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Students can Download Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Mineral Nutrition

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following roles is not characteristic of an essential element?
(a) being a component of biomolecules
(b) changing the chemistry of soil
(c) being a structural component of energy-related chemical compounds
(d) activation or inhibition of enzymes
Answer:
(b) changing the chemistry of soil

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an essential element?
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.
(c) essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase.
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.

Question 3.
During protein synthesis subunits of ribosomes are combined due to the presence of the particular element. Name it.
Answer:
Magnesium

Question 4.
Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves.
It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?
(a) sulphur
(b) Magnesium
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) sulphur

Question 5.
With regard to the Biological Nitrogen Fixation by Rhizobium in association with soybean, which one of the following statement/statements does not hold true.
(a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning
(b) Nitrogenase is MO- Fe protein
(c) Leg-hemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment.
(d) Nitrogenase helps to convert N₂ gas into two molecules of ammonia.
Answer:
(a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen for its functioning

Question 6.
Name the free-living microorganisms which can fix nitrogen.
Answer:
Azotobactor and Rhodospirillum

Question 7.
In what form do plants absorb molebdenum from the soil.
Answer:
Molybdate ions M_oO₂²⁺

Question 8.
Mineral requirements of plants is explained by a method in the nutrient solution is Called ………. and it was demonstrated by ……….. for the first time.
Answer:
Hydroponics,Julius von sachs

Question 9.
Find the odd one out.
Boron, Copper, Zinc, Phosphorous
Answer:
Phosphorous

Question 10.
A plant cell when kept in a certain solution got plasmolysed. What was the nature of the solution?
Answer:
Hypertonic Solution.

Question 11.
Plants can be cultivated in water. Name the type of cultivation.
Answer:
Hydroponics

Question 12.
Find the odd one among the following Carbon, Manganese, potassium, Nitrogen
Answer:
Manganese

Question 13.
A farmer adds Azotobacter culture to the soil before sowing maize. Which mineral element is being replenished?
Answer:
Nitrogen

Question 14.
In the diagram below, Label the cell Ain Nostoc

Answer:
Heterocyst

Question 15.
Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an essential element?
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.
(b) essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes stunted.
(c) essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase.
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded.

Question 16.
Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?
Answer:
Sulphur or calcium

Question 17.
From where do plants receive hydrogen?
Answer:
Water absorbed by plants.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give example for

1. Free-living N2 fixing bacteria.
2. Symbiotic N2 fixing bacteria.

Answer:

1. Acetobacter, Nitrococcus
2. Rhizobium

Question 2.
Crop plants cannot grow well in the nitrogen-deficient soil while plants like Drosera and Nepenthes show vigorous growth.

1. Justify the statement
2. Mention any two deficiency shown by such crop plants.

Answer:
1. These plants are insectivorous plants. They capture and feed on insects in order to maintain the N₂ content of their body.

2. Two deficiency shown by such crop plants

• Stunted growth
• Chlorosis

Question 3.
Study the relation of the given pair and fill up the blanks:

1. Potassium: Stomatal movement:………… Constituent of chlorophyll
2. ………………: pollen germination Zinc: biosynthesis of auxin.
3. Ion exchange: Passive absorption ………….: Active absorption
4. Protoplasmic streaming theory: De Vries: ………….Active absorption

Answer:

1. Mg
2. Boron
3. Carrier concept
4. Munch

Question 4.
Plants can be grown in defined nutrient solution in the absence of soil.

1. Name the technique.
2. Who demonstrated the technique for the first time?

Answer:

1. Hydroponics
2. Julius von sachs

Question 5.
How is nitrogenase enzyme protected?
Answer:
In leguminous plants, the enzyme nitrogenase is protected from Oxygen by the pigment leghaemoglobin.

Question 6.
The functional roles of certain essential elements are given below. Identify the element based on the function.

1. Essential for the formation of Chlorophyll.
2. Involved in the pollen germination.

Answer:

1. Mg
2. Boron

Question 7.
Explain the scientific reason for growing legume crops prior to cereal crops.
Answer:
Increase the fertility of the soil. Biological N₂ fixation.

Question 8.
Name the pink coloured pigment present in the root nodules? Write its role in N₂ fixation?
Answer:
Leghemoglobin is an oxygen scavenger. It creates anaerobic condition for the action of nitrogenase enzyme to fix N₂.

Question 9.
Give example for the following taking part in biological nitrogen fixation.

1. Free-living N₂ fixing bacteria
2. Free-living N₂ fixing cyanobacteria
3. Symbiotic N₂ fixing bacteria.
4. Symbiotic N₂ fixing cyanobacteria

Answer:

1. Azotobacter, Clostridium
2. Nostoc, Anabaena, Oscillatonia.
3. Rhizobium leguminosarum
4. Nostoc, Anabaena

Question 10.
Prepare a flow chart which shows the conversion of N₂ to ammonia in biological N₂ fixation.
Answer:

Question 11.
A pigment similar to hemoglobin is present in leguminous plants. Name the pigment and write its role.

OR

How is nitrogenase enzyme protected?
Answer:
Leghemoglobin which is the scavenger of 0₂. Nitrogenase enzyme needs oxygen-free condition.

Question 12.
Observe the figure given below and answer the following questions.

1. Name this technique.
2. Write two uses of this technique.

Answer:

1. Hydroponics
2. uses
   • Used as kitchen garden,
   • Used to study jdeficiency symptoms.

Question 13.
For the normal growth of plants it requires minerals. Write two examples of micro and macro elements.
Answer:

• Macro – N, P
• Micro-Boron, copper

Question 14.
In a survey done in an agricultural area the crops in the area shows various symptoms.

• Chlorosis
• Necrosis
• Delay flowering.

Name the elements whose deficiency causes these symptoms.
Answer:

• N, P, K, Mg
• Chlorosis – N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, etc.
• Necrosis – K, Mg, Ca and Cu Delay flowering – N, S, and Mo

Question 15.
Iron is not a structural component of chlorophyll but its deficiency causes yellowing of leaves. Give reason.
Answer:
Iron activates catalise enzyme in the formation of chlorophyll.

Question 16.
Amides are derivatives of amino acids in which the hydroxyl group is replaced by the amino group (NH2)
a) How are asparagine and glutamine formed.
b) Amides contain more than amino acids.
Answer:

Question 17.
In a survey done in an agricultural area the crops in the area shows various symptoms.

• Chlorosis
• Necrosis
• Delay flowering

Name the elements whose deficiency causes these symptoms.
Answer:

• N, P, K, Mg
• Chlorosis – N, K, Mg, S, Fe, Mn, etc.
• Necrosis – K, Mg, Ca and Cu
• Delay flowering – N, S, and Mo

Question 18.
A farmer supplies Nitrogen fertilizer to pea plants.

1. Is there any necessity to supply Nitrogen fertilizer?
2. Justify your answer with reason.

Answer:

1. No
2. Symbiotic N2 fixation

Question 19.
Name the respecive mineral nutrient element that

1. Forms the core constituent of the ring structure of chlorophyll
2. Activates carboxylases
3. Forms the components of nitrogenase
4. Synthesises middle lamella of plant cell.

Answer:

1. Magnesium
2. Manganese
3. Molybdenum and iron
4. Calcium

Question 20.
Observe the relationship between the first pair and fill in the blanks.
Posassium: Opening and closing of stomata::
Boron: …………
Answer:
Boron: Pollen germination/ pollen tube growth

Question 21.
State whether True or False.

1. Potassium plays an important role in opening and closing of stomata.
2. The movement of ions is usually called flux.
3. In an LHC (Light-Harvesting complex), Chlorophyll b is the reaction center.
4. The first stable product in calvin cycle is 3-PGA.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

Question 22.
A few inorganic elements are given. Match them with their specific functions.

Answer:

Question 23.
Pick the suitable minerals from the list, for following processes?

1. Synthesis of auxin
2. Pollen germination
3. Photolysis of water
4. Nitrogen metabolism

Answer:

1. Zn
2. B
3. Mn
4. Mo

Question 24.
Rhizobium leguminosarum cannot do N₂ fixation outside root nodules. Give reasons.
Answer:
Rhizobium can fix atmospheric N₂ only if the symbiotic relationship with leguminose plant is established.

Question 25.
What type of conditions are created by leghaemoglobin in the root nodule of a legume?
Answer:
It acts as 0₂ scavenger that means it helps in preventing the combining of 0₂ with nitrogenase.

Question 26.
Leguminous plants can be cultivated in between rice cultivation. Why?
Answer:
Because it increases the fertility of soil (enrich N₂ content) for next year rice cultivation.

Question 27.
Match the element with its associated functions/ roles.

Answer:

1. A – iv
2. B – i
3. C – iii
4. D – ii
5. E – v

Question 28.
To get maximum yeild a farmer added exess amount of manganese-containing fertiliser. The plants showed some deficiency symptoms. Can you give the reason for this?
Answer:
Excess of the micronutrient -Mn causes Toxicity because it prevent the uptake of Iron, Magnesium, and calcium. This results in deficiency symptom.

Question 29.

1. Identify the phenomenon?
2. A pink coloured protein protects nitrogenase from oxygen. Name that protein.

Answer:

1. Ammonification
2. Leghemoglobin

Question 30.

Answer:

Question 31.

1. Name the oxygen-binding pigment found in the root nodule of plants like pea and bean.
2. What is the normal colour of this pigment?

Answer:

1. Leghemoglobin
2. Pink-colored

Question 32.
How the presence of magnesium fulfills the requirements of the essentiality of elements from growth and development of plants?
Answer:

1. It is a constituent of chlorophyll molecule and is essential for photosynthesis.
2. It cannot be replaced by any other element for the same function.
3. It is also required as a co-factor by many enzymes involved in cellular respiration and other metabolic pathways.

Question 33.
Nitrogen fixation is shown by prokaryotes and not eukaryotes. Comment?
Answer:
In prokaryotes, photosynthetic autotrophs (cyanobacteria) like nostoc and Anabaena have special N₂ fixing cell which helps in N₂ fixation.

Question 34.
How is sulphur important for plants? Name the amino acids in which it is present.
Answer:
Sulphur, besides being present in some amino acids essential for protein synthesis, is also a constituent of several coenzymes, vitamins, and ferrodoxin which are involved in some biochemical pathways.

Question 35.
How do some bacteria carry out nitrification? What are such bacteria called?
Answer:
Such types of bacteria convert ammonia into nitrates and obtain energy for their activities. They are called chemosynthetic autotrophs.

Question 36.
Name the respective mineral nutrient elements of plants that:

1. Is needed in the synthesis of auxins
2. Is a constituent of ferredoxin
3. Forms the core constituent of the ring structure of chlorophyll
4. forms the components of nitrogenase and nitrate reductase

Answer:

1. Zinc
2. Sulphur
3. Magnesium
4. Molybdenum

Question 37.
Why do plants of legume family contain more protein than the other plants?
Answer:
Plants in legume family bears root nodules which bear symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria i.e rhizobium

Question 38.
Nepenthes carries out photosynthesis and still traps insects. Why?
Answer:
Nepenthes grow in nitrogen-deficient soils so these trap, digest and absorb amino acids from the insects supplementing their nitrogen supply.

Question 39.
Mycorrohiza is a mutualistic association. How do the organisms involved in this association gain from each other?
Answer:
It is an association of root and fungi in which surface area of root is increased and more minerals can be absorbed. Fungus get nutrients and sugar from the plant.

Question 40.
Carnivorous plants like Nepenthes and Venus flytrap have nutritional adaptations. Which nutrient do they especially obtain and from where?
Answer:
In these, insect body is digested and plant gets Nitrogen as nutrients.

Question 41.
How are organisms like Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus of significance in nitrogen cycle?
Answer:
Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus carry out denitrification process wherein the nitrate present in the soil is reduced to nitrogen thus contributing to the atmospheric nitrogen.

Question 42.
Think of a plant which lacks chlorophyll. From where will it obtain nutrition? Give an example of such a type of plant.
Answer:
This case is observed in total parasites. In such plants they absorb food, water, and minerals from host. Eg cuscuta.

Question 43.
Nitrogen is essential element for plants and is found in abundance as atmospheric nitrogen. But most plants unable to use it. Why is it so and in what form do plants utilize them?
Answer:
Most plants cannot use it because atmospheric nitrogen is inert in its nature. Nitrogen fixers in soil can convert nitrogen gas into nitrates or nitrite or ammonium forms. These compounds enter the plants as nutrients through the roots and are assimilated as organic nitrogen.

Question 44.
How insectivorous plants fulfill their nitrogen requirements?
Answer:
Insectivorous plants fulfill their nitrogen requirements from insects and small animals trapped by their leaves(a pitcher).

Question 45.
All elements that are present in a plant need not be essential to its survival. Give reasons.
Answer:
The Criteria for essentiality are

1. The element must be necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction
2. In the absence of elements, the plants do not complete their life cycle or set the seeds.
3. The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant.
4. The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another.

Question 46.
Why is that in certain plants deficiency symptoms appear first in younger parts of the plant while in others they do so in mature organs?
Answer:

• If the elements are actively mobilized, the older part of plant show deficiency symptoms.
• If they are not mobilized, the deficiency symptoms are first observed in younger regions.

Question 47.
Mineral elements are re-exported from one place to other or some are immobile and deficiency symptoms observed

1. Which is the part of the plant show deficiency symptoms in the former?
2. Name the mineral element is immobile and which part of the plant shows deficiency symptoms?

Answer:

1. Older regions because minerals are remobilised from older regions into younger regions.
2. Ca, Deficiency symptoms are noticed in younger tissues because it forms the structural part.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give the technical term for the following.

1. Leaf yellowing
2. death of tissues
3. soilless cultivation

Answer:

1. chlorosis
2. Necrosis
3. Hydroponics

Question 2.
Plants pick up nitrogen from the soil in the form of ammonia ions or nitrate ions, ammonia being the main product of biological nitrogen fixation. From the above view answer the following.
a) Which soil bacteria convert ammonia to NO₂ – and NO_3.
b) Draw a schematic diagram of progressive reduction of one molecule of nitrogen in the presentee of enzyme nitrogenase to yield two molecule of ammonia.
c) Name the enzyme for nitrogen assimilation in plants.
Answer:

Question 3.
Macro and micronutrients are required in particular amount for plants.

1. What will be the moderate increase of micronutrient affect the plants
2. Name the micronutrient helps in pollen germination
3. What is the concentration of macro and micronutrients required for plants?

Answer:

1. It cause toxicity to plants and affect the uptake and utilisation of macronutrients
2. Boron
3. Macronutrients – Excess 10 millimole /kilogram of dry matter
   Micronutrients – Less than 10 millimole /kilogram of dry matter

Question 4.
During formation of nitrate in plants, different steps occur.

1. Name the steps leading to the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to nitrate
2. Which is the reductive and oxidative steps?
3. Name the pigments and Enzymes that are required and the steps they act on.

Answer:

1. Nitrogen fixation, Nitrification
2. Nitrogen fixation—reductive process, Nitrification—Oxidative process
3. pigment—Leghaemoglobin, Enzyme— Nirogenase Pigments and enzymes acts on Nitrogen fixation step

Question 5.

1. Name the process
2. Which enzyme catalyses the process
3. How the enzyme in the process is protected from oxygen in root nodules?

Answer:

1. N₂ fixation
2. Nitrogenase
3. Due to the presence of pigment Leghemoglobin. It acts as the scavenger of oxygen.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘All elements that are present in a plant need not be essential to its survival’. Comment.
Answer:
The criteria for essentially of an element are given below:

1. The element must be absolutely necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction. In the absence of the element, the plants do not complete their life cycle or set the seeds.

2. The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another element. In other words, deficiency of any one element cannot be met by supplying some other element.

3. The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant. All elements that are present in a plant do not fulfill these criteria hence cannot be essential for plant survival.

Question 2.
Why is purification of water and nutrient salts so important in studies involving mineral nutrition using hydroponics?
Answer:
In 1860, Julius von Sachs, a prominent German botanist, demonstrated, for the first time, that plants could be grown to maturity in a defined nutrient solution in complete absence of soil. The essence of all these methods involves the culture of plants in a soil-free, defined mineral solution. These methods require purified water and mineral nutrient salts.

Purification of water and nurtient salt is important to rule out other influencing factors. The presence of pure nutrients will give clearcut scientific results. This will help in making a sound basis for the right prediction.

Question 3.
What are the steps involved in the formation of a root nodule?
Answer:
Steps in the development of root nodules:
1. Rhizobium bacteria contact a susceptible root hair, divide near it.

2. Upon successful infection of the root hair cause it to curl

3. Infected thread carries the bacteria to the inner cortex. The bacteria get modified into rod-shaped bacteriods and cause inner cortical and pericycle cells to divide. Division and growth of cortical and pericycle cells lead to nodule formation.

4. A mature nodule is complete with vascular tissues continuous with those of the root.

Plus One Botany Mineral Nutrition Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that premature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause a decrease in the yield. Which treatment could be most beneficial to obtain maximum seed yield?
(a) Frequent irrigation of the crop
(b) Treatment of the plants with cytokinins along with a small dose of nitrogenous fertilizer
(c) Removal of all yellow leaves and spraying the remaining green leaves with 2, 4, 5- thchlorophenoxy acetic acid
(d) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll
Answer:
(d) Application of iron and magnesium to promote synthesis of chlorophyll

Question 2.
For nitrogen fixation, useful pigment is
(a) nitrogenase
(b) hemoglobin
(c) myoglobin
(d) leghaemoglobin
Answer:
(d) leghaemoglobin

Question 3.
Plants cultivated in nutrient solution without soil is called
(a) somatic hybridization
(b) tissue culture
(c) hydroponics
(d) suspension culture
Answer:
(c) hydroponics

Question 4.
The process of decay of dead organic matter is known as
(a) denitrification
(b) nitrification
(c) nitrogen fixation
(d) ammonification
Answer:
(d) ammonification

Question 5.
Zn, Mo, Fe, Cu are
(a) trace elements
(b) non-essentials
(c) macronutrients
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(a) trace elements

Question 6.
An essential element is that which
(a) improves health of the plant
(b) is irreplaceable and indispensable for the growth of plants
(c) is found in plant ash
(d) is available in the soil
Answer:
(b) is irreplaceable and indispensable for the growth of plants

Question 7.
N₂ +8e +8H +16ATP → 2NH₃+2H⁺ + 16ADP + 8e^– The above equation refers to
(a) amnionification
(b) nitrification
(c) nitrogen fixation
(d) denitrification
Answer:
(c) nitrogen fixation

Question 8.
Micronutrients are
(a) as important as macronutrients but are required in small amount
(b) less important than macronutrients
(c) called micro as they play only a minor role in plant nutrition
(d) required greater than 10m mole/Kg of dry matter
Answer:
(a) as important as macronutrients but are required in small amount

Question 9.
Which element is located at the centre of the porphyrin ring in chlorophyll?
(a) Potassium
(b) Manganese
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium
Answer:
(d) Magnesium

Question 10.
Which element is required for the germination of pollen grains?
(a) Boron
(b) Calcium
(c) Chlorine
(d) Potassium
Answer:
(a) Boron

Question 11.
Select the correct statement.
(a) Legumes are incapable of fixing nitrogen
(b) Legumes fix nitrogen through bacteria living fruits
(c) Legumes fix nitrogen only by bacteria present in root nodules
(d) frankia forms symbiotic association with algae
Answer:
(c) Legumes fix nitrogen only by bacteria present in root nodules

Question 12.
Chlorosis is caused due to deficiency of
(a) magnesium
(b) calcium
(c) boron
(d) manganese
Answer:
(a) magnesium

Question 13.
Enzyme nitrogenase is responsible for
(a) nitrification
(b) nitrogen fixation
(c) nitrite reduction
(d) nitrate reduction
Answer:
(b) nitrogen fixation

Question 14.
Maximum percentage of which element occurs in plant ash?
(a) Magnesium
(b) Zinc
(c) Potassium
(d) Calcium
Answer:
(d) Calcium

Question 15.
Which of the following metals causes bone cancer
(a) Lead
(b) Cobalt
(c) Uranium
(d) strontium90
Answer:
(d) strontium90

Question 16.
Premature leaf fall is due to deficiency of
(a) phosphorus
(b) nitrogen
(c) calcium
(d) potassium
Answer:
(a) phosphorus

Question 17.
The function of leg haemoglobin during biological nitrogen fixation in root nodules of legumes is to
(a) convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
(b) convert ammonia to nitrite
(c) transport oxygen for activity of nitrogenase
(d) protect nitrogenase from oxygen
Answer:
(d) protect nitrogenase from oxygen

Question 18.
Which of the following gene is responsible for biological nitrogen fixation?
(a) Nitrogenase
(b) N if gene
(c) Yeast alanine tRNA synthetase
(d) RNA synthetase
Answer:
(b) N if gene

Students can Download Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Plus One Breathing and Exchange of Gases One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Respiration in insects is called direct because
(a) The tissues exchange O₂/ CO₂ directly with the air in the tubes.
(b) The tissues exchange O₂/ CO₂ directly with coelomic fluid.
(c) The tissues exchange O₂/ CO₂ directly with the air outside through body surface.
(d) Tracheal tubes exchange O₂/ CO₂ directly with the haemocoel which then exchange with tissues.
Answer:
(d) Tracheal tubes exchange O₂/ CO₂ directly with the haemocoel which then exchange with tissues.

Question 2.
Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing
(a) Inspiration is a passive process where as expiration is active
(b) Inspiration is a active process where as expiration is passive
(c) Inspiration and expiration are active processes
(d) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes
Answer:
(b) Inspiration is a active process where as expiration is passive

Question 3.
Inspiration and expiration are passive processes A person breathes in some volume of air by forced inspiration after having a forced expiration. This quantity of air taken in is
(a) Total lung capacity
(b) Tidal volume
(c) Vital capacity
(d) Inspiratory capacity
Answer:
(c) Vital capacity

Question 4.
Incidence of Emphysema – a respiratory disorder is high in cigarette smokers. In such cases
(a) The alveolar walls are found damaged
(b) The plasma membrane is found damaged
(c) The bronchioles are found damaged
(d) The respiratory muscles are found damaged
Answer:
(b) The plasma membrane is found damaged

Question 5.
Respiratory process is regulated by certain specialized centres in the brain. One of the following listed centres can reduce the inspiratory duration upon stimulation.
(a) Medullary inspiratory centre
(b) Pneumotaxic centre
(c) Apneustic centre
(d) Chemosensitive centre
Answer:
(b) Pneumotaxic centre

Question 6.
CO₂ + H₂O → H₂CO₃ → HCO₃^– + H⁺
These all the reactions that takes place in accordance with respiration.

1. Where these reactions takes place
2. Which is the enzyme present here?

Answer:

1. In blood
2. Carbonic anhydrase

Question 7.
Fill in the table with appropriate heading values.

Answer:

1. a – Blood (Deoxygenated)
2. b – Blood (oxygenated)
3. c – 40
4. d – 45

Question 8.
In the following diagram A represents Total lung capacity and B represents Vital capacity and then C represents what?

Answer:
C – Residual volume

Question 9.
Name the biological principle involved in the exchange of gas between lungs and blood.
(Transmittance, Osmosis, Diffusion, Incorporation)
Answer:
Diffusion

Question 10.
What is the percentage of oxygen transported by Haemoglobin in the form of Oxyhaemoglobin? (67%, 97%, 32%, 50%)
Answer:
97%

Plus One Breathing and Exchange of Gases Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the flow chart showing inspiration

Answer:

1. A – Nasal opening
2. B – Nasopharynx
3. C – Trachea
4. D – Bronchiole

Question 2.
Oxyhaemoglobin → Oxygen + Hb

1. Where does this process takes place?
2. What are the factors that influence O₂ dissociation curve?

Answer:

1. In tissues
2. pO₂, pCO₂, H⁺ concentration, temperature.

Question 3.
The given diagram shows the exchange of gases between alveolus and alveolar capillary.

1. Identify X and Y.
2. Name the Physical Process involved in gas exchange.

Answer:

1. X – CO₂, Y – O₂
2. Diffusion

Question 4.
Bardiagram showing oxygen transport is shown below.

• Name the two methods of oxygen transport.
• How much of oxygen is transported in method 1 and method 2.

Answer:

• Methods of oxygen transport
  1. O₂ is transported by RBC in the blood (oxyhaemoglobin).
  2. O₂ is transported in a dissolved state through plasma.
• About 97% of O₂ is transported as oxyhemoglobin and remaining 3% is carried in a dissolved state through the plasma.

Question 5.

From this diagram prepare a table which show the pressure difference in various regions in respiration.
Answer:

Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 7.
‘Emphysema’ is a term linked with ‘Respiratory system’. What is emphysema?
Answer:
Emphysema is respiratory system disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased. Cigarette smoking is one of the major cause of emphysema.

Question 8.
Draw a flow chart showing the air passage in the human respiratory system.
(Trachea, nasal cavity, nasopharynx, bronchi, nostrils, alveoli, bronchioles, larynx)
Answer:
Nostrils → nasal cavity → nasopharynx → larynx alveoli ← branchioles ← bronchi ← Trachea.

Question 9.
Study the graph and answer the following questions.

1. What is represented by the graph?
2. Find out the pressure at which Haemoglobin is 50% saturated with O₂?

Answer:

1. Oxygen dissociation curve
2. 28 mm Hg

Question 10.

1. Name the structural and functional unit of lungs.
2. Why the lungs replaces the skin in Mammals as respiratory organ.

Answer:

1. Alveoli
2. Lungs contain millions of alveoli which serves to store oxygen and it is richly supplied with blood capillaries. These alveolar surface area exceeds the skin.

Question 11.
The pO₂ in cell cytoplasm is always lower than the capillary blood while pCO₂ is greater. How do you account for this?
Answer:
In the cell cytoplasm, as a result of metabolism the CO₂ accumulates and oxygen content is reduced. So pO₂ in cell cytoplasm is always lower than the capillary blood.

Question 12.
A dog expires CO₂. How can you correlate the relationship between the dog and grazing cattle in terms of CO₂.
Answer:
Dog expires CO₂ to atmosphere and it is utilised by grass during photosynthesis and that grass is utilised by cattle.

Question 13
Observe the pie diagram given below and answer the following questions.

Figure showing the percentage of carbon dioxide transport.

1. What are the three methods of CO₂ transport mentioned by the letters P, Q, R?
2. If the amount of Haemoglobin in the blood of a patient is very low. What changes you expect in the processes?

Answer:

1. Methods of CO₂ transport
   • P – Carbamino haemoglobin in combination with amino group of protein.
   • Q – Carbonic acid dissolved in plasma
   • R – as bicarbonates
2. Reduce the formation of carbaminohaemoglobin and formation of bicarbonates also reduces.

Question 14.
Find the odd one in each group in Column Awrite in Column B and write the reason in Column C.

Answer:

Question 15.
Analyse the concept map given below and if have mistakes reconstruct it.

Answer:

Question 16.
A person exhaled nearly more than 3000ml of air during a breathing exercise. How do you justify that act?
Answer:
During breathing excercise one can exhale the air nearly of his vital capacity which averages to 3500ml. During normal respiration only tidal volume (500ml) is exhaled.

Question 17.
In orderto give the awareness about healthy practices to reduce respiratory disorders, prepare a pamphlet.
Answer:

• Bronchitis, Bronchial asthma, Emphysema, Pneumonia, occupational lung disease are some respiratory disorders.
• Stop cigarette smoking to prevent emphysema, bronchitis and bronchial asthma.
• Use protective clothes and gears in work places to prevent occupational lung diseases.
• Regular health check-up, use of antibiotic drugs and bronchodilator drugs by the advice of doctor.

Question 18.
The venous blood in the lungs has a pCO₂ of 46mm Hg. Should the alveolar pCO₂ exceeds or be less than 46mm Hg to result in diffusion of CO₂ from the blood into alveolus?
Answer:
The alveolar pCO₂ must be less than 46mm Hg. Then only there will be difference in the partial pressure and diffusion occurs from the higher concentration to a lower concentration.

Question 19.
Human respiration is controlled by intercostal muscles in the ribs and diaphragm. Justify this statement.
Answer:
The human respiration is controlled by the contraction and relaxation of intercostal muscles in the ribs. Due to the contraction the thoracic space increases and the atmospheric air comes inside to maintain the pressure.

When intercostal muscles relax the thoracic volume reduces and due to high pressure the air expels outward. This is known as expiration.

Question 20.
Observe the figure explaining difference in partial pressure of oxygen in different parts of body.

1. Explain the importance of partial pressure of oxygen in the gas exchange.
2. What may be the partial pressure of oxygen in the tissue for effective gas transport?

Answer:

1. Difference in the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar air and in the blood results in the exchange of gases by simple diffusion.
2. The partial pressure of oxygen in the tissue is less than 90mm Hg.

Question 21.
While analysing the blood of normal healthy person, it has been found that the amount of HCO₃^– ions in his venous blood is much higher than his arterial blood. How do you account for this increase of HCO₃^– ions.
Answer:
The amount of CO₂ in venous blood is much higher than that of arterial blood. Since major portion of CO₂ is transported through blood as HCO₃^– ions. The amount of HO₃^– remains high in venous blood.

Question 22.
Place the following in the correct order.
Lungs expand, rib rise, air enters lungs, external intercostal muscle contract, thorax expands.
Answer:
External intercostal muscle contract → rib rise Lungs expand ← Thorax expands air enters lungs.

Question 23.
Pneumatoxic centre has an important role in regulating rate of respiration. Prepare a flow chart representing the regulation of respiration by pneumatoxic centre during strenuous exercise.
Answer:

Plus One Breathing and Exchange of Gases Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Transport of CO₂ as Bicarbonates.

1. Copy the diagram and fill the gaps.
2. Name the other ways of CO₂ transport.
3. If blood chlorine level decrease, does it affect gas transport? Justify.

Answer:

1.

2. Other ways of CO₂ transport:

• Carbamino haemoglobin
• Carbonic acid

3. Yes. Decrease in chloride level affects CO₂ transport. During CO₂ transport bicarbonate ions formed within the erythrocytes (RBC) diffuse out into the plasma. It upsets the ionic equilibrium and electrical balance between RBC and plasma.

To regain the lost balance an equal number of chloride (Cl ) ions diffuse into RBC from plasma. This is called chloride shift or Hamburger phenomenon.

Question 2.
Analyse the flow chart.

1. Distinguish the function of external and internal intercostal muscles.
2. Draw a flow chart explaining inspiration.

Answer:

1. During inspiration external intercostal muscle contracts and internal intercostal muscle relaxes. External intercostal muscle and internal intercostal muscles are antagonistic in action

2.

Question 3.
Pharynx is a common passage for air and food.

1. Name the part for the passage of food.
2. Name the part for the passage of air.
3. How do these passagework without any problems?

Answer:

1. Oropharynx
2. Nasopharynx
3. Glottis is the opening of nasopharynx into trachea. During swallowing glottis can be covered by a thin elastic cartilagenous flap called epiglottis to prevent the entry of food into the larynx.

Question 4.
Following figure shows a microscopic section through the alveoli in the lungs of man.

Give the features visible in the diagram that help to increase the rate of diffusion across the wall of the alveoli into the blood.
Answer:

1. Surface area is increased by alveoli.
2. Presence of capillaries
3. Thin wall helps to increase the rate of diffusion. (The diffusion membrane is made up of three layers namely the thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, the endothelium of alveolar capillaries and the basement substance in between)

Question 5.

1. Which of the above graph represents normal condition?
2. What would be the reason of abnormality of graph?
3. What are the symptoms shown in such condition?

Answer:

1. ‘A’ represents normal condition.
2. The abnormality is due to the low pO₂ in blood.
3. The symptoms include headache, nausea, dizziness and even death.

Question 6.
A person inhales to his maximum capacity and then he exhales also to his maximum.

1. What term would you use for the volume of air thus breathed out.
2. What is the volume of air thus breathed out?
3. Suppose he hold his breath after that maximum expiration for 5 seconds would there be any exchange of respiratory gases occuring in lungs during that period. How?

Answer:

1. Vital capacity
2. 3.5 – 4.5 litres
3. Yes. Because of residual volume. The volume of air that still remains in the lungs after a forceful expiration is called residual volume. It is about 1500ml in man.

Question 7.
Human beings have a significant ability to maintain and moderate the respiratory rhythm to suit the demand of body tissues-substantiate.
Answer:
This is done by the neural system. A specialised centre present in the medulla region of the brain called respiratory rhythm centre is primarily responsible for this regulation. Another centre present in the pons region of the brain called pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre.

Neural signal from this centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory rate. Achemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to CO₂ and hydrogen ions.

Increase in these substances can be activate this centre and make necessary adjustments in the respiratory process. Receptors associated with aortic arch also send necessary signals to the rhythm centre to adjust respiratory rate.

Question 8.

1. Redraw the graph to correct the mistake
2. Name the graph
3. Which are the factors that affect this graph.

Answer:
1.

2. Oxygen dissociation curve

3. pO₂, pCO₂, H⁺ concentration and temperature are the factors that affect oxygen dissociation curve.

Plus One Breathing and Exchange of Gases NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define vital capacity. What is its significance?
Answer:
Vital capacity (VC):
The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration. This includes ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume), TV (Tidal volume) and IRV (Inspiratory Reserve volume) of the maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.

Question 2.
State the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal breathing.
Answer:
Functional Residual Capacity (FRC). Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration.
This includes ERV + RV
ERV = 1000 to 1100ml
RV= 1100 to 1200ml
FRC = 2100 to 2300ml

Question 3.
What are the major transport mechanisms for CO₂? Explain.
Answer:
Transport of Carbon dioxide CO₂ is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin (about 20-25 per cent). This binding is related to the partial pressure of CO₂, pO₂ is a major factor which could affect this binding.

When pCO₂ is high and pO₂ is low as in the tissues, more binding of carbon dioxide occurs whereas, when the pCO₂ is low and pO₂ is high as in the alveoli, dissociation of CO₂ from carbamino- haemoglobin takes place, i.e., CO₂ which is bound to Haemoglobin from the tissues is delivered at the alveoli.

RBCs contain a very high concentration of enzyme, carbonic anhydrase and minute quantities of the same is present in the plasma too. This enzyme facilitates the following reaction in both directions

At the tissue site where partial pressure of CO₂ is high due to catabolism, CO₂ diffuses into blood (RBCs and plasma) and forms HCO₃ and H⁺. At the alveolar site where pCO₂ is low, the reaction proceeds in the opposite direction leading to the formation of CO₂ and H₂O.

Thus CO₂ trapped as bicarbonate at the tissue level and transported to the alveoli is released out as CO₂. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4ml of CO₂ to the alveoli.

Question 4.
What will be the pO₂ and pCO₂ in the atmospheric air compared to those in the alveolar air?
(i) pO₂ lesser, pCO₂ higher
(ii) pO₂ higher, pCO₂ lesser
(iii) pO₂ higher, pCO₂ higher
(iv) pO₂ lesser, pCO₂ lesser
Answer:
(ii) pO₂ higher will create the pressure gradient to facilitate the movement of O₂ from atmosphere to alveoli and pCO₂ lesser will create the movement of CO₂ from alveoli to atmosphere.

Question 5.
What is the effect of pCO₂ on oxygen transport?
Answer:
Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of O₂. Partial pressure of CO₂, hydrogen ion concentration and temperature are the other factors which can interfere with this binding. Increased partial pressure of CO₂ can increase haemoglobin’s affinity towards oxygen and vice-versa is also true.

Question 6.
What happens to the respiratory process in a man going up a hill?
Answer:
When a man going uphill or doing some strenuous exercise then there is more consumption of oxygen. This decreases the partial pressure of oxygen in haemoglobin resulting in more demand of haemoglobin. As a result there is an increased breathing rate to fill the gap.

Plus One Breathing and Exchange of Gases Multple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one is the cofactor of carbonic anhydrase?
(a) Iron
(b) Zinc
(c) Copper
(d) Magnesium
Answer:
(b) Zinc

Question 2.
Skin is an accessory organ or respiration in
(a) human
(b) frog
(c) rabbit
(d) lizard
Answer:
(b) frog

Question 3.
Which of the following respiratory organs are present in spiders and scorpions?
(a) gill slit
(b) Gills
(c) Gill books
(d) Book lungs
Answer:
(d) Book lungs

Question 4.
When the body is rapidly oxidising fats, excess ketone bodies accumulate resulting in
(a) pyruvic acid
(b) lactic acid
(c) ketoacidosis
(d) ATP
Answer:
(c) ketoacidosis

Question 5.
Oxygen dissociation curve is
(a) sigmoid
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) straight line
Answer:
(a) sigmoid

Question 6.
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals
(b) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of respiration in birds
(c) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues
(d) The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates
Answer:
(a) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals

Question 7.
Haemoglobin is having maximum affinity with
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) oxygen
(d) ammonia
Answer:
(b) carbon monoxide

Question 8.
Which is called Hamburger shift?
(a) Hydrogen shift
(b) Bicarbonate shift
(c) Chloride shift
(d) Sodium shift
Answer:
(c) Chloride shift

Question 9.
Left shift of oxyhaenoglobin curve is noticed under
(a) normal temperature and pH
(b) low temperature and high pH
(c) low pH and high temperature
(d) low pH and low temperature
Answer:
(b) low temperature and high pH

Question 10.
Read the following statements and select the correct one.
(a) The H⁺ released from carbonic acid combines with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid
(b) Oxyhaemoglobjn of erythrocytes is alkaline
(c) More than 70% of carbon dioxide is transferred from tissues to the lungs in the form of carbamino compounds
(d) In a healthy person, the haemoglobin content is . more than 25gm per 100mL
Answer:
(a) The H⁺ released from carbonic acid combines with haemoglobin to form haemoglobinic acid

Question 11.
In blood, carbon dioxide is transported majorly as
(a) sodium carbonate
(b) carboxyhaemoglobin
(c) bicarbonate
(d) carbon dioxide as such
Answer:
(c) bicarbonate

Question 12.
Most of the carbon dioxide is transported in blood as a gas
(a) gas
(b) carbaminohaemoglobin
(c) serum carbaminoproteins
(d) HCO₃
Answer:
(b) carbaminohaemoglobin

Question 13.
How many molecules of oxygen can bind to a molecule of haemoglobin?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:

Question 14.
When carbon dioxide concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes
(a) shallower and slow
(b) there is no effect on breathing
(c) slow and deep
(d) faster and deeper
Answer:

Question 15.
The total number of lobes and alveoli present in both the lungs of man are
(a) 17 and 30 million, respectively
(b) 5 and 300 million, respectively
(c) 19 and 300 million, respectively
(d) 18 and 300 lakh, respectively
Answer:
(b) 5 and 300 million, respectively

Question 16.
What is vital capacity of our lungs?
(a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(b) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
(d) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
Answer:
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume

Question 17.
When the oxygen supply to the tissues is inadequate, the condition is
(a) hypoxia
(b) asphyxia
(c) pleuracy
(d) anoxia
Answer:
(a) hypoxia

Question 18.
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
(a) is caused by a variant of Pneumococcuspneumoniae
(b) is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus)
(c) is an acute form of asthma
(d) affects non-vegetarians much faster than
Answer:
(b) is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus)

Question 19.
During inspiration, the diaphragm
(a) expands
(b) shows no change
(c) contracts and flattens
(d) relaxes to become dome-shaped
Answer:
(c) contracts and flattens

Question 20.
The oxygen toxicity is related with
(a) blood poisoning
(b) collapsing of alveolar walls
Answer:
(c) failure of venti

Students can Download Chapter 7 Transport in Plants Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Transport in Plants

Plus One Botany Transport in Plants One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following statements does not apply to reverse osmosis?
(a) it is used for water purification.
(b) In this technique, a pressure greater than the osmotic pressure is applied to the system
(c) It is a passive process
(d) It is an active process
Answer:
(c) It is a passive process

Question 2.
Which one of the following will not directly affect transpiration?
(a) Light
(b) wind speed
(c) temperature
(d) chlorophyll content of leaves
Answer:
(d) chlorophyll content of leaves

Question 3.
The lower surface of leaf will have a number of stomata in a
(a) isobilateral leaf
(b) dorsiventral leaf
(c) both a and b
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) dorsiventral leaf

Question 4.
The form of sugar transported through phloem is
(a) Fructose
(b) Sucrose
(c) glucose
(d) ribose
Answer:
(b) sucrose

Question 5.
The process of guttation takes place
(a) when the root pressure is high and the rate of transpiration is low
(b) when the root pressure is low and the rate of transpiration is high
(c) when the root pressure equals the rate of transpiration
(d) when the root pressure, as well as rate of transpiration, are high.
Answer:
(a) when the root pressure is high and the rate of transpiration is low

Question 6.
Which of the following is an example of imbibition
(a) uptake of water by root hair
(b) exchange of gases in stomata
(c) swelling of seed when putting in the soil
(d) opening of stomata
Answer:
(c) swelling of seed when putting in the soil

Question 7.
What will happen to a plant cell when kept in hypotonic solution?
Answer:
Cell become turgid

Question 8.
How are protoplasm of adjacent cells connected to each other?
Answer:
Plasmodesmata

Question 9.
Name the process in which water drops ooze out from margins of leaves.
Answer:
Guttation

Question 10.
The C4 plants are twice as efficient as C3 plants in terms of fixing C02 but lose only as much water as C3 plants for the same amount of C02 fixed.
Answer:
Half

Question 11.
Plants could be grown in a nutrient solution in the complete absence of soil. Name the technique.
Answer:
Hydroponics

Question 12.
Name the hormone which signals the closure of stomata during severe drought or severe solar radiation.
Answer:
Abscisic acid (ABA)

Question 13.
Name the physical phenomena associated with the first step of seed germination.
Answer:
Imbibition

Question 14.
What causes the leaves of grasses to roll in dry weather?
Answer:
Presence of bulliform cells or motor cells

Question 15.
The diagram below shows the cells placed in hypertonic solution and hypotonic solution. If the diagram ‘B’ is ‘turgid’ what will be diagram ‘A’?

Answer:
A – Flaccid

Question 16.
The excess of one element may inhibit the uptake of another element. What is this effect called?
Answer:
Toxicity of micronutrients

Question 17.
Name the type of obligatory association found in pinus seeds that promote germination.
Answer:
Mycorrhiza

Question 18.
A plant cell when kept in a certain solution got plasmolysed. What was the nature of this solution?
Answer:
Hypertonic solution

Question 19.
Why turgidity of the cell essential for plants?
Answer:
It helps to maintain plant organs in normal shape

Question 20.
Absorption of water from the soil by dry seeds increases the, thus helping seedlings to come out of the soil.
Answer:
Pressure

Question 21.
A flowering plant is planted in an earthen pot and irrigated. Urea is added to make the plant grow faster, but after some time the plant dies. Give reason.
Answer:
It is due to exosmosis.

Question. 22
Identify a type of molecular movement which is highly selective and requires special membrane proteins, but does not require energy.
Answer:
Facilitated diffusion

Question 23.
Smaller, lipid-soluble molecules diffuse faster through cell membrane, but the movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by certain biomolecules. Name it.
Answer:
Protein

Question. 24
The bending of wooden doors during rainy reasons is due to physiological phenomenon. Name it.
Answer:
Imbibition

Plus One Botany Transport in Plants Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give below is a diagram, where hypotonic solution is separated by a semipermeable membrane from a hypertonic solution and kept for a few hours.

1. In which direction will the solvent move? From X to Y or Y to X.
2. Name the process of movement of the solvent.

Answer:

1. X to Y
2. Osmosis

Question 2.
Differences between the following.
Diffusion and Osmosis
Answer:
1. Diffusion:
It is the movement of solute from the region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration.

2. Osmosis:
It is the movement of solvent from the region of higher concentration to region of lower concentration through semipermiable membrane

Question 3.
Differences between Guttation and transpiration
Answer:
1. Guttation:
Loss of water in the form of water droplets from the margin of leaves through hydathode.
2. Transpiration:
It is the loss of water in the form of water vapour from the surface of leaves through stomata.

Question 4.
Both the xylem and phloem are tubular structures. One is unidirectional and the other is bi-directional. Comment on it.
Answer:
Phloem is bidirectional in order to transport prepared food from leaves to different parts of the plant and translocates stored food from downward to upward for the growth of buds.

Question 5.
Ramu while observing the root nodules of pea plant, noticed the pink colour. Sita said that it is due to the presence of a substance. Can you name the substance and write its role.
Answer:
Leg hemoglobin. It is an 02 scavenger. It create anaerobic condition for enzyme Nitrogenase during N2 Fixation

Question 6.
Match the following :

Answer:

Question 7.
Water is absorbed by the root hairs, It can move deeper into root layers by two distinct pathways.

1. Write the name of the pathways.
2. Which substance controls water transport in the endodermal region?

Answer:

1. Apoplast pathway & Symplast pathway
2. Suberin

Question 8.
“Root pressure is inadequate to lift the water molecules in taller plants like Eucalyptus”.

1. Which theory is successfully explaining the Ascent of sap in plants like Eucalyptus?
2. Who proposed this theory?

Answer:

1. Transpiration pull – cohesion tension theory
2. Dixon & Jolly

Question 9.
Fresh mangoes can survive fora prolonged period of time when they are placed in highly concentrated salt solution. Some physiological changes take place in the cell. Comment on the changes.
Answer:

• Exosmosis.
• Bacteria can not survive in hypertonic solutions.

Question 10.
Pure Honey checks the growth of microorganisms. Justify based on your knowledge in osmosis.
Answer:
Pure honey is hypertonic .bacterial cells shrink and die due to plasmolysis.

Question 11.
A fesh mango pieces is placed in water containing high concentration of sodium chloride.
Exosmosis, Plasmolysis, Deplasmolysis, Imbibition

1. Select and write down the appropriate terms given above to represent the sequence of events leading to shrinking.
2. What is plasmolysis?

Answer:

1. Exosmosis – Plasmolysis
2. The withdrawal of the protoplast from the cell wall due to exosmosis.

Question 12.
Ψ_w =Ψ_s + Ψ_p

1. Expand the equation.
2. Why solute potential is always negative?

Answer:
1.

• Ψ_w – Water potential
• Ψ_s – Solute potential,
• Ψ_p – pressure potential

2. Since adding solute reduces water potential, it is always negative.

Question 13.
Observe the given figure showing the pathways of water movement in the plant body and answer the questions.

1. Identify A and B pathways.
2. In which of the above pathways does water move beyond endodermis?

Answer:

1. A – Apoplast pathway
   B – Symplast pathway
2. Apoplast pathway

Question 14.
Apoplast and symplast pathways are the two distinct pathways of water to move deeper into the root layers. Which is the only pathway through which water can enter the vascular cylinder and why?
Answer:
Symplast – Because endodermal wall is suberised.

Question 15.
When a freshly collected Spirogyra filament is kept in 10% potassium nitrate solution, it is observed that the protoplasm shrinks in size:

1. What is this phenomenon called?
2. What will happen if the filament is replaced in distilled water?

Answer:

1. This phenomenon is called plasmolysis. (The shrinkage of protoplast from the cell wall under the influence of a strong solution/ hypertonic solution is called plasmolysis.

2. If filaments are replaced in water the protoplast starts swelling. It comes in contact with cell wall and cell regains its original size.
The swelling up of plasmolyzed protoplast under the influence of a weak solution or water is called deplasmolysis.

Question 16.
1. In an experiment, Deepa put a piece of raw mango in 0.5M salt solution and another piece in 1M salt solution. Which mango piece will get plasmolyzed fast?
2. Water potential of solution A is -0.3 bar and that of solution B is -0.1 bar. If solution A is separated from solution B by a semi-permeable membrane water molecules will flow from to
Answer:

1. Mango piece put in 1 M salt solution get plasmolysed rapidly than. 0.5M solution.
2. B (-1.1) to A (-0.3)

Question 17.
An unavoidable waste mechanism is found in higher plants during high temperature.

1. Name the process.
2. Why is it said so?

Answer:

1. Transpiration
2. It has merits and demerits. Since water and minerals are absorbed and translocated to distant sites by this process but 99% of water absorbed is transpired out.

Question 18.
Water moves up against gravity and even for a tree of 20 m height, the tip receives water within two hours. Which is the most important physiological phenomenon responsible for the upward movement of water is
Answer:
Transpirational pull.

Question 19.
Osmosis is a special kind of diffusion, in which water diffuses across the cell membrane. What are the factors influence rate and direction of osmosis?
Answer:
Pressure and concentration gradient.

Question 20.
When a tea bag is placed in a cup of water, which phenomenon is observed? Explain the phenomenon.
Answer:
Diffusion. It is the movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration.

Question 21.
Phloem transport is bidirectional while xylem transport is unidirectional. Give a reason?
Answer:
Phloem transport is bidirectional because prepared food materials translocated to storage regions. These storage food materials are again transported to growing regions for the growth of buds. So, through phloem downward and upward transport takes place. Xylem transport is unidirectional because water and minerals are absorbed and conducted upwards.

Question 22.
Write the suitable term in each pair

1. apoplast: through cell wall; ………: through cytoplasm
2. endosmosis: turgid; exosmosis: ………..
3. ………..: unidirectional; phloem transport: bidirectional
4. Mg : macroelement: …………: microelement

Answer:

1. Symplast
2. Flaccid
3. Xylem
4. Mn

Question 23.
‘Ψ_w = Ψ_s + Ψ_p Expand the equation
Answer:

• Ψ_w = Water potential is the sum of
• Ψ_s = Solute potential solute potential
• Ψ_p = pressure potential and pressure potential.

Question 24.
Bacteria cannot live in highly salted pickle. Why?
Answer:
The bacterial cell undergoes plasmolysis in saltwater. This results shrinking of protoplast. Hence, Bacteria cannot live in saltwater.

Question 25.
Observe the following diagram showing the movement of water in plant cells. Identify 1 & 2.

Answer:

1. Apoplastic pathway
2. Sym plastic pathway

Question 26.
A few Pieces of potato were weighed and kept in saltwater overnight. In the morning they are weighed again.

1. What will be the change in weight?
2. Name the process responsible for the change.

Answer:

1. The weight of potato is decreased.
2. Exosmosis results the loss of water from the potato, it leads to plasmolysis.

Question 27.
Before eating Grapes, it is advised to wash them well by keeping them in water for some time to wash off the pesticides on them. However, it is more advisable to keep the Grapes in saltwater than in fresh water to make them safer for consumption. Suggest an explanation for this.
Answer:
The grapes put in saltwater are safer for consumption because poisonous chemicals present in grapes are come out by the process of exosmosis.

Question 28.
The cytoplasm in a plant cell is surrounded by both cell wall and cell membrane. The specificity of transport of substances are mostly across the cell membrane. Give reason.
Answer:
The cell wall is freely permeable to water and substances in solutions but membrane is selectively permeable.

Question 29.
In a girdled plant, when water is supplied to the leaves above the girdle, leaves may remain green for sometime then wilt and ultimately die. What does it indicate?
Answer:
Girdling removes phloem and hence phloem transport is blocked.

Question 30.
Movement of substances in xylem is unidirectional while in phloem it is bidirectional. Why?
Answer:
Xylem conducts”Water and minerals in upward direction only but phloem conducts food in downward direction and in spring season stored food is again transported to upward for bud growth. Hence movement of substances in xylem is unidirectional while in phloem it is bidirectional.

Question 31.
Plants absorb water from the soil through root hairs by two pathways?

1. Name the pathways
2. Explain any one of them

Answer:

1. Apoplastic pathway and symplastic pathway
2. In apoplastic pathway, water transport takes place through the nonliving part of the cell (cell wall).

Question 32.
What is the water potential of pure water at atmospheric pressure? What happens to it when solutes are added to it?
Answer:
Zero, Water potential is decreased and comes to more negative values.

Question 33.
Transport of hydrophilic substances through cell membrane is difficult. Do you agree ? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes, because the cell membrane contains lipids.

Question 34.
What is meant loading and unloading of phloem?
Answer:
The entering of sugar into sieve tube is called loading and movement of sugar out of sieve tube into storage tissues is called unloading.

Question 35.
Root pressure theory is not adequate for explaining water movement up a long day plant. Why?
Answer:
It is used for explaining water movement up in herbaceous plants but in long plants, it is explained by the transpiration pull theory.

Question 36.
Why is energy required to develop root pressure?
Answer:
Every activity requires energy. Root pressure develops due to activity of living cells of the root.

Question 37.
What happens when a pressure greater than the atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution?
Answer:
When a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution, its water potential is increased.

Question 38.
How is mycoorrhizal association helpful in absorption of water and mineral in plants?
Answer:
Mycorrhizal association help in water and mineral absorption. Fungal hyphae have a very large surface area that absorbs mineral ions and water from a much larger volume of soil.

Question 39.
Give an example for obligate mycorrhizal asociation.
Answer:
Mycorrhizal association is found in pinus seeds i.e Pinus seeds do not germinate and establish without mycorrhiza.

Question 40.
Downhill and uphill movement are used in transport of molecules through membrane.

1. Which is the above process that requires energy?
2. Which is the above process not dependent on concentration gradient. Why?

Answer:

1. uphill transport is active transport requires energy.
2. Downhill transport, because molecules move from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration.

Question 41.
Two pathways of water movement into the deeper layers of root ie; from epidermis to xylem vessels

1. Name the two pathways
2. Which is the substance present in the endodermis block one pathway?

Answer:

1. Apoplastic pathway and symplastic pathway
2. suberin in casperian strips

Question 42.
In plants translocation of photosynthates occur in 2 ways but water and mineral transport in one way.

1. Which is the two way suggested?
2. Name the conducting channel for both.

Answer:
1. Food translocated from leaves to storage regions called downward transport. During spring season food again transported upward for bud growth. So such type of transport is bidirectional.

2. Food transported through phloem and water and mineral transported through the xylem.

Question 43.
In plants stomata opens during day time and close during night time.
How is decreasing water potential of guard cell affect the opening and closing of stomata?
Answer:
If decreasing the water potential of guard cell, water enters into guard cell from the subsidiary and it becomes turgid, stomata open.

Plus One Botany Transport in Plants Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Water is transient in plants. Less than 1% of water reaching the leaves is used in photosynthesis and plant growth’’. What is the fate of remaining percentage of water? Specify the phenomenon? Give its significance in plants?
Answer:
99% of water absorbed is lost through transpiration.

1. It provides cooling effect to leaves and other organs.
2. It promotes mineral absorption.
3. It helps to maintain the shape and structure of plants by keeping up its turgidity.

Question 2.
What are the factors responsible for ascent of xylem sap in plants?
Answer:

• Cohesion: The mutual attraction between water molecules
• Adhesion: The attraction of molecules to polar surface e g., the surface of tracheary elements
• Surface Tension: The water molecules are attracted to each other in liquid phase more than to water in gas phase.

All these properties provide water high tensile strength (an ability to resist a pulling force) as well as high capillarity (ability to rise in a thin tube).
In plants, capillarity is aided by the small diameter of both tracheids and vessels.

Question 3.
The solution taken in the beaker have lower solute concentration than thistle funel, osmosis starts and continues

1. What will hapen if more solute is added in the thistle funel ?
2. Which is the solution mentioned above have higher water potential?
3. Which is the method possible to change flow of solvent molecules?

Answer:

1. Diffusion takes place faster
2. solution was taken in the beaker
3. apply greater pressure than atmospheric pressure in solution of thistle funel.

Question 4.
Look at the following figure in which two chambers, A and B, containing solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane. Answer the following questions.

1. Solution of which chamber has a lower water potential
2. In which direction will osmosis occur?
3. Which solution has a higher solute potential?
4. If one chamber has a Ψ of -2000KPa and the other -1000 KPa, which is the chamber that has the higher Ψ?

Answer:

1. Solution in B chamber has lower water potential.
2. Osmosis occurs from a to b.
3. A solution has higher solute potential.
4. The chamber having -ve 1000K Pa has the higher psi

Question 5.
Identify the following.

1. Stress hormone
2. The shrinking of protoplasm due to continuous exosmosis
3. The positive pressure develops within the xylem of roots due to the absorption of water and minerals.

Answer:

1. Abscisic acid
2. Plasmolysis
3. Root pressure

Plus One Botany Transport in Plants NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the factors affecting the rate of diffusion?
Answer:

• Factors affecting the rate of diffusion:
• Gradient of Concentration
• Permeability of membrane
• Temperature
• Pressure

Question 2.
What are porins? What role do they play in diffusion?
Answer:
The porins are proteins that form huge pores in the outer membranes of the plastids, mitochondria and some bacteria allowing molecules up to the size of small proteins to pass through. Thus porins faciliate diffusion.

Question 3.
Decribe the role played by protein pumps during active transport in plants.
Answer:
Active transport uses energy to pump molecules against a concentration gradient. Active transport is carried out by membrane – proteins.

Question 4.
Explain why pure water has maximum water potential?
Answer:
Water molecules possess kinetic energy. In liquid and gaseous form they are in random motion that is both rapid and constant. The greater the concentration of water in a system, the greater is its kinetic energy or ‘water potential’.

Hence, it is obvious that pure water will have the greatest water potential if two systems containing water are in contact, random movement of water molecules will result in net movement of water molecules from the system with higher energy to the one with lower energy. Thus water will move from the system containing water at higher water potential to having low wate potential.

This process of movement of substances down a gradient of free energy is called diffusion. Water. potential is denoted by the Greek symbol Psi and is expressed in pressure units such as pascals(Pa). By convention, the water potential of pure water at standard temperatures, which is not under any pressure, is taken to be zero.

Question 5.
What happens when a pressure greater than the atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution?
Answer:
Under constant temerature the volume of liquid varies inversely to pressure. Moreover, if greater pressure is applied then it will change the state of the matter from liquid to soild at a given temperature. Any liquid will abide by these laws.

Question 6.
Discuss the factors responsible for ascent of xylem sap in plants.
Answer:
The transpiration driven ascent of xylem sap depends mainly on the following physical properties of water:

• Cohesion – the mutual attraction between water molecules.
• Adhesion – the attraction of water molecules to polar surfaces (such as the surface of tracheary elements).
• Surface Tension – water molecules are attracted to each other in the liquid phase more than to water in the gas phase.

These properties give water high tensile strength, i.e., an ability to resist a pulling force, and high capillarity, I ‘.e., the ability to rise in thin tubes. In plants capillarity is aided by the small diameter of the tracheary elements – the tracheids and vessel elements.

Plus One Botany Transport in Plants Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Closure of stomata due to water stress is brought about by
(A) Auxin
(B) Ethylene
(C) Abscisic acid
(D) Cytokinin
Answer:
(C) Abscisic acid

Question 2.
The most common type of transpiration is
(A) Stomatal
(B) Cuticular
(C) Lenticular
(D) Foliar
Answer:
(A) Stomatal

Question 3.
All the following include osmosis except
(A) Passage of water from root hair to adjacent cells
(B) Passage of water from lower xylem to upper xylem
(C) Passage of water from xylem vessel to mesophyll cell
(D) The entry of water into root hair from soil solution
Answer:
(B) Passage of water from lower xylem to upper xylem

Question 4.
Stomatal opening and closure are due to
(A) Presence of gases inside leaves
(B) Gene action
(C) Pressure offered by guard cells
(D) Pressure offered by subsidiary cells
Answer:
(C) Pressure offered by guard cells

Question 5.
Translocation of sugars is correlated by
(A) Boron
(B) Iron
(C) Molybdenum
(E) Calcium
Answer:
(A) Boron

Question 6.
Identify the wrong statement of the following
(A) Root pressure is a positive pressure that develops in the xylem sap of the root of some plants.
(B) Water molecules remain attached to one another by a strong mutual force called cohesion force
(C) Guttation is frequently seen in herbaceous plants growing under the conditions of low soil moisture and low atmospheric humidity
(D) In monocot leaves, guard cells remain dumbbell-shaped and their cell walls are thickened only in the middle
Answer:
(C) Guttation is frequently seen in herbaceous plants growing under the conditions of low soil moisture and low atmospheric humidity

Question 7.
In which of the following plants, will there be no transpiration?
(A) Plants living in deserts
(B) Plants growing in hilly regions
(C) Aquatic submerged plants
(D) Aquatic plants with floating leaves
Answer:
(C) Aquatic submerged plants

Question 8.
When a cell is placed in hypertonic solution
(A) Exosmois occurs and the cell becomes turgid
(B) Endosmosis occurs and the cell becomes turgid
(C) Exosmosis occurs and the cell becomes plasmolysed
(D) Endosmosis occurs and the cell becomes plasmolysed
Answer:
(C) Exosmosis occurs and the cell becomes plasmolysed

Question 9.
The thin film of water covering soil particles and held strongly by attractive forces is called
(A) Hygroscopic water
(B) Runaway water
(C) Gravitational water
(D) Capillary water
Answer:
(A) Hygroscopic water

Question 10.
Plants die when over-fertilized because of the fertilizer
(A) Damages the wall of delicate root hairs
(B) Blocks absorption of nitrogenous ions
(C) Causes dehydration of plants by exosmosis
(D) Upsets soil environment by poisoning
Answer:
(C) Causes dehydration of plants by exosmosis

Question 11.
Movement of individual molecules of substance from a region of their higher concentration to a region of their lower concentration is called
(A) Osmosis
(B) Turgor pressure
(C) Diffusion
(D) Osmotic potential
Answer:
(A) Osmosis

Question 12.
The proteins that form large pores in the outer membranes of the plastids, mitochondria, etc are
(A) Porins
(B) Aquaporins
(C) Symporins
(D) Both A & B
Answer:
(A) Porins

Question 13.
Transport of molecules across the membrane in the same direction is
(A) Antiport
(B) Symport
(C) Permeability
(D) Uniport
Answer:
(B) Symport

Question 14.
Rate of osmosis depends on
(A) Diffusion
(B) Pressure gradient
(C) Concentration gradient
(D) BothB&C
Answer:
(D) BothB&C

Question 15.
One of the following is selectively permeable
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Suberised cell wall
(C) Copperferrocyanide membrane
(D) Cellulosic cell wall
Answer:
(A) Tonoplast

Question 16.
What will happen if a flaccid cell is placed in hypotonic solution?
(A) Plasmolysis
(B) Exosmosis
(C) Endosmosis
(D) None of these
Answer:
(C) Endosmosis

Question 17.
Pressure that occurs in a cell due to osmotic diffusion of water inside is called
(A) Osmotic pressure
(B) Turgor pressure
(C) Water pressure
(D) Diffusion pressure
Answer:
(A) Osmotic pressure

Question 18.
Movement of water through the cell wall without crossing any membrane is
(A) Apoplastic
(B) Symplastic
(C) Tonoplastic
(D) Cytoplastic
Answer:
(A) Apoplastic

Question 19.
Cytoplasmic strands that connects two neighbouring cells through
(A) Pits
(B) Semipermiable membrane
(C) Plasmodesmata
(D) Root hair
Answer:
(C) Plasmodesmata

Question 20.
Guttation occurs in leaves through
(A) Stomata
(B) Epithelium
(C) Hydathode
(D) Leaf margin
Answer:
(C) Hydathode

Question 21.
Dry seeds swells when they are placed in water due to
(A) Imbibition
(B) Plasmolysis
(C) Diffusion
(D) Osmosis
Answer:
(A) Imbibition

Question 22.
Transpiration in plants helps to
(A) The supply of water for photosynthesis
(B) Maintains cells turgidity
(C) Transport minerals from the soil to all parts of the plant
(D) All the above
Answer:
(D) All the above

Students can Download Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Meiosis results in
(a) Production of gametes
(b) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
(c) Introduction of variation
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 2.
At which stage of meiosis does the genetic constitution of gametes is finally decided
(a) Metaphase I
(b) Anaphase II
(c) Metaphase II
(d) Anaphase I
Answer:
(d) Anaphase I

Question 3.
Meiosis occurs in organisms during
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Vegetative reproduction
(c) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Sexual reproduction

Question 4.
During anaphase-l of meiosis
(a) Homologous chromosomes separate
(b) Non-homologous autosomes separate
(c) Sister chromatids separate
(d) non-sister chromatids separate
Answer:
(a) Homologous chromosomes separate

Question 5.
Mitosis is characterised by
(a) Reduction division
(b) Equal division
(c) Both reduction and equal division
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Equal division

Question 6.
A bivalent of meiosis-l consists of
(a) Two chromatids and one centromere
(b) Two chromatids and two centromere
(c) Four chromatids and two centromere
(d) Four chromatids and four centromere
Answer:
(c) Four chromatids and two centromere

Question 7.
Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at
(a) G1
(b) G2
(c) Go
(d) S phase
Answer:
(c) Go

Question 8.
Which type cell divisions occur in meristematic cell of root apex?
Answer:
Mitosis

Question 9.
In which stage the actual reduction of chromosome number occurs in meiosis.
Answer:
Anaphase 1

Question 10.
Give the term for the failure of separation of homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
Non-disjunction

Question 11.
Name the cell divisions which help in growth and recombination of genes.
Answer:
Mitosis and meiosis

Question 12.
It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell division. Such cells do not divide further and exit ____ phase to enter an inactive stage called ____ of cell cycle. Fill in the blanks.
Answer:
G₁ and G₀

Question 13.
In the case of plant cells, the formation of new cell wall begins with a simple precursor. What is this precursor?
Answer:
Middle lamella

Question 14.
It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human cells (eukaryotic cells) takes 24 hours. Which phase of the cycle, do you think occupies the maximum part of cell cycle?
Answer:
Interphase.

Question 15.
At what stage of cell cycle does DNA synthesis take place?
Answer:
substage of Interphase

Question 16.
If the failure of division of cytoplasm occurs after nuclear division, What will happen to the cell?
Answer:
Free nucleii are formed

Question 17.
An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells must have been there to produce them?
Answer:
300 pollen mother cells

Question 18.
What is the peculiarity of zygotene?
Answer:
The pairing of the homologous chromosome called synapsis

Question 19.
It is the inactive stage of cell division but cell differentiation occurs. Name it.
Answer:
G₀ Phase /Quiscent stage.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Meiosis is the type of cell division which maintain the race. Discuss.
Answer:
Reduces the chromosome number to half, so that chromosome number is maintained in the next generation.

Question 2.
Interphase in cell cycle is sometimes referred to as resting phase. Do you consider this statement true? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
No.

1. Nucleus and cytoplasm are metabolically very active.
2. Amount of DNA becomes doubled.

Question 3.
A diagram of typical cell cycle of a higher plant is shown here. Identify each stage of the cycle and explain what happens during these stages.

Answer:

• G₁ – pre mitotic gap -synthesis of RNA &Proteins
• S – phase of synthesis – DNA replication
• G₂ – Post mitotic Gap phase synthesis of RNA &Proteins continues
• M – Mitotic phase
• G₀ – Inactive phase

Question 4.
Cytokinesis differs in plant and animal cell. Substantiate this statement.
Answer:

• Plant cell – formation of cell plate.
• Animal cell – Invagination of cell membrane.

Question 5.
Analyse the column A and B arrange the matter is an appropriate order.

Answer:

Question 6.
Identify the stages of Mitosis in which the following events take place:

1. Synapsis
2. Terminalisation of chiasmata.

Answer:

1. Zygotene
2. Diakinesis

Question 7.
Different stages of Prophase I of Meiosis are given in column A, arrange them in correct order and match them with the events in column B.

Answer:

1. (i) – d
2. (ii) – c
3. (iii) – a
4. (iv) – b

Question 8.
The pairing of homologous chromosomes is called synapsis.

1. Name each pair of homologous chromosomes.
2. Name the stage of prophase at which it takes place.

Answer:

1. Bivalent
2. Zygotene

Question 9.
Specific chromosome number of each species is conserved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms. What is the reason for this? Write the different steps of this process.
Answer:

1. Meiosis (meiosis I & II)
2. Prophase Meta phase Ana phase Telophase

Question 10.
The life cycle of a cell is called cell cycle. It consists of four stages such as Gv S, G2, and M.

1. Construct a pie diagram showing the different stages indicated above.
2. State the major events occurring in G, S, and G2 phases.

Answer:
1. Pie diagram of cell cycle.

2. G1 Phase -1, Cell grows in size and prepares the machinery needed for the DNA replication. RNA and proteins are synthesized. S phase – DNA replication. G2 phase – Synthesis of RNA and proteins.

Question 11.
Arrange the following stages of cell cycle in correct sequence S, G2, G1, M.
Answer:
S, M, G1, S, G2

Question 12.
X’ shaped structure called ‘chiasmata occurs during a particular stage of cell division.

1. Name the stage?
2. What is the significance of this type of cell division?

Answer:

1. Pachytene
2. The exchange of genes takes place between homologous chromosomes.

Question 13.
Given below are the five phases of prophase I of Meiosis I. Arrange them in correct order.
Zygotene, diakinesis, diplotene, leptotene, pachytene
Answer:
Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis

Question 14.
Give the scientific term of the following.

1. Interchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of the homologues chromosomes
2. The plane of alignment of the chromosomes at metaphase

Answer:

1. Crossing over
2. Equatorial

Question 15.
Identify the diagram and label a, b,c and write the events during this.

Answer:
(a)G1
(b) S
(c)G2

• G1 – Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
• S – DNA synthesis or replication of DNA occurs.
• G2 – In this phase proteins are synthesised for mitosis.

Question 16.
You have supplied I set of glass slides showing gametogenesis or garnets formation in an animal In one of the slide you observed the following features. Four cells with haploid number of chromosomes. Your friend told you that this is a meiotic division. (Hint: The diploid number of chromosome is 16.)
Are you agree with this statement. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Meiosis takes place in diploid cell or meiocyte to form four haploid cells. These cells contain 8 chromosomes each.

Question 17.
Differentiate reduction division from equational division.
Answer:
1. Reduction division:
It occurs in diploid cells to form 4 haploid cells, ie, the Chromosome number reduced to half in Meiosis I and results 2 daughter cells, which again divides to form 4 daughter cells. All cells formed in meiosis are haploid.

2. Equational division:
It is the mitotic division results 2 daughter cells carrying same set of chromosomes as that of parent cell. No genetic variation occurs.

Question 18.
Can there be mitosis without DNA replication in S phase?
Answer:
There cannot be mitosis without DNA replication in 5 phase of interphase because the trigger for mitosis is disturbance of nucleocytoplasmic ratio caused by DNA replication in S phase. Mitosis restores the quantity of genetic material to the species-specific level.

Question 19.
How does anaphase of mitosis and anaphase I of meiosis differ from each other?
Answer:
In anaphase of mitosis chromatids separate while in anaphase 1 of meiosis homologous chromosomes separate.

Question 20.
How does cytokinesis in plant cells differ from that in animal cells?
Answer:
1. In an animal cell a furrow in the plasma membrane.lt joins in the centre and dividing the cell cytoplasm into two.

2. In-plant cells, wall formation starts in the centre of the cell and grows outward to meet the existing lateral walls. Then Cell division occurs.

Question 21.
How cytokinesis is different in an animal and a plant cell?
Answer:
In-plant cell cytokinesis occurs by cell plate formation while in the animal cell it occurs by cell furrow formation.

Question 22.
Why mitosis is called equational division ? Give the occurrence of mitosis.
Answer:
It keeps the chromosome number constant. It occurs in somatic cells.

Question 23.
What is the feature of a metacentric chromosome?
Answer:
The metacentric chromosome has a centromere in the middle region with two equal arms of the chromosome.

Question 24.
What is kinetochore? Give its function.
Answer:
It is a disc-like area in each chromatid and is site of attachment of spindle microtubule.

Question 25.
Why is meiosis essentially in sexually reproducing organisms?
Answer:
Meiosis reduces the chromosome number to half as it is followed by fertilization which restores diploidy.

Question 26.
Name the stage of cells cycle at which one of the following events occurs.

1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate
3. Pairing between homologous chromosomes. takes place
4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Zygotene
4. Pachytene

Question 27.
Downs syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome occurs due to mistake in cell division. What does it indicate?
Answer:
It is due to the failure of separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Question 28.
The events occur in prophase and telophase are one opposite to other,

1. Name the cell structures shown the above events
2. How many daughter nuclei are formed at the end of mitotic and meiotic prophase?

Answer:

1. Nuclear membrane, nucleolus and spindle fibres
2. Two

Question 29.
Mangolism or Trisomy is due to the failure of one event in cell division.

1. Which is the improperly functioning stage?
2. What is the event that not occurs?

Answer:

1. Anaphase I of meiosis
2. Separation of homologous chromosomes

Question 30.

1. What will be the ploidy level of dyad and tetrad of cells in meiosis?
2. How is it occurs?

Answer:

1. Dyad – haploid, Tetrad – Haploid
2. It occurs in meiosis due to separation of homologous chromosomes and chromosome number reduced to half.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which phase of meiosis is the following formed? Choose the answers from hint points given below.

1. Synaptonemal complex ______
2. Recombination nodules ______
3. Appearance/activation of enzyme recombinase _____
4. Termination of chiasmata _______
5. Interkinesis ________
6. Formation of dyad of cells ________

Answer:

1. Zygotene
2. pachytene
3. pachytene
4. diakinesis
5. After Meiosis-I before meiosis II
6. after first cytokinesis

Question 2.
The interphase stage is significant in mitotic and meiotic cell division

1. Give one specific event
2. Name the stage of interphase this event occurs
3. How will you differentiate interphase from interkinesis?

Answer:

1. DNA replication
2. S – phase
3. Interphase – cell prepares for cell division Interkinesis – short interval between meiosis I and meiosis II

Question 3.
The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle, Write the phase against each of the events.

1. Appearance of nucleolus
2. Division of centromere
3. Replication of DNA

Answer:

1. Telophase
2. Anaphase
3. Interphase

Question 4.
Life cycle of a cell is called cell cycle. ‘S’ phase is an important phase of cell cycle.

1. Justify your answer.
2. Name the stages of cell cycle at which the following events occur.
   • Crossing over of homologous chromosome.
   • Pairingof homologous chromosomes.
   • Chromosomes are arranged at the equatorial plane.

Answer:

1. phase of DNA synthesis
2. stages of the cell cycle
   • Pachytene
   • Zygotene
   • Metaphase

Question 5.
Name the stages of cell division in which the following events occur?

1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
3. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Pachytene

Question 6.
Match the words listed in column I with suitable words from column II.

Answer:

1. a) – Gametic meiosis
2. b) – Nuclear division
3. c) – Zygotic meiosis
4. d) – Cytoplasmic division
5. e) – Meiocytes
6. f) – Plant cells

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division NCERT Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish cytokinesis from karyokinesis.
Answer:
The division of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis, while the division of the nucleus is called Karyokinesis.

Question 2.
What is G0 (quiescent phase) of cell cycle?
Answer:
Some cells in the adult animals do not appear to exhibit division (e.g., heart cells and many other cells divide only occasionally, as needed to replace cells that have been lost because of injury or cell death.

These cells do not divide further exit G₁ phase to enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage (G₀) of the cell cycle. Cells in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of the organism.

Question 3.
Describe the event taking place during interphase.
Answer:
The interphase is divided into three further phases:
1. G₁ phase (Gap 1). G₁ phase corresponds to the interval between mitosis initiation of DNA replication. During G, phase the cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA.

2. S phase (Synthesis). S or synthesis phase marks the period during which DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

3. During this time the amount of DNA per cell doubles. If the initial amount of DNA is denoted as 2C then it increases to 4C. However, there is no increase in the chromosome number, if the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes at G₁, even after S phase the number of chromosomes remains the same, i.e., 2n.

4. G₂ phase (Gap 2). In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm during the G₂ phase, proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis White cell growth continues.

Question 4.
Why is mitosis called equational division?
Answer:
Since the number of chromosomes remains same in parent and daughter cells so mitosis is also called a equational division.

Question 5.
Name the stage of cell cycle at which one of the following events occur.

1. Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator.
2. Centromere splits and chromatids separate.
3. Pairing between homologous chromosomes takes place.
4. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place.

Answer:

1. Metaphase
2. Anaphase
3. Metaphase I of meiosis
4. Prophase I of meiosis

Question 6.
What is the significance of meiosis?
Answer:
Significance of Meiosis:

1. Maintaining genetic identity by maintaining number of chromosomes.
2. Bringing variations to ensure better species.
3. Facilitates sexual reproduction.

Question 7.
Discuss with your teacher about.

1. haploid insects and lower plants where cell division occurs, and
2. Some haploid cells in higher plants where cell division does not occur.

Answer:

1. Male bees, wasps and ants are haploid organisms because they are produced from unfertilized eggs.
2. Synergids and antipodal cells in the ovule don’t undergo cell division.

Question 8.
Can there be mitosis without DNA replication in ‘S’ phase?
Answer:
DNA replication is necessary for cell division, and cell division cannot happen without DNA replication.

Question 9.
Can there be DNA replication without cell division?
Answer:
DNA replication takes place in order to prepare for cell division. Cell division is the next logical step after DNA replication.

Question 10.
Analyse the events during every stage of cell cycle and notice how the following two parameters change

1. number of chromosomes (N) per cell
2. amount of DNA content (C) per cell

Answer:

1. Number of chromosomes remains same after mitotic cell division and becomes half after meiotic cell division.
2. During S phase the DNA content doubles, but number of chromosomes remains the same.

Plus One Botany Cell Cycle and Cell Division Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell division in which
(a) there is no growth of cells
(b) the nucleus does not participate
(c) no spindle develops to guide the cells
(d) the plasma membranes of daughter cells do not separate.
Answer:
(a) there is no growth of cells

Question 2.
In animal cells, cytokinesis involves
(a) the separation of sister chromatids
(b) contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament
(c) depolymerisation of kinetochore microtubules
(d) a protein kinase that phosphorylates other enzymes
Answer:
(b) contraction of the contractile ring of microfilament

Question 3.
During mitosis, the number of chromosomes gets
(a) change
(b) no change
(c) maybe change if cell is mature
(d) maybe change if cell is immature
Answer:
(b) no change

Question 4.
A diploid living organism develops from zygote by which type of the following repeated cell divisions?
(a) Meiosis
(b) Amitosis
(c) fragmentation
(d) Mitosis
Answer:
(d) Mitosis

Question 5.
If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into?
(a) Metaphase
(b) Telophase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Prophase
Answer:
(a) Metaphase

Question 6.
At which stage of mitosis, chromatids separated and passes to different poles
(a) prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) anaphase
(d) Telophase
Answer:
(c) anaphase

Question 7.
The two chromatids of a metaphase chromosome represent
(a) replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase
(b) homologous chromosomes of a diploid set
(c) non-homologous chromosomes joined at the centromere
(d) maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere
Answer:
(a) replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase

Question 8.
The process of cytokinesis refers to the division of
(a) nucleus
(b) chromosomes
(c) cytoplasm
(d) nucleus and cytoplasm
Answer:
(c) cytoplasm

Question 9.
Which of the following serves as mitotic spindle poison?
(a) Ca2
(b) azide
(c) Tubulin
(d) Colchicine
Answer:
(d) Colchicine

Question 10.
Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs at which stage?
(a) Zygotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Metaphase
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(a) Zygotene

Question 11.
In meiosis, division is
(a) I reductional and II equational
(b) I equational and II reductional
(c) Both reductional
(d) Both equational
Answer:
(a) I reductional and II equational

Question 12.
Which type of chromosomes segregate when a cell undergoes meiosis?
(a) Homologous chromosomes
(b) Non-homologous chromosomes
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) centric and acentric chromosomes
Answer:
(a) Homologous chromosomes

Question 13.
Chiasmata are most appropriately observed in meiosis during
(a) diakinesis
(b) diplotene
(c) metaphase-ll
(d) pachytene
Answer:
(b) diplotene

Question 14.
During cell division, sometimes there will be failure of separation of homologous chromosomes. This event is called
(a) interference
(b) complementation
(c) non-disjunction
(d) coincidence
Answer:
(c) non-disjunction

Question 15.
The second meiotic division leads to
(a) separation of sex chromosomes
(b) fresh DNA synthesis
(c) separation of chromatids and centromere
(d) separation of homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
(c) separation of chromatids and centromere

Question 16.
Term meiosis was proposed by
(a) Farmer and Moore
(b) Flemming
(c) Strasburger
(d) Darlington
Answer:
(a) Farmer and Moore

Question 17.
Synapsis occurs in the phase of meiosis.
(a) zygotene
(b) diplotene
(c) pachytene
(d) leptotene
Answer:
(a) zygotene

Question 18.
When the number of chromosomes is already reduced to half in the first reductional division of meiosis, where is the necessity of second meiotic division
(a) The division is required for the formation of four gametes
(b) Division ensures equal distribution of haploid chromosomes
(c) Division ensures equal distribution of genes on chromosomes
(d) Division is required for segregation of replicated chromosomes
Answer:
(d) Division is required for segregation of replicated chromosomes

Students can Download Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Digestion and Absorption

Plus One Digestion and Absorption One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Hepato-pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and carries
(a) Bile
(b) Pancreatic juice
(c) Both bile and pancreatic juice
(d) Saliva
Answer:
(c) Both bile and pancreatic juice

Question 2.
One of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system
(a) Tetanus
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Jaundice
(d) Dysentery
Answer:
(a) Tetanus

Question 3.
A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is
(a) Pancreas
(b) Adrenal
(c) Liver
(d) Salivary gland
Answer:
(b) Adrenal

Question 4.
Liver is the largest gland and is associated with various functions, choose one which is not correct
(a) Metabolism of carbohydrate
(b) Digestion of fat
(c) Formation of bile
(d) Secretion of  hormone called gastric
Answer:
(d) Secretion of hormone called gastric

Question 5.
Mark the right statement among the following
(a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme
(b) Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa
(c) Enterokinase is secreted by pancrease
(d) Bile contains trypsin
Answer:
(a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme

Question 6.
The major health and nutritional problems mainly arises due to low amount of minerals and vitamins in diet. Name the two PEMs.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor, Marasmus

Question 7.
Deficiency symptoms of a disease are given below: Identify it.
Thin Limbs, retarded growth of body and brain, swelling of legs due to retention of water (oedema), reddish hair, pot belly and diarrhea.
Answer:
Kwashiorkor

Question 8.
Find the set most suitable with “succus entericus”
(a) bilirubin and biliyerdin
(b) salivary amylase and lysozymes
(c) disaccharides, dipeptidases and lipases
(d) Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen procarboxypep-tidases
Answer:
(c) Disaccharides, dipeptidase and lipases

Question 9.
Complete the columns a, b, c, d, e & f

1. Maltose _______a_______ + ________b_________
2. Sucrose _______c_______ + ________d_________
3. Lactose _______e_______ + ________f__________

Answer:

1. Meltose Glucose + Glucose
2. Sucrose Glucose + Fructose
3. Lactose Glucose + Galactose

Question 10.
From this which statement is correct?
(a) Human denititian is heterodont
(b) Fat is soluble in water
(c) Fructose absorbed passively
(d) Small intestine devoid of villi
Answer:
(a) Human dentitian is heterodont

Question 11.
The human intestine is long because
(a) Bacteria in food can be killed gradually
(b) It increases surface are for absorption of food
(c) It provides more space for food storage
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) It increases surface area for absorption of food.

Question 12.
Which of the following statement is most suitable for gastrin?
(a) It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.
(b) It stimulates the secretion of bile.
(c) It inhibits gastric gland to produce gastric secretion.
Answer:
(a) It stimulates the secretion of gastric juice.

Question 13.
Name the end product of digestion of following?

1. Starch
2. Protein

Answer:

1. Glucose
2. Amino acids

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Copy the diagram and label the parts.

Answer:

Question 2.
A 15 year old boy was admitted in a hospital with severe case of stomach ulcer. At the end of various tests it is found that Mucus glands are absent. Do you agree with this? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Highly concentrated HCL is presented in gastric juice. Mucus from the mucus gland protect the epithelium lining of the stomach from the action of HCL. So the absence of mucus gland cause stomach ulcer.

Question 3.

1. Name the process (a).
2. Name the enzyme (b).
3. Name the product (c).

Answer:

1. (a) – bile salt – emulsification
2. (b) – pancreatic lipase
3. (c) – Glycerol

Question 4.
Distinguish between Renin and Rennin.
Answer:
1. Rennin: A proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins.

2. Renin: It is an enzyme releasing from JGA, when there is a fall in glomerular filtration rate. Renin converts angiotensinogen into antigotensin II and regulate urine formation.

Question 5.
Complete the passage.
Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated into small droplets called _______ which move into intestinal mucosa. They are reformed into very small _______ coated fat globules called _________ which are transported to the __________ in the villi.
Answer:
Fatty acids and glycerol are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into intestinal mucosa. They are reformed into very small Protein coated fat globules called Chylomicrons which are transported to the lacteals in the villi.

Question 6.

1. It is not necessary to produce amylase in an inactive form in our body, but it is not in the case of Trypsin.
2. In certain circumstances, peptic ulcer are found on the gut wall.

Answer:

1. Proteins are body building molecules. If proteins digesting enzymes are secreted inactive forms, they would hydrolyse the cellular and extracellular proteins of the organism itself. So the protein-digesting enzyme trypsin is secreted in their inactive form.

2. Mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric and intestinal secretion protects the gut wall from the action of HCL and protein-digesting enzymes. In the absence of mucus and bicarbonates, peptic ulcer are found on the gut wall.

Question 7.
Construct a flow chart showing the passage of food through the alimentary canal of man.
Answer:
Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine → Rectum → Anus.

Question 8.
Differentiate between Serosa and Lumen.
Answer:
The outermost layer of the wall of alimentary canal is called serosa. The inner hollow space in the alimentary canal is called lumen.

Question 9.
Find the odd one out and justify your answer.
Salivary gland, milk gland, gastric gland, thyroid gland.
Answer:
Thyroid gland. Thyroid gland is an endocrine gland. All others are exocrine gland.

Question 10.
Give below in bracket are the names of some digestive enzymes group them into A – Gastric, B – Pancreatic and C – Intestinal (Trypsin, Dipeptidase, Rennin, Maltase, Pepsin, Chymotrypsin, Nuclease, Amylase)
Answer:

Question 11.
Ramu ate boiled rice, what are the changes that it undergoes before being absorbed in the small intestine.
Answer:

Question 12.
The dental formula of human is represented as \(i \frac{2}{2}\), \(\mathrm{C} \frac{1}{1}, \mathrm{Pm} \frac{2}{2}, \mathrm{m} \frac{3}{3}\). What do i, c, pm, m indicate?
Answer:
i – Incisors, c-Canines, pm – Pre molars, m – Molars

Question 13.
Describe the Diphyodont and Thecodont characteristics of human dentition.
Answer:
1. Thecodont: It is a dentition in which the teeth are placed in the sockets of jawbones.

2. Diphyodont: It is a dentition in which the teeth appear twice in the lifetime of man. They are milk teeth and permanent teeth.

Question 14.
Observe the figure given below and answer the following questions.

1. ‘x’ is a substance needed for digestion. What is the function of ‘x’?
2. Name the gastrointestinal hormone responsible for the contraction of gall bladder to release ‘x’.

Answer:

1. Bile – emulsification
2. Cholecystokinin

Question 15.
Given below are the layers of human gut. Write a flow chart from inner region.
Serosa, mucosa, muscularis, submucosa
Answer:
Mucosa → Submucosa → Muscularis → Serosa

Question 16.
After observing the model of the lumen of human intestine your friend said that “the villi projected into the lumen actually block the movement of food through the intestine, if the villi are absent food can easily pass through the intestine.” How will you respond to this comment?
Answer:
Villi actually decrease the movement of chyme. The function of villi is to increase the surface area of the intestine for the absorption of digested nutrients.

Question 17.
Out of the following list, pick out the enzymes that take part in carbohydrate digestion.
Maltase, Lactase, Sucrase, Peptidase, Salivary amylase, Isomaltase.
Answer:
Maltase, Lactase, Sucrase, Salivary amylase, Isomaltase

Question 18.

1. Mention the factor ‘x’ involved in the process.
2. Identify the process and write its importance.

Answer:

1. Bile salts
2. Emulsification. The conversion large fat globules into tiny fat droplets is called emulsification. Bile salt helps emulsification. Emulsification increase the surface area for lipase action.

Question 19.
Below are given the names of the enzymes and their source of secretion. Match them.

Answer:

Question 20.
Strong acidic food in the stomach stimulate the secretion of secretin from duodenal wall.

1. On which part of the digestive tract, secretion act?
2. What is the role of secreting in digestion?

Answer:

1. Secretin acts on exocrine part of pancreas.
2. Secretin stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions from pancreas. It protects the intestinal mucosa from acid as well as provide an alkaline medium for enzymatic activity in intestine.

Question 21.
Fatty chyme in duodenum decreases the speed of peristalsis. How the fatty chyme affects the speed of peristalsis?
Answer:
Fatty chyme in duodenum stimulate the release of GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide Hormone). GIP produced by duodenum, inhibit gastric mobility.

Question 22.
Mention whether the following statements true or false. Justify your answer.

1. Chymotrypsin is a fat digesting enzyme.
2. Deglutition occurs in the intestine.
3. Intestinal juice is also known as succus entericus.
4. Function of enterokinase is to break peptide bond in proteins.

Answer:

1. False – It is prominent protein digesting enzyme present in pancreaticjuice.
2. False – It is the process of swallowing of food . from the pharynx to oesophagus.
3. True – The collective secretion of intestinal gland is known as intestinal juice or succus entericus.
4. False – Enteokinase present in succus entericus activates the inactive trypsinogen into active trypsin.

Question 23.
The following diagram shows the action of protein digesting enzymes of pancreas.

(a) Label the number 1, 2 and 3.
(b) Trypsinogen and Chymotrypsinogen are proenzymes (inactive enzymes). Why do they being produced inactive?

Answer:
(a) Label the number 1, 2 and 3.

1. Enterokinase
2. Chymotrypsin
3. Peptides

(b) Trypsin and Chymotrypsin are protein digesting enzyme formed from their respective inactive forms at the time of digestion of the protein food. If they are available all time in active form, they would damage the intestinal wall.

Question 24.
The calorific value of respiratory substrates are different. Do you agree? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, The calorific values of carbohydrates, proteins and fats are 4.1 kcal /g, 5.65 kcal /g and 9.45 kcal /g, respectively.

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Gastric glands are formed of three types of secretory cells. Name them and mention their function.
Answer:

1. Mucous cell – Secrete mucus
2. Chief cells – Secrete proteolytic enzyme Pepsin
3. Parietal cells – Secrete HCL

Question 2.
Observe the flow chart and answer the questions.

1. What is the purpose of micelles in fat absorption?
2. Identify ‘e’.

Answer:
1. Fatty acids and glycerol being insoluble, cannot be absorbed into the blood. They are first incorporated into small droplets called micelles which move into the intestinal mucosa. Micelles are formed with the help of bile salts and phospholipids,

2. Chylomicrons

Question 3.
Observe and analyse the graph and answer the following questions.

1. Which region of the alimentary canal has maximum acidic pH?
2. Why different regions of alimentary canal has different pH How this is maintained?

Answer:
1. Stomach

2. pH is the buccal cavity – in between 6.5 and 7, which is maintained by HCO₃ – in the saliva. pH in the stomach is in between 1.8 and 2, which is maintained by HCL, secreted from gastric gland. The pH in the intestine is in between 8 and 9, which is maintained by HCO₃– present in the bile and pancreatic juice.

Question 4.
Observe the given diagram.

1. Identify the parts a, b, c.
2. If part ‘c’ has removed from a person due to a disease. What will be the changes in the digestive process of that person?

Answer:
1. a – Liver, b – Gall bladder, c – Pancreas

2. If the pancreas is totally removed from a person, he will die in a short period. Even if pancreas is only partially removed it will collapse the digestive process. In addition to this, the body cannot regulate the glucose level in blood.

The digestive juice secreted by pancreas contains three enzymes trypsin, amylase and lipase. Thus if pancreas is removed, the production of digestive enzyme will collapse.

Question 5.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:
(a) Emulsification
(b) Pancreatic lipase
(c) Fatty acids
(d) Glycerol
(e) Micelles
(f) Chylomicrons

Question 6.
Observe the diagram. Complete the boxes A, B and C appropriately.

Answer:

Question 7.
Observe the diagram.

1. Identify the ducts A and B.
2. B is guarded by a sphincter in its opening to duodenum. Name it.
3. Write any two functions of liver.

Answer:

1. Ducts A and B are
   • A – Common bile duct
   • B – Hepato – pancreatic duct
2. Sphincter of Oddi.
3. Functions of liver are:
   • Production and secretion of bile
   • Production of albumin, Fibrinogen, Prothrombin, etc.
   • Detoxification.

Question 8.
Given the diagram of intestinal villus.

1. Identify the part labelled as ‘a’ and ‘b’ in figure.
2. Give the function of part ‘a’.
3. What is the role of ‘b’ in digestion?

Answer:

1. Identify the part labelled as ‘a’ and ‘b’ in figure
   • ‘a’ Lacteal
   • ‘b’ Crypts of Liberkuhn
2. Absorption of fat and fat soluble vitamins.
3. Crypts of Lieberkuhn produce intestinal juice helps in digestion.

Question 9.
Find the odd one out from each group and justify.

1. Cardiac, Villi, Fundic, Pyloric
2. Duodenum, Jejunum, ileum, villi
3. Parotid, gastric, sublingual, submaxillary

Answer:

1. Villi:
Cardiac, fundic and pyloric are the three major parts of stomach. But villi are small finger like foldings in the intestine.

2. Villi:
Duodenum, jejunum and ileum are three regions of intestine but villi are small finger like foldings inside the intestine.

3. Gastric:
Parotid, Sublingual and submaxillary are three pairs of salivary gland produce saliva. But gastric gland is stomach gland produce gastric juice.

Plus One Digestion and Absorption NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer among the following:

• Gastricjuice contains
  1. pepsin, lipase and rennin
  2. trypsin, lipase and rennin
  3. trypsin, pepsin and lipase
  4. trypsin, pepsin and rennin
• Succus entericus is the name given to
  1. a junction between ileum and large intestine
  2. intestinal juice
  3. swelling in the gut
  4. appendix

Answer:

• Gastricjuice contains
  1. Pepsin, Lipase and Rennin
• Succus entericus is the name given to
  2. Intestinal Juice

Question 2.
Match column I with and Rennin
Column I Column II

Answer:
(a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i)

Question 3.
Why are villi present in the intestine and not in the stomach?
Answer:
The major portion of absorption takes palce in small intestines. In stomach simple sugars, water and alcohol absorbed. Villi are specialized projections in small intestine with large absorbent area. This facilities better absorbtion of complex molecules as well.

As food is fit to be absorbed only after complete digestion so villi’s turn comes after all the digestive processes are complete.

Question 4.
State the role pancreatic juice in digestion of proteins.
Answer:
The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes – trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypetidases, amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin which in turn activities the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.

Question 5.
Describe the process of digestion of protein in stomach.
Answer:
The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to hydrochloric acid gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin, the proteolytic enzyme of the stomach. Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).

Question 6.
Give the dental formula of human beings.
Answer:
Arrangement of teeth in each half of the upper and lower jaw in the order I, C, PM, M is represented by a dental formula which in human is as follows:
\(\frac{2123}{2123}\)

Question 7
Bile juice contains no digestive enzymes, yet it is important for digestion. Why?
Answer:
Bile emulsifies the fat making it easier digest by enzymes. Bile juice also helps inactivation of lipase, the enzyme which digests fat. Additionally, bile converts the acidic chyme to alkaline so that other enzymes can work on food.

Question 8.
Describe the digestive role of chymotrypsin. Which two other digestive enzymes of the same category are secreted by its source gland?
Answer:
Chymotrypsin digests proteins and converts it into dipeptides. Other digestive enzymes of the same category are Trypsin and Carboxypeptidase and they perform similar function.

Question 9.
Discuss the main steps in the digestion of proteins as the food passes through different parts of the alimentary canal.
Answer:
In the stomach the proenzyme pepsinogen gets converted into pepsin which acts on protein to convert it into peptone.

In small intestine enzymes Chymotrypsin, trypsin and carboxypeptdase do the rest of the digestion of protein.

Question 10.
Explain the term thecodont and diphyodont.
Answer:
Thecodont. In human beings each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone. This type of attachment is called the codont.

Diphyodont. Majority of mammals including human beings form two sets of teeth during their life, a set of temporary milk or deciduous teeth replaced by a set of permanent or adult teeth. This type of dentition is called diphyodont.

Question 11.
Name different types of teeth and their number in an adult human.
Answer:
An adult human has 32 permanent teeth which are four different types (Heterodont dentition)

Plus One Digestion and Absorption Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In intestine, food materials are absorbed through
(a) villi
(b) subtentacular cells
(c) sub-mucosa
(d) gastric glands
Answer:
(a) villi

Question 2.
Diastema refers to
(a) gap between the teeth
(b) gap between tongue and teeth
(c) ciliary cells on alimentary wall
(d) cell lining along pharynx
Answer:
(a) gap between the teeth

Question 3.
Pylorus is present between
(a) small and large intestine
(b) pancreas and small intestine
(c) oesophagus and stomach
(d) stomach and duodenum
Answer:
(d) stomach and duodenum

Question 4.
Elephant tusks are
(a) molars
(b) canines
(c) incisors
(d) premolars
Answer:
(c) incisors

Question 5.
Which of the following cells produce HCL
(a) beta-cells
(b) alpha-cells
(c) Oxyntic cells
(d) Chief cells
Answer:
(c) Oxyntic cells

Question 6.
Most abundant mineral of animal body is
(a) iron
(b) sodium
(c) potassium
(d) calcium
Answer:
(d) calcium

Question 7.
Bile salts act as activator of which enzyme?
(a) Pepsinogen
(b) Trypsinogen
(c) Lipase
(d) Pancreatic amylase
Answer:
(c) Lipase

Question 8.
When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from
(a) marasmus
(b) rickets
(c) kwashiorkor
(d) pellagra
Answer:
(a) marasmus

Question 9.
Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?
(a) protein and starch
(b) Starch and fat
(c) fat and cellulose
(d) Starch and cellulose
Answer:
(c) fat and cellulose

Question 10.
A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother’s milk, which is white in colour but the stools, which the infant passes out is quite yellowish. This yellow colour is due to
(a) intestinal juice
(b) bile pigments passed through bile juice
(c) undigested milk protein casein
(d) pancreaticjuice poured into duodenum
Answer:
(b) bile pigments passed through bile juice

Question 11.
Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?
(a) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
(b) Fructose and amino acids arc abosrbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+
(c) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries
(d) About 60°o of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth
Answer:
(c) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries

Question 12.
Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in
(a) oesophagus
(b) ileum
(c) pancreas
(d) duodenum
Answer:
(d) duodenum

Question 13.
FAD is a coenzyme derived from
(a) riboflavin
(b) vitamin-B12
(c) thiamine
(d) niacin
Answer:
(b) vitamin-B12

Question 14.
The pH of the digestive juices within the human small intestine is between 7.5 and 8.5. This environment is slightly.
(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) neutral
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) basic

Question 15.
Lipids, which can be found in oil based salad dressings and ice cream, during digestion are splitted into
(a) fatty acids and glycerol
(b) glycerol and amino acids
(c) glucose and fatty acids
(d) glucose and amino acids
Answer:
(a) fatty acids and glycerol

Question 16.
Crypts of Leiberkuhn are involved in
(a) secretion of succus entericus
(b) secretion of rennin
(c) secretion of ptyalin
(d) digestion of food
Answer:
(a) secretion of succus entericus

Question 17.
Which of the following is an organic molecule needed by the body in small amounts?
(a) Protein
(b) Zinc
(c) Vitamin-C
(d) Monosaccharide
Answer:
(c) Vitamin-C

Question 18.
Which one is not true about vitamins?
(a) Vitamins are organic catalysts
(b) Vitamins are indispensable for life
(c) Vitamins act as a source of energy
(d) Tocopherol is anti-sterility vitamin
Answer:
(c) Vitamins act as a source of energy

Question 19.
The malnutrition disease in man is
(a) Cridu chat syndrome
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(c) Potbelly syndrome
(d) Edward’s syndrome
Answer:
(c) Potbelly syndrome

Question 20.
The process of resynthesis of food materials from simpler food molecules is called
(a) biosynthesis
(b) catabolism
(c) absorption
(d) assimilation
Answer:
(a) biosynthesis

Students can Download Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life Questions and Answers, Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Cell The Unit of Life

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which organelle is not a part of the endomembrane system?
(a) lysosome
(b) vacuole
(c) mitochondria
(d) Golgi complex
Answer:
(c) mitochondria

Question 2.
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is well developed in cells which synthesise
(a) steroids
(b) proteins
(c) carbohydrates
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) steroids

Question 3.
The type of ribosome found in prokaryotes is
(a) 70 S
(b) 80 S
(c) 60 S
(d) 50 S
Answer:
(a) 70 S

Question 4.
Who proposed the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane in 1972?
(a) Singer and Nicolson
(b) Rober Hooke
(c) Rrobertsons model
(d) Camilo golgi
Answer:
(a) Singer and Nicolson

Question 5.
An organelle with internal cross section showing the characteristic 9 + 2 arrays is
(a) microtubule
(b) microfilament
(c) cilia and flagellum
(d) tubulin
Answer:
(c) cilia and flagellum

Question 6.
Smaller, lipid-soluble molecules diffuse faster through cell membrane, but the movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by certain biomolecules named as ____________
Answer:
Proteins.

Question 7.
Name the cell organelle rich in acid hydrolase.
Answer:
Lysosome

Question 8.
Name the stacked particle present on the inner sur¬face of inner mitochondrial membrane.
Answer:
Oxysomes

Question 9.
Give the chemical nature of ribosomes.
Answer:
rRNAs and proteins

Question 10.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill up the blanks.

1. Mitochondria: Cristae
   Chloroplast: ……….
2. Moss: Capsule
   Fern: ………….

Answer:

1. Grana
2. Sporangium

Question 11.
Mark the odd one out.

1. Nucleus; Nucleoli; Centriole; Chromosome
2. Family, class, taxon, phylum

Answer:

1. Centriole
2. Taxon

Question 12.
Name the protein associated with chromosomes.
Answer:
Histones

Question 13.
The cell wall of Bacterium is made up of
(a) Cellulose
(b) Hemi cellulose
(c) Lignin
(d) Peptidoglycan
Answer:
(d) Peptidoglycan.

Question 14.
ETS is associated with F0-F1 particles and many respiratory enzymes. What is the role of F0-F1 particles in mitochondria?
Answer:
ATP synthesis

Question 15.
Why is nucleus called the director of the cell?
Answer:
It controls and coordinates all the cellular functions.

Question 16.
What will you call a cell not having ER, Golgi body, mitochondria, nuclear membrane, etc.
Answer:
Prokaryotic cell

Question 17.
Which organelles are called ribonucleoprotein particles of the cell?
Answer:
Ribosome

Question 18.
Name which cell organelle is associated with secretory activity.
Answer:
Golgi body

Question 19.
Identify the powerhouse of a cell. Give justification.
Answer:
Mitochondria – synthesis of ATP

Question 20.
Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?
(a) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria
(b) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria contain circular DNA
(d) Membrane-bound organelles are present
Answer:
(a) lt has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria.

Question 21.
Which of the following statements is true for a secretory cell?
(a) Golgi apparatus is absent
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell
(c) Only Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is present
(d) Secretory granules are formed in nucleus.
Answer:
(b) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) is easily observed in the cell

Question 22.
Name the compound which gives fluidity and functional specificity to biomembranes.
Answer:
Fluidy by lipids and functional specificity by proteins

Question 23.
Which of the following is correct?

1. Cells of all living organisms have a definite nucleus
2. Both animal and plant cells have a well-defined cell wall.

Answer:

1. false
2. false

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
While studying the stages of meiosis following features observed at one stage.

1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
2. Formation of synaptonemal complex. Identify the stage.

Answer:

1. Zygotene
2. Pachytene

Question 2.
Make a list of organelles that function as the cytoskeleton.
Answer:
The endoplasmic reticulum, microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate fibers.

Question 3.
Name two cell organelles that are double membrane-bound. Write the main functions of each.
Answer:

1. Chloroplast- Photosynthesis
2. Mitochondria – cellular respiration

Question 4.
Name the cell organelles in the cell which act as the following.

1. Protein factories
2. Powerhouse
3. Disposal unit
4. Control centres

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Mitochondria
3. Lysosomes
4. Nucleus

Question 5.
Analyse the table and arrange the matter in an appropriate order.

Answer:
1) Ribosome – 70S
2) Porin – Protein
3) Lignin – Secondary wall
4) Nucleus – Chromosome

Question 6.
Bacterial cell envelope is a complex structure. It is made up of various layers. Name the different layers in the Bacterial cell envelope.
Answer:
Glycocalyx, cell wall, and plasma membrane.

Question 7.
Pick up the odd one and state reason for your answer.
Golgi bodies, Nucteolus, Nucleus, Lysosome.
Answer:
Nucleolus. Remaining three are major cell organells seen in cytoplasm.

Question 8.
Mitochondria is called powerhouse of the cell. Comment.
Answer:
Mitochondria are the centres of production, storage, and distribution of energy for various metabolic activities of cell.

Question 9.
Table which shows a comparison of cell organisation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the diagrams of two different phases of mitosis given below and write their names..

Answer:

• A- Metaphase
• B – Anaphase

Question 11.
Interphase in cell cycle is referred to as resting phase. Do you consider this statement true? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
No. Synthesis of DNA, RNA & Protein occurs hence it is active stage.

Question 12.
Some statements related to certain cell organelles are given in column A. Identify the organelles and give their names correctly against each statement in column B.

Answer:

Question 13.
How RER is different from SER?
Answer:

1. RER – Rough endoplasmic reticulum
   Contains ribosomes – protein synthesis
2. SER – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
   Devoid of ribosome – lipid synthesis & storage

Question 14.
Most accepted model of Biomembrance is best referred as ‘Protein Icebergs in the sea of Lipid”.

1. Name the most accepted structural model for the Biomembrane.
2. Who proposed it?

Answer:

1. Fluid mosaic model
2. Singer & Nicholson

Question 15.
Functions and names of organells are given below arrange them into a table.
Mitochondria, Endoplasic reticulum, Ribosome, Chloroplast, protein synthesis, storage of energy, cytoskeleton, photosynthesis.
Answer:

• Mitochondria – Storage of energy
• Endoplasmic reticulum – Cytoskeleton
• Ribosome – Protein synthesis
• Chloroplast – Photosynthesis

Question 16.
Identify the given diagram. Copy and label the parts.

Answer:

• 1 – Stroma
• 4 – Fret channels

Question 17.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 18.
Different types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere are given below.

1. Classify them with necessary explanation.
2. What is the peculiarity of the chromosome “C”?

Answer:
1.

• A – Acrocentric chromosome – The centromere is near the end of the chromosome.
• B – Sub-metacentric chromosome – the centromere is near the middle of the chromosome.
• C – Metacentric chromosome – The centromere is at the middle of the chromosome,

2. It has both secondary constriction and a satellite.

Question 19.
Name the organelles which act as the following.

1. cell’s circulatory system
2. protein factories
3. powerhouse
4. disposal units
5. control centres

Answer:

1. Endoplasmic reticulum
2. Ribosomes
3. Mitochondria
4. Lysosomes
5. Nucleus

Question 20.
Different types of chromosomes based on the position of centromere are given below. Classify them with necessary explanation. What is the peculiarity of the chromosome “D”?

Answer:

1. A- metacen trie – media nee centromere/Satel I ite chromosome.
2. B – sub metacentric – centromere just away from median position
3. C – acrocentric
4. D – Telocentric – Centromere close to the end or terminal

Question 21.
Membrane-bound distinct structures are called organelle. An organelle that is not bounded by membrane is seen in the chloroplast and mitochondria.

1. Identify cell organelle.
2. Write down its functions.

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. Protein synthesis

Question 22.
Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in ascending order of their size. Choose the correct option among the following.
i. Mycoplasma
ii. Ostrich eggs
iii. Human RBC
iv. Bacteria
Answer:
i – iv – iii – ii

Question 23.
Is extra genomic DNA present in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? If yes, indicate their location in both the types of organisms.
Answer:
It is present in cytoplasm of prokaryotes called plasmids

Question 24.
The genomic content of the nucleus is constant for a given species whereas the extrachromosomal DNA is found to be variable among the members of a population. Explain.
Answer:

• Transfer of hereditary characters from one generation to next takes place with the help of nucleus. But
• extrachromosomal DNA is not under the control of nuclear DNA its copy number varies in different organism.

Question 25.
Briefly give the contributions of the following scientists in formulating the cell theory.

1. Robert Virchow
2. Schielden and Schwann

Answer:

1. Omnis cellula-e-cellular means new cells arise from pre-existing cells. It is the contribution of Rudolf Virchow.
2. They have independently formulated the concept of cell theory i.e all cells are composed of cells and their products.

Schielden and Schwann-botanist and zoologist respectively.

Question 26.
Since the functions of certain membranous organelles are coordinated they are considered together as endomembrane system. Name the organelles included in this group.
Answer:
Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, Lysosome, and vacuole.

Question 27.
An organelle is called “The powerhouse of the cell”

1. Name the organelle.
2. Why is it said so?

Answer:

1. Mitochondria
2. Here the Energy (ATP) production, storage, and distribution takes place. So it is called a powerhouse of the cell.

Question 28.
The fluid mosaic model is a widely accepted model of cell membrance. Why?. Who proposed this model?
Answer:
It is the model of the plasma membrane consists of proteins and phospholipid bilayer. It is otherwise known as protein and iceberg in a sea of lipids. Singer and Nicolson

Question 29.
Match the column A, B & C Appropriately

Answer:

Question 30.
A non-membrane cell organelles is common to both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

1. Which is that cell organelle?
2. What is its function?

Answer:

1. Ribosome
2. It helps in protein synthesis. Ribosome is the protein synthesising machinery in both prokaryotes & Eukaryotes.

Question 31.
While looking through the microscope Ramesh saw few organisms. Help him to distinguish these organisms into Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
Answer:

• Prokaryotic organisms are single celled but without definite nucleus.
• Eukaryotic organisms are many celled with definite nucleus.

Question 32.
Cancer cells have numerous ribosomes’ Comment.
Answer:
Cancer cells undergoes uncontrolled and unwanted multiplication. It requires protein in large amounts. Hence numerous ribosomes are found in cancer cells.

Question 33.

Answer:

Question 34.
What is a tonoplast?
Answer:

1. Outer membrane of mitochondria
2. Inner membrane of chloroplast
3. Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells
4. Cell membrane of a plant cell
5. Membrane boundary of the vacuole of plant cells

Question 35.
What structural and functional attributes must a cell have to be called a living cell?
Answer:
Living cell must possess cell membrane and protoplasm (cytoplasm and nucleus)

Question 36.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention its function?
Answer:

• Mesosome is the infoldings of plasma membrane of gram +bacteria.
• Respiration, wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells

Question 37.
Multicellular organisms have division of labour Explain.
Answer:
In multicellular organisms .different cells become specialized in their structure to perform a specialized function by coordinating to form different types of tissues that coordinate to form different organs. Each organ is specialized to perform a specific function.

Question 38.
Give the significance of osmosis.
Answer:
It helps in the absorption of water by roots, opening, and closing of stomata, seed germination, etc.

Question 39.
Why is ER called cell circulatory system?
Answer:
Because it helps in transportation of materials between cytoplasm and nuclueus.

Question 40.
What are thylakoids? Why are these called structural and funcional unit of chloroplasts?
Answer:

• They are oval shaped sacs which lie superimposed in the stroma of chloroplast to form grana.
• These have enzymes for photochemical reactions of photosynthesis as have chlorophyll-containing quatasomes.

Question 41.
Name two cell-organelles that are double membrane-bound. What are the characteristics of these two organelles? State their functions.
Answer:
Golgi body and Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
1. Golgi body:

• It perform the function of packaging materials.
• The site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.

2. Endoplasmic reticulum:

• RER type involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
• SER is the major site of synthesis of lipids.

Question 42.
In some bacteria cell envelope consists of loose layer but in others, it appears as thick and tough layer. Name the two types of layers.
Answer:

• Loose layer – slime layer
• Thick and tough layer – Capsule

Question 43.
Phospho lipid bilayer with peripheral and integral proteins are arranged and forms quasifluid nature is found in almost all organisms.

1. Which is the best method explains the above statement?
2. Give its function.

Answer:

1. Fluid mosaic concept
2. Transport of molecules

Question 44.
The cross-section of cilia/flagella shows 9 + 2 arrangement and 9 + 0 in centriole.

1. What is the difference between the above two arrangements?
2. What is the function of cilia and centriole?

Answer:

1. In first case 9 doublet fibrils with 2 singlet fibrils and in the second case 9 triplet fibrils but no central fibrils
2. cilia helps in locomotion and centriole helps in assembly of spindle apparatus.

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do neutral solutes move to cross the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecule also move across it in the same way? If not then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
1. Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane by diffusion along the concentration gradient.

2. Polar molecule cannot move across it in the same way. Polar molecules require a carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane.

3. Some ions or molecules are transported across the membrane against their concentration gradient, which is an energy-dependent process. It is called active transport.

Question 2.
When a 5% glucose solution and an 8%glucose solution are separated by a semipermeable membrane, explain

1. Which solution has a greater osmotic pressure
2. In which direction osmosis occurs
3. Which solution will increase in volume

Answer:

1. 8% glucose solution
2. 5 – 8% glucose solution
3. 8% glucose solution

Question 3.
Structure of a chloroplast is given below. Write the parts in the place of numbers.

Answer:

1. Stroma
2. Lamella
3. Granum
4. Fret
5. Periplastidial space

Question 4.
Differentiate the following terms:

1. Polysome and Mesosome
2. Amyloplast and Aleuroplast
3. RER and SER

Answer:
1. Polysome contains ribosome – Protein synthesis
Mesosome – cellular respiration

2. Aleuroplast-store Protein
Amyloplast – store Starch

3. RER- Rough endo plasmic reticulum
SER – Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 5.
Match the terms in column A & B.

Answer:

Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 7.
Identify the statement given below is true /false.

1. Robert Brown discovered cell.
2. Schleiden and 9chwann formulated cell theory.
3. Virchow explained that cells are formed from preexisting cells.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True

Question 8.
Some cell organells are given below Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, mitochondria, chloroplast, vacuole, lysosome, microbodies, and centriole

1. Identify the cell organelles belongs to the endomembrane system.
2. Differentiate the cell organelles into membrane-bound and non-membrane bound.
3. which is the cell organelle only found in animal cell but not in a plant cells.

Answer:
1. Endoplasmic reticulum, golgi complex .vacuole, lysosome
2.

3. centriole

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.
(b) Schleiden and Schwann formulated the cell theory.
(c) Virchow explained that cells are formed from preexisting cells.
(d) A unicellular organism carries out its life activities within a single cell.
Answer:
(a) Robert Brown discovered the cell.

Question 2.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 3.
What is a mesosome in a prokaryotic cell? Mention the functions that it performs.
Answer:
In prokaryotes, the extension of plasma membrane into cell makes a membranous structure called mesosoma. They help in cell wall formation and DNA replication.

Question 4.
How do neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane? Can the polar molecules also move across it in the same way? If not, then how are these transported across the membrane?
Answer:
Neutral solutes move across the plasma membrane through osmosis. On the other hand, polar molecules cannot pass through the non-polar membrane. They require a carrier protein to help them to move across the membrane. Such transport requires energy and is called active transport.

Question 5.
What is stomatal apparatus? Explain the structure of stomata with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves. Stomata regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange. Each stomata is composed of two bean-shaped cells known as guard cellls. In grasses, the guard cells are dumbbell-shaped.

The outer walls of guard cells (away from the stomatal pore) are thin and the inner walls (towards the stomatal pore) are highly thickened. The guard cells possess chloroplasts and regulate the opening and closing of stomata.

Question 6.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) cells of all living organisms have a nucleus.
(b) Both animal and plant cells have a well-defined cell wall.
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles.
(d) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials.
Answer:
(c) In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles.

Question 7.
New cells generate from
(a) bacterial fermentation
(b) regeneration of old cells
(c) pre-existing cells
(d) abiotic materials
Answer:
(c) Pre-existing cells

Plus One Botany Cell The Unit of Life Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which one is single membrane cell organelle?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Chloroplast
Answer:
(c) Lysosomes

Question 2.
The main function of lysosome is
(a) sexual reproduction
(b) extracellular digestion
(c) intracellular digestion
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 3.
Endoplasmic reticulum is in continuation with
(a) Golgi body
(b) nuclear wall
(c) mitochondria
(d) cell wall
Answer:
(b) nuclear wall

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a function of vacuole in plant cell?
(a) Storage
(b) Waste disposal
(c) Cell elongation and protection
(d) Production of hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
(c) Cell elongation and protection

Question 5.
The ATP synthase of chloroplasts is like that of
(a) peroxisomes
(b) Golgi body
(c) microsomes
(d) mitochondria
Answer:
(d) mitochondria

Question 6.
Fat is stored in the plant cell in
(a) lysosome
(b) spherosome
(c) microsome
(d) peroxisome
Answer:
(b) spherosome

Question 7.
F1 -particles comprise of
(a) head and base
(b) base and stalk
(c) head and stalk
(d) head, base, and stalk
Answer:
(a) head and base

Question 8.
Term basal body is associated with the development of
(a) cilia and flagella
(b) cell plate
(c) phragmoplast
(d) kinetochore
Answer:
(a) cilia and flagella

Question 9.
Golgi body receives materials from
(a) lysosome
(b) endoplasmic reticulum
(c) mitochondria
(d) cell membrane
Answer:
(b) endoplasmic reticulum

Question 10.
Quantasomes are found in
(a) mitochondria
(b) chloroplast
(c) lysosome
(d) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
(b) chloroplast

Question 11.
The term mitochondria was given by
(a) Benda
(b) Altmann
(c) Palade
(d) de Duve
Answer:
(a) Benda

Question 12.
The prokaryotic cell does not contain
(a) chromosome
(b) mitochondria
(c) plasma membrane
(d) ribosome
Answer:
(b) mitochondria

Question 13.
Organelle important in spindle formation during nuclear division is
(a) Golgi body
(b) chloroplast
(c) centriole
(d) mitochondrion
Answer:
(c) centriole

Question 14.
The surface of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is covered with
(a) ribosome
(b) DNA
(c) RNA
(d) glucose
Answer:
(a) ribosome

Question 15.
Spindles are formed by
(a) microtubules
(b) golgi body
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
(d) peroxisome
Answer:
(a) microtubules

Question 16.
In plants, vacuole contains
(a) soil
(b) water and dissolved substance
(c) cytoplasm
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) water and dissolved substance

Question 17.
Which cell organelle is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell?
(a) Ribosome
(b) Mitochondria
(c) ER
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Ribosome

Question 18.
Cilia are
(a) short (5-10 pm) hair-like narrow protoplasmic process
(b) with sweeping or bendular movements
(c) more numerous
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 19.
Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the chioroplasts and mitochondria is based on
(a) proton gradient
(b) accumulation of K ions
(c) accumulation of Na ions
(d) membrane potential
Answer:
(a) proton gradient

Question 20.
An organism exclusively with 70S type of ribosomes contains one of the following
(a) DNA enclosed within the nuclear membrane
(b) circular naked DNA
(c) double-stranded DNA with protein coat
(d) single-stranded DNA with protein coat
Answer:
(b) circular naked DNA