outside, into this functional ADA cDNA are introduced, then this Lymphocytes are taken back into the patient’s blood. For permanent cure, functional ADA cDNA are introduced into embryonic stage.

Question 17.
Our country is very rich in biodiversity and traditional knowledge. So we have faced many problems related to biopiracy.

1. What is biopiracy?
2. Give two examples of biopirated plants.
3. How can we control biopiracy?

Answer:

1. Un authorized use of bioresources and traditional knowledge without compensatory payment
2. Basmati rice, turmeric.
3. By developing laws and regulations or through patent Bill.

Question 18.
Transgenic animals are those animals whose DNA is manipulated and has an extra or foreign gene to possess and express.

1. How can transgenic animals help in testing for vaccine safety.
2. Name the enzyme produced by transgenic animal which is used against emphysema.
3. For which diseases transgenic models exist?
4. Name the first transgenic cow. Write its significance.

Answer:

1. Transgenic animals like mice are developed for testing of vaccine before they are used on humans.
2. An enzyme a-1-antitrypsin can be obtained from a transgenic animal which is used against emphysema.
3. Transgenic model exist for cancer, cystic fibrosis, Alzheimer’s diseases, etc.
4. Rosie is the first transgenic cow, was produced human protein enriched milk. The milk contains alpha-lactalbumin in the amount of 2.4 gram per litre and is more nutritionally balanced for

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology and its Applications NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can you suggest a method to remove oil (hydro carbon) from seeds based on your understanding of rDNA technology and chemistry of oil?
Answer:
Oil is lipid synthesized by the condensation of one molecule of glycerol with three molecules of fatty acids. Thus, the oil from the seeds can be removed by preventing the synthesis of either glycerol or the enzyme lipase which catalyses the synthesis of oil. It can be achieved by knocking out the genes coding for the enzyme required for the synthesis of glycerol.

Question 2.
What are cry proteins? Name an organism that produce it. How has man exploited this protein to his benefit?
Answer:

1. Cry proteins refer to the protein crystals contain¬ing atoxic insecticide.
2. It is produced by soil bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis.
3. The genes encoding cry proteins called Bt toxin genes were isolated from B. thuringiensis and incorporated into several crop plants such as Bt cotton, Bt corn, etc, to provide resistance against insect pests.

Question 3.
Consult internet and find out how to make orally active protein pharmaceutical. What is the major problem to be encountered?
Answer:
For making any oral drug or nutritional supplement the action of digestive enzymes has to be taken into account. Most of the antibiotic and vitamin supplements are made in capsule forms to prevent action of HCI in stomach.

For protein preparation the major source is groundnut shells. The protein extracted from the source is predigested so as to make them absorbable by the digestive system.

Question 4.
Find out from internet, what is golden rice?
Answer:
Golden ric is genetically modified and contain Carotene, which is a precursor of Vitamin A.

Question 5.
Does our blood have proteases and nucleases?
Answer:
No.

Question 6.
Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of production of genetically modified crops.
Answer:
Advantage of GM Crops:

1. Genetic modification has made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, heat, salt)
2. Viral resistance can be introduced.
3. Over ripening losses can be reduced eg: Flavr Savr tomato
4. Enhanced nutritional value of food eg: Golden rice. Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides.

Disadvantages of GM Crops:

1. Transgenes in crop plants can endanger native species. For example, the gene for Bt toxin expressed in pollen might end natural pollinators like honey bees.
2. Weeds also become resistant.
3. Products of transgene may be allergic or toxic.
4. They cause damage to the natural environment.

Question 7.
Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because:
(a) Bacteria are resistant to strain
(b) Toxin is immature
(c) Toxin is inactive
(d) Bacteria encloses toxin a special sac.
Answer:
c) Toxin is inactive
Because Bt toxin is present in the form of protoxin in Bacillus bacterium.

Question 8.
Why does this toxin not kill the Bacillus? How it affects insect?
Answer:
The Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins but once an insect ingest the inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilise the crystals.

The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and create pores that cause cell swell¬ing and lysis and eventually cause death of the insect.

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology and its Applications Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of these is used as vector in gene therapy for SCID?
(a) Arbovirus
(b) Retrovirus
(c) Enterovirus
(d) Parvovirus
Answer:
(b) Retrovirus

Question 2.
Find the incorrect statement.
(a) Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique used to treat disease at molecular level by replacing defective genes with normal genes.
(b) Calcitonin is a medically useful recombinant product in the treatment of infertility
(c) Bt toxin is biodegradable insecticide obtained from Bacillus
(d) Trichoderma sp.is a biocontrol agent for fungal diseases of plants
Answer:
(b) Calcitonin is a medically useful recombinant product in the treatment of infertility

Question 3.
The technique of DNA finger printing was initially developed by
(a) lanWilmut
(b) HarGobindKhurana
(c) Jacque Monod
(d) Alex Jeffreys
Answer:
(d) Alex Jeffreys

Question 4.
Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning because
(a) these are small circular DNA molecules, which can integrate with host chromosomal DNA
(b) these are small circular DNA molecules with their own replication origin site
(c) these can shuttle between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
(d) these often carry antibiotic resistance genes
Answer:
(b) these are small circular DNA molecules with their own replication origin site

Question 5.
Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab Produce toxins that control
(a) cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively
(b) corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
(c) nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
(d) corn borer and tobacco budworms respectively
Answer:
(a) cotton bollworms and corn borer respectively

Question 6.
Golden rice was created by transforming rice with two beta-carotene biosynthesis genes, namely.
(a) Psy and Cry 1 genes
(b) LCY-e
(c) CHY-1
(d) CHY-2
Answer:
(a) Psy and Cry 1 genes

Question 7.
Main objective of production / use herbicide resistant GM crops is to
(a) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of manual labour
(b) eliminate weeds from the field without the use of herbicides
(c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides
(d) reduce herbicides accumulation in food articles for health safety
Answer:
(d) reduce herbicides accumulation in food articles for health safety

Question 8.
Biopiracy is related to which of the following?
(a) traditional knowledge
(b) Biomolecules and regarding bioresources
(c) Bioresources
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Bioresources

Question 9.
Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
(b) transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
(c) transgenic cow-Rosie, which produces high-fat milk for making ghee
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as they have superpower
Answer:
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans

Question 10.
The genetic defect-Adenosine Deaminase deficiency may be cured permanently by
(a) periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA C-DNA
(b) administering adenosine deaminase activators
(c) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embrayonic stages
(d) enzyme replacement therapy
Answer:
(c) introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embrayonic stages

Question 11.
RNA interference method involves
(a) Silencing of a specific in RNA due to a complementary ssRNA
(b) Silencing of a specific tRNA due to a complementary dsRNA
(c) Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary ssRNA
(d) Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA
Answer:
(d) Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA

Question 12.
The nematods that infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield is
(a) Meloidegyneincognitia
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(d) Rhizobium meliloti
Answer:
(a) Meloidegyneincognitia

Question 13.
RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of
(a) Cellular defense
(b) DNA proof reading
(c) Transcription
(d) Translation
Answer:
(a) Cellular defense

Question 14.
The main challenge for production of insulin peptide using rDNA technique was
(a) Getting normal insulin gene
(b) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form
(c) Getting insulin chains formed from bacteria
(d) Getting insulin assembled into proinsulin
Answer:
(b) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form

Question 15.
Bacillus thuriengiensis(Bt) strains have been used as biological control for plants, its application is famous in
(a) cotton
(b) tomatoes
(c) brinjal
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(d) both a and c

Question 16.
Cry endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuriengensis are effective against
(a) nematode
(b) bollworms
(c) mosquitoes
(d) flies
Answer:
(b) bollworms

Question 17.
Transgenic animal has
(a) foreign DNA
(b) recipient DNA
(c) both a& b
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both a& b

Question 18.
Genetically engineered cotton plant shows resistance to boll worm insects, but their source of desired gene not induce any adverse effect in bacteria because
(a) cell wall is thick and tough
(b) cell wall is made up of special type of lipids
(c) cytosol does not contain alkaline solution
(d) both b and c.
Answer:
(c) cytosol does not contain alkaline solution

Question 19.
Humulin is prouced in large scale for the specific purpose by
(a) Tissue culture
(b) organ culture
(c) Bio-reactor
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Bio-reactor

Question 20.
Transgenic food crop which help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is
(a) Bt cotton
(b) golden rice
(c) flvrsavr tomatoes
(d) starlink maize
Answer:
(b) golden rice

Question 21.
In the technique RNA interferance the silencing is done to terminate the function of
(a) hn RNA
(b) m RNA
(c) sn RNA
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) m RNA

Question 22.
If the gene function is disrupted, it corrected by the technique called as
(a) gene slicing
(b) gene splicing
(c) gene therapy
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) gene therapy

Question 23.
The gene product provides good result as the protein contained in the breast milk is
(a) albumin
(b) alpha lactalbumin
(c) globulin
(d) glutelin
Answer:
(b) alpha lactalbumin

Question 24.
The processed genetically engineered insulin contains
(a) A polypeptide chain
(b) B polypeptide chain
(c) c peptide
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Students can Download Chapter 4 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology: Principles and Processes One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Ti plasmids used in genetic engineering is obtained from
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Pseudomonas tumefaciens
(d) Bacillus subtilis
Answer:
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 2.
Which one is regarded as a molecular scissor in biotechnology?
(a) Reverse transcriptase
(b) Restriction endonuclease
(c) Taq polymerase
(d) Topoisomerase
Answer:
(b) Restriction endonuclease

Question 3.
Name the stain used to identify DNA bands in gel electrophoresis
Answer:
Ethidium Bromide

Question 4.
In rDNA technology the alein DNA and cloning vector are a cut by same Restriction endonuclease enzyme. Give reason.
Answer:
The same restriction enzyme must be used cut the alien and foreign DNA forgetting sticky ends.

Question 5.
Name the most common technique is used to transfer DNA into plants.
Answer:
Biolistics or gene gun

Question 6.
The plasmid of Agrobacterium is
(a) Ti plasmid
(b) F1 plasmid
(c) T plasmid
(d) Col E1
Answer:
(a)Ti plasmid

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a restriction endonuclease?
(a) EcoRI
(b) Hind III
(c) pst I
(d) DNAse I
Answer:
(d) DNAse I

Question 8.
The desired DNA can be amplified to 1 billion copies through an important technique. Name it.
Answer:
Polymerace Chain Reaction

Question 9.
Restriction in Restriction enzyme refers to:
(a) Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
(b) Cutting of DNA at specific position only
(c) Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage in bacteria

Question 10.
In PCR technique, nucleotides add one by one on template strand with the help of polymerace enzyme. From which organism it is isolated.
Answer:
Thermus aquaticus

Question 11.
A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in the absence of the folloiwng:
(a) Resriction endonuclease
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA fragments
(d) E.coli
Answer:
(d) E.coli

Question 12.
In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are separated on the basis of their:
(a) Charge only
(b) Size only
(c) Charge to size ratio
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Size only

Question 13.
Which of the following bacteria is not a source of restriction endonuclease?
(a) Haemophilus influenzae
(b) Esherichia coli
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) Bacillius amyloli
Answer:
(a) Haemophilus influenzae

Question 14.
Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction?
(a) Denaturation of template DNA
(b) Annealing of primers to template DNA
(c) Extenstion of primer end on the template DNA
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) Extenstion of primer end on the template DNA

Question 15.
An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is:
(a) endonuclease
(b) exonuclease
(c) DNA ligase
(d) Hind-ll
Answer:
(b) exonuclease

Question 16.
Polymerase Chain Reaction helps in
(a) DNA synthesis
(b) DNA amplification
(c) Protein synthesis
(d) Aminoacid synthesis
Answer:
DNA synthesis

Question 17.
Starting from double stranded DNA suggest a strategy for obtaining large amounts of pure single stranded DNA for sequencing purpose.
Answer:
PCR (POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION)

Question 18.
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of ensymes called ‘molecular scissors’. Identify this enzyme.
Answer:
Restriction enzymes/Restriction Endonucleases

Question 19.
Which among the following is the first discovered Restriction Endonuclease?
(a) Hindi I
(b) Hindi II
(c) EcoR I
(d) EcoR II
Answer:
(b) Hind II

Question 20.
Observe the following illustration and find out the enzymes which are denoted as A and B.
Answer:

1. Restriction endonucleases
2. DNAIigases

Question 21.
Write the technique used for the separation of DNA fragments.
Answer:
Gel Electrophoresis

Question 22.
Final step of gel electrophoresis of DNA molecules from the gel. What is this process called?
Answer:
Elution

Question 23.
One of the given options is not related to PCR. Find it.
(a) Denaturation
(b) Spooling
(c) Extension
(d) Annealing
Answer:
Spooling

Question 24.
Which among the following is not a gene transfer method?
(a) Microinjection
(b) Disarmed pathogen vectors
(c) Gene gun
(d) Elution
Answer:
(d) Elution

Question 25.
Cloning vector suitable for gene transfer in plants is
(a) Ti plasmid
(b) Bacteriophages
(c) Viruses
(d) Transposons
Answer:
(a) Ti Plasmid

Question 26.
Which among the following are the selectable markers of PBR-322.
(a) amp^R, kan^R
(b) tet^R, kan^R
(c) ampR, tetR
(d) chl^R, tet^R
Answer:
ampR, tetR

Question 27.
Restriction Endonucleases cut DNA at specific locations by breaking_______
(a) Sugar-phosphate bonds
(b) Sugar-Nitrogen base bonds
(c) Hydrogen bonds
(d) Disulphide bonds
Answer:
Sugar-phosphate bond

Question 28.
Downstream processing is the final step in the process of recombinant DNA technology. What do you understand by “down stream processing”?
Answer:
Separation and purification of gene product.

Question 29.
Ti plasmid is a suitable cloning vector for plants. It is the plasmid of a bacterium called_______.
Answer:
Agrobacterium tumifaciens.

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Elution is a major step of electrophoresis.

1. Explain the process.
2. Give the importance of UV light

Answer:

1. Separated bands of DNA are cut from Agarose gel piece and extracted out.
2. Under UV light DNA bands are observed as orange colour.

Question 2.
Genetic engineering is the gene manipulation technique that helps to create new organism with desired genetic make up

1. Give the contribution of Stanley cohen and Herbert Boyer in genetic engineering.
2. Name the enzyme used to cut DNA strand?

Answer:

1. Herbert Boyer and Stanley cohen constructed first recombinant DNA by linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium in 1972.
2. Restriction endonuclease

Question 3.
Mosquitoes are considered as vectors which transfer the malarial parasite into human body. Plasmids are considered as Vectors in biotechnology’. Justify.
Answer:
Vectors are agents which transfers materials from one organism to another. Plasmids are extra chromosomal DNA seen in bacteria which have the ability for independent replication.

In the field of Biotechnology plasmids are used as vectors as they replicate rapidly after integrating a foreign DNA. Thus, through the plasmid the alien gene can be introduced into another organism.

Question 4.
Eco R I is the restriction endonuclease enzyme obtained from E.coli bacteria that helps them to restrict the growth of virus. What are the criteria for naming endonucleases.
Answer:
EcoRI comes from the name of bacterium Escherechia coli Ry 13. E represents the genus, co represents species, ‘R’ is derived from the name of strain and I is the order in which the enzyme is isolated.

Question 5.
Separation and isolation of DNA fragments can be done by a technique known as gel electrophoresis

1. What is the procedure used separate DNA fragements?
2. Name the organism from which agarose gel is isolated

Answer:
1. Negatively changed DNA fragments are separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through agarose matrix.

The DNA fragments separate according to their size in agarose gel. So the smaller the fragment size moves farther. Then it is cut out from the agarose gel by elution.

2. Seaweeds.

Question 6.
PCR is meant for making the multiples copies of the gene of interest.

1. Give the major step involved in PCR.
2. Name the thermostable DNA polymerase enzyme is used in this technique. Why?

Answer:
1. The major step involved in PCR:

• Denaturation – It involves the separation of DNA strands
• Annealing – The double strands are synthesised from free nucleotides by the action of DNA polymerase.
• Extension – The length of the strands are increased as a result of addition of more and more nucleotides. Thus DNA amplified up to 1 billion copies.

2. Taq polymarase
PCR cylinderworks at high temperature. Hence thermostable enzyme is used.

Question 7.
In r DNA technology recombinant DNA is directly injected into the plant cell

1. Name the technique used
2. What you meant by competent host?

Answer:

1. Biolispics or Gene gun.
2. This is done by treating them with calcium ions and incubating the cells and recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them at 42°C. Then putting them back on ice. This helps the bacteria to take up the recombinant DNA.

Question 8.
If RNA use, protease, cellulase etc. are not used in the isolation of genetic materials.

1. Find out the difficulties arise during the process of rDNA technology.
2. What is spooling?

Answer:

1. If the above said enzymes are not used, it is difficult to get DNA in pure form for foreign gene isolation.
2. Fine thread of DNA separated out from chilled alcohol.

Question 9.
How is the action of Exonuclease different from that of endonuclease?
Answer:
Exonuclease removes the nucleotides from the ends of DNA molecules while endonuclease takes cut at specific position within a DNA molecule.

Question 10.
Spooling is one of the important method used in r DNA technology.

1. Name the medium in which DNA appear as fine threads.
2. What is the aim of using lysozyme in the isolation of genetic material?

Answer:

1. Chilled alcohol
2. It helps to remove the cell wall of bacteria

Question 11.
Sticky ends are unpaired strands of DNA get by using restriction endonuclease enzyme.
Do you agree?.Give reason
Answer:
Yes. The same restriction enzyme is used to cut both vector DNA and foreign DNA, get sticky ends that facilitate the action of DNA ligase.

Question 12.
In biotechnology lab Ramu interested in constructing r DNA, for this he used tools of r DNA technology.

1. What happen if DNA polymerase enzyme is not used?
2. Name the sequence of DNA subjected to the action of restriction enzyme

Answer:

1. Addition of nucleotides not take place
2. Palindromic sequence

Question 13.
3′ end of template strand is very important in polymerase chain reaction

1. Name the complementary strand that attaches template sequence of 3′ end
2. Find out the type of nucleotides supplied in this technique

Answer:

1. Primer
2. dCTP, d ATP, d GTP, d TTP

Question 14.
In r DNA technology recombinant DNA is directly injected into the plant cell

1. Name the technique used
2. Can you explain two other methods for gene transfer?

Answer:
1. Microinjection.

2. Methods for gene transfer:

a. The bacterium is treated with divalent cation such as calcium which makes the bacterial cell competent to take up DNA (the pores bacterial cell wail is widened).

The recombinant DNA is forced in to the cell by incubating cells with recombined DNA on ice followed by heat shock (42YC) and then back on ice. This helps the bacteria to take up recombined DNA.

b. High velocity micro particles of gold or tungsten is coated with DNA & bombarded into the cell. This method is called biolistics or gene gun.

Question 15.
A researcher in biotechnology is in need to produce insulin in large amounts as part of his study.

1. Which instrument will he select for the purpose?
2. What are the facilities in the instrument?

Answer:
1. Bioreactor.

2. A bioreactor commonly use a stirring type. It consists of cylindrical tank with a stirrer which facilitate mixing of the content of the reactor. It also facilitate oxygen availability.

An agitator system, an oxygen delivery system, temperature control system, pH control system are present in a bioreactor. Small volumes of the products are removed through sampling ports periodically.

Question 16.
In r DNA technology amplification of genetic material is important, In such a device

1. Thermostable enzyme must be used why?
2. Name it.

Answer:

1. The working of programmed cylinder for PCR requires high temperature . Hence thermostable DNA polymerase is used
2. Taq polymerase

Question 17.
It is difficult to use other bacteria instead of Agrobacterium for the transfer of desired gene into plants. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes. Agrobacterium possess Ti plasmid , it has the ability to transfer gene into dicot plants through infection. Hence it is widely used in gene transfer.

Question 18.
When chromogenic substrate is added to the medium containing bacterial colonies are subjected to insertional inactivation, some appears as blue coloured and others as white coloured colonies. Give reasons.
Answer:
The colonies appears as blue coloured does not possess for eigengene they are called non-recombinants while the colonies of white coloured have foreign gene insert, they are called as recombinants.

The production of blue colour is due to the reaction between beta-galactosidase enzyme and chromogenic substrate while the white coloured colonies have no enzyme for reaction with substrate.

Question 19.
Even though salmonella, Ecoli etc. contains plasmids PBR 322 is widely used in genetic engineering. Why?
Answer:
The plasmid PBR 322 is artificial cloning vector, it possess several features such as origin of replication, selectable marker, cloning sites etc. Some features of artificial cloning vector is not found in natural plasmid. Hence PBR 322 is widely used in genetic engineering.

Question 20.
What you meant by selectable marker? Give 2 examples.
Answer:
The selectable marker is antibiotic resistant gene. Examples are ampicilin resistant and tetracycline resistant gene.

Question 21.
If RNA ase, protease, cellulaseetc are not used in the isolation of genetic materials. Find out the difficulties arise during the process of rDNA technology.
Answer:
If the above said enzymes are not used, it is difficult to get DNA in pure form for foreign gene isolation.

Question 22.
DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, so it can’t pass through the cell membrane. How can DNA inserted into a Bacterial cell?
Answer:
Bacterial cells must have to be competent to take up DNA. This is done by treating them with calcium ions and incubating the cells and recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them at 42_oC Then putting them back on ice. This helps the bacteria to take up the recombinant DNA.

Question 23.
State principle underlying gel electrophoresis and mention two applications of this technique in biotechnology.
Answer:
The molecular separation in gel electrophoresis are based on gel filtration as well as electrophoretic mobilities of the molecules being separated. It is among the most powerful and yet conveniently used method of macro molecular separation.

Question 24.
How has Agrobacterium tumifaciens has been suitably modified to act as cloning vector?
Answer:
Genes are transferred from bacterium or virus to eukaryotic cells and these genes force the transformed cell to works at their will eg: Agrobacterium-mediated gene transfer.

Question 25.
How is the action of Exonuclease different from that of endonuclease?
Answer:
Exonuclease removes the nucleotides from the ends of DNA molecules while endonuclease takes cut at specific position within a DNA molecule.

Question 26.
According to the size and charge of DNA sequence that move in an agarose gel,the smaller fragment is selected for cloning

1. Name the technique is used to’separate digested and undigested fragments
2. Which is the method used to get pure DNA fragment from agarose gel

Answer:

1. Gel electroforesis
2. Elusion

Question 27.
Why is the enzyme cellulose used for isolating genetic material from plant cells but not for animal cells?
Answer:
Due to the presence of cell wall in plants cellulose is used, whereas the animal cell lacks cell wall.

Question 28.
Following is the sequence of nucleotide in two strands of DNA .observe the strands and answer the preceding questions
5’ GAATTC 3’
3’ CTTAAG 5’

1. Name the special term used for such an arrangement of nucleotide
2. Name the special type of enzyme which work/function at this specific points
3. Name the enzyme that cut DNA between GA sequence.
4. Name the single strands produced after the action of the enzyme.

Answer:

1. Palindromes
2. Restriction endonucleases
3. E co Rl
4. Sticky strands

Question 29.
DNA cutting enzymes are mainly isolated from prokaryotes

1. Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. No.
2. They do not have restriction endonucleases. The eukaryotic cells have some other means of defence against viral infection, i.e., immune system.

Question 30.
Give an example of micro organisms that have transforming ability.
Answer:
A bacterium Agrobacterium tumefactions has T- DNA in its Ti-plasmid which is able to transform normal plant cells to tumour cell and cause crow gall tumours in plants.

Question 31.
‘One of the limitations of traditional hybridization is that it leads to inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes’. How does genetic engineering help to overcome these limitations?
Answer:
In this method desirable genes/alien gene can be cut and incorporated into plasmid and thus recombinant DNA is prepared . Then introduced into the target organism.

Question 32.
In-gel electrophoresis, we cannot see pure DNA fragments in visible light and without staining. Explain how is it possible to visualize the DNA fragments?
Answer:
Staining the DNA with Ethidium bromide, followed by exposure to UV radiation.

Question 33.
Figure given below is an important technique used in genetic-engineering.

1. Identify the technique.
2. Find out the aim technique.

Answer:

1. Gel electrophoresis
2. Separation of DNA fragments

Question 34.
Match the following columns A and B suitably

Answer:

Question 35.
Given below is the diagram of a cloning vector.

1. Identify the vector
2. What do amp^R and tet^R stand for?

Answer:

1. pBR 322
2. amp^R – ampicillin resistant gene, tet^R tetracyclin resistant gene.

Question 36.
Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.

1. What is a palindrome?
2. Give one example.

Answer:

1. Palindrome is a sequence of base pairs that reads same on two strands of DNA molecule
2. 5′ GAATTC 3′
3. 3′ CTTAAG 5′

Question 37.
Given below are some enzymes used for the release of DNA molecules from different types of cells. Lysozyme, chitinase, cellulose. Arrange them suitably in the columns provided below.

Answer:

Question 38.
Select markers help us in identifying and eliminating non transformed cells during gene cloning. Explain how the gene for beta-galactosidase enzyme works as a selectable marker?
Answer:
When recombinant DNA inserted within the coding sequence of the enzyme beta-galactosidase, the gene for the enzyme production is removed, after this colonies are transferred into growing medium containing chromogenic substrate, non-transformed colonies give blue colour but transformed colonies not give any colour due to insertional inactivation.

Question 39.
In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’ to take up DNA. Suggest a method to make bacterial cell competent to receive DNA.
Answer:
At first, treat the cell with divalent cation like calcium, which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in the cell wall. Then incubate of cell with rDNA on ice and placing them briefly at 42° C and then putting back to ice.

Question 40.
Multiple copies of the gene of interest is synthesized in vitro using DNA polymerase enzyme.

1. Which are the three steps of the above process?
2. Find out the DNA polymerase enzyme used here.

Answer:

1. Three steps of the above process:

• Denaturation
• Annealing
• Extension

2. Thermostable DNA polymerase/Taq polymerase.

Question 41.
Bioreactors help for the large scale production of recombinant proteins.

1. Which are the two commonly used bioreactors?
2. What is the purpose of stirring mechanism in a bioreactor?

Answer:

1. Simple stirred tank bioreactor
2. Sparged stirred tank bioreactor

The stirrer facilitates mixing of content and o₂ availability.

Question 42.
Given below is the diagram of a cloning vector. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

1. Name the bacterium from which this vector is made?
2. What are the significances of ‘ori’ and ‘rop’ denoted in the picture?

Answer:

1. Ecoli
2. “ori”-origin of replication it is the point from which replication starts “rop”- codes for proteins involved in replication of plasmid.

Question 43.
Restriction Endonucleases are enzymes responsible for cutting of DNA molecule. Eco Rl is derived.

1. How the name Eco Rl is derived?
2. Write the palindromic sequence of Eco Rl.

Answer:
1. First letter from the genus and second two letters from the species name Letter ‘R’ is derived from the type of strain Roman number I indicates the order of discovery.

2. 5′ ………..GAATTC 3′
3’…………CTTAAG 5′

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any three uses of Gene cloning.
Answer:

1. Genes of interest can be inserted into animals, so as to produce better farm animals.
2. Desired proteins like insulin, hormones, interferons, vitamins can be manufactured in bacteria on an industrial basis.
3. Recombinant vaccines, improved antibiotics can be produced by gene cloning.

Question 2.

1. Identify the process.
2. Identify the enzymes involved in steps (ii) and (iii)
3. Write the base sequences recognised by EcoRI

Answer:
1. Recombinant DNA technology.

2. enzymes involved in steps:

• Restriction Endonuclease
• Ligase enzyme

3. sequences recognised by EcoRI:

• GAATTC
• CTTAAG

Question 3.
Vehicles which are used to transfer a gene from one cell to another is called a cloning vector. PBR 322 is a widely used cloning vector.

1. Name 2 important features that a cloning vector should possess.
2. What is the importance of Ori?

Answer:

1. Origin of replication Selectable marker
2. Origin of replication the point from which replication begins.

Question 4.
Stanley cohen and Hebert Boyer constructed r DNA by using plasmid and antibiotic-resistant gene.

1. Name the slicing and splicing enzyme used.
2. What is the significance of slicing enzyme in rDNA technology?

Answer:
1. Slicing enzyme – Restriction endo nuclease Splicing enzyme-DNA ligase

2. significance of slicing enzyme in rDNA technology:

• It is used to cut within DNA sequence.
• Same restriction enzyme is used to cut both vector DNA and foreign DNA.

Question 5.
Match the items in column A with the items of Column B.

Answer:

Question 6.
Following is the sequence of nucleotide in two strands of DNA. Observe the strands and answer the preceding questions
5’ GAATTC 3’
3’ CTTAAG 5’

1. Name the special term used for such an arrangement of nucleotide
2. Name the enzyme that cut DNA between GA sequence.
3. Name the single strands produced after the action of the enzyme.

Answer:

1. Palindromes
2. EcoRI
3. Sticky strands

Question 7.
Following are the various steps of recombinant DNA technology. Arrange them in correct sequential order.

i) Obtaining the foreign gene product
ii) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
iii) Cutting of DNA at specific locations
iv) Downstream processing
v) Intsertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell/organism
vi) Isolation of genetic material
Answer:
vi) Isolation of genetic material
iii) Cutting of DNA at specific locations
ii) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell organism
i) Obtaining the foreign gene product
iv) Downstream processing

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology: Principles and Processes NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
From what you have learnt, can you tell whether enzymes are bigger or DNA is bigger in molecular size? How did you know?
Answer:
DNA molecules are bigger in molecular size as compared to molecular size of enzymes. It is because an enzyme (protein) is synthesized from the segment of DNA called gene.

Question 2.
What would be the molar concentration of human DNA in a human cell?
Answer:
In human being the concentration of DNA is 0.4%. It contains 6.6 × 10⁹ bp.

Question 3.
Besides better aeration and mixing properties, what other advantage do stirred tank bioreactors have over shake flasks?
Answer:
Shake flasks are used for growing microbes and mixing the desired materials on a small scale in the lab. But the large scale production of desired bio technological product requires large stirred tank bioreactors. Besides better aeration and mixing properties, the bioreactors have following advantages –

1. It has oxygen delivery system.
2. It has foam control, temperature and P^ control system.
3. Small volumes of culture can be withdrawn periodically.

Question 4.
Do eukaryotic cells have restriction endonucleases? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. They do not have restriction endonucleases. The eukaryotic cells have some other means of defence against viral infection ie, immune system.

Question 5.
Can you recall meiosis and indicate at what stage a recombinant DNA is made?
Answer:
Pachytene stage of prophase I by crossing over.

Question 6.
Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can be used to monitor transformation of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker?
Answer:
Reporter enzyme can differentiate recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis of their ability to produce specific color in the presence of chromogenic substrate. ArDNA is inserted within the coding sequence of the enzyme, galactosidase.

This results into inactivation f the enzyme which is referred to as insertional inactivation. The presence of a chromogenic substrate gives blue colored colonies, if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an insert.

Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the-galactosidase and the colonies do not produce any colour. These are identified as recombinant colonies.

Plus Two Botany Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with
(a) DNA ligase
(b) Endonucleases
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) Exonucleases
Answer:
(a) DNA ligase

Question 2.
The construction of the first recombinant DNA was done by using the native plasmid of
(a) E.coli
(b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) yeast
Answer:
(b) Salmonella typhimurium

Question 3.
Which of the following is used as a best genetic vector in plants?
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Pseudomonas putida
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Question 4.
One of the key factors, which makes the plasmid, the vector in genetic engineering?
(a) It is resistant to antibiotics
(b) It is resistant to restriction enzymes
(c) It has the ability to carry a foreign gene
(d) It has the ability to cause infection in the host
Answer:
(c) It has the ability to carry a foreign gene

Question 5.
A clone is
(a) heterozygote obtained asexually
(b) homozygote obtained asexually
(c) heterozygote produced by sexual methods
(d) homozygote produced by sexual methods
Answer:
(b) homozygote obtained asexually

Question 6.
In recombinant DNA technique, the term vector refers to
(a) donor DNA is identified and picked up through eletrophoresis
(b) plasmid, transfers DNA into living cell
(c) collection of entire genome in form of plasmid
(d) enzyme, cuts the DNA at specific sites
Answer:
(b) plasmid, transfers DNA into living cell

Question 7.
The enzyme employed for amplification of DNA during PCR is commercially obtained from
(a) Streptococcus pyogenes
(b) Bacillus licheniformis
(c) Trichodermapallidum
(d) Thermusaquaticus
Answer:
(d) Thermusaquaticus

Question 8.
The enzyme used for annealing the cut DNA segments is
(a) DNA ligase
(b) Helicase
(c) Topoisomerase
(d) Polymerase
Answer:
(d) Polymerase

Question 9.
How does PCR serve the purpose of early diagnosis?
(a) By detecting very low amounts of DNA by amplification
(b) It is a powerful technique to identify man genetic disorders
(c) To detect mutations is genes in suspected cancerpatients
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 10.
Enzyme used in the addition of nucleotides in DNA replication is
(a) catalase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) nuclease
(d) RNA polymrerase
Answer:
(b) DNA polymerase

Question 11.
Importance of restriction endonuclease enzyme is to cut
(a) RNA strands at specific site
(b) DNA strands at specific site
(c) Ends of DNA strands
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) DNA strands at specific site

Question 12.
Large amount of recombinant protein is produced in
(a) tissue culture
(b) bioreactor
(c) somatic hybridization
(d) genetic engineering
Answer:
(b) bioreactor

Question 13.
Polymerase enzyme in the replication process to produce 1 billion copies of DNA is
(a) RNA polymerase 1
(b) DNA polymerase 1
(c) DNA polymerase 11
(d) taq polymerase
Answer:
(d) taq polymerase

Question 14.
Digested and undigested fragments of DNA can be observed in elecrophoresis by
(a) Ethidium bromide
(b) CFC
(c) Ethidium chloride
(d) acetyl chloride
Answer:
(a) Ethidium bromide

Question 15.
In which step of DNA amplification DNA hybridization occurs
(a) denaturation
(b) extention
(c) annealing
(d) elongation
Answer:
(c) annealing

Question 16.
The plasimid of Agrobacterium is
(a) Ti plasmid
(b) F1 plasmid
(c) T plasmid
(d) col E1
Answer:
(a) Ti plasmid

Question 17.
The ori of clonimg vector indicates
(a) cloning site
(b) restriction site
(c) replication site
(d) selectable marker site
Answer:
(c) replication site

Question 18.
Selectable marker of cloning vector plays an important role in
(a) identification of recombinants
(b) identification of non recombinants
(c) identification of recombinants from non recombinants
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) identification of recombinants from non recombinants

Question 19.
Coating of gold or tungsten particle with DNA is used in
(a) direct gene transfer
(b) indirect gene transfer
(c) both direct and indirect gene transfer
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) direct gene transfer

Students can Download Chapter 3 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Plus Two Botany Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Hisardale is a
(a) Good quality apple produced in Punjab
(b) Good quality sheep in Assam
(c) Good quality horse developed in Punjab by crossing Marino ewes and Bikaneri rams
(d) New breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Marino rams and Bikaneri ewes
Answer:
(d)

Question 2.
During the period 1960-2000, wheat production increased from 11 million tones to 75 million tones while rice production went up from 35 million tones to 89.5 million tones. This was due to the development of varieties of wheat & rice possess the character
(a) Small
(b) Dwarf
(c) Semi-dwarf
(d) Long
Answer:
(c) Semi-dwarf

Question 3.
Give examples of some micro organisms that are used as SCP.
Answer:
Spirulina,
Methylophilus

Question 4.
Due to inbreeding depression fertility and productivity of animals are lost. Which is the best method used to overcome these?
Answer:
Outcrossing

Question 5.
Which part of the plant best suited for making virus free plantlet by in-vitro culture.
Answer:
Meristem

Question 6.
Find the odd one among the following. Sonalika, Jaya & Ratna, Prabhat Kranti, Kalyan Sona.
Answer:
Parbhani kranti

Question 7.
Hisaradale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by cross-breeding. Name its parents.
Answer:
Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams

Question 8.
Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Millet
(d) Tobacco
Answer:
Nonalika and Kalyan Sona are varieties of wheat.

Question 9.
Which one of the following is not a fungal disease?
(a) Rust of wheat
(b) SmutofBajra
(c) Black rot of crucifers
(d) Red rot of sugarcane
Answer:
Black rot of crucifers is a bacterial disease

Question 10.
To isolate proteoplast, one needs
(a) Pectinase
(b) Cellulase
(c) Both pectinase and cellulas
(d) Chitinase
Answer:
(c) Both pectinase and cellulas

Question 11.
Which one of the following is a marine fish?
(a) Rohu
(b) Hilsa
(c) Catla
(d) Common Carp
Answer:
(b) Hilsa

Question 12.
Which one of the following products of apiculture is used in cosmetics and polishes?
(a) Honey
(b) Oil
(c) Wax
(d) Royal jelly
Answer:
(c)
Wax is a product of apiculture used in cosmetics and polishes.

Question 13.
More than 70 per cent of livestock population is in
(a) Denmark
(b) India
(c) China
(d) India and China
Answer:
(d)
More than 70% of the world livestock population is in India and China.

Question 14.
Male and female animals of two different related species are mated. In some cases, the progeny may combine the desirable features of both the parents. Name the type of hybridization?
Answer:
Interspecific hybridisation

Question 15.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blanks

1. IR-8: Rice
2. Atlas 66: …………

Answer:
Wheat

Question 16.
Name the disease resistant variety of wheat developed against Hill bunt disease.
Answer:
Himgiri

Question 17.
Fill in the blank……..is a wheat variety with high protein content and used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat.
Answer:
Atlas 66

Question 18.
Fill in the blank The part of plant used for virus free culture is……………..
Answer:
Meristem or shoot tip

Question 19.
For successful bee-keeping
(a) Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees, selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives
(b) Catching and hiving of Swarms(group of bees)
(c) Management of beehived during different season
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 20.
The main steps in breeding a new genetic variety of a crop are

1. Evaluation and selection of parents
2. Cross hybridization among the selected Parents
3. Collection of variability
4. Testing, release and commercialization of new cultivars
5. selection and testing of superior recombinants

(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 1,4,5,2,3
(c) 3,1,2,5,4
(d) 3,2,5,1,4
Answer:
(c) 3,1,2,5,4

Question 21.
What is the common to following fishes Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel, Pomfrets
(a) They are not edible
(b) Economically not viable
(c) Marine in nature
(d) All are fresh water fishes
Answer:
(c) Marine in nature

Question 22.
Give the term for the process of rearing honey bees.
Answer:
Apiculture

Question 23.
Name the varieties of cauliflowers which is resistant to black rot and curl blight black rot.
Answer:
Pusa shubhra and pusa snowball.

Question 24.
Mention the strategy used to increase homozygosity in cattle for desired traits.
Answer:
Inbreeding

Question 25.
Which part of the plant best suited for making virus free plantlet by in-vitro culture.
Answer:
Meristem

Question 26.
Find the odd one among the following and justify. Sonalika, Jaya & Ratna, Prabhat Kranti, Kalyan Sona.
Answer:
Parbhani kranti

Question 27.
When a farmer cultivated Bananas in a feild, most of banana plants were infected by virus. Can you suggest any method for propagation of virus free Banana plants.
Answer:
Meristem culture or shoot tip culture.

Question 28.
Define inbreeding depression. What is its danger?
Answer:
Continuous – Inbreeding without selection leads to loss of fertility & productivity.

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks using appropriate words: Interspecific hybrid produced by the cross between

Answer:
Mule

Question 30.
Fill in the blank________virus created a scare in the country and drastically affected egg and chicken consumption.
Answer:
Bird Flu Virus

Question 31.
Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab through
(a) Out crossing
(b) Outbreeding
(c) Crossing breeding
(d) Interspecific hybridisation
Answer:
(c) Crossing breeding

Question 32.
Male and female animals of two different related species are mated. In some cases, the progeny may combine the desirable features of both the parents. Name the type of hybridization?
Answer:
Interspecific hybridisation

Question 33.
______is the common species of honeybee in India.
Answer:
Apis indica

Question 34.
Carefully read the statements given below related to the steps in plant breeding. Choose the correct sequence.

1. Testing and commercialization of new variety
2. Evaluation and selection of parents
3. Selecting and testing superior recombinants
4. Cross hybridization among the selected parents
5. Collection of variability

(a) 5,2,4,3,1
(b) 1,4,3,5,2
(c) 2,3,4,5,1
(d) 4,5,3,2,1
Answer:
(a) 5,2,4,3,1

Question 35.
Name the disease resistant variety of wheat developed against Hill bunt disease.
Answer:
Himgiri

Question 36.
Fill in the blank. Plants produced through micropropagation are genetically identical to the orginal plant from which they were grown are known as________
Answer:
Somaclones.

Question 37.
Fill in the blank_______is a wheat variety with high protein content and used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat.
Answer:
Atlass 66

Plus Two Botany Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Plant breeders mostly use apical buds as explants in rapid propagation of sugarcane and banana. Write its significance.
Answer:
The apical bud is a meristem which is free of vims. By using these meristem as ‘explants’ in tissue culture large number of virus free – healthy plants can be obtained within a short period.

Question 2.
Following are the steps in MOET programme for herd improvement in which a cow has been Administered hormones with FSH life activities. Arrange steps in their correct sequence.
(a) Transferred to a surrogate mother
(b) It is either mated with elite bull or artificially Inseminated
(c) Fertilized egg at 32 cell stage are recovered non surgically
(d) It produces 6 to 8 eggs instead of one egg which they normally yield per cycle.
Answer:
(d) It produces 6- 8 egg cells instead of one egg per cycle.
(b) It is either mated with elite bull or artificially inseminated.
(c) Fertilised eggs at 32 celled stage are recovered non surgically.
(a) Transferred to a surrogate mother.

Question 3.
Name any four hybrid varieties of crop plants which have been developed in India.
Answer:
Jaya & Ratna variety of rice Sonalika & Kalyansona variety wheat, Pusa A4 variety of bhindi, Pusasadabahar variety of chilly.

Question 4.
Micro organisms are used to make proteins to meet the demand of food for increasing populations.

1. Name an alternate source of proteins for animal and human nutrition.
2. Is this protein harmful to the environment. Justify.

Answer:
1. SCP – Single Cell Protein eg: Spirulina.

2. In this process microbs are grown on an industrial scale as a source of good protein. Spirulina can be grown easily on materials like waste water from potato processing plant (containing starch), straw, Molases, The product is rich in protein, minerals, fat, carbohydrates & vitamin. This process reduces environmental pollution.

Question 5.
Nature of explants influence the quality of plants formed using tissue culture.

1. What is meant by explants?
2. Can you evaluate the above given statements?

Answer:

1. Any part of the plant used for micropropagation in vitro is called explants.
2. Meristems (apical and axillary) are free of virus. By using meristems as explants in tissue culture virus free healthy plants can be produced in large number within short duration.

Question 6.
Name any four hybrid varieties of crop.
Answer:

1. Himgiri – Wheat
2. Pusaswarnim – Brassica
3. Pusashubhra – Cauliflower
4. Pusakomal – Cow pea

Question 7.
When the farmercultivated Bananas in his field, most of the banana plants were infected by virus. Can you suggest any method for the propagation of healthy virus free banana plants?
Answer:
Although the plant is infected with virus, the meristem (apical bud) is free of virus. Hence remove the meritstjem and grow it into in-vitro to obtain virus free plants. Thus large number of healthy plants can be produced within short period by the method of micro propagation.

Question 8.
The idea of tissue culture originated from the concept of totipotency.

1. What is meant by it?
2. Name the chemical substance present in nutrient medium used as carbon source

Answer:

1. The inherent capacity of a cell to give rise to a whole plant is called tolipotency.
2. Sucrose

Question 9.
Biofortification is the most practical approach to improve the health of people

1. What is biofortification
2. Give four examples of biofortified crops released by IARI, New Delhi.

Answer:
1. It is the breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals, higher protein and healthier fats.

2. four examples of biofortified crops released by IARI, New Delhi:

• vitamin A-enriched carrots, spinach, pumpkin;
• vitamin C enriched bitter gourd, bathua, ustard,tomato;
• Iron and calcium enriched spinach and bathua;
• Protein enriched beans – broad, lablab, French and garden peas

Question 10.
Inbreeding strategy follows mating of superior male and superior female. Write down the criteria for selection of superior in the case of cattle.
Answer:
Superior males i.e the bull which gives rise to superior progeny and superior females i.e cow or buffalo that produces more milk per lactation.

Question 11.
Nature of explants influence the quality of plants formed using tissue culture

1. What are expfSnts?
2. Evaluate the above statement.

Answer:
1. Any part of a plant taken out (Egstem, leaf, root etc.) and grown in a test tube, under sterile conditions in special nutrient media.

2. It is a special mode of asexual reproduction in which all new plants formed are qualitatively and qualitatively similar to the parent(maintaining the desirable characters).

Question 12.
Beekeeping is the old age cottage industry that is very significant commercially

1. Name the useful products obtained
2. Why does a beekeeper keep beehives in crop fields during flowering period?

Answer:
1. Honey and Bee wax.

2. a beekeeper keep beehives in crop fields during flowering period:

• To increase the chances of pollination
• To increase the yield of honey.

Question 13.

1. Mention the property that enables the explants to regenerate into a new plant
2. A banana, herb is virus infected. Describe the method that will help in obtaining healthy banana plant form diseased plant.

Answer:

1. Totipotency
2. Extract the Meristem (apical and axillary) and grow it in vitro to obtain vims free banana plants.

Question 14.
Honey collection improves when beehives are kept in crop fields during flowering seasons. Explain.
Answer:
Bees are the pollination of many crops. Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering period increases pollination and improve the honey yield. It is beneficial both for crop yield and honey yield.

Question 15.
Jersey is an important breed of cattle

1. Define breed
2. Differentiate between inbreeding and outbreeding

Answer:
1. A group of animals related by descent and similar in most characters like general appearance, feature, size, configuration etc. are called a breed.

2. Inbreeding – The mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generations.

3. Out breeding – Breeding of the unrelated animals of the same breed but have no common ancestors for 4 – 6 generations.

Question 16.
What is the major advantage of producing plant by micro propagation?
Answer:
Micropropagation is a tissue culture technique which enables us to get unlimited number of plants in a limited space and short time.

Question 17.
When inbreeding depression becomes a problem, how can we overcome the issue?
Answer:
Firstly select animals from inbreed population and mate them with unrelated superior animals of the same breed (Outcrossing)). This helps to restore fertility and yield.

Question 18.
Match the following column A column B

Answer:
1(d), 2(a), 3(b), 4(c)

Question 19.
To improve the chances of successful production of hybrids, MOET is employed.

1. Expand MOET
2. Explain the steps involved in MOET

Answer:

1. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
2. steps involved in MOET

• A cow is administered with FSH hormones, it induce follicular maturation and super ovulation.
• They produce 6-8 egg instead of one egg per cycle.
• Cow is mated with elite bull or artificially inseminated.
• Zygote at 8-32 cells are recovered non surgically and transferred to surrogate mother.
• The genetic mother is available for another round of super ovulation.

Question 20.
Give one example each of variety developed against white rust and bacterial blight.
Answer:

• White rust – Pusa Swarnim
• Bacterial blight – Pusa Komal

Question 21.
Observe the statements given below:

1. High yielding disease resistant wheat
2. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Taiwan
3. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in India
4. Semi-dwarf variety rice developed in Philippines Fill up column B using the above statements.

Answer:

1. High yielding disease resistant wheat
2. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Philippines
3. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Taiwan
4. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in India.

Question 22.
Observe the table and fill a, b, c and d.

Answer:
(a) Pusa sadabahar
(b) Brassica
(c) Black rot/curl blight black rot
(d) Pusa komal

Question 23.
Construct a table with column-A Crop, and Column – B Variety using the hints given below. Hints – Wheat, Brassica, Cow pea, Cauliflower, PusaSwamim, PusaShubhra, Himgiri, PusaKomal
Answer:

Question 24.

1. In mung bean, two varieties are developed through mutation breeding for disease resistance. Name the disease for which the varieties are produced.
2. Name two agents that induce mutation.

Answer:

1. Resistance against yellow mosaic virus
2. Resistance to powdery mildew chemicals, gamma radiation.

Question 25.
Parbhanikranthi is a resistant variety of bhindi.

1. Which disease this breed is resistant to?
2. Name the scientific name of parbhani kranthi.

Answer:

1. Yellow mosaic virus
2. Abelmoschus esculentus

Question 26.
Observe the terms given below. Arrange then in the order of crop, variety, and insect pests in three columns. Pusa Gaurav, Aphids, Shoot and fruit borer, Brassica, PusaSem 3, Okra, PusaSawani, Pusa A-4
Answer:

Question 27.
The most practical means to improve the public health is biofortification.

1. What do you mean by biofortification.
2. List out its main objectives.

Answer:
1. It is the Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins, minerals, higher protiens and healtheir fats
2. objectives:

• protein content and quality
• oil content and quality.
• vitamin content
• micronutrient and mineral content

Question 28.

1. Indian agricultural institute, New Delhi developed vegetables with enriched vitamin and minerals.
2. Write two examples of vitamin A, iron and calcium enriched vegetables.

Answer:

1. Vitamin A enriched-Carrot, pumpkin
2. Iron and calcium enriched Spinach and bathua.

Question 29.
Explant, totipotency, micropropagation are terms very commonly used in tissue culture. Explain each terms.
Answer:
1. Explant: Any plant part taken for tissue culture
2. Totipotency: Capacity to generate whole plant from any cell
3. MicroPropaaation: Propagation of thousands of plants through tissue culture.

Question 30.
Pomato is a somatic hybrid. How this is developed?
Answer:
It is developed through following steps

• Isolation of single cell each from potato and tomato.
• Digestion of the cell wall using enzymes.
• Isolate the protoplast.
• Fuse to get hybrid protoplast. This can be grown to form a new plant.

Question 31.
Distinguish between the following. Apiculture and Pisciculture.
Answer:
Apiculture or Bee keeping is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey. Pisciculture aims to increase the production of fishes.

Question 32.
Name two semi-dwarf rice and wheat varieties developed in India.
Answer:

1. Semi-dwarf rice – Java & Ratna
2. Semi-dwarf wheat – Sonalika & Kalyansona.

Question 33.
In some animals productivity is lost due to continuous inbreeding process

1. Name the breeding strategy is used to overcome productivity loss
2. Name the breading technique used to produce heterozygous offsprings

Answer:

1. Outcrossing
2. Cross breeding

Question 34.
Healthy plants are obtained from diseased plants by an important tissue culture technique.

1. Name it.
2. Which is the nutritive substance used as carbon source?

Answer:

1. Meristem culture
2. Sucrose

Question 35.
In 2000 hybrid Maize with higher levels of amino acid developed by plant breeding method

1. Name the strategy used
2. Give an example for protein-rich variety developed

Answer:

1. biofortification
2. Atlas 66

Question 36.
In 1960 the grain production of our country has increased due to the introduction of semi dwarf rice and wheat varieties.

1. Name the world renowned scientist has worked behind the Green Revolution program
2. Give an example for two rice varieties developed in India

Answer:

1. Norman E Borlaug
2. Jaya and Ratna

Question 37.
In Ayurvedic medicine and honey is very important to treat many diseases

1. Which is the most common species of bees used?
2. What are the significance of Apiculture?

Answer:

1. Apis indica
2. It helps to increase Honey yield, pollination efficiency and crop yield.

Question 38.
Name any five hybrid varieties of crop plants which have been developed in India
Answer:
The five hybrid varieties of crop plants which have been developed in India are:
Crop Plant Hybrid Variety

1. Wheat – Sonalika and Kalian sona
2. Rice – Jaya and Ratna
3. Cauliflower – Pusa shubra and Pusa snowball K-1
4. Cowpea – Pusa komal
5. Mustard – Pusaswarnim

Question 39.
What is the major advantage of producing plants by micropropagation?
Answer:
Micropropagation is a method of producing new plants in a short duration using plant tissue culture. Some major advantages of micropropagation are as follows:

1. Micropropagation helps in the propagation of a large number of plants in a short span of time.
2. The plants produced are identical to the mother plant.

Question 40.
How is a somatic hybrid different from a hybrid?
Answer:
Isolated protoplasts from two different varieties of plants can be fused to get hybrid protoplasts, which can be further grown to form a new hybrid plant that is called somatic hybrid.

Question 41.
What is emasculation? Why and when is it done
Answer:
Removal of anther from a bisexual flower is called emasculation. It is used to avoid self-pollination and is used in artificial hybridisation programme. It is done before the dehiscence of anther.

Question 42.
Plants raised through tissue cultures are clones of the ‘parent’ plant. Discuss the utility of these plants.
Answer:
Plant raised through tissue cultures are clones of the parent plant that means they are genetically identical to the original plant. They are utilised for maintaining a desirable trait of parent.

Question 43.

1. The shift from grain to meat diets creates more demands for cereals. Why?
2. A250 kg cow produces 200g of protein per day but 250g of Methylophillus methylotrophus can produce 25 tonnes of protein. Name this emerging area of research. Explain its benefits.

Answer:
1. It takes 3-10 kg of grain to produce 1 kg of meat using animal farming. That is why cereals demand increases.

2. Spirulina can be easily grown on starch, molasses etc. and can make food which is rich in proteins, minerals, fats, carbohydrates and vitamins. This could be a good alternative for dealing with the problem of malnutrition.

Question 44.
Observe the statements given below:

1. High yielding disease resistant wheat
2. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Taiwan
3. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in India
4. Semi-dwarf variety rice developed in Philippines

Fill up column- B using the above statements.

Answer:

1. High yielding disease resistarit wheat
2. Semi -dwarf variety of rice developed in Philippines
3. Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Taiwan
4. Semi -dwarf variety of rice developed in India

Question 45.
Observe the table and fill a, b, c and d.

Answer:
(a) Pusa sadabahar
(b) Brassica
(c) Black rot/curl blight black rot
(d) Pusa komal

Question 46.
parbhani kranthi is a resistant variety of bhindi.

1. Which disease this breed is resistant to?
2. Name the scientific name of parbhani kranthi.

Answer:

1. Yellow mosaic vims
2. Abelmoschus esculentus

Plus Two Botany Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Poultry Farm Management of chicken, ducks, turkey and geese for food or their eggs

1. What are the important points to remember on poultry farming.
2. Name the causative organism of bird flu.

Answer:
1. poultry farming:

• Maintain disease free condition in farm.
• Provide proper feed and water.

2. Virus (H₅ N₁)

Question 2.
Your neighbor owned a diary farm. For better diary farm management what advise can you give for him?
Answer:
Dairy farm management includes processes and systems that increase yield and improve quality of milk.

It includes selection of good breeds having high yielding potential, resistance to diseases they have to be housed well, should have adequate water, maintained disease free, feeding should be in a scientific manner(in the quality and quantity of fodder), maintaining cleanliness and hygiene during milking, storage and transport of the milk and its products, and require regular visit of a veterinary doctor.

Question 3.
Pusagaura, pusaA-4, Himagiri, pusacomal are some hybrid varieties developed through plant breeding. Sumesh get this information from a magazine. But he did not know the steps of plant breeding through which these varieties are produced. Can you help him?
Answer:
The main steps of plant breeding are

• Collection of variability
• Evaluation and selection of parents:
• Cross hybridisation among the selected parents:
• Selection and testing of superior recombinants:
• Testing, release and commercialisation of new cultivars.

Question 4.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 5.
Breeding technique that help to improve cattle population in India, some breeds are good in milk yielding and disease resistance

1. What is cross breeding?
2. What advantage does it confer?
3. Give one example.

Answer:
1. Cross breeding is the mating between animals of different breeds. It involves mating of superior males of one breed with superior females of another breed.

2. This method allows the desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined. Thus the hybrid progeny will have desirable traits of both the breeds.

3. Eg-Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.

Question 6.
Plant breeding is the purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to create desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation, give better yields and disease resistance. Write’the major steps in breeding a new variety of crop.
Answer:
The steps involved in plant breeding are:
1. Collection of variability:
Collection and preservation of different wild varieties, species and relatives of cultivated species and evaluation of their characteristics.

2. Evaluation and selection of parents:
Evaluation of germplasm helps to identify plants with desirable characters and are selected as parents for hybridization.

3. Cross hybridisation among the selected plants:
The two parents selected are artificially hybridized and producing hybrid with desirable character.

4. Seletion and testing of superior recombinants:
The hybrids obtained are tested for superior character and are self pollinated for several generations till they reach a state of uniformity.

5. Testing release and commercialisation of new cultivars:
The selected lines are evaluated and the performance are recorded and is compared to the best available local cultivar and released as a new variety.

Question 7.
It is suggested to supply Atlas-66 variety of Wheat grains to the malnutrient communities.

1. Name the technology used to produce Atlas 66?
2. Explain it
3. Give four examples of biofortified crops released by IARI, New Delhi.

Answer:
1. Biofortification.

2. It is the breeding of crop with higher level of vitamin& Minerals or higher protein & healthier fats. It is the most practical means to improve public health.

3. IARI, New Delhi, released vitamin enriched carrots, Spinach, pumkin vitamin c enriched bitter gourd, mustard,tomato& calcium enriched spinach & protein enriched beans – Broad lablab, French beans & garden peas.

Question 8.
Somatic hybridization technique is used to raise hybrid plants with combined characters of two different plants.

1. How is it achieved?
2. Give an example
3. What are soma clones?

Answer:
1. Protoplast can’ijeHsolated from cells by digesting their walls using enzymes. Somatic hybridization is the fusion of isolated protoplasts from two different varieties of plants having desirable characters.

The fusion results in the formation of hybrid protoplast. These protoplast are further grown into a new plant. The plants obtained are called somatic hybrids.

2. Pomato

3. Plants got during micro propagation (tissue culture) are genetically identical to the original plant from where they are grown.

Question 9.
Inbreeding increases homozygosity and causes inbreeding depression.

1. What you meant by inbreeding depression.
2. Name the progenies obtained through this process with selection.

Answer:
1. Inbreeding is the mating of more closely related individuals of the same breed. Continued inbreeding leads to increasing homozygozity and ultimately results in the reduction of fertility and productivity.

2. Purelines.

Question 10.
‘Apiculture’ has become an established income-generating industry ______

1. What is Apiculture?
2. Which is the most commonly used species?
3. What are the matters one should know before starting apiculture?

Answer:
1. Apiculture is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey.
2. The commonly used species of honeybee is Apis indica.
3. The following points are considered for successful bee keeping.

• Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees.
• Selection of suitable location for keeping the bee hives.
• Catching and hiving of swarms(group of bees).
• Management of bee hives during different seasons.

Question 11.
To improve changes of successful production of hybrids other means are also used. MOET is one such programme.

1. What is MOET?
2. Write down the steps used for herd improvement.

Answer:
1. MOET is multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology. It is the controlled breeding method. It is done to improve the chances of successful production of hybrids.

2. steps used for herd improvement:

• Cow is given hormones with FSH-like activity
• To induce follicular maturation and super ovulation
• It produce 6-8 eggs/cycle.
• This animal is then mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated.
• The fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages, are removed and transferred to surrogate mother.

Question 12.
Pusa-gaurav, pusa A-4, Himagiri, pusa comal are some hybrid varieties developed through plant breeding. Sumesh get this information from a magazine. But he did not know the steps of plant breeding.

1. Write down the steps of plant breeding
2. Name the revolution that leads to the food production in World.

Answer:
1. The main steps of plant breeding are

• Collection of variability
• Evaluation and selection of parents
• Cross hybridisation among the selected parents
• Selection and testing of superior recombinants
• Testing, release and commercialisation of new cultivars

2. Green revolution

Question 13.
Bee-keeping is the maintenance of hives honey bees for the production of honey. Illustrate the important steps for successful bee keeping.
Answer:

1. Knowledge of the nature and habit of
2. Selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives.
3. Catching and hiving of swarms.
4. Management of beehives during different seasons
5. Handling and collection of honey and bee wax.

Question 14.
Breeding between animals of the same breed is called inbreeding. Write the steps of inbreeding.
Answer:

1. Identifies superior male and female of the same breed.
2. Mate them in pairs.
3. Identifies the superior male and female of the progeny for further mating.
4. Select the best breed.

Question 15.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of inbreeding.
Answer:

Question 16.
Why does a beekeeper keep beehives in crop fields during the flowering periods?
Answer:
Bees are available during flowering periods, as they feed on the pollen and nectar of flowers.

1. It increases pollination efficiency and crop yield.
2. It also improves honey yield.

Question 17.
Raju is working in an Agricultural Research station and is directed to provide large number of plants like banana, orchids, haploid varieties of water melon and two medicinal plants whose leaves and roots are used as medicines.

1. Write the most suitable method that Raju can adopt.
2. Give any two advantages of this method.

Answer:
1. Micro propagation
It is the tissue culture method used to produce large no. of plants within a short period.

2. advantages of this method:

• The plants are genetically identical to the original plant from which they grown (soma clones).
• The plants must be virus free as meristems are used as explants.

Plus Two Botany Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
If your family owned a dairy farm. What measures would you undertake to improve the quality and quantity of milk production?
Answer:
To improve the quality and quantity of milk production the following steps are to be taken.

• Selection of good breeds having high yielding potential and disease resistance.
• The cattle should be housed well with adequate water and maintained disease free.
• The feeding of cattle should be in scientific manner – giving emphasis on quality and quantity of fodder.
• Cleanliness and hygiene (both of cattle and handlers) should be given paramount importance to milking, storage and transport of milk.

Question 2.
Name any five hybrid varieties of crop.
Answer:

1. Himgiri – Wheat
2. Pusaswarnim – Brassica
3. Pusashubhra – Cauliflower
4. Pusakomal – Cow pea
5. PusaSadabahar-Chilli

Question 3.
Name the methods employed in a animal breeding. According to you which of the method is best. Why?
Answer:
The methods employed in animal breeding are:

1. Inbreeding
2. Outbreeding such as out crossing, cross breeding and interspecific hybridization.
3. Controlled breeding such as artificial insemination and multiple ovulation embryo transfer technique.

Artificial insemination method of controlled breeding is best because it ensures good quality progeny and it is economic also.

Question 4.
What is apiculture? How is it important is our lives?
Answer:
Apiculture:
Rearing of honey bees for the commercial production of honey and bee wax. Apiculture is a low cost investment and highly profitable. It provides honey, wax and act as pollinator of many crops.

Question 5.
Discuss the role of fishery in enhancement of food production.
Answer:
A large section of the Indian population uses fish and many other aquatic animals such as crabs, lobsters, prawns etc. as food. The fish serve as a chief source of protein, has very little fat, carries a good amount of minerals, vitamins and iodine. Thus fisheries plays significant role in enhancement of food production.

Question 6.
Explain what is meant by biofortification.
Answer:
Biofortification:
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher protein and healthier fats is called biofortification. The biofortification is done with improvement of public health as the primary goal.

Question 7.
Which part of the plant is best suited for making virus-free plants and why?
Answer:
The apical and axillary meristem are the best suited parts of plant for the production of virus-free plants. These parts are generally free from virus due to the absence of vascular tissue through which vims are transported.

Question 8.
What is the major advantage of producing plant by micro propagation?
Answer:
Micropropagation is a tissue culture technique which enables us to get unlimited number of plants in a limited space and short time.

Question 9.
Find out what the various components of the medium used for propagation of an explant in vitro are?
Answer:
The major components of the medium are water, inorganic salts, sucrose (source of carbon and energy), vitamins, amino acids, and growth hormones like auxins, cytokinins etc.

• Other compounds like casein, coconut milk, yeast extract etc. may be added for specific purposes.
• If required a gelling agent agar is added to the liquid medium for its solidification.

Question 10.
Name any five hybrid varieties of crop plants which have been developed in India.
Answer:

1. Wheat – Himgiri
2. Rice – Jaya, Ratna
3. Brassica – PusaSwarnim
4. Cow pea – Pusa Comal
5. Chilli – PusaSadabahar

Plus Two Botany Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Hybrid vigour is mostly due to
(a) superiority of all the genes
(b) homozygosity of pure characters
(c) heterozygosity
(d) mixing of recessive characters only
Answer:
(c) heterozygosity

Question 2.
Breeding of crops which high levels of minerals, vitamins and proteins is called
(a) Somatic hybridisation
(b) Biofortification
(c) Biomagnification
(d) Micropropagation
Answer:
(c) Biomagnification

Question 3.
Disease resistant crop is obtained by
(a) crossing with new varieties
(b) crossing with wild varieties
(c) injecting with organic compounds
(d) crossing with recessive varieties
Answer:
(b) crossing with wild varieties

Question 4.
In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
(a) bombarding the seeds with DNA
(b) crossing of two superior desirable parental lines
(c) harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
(d) inducing mutations
Answer:
(b) crossing of two superior desirable parental lines

Question 5.
Wonder wheat is new wheat variety developed by
(a) Mexico’s international Wheat and Maize Improvement Centre
(b) Indian National Botanical Research Institute
(c) Australian Crop Improvement Centre
(d) African Crop Improvement Centre
Answer:
(a) Mexico’s international Wheat and Maize Improvement Centre

Question 6.
The terminator gene technology causes
(a) failure of seed setting after one generation
(b) breakage of seed dormancy
(c) early flowering in plants
(d) death of microorganisms in soil
Answer:
(a) failure of seed setting after one generation

Question 7.
Study the following columns.


Answer:
(c) 3 4 1 2

Question 8.
The high yielding hybrid crop varieties to exploit hybrid vigour, the farmers need to purchase fresh hybrid seed every year because.
(a) hybridvigour is not long-standing due to inbreeding depression
(b) they are not allowed to grow their own seed
(c) it is always associated with increased heterozygosity
(d) always associated with increased homozygosity
Answer:
(c) it is always associated with increased heterozygosity

Question 9.
In crop improvement programme, haploids are of great importance because they
(a) grow better under adverse conditions
(b) are useful in the study of meiosis
(c) requires only abgut half the amount of chemical fertilizers compared to diploids
(d) give homozygous lines
Answer:
(d) give homozygous lines

Question 10.
Match the following columns and choose the correct option.


Answer:
(b) 1 2 4 5

Question 11.
Three crops that contribute maximum to global food grain production are
(a) Wheat, rice and maize
(b) Wheat, maize and sorghum
(c) rice, maize and Sorghum
(d) Wheat, rice and barley
Answer:
(a) Wheat, rice and maize

Question 12.
India’s wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was possible primarily due to
(a) hybrid seeds
(b) increased chlorophyll content
(c) mutations resulting in plant height reduction
(d) quantitative trait mutations
Answer:
(c) mutations resulting in plant height reduction

Question 13.
Mule is a product of
(a) breeding
(b) inter generic hybridisation
(c) hybridization
(d) interspecific hybridisation
Answer:
(d) interspecific hybridisation

Question 14.
Protoplasts of two different species are fused in
(a) micro-propagation
(b) somatic hybridisation
(c) clonal propagation
(d) organography
Answer:
(b) somatic hybridisation

Question 15.
Removal of anthers of some flowers during plant breeding is
(a) emasculation
(b) anthesis
(c) pollination
(d) for collection of pollen
Answer:
(a) emasculation

Question 16.
The type of hormone used for MOET is
(a) insulin
(b) LH
(c) FSH
(d) LTH
Answer:
(c) FSH

17. The species of insect very common in apiculture is
(a) Apisindica
(b) Apisdorsata
(c) Both a & b
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) Apisindica

Question 18.
The industry mainly responsible for the catching, rearing and selling of fish and its products come under
(a) Pisciculture
(b) Aquaculture
(c) Silviculture
(d) Apiculture
Answer:
(a) Pisciculture

Question 19.
Which method is used to overcome inbreeding depression
(a) Intra specific hybridization
(b) self pollination
(c) outbreeding
(d) intra varietal hybridization
Answer:
(c) outbreeding

Question 20.
Bird flu is caused by
(a) H₁N₁
(b) H₅N₁
(c) H₃N₁
(d) H₂N₁
Answer:
(b) H₅N₁

Question 21.
Disease free plants are produced by
(a) somatic hybridization
(b) meristem culture
(c) protoplast culture
(d) embryo culture
Answer:
(b) meristem culture

Question 22.
Atlas 66 is the variety of
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) maize
(d) sorghum
Answer:
(a) wheat

Question 23.
Somaclones shows
(a) similarity with parents
(b) dissimilarity with parents
(c) similarity among offsprings but not with parents
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) similarity with parents

Question 24.
Green revolution mainly aims for growing
(a) disease resistance variety
(b) semi dwarf variety
(c) self fertilizing variety
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) semi dwarf variety

Question 25.
Hisardale is the superior breed of sheep developed by
(a) cross breeding
(b) genetic engineering
(c) somatic hybridization
(d) inbreeding
Answer:
(a) cross breeding

Students can Download Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Plus Two Botany Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Types of pollination in Commelina is
(a) chasmogamy
(b) geitonogamy
(c) xenogamy
(d) cleistogamy
Answer:
(d) cleistogamy

Question 2.
When pollen is transferred from another of a flower to stigma of the another flower of the of the same plant, it is referred to as
(a) allogamy
(b) xenogamy
(c) geitonogamy
(d) autogamy
Answer:
(c) geitonogamy

Question 3.
For plant breeding purposes: Pollens are stored at -196°C. What is the purpose behind it?
Answer:
Stored pollens can be used as pollen banks in crop breeding programmes.

Question 4.
Pollen tube enters the embryo sac through
(a) Integument
(b) Micropyle
(c) Calaza
(d) Funicle
Answer:
(b) Micropyle

Question 5.
In flowering plants, fertilization occur in
(a) Ovary
(b) Embryo sac
(c) Nucellus
(d) Ovule
Answer:
(b) Embryo sac

Question 6.
The source of food for developing embryo is
(a) Nucellus
(b) Ovule
(c) Endosperm
(d) Anther
Answer:
(c) Endosperm

Question 7.
Out of megaspre tetrad, the functional megaspore is
(a) Any megaspore
(b) Middle megaspore
(c) Micropylar megaspore
(d) Chalazal megaspre
Answer:
(d) Chalazal megaspre

Question 8.
How many megaspore mothe cell are produced in a nuclellus
(a) 3
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 9.
During the development of monosporic development of embryo sac, the nucleus of the functional megaspore divides
(a) Two times
(b) Three times
(c) Onetime
(d) Repeatedly
Answer:
(b) Three times

Question 10.
Cross pollination has an advantage of
(a) Mutation
(b) polyploidy formation
(c) Genetic recombination
(d) Crossing over
Answer:
(c) Genetic recombination

Question 11.
Unisexual flowers prevent
(a) Pollination
(b) Breeding
(c) Self-pollination
(d) Cross fertilization
Answer:
(c) Self-pollination

Question 12.
The function of the filiform apparatus is
(a) To nourish the pollen grain
(b) To guide the entry of pollen tube
(c) To develop pollen tube
(d) To carry pollen tube through style
Answer:
(b) To guide the entry of pollen tube

Question 13.
Find the odd one. Hilum, Funicle, Intine, Integuments
Answer:
Intine

Question 14.
Choose the correctly matched pair.
(a) Coleorrhiza – Hollow foliar structure
(b) Perisperm- Remanents of nucellus
(c) Proembryo – mature embryo
Answer:
(b) Perisperm – Remanents of nucellus

Question 15.
Choose the correct answer. The layer of microsporangium that nourishes the developing pollen grains is
(a) Endothecium
(b) Tapetum
(c) Middle layer
(d) Epidermis
Answer:
(b) Tapetum

Question 16.
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is.
(a) 7 nucleate 8 celled
(b) 8 nucleate 8 celled
(c) 7 nucleate 7 celled
(d) 8 nucleate 7 celled
Answer:
(d) 8 nucleate 7 celled

Question 17.
The process of formation of fruits without fertilization is called.
(a) Parthenogenesis
(b) Parthenocarpy
(c) Apomixis
(d) Autogamy
Answer:
(b) Parthenocarpy

Question 18.
Identify the wrong statements regarding post – fertilization development.
(a) The ovary wall develops into pericarp
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen
(c) The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into endosperm
(d) The ovule develops into seed
Answer:
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into tegmen

Question 19.
Dicot emdryo consists of
(a) radicle and plumule
(b) radicle;plumule, cotyledons and sometimes endosperm
(c) radicle and plumule, cotyledons and tegmen
(d) radicle andplumule, cotyledons tegmentesta
Answer:
(b) radicle,plumule, cotyledons and sometimes endosperm

Question 20.
These process are necessary for the complete development of male gametophyte from pollen mother cell
(a) one meiotic and two mitotic divisions
(b) one meiotic cell division and one meiotic cell division
(c) two meiotic cell division and one mitotic cell division
(d) two meiotic cell division
Answer:
(a) one meiotic and two mitotic divisions

Question 21.
A bilobeddithecus anther has 100 microspore mother cells per micro sporangium. How many male gametophytes this anther can produce?
Answer:
400 male gametophytes

Question 22.
An anther with malfunctioning tapetum often failsto produce viable male gametophytes. Give one reason.
Answer:
Tapetum nourishes developing pollen grains

Plus Two Botany Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pollen grains are well preserved as fossil for many years due to some characteristics

1. Name the chemical substance present in pollen wall promote such preservation
2. Give reasons.

Answer:

1. sporopollenin
2. It is the most resistant organic material and can withstand high temperatures, strong acids, and alkali. No enzymes can degrade sporopollenin.

Question 2.
One time fertilization is the characteristic feature of majority of plants but angiosperm show two times of fertilization

1. Two fusion occurs are different. Name it and write down the number of nuclei involved in such process
2. Name the products and ploidy.

Answer:

1. Syngamy. Two nuclei Triple fusion, three nuclei
2. Zygote (2n), PEN (3n)

Question 3.
Commelina, viola, and oxalis that carries both chasmogamous and Cliestogamy flowers.

1. Find out the main differences between them.
2. Give the significance of Cliestogamy.

Answer:

1. Chasmogamous flowers with exposed anthers and stigma. Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all.

2. significance of Cliestogamy:

• It ensures self pollination.
• Purity of characters is maintained.

Question 4.

1. Geitonogamy is a functional cross-pollination but not genetically. Justify?
2. In Papaya, Autogamy and Geitonogamy do not occur. Give reason.

Answer:
1. Geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination because transfer pollen takesplace between different flowers of same plant that bear same genetic makeup.

2. Papaya is dioecios plants, because, the male and female flowers are present on different plants, which prevent autogamy and geitonogamy.

Question 5.
Wind pollination is common in grasses and water pollination in vallisneria. Give the features of these plants to facilitate pollination.
Answer:
1. Grasses

• Pollen grains are light weight and non-sticky
• Stigama is feathery.

2. Vallisneria

• Flowers do not produce nector and fragrance.
• Female flowers reach the surface of water by long stalk.

Question 6.
In most plants continuous self pollination leads to inbreeding depression while in others certain devices that help to discourage self pollination. Give any four devices.
Answer:

1. Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not at the same time.
2. Another and stigma are placed at different positions.
3. Self-incompatibility.
4. Production of unisexual flowers.

Question 7.
The micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat. What is its role?
Answer:
Micropyle facilitates the entry of oxygen and water into the seed during germination.

Question 8.
Draw the diagram of a typical dicot embryo and label the parts like plumule, cotyledons, radicle, and root cap.
Answer: