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Students can Download Adisthana Padavali Unit 2 Chapter 1 Kotiyerram Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Adisthana Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Adisthana Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Guide Unit 2 Chapter 1 Kotiyerram

Kotiyerram Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Students can Download Kerala Padavali Unit 1 Chapter 1 Lakshmana Santhwanam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Guide Unit 1 Chapter 1 Lakshmana Santhwanam

Lakshmana Santhwanam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 4 Questions Keeping Diseases Away English Medium

Select the correct answer.

Sslc Biology Chapter 4 Question Paper Question 1.
Hepatitis get transmitted through
a. contact with contaminated water and soil.
b. animals
c. blood components
d. mosquitoes
Answer:
c. blood components

Question 2.
The pathogen of wilt disease of brinjal.
a. Virus
b. Bacteria
c. Fungus
c. Aphids
Answer:
b. Bacteria

Question 3.
Analyse the statements.
i. Filariasis is spread by culex mosquitoes.
ii. Diphtheria is a bacterial disease.
a. (i) correct (ii) incorrect
b. (i) incorrect (ii) correct
c. (i) and (ii) incorrect
d. (i) and (ii) correct
Answer:
d. (i) and (ii) correct

Question 4.
BCG vaccine is used against
a. AIDS
b. Tuberculosis
c. Dengue fever
d. Malaria
Answer:
b. Tuberculosis

Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship between the first pair.
a. AIDS : Through body fluids
Ringworm : …………..
Answer:
Through contact

b. Nipah : Virus
Tuberculosis : …………….
Answer:

Bacteria
c. Block of blood flow in brain : Stroke Deficiency of insulin or its malfunctioning : ……………………
Answer:
Diabetes

Sslc Biology Chapter 4 Model Question Paper Question 6.
Find the odd one out and note down the common features of others.
a. Diabetes, Fatty liver, Heart attack Tuberculosis
Answer:
Tuberculosis
Others are lifestyle diseases.
b. AIDS, Diphtheria, Nipah, Hepatitis
Answer:
Diphtheria
Others are viral diseases.

Question 7.
The symptom of a genetic disease is given below.
Excess blood is lost even through minor wounds
a. Identify the disease..
b. Write the reason for this disease.
c. Write remedy for this disease.
Answer:
a. Haemophilia

b. Blood clots with the help of some proteins present in blood plasma. The synthesis of protein fails when the genes that control protein synthesis become defective.

c. A complete cure is not possible at present. Temporary relief is brought in by injecting the deficient protein identified through clinical diagnosis.

Question 8.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below.

a. Name the common name for these diseases.
b. Write the cause of each disease.
Answer:
a. Life style diseases.
b.

• Fatty liver: Deposition of excess fat in the liver.
• Stroke : Rupture of blood vessels in brain, block of blood flow.
• Diabetes : Deficiency of insulin or its malfunctioning.
• Heart attack : Block of blood flow due to the deposition of fat in coronary arteries, which carry blood to heart.

Question 9.
Observe the picture and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the organism.
b. Which is the disease caused by this organism?
c. What are the ways by which this organism spreads?
Answer:
a. HIV
b. AIDS
c. Through sexual contact with HIV infected person, from HIV infected mother to the foetus, by sharing needle and syringe contaminated with HIV components, through the reception of blood and organs contaminated with HIV.

Question 10.
The symptoms of some diseases are given. Analyse and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the diseases.
b. Name the pathogens.
c. How are they spread?
Answer:
a. A. Tuberculosis, B. Malaria, C. Ringworm
b.

• Tuberculosis: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
• Malaria: Protozoa
• Ringworm: Fungus

c.

• Tuberculosis : through air
• Malaria: through female anopheles mosquito
• Ringworm : through contact.

Question 11.
Find the indicators related to virus only.
a. No cell organelles as seen in normal cell.
b. There are pathogenic and beneficial ones.
c. Multiply through binary fission.
d. The toxins produced by these damage living cells.
Answer:
a. No cell organelles as seen in normal cell.

Question 12.
What is cancer? How do normal cells get transformed to cancer cells?
Answer:
Cancer is caused by the uncontrolled division of cells and their spread to other tissues. Environmental factors, smoking, radiations, virus, hereditary factors and alternations in genetic material lead to the transformation of normal cells into cancer cells.

Keeping Diseases Away Previous Year Questions Question 13.
Complete the illustration.

Answer:
i. Bacteria
ii. Bunchy top
iii. Fungus
iv. Quickwilt
v. Paddy

Question 14.
Observe the illustration.

a. Identify the disease indicated in the illustration.
b. Write the reason for this disease.
Answer:
a. Sickle cell anaemia.
b. The defects of genes may also cause deformities in the sequencing of amino acids which are the building blocks of haemoglobin. As a result of this, the structure of haemoglobin changes.

Question 15.
Observe the graph , illustrating the data of the diseases affected by the plants ¡n Ravi farm. Analyse the graph and answer the given questions.

a. Identify the plants which are affected.
b. Which is the most affected crop?
c. Note down the causative organism of each disease.
Answer:
a.

• Blight – Paddy –
• Bunchy top – banana
• Quick wilt – pepper
• Bud rot – coconut

b. Coconut

c.

• Blight – Bacteria
• Bunchy top – Virus
• Quickwilt, Bud rot – Fungus

Question 16.
Select the statement related to Athlete’s foot from the statements given below.
a. Fungal disease.
b. Appearance of reddish scaly rashes that cause itching is the major symptom.
c. Bacterial disease.
d. Manifests as round red blisters on the skin.
e. Pathogens enter through the toes when they come in contact with contaminated water and soil.
Answer:
a. Fungal disease.
b. Appearance of reddish scaly rashes that cause itching is the major symptom.
e. Pathogens enter through the toes when they come in contact with contaminated water and soil.

Sslc Biology Chapter 4 Pdf Question 17.
The symptom of a disease is given below.
The pathogen multiplies using the genetic mechanism of lymphocytes and the number of lymphocytes decreases considerably and reduces the immunity of the body.
a. Identify the disease.
b. Identify the pathogen.
c. Explain how this disease does not spread.
Answer:
a. AIDS
b. HIV
c.

• By touch, shaking hands, coughing, sneezing, etc.
• Through insects like mosquitoes, houseflies, etc.
• By staying together and sharing food.
• By using same toilets.
• By taking bath in the same pond.

Question 18.
Observe carefully the graph, illustrating the data of a survey conducted in certain areas. Analyse the graph and answer the given questions.

a. Which type of mosquito dominates in town B?
b. Identify the disease which is likely to be spread in town A. Name the pathogen which causes the disease.
c. Write an important symptom of this disease.
Answer:
a. Anopheles mosquito
b. Filariasis, filarial worms
c. Swelling in the lymph ducts in the leg

Question 19.
How does smoking affect the following body parts?
a. Brain
b. Lungs
Answer:
a. Brain – Stroke, addiction to nicotine
b. Lungs – Lung cancer, emphysema, bronchitis

Keeping Diseases Away Questions And Answers Question 20.
Choose the diseases transmitted through mosquitoes from the following.
Tuberculosis, Diabetes, Dengue fever, Chicken pox, Chikungunya, Botulism, Malaria, Cholera
Answer:
Dengue fever, Chikungunya, Malaria

Question 21.
Rearrange columns B and C suiting the pictures in column A.

Answer:
i. b,R
ii. c,P
iii.a,Q

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 3 Questions Chemical Messages for Homeostasis English Medium

Select the correct answer.

Sslc Biology Chapter 3 Question Paper Question 1.
Location of adrenal gland
a. Below thalamus
b. In the scrotum
c. Above the kidneys
d. Just below the sternum
Answer:
c. Above the kidneys

Question 2.
The normal level of glucose in blood
a. 80 – 130 mg/100 ml
b. 70 – 110 mg/100 ml
c. 9-11 mg/100 ml
d. 60 – 100 mg/100 ml
Answer:
b. 70-110 mg/100 ml

Question 3.
The ‘Youth hormone ’ is
a. Thymosin
b. Epinephrine
c. Melatonin
d. Oxytocin
Answer:
a. Thymosin

Question 4.
The hormone in gaseous form
a. Auxin
b. Ethylene
c. Gibberellins
d. Cytokinin
Answer:
b. Ethylene

Sslc Biology Chapter 3 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship between the first pair.
a. Calcium : Calcitonin
Glucose : …………………
b. Breaks up stored food : Gibberellins. Promoting the growth of terminal buds : ………………….
c. Norepinephrine : Medulla Aldosterone : ………………..
Answer:
a. Insulin
b. Auxin
c. Cortex

Question 6.
Find out the odd one and note down the common features of others.
a. Cortisol, Aldosterone, Epinephrine,Sex hormones.
b. TSH, ACTH, GTH, ADH
c. Cretinism, Gigantism, Dwarfism, Acromegaly
Answer:
a. Epinephrine
Others are produced by the cortex of adrenal glands.
b. ADH
Others are tropic hormones.
c. Cretinism
Others are related to the production of somatotropin.

Question 7.
The quantity of urine excreted by a person in different seasons is given below. Analyze it and answer the following questions.

a. Which is the coldest season?
b. Which hormone is responsible for the variation in quantity of urine?
c. How does this hormone regulate the water level of the body?
Answer:
a. Season 3
b. Vasopressin (ADH)
c. If the production of vasopressin decreases, the reabsorption of water in kidneys decreases. As a result. the quantity of water level in urine increases.

Question 8.
Given below is an incomplete table showing reproduction related both’ changes, controlling hormones, their glands and functions. Fill the missing gaps.

Answer:
a. Ovary
b. Oestrogen
c. Testis
d. Sperm production, controls secondary sexual characters in males such as change in voice, growth of hair, etc.
e. Pituitary gland
f. Production of milk
g. Oxytocin
h. Hypothalamus

Question 9.
All hormones do not act upon all cells. Why?
Answer:
Hormones reach every cell in the body as they are transported by blood. But each hormone acts only upon those cells which have specific receptors. The cells which are acted upon by hormones are their target cells

Question 10.
What are the functions of thyroxine? How do the abnormalities in the production of thyroxine affect the body?
Answer:

• Functions of thyroxine – Raises the rate of metabolism, accelerates the growth and development of the brain in the foetal stage and infancy, increases energy production, regulates growth in children.
• The deficiency of thyroxine during the foetal stage or infancy – cretinism.
• Lack of thyroxine in adults – myxoedema.
• The condition in which all life activities controlled by thyroxine are accelerated due to the excessive production of thyroxine – hyperthyroidism.

Sslc Biology Chapter 3 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 11.
Select the answers for the statements from the box given below.
Auxin, Gibberellins, Ethylene, Cytokinin,
Abscisic acid
a. Helps in the ripening of fruits.
b. Helps to sustain the plant in adverse conditions.
c. Promotes cell growth and differentiation.
d. Breaks up stored food.
e. Cell growth, cell elongation, promoting the growth of terminal buds
Answer:
a. Ethylene
b. Abscisic acid
c. Cytokinin
d. Gibberellins
e. Auxin

Question 12.
Identify the disease. Write the reason for this.

Answer:
Goitre.
Iodine is essential for the production of thyroxine. The production of thyroxine is obstructed in the absence of iodine. In an attempt to produce more thyroxine, the thyroid gland enlarges.

Question 13.
Find out the peculiarities of column A and rearrange columns B and C.

Answer:

• Oxytocin – Hypothalamus – Facilitates lactation
• Prolactin – Pituitary – Production of milk
• Parathormone – Parathyroid – Prevents the lowering of calcium

Question 14.
Hints related to a patient are given below.
Analyze and answer the questions given below.

• The blood glucose level is more than normal level.
• Always tired
• The production of insulin is normal in his body.

a. Identify the disease.
b. Write the reason for this disease.
c. How is the disease related to tiredness?
Answer:
a. Diabetes
b. Malfunctioning of insulin.
c. Insulin enhances cellular uptake of glucose molecules. If the insulin is malfunctioned, it cannot perform this function. The glucose level in cell decreases leading to low energy production. So he feels tired.

Question 15.
Observe the illustration.

Complate A,B,C,D,E
Answer:
A. Cortex
B. Norepinephrine
C. Aldosterone
D. Sex hormones
E. Cortisol

Sslc Biology Chapter 3 Pdf Question 16.
“Isn’t this merely a storage and distribution centre? Is it sensible to call this a gland?” This is a doubt raised by Hari, pointing to a particular portion of a gland in the picture of the brain.
a. Which part of which gland may be the basis of Hari’s doubt?
b. Why does Hari have such a doubt? Is his doubt genuine? Why?
Answer:
a. Pituitary – Posterior lobe
b. Sensible. The hormone produced by hypothalamus is stored and released from here. The posterior lobe of pituitary itself does not produce hormone.

Question 17.
Use of artificial plant hormones contributed a lot to the progress of the agricultural sector.
Justify this statement.
(Hints: Artificial gibberllins, artificial abscisic acid, Ethylene)
Answer:
Artificial gibberllins – It is used for increasing fruit size in grapes and apple and also for preventing ripening of fruits to assist marketing.

Artificial abscisic acid – It is used for harvesting fruits at the same time.
Ethylene- Ethylene is used for the flowering of pineapple plants at a time and for the ripening of tomato, lemon, orange, etc. Ethyphon, a chemical which is available in liquid form, gets transformed into ethylene, when used in rubber trees and it increases the production of latex.

Question 18.
Arrange columns B. C according to the data given in column A.

Answer:

Question 19.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below.

a. Who has the normal level of calcium in blood?
b. Name the hormones which help to regulate the blood calcium level in other persons. Explain the action of these hormones.
Answer:
a. Mini
b.
Raju- The level of calcium in blood is more.
The calcitonin secreted by thyroid gland helps in maintaining the level of calcium in blood by depositing the excess calcium in bones and by preventing the mixing of calcium with blood from the bones.

Jose – The level of calcium in blood is less. The parathormone secreted by parathyroid gland helps in maintaining the level of calcium in blood by the reabsorption of calcium in the blood from kidneys and also prevents the deposition of calcium in bones.

Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers 2023 Question 20.
Some hormones are given below. Make them into four pairs. Give reasons for pairing.
Oxytocin, Thyroxine, Insulin, Epinephrine, Vasopressin. Glucagon, Cortisol, Calcitonin
Answer:

• Oxytocin, Vasopressin – Secreted by hypothalamus
• Thyroxine, Calcitonin -Secreted by thyroid gland
• Insulin, Glucagon – Secreted by pancreas.
• Epinephrine, Cortisol – Secreted by adrenal gland

Question 21.
Manu rubbed strongly across the path of the row of moving ants. All the ants moved in different directions immediately.
a. Which is the substance responsible for this?
b. Write another use of this substance.
Answer:
a. Pheromones
b. Pheromones help in attracting mates, informing the availability of food, determining the path of travel, informing about dangers, etc.

Question 22.
Analyze the illustration and answer the questions.

a. What is indicated by A (Write the lobe also)?
b. ‘A’ produces the hormones of same type. Do you agree with this statement ? Why?
Answer:
a. The anterior lobe of pituitary.
b. No. It produces tropic hormones (TSR. ACTh,GTH, STH) and prolactin.

Sslc Biology Chapter 3 Questions And Answers Question 23.
Arrange columns B and C according to the data given in column A.

Answer:

Question 24.
Arrange the statements suitably ¡n the table given below
a. Low metabolic rate.
b. High metabolic rate
c. Emotional imbalance
d. Increase in body weight
e. Oedema
f. Excessive sweating

Answer:

Question 25.
Observe the illustration and answer the question given below

a. Identify the hormones indicated by i, ii, iii, iv
b. Write the functions of prolactin and oxytocin.
c. Name the condilion caused by the decreased production of somatotropin?
Answer:
a. i. Vasopressin
ii. Oxytocin
iii. Tropic hormones
iv. Somatotropin
b.

• Prolactin – Production of milk
• Oxytocin – Facilitates child birth by stimulating the contraction of smooth muscles in the uterine wall, facilitates lactation,

c. Dwarfism

Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 26.
Some statements related to endocrine system are given below.
A. Hormones are the secretions of endocrine glands.
B. Hormones are transported through lymph.
C. Hormones are transported through blood.
D. All the hormones produced by the endocrine glands are proteins.
a. Choose the correct statement.
b. Imagine that a particular hormone is not entering a particular cell. What may be the reason?
Answer:
a. A.Hormones are the secretions of endocrine glands.
C.Hormones are transported through blood.

b. Receptors of that hormones are not in the cell.

Question 27.
Case sheets of two patients are given below. Analyse them and answer the questions.

a. Which are the diseases whose symptoms are indicated above?
b. Write the reasons for the diseases.
Answer:
a. Case – 1 Cretinism
Case – 2 Hyperthyroidism

b. Case – 1
Deficiency of thyroxine during foetal stage and infancy.
Case – 2
Excessive production of thyroxine.

Question 28.
Observe the diagram of the endocrine gland given below and answer the questions.

a. Name the parts indicated as A and B.
b. Name the hormones synthesized by A. Explain their action.
Answer:
a. A-Medulla B – Cortex
b. Epinephrine, Norepinephrine
Epinephrine – Helps to tide over emergency situations.
Norepinephrine – acts along with epinephrine.

Question 29.
Analyse the statements given below and write the reason.
a. Oxytocin is injected in pregnant women during child birth (delivery).
b. Feels sleepy during night, wakes up when day breaks.
Answer:
a. Facilitates child birth by stimulating the contraction of smooth muscles in the uterine wall.
b. When the level of melatonin increases at night, we feel sleepy. We wake up when the level of melatonin decreases during the day.

Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 30.
A farmer named Balan cultivated oranges in his orchard. Now the trees are full of oranges. The price of oranges is Rs. 80/kg.
A. This farmer wants to harvest all fruits together.
B. Ripen them together.
a. Suggest two artificial plant hormones to satisfy the A, B needs of the farmer.
b. Uncontrolled use of plant hormones must
be controlled. Evaluate this statement.
Answer:
a. A – Abscisic acid.
B – Ethylene
b.

• Control uncontrolled use.
• Environmental issues.
• Health issues.

Question 31.
Indicators related to the endocrine glands are given below. Analyse them and answer the questions.

• Situated just below the sternum.
• Active during infancy.

But constricts at puberty.
a. Name this endocrine gland.
b. Which is the hormone synthesised by this gland?
c. Write the function of this hormone.
Answer:
a. Thymus gland
b. Thymosin
c. Controls the activities and maturation of lymphocytes which help to impart immunity.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 2 Questions Windows of Knowledge and Responses English Medium

Select the correct answer.

Sslc Biology Chapter 2 Question 1.
The transparent anterior part of sclera
a. Conjunctiva
b. Cornea
c. Iris
d. Pupil
Answer:
b. Cornea

Question 2.
The liquid which helps in maintaining the shape of eye
a. Aqueous humour
b. Cerebrospinal fluid
c. Tears
d. Vitreous humour
Answer:
d. Vitreous humour

Question 3.
The visual pigment in rod cells
a. Rhodopsin
b. Retinal
c. Photopsin
d. Iodopsin
Answer:
a. Rhodopsin

Question 4.
The part that connects middle ear and pharynx
a. Oval window
b. Eustachian tube
c. Round window
d. Tympanum
Answer:
b. Eustachian tube

Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship between the first pair.
a. Planaria : Eyespot :: House fly : ……………..
b. Cochlea : Hearing :: Vestibule : ……………
c. The outer layer made up of connective tissues : Sclera :: The inner layer which has photoreceptors : ………………….
Answer:
a. Ommatidia
b. Body balancing
c. Retina

Question 6.
Find out the odd one and note down the common features of others.
a. Sclera, Choroid, Optic nerve, Retina ‘
b. Pinna, Malleus, Incus, Eustachian tube
c. Vestible, Semicircular canals, Iris, Vestibular nerve
Answer:
a. Optic nerve
Others are layers of eye.
b. Pinna
Others are parts of middle ear.
c. Iris
Others are parts related to body balancing.

Windows of Knowledge Class 10 Questions And Answers  Question 7.
The ciliary muscles of a person do not contract.
a. How does this affect his vision?
b. Does this affect the action of photoreceptors of retina? Why?
Answer:
a. He cannot see near objects.
b. It does not affect the action of photoreceptors of retina. It is because when light ray reaches the retina, the photoreceptors are stimulated.

Question 8.
The diagram given below shows the structure of ear.

a. Redraw the picture.
b. Label the parts A, B, C, D.
c. Write down the name and function of E and F.
Answer:

b. A. Tympanum, B. Auditory nerve, C. Ear ossicles, D. Eustachian tube
c.

• E-Semicircular canals. It helps in the maintenance of balancing of body.
• F-Cochlea. Helps in hearing.

Question 9.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the part labelled as A, B, C, D.
b. Write the peculiarities of part mentioned as A, C.
c. Write the functions of part indicated as B, D.
Answer:
a. A-Cornea, B- Sclera, C-Pupil, D-Optic nerve
b.

• A-Slightly projected transparent anterior part of the sclera.
• C – The aperture seen at the centre of the iris. The size increases and decreases depending on the intensity of light.

c.

• Sclera – Gives firmness to the eye
• Optic nerve – Transmits impulses from photoreceptors to the visual centre in the brain.

Biology Chapter 2 Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Arrange the statements suitably in the table given below.
a. Ligaments stretch.
b. Focal length decreases.
c. Ciliary muscles relax.
d. Ligaments relax.
e. Ciliary muscles contract.
f. Curvature of lens decreases.
g. Focal length increases
h. Curvature of lens increases.

Answer:

Question 11.
The flowchart related to the process of hearing is given below complete it.

Answer:
a. Tympanum
b. Ear ossicles
c. Cochlea
d. Auditory nerve
e. Cerebrum

Windows Of Knowledge Class 10 Question Paper Question 12.
Make suitable word pairs by using the words given in the box.
Jacobson’s organ, Housefly, Eye spot, Snake, Shark, Planaria, Ommatidia, Lateral line
Answer:

• Snake – Jacobson’s organ
• Housefly – Ommatidia
• Shark – Lateral line
• Planafia – Eye spot

Question 13.
The stages related to maintain the equilibrium of the body are given below. Arrange them in correct order.
a. Generates impulses
b. Maintains the equilibrium of the body
c. Body movements create movement in the fluid inside the vestibule and semicircular canals.
d. The impulses are transmitted by the vestibular nerve.
e. Cerebellum enables muscular movements.
f. Creates movements of the sensory hair cells.
Answer:
c. Body movements create movement in the fluid inside the vestibule and semicircular canals.
f. Creates movements of the sensory hair cells.
a. Generates impulses
d. The impulses are transmitted by the vestibular nerve.
e. Cerebellum enables muscular movements.
b. Maintains the equilibrium of the body

Sslc Biology Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 14.

a. Construct two questions related to this figure and see whether you can give any explanation.
b. Give suitable explanation of the questions.
Answer:
a.

• Two images from an object are formed in two eyes. But we see only one image of the object. Why?
• Draw a flow chart of light rays from the object to the centre of vision in brain.

b

• Two images of the same object formed in the two eyes reach the visual area of the brain. The brain combines the two images together to give a single vision.
• Light from the object → Eyes → Sensory nerve → Brain → Centre of vision.

Question 15.
“Receptors are modified neurons”. Justify the statement with examples of receptors in different sense organ.
Answer:
Receptors are modified neurons. They are of different types. Rods and cones of eye, sound receptors in ear, taste receptors on the tongue, olfactory receptors in nose and receptors in skin are examples.

Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 16.
Glaucoma is a serious eye defect. Analyze the statement.
Answer:
If the reabsorption of aqueous humour does not occur, it causes an increase in the pressure inside the eyes. This causes damage to the retina and the photoreceptor cells and ultimately leads to blindness.

Sslc Biology Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 17.
Arrange columns B and C according ro ¡he daa given in column A.

Answer:

Biology Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 Question 18.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the situation indicated by the figure.
b. Identify the parts indicated as A, B.
c. How do A and B act in the situation?
Answer:
a. While viewing nearby objects
b. A – Ciliary muscles, B – lens
c. The contraction of ciliary muscles and the relaxation of ligaments help to increase the curvature of lens.

Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 19.
Prepare a flowchart related to the sense of vision by selecting suitable words given in the box.

Cornea, Auditory nerve, Blind spot, Aqueous humour. Retina, Eustachian tube, Light, Impulse, Pupil, Choroid, Vitreous humour, Cerebrum, Cochlea, Optic nerve, Sense of vision, Lens
Answer:
Light → Cornea → Aqueous humour → Pupil → Lens → Vitreous humour → Retina → Impulse → Optic nerve → Cerebrum → Sense of vision

Question 20.
Observe the picture and answer the questions – given below.

a. Identify the picture
b. Identify the parts indicated as A, B, C, D.
c. What are the functions of C, D?
Answer:
a. Internal ear.
b. A- Semicircular canals B – Cochlea C – Autidory nerve D – Vestibular nerve
c.

• Auditory nerve – Transmits impulses related to hearing to cerebrum.
• Vestibular nerve – Transmits impulses related to body balancing to cerebellum.

Sslc Biology Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Pdf English Medium Question 21.
Prepare a flowchart related to the experience of taste.
Answer:

Question 22.
Find out the peculiarities of column A and rearrange columns B and C.

Answer:

Question 23.
Binocular vision gives us three dimensional vision. Then why do we close one eye when we aim at an object?
Answer:
Here distance is not important. Location of the object and eye must come in a straight line.

Question 24.
Ear canal → Cochlea → Tympanum → Auditory nerve
a. Correct the mistake, if any, in the above flowchart.
b. Modify the flow chart by adding the terms ‘oval window’ and ‘ear ossicles’
Answer:
a. Ear canal → Tympanum → Cochlea → Auditory nerve
b. Ear canal → Tympanum → Ear ossicles → Oval window → Cochlea →Auditory nerve

Question 25.
The flow chart related to the experience of smell is given below. Complete the flowchart.

Answer:
a.

• A – Aromatic particles dissolve in the mucus inside the nostrils, stimulate olfactory receptors.
• B – Generate impulses
• C – Impulses reach cerebrum through olfactory nerve

Sslc Biology Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Pdf English Medium Question 26.
The symptoms of two below. eye defects are given

Identify the defects. Write how these defects can be rectified.
Answer:
A – Glaucoma. Laser surgery
B – Cataract. Replace the lens with an artificial one.

Question 27.
Observe the picture and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the photoreceptor.
b. Write the pigment and components of this pigment.
Answer:
a. Rod cell
b. Rhodopsin – opsin, retinal

Question 28.
The features of a fluid are given below.

• Seen between retina and lens
• Jelly like substance

a. Identify the fluid.
b. Write its function.
Answer:
a. Vitreous humour
b. Helps in maintaining the shape of the eye.

Question 29.
Given below are the two diseases of eyes.
i. Colour blindness
ii. Night blindness
a. Which of these is caused by malnutrition?
b. Deficiency of which nutrient causes this disease?
c. Write the main symptom of this disease.
Answer:
a. Night blindness
b. Vitamin A
c. Cannot see objects clearly in dim light.

Question 30.
Statements related to sense organs are given below:
Choose the correct ones.
a. Taste buds are the chemoreceptors seen in the papillae.
b. Receptors are uniformly distributed all over the skin.
c. Impulses from the olfactory receptors reach the cerebrum through the olfactory nerve.
d. We experience taste when impulses from the taste buds reach the cerebellum.
Answer:
a. Taste buds are the chemoreceptors seen in the papillae.
c. Impulses from the olfactory’ receptors reach the cerebrum through the olfactory nerve.

Question 31.
Light rays which reflect from the object are focussed on the retina and an image is formed,
a. Write the peculiarities of this image.
b. How do the. images formed in the two eyes combine? What is its advantage?
Answer:
a. Small, inverted, real.
b.

• Three dimensional image of the object is formed due to the activity of the brain.
• Binocular vision becomes possible.

Question 32.
Vision is enabled when the impulse from the retina reaches the cerebrum through the optic nerve.
a. Draw a flow chart showing the pathway of light from cornea to retina.
b. There is no vision at the point where the optic nerve starts. Why?
Answer:
a. Light → Cornea → Aqueous humour → Pupil → Lens Vitreous humour → Retina → Optic nerve
b. Rod cells and cone cells are absent in the part from where the optic nerve begins / Photoreceptors are absent.

Question 33.
Rhodopsin Retinal + Opsin
a. How is this reaction related to vision?
b. How does the deficiency of vitamin A cause poor vision in dim light?
Answer:
a.

• When light rays fall, rhodopsin dissociates into retinal and opsin.
• Generates impulses.
• When impulses reach the cerebrum, vision is experienced.

b

• Amount of retinal decreases.
• Causes a decrease in the level of rhodopsin.
• Resynthesis of rhodopsin gets blocked.
• Cannot see objects clearly in dim light / night blindness.

Question 34.
Observe the figure given below and answer the questions: .

a. Which is the receptor seen in the figure?
b. In which sense organ is this receptor seen?
c. What is the function of this receptor?
Answer:
a. Olfactory receptor
b. Nose
c. Gets stimulated by aromatic particles and generates impulses.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Students can Download Adisthana Padavali Unit 1 Chapter 1 Ate Prarthana Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Adisthana Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Adisthana Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Guide Unit 1 Chapter 1 Ate Prarthana

Ate Prarthana Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

You can Download The Last Leaf (Story) Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Part 2 Chapter 5 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State State Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Work, Energy and Power

A The Trio (Story) Textual Questions and Answers

Hss Live Guru 9th Physics Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 1.
Observe figure try to write down the activities shown in them.
Answer:

1. A man pushes a trolly.
2. Batting of a cricket ball.
3. Pushing a wall.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Chapter 5 Question 2.
Write down more activities familiar to you
Answer:

1. A man carrying a load
2. Throwing a ball
3. Lifting the bag on to the shoulder
4. Pushing a car into motion

Hsslive Guru 9th Physics Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 3.
You have understood that a force is to be applied on a body to do an activity. Find out the source of applied force for every activity and note them down in the table.


Answer:

Objects undergo displacement only when the force is applied on it them.

Work :

Work is said to be done only when a body under¬goes displacement in the direction of the applied force.

work energy and power Question 4. Observe figure and write down the situation where work is said to be done
Answer:
The person loaded on head and goes upward.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Physics Notes Chapter 5 Question 5.
A boy pushed an object of mass 30Kg horizontally across the floor through 50m. Another boy pushed an object of mass 50kg across the same floor through 50m. Both of them gave the same speed for moving the objects.
a) Who applied greater force here?
b) In which case was the work greater?
c) Write down a factor influencing work.
Answer:
a) Second boy applied greater force
b) More work is done in the second situation
c) The Factor influencing work is force.

Learn Mass Transfer MCQ questions & answers are available for a Chemical Engineering students.

Hss Live Guru Physics 9th Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 6.
A boy pushed an object of mass 30kg across a horizontal floor through 20m. Another boy pushed the same body through 30m on the same floor with the same speed.
a) Who pushed a greater distance here?
b) What about the force applied
c) Who did the greater work?
d) Which is the factor influencing work here?
Answer:
a) Second boy
b) Force is same
c) Second boy done greater work
d) The Factor influencing work is displacement

The factor affecting work done are force (F) and displacement (S)
Equation for calculating work done Work W = Fs
Unit of work is Joule (J), Kilojoule (KJ)
1KJ = 1000 J

If a force of F newton is applied continuously on a body and the body undergoes a displacement of s metre in the direction of the force, then the work done by the applied force is W = Fs

Get the free “Nuclear Equation Calculator” widget for your website, blog, WordPress, Blogger, or iGoogle.

Physics Notes For Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 7.
When a force of 10N is applied continuously on a body it undergoes a displacement of 2m find out the magnitude of the work done?
Answer:
F = 10N, s = 2m
Work W= Fs = 10 × 2 = 20 Nm
Look at the Figure

Hsslive Guru Physics Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 8.
A body of mass m kg is placed on a table. What are the forces experienced by this body?
Answer:
Weight of the body applies downwards and the table applies an equal force upwards.

Hss Live 9th Physics Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 9
In which directions do these forces act?
Answer:
Forces acting on both directions, upward direction and downward direction.

9th Physics Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 10.
A book of mass 100g is raised to the top of a table of height 1 m. Find the magnitude of the work done by the force applied against the gravitational force(g = 10m/s²)
Answer:
m = 100g = 0.1kg
g = 10m/s²
h = 1m
W = mgh
= 0.1 × 10 × 1 = 1J
1 J is the amount of work done to raise a body of mass 100 g through a height of 1m.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Question 11.
If a force of 50N is applied on a body and it under¬goes a displacement of 2m in the direction of the force, calculate the amount of work done.
Answer:
F = 50N
s = 2m
W = Fs = 50 x 2 = 100J

Hss Live Guru 9 Physics Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 12.
a) If a force of 200N is applied on a table of mass 50kg, it undergoes a displacement of 0.5m in the direction of force. Calculate the amount of work done.
b) If the same table is raised by 3 m, what would be the work done against the gravitational force?
Answer:
a) F= 200N, s = 0.5m
W = Fs = 200 x 0.5 = 100J
b) m = 50 kg, g = 10m/s²
h = 3 m
W = mgh = 50 x 10 x 3 = 1500J
Observe Figure

Let a body mass m be pulled by a force F. If the body has a displacement s in the direction of the force, then the work done by the force F, Wf = Fs Here the displacement produced is in the direction of the force itself.

Kerala Syllabus Class 9 Physics Solutions Chapter 5 Question 13.
Write whether this work is negative or positive.
Answer:
Work is positive

9th Class Physics Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 14.
The displacement is opposite to the frictional force, is the work done by the frictional force positive or negative
Answer:
If the displacement is in opposite direction work done by frictional force is negative.

Class 9 Physics Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 15.
In which direction is the force of gravity on the body?
Answer:
Direction of the gravitational force will be in the downward direction

9th Standard Physics Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 5 Question 16.
Is there a displacement for the body in the direction of the gravitational force?
Answer:
No displacement occurs in the direction of the gravitational force.
When a body on a floor is pulled and if it is displaced in the direction of the applied force, the work done by the applied force will be positive and the work done by the frictional force exerted by the floor will be negative.

Energy

Question 17.
What is the work to be done to raise a body of mass m kg through h meter?
Physics chapter 5 work and energy Answer:
w = mgh
Energy is the capacity to do work. Unit is Joule (J)

work energy book Question 18. In daily life, we use different forms of energy for various activities. List the forms of energy familiar to you
Answer:

1. Mechanical energy
2. Heat energy
3. Electrical energy
4. Chemical energy
5. Light energy
6. Nuclear energy

There are two type of Mechanical energy Kinetic energy and potential energy

Kinetic Energy

Pulling the toy car backwards a little and allow it to hit the plastic ball

Question 19.
What happened to the ball when the moving car hit it?
Answer:
Ball moves forward

10 to the 9th power Question 20.
How did the car get the energy to move the ball forward?
Answer:
The energy is obtained from the motion of toy car
Conclusion:

• Moving objects possess energy
• The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is the Kinetic energy

Experiment:
Let’s do another activity. Allow a powder tin to slide down a polished, inclined plane as shown in the figure and let it hit a toy car. Try to measure the displacement of the toy car. Repeat the experiment by increasing the height of the inclined plane and filling the tin with sand.

Observation:

• The displacement of the toy car is greater When it is hit by the powder filled with sand
• Also the displacement is greater when it is dropped from a greater height

Conclusion: Kinetic energy depends on mass (m) and velocity (v)
Derivation of the equation for calculating K.E
Work W = Fs
As per II law of motion
F = ma
∴ W = mas
According to third equation of motion
v² = u² + 2as = 0 + 2as (u = 0) = 2as
∴ as = \(\frac{v^{2}}{2}\)
W = mas , if we put \(\frac{v^{2}}{2}\) instead of as

Work is equal to the magnitude of kinetic energy
i.e, Kinetic energy K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2,
M – mass, V – Velocity
When a body of mass m moves with a velocity v, its kinetic energy will be K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv2

Question 21.
A man having a mass of 70kg is riding a scooter of mass 80kg. What is the total kinetic energy if the velocity of the scooter is 10m/s?
Answer:
m = 70kg + 80kg = 150kg
v = 10m/s

Question 22.
A car of mass 1500 kg is moving at a velocity of 20m/s. What is its kinetic energy?
Answer:
m = 1500 kg
v = 20m/s
K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv²
= 1/2 × 1500 × 20²
= 300000J = 300kJ

Question 23.
A boy of mass 50kg is riding a bicycle with a speed 2m/s. The bicycle has a mass of 10kg. Calculate the total kinetic energy?
Answer:
m = 50kg + 10kg = 60kg
v = 2m/s
K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv²
1/2 × 60 × 2² = 120J

Potential Energy

When we lift a body in perpendicular direction, the work is said to be done against gravitational force. According to figure, maximum work is done when it reaches at a height fb from the group, That means as the height increases work done also increases.

• The energy received by the body is equal to the work done on it.
• The body attains more energy when the height from the ground level increase

The energy possessed by a body due to its position is the potential energy.
ie, Potential energy
U = mgh
m – mass, g – acceleration due to gravity
h = height from the ground

Question 24.
Identify more situation in which potential energy is acquired by virtue of position
Answer:

• Coconut in a coconut tree
• Water stores in huge reservoirs
• Objects placed above the buildings,

Inference:
Height increases, potential energy increases

Question 25.
Write down situations in which potential energy varies.
Answer:

• Falling of a coconut from a coconut tree
• Pumping water to a tank at a height
• Climbing a ladder

Question 26.
Calculate the potential energy of a body of mass 1 kg at a height of 6m from the ground?
Answer:
Mass m = 1 kg, Acceleration due to gravity
g = 10m/s²
h = 6 m,
U = mgh = 1 × 10 × 6 = 60J

Question 27.
A bird of mass 0.5 kg is flying at the same speed at the same height of 5m. In this state, if its Kinetic energy and potential energy are equal.
a) What is the potential energy of the bird?
b) What is the velocity of the bird?
Answer:
a) m = 0.5kg
g = 10m/s²
h = 5m
u = mgh
= 0.5 × 10 × 5 = 25J
b) Kinetic energy K = 25J (∴U = K)

Question 28.
Write other examples for getting potential energy due to strain
Answer:

• A Stretched bow
• An elongated rubber band
• Compressed spring
• Compressed spring in a toy car

Conclusion: The factor which gives potential energy are position and strain

Law Of Conservation Of Energy

Question 29.
What form of energy does the flower pot have when it is on the sunshade of a building?
Answer:
Potential energy

Question 30.
While the flower pot is falling down, what forms of energy does it possess?
Answer:
potential energy and kinetic energy

Question 31.
Answer:
Does its potential energy increase/decrease when the pot falls down.
Answer:
Potential energy decreases

Question 31.
Will the kinetic energy increase/decrease at that time?
Answer:
Kinetic energy increases

Question 33.
What energy transformation takes place just before the flower pot reaches the ground?
Answer:
Potential energy is converted completely into kinetic energy

Question 34.
Let the mass of the flower pot 15kg and the height of the sunshade 4m.
a) When the flower pot is on the sunshade, what is its potential energy? (g = 10m/s2).
b) When it is on the sunshade, what is its kinetic energy?
c) If so, what is its total energy?
Answer:
U = mgh
= 15 × 10 × 4
= 600J
b) Kinetic energy will be zero
c) Total energy = PE + KE
= 600J + 0 = 600J

Question 35.
While falling, when the flower pot is at a height of 2m from the ground, what will be its kinetic energy?
Answer:
K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv²
u = 0, g = 10m/s² ,
s = 4 – 2 = 2m
v² = u2² + 2as
=0 + 2 × 10 × 2 = 40
K = 1/2 × 15 × 40
= 300J

Question 36.
What is the potential energy when it is at a height of 2m from the ground? What is the total energy now?
Answer:
Potential energy at 2m height
U = mgh = 15 × 10 × 2 = 300J
∴ Total energy = 300 + 300 = 600J

Question 37.
What is the kinetic energy of the flower pot just before it touches the ground?
Answer:
K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv²
v² = u² + 2as
= 0 + 2 x 10 x 4 = 80
Kinetic energy K = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv²
= 1/2 × 15 × 80 = 600J

Question 38.
The potential energy
U = mgh
= 15 x 10 x 10 x = 0.
What will be the total energy?
Answer:
Total energy = 600 + 0 = 600J

Question 39.
To sum up the amount of energy at each situation:
a) When on the sunshade
b) When at a height of 2m from the ground
c) Just before hitting the ground
Answer:
a) When on the sunshade = 600J
b) At a height of 2m from the ground = 600J
c) Just before hitting the ground = 600J
Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. It can be transformed from one from to another

Sun is the major source of energy. We utilize solar energy in different ways. It is renewable source of energy Plants prepare food by using sunlight. From these fossil fuels, firewood are formed. Windmills works by utilizing kinetic energy of wind energy from infra¬red rays. Tidal energy is obtained due to gravitation. When we consider any energy sources, they were originated from solar energy.

Power

Question 40.
Given below is the information regarding the working of pumps in three neighboring houses. Complete the table (g = 10 m/s²).

Answer:
b) 150000J
c) 150000J

Question 41.
Is the amount of work done by the pump to fill water in the three tanks equal?
Answer:
Amount of work done is equal

Question 42.
Find the amount of work done per second by each pump.

Answer:

Amount of work done per second is referred as power of the pump.
Work done per unit time or rate of doing work is power
Power = \(\frac{\text { work }}{\text { time }}, P=\frac{w}{t}\)
Units of power
watt (W), kilowatt (KW), Horse power (H.P)
1 kW= 1000W
1 HP = 746W

Question 43.
If a man of mass 70kg climbs up a mountain of height 30m in 5 minutes, what is his power?
Answer:
m = 70kg, g = 10m/s²
h = 30m
Work W = mgh = 70 × 10 × 30 = 21000J
Time t = 5mt = 5 × 60 = 300s
Power p = \(\frac { w }{ t }\) = \(\frac { 21000 }{ 300 }\) = 70W

Question 44.
If a man of mass 50kg takes 60s to climb up 20 steps, each 15cm high, calculate his power.
Answer:
m = 50kg, g = 10m/s²
h = 15cm × 20 = 300cm = 8m
t = 60s
work W = mgh = 50 × 10 × 3 = 1500J
Power p = \(\frac { w }{ t }\) = \(\frac { 1500 }{ 60 }\) = 25W

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
A boy is trying to push the concrete pillar of the building using a force of 300N. Calculate the amount of work done by the boy.
Answer:
F= 300N, s = 0
w = Fs = 300 × 0 = 0

Question 2.
From what you have learnt of potential energy and kinetic energy write down the from of energy possessed by the bodies given below.
a) water in a dam
b) Stretched rubber band
c) Mango falling from a tree
Answer:
a) Potential energy
b) Potential energy
c) Potential energy lesser. Kinetic energy greater

Question 3.
Calculate the kinetic energy of an athlete of mass 60kg running with a velocity 10 m/s
m = 60kg
v= 10m/s

Question 4.
A stone of mass 2kg is thrown upwards from the ground with a velocity of 3m/s. When it reaches maximum height, calculate its potential energy.
Answer:
u = 3m/s v = 0
a = g = -10m/s² (Velocity of a body moving upwards is decreasing so acceleration is negative)
v² = u² + 2as
0 = 32 + 2 × -10 × s
0 = 9 – 20s
20s = 9, s = \(\frac { 9 }{ 20 }\)
U = mgh = 20 × 10 × \(\frac { 9 }{ 20 }\) = 90J

Question 5.
The heart of a healthy person beats 72 times per minute and each beat uses up about 1J of energy. Calculate the power of the heart.
Answer:
W= 1 x 72 = 72J
t = 1mt = 60s
P = \(\frac { W }{ t }\) = \(\frac { 72 }{ 60 }\) = 1.2w

Question 6.
Which among the following is a vector quantity?
a) work
b) momentum
c) power
d) energy
Answer:
momentum

Question 7.
If the velocity of an object is doubled, its kinetic energy becomes
a) 2 times
b ) 1/2
c) 4 times
e) 1/4
Answer:
4 times

Question 8.
An object of mass 1 kg is falling from a height 10 m. What be the work done while falling?
a) 10 J
b) 1J
c) 100 J
d)1000 J
Answer:
w = mgh = 1 × 10 × 10 = 100J

Question 9.
Which one among the following is correct?

Answer:
W = p × t

Question 10.
A roller weighing 1 tonne is being dragged along a road. What is the work done against gravity? Why?
Answer:
Zero, No displacement in the direction of force.

Question 11.
Is it possible for an object to possess energy without momentum? Give one example for such a situation.
Answer:
Yes, possible. A coconut on a coconut tree has potential energy, but it has no momentum.

Question 12.
Say whether the following are positive work or negative work.
1) The work done by a person drawing water from a well using a rope without a pulley.
2) Work done by gravitational force in this situation
3) Work done by the frictional force while and object is sliding down along an inclined plane.
4) Work done by the force is moving along a plane surface.
Answer:

1. Positive work
2. Negative work
3. Negative work
4. Positive work

Question 13.
How much joule is 1 kWh?
Answer:
1 kWh = 1000 × 60 × 60 = 3600000J

Question 14.
Find out the work done against the gravitational force in the situations given below.
1. A child is standing still with a bundle of books of mass 5 kg
2. With the same bundle of books, she travels 1m along a plane surface with a speed 5 m/s
3. The bundle of books is lifted onto the top of a cupboard having 1m height (g=10m/s2).
Answer:
1. 0
2. 0
3. W = mg = 5 × 10 × 1 = 50 J

Question 15.
A ball of mass 0.4 kg is thrown vertically upward with a velocity 14 m/s. Calculate its kinetic energy and potential energy after 1 s.
(Hint: v + at, s = ut + 1/2at²)
Answer:
v = u + at
= 14 + 10 × 1
= 24 m/s
KE = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv²
= 1/2 × 0.4 × 24
= 115.2 J
S = ut + 1/2 at²
= 14 × 1 + 1/2 × 10 × 1²
= 14 + 5 = 19 m
E = mgh = 0.4 × 10 × 19
= 76 J

Question 16.
An object of mass 1000 kg is travelling with a velocity 72 km/h. Calculate the work done to bring it rest.
Answer:
m = 1000 kg
v = 72 km/h = 20 m/s
Work = difference of kinetic energy
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv²
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) × 1000 × 20 × 20 = 400000J

Question 17.
Estimate the work done on a object of mass 80 kg to change its velocity from 5 m/s to 10 m/s
Answer:
m = 80 kg
Work = difference of kinetic energy

Work, Energy and Power More Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks
a) Work done when a body of mass 100g is lifted up to a height of 1 meter is ……….
b) The two factors related to potential energy to body are………….
c) 1HP = ……… Watt
Answer:
1 Joule
b) Position, Strain
c) 746W

Question 2.
Classify the following into work done and work is not done
1. A mango falling from a mango tree
2. Pushing a table while sitting on it
3. Pushing a wall
4. Kicking a football
5. A trolley is moving forward
6. Standing with a load above the head
Answer:
Work done:
1. A mango falling from a mango tree
2. Kicking a football
3. A trolling is moving forward
Work is not done:
1. Pushing a table while sitting on it
2. Pushing a wall
3. Standing with a load on the head

Question 3.
When Lekshmi is applied a force of 50N on an object it undergoes a displacement of 2m. When Vinitha applied the same force on itundergoesadisplacementof3m if so
a) Which person done more work?
b) Give reason
c) Calculate the work done by each person?
Answer:
a) Vinitha
b) Displacement is greater
c) Work done by Lekshmi
W = Fs = 50N × 2m = 100J
Work done by Vinitha
W = Fs = 50N × 3m = 150J

Question 4.
Calculate work done when a boy of mass 40kg climb¬ing a staircase of height 50cm, g = 10m/s2
Answer:
W= Fs
F = mg = 40 × 10 = 400N
S = h = 0.5m
W= 400 × 0.5 = 200J

Question 5.
a) What is mean by kinetic energy?
b) How mass and velocity affect kinetic energy?
c) A body of mass 20kg is moving with a velocity of 5m/s. Calculate the kinetic energy?
Answer:
a) The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is called kinetic energy
b) Mass increases, kinetic energy increases mass . is doubled kinetic energy also doubled. Velocity increases, kinetic energy increases, Velocity is doubled kinetic energy becomes four times.
c) Kinetic energy KE = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv²
= 1/2 × 20 × 5² = 1/2 × 20 × 25 = 250J

Question 6.
a) Write the equation for finding potential energy?
b) indicate the representation of each letter
Answer:
a) U = mgh
b) M – mass,
g – acceleration
h – height from the ground

Question 7.
State law of conservation of energy?
Answer:
Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. It can be transformed from one form to another.

Question 8.
A store of mass 5kg was raised from the ground to the second floor of height 7m and from there to the third floor of height 3m from the second floor. Calcu¬late the potential energy of the store with respect to the ground floor and the second floor?
Answer:
Mass m = 5kg
Height from ground to third floor
h = 7m + 3m
g = 10m/s²
Potential energy with respect to the ground
U = mgh = 5kg × 10m/s² × 10 = 500J
Height from second floor to third floor h = 3m
Potential energy with respect to the second Floor
U = mgh = 5kg × 10m/s × 3 = 150J

Question 9.
a) What is power?
b) The time takes to move an object at a distance of 5m is 10s is the force applied is 30N, what is the power?
Answer:
a) Rate of doing work is power
b) Power P = E
W = Fs = 30 × 5 = 150J
t = 10sec.
Power P = \(\frac { 150 }{ 10s }\) = 15W

You can Download Moving Images Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 9 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Moving Images

Moving Images Questions and Answers

Section -1

Question 1.
The animation software in IT @ School GNU/Linux is
a) Synfig studio
b) Tupi
c) Gimp
d) Paint
Answer:
a) Synfig studio

Question 2.
Which type of animation software is synfig studio.
a) Proprietary
b) not able to take copy
c) pay and use
d) free software
Answer:
d) free software

Question 3.
To prepare a film, How many times images appear one after the other continuously in front of our eyes in one second?
a) 48
b) 12
c) 24
d) 36
Answer:
c) 24

Question 4.
Say the important stage of an animation film?
a) character designing
b) background
c) characters
d) action
Answer:
a) character designing

Question 5.
Construction of a storyboard is a preparation of
a) Drawing a picture
b) finding time zones
c) producing an animation
d) character designing
Answer:
c) Producing an animation

Question 6.
Synfig Studio is a free-animation software
a) Drawing pictures
b) Studio
c) Three dimensional
d) Two dimensional
Answer:
d) Two dimensional

Question 7.
Synfig studio software is designed by
a) Stall men
b) Robert B Quattlebaum
c) Leslie Lamport
d) Donald Knuth
Answer:
b) Robert B Quattlebaum

Question 8.
What versions of animation software can run in GNU/Linux and Microsoft Windows?
a) Grass
b) Notepad
c) Synfig studio
d) Pencil
Answer:
c) Synfig studio

Question 9.
Which tool is used to fill colors to the objects in synfig studio?

Answer:

Question 10.
Which tool is used to draw rectangular objects in synfig studio?

Answer:

Question 11.
Which tool is used to move the objects in synfig studio?

Answer:

Question 12.
Expand FPS
a) Frames per system
b) Frames per second
c) File properties settings
d) Frames per hour
Answer:
b) Frames per second

Question 13.
Animation is done by fast and continuous movements of images in a two-dimensional canvas. The images are known as
a) characters
b) FPS
c) Frames
d) Scene
Answer:
c) Frames

Question 14
Which menu is used to studio
a) File
b) view
c) window canvas
d)canvas
Answer:
d)canvas

Question 15.
To change the FPS in Synfig studio, by clicking
a) canvas → properties → time
b) view → pause
c) window → toolbox
d) canvas properties → image
Answer:
a) canvas → properties → time

Question 16.
We can import Images into synfig studio and use them
a) odf
b) vector
c) Pdf
d) Bitmap
Answer:
d) Bitmap

Question 17.
FPS = 24, Time =5, for an animation. Find the total number of frames in that animation
a) 24,
b) 48
c) 120
d) 920
Answer:
c) 120

Question 18.
The frames that represent important positions are known as
a) Tweening
b) current time
c) key
d)keyframe
Answer:
d) keyframe

Question 19.
What happens when you press

play button
a) Animation works
b) Animation stops
c) no change
d) to save
Answer:
a) Animation works

Question 20.
The software fills up the frames in between two keyframes is called.
a) Interpolation
b) keyframe
c) Tweening
d) Edit
Answer:
c) Tweening

Question 21.
Rey frame utility is set in one of the panels in synfig audio. Give the names of that panel
a) Time track panel
b) layers panel
c) parameters panel
d) panel
Answer:
c) parameters panel

Question 22.
Name the extension of project file in synfig studio?
a). svg
b) .pdf
c) .sifz
d) .ods
Answer:
c) .sifz

Question 23.
In which panel to give the number of frames in current time?
a) Time track panel
b) layers panel
c) meters panel
d) panel
Answer:
a) Time track panel

Question 24.
What is the current time to animation from first frame
a) 0 f
b) 60 f
c) 120f
d) 121 f
Answer:
a) 0 f

Question 25.
What is the name for the frame with current time is ‘o’ f
a) first keyframe
b) last keyframe
c) middle keyframe
d) keyframe
Answer:
a) first keyframe

Question 26.
Give the order of activity to export a project file on synfig studio
a) File → Render
b) File → Save
c) File → Export
d) File → Save as
Answer:
a) File → Render

Question 25.
Which is not a member related to synfig studio?
a) parameters panel
b) time track panel
c) panel
d) layers panel
Answer:
c) panel

Question 28.
The utility to animate the flap its wings of a bird is
a) joining wings
b) adding time loop layer
c) copy of the first wing
d) adding the layer
Answer:
b) adding time loop layer

Question 29.
Write the activity to include an image to synfig studio
a) file → open
b) file → new
c) file → import
d) file → save
Answer:
c) file → import

Question 29.
in which menu import facility is available”?
a) Edit
b) file
c) canvas
d) windows
Answer:
b) file

Question 30.
Select ofie not group
a) . dv
b) .flv
c) . mpeg
d). svg
Answer:
d) .svg

Question 32.
What is the maximum value of current time?
a) 20 f
b) 60 f
c) 120 f
d) 1 f ,
Answer:
c) 120 f

Question 33.
What is the least value of current time?
a) 60 f
b) 120 f
c) 40 f
d) Of
Answer:
d)0f ‘

Question 34.
Keyframe are constructed in different type or same type
a) same type
b) different type
c) not constructing a keyframe
d) Equal type
Answer:
b) different type

Question 35.
Select any two free animation software’s
a) Anim studio
b) pencil
c) synfig studio
d) adobe flash
Answer:
b) pencil
and
c) synfig studio

Question 36.
An important stage in preparing animation is character designing. What is the meaning of character designing?
a) characters
b) Draw the characters
c) bringing character to life with humanity & personality
d) Giving life to the story
Answer:
b) Draw the characters
and
c) bringing character to life with humanity & personality

Question 37.
What are the uses of multi-colored buttons on the handle of a image?
a) To switch on the Animate editing mode
b) To adjust size
c) To take copy
d) To rotate if needed.
Answer:
b) To adjust size
and
d) To rotate if needed

Question 38.
Give the two activities done before starting animation from first keyframe
a) Current time is 60 f
b) Current time is 0 f
c) Before editing the motion, animate the edit mode button is active
d) press the play button to see the animation
Answer:
b) Current time is 0 f
and
c) Before editing the motion, animate the edit mode button is active

Question 39.
Sky and one star are drawn in synfig studio canvas. In the layers panel we can see a rectangle 001, and star 001. What are the tools use dot draw them
a) Circle tool
b) Fill tool
c) Star tool
d) Rectangle tool
Answer:
c) Star tool
and
d) Rectangle tool

Question 40.
Animation became much easier in film industry, with the arrival of new technologies. What are they?
a) computers
b) Radio
c) Animation software’s
d) office software.
Answer:
a) computers
and
c) Animation software’s

Question 41.
Create animations is one of the stages in animation film. There are two other stages before creating an animation. What are they?
a) To save animation project
b) Character designing
c) Playing an animation
d) Preparation of storyboards
Answer:
b) Character designing
and
d) Preparation of storyboards

Question 42.
Utilities of synfig studio windows are given below. Select one of each set and make a list.

Set-I

a) Database panel
b) Work area
c) Layers Panel
d) Task area
Answer:
c) Layers Panel

Set -II

a) Audio track
b) Video track
c) Time track panel
d) Fill
Answer:
c) Time track panel

Set-III

a) Parameters panel
b) Table
c) Storyboard
d) Path
Answer:
a) Parameters panel

Set -IV

a) Database window
b) tooIX
c) Editor window
d) Window
Answer:
b) tooIX

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Question 43
Select one video formats from each set

Set I

a) PNG
b) gif
c) xcf
d) sifz
Answer:
b) gif

Set II

a) dv
b) ods
c) odf
d) odp
Answer:
a) dv

Set III

a) jpg
b) flv
c) jpg
d) py
Answer:
b) flv

Set -IV

a) Html
b) ph
c) htm
d) mpeg
Answer:
d) mpeg

Question 44.
There are a lots of job opportunities related to animation in Government/public sectors of India and abroad. A list of job opportunities are given below. Select one from each set.

Set-I

a) Cinema production
b) Still photograph
c) Newspaper
d) Shops
Answer:
a) Cinema production

Set-II

a) Schools
b) advertising agencies
c) building construction
b) advertising agencies
Answer:
d) Library

Set-III

a) Radio
b) FM radio
c) TV
d) Tape recorder
c) TV

Set-IV

a) mobile
b) computer
c) calculator
d) computer games
Answer:
d) computer games

Question 45.
Images are included in synfig studio through import menu what are the uses of handles on the image? Select one form each set.

Set-1

a) To join the parts of an image
b) To arrange its position
c) To animation
d) Frame
Answer:
b) To arrange its position

Set – II

a) To arrange its size
b) To reduce its size
c) To increase its size
d) Can’t change its size
Answer:
a) To arrange its size

Set-II

a) To rotate
b) Can’t rotate
c) To remove the image
d) To include and image
Answer:
a) To rotate

Set-IV

a) To add a background image
b) Creating a scene
c) To adjust the views of the images
d) To change its background-color
Answer:
c) To adjust the views of the images

Question 46.
The layers are seen in the layers panel of a synfig studio some activities related to the layers are given in sets. Select correct activities from each set.

Set-1

a) Can’t change its order
b) can change its order
c) Arrange the order before including the layer
d) Layers are not visible
Answer;
b) can change its order

Set -II

a) Can’t group together
b) Objects
c) Can group together
d) Can’t change its color
Answer:
c) Can group together

Set-III

a) To take a copy of a layer
b) Layer is fixed
c) Can edit animation
d) Can’t delete the layer
Answer:
a) To take a copy of a layer

Set-IV

a) Removing the layer may effect he other
b) Can delete a layer
c) Can edit animation
d) Can’t delete the layers
Answer:
b) Can delete a layer

You can Download Publishing Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Publishing

Publishing Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Clickthrough Insert → fields → more fields in writer software. We get a field window contains utility.
a) File
b) Edit
c) Database
d) None
Answer:
c) Database

Question 2.
Formattings of a text is copped to another text is using tool
a) Clone formatting
b) style
c) Paragraph formatting
d) styles and formatting
Answer:
a) Clone formatting

Question 3.
Which is the Clone formatting tool?

Answer:

Question 4.
A word can define headings, subheadings and para-graph separately is called
a) Style
b) Insert
c) Formatting
d) Clone
Answer:
a) Style

Question 5.
In which menu lies the Index and Tables
a) File
b) Insert
c) Edit
d) Data
Answer:
b) Insert

Question 6.
Where does contain the table of contents in your text?
a) Middle of the text
b) Not entered
c) At the beginning
d) At the end
Answer:
c) At the beginning

Question 7
The Software developed by Leslie Lamport is
a) Linux
b) Windows
c) Android
d) LaTex
Answer:
d) LaTex

Question 8.
The program for type setting technical documents is developed by Donald Knuth is
a) LaTex
b) Tex.
c) Linux
d) Windows
Answer:
b) Tex

Question 9.
If you click at the word preface on the table of contents in writer. What message appears?
a) Ctrl-click to follow link
b) Click to follow link
c) Follow link
d) Click to follow link to close the window
Answer:
a) Ctrl-click to follow link

Question 10.
Which menu lies the field’s utility?
a) Edit
b) Insert
c) File
d) formatting
Answer:
b) Insert

Question 11.
Which software having the mail merge facility?
a) Libre office writer
b) Python
c) Firefox
d) Calculator
Answer:
a) Libre office writer

The Full form of DSLR is Digital Single Lens Reflex Cameras.

Question 12.
To include the names and address one by one in a table in the letters using a feature called
a) Style
b) Mail merge
c) Database
d) Indexable
Answer:
b) Mail merge

Question 13.
Which style is used to the headings more attractive?
a) Character style
b) Page style
c) Paragraph style
d) List style
Answer:
c) Paragraph style

Question 14.
Anu was prepared a style named main head. Then he selects the all headings in a report and clicks on the style named main head. What happens for the headings?
a) All headings are changed to same type
b) No change to the headings
c) Headings are changed to different sizes
d) Headings are seen in different colors
Answer:
a) AI1 headings are changed to same type

Question 15.
The use of organizer tab in styles and formattings window for creating a new style is?
a) No use at all
b) To applying the style
c) Giving the name for the style
d) Don’t give a name for the style
Answer:
c) Giving the name for the style

Questions 16.
Which software includes the styles and formattings utility
a) Cale
b) Python
c) Writer
d) Sun clock
Answer:
c) Writer

Question 17.
Pick out the correct statement related to a frame
a) Can’t able to type inside the frame
b) Frame can move at any place on the page
c) Frame can’t move on the page
d) Can’t able to insert an image in a frame
Answer:
b) Frame can move at any place on the page

Question 18.
Where did you get the fields window?
a) Insert →Fields → More fields
b) Insert → Media → Fields
c) Format → More fields
d) Tools → More fields
Answer:
a) Insert → Fields → More fields

Question 19.
A correct statement related to clone formatting is
a) Use clone formatting for a large report
b) Formattings of headings can be changed by changing the formatting of each heading separately
c) Formattings of headings can be changed by changing the formatting of one heading
d) Formattings of heading cannot be copped to another
b) Formattings of headings can be changed by changing the formatting of each heading separately

Section – II

Question 20.
Right-click on the heading (styles name) on a paragraph style, we get the utilities
a) Modify
b) Colour
c) New
d) Pattern
Answer:
a) Modify

Question 21.
Libre office writer file prepared in Malayalam fonts and English fonts, on which fonts are changed to change the styles of the files?
a) If the file is in Malayalam fonts, then change the CTL font
b) If the file is in English fonts, then change the CTL font
c) If the file is in Malayalam fonts, then change western text font
d) If the file is in English fonts, then change the Western text font
Answer:
a and b

Question 22.
Select the correct statements
a) The styles in a writer are changed and use them
b) The styles in a writer cannot be changed
c) New styles cannot be created
d) New styles can prepared in a writer.
Answer:
a and d

Question 23.
Select two correct statements related to a frame
a) Can’t move from one part of a page
b) To place text or images within a document separated from the main contents
c) To place anywhere in the page
d) Not separated from the main contents
Answer:
b and c

Question 24.
Participant’s cards are prepared by mail merge utility and select print from file menu. Then you get a window to select two utilities to save the output file what are they?
a) Save as single document
b) Save as image
c) Save as individual documents
d) Save picture as
Answer:
a and c

Question 25.
Using mail merge to preparing the letters for the parents about the Youth Festival. What are the preparations we make for this?
a) Making a list of parents address in Libre Office writer
b) Making a list of parents addresses in Libre Office Calc
c) Preparing the letters to the parents in Libre office writer
d) Preparing the letters to the parents in Libre office calc
Answer:
b and c

Question 26.
Why did scientific articles and research reports are prepared by LaTex Software?
a) Facility to use English fonts
b) Facility to use Malayalam fonts
c) Several features for typesetting Symbols
d) Several features for typesetting equations.
Answer:
c and d

Question 27.
What are the difficulties to prepare a text /document using clone formatting?
a) Separate formattings the contents of a text is difficult
b) Formattings of heading can be changed by changing the formattings of each heading separately
c) Formattings of headings/ paragraph can be changed by changing one
d) One by one formatting is very easy
Answer:
a and b

Question 28.
The order of preparing a table of contents to the school report are following. Select one from each set.

Set -1

a) Close the report
b) Type the school report
c) Correct the report
d) Open the prepared school report
Answer:
d) Open the prepared school report

Set – II

a) Click on the last page of the report
b) Click on the place where the table of contents to be inserted
c) Insert the table of contents on the cover page
d) Click on the blank space of the report
Answer:
b) Click on the place where the table of contents to be inserted

Set – III

a) Select Index and Tables from Insert Menu
b) Select fields from Insert menu
c) Select modify
d) Select styles and formatting from insert menu
Answer:
a) Select Index and Tables from Insert Menu

Set – IV

a) Close the window
b) A new window appears, give a heading and background color for the table of contents and click OK.
c) Click cancel on the new window
d) Leave the window without any change
Answer:
b) A new window appears, give a heading and background color for the table of contents and click OK.

Question 29.
What are the styles included in styles and formatting window?

Set -1

a) Paragraph style
b) Western-style
c) Formatting style
d) More style
Answer;
a) Paragraph style

Set – II

a) Apply style
b) Character styles
c) Style Box
d) Clone formatting
Answer:
b) Character styles

Set – III

a) Heading style
b) Report style
c) Frame style
d) Life style
Answer:
c) Frame style

Set-IV

a) Page style
b) Heading 1
c) Head
d) Address
Answer:
a) Page style

Question 30.
The uses of mail merge utility in LibreOffice writer.

Set-I

a) Preparing Notice
b) Preparing the letter for parents about youth festival
c) Writing the mark list
d) To prepare address
Answer:
b) Preparing the letter for parents about youth festival

Set – II

a) Creating a style
b) Taking a print
c) To taking a copy
d) To prepare participant’s card
Answer:
d)To prepare participant’s card

Set – III

a) To prepare certificate
b) To prepare a letter to a friend
c) To prepare a document
d) To prepare a study report
Answer:
a) To prepare certificate

Set – IV

a) To calculate the achievement
b) To prepare electricity bill
c) To apply style
d) To prepare the table of contents
Answer:
b) To prepare electricity bill

Question 31.
Which are the styles we are using from paragraph style? Make a list using from each set

Set – I

a) Table
b) Report
c) Heading
d) Contents
Answer:
c) Heading

Set – II

a) Caption
b) Font
c) Footer
d) Color
Answer:
a) Caption

Set-III

a) Find
b) Link
c) Object
d) Index
Answer:
d) Index

Set-IV

a) Body
b) Media
c) Text body
d) Frame
Answer:
c) Text body

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Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Division for Growth and Reproduction

Division for Growth and Reproduction Textual Questions and Answers

Division For Growth And Reproduction Class 9 Question 1.
The phase at which a cell prepares for division is called
Answer:
Interphase

9th Standard Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
………. takes place after karyokinesis
Answer:
Cytokinesis

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Question 3.
………… begins after interphase
Answer:
Cell division

Hss Live Guru 9th Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
What are changes that take place during interphase?
Answer:
a) Division of nucleus (Karyokinesis)
b) Division of Cytoplasm (Cytokinesis)

Hss Live Biology Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
State whether true or false
Cytokinesis takes place after karyokinesis
Answer:
True

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Pdf Question 6.
Main stages of cell division
Answer:
Interphase, Division of nucleus, Division of cytoplasm

Hss Live Guru Biology 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
What are the important changes that take place during interphase?
Answer:

• Number of cell organelles increase
• Quantity of cytoplasm increases
• Cell size increases
• Genetic material duplicate

Cell cycle

A cell attains its complete growth during interphase. The fully grown cell undergoes division and becomes daughter cells. As the interphase and the division phase get repeated in a cyclic manner, they together constitute cell cycle.

UML full form, stands for, meaning, what is, description, example, explanation, acronym for, abbreviation, definitions, full name.

9th Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
…………..is brought about by cell division and cell growth
Answer:
Growth of the body

Kerala Syllabus Biology 9th Standard Question 9.
What are the two types of cell division?
Answer:
Mitosis and meiosis.

Biology Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
What do you mean by mitosis?
Answer:
A parent cell divides to form two daughter cells are called mitosis.

Karyokinesis

Question 11.
Point out the phases taken place in the changes in nucleus?
Answer:
Prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase

Question 12.
In which phase does the chromatin reticulum become chromosomes?
Answer:
Prophase

Question 13.
What changes occurs in telophase?
Answer:
In telophase chromosomes that moved to the poles become chromatin reticulum and daughter nuclei are formed.

Question 14.
State whether true or false in prophase chromosomes become chromatin reticulum.
Answer:
False

Question 15.
Complete the table of stages of nuclear division
Answer:

Cytokinesis (Division Of Cytoplasm)

Question 16.
The division of the cytoplasm is taken place in plant is entirely different. Give reason?
Answer:
Because it is due to the presence of the cell wall in plant cell.

Question 17.
What is the significance of mitosis?
Answer:
The significance of mitosis is that there is no change in the number of chromosomes.

Question 18.
Mitosis helps ………… & ……….
Answer:
For the repair of tissues and growth.

Question 19.
Which condition leads to cancer?
Answer:
Mitosis is a controlled process. A disruption in this controlled process leads to the excessive division of a cell and its proliferation. This condition leads to cancer.

Different Stages Of Growth

Question 20.
List out the different stages in the growth of human beings.
Answer:

• Zygote
• Infancy
• Old age
• Embryo
• Childhood
• Fetus
• Adolescence
• Youth

Question 21.
What are the physical peculiarities of old age?
Answer:
Rate of cell division decreases, Availability of oxygen to the cells decreases, Deterioration of cells increase Muscles shrink, Production of energy decrease

Question 22.
The elders should be cared. Do you agree with this statement? Why?
Answer:
Old age is inevitable in life. The aged who worked for the welfare of their family and society during their younger age deserve special consideration.

Question 23.
What are the differences between the growth in plants and animals? Draw a comparison and complete table
Answer:

Question 24.
Plants grow due to the rapid division and differentiation of cells.
Answer:
Meristematic cells

Question 25.
What do you mean by meristematic cells?
Answer:
Meristematic cells are special types of cells that have the capacity for continuous division.

Question 26.
Plants can grow throughout their life due to the presence of
Answer:
Meristematic cells

Question 27.
……… helps to increase the length of root and stem.
Answer:
Apical meristem

Question 28.
……… helps to increase the girth of the stem.
Answer:
Lateral meristem

Question 29.
Name the meristematic cells which help to increase the length of the stem.
Answer:
Intercalary meristem

Question 30.
Where do you find intercalary meristem?
Answer:
It seen above the nodes of monocot plants.

Question 31.
The stem of monocots increases in length faster than dicots. Why?
Answer;
Because the intercalary meristem is visible only in the monocot plants.

Question 32.
Dicot plants: Lateral meristem
……………..: Intercalary meristem
Answer:
monocot plants

Question 33.
The stem of monocots does not increase its girth beyond an extent. Why?
Answer:
Because lateral meristem is absent in monocot plants.

Growth In Unicellular Organisms

Question 34.
Does cell division in unicellular organisms lead to growth or reproduction?

Answer:
Mitosis leads to reproduction in unicellular organisms.

Meiosis

Question 35.
What do you mean by meiosis? Explain.
Answer:
Meiosis is the mode of cell division in which gametes are formed. Meiosis occurs in the germinal cells of the reproductive organs. Human beings have 46 chromosomes. Germinal cells with 46 chromosomes divide continuously two times. These divisions in meiosis are known as meiosis I and meiosis II. Two daughter cells “with half the number of chromosomes (23 chromosomes) are formed in meiosis I. Each daughter cell again divides in meiosis II. There is no change in the chromosome number in this division. Hence meiosis II is similar to. mitosis. As a result of meiosis, four daughter cells, each with 23 chromosomes, are formed from a germinal cell.

Question 36.
What do you mean by polar body?
Answer:
When meiosis occurs in the female germinal cell, a large ovum and three small cells are formed. The smaller cells are the polar bodies. These sterile cells get destroyed.

Question 37.
Complete the illustration

Answer:
a = 46
b = 23
c= 23
d = 23
e = 23
f = 23
g = 23

Question 38.
What is the number of chromosomes in germinal cells?
Answer:
46

Question 39.
What is the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells formed after meiosis I?
Answer:
23

Question 40.
What is the peculiarity of meiosis II?
Answer:
Each daughter cell again divides in meiosis II. There is no change in the chromosome number in this division. Hence meiosis II is similar to mitosis.

Question 41.
What are the kinds of cell division occur in sexually reproducing organisms?
Answer:
There are two kinds of cell division occur in sexually reproducing organisms that are mitosis and meiosis.

Question 42.
What are the different stages in the growth of human being?
Answer:
Infancy, childhood, adolescence, youth and old age.

Question 43.
Differentiate mitosis and Meiosis

Answer:

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
The stage of karyokinesis at which daughter nuclei are formed
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
Answer:
Telophase

Question 2.
List the meristems in various parts of the plant and list their functions
Answer:

Question 3.
In females, only a single ovum is formed from a germinal cell, whereas in males, more than one sperm is formed. Give reason.
Answer:
When meiosis occurs in the female germinal cell, a large ovum and three small cells are formed. The smaller cells are the polar bodies. These sterile cells get destroyed. So only a single ovum is formed from a germinal cell. But in males, after meiosis, four sperms having 23 chromosomes are formed form one germinal cell.

Question 4.
Observe the figures

a) Which stages of mitosis are indicated in the figures?
b) What are the changes that occur in the chromosomes during these stages?
Answer:
a) Metaphase
b) Chromosomes get aligned at the equator of the cell.

You can Download Proportion Questions and Answers, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 12 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 12 Proportion

Proportion Textual Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No. 182

Hss Live Guru 9th Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
A person invests 10000 rupees and 15000 rupees in two different schemes. After one year, he got 900 rupees as interest for the first amount and 1200 rupees as interest for the second amount.
i. Are the interests proportional to the investments?
ii. What is the ratio of the interest to the amount invested in the first scheme? What about the second?.
iii. What is the annual rate of interest in the first scheme? And in the second?
Answer:
i. The ratio between the amounts invested = 10000:15000 = 2 : 3
The ratio between the interests = 900 : 1200 = 3 : 4
Since the ratios are different. So, interests will be not proportional to the investments.

ii. The ratio between the amount invested and interest in scheme 1
= 10000 : 900= 100 : 9
The ratio between the amount invested and interest in scheme 2
= 15000 : 1200 = 25 : 2

iii. Rate of interest in the first scheme
= 900/10000 × 100 = 9%
Rate of interest in the second scheme =
1200/15000 × 100 = 8%

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Kerala State Class 9 Maths Solutions Question 2.
The area of A0 paper is one square metre. Calculate the lengths of the sides of A4 paper correct to a millimetre, using a calculator.
Answer:
The area of A1 paper is half of the area of A0 paper. The area of A2 paper is half of the area of A1 paper. Let con-sider the area of the A0 paper be 1 square metre, the area of A1 paper is
1/2 square metre , the area of A2 paper is 1/4 square metre , the area of A3 paper is 1/8 square metre , and the area of A4 paper is 1/16 square metre ,
If the length of A4 paper is √2 x and breadth x
length of A4 paper : breadth = √2 : 1
Area of A4 paper = length x breadth
√2x × x = √2x²
This is 1/16 m², therefore √2 x2 = 1/16

Hsslive Guru 9th Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
In calcium carbonate, the masses of calcium, carbon and oxygen are in the ratio 10 : 3: 12 . When 150 grams of a compound was analysed, it was found to contain 60 grams of calcium, 20 grams of carbon and 70 grams of oxygen. Is it calcium carbonate?
Answer:
The ratio between calcium, carbon and oxygen in calcium carbonate = 10 : 3: 12 The ratio of calcium, carbon and oxygen in the given compound = 60 : 20: 70 = 6 : 2: 7
Since this ratio is not equal to the ratio of calcium, carbon and oxygen in calcium carbonate, it is not calcium carbonate.

Textbook Page No. 185

Hss Live 9 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
For each pair of quantities given below, check whether the first is proportional to the second. For proportional quantities, calculate the constant of proportionality.
i. Perimeter and radius of circles.
ii. Area and radius of circles.
iii. The distance travelled and the number of rotations of a circular ring moving along a line.
iv. The interest got in a year and the amount deposited in a scheme in which interest is compounded annually.
v. The volume of water poured into a hollow prism and the height of the water level.
Answer:
i. The perimeter of a circle is n times its diameter. That is 2n times the radius.
∴Perimeter = 2πr
∴ The perimeter and radius are proportional.
The constant of proportionality is 2π

ii. The area of a circle is π times the square of the radius.
∴ Area = πr²
∴ Area and radius are not proportional.

iii. When the ring rotates once, the distance travelled is equal to its perimeter. When it rotates twice the distance travelled is twice its perimeter. When it rotates ‘n’ times, the distance travelled is ‘n ‘ times the perimeter of the ring.

iv. If the amount deposited is P and the rate of interest is R.
Annual interest = I = PNR,
I = P × R (N = 1)
The amount and interest are propor-tional.
Constant of proportionality is rate of interest, R.

v. Volume of a hollow prism
= base × height
Volume, of water and height of water level, are proportional. Constant of proportionality is the base area.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Notes Question 2.
During rainfall, the volume of water falling in each square metre may be considered equal.
i. Prove that the volume of water falling in a region is proportional to the area of the region.
ii. Explain why the heights of rainwater collected in different sized hollow prisms kept near one another are equal.
Answer:
i. The volume of water falling in each square metre are equal.
Let the volume of the rain falling on the 1 square metre be k The volume of the rain falling on the 2 square metre = 2k
The volume of the rain falling on the 3 square metre = 3k
The volume of the rain falling on the x square metre y = kx Here x and y are proportional.

ii. Let x be the base area of the vessel and h be the height of the water collected, then the volume of water y = xh.
y/x =h
The volume of water collected is different in hollow prisms having different base area.

But \(\frac { volume }{ Area }\) is always equal to the height of water level. So the height at which rainwater collected is same.

Hsslive Guru Maths 9th Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
When a weight is suspended by a spring, the extension is proportional to the weight. Explain how this can be used to mark weights on a spring balance.

Answer:
Mark the pointer when no weight is hanging on it. Then mark the point when a constant weight is hanging on it. For example when we hang 1 kg on it a 2 cm extension is made. So we mark 1, 2, 3, 4 from the points marked first, i.e.,
2, 4, 6 and 8.
These distances are divided into 10 equal parts, then we can mark the points 1.1 kg and 2.4 kg etc.

Hss Live Guru 9 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
In the angle shown below, for different points on the slanted line, as the distance from the vertex of the angle changes, the height from the horizontal line also changes.

i. In the picture, perpendicular to the horizontal lines are drawn from points on the slanted line.
Δ ABP, Δ ACQ, Δ ADRand Δ AES are similar triangles. (Because these are a right-angled triangle with is common to all)
∴ Ratio of their sides are equal. That is sides are proportional.

Let k be the constant of proportionality
PB = k × AB, QC = k × AC
RD = k × AD, SE = k × AE ,
i.e., the change in height is proportional to the distance.

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Textbook Page No. 189

Class 9 Maths Chapter 12 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
i. Prove that for equilateral triangles, area is proportional to the square of the length of aside. What is the constant of proportionality?
ii For squares, is area proportional to square of the length of a side? If so, what is the constant of proportionality?
Answer:
i. Δ ABC is an equilateral triangle
Consider their sides are ‘a’,
Draw a perpendicular line CD to AB
from C. In right-angled triangle ADC, according to the Pythagoras theorem AD² + DC² = AC²
DC² = AC² – AD²

ii. If x be the one side of a square then its area y = x²
Area of the square is proportional to the square of their sides.
Constant of proportionality = 1

Hsslive Guru Class 9 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
In rectangles of area one square metre, as the length of one side changes, so does the length of the other side. Write the relation between the lengths as an algebraic equation. How do we say this in the language of proportions?
Answer:
Area of the rectangle is the sum product of length and breadth.
Let × be the length and y be the breadth, then
x × y = 1 m²

x = 1/y = m
Example when y = 3 m
x = 1/3 meter
when y = 4 m
x = 1/4 meter
The algebraic equation is x = 1/y
i.e., length of rectangle is proportional to the reciprocal of the breadth, i.e., length of rectangle is proportional to its breadth.

Chapter 12 Maths Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
In triangles of the same area, how do we say the relation between the length of the longest side and the length of the perpendicular from the opposite vertex? What if we take the length of the shortest side instead?
Answer:
Let ‘a’ be the large side, h be the length of perpendicular from opposite vertices, ‘A’ be the area, then

Length of larger side is inversely proportional to the length of perpendicular from the opposite vertex.
i.e., The length of small side is inversely proportional to the length of perpendicular line from the vertex of small side.

Hss Live Guru Class 9 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
In regular polygons, what is the relation between the number of sides and the degree measure of an outer angle? Can it be stated in terms of proportion?
Answer:
The sum of the exterior angles of all polygon is 360°. If ‘n’ is the number of sides.
Measure of an exterior angle = \(\frac{\text { Sum of exterior angles }}{\text { No. of sides }}\)
One outer angle = 360/n
(n = number of sides)
If the measure of an exterior angle is ‘x’.
x= \(\frac{1}{n} \times 360^{0}\)
One outer angle and number of sides are inversely proportional. The constant of proportionality is 1/n.

Hsslive Guru Maths Kerala Syllabus 9th Question 5.
A fixed volume of water is to flow into a rectangular water tank. The rate of flow can be changed by using different pipes. Write the relations between the following quantities as an algebraic equation and in terms of proportions.
i. The rate of water flow and the height of the water level.
ii The rate of water flow and the time taken to fill the tank.
Answer:
i. Let x be the rate of water flowing, y be the height of water in the tank and A be the base area of the tank, then
x = Ay
Height of the water level in the tank is proportional to the rate of the water flowing.

ii. If C is the volume of the tank, V be the volume of water flowing per second, the volume of water in ‘t’ second is given by
C = V × t
\(V=\frac{C}{t}=C \times \frac{1}{t}\)
That is the rate of water flow and the time taken for filling the tank are inversely proportional. C is the constant of proportionality.

Proportion Exam oriented Questions and Answers

Hsslive 9th Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
the weight of 6 spheres of same size made of the same metal is 14 kg. When 9 more spheres are added the weight is 35 kg. Check whether the number of spheres and their weights are proportional.
Answer:
Weight of 6 spheres = 14kg
Ratio of number and weight = 6 : 14 = 3 : 7
Total number of sphers are added = 15
Total weight = 35kg
Ration of number and weight = 15 : 35 = 3 : 7
Since the ratios are equal, the number of sphers and their weights are propor-tional.

Question 2.
Raghu invested Rs. 60000 and Nazar Rs. 100000 and started a business. Within one month a profit of Rs. 4800 was obtained. Raghu took 1800 and Nazar took Rs. 3000 out of the profit obtained. What is the ratio of the investment? Is the investment and the profit divided proportionally?
Answer:
Ratio of investments = 60000 : 100000 = 6 : 10 = 3 : 5
Ratio of profit divided
1800 : 3000 = 18 : 30 = 3 : 5
Ratio of investments and Ratio of profit divided are equal. Hence they are proportional.

Question 3.
The two sides of a triangle having perimeter 10 m are 2\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) m and 3 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) m.
What is the ratio of the length of the three sides of triangles?
Answer:
Perimeter of triangle = 10 m
First side = 3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) m = \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\) m
Second side = 3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) m = \(\frac { 7 }{ 2 }\) m
Third side = 4 m Ratio of three sides of a triangle
\(=\frac{5}{2}: \frac{7}{2}: 4 = 5: 7: 8\)

Question 4.
150 litres of water is flowing through a pipe in 6 minutes. If 200 litres of water flows through it in 8 minutes check whether the quantity of water and time of flow are proportional ?
Answer:
Quantity of water flowing in 6 minutes = 150 litres
Ratio between the quantity of water and timeofflow= 150: 6 = 25: 1
Quantity of water flowing in 8 minutes = 200 litres
Ratio between quantity of water and times of flow = 200 : 8 = 25: 1
Since the radios are equal, the amount of water flowing and the time of flow are proportional.

Question 5.
Unniyappam was made using 1 kg rice, 250 g plantain and 750g jaggery. Find the ratio between the ingredients.
Answer:
Rice = 1
kg= 1000g
Plantain = 250 g, Jaggery = 750 g.
Ratio between the ingredients
= 1000 : 250 : 750 = 4 : 1 : 3

Question 6.
Sathyan got Rs. 500 after working for 6 hours. Gopi got Rs. 400 after working for 4\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours. Are the wages obtained proportional to the working time ?
Answer:
Ratio of working hours = 6 : 4 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
= 12 : 9 = 4 : 3
Ratio of wages = 800 : 600 = 8 : 6 = 4 : 3
Since the ratios are equal, the working hours are proportional to the wages.

Question 7.
Are the length and breadth of a square having same perimeter inversely proportional?
Answer:
for a square the perimeter is 20 cm. so,
length + breadth = 10.
Let x be the length and y be the breadth then possible values of x and y are
x — y
9 — 1
8 — 2
7 — 3
Here xy is not a constant term i.e. the changes in the x and y is not in the firm of xy = kept
hence length and breadth are not in inversely proportional.

Question 8.
The weight of an object having mass 5 kg is 49 Newton. The weight of another object having mass 15 kg is 147 Newton. Check whether the mass and weight are proportional ? What is the constant of proportionality? What is the weight of an object having mass 8 kg ?
Answer:
Weight of 5 kg object = 49 N
Ratio between mass and weight = 5 : 49
Weight of 15 kg massed object = 147N
Ratio between mass and weight = 15:147 = 5:49
Mass and weight are proportional.
Weight of 8 kg massed object = 8 × 9.8 = 78.4N

Constant of proportionality = 9.8

Question 9.
The perimeter of a triangle is 60 cm. Sides are in the ratio 3: 4: 5. Then j find the length of the sides.
Answer:
Ratio of sides = 3 : 4 : 5
Therefore, the sides are the \(\frac { 3 }{ 12 }\), \(\frac { 4 }{ 12 }\) and \(\frac { 5 }{ 12 }\) part of the perimeter .
The perimeter is 60 cm, then the length of sides are

\(60 \times \frac{5}{12}=25 \mathrm{cm}\)

Question 10.
Will the dye which contains 10 L blue colour and 15 L white colour and another dye which contain 12L blue colour and 17 L white colour have j the same colour? Why?
Answer:
In the first dye , blue colour: white colour = 10 : 15 = 2 : 3
In the second dye, blue colour: white colour = 12: 17
The ratios are not same. Hence the both will not have same colour.

Question 11.
The face perimeter of some vessels in the shape of square prisms are equal. 12 litres of water can be filled in the vessel having height 15 cm. 16 litres of water can be filled in the vessel having height 20 cm. Check whether the volumes of the vessel and height are proportional. What is the constant of proportionality?
Answer:
Since the face perimeters are equal,
Volume = face perimeter × height
Volume of the vessel having height 15 cm = 12 litres.
Ratio of height to volume =15 : 12 = 5 : 4 Volume of the vessel having height 20 cm = 16 litres
Ratio of height to volume =20 : 16 = 5 : 4 Since the ratios are equal, height and volume are proportional.
\(\frac { volume }{ height }\) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) constant of proportionality
Volume of the vessel having height 35 cm
= 35 × \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) = 28 liters.

Question 12.
The ratio of carbon, sulphur and potassium nitrate to make gun powder is 3 : 2: 1. How much quantity of each is required to make 1.2 kg of gun powder ?
Answer:

Question 13.
Raju got Rs. 400 after working for 8 hours. Damu worked for 6 hours and got Rs. 300. Are the wages obtained proportional to the work time?
Answer:
Ramu working hours = 8 hour
Wages Raju obtained = Rs. 400
Damu working hours = 6 hour
Wages obtained by Damu = Rs. 300

∴ Wages obtained are proportional to the work time.

Question 14.
150 L of water flows through a pipe for 6 minutes. 200 L of water flows for 8 minutes through the same pipe. Are the time and amount of water flowing proportional?
Answer:
Ratio of quantity of water
= 150 : 200 = 15 : 20 = 3 : 4
Ratio oftime =6 : 8 = 3 : 4
The ratios are same , hence they are proportional.

Question 15.
A car with 5L of petrol travels a distance of 75 km. What is the proportionality constant between the distance travelled and the quantity of petrol? How much petrol is needed for travelling 180 km?
Answer:
Taking the distance travelled as x and quantity of petrol as y, then the constant of proportionality

The quantity of petrol needed to travel 180 km= 12 litre

Question 16.
The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 3: 5. How much is each angle of the triangle?
Answer:
Sum of the angles of a triangle = 180°
The angles of the traingle are \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\), \(\frac { 3 }{ 9 }\) and \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
parts of 180° , hence the angles are