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Students can Download Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which organelle is not a part of the endomembrane system?
(a) lysosome
(b) vacuole
(c) mitochondria
(d) Golgi complex
Answer:
(c) mitochondria

Question 2.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in cells which synthesise
(a) steroids
(b) proteins
(c) carbohydrates
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) steroids

Question 3.
The type of ribosome found in prokaryotes is
(a) 70 S
(b) 80 S
(c) 60 S
(d) 50 S
Answer:
(a) 70 S

Question 4.
Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane in 1972?
(a) Singer and Nicolson
(b) Rober Hooke
(c) Rrobertsons model
(d) Camilo golgi
Answer:
(a) Singer and Nicolson

Question 5.
An organelle with internal cross section showing the characteristic 9 + 2 arrays is
(a) microtubule
(b) microfilament
(c) cilia and flagellum
(d) tubulin
Answer:
(c) cilia and flagellum

Question 6.
Smaller, lipid-soluble molecules diffuse faster through cell membrane, but the movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by certain biomolecules named as ____________
Answer:
Proteins.

Question 7.
Name the cell organelle rich in acid hydrolase.
Answer:
Lysosome

Question 8.
Name the stacked particle present on the inner sur¬face of inner mitochondrial membrane.
Answer:
Oxysomes

Question 9.
Give the chemical nature of ribosomes.
Answer:
rRNAs and proteins

Question 10.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill up the blanks.

1. Mitochondria: Cristae
   Chloroplast: ……….
2. Moss: Capsule
   Fern: ………….

Answer:

1. Grana
2. Sporangium

Question 11.
Mark the odd one out.

1. Nucleus; Nucleoli; Centriole; Chromosome
2. Family, class, taxon, phylum

Answer:

1. Centriole
2. Taxon

Question 12.
Name the protein associated with chromosomes.
Answer:
Histones

Question 13.
The cell wall of Bacterium is made up of
(a) Cellulose
(b) Hemi cellulose
(c) Lignin
(d) Peptidoglycan
Answer:
(d) Peptidoglycan.

Question 14.
ETS is associated with F0-F1 particles and many respiratory enzymes. What is the role of F0-F1 particles in mitochondria?
Answer:
ATP synthesis

Question 15.
Why is nucleus called the director of the cell?
Answer:
It controls and coordinates all the cellular functions.

Question 16.
What will you call a cell not having ER, Golgi body, mitochondria, nuclear membrane, etc.
Answer:
Prokaryotic cell

Question 17.
Which organelles are called ribonucleoprotein particles of the cell?
Answer:
Ribosome

Question 18.
Name which cell organelle is associated with secretory activity.
Answer:
Golgi body

Question 19.
Identify the powerhouse of a cell. Give justification.
Answer:
Mitochondria – synthesis of ATP

Question 20.
Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?
(a) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria
(b) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA
(d) Membrane-bound organelles are present
Answer:
(a) lt has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria.

Question 21.
Which of the following statements is true for a secretory cell?
(a) Golgi apparatus is absent
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell
(c) Only Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is present
(d) Secretory granules are formed in nucleus.
Answer:
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell

Question 22.
Name the compound which gives fluidity and functional specificity to biomembranes.
Answer:
Fluidy by lipids and functional specificity by proteins

Question 23.
Which of the following is correct?

1. Cells of all living organisms have a definite nucleus
2. Both animal and plant cells have a well-defined cell wall.

Answer:

1. false
2. false

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
While studying the stages of meiosis following features observed at one stage.

1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
2. Formation of synaptonemal complex. Identify the stage.

Answer:

1. Zygotene
2. Pachytene

Question 2.
Make a list of organelles that function as the cytoskeleton.
Answer:
The endoplasmic reticulum, microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate fibers.

Question 3.
Name two cell organelles that are double membrane-bound. Write the main functions of each.
Answer:

1. Chloroplast- Photosynthesis
2. Mitochondria – cellular respiration

Question 4.
Name the cell organelles in the cell which act as the following.

1. Protein factories
2. Powerhouse
3. Disposal unit
4. Control centres

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Mitochondria
3. Lysosomes
4. Nucleus

Question 5.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:
1) Ribosome – 70S
2) Porin – Protein
3) Lignin – Secondary wall
4) Nucleus – Chromosome

Question 6.
Bacterial cell envelope is a complex structure. It is made up of various layers. Name the different layers in the Bacterial cell envelope.
Answer:
Glycocalyx, cell wall, and plasma membrane.

Question 7.
Pick up the odd one and state reason for your answer.
Golgi bodies, Nucteolus, Nucleus, Lysosome.
Answer:
Nucleolus. Remaining three are major cell organells seen in cytoplasm.

Question 8.
Mitochondria is called powerhouse of the cell. Comment.
Answer:
Mitochondria are the centres of production, storage, and distribution of energy for various metabolic activities of cell.

Question 9.
Table which shows a comparison of cell organisation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the diagrams of two different phases of mitosis given below and write their names..

Answer:

• A- Metaphase
• B – Anaphase

Question 11.
Interphase in cell cycle is referred to as resting phase. Do you consider this statement true? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
No. Synthesis of DNA, RNA & Protein occurs hence it is active stage.

Question 12.
Some statements related to certain cell organelles are given in column A. Identify the organelles and give their names correctly against each statement in column B.

Answer:

Question 13.
How RER is different from SER?
Answer:

1. RER – Rough endoplasmic reticulum
   Contains ribosomes – protein synthesis
2. SER – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
   Devoid of ribosome – lipid synthesis & storage

Question 14.
Most accepted model of Biomembrance is best referred as ‘Protein Icebergs in the sea of Lipid”.

1. Name the most accepted structural model for the Biomembrane.
2. Who proposed it?

Answer:

1. Fluid mosaic model
2. Singer & Nicholson

Question 15.
Functions and names of organells are given below arrange them into a table.
Mitochondria, Endoplasic reticulum, Ribosome, Chloroplast, protein synthesis, storage of energy, cytoskeleton, photosynthesis.
Answer:

• Mitochondria – Storage of energy
• Endoplasmic reticulum – Cytoskeleton
• Ribosome – Protein synthesis
• Chloroplast – Photosynthesis

Question 16.
Identify the given diagram. Copy and label the parts.

Answer:

• 1 – Stroma
• 4 – Fret channels

Question 17.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 18.
Different types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere are given below.

1. Classify them with necessary explanation.
2. What is the peculiarity of the chromosome “C”?

Answer:
1.

• A – Acrocentric chromosome – The centromere is near the end of the chromosome.
• B – Sub-metacentric chromosome – the centromere is near the middle of the chromosome.
• C – Metacentric chromosome – The centromere is at the middle of the chromosome,

2. It has both secondary constriction and a satellite.

Question 19.
Name the organelles which act as the following.

1. cell’s circulatory system
2. protein factories
3. powerhouse
4. disposal units
5. control centres

Answer:

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Ribosomes
3. Mitochondria
4. Lysosomes
5. Nucleus

Question 20.
Different types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere are given below. Classify them with necessary explanation. What is the peculiarity of the chromosome “D”?

Answer:

1. A- metacen trie – media nee centromere/Satel I ite chromosome.
2. B – sub metacentric – centromere just away from median position
3. C – acrocentric
4. D – Telocentric – Centromere close to the end or terminal

Question 21.
Membrane-bound distinct structures are called organelle. An organelle that is not bounded by membrane is seen in the chloroplast and mitochondria.

1. Identify cell organelle.
2. Write down its functions.

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Protein synthesis

Question 22.
Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in ascending order of their size. Choose the correct option among the following.
i. Mycoplasma
ii. Ostrich eggs
iii. Human RBC
iv. Bacteria
Answer:
i – iv – iii – ii

Question 23.
Is extra genomic DNA present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? If yes, indicate their location in both the types of organisms.
Answer:
It is present in cytoplasm of prokaryotes called plasmids

Question 24.
The genomic content of the nucleus is constant for a given species whereas the extrachromosomal DNA is found to be variable among the members of a population. Explain.
Answer:

• Transfer of hereditary characters from one generation to next takes place with the help of nucleus. But
• extrachromosomal DNA is not under the control of nuclear DNA its copy number varies in different organism.

Question 25.
Briefly give the contributions of the following scientists in formulating the cell theory.

1. Robert Virchow
2. Schielden and Schwann

Answer:

1. Omnis cellula-e-cellular means new cells arise from pre-existing cells. It is the contribution of Rudolf Virchow.
2. They have independently formulated the concept of cell theory i.e all cells are composed of cells and their products.

Schielden and Schwann-botanist and zoologist respectively.

Question 26.
Since the functions of certain membranous organelles are coordinated they are considered together as endomembrane system. Name the organelles included in this group.
Answer:
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, Lysosome, and vacuole.

Question 27.
An organelle is called “The powerhouse of the cell”

1. Name the organelle.
2. Why is it said so?

Answer:

1. Mitochondria
2. Here the Energy (ATP) production, storage, and distribution takes place. So it is called a powerhouse of the cell.

Question 28.
The fluid mosaic model is a widely accepted model of cell membrance. Why?. Who proposed this model?
Answer:
It is the model of the plasma membrane consists of proteins and phospholipid bilayer. It is otherwise known as protein and iceberg in a sea of lipids. Singer and Nicolson

Question 29.
Match the column A, B & C Appropriately

Answer:

Question 30.
A non-membrane cell organelles is common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

1. Which is that cell organelle?
2. What is its function?

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. It helps in protein synthesis. Ribosome is the protein synthesising machinery in both prokaryotes & Eukaryotes.

Question 31.
While looking through the microscope Ramesh saw few organisms. Help him to distinguish these organisms into Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
Answer:

• Prokaryotic organisms are single celled but without definite nucleus.
• Eukaryotic organisms are many celled with definite nucleus.

Question 32.
Cancer cells have numerous ribosomes’ Comment.
Answer:
Cancer cells undergoes uncontrolled and unwanted multiplication. It requires protein in large amounts. Hence numerous ribosomes are found in cancer cells.

Question 33.

Answer:

Question 34.
What is a tonoplast?
Answer:

1. Outer membrane of mitochondria
2. Inner membrane of chloroplast
3. Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells
4. Cell membrane of a plant cell
5. Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells

Question 35.
What structural and functional attributes must a cell have to be called a living cell?
Answer:
Living cell must possess cell membrane and protoplasm (cytoplasm and nucleus)

Question 36.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention its function?
Answer:

• Mesosome is the infoldings of plasma membrane of gram +bacteria.
• Respiration, wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells

Question 37.
Multicellular organisms have division of labour Explain.
Answer:
In multicellular organisms .different cells become specialized in their structure to perform a specialized function by coordinating to form different types of tissues that coordinate to form different organs. Each organ is specialized to perform a specific function.

Question 38.
Give the significance of osmosis.
Answer:
It helps in the absorption of water by roots, opening, and closing of stomata, seed germination, etc.

Question 39.
Why is ER called cell circulatory system?
Answer:
Because it helps in transportation of materials between cytoplasm and nuclueus.

Question 40.
What are thylakoids? Why are these called structural and funcional unit of chloroplasts?
Answer:

• They are oval shaped sacs which lie superimposed in the stroma of chloroplast to form grana.
• These have enzymes for photochemical reactions of photosynthesis as have chlorophyll-containing quatasomes.

Question 41.
Name two cell-organelles that are double membrane-bound. What are the characteristics of these two organelles? State their functions.
Answer:
Golgi body and Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
1. Golgi body:

• It perform the function of packaging materials.
• The site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

2. Endoplasmic reticulum:

• RER type involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
• SER is the major site of synthesis of lipids.

Question 42.
In some bacteria cell envelope consists of loose layer but in others, it appears as thick and tough layer. Name the two types of layers.
Answer:

• Loose layer – slime layer
• Thick and tough layer – Capsule

Question 43.
Phospho lipid bilayer with peripheral and integral proteins are arranged and forms quasifluid nature is found in almost all organisms.

1. Which is the best method explains the above statement?
2. Give its function.

Answer:

1. Fluid mosaic concept
2. Transport of molecules

Question 44.
The cross-section of cilia/flagella shows 9 + 2 arrangement and 9 + 0 in centriole.

1. What is the difference between the above two arrangements?
2. What is the function of cilia and centriole?

Answer:

1. In first case 9 doublet fibrils with 2 singlet fibrils and in the second case 9 triplet fibrils but no central fibrils
2. cilia helps in locomotion and centriole helps in assembly of spindle apparatus.

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do neutral solutes move to cross the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecule also move across it in the same way? If not then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
1. Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane by diffusion along the concentration gradient.

2. Polar molecule cannot move across it in the same way. Polar molecules require a carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane.

3. Some ions or molecules are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient, which is an energy-dependent process. It is called active transport.

Question 2.
When a 5% glucose solution and an 8%glucose solution are separated by a semipermeable membrane, explain

1. Which solution has a greater osmotic pressure
2. In which direction osmosis occurs
3. Which solution will increase in volume

Answer:

1. 8% glucose solution
2. 5 – 8% glucose solution
3. 8% glucose solution

Question 3.
Structure of a chloroplast is given below. Write the parts in the place of numbers.

Answer:

1. Stroma
2. Lamella
3. Granum
4. Fret
5. Periplastidial space

Question 4.
Differentiate the following terms:

1. Polysome and Mesosome
2. Amyloplast and Aleuroplast
3. RER and SER

Answer:
1. Polysome contains ribosome – Protein synthesis
Mesosome – cellular respiration

2. Aleuroplast-store Protein
Amyloplast – store Starch

3. RER- Rough endo plasmic reticulum
SER – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 5.
Match the terms in column A & B.

Answer:

Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 7.
Identify the statement given below is true /false.

1. Robert Brown discovered cell.
2. Schleiden and 9chwann formulated cell theory.
3. Virchow explained that cells are formed from preexisting cells.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True

Question 8.
Some cell organells are given below Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, mitochondria, chloroplast, vacuole, lysosome, microbodies, and centriole

1. Identify the cell organelles belongs to the endomembrane system.
2. Differentiate the cell organelles into membrane-bound and non-membrane bound.
3. which is the cell organelle only found in animal cell but not in a plant cells.

Answer:
1. Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex .vacuole, lysosome
2.

3. centriole

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.
(b) Schleiden and Schwann formulated the cell theory.
(c) Virchow explained that cells are formed from preexisting cells.
(d) A unicellular organism carries out its life activities within a single cell.
Answer:
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.

Question 2.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 3.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention the functions that it performs.
Answer:
In prokaryotes, the extension of plasma membrane into cell makes a membranous structure called mesosoma. They help in cell wall formation and DNA replication.

Question 4.
How do neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecules also move across it in the same way? If not, then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane through osmosis. On the other hand, polar molecules cannot pass through the non-polar membrane. They require a carrier protein to help them to move across the membrane. Such transport requires energy and is called active transport.

Question 5.
What is stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves. Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange. Each stomata is composed of two bean-shaped cells known as guard cellls. In grasses, the guard cells are dumbbell-shaped.

The outer walls of guard cells (away from the stomatal pore) are thin and the inner walls (towards the stomatal pore) are highly thickened. The guard cells possess chloroplasts and regulate the opening and closing of stomata.

Question 6.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) cells of all living organisms have a nucleus.
(b) Both animal and plant cells have a well-defined cell wall.
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles.
(d) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials.
Answer:
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles.

Question 7.
New cells generate from
(a) bacterial fermentation
(b) regeneration of old cells
(c) pre-existing cells
(d) abiotic materials
Answer:
(c) Pre-existing cells

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one is single membrane cell organelle?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(c) Lysosomes

Question 2.
The main function of lysosome is
(a) sexual reproduction
(b) extracellular digestion
(c) intracellular digestion
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 3.
Endoplasmic reticulum is in continuation with
(a) Golgi body
(b) nuclear wall
(c) mitochondria
(d) cell wall
Answer:
(b) nuclear wall

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a function of vacuole in plant cell?
(a) Storage
(b) Waste disposal
(c) Cell elongation and protection
(d) Production of hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
(c) Cell elongation and protection

Question 5.
The ATP synthase of chloroplasts is like that of
(a) peroxisomes
(b) Golgi body
(c) microsomes
(d) mitochondria
Answer:
(d) mitochondria

Question 6.
Fat is stored in the plant cell in
(a) lysosome
(b) spherosome
(c) microsome
(d) peroxisome
Answer:
(b) spherosome

Question 7.
F1 -particles comprise of
(a) head and base
(b) base and stalk
(c) head and stalk
(d) head, base, and stalk
Answer:
(a) head and base

Question 8.
Term basal body is associated with the development of
(a) cilia and flagella
(b) cell plate
(c) phragmoplast
(d) kinetochore
Answer:
(a) cilia and flagella

Question 9.
Golgi body receives materials from
(a) lysosome
(b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) mitochondria
(d) cell membrane
Answer:
(b) endoplasmic reticulum

Question 10.
Quantasomes are found in
(a) mitochondria
(b) chloroplast
(c) lysosome
(d) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
(b) chloroplast

Question 11.
The term mitochondria was given by
(a) Benda
(b) Altmann
(c) Palade
(d) de Duve
Answer:
(a) Benda

Question 12.
The prokaryotic cell does not contain
(a) chromosome
(b) mitochondria
(c) plasma membrane
(d) ribosome
Answer:
(b) mitochondria

Question 13.
Organelle important in spindle formation during nuclear division is
(a) Golgi body
(b) chloroplast
(c) centriole
(d) mitochondrion
Answer:
(c) centriole

Question 14.
The surface of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is covered with
(a) ribosome
(b) DNA
(c) RNA
(d) glucose
Answer:
(a) ribosome

Question 15.
Spindles are formed by
(a) microtubules
(b) golgi body
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) peroxisome
Answer:
(a) microtubules

Question 16.
In plants, vacuole contains
(a) soil
(b) water and dissolved substance
(c) cytoplasm
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) water and dissolved substance

Question 17.
Which cell organelle is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell?
(a) Ribosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) ER
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Ribosome

Question 18.
Cilia are
(a) short (5-10 pm) hair-like narrow protoplasmic process
(b) with sweeping or bendular movements
(c) more numerous
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 19.
Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chioroplasts and mitochondria is based on
(a) proton gradient
(b) accumulation of K ions
(c) accumulation of Na ions
(d) membrane potential
Answer:
(a) proton gradient

Question 20.
An organism exclusively with 70S type of ribosomes contains one of the following
(a) DNA enclosed within the nuclear membrane
(b) circular naked DNA
(c) double-stranded DNA with protein coat
(d) single-stranded DNA with protein coat
Answer:
(b) circular naked DNA

Students can Download Chapter 4 Anatomy of Flowering Plants Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Both apical and intercalary meristems are meristems
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) lateral
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) primary

Question 2.
Sclerieds present in
(a) fruit wall of nuts
(b) pulp of guava
(c) seed coat of legumes
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 3.
Which of the following condition of xylem is present in both monocot and dicot stems
(a) exarch
(b) endarch
(c) polyarch
(d) mesarch
Answer:
(b) endarch

Question 4.
Bark does not include
(a) secondary xylem
(b) secondary phloem
(c) periderm
(d) primary phloem
Answer:
(a) secondary xylem

Question 5.
…………… is the living mechanical tissue
(a) collenchyma
(b) parenchyma
(c) sclerenchyma
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) collenchyma

Question 6.
What are the cells that make the leaves curl in plants during water stress?
Answer:
Bulliform cells/motor cells

Question 7.
What part of the plant would show the following:
(a) Radial vascular bundle
(b) Polyarch xylem
(c) Well developed pith
Answer:
(a) Radial vascular bundle

Question 8.
Apical meristem for elongation of Stem, Lateral meristem for ………..
Answer:
Increase in thickness.

Question 9.
While analysing the anatomy of a given slide, phloem, cambium & xylem are present. Identify the material.
Answer:
Dicot stem.

Question 10.
Tissues are specialised to perform mechanical function have thickening at corners, living and cellulosic. Name it.
Answer:
Collenchyma

Question 11.
A cross-section of plant materials show the following features under microscope there are many vascular bundles scattered in the parenchymatous tissue, xylem is endarch. What kind of plant part shows the above anatomy.
Answer:
Monocot stem

Question 12.
Name tissue which provides mechanical strength to the plant’s organs.
Answer:
Sclerenchyma and xylem

Question 13.
What does the fascicular cambium gives rise to?
Answer:
Secondary vascular tissues and medullary rays

Question 14.
From where do the secondary cambium appear?
Answer:
From permanent tissues

Question 15.
Which type of meristems can be classified on the basis of positions in the plant body.
Answer:
Apical, intercalary and lateral

Question 16.
Find the odd one and give reason:
Phellem, Phellogen, Phloem, Phelloderm
Answer:
Phloem. The other components are part of periderm

Question 17.
Fill in the blanks:
Stem: Endarch:: Root: ……….
interfascicular cambium: secondary xylem:: cork cambium: …………
Answer:
Exarch, phelloderm

Question 18.
Activity of cambium is different in two seasons and xylem vessels formed have narrow and wider lumens. Give the type of wood formed during the different seasons.
Answer:
Springwood and autumn wood.

Question 19.
What use are phloem fibres put to
Answer:
Phloem fibers of plants like jute are used for making ropes.

Question 20.
Identify the plant group from the data given below.
(a) Habit-Tree
(b) Xylem vessels present
(c) Absence of companion cells in phloem
(d) No fruits
Answer:
Gymnosperm

Question 21.
Ramu observed the growth of a plant in his garden. He realised that the plant grow both in length and width. Name the tissue responsible for the growth of the plant.
Answer:
Meristems

Question 22.
A cross-section of plant materials show the following anatomical features under microscope.

1. Vascular bundles are radially arranged
2. Four xylem strands with exarch condition of the protoxylem. To which organ should it be assigned?

Answer:
Dicot root

Question 23.
The transverse section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features.

1. vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
2. Phloem parenchyma is absent. What will you identify as?

Answer:
The plant is a monocotyledon.

Question 24.
The cross-section of a plant material showed the following features when viewed under the microscope.

1. The vascular bundles were radially arranged.
2. Four xylem strands with exarch condition of protoxylem.

To which organ should it be assigned?
Answer:
Dicot root

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
During the secondary thickening of a dicot stem, from the outer cotical region, a meristematic tissue is developed. Name this tissue and write the function of it.
Answer:
Phellogen/cork cambium – It produces phellum towards the outer sides & phelloderm towards the inner side. These 3 layers are known as periderm

Question 2.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter is an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 3.
Differentiate the following characters of dicot stem and monocot stem.
Differentiated cortex, Protoxylem lacuna present, open bundle, bundle sheath, starch sheath, sclerenchymatous hypodermis, scattered bundles, V.Bs. arranged in a ring, closed bundles, phloem parenchyma absent, presence of pith, collenchymatous hypodermis.
Answer:

Question 4.
Xylem is the complex tissue that transports water in plants.

1. Name the main components of xylem.
2. Which of these is most likely suitable for conducting water?

Answer:

1. Xylem parenchyma, vessels, tracheid, xylem fibers.
2. Vessels

Question 5.
Examine the anatomy of two plants

1. Xylem vessels and tracheids are seen
2. Xylem vessels absent and tracheids present

Answer:

1. Angiosperm
2. Gymnosperm

Question 6.
Identify the figure ‘A’ and ‘B’ and differentiate between ‘A’ and ‘B’.

Answer:

Question 7.
Secondary growth occurs in dicots and no such growth in monocots. Justify.
Answer:
In dicots, cambium is present in their vascular bundle. In monocot, cambium is absent in the vascular bundles. So secondary growth occurs in dicotyledons and not in monocotyledons.

Question 8.
Phloem is called the complex tissue while parenchyma is a simple tissue. Make the differences
Answer:
Phloem is made up of more than one type of cells namely, sieve tube, companion cell, phloem parenchyma & phloem fiber. Parenchyma consists of same types of cells.

Question 9.
When the cross-section of a stem was examined, a student could notice collenchymatous hypodermis, Limited number of open vascular bundles, cortex, endodermis, and pith.

1. Identify the material.
2. Draw the diagram of the material showing these parts and label.

Answer:
1. Dicot stem
2.

Question 10.
Observe the diagrams and identify the tissue types.

Answer:
a. Collenchyma
b. Sclerenchyma

Question 11.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 12.
While doing anatomy practical, students observe ten following characters:

• Undifferentiated ground tissue.
• Numerous vascular bundles and are scattered.
• Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
• Presence of bundle sheath

1. Identify the material.
2. Write any one example of a plant having such characters.
Answer:

1. Monocot stem.
2. Grass/Bamboo

Question 13.
What is the function of phloem parenchyma?
Answer:
The phloem parenchyma stores food material and other substances like resins, latex, and mucilage.

Question14.
How do you correlate the activity of cambium with changing seasons?
Answer:
During winter season the cambium stops its activity. In spring season cambium becomes more active and produce large quantity of secondary tissue. The secondary xylem produced during spring season is called springwood. During autumn season and summer season the cambium becomes less active and produces small quantity of secondary tissue. The secondary xylem produced during this period is called autumn wood.

Question 15.
Mention the characteristic features of sieve-tube members.
Answer:
Sieve tubes are cylindrical have endplates called sieve plates. They are dead elements of phloem.

Question 16.
It is difficult to open and close wooden doors and windows during the rainy season. What is the reason?
Answer:
Imbibition It is the absorption of water by water-loving particles without forming a solution

Question 17.
Heartwood is resistant to microorganisms. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Contains alkalloids , tannins & resins

Question 18.
The microscopic observation is given below.

1. Identify A and B.
2. Write any two distinguishing characters of the above diagram.

Answer:

1. A dicot stem B monocot stem
2. In dicot stem vascular budles open, limited no.&arranged in the form of a ring. In monocot stem, vascular bundles closed, numerous & scattered

Question 19.
Simple tissues that perform mechanical support in plants are usually dead tissues’
Name the living simple tissue that provides mechanical support to plant organs. In which category of plants (dicots/monocots) do they found?
Answer:
Sclerenchyma tissues Monocots

Question 20.
What is present on the surface of the leaves which helps the plant prevent loss of water but is absent in roots?
Answer:
The cuticle is the waxy substance prevents the excessive water loss.

Question 21.
What is the epidermal cell modification in plants which prevents water loss?
Answer:
The presence of bulliform cells in the leaves of monocot plants, which helps in rolling and unrolling of lamina and prevents water loss.

Question 22.
Arrange the following in the sequence you would find them in a plant starting from the periphery – phellem. phellogen. phelloderm.
Answer:
phellem, phellogen, phelloderm.

Question 23.
A transverse section of the trunk of a tree shows concentric rings which are known as growth rings. How are these rings formed? What is the significance of these rings?
Answer:
It is formed due to the activity of vascular ambium. The growth ring comprises springwood and autumn wood that is formed in spring season and winter season respectively. These are used to determine the age of tree by counting the number of concentric rings.

Question 24.
While eating peach or pear it is usually seen that some stone-like structures get entangled in the teeth, what are these stone-like structures called?
Answer:
USB Non-elongated sclerenchyma(sclereids)

Question 25.
When your teacher asked to collect different types of seeds. One of the students collected some seeds from a tree. These seeds have no covering or naked.

1. In which group of plants does this tree belong?
2. Which portion of the plant develops into the seed?

Answer:

1. Gymnosperms
2. Ovule

Question 26.
We cannot find the woody trunk in monocot plants. Why?
Answer:
Monocots do not possess cambium Hence, the secondary tissues are not formed.

Question 27.
Identify the following materials under microscope.

1. Xylem polyarch, Round vessels, homogenous cortex with xylem & phloem in radial manner.
2. Endarch xylem, conjoint bundle, surrounded by bundle sheath, palisade and spongy tissues distinguished and kidney-shaped guard cells

Answer:

1. Monocot root
2. Dicot leaf

Question 28.
The product of photosynthesis is transported from the leaves to various parts of the plants and stored in some cells before being utilised. What are the cells/ tissues that store them?
Answer:
parenchyma tissue

Question 29.
Name the kind of vascular bundle in Fig. a and b.

Answer:
a. Closed bundle
b. Open bundle

Question 30.
Heartwood is resistant to micro-organisms. Justify the statement.
Answer:
The deposition of substances like Tannin, resin, oil, gum, aromatic substances and essential oil in the central part of wood helps to resist the attack of microorganisms.

Question 31.
Cambial ring is responsible for the formation of secondary vascular tissues both in Dicot stem and Dicot root. Differentiate the origin of cambial ring in Dicot stem and Dicot root.
Answer:
1. In Dicot stem, the conjuctive tissues in between the vascular bundles become meristematic and form. interfascicular cambium, it joins with intrafascicular cambium to form a cambial ring.

2. In Dicot root, the tissue just below phloem and part of pericycle tissue above the protoxylem join together to form a wavy ring. Later it becomes circular.

Question 32.
Give reason

1. Grittiness nature of sapota fruit pulp
2. Increase thickness of stem intake and not in coconut

Answer:

1. Due to the presence of nonelogated sclerenchyma tissues (sclereids)
2. In Teak, cambium is present (dicot plant) In coconut, cambium is absent because it is a monocot plant.
   Cambial activity causes an increase in thickness

Question 33.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 34.
You may have observed droplets of water at the tip of leaves of grasses during early morning. Your sister told it is a dewdrop.
As a science student do you agree with her? Explain. Compare this process with transpiration.
Answer:
No.

1. The droplets of water are found in the tip of grass leaves. This is called Guttation. It occurs in early morning.
2. Water drops come out from Hydathode seen in the vien endings of leaf.
3. Transpiration is the loss of water in the form of water vapour from stomata of leaves.

Question 35.
How can we correlate the activity of cambium with changing season?
Answer:
In spring season the activity of cambium is more and produces large no. of xylem vessels with wide lumen. But in Autumn season the activity of cambium is less and produces fewer no.of xylem vessels with narrow lumen.

Question 36.
Classify the following characters under dicot and monocot stem?
Bundle sheath is present, open bundle, bundle cap is present, closed bundle, arranged in a broken ring, scattered bundle, collenchymatous hypodermis, sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
Answer:

Question 37.
Distinguish between cork cambium and vascular cambium.
Answer:
1. Cork cambium is the meristematic layer that cut of the tissues outside called phellem and inside phelloderm.

2. Vascular cambium is the meristematic layer that cut of the tissues outside called secondary phloem and inside secondary xylem.

Question 38.
Identify the following diagram and write its function.

Answer:
Hydathode. It is the pore found in the vein ending of the grass leaf through which water loss occurs in the form of droplets.

Question 39.
Which one out of the root or stem shows endarch arrangement of xylem? What is meant by endarch arrangement?
Answer:
Stem, In edarch xylem protoxylem, is present towards the centre (pith) and metaxylem is faced towards outside.

Question 40.
Observe the diagram and identify the tissue types. Justify your answer.

Answer:

• The first figure is the Sclerenchymatus tissue.
• The second figure is the collenchymatous tissue.
• In sclerenchyma tissue, the cell walls are lignified and dead.
• In collenchymatous tissue, the cell walls are thick and living.

Question 41.
What are bulliform cells? Mention its significance
Answer:
These are the specialised cells found in the epidermis of monocot leaf. They are otherwise called as motor cells.
It helps in the rolling and unrollong of lamina

Question 42.
Where are the companion cells located in the flowering plants? What are their functions?
Answer:
Companion cells are located in the phloem cells of vascular tissue. They support the sieve tubes.

Question 43.
What category of permanent plant cell is a companion cell?
Answer:
Companion cells are specialised thin-walled parenchymatous cells found to be associated with sieve tubes.

Question 44.
Sieve tubes in angiosperms are associated with specialised parenchyma cells. Name those cells. How do they help sieve-tube members?
Answer:
Companion cells, help in physiological working of sieve-tube members.

Question 45.

1. Name the various components of xylem.
2. Which of them does not have a nucleus?

Answer:

1. Tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma, and xylem fibers.
2. Tracheids, vessels, and xylem fibers

Question 46.
How are exarch and endarch conditions different anatomically in stem and root?
Answer:
1. The anatomical condition is endarch in dicot as well as monocot stem.

2. In endarch condition protoxylem lie towards inner side of vascular budle However, in anatomy of root.the condition is exarch.i.e protoxylem is towards outer side and metaxylem is towards centre.

Question 47.
Cork cambium forms tissues that form the cork. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:
Cork cambium develops in cortex region during secondary growth in stem. Cork cambium cut off cork (phellum) towards the outside and secondary cortex or phellodem towards the inner-side.

Question 48.
If one debarks a tree, what parts of the plant is being removed?
Answer:
Phloem is removed and food translocation becomes difficult.

Question 49.
What is periderm? How does periderm formation take place in the dicot stems?
Answer:
Phellogen, phellem, and phelloderm are together known as periderm. Due to secondary growth of the stem, the outer cortical and epidermis layer broken and replaced by another meristematic issue called phellogen. Phellogen or cork cambium cuts off cells on both sides the outer cells are called cork or phellem and the inner cells are phelloderm or secondary cortex.

Question 50.
Some anatomical details of material are given below vascular bumdles are conjoint and open, medullary rays are present, hypodermis collenchymatous, cortex heterogenous

1. Identify the material
2. Name the tissue given above from which interfascicular cambium develops during secondary growth.

Answer:

1. Dicot stem
2. Medullary ray

Question 51.
Three type of tissues formed during secondary growth together have protective functions.

1. Name the three types
2. Name the opening found in outer part of mature woody dicot stem and give its function

Answer:

1. phellem, phellogen, and phelloderm
2. lenticel, gaseous exchange

Question 52.

1. Distinguish between heartwood and sapwood.
2. Heartwood is durable why?

Answer:
1. Distinguish between heartwood and sapwood
Heartwood

• found in the central part
• nonfunctional
• dark coloured

Sapwood

• found in peripheral part
• functional
• light coloured

2. Heartwood is resistant to microbial attack and it is filled with resin, gum, essential oil, aromatic oil, and tannins. Hence heartwood is durable.

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A portion of the transverse section of maize stem is shown in the diagram.
Label a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h and i.

Answer:

1. a – Cuticle
2. b – Epidermis
3. c – Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
4. d – Sclerenchymatous sheath
5. e – Parentchymatous sheath
6. f – Phloem
7. g – Metaxylem
8. h – Protoxylem
9. i – Water cavity.

Question 2.
Differentiate the following

1. Bark & Periderm
2. Heartwood &Sapwood
3. Endarch & Exarch

Answer:
1. Bark – It is the tissue outside vascular cambium.
Periderm – It is the outer protective tissue It includes phellem, phellogen, and phelloderm.

2. Heartwood – It is the dark coloured, nonfunctional central part of wood resistant to the attack of microorganisms.
Sap wood – It is the light coloured, functional and peripheral part of wood.

3. Endarch – It is the arrangement of xylem in which protoxylem facing towards cente and metaxylem towards the periphery, eg. stem.
Exarch – It is the arrangement of xylem in which Metaxylem facing towards centre and protoxylem towards periphery.eg: Root.

Question 3.
Match column A with B and C.

Answer:

Question 4.
Match the Following.

Answer:

Question 5.
The following are the characters of Dicot stem and Monocot stem. Identify the character and write in appropriate column.

1. collenchymatous hypodermis
2. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
3. Open bundle
4. Closed bundle
5. Bundle cap present
6. Bundle sheath present
7. Xylem polygonal
8. Xylem circular

Answer:

Question 6.
Plant growth is indeterminate in most plants it can go on indefinitely at the tips of roots and shoots. Special types of tissues are located at these regions

1. Name those tissues
2. Classify these tissues based on the position and origin.

Answer:

1. Meristematic tissues
2. Based on the position they are classified into three types,
   • apical meristem
   • intercalary meristem and
   • lateral meristem

Based on the origin, they are classified into 2.

1. primary meristem and
2. Secondary Meristem

Question 7.
1. Choose from among the following key terms and
complete the chart given below.
conjoint, closed, exarch open, …………. large, ……………. small endarch, radial ……….. few in a ring, ……….. many xylem and phloem bundles
few.

2. Comment on the utility of this chart.
Answer:

Question 8.
The following schematic representation shows the classification of complex tissues. Complete it.

Answer:

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the three basic tissue systems in the flowering plants. Give the tissue names under each system.
Answer:
On the basis of their structure and location, there are three types of tissue systems:

1. Epidermal Tissue System. Epidermis, Stomata.
2. Ground or Fundamental Tissue System Parenchyma, Sclerenchyma and Collenchyma.
3. Vascular or conducting Tissue System. Phloem and Xylem.

Question 2.
The transverse section of a plant material shows the following anatomical features

1. the vascular bundles are conjoint, scattered and surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath.
2. phloem parenchyma is absent. What will you identify as?

Answer:
As is clear from above TS of monocot stem vascular bundles are scattered in monocot stems and phloem parenchyma is absent.

Question 3.
Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues?
Answer:
Xylem and phloem are composed of several types of cells and they work as a unit. Hence they are called complex tissues.

Question 4.
What is the stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves. Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange. Each stomata is composed of two bean-shaped cells known as guard cells. In grasses, the guard cells are dumbbell-shaped.

The outer walls of guard cells (away from the stomatal pore) are thin and the inner walls (towards the stomatal pore) are highly thickened. The guard cells possess chloroplasts and regulate the opening and closing of stomata.

Plus One Botany Anatomy of Flowering Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Interfascicular cambium is a
(a) primary meristematic tissue
(b) primordial meristem
(c) type of proto deny
(d) secondary meristematic tissue
Answer:
(d) secondary meristematic tissue

Question 2.
In an annual ring, the light coloured part is known as
(a) earlywood
(b) late wood
(c) heartwood
(d) sapwood
Answer:
(a) earlywood

Question 3.
The layer of cells outside the phloem meant for giving rise to the root branches is called
(a) cambium
(b) cork
(c) endodermis
(d) pericycle
Answer:
(d) pericycle

Question 4.
Cork cambium of dicot originates from
(a) epiblema
(b) pericycle
(c) the cambium of vascular bundles
(d) endodermis
Answer:
(b) pericycle

Question 5.
Alburnum is otherwise known as
(a) periderm
(b) sapwood
(c) heartwood
(d) cork
Answer:
(b) sapwood

Question 6.
Duramen is present in
(a) inner region of secondary wood
(b) part of sapwood
(c) outer region of secondary wood
(d) region of pericycle
Answer:
(a) inner region of secondary wood

Question 7.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of tissues present in dicot stem during secondary growth
(a) Phellogen, cork, primary cortex, secondary cortex
(b) Cork, primary cortex, secondary cortex, phellogen
(c) Primary cortex, secondary cortex, phellogen, cork
(d) Secondary Cortex, phellogen, cork .primary cortex
Answer:
(d) Secondary Cortex, phellogen, cork .primary cortex

Question 8.
The meristem responsible for extra stelar secondary growth in dicot stem is
(a) interfascicular cambium
(b) intrafascicular cambium
(c) intercalary meristem
(d) phellogen
Answer:
(d) phellogen

Question 9.
Tracheids
(a) are the dominant cell types of xylem in angiosperms
(b) are primarily found in mosses and liverworts
(c) are responsible for water conduction and support in many land plants.
(d) first appeared during Palaeozoic era
Answer:
(c) are responsible for water conduction and support in many land plants.

Question 10.
In the following, how the sapwood is converted into heartwood?
(a) By degeneration of protoplast of living cells
(b) Tyloses formation
(c) By deposition of resins, oils, gums, etc
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 11.
As secondary growth proceeds in a dicot stem, the thickness of
(a) sapwood increases
(b) heartwood increases
(c) both sapwood and heartwood increase
(d) both sapwood and heartwood remains the same
Answer:
(c) both sapwood and heartwood increase

Question 12.
Which is not a characteristic of plant cell walls?
(a) Found only in the sporophyte phase of life cycle
(b) Among other compounds contains compounds built of simple sugars
(c) May contain enzymes that are biologically active
(d) Often contain strengthening polymers
Answer:
(a) Found only in the sporophyte phase of life cycle

Question 13.
Identify the correct order of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stern.

1. Secondary cortex
2. Autumn wood
3. Secondary phloem
4. Phellem

(a) 2,3, 1,4
(b) 3,4,2,1
(c) 4, 1,3,2
(d) 1,2,4,3
Answer:
(c) 4, 1,3,2

Question 14.
Removal of ring wood of tissue outside the vascular cambium from the tree trunk kills it because
(a) water cannot move up
(b) food does not travel down and root become starved
(c) shoot become starved
(d) annual rings are not produced
Answer:
(b) food does not travel down and root become starved

Question 15.
Which tissue gives rise to secondary growth?
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Adventitious roots
(c) Germinating seed
(d) Vascular cambium
Answer:
(d) Vascular cambium

Question 16.
Growth rings are formed due to activity of
(a) extrastelar cambium
(b) intrastelar cambium
(c) interstelar cambium
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 17.
A nail is driven into the trunk of a 30 years old tree at a point l in above the soil level. The tree grows in height at the rate of 0.5m a year. After three years, the nail will be
(a) 1m above the soil
(b) 1.5 m above the soil
(c) 2 in above the soil
(d) 2.5 m above the soil
Answer:
(a) 1m above the soil

Question 18.
In which of the following, there is no differentiation of bark, sapwood, and heartwood?
(a) Ashok
(b) Neem
(c) Mango
(d) Datepalm
Answer:
(d) Datepalm

Question 19.
A tree grows at a rate of 0.5 m per year. What will be the height of the board fixed at 1.5 m above the base five years ago?
(a) 4.0 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 1.5 m
(d) 4.5 m
Answer:
(c) 1.5 m

Question 20.
Secondary phloem remains functional generally
(a) for one year
(b) for less than one year
(c) for many years
(d) as long as the plant is alive
Answer:
(d) as long as the plant is alive

Students can Download Chapter 4 Biomolecules Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Biomolecules

Plus One Biomolecules One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Many elements are found in living organisms either free or in the form of compounds. One of the following is not, found in living organisms.
(a) Silicon
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Sodium
Answer:
(a) Silicon

Question 2.
Aminoacids, as the name suggests, have both an amino group and a carboxyl group in their structure. In addition, all naturally occurring amino acids (those which are found in proteins) are called L-aminoacids. From this, can you guess from which compound can the simplest amino acid be made?
(a) Formic acid
(b) Methane
(c) Phenol
(d) Glycine
Answer:
(b) Methane

Question 3.
When we homogenise any tissue in an acid the acid soluble pool represents
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Cell membrane
(c) Nucleus
(d) Mitochondria
Answer:
(a) Cytoplasm

Question 4.
Many organic substances are negatively charged e.g., acetic acid, while others are positively charged e.g., ammonium ion. An amino acid under certain conditions would have both positive and negative charges simultaneously in the same molecule. Such a form of amino acid is called
(a) Positively charged form
(b) Negatively charged form
(c) Neutral form
(d) Zwitter ionic form
Answer:
(d) Zwitter ionic form

Question 5.
Sugars are technically balled carbohydrates, referring to the fact that their formulae are only multiple of C(H₂O). Hexoses, therefore, have six carbons, twelve hydrogens and six oxygen atoms. Glucose is a hexose.
Choose from among the following another hexose.
(a) Fructose
(b) Erythrose
(c) Ribulose
(d) Ribose
Answer:
(a) Fructose

Question 6.
Fill the gap:
Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by Malonate is an example for _____________
Answer:
Competitive Inhibition

Question 7.
Name the phospholipid found in cell membrane.
Answer:
Lecithin

Question 8.
The metabolic pathway from glucose to lactic acid which occurs in 10 metabolic steps is called ________________
Answer:
Glycolysis

Question 9.
Energy currency in living systems is _______________
Answer:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Question 10.
Find the off one out.
Rubber, Amino Acids, Drugs, Pigments
Answer:
Amino acids: Amino acids are primary metabolites. All others are secondary metabolites.

Question 11.
Arrange the following Carbo-hydrates in the order of increasing complexity of chemical structure.
Glucose, Oligosaccharides, Lactose, Starch.
Answer:
Glucose → Lactose → Oligosaccharides → Starch

Question 12.
One full turn of the DNA double helix would involve.
(a) 8 steps
(b) 10 steps
(c) 20 steps
(d) 12 steps
Answer:
(b) 10 steps

Question 13.
Match the column A with B and C.

Answer:

• Glucose – Glycoside – Carbohydrate
• Aminoacids – Peptide – Protein
• Nucleotide – Phosphor diester – Nucleic acid

Question 14.
A short length of DNA double helix contains 60 Adenine nucleotides and 40 cytosine nucleotides. What will be the total number of nucleotides in it? (60, 120, 80, 200)
Answer:
200

Question 15.
Add suitable word in the gap.

1. A protein molecule is a polymers of _____________
2. Nucleic acids are polymers of _____________
3. DNA has _________ instead of uracil.
4. Single stranded structure is found in ___________

Answer:

1. Aminoacids
2. Nucleotides
3. Thymine
4. RNA

Question 16.

The structure of amino acids in solutions of different PH are given above. Identify the structure ‘B’.
Answer:
Zwitterionic form

Question 17.

Name the enzyme catalyse this reaction.
Answer:
Carbonic anhydrase

Plus One Biomolecules Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the table and fill the blanks from the brackets.
(Collagen, Cholesterol, chitin, Lecithin)

Answer:

Question 2.
Building blocks of proteins are amino acids and that of polysaccharides are monosaccharides. Many polysaccharides are called homopolymers but all proteins are known as heteropolymers.

1. Do you agree with the above statement? Give reason.
2. Give one example for a homopolymer.

Answer:

1. Yes. Many polysaccharides are made up of only one type of monosaccharide. They are known as homopolymers. But all protein contain different type of amino acids. So they all are heteropolymers.
2. Cellulose. Cellulose is made up of only one type of monosaccharide ie. glucose.

Question 3.
Classify the following as polypeptide and polysaccharide.
(Insulin, Glycogen, Chitin, Paper)
Answer:

Question 4.

1. Observe the graph and comment.
2. List out the factors which influence enzyme activity.

Answer:

1. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature called the optimum temperature. Activity declines both below and above the optimum value.
2. Temperature, pH, change in substrate concentration, binding of specific chemicals that regulate enzyme activity.

Question 5.
Write the general names of the following.

1. Enzymes catalyzing the linking together of two compounds.
2. Enzymes that catalyze removed of groups from substrates by mechanism other than hydrolysis leaving double bonds.

Answer:

1. Ligases
2. Lyases

Question 6.
Find out the differences between DNA and RNA and fill the table given below.

Answer:

Question 7.

Two polymers are given. In this chain how are monomers linked ?
Answer:
a. Glycosidicbond
b. Peptide bond

Question 8.
The following graph shows the relationship between subtrate concentration and rate of enzymatic reaction.

1. What is the effect of subtrate concentration on rate of reaction ?
2. Identify ‘A’.

Answer:
1. With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity of the enzymatic reaction rise at first. The reaction ultimately reaches a maximum velocity V(max) which is not exceeded by any further rise in concentration of the substrate.

This is because the enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate molecule and after saturation of these molecules, there are no free enzyme molecules to bind with the additional substrate molecule.

2. V_(max)

Question 9.
Identify the class of enzyme which catalyse the following reaction.

1. S reduced + S’ oxidised ? S oxidised + S’ reduced
2. S – G + S’→ S + S’ – G
   X Y
   I I
3. C – C → X-Y+C
4. C-O, C-S, C-N bonds

Answer:

1. Oxidoreductase
2. Transferase
3. Lyases
4. Ligases

Question 10.
A portion of DNA double helix is given below. Copy the diagram and make correction if any.

Answer:

Question 11.
Adenine, Guanine, thymine, Cytosine, Uracil, are the nitrogen bases present in the living organisms. Write their nucleosides and nucleotides.
Answer:

Question 12.

1. Prepare a graph showing the action of temperature on enzyme activity.
2. What is optimum temperature.

Answer:
1.

2. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature called optimum temperature.

Question 13.

1. Identify the given graph
2. If we add more substrate after reaching Vmax, What will be the effect in the reaction rate?

Answer:

1. Effect of change in concentration of substrate on enzyme activity.
2. There is no further increase in the velocity of reaction because there are no free enzyme molecules to bind with the additional substrate molecule.

Question 14.

The table shows the percentage composition of different elements of a living matter and a non-living matter represented as X and Y. Identify X and Y.
Answer:

1. X – Non living matter (Earth’s crust)
2. Y – Living matter (human body)

Question 15.
Fatty acids could be saturated or unsaturated. Give an account on it.
Answer:
1. Fatty acids are saturated if they do not have any double bond between the carbons of the molecular chain.
eg: Palmitic acid.

2. Unsaturated fatty acids have one or more double bond between carbon of the molecular chain,
eg: linoleic acid.

Question 16.

Identify the structure.
Answer:
Cholesterol

Question 17.
General Formula of amino acid is given below.

(a) Prepare the amino acids – Glycine and Serine using this formula.
(b) State the influence of pH in the nature of amino acid.
Answer:

(b) Amino acids are of basic amino acids, acidic amino acids, Neutral amino acids and aromatic amino acids. Hence in solutions of different pH, the structure of amino acids changes.

Question 18.
Chemical structure of an Amino acid is given.

(a) Prepare its Zwitter ionic form.
(b) What happens to the Zwitter ion if it is placed in acidic medium?
Answer:

(b) In acidic medium it gains H and become positive charged

Question 19.
Write the missing word.

1. Amino acid: Protein, Nucleotide: __________
2. Glucose: Monosaccharide, Starch: __________
3. Adenine: Thymine, Guanine: ________
4. Animals: Glycogen, Plants: _________

Answer:

1. Nucleic acid
2. Polysaccharide
3. Cytosine
4. Starch

Question 20.
(a) Identify the structure of protein A and B.

(b) Write an example for a protein with a quaternary structure.
Answer:
(a) A) Secondary structure
B) Tertiary structure

(b) Hemoglobin

Question 21.
Proteins carry out many functions in living organisms. List them.
Answer:

1. Some protein functions as enzymes.
2. Some protein functions as Hormones.
3. Some protein fight infectious organisms.
4. Some protein transport nutrients across the cell membrane.

Question 22.
Give an example forthe following.

1. Phospholipids
2. Saturated fatty acid
3. Nucleoside
4. Nucleotide

Answer:

1. Lecithin
2. Palmitic acid
3. Adenosine
4. Adenylic acid

Question 23.
B-DNA is the most common DNA. Write the salient features of this DNA.
Answer:
The length of one full turn of a B-DNA molecule is 34A⁰. The distance between two adjacent nucleotides in a chain is 3.4A⁰. Thus there are 10 pairs of nucleotides in one full turn of DNA molecule.

Question 24.
Identify the structure.

Answer:
(a) Adenine
(b) Adenosine

Question 25.
The given structure showing the molecule give ready energy for biological activities. Identify the structure.

Answer:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Question 26.
Schematic diagram of DNA is given. Copy the structure and correct it, if there is any mistake.

Answer:

Question 27.
Classify the given terms into two columns and give appropriate heading.
rubber, Glucose, amino acids, drugs, gums, spices, cholesterol, Fatty acids.
Answer:

Question 28.
Progress of a chemical reaction and potential energy changes associated with it is plotted as curve.

1. What happens to the activation energy of the substrate, when enzyme is added to the reaction system?
2. Redraw the above graph and also plot another curve showing the progress of the reaction and associated potential energy change, when enzyme is added to the system.

Answer:
1. Activation energy decreases

2.

Question 29.
Observe the given graph a and

1. State how temperature and pH influences enzyme activity.
2. Does the substrate concentration influence enzyme activity. If so, how?

Answer:
1. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a particular temperature. This is called optimum temperature. Low temperature or high temperature reduces the enzyme activity. Same as, there is an optimum pH for enzyme activity. Deviation from this pH reduces the enzyme activity.

2. With the increase in substrate concentration, the velocity of the enzymatic reaction increase at first, as the substrate concentration continues to increase, the increase in the rate of reaction begins to slow down and finally no further rise in velocity occurs. This is because there is no free enzyme molecule to bind additional substrate molecule.

Question 30.

The graph shows the relation between potential energy and progress of reaction. Observe the graph and answer the questions.

1. Is this reaction”exothermic or endothermic? Give reason.
2. What happen to the amount of enzyme at completion of reaction?

Answer:

1. Exothermic. The energy level of substrate is higher than that of product.
2. No change to enzyme

Question 31.
Observe the diagram.

1. Name the process showing here.
2. How is this process would be useful?

Answer:

1. Competitive inhibition
2. Competitive inhibitor are often used in the control of bacterial pathogen.

Question 32.
Fill in the blank columns with the correct terms/ sentences.

Answer:

Plus One Biomolecules Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Structure of a nucleotide pair in DNA is showing below.

Identify the bonds A, B and C.
Answer:

• A – Hydrogen bond
• B – Glycosidic bond
• C – Ester bond

Question 2.
Give examples.

1. Prosthetic group
2. Co-enzyme
3. Metal ion required for enzyme activity.

Answer:

1. Haem is the prosthetic group of enzyme peroxidase.
2. NADP and NAD contain the Vitamin Niacin.
3. Zinc present in carboxy peptidase.

Question 3.
Give one word.

1. The nucleic acids that behave like enzymes
2. The organic compound tightly bound to the apo enzyme.
3. The non protein organic compound that are not tightly bound to the apoenzyme.
4. The protein portion of the enzyme.

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Prosthetic group
3. Co-enzyme
4. Apoenzyme

Question 4.

Identify the molecules A and B and name the bond marked C.
Answer:

• A – Glucose
• B – Maltose
• C- Glycosidicbond

Question 5.
Observe the structure.

1. Identify the bond formed between amino acids.
2. How many types of amino acids are present in animal body?
3. In nutrition some amino acids are required. Write a note on it.

Answer:

1. Peptide bond
2. 20 types of amino acids
3. Note on amino acids:
   • Essential amino acids: The amino acids can not be synthesisecHn the animal body and must be obtained through diet are called essential amino acids.
   • Non-essential amino acids: The amino acids which can be synthesised in the body are called non essential amino acids.

Question 6.
Give name.

1. The most abundant protein in animal.
2. The most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
3. A polymer of fructose.
4. Paper made from plant pulp is
5. Complex polysaccharide present in the exoskeleton of Arthropods
6. Polysaccharide with helical structure

Answer:

1. Collagen
2. RuBisCo
3. Insulin
4. Cellulose
5. Chitin
6. Starch

Question 7.

1. Identify the structures A, B, C and D.
2. Name the molecule formed by the esterification of one ‘D’ molecule and three ‘C’ molecule.

Answer:

1. Structures:
   • A) Glucose
   • B) Amino acid (Glycine)
   • C) Fatty acid
   • D) Glycerol
2. 1 glycerol + 3 fatty acid Triglyceride

Question 8.
Match the column A and B.

Answer:

Question 9.
The activity of the enzyme is inhibited by certain chemicals having close resemblance to the substrate in its molecular structure.

1. Name the type of inhibition
2. Point out a suitable example
3. Mention the Significance of this type of inhibition.

Answer:

1. Competitive inhibition
2. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate. Which closely resembles the substrate succinate in structure.
3. Competitive inhibition are often used in the control of bacterial pathogen.

Question 10.

The figure shows the bonding of a biomolecule

1. Identify the monomer
2. Name the bond between the molecules
3. Name the macromolecule formed

Answer:

1. Glucose
2. Glycosidic bond
3. Starch

Plus One Biomolecules NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Proteins have primary structure. If you are given a method to know which amino acid is at either of the two termini (ends) of a protein, can you connect this information to purity or homogeneity of a protein?
Answer:
In there is one type of amino acid at both termini then it is homopolymer and it cannot be a pure protein. When there are different types of amino acids on both termini then it is a pure protein as proteins are heteropolymer. This property of protein in because of presence of 21 types of amino acids.

Question 2.
Find out and make a list of proteins used as therapeutic agents. Find other applications of proteins (e.g., Cosmetics art)
Answer:

1. Therapeutic Agents:
   • Contraceptive pills: As they are hormones so they are made up of protein.
   • Nutritional Supplements: Many brands are available as protein supplements. Example: Protinex.
2. Other Uses: Chicken cubes are used in making soups and dishes.

Question 3.
Explain the composition of triglyceride.
Answer:
Triglycerides are formed from a single molecule of glycerol, combined with three fatty acids on each of the OH groups, and make up most of fats digested by humans. Easter bonds from between each fatty acid and the glycerol molecule.
General structure of a triglyceride Chemical formula:

RCOO-CH₂CH(-OOCR)CH₂-OOCR,
where R, R’, and R” are longer alkyl chains. The three fatty acids RCOOH, RCOOH and RCOOH can be all different, all the same, or only two the same. Chain lengths of the fatty acids in naturally occurring triglycerides can be of varying lengths, but 16, 18 and 20 carbons are the most common.

Natural fatty acids found in plants and animals are typically composed only of even numbers of carbon atoms due to the way they are biosynthesized from acetyl CoA. Bacteria, however, possess the ability to synthesise odd – and branched – chain fatty acids. Consequently, ruminant animal fat contains odd num¬bered fatty acids, such as 15, due to the action of bacteria in the rumen.

Question 4.
Can you describe What happens when milk is converted into curd or yogurt, from your understanding of proteins?
Answer:
Casein is the predominant phosphoprotein, that accounts for nearly 80% of proteins in cow milk and cheese. Milk-clotting proteases act on the soluble portion of the caseins. K Casein, thus originating an unstable micellar state that results in clot formation. When coagulated with chymosin, casein is sometimes called paracasein.

Casein is not coagulated by heat. It is precipitated by acids and by rennet enzymes, a proteolytic enzyme typically obtained from the stomachs of calves.

Question 5.
Can you attempt building models of biomolecules using commercially available atomic models (Ball and Stick models)?
Answer:
Following three-dimensional structure of cellulose can be made using balls and sticks. Similarly, models of other biomolecules can be made.

Question 6.
Attempt titrating an amino acid against a weak base and discover the number of dissociating (ionizable) functional groups in the amino acid.
Answer:
On titrating against a weak base the amino acid ionizes into following functional groups.

• NH2 (amino group)
• COOH (Carboxyl group)

Question 7.
Draw the structure of the amino acid, alanine.

Answer:

Question 8.
What are gums made of? Is Fevicol different?
Answer:
Natural gums are polysaccharides of natural origin, capable of causing a large viscosity increase in solution, even at small concentrations. Fevicol is a synthetic glue. These adhesives are a mixture of ingredients (typically polymers) dissolved in a solvent. As the solvent evaporates, the adhesive hardens.

Depending on the chemical composition of the adhesive, they will adhere to different materials to greater or lesser degrees. These adhesives are typically weak and are used for household applications.

Question 9.
Explain the basic structure of a nucleotide.
Answer:
A nucleotide is a building block of nucleic acids. A nucleotide has following components:

1. A heterocyclic compound (base)
2. A mnonosaccharide, and
3. A phosphoric acid or a phosphate.

Plus One Biomolecules Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Enzyme often have additional parts intheirstructures that are made up of molecules otherthan proteins. When this additional chemical part is an organic molecule, it is called
(a) cofactor
(b) coenzyme
(c) substrate
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) cofactor

Question 2.
Nucleotides are formed by
(a) sugar and phosphate
(b) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(c) purine, pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
Answer:
(b) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate

Question 3.
The effectiveness of an enzyme is affected least by
(a) temperature
(b) concentration of the substrate
(c) original activation energy of the system
(d) concentration of the enzyme
Answer:
(c) original activation energy of the system

Question 4.
Which is an organic compound found in most cells?
(a) Glucose
(b) Water
(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(a) Glucose

Question 5.
Enzymes that catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometrical or positional isomers are
(a) ligases
(b) lyases
(c) hydrolases
(d) isomerases
Answer:
(d) isomerases

Question 6.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Fungi – Chitn
(b) Phospholipid – Plasma membrane
(c) Enzyme – Lipopolysacchande
(d) ATP – Nucleotide derivative
Answer:
(c) Enzyme – Lipopolysacchande

Question 7.
An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called
(a) coenzyme
(b) holoenzyme
(c) apoenzyme
(d) isoenzyme
Answer:
(a) coenzyme

Question 8.
The ‘Repeating unit of glycogen is
(a) fructose
(b) mannose
(c) glucose
(d) galactose
Answer:
(c) glucose

Question 9.
Feedback inhibition of enzymes is affected by which of the following?
(a) Enzyme
(b) Substrate
(c) End products
(d) Intermediate end products
Answer:
(c) End products

Question 10.
The enzyme, which combines with non-protein part to form a functional enzyme, is known as
(a) coenzyme
(b) holoenzyme
(c) apoenzyme
(d) prosthetic group
Answer:
(b) holoenzyme

Question 11.
Benedict’s reagent test is conducted to confirm the presence of
(a) polysaccharides like starch
(b) lipids
(c) reducing sugars
(d) proteins
Answer:
(c) reducing sugars

Question 12.
Which disaccharide has different linkage?
(a) Maltose
(b) Starch
(c) Sucrose
(d) Lactose
Answer:
(c) Sucrose

Question 13.
Select the wrong statement.
(a) The building blocks of lipids are amino acids
(b) Majority of enzymes contain a non-protein part called the prosthetic group
(c) The thylakoids are arranged one above the other like a stack of coins forming a granum
(d) Crossing over occurs at pachytene stage ofmeiosis-l
Answer:
(a) The building blocks of lipids are amino acids

Question 14.
Which of the following is a disaccharide?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Galactose
Answer:
(c) Sucrose

Question 15.
Lactose is composed of following components.
(a) glucose and fructose
(b) glucose and glucose
(c) glucose, fructose and galactose
(d) glucose and galactose
Answer:
(d) glucose and galactose

Question 16.
The simple polyhydroxy ketone molecule containing 3-7 carbons is a
(a) disaccharide
(b) monosaccharide
(c) polysaccharide
(d) dipeptide
Answer:
(b) monosaccharide

Question 17.
How many of the twenty two amino acids are essential for children?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 7
Answer:
(c) 9

Question 18.
Starch and cellulose are compounds of many units of
(a) glycerol
(b) amino acids
(c) simple sugars
(d) fatty acids
Answer:
(c) simple sugars

Students can Download Chapter 3 Morphology of Flowering Plants Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Morphology of Flowering Plants

Plus One Botany Morphology of Flowering Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which plant part is modified into a pitcher in pitcher plants?
(a) stem
(b) leaf
(c) flower
(d) root
Answer:
(b) leaf

Question 2.
Marginal placentation is generally found in the family
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Liliaceae
(d) Cucurbitaceae
Answer:
(b) Fabaceae

Question 3.
Nonendospermic seeds are found in
(a) pea
(b) groundnut
(c) beans
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 4.
Monocotyledonous seed possess a cotyledon which is represented by
(a) teg men
(b) endosperm
(c) scutellum
(d) aleurone
Answer:
(c) scutellum

Question 5.
Which floral family has (9) + 1 arrangement of anthers in the andoecium
(a) Malvaceae
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Liliaceae
Answer:
(b) Fabaceae

Question 6.
Based on the relationship, fill in the blanks.

1. Prop root: Support
   Pneumatophore: ……….
2. Transpiration: Stomata
   Guttation: ……….

Answer:

1. breathing /respiration
2. Hydathode

Question 7.
The arrangement of petals in the flower is known as
Answer:
Aestivation

Question 8.
When your teacher asked to write a few examples for root modifications, a student wrote Potato. Is it correct? Why ?
Answer:
No. Stem modification

Question 9.
Write the name of the family which has the given floral formula.

Answer:
Solanaceae

Question 10.
Observe the relationship between first two words and fill up the suitable word in the next place.

1. Shoot – plumule: Root …………..
2. Outer integument – testa: inner integnment ……….

Answer:

1. Radicle
2. tegmen

Question 11.
Observe the first pair in a and b and then complete the second pair.

1. gourd – Tendril
   citrus – …………
2. Brinjal – Hypogynous flower
   Rose – …………..

Answer:

1. Thom
2. Epigynous

Question 12.
Identify the family having the given floral formula.

Answer:
Papilionaceae

Question 13.
“Stilt roots are adventitious and give mechanical support’’. How does prop root help the plant?
Answer:
Support the horizontal branches.

Question 14.
“Some flowers are called perigynous”. What do you mean by it?
Answer:
Ovary half inferior or half superior.

Question 15.
From the following terms relating a flower, write its floral formula.
Bisexual; sepals 5 and united petal 5 and united; stamens 5 and epipetalous, carpels 2 and Syncarpous, superior..
Answer:
Solanaceae

Question 16.
Based on morphology pick up the odd one and state reason for your selection (Carrot, Beetroot, Potato, Sweetpotato, radish).
Answer:
Potato- because it is a stem modifications.

Question 17.
Phyllotaxy is the arrangement of leaves on the branch. Identify the order of plants showing Alternate, opposite and Whorled phyllotaxy in the following.
(a) China rose, Calotropis, Nerium
(b) Nerium, China rose, Caltropis
(c) Nerium, Caltropis, China rose
(d) China rose, Nerium, Caltropis
Answer:
(a) China rose, Calotropis, Nerium

Plus One Botany Morphology of Flowering Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify the types of aestivation in the following diagrams. Justify your answer.

Answer:

• Valvate aestivation – Petals touching each other.
• Imbricate aestivation – petals arranged as one completely in, one completely out & others in and out.

Question 2.
“Potato is a stem and sweet potato is a root”. Justify the statement on the basis of external features only.
Answer:
Potato has distinct nodes and internodes whereas sweet potato does not have nodes and internodes. Potato tuber has scale leaves while sweet potato does not have scale leaves.

Question 3.
Identify the given family. Write the floral formula, mention the economic importance.

1. Bisexual, actinomorphic
2. Perianth six
3. Valvate aestivation
4. Ovary superior, Prilocular with many ovules.

Answer:

Question 4.
Note the difference between the placenta and thalamus.
Answer:

• Placenta – Region with which ovules are attached to ovary.
• Thalamus – Region where floral parts are attached

Question 5.
Based on the relationship, fill in the blanks.

1. Prop root: Support
   Pneumatophore: …………
2. Transpiration: Stomata
   Guttation: …………….

Answer:

1. Breathing
2. Hydathode

Question 6.

1. Identify the type of placentation given below.
2. Differentiate between apocarpous and syncarpous condition

Answer:

1. marginal, axile, parietal, freecentral,basal
2. apocarpous – free carpels.
   Syncarpous – fused carpels

Question 7.
In early morning, on the margins of leaves water drops are seen. Why does it occur?
Answer:
Guttation – The lose of water in the form of water droplets through water stomata seen on the margin on the leaves.

Question 8.
You are provided with the rhizome of a ginger plant.

1. Name the part of the plant modified to form this structure.
2. Write any three differentiating characters.

Answer:

1. Stem
2. Presence of Node, internode, terminal bud, axillary buds & scale leaves.

Question 9.
The following diagrams show different types of placentation.

1. Name the type of placentations.
2. write one example for each placentation.

Answer:

1. Marginal, Basal
2. Pea & Sunflower

Question 10.
L.S of maize seed is given below.Observe the diagram and label the parts.

Answer:

1. Endosperm
2. Scutellum
3. Coleoptile
4. Plumule

Question 11.
The floral formula of a flower is

1. Identify the family.
2. Write the characters of androecium and gynoecium of this family.

Answer:

1. Solanaceae
2. Androecium – Five stamens epipetalous
   Gynoecium – bicarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary.

Question 12.
Expand the floral formula

Answer:
zygomorphic bisexual pentamerous gamosepalous papilionaceous corolla diadelphous – Androecium. Gynoecium – superior.

Question 13.
Observe the following diagram and answer to the following Questions.

1. Name the part of the plant modified in ‘A’ and ‘B’.
2. Mention their functions.

Answer:

1. A – Taproot B – Adventitious root
2. A – Storage B – Respiration

Question 14.
The rhizome of ginger is found underground. But it is not root. Give reason.
Answer:
It has nodes, internodes, scale, leaves, axillary bud, terminal bud, adventitious root etc.

Question 15.
How is pinnately compound leaf different from palmately compound leaf?
Answer:
When a number of leaflets are present on either sides of a common axis, rachis it is pinnately compound leaf. Rachis represents the midrib of leaf. Eg. Neem When the leaflets are attached at a common point like fingers on palm it is palmately compound leaf. Eg. Bombax or silk cotton.

Question 16.
Identify the phyllotaxy of A and B

Answer:
(a) Alternate
(b) Oppositemedicinal.

Question 17.
Roots obtain oxygen from air in the soil for respiration. In the absence or deficiency of 02, root growth is restricted or completely stopped. How do the plants growing in marshlands or swamps obtain their 02 required for root respiration?
Answer:
In marshy area, the plants get 02 through special roots called pneumatophores or respiratory roots.Such roots are negatively geotropic.

Question 18.
During a feild trip to the coastal areas of Kochi, your team saw many trees growing in swampy areas, when thourdughly observed they found many roots growing upwards above the soil level.

1. In your opinion what kind of roots were seen in that trees?
2. How do these roots help the trees?

Answer:

1. Pneumatophore
2. Gaseous exchange

Question 19.
Rhizome of ginger is like the roots of other plants that grows underground. Despite this fact ginger is a stem and not a root. Justify.
Answer:
Because it possess nodes and internodes, buds, scale leaf, and adventitious roots. Hence these are stem characters.

Question 20.
Tendrils are found in the following plants. Identify whether they are stem tendrils or leaf tendrils,
a. Cucumber
b. Peas
c. Pumpkins
d. Watermelons
Answer:
a,c,d – stem tendril b – leaf tendril

Question 21.
You have heard about several insectivorous plants that feed on insects. Nepenthes or the pitcher plant is one such example, which usually grows in shallow water or in marshlands. What part of the plant is modified into a pitcher1? How does this modification help the plant for food even though it can photosynthesize like any other green plant?
Answer:
Lamina, Plant get additional nutrition (nitrogen) from the digested insect body.

Question 22.
Mangrove plants have negatively geotropic roots

1. Name the root
2. Identify its function

Answer:

1. Pneumatophore
2. Gaseous exchange

Question 23.
1. Write the floral formula of the flower having following description (Bisexual, Zygomorhic, Calyx 5 gamosepalous, Corolla 5 polysepalous, vexillary aestivation, Androecium 10 (stamens 9 united and1 free), Gynoecium 1 carpel, ovary superior)
2. Identify the family of the flower
Answer:

1. K₍₅₎C _{1 + 2 + (2)} A_{(9) + 1}G1
2. Fabaceae

Question 24.
The following diagrams show different types of placentation.

1. Name the types of placentations?
2. Write one example for each placentations?

Answer:

1. Marginal and Basal placentation
2. Marginal – pea, Basal – sunflower

Question 25.
Dicot and monocot leaves shows differences on their leaves mostly in the arrangement of veins, explain it.
Answer:
In Dicot, the veins are repeatedly branched to form network. This is called Reticulate venation. In Monocot, the veins run parallel to one another. This is called Parallel venation.

Question 26.
What is placentation ?Give two types with example.
Answer:
It is the mode of arrangement of ovules in an Ovary

1. Axile placentation – Arrangement of ovules in the axis of ovary having septa.
2. Free central placentation – Arrangement of ovules in the central part of ovary without having septa.

Question 27.
Common functions of roots are absorption, fixation and conduction. Besides these, roots perform other functions. Justify this statement with two example.
Answer:
1. In addition to absorption, fixation, and conduction, roots perform mechanical support, eg -prop root and stilt root.

2. Some are Breathing roots eg:- Pneumatophore.

Question 28.
Differentiate between
Hypogynous and Epigynous
Answer:

1. In hypogynous flower the position of Gynoecium is superior to all other floral whorls.
2. In epigynous flower the position of Gynoecium is inferior to all other floral whorls.

Question 29.
A list of some plant parts are given below. Note the morphological modification in each item.

1. Carrot
2. Tapioca
3. Potato
4. Ginger

Answer:

1. Carrot – Tap root modification
2. Tapioca – Adventitious root modification
3. Potato – Underground stem modification
4. Ginger – Underground stem modification

Question 30.
Some flowers are called perigynous”. What do you mean by it?
Answer:
In such flowers ovary is half inferior that means position of ovary comes to the same level of other floral whorls lies.
Eg:- plum, rose, and peach

Question 31.
How is pinnately compound leaf different from palmately compound leaf?
Answer:
1. In pinnately compound leaf lamina divided into number of leaflets. It is due to the incisions touch the midrib Eg:- Neem.

2. In palmately compound leaf, lamina is divided into number of leaflets, they are arranged like fingers on the palm Eg:- Silk cotton

Question 32.
When your teacher asked to write a few examples for root modifications, a student wrote Potato. Is it correct? Why ?
Answer:
No, Potato is an example of underground stem modification.

Question 33.
How can you differentiate between free central and axile placentation?
Answer:
In free central placentation ovules are arranged at central axis of ovary without septa but in axile placentation ovules are arranged at central axis of ovary with septa/ cross walls.

Question 34.

1. Name the aestivations given below
2. Give an example for each

Answer:
1. Twisted and imbricate
Hibiscus and cassia

Question 35.
Potato is a stem and sweet potato is a root”. Justify the statement on the basis of external features only.
Answer:
Potato is an underground stem. It possess adventitious bud, nodes and internodes Sweet potato is adventitious root modification. It possess root hairs and stores food.

Question 36.
The floral formula of a family is given below Give two examples for economically important plants

Answer:

• Indigofera – dye obtained
• Sesbania- Used as Fodder

Question 37.
The mature seeds of plants such as gram and peas possess no Endosperm. Why?
Answer:
Endosperm gets used up by the developing embryo during seed development.

Question 38.
Match the following.

Answer:
A – iv
B – i
C – iii
D – ii

Question 39.
Mango and coconut are ‘drupe’ type of fruits. In mango fleshy mesocarp is edible.

1. What is the edible part of coconut?
2. What does milk of tender coconut represent?

Answer:

1. Endosperm
2. Liquid endosperm (free nuclear endosperm)

Question 40.
The mode of arrangements of sepals or petals in a floral bud is known as aestivation. Draw the various types of aestivation possible for a typical pentamerous flower.
Answer:

Question 41.
Give the technical term and examples of the flowers given here based on the position of the ovary.
Answer:
Hypogynous- hibiscus and perigynous- plum and rose.

Question 42.
Modified adventitious roots in Banyan tree and Maize plant are known in different names

1. Which are they?
2. Give its function

Answer:

1. Banyan tree – Prop root, Maize plant-Stilt root
2. Mechanical support

Question 43.
Thorns and spines are different modified structures in citrus and cactus.

1. Which plant part is modified ?
2. Give its function.

Answer:

1. Thorns – stem modification, Spines – Leaf modification
2. protective function

Question 44.
Some important family characters are given below flowers are zygomorphic, Hypogynous, monocarpellary ovary, anthers diadelphous, and papilionaceous corolla

1. Identify the family
2. Give 2 economically important plants

Answer:

1. Fabaceae
2. dye – Indigofera, fodder yielding – sesbania and Trifolium

Question 45.
Give the technichal term of the following

1. Two leaves at each node
2. flowers cannot be divided into two equal halves
3. position of ovary is higher than other floral whorls
4. carpels are fused

Answer:

1. opposite phyllotaxy
2. asymmetric
3. Hypogynous flower
4. syncarpous

Question 46.
Mention the statement given below are true or false

1. In axile placentation ovules are arranged in axis of single-chambered ovary
2. In Imbricate aestivation floral appendages are in irregular overlapping
3. In Alstonia phyllotaxy is whorled
4. Floral axis has definite growth in racemose type

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

Plus One Botany Morphology of Flowering Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Justify the following statements on the basis of external features.

1. Underground parts of plants are not always roots
2. Flower is a modified shoot

Answer:
1. Underground stem get modified for different purposes like food storage, reproduction and perennation. They can be recognized from root in having nodes, internodes,scale leaves, terminal bud &axillary bud eg. Rhizome – ginger, stem tuber- potato.

2. A flower can be considered as a modified shoot because each whorl of a flower represents each node. The leaves at each node is modified to perform functions like protection, attraction and reproduction. The internodes are compressed to form a flower.

Question 2.

1. What is meant by modification of root?
2. What type of root is found in
   • banyan tree
   • turnip
   • mangrove tree root modification is the change in shape and structure of root for performing functions other than absorption and conduction.

Answer:

1. It is modified for performing different functions.
2. • Modification of root in banyan tree-prop roots- for mechanical support
   • Turnip-napiform modification – for food storage
   • Mangrove tree-pneumatophores – respiration

Question 3.
Some characters of a flower is given below. Bisexual, sepals 5 and united, Petals 5 and united, stamens 5 and epipetalous, carpels 2, syncarpous and superior ovary.

1. Write its floral formula.
2. Identify the family.
3. List any two economically important plants belonging to this family.

Answer:
1.

2. Solanaceae
3. Potato – Solanum tuberosum Tomato – Lycopersicum esculentum

Question 4.
A particular flower of a family is characterised by this type of aestivation.

a) Identify the family.
b) Write the floral formula.
c) Mention two economic importance of the family.
Answer:

Question 5.
Observe the relationship between first two words and fill up the suitable word in the fourth place.

1. Shoot – plumule: Root ………..
2. Nepenthes – pitcher: Utricularia …………
3. Outer integument – testa: inner integument …………..
4. Ovule – seed: Ovary – …………..

Answer:

1. Radicle
2. Bladder
3. Tegmen
4. Fruit

Question 6.
Label the regions of the root tip in the given diagram.

Answer:

1. Root cap
2. Meristematic
3. Region of elongation
4. Root hair region

Question 7.
The arrangements of ovules within the ovary is known as placentation.

1. What does the term placenta refer to?
2. Name and draw various types of placentations in the flower as seen in T.S. or V.S.

Answer:
1. Placenta It is the cushion-like structure in which ovules are arranged.
2.

Question 8.
Define the following terms.

1. Aestivation:
2. Placentation:
3. Actinomorphic:
4. Zygomorphic:
5. superior ovary:
6. Perigynous flower:
7. Epigynous

Answer:

1. Aestivation: Arrangement of sepals and petals in an unopened flower bud.
2. Placentation: The mode of arrangement of ovules within the ovary
3. Actinomorphic: When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves at any radial plane. Eg: Chinarose.
4. Zygomorphic: When a flower can be cut into two equal halves only in one vertical plane. Eg: pea.
5. Superior ovary: When gynoecium occupies superior or highest position while other parts are situated below it. Eg: Mustard.
6. Perigynous flower: If the gynoecium is at the centre and all other, parts arise on the rim of the thalamus. Eg: Rose

Question 9.
Differentiate between

1. Racemose and cymose inflorescence.
2. Fibrous and adventitious root
3. Apocarpous and syncarpous ovary.

Answer:
1. Racemose:The axis or peduncle shows indefinite growth. Flowers are arranged in acropetal succession.
Cymose: the axis or peduncle shows definite growth or ends in a flower. Flowers are arranged in basipetal succession.

2. Fibrous: The primary root stops its growth and lateral roots arise from the base of the stem.
Adventitious: The roots arise from the part of the plant other than the radicle.

3. Apocarpous: When the carpels of ovary are free.
Syncarpous: When the carpels of ovary are fused.

Question 10.
Floral characters of a plant are given below: Pentamerous flowers, Polypetalous, Stamens 5, Polyandrous, Bicarpellary Syncarpous, Swollen placenta, Oblique ovary.
a) Name the Family of this plant belongs.
b) Write the floral formula of this family.
c) Give two examples with its importance.
Answer:

Plus One Botany Morphology of Flowering Plants NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is a pinnately compound leaf different from a plamately compound leaf?
Answer:
1. Pinnately Compound Leaf.
In pinnately compound leaf a number of leaflets are present on a common axis. Example, neem leaves.

2. Palmately Compound Leaf.
In palmately compound leaf number of leaflets are attached at the common point. Example, cotton leaves.

Question 2.
Explain with suitable examples the different types of phyllotaxy.
Answer:
1. Phyllotaxy. Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch. This is usually of three types – alternate, opposite and whorled.

2. In alternate type of phyllotaxy, a single leaf arises at each node in alternate manner, as in china rose, mustard and sunflower plants.

3. In the Opposite type, a pair of leaves arise at each node and lie opposite to each other as in Calotropis and guava plants.

4. If more than two leaves arise at a node and form a whorl, it is called whorled, as in Alstonia.

Question 3.
What is meant by modification of root? What type of modification of root is found to the :

1. Banyan tree
2. Turnip
3. Mangrove trees

Answer:
The Primary function of the root is absorption of water and minerals and giving mechanical support to the plant. Sometimes roots get modified to carry out other functions like storage of food or additional mechanical support.

1. Banyan Tree. In banyan trees long roots develop from branches and they hanging deep down to reach the ground. They are providing additional mechanical support to the huge banyan tree. This modification is called a prop root.

2. Turnip. In turnip the root is modified to store extra food.

3. Mangrove Trees. Mangrove trees are found in marshy area. The roots are modified into pneumatophore providing extra passage to allow additional oxygen to the plant.

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The obliquely growing roots that provides mechanical support to the main stem are
(a) prop root
(b) stilt root
(c) pneumatophore
(d) pillar root
Answer:
(b) stilt root

Question 2.
Lateral branches arise from the base of main stem that grows aerially at first and arch downwards in
(a) pistia
(b) mint
(c) jasmine
(d) both b & C
Answer:
(d) both b & C

Question 3.
Pulvinus is found in the leaf base of
(a) Rosaceae
(b) Leguminosae
(c) Malvaceae
(d) Solanaceae
Answer:
(b) Leguminosae

Question 4.
The appearance of more than one leaf at each node is represented by
(a) china rose
(b) sunflower
(c) Alstonia
(d) guava
Answer:
(c) Alstonia

Question 5.
Roots are significant in the exchange of gases
(a) pneumatophore
(b) stilt root
(c) pillar root
(d) assimilatory root
Answer:
(a) pneumatophore

Question 6.
The type of flower cannot be divided into two similar halves in any vertical plane through centre is
(a) actinomorphic
(b) zygomorphic
(c) asymmetric
(d) both b & c
Answer:
(c) asymmetric

Question 7.
Ovary half inferior is seen in
(a) plum
(b) china rose
(c) peach
(d) both a & c
Answer:
(d) both a & c

Question 8.
Find out the papilionaceous type of corolla from the given figure.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer:
(d) D

Question 9.
9. Flowers with bisexual, zygomorphic, diadelphous and monocarpellary superior ovary are the characteristic feature of
(a) fabaceae
(b) malvaceae
(c) solanaceae
(d) liliaceae
Answer:
(a) fabaceae

Question 10.
The type of placentation given here is

(a) axile
(b) basal
(c) marginal
(d) parietal
Answer:
(d) parietal

Question 11.
Hilum is found in
(a) embryo
(b) seed coat
(c) radicle
(d) chalaza
Answer:
(b) seed coat

Question 12.
Ashwagandha is represented by the family
(a) Fabaceae
(b) papillionaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Liliaceae
Answer:
(c) Solanaceae

Question 13.
The family represented by the floral formula given below is

(a) fabaceae
(b) papillionaceae
(c) solanaceae
(d) liliaceae
Answer:
(c) solanaceae

Question 14.
Negatively geotropic roots are seen in
(a) zaminkand
(b) Rhizophora
(c) maize
(d) euphorbia
Answer:
(b) Rhizophora

Question 15.
In the following picture, plant part is modified for

(a) storage
(b) respiration
(c) support
(d) protection
Answer:
(a) storage

Question 16.
When the filaments of stamens are attached to the perianth, the condition is
(a) Epiphyllous
(b) epipetalous
(c) adelphous
(d) syngenesious
Answer:
(a) Epiphyllous

Question 17.
In China rose, five carpels are fused at base. This condition is called
(a) Pentacarpellary, syncarpous and pentalocular
(b) Pentacarpellary, apocarpous and pentalocular
(c) polycarpellary, syncarpous and penalocular
(d) Pentacarpellary, syncarpous and multilocular
Answer:
(a) Pentacarpellary, syncarpous and pentalocular

Students can Download Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Plant Kingdom

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Artificial system of classification is mainly based on
(a) vegetative characters
(b) androecium structure
(c) habit and habitat
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 2.
Fusion between morphologically alike gametes is referred to as
(a) anisogamy
(b) isogamy
(c) oogamy
(d) sygamy
Answer:
(b) isogamy

Question 3.
Gametophytic generation is dominant in
(a) bryophytes
(b) pteridophytes
(c) angiosperms
(d) gymnosperms
Answer:
(a) bryophytes

Question 4.
Mycorrhizal roots of _____ are associated with some fungal symbionts
(a) Cedrus
(b) pinus
(c) cycas
(d) lichens
Answer:
(b) pinus

Question 5.
Haplontic life cycle is generally occurs in
(a) algae
(b) pteridophytes
(c) bryophytes
(d) gymnosperms
Answer:
(a) algae

Question 6.
Name the type of cell division which produce four haploid cells with new combination of characters from a diploid cell.
Answer:
Meiosis.

Question 7.
Name the dominating pigment in red algae.
Answer:
Phycoerythrin

Question 8.
Name the algae from which algin is prepared commercially.
Answer:
Laminaria (brown algae)

Question 9.
Name the filamentous structure that appears in the mosses due to the germination of spores.
Answer:
Protonema

Question 10.
Give an example of plant group which produce seed but not fruit.
Answer:
Gymnosperms

Question 11.
What is the genetic constitution of endosperm of angiosperm.
Answer:
Triploid

Question 12.
Fill in the blanks.

1. Bryophytes – Haplo-diplontic
   Gymnosperms – ________
2. Algin – Brown algae
   Carrageen – _______

Answer:

1. Diplontic
2. Red algae

Question 13.
If chlorophyll b is for Chlorophyceae, chlorophyll d is for _______
Answer:
Rhodophyceae

Question 14.
Pick out the correct pairs of plant groups that bearing archegonium.
(a) gymnosperm angiosperm
(b) angiosperm Bryophyta
(c) Bryophyta Pteridophyta
(d) Pteridophyta gymnosperm
Answer:
(d) Pteridophyta gymnosperm

Question. 15
Select the odd one.
(Nitrosomonas, archaebacteria, Nitrococcus, Nitrobacteria)
Answer:
Archaebacteria

Question 16.
The majority of pteridophytes are homosporous ie. they produce similar kind of spores. Give one example of a heterosporous pteridophyte.
Answer:
Selaginella

Question 17.
Archaebacteria, special type of bacteria, which are able to survive in extreme conditions, What is the feature helping them for this?
Answer:
Structure of the cell wall.

Question 18.
Complete the following:
1. Plasmogamy: Fusion of Protoplasms
……………: Fusion of nuclei
Answer:
karyogamy

Question 19.
Laminarin is a stored food in Phaeophyceae, what is the stored food in Rhodophyceae?
Answer:
Floridean starch

Question 20.
The essential element is present in the ring structure of chlorophyll. Which is the element?
Answer:
Mg.

Question 21.
By observing the relationship of the first and fill up the second.
1. Algae and Fungi: Lichen
Roots of higher plants and Fungus:………….
Answer:
Mycorrhiza

Question 22.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill up the blank.

1. Moss: Protonema; Fern ………….
2. Egg: Zygote; …………; PEN

Answer:

1. Prothallus
2. Secondary Nucleus

Question 23.
Pick the odd one out from the following and justify your answer.
Chlamydomonas, Volvox, laminaria, Chara.
Answer:
laminaria-brown algae

Question 24.
Choose the correct answer.

1. food materials in fungi are stored in the form of (glucose, glycogen, sucrose, starch)
2. Membrane covering the vacuole (meninges, tonoplast, pleura).

Answer:

1. Glycogen
2. Tonoplast

Question 25.
Name the organisms which are not included in any of the kingdoms,
Answer:
Viruses

Question 26.
Name the plant group in which ‘protonema’ is present.
Answer:
Bryophytes

Question 27.
Observe the relationship between the first two pairs and fill up the blanks.

1. Sac fungi: Ascomycetes
   Imperfect fungi: …………
2. Transpiration: Loss of water in the form of water vapour.
   ……………: Loss of water in the form of liquid

Answer:

1. Deuteromycetes
2. Guttation

Question 28.
Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed as
(a) Oogamy
(b) Isogamy
(c) Anisogamy
(d) Zoogamy
Answer:
(c) Anisogamy

Question 29.
Holdfast, stipe, and frond constitutes the plant body in case of
(a) Rhodophyceae
(b) Chlorophyceae
(c) Phaeophyceae
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Phaeophyceae

Question 30.
Food is stored as Floridean starch in Rhodophyceae. Mannitol is the reserve food material of which group of algae?
Answer:
Brown algae

Question 31.
A plant shows thallus level of organization. It shows rhizoids and is haploid. It needs water to complete its life cycle because the male gametes are motile. Identify the group to which it belongs to
Answer:
Bryophytes

Question 32.
My body is a gametophyte and I grow under moist and shaded conditions. My group is commonly known as amphibians of the plant kingdom. Name my group.
Answer:
Bryophyta

Question 33.
Name the gametophyte that is free-living structure formed in pteridophytes.
Answer:
Prothallus

Question 34.
The plant body in higher plants is well differentiated and well developed. Roots are the organs used for the purpose of absorption. What is the equivalent of roots in the less developed lower plants?
Answer:
Rhizoids

Question 35.
Plants are generally autotrophic. Can you think of certain plants that are partially heterotrophic?
Answer:
Loranthus – Partial stem parasite

Question 36.
Choose the correct pair.
(a) Spirogyra – Algae
(b) Sphagnum – Gymnosperm
(c) Selaginella – Bryophyte
(d) Funaria – Pteridophyte
Answer:
(a) Spirogyra – Algae

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Diagrams of three bryophytes are given below.

1. Observe and give the names of these bryophytes.
2. Which of the three bryophytes is the most advanced?

Answer:
1. names of these bryophytes.

• A – Riccia,
• B – Marchantia,
• C – Funaria

2. Funaria

Question 2.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill up the blanks.

1. Kingdom fungi – multicellular decomposer
   Kingdom Plantae – _____________
2. Gymnosperm – Cone
   Angiosperm – _____________

Answer:

1. Kingdom plantae – multicellular producers
2. Angiosperm – flower

Question 3.
Bryophytes are “amphibians of the plant kingdom”. Comment.
Answer:
The vegetative structure are well adapted to live on land but water is essential for fertilization.

Question 4.
Prothallus is the gametophytic stage of Pteridophyte What is protonema?
Answer:
Protonema is the young stage of moss gametophyte

Question 5.

Answer:

Question 6.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 7.
Lichens are the symbiotic association between algae and fungi.

1. What is symbiosis?
2. How both the partners help each other?

Answer:
1. Relationship between 2 organisms, both are benefited.

2. Algae – prepare food
Fungus – Gives shelter to algae

Question 8.
Arrange the following plants in the table given below, (two members from each group)
Riccia, Spirogyra, Adiantum, Chlorella, Funaria, Cycas, Nephrolepis, Pinus.

Answer:

Question 9.
The following is a list of plants. Arrange them in the table given below.
Marchantia, Selaginella, Salvinia, Sunflower, Funaria, Pinus, Maize, Cycas.

Answer:

Question 10.

1. Identify the life cycle pattern?
2. Cite two examples of organisms showing the above life cycle pattern?

Answer:

1. Haplo-diplontic.
2. Bryophytes and pteridophytes

Question 11.
The classical Taxonomy of organisms is mainly based . on morphological characters. But modern taxonomy gives equal weightage to all characters.
Answer:

1. Name this new approach in modern taxonomy.
2. Mention any two branches of this taxonomy.

Answer:

1. Numerical taxonomy
2. Chemo taxonomy, cytotaxonomy

Question 12.

Answer:

Question 13.
Pick up the odd one.

1. Oscillatoria, Spirulina, Actinomycetes, Nostoc
2. Epipetalous, Epiphyllous, Monadelphous, Apocarpous.

Answer:

1. Actinomycetes
2. Apocarpous

Question 14.
Green algae are considered as the ancestors of angiosperms.

1. Is this statement correct?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. Chloroplast is present

Question 15.
Red algae reach the maximum depth in sea where no other photosynthetic form grow. Justify.
Answer:
The pigment phycoerythrin absorb the blue-green part of the sunlight’s spectrum. The blue-green light has short wavelength and penetrates deep into the water.

Question 16.
During summer you cannot see the growth of Funaria. What is the reason for this?
Answer:
Water is needed for reproduction – amphibians of plant kingdom.

Question 17.
By observing the relationship between the first pair, fill up the blanks.

1. Chlorophyceae: Starch: Rhodophyceae: ……………….
2. Moss:Protonema; Nephrolepis : ………….

Answer:

1. Floridean starch
2. Prothallus

Question 18.
Match the following. (Column I with Column II)

Answer:

Question 19.
Observe the relationship between first two terms and fill up the blanks.

1. Phycobiont: Algal partner
   ……………: Fungal partner
2. Rhizopus: Phycomycetes
   Penicillin: ………….

Answer:

1. Mycobiont
2. Ascomycetes

Question20.
When & where does reduction division takes place in the life cycle of liverwort, moss, ferns, gymnosperm, and angiosperm?
Answer:

• Liver wort – Reduction division takes place inside the capsule at the time of spore production.
• Moss – Reduction division takes place inside the capsule at the time of spore formation.
• Ferns- Reduction division takes place in sporangium in the leaves at the time of spore formation.
• Gymnosperm – Reduction divsion takes place in the sporangium born on sporophyte of cone.
• Angiosperm – reduction division takes place at the time of gamete formation in male & female gametophyte during sexual reproduction.

Question 21.
Observe the given table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 22.
Complete the table using appropriate terms.

Answer:

Question 23.
What is the basis of the classification of algae?
Answer:
Algae is classified on the basis of pigment Sreserve food.
Eg:

• Green algae(Chlorophyceae)
• Red algae(Rhodophyceae)
• Brown algae(Phaeophyceae)

Question 24.
Liverworts, mosses and ferns usually grow near water. Comment.
Answer:
External water is required for dehiscence of antheridia, liberation of antherozoids, transfer of antherozoids from antheridia to archegonia, opening of archegonial neck and the movement of antherozoids into the archegonial neck for fertilisation during sexual reproduction.

Question 25.
Both gymnosperm & Angiosperm are seed-bearing plants. Why are they classified separately?
Answer:
Gymnosperm and angiosperm are seed-producing plants. In gymnosperm ovules or seeds are not enclosed by ovary wall after fertilisation. In angiosperm, the seeds are protected by ovary wall after fertilisation.

Question 26.
Some characteristic features of the plant is given below.

• The main plant body posesses rhizoids.
• The nucleus of main plant body have haploid chromosome number.
• Zygote develops into a new plant which is dependant on main plant body.
• The sporophyte has foot, seta, and capsule.

1. Identify the plant.
2. Name the cells where reduction division (meiosis) takes place in the life cycle of the plant.
Answer:

1. Moss plant
2. Spore mother cells

Question 27.
Differentiate between the following,

1. Red algae & Brown algae
2. Liverworts & Mosses
3. Homosporous & Heterosporous
4. Sygamy & Triple fusion

Answer:
1.

2.

3.

4.

Question 28.
The following is a list of plants.
Riccia, Chlorella, Selaginella, Adiantum, Chalamydomas, Sugarcane, Funaria, Gnetum, Ficus, Cycas. Categorise these plants into Algae, Bryophytes, Gymnosperms, and Angiosperms.
Answer:

• Algae – Chlorella, Chlamydomonas
• Bryophytes – Riccia, Funaria
• Pteridophytes – Selaginella, Adiantum
• Gymnosperms-Gnetum, Cycas
• Angiosperms- Sugarcane, Ficus

Question 29.
Some plants of cycas produce seeds, but not others. Justify.
Answer:
Cycas plants are dioecious. Male plants of cycas produce microsporophylls and female plants produce megasporophyll. So only female cycas produce seeds and not the males.

Question 30.
Complete the table using the following terms.

Primitive vascular plants, Sprogyra, Triploid endosperm, Marchantia, Naked seeded plants, Pteris, Aquatic autotrophs, Wolfie, Amphibians of plant Kingdom, Pinus
Answer:

Question 31.
The following is the list of plants Arrange them in the table given below.
Marchantia, Chlorella, Lycopodium, Adiantum, Clamydomonas, Sunflower, Funaria, Gnetum, Cycas, Maize.

Answer:

Question 32.
The haplodiplontic life cycle is present in fern plants. Justify your answer.
Answer:
ln fern plants, the haploid phase is alternate with diploid phase in life cycle. Haploid and diploid phases have equal weightage in life cycle.

Question 33.
What is mixotrophic mode of nutrition?
Answer:
It is the type of nutrition found in Euglena that means both autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 34.
Why seed plants are most successful of all land plants?
Answer:
They are most successful of all land plants because external supply of water is not required for fertilization.

Question 35.
How bryophytes are advanced over algae?
Answer:
In higher bryophytes plant body is differentiate into root-like,stem-like and leaf-like structures. They also shows amphibious habit.

Question 36.
Differentite between gametophyte and sporophyte.
Answer:
Gametophyte is haploid and bears gametes. Sporophyte is diploid and bears spores

Question 37.
In which plant will you look for mycorrhiza and corolloid roots? Also explain what these terms mean, pinus and cycas.
Answer:

1. Mycorrhiza – association of root and fungus
2. Corolloid root – association of root and N2 fixing cyanobacteria.

Question 38.
Why rhizoids are not called roots?
Answer:
Rhizoids are haploid and lack vascular tissue, on the other hand, roots are diploid and bear vascular tissue.

Question 39.
Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seeds, then why are they classified separately?
Answer:
Because the gymnosperms are plants that bear ovules that are not covered by any ovary wall i.e the seeds of gymnosperms are not covered( naked). But in the angiosperms the seeds remain enclosed inside the fruits.

Question 40.
Why are some bryophytes called liverworts?
Answer:
Some bryophytes are called liverworts because their gametophyte resembles liver lobes.

Question 41.
Heterospory i.e., formation of two types of spores microspores and megaspores is a characteristic feature in the life cycle of a few members of pteridophytes and all spermatophytes. Do you think heterospory has some evolutionary significance in plant kingdom?
Answer:
It is considered as precursor to seed habit. The microspores of angiosperms develops into male gametophyte and megaspores develops into female gametophyte or embryosac.

Question 42.
Most algal genera show a haplontic lifestyle. Name an alga which is

1. Haplo-diplontic
2. Diplontic

Answer:

1. Ectocarpus, polysiphonia and kelps
2. Fucus

Question 43.
What is heterospory? Give its significance?
Answer:
Heterospory is the production of two kinds of spores in pteridophytes. EgfSalvina and Selaginella They produces 2 kind of spores i.e macrospores- these are large in size and microspores-these are small in size.

Question 44.
The spores and gametes produced by some members of algae are nonmotile.

1. Do you agree the above statement.
2. Give reasons.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. In members of red algae, the pear-shaped spores and gametes do not possess flagella, hence they are non-motile.

Question 45.
Nature of spore development is different in bryophytes and pteridophytes.

1. Give the common name for the structures arise from spores.
2. Identify these two.

Answer:

1. Gametophyte
2. Protonema and Prothallus

Question 46.

1. Name the diploid and triploid products formed in Embryosac after fertilisation.
2. What will be the fate of haploid structures not participate in fertilisation?

Answer:

1. Diploid – Zygote,
   Triploid – PEN
2. Synergids and antipodals degenerate after fertilisation.

Question 47.

1. Identify the types of associations in some members of gymnosperms
2. Name organisms forms in such associations

Answer:

1. Mycorrhiza and corrolloid root
   Mycorrhiza – pinus and fungus,
2. Corrolloid root – N2 fixing cyanobacteria and cycas

Question 48.

1. Differentiate the nature of plant body in Bryophytes and gymnosperms.
2. Identify the life cycle shown by the above two plant group

Answer:

1. Bryophytes – Thallus type (plant body is not differentiated)
   Gymnosperms – Plant body is differentiated into root, stem, and leaves
2. Bryophytes – Haplo-diplontic
   Gymnosperms – Diplontic

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mark the statement Ture or False,

1. Potato, ginger, turmeric are underground stems. They are modified to store food in them
2. Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of leaves on the stem or branch
3. A flower having only stamens or carpel is bisexual.
4. Calyx and corolla are reproductive organs
5. Lamina is the green expanded part of the leaf with veins and veinlets
6. In racemose inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower.
7. Ovary in epigynous flower is superior
8. If the margin of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in particular direction, the aestivation is called imbricate.
9. A sterilse stamen is called staminode
10. The seed coat has two layers the outer testa and the inner tegmen.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. True

Question 2.
What is heterospory. Give brief account of its significance with examples.
Answer:
Hetrospory is the production of 2 types of spores, Macro (large) and Micro(Small). They give rise to female and male gametophyte respectively. The gamete fused to form zygote which retained in the female gametophyte. This event can be considered as a precursor of seed habit and is an important step in evolution.

Question 3.
Mention the ploidy of the following.

1. Protonemal cell of a moss
2. Primary endosperm nucleus in dicot.
3. Leaf cell of moss.
4. Fern Prothalus
5. Meristem cell of monocot
6. Ovum cell of liverwort
7. Zygote of a fern

Answer:

1. n – Haploid
2. 3n triploid
3. n – haploid
4. n – haploid
5. 2n – diploid
6. n – haploid
7. 2n)diploid

Question 4.
Explain briefly the following term with suitable examples. Protonejjia, Antheridium, Archegonium, Diplonticand Sporophyll.
Answer:

1. Protonema – the 1st gametophytic stage developed by the germination of spores in Bryophytes
2. Antheridium – Male sex organs which produce flagellated motile male gamtes. eg: Bryophyte
3. Archegonium – Female sex organ which produce nonmotile egg it is a flask shaped. eg: pteridophyte & Gymnosperm
4. Diplontic – Diploid sporophytic generation is dominant photosynthetic independent phase of the plant and gametophytic phase is represented by haploid gametophyte eg: gymnosperm & angiosperm

Question. 5
Based on the relationship, fill in the blanks:

1. Nephrolepis:Prothallus:: Funaria: ……….
2. Penicillium: ………..:: Agaricus Basidiocarp
3. …………… Phaeophyceae::Carageen: Rhodophyceae

Answer:

1. Protonema
2. Conidia
3. Mannitol

Question. 6
A few statements regarding algae are given below. Study them carefully and state true or false. If false make them correct.

1. Algae are thallophytes.
2. Volvox is a red algae.
3. Algin is obtained from red algae.
4. Floridean starch is found in green algae.
5. Green algae are known as Rhodophyte.
6. Green algae possess chlorophyll a

Answer:

1. True
2. False. Green algae 1
3. False. Brown algae
4. False. Red algae
5. False. Chloropyta
6. True

Question.7
Write a note on the economic importance of algae & gymnosperm.
Answer:
Algae – increase the level of oxygen in enviomment. They are the chief producers in aquatic ecosystems Some species of brown algae like sargassum, laminaria & Porphyra are used as food. Red algae and brown algae produce hydrocolloids which are water-holding substances. Eg: Gracilaria & gelidium Clorella is used as food supplement by space travelers.

Gymnosperm – Produce alkaloids like terpentine from the stem. They are grown as an ornamental plant. Certain species like ephedra are medicinal.

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How would you distinguish monocots from dicots?
Answer:

• The easiest way is by looking at their seeds. Seeds of monocots have one cotyledon while that of dicots have two cotyledons.
• Dicots have tap root system, while monocots have fibrous root system.
• Dicots show reticulate venation, while monocots show parallel venation.

Question 2.
Match the followings (column I with column II)

Answer:

• a) – iii
• b) – iv
• c) – ii
• d) – i

Question 3.
What is heterospory? Briefly comment on its significance. Give two examples.
Answer:
Certain pteridophytes produce two kinds of spores. This phenomenon is called heterospory.

Question 4.
Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seeds, then why are they classified separately?
Answer:
The seeds of gymnosperms are naked, while that of angiosperms are covered by a membrane. That is why they are classified separately.

Question 5.
What is the basis of classification of algae?
Answer:
The main basis of classification of algae is the presence or absence of pigments, which impart an algae
its colour.
1. Chiorophyceae contains chlorophyll a and b, giving it the green colourand the name ‘green algae’.

2. Phaeophyceae contains chlorophyll a and c and fucoxanthin. The fucoxanthin gives it the brown colourand hence the name ‘brown algae’.

3. Rhodophyceae contains chlorophyll a and d and phycoerythrin. The phycoerythrin gives the distinct red colour and hence the name ‘red algae’.

Plus One Botany Plant Kingdom Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The major pigment present in brown algae is
(a) chlorophyll a
(b) fucoxanthin
(c) Floridian starch
(d) phycoerythrin
Answer:
(b) fucoxanthin

Question 2.
Hetrospory is first noticed in
(a) gymnosperm
(b) pteridophytes
(c) gymnosperm
(d) ferns
Answer:
(b) pteridophytes

Question 3.
Mycorrhizal association is found in the root of
(a) ferns
(b) pinus
(c) cycas
(d) potytrichum
Answer:
(b) pinus

Question 4.
Which one of the following belongs to brown algae
(a) polysiphonia
(b) ectocarpus
(c) ulothrix
(d) volvox
Answer:
(b) ectocarpus

Question 5.
Sexual reproduction of bryophytes involves the production of
(a) sperms
(b) biflagellate antherozooids
(c) antheroids
(d) cilliate antherozooids
Answer:
(b) biflagellate antherozooids

Question 6.
The asexual reproductive structures occurs in bryophytes are
(a) zoospores
(b) gemmae
(c) fronds
(d) rhizoids
Answer:
(b) gemmae

Question 7.
Protonema stage occurs when
(a) spore of bryophytes germinate
(b) seed germinates
(c) spore of ferns germinate
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) spore of bryophytes germinate

Question 8.
PEN is formed in
(a) angiosperm
(b) pteridophytes
(c) gymnosperm
(d) ferns
Answer:
(a) angiosperm

Question 9.
The life cycle occurs in ectocarpus is
(a) haplontic
(b) haplodiplontic
(c) diplontic
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) haplodiplontic

Question 10.
Prothallus is
(a) photosynthetic gametophyte
(b) photosynthetic sporophyte
(c) non photosynthetic gametophyte
(d) non photosynthetic sporophyte
Answer:
(a) photosynthetic gametophyte

Question 11.
Phylogenetic system of classification is mainly based on
(a) embryological characters
(b) evolutionary characters
(c) morphological Characters
(d) floral characters
Answer:
(b) evolutionary characters

Question 12.
Classification based on cytological information, chromosome number etc.called
(a) chemotaxonomy
(b) cytotaxonomy
(c) numerical taxonomy
(d) cytogenetics
Answer:
(b) cytotaxonomy

Question 13.
In which of the following groups would you place plants having vascular tissue but lacking seeds
(a) pteridophytes
(b) gymnosperms
(c) angiosperms
(d) bryophytes
Answer:
(a) pteridophytes

Question 14.
Life cycle found in pteridophytes
(a) haplontic
(b) diplontic
(c) haplo-diplontic
(d) either haplontic or diplontic
Answer:
(c) haplo-diplontic

Question 15.
Fucoxanthin is the chief pigment in
(a) red algae
(b) brown algae
(c) green algae
(d) blue green algae
Answer:
(b) brown algae

Question 16.
Algae which grow on animals and also occur on shells of molluscs or other invertebrates are called
a) parasitic
b) epiphytic
c) epizoic
d) coenobia

Question 17.
Xylem of gymnosperm lack
(a) tracheids
(b) vessels
(c) both a and b
(d) fibres
Answer:
(b) vessels

Question 18.
Pyrenoids are present in
(a) angiosperms
(b) gymnosperms
(c) algae
(d) pteridophytes
Answer:
(c) algae

Question 19.
The first plants to appear after forest fire are the ferns this is because of the survival of their
(a) fronds
(b) rhizome
(c) spores
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(b) rhizome

Question 20.
The endosperm of gymnosperm is
(a) diploid
(b) triploid
(c) tetraploid
(d) haploid
Answer:
(d) haploid

Students can Download Chapter 9 Uses of Statistical Methods Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Uses of Statistical Methods

Plus One Economics Uses of Statistical Methods One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An essential part of a project report is
(i) Objectives
(ii) Methodology
(iii) Analysis
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 2.
Data collection is covered under which part of a project works?
(i) Statement of the problem
(ii) Methodology
(iii) Analysis
(iv) Conclusion
Answer:
(ii) Methodology

Plus One Economics Uses of Statistical Methods Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List the statistical tools you use for the analysis of data collected.
Answer:
The following statistical tools can generally be used for the analysis of data collected

• Measure of central tendency
• Standard deviation
• Coefficient of variation
• Regression
• Correlation

Plus One Economics Uses of Statistical Methods Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the steps towards making a project report.
Answer:
The following are the steps towards making a project report

1. Identifying a problem or area of study
2. Choice of target group
3. Collection of data
4. Organization and presentation of data
5. Analysis and interpretation 0 Conclusion
6. Bibliography

Question 2.
Write down the features of a good questionnaire.
Answer:
The features of a gdb questionnaire are mentioned
below.

1. The questionnaire should not be too long.
2. The number of questions should be as minimum as possible.
3. The series of questions should move from general to specific.
4. The questions should be precise and clear.
5. The questions should not be ambiguous, to enable the respondents to answer quickly, correctly and clearly.
6. If possible ask ‘yes’ or ‘no’ questions.
7. The question should not be a leading question, which gives a clue about how the respondent should answer.
8. The question should not indicate alternatives to the answer.

Plus One Economics Uses of Statistical Methods Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a questionnaire to study the socio-economic conditions of students in your class.
Answer:
Questionnaire to study the socio-economic conditions

1. Name
2. Sex
3. Age
4. Class
5. The community to which you belong to
6. Details of family members:

7. Monthly income of the family

• below 1000
• between 1000 and 5000
• between 5000 and 10000
• above 10000

8. Do you live in the
a) rental house b) own house

9. Is your house electrified
a) yes b) no

10. Do you subscribe to the newspaper at home
a) yes b) no

11. Details of amenities at home:

• cooking gas
• television
• bicycle
• washing machine
• motorcar
• scooter
• refrigerator
• others

Students can Download Chapter 8 Index Numbers Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Index Numbers

Plus One Economics Index Numbers One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is known as cost of living index?
(a) Consumers price index
(b) Wholesale price index
(c) Industrial production index
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Consumers price index

Question 2.
Index number can be calculated for ……….
(a) Price
(b) Quantity
(c) Volume
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
In 2017 the price of oil increased by 30% compared to 2010. Identify the base year and the current year.
Answer:
Base year 2010, Current year 2017

Question 4.
Which of the following indicates the changes in general price level?
(a) Consumers price index
(b) Wholesale price index
(c) Industrial production index
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Wholesale price index

Question 5.
An index number which accounts for the relative importance of the items is known as
(a) weighted index
(b) simple aggregative index
(c) simple average of relatives
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) weighted index

Question 6.
In most of the weighted index numbers the weight pertains to
(a) base year
(b) current year
(c) both base and current year
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) current year

Question 7.
The impact of change in the price of a commodity with little weight in the index will be
(a) small
(b) large
(c) uncertain
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) small

Question 8.
A consumer price index measures changes in
(a) retail prices
(b) wholesale prices
(c) producers prices
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) retail prices

Question 9.
The item having the highest weight in consumer price index for industrial workers is
(a) Food
(b) Housing
(c) Clothing
(d) all the above
Answer:
(a) Food

Question 10.
In general, inflation is calculated by using
(a) wholesale price index
(b) consumer price index
(c) producers’ price index
Answer:
(a) wholesale price index

Question 11.
What is the other name of the consumer price index?
Answer:
The other name of the consumer price index is price deflator of income.

Question 12.
What is base period?
Answer:
Base period is the reference period with which the current period is compared.

Plus One Economics Index Numbers Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Index numbers are very useful in deflating. Explain.
Answer:
Index numbers are very useful in deflating. They are very useful adjusting original data into real values. For example, money wages can be adjusted for price changes to find out the level of real wages.

Question 2.
Write down the uses of the wholesale price index.
Answer:
The wholesale price index number indicates the change in the general price level. The uses of the wholesale price index are noted down below.

1. With the help of the wholesale price index, we can estimate the future demand and supply situations
2. It helps in forecasting future prices
3. It is used to measure the rate of inflation
4. It can be used to eliminate the effect of change in price on aggregates such as national income, capital formation, etc.

Question 3.
Define index number.
Answer:
An index number is a statistical device for measuring changes in the magnitude of a group of related variables.

Question 4.
Mention the formula of ‘simple aggregative’ method?
Answer:
\(P_{01}=\frac{\sum P_{1}}{\Sigma P_{0}} \times 100\)
Here,
ΣP = Total of current year’s prices of different commodities.
ΣP₀ = Total of base year’s prices of different commodites.

Question 5.
Give utility of index numbers.
Answer:

1. Index numbers simplify the facts
2. It is helpful to policymakers
3. It makes comparative study easy
4. It helps to study the general trend

Question 6.
Write a short note on Sensex.
Answer:
Sensex is the short form of Bombay Stock Exchange Sensitive Index with 1978 – 79 as base. The value of Sensex is with reference to this period. It consists of 30 stocks represented by 13 sectors of the economy. If Sensex rises, it indicates that the market is doing well and investors expect better earnings on their investment.

Question 7.
Consumer price indices are of great useful because of various reasons. What are they?
Answer:

1. They determine the purchasing power of money.
2. They are helpful in the determination of real wages.
3. They are helpful in wage negotiations and wage contracts.
4. They help in deflating income and value series in national accounts.
5. They help the government in formulation of wage policy, price policy, rent control and making general economic policies.

Plus One Economics Index Numbers Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name some important index number in use.
Answer:
some important index number in use are mentioned below.

• Consumer price index
• Wholesale Price Index
• Industrial production index
• Producer Price Index
• Index number of agricultural production

Question 2.
Construct an index number for 1991 taking 1990 as base year.

Answer:

It shows when compared to 1990 the general price level in 1991 increased by 20%.

Question 3.
Point out the desirable properties of the base year.
Answer:
The desirable properties of base year are:

• The base year should be a normal year.
• Extreme values should not be selected as base period.
• It should not belong to too far in the past.

Plus One Economics Index Numbers Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the limitations of index numbers?
Answer:
The limitations of index numbers are mentioned below.

• Index numbers are not fully true.
• They do not help in international comparison.
• They are prepared with certain specific objectives.
• It is difficult to collect retail prices. So, index numbers based on wholesale prices may be misleading.

Question 2.
“Index number is used in economics for policymaking” substantiate.
Answer:
Wholesale price index number (WPI), consumer price index number (CPI) and industrial production index (IIP) are widely used in policymaking.

1. Consumer index number (CPI) or cost of living index numbers are helpful in wage negotiation, formulation of income policy, price policy, rent control, taxation and general economic policy formulation.

2. The wholesale price index (WPI) is used to eliminate the effect of changes in prices on aggregates such as national income, capital formation, etc.

3. WPI is widely used to measure the rate of inflation. Inflation is a general and continuing increase in prices. If inflation becomes sufficiently large, money may lose its traditional function as a medium of exchange and as a unit of account. Its primary impact lies in lowering the value of money.

4. CPI are used in calculating the purchasing power of money and real wage.

5. Index of industrial production gives us a quantitative figure about the change in production in the industrial sector.

6. Agricultural production index provides us a ready reckoner of the performance of agricultural sector.

7. Sensex is a useful guide for investors in the stock market. If the sensex is rising, investors are optimistic of the future performance of the economy. It is an appropriate time for investment.

Plus One Economics Index Numbers Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Certain important issues should be kept in mind while constructing an index number”. Do agree? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Yes, certain important issues should be kept in mind, while constructing an index number. Those issues are mentioned below

1. You need to be clear about the purpose of the index. The calculation of a volume index will be inappropriate when one needs a value index.

2. Besides this, the items are not equally important for different groups of consumers when a consumer price index is constructed. The rise in petrol price may not directly impact the living condition of the poor agricultural labourers.

Thus the items to be included in any index have to be selected carefully to be as representative as possible. Only
then you will get a meaningful picture of the change.

3. Every index should have a base. This base should be as normal as possible. Extreme values should not be selected as base period. The period should also not belong to too far in the past. The comparison of between 1993 and 2005 is much more meaningful than a comparison between 1960 and 2005.

Many items in a 1960 typical consumption basket have disappeared at present. Therefore, the base year for any index number is routinely updated.

4. Another issue is the choice of the formula, which depends on the nature of question to be studied. The only difference between the Laspeyres index and Paasche’s index is the weights used in these formulae.

5. Besides, there are many sources of data with different degrees of reliability. Data of poor reliability will give misleading results. Hence, due care should betaken in the collection of data. If primary data are not being used, then the most reliable source of secondary data should be chosen.

Question 2.
Explain various types of index numbers.
Answer:
Some Important Index Numbers
1. Consumer price index:
Consumer price index (CPI), also known as the cost of living index, measures the average change in retail prices. The CPI for industrial workers is increasingly considered the appropriate indicator of general inflation, which shows the most accurate impact of price rise on the cost of living of common people.

2. Wholesale price index:
The wholesale price index number indicates the change in the general price level. Unlike the CPI, it does not have any reference consumer category. It does not include items pertaining to services like barber charges, repairing, etc.

3. Industrial production index:
The index number of industrial production measures changes in the level of industrial production comprising many industries. It includes the production of the public and the private sector. It is a weighted average of quantity relatives. In India, it is currently calculated every month with 1993 – 94 as the base.

4. Index number of agricultural production:
The index number of agricultural production is a weighted average of quantity relatives. Its base period is the triennium ending 1981 – 82. In 2003 – 04 the index number of agricultural production was 179.5.

It means that agricultural production has increased by 79.5 percent over the average of the three years 1979 – 80, 1980 – 81 and1981 – 82. Foodgrains have a weight of 62.92 percent in this index.

5. Producer Price Index:
The producer price index number measures price changes from the producers’ perspective. It uses only basic prices including taxes, trade margins, and transport costs.

Students can Download Chapter 7 Correlation Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Correlation

Plus One Economics Correlation One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who developed rank correlation co-efficient.
(i) Karl Pearson
(ii) Karl Marx
(iii) Spearman
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) Spearman

Question 2.
If r= +1, if shows:
(i) Positive correlation
(ii) Perfect positive correlation
(iii) No correlation
(iv) Rank correlation
Answer:
(ii) Perfect positive correlation

Question 3.
If ‘r’ is positive the two variables will more in
(i) Opposite direction
(ii) Inverse direction
(iii) Same direction
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) Same direction

Question 4.
Which of the following correlation can be used to measure numerically only leniar relationship between two variables?
(i) Karl Pearsons coefficient of correlation
(ii) Spearman correlation
(iii) Rank correlation
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(i) Karl Pearsons coefficient of correlation

Question 5.
The unit of correlation coefficient between height in feet and weight in kgs is
(i) kg/feet
(ii) percentage
(iii) non-existent
Answer:
(iii) non-existent

Question 6.
The range of simple correlation coefficient is
(i) 0 to infinity
(ii) minus one to plus one
(iii) minus infinity to infinity
Answer:
(ii) minus one to plus one

Question 7.
If r_xy is positive the relation between X and Y is of the type.
(i) When Y increases X increases
(ii) When Y decreases X increases
(iii) When Y increases X does not change
Answer:
(i) When Y increases X increases

Question 8.
If r_xy = 0 the variable X and Y are
(i) linearly related
(ii) not linearly related
(iii) independent
Answer:
(ii) not linearly related

Question 9.
Of the following three measures which can measure any type of relationship
(i) Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation
(ii) Spearman’s rank correlation
(iii) Scatter diagram
Answer:
(iii) Scatter diagram

Question 10.
If precisely measured data are available the simple correlation coefficient is
(i) more accurate than rank correlation coefficient
(ii) less accurate than rank correlation coefficient
(iii) as accurate as the rank correlation coefficient
Answer:
(iii) as accurate as the rank correlation coefficient

Question 11.
Define correlation.
Answer:
Correlation studies and measures the direction and intensity of relationship among variables.

Question 12.
Write the formula for calculating correlation.
Answer:
1. Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation
\(r=\frac{\sum x y}{\sqrt{\sum x^{2} \times \sum y^{2}}}\)

2. Spearman’s Rank correlation coefficient
\(R=1-\frac{6 \Sigma D^{2}}{N\left(N^{2}-1\right)}\)

Plus One Economics Correlation Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can r lie outside the -1 and 1 range depending on the type of data?
Answer:
No, r cannot lie outside -1 and 1 range depending on the types of data. It lies between minus one and plus one.

Question 2.
Indicate the kind of relationship between X and Y, if the points of the scatter diagram tend to cluster about.

1. A straight line sloping upward.
2. A straight line sloping downward.

Answer:

1. A straight line sloping upward: it is the case of positive correlation.
2. A straight line sloping downward: it is the case of negative correlation.

Question 3.
Name the correlation mentioned in the graph.

Answer:
(a) Positive correlation
(b) Negative correlation
(c) No correlation
(d) Perfect positive correlation
(e) Perfect negative correlation

Question 4.
Give two examples each for positive and negative correlation.
Answer:
1. Positive Correlation

• Relation between price and supply
• Relation between height and weight

2. Negative Correlation

• Relation between price and demand
• Sale of woolen garment and day temperature

Question 5.
What are perfect correlations? Give examples.
Answer:
Perfect correlation is that where changes in two related variables are exactly proportional. It is of two types:
a) Positive perfect correlation and
b) Negative perfect correlation
There is perfect positive correlation between the two variables of equal proportional changes are in the same direction. It is expressed as +1. If equal proportional changes are in the reverse direction. Then there is negative perfect correlation and it is described as -1.

Question 6.
Show in scatter diagram the following.

1. Positive correlation
2. Negative correlation

Answer:

Plus One Economics Correlation Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Interpret the values for as 1, -1 and 0.
r=1 r = -1 r = 0
Answer:
r as 1 means that there is perfect positive relationship between two variables r as -1 means that there is perfect negative relationship between two variables r as 0 means that there lack correlation between two variables

Question 2.
List some variables where accurate measurement is difficult.
Answer:
The following are some variables where accurate measurement is difficult.

• Secularism
• Honesty
• Beauty
• Impartiality
• Patriotism

Question 3.
State the nature of relationship.

1. sale of woolen garments and the day temperature
2. amount of rainfall and yield of crop
3. the colour of dress and intelligence of the lady

Answer:

1. negative correlation
2. positive correlation
3. no correlation

Question 4.
Write down the merits of scatter diagram.
Answer:
Merits of scatter diagram are pointed out below:

1. It is a very simple method of studying correlation.
2. Just a glance of the diagram will show the relationship.
3. It indicates whether the relationship is positive or negative.

Question 5.
Construct a flow chart showing the methods of measuring correlation?
Answer:

Question 6.
Illustrate positive correlation and negative correlation.
Answer:
Correlation is commonly classified into negative and positive correlation.
The correlation is said to be positive when the variables move together in the same direction. When the income rises, consumption also rises. When income falls, consumption also falls. For instance, sale of ice-cream and temperature move in the same direction.

The correlation is negative when they move in opposite directions. When the price of apples falls its demand increases. When the prices rise its demand decreases. When you spend more time in studying, chances of your failing decline. These are instances of negative correlation. The variables move in opposite direction.

Question 7.
Calculate the coefficient of correlation from the following data.

Answer:

Question 8.
The following are the ranks obtained by 10 students in two subjects. Calculate Spearman’s rank correlation.

Answer:

Question 9.
Calculate coefficient of correlation using the following data.

Answer:

Plus One Economics Correlation Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient? Point out the situations where it is used. Also, bring about its usefulness.
Answer:
Spearman’s rank correlation was developed by the British psychologist C.E. Spearman. It is used when the variables cannot be measured meaningfully as in the case of price, income, weight, etc. The ranking may be more meaningful when the measurements of the variables are suspect.

There are also situations when you are required to quantify qualities such as fairness, honesty, etc. Ranking may be a better alternative to the quantification of qualities. Moreover, sometimes the correlation coefficient between two variables with extreme values may be quite different from the coefficient without the extreme values. Under these circumstances, rank correlation provides a better alternative to simple correlation.

Rank correlation coefficient and simple correlation coefficient have the same interpretation. Its formula has been derived from simple correlation coefficient where individual values have been replaced by ranks. These ranks are used for the calculation of correlation. This coefficient provides a measure of linear association between ranks assigned to these units, not their values. It is the Product Moment Correlation between the ranks.

Question 2.
“Correlation Coefficient has certain essential properties”-substantiate.
Answer:
Correlation Coefficient has certain essential properties as discussed below.
1. r has no unit. It is a pure number. It means units of measurement are not part of r. r between height in feet and weight in kilograms, for instance, is 0.7.

2. A negative value of /-indicates an inverse relation. A change in one variable is associated with change in the other variable in the opposite direction. When price of a commodity rises, its demand falls. When the rate of interest rises the demand for funds also falls. It is because now funds have become costlier.

3. If r is positive the two variables move in the same direction. If/”= 0 the two variables are uncorrelated. There is no linear relation between them. However other types of relationships may be there.

4. If r = 1 or r = -1 the correlation is perfect. The relation between them is exact.

5. A high value of r indicates strong linear relationship. Its value is said to be high when it is close to+1 or-1.

6. A low value of r indicates a weak linear relation. Its value is said to be low when it is dose to zero.

7. The value of the correlation coefficient lies between minus one and plus one, -1 < r < +1. If, in any exercise, the value of r \s outside this range indicates error in calculation.

8. The value of r is unaffected by the change of origin and change of scale. Given two variables X and Y let us define two new variables.

Question 3.
Illustrate the following ideas in scatter diagrams.
i. Positive correlation
ii. Perfect positive correlation
iii. Negative correlation
iv. Perfect negative correlation No correlation
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 6 Measures of Dispersion Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Measures of Dispersion

Plus One Economics Measures of Dispersion One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find out the measure of dispersion from the following.
Answer:
(i) Range
(ii) Mean deviation
(iii) Standard deviation
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 2.
Variance is equal to:
(i) SD
(ii) SD²
(iii) √SD
(iv) SD/2
Answer:
(ii) SD²

Question 3.
Lorenz curve is used to measure
Answer:
(i) Literacy rate
(ii) Unemployment
(iii) Inequality
(iv) None of these
Answer:
(iii) Inequality

Question 4.
Which is the graphical method of determining dispersion?
(i) Range
(ii) Q.D
(iii) S.D
(iv) Lorenz curve
Answer:
(iv) Lorenz curve

Question 5.
Which among the following is not an absolute measure of dispersion?
(i) Range
(ii) Co-efficient of variation
(iii) Mean deviation
(iv) Standard deviation
Answer:
(ii) Co-efficient of variation

Question 6.
Which of the following is the most widely used measure of dispersion?
(i) Range
(ii) Standard deviation
(iii) Mean deviation
(iv) Quartile deviation
Answer:
(ii) Standard deviation

Question 7.
Which of the following is useful in comparing the variability of two or more distributions?
(i) Lorenz Curve
(ii) Standard deviation
(iii) Mean deviation
(iv) Quartile deviation
Answer:
(iii) Mean deviation

Question 8.
Which of the following is not based on all the values?
(i) Mean deviation from mean
(ii) Mean deviation from median.
(iii) Range
(iv) Standard deviation
Answer:
(iii) Range

Question 9.
Mean deviation
(i) is least when calculated from median and higher when calculated from mean.
(ii) is least when calculated from mean and higher when calculated from median.
(iii) same when calculated from median and mean.
(iv) cannot be calculated either from median or mean.
Answer:
(i) is least when calculated from median and higher when calculated from mean.

Question 10.
Mention the purpose for which Lorenz Curve is drawn.
Answer:
Lorenz curve is drawn for the presentation of inequality (or dispersion)

Plus One Economics Measures of Dispersion Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which measure of dispersion is the best and how?
Answer:
Standard deviation is the best measure of dispersion. Because it possesses most of the characteristics of an ideal measure of dispersion.

Question 2.
Range is not based on all the values. Do you agree? Substantiate.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement that range is not based on all the values. It is simply the difference between the largest (L) and the smallest value (S) in a distribution. Therefore, range cannot be considered as a good measure of dispersion.

Question 3.
Give two limitations of range.
Answer:
Given below two limitations of range.

1. range is unduly affected by extreme values
2. range is not based on all values.

Question 4.
Differentiate between range and interquartile range.
Answer:
Range is the difference between the value of extreme while interquartile range is the difference between quarter extreme values of the series.

Question 5.
Some measures of dispersion depend upon the spread of values whereas some calculate the variation of values from a central value. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement. Range and quartile deviation measure the dispersion by calculating the spread within which the values lie. That is they de-pend.on the spread of values. On the other hand, mean deviation and standard deviation calculate the variation of value from a central value.

Question 6.
Write the merits and demerits of mean deviation.
Answer:
1. Merits

• It is based on all observations
• It is less affected by extreme items
• It is easy to calculate & simple to understand

2. Demerits

• It ignores + signs
• It is difficult to compute when
• or median comes infraction.

Plus One Economics Measures of Dispersion Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Calculate coefficient of standard deviation from the following information SD = 22.4, Mean = 159
Answer:
Coefficient of standard deviation = \(\frac{\mathrm{SD}}{\bar{x}} \times 100\)
\(=\frac{22.4}{159} \times 100=0.14 \times 100=14\)

Question 2.
Following are certain measures of dispersion. Classify them into absolute measures and relative measures.
{Range, Coefficient of variation, Mean Deviation, Coefficient of Quartile Deviation, coefficient of Range, Standard deviation}
Answer:

Question 3.
Find odd ones out and justify your answer.

1. range, quartile deviation, mode, standard deviation
2. scatter, spread, variation, correlation
3. Range, Mean Deviation, coefficient of variation, Standard deviation.

Answer:

1. Mode. Others are methods of studying measures of dispersion.
2. Correlation. Others are different expressions of dispersion.
3. Coefficient of variation. Others are absolute measures of dispersion.

Question 4.
Calculate the coefficient of variation, if,
Number of Boys = 72
Average Height = 68
The variance of distribution = 9
Answer:

Question 5.
Point out features of good measure of dispersion.
Answer:
The features of a good measure of dispersion are pointed out below:

• It should be easy to understand
• It should be simple to calculate
• It should be rigidly defined
• It should be based on all observations
• It should not be affected by extreme values

Question 6.
The size of landholdings of 5 persons are given below:

1. Analyse the data by measuring the dispersion using the easiest method.
2. What are the drawbacks of that method?

Answer:
1. Range is the simplest method of studying dispersion.
Range = L – S
where L = Largest item
S = Smallest item
Range = 6 – 0.5 = 5.5 acres
2.

• It is not based on each and every item of the distribution.
• It is subject to fluctuations from sample to sample.
• It cannot be computed in case of open-end classes.

Question 7.
If the sum of 10 values is 100 and the sum of their square is 1090, find the coefficient of variation.
Answer:

Plus One Economics Measures of Dispersion Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In a town, 25% of the persons earned more than Rs 45,000 whereas 75% earned more than 18,000. Calculate the absolute and relative values of dispersion.
Answer:
We get the following information from the above.
Q1 = Rs. 18000 and Q3 = Rs. 45000
Absolute measure of dispersion (quartile deviation)
= Q3 – Q1/2 = 45000 – 18000/2
= Rs. 13500
Relative measure of dispersion (coefficient of Q. D)
= Q3-Q1/Q3 + Q1
= 45000 -18000 / 45000 + 18000
= 27000/63000
= 3/7
= 0.43

Question 2.
What do you mean by dispersion? Name the important methods of measuring dispersion.
Answer:
Dispersion is the extent to which values in a distribution differ from the average of the distribution.
To quantify the extent of the variation, there are certain measures namely:

1. Range
2. Quartile Deviation
3. Mean Deviation
4. Standard Deviation
5. Lorenz curve

Question 3.
Mention the merits of standard deviation.
Answer:
Merits of standard deviation are:

1. It is rigidly defined
2. It is based on all observations
3. It takes algebraic signs in consideration
4. It serves the basis of other measures like correlation.

Question 4.
The number of telephone calls received at an exchange in 245 successive one-minute intervals are shown in the following frequency distribution. Compute the mean deviation about the median.

Answer:

Question 5.
The coefficient of variation of two series are 58% and 69% and their standard deviation are 21.2 and 15.6. Calculate their mean.
Answer:

Question 6.
Calculate the standard deviation.

Answer:

Plus One Economics Measures of Dispersion Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following.

Answer:

Plus One Economics Measures of Dispersion Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by Lorenz curve? Give the steps required in the Construction of the Lorenz Curve.
Answer:
The measures of dispersion discussed so far give a numerical value of dispersion. A graphical measure called Lorenz Curve is available for estimating dispersion. In constructing a Lorenz curve, the following steps are involved.

1. Calculate class mid-points and find cumulative totals
2. Calculate cumulative frequencies
3. Express the grand totals and convert the cumulative totals in these columns into percentages,
4. Now, on the graph paper, take the cumulative percentages of the variable on Y-axis and cumulative percentages of frequencies on X-axis. Thus each axis will have values from ‘0’to ‘100’.
5. Draw a line joining Co-ordinate (0, 0) with (100,100). This is called the line of equal distribution
6. Plot the cumulative percentages of the variable with corresponding cumulative percentages of frequency.
7. Join these points to get the curve OAC.

Question 2.
Calculate

1. standard deviation and
2. mean deviation

from the following data.
X = 7, 9, 18, 11, 10, 8, 17, 13, 11, 16
Answer:

1. Standard deviation
\(s=\sqrt{\frac{\sum d^{2}}{N}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{134}{10}}=3.66\)

2. Median deviation
\(M D=\frac{\Sigma|d|}{N}=\frac{32}{10}=3.2\)

Question 3.
The following table gives the distribution of income of 100 families in a village. Calculate standard deviation.

Answer:

Question 4.
Write down the formula for finding out various measures of dispersion.
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 9 Small Business Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examination

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Small Business

Plus One Small Business Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define small scale industries.
Answer:
Small scale industry:
A small scale industrial undertaking is defined as one in which the investment in fixed assets of plant and machinery does not exceed rupees one crore.

Question 2.
State the features of cottage industries.
Answer:
Cottage industries:
cottage industries are characterised by certain features:

1. These are organised by individuals, with private resources.
2. Normally use family labour and locally available talent.
3. The equipment used is simple.
4. Capital investment is small.
5. Produce simple products, normally in their own premises.
6. Production of goods using indigenous technology.

Plus One Small Business Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the problems faced by small scale industries. (3)
Answer:
Problems of small business:
Small businesses are faced with the following problems:

1. Small scale industries find it difficult to get adequate finance from banks and other financial institutions.
2. They are not able to get quality raw materials at reasonable prices.
3. Small business is generally operated by people who may not have all the managerial skills required to run the business.
4. Small business firms cannot afford to pay higher salaries to the employees. So productivity per employee is relatively low and employee turnover is generally high.
5. Small business depends excessively on middlemen for marketing the products. Middlemen exploit them by paying low price and delayed payments.
6. Small business organization uses outdated technology to produce products. So they cannot compete with global enterprises with low quality products.
7. Due to lack of marketing skills or lack of demand, many small business firms have to operate below full capacity.
8. Use of outdated technology results low productivity and uneconomical production.
9. Small-scale units find it very difficult to compete .with the product of multinational companies which are comparatively very cheap and of better quality
10. Other important problems are poor project planning, inefficient management, transportation problems, lack of power, and lack of adequate warehousing, etc.

Plus One Small Business Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write short note on

1. NSIC
2. DIC (4)

Answer:
1. National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC):
This was set up in 1955 to promote, aid and foster the growth of small scale units in India.
Functions of NSIC :

• It supplies imported machines and raw materials to small scale industries on easy hire-purchase schemes.
• It exports the products of small units.
• It provides technology to small scale Industries.
• Helps in up-gradation of technology
• Provides advisory service
• Developing software technology parks and technology transfer centres.

2. The District Industries Centers (DICs):
DICs were established in May 1978. District Industries Centers is the institution at the district level which provides all the services and support facilities to the entrepreneurs for setting up small and village industries. Identification of suitable schemes, preparation of feasibility reports, arranging for credit, machinery and equipment, provision of raw materials and other extension services are the main activities undertaken by these centers.

Question 2.
What measures has the government taken to solve the problem of finance and marketing in the small scale sector? (4)
Answer:
Government assistance to small Industries and Small Business:
Institutional Support:
1. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):
NABARD was set up in 1982 to promote integrated rural development.
Functions of NABARD:

• It provides financial support to small Industries, cottage and village industries and agriculture.
• It provides counseling and consultancy services.
• It also organises training and development programme for rural entrepreneurs.

2. The Rural Small Business Development Centre (RSBDC):
It aims at providing management and technical support to current and prospective micro and small entrepreneurs in rural areas. RSBDC has organized several programmes on rural entrepreneurship, skill upgradation workshops, training programmes, etc.

3. National small Industries Corporation (NSIC):
This was set up in 1955 to promote, aid and foster the growth of small scale units in India.
Functions of NSIC :

• It supplies imported machines and raw materials to small scale industries on easy hire-purchase schemes.
• It exports the products of small units.

4. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):
SIDBI was set up in 1980. SIDBI is the main financial Institution for financing and development of small Business in India.
Functions of SIDBI:

• Helps SSI unit for modernization and technology upgradation by providing loan
• Meet working capital requirements of SSI.

5. The National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector (NCEUS):
The NCEUS was constituted in September, 2004.
The objectives of NCEUS:

• To recommend measures for improving the productivity of small enterprises
• To generate more employment opportunities in rural areas

6. Rural and Women Entrepreneurship Development (RWED):
RWE provides the following services:

• Creating a business environment that encourages initiatives of rural and women entrepreneurs.
• Enhancing the human and institutional capacities required to foster entrepreneurial dynamism and enhance productivity.
• Providing training manuals for women entrepreneurs and training them.
• Rendering all types of advisory services.

7. World Association for Small and Medium Enterprises (WASME):
It is the only International Non-Governmental Organisation of micro, small and medium enterprises based in India, which set up an International Committee for Rural Industrialisation. Its aim is to develop an action plan model for sustained growth of rural enterprises.

There are several schemes to promote the non-farm sector initiated by the Government of India, i.e. IRDP, PMRY, TRYSEM, JRY, Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA) etc.

8. Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI):
To make the traditional industries more productive and competitive, the Central Government set up a fund with₹100 crores.
The main objectives of the scheme are as follows:

• To develop clusters of traditional industries in various parts of the country
• To make traditional industries competitive, profitable and sustainable
• To create employment opportunities in traditional industries.

9. The District Industries Centers (DICs):
DICs were established in May 1978. District Industries Centers is the institution at the district level which provides all the services and support facilities to the entrepreneurs for setting up small and village industries.

Identification of suitable schemes, preparation of feasibility reports, arranging for credit, machinery and equipment, provision of raw materials and other extension services are the main activities undertaken by these centers.

Plus One Small Business Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the incentives provided by the Government for industries in backward and hilly areas? (5)
Answer:
Incentives:
The incentives offered by the government to develop backward areas are:

1. Availability of land at concessional rate.
2. Supply power at a concessional rate of 50% or exempt such units from payment in the initial years.
3. Water is supplied on a no-profit, no-loss basis or with 50 percent concession or exemption from water charges for a period of 5 years.
4. All union territories, industries are exempted from sales tax,
5. Most states have abolished octroi.
6. Units located in backward areas get scarce raw materials at concessional rates.
7. Subsidy of 10-15% for building capital asset. Loans are offered at concessional rates.
8. Some states encourage setting up of industrial estates in backward areas.
9. Exemption from paying taxes for 5 or 10 years is given to industries established in backward, hilly and tribal areas.

Question 2.
Small scale industrial sector has an important role in Indian economy. To meet the financial and developmental needs of small business in India a separate bank had been set up. (5)

1. Give the name of the bank.
2. What are its major functions?

Answer:
1. SIDBI: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). SIDBI was set up in 1980. SIDBI is the main financial Institution for financing and development of small Business in India.

2. Functions of SIDBI:

• Helps SSI unit for modernisation and technology upgradation by providing loan
• Meet working capital requirements of SSI.
• Provides means forthe rehabilitation of sick units
• Provides service like leasing, hire purchase, venture capital financing etc.
• Provide equity support to small entrepreneurs.

Plus One Small Business Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Describe the role of small business in rural India. (6)
Answer:
Role of small business in Rural India:

1. Cottage and rural industries provide employment opportunities in the rural areas especially for the traditional artisans and the weaker sections of society.
2. It prevents migration of rural population to urban areas in search of employment.
3. Small business helps to eradicate poverty, income inequalities, etc in rural area.
4. Small scale industries are powerful instrument for the accelerated industrial growth and creating productive employment in rural and backward areas.

Plus One Small Business Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do small scale industries contribute to the socio-economic development of India? (8)
Answer:
Role of small business in India:

1. Small industries are labour intensive and less capital intensive. They generate more number of employment opportunities.
2. The share of product from small industries is 45% of total export from India. So it earn valuable foreign exchange.
3. Small scale Industries produces a wide variety of goods e.g. readymade garments, stationery, soaps, leather goods, plastic and rubber goods.
4. The contribution of small industries to the balanced regional development of the country is very significant.
5. Small industries provide ample opportunity for entrepreneurship.
6. It enjoys the advantage of low cost of production because they used local resources in their product.
7. Due to the small size of the organisation, quick and timely decisions can be taken without consulting many people.
8. Small industries are best suited for the products which are designed according to the taste, needs and preferences of the customers.
9. Small industries maintain good personal relations with both customers and employees.

Students can Download Chapter 8 Sources of Business Finance Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examination

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Sources of Business Finance

Plus One Sources of Business Finance One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Equity shareholders are called
(a) Owners of the company
(b) Partners of the company
(c) Executive of the company
(d) Guardians of the company
Answer:
(a) Owners of the company

Question 2.
Fund required for purchasing current assets is an example of __________
Answer:
Working capital

Question 3.
Under the lease agreement, the lessee get the rights to __________
Answer:
Use the asset for a specified period.

Question 4.
Under the factoring agreement, the factor
Answer:
Collects the client’s debt or account receivables.

Question 5.
Internal sources of capital are those that are
Answer:
generated within the business.

Question 6.
Preference shares abd equity shares are called ____________ securities.
Answer:
Ownership Securities

Question 7.
Equity shareholders are called
(a) Owners of the company
(b) Partners of the company
(c) Executives of the company
(d) Guardians of the company
Answer:
(a) Owners of the company

Question 8.
Equity share capital is called ________ capital
Answer:
Risk

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of equity shares?
(a) Voting rights
(b) Ownership security
(c) Fixed rate of return
(d) Residual owners
Answer:
(c) Fixed rate of return

Question 10.
Which source is called as permanent source of capital?
Answer:
Equity Share Capital

Question 11.
__________ shareholders have the right to control the company.
Answer:
Equity Shareholders

Question 12.
Which source is called as permanent source of capital?
Answer:
Equity Share Capital

Question 13.
Sumesh an NRI is interested to invest in companies, but he is not ready to take up more risk. Which type of security he should buy?
Answer:
Preference shares.

Question 14.
_________ shareholders have the right to get dividend at a fixed rate .
Answer:
Preference shareholders

Question 15.
This source of finance is called ‘internal source of financing’ and ‘self financing’. Identify the source of finance and mention its three merits.
Answer:
Ploughing back of profit

Question 16.
Retained earnings are parts of __________ capital.
Answer:
Ownership Capital

Question 17.
Employment of corporate savings use of accumulated saving in the business in the form of reserves is called
Answer:
Ploughing back of profits

Question 18.
___________ are the cheapest source of finance.
Answer:
Retained earnings

Question 19.
___________ are called creditorship securities
Answer:
Debentures

Question 20.
Debentures which are secured by a charge on the assets of the company are called _________
Answer:
Secured debentures

Question 21.
Debentures which can be converted in equity shares are called _________
Answer:
Convertable debentures

Question 22.
Debenture issued without the name of owner is __________ debenture.
Answer:
Unregistered or naked

Question 23.
Which of the following is not a characterstics features of debentures?
(a) Ownership security
(b) Generally secured
(c) Participate in the surplus profit
(d) Guarantee of returms
Answer:
(c) Participate in the surplus profit

Question 24.
An Indian Company can now raise funds not only from India but also through foreign equity participation. How is it possible?
Answer:

1. GDRs
2. ADRs
3. FDI

Question 25.
Expand the term GDR
Answer:
Global Depositors Receipts.

Question 26.
Expand the term ADR
Answer:
American Depository Receipt

Question 27.
ADRs are issued in
(a) Canada
(b) China
(c) India
(d) USA
Answer:
(d) USA

Question 28.
Identify the type of financial services belonged to each cash explain its features.

1. Acquired a machinery for monthly rental basis from an outside agency.
2. Gives the right for collecting their accounts receivable to a specialised agency.
3. An organization which collects and pools funds from public and invests in securities.

Answer:

1. Leasing
2. Factoring
3. Mutual fund

Question 29.
A company decided to raise its funds by selling its account receivables to an agency. Which type of financial service is maintaining here.
Answer:
Factoring

Question 30.
I render specialized services to companies in the collection of their accounts receivables.
Answer:
Factoring

Question 31.
State the appropriate term to denote the arrangement of acquiring the right to use an asset without actually owning it.
Answer:
Leasing

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is business finance? Why do businesses need funds? Explain. (2)
Answer:
Nature of Business Finance:

1. Fixed capital requirements:
In order to start a business funds are needed to purchase fixed assets like land and building, plant and machinery. This is called fixed capital requirement.

2. Working Capital requirements:
A business needs funds for its day to day operation. This is known as working Capital requirements. Working capital is required for purchase of raw materials, to pay salaries, wages, rent and taxes.

Question 2.
These are shares which carry preferential rights over the equity shares. Being a commerce student, identify this type of share. And state its 2 preferential rights. (2)
Answer:
Preference shares.
Their preferential rights are:

1. The right to get a fixed rate of divided
2. The right to claim repayment of capital in the event of winding up of the company.

Question 3.
Match the following

1. Equity share – Fixed percentage of interest
2. Debenture – International source of finance
3. Preference share – Real owner
4. American depository – No voting right receipt

Answer:

1. Equity share – Real owner
2. Debenture – Fixed percentage of interest
3. Preference share – No voting right
4. American depository receipt – International source of finance

Question 4.
An Indian company can expand not only through the fund in India but also from foreign equity participation. How is it possible? (2)
Answer:
FDI. It refers to direct subscription to the equity capital of an Indian company by a multinational corporation. It includes Establishment of a new enterprise in a foreign.

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An Indian company can now raise funds not only from India, but also through foreign equity participation. How is it possible? Explain
Answer:
GDR: Global Depository Receipts are issued by an Indian company to an intermediary abroad called an Overseas Depository Bank. They are issued and traded in European capital market.

ADR: American Depository receipts are issued and traded in U.S.A.

Question 2.
List sources of raising long-term and short-term finance. (3)
Answer:
Long Term Sources:
The amount of funds required by a business for more than five years is called long-term finance. Generally this type
of finance is required for the purchase of fixed assets like land and building, plant and machinery furniture, etc. It include sources such as shares and debentures, long-term borrowings and loans from financial institutions.

Short Term Sources:
Short-term funds are those which are required for a period not exceeding one year. These sources include Trade credit, loans from commercial banks and commercial papers etc. Short-term finance is used for financing of current assets such as accounts receivable and inventories.

Question 3.
Name any three special financial institutions and state their objectives. (3)
Answer:
Financial Institutions:
The state and central government have established many financial institutions to provide finance to companies. These institutions aim at promoting the industrial development of a country, these are also called ‘development Bank’. These are IFCI, ICICI, IDBI and LIC, UTI.

This source of financing is considered suitable when large funds for longer duration are required for expansion, reorganisation and modernisation of an enterprise.
Merits:

1. Financial Institution provide long term finance which is not provided by Commercial Bank
2. These institutions provide financial, managerial and technical advice and consultancy to business firms.
3. It increases the goodwill of the borrowing company in the capital market.
4. As repayment of loan can be made in easy installments, it does not prove to be much of a burden on the business.
5. The funds are made available even during periods of depression, when other sources of finance are not available.

Limitations:

1. The procedure for granting loan is time consuming due to rigid criteria and many formalities.
2. Financial Institution place restrictions on the powers of the borrowing company.
3. Financial institutions may have their nominees on the Board of Directors of the borrowing company thereby restricting the autonomy of the company.

Question 4.
While presenting a seminar paper on different sources of business finance, your friend Vineeth, pointed out that “ownership capital is the risk capital of the business”. Can you explain why it is called risk capital? (3)
Answer:
Equity shareholders are the real owners of the company. Equity shareholders will get their dividend only after dividend is paid to preference shareholders. They can claim back their capital only on winding up after discharging all other liabilities of the company. So we can say that ownership capital is the risk capital of the business.

Question 5.
“ADR & GDR serves the same purpose whenever shares are issued abroad by Indian companies”. Then why can’t we call them by the same name? (3)
Answer:
The important differences between ADR and GDR are:

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the difference between internal and external sources of raising funds?
Answer:

Question 2.
What is the difference between GDR and ADR? (4)
Answer:

Question 3.
Discuss the financial instruments used in international financing. (4)
Answer:
International Financing:

1. Commercial Banks:
Commercial banks all over the world extend foreign currency loans for business purposes. Standard chartered is a major source of foreign currency loan to the Indian industry.

2. International Agencies and Development Banks:
A number of international agencies and development banks provide long and medium term loans and grants to promote the development of economically backward areas in the world. Eg. International Finance Corporation (IFC), EXIM Bank and Asian Development Bank.

3. International Capital Markets:

a. Global Depository Receipts (GDR’s):
Under GDR, shares of the company are first converted into depository receipts by international banks. These depository receipts are denominated in US dollars. Then these depository receipts are offered for sale globally through foreign stock exchanges. GDR is a negotiable instrument and can be traded freely like any other security.

The holder of GDRs are entitled for dividend just like shareholders. But they do not enjoy the voting rights. Many Indian companies like ICICI, Wipro etc. have raised foreign capital through issue of GDRs.
Feature of GDR:

• GDR can be listed and traded on a stock exchange of any foreign country other than America.
• It is negotiable instrument.
• A holder of GDR can convert it into the shares.
• Holder gets dividends
• Holder does not have voting rights.
• Many Indian companies such as Reliance, Wipro and ICICI have issue GDR.

b. American Depository Receipts (ADR’s):
The depository receipts issued by a company in the USA are known as American Depository Receipts.
Feature of ADR:

• It can be issued only to American Citizens.
• It can be listed and traded is American stock exchange.
• Indian companies such as Infosys, Reliance issued ADR

Question 4.
Explain different types of Preference shares. (4)
Answer:
Types of Preference Shares:

a. Cumulative and Non-cumulative Preference Share:
in cumulative preference shares, the unpaid dividends are accumulated and carried forward for payment in future years. On the other hand, in non- cumulative preference share, the dividend is not accumulated if it is not paid out of the current year’s profit.

b. Participating and Non-participating Preference Share:
Participating preference shares have a right to share the profit after making payment to the equity shares. The non-participating preference shares do not enjoy such a right.

c. Convertible and Non-convertible Preference Share:
The preference shares which can be converted into equity shares after a specified period of time are known as convertible preference share. Non-convertible shares cannot be converted into equity shares.

d. Redeemable and Irredeemable Preference Share:
Redeemable preference shares are those where the company undertakes to repay it after a specified period. Where the amount of the preference shares is refunded only at the time of liquidation, are known an irredeemable preference shares.

Merits:

1. Preference shares provide reasonably steady income in the form of fixed rate of return and safety of investment.
2. Preference shares are useful for those investors who want fixed rate of return with comparatively low risk

Limitations:

1. Preference shareholders have no voting right.
2. The dividend paid is not deductible from profit for income tax.

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a commercial paper? What are its advantages and limitations. (5)
Answer:
Commercial Paper (CP):
It is an unsecured promissory note issued by a firm to raise funds for a short period. The maturity period of commercial paper usually ranges from 90 days to 364 days. Being unsecured, only firms having good credit rating can issue the CP and its regulation comes under the purview of the Reserve Bank of India.
Merits:

1. A commercial paper does not contain any restrictive conditions.
2. As it is a freely transferable instrument, it has high liquidity.
3. A commercial paper provides a continuous source of funds.
4. They are cheaper than a bank loan.

Limitations:

1. Only financially sound and highly rated firms can raise money through commercial papers
2. The size of money that can be raised through commercial paper is limited
3. Commercial paper is an impersonal method of financing. Extending the maturity of a CP is not possible.
4. Issue of commercial paper is very closely regulated by the RBI guidelines.

Question 2.
Mr. Ganesh, a sole trader, acquired a machinery on a monthly rental basis from an outside agency. Identify the type of financial service in which he entered into. Explain it. (5)
Answer:
Lease Financing:
A lease is a contractual agreement whereby the owner of an asset (lessor) grants the right to use the asset to the other party (lessee). The lessor charges a periodic payment for renting of an asset for some specified period called lease rent.
Merits:

1. It enables the lessee to acquire the asset with a lower investment;
2. Lease rentals paid by the lessee are deductible for computing taxable profits;
3. It provides finance without diluting the ownership or control of business
4. The lease agreement does not affect the debt raising capacity of an enterprise;
5. Simple documentation makes it easier to finance assets.

Limitations:

1. A lease arrangement may impose certain restrictions on the use of assets.
2. The normal business operations may be affected in case the lease is not renewed.
3. The lessee never becomes the owner of the
   asset.

Question 3.
Both Equity shares and Preference shares are ownership funds of a company. But there is significant difference between these two funds. Can you identify the same. (5)
Answer:

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“The issue of debentures provides wide options to the company as well as investors in terms of its features”. Can you substantiate the statement from the point of view of its classification? (8)
Answer:
Debentures:
A debenture is a document issued by a company under its seal to acknowledge its debt. Debenture holders are, therefore, termed as creditors of the company. Debenture holders are paid a fixed rate of interest.
Types of Debentures:

a. Secured and Unsecured Debentures:
Secured (Mortgaged) debentures are debentures which are secured by a charge on the assets of the company. Unsecured (Simple or naked) debentures do not carry any charge or security on the assets of the company.

b. Registered and Bearer Debentures:
In the case registered debentures, the name, address and other details of the debenture holders are entitled in the books of the company. The debentures which are transferable by mere delivery are called bearer (Unsecured) debentures.

c. Convertible and Non-convertible Debentures:
Convertible debentures are those debentures that can be converted into equity shares after the expiry of a specified period. On the other hand, non¬convertible debentures are those which cannot be converted into equity shares.

d. First and Second:
Debentures that are repaid before other debentures are repaid are known as first debentures. The second debentures are those which are paid after the first debentures have been paid back.

Merits:

1. It. is preferred by investors who want fixed income at lesser risk
2. Debenture holder do not have voting right
3. Interest on Debentures is a tax deductable expense
4. It does not dilute control of equity shareholders on management
5. Debentures are less costly as compared to cost of preference shares.
6. They guarantee a fixed rate of interest
7. It enables the company to take the advantage of trading on equity.
8. The issue of debentures is suitable when the sales and earnings are relatively stable

Limitations:

1. It is not suitable for companies with unstable future earnings.
2. The company has to mortgage its assets to issue debentures.
3. Debenture holders do not enjoy any voting rights.
4. In case of redeemable debentures, the company has to make provisions for repayment on the specified date, even during periods of financial difficulty.
5. With the new issue of debentures, the company’s capability to further borrow funds reduces.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Shares and Debentures. (8)
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 7 Formation of a Company Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examination

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Formation of a Company

Plus One Formation of a Company One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Application for approval of name of a company is to be made to
Answer:
Registrar of companies.

Question 2.
A prospectus is issued by
Answer:
Public company

Question 3.
Preliminary contracts are signed
Answer:
Before the incorporation

Question 4.
At which stage in the formation of a company does it interact with SEBI
Answer:
Capital subscription

Question 5.
The first stage in the formation of a company is __________
Answer:
Promotion

Question 6.
“I undertake to form a new company and carry out all the preliminary work in connection with its establishment” Who am I?
Answer:
Promoter

Question 7.
Preliminary Contracts are signed
1. Before the incorporation
2. After incorporation but before capital subscription
3. After incorporation but before of commencement of business
4. After commencement business
Answer:
1. Before the incorporation

Question 8.
Spot the odd one and state the reason
1. Memorandum of Association
2. Articles of Association
3. Certificate of incorporation
4. Certificate of commencement of business
Answer:
5. Certificate of commencement of business

Question 9.
_____________ is the magnacarta of the company.
Answer:
Memorandum of Association

Question 10.
_____________ is the birth certificate of a company.
Answer:
Certificate of incorporation

Question 11.
The procedure for conducting company meetings, voting, quorum, poll and proxy will be mentioned in the
1. Prospectus
2. Memorandum of Association
3. Articles of Association
Answer:
3. Articles of Association

Question 12.
The provision regarding the internal management of a company will appear in its
Answer:
Articles of Association

Question 13.
Public Companies need __________ to commence the business.
Answer:
Certificate of commencement of business

Question 14.
Directors of a public Ltd. Co. decided to give advertisement in all newspapers for subscribing their shares. Identify the document given below
1. table A
2. memorandum of association
3. prospectus
Answer:
3. Prospectus

Question 15.
This clauses is the form of a declaration, it states that the subscribers express the willingness and agreement to form a company. Name the clause of memorandum of association.
Answer:
Association Clause

Question 16.
This clause specifies the name of the state where the registered office of the Co. is situated. Identify the clause.
Answer:
Situation clause

Question 17.
This clause specifies the name of the company.
Answer:
Name clause

Question 18.
Identify the document in which the following information about a company can be found.

1. Object with which the company is formed.
2. Rules and regulations of internal management
3. Investing deposits from the public
4.  Acknowledgement of debt in a company

Answer:

1. Memorandum of Association
2. Articles of Association
3. Mutual fund
4. Debenture

Question 19.
TABLE A is a model of _________ given in companies Act.
Answer:
Articles of Association

Question 20.
Identify the documents in which following information about a company is found.

1. Authorized capital
2.  Rules and regulation for internal management.
3.  Date of opening and closing of subscription list.

Answer:

1. Memorandum of Associaiton
2. Articles of Association
3. Prospectus

Question 21.
Identify the relevant clauses in the memorandum of association in which the following information can be included.

1. The registered office is in Kerala.
2. Statutory declaration by members
3. Ram Limited
4. The scope of activities of company

Answer:

1. Situation clause
2. Association clause
3. Name clause
4. Object clause

Question 22.
State the odd item in the case of a private limited company.
1. memorandum of association
2. articles of association
3. certificate of incorporation
4. certificate of commencement of business
Answer:
4. Certificate of Commencement of business

Question 23.
Mention the name of the certificates/documents relating to following activities / formalities

1. The certificate issued by the Registrar of companies certifying that the company has come into existence.
2. The document, which contains the various rules and regulations that govern the management of the company.
3. The document that defines the objectives of the company.

Answer:

1. Certificate of Incorporation
2. Articles of Association
3. Memorandum of Association

Question 24.
Name the following documents.

1. The document issued by the company to the public to invite them to subscribe its share capital.
2. The document that binds a member with the company, company with members and members with members.
3. The document that contains rules for internal management of the company.
4. The document that specifies the aims of the company.
5. The document issued by the public company which does not want to issue a prospectus.

Answer:

1. Prospectus
2. Articles of Association
3. Articles of Association
4. Memorandum of Association
5. Statement in lieu of Prospectus

Plus One Formation of a Company Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the stages in the formation of a company?
Answer:

1. Promotion
2. Incorporation
3. Capital subscription
4. Commencement of business (2)

Question 2.
Name the stages in the formation of a company. (2)
Answer:

1. Promotion
2. Incorporation
3. Commencement of business

Question 3.
What do you mean by promotion? (2)
Answer:
The identification of business opportunities, analysis of its prospects and initiating steps to form a joint stock company is called promotion.

Question 4.
For incorporating a private limited company, Deepthi Pvt. Ltd., the directors submit all relevant documents to the registrar of company except Articles of Association. But the registrar insists that, registration will not be granted without filing Articles of Association. But the directors of Deepthi Pvt. Ltd., argue that the provisions of ‘Table A’ can be adopted in the absence of Articles of Association. Whose argument is correct? Justify your answer. (2)
Answer:
The argument of the Company Registrar is right because filing of Articles of association is compulsory for Pvt. Ltd company by shares.

Question 5.
Arya Ltd. commences its business immediately on getting the certificate of incorporation. The registrar of companies serves a notice to them for remitting a fine of ₹500 for everyday of its operation. Is it legally enforceable? Give your suggestion. (2)
Answer:
Yes. Public Ltd. Company can commence business only after getting the certificate of commencement of business.

Question 6.
It is proposed to conduct a seminar on the topic ‘important documents in the formation of joint stock company’ in your class. You are selected as the leader of one of the groups and are directed to submit a seminar paper for the same. Suggest valuable points that should be included in the paper. (2)
Answer:

1. Memorandum of Association
2. Articles of Association
3. Prospectus

Question 7.
What do you mean by Minimum Subscription? (2)
Answer:
Minimum subscription is the minimum amount of shares that must be subscribed by the public. This amount is stated in the prospectus. A company can allot shares only after receiving minimum subscription.

Question 8.
I lay down the charter or the constitution of the company. I define the object and powers of the company.

1. Identify who am I?
2. Also name my companion who provides rules and regulations for the internal management of the company. (Both are two documents). (2)

Answer:

1. Memorandum of Association
2. Articles of Association

Plus One Formation of a Company Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Is it necessary for a public company to get its shares listed on a stock exchange? What happens if a public company fails to get the permission from stock exchange? (3)
Answer:
Yes. A public company must list its shares with at least any one of the stock exchange for the allotment of shares. Therefore, the promoters must apply in a stock exchange for permission to deal in its shares or debentures. If permission is not granted before the expiry of ten weeks from the date of Closure of subscription list, the allotment shall become void and the application money must be returned to the applicants within eight days.

Question 2.
State the difference between certificate of incorporation and certificate of commencement of business. (3)
Answer:
Certificate of Incorporation gives legal status to the company. It is also known as birth certificate of the company. But certificate of commencement of business allows to start the operation.

These two certificates are required by the public limited company, but in case of private limited company only certificate of Incorporation is required to start the operation.

Question 3.
Nisha, Shani and Sheena are promoters of a public company. But they do not want to raise capital by approaching the public. They decide to raise capital by issuing shares to a few persons. Is it possible? If yes, what document is used for raising capital? (3)
Answer:
Yes. They can raise capital by issuing shares to a few persons. For this they can issue Statement in lieu of prospectus.

Plus One Formation of a Company Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify the documents required for commencing business for the following companies. (4)

1. Athira Pvt. Ltd.
2. Aditya Ltd.

Answer:
1. Athira Pvt. Ltd – A private company must file the following documents for commencing business

• Certificate of incorporation
• Statutory declaration duly verified by one of the directors.

2. Aditya Ltd., a public company, must file the following documents for commencing business.

• Certificate of incorporation
• Certificate of commencement of business
• Prospectus
• Statutory declaration duly verified by one of the directors.

Question 2.
The details of a proposed private company having limited liability is given below. You are required to identify as to which clauses in the Memorandum of Association have to be rightly inserted. (4)
Proposed names:
Mahatma Gandhi Khadi – Company
Premier Mills (P) Ltd.
Kerala Government Khadi Company
Sobha Co-operative Company
Maximum capital which can be collected is 20 lakhs rupees
Nature of shares
Equity shares at Rs. 10/- share

Address:
Pushpa Nivas Kodunganoor (P.O)
Thiruvananthapuram 13
Kerala State
India.

Nature of business:
To produce Khadi clothes through machine To stitch Khadi ready wears Name of the persons who are wishing to form the company
P. Sudarsanan
K. Muraleedharan Nair
S. Renjith
Answer:

1. Name clause
2. Capital clause
3. Situation clause
4. Object clause
5. Association clause

Plus One Formation of a Company Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Promoter would be personally liable for the preliminary contracts, if they are not ratified by the company after incorporation. Analyse the statement. (5)
Answer:
Promotion:
Promotion is the first stage in the formation of a company. The identification of business opportunities, analysis of its prospects and initiating steps to form a joint stock company is called promotion. The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.

Functions of a Promoter:

1. Identification of business opportunity:
The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.

2. Feasibility studies:
After identifying a business opportunity, the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the viability and profitability of the proposed activity.

• Technical feasibility – To determine whether the raw materials or technology is easily available
• Financial feasibility – To determine the total estimated cost of the project
• Economic feasibility – To determine the I profitability of the proposed project

3. Name approval:
After selecting the name of company the promoters submit an application to the Registrar of companies for its approval. The selected name is not the same or identical to an existing company.

4. Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association:
Promoters have to decide about the members who will be signing the Memorandum of Association of the proposed company.

5. Appointment of professional:
Promoters appoint merchant bankers, auditors etc. to assist them in the preparation of necessary documents.

6. Preparation of necessary documents:
The promoters prepare certain legal documents which are to be submitted to the Registrar of companies. They are

• Memorandum of Association
• Articles of Association,
• Consent of proposed Directors
• Agreement, if any, with proposed managing or whole time director
• Statutory declaration

Position of Promoters:
The promoter is neither an agent nor a trustee of the company. The promoter stands in the fiduciary relationship with the company. He should not make any secret profits out of the dealings. Any, such gains are to be disclosed. The promoter must act honestly, in good faith and in the best interest of the company.

The promoter is personally liable for all the preliminary contracts with the other parties before incorporation. The promoter is also liable for any omission of facts or false statements in the prospectus.

Question 2.
Memorandum of Association is the charter or magna carta of the company. Elucidate the statement. (5)
Answer:
Memorandum of Association:
It is the charter or magnacarta of the company. It defines the objects of the company and provides the framework beyond which the company cannot operate. It lays down the relationship of the company with outside world.

Memorandum of Association must be printed, divided into paragraphs, numbered consecutively. The Memorandum of Association must be signed by at least seven persons in case of a public company and by two persons in case of a private company.

Contents of Memorandum of Association

1. The name clause:
Under this clause the name of the company is mentioned. A company can select any name subject to the following restrictions.

• The proposed name should not be identical with the name of another company
• A name which can mislead the public
• In case of a public company the name should end with the word ‘Limited’ and in case of a private company the name should end with the word ‘Private Limited’
• The name must not directly or indirectly imply any participation of the Central or State Govt.
• The name must not suggest any connection or patronage of a national hero
• It should not include the word cooperative.

2. Registered office clause:
This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated. It must be informed to the Registrar within thirty days of the incorporation of the company.

3. Objects clause:
This is the most important clause of the memorandum. It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.

4. Liability clause:
It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.

5. Capital clause:
This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through, the issue of shares.

6. Association clause:
In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Question 3.
Explain the contents of prospectus. (5)
Answer:
Prospectus:
Prospectus is a document issued by the public companies inviting the public to subscribe for shares or debentures of the company. It contains all information regarding the company’s affairs and its future prospects. A prospectus must be dated and signed by all the directors. A copy of the prospectus must be filed with Registrar before it is issued to public.

Contents of prospectus

1. Name and address of the registered office of the company.
2. Main objects of the company.
3. Classes of shares and debentures.
4. Name, address and occupation of the signatories to the memorandum.
5. Details of the borrowing powers of the company.
6. Name, address and occupation of the directors and managing director.
7. Name and address of the promoters.
8. Minimum subscription.
9. Time of opening and closing of subscription.
10.  The amount payable on application and allotment of each class of shares.
11.  Name of underwriters.
12.  Details of preliminary expenses.
    Companies which do not want to issue a prospectus may submit a statement in lieu of prospectus to the Registrar of Companies. It is a copy of the prospectus but is not issued to the public.

Question 4.
The details of a proposed limited company are given below. You are required to identify them as to which clause of the memorandum of association they have to be inserted. (5)

1. Proposed name: Jnana Construction Company Ltd
2. Maximum Capital: ₹10,00,000
3. Registered office: Kollam
4. Nature of liability: Limited
5. Nature of Business: Construction company
6. Names of promoters: Jnana, Akshara, Pooja, Ajay

Answer:

1. Name clause
2. Capital clause
3. Situation / Domicile clause
4. Liability clause
5. Object clause
6. Association clause

Question 5
A public company can commence business only after getting the certificate of commencement of business. Abhijith, a plus two student wants to know the conditions to be fulfilled to obtain the certificate of commencement of business.
Answer:

Commencement of Business:
A public company can commence business only after getting certificate of commencement of business from the Registrar. The company must file the following documents to obtain the certificate of commencement of business.

1. Declaration that the minimum subscription has been received in cash to allot shares.
2. A declaration that all directors have taken up and paid for their qualification shares
3. A statutory declaration stating that necessary legal formalities have been complied with has to be filed.

The Registrar shall examine these documents. If these are found satisfactory, a ‘Certificate of Commencement of Business’ will be issued. This certificate is conclusive evidence that the company is entitled to do business. With the grant of this certificate the formation of a public company is complete and the company can legally start doing business.
Documents used in the formation of a company

Plus One Formation of a Company Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
I govern the internal affairs of the company. Explain who am ‘I’? List out my contents.
OR
For the purpose of registering a new company, the promoter requires a document containing the rules and regulations governing its internal affairs. (6)

1. What is that document? Explain.
2. State the contents of this statement.

Answer:
Articles of Association:
The Articles of Association is the second important document of a company. The Articles define the rights, duties and powers of the officers and the Board of directors. It contains the rules regarding internal management of the company. It shows the relationship between the company and its members.

Contents of Articles of Association:

1. The share capital of the company and its division.
2. Rights of each class of shareholders.
3. Details of contracts made with different parties.
4. Procedure for making allotment of shares.
5. Procedure for issuing share certificate.
6. Procedure for transfer and transmission of shares.
7. Procedure for forfeiture and reissue of shares.
8. Procedure for conducting meetings, voting, proxy and poll
9. Procedure for appointing, removal and remuneration of directors.
10. Procedure for declaration of and payment of dividend.
11. Keeping books of account and audit of the company.
12. Procedure regarding alteration of share capital.
13. Procedure regarding winding up of the company.

Table A:
A public limited company may adopt Table A which is a model set of articles given in the Companies Act. Table A is a document containing rules and regulations for the internal management of a company. If a company adopts Table A, there is no need to prepare separate Articles of Association.

Question 2.
Vishnu, a promoter of a public company, approaches you to get information relating to raising of capital from public. As a commerce student mention the document required for inviting the public to purchase or subscribe to its shares and debentures. Explain. (6)
Answer:
Prospectus:
Prospectus is a document issued by the public companies inviting the public to subscribe for shares or debentures of the company. It contains all information regarding the company’s affairs and its future prospects. A prospectus must be dated and signed by all the directors. A copy of the prospectus must be filed with Registrar before it is issued to public.

Contents of prospectus:

1. Name and address of the registered office of the company.
2. Main objects of the company.
3. Classes of shares and debentures.
4. Name, address and occupation of the signatories to the memorandum.
5. Details of the borrowing powers of the company.
6. Name, address and occupation of the directors and managing director.
7. Name and address of the promoters.
8. Minimum subscription.
9. Time of opening and closing of subscription.
10. The amount payable on application and allotment of each class of shares.
11. Name of underwriters.
12. Details of preliminary expenses.

Companies which do not want to issue a prospectus may submit a statement in lieu of prospectus to the Registrar of Companies. It is a copy of the prospectus but is not issued to the public.

Question 3.
It is often said that Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association are the first and second important documents of a company. As a commerce student can you differentiate between these two documents? (6)
Answer:

Plus One Formation of a Company Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the steps in the incorporation of a company. (8)
Answer:
Incorporation:
A company comes into existence only when it is registered with the Registrar of Companies. For this purpose the promoter has to take the following steps:
Steps for Incorporation

1. Application for incorporation:
Promoters make an application for the incorporation of the company to the Registrar of companies.

2. Filing of documents:
The following documents must be filed with the Registrar of Companies for incorporation.

• The Memorandum of Association duly stamped, signed and witnessed
• Articles of Association duly stamped, signed and witnessed
• Written consent of the proposed directors
• Agreement, if any, with proposed managing or whole time director
• A copy of the Registrar’s letter approving the name of the company.
• Statutory declaration
• A notice about the exact address of the registered office.
• Documentary evidence of payment of registration fees.

The Registrar verifies the entire document submitted. If he is satisfied then he enters the name of the company in his Register. After the registration, the Registrar issues a Certificate called Certificate of Incorporation. This is called the birth certificate of the company. With effect from November 1, 2000, the Registrar of Companies allots a CIN (Corporate Identity Number) to the Company.

Effect of the Certificate of Incorporation:
Certificate of Incorporation is the conclusive evidence of the legal existence of the company. A private company can commence its business after receiving Certificate of Incorporation. The certificate of incorporation is the birth certificate of the company.

Question 2.
Explain the contents of Memorandum of Association.

Answer:
Memorandum of Association: It is the charter or magnacarta of the company. It defines the objects of the company and provides the framework beyond which the company cannot operate. It lays down the relationship of the company with outside world.

Memorandum of Association must be printed, divided into paragraphs, numbered consecutively. The Memorandum of Association must be signed by at least seven persons in case of a public company and by two persons in case of a private company.

Contents of Memorandum of Association:

1. The name clause:
Under this clause the name of the company is mentioned. A company can select any name subject to the following restrictions.

• The proposed name should not be identical with the name of another company
• A name which can mislead the public
• In case of a public company the name should end with the word ‘Limited’ and in case of a private company the name should end with the word ‘Private Limited’
• The name must not directly or indirectly imply any participation of the Central or State Govt.
• The name must not suggest any connection or patronage of a national hero
• It should not include the word co operative.

2. Registered office clause:
This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated. It must be informed to the Registrar within thirty days of the incorporation of the company.

3. Objects clause:
This is the most important clause of the memorandum. It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.

4. Liability clause:
It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.

5. Capital clause:
This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through, the issue of shares.

6. Association clause:
In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Question 3.
Mr. Hemand, a Gulf returnee, intends to start a business in the form of private limited company. But he lias no clear idea about the business opportunities in Kerala and the formalities to be followed in the formation of company. (8)

1. As a commerce student can you suggest a specialised person who would undertake all activities for the formation of a company?
2. Explain the functions of those specialised persons.

Answer:

Promotion:
Promotion is the first stage in the formation of a company. The identification of business opportunities, analysis of its prospects and initiating steps to form a joint stock company is called promotion. The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.

Functions of a Promoter:

1. Identification of business opportunity:
The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.

2. Feasibility studies:
After identifying a business opportunity, the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the viability and profitability of the proposed activity.

• Technical feasibility – To determine whether the raw materials or technology is easily available
• Financial feasibility – To determine the total estimated cost of the project
• Economic feasibility – To determine the I profitability of the proposed project

3. Name approval:
After selecting the name of company the promoters submit an application to the Registrar of companies for its approval. The selected name is not the same or identical to an existing company.

4. Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association:
Promoters have to decide about the members who will be signing the Memorandum of Association of the proposed company.

5. Appointment of professional:
Promoters appoint merchant bankers, auditors, etc. to assist them in the preparation of necessary documents.

6. Preparation of necessary documents:
The promoters prepare certain legal documents which are to be submitted to the Registrar of companies. They are

• Memorandum of Association
• Articles of Association,
• Consent of proposed Directors
• Agreement, if any, with proposed managing or whole time director
• Statutory declaration

Position of Promoters:
The promoter is neither an agent nor a trustee of the company. The promoter stands in the fiduciary relationship with the company. He should not make any secret profits out of the dealings. Any, such gains are to be disclosed. The promoter must act honestly, in good faith and in the best interest of the company.

The promoter is personally liable for all the preliminary contracts with the other parties before incorporation. The promoter is also liable for any omission of facts or false statements in the prospectus.

Students can Download Chapter 6 Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examination

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify which of the following is not a social responsibility of business _________
1. Offering goods and services at reasonable price.
2. Keeping environment pollution free
3. Giving reasonable pay to workers
4. Help in nation building activities
Answer:
3. Giving reasonable pay to workers

Question 2.
State Bank of India gives scholarship to bright students each year. This is a part of their __________
1. Sales promotion
2. Social responsibility
3. Charity work
4. Business ethics
Answer:
2. Social responsibility

Question 3.
Application of general ethics and principles in business practice is ____________
Answer:
Business ethics

Question 4.
It is the belief in what is right, proper and just. Identify it.
Answer:
Business ethics

Question 5.
______________ is the code of conduct followed and performed by businessmen.
Answer:
Business ethics

Question 6.
Which among the following is not a case for an ethical activity.
1. child labour
2. equal pay for equal work
3. dumbing of waste in river
4. high usage of preservatives in products.
Answer:
2. Equal pay for equal work

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Roy and Rejitha joined in a factory as peons on the same day. Both of them are doing 8 hrs work a day. Roy is paid ₹100 while Rejitha ₹80 per day. Do you think the owner of the factory is fair to Rejitha? If not, give your opinion. (2)
Answer:
No. The owner of the factory is not fair to Rejitha. It is the social and moral responsibility of the business to offer equal pay for equal work without considering any caste, sex, etc.

Question 2.
Explain the need for pollution control. (2)
Answer:
Need for Pollution Control:

1. Reduction of health hazard:
Pollution control measures can check diseases like cancer, heart attack & lung complications and support a healthy life on earth.

2. Reduced Risk of Liability:
It is a sound business policy to install pollution control devices in its premises to reduce the risk of liability of paying compensation to the affected people.

3. Cost Saving:
An effective pollution control programme is needed to save costs of operating business.

4. Improved Public Image:
A firm that adopts pollution control measures enjoys a good reputation as a socially responsible enterprise.

5. Other social benefits:
Pollution control results in many other benefits like clearer visibility, cleaner buildings, better quality of life, and the availability of natural products in a purer form.

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
George is working in a manufacturing industry. The manager compels him to do 10hrs work continuously without giving any additional benefits. Do you agree with the manager? Give your suggestions. (3)
Answer:
No. We cannot agree with the decision of the manager. It is against the social responsibility of the business. George has to work only 8 hours a day. Compelling to do 10 (without any additional benefits) hours is a violation of human right. Managers cannot ask a worker to do work continuously without giving remuneration. It is also a violation of human rights.

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match column A with columns B and C

Answer:

Question 2.
Jaleel, owner of a fish stall, usually sells damaged and decayed fish by pouring chemicals, ice, along with sea sand for creating an impression in the minds of consumers that it is newly caught. Is it justifiable from the point of view of business ethics? How will it affect the reputation of the business? (4)
Answer:
Business ethics refer to the socially determined moral principles which should govern business activities.
A few examples of business ethics are

• charging fair prices from customers
• providing quality products
• using fair weights for measurement of commodities
• giving fair treatment to workers & earning only reasonable profits.

Ethical business behaviour improves public image, earns people’s confidence and trust, and leads to greater success. Selling damaged and decayed fish is unethical.

It will affect the reputation of the business and finally it leads to business loss. He must not goods of low quality for personal gain. No business can make progress without adopting ethical values.

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Anchu, a stationery dealer distributed good quality products at low price by suffering huge losses, in order to eliminate the competition from Chinju, another stationery dealer, in the same locality. When Chinju stopped her business, Anchu started to supply low quality products at high price. (5)

1. Can you justify Anchu’s action from point of view of the society?
2. Give a few undesirable practices which a business follow in a real life situation.

Answer:
1. No. We cannot justify Anchu’s action. It is against business ethics. Business ethics refers to moral values which should be followed in business activities.

2. Examples of unethical practices are

• Providing low quality products at high prices.
• Making misleading advertisements.
• Creating artificial scarcity to increase demand.
• Keeping false accounts to avoid paying taxes.
• Acceptance of bribe for personal benefits.
• Manufacture and sale of adulterated goods.
• Polluting the environment.
• Exploiting workers.

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What steps can an enterprise take to protect the environment from the dangers of pollution? (6)
Answer:
Role of Business in Environmental Protection:

1. A definite commitment by top management to create a work culture for environmental protection

2. Ensuring that commitment of environmental protection is shared throughout the enterprise by all divisions and employees.

3. Developing clear cut policies and programmes for purchasing good quality raw materials, introducing superior technology, using scientific techniques of disposal of waste and developing employee skills for pollution control

4. Complying with the laws and regulations enacted by the Government for prevention of pollution.

5. Participation in government programs relating to management of hazardous substances, cleaning up of polluted rivers, plantation of trees, and checking deforestation.

6. Periodical assessment of pollution control programmes in terms of costs and benefits with a view to improve them.

7. Arranging educational workshops and training materials to share technical information with everyone involved in pollution control.

Question 2.
Explain the elements of business ethics. (6)
Answer:
Business Ethics:
Ethics is concerned with what is right and what is wrong in human behavior. Business ethics refer to the socially determined moral principles which should govern business activities.

Business ethics is the code of conduct followed and performed by every business. Ethical business behavior improves public image earn’s public confidence and leads to greater success.
Examples of Business Ethics:

1. Charging fair prices from customers
2. Using fair weights for measurement of commodities
3. Giving fair treatment to workers
4. Earning reasonable profits.
5. Avoiding adulteration, hoarding etc.
6. Using environmentally friendly products

Elements of Business Ethics:

1. Top management commitment:
The Chief Executive Officer and higher level managers must give continuous leadership for developing and upholding the moral values of the organisation.

2. Publication of a Code:
‘Code’ refers to a formal written document of the principles, values and standards that guide a firm’s actions. It may cover the areas of fundamental honesty and adherence to laws, product safety and quality, health and safety in the workplace, etc.

3. Establishment of Compliance Mechanism:
A suitable mechanism should be developed to comply with the ethical standards of the enterprise.

4. Employees Involvement:
To make ethical business a reality, employees at all levels must be involved.

5. Measuring Results:
Ethical results must be verified and audited that how far work is being carried according to ethical standards.

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Build up arguments for and against social responsibilities. (8)
Answer:
Arguments in favour of Social Responsibility:

1. Justification for Existence and Growth:
The prosperity and growth of business is possible only through continuous service to society.

2. Long term Interest of the firm:
A firm can improve its image and builds goodwill in the long run when its highest goal is to serve the society.

3. Avoidance of government regulations:
Business can avoid the problem of government regulations by voluntarily assuming social responsibilities.

4. Maintenance of society:
Law alone can’t help out people with all the difficulties they face. A socially responsible business can contribute something for social peace and harmony.

5. Availability of resources with business:
Business has valuable financial and human resources which can be effectively used for solving problems of the society.

6. Better environment for doing business:
Social responsibility creates better environment for business operations as it improves quality of life and standard of living of the people.

7. Contribution to social problems:
Some of the social problems have been created by business firms themselves such as pollution, unsafe workplaces, discrimination, etc. Therefore, it is the moral obligation of business to solve such social problems.

Arguments Against Social Responsibility:

1. Violation of profit maximization objective:
According to this argument, business exists only for the maximum profit to its shareholders and do not have responsibility to the society as a whole.

2. Burden on consumers:
Involvement of business in social responsibilities involve a lot of expenditure which will ultimately be borne by the customers.

3. Lack of Social Skills:
The business firms and managers are not expert to tackle the social problems like poverty, overpopulation etc.

4. Lack of public support:
Business cannot fulfill social responsibility because of lack of public confidence & cooperation.

Question 2.
Mr. Biju, a readymade garment manufacturer, is of the view that “different interest groups always claim some sort of protection from the business as such. These interest groups, no doubt consist of persons connected with business in one way or other, such as shareholders, employees, society and so on”. Do you agree with this statement? Explain. (8) 

OR

“Business is a social institution having responsibilities towards different interest group.” Do you agree. Explain the responsibility towards each group.
Answer:
Social Responsibility towards different interest groups

1. Responsibility towards share holders or owners:

1. Provide a fair and regular return on the investment of shareholders.
2. Provide regular and accurate information on the financial position of the firm.
3. To ensure the safety of their investment.

2. Responsibility Towards the workers:

1. Providing fair wages
2. Providing good working conditions and welfare amenities.
3. Respect democratic rights of workers to form
   unions.

3. Responsibility toward consumers:

1. Supply right quality and quantity of goods and services at reasonable prices.
2. Avoiding unfair trade practices like adulteration, poor quality, misleading advertisement etc.
3. Inform them about new products, its features, uses and other matters relating to the products.
4. To handle the customers grievance promptly.

4. Responsibility Towards Government:

1. Respect the laws of the country
2. Pay taxes regularly and honestly.
3. act according to the well accepted values of the society.

5. Responsibility towards community:

1. Make employment opportunities
2. Protect the environment from pollution.
3. To uplift the weaker sections of society

Question 3.
Prosperity and higher living standards are the hallmarks of industrial development for any nation. But during this course, it equally causes damages to the environment. (8)

1. Explain the different types of pollution.
2. Substantiate the above statement with regard to various types of pollution.

Answer:

Business & Environmental Protection Causes of Pollution: Many industrial organisations have been responsible for causing air, water, land and noise pollution.

1. Air Pollution:
Air pollution is mainly due to Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles and smoke and other chemicals from manufacturing plants. It has created a hole in the ozone layer leading to global warming.

2. Water pollution:
Water becomes polluted primarily from chemical and waste dumping. It has led to the death of several animals and posed a serious problem to human life.

3. Land Pollution:
Dumping of toxic wastes reduces the quality of land and making it unfit for agriculture or plantation.

4. Noise Pollution:
Noise caused by the running of factories and vehicles create a serious health hazard such as loss of hearing, malfunctioning of the heart and mental disorders.

Question 4.
Explain the role of business in environmental protection. (8)
Answer:
Role of Business in Environmental Protection:

1. A definite commitment by top management to create a work culture for environmental protection
2. Ensuring that commitment of environmental protection is shared throughout the enterprise by all divisions and employees.
3. Developing clear cut policies and programmes for purchasing good quality raw materials, introducing superior technology, using scientific techniques of disposal of waste and developing employee skills for pollution control
4. Complying with the laws and regulations enacted by the Government for prevention of pollution.
5. Participation in government programs relating to management of hazardous substances, cleaning up of polluted rivers, plantation of trees, and checking deforestation.
6. Periodical assessment of pollution control programmes in terms of costs and benefits with a view to improve them.
7. Arranging educational workshops and training materials to share technical information with everyone involved in pollution control.

Students can Download Chapter 5 Emerging Modes of Business Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Emerging Modes of Business

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Carrying business activity through internet is popularly known as _______
Answer:
E-commerce

Question 2.
____________ refers to illegal entry into the web site of an enterprise and thereby damaging data input there.
Answer:
Hacking

Question 3.
____________ are programmes designed to corrupt data in a system.
Answer:
Viruses

Question 4.
Mr. Arun, a retailer pays tax online. Identify this E-Commerce Transaction
Answer:
C2G

Question 5.
Which of the following helps to purchase goods and services without making spot payments and zero balance in the account?

1. ATM card
2. credit card
3. debit card
4. Kisan card

Answer:
2. credit card

Question 6.
The advancement of technology helps people for shopping goods for cash without holding cash or making any deposits with banks. How is it possible explain the identified term?
Answer:
Credit card

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by cryptography? (2)
Answer:
It refers to the art of protecting information by transforming it into an unreadable format called ‘cyphertext’. Only those who processes a secret key can decrypt the message into plaintext.

Question 2.
What are the ethical concerns involved in outsourcing? (2)
Answer:
In the name of cost cutting, unlawful activities such as child labour, wage discrimination, etc. may be encouraged in other countries.

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Anish, an NRI businessman, sends money to his wife, Nisha. She in turn deposits all this money in her bank account. She is very thankful to the technology and can withdraw money whenever she is in need of money even after banking hours. What type of technology she might be using? Explain. (3)
Answer:
ATM. From the ATM, customers can withdraw cash from the account by using ATM card. ATM card is a plastic card bearing a number for each customer. The card is to be entered into the machine and enter the PIN. This opens the account and we can deposit cash into it or withdraw from it at any time.

Question 2.
The advancement of technology facilitates shopping -goods for cash without holding cash or making any deposit with banks. How is it possible? (3)
Answer:
It is possible through credit card. A credit card is an instrument issued by a bank in the name of the customer providing for credit up to a specified amount. The sellers get cash from the bank and the buyers have to pay for the purchase within the credit period.

Question 3.
Majority of people in India, even internet users, hesitate shopping through internet. Can you cite a few reasons for their hesitation for buying online? (3)
Answer:
The important reasons forthe hesitation of shopping through internet are:

1. Time to deliver goods is too long.
2. Disclosure of credit card details is not safe.
3. Choices are not very interesting.

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Elaborate the steps involved in online trading. (4)
Answer:
Online Transactions:
Online transaction means receiving information about goods, placing an order, receiving delivery and making payment through medium of internet.

Buying / Selling Process:

Steps involved in online purchase:
1. Register with the online vendor by filling-up a registration form.

2. Place the order for the items put by customer in his virtual shopping cart, an online record of what has been picked up while browsing the Online store.

3. Payment for the purchases through online shopping may be done in a number of ways: i.e Cash on delivery, cheque, net banking transfer, debit/credit card.

Question 2.
Name the resources required for E-commerce. (4)
Answer:
Resources Required for Successful e-Business Implementation:

1. Computer system
2. Internet connection and technically qualified workforce
3. A well developed web page
4. Effective telecommunication system
5. A good system for making payment using credit instruments.

Question 3.
Explain any 4 types of outsourcing services. (4)
Answer:

1. Financial services.
2. Advertising services
3. Courier services
4. Customer support services

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List two examples each for B2B, B2C, B2G and B2E transactions (5)
Answer:
B2B:

• Transactions between businessmen
• Collaboration
• Placing order with suppliers
• Forming joint ventures
• Transfer of goods between branches
• Transfer of goods between suppliers

B2C:

• Business offering services to customers
• Consumer placing order online
• Electronic payment
• Consumers seeking clarification on price, terms etc. (any two)

B2G:

• Payment of taxes
• Application for licence
• Seeking government clearance

B2E:

• Employees salary payments
• Operation of welfare schemes
• Information to employees on business process
• Seeking employees suggestions online

Question 2.
Sankar and Co is a leading can manufacturing company. They are not concentrating on their advertisement due to lack of time. In orderto boost up the sales they made a contract with an advertising agency to make an advertisement which can be released through the media. Analyze this situation. Do you favour this activity of the company? Can you identify the concept and brings out its merit? (5)
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State any three differences between e-business and traditional business.
Answer:

Outsourcing or Business Process Outsourcing (BPO):
Outsourcing is a management strategy by which an organisation contracts out its major non-core functions to specialized service providers with a view to benefit from their expertise, efficiency and cost effectiveness, and allow managers to concentrate on their core activities.

Merits of outsourcing:

1. It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on areas in which it has core competency or strength.
2. It helps better utilisation of its resources as the management can focus its attention on selected activities and attain higher efficiency.
3. It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices. It helps in improved service and reduction in costs.
4. It facilitates inter-organisational knowledge sharing and collaborative learning.
5. It enables expansion of business as resources saved from outsourcing can be used for expanding the production capacity and diversified products.

Limitations of outsourcing:

1. It reduces confidentiality as outsourcing involves sharing a lot of information with others.
2. It may be opposed by labour unions who feel threatened by possible reduction in their employment.
3. In the name of cost cutting, unlawful activities such as child labour, wage discrimination maybe encouraged in other countries.
4. The organisation hiring others may face the problem of loss of managerial control because it is more difficult to manage outside service providers than managing one’s own employees.
5. It causes unemployment in the home country.

Question 2.
Evaluate the need for outsourcing and discuss its limitations. (6)
Answer:
Outsourcing or Business Process Outsourcing (BPO):
Outsourcing is a management strategy by which an organisation contracts out its major non-core functions to specialized service providers with a view to benefit from their expertise, efficiency and cost effectiveness, and allow managers to concentrate on their core activities.

Merits of outsourcing:

1. It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on areas in which it has core competency or strength.
2. It helps better utilisation of its resources as the management can focus its attention on selected activities and attain higher efficiency.
3. It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices. It helps in improved service and reduction in costs.
4. It facilitates inter-organisational knowledge sharing and collaborative learning.
5. It enables expansion of business as resources saved from outsourcing can be used for expanding the production capacity and diversified products.

Limitations of outsourcing:

1. It reduces confidentiality as outsourcing involves sharing a lot of information with others.
2. It may be opposed by labour unions who feel threatened by possible reduction in their employment.
3. In the name of cost cutting, unlawful activities such as child labour, wage discrimination maybe encouraged in other countries.
4. The organisation hiring others may face the problem of loss of managerial control because it is more difficult to manage outside service providers than managing one’s own employees.
5. It causes unemployment in the home country.

Question 3.
What is online transactions? Explain its steps. (6)
Answer:
On line Transactions:
On line transaction means receiving information about goods, placing an order, receiving delivery and making payment through medium of internet.

Buying / Selling Process:

Steps involved in online purchase:

1. Register with the online vendor by filling-up a registration form.
2. Place the order for the items put by customer in his virtual shopping cart, an on-line record of what has been picked up while browsing the On-line store.
3. Payment for the purchases through online shopping may be done in a number of ways: i.e Cash on delivery, cheque, net banking transfer, debit/credit card.

Students can Download Chapter 4 Business Services Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Business Services

Plus One Business Services One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the type of account opened in a bank with an over draft facility
Answer:
Current Account

Question 2.
DTH services are provided by
Answer:
Cellular companies

Question 3.
CWC Stands for
Answer:
Central warehousing corporation

Question 4.
Mr. James running a software development business, incur heavy expenditure for replacement of computers due to updation in technology. To avoid this expenditure he may opt for
(a) Factoring
(b) Venture capital
(c) Leasing
(d) Merchant banking
Answer:
(c) Leasing

Question 5.
Name the type of account opened in the bank with overdraft facility
Answer:
Current account

Question 6.
Classify the following into appropriate categories SBI, Federal Bank, American Express Bank.
Answer:

• SBI – Public Bank
• Federal Bank – Private bank
• American Express bank – Foreign bank

Question 7.
Which among the following helps in issue management of shares,
(a) Mutual fund
(b) Merchant banks
(c) Venture Capital
(d) Factoring
Answer:
(b) Merchant banks

Question 8.
Classify the following bank into Appropriate Categories,

1. IDBI
2. HDFC
3. Axis Bank
4. Canara Bank
5. HSFC
6. CITI Bank

Answer:

1. IDBI – Private Bank
2. HDFC – Private Bank
3. Axis Bank – Public Bank
4. Canara Bank – Public Bank
5. HSFC – Private Bank
6. CITI Bank – Foreign Bank

Question 9.
Which facility allows a current account holder to withdraw more amount than his deposit?
Answer:
Overdraft

Question 10.
Which of the following is not applicable in life insurance contract?
(a) Conditional contact
(b) Unilateral contract
(c) Indemnity contract
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Indemnity contract

Question 11.
When the same subject matter is insured with more than one insurer, it is called
Answer:
Double insurance

Question 12.
________ is a contract of insurance entered into by the insurer with another insurer to reduce the risk.
Answer:
Reinsurance

Question 13.
Rajiv insures his shop for ₹5,00,000 against fire. His shop is completely damaged by a mob attack. Rajiv claims ₹5,00,000/- from the insurance company.

1. Will the company admit the claim of Rajiv?
2. Which principle of insurance is applicable here?

Answer:

1. No.
2. Causa Proxima

Question 14.
Principle of indemnity does not apply to __________
(a) Life insurance
(b) Health insurance
(c) Fire insurance
(d) Marine insurance
Answer:
(a) Life insurance

Question. 15
I will give security against fraudulent practices of employees who deal with cash or other variables. Can you identify me? Explain its features?
Answer:
Fidelity insurance

Question 16.
Govind insures his shop for ₹6,00,000. in a fire accident. The shop incurred a loss of ₹3,00,000. But he claimed for the assured sum. Will the insurance co admit the claim in full? Identify the principle of insurance which is applicable here.
Answer:
No. Principle of indemnity

Question 17.
Life insurance is a contract of ________
Answer:
Guarantee

Question 18.
_______ principle states, the insurer step into the shoes of insured.
Answer:
Subrogation.

Question 19.
Jacob purchased a new car for ₹15,00,000 and insured it with National insurance company and Oriental Insurance Company for ₹15,00,000 each. On an accident, the car was damaged completely and he claimed compensation from both companies.

1. Can he get compensation from both companies?
2. Identify relevant principle of insurance.

Answer:

1. No
2. Principle of Contribution

Question 20.
According to _________ principle, the insured is not allowed to make any profit out of his loss.
Answer:
Indemnity

Question 21.
Rajan wants to take an insurance policy covering the risk arising from the dishonesty of employees. Which type to policy close he have to take?
Answer:
Fidelity insurance

Question 22.
__________ is a contract whereby the insurer, in consideration of premium, undertakes to compensate the insured for the loss or damage suffered due to fire.
Answer:
Fire insurance

Plus One Business Services Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define service and goods. (2)
Answer:
Services are those identifiable and intangible activities that provide satisfaction of wants. Goods is a physical product which can be delivered to a purchaser and involves the transfer of ownership from the seller to customer.

Question 2.
Explain various telecom services available for enhancing business. (2)
Answer:
The various types of telecom services are:

1. Cellular mobile services:
Mobile communication device including voice and non-voice messages, data services and PCO services utilising any type of network equipment within their service area.

2. Radio paging services:
It means of transmitting information to persons even when they are mobile.

3. Fixed line services:
It includes voice and non-voice messages and data services to establish linkage for long distance traffic.

4. Cable services:
Linkages and switched services within a licensed area of operation to operate media services which are essentially one way entertainment related services.

5. VSAT services (Very small Aperture Terminal):
It is a Satellite-based communication service. It offers government and business agencies a highly flexible and reliable communication solution in both urban and rural areas.

6. DTH services (Direct to Home):
It is a Satellite based media services provided by cellular companies with the help of small dish antenna and a set up box.

Question 3.
Mr. Dino is running a textile shop. He insured the shop for ₹1,00,000 against natural calamities. After this the shop was completely destroyed by fire due to electrics short circuit. He claimed for compensation. But the insurance company refused to admit the claim on the ground that the shop was insured against natural calamities. (2)

1. Can you justify the decision of insurance company.
2. Which principle of insurance is applicable here.

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Causa proxima. It states that insurance company will admit the claim only if mishap has resulted directly by an event covered by under insurance.

Question 4.
Mr. Sabu is running a provision store. He insured the shop for ₹ 50,000 against fire. One day during course of business the shop caught fire and Mr. Sabu purposefully did not take any efforts to minimize the loss. He claimed for compensation. In this situation. (2)

1. What will be your decision assuming that you are the officer in charge of admitting the claims for insurance company?
2. Which principle is applicable here?

Answer:

1. The claim can not be admitted because the insurer did not take any reasonable steps to minimize the loss.
2. Principle of mitigation of loss

Question 5.
Why do we say that the principle of indemnity is not applicable to life insurance. Illustrate your answer. (2)
Answer:
The loss due to death of the insured cannot be measured in terms of money. So principle of indemnity is not applicable to Life insurance.

Question 6.
Mr. Sibi purchased a new car and it was completely damaged in an accident. Subsequently, he lodged a claim with the insurance company and the same was admitted. Later, the insurance company recovered the destroyed property. (2)

1. Why did the company take ownership of the car?
2. State the relevant principle. Explain.

Answer:

1. Ownership of the damaged car is vested with the insurance company.
2. According to the principle of subrogation, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the right of ownership of such property passes to .the insurer.

Question 7.
Mr. Anand your friend has started a new business. He decided to open a bank account with SBI. He has only a vague idea about the type of accounts available to the business people. So he seeks your help to choose the most favourable account for him. Give reason. (2)
Answer:
Mr. Anand can open current account. There is no restriction on the frequency and volume of deposits or withdrawals of money.

Question 8.
Match the following

Answer:

Plus One Business Services Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Janardhanan, a business man, has a current a/c of ₹1,00,000 in the S.B.I. He is in need of another ₹50,000 for the purpose of expansion of his business. By availing which facility, can he have money from the bank? Explain its features. (3)
Answer:
Overdraft: Overdraft is an arrangement where customers are allowed to withdraw up to a level over and above their deposits in the current account. Interest is to be paid only on the actual amount of overdraft availed by him. OD is granted to businessmen against their current account.

Question 2.
Write a detailed note on various facilities offered by Indian Postal Department. (3)
Answer:
1. Postal services:
Indian post and telegraph department provides various postal services across India. Various facilities provided by postal department are
(a) Financial facilities:
They provide postal banking facilities to the general public and mobilise their savings through the saving schemes like public provident fund (PPF), Kisan Vikas Patra, National Saving Certificate, Recurring Deposit Scheme and Money Order facility

(b) Mail facilities:
1. Mail services consist of

• Parcel facilities that is trans-mission of articles from one place to another
• Registration facility to provide security of the transmitted articles
•  Insurance facility to provide insurance cover for all risks in the course of transmission by post.

2. Allied Postal Services

• Greetings Post: Greetings card can be sent through post offices.
•  Media Post: Corporate can advertise their brands through post cards, envelops etc.
•  Speed Post: It allows speedy transmission of articles to people in specified cities.
•  e-bill post: The post offices collect payment of telephone, electricity, and water bills from the consumers.
•  Courier Services: Letters, documents, parcels etc. can be sent through the courier service.

(2) Telecom Services:
The various types of telecom services are:

1. Cellular mobile services:
Mobile communication device including voice and non-voice messages, data services and PCO services utilising any type of network equipment within their service area.

2. Radio paging services:
It means of transmitting information to persons even when they are mobile.

3. Fixed line services:
It includes voice and non-voice messages and data services to establish linkage for long distance traffic.

4. Cable services:
Linkages and switched services within a licensed area of operation to operate media services which are essentially one way entertainment related services.

5. VSAT services (Very small Aperture Terminal):
It is a Satellite based communication service. It offers government and business agencies a highly flexible and reliable communication solution in both urban and rural areas.

6. DTH services (Direct to Home):
It is a Satellite based media services provided by cellular companies with the help of small dish antenna and a set up box.

Question 3.
What is e-banking? What are the advantages of e-banking? (3)
Answer:]
e-banking is a service provided by many banks, that allows a customer to conduct banking transactions, such as managing savings, checking accounts, applying for loans or paying bills over the internet using a personal computer, mobile telephone. Eg. Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT), ATM etc.

Question 4.
Babu insures his shop for ₹3,00,000. In a fire accident the shop burned and incurred a loss of ₹1,50,000. Babu claimed for the assured sum i.e, ₹3,00,000. (3)

1. Will the insurance company admit the claim in full. Why?
2. Which principle of insurance is applicable here.

Answer:

1. No. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of actual value of his loss or the sum insured which ever is less,
2. Principle of Indemnity

Question 5.
Mrs. Anjali has a medical shop and it is insured with two insurers for ₹50,000 each against natural calamities. During the rainy season, the subject matter was partly destroyed by flood. The total amount of loss was estimated at ? 30,000. She claimed compensation from both insurance companies for ₹30,000 each. (3)

1. Can she get the claim from both the insurers?
2. Justify your answer with regard to the relevant principle of insurance.

Answer:

1. No. She cannot get claim from both the insurance.
2. According to the principle of contribution, the insured is eligible to receive a claim only up to the amount of actual loss suffered by her.

Question 6.
Mr. Joy keep stock of inflammable materials in his shop premises, takes an insurance policy for the shop against fire. But he did not disclose anything about the inflammable materials to the insurance company. Later, the inflammable goods caught fire and the shop was completely destroyed by fire. The insurance company refused to admit the claim of Mr. Joy on the ground that he did not disclose information about the inflammable goods. (3)

1. Can you justify the decision of the insurance company?
2. What principle of insurance is applicable here ?

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Principle of utmost good faith. The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract. The insurer must disclose all the terms and conditions in the insurance contract to the insured.

Plus One Business Services Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Surendran is running an electrical shop which is insured against fire for ₹50,000. Due to heavy rainfall his stock was fully damaged and he claimed for compensation. The insurance company refused to admit the claim as goods were not insured against natural calamities. Can you justify the decision of the insurance company? Which principle of insurance is applicable here? (4)
Answer:
Yes. The decision taken by the insurance company is correct. Mr. Surendran has no right to claim compensation from the insurance company. The principle of insurance applicable here is causa proxima. It states that insurance company will admit the claim only if the mishap has resulted directly by an event covered under the insurance. An event covered under the insurance.

Question 2.
Draw a chart showing types of insurance. (4)
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the functions of Transport. (4)
Answer:
Functions of Transport:

1. Helps in the movement of goods and materials from one place to another
2. Helps in the stabilisation of prices.
3. Helps in the social, economic and cultural development of the country
4. Helps in national and international trade
5. Facilitates large scale production
6. Generates employment opportunities
7. Increases growth of towns and cities
8. Connects all part of the world

Plus One Business Services Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the functions of warehousing. (5)
Answer:
Functions of Warehousing:

1. Warehouse helps in supplying the goods to the customers when it is needed.
2. By maintaining a balance of supply of goods warehousing leads to price stabilization.
3. By keeping the goods in the warehouse, the trader can relieve himself of the responsibility of keeping of goods.
4. The warehouse performs the function of dividing the bulk quantity of goods into smaller quantities.
5. Warehousing helps in the seasonal storage of goods to select businesses.
6. The functions of grading, branding and packing of goods can be done in warehouses.
7. The warehousing receipt can be used as a collateral security for obtaining loans.

Question 2.
Name the principle of insurance violated in the following cases. (5)

1. ‘A’does not own the building but is trying to get it insured as a party to the insurance policy.

2.  ‘A’ enters into life insurance contract with LIC of India. ‘A’ was ailing with heart decease but he did not reveal this at the time of entering the contract. ‘

3. ‘B’ enters into insurance contract with two companies ‘C’ and ‘D’. The subject matter is a building worth ₹ 5 lakh. The building caught fire and properties worth ₹3 lakhs were damaged. ‘C’ paid the entire claim and asked ‘D’ to share the claim. ‘D’ denies.

4. Goods worth ₹50,000 are damaged and the insurance company pays the claim to ‘Z’ for the loss. ‘Z’ not only took the compensation for loss but also claims the damaged goods.

5. ‘P’ takes an insurance policy for ₹1 lakh with ‘Q’ company. The goods of ‘P’ are damaged due to fire the loss incurred is ₹25,000. ‘Q’ shall restore the actual loss but ‘P’ claims full amount of the policy.

Answer:

1. Principle of insurable interest
2. Principle of utmost good faith
3. Principle of contribution
4. Principle of subrogation
5. Principle of Indemnity

Question 3.
Match A with B and C.

Answer:

Plus One Business Services Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between life insurance and general insurance. (6)
Answer:

Question 2.
I will give security against fraudulent practices of employees who deal with cash or other valuables

1. Can you identify me?
2. Explain my features. (6)

Answer:
1. Fidelity insurance.

2. This type of policy is taken by the employer of a fire to cover the risk arising out of fraud or dishonesty of his employees. Banks, Financial institutions and other business firms commonly use such insurance policies.

Question 3.
What are services? Explain their distinct characteristics? (6)
Answer:
Nature of Services
1. Intangibility:
Services are intangible, i.e., they cannot be touched. They are experiential in nature, e.g. Treatment by a doctor.