Prasanna

Students can Download Chapter 6 Linear Inequalities Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Linear Inequalities

Plus One Maths Linear Inequalities Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Solve the following inequalities.

1. \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{3 x}{5}+4\right) \geq \frac{1}{3}(x-6)\)
2. \(\left(\frac{2 x-1}{3}\right) \geq \frac{(3 x-2)}{4}-\frac{(2-x)}{5}\) (3 score each)

Answer:
1. Given;

⇒ 3(3x + 20) ≥ 10(x – 6)
⇒ 9x + 60 ≥ 10x – 60
⇒ 9x – 10x ≥ -60 – 60
⇒ -x ≥ -120 ⇒ x ≤ 120

2. Given;

⇒ 20(2x -1) ≥ 3[15x – 10 – 8 + 4x]
⇒ 40x – 20 ≥ 45x – 54 + 12x
⇒ 40x – 20 ≥ 57x – 54
⇒ 40x – 57x ≥ -54 + 20
⇒ -17x ≥ -34 ⇒ x ≤ 2

Question 2.
1. Which of the following sets of inequality represent the second quadrant? (1)
(a) x < 0, y < 0
(b) x > 0, y > 0
(c) x < 0, y > 0
(d) x > 0, y < 0
2. Write the system of inequalities that represents the shaded rectangle in the figure given below: (2)

Answer:
1. (a) x < 0, y < 0

2. The shaded figure is a rectangle. The side parallel to x axis are y = -1 and y = 1. The side perpendicular to x axis are x = 2 and x = -2. Hence the inequality that represent the shaded region are
-2 ≤ x ≤ 2; -1 ≤ y ≤ 1.

Question 3.
Find all pairs of consecutive even positive integers both of which are smaller than10 such that their sum is less than 23.
Answer:
Consecutive even positive integers be x and x + 2. Then, x + x + 2 < 23; x + 2 < 10
⇒ 2x < 23 – 2; x < 10 – 2
⇒ x < \(\frac{21}{2}\) = 10.5; x < 8
⇒ 8 < x ≤ 10 Therefore x can take values 9, 10. Hence the pairs are (9, 10), (10, 9).

Question 4.
The longest side of a triangle is 3 times the shortest side and the third side is 2 cm shorter than the longest side. If the perimeter of the triangle is at least 61 cm, find the minimum length of the shortest side.
Answer:
Let the shortest side is x, then;
Longest side = 3x;
Third side = Longest side – 2 = 3x – 2
Perimeter = 3x + 3x – 2 + x ≥ 61 ⇒ 7x – 2 ≥ 61
⇒ 7x ≥ 61 + 2 ⇒ x ≥ \(\frac{63}{7}\) = 9.

Plus One Maths Linear Inequalities Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Solve the following system of inequalities graphically.

1. 2x – y > 1; x – 2y < -1
2. x + y ≤ 9; y > x; x ≥ 0
3. x – 2y ≤ 3; 3x + 4y ≥ 12; x ≥ 0, y ≥ 1
4. 2x + y – 3 ≥ 0; x – 2y + 1 ≥ 0; y ≤ 3 (4 score each)

Answer:
1. 2x – y > 1; x – 2y < -1

2. x + y ≤ 9; y > x ⇒ x – y < 0

3. x – 2y ≤ 3; 3x + 4y ≥ 12

4. 2x + y ≥ 3; x – 2y ≤ -1

Plus One Maths Linear Inequalities Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Solve the following inequalities.

1. 4x + 3 < 5x + 7
2. 3(x – 1) ≤ 2(x – 3) (1 score each)

Answer:
1. Given; 4x + 3 < 5x + 7
⇒ 4x – 5x < 7 – 3 ⇒ -x < 4 ⇒ x > -4.

2. Given; 3(x – 1) < 2(x – 3)
⇒ 3x – 3 ≤ 2x – 6 ⇒ 3x – 2x ≤ -6 + 3
⇒ x ≤ -3.

Question 2.
Solve the inequality \(\frac{3(x-2)}{5} \leq \frac{5(2-x)}{3}\).
Answer:
Given; \(\frac{3(x-2)}{5} \leq \frac{5(2-x)}{3}\)
⇒ 9(x – 2) ≤ 25(2 – x)
⇒ 9x – 18 ≤ 50 – 25x
⇒ 9x + 25x ≤ 50 + 18
⇒ 34x ≤ 68 ⇒ x ≤ 2.

Question 3.
Show the solution of each inequality on a number line.

1. 4x + 3 < 6x + 7
2. 5x – 3 ≥ 3x – 5
3. 3(1 – x) < 2(x + 4)
4. 2 – 3x < 2(x + 6)
5. -3 ≤ 3 – 2x < 6 (2 score each)

Answer:
1. Given; 4x + 3 < 6x + 7 ⇒ 4x – 6x < 7 – 3
⇒ -2x < 4 ⇒ x > -2

2. Given; 5x – 3 > 3x – 5 ⇒ 5x – 3x ≥ -5 + 3
⇒ 2x ≥ -2 ⇒ x ≥ 1.

3. Given; 3(1 – x) < 2(x + 4) ⇒ 3 – 3x < 2x + 8
⇒ -3x – 2x < 8 – 3 ⇒ -5x < 5 ⇒ x > -1.

4. Given; 2 – 3x < 2(x + 6) ⇒ 2 – 3x < 2x + 12
⇒ -3x – 2x < 12 – 2 ⇒ -5x < 10 ⇒ x > -2

5. Given; -3 ≤ 3 – 2x < 6
⇒ -3 ≤ 3 – 2x; 3 – 2x < 6
⇒ -3 – 3 ≤ -2x; -2x < 6 – 3
⇒ -6 ≤ -2x; -2x < 3 ⇒ 3 ≥ x; x > \(-\frac{3}{2}\) ⇒ \(-\frac{3}{2}\) < x ≤ 3

Question 4.
The marks obtained by a student of class XI in first and second terminal examination are 62 and 48, respectively. Find the minimum marks he should get in the annual examination to have an average of at least 60 marks.
Answer:
Let x denote the mark obtained by the student in Class XI examination, then;
\(\frac{62+48+x}{3}\) ≥ 60 ⇒ 110 + x ≥ 1800 ⇒ x ≥ 70.

Students can Download Chapter 4 Principle of Mathematical Induction Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Principle of Mathematical Induction

Plus One Maths Principle of Mathematical Induction Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
For all n ≥ 1 , prove that
1² + 2² + 3² +……….+ n² > \(\frac{n^{3}}{3}\)
Answer:
Let p(n): 1² + 2² + 3² + n²
Put n = 1 ⇒ p(1) = 1 > \(\frac{1}{3}\) which is true.
Assuming that true for p(k)
p(k): 1² + 2² + 3² +……….+ k² > \(\frac{k^{3}}{3}\)
Let p(k + 1): 1² + 2² + 3² +…….+ k² + (k + 1)² > \(\frac{k^{3}}{3}\) + (k + 1)²


Hence by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Question 2.
For all n ≥ 1 , prove that 1 + 2 + 3 +…….+ n < \(\frac{1}{8}\)(2n + 1)²
Answer:
Let p(n): 1 + 2 + 3 +…….+ n ,
Put n = 1 ⇒ p(1) = 1 < \(\frac{9}{8}\) which is true.
Assuming that true for p(k)
p(k): 1 + 2 + 3 +…….+ k < \(\frac{1}{8}\)(2k + 1)²
Let p(k +1): 1 + 2 + 3 +……..+ k + (k +1) < \(\frac{1}{8}\) (2k + 1)² + (k + 1)

Hence by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Question 3.
For all n ≥ 1, prove that p(n): 2³ⁿ – 1 is divisible by 7.
Answer:
p(1): 2³⁽¹⁾ – 1 = 8 – 1 = 7 divisible by 7, hence true. Assuming that for p(k)
p(k) : 2^3k – 1 is divisible by 7.
2^3k – 1 = 7M
P(k + 1): 2^{3(k + 1)} – 1 = 2^{3k + 3} – 1
= 2^3k2³ – 1 = 2^3k × 8 – 1
= 2^3k × 8 – 8 + 7 = 8(2^3k – 1) + 7
= 8(7M) + 7
Hence divisible by 7. Therefore by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Question 4.
For all n ≥ 1, prove that p(n): n³ + (n + 1)³ + (n + 2)³ is divisible by 9.
Answer:
p(1): 1 + 2³ + 3³ = 1 + 8 + 27 = 36 divisible by 9, hence true. Assuming that true for p(k)
p(k): k³ + (k + 1)³ + (k + 2)³ is divisible by 9.
⇒ k³ + (k + 1)³ + (k + 2)³ = 9M
p(k +1 ): (k + 1)³ + (k + 2 )³ + (k + 3)³
= (k +1)³ + (k + 2)³ + k³ + 9k² + 27k + 27
= [(k + 1)³ + (k + 2)³ + k³] + 9[k² + 3k + 3]
= 9M + 9[k² + 3k + 3]
Hence p(k + 1)divisible by 9. Therefore by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Plus One Maths Principle of Mathematical Induction Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
For all n ≥ 1, prove that

Answer:

Hence by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Question 2.
For all n ≥ 1, prove that

Answer:
Let

Assuming that true for p(k)

Let p(k + 1):

Hence by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Question 3.
For all n ≥ 1 , prove that 1.2.3 + 2.3.4 +………+ n(n + 1)(n + 2) = \(\frac{n(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)}{4}\).
Answer:
Let p(n): 1.2.3 + 2.3.4 +……..+ n(n + 1)(n + 2),
Put n = 1
p(1) = \(\frac{1(1+1)(1+2)(1+3)}{4}\) = 6 which is true.
Assuming that true for p(k)
p(k): 1.2.3 + 2.3.4 +……..+ k(k + 1)(k + 2) = \(\frac{k(k+1)(k+2)(k+3)}{4}\),
Let p(k + 1)


Hence by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Question 4.
For all n ≥ 1, prove that

Answer:


Hence by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Question 5.
For all n ≥ 1 , prove that p(n): n(n + 1 )(n + 5) is divisible by 3.
Answer:
p(1): 1(1 + 1)(1 + 5) = 12divisible by 3, hence true. Assuming that true for p(k)
p(k): k(k + 1)(k + 5) is divisible by 3.
k(k + 1)(k + 5) = 3M
p(k + 1): (k + 1)(k + 2)(k + 6)
= (k + 1)(k² + 8k + 12)
= (k + 1)(k² + 5k + 3k +12)
= (k + 1)[k(k + 5) + 3(k + 6)]
= [k(k + 1)(k + 5) + 3(k + 1)(k + 6)]
= [3M + 3(k + 1)(k + 6)]
= 3[M + (k + 1)(k + 6)]
Hence divisible by 3. Therefore by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Question 6.
For all n ≥ 1 , prove that p(n): 2.7ⁿ + 3.5ⁿ – 5 is divisible by 24.
Answer:
p(1): 2.7¹ + 3.5¹ – 5 = 14 + 15 – 5 = 24 divisible by 24, hence true. Assuming that true for p(k)
p(k): 2.7^k + 3.5^k – 5 is divisible by 24.
⇒ 2.7^k + 3.5^k – 5 = 24M
p(k + 1): 2.7^{k + 1} + 3.5^{k + 1} – 5
= 2.7^k.7 + 3.5^k.5 – 5
= 2.7^k.(6 + 1) + 3.5^k.(4 + 1) – 5
= 12.7^k + 2.7^k + 12.5^k + 3.5^k – 5
= 12(7^k + 5^k) + (2.7^k + 3.5^k) – 5
= 12(7^k + 5^k) + 24M
7^k And 5^k are odd numbers, therefore (7^k + 5^k) will be an even and will be divisible by 24, Hence p(k + 1)divisible by 24. Therefore by using the principle of mathematical induction true for all n ∈ N.

Students can Download Chapter 9 Locomotion and Movement Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Locomotion and Movement

Plus One Locomotion and Movement One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Ribs are attached to
(a) Scapula
(b) Sternum
(c) Clavicle
(d) llium
Answer:
(d) llium

Question 2.
What is the type of movable joint present between the atlas and axis?
(a) Pivot
(b) Saddle
(c) Hinge
(d) Gliding
Answer:
(a) Pivot

Question 3.
ATPase of the muscle is located in
(a) Actinin
(b) Troponin
(c) Myosin
(d) Actin
Answer:
(c) Myosin

Question 4.
Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit
(a) Ciliary movement
(b) Flagellar movement
(c) Amoeboid movement
(d) Gliding movement
Answer:
(c) Amoeboid movement

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a disorder of bone?
(a) Arthritis
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Rickets
(d) Atherosclerosis
Answer:
(d) Atherosclerosis

Question 6.
Suggest a suitable word for the fourth place

1. thin filament : Actin :: Thick filament : ___________
2. Pelvic girdle : humerus :: Pelvic girdle : ___________

Answer:

1. myosin
2. Femur

Question 7.
Copy the paragraph below about the structure of a striated muscle. Choose the words from the following list & fill up the gaps.

Under lightmicroscope, the striated muscle shows ________ (a) band & _______ (b) band. The distance between 2 adjacent Z lines is known as __________ (c).
(sarcomere, lightband, A band, H-zone, M line, darkband)
Answer:
(a) Ligthband
(b) Darkband
(c) Sarcomere

Question 8.
A person is suffering from joint pain. His blood test shown increased amount of Uric acid. What will be the diagnosis?
Answer:
Gout

Question 9.
The infants have 33 vertebrae in the vertebral column. But an adult has only 26 vertebrae. What will happen to the remaining vertebrae.
Answer:
Ulna

Plus One Locomotion and Movement Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The axial skeleton contains 80 bones. Make a table according to where it is seen and number of bones present in each section.
Answer:

Question 2.
One of the following statements is incorrect. Find and correct it.

1. The number of cervical vertebrae is seven in all mammals except human beings.
2. Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum together make ribcage.
3. Accumulation of uric acid in joints leads to gout.

Answer:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The number of cervical vertebrae is seven in all mammals including human beings.

Question 3.

1. Name the process shown here, which theory explain this process ?
2. Draw and complete the process.

Answer:
1. Muscle contraction, Sliding – filament theory

2.

Question 4.
Red muscle fibers have greater capacity to do work for a prolonged period where as white muscles suffer from fatigue after a short time. Give reason.
Answer:
Red muscle fibers are red in colour due to the presence of large amount of myoglobin. Myoglobin is an oxygen storing pigment. These muscle also contain plenty of mitochondria which can utilise the large amount of oxygen stored in them for ATP production.

So red muscle fibers have greater capacity to do work for a prolonged period. White muscle fibers possess very less quantity of myoglobin and mitochondria.

Question 5.
Shoulder joints are not very stable. But they are freely movable. Give reason?
Answer:
Shoulder joints are freely movable joint or synovial joint. In this type of joint there is presence of a fluid filled synovial cavity between the articulating surfaces of the two bones. Such an arrangement allows considerable movement.

Question 6.
Name the types of joint between the following.

1. Atlas/axis
2. Between Cranial bones
3. Carpal/Meta carpel of thumb
4. Between Humerus and pectoral girdle

Answer:

1. Pivot joint
2. Fibrous joint
3. Saddle joint
4. Ball and socket joint

Question 7.
Analyse the table & fill in the blanks with appropriate words.

Answer:

Question 8.
The last two pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.

1. What do you meant by the term floating ribs?
2. What are true ribs?

Answer:

1. Last 2 pairs of ribs are not connected ventrally to the sternum. There ribs are called floating ribs.
2. First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs. Dorsally, they pre attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.

Question 9.
Some joints in the body are characterized by pressure of a fluid filled cavity between articulating surfaces of two bones. Mention the peculiarity of these types of joint and give examples?
Answer:
This type of joint in called synovial joint or freely movable joint and allows considerable movement.
eg:

1. Ball and socket joint (between humerus and pectoral girdle)
2. Hinge joint (knee joint)

Question 10.
A muscle cell viewed under a microscope shown the following characters.

• Sarcolemma – Present
• Shape – Cylindrical
• Nucleus – Multinuclear
• Striation – Present

1. Identify the muscle cell.
2. Calcium ions are necessary for muscle contraction.

Answer:

If a muscle is placed in a solution containing calcium ions. Does the muscle contracts? Substantiate.
Answer:

1. Skeletal muscle
2. No. For muscle contraction to occur, presence of Ca⁺⁺ ions intracellularly is needed.

Question 11.
Pictorial representation of tissue is given in a lab diary with only one labelling – intercalated discusing your knowledge about tissue.

1. Identify the tissue.
2. Draw the structure of tissue and label the parts.

Answer:
1. Cardiac muscle

2.

Question 12.
You can move your hands at your will. But you can’t move your heart at your will. Comment.
Answer:
Muscles of the hand are skeletal muscles and they are voluntary muscle. Muscles of the heart are cardiac muscles and they are involuntary muscles.

Question 13.

1. Identify the muscle cell
2. Mention its function.

Answer:

1. Non-striated muscle (smooth muscle)
2. Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles located in the inner visceral organs like alimentary canal, reproductive tract etc. So they help the transportation of food through digestive tract and gamete through the genital tract.

Question 14.
An investigation was arrived out to find the effect of the temperature on muscle contraction. The results are shown in the graph.

1. Describe and suggest an explanation for one effect of temperature on muscle contraction.
2. Name the filaments involved in muscle contraction.

Answer:

1. When temperature increases muscle contraction increases, but when temperature decreases the extend of muscle contraction decreases, but the time remain in the contracted state increases,
2. Actin and myosin

Question 15.
The red colour of the blood is due to the presence of hemoglobin in it. Certain skeletal muscles are red in colour even though they lack hemoglobin. Now explain how the red muscles have that particular colour.
Answer:
Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called myoglobin. Myoglobin content is high in some skeletal muscles which gives a reddish appearance.

Question 16.
Actin, Troponin, Biceps, Muscles of blood vessels, Muscles of heart, Myosin, Muscles of reproductive tract, Tropomyosin, Muscles of Alimentary canal, Triceps.
Rearrange the terms in four columns on the basis of their similarity and give appropriate headings for each columns.
Answer:

Question 17.
Identify the myofibril and label the parts given below.

Answer:

Question 18.
Length of A band remains unchanged during muscular contraction. Is this statement true or false? Justify.
Answer:
True. A band or anisotropic band is the region where both thick filaments and thin filaments are present. During muscular contraction, the length of thick filament or thin filament does not change.

Question 19.
Match the column I with column II.

Answer:

Question 20.
Complete the division of human skeletal system by filling the blanks.

Answer:
(a) Axial
(b) Vertebral column
(c) 12
(d) One

Question 21.
Arrange the following bones into two columns and give proper heading to each columns.
Scapula, Carpals, Femur, Fibula, Tibia, Tarsals, Acetabulum, Metatarsals, Radius, Humerus, Glenoid cavity, Clavicle, Metal Carpals, Phalanges, Patella, Ilium, Ischium, Pubis.
Answer:

Question 22.
Your lungs and Heart are well protected in a cage. Which bone contributes to it?
Answer:
In an infant, there are 33 vertebrae in the vertebral column. Five of these bones fuse to form the sacrum and four of other join to become the coccyx. As a result, an adult vertebral column has 26 vertebrae.

Question 23.
There are joints at your shoulders and elbows. But their movement is different. Give reason.
Answer:

• Shoulder joint – Ball and socket joint
• Elbow joint – Hinge joint

Question 24.
What are the different type of movement shown by human cells?
Answer:
Amoeboid, ciliary and muscular and flagellar movement.

Question 25.
Fill the gaps.

Answer:

Question 26.
Draw a flow chart showing the flow of stimulus that results in muscle contraction. (Start from Neuromuscular junction)
Answer:

Question 27.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 28.
Write the odd one out and give the reason for your answer.

1. Fibrous joints, Ball and socket joints, hinge joints, pivot joints
2. Humerus, Femur, Radius, Ulna.

Answer:

1. Fibrous joints: They are immovable joints of the bones of skull whereas all others are freely movable joints.
2. Femur: It is the thigh bone whereas all other are the bones of the forelimb

Question 29.
Bones of the older people turn brittle and break quickly.

1. Name the bone disorder stated above.
2. List any two reasons for the above disorder.

Answer:

1. Osteoporosis
2. reasons for the above disorder
   • Imbalance of hormones like thyrocalcitonin, parathyroid and sex hormones.
   • Deficiency of calcium and Vitamin D.

Question 30.
When you ride a bicycle two majorjointsofyourleg should perform properly.

1. Name the joints.
2. To which type of synovial joints these belong?

Answer:

1. Knee joint, Hip Joint
2. Hinge joint, Ball and Socket joint

Question 31.
In human body different type of movement shown by some cells.

1. Name the type of movement shown by human sperm.
2. Which is the part of sperm help this movement?

Answer:

1. Flagellar movement
2. Whip like movement of the tail and the middle piece of the sperm

Plus One Locomotion and Movement Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State one difference in each of the following pairs on the basis of what is indicated in brackets.

1. Glenoid cavity and acetabulum (location and function)
2. Osteoarthritis and Gout (cause)

Answer:
1. Glenoid cavity:
It is a cap like depression in the pectoral girdle to which the head of the humerus fits in.

Acetabulum:
It is a cap like depression present in the pelvic girdle to which head of the femur bone fits in.

2. Osteoarthritis:
It is caused by the degeneration of the articular cartilage.

Gout:
It is caused by accumulation of uric acid crystals.

Question 2.

1. Observe the diagram and identify the type of joint.
2. Where can you find this type of joints in your body?
3. Comment on its ability to move.

Answer:

1. Ball and socket joint
2. Shoulder joints and Hip joints
3. In ball and socket joint, one of the bones forms a ball like head while the other forms a cup like socket into which head fits in. It allows the free movement of the bone with the ball like head.

Question 3.
X-ray photography of forelimb of a person is given here. One of the bones found to be fractured. Name the bone with fracture.

Answer:
a. (i) Across:
1. Hyoid
3. Cranium
4. Pelvic girdle

(ii) Down:
2. Coccyx
5. Ulna

b. Hyoid and cranium

Question 4.
According to colour, muscles are of two types.

1. Name the two muscles.
2. Why are they called so?
3. Give examples.

Answer:

1. Red muscle and white muscle.
2. Red muscles contain large amount of mitochondria and myoglobin whereas the white muscles contain only less amount of mitochondria and myoglobin.
3. Examples
   • Red muscles – Extensor muscles on the back.
   • White muscles – muscles of the eye ball.

Question 5.

1. Observe the above graph and find out the region of graph where muscle show maximum contraction. Justify your answer.
2. Name the different types of muscle proteins present in thick and thin filaments.
3. Ca²⁺ is necessary for muscle contraction. Why?

Answer:
1. Region 2 During Muscular contraction amount of Ca²⁺ released from ER is very high.

2. Thick filament – Muscle protein – myosin
Thin filament – Muscle protein – actin, troponin, tropomyosin.

3. Muscle contraction is regulated by a regulator protein troponin. Troponin mask the active site of actin molecule from myosin head, Action potential reaching a muscle cause the ER to release Ca²⁺.

This Ca²⁺ bind with the specific site of troponin. It causes a conformational change by which the active site of actin molecule is exposed and it results in cross bridge activity and muscle contraction.

Question 6.
Will muscle contraction occur in the following conditions. Justify your answer.

1. Troponin is removed from the thin filament.
2. No ATP is supplied to the muscle.
3. All endoplasmic reticulum are removed from muscle cells.

Answer:

1. Muscle contraction occur.
2. Muscle contraction does not occur. Attachment and detachment of myosin head to actin molecule requires ATP.
3. No muscle contraction. Ca²⁺ necessary for muscular contraction is released from endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 7.
The given statements are about the structure of muscles. Categorise them into a table giving appropriate headings.

1. These muscles have striation.
2. These are found inside the wall of hollow internal organs.
3. These muscles have no striations.
4. They are voluntary muscles.
5. They are muscles of the arms and legs.
6. They are involuntary muscles

Answer:

Question 8.
Observe the following diagram.

1. Identify A, B, C, D.
2. What is Sarcomere?
3. List out the changes takes place during muscle contraction to ABC and D.

Answer:

1. Identification
   • A – Sarcomere
   • B – Hzone
   • C – Aband
   • D – Iband
2. A sarcomere is the region between two adjacent Z line. It is formed of a complete A band in the middle and halves of two I bands present on either side.
3. the changes takes place during muscle contraction to ABC and D:
   • A – Two Z lines of the sarcomere come close together resulting in the shortening of the sarcomere.
   • B – H – Zone completely disappears.
   • C – No change in the length of A band
   • D – I – band get reduced

Question 9.
Give any example of synovial joint.
Answer:

1. Ball and socket joint (between humerus and pectoral girdle)
2. Hinge joint – knee joint

Question 10.
Suppose a person is suffering from calcium deficiency for a prolonged time. How does it affect muscular contraction? (Note: Description necessary)
Answer:
Muscle contraction begins when a nerve impulse reaches at the neuromuscular junction. During this time the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca²⁺. The Ca²⁺ binds with the specific site of the troponin of the actin filament.

This causes a conformational change in the troponin molecule and expose the active site on the actin molecule. Myosin filament binds with the active site of actin and there is formation a cross bridge. By the movement of cross bridge contraction occurs.

The contraction is followed by relaxation and it occurs when Ca²⁺ in pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. As a result, the troponin molecules became free to mask the active site of the myosin head.

Question 11.
Identify the following diseases noting the symptoms given below

1. The liver is affected, skin and eyes turn yellow due to the deposit of bile pigments.
2. Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to the inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
3. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged mainly due to cigarette smoking.
4. Auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles.
5. Inflammation of joints due to deposition of uric and crystals.
6. Age related disorder due to decreased level of estrogen, characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures.

Answer:

1. Jaundice
2. Asthma
3. Emphysema
4. Myasthenia gravis
5. Gout
6. Osteoporosis

Question 12.
Identify the following tissues and write down their location.

1. Loose connective tissue which stores fat.
2. Dense connective tissue which connect bone to bone.
3. A contractile tissue which possess intercalatory disc.

Answer:

1. Adipose tissue – beneath the skin
2. Ligament – attach one bone to another
3. Cardiac muscle – heart

Plus One Locomotion and Movement NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.
Answer:
Sliding Filament Theory of Muscle Contraction Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by the sliding filament theory which states that contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments.

Question 2.
Describe the important steps in muscle contraction.
Answer:
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system (CNS) via a motor neuron. A motor neuron alongwith the muscle fibres connected to it constitute a motor unit. The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the neuromuscular junction or motor end plate.

1. A neural signal reaching this junction releases a neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.

2. Increase in Ca²⁺ level leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby remove the masking of active sites for myosin.

3. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head now binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a cross bridge. This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the centre of ‘A’ band.

4. The 7’ line attached to these actions are also pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction.

5. It is clear from the above steps, that during shortening of the muscle, i.e., contraction, the T bands get reduced, whereas the A’ bands retain the length.

6. The myosin, releasing the ADP and PI goes back to its relaxed state. A new ATP binds and the cross-bridge is broken. The ATP is again hydroysed by the myosin head and the cycle of cross bridge formation and breakage is repeated causing further sliding.

7. The process continues till the Ca²⁺ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cisternae resulting in the masking of actin filaments. This causes the return of 7 lines back to their original position, i.e., relaxation.

Question 3.
Write true or false. If false change the statement so that it is true.

1. Actin present in thin filament
2. H-zone of striated muscle fibre represents both thick and thin filaments
3. The human skeleton has 206 bones
4. There are 11 pairs of ribs in man.
5. Stenum is present on the ventral side of the body.

Answer:

1. True
2. False, H-zone represents thick filaments
3. True
4. False, There are 12 pairs of ribs in man
5. True

Question 4.
Match column I with column II

Answer:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (ii)
(c) – (i)
(d) – (iii)

Question 5.
Name the type of joint between the following

1. Atlas/axis
2. Carpal/metacarpal of thumb
3. Between phalanges
4. Femur/acetabulum
5. Between carnival bones
6. Between public bones in the pelvic girdle

Answer:

1. Pivot joint
2. Saddle joint
3. Gliding joint
4. Ball and socket joint
5. Fibrous joint
6. Cartilaginous

Question 6.
Fill in the blank spaces:

1. All mamnals (expect a few) have __________ cervical vertebra.
2. The number of phalanges in each limb of human is __________
3. Thin filament of myofibril contains 2 ‘F’ actins and two other proteins namely __________ and _________
4. In a muscle fibre Ca²⁺ is stored in __________
5. _______and ________ pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.
6. The human cranium is made of _________ bones.

Answer:

1. 7
2. 14
3. tropomyosin, troponin
4. sarcoplasmic reticulum
5. 11^th, 12^th
6. 8

Plus One Locomotion and Movement Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The muscle band that remains unchanged during contraction and relaxation of the skeletal muscle is
(a) I
(b) H
(c) A
(d) A-line
Answer:
(d) A-line

Question 2.
Intervertebral disc consists of a shock absorber connective tissue known as
(a) hyaline cartilage
(b) elastic cartilage
(c) fibrocartilage
(d) reticulo cartilage
Answer:
(c) fibrocartilage

Question 3.
Common among all mammals is
(a) ventral nerve cord
(b) seven cervical vertebrae
(c) all are carnivores
(d) all are producers
Answer:
(b) seven cervical vertebrae

Question 4.
The lactic acid generated during muscle contraction is converted to glycogen in
(a) muscles
(b) kidney
(c) pancreas
(d) liver
Answer:
(d) liver

Question 5.
Folding and unfolding of actin and myosin leads to amoeboid movement. This is hypothesised by
(a) Allen
(b) Goldacre and Lasch
(c) Berthold
(d) Jennigs
Answer:
(b) Goldacre and Lasch

Question 6.
Muscle fatigue is due to
(a) lactic acid
(b) citric acid
(c) Na
(d) K
Answer:
(a) lactic acid

Question 7.
Which of the following is not syncytial?
(a) Cardiac muscle
(b) Skeletal muscle
(c) Smooth muscle
(d) Interstitial muscle
Answer:
(c) Smooth muscle

Question 8.
Humerus fits into glenoid cavity is example of
(a) ball and socket joint
(b) pivot joint
(c) peg and socket joint
(d) condyloid join
Answer:
(a) ball and socket joint

Question 9.
Human vertebral column is formed by
(a) 21 vertebrae
(b) 30 vertebrae
(c) 26 vertebrae
(d) 33 vertebrae
Answer:
(d) 33 vertebrae

Question 10.
When body part moves towards the median axis is called
(a) abductor
(b) adductor
(c) supinator
(d) pronator
Answer:
(b) adductor

Question 11.
The thin filaments of a muscle fibre are made up of
(a) actin, troponin, tropomyosin
(b) actin, troponin
(c) niyosin, troponin
(d) actin, tropomyosin
Answer:
(a) actin, troponin, tropomyosin

Question 12.
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Cartilaginous joint Skull bones
(b) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae
(c) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges
(d) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae
Answer:
(d) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae

Question 13.
Nucleus purposes is found in
(a) brain
(b) nucleus
(c) intervertebral disc
(d) liver
Answer:
(c) intervertebral disc

Question 14.
Total number of bones found in right upper limb is
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 30
(d) 60
Answer:
(c) 30

Question 15.
In a vertebrate, which germ layer forms the skeletor muscles?
(a) Ectoderm
(b)Endoderm
(c) Mesoderm
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(c) Mesoderm

Question 16.
Where did an epidemic bone softening disease itai- itai occurred first in?
(a) South Korea
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Burma
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 17.
Muscle pump is
(a) beating of heart
(b) squeezing effect of muscles upon veins running through them
(c) peristaltic wave that travel along the alimentar canal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) squeezing effect of muscles upon veins running through them

Question 18.
Slow muscle fibres are found in
(a) eye
(b) leg
(c) stomach
(d) heart
Answer:
(b) leg

Question 19.
The gliding joints are important for gliding movements. One example of such a joint is between the
(a) zygapophyses of adjacent vertebrae
(b) humerous and glenoid cavity
(c) occipital condyle and odontoid process
(d) femur and tibio fibula
Answer:
(a) zygapophyses of adjacent vertebrae

Question 20.
Aqueduct of Sylvius (iter) connects
(a) 1^st and 2^nd ventricles
(b) 3^rd and 4^th ventricles
(c) 2^nd and 3^rd ventricles
(d) 4^th and 1^st ventricles
Answer:
(b) 3^rd and 4^th ventricles

Question 21.
Volkmann’s canals occur in
(a) internal ear
(b) liver
(c) cartilage
(d) bone
Answer:
(d) bone

Question 22.
For muscle contraction, in myofibrils the formation, of a protein is essential, such protein discovered by
(a) Jean Hanson
(b) Con and Con
(c) lbert Szent Gyorgyi
(d) Hugh Huxley
Answer:
(c) lbert Szent Gyorgyi

Students can Download Chapter 11 Plant Growth and Development Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Plant Growth and Development

Plus One Botany Plant Growth and Development One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Ethylene is used for
(a) Retarding ripening of tomatoes
(b) Hastening of ripening of fruits
(c) Slowing down ripening of apples
(d) Both b and c
Answer:
(b) Hastening of ripening of fruits.

Question 2.
Coconut milk contains
(a) ABA
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
Answer:
(c) Cytokinin

Question 3.
The affect of apical dominance can be overcome by which of the following hormone:
(a) IAA
(b) Ethylene
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(d) Cytokinin.

Question 4.
Growth can be measured in various ways. Which of these can be used as parameters to measure growth
(a) Increase in cell number
(b) Increase in cell size
(c) Increase in length and weight
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 5.
ABA acts antagonistic to
(a) Ethylene
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberlic acid
(d) IAA
Answer:
(c) Gibberlic acid.

Question 6.
Name the growth regulator which was isolated from the endosperm of maize.
Answer:
Cytokinin(Zeatin).

Question 7.
What can induce bolting cabbage plant?
Answer:
Gibberellins

Question 8.
Certain plants flower only when they are exposed to low temperature for a few weeks . What do you call for this requirement?
Answer:
Vernalisation.

Question 9.
Some volatile substance from the ripened oranges that hastens the ripening of stored unripened bananas. Name the hormone which induces ripening.
Answer:
Ethylene

Question 10.
In a wheat field, some broad-leaved weeds were found by a farmer. Which phytohormone can be used to eradicate them.
Answer:
2, 4 – D (Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid).

Question 11.
Name the phytohormone that can cause the development of seedless fruits.
Answer:
Gibberellic acid.

Plus One Botany Plant Growth and Development Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following. (Column I with Column II)

Answer:

Question 2.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 3.
In plants, the adverse environmental conditions such as severe drought can be overcome by the production of a hormone.

1. Name the hormone.
2. Write the role of the hormone.

Answer:

1. ABA
2. Stress hormone – Closure of stomata.

Question 4.
Auxin is a growth-promoting phytohormone. Write any two functions of auxin,
Answer:

1. Production of Seedless fruit
2. Used as Weedicide

Question 5.
Growth pattern of a plant is displayed in graph. Observe the figure.

1. What kind of growth form is this?
2. Why does the graph show a decline to a near-constant level?

Answer:

1. Sigmoid curve
2. Stationary phase

Question 6.
Some important functions of a Phytohormone are given below:
Production of Parthenocarpic Fruits Eradication of weeds

1. Identify the hormone.
2. Mention any other two important functions of this hormone.

Answer:

1. Auxin
2. Root initiation, Apical dominance

Question 7.
In Plants, adverse environmental conditions such as severe drought can be overcome by the use of a hormone.

1. Name the hormone
2. Write the role of this hormone.

Answer:

1. ABA (Abscisic Acid)
2. It causes the Closure of stomata. This reduces the rate of transpiration.

Question 8.

1. A farmer is going to plant Tapioca cuttings. Which hormone you will suggest for early rooting of tapioca cuttings?
2. A defoliated short day plant is kept under short-day conditions for 15 days and another short-day plant with single leaf is kept under short-day conditions for 1 day. Which plant will possibly flower first and give reasons?

Answer:

1. Auxin
2. A short day plant with single leaf will flower first Leaf recives the light stimulus and produce Florigen, It is then transported to the vegetative apex. As a result vegetative apex is converted into reproductive apex and bears floral leaves.

Question 9.
Synthetic auxins are of much importance in agriculture. Name any two synthetic auxins.
Answer:

• 2, 4 – D (2,4 – Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid)
• 2, 4, 5 – T. ( 2,4,5 – Trichlorophenoxy acetic acid).

Question 10.
Which hormone will add, if you are asked to help a farmer to

1. Quickly ripens fruit
2. Bolt a resette plant
3. Initiate rooting in a twig
4. Induce stomatal closure in leaves.

Answer:

1. a) Ethylene
2. Gibberelline
3. Auxin
4. Abscisic acid (ABA)

Question 11.
A gardener finds some broad-leaved dicot weeds growing in his lawns. What can be done to get rid of the weeds efficiently?
Answer:
The dicotyledonous plant grow by their apical shoot meristems while grasses (which make lawns) possess intercalary meristem. Certain auxins, such as synthetic 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4- D) when applied in excess can damage the shoot apical meristems but they do not cause any damage to the intercalary meristems. Thus, when 2, 4-D is sprayed on lawns, only the dicots get killed and the lawns become free of weeds.

Question 12.
What is the mechanism underlying the phenomenon by which the terminal/apical bud suppresses the growth of lateral buds? Suggest measures to overcome this phenomenon.
Answer:
The phenomenon by which the terminal apical bud suppresses the growth of lateral buds is referred to as apical dominance. This js because of the hormone auxin synthesised in the apical bud that inhibits lateral bud development.

This can be overcome by removing the apical bud (decapitating) and young leaves which will increase branching. It may also be possible to overcome this phenomenon by application of cytokinin and antiauxins like ethylene chlorohydrin, DCA (trichloroanisole), etc.

Question 13.
Ethylene is otherwise known as a fruiting hormone. So this is widely used in agricultural fields. Which compound is used as a source of ethylene and what are its merits?
Answer:
Ehephone-Merits:

1. It promotes female flowers in cucumbers.
2. It hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples.
3. It promotes abscission of flowers and fruits.

Question 14.
Plant hormones are organic compounds influencing growth and development. One of the hormones was first isolated from human urine and other is a gaseous hormone.
a) Name the two hormones.
b) Write any two functions of these hormones.
Answer:

Question 15.
How will you induce lateral branching in a plant which normally does not produce them ? Give reason in support of your answer.
Answer:
When apical bud is removed, it promotes lateral branching. It is due to the removal the auxin from the tip and growth of apical bud is inhibited.

Question 16.
Describe how auxins are related with the bending of shoot towards the source of light.
Answer:
When unilateral light is given, auxin from the illuminated side shifted towards the shaded side and more growth occurs on that side. This causes the bending of the shoot.

Question 17.
How does abscisic acid act antagonistically to auxins and gibberellins?
Answer:
Gibberellin causes the breaking of bud dormancy but auxin check the fruit fall and leaf fall. These two physiological functions are inhibited by ABA.

Question 18.
What is meant by abscission? Name the phytohormone involved in it.
Answer:
It is the shedding of leaves, flowers, fruits, and bark. Abscisic acid(ABA)

Question 19.
What does a stationary phase of sigmoid growth curve indicate?
Answer:
It is otherwise called a declining phase because growth slows down.

Question 20.
What is the full form of I BA? Also, mention its one use in agriculture.
Answer:
Indole – 3 -butyric acid
It initiates root formation on stem cuttings by activating root primordia

Question 21
Fill in the places with appropriate word/words.

1. A phase of growth which is the maximum and fastest is _____.
2. Apical dominance as expressed in dicotyledonous plants is due to the presence of more _____ in the apical bud than in the lateral ones.
3. In addition to auxin, _____ must be supplied to culture medium to obtain a good callus in plant tissue culture.
4. ______ of vegetative plants are the sites of photoperiodic perception.

Answer:

1. exponential/log phase of an S – curve.
2. auxin/IAA
3. cytokinin/Kinetin/6 BAP/Zeatin/etc.
4. leaves.

Question 22.
Why is abscisic acid called stress hormone?
Answer:
Abscisic acid is also called stress hormone because the synthesis of abscisic acid is stimulated by drought, waterlogging and other adverse environmental conditions. It causes the closure of stomata.

Question 23.
Root and shoot elongation takes place at constant rate in one type of growth but in others zygote develops into embryo. What are the types of growth in both?
Answer:
In the former growth is arithematic type while in the latter initial geometric then arithematic type.

Question 24.
Give the term for the process given below.

1. formation of vascular cambium and cork cambium
2. Formation of secondary tissues in dicot stem

Answer:

1. Dedifferentiation
2. Redifferentiation

Question 25.

1. Name the phenomenon of the influence of day length on the flowering of long day and short-day plants
2. Which is the part of plant shows response to such phenomenon

Answer:

1. Photoperiodism
2. Leaf.

Question 26.
Identify the true or false statements from the following.

1. ABA is known as Anti- gibberellin
2. Auxin promotes flowering in pineapple
3. Low-temperature treatment not promote flowering in varieties of wheat
4. Bakane disease associated with ethylene

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False

Plus One Botany Plant Growth and Development Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify the hormone have important role from the statement given below

1. In Tea plantation and hedge making
2. Increase stem length of sugar cane
3. ripening of fruits

Answer:

1. Auxin
2. Gibberellin
3. Ethylene

Question 2.
Which one of the plant growth regulators would you use if you are asked to:

1. Induce rooting in a twig
2. Quickly ripen a fruit
3. Delay leaf senescence
4. ‘bolt’ a rosette plant
5. Induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves.

Answer:

1. auxin
2. ethylene
3. cytokinin
4. gibberellins
5. ABA

Question 3.
The S-shaped growth curve is shown in the diagram. Label ‘a’ to ‘c’ and also write short notes on ‘a’ and ‘b’.

Answer:

• a – lag phase (slow phase)
• b – exponential phase (rapid phase)
• c – stationary phase (stagnant phase)

Question 4.
Plant growth substances (PGS) have innumerable practical Applications. Name the PGS you should use to

1. Increase yield of sugar cane
2. Promote lateral shoot growth
3. Inhibit seed germination

Answer:

1. GA3/gibberellinfgibberellic acid
2. Cytokinin zeatin/kinetin
3. ABA/Abscissic acid.

Plus One Botany Plant Growth and Development NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why is abscisic acid also known as stress hormone?
Answer:
Abscisic acid increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses. Therefore, it is also called the stress hormone.

Question 2.
‘Both growth and differentiation in higher plants are open’. Comment.
Answer:
Theoretically, growth and differentiation in higher plants are open. This means that there is no limit to the ‘extent a plant part can grow. But it is more correct to say that development and differentiation is open in higher plants. Once a cell loses its capacity to divide then it differentiates Differentiation is the process by which a particular plant starts doing the job it is meant to do.

For example, the job of a leaf is to make food for plant. Sometimes environment or a particular phase of growth can dictate a particular part to behave differently. This is the phase when redifferentiation occurs and the plant part takes on a new role. Thus, it can be said that development and differentiation are open to change under the given environmental conditions and demands of those conditions.

Question 3.
Which one of the plant growth regulators would you use if you are asked to:

1. induce rooting in a twig
2. quickly ripen a fruit
3. delay leaf senescence
4. induce growth in axillary buds
5. ‘bolt’ a rosette plant
6. induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves

Answer:

1. Auxins
2. Ethylene
3. Cytokinins
4. Auxins
5. Gibberellins
6. Abscisic Acid

Question 4.
Would a defoliated plant respond to the photoperiodic cycle? Why?
Answer:
The hormone responsible for photoperiodism is found in leaves. So a defoliated plant will be devoid of such hormones and will not respond to the photoperiodic cycle.

Question 5.
What would be expected to happen if:

1. GA is applied to rice seedlings
2. dividing cells stop differentiating
3. a rotten fruit gets mixed with unripe fruits
4. you forget to add cytokinin to the culture medium

Answer:
1. GAj increases the length of axis. This property will help increase the length of axis so that yield of rice can be increased.

2. When dividing cells stop differentiating then it is the maturity stage of that part of the plant. Further growth of that particular region will be stopped.

3. The ethylene present in rotten fruit will hasten the ripening process of unripe fruit and may lead to premature ripening.

4. There will be lesser cell division and culture will not grow as per the target.

Question 6.
Why is not anyone parameter good enough to demonstrate growth throughout the life of a flowering plant?
Answer:
Like most of the organisms plants also go through various phases of growth. When a seed is germinating then the parameters of growth will be different compared to growth of a mature plant. Moreover, plants can be of huge variety, right from perennial plants to plants living hundreds of years. Because of sheer diversity in size and life span any single parameter to define and measure the growth of a plant can never be sufficient.

Plus One Botany Plant Growth and Development Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The ripening of fruits can be fastened by treatment with
(a) gibberellins
(b) cytokinins
(c) ethylene gas
(d) auxin
Answer:
(c) ethylene gas

Question 2.
Which of the following is the effect of a plant hormone, which is synthesized more in the absence of light?
(a) Inhibits the development of seedless fruits
(b) Responsible for closing of stomata
(c) Induces the dormancy of seeds
(d) Length of intemodes increases
Answer:
(d) Length of intemodes increases

Question 3.
Leaf abscission is caused by
(a) ABA
(b) cytokinin
(c) auxin
(d) gibberellin
Answer:
(a) ABA

Question 4.
A hormone delaying senescence is
(a) auxin
(b) cytokinins
(c) ethylene
(d) gibberellin
Answer:
(b) cytokinins

Question 5.
Which of the following induces bolting in rosette plants?
(a) Gibberellins
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Auxins
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(a) Gibberellins

Question 6.
Sprouting of potato under storage condition can be prevented by
(a) auxin
(b) gibberellin
(c) ethylene
(d) cytokinin
Answer:
(a) auxin

Question 7.
The plant hormone produced by Rhizobium for nodulation is
(a) IBA
(b) NAA
(c) 2, 4-D
(d) IAA
Answer:
(d) IAA

Question 8.
Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to
(a) indole acetic acid
(b) cytokinins
(c) gibberellins
(d) ethylene
Answer:
(c) gibberellins

Question 9.
How does pruning help in making the hedge dense?
(a) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock
(b) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance
(c) it promotes adventitious root growth
(d) it promotes the growth of apical buds
Answer:
(b) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance

Question 10.
Name of a gaseous plant hormone is
(a) IAA
(b) gibberellin
(c) ethylene
(d) abscisic acid
Answer:
(c) ethylene

Question 11.
The maximum growth rate occurs in
(a) stationary phase
(b) senescent phase
(c) lag phase
(d) exponential phase
Answer:
(d) exponential phase

Question 12.
Growth promoting hormone is
(a) gibberellins
(b) ABA
(c) auxins
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(d) both a and c

Question 13.
The discovery of gibberellins is related with one of the following
(a) blast disease of rice
(b) foolish seedling disese
(c) bakane disease of rice
(d) early blight disease of potato
Answer:
(c) bakane disease of rice

Question 14.
Which of the following movements in plants is due the increased concentration of auxin?
(a) Movement of shoot towards the source of light
(b) Nyctinasty
(c) Movement of sunflower towards sun
(d) root differentiation
Answer:
(a) Movement of shoot towards the source of light

Question 15.
The problem of necrosis and gradual senescence, while performing tissue culture can be overcome by
(a) spraying auxins
(b) spraying cytokinins
(c) suspension culture
(d) subculture
Answer:
(b) spraying cytokinins

Question 16.
The following statements are given about plant growth hormones
I. Cytokinins especially help in delaying senescence
II. Auxins are involved in regulating apical dominance
III. Ethylene is especially useful in enhancing seed germination
IV. Gibberellins are responsible for immature falling of leaves
Which of the above statements are correct
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) II, III, and IV only
Answer:
(a) I and II only

Question 17.
Which plant hormone promotes seed dormancy, bud dormancy and causes stomatal closure?
(a) auxin
(b) Abscisic acid
(c) GA
(d) CH₂=CH₂
Answer:
(b) Abscisic acid

Question 18.
Abscisic acid is primarily synthesized in
(a) lysosomes
(b) Golgi complex
(c) chloroplast
(d) ribosomes
Answer:
(c) chloroplast

Question 19.
Auxin in plant means for
(a) cell elongation
(b) fruit ripening
(c) cell division
(d) cell differentiation
Answer:
(c) cell division

Question 20.
The hormone present in the liquid endosperm of coconut is
(a) cytokinin
(b) gibberellin
(c) ethylene
(d) auxin
Answer:
(a) cytokinin

Students can Download Chapter 10 Respiration in Plants Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Respiration in Plants

Plus One Botany Respiration in Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pyruvic acid, the key product of glycolysis can have many metabolic fates. Under the aerobic condition, it forms
(a) Lactic acid
(b) CO₂+H₂O
(c) Acetyl CoA + CO₂
(d) Ethanol + CO₂
Answer:
(b) CO₂+ H₂O

Question 2.
Electron Transport System (ETS) is located in mitochondrial
(a) Outer membrane
(b) Inter membrane space
(c) Inner membrane
(d) Matrix
Answer:
(c) Inner membrane

Question 3.
Choose the correct statement:
(a) During the conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid, a molecule of ATP is synthesized.
(b) Oxygen is vital in respiration for removal of hydrogen.
(c) Pyruvate is formed in the mitochondrial matrix.
(d) There is complete breakdown of glucose in fermentation.
Answer:
(a) During the conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid, a molecule of ATP is synthesized.

Question 4.
Mitochondria are called powerhouses of the cell. Which of the following observations support this statement?
(a) Mitochondria have a double membrane
(b) The enzymes of the Krebs cycle and the cytochromes are found in mitochondria.
(c) Mitochondria synthesise ATP
(d) Mitochondria are found in almost all plants and animal cells.
Answer:
(c) Mitochondria synthesise ATP.

Question 5.
The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is
(a) NADH
(b) Oxygen
(c) ADP
(d) ATP+H₂O
Answer:
(d) ATP+H₂O

Question 6.
Fo-F1 particles participate in the synthesis of
Answer:
ATP molecules

Question 7.
The product of aerobic glycolysis in skeletal muscle and anaerobic fermentation in yeast are respectively ……… and …….
Answer:
Lactic acid and Ethyl alcohol.

Question 8.
How many NADH₂ molecules are produced from molecule of acetyl co A in TCA cycle?
Answer:
Three.

Question 9.
Name the final acceptor of electrons in ETC.
Answer:
Oxygen.

Question 10.
Give the number of ATP molecules produced from 1 glucose molecule in aerobic respiration.
Answer:
38.

Question 11.
The process of oxidation in microorganisms are referred as
(a) Cellular respiration
(b) Aerobic respiration
(c) Fermentation
Answer:
(c) Fermentation

Question 12.
Calculate the RQ of tripalmitin with the help of equation given below.
2(C₅H₉₈O₆) + 145O₂ -»102 CO₂ + 98H₂O + energy
Answer:
\(\mathrm{RQ}=\frac{102 \mathrm{CO}_{2}}{145 \mathrm{O}_{2}}=0.7\)

Question 13.
In the respiration process both in aerobic and anaerobic, the first phase of reactions is the same. Write the name of reaction Answer:
Glycolysis.

Question 14.
A germinating seed released 120 CO₂ by utilizing 180 O₂ stage. Calculate the RQ. Name the respiratory substrate.
Answer:
The substrate is fat.

Question 15.
Respiratory pathway is an amphibhotic pathway. Comment.
Answer:
It involves both anabolic & catabolic pathways.

Question 16.
Name the unit of oxidative phosphorylation.
Answer:
Oxysomes or Elementary particles.

Question 17.
How many calories are produced by aerobic oxidation of 1 gm mole of glucose?
Answer:
686000 calories.

Question 18.
We commonly call ATP as the energy currency of the cell. Can you think of some other energy carriers present in a cell? Name any two.
Answer:
NADH₂ and FADH₂.

Question 19.
RQ value changes for wheat and castor oil seeds. Justify.
Answer:
R Q = 1 carbohydrate (wheat)
R Q < 1 fat(castor)

Plus One Botany Respiration in Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates undergoes oxidative phosphorylation.

1. Where does it occur?
2. Who first elucidate this?

Answer:

1. Cristae of mitochondria
2. Hans Kreb

Question 2.
Glycolysis is the first stage in the break down of glucose in all organisms. Do you agree with this statement? Where does it take place? Give the net. gain of ATP molecules in glycolysis?
Answer:
Yes, Cytoplasm, 8ATPs

Question 3
Observe the relation of the first pair and fill up the blanks

1. Symport: Molecules cross the membrance in the same direction
   …………..: Molecules move in the opposite direction
2. RQ = 1 : Carbohydrate
   RQ > 1: ………..

Answer:

1. Antiport
2. Organic acids

Question 4.
‘‘Photorespiration is called a wasteful process.” Comment on it.
Answer:
ATP is utilized. There is no production of ATP during this process. It does not produce any beneficial product.

Question 5
Respirometer is an apparatus used to measure R.Q.

1. What is R.Q?
2. R.Q. of glucose is equal to one. Give the reason.

Answer:

1. Amount of CO₂ released during respiration / Amount of O₂ absorbed during respiration,
2. Amount of CO₂ released= Amount O₂ absorbed

Question 6.
Plant physiologists observed a relationship between respiration and salt absorption. Is absorption of salt increased due to respiration? Explain.
Answer:
Yes. As a result of respiration, the energy is released in the form of ATP. This energy is used for the active absorption of salt.

Question 7.
Glycolysis is the first step of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. During this process glucose undergoes partial oxidation.

1. What is the final product of glycolysis?
2. What is the total yield of ATP molecules during glycolysis?

Answer:

1. Pyruvic acid
2. 8 ATP

Question 8.
The RQ value of a respiratory substrate is 1. Find the type of substrate and comment on RQ.
Answer:
Carbohydrate RQ:
It is the ratio of volume of CO₂ evolved to the volume of O₂ consumed. The value of RQ is different for respiratory substrates eg fat(0.7), protein (0.9)etc.

Question 9.
Oxidative phosphorylation is an important process in cellular respiration. Explain it?
Answer:
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in the inner membrane of mitochondria. In the F1 head the inorganic phosphate combined with ADP to form ATP. It occurs due to the entry of proton pair from intermembrane space to the matrix through proton channel.

Question 10.
Why does anaerobic respiration produce less energy than aerobic respiration?
Answer:

1. The regeneration of NAD fails to produce ATP as the electrons are not shifted to oxygen
2. The end product of anaerobic respiration can be further oxidized to release energy.

Question 11.
What is fermentation Name any two organic compounds produced in this process?
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration also called fermentation involves the production of energy from food nutrients in the absence of oxygen.

Question 12.
“Respiration is an amphibolic pathway”. Justify the statement with reason.
Answer:
Respiration involves both the catabolic and anabolic process. Fatty acid undergoes breackdown to form acetyl. co-A.
Acetyl Co-A is again used for the synthesis of Fat. In respiration cycle the two process are involved.i.e catabolism and anabolism. So it is called a Amphibolic Pathway”.

Question 13.
ADP is converted to ATP as a result of phosphorylation which takes place in photosynthesis and respiration during electron transport system. What is the difference between these two?
Answer:
photophosphorylation, inorganic phosphate combines with ADP to form ATP This process takes place in chloroplast in the presence light. But in oxidative phosphorylation inorganic phosphate combines with ADP to form ATP. It takes place in Mitochondria.

Question 14.
When does anaerobic respiration occur in man and yeast?
Answer:
In man during streneous exercise O_2, inedequecy is experience in Skeletal tissues. In such a case the respiration is anaerobic. In yeast, during fermentation the respiration takes place is anaerobic.

Question 15.
Mention the important series of events of aerobic respiration that occur in the matrix of the mitochondrion as well as ones that take place in inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
Answer:
Citric acid cycle,Terminal oxidation and electron transport system.

Question 16.
Name the end products aerobic and anaerobic glycolysis. List the two ways by which molecules of ATP are produced in glycolysis during aerobic respiration in a cell.
Answer:
2 Pyruvic acid, 2ATP and 2 NADH₂ Two ways of ATP formation in glycolysis are:

1. During dephosphorylation of 1, 3, DPGA called substrate-level phosphorylation
2. Reduced NADH₂ releases ATP molecules in electron transport chain

Question 17.
Define RQ What is its significance?
Answer:
It is the ratio of volume of CO₂ released to volume of O₂ taken during respiration. Value of R Q gives the indication of nature of substrate respired by a particular tissue.

Question 18.
Different substrates get oxidized during respiration. How does Respiratory Quotient (RQ) indicate which type of substrate, i.e., carbohydrate, fat or protein is getting oxidized?
R Q=A/B
What do A and B stand for?
What type of substrates have R.Q. of 1, < 1 or> 1?
Answer:
A-Volume CO₂ evolved B- Volume O₂ consumed RQ=1 (Carbohydrate) RQ=< 1 Fat/protein RQ=> 1 (Organic acids).

Question 19.
Which of the following will release more energy on oxidation? Arrange them in ascending order,
a. Moffat
b. 1 gm of protein
c. 1 gm of glucose
d. 0.5 g of protein + 0.5g glucose
Answer:
c → d → b → a

Question 20.
What is the importance of F0-F, particle in ATP production during aerobic respiration?
Answer:
F0 is an integral membrane protein complex and has a proton channel while F1 has enzyme ATP synthase to form ATP. One molecule of NADH produces 3 ATP molecules in ETS.

Question 21.
What is Respiratory Quotient? What is its value for fats?
Answer:
It is the ratio of the volume of CO₂ evolved to the volume of O₂consumed.
\(So, RQ =\frac{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{CO}_{2} \text { Evolved }}{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{O}_{2} \text { consumed }}\)

Question 22.
Give two example for anaerobic respiration occurs in organisms and products.
Answer:
Alcoholic fermentation and Lactic acid fermentation Ethyl alcohol and lactic acid.

Question 23.
The complete oxidation of pyruvic acid that occurs in mitochondria undergoes both oxidation and decarboxylation.

1. Which is the first step of oxidative-decarboxylation occurs?
2. Where does substrate-level phosphorylation occurs?

Answer:

1. Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl CoA
2. Conversion of succinyl CoA to Succinic acid.

Question 24.
Give the name of intermediate compounds having carbon atoms 6,5,4 and 2 of mitochondrial oxidation.
Answer:

• 6C – Citric acid, 5C- Alpha keto glutaric acid,
• 4C- Succinic acid/succinyl coAl malic acid/ OAA,
• 2C- Acetyl CoA.

Plus One Botany Respiration in Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Incomplete oxidation of food material in the absence of oxygen is anaerobic respiration.
(a) Give an example of a microorganism which carry out anaerobic respiration.
(b) Where does anaerobic respiration take place in human beings?
(c) What is the net gain of ATP during this process? Spa) Yeast
(b) Muscle cells
Answer:
(c) 2 ATP

Question 2.
ETS operated in the inner mitochondrial membrane, it involves terminal oxidation and oxidative phosphorylation

1. Who discovered chemiosmotic hypothesis in mitochondria
2. Name the elementary particle promotes ATP synthesis
3. What is chemiosmotic hypothesis

Answer:

1. Peter Mitchel
2. Fg-F, particle
3. Proton gradient leads to ATP production

Question 3.
Yeast cells can respire in the absence of O₂

1. Name the process
2. Write the end product of the process
3. Write the net production of ATP during process.

Answer:

1. Anaerobic respiration
2. CO₂ + C₂H₅OH (Carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol)
3. 2 ATPs

Question 4.
Respiration is a breakdown process it involves various steps

1. Where does the common step of aerobic and anaerobic process occurs
2. Find out the number of carbon atoms of a compound as end product of the above reaction
3. Name the 6 C intermedite compound splits and forms another 3 C intermediates.

Answer:

1. Cytoplasm
2. 3 Carbon (Pyruvic acid)
3. Fructose 1, 6 biphosphate

Question 5.
ATP and NADPH₂ molecules synthesised in light reaction of photosynthesis are used for the synthesis of glucose in dark reaction.

1. Who proposed the dark reaction?
2. List out three phases in dark reaction.
3. Location of dark reaction in the chloroplast?
4. Expense of ATP and NADPH₂ for the synthesis of one molecule of glucose in dark reaction?

Answer:

1. Melvin Calvin
   • Carboxylation
   • Reduction
   • Regeneration of RUBP
2. Stroma
3. 12 NADPH₂ and 18 ATP molecules.

Question 6.
In the last step of aerobic respiration oxidation of reduced co-enzymes produced in glycolysis and Krebs cycle occur.

1. What are the important reduced coenzymes?
2. Why is this process called as terminal oxidation?
3. Where does terminal oxidation takes place?

Answer:

1. FADH₂, NADH₂.
2. It is the formation of metabolic water at the end of electron transport chain by combining protons, electrons, and O₂.
3. The inner mitochondrial membrane of mitochondria.

Question 7.
An athlete felt muscular pain after a race.

1. Explain this in terms of anaerobic respiration?
2. Name any two microorganisms in which anaerobic respiration occurs
3. Glycolysis is common for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. In glycolysis, there is a net gain of 8 ATP. But in anaerobic repiration the net gain is only 2 ATP. Give reason.

Answer:
1. Athletes felt muscular pain is due to the inadequecy of 02. In the absence of 02 partial oxidation takes place. It involves the formation of pyruvic acid followed by lactic acid.

2. Yeast & Lactobacillus.

3. After the formation of pyruvic acid, 2 NADPH molecules are utilised for the formation of Lactic acid. So the net gain of ATP in Anaerobic respiration is 2 ATPs.

Question 8.
Mitochondria is called the “Power House’’ of the cell.

1. Is the statement correct?
2. Write down reasons.

Answer:

1. Yes
   • Synthesis of ATP takes place in mitochondria,
   • Inner membrance acts as electron transport chain.
   • Presence of ATP – synthetase enzyme.
   • Enzymes for aerobic respiration in mitochondrial matrix

Question 9.
Analyse the diagram and answer the questions.

1. What does the diagram represent?
2. Write the role of F0-F., unit in the process?
3. What is oxidative phosphorylation?
4. Where does it take place?

Answer:

1. ATP synthesis
2. Flow of proton
3. In the presenceC₂, oxidation takes place and ADP combines with inorganic phosphate to form ATP
4. Crystal

Question 10.
Respirometer is an apparatus used to measure R.Q.

1. What is R.Q?
2. R.Q. of glucose is equal to one. Give reason.
3. Name the respiratory substrate for which R.Q. is more than one?

Answer:

1. Amount of C0₂ released/Amount of O₂ absorbed
2. In glucose amount of CO₂ released = amount of O₂ absorbed
3. Organic acids

Question 11.
RuBP carboxylase, PEPcase, Pyruvate dehydrogenase, ATPase, cytochrome oxidase, Hexokinase, Lactate dehydrogenase. Select/choose enzymes from the list above which are involved in

1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Both in photosynthesis and respiration

Answer:

1. RuBP carboxylase, PEPcase, ATPase,
2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase, ATPase, cytochrome oxidase, Hexokinase, Lactate dehydrogenase
3. ATPase

Question 12.
The following statements are about an important event of cellular respiration. Read them carefully and answer the questions.
It is the last step of cellular respiration It synthesise ATP Water is the end product It accepts oxygen.

1. Name the process
2. Where does it occur?
3. Name any 4 components of ‘it’

Answer:

1. Electron transport system/oxidative phosphorylation
2. Inner mitochondrial membrane
3. NADP, FAD, Ubiquinone (Co-Q)
   Cyt. b, cyt – a, cty a₃ etc.

Question 13.
Respiration is viewed most simply as the oxidative production of ATR Justify the statement.
Answer:
The energy-releasing process by oxidation of organic food materials in the living cell is respiration. During this process, the energy contained in the food is released and is trapped in the ATP molecules. NADH+H+ and FADH₂ formed during various steps of respiration are oxidised, and protons (H+) and electrons (e ) are released.

These electrons are transported to the oxygen through a series of electron carries in the electron transport system (ETS), and their energy is stored in ATP molecules. So, respiration is process of oxidative production of ATP. 45% of energy released during the oxidation of 1 glucose molecule is stored in 38 ATP molecules.

Question 14.
The second phase of aerobic respiration takes place within mitochondria. This phase is called TCA cycle. The different steps of this reaction were found out by a British Biochemist who was awarded Nobel Prize in 1953.

1. Identify the scientist and name the first product of the reaction.
2. Write the first step of this reaction, why it is called TCA cycle?
3. From where Acetyl Co. A comes into mitochondria?
4. In which step FADHJs formed.

Answer:

1. Hans Krebs, citric acid(Tricarboxylic acid)
2. oaa+acetylcoA citric acid .since it has three -COOH group
3. Cytoplasm
4. 5^th step (Succinic acid to malic acid)

Question 15.
Glycolysis is common and first phase of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

1. Who discovered this process?
2. What are the substrate and end products in this reaction?

Answer:

1. Embeden, Mayerhof & Parnas
2. Glucose – Substrate.
   The end product – Pyruvic acid.

Plus One Botany Respiration in Plants NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss “The respiratory pathway is an amphibolic pathway.”
Answer:
Glucose is the favoured substrate for respiration. All carbohydrates are usually first converted into glucose before they are used for respiration. Other substrates can also be respired but then they do not enter the respiratory pathway at the first step.

Since respiration involves breakdown as well as synthesis of substrates, the respiratory process involves both catabolism. That is why respiratory pathway is considered to be an amphibolic pathway rather than as a catabolic one.

Question 2.
What is the significance of step wise release of energy in respiration?
Answer:
If energy will be released at one go then most of it will be most in the form of heat. Cells should be in a position to utilize all the energy to synthesize something. To facilitate proper usage of energy, it is released in a stepwise manner during respiration.

Question 3.
Define RQ. What is its value for fats?
Answer:
The ratio of the volume of CO₂ evolved to the volume of O₂ consumed in respiration is called the respiratory quotient (RQ) or respiratory ratio.

Question 4.
Distinguish between the following:

1. Aerobic respiration
2. Glycolysis and Fermentation
3. Glycolysis and Citric acid Cycle

Answer:
1. There is incomplete oxidation of glucose during anaerobic respiration, while there is complete oxi¬dation during aerobic respiration.

2. The pyruvic acid formed during glycolysis is first converted to Acetyl coenzyme A, which undergoes citric acid cycle to produce critic acid. At the end of citric acid cycle NADH+H+ is released.

3. In both (b) and (c) glycolysis is the first step cellular respiration. The product of glycolysis is further utilized by either fermentation or critic acid cycle.

Question 5.
What are the assumptions made during the calculation of net gain of ATP?
Answer:
It is possible to make calculations of the net gain of ATP for every glucose molecule oxidised, but in reality this can remain only a theoretical exercise. These calculations can be made only on certain assumptions that:

1. There is a acquential, orderly pathway functioning, with one substrate forming the next and with glycolysis, TCA cycle and ETS pathway following one after another.

2. The NADH synthesised in glycolysis is transferred into the mitochondria and undergoes oxidative phosphorylation.

3. None of the intermediates in the pathway are utilised to synthesise any other compound.

4. Only glucose is being respired – no other alternative substrates are entering in the pathway at any of the intermediary stages.

Plus One Botany Respiration in Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Common phase between aerobic and anaerobic modes of respiration is
(a) Krebs cycle
(b) EMP/glycolysis
(c) oxidative phosphorylation
(d) PPP
Answer:
(b) EMP/glycolysis

Question 2.
Complete oxidation of one gram mol. of Glucose give rise to
(a) 6860,000 cal
(b) 686,000 cal
(c) 68,600 cal
(d) 6860 cal
Answer:
(b) 686,000 cal

Question 3.
When a molecule of pyruvic acid is subjected to anaerobic oxidation and forms Lactic acid there is
(a) loss of 3 ATP molecules
(b) loss of 6ATP molecules
(c) loss of 2 ATP molecules
(d) loss of 4 ATP molecules
Answer:
(b) loss of 6ATP molecules

Question 4.
When one glucose molecule is completely oxidised, it changes
(a) 36 ADP mole into 36 ATP molecules
(b) 32 ADP mole into 32 ATP molecules
(c) 38 ADP mole into 38 ATP molecules
(d) 30 ADP mole into 30 ATP molecules
Answer:
(c) 38 ADP mole into 38 ATP molecules

Question 5.
Substrate phosphorylation occurs during
(a) Fumaric acid → malic acid
(b) Oxalosuccinic acid → alpha-ketoglutaric acid
(c) Succinic acid – fumaric acid
(d) a Ketoglutaric acid – Succinic acid
Answer:
(d) a Ketoglutaric acid – Succinic acid

Question 6.
Glycolysis is significant for energy production in
(a) RBC
(b) fungi
(c) plants
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) RBC

Question 7.
In aerobic respiration
(a) 2 PGAL are formed in Glycolysis and none in kerbs cycle
(b) 6 PGAL in glycolysis, 3 PGAL in kerbs cycle
(c) PGAL formation does not occur in respiration
(d) 8 PGAL in glycolysis, 3 PGAL in krebs cycle
Answer:
(a) 2 PGAL are formed in Glycolysis and none in kerbs cycle

Question 8.
Two enzymes common to EMP pathway and C₃ cycle are
(a) Aldolase & triosephosphate isomerase
(b) Aldolase & enolase
(c) Cytochrome oxidase & enolase
(d) phosphoglyceromutase & triosephosphate isomerase
Answer:
(a) Aldolase & triosephosphate isomerase

Question 9.
The RQ value of fat is 0.7, it indicates
(a) volume of CO₂ is greater than O₂
(b) volume of O₂ is greater than CO₂
(c) volume of CO₂ is greater than volume of O₂
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) volume of O₂ is greater than CO₂

Question 10.
The net gain of ATP in aerobic respiration is
(a) 18
(b) 36
(c) 38
(d) 8
Answer:
(b) 36

Question 11.
Three carboxylic group occurs in
(a) pyruvic acid
(b) citric acid
(c) malic acid
(d) Aspartic acid
Answer:
(b) citric acid

Question 12.
Which is the first 5C carbon compound formed in TCA cycle
(a) succinic acid
(b) oxaloacetic acid
(c) alpha-ketoglutaric acid
(d) fumaric acid
Answer:
(c) alpha-ketoglutaric acid

Question 13.
The concentration of alcohol in fermentation influence the
(a) death of cells
(b) growth of cells
(c) production of succinic acid
(d) production of lactic acid
Answer:
(a) death of cells

Question 14.
Acetyl coA is called
(a) 5C compound
(b) 2C compound
(c) 3C compound
(d) 4C compound
Answer:
(b) 2C compound

Question 15.
Wine and beer are produced directly by fermentation. Brandy and whisky require both fermentation and distillation because
(a) fermendation is inhibited at an alcohol level of 10-18%
(b) distillation prolongs storage
(c) distillation improves quality
(d) distillation purifies the beverage.
Answer:
(a) fermendation is inhibited at an alcohol level of 10-18%

Question 16.
The process by which ATP is produced in the inner membrane of a mitochondrion. The electron transport system transfers protons from the inner compartment to the outer, as the protons flow back to the inner compartment, the energy of their movement is used to add phosphate to ADP, forming ATP.
(a) Chemiosmosis
(b) Phosphorylation
(c) Glycolysis
(d) Fermentation
Answer:
(a) Chemiosmosis

Question 17.
In which of the following reactions of glycolysis, a molecule of water is removed from the substrate?
(a) Fructose – 6 – phosphate → Fructose -1, 6 – bisphosphate
(b) 3 – phosphate – glyceraldehyde → 1, 3 bisphosphoglyceric acid
(c) PEP → Pyruvic acid
(d) 2 – phosphoglycerate → PEP
Answer:
(d) 2 – phosphoglycerate → PEP

Students can Download Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Excretory Products and their Elimination

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1
Which one of the following is also known as an antidiuretic hormone?
(a) Oxytocin
(b) Vasopressin
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Calcitonin
Answer:
(b) Vasopressin

Question 2.
A large quantity of one of the following is removed from our body by lungs.
(a) CO₂ only
(b) H₂O only
(c) CO₂ and H₂O
(d) ammonia
Answer:
(c) CO₂ and H₂O

Question 3.
The pH of human urine is approximately
(a) 6.5
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 7.5
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 4.
Which of the following pairs is wrong?
(a) Uricotelic ________ Birds
(b) Ureotelic _________ Insects
(c) Ammonotelic ________ Tadpole
(d) Ureotelic _________ Elephant
Answer:
(c) Ammonotelic ________ Tadpole

Question 5.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids projecting into the calyces.
(b) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis.
(c) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called the renal corpuscle.
(d) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tabule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of kidney.
Answer:
(b) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis.

Question 6.
Take the odd one justify?
GFR, JGA, ANF, ADH, TSH
Answer:
TSH: all others are the hormones regulate urine formation.

Question 7.
Identify the ammonotelic animal from the following and give reason. (Man, Crow, Lizard, Tadpole)
Answer:
Tadpole

Question 8.
While studying the excretory system in man, a student noticed some words.
RAAS and JGA. Can you help him to expand these terms.
Answer:
RAAS – Renin – Angiotensin – Aldosterone System
JGA – Juxta glomerular apparatus

Question 9.
In ureotelic animals, urea is produced in
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Flame cells
(d) Malpighian tubules
Answer;
(b) Liver

Question 10.
State whether true or false and correct the false statements if any:

1. Flame cells are the excretory structures in round worms.
2. Fat is absorbed in the form of chylomicrons through the intestinal villi.
3. Blood is absent in cockroach.
4. Joint between atlas and axis vertebrae is a pivot joint.

Answer:

1. False – Flame cells are the excretory structures in flat worms.
2. True
3. False – Blood is present in cockroach. It is colourless.
4. True

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the schematic diagram of the urine formation. (Hint: Show all the three process involved)
Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the following sentences.

1. Reabsorption of water from DCT is facilitated by the hormone __________
2. Kidney failure can cause a bone disorder called _________
3. Angiotensin II activates the adrenal cortex to release __________
4. In cases of Kidney failure, urea can be removed by the process called __________

Answer:

1. ADH
2. Gout
3. Aldosterone
4. Hemodialysis

Question 3.
Pick out the correct word from list provided (Myasthenia gravis, Uremia, Angina, diuresis)

1. Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction is __________
2. Reduce loss of water through urine is _________
3. A system of acute chest pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle is _________
4. Accumulation of urea in blood is __________

Answer:

1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Diuresis
3. Angina
4. Uremia

Question 4.
Classify the following animals according to their type of excretion.
Frog, Tadpole, birds, man, Turtle, shark, insect, camel
Answer:

Question 5.
Tadpole is ammonotelic while the frog is ureotelic. Comment on this statement.
Answer:
Tadpole larvae’s habitat is aquatic whereas the frog lives in the terrestrial habitat. So in the aquatic habitat due to the presence of water, ammonia can be excreted easily.

But in frog the water must be conserved. So ammonia is changed into urea which needs only small quantity of water for excretion.

Question 6.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

1. Label the parts (1) and (2).
2. Name the functional unit of the kidney.

Answer:

1. The parts are:
   • (1) – Renal cortex
   • (2) – Ureter
2. Nephron

Question 7.
Rearrange the following parts in their correct way.
Glomerulus → Capsular space → loop of Henle → PCT → DCT → Collecting duct → Collecting tubule → Ureter → Renal pelvis → Urethra → Urinary bladder.
Answer:
Glomerulus → Capsular space → PCT → Loop of Henle → DCT →Collecting tubule → Collecting duct → Renal pelvis → Ureter → Urinary bladder → Urethra.

Question 8.
Fill in the gaps:

1. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is ____(1)____ to water. Whereas the descending limb is _____(2)_____ to it.
2. Reabsorption of water from distal parts of the tubules is facilitated by hormone __________
3. Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except ________
4. A healthy adult human excretes (on an average) _______ gm of urea/day.

Answer:

1. (1) – Impermeable, (2) -Permeable
2. ADH
3. Nitrogenous wastes
4. 25-30 gm of urea/day

Question 9.
Brain controls the kidney action.

1. Name the hormones involved in this.
2. How do they act on kidney?

Answer:

1. Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
2. The pituitary gland release the hypothalamic hormone ADH and its is transported to the kidney. The presence of ADH makes the tubules permeable to water. Thus the water is conserved or excreted according to the presence of fluid level in the body.

Question 10.
A patient approaches a doctor having symptoms like excretion of large amount of urine, excessive thirst and dehydration.

1. Identify the disease.
2. Which hormone deficiency causes this disease?

Answer:

1. Diabetes insipidus
2. ADH

Question 11.
A table showing the average quantity of urine in a person in two different seasons are given.

1. Compare it. Do you agree with this table? State the reason for producing different Quantity in different season.
2. Name the hormone responsible for that.

Answer:

1. Amount of water in the body is low in summer season and increase its quantity in winter season. In summer season water lose is very high due to various reasons like evaporation. So body eliminate less amount of waterthrough urine to conserve water in the body
2. ADH or vasopressin

Question 12.
Teacher asks one of the student to name the excretory organs in man. He names three organs beside kidney. Teacher appreciates him for the correct answer.

1. What was his answer?
2. Give the excretory role of the above organs

Answer:

1. Liver, skin, lungs
2. the excretory role of the above organs
   • Liver – Excretes cholesterol, bile pigments, etc.
   • Skin – Sweat gland- Excretes excess sodium chloride, small amount of urea lactic acid etc. Sebaceous gland excretes lipids such as waxes, steroles, fatty acid etc.
   • Lungs – Excretes CO₂ and water

Question 13.
Observe the diagram

1. Copy the diagram and fill the gaps.
2. Write the concentration of glomerular filtrate (Isotonic, Hypotonic, Hypertonic) in the given regions of the nephron.
   • Proximal convoluted tubule
   • Descending limb
   • Ascending limb
   • Distal convoluted tubule

Answer:
1.

2. Concentration of glomerular filtrate

• Proximal convoluted tubule – isotonic
• Descending limb – hypertonic
• Ascending limb – hypotonic
• Distal convoluted tubule – Hypertonic

Question 14.
A patient with renal failure in waiting for a kidney donor for a transplantation operation. The urea level is high and the patient is developing symptoms of uremia. What method you can suggest to keep the patient live till a donor can be found. Explain the principle behind it.
Answer:
Haemodialysis. The haemodialyser has a cellophane tube bathed in a fluid with ionic concentration similarto that of plasma. The process of separation of small solutes from macromolecular colloids is done hereby the process of diffusion. So the blood will be free from urea, uric acid and creatinine.

Question 15.
About 125ml of glomerular filtrate is produced per minute in our kidney. However 1ml of urine is produced each minute. What happens to the other 124ml of the filtrate.
Answer:
In man about 125ml of glomerular filtrate is formed per minute. But most of the substances are reabsorbed into tubular network of capillaries. This process is known as selective reabsorption. High threshold substances reabsorbed by active transport and low threshold substances reabsorbed by diffusion.

Question 16.
Consumption of alcohol tends to frequent urination.

1. Name the hormone that control it.
2. Draw a flow chart showing the action of ethanol present in alcohol and its consequences on urinary system.

Answer:
1. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

2.

Question 17.
Prepare a flow chart showing hormonal control by Juxta glomerular apparatus (JGA) in regulation of kidney function.
Answer:

Question 18.
Flow of blood in vasa recta is known as counter current system. Give reason.
Answer:
The vasa recta is thin walled capillaries lying parallel to the loop of Henle. The blood entering the descending limb of each vasarecta come in close contact with the outgoing blood in ascending limb. This system is called counter current system.

The two limbs of the loop of Henle form another counter current system. These two systems are concentrating the urine in mammalian kidney by diffusion and osmosis.

Question 19.
‘Micturition is an involuntary as well as a voluntary process.’ Justify the statement.
Answer:
The elimination of urine from the urinary bladder is called micturition. The gradual filling of the urinary bladder causes stretching. When the bladder is filled to its limit, the stretch receptors send impulses to the brain to excrete the urine.

The initiation and inhibition of micturition is voluntary in adult but involuntary in children. Due to lack of nervous control the micturition in some humans become involuntary causing bed wetting.

Question 20.
In alcoholic drinkers the urine is dilute. Why?
Answer:
The process of reabsorption of water by the distal parts ofthe kidney tubules become low efficient. This occurs due to the deficiency of ADH. lt leads to diabetes insipedus.

Question 21.
Distinguish between diabetis mellitus and diabetis insipedus.
Answer:
Insulin deficiency causes large amounts of blood sugar to be lost in the urine. It leads to diabetis melitus while the deficiency of ADH leads to diabetes insipedus i.e dilute urine disease.

Question 22.
The failure of removing toxic substances from the blood ultimately leads kidney failure.

1. How is it temporarily solved.
2. Name the machine is used.

Answer:

1. Hemodialysis is an artificial process of removing toxic substances from the blood
2. Artificial kidney or Hemodialysis machine.

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State the differences between the following.

1. Tubular reabsorption and Tubular secretion.
2. ADH and RAAS.

Answer:
1. Tubular reabsorption:
The process of selective reabsorption of most of the useful substances from the glomerular filtrate in the renal tubule.

Tubular secretion:
It is the process of active secretion of certain substances such as Hydrogen ions, ammonia etc. from the blood into the lumen of the urinary tubules by the tubular epithelium during urine formation.

2. ADH:
ADH is the hormone from posterior pituitary gland, makes the wall of the distal convoluted tube and collecting tubule permeable to water so that more water is reabsorbed.

RAAS:
Renin – Angiotensin – Aldosterone system increases the blood pressure by constricting arterioles and increases the blood volume by stimulating proximal convoluted tubule.

Question 2.

1. What does the diagram represent?
2. Name the parts A, B, C, D.
3. What is the physiological function taking place in part ‘B.

Answer:

1. Nephron
2. The parts are
   • A – Bowman’s capsule
   • B – Henle’s loop
   • C – Proximal convoluted tubule
   • D – Collecting duct

3. Henle’s loop is the site of osmoregulation in human kidney. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes. The ascending limb is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolyte actively or passively.

Therefore, as the concentrated filtrate pass upward, it gets diluted due to the passage of electrolytes to the medullary fluid.

Question 3.
Observe the diagram and answer the questions.

1. Identify the labelled parts A, B, C, D.
2. What does the diagram represents?

Answer:

1. The labelled parts are
   • A – Afferent arteriole
   • B – Efferent arteriole
   • C – Glomerulus
   • D – Bowman’s capsule
2. Glomerular Filtration

Question 4.
Observe the diagram given below which represents the counter current system in nephron and vasa recta. This mechanism helps in maintaining concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium. Substantiate.

Answer:
The flow of Glomerular filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s loop is in opposite directions and thus forms a counter current. The flow of blood through the two limbs of vasa recta is also in a counter current pattern.

The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the counter current in them help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium i.e, from 300 mOsmolL1 in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmolL1 in the inner medulla.

This gradient is mainly caused by NACI and urea. NaCl is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the descending limb of vasa recta.

Similarly, small amounts of urea enter the thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which in transported back to the interstitium by the collecting tubule. This counter current mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium.

Question 5.
The steps involved in the treatment of a uremic patient is given below.

1. Complete the missing steps (a) and (b)
2. Diagonise the treatment
3. Name the organ which is under failure

Answer:

1. The missing steps are
   • (a) – Anticoagulant like heparin
   • (b) – Anti – heparin
2. Hemodialysis
3. Kidney

Question 6.

1. Name the mechanism by which JGA plays a complex regulatory role.
2. Draw a flow chart showing the mechanism.
3. Mention the feed back which act as a check on the above mechanism,

Answer:
1. Renin-Angiotensin mechanism

2.

3. An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of Atrial Natriuretic factor (ANF). ANF can cause vasodilation and thereby decrease the blood pressure. ANF mechanism act as a check on the renin-Angiotensin mechanism.

Question 7.
Note the relationship between the first two words and suggest a suitable word in the missing place.

1. Cockroach – Malpighian Tubule : Flatworm – _________
2. Man – Kidney : Earthworm – _________
3. Prawn – Greengland : Amphioxus – __________

Answer:

1. Flame cells
2. Nephridia
3. Protonephridia

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Glomerular Filtration Rate(GFR)
Answer:
Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR). The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys per minute is called glomercular filtration rate (GFR). GFR in a healthy individual is approximately 125ml/minute, i.e., 180 litres per day. On an average, 1100 -1200 ml of blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute.

Question 2.
Explain the autoregulatory mechanism of GFR.
Answer:
Regulation of GFR. The kidney have built-in mechanisms for the regulation of glomerular filtration rate. One such efficient mechanism is carried out by juxta glomerular apparatus(JGA).

JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the distal convoluted tubule and the afferent arteriole at the location of their contact. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release renin which can stimulate the glomercular blood flow and thereby the GFR back to normal.

Question 3.
Indicate whether the following statements are true or false:

1. Micturition is carried out by a reflex
2. ADH helps in water elimination, making the urine hypotonic.
3. Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman’s capsule.
4. Henle’s loop plays an important role in concentrating the urine.
5. Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tublue.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

Question 4.
Give a brief account of the counter mechanism.
Answer:
Counter current Mechanism. The Henle’s loop and vasa recta play a significant role in this. The flow of filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s loop is in opposite directions and thus forms a countercurrent.

The flow of blood through the two limbs of vasa recta is also in a countercurrent pattern. The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the counter current in them help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary in terstitium, i.e., from 300 mOsmolL^-1 in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmolL^-1 in the inner medulla.

This gradient is mainly caused by NaCI and urea. NaCI is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the descending limb of vasa recta. NaCI is returned to the intestitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta.

Question 5.
What is meant by the term osmoregulation?
Answer:
Osmoregulation is the regulation of blood volume, body fluid volume and ionic concentration

Question 6.
Match the items of column I with those of column II.
Column I Column II

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (v)
(c) – (iv)
(d) – (i)
(e) – (ii)

Question 7.
Name the following.

1. A chordate animal having flame cells as excretory structures.
2. Cortical portions projecting between the medullary pyramids in the human kidney.
3. A loop of capillary running parallel to the Henle’s loop.

Answer:

1. Cephalochordata
2. Columns of Bertini
3. Vasa Recta

Question 8.
Fill in the gaps:

1. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop is ________ to water whereas the descending limb is __________ to it.
2. Reabsorption of water from distal parts of the tubules is facilitated by hormone ___________
3. Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except ___________
4. A healthy adult human excretes (on an average) _________gm of urea/day.

Answer:

1. impermeable, permeable
2. ADH
3. nitrogenous waste
4. 25 to 30

Plus One Excretory Products and their Elimination Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed’?
(a) Urine will not collect in the bladder
(b) Micturition will continue
(c) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
(d) There will be no micturition
Answer:
(c) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder

Question 2.
Green glands present in some arthropods help in
(a) respiration
(b) excretion
(c) digestion
(d) reproduction
Answer:
(b) excretion

Question 3.
Excretory product of spider is
(a) uric acid
(b) ammonia
(c) guanine
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) guanine

Question 4.
Which one is the component of ornithine cycle
(a) Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid
(b) Ornithine, citrulline and arginine
(c) Ornithine, citrulline and alanine
(d) Amino acids are not used
Answer:
(b) Ornithine, citrulline and arginine

Question 5.
Urea synthesis occurs in
(a) kidney
(b) liver
(c) brain
(d) muscles
Answer:
(b) liver

Question 6.
Renin is secreted from
(a) juxtaglomerular cells
(b) podocytes
(c) nephridia
(d) stomach
Answer:
(a) juxtaglomerular cells

Question 7.
Loop of Henle is associated with
(a) excretory system
(b) respiratory system
(c) reproductive system
(d) digestive system
Answer:
(a) excretory system

Question 8.
If one litre of water is introduced in human blood, then
(a) BMR increases
(b) RBC collapses and urine production increases
(c) RBC collapses and urine production decreases
(d) BMR decreases
Answer:
(b) RBC collapses and urine production increases

Question 9.
The urine is
(a) hypotonic to blood and isotonic in medullary fluid
(b) hypotonic to bloodand isotonic to medullary fluid
(c) isotonic to blood and hypotonic to medullary fluid
(d) hypertonic to blood and isotonic to medullary fluid
Answer:
(d) hypertonic to blood and isotonic to medullary fluid

Question 10.
Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in glomerular filtrate’?
(a) Water
(b) Glucose
(c) Urea
(d) Plasma proteins
Answer:
(d) Plasma proteins

Question 11.
A large quantity of fluid is filtered everyday by the nephrons in the kidneys. Only about 1% of it is excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of the filtrate
(a) gets coiected in the renal pelvis
(b) is lost as sweat
(c) is stored in the urinary bladder
(d) is reabsorbed into the blood
Answer:
(d) is reabsorbed into the blood

Question 12.
The characteristic that is shared by urea, uric acid and ammonia is/are
I. They are nitrogenous wastes.
II. They all need very large amount of water for excretion.
III. They are all equally toxic.
IV. They are produced in the kidneys.
(a) I and III
(b) I and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I only
Answer:
(d) I only

Question 13.
A bird excretes nitrogenous waste materials in the form of?
(a) uric acid
(b) ammonia
(c) urea
(d) amino acids
Answer:
(a) uric acid

Question 14.
Which of the following is correct with reference to haemodialysis?
(a) Absorbs and resends excess of ions
(b) The dialysis unit has a coiled cellophane tube
(c) Blood is pumped back through a suitable artery after haemodialysis
(d) Anti-heparin is added priorto haemodialysis
Answer:
(b) The dialysis unit has a coiled cellophane tube

Question 15.
Find the incorrect statement regarding mechanism of urine formation in man.
(a) the glomerular filtration rate is about 125 mL/min
(b) the ultra filtration is opposed by the colloidal osmotic pressure of plasma
(c) tubular secretion takes place in the PCT
(d) aldosterone induces greater reabsorption of sodium
Answer:
(c) tubular secretion takes place in the PCT

Question 16.
The excretory material of bony fish is
(a) urea
(b) protein
(c) ammonia
(d) amino acid
Answer:
(c) ammonia

Question 17.
The yellow colour of urine is due to the presence of
(a) urea
(b) uric acid
(c) urochrome
(d) bilirubin
Answer:
(c) urochrome

Question 18.
Malpighian tubules are
(a) excretory organs of insects
(b) excretory organs of frog
(c) respiratory organs of insects
(d) endocrine glands of insects
Answer:
(a) excretory organs of insects

Question 19.
The size of filtration slits of glomerulus
(a) 10wn
(b) 15nm
(c) 20nm
(d) 25nm
Answer:
(d) 25nm

Question 20.
The conversion of dangerous nitrogenous waste into less toxic excretory matter is carried out in man in the
(a) blood
(b) liver
(c) kidney
(d) skin
Answer:
(b) liver

Students can Download Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Plus One Botany Photosynthesis in Higher Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which metal ion is a constituent of chlorophyll?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Magnesium
(d) Zinc
Answer:
(c) Magnesium

Question 2.
Which pigment acts directly to convert light energy to chemical energy?
(a) Chlorophyll a
(b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Xanthophyll
(d) Carotenoid
Answer:
(a) Chlorophyll a

Question 3.
Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)?
(a) 100 – 390
(b) 390 – 430
(c) 400 – 700
(d) 760 – 100,00
Answer:
(c) 400-700

Question 4.
Which light range is most effective in photosynthesis?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Red
(d) Violet
Answer:
(c) Red

Question 5.
Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from
(a) Sun
(b) Infra red rays
(c) Organic substances
(d) Inorganic chemicals
Answer:
(d) Inorganic chemicals

Question 6.
What is the name given to the process of splitting of water during light reaction?
Answer:
Photolysis

Question 7.
What tissues and cells of a leaf contain the chloroplast
Answer:
Mesophyll

Question 8.
What colour of visible spectrum is least effective in the process of photosynthesis?
Answer:
Green

Question 9.
How many molecules of ATP and how many molecules of NADPH are spent to fix three molecules of CO₂ in Calvin cycle?
Answer:
ATP and 6 NADPH

Question 10.
Name the two photosynthetic pigments belonging to carotenoides.
Answer:
Carotene and xanthophylls

Question 11
The most abundant enzyme in the world plays a dual role in rice, tomato etc. Identify the enzyme.
Answer:
RUBISCO

Question 12
Which products formed during the light reaction of photosynthesis are used to drive the dark reaction?
Answer:
ATP and NADPH₂

Question 13
By looking at which internal structure of a plant can you fill whether a plant is C₃ or C₄. Explain.
Answer:
C₄ – Plants shows kranz anatomy -chloroplast dimorphism

Question 14
Why does the rate of photosynthesis decrease at higher temperatures?
Answer:
Enzymes present in stroma undergoes denaturation in the presence of high temperatures.

Question 15
Name the only natural process by which oxygen is liberated for the use of respiration.
Answer:
By photolysis of water during photosynthesis

Plus One Botany Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
If we study vertical sections of leaves of C₃ plant and C₄ plant, there are some anatomical differences.

1. What are the anatomical peculiarities of a C₄ plant?
2. Explain C₄ pathway by listing the main steps.

Answer:
1. C₄ plants show kranz anatomy – Chloroplast dimorphism

2.

Question 2.

The above graph indicates absorption spectrum related to chlorophyll pigments. On the basis of. this graph answer the following.

1. The peak a & b represents for what?
2. Which pigments shows a & b peak of absorption?

Answer:

1. Absorption maxima
2. Chlorophyll

Question 3.
C₄ cycle is called so because of the presence of a C₄ acid in this cycle.

1. Name that C₄ acid.
2. How does it form?

Answer:

1. Oxalic acetic acid.
2. It is formed by combining CO₂ with PEP in the presence of PEP case enzyme.

Question 4
The response of plant towards periods of day/night is termed as photo peroidism’.

1. Mention three plant groups based on photoperiodism.
2. Would a defoliated plant respond to the photoperiodic cycle? Why?

Answer:

1. Long day plants, short-day plants, day-neutral plants.
2. No. Photo periodic receptors are located in leaves.

Question 5
Melvin Calvin was awarded the nobel prize in 1961 for the discovery of one of the most important biological process in nature.

1. Name the process.
2. Name site for photosynthesis.

Answer:

1. C₃ cycle
2. Chloroplast

Question 6
Analysis the given and write down the photosynthetic response of the C₃ and C₄ plant in terms of CO₂ concentration.

Answer:
High light intensity induces the opening of stoma. When stoma opens CO₂ uptake increases. At high CO₂ concentration, the rate of photosynthesis becomes high under high light in both C₃ and C₄ plants.

Question 7.
C₄ plants have a special type of anatomy in leaves to avoid photorespiration.

1. What is the special anatomy called?
2. Name any two plants having this anatomy.

Answer:

1. Kranz
2. Wheat, Sugarcane

Question 8.
Fill up the blanks:

1. Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from …………
2. Inhibition of lateral buds growth by terminal bud is known as …………

Answer:

1. Water
2. Apical dominance

Question 9.

Based on the above diagram answer the following questions.
i) Write the steps of
a) Carboxylation
b) Reduction
c) regeneration
ii) Name the major enzyme involved in C₃ pathway.
Answer:

Question 10.
Give the diagram of a chloroplast and label the following parts.

• thylakoids
• grana
• stroma
• fret

Answer:

Question 11.
Certain distinguishing characters of C₃ and C₄ plants are given below. Arrange them in the correct table provided.

1. The primary CO₂ acceptor is a PEP, RuBP;
2. The first stable product is PGA, OAA;
3. Kranz anatomy is seen not seen;
4. Carboxylase enzyme in RuBisCo, PEP carboxylase, and RubisCo.

Answer:

Question 12.
Given below is the schematic diagram of calvin cycle, which completes in three stages.

1. Where does this cycle takes place?
2. State the three stages of calvin cycle?
3. Calculate the energy budget for each stage to synthesise one molecule of glucose during the process.

Answer:

1. Stroma
2. • Carboxylation
   • Carbon reduction
   • Regeneration
3. • 18 ATP
   • 12NADPH₂

Question 13.
ADP is converted into ATP as a result of phosphorylation which takes place in photosynthesis and respiration during electron transport system. What is the difference between these two.
Answer:
Photophosphorylation in the case of photosynthesis and oxidative phosphorylation in respiration.

Question 14.
Rubisco is an enzyme that catalyse two different processes in plants.

1. What are those reactions?
2. Name the full form of Rubisco.
3. What are the site of reaction that takesplace in high oxygen concentration?

Answer:

1. Carboxylation in C₃ cycle. Oxygenation in photorespiration
2. Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase.
3. Chloroplast, peroxisomes & mitochondria

Question 15.
Some plants are called C₃ and some others are called C₄.

1. Why they are called so?
2. Explain with examples.

Answer:

1. C₃ plants – First stable product is a 3 carbon compound – PGA
2. C₄ plants – First stable product is a 4 carbon compound – OAA

Question 16.
Do reactions of photosynthesis called, as ‘Dark Reaction’ need light? Explain.
Answer:
photosynthesis is a two-step process which involves light and dark reaction. CO₂ fixation takes place in dark reaction.

Question 17.
Where is NADP reductase enzyme located in the chloroplast? What is the role of this enzyme in proton gradient development?
Answer:

• The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane.
• Oxidation of NADPH₂ is involved in the accumulation of more proton concentration inside the thylakoid than outside.

Question 18.
What conditions enable RUBISCO to function as an oxygenase? Explain.
Answer:
Under high O₂ concentration and low CO₂ concentration, RUBISCO to function as an oxygenase and doing photorespiration.

Question 19.
Chlorophyll ‘a’ is the primary pigment for light reaction. What are accessory pigments? What is their role in photosynthesis?
Answer:
Clorophyll b,c ,d and carotenoides. These pigments harvest light energy and hand over to chlorophylla.

Question 20.
2H₂O → 2H+ + O₂ + 4e –
Based on above equation, answer the following questions:

1. Where does this reaction take place in plants?
2. What is the significance of this reaction?

Answer:

1. Lumen of the thylakoids.
2. _O2 is evolved during this reaction, moreover, electrons are made available to PS-II continuously.

Question 21.
What is the basis for designating C₃ and C₄ pathways of photosynthesis?
Answer:
The first stable product formed in some plants are 3 carbon compound but in others 4 carbon compound, therefore such plants designated as C₃ and C₄ respectively.

Question 22.
Chlorophyll b and carotenoids are known as accessory pigments. Give reason?
Answer:
Chlorophyll b and carotenoids harvest light energy and hand over to chlorophyll a (reaction centre)

Question 23.
C₄ plants show high rate of photosynthesis than C₃ plants. Are you agree with the statement? Give reason?
Answer:
Yes. In C₄ plants photorespiration does not occur. It is a wastage process that occur in C₃ plants only, because RUBISCO present in C₃ plants can act as carboxylase and oxygenase.

Question 24.
How many ATP molecules are required for the synthesis of one molecule of glucose in

1. C₃ pathway
2. C₄ pathway

Answer:

1. C₃ pathway – 18 ATPs
2. C₄ pathway – 30 ATPs

Question 25.
Cyanobacteria and some other photosynthetic bacteria don’t have chloroplasts. How do they conduct photosynthesis?
Answer:
Cyanobacteria and other photosynthetic bacteria have thylakoids suspended freely in the cytoplasm (i.e., they are not enclosed in membrane), and they have bacteriochlorophyll.

Question 26.
What would happen to the rate of photosynthesis in C₃ plants if CO₂ concentration level almost doubles from the present level in the atmosphere?
Answer:
The rate of photosynthesis in C₃ plants increases with increase in CO₂ concentration

Question 27.
Does photorespiration pose threat to plants yet it occurs in angiosperms why?
Answer:
Any angiospermic plants bear only one type of chloroplast and CO₂ acceptor is RUBP in these cases. Thus there is no other possibility except to undergo C₃ pathway which may ultimately lead to photorespiration.

Question 28.
Secondary CO₂ fixation is inevitable for C₄ plants. Do you agree? Give justification of your answer.
Answer:
Yes. This type of CO₂ fixation takes place in bundle sheath chloroplast and carbohydrate is formed.

Question 29.
Carboxylation of C₃ plants are interrupted in changed environmental conditions. Why?
Answer:
Normally carboxylation takes place in C₃ plants but in high O₂ and low CO₂ concentration, the energy wasteful process (photorespiration ) occur.

Question 30.
RuBisco is an enzyme that acts both as a carboxylase and oxygenase. Why do you think RuBisco carries out more carboxylationin in C₄ plants.
Answer:
1. The C₄ plants have dimorophic chloroplasts. In mesophyll cells chloroplast are granal but in bundle sheath cells the chloroplasts are agranal.

2. So in the these plants when CO₂ is fixed in bundle sheath cells, the intracellular CO₂ concentration is increased that is why RuBisco enzyme carries out more carboxylation in C₄ plants.

Question 31.
Succulents are known to keep their stomata closed during the day to check transpiration. How do they meet their photosynthetic CO₂ requirements?
Answer:
1. Succulent (water-storing) plants such as cacti, euphorbias fix CO₂ into organic compound using. PEP carboxylase at night, when the stomata are open.

2. PEP + CO₂ → OAA → Malic acid
The organic compound (malic acid) accumulates throughout the night and is decarboxylated during the day to produce CO₂.

Question 32
In C₄ plants RUBISCO is present but photorespiration does not occur. Why?
Answer:
Because intracellular CO₂ concentration is high. Hence RUBISCO do not show oxygenase activity.

Question 33
The statements are given below. Identify true and false

1. Carbohydrate (glucose) is formed in mesophyll chloroplast of C₄ pathway
2. Calvin cycle involves 3 steps
3. The absorption peak of PS I is 680nm
4. Calvin cycle takes place in Temperate plants

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True

Plus One Botany Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A plant physiologist while studying the light reaction step of photosynthesis using Chlorella, could detect the following facts.

1. Name the reaction
2. What is meant by photolysis?
3. Draw the electron transport schematically.

Answer:

1. Noncyclic photophosphorylation
2. Splitting of water

Question 2.
The enzyme catalysing C₄ and C₃ pathway is different but they are coming under dark reaction.

1. Name the enzyme shows CO₂ fixation in such plants
2. Where is the second CO₂ fixation occurs in C₄ plants
3. Which is the primary CO₂ acceptor and stable product of C₃ pathway

Answer:

1. C₄ pathway – PEPCO, C₃ pathway-RUBISCO
2. Bundle sheath chloroplast
3. CO₂acceptor-RUBP, Stable product— 3- phosphoglycerate

Question 3.
CO₂ fixation is associated with wasteful process and efficiency is decreased

1. Name the wasteful process.
2. Identify the enzyme catalysing the above process
3. Which is the chief organelle responsible for this?

Answer:

1. Photorespiration
2. Oxygenase activity of RUBISCO
3. peroxisome

Question 4.
Answer the following questions based on carbon fixation by plants.

1. which is the key enzyme involved in carbon fixation of photosynthesis in C₃ plants?.
2. Rubisco has a dual role. Comment.
3. Give the name of two cell organells other than chloroplast involved in the process that catalysed by Rubisco.

Answer:

1. Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
2. Carboxylation & oxygenation
3. Peroxisome & mitochondria

Question 5.
Type of CO₂ fixation in tropical plants is different from temperate plants

1. Identify the plants in which efficient CO₂ fixation occurs.
2. Tropical plants do not show the wasteful process why?
3. Give two example for such plants

Answer:

1. C₄ plants (Tropical plants)
2. Because intracellular CO₂ concentration is very high
3. Sugarcane and Maize.

Question 6.
Cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation is associated with light reaction of photosynthesis.

1. Where does photolysis occurs?
2. Give two difference between cyclic and noncyclic

Answer:

1. Inside thylakoid
   • Cyclic – It involves PSI (P700)
   • Only ATP is formed
   • Noncyclic – It involves PSI and PSII (P680)
   • ATP and NADPH₂ are produced

Question 7.
Do you think that synthesis of glucose occur during light reaction?

1. If not what is the function of light reaction?
2. name the CO₂ acceptor in C₃ cycle and C₄ cycle

Answer:

1. In light reaction, energy-rich molecules like ATP and NADPH₂ are produced. These are used in Dark reaction for Glucose synthesis,
   • RUBP – CO₂ acceptor in C₃ cycle
   • PEP – CO₂ acceptor in C₄ cycle

Question 8.
Sugar cane has a special leaf anatomy which make the plant photosynthetically more efficient.

1. Name the leaf anatomy
2. Write a note on carbon dioxide fixation in sugarcane.

Answer:
1. Kranz anatomy

2. In sugarcane CO₂ fixation tapseplace in mesophyll chloroplast. Initially CO₂ is accepted by PEP and by using Pepco it is converted into OAA. It is then transported to bundle sheath chloroplast.

After the transport, decarboxylation occurs and forms pyruvic acid which is transported to mesophyll chloroplast and converted into PEP. The CO₂ released during decarboxylation enters into calvin cycle for the synthesis of Glucose.

Question 9.
C₄ plants have a special leaf anatomy in which C₃ cycle also take place.

1. Name the primary acceptor of CO₂ and first stable product in C₄ cycle.
2. Why is photorespiration absent in C₄ plants?
3. Name the special type of leaf anatomy and explain.

Answer:
1. CO₂ acceptor in C₄ is PEP and the stable product is OAA.

2. Because in C₄ plants, the primary CO₂ acceptor is PEP but in C₃ plants the primary CO₂ acceptor is RUBP. The enzyme RUBISCO present C₃ plants have dual function ie, carboxylase and oxygenase activity. Oxygenase activity promotes photorespiration.

3. Kranz anatomy in C₄ plants. In this bundle sheath chloroplast are arranged in the form of a ring or wreath.

Question 10.
Explain how during light reaction of photosynthesis, ATP synthesis is a chemiosmotic phenomenon.
Answer:
The conditions helpful in chemiosmotic ATP synthesis are:

1. The splitting of the water molecule takes place on the inner side of the membrane, it causes the accumulation of protons or hydrogen ions within the lumen of the thylakoids.

2. As electrons move through the photosystems, protons are transported across the membrane, and proton is released into the inner side or the lumen side of the membrane.

3. The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane. Along with electrons that come from the accepter of electrons of PS I, protons are necessary for the reduction of NADP+ to NADPH+ H+. These protons are also removed from the stroma.

Question 11.
Chemiosmotic hypothesis explains the mechanism of ATP synthesis during respiration and photosynthesis.

1. Write the difference in the accumulation of proton during the above process.
2. What causes the proton gradience across the thylakoid membrane within the chloroplast?

OR

C₃ plants complete the Biosynthetic phase through 3 stages and sometimes they are affected by high concentration of O₂.

1. Name the 3 stages of Biosynthetic phase.
2. Name the assimilatory powers used during this phase and specify the number.
3. Write the process carried out by C₃ plants during high concentration of O₂.
4. How does the high O₂ concentration affect RUBISCO?

Answer:
1.

2. Movement of electrones through electron carrier

OR

1. Carboxylation, carbon reduction and regeneration
2. ATP & NAD PH₂
3. Photorespiration
4. RUBISCO – undergoes oxygenase activity

Question 12.
ATP and NADPH₂ molecules synthesized in Light reaction of Photosynthesis are used for the synthesis glucose in Dark reaction.

1. Who proposed the Dark reaction?
2. List out three phases in Dark reaction.
3. Location of dark reaction in the chloroplast.
4. Expense of ATP and NADPH₂ for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose in Dark reaction.

Answer:

1. Melvin Calvin
2. Carboxylation, carbon reduction and regeneration
3. Stroma
4. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH₂

Question 13.
Observe the labeled and write down the following :

1. Which gas is passed out into the atmosphere at A?
2. What raw material required for photosynthesis, enters the leaf at B?
3. Describe the major steps involved at C in the synthesis of sugar.

Answer:

1. O₂
2. H₂O
3. CO₂ is reduced to sugar (glucose or fructose), by the biochemical reaction of photosynthesis (Calvin cycle). It has 3 major steps.

• Carboxylation – During which CO₂ combines with RuBP.
• Reduction – During which carbohydrate is formed at the expense of the photochemically made ATP and NADPH.
• Regeneration – During which is the CO₂ acceptor (RuBP) is formed again so that the cycle continues.

Plus One Botany Photosynthesis in Higher Plants NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
By looking at a plant externally can you tell whether a plant is C₃ or C₄? Why and how?
Answer:
Usually plants growing in dry conditions use ( pathways. It cannot be said conclusively if the plant is a C₃ or C₄ by looking at fleshy leaf structure of C₄ plants.

Question 2.
By looking at which internal structure of a plant can you tell whether a plant is C₃ or C₄? Explain.
Answer:
The particularly large cells around the vascular bundles of the C₄ pathway plants are called bundle sheath cells, and the leaves which have such anatomy are said to have ‘Kranz’ anatomy. ‘Kranz’ means ‘wreath’ and is a reflection of the arrangement of cells.

The bundle sheath cells may form several layers around the vascular bundles; they are characterised by having a large number of chloroplasts, thick walls impervious to gaseous exchange and no intercellular spaces.

Plus One Botany Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The ATP production in photosynthesis is called
(a) Phototropism
(b) phosphorylation
(c) Photo-oxidation
(d) photophosphorylation
Answer:
(d) photophosphorylation

Question 2.
Conditions helpful in photorespiration are
(a) more oxygen and less carbon dioxide
(b) less oxygen and more carbon dioxide
(c) more temperature and less oxygen
(d) more humidity and less temperature
Answer:
(a) more oxygen and less carbon dioxide

Question 3.
What is common between chloroplasts, chromoplasts, and leucoplasts?
(a) Presence of pigments
(b) Possession of thylakoids and grana
(c) Storage of starch, proteins, and lipids
(d) Ability to multiply by a fission-like process
Answer:
(d) Ability to multiply by a fission-like process

Question 4.
A student set up an experiment on photosynthesis as follow: He takes soda water in a glass tumbler and keeps the tumbler exposed sunlight hoping that he has provided necessary ingredient for photosynthesis to proceed (viz, CO₂ H₂O chlorophyll and light)
What do you think what will happen after, say few hours of exposure of light?
(a) Photosynthesis will take place and glucose will produced
(b) Photosynthesis will take place and starch will be produced which will turn the mixture turbid
(c) Photosynthesis will not take place because CO₂ dissolved in soda water escapes into the atmosphere
(d) Photosynthesis will not take place because intact chloroplasts are needed for the process
Answer:
(a) Photosynthesis will take place and glucose will produced

Question 5.
Photochemical reactions in the chloroplasts are directly involved in
(a) Fixation of carbon dioxide
(b) synthesis of glucose and starch
(c) formation of Phosphoglyceric acid
(d) photolysis of water and phosphorylation of ADP
Answer:
(d) photolysis of water and phosphorylation of ADP

Question 6.
Match the following with correct combination

Answer:

Question 7.
Choose the correct statement.
(a) The C₄ – plants do not have RUBISCO
(b) Carboxylation of RuBP leds to the formation of PGA and phosphoglycolate
(c) Carboxylation of phosphoenolpyruvate results in the formation of C₄ – acids
(d) Decarboxylation of C₄ – acids occurs in the mesophyll cells
Answer:
(c) Carboxylation of phosphoenolpyruvate results in the formation of C₄ – acids

Question 8.
In non-cyclic photophosphorylation, there are photolysis of 12 water molecules, How many H+ are formed?
(a) 24 H+
(b) 36 H+
(c) 12 H+
(d) 32 H+
Answer:
(a) 24 H+

Question 9.
In Hatch and Slack pathway.
(a) chloroplasts are of same type
(b) occurs in Kranz anatomy where mesphyll have small Chloroplasts whereas bundle sheath have granal chloroplasts
(c) occurs in Kranz anatomy where mesphyll have small Chloroplasts whereas bundle sheath have larger agranal chloroplasts
(d) Kranz anatomy where mesphyll cells are diffused
Answer:
(c) occurs in Kranz anatomy where mesphyll have small Chloroplasts whereas bundle sheath have larger agranal chloroplasts

Question 10.
To form one molecule of glucose in Calvin cycle
(a) 9ATP and 36 NADPH are required
(b) 6 ATP and 6 NADPH are required
(c) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH are required
(d) 18ATPand12 NADPH are required
Answer:
(d) 18ATPand12 NADPH are required

Question 11.
Photosynthesis is correctly explained by the equation
(a) 6 CO₂ + 12H₂ O → C₆ H₁₂ O₆ + 6O₂ + 6H₂O
(b) 6 CO₂ + 6H₂ O → C₆ H₁₂ O₆ + 6O₂ + 6H₂
(c) 6CO₂ + 6 H₂O → C₆H₁₂ O₆+ 6O₂
(d) 2CO₂+ 12H₂O → C₆H₁₂ O₆+ 2CO₂
Answer:
(a) 6 CO₂ + 12H₂ O C₆ H12 O₆ + 6O₂ + 6H₂O

Question 12.
In sugarcane plant, CO₂is fixed into malic acid, in which the enzyme that fixes carbon dioxide is
(a) ribulose phosphate kinase
(b) fructose phosphatase
(c) ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase
(d) phosphoenol pyruvate carboxlase
Answer:
(d) phosphoenol pyruvate carboxlase

Question 13.
Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of higher plants?
(a) Red and violet
(b) Violet and blue
(c) Blue and green
(d) Green and red
Answer:
(b) Violet and blue

Question 14.
Which factor is not limiting in normal condition for photosynthesis?
(a) Air
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Water
(d) Chlorophyll
Answer:
(a) Air

Question 15.
Which of the following is used during discovery of Calvin cycle?
(a) Spirogyra
(b) Volvox
(c) Chlamydomonas
(d) Chlorella
Answer:
(d) Chlorella

Question 16.
Photosynthesis in C₄ plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric carbon dioxide levels because
(a) Four carbon acids are the primary initial carbon dioxide fixation products
(b) the primary Fixation of carbon dioxide is mediated via PEP caroxylase
(c) effective pumping of CO₂ into bundle sheath cells.
(d) Rubisco in C₄_ plants has higher affinity for CO₂
Answer:
(b) the primary Fixation of carbon dioxide is mediated via PEP caroxylase

Question 17.
NADP is converted into NADPH₂ in
(a) photosystem I
(b) photosystem II
(c) calvin cycle
(d) non cyclic photophosphorylation
Answer:
(d) noncyclic photophosphorylation

Students can Download Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Body Fluids and Circulation

Plus One Body Fluids and Circulation One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the double walled membrane of human heart. (Cuticle, Pleura, Pericardium, Sarcolemma)
Answer:
Pericardium

Question 2.
Which metal is responsible for blood clotting?
(a) Iron
(b) Calcium
(c) Copper
(d) Magnesium
Answer:
(b) Calcium

Question 3.
In a case sheet, doctor denoted a patients BP as 140/90. What it shows?
Answer:
Hypertension

Question 4.
Mark the pair of substances among the following which is essential for coagulation of blood.
(a) Heparin and calcium ions
(b) Calcium ions and platelet factors
(c) Oxalates and citrates
(d) Platelet factors and heparin
Answer:
(b) Calcium ions and platelet factors

Question 5.
Which one of the following type of cells lack nucleus?
(a) RBC
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Eosinosphils
(d) Monocytes
Answer:
(a) RBC

Question 6.
ECG depicts the depolarisation and repolarisation processes during the cardiac cycle. In the ECG of a normal healthy individual one of the following waves is not represented.
(a) Depolarisation of atria
(b) Repolarisation of atria
(c) Depolarisation of ventricles
(d) Repolarisation of ventricles
Answer:
(b) Repolarisation of atria

Question 7.
Which one of the following blood cells is involved in antibody production?
(a) B-Lymphocytes
(b) T-Lymphocytes
(c) RBC
(d) Neutrophils
Answer:
(a) B-Lymphocytes

Question 8.
The cells involved in inflammatory reactions are
(a) Basophils
(b) Neutrophils
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Lymphocytes
Answer:
(a) Basophils

Question 9.
Name the incompatibility observed between the Rh-ve blood of a pregnant mother with Rh+ve blood of the foetus.
Answer:
Erythroblastosis foetalis

Question 10.
Tricuspid valve is present in between _______ and _________?
(a) Right auricle and right ventricle
(b) Left auricle and left ventricle
(c) Right auricle and left auricle
(d) Right ventricle and left ventricle
Answer:
(a) Right auricle and right ventricle

Question 11.
Rhythmic heartbeat is maintained by a highly specialized excitatory and conductive system. The correct sequence of events will be
(a) AV node → Bundle of His → S A node → Purkinje fibers
(b) Purkinje fibers → AV node → S A node → Bundle of His
(c) A V node → S A node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers
(d) S A node → A V node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers
Answer:
(d) S A node → A V node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibers

Question 12.
The normal cardiogram of man is shown below.

In the diagram, QRS wave has largest amplitude, which represents ventricular depolarization. What condition is obtained if QRS wave is enlarged?
Answer:
Myocardial infarction or cardiac arrest.

Plus One Body Fluids and Circulation Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The diagrammatic figure given below represents two types of blood circulations.

1. Identify the A and B
2. Write hepatic portal system

Answer:

1. A – Pulmonary circulation B – Systemic circulation
2. Hepatic portal system is a portal system which carries blood from intestine to liver.

Question 2.
Doctor advised to administer Anti Rh antibodies to Seetha immediately after the first delivery. Justify this statement.
Answer:
If the mother’s blood group is Rh- and foetus blood group is Rh+, there is chance for the condition of erythroblastosis foetalis. This can be avoided by administering Anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately afterthe delivery of the first child.

Question 3.

1. Identify A & B
2. Mention the role of A in the myogenic property of Heart.

Answer:
1. A – SA node B – AV node

2. In myogenic heart cardiac impulse in originated from SA node. So the SA node is called pacemaker. The rate of heart beat in determined by the rate of discharge of cardiac impulse from SA node.

Question 4.
Silicosis, T.B., Pneumonia, asbestosis are the diseases affecting respiratory system. Name four diseases affecting circulatory system.
Answer:

1. Hypertension
2. Coronary artery disease (CAD)
3. Angina
4. Heart failure

Question 5.
The average life span of RBC is 120 days.

1. Write the places where RBC is produced and destroyed?
2. Name respiratory pigment in Human RBC.

Answer:

1. RBS are produced in red bone marrow and destroyed in spleen
2. Haemoglobin

Question 6.
The stroke volume of a normal person is 70ml/min. Find out his cardiac output?
(Hint: Cardiac output = stroke volume × No. of heartbeats/min.)
Answer:
HP No.of heartbeats/min = 72
Stroke volume = 70
Cardiac output = 70 × 72 = 5040 ml

Question 7.
Suppose your friend is suffering from obesity, diabetes and hypertension, etc. What are the type of food materials would you suggest?
Answer:
Fried items and bakery items must not be used. Sugar and sugary materials should be avoided. Fiber-rich vegetarian food is recommended.

Question 8.
Study the table. Correct the mistakes to match column A, B & C.

Answer:

Question 9.
Copy the diagram and fill (a) and (b).

Answer:
(a) Hypertension

(b) Coronary Artery Disease.

Question 10.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 11.
Observe the diagram.

1. Which step of cardiac cycle is shown here?
2. Which sound is produced during the step and how is it produced?

Answer:

1. Ventricular systole
2. The ‘lub’ sound. This is produced by the closing of AV valve in orderto prevent backward flow of blood to auricle.

Question 12.
Some of the features of the body fluids are listed below. Analyse the features and categorise them into two groups.

1. Transparent fluid found in tissue space.
2. Extra cellular fluid of the blood.
3. Contains 91% water, 7% proteins and 1% inorganic and organic substances.
4. Absorbs the digested fats and lipids and transports in the form of chylomicrons.

Answer:

Question 13.
‘Bundle of His’ is divided into finer branches known as Purkinje Tissue. Impulses are conducted rapidly along these fibres at 5 m/s and spread from these to all parts of the chambers.

1. What is the function of Purkinje Tissue?
2. Which are the chambers mentioned in the paragraph?

Answer:

1. Conduction of impulse from the Bundle of His and rapidly transfers to the wall of the ventricles,
2. Right and Left ventricles

Question 14.
“All veins carry deoxygenated blood and all arteries carry oxygenated blood.”

1. Do you agree?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Statement is incorrect.

2. Arteries are the blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart. Veins are the blood vessels which carry blood towards the heart. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except pulmonary artery.

All veins carry deoxygenated blood except pulmonary vein. Pulmonary artery carry deoxygenated blood towards the lungs and pulmonary vein carry oxygenated blood toward heart.

Question 15.
Using the terms given, prepare a flow chart incorrect order.
Right auricle, aorta, left ventricle, left auricle, superior vena cava, capillaries, lungs, right ventricle, pulmonary vein, pulmonary artery.
Answer:
Right Auricle → Right ventricle → Pulmonary artery → Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left Auricle → Left ventricle → Aorta → Capillaries → Superior vena cava → Right Auricle.

Question 16.
Complete the table using ‘open’ or ‘close’.

Answer:

Question 17.
The human blood vascular system is diagrammatically represented below.

1. What is the significance of Pulmonary circulation in the cardiac cycle?
2. Why circulation in human considering as double circulation?

Answer:
1. The to and fro circulation between the lungs and heart is known as Pulmonary circulation. The purpose of pulmonary circulation is oxygenation of blood.

2. In human circulation is double circulation, it involves Pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation. Right half receives and pumps the deoxygenated blood while the left half the oxygenated blood.

Question 18.
You know when you cut your finger or hurt yourself, your wound does not continue to bleed for long time. Usually blood stops flowing after sometime. State how?
Answer:
When blood oozes out of a cut, it set into gel within a few minutes. This is known as coagulation. The mechanism of blood coagulation is as follows.

Question 19.
Copy the table and fill in the gap with appropriate words.

Answer:

Question 20.
Study the diagrammatic representation :

1. ‘X’ marked in the figure is a blood vessel. Name the blood vessel.
2. Give the importance of circulation between these two organs.

Answer:

1. hepatic portal vein
2. hepatic portal vein carries nutrients from intestine to liver.

Question 21.
Heparin is a substance which prevents clotting of blood. Histamine is an anti-inflammatory substance.

1. Mention the leucocytes that secretes the above said substances.
2. Draw and label its nucleus.

Answer:
1. Basophil
2.

Plus One Body Fluids and Circulation Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill up the blanks with appropriate words.

1. Thrombocytes are produced from _________
2. Pace maker of the heart is _________
3. The nervous band that connects the two cerebral hemispheres is _________

Answer:

1. Megakaryocytes
2. Sino – atrial node (SAN)
3. Corpus callosum

Question 2.
The given figure shows a Systole.

1. Identify the Systole in the figure?
2. How long does it lasts?
3. What happens to the bicuspid and tricuspid valves during this systole?

Answer:

1. Ventricular systole
2. 0.25 seconds
3. Closed

Question 3.
Draw a Schematic diagram showing the circulation of blood in man, starting from left ventricle of heart and ending in the right auricle.

1. Name the type of circulation.
2. Mention the significance of this circulation.

Answer:

1. Systemic circulation
2. The systemic circulation provides nutrients, O₂ and other essential substances to the tissues and takes CO₂ and other harmful substances away for elimination.

Question 4.
A unique vascular connection exists between the digestive tract and liver.

1. Name the vascular connection.
2. Name the vascular connection found in frog between kidney and lower parts of body.
3. What is CAD?

Answer:

1. Hepatic portal system
2. Renal portal system
3. CAD – Coronary Artery Disease

Question 5.
Complete the table using the terms given in bracket. (Lymphocyte, granulocyte, eosinophil, basophil, plasma, leucocyte)

Answer:

• a – Plasma
• b – leucocyte
• c – granulocyte
• d – basophil
• e – Eosinophil
• f – lymphocyte

Question 6.
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions.

1. Identify the type of circulation.
2. Prepare a flow chart showing the above circulation.
3. Write the purpose of this circulation.

Answer:

1. Pulmonary circulation
2. Right, ventricle → Pulmonary artery → lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left auricle
3. Oxygenation of blood

Question 7.
Leukocytes are the soldiers of the body. Justify?
Answer:
Leukocytes provides defence mechanism to the body against infection. For example Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body.

Basophils secrete histamine, heparin etc. and are involved in inflammatory reactions. Eosinophils resist infections and are also associated with allergic reactions. Lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses of the body.

Question 8.
Listed below are some of the features of open and closed circulatory system. Arrange them into two categories.

1. Usually low-pressure system
2. Found in vertebrates
3. Blood returns to heart rapidly
4. High pressure system
5. Blood returns to heart slowly
6. Found in Arthopods

Answer:

Question 9.
The heart of fish is said to be a venous heart, whether your heart is a venous one or not? Justify.
Answer:
The heart of fish is a venous heart, because it is a 2 chambered heart and only deoxygenated blood flows through the heart chambers.
Human heart is four chambered heart and carry both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. So human heart is not a venous heart.

Question 10.
Observe the diagram.

1. Identify the blood cell A and B.
2. How can they differentiate?
3. What are their function?

Answer:

1. The blood cells A and B
   • A – Monocyte
   • B – Neutrophil
2. They can be differentiated in two ways
   • Monocyte – Agranulocyte, Horseshoe shaped nucleus
   • Neutrophil – Granulocyte, multilobed nucleus
3. Their functions
   • Monocyte – They protect the body by engulfing the pathogen (Phagocytosis)
   • Neutrophil – Phagocytic cells

Question 11.
During a clinical check-up doctor diagnosed that the patient’s heart murmurs.

1. What are murmurs?
2. Why does a heart murmur?
3. The heart sound ‘dub’ is caused by the closure of AV valve. Do you agree with this statement?

Answer:
1. Due to the abnormalities in chambers or valves of the heart, some abnormal sounds may be audible in addition to normal heart sound. These are called murmurs.

2. Heart may murmur due to valvular damage.

3. The statement is incorrect because ‘dub’ is caused by the sudden closure of semilunar valve.

Question 12.
Observe the diagram and answer the following

1. Name the area labelled here.
2. What is the importance of this area?
3. Name the area associated with this.
4. Draw a flow chart showing conducting system of heart.

Answer:

1. Sino-atrial node (SAN)
2. Cardiac impulse originates from SAN.
3. AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibres.
4. SAN → AVN → Bundle of His→ Purkinje fibres → Ventricle.

Question 13.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 14.
A person’s blood pressure is found to be about 140/ 100mm Hg.

1. What is the condition the person is suffering?
2. How do you measure BP?
3. Blood pressure is 100/60mm Hg. How you interpret it?

Answer:

1. Hypertension
2. Sphygmomanometer
3. Hypotension

Question 15.
The major findings of a health survey conducted in a corporation area are

• 25% of the population are suffering from hypertension.
• 15% of male above 40 years are suffering from various cardiac disorders.

1. List any three cardio vascular disorders.
2. Suggest any two possible reason for this disorders.
3. Suggest any two advices to the disease.

Answer:

1. Hypertension, Atherosclerosis, Cardiac arrest
2. Two possible reason for cardio vascular disorders:
   • Regular intake of fatty food
   • Smoking
   • Lack of exercise
3. Advices to the disease:
   • Avoid fatty food
   • Do regular exercise

Question 16.
Match Column I with Column II.

Answer:

Question 17.
Select the correct statement from the following:

• Monocyte is a granulocyte.
• Frog has 4 chambered heart.
• Blood is a tissue.
• The respiratory organs of insects are gills.

Answer:

• Blood is a tissue. (Monocyte is an agranulocyte Frog has 3 chambered heart Respiratory organs of insects are trachea)

Question 18.
Today we can measure blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer at home. This shows that people are very much concerned about high blood pressure. Find out why?
Answer:
High blood pressure can harm the vital organs like heart, brain and kidneys. High blood pressure compels the heart to work excessively due to which the congestive heart disease may set in at an early age. This is the reason why people are very much concerned with their high B.P.

Question 19.
Erythroblastosis foetalis is an Rh incompatibility disorder.

1. Describe the circumstances in which erythroblastosis foetalis might arise.
2. How is the problem usually averted?

Answer:
1. If the first child of a Rh- woman is Rh+, she develops anti-Rh antibodies in her blood. During subsequent pregnancies if the foetus is Rh+ and Rh antibodies enter the foetal blood from the mother blood causing agglutination resulting erythroblastosis foetalis.

2. This problem can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first child.

Question 20.
Write the odd one out and give the reason for your answer.

1. P wave, QRS wave, T wave, beta wave.
2. Renal artery, Pulmonary artery, Hepatic artery, Coronary artery.
3. SA node, lymph node, AV node, Purkinje fibres

Answer:

1. Beta wave: These are the waves of normal EEG, whereas all others are the components of a normal ECG.
2. Pulmonary artery: This blood carries deoxygenated blood whereas all others carry oxygenated blood.
3. Lymph node: It is found in lymphatic system whereas all other structures are found in the mammalian heart related to auto rhythmicity.

Question 21.
Cardiac output increases when we engage in physical exercises. However, it may fall after the exercise stops. We can see that it is a fully heart controlled event.

1. What is a cardiac output?
2. How does heart increase cardiac output during exercise?

Answer:

1. Cardiac output is the volume of the blood ejected by. each ventricle into the arterial system per minute,
2. In response to the sensory impulses and the adrenal medullary hormone, the excitability of the pacemaker is increased and thereby heart rate is increased during exercise. This in turn increases the heart rate.

Question 22.
Copy and complete the table on blood group, antigen and antibody.
1.

2. Name the blood groups commonly known as Universal donor and Universal recipient.
Answer:
1.

2. The blood groups commonly known as Universal donor and Universal recipient.

• Universal donor: ‘O’ group.
• Universal recipient: ‘AB’ group.

Plus One Body Fluids and Circulation NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the importance of plasma proteins?
Answer:
Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major proteins. Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood. Globulins primarily are involved in defense mechanisms of the body and the albumins help in osmotic balance.

Question 2.
Match Column I with Column II:

Answer:

Question 3.
Why do we consider blood as a connective tissue?
Answer:
Blood is considered a connective tissue for two basic reasons:

1. embryologically, it has the same origin (meso-dermal) as do the other connective tissue types and
2. Blood connects the body systems together bringing the needed oxygen, nutrients, hormones and other signaling molecules, and removing the wastes.

Question 4.
Sino-atrial node is called the pacemaker of our heart. Why?
Answer:
Sino-atrial node is a bundle of nerves which initiates the conduction of heartbeat. So, this is also called the pacemaker of our heart.

Question 5.
What is the significance of atrioventricular node and atrioventricular bundle in the functioning of heart?
Answer:
AV Node and atrioventricular bundles are responsible for conduction of cardiac beat cycle to further parts of heart.

Question 6.
Define a cardiac cycle and the cardiac output.
Answer:
Cardiac Cycle. The rhythmic contraction and dilatation of different parts of heart in one beat is called cardiac cycle. Cardiac Output. The heart beats 72 times per minute, i.e., that many cardiac cycles are performed per minute. From this it could be deduced that the duration of a cardiac cycle is 0.8 seconds.

During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately 70mL of blood which is called the stroke volume. The stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate (no. of beats per min.) gives the cardiac output. Therefore, the cardiac output can be defined as the volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute and averages 5000 mL or 5 litres in a healthy individual.

Question 7.
What is the difference between lymph and bllod?
Answer:

Plus One Body Fluids and Circulation Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In higher vertebrates, SA – node helps in
(a) conduction of blood
(b) initiation of heartbeat
(c) opening of tricuspid valve
(d) opening of bicuspid valve
Answer:
(b) initiation of heartbeat

Question 2.
An oval depression called fossa ovalis, is seen on
(a) inter atrial septum
(b) inter ventricular septum
(c) right auriculo-ventricular septum
(d) left auriculo-ventricular septum
(e) papullary muscles
Answer:
(a) inter atrial septum

Question 3.
The deposition of lipids on the wall lining, the lumen of large and medium-sized arteries is referred to as
(a) deep vein thrombosis
(b) Stokes-Adam’s syndrome
(c) osteoporosis
(d) atherosclerosis
Answer:
(d) atherosclerosis

Question 4.
Which of the following are located in tunica media of human blood vessels?
(a) Collagen fibres and smooth muscle
(b) Squamous epithelium and striated muscle
(c) white fibres and smooth muscle
(d) Yellow fibres and smooth muscle
Answer:
(d) Yellow fibres and smooth muscle

Question 5.
The important function of lymph is to
(a) transport oxygen to the brain
(b) transport carbon dioxide to the lungs
(c) return RBCstothe lymph nodes
(d) return interstitial fluid to the blood
Answer:
(d) return interstitial fluid to the blood

Question 6.
Cardiac output is determined by
(a) heart rate
(b) stroke volume
(c) blood flow
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 7.
Which of the following matches correctly?
(a) Inferior vena cava – Receives deoxygenated blood from the head and body
(b) Superior vena – Receives deoxygenated blood from the lower body and organs
(c) pulmonary artery – carries deoxygenated blood to lungs
(d) hepatic artery – carries deoxygenated blood to the gut
Answer:
(c) pulmonary artery – carries deoxygenated blood to lungs

Question 8.
The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site made up of
(a) atrioventricular bundle
(b) Purkinje system
(c) sinuatrial node
(d) atrioventricular node
Answer:
(c) sinuatrial node

Question 9.
Generally artificial pacemaker consists of one battery made up of
(a) nickel
(b) dry cadmium
(c) photo sensitive material
(d) lithium
Answer:
(d) lithium

Question 10.
which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin?
(a) Neutrophils
(b) Basophils
(c) Eosinophils
(d) Monocytes
Answer:
(b) Basophils

Question 11.
In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to
(a) pushing open of the venous valves
(b) suction pull
(c) stimulation of the sino-auricular node
(d) pressure difference between the caval and atrium
Answer:
(d) pressure difference between the caval and atrium

Question 12.
which one of the following has an open circulator system?
(a) Pheretima
(b) Periplaneta
(c) Hirudinaria
(d) Octopus
Answer:
(b) Periplaneta

Question 13.
in higher vertebrates, SA – node helps in
(a) conduction of blood
(b) initiation of heartbeat
(c) opening of tricuspid valve
(d) opening of bicuspid valve
Answer:
(b) initiation of heartbeat

Question 14.
The opening of auricles and ventricles on the right side is guarded by
(a) tricuspid valve
(b) bicuspid valve
(c) semilunar valve
(d) Eustachian tube
Answer:
(a) tricuspid valve

Question 15.
Which of the following sequences is truly a systemic circulation pathway?
(a) Right ventricle → Pulmonary aorta → Tissues Pulmonary veins → Left auricle
(b) Right auricle → Left ventricle → Aorta → Tissues → Veins → Right auricle
(c) Left auricle → Left ventricle → Pulmonary aorta + Tissues → Right auricle
(d) Left auricle → Left ventricle → Pulmonary aorta → Arteries → Tissues → Veins → Right atrium
Answer:
(d) Left auricle → Left ventricle → Pulmonary aorta → Arteries → Tissues → Veins → Right atrium

Question 16.
Open circulatory system is present in
I. Arthropods
II. Annelids
III. Chordates
IV. Molluscs
(a) III only
(b) III and II
(c) I and IV
(d) IV only
Answer:
(c) I and IV

Question 17.
The artery, which supplies blood to the pericardium is
(a) brachial artery
(b) pulmonary vein
(c) vertebral artery
(d) coronary artery
Answer:
(d) coronary artery

Question 18.
In diastole, heart is filled by
(a) mixed blood
(b) venous blood
(c) oxygenated blood
(d) deoxygenated blood
Answer:
(d) deoxygenated blood

Question 19.
You are required to draw blood from patient and to Keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which of them will you not use for the purpose?
(a) Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate
(b) Chilled test tube
(c) Test tube containing heparin
(d) Test tube containing sodium oxalate
Answer:
(c) Test tube containing heparin

Students can Download Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following roles is not characteristic of an essential element?
(a) being a component of biomolecules
(b) changing the chemistry of soil
(c) being a structural component of energy-related chemical compounds
(d) activation or inhibition of enzymes
Answer:
(b) changing the chemistry of soil

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an essential element?
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.
(c) essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase.
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.

Question 3.
During protein synthesis subunits of ribosomes are combined due to the presence of the particular element. Name it.
Answer:
Magnesium

Question 4.
Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves.
It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?
(a) sulphur
(b) Magnesium
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) sulphur

Question 5.
With regard to the Biological Nitrogen Fixation by Rhizobium in association with soybean, which one of the following statement/statements does not hold true.
(a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning
(b) Nitrogenase is MO- Fe protein
(c) Leg-hemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment.
(d) Nitrogenase helps to convert N₂ gas into two molecules of ammonia.
Answer:
(a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning

Question 6.
Name the free-living microorganisms which can fix nitrogen.
Answer:
Azotobactor and Rhodospirillum

Question 7.
In what form do plants absorb molebdenum from the soil.
Answer:
Molybdate ions M_oO₂²⁺

Question 8.
Mineral requirements of plants is explained by a method in the nutrient solution is Called ………. and it was demonstrated by ……….. for the first time.
Answer:
Hydroponics,Julius von sachs

Question 9.
Find the odd one out.
Boron, Copper, Zinc, Phosphorous
Answer:
Phosphorous

Question 10.
A plant cell when kept in a certain solution got plasmolysed. What was the nature of the solution?
Answer:
Hypertonic Solution.

Question 11.
Plants can be cultivated in water. Name the type of cultivation.
Answer:
Hydroponics

Question 12.
Find the odd one among the following Carbon, Manganese, potassium, Nitrogen
Answer:
Manganese

Question 13.
A farmer adds Azotobacter culture to the soil before sowing maize. Which mineral element is being replenished?
Answer:
Nitrogen

Question 14.
In the diagram below, Label the cell Ain Nostoc

Answer:
Heterocyst

Question 15.
Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an essential element?
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.
(c) essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase.
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.

Question 16.
Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?
Answer:
Sulphur or calcium

Question 17.
From where do plants receive hydrogen?
Answer:
Water absorbed by plants.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give example for

1. Free-living N2 fixing bacteria.
2. Symbiotic N2 fixing bacteria.

Answer:

1. Acetobacter, Nitrococcus
2. Rhizobium

Question 2.
Crop plants cannot grow well in the nitrogen-deficient soil while plants like Drosera and Nepenthes show vigorous growth.

1. Justify the statement
2. Mention any two deficiency shown by such crop plants.

Answer:
1. These plants are insectivorous plants. They capture and feed on insects in order to maintain the N₂ content of their body.

2. Two deficiency shown by such crop plants

• Stunted growth
• Chlorosis

Question 3.
Study the relation of the given pair and fill up the blanks:

1. Potassium: Stomatal movement:………… Constituent of chlorophyll
2. ………………: pollen germination Zinc: biosynthesis of auxin.
3. Ion exchange: Passive absorption ………….: Active absorption
4. Protoplasmic streaming theory: De Vries: ………….Active absorption

Answer:

1. Mg
2. Boron
3. Carrier concept
4. Munch

Question 4.
Plants can be grown in defined nutrient solution in the absence of soil.

1. Name the technique.
2. Who demonstrated the technique for the first time?

Answer:

1. Hydroponics
2. Julius von sachs

Question 5.
How is nitrogenase enzyme protected?
Answer:
In leguminous plants, the enzyme nitrogenase is protected from Oxygen by the pigment leghaemoglobin.

Question 6.
The functional roles of certain essential elements are given below. Identify the element based on the function.

1. Essential for the formation of Chlorophyll.
2. Involved in the pollen germination.

Answer:

1. Mg
2. Boron

Question 7.
Explain the scientific reason for growing legume crops prior to cereal crops.
Answer:
Increase the fertility of the soil. Biological N₂ fixation.

Question 8.
Name the pink coloured pigment present in the root nodules? Write its role in N₂ fixation?
Answer:
Leghemoglobin is an oxygen scavenger. It creates anaerobic condition for the action of nitrogenase enzyme to fix N₂.

Question 9.
Give example for the following taking part in biological nitrogen fixation.

1. Free-living N₂ fixing bacteria
2. Free-living N₂ fixing cyanobacteria
3. Symbiotic N₂ fixing bacteria.
4. Symbiotic N₂ fixing cyanobacteria

Answer:

1. Azotobacter, Clostridium
2. Nostoc, Anabaena, Oscillatonia.
3. Rhizobium leguminosarum
4. Nostoc, Anabaena

Question 10.
Prepare a flow chart which shows the conversion of N₂ to ammonia in biological N₂ fixation.
Answer:

Question 11.
A pigment similar to hemoglobin is present in leguminous plants. Name the pigment and write its role.

OR

How is nitrogenase enzyme protected?
Answer:
Leghemoglobin which is the scavenger of 0₂. Nitrogenase enzyme needs oxygen-free condition.

Question 12.
Observe the figure given below and answer the following questions.

1. Name this technique.
2. Write two uses of this technique.

Answer:

1. Hydroponics
2. uses
   • Used as kitchen garden,
   • Used to study jdeficiency symptoms.

Question 13.
For the normal growth of plants it requires minerals. Write two examples of micro and macro elements.
Answer:

• Macro – N, P
• Micro-Boron, copper

Question 14.
In a survey done in an agricultural area the crops in the area shows various symptoms.

• Chlorosis
• Necrosis
• Delay flowering.

Name the elements whose deficiency causes these symptoms.
Answer:

• N, P, K, Mg
• Chlorosis – N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, etc.
• Necrosis – K, Mg, Ca and Cu Delay flowering – N, S, and Mo

Question 15.
Iron is not a structural component of chlorophyll but its deficiency causes yellowing of leaves. Give reason.
Answer:
Iron activates catalise enzyme in the formation of chlorophyll.

Question 16.
Amides are derivatives of amino acids in which the hydroxyl group is replaced by the amino group (NH2)
a) How are asparagine and glutamine formed.
b) Amides contain more than amino acids.
Answer:

Question 17.
In a survey done in an agricultural area the crops in the area shows various symptoms.

• Chlorosis
• Necrosis
• Delay flowering

Name the elements whose deficiency causes these symptoms.
Answer:

• N, P, K, Mg
• Chlorosis – N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, etc.
• Necrosis – K, Mg, Ca and Cu
• Delay flowering – N, S, and Mo

Question 18.
A farmer supplies Nitrogen fertilizer to pea plants.

1. Is there any necessity to supply Nitrogen fertilizer?
2. Justify your answer with reason.

Answer:

1. No
2. Symbiotic N2 fixation

Question 19.
Name the respecive mineral nutrient element that

1. Forms the core constituent of the ring structure of chlorophyll
2. Activates carboxylases
3. Forms the components of nitrogenase
4. Synthesises middle lamella of plant cell.

Answer:

1. Magnesium
2. Manganese
3. Molybdenum and iron
4. Calcium

Question 20.
Observe the relationship between the first pair and fill in the blanks.
Posassium: Opening and closing of stomata::
Boron: …………
Answer:
Boron: Pollen germination/ pollen tube growth

Question 21.
State whether True or False.

1. Potassium plays an important role in opening and closing of stomata.
2. The movement of ions is usually called flux.
3. In an LHC (Light-Harvesting complex), Chlorophyll b is the reaction center.
4. The first stable product in calvin cycle is 3-PGA.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

Question 22.
A few inorganic elements are given. Match them with their specific functions.

Answer:

Question 23.
Pick the suitable minerals from the list, for following processes?

1. Synthesis of auxin
2. Pollen germination
3. Photolysis of water
4. Nitrogen metabolism

Answer:

1. Zn
2. B
3. Mn
4. Mo

Question 24.
Rhizobium leguminosarum cannot do N₂ fixation outside root nodules. Give reasons.
Answer:
Rhizobium can fix atmospheric N₂ only if the symbiotic relationship with leguminose plant is established.

Question 25.
What type of conditions are created by leghaemoglobin in the root nodule of a legume?
Answer:
It acts as 0₂ scavenger that means it helps in preventing the combining of 0₂ with nitrogenase.

Question 26.
Leguminous plants can be cultivated in between rice cultivation. Why?
Answer:
Because it increases the fertility of soil (enrich N₂ content) for next year rice cultivation.

Question 27.
Match the element with its associated functions/ roles.

Answer:

1. A – iv
2. B – i
3. C – iii
4. D – ii
5. E – v

Question 28.
To get maximum yeild a farmer added exess amount of manganese-containing fertiliser. The plants showed some deficiency symptoms. Can you give the reason for this?
Answer:
Excess of the micronutrient -Mn causes Toxicity because it prevent the uptake of Iron, Magnesium, and calcium. This results in deficiency symptom.

Question 29.

1. Identify the phenomenon?
2. A pink coloured protein protects nitrogenase from oxygen. Name that protein.

Answer:

1. Ammonification
2. Leghemoglobin

Question 30.

Answer: