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Students can Download Chapter 1 Overview of Computerised Accounting System Questions and Answers, Plus Two Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Overview of Computerised Accounting System

Plus Two Accountancy Overview of Computerised Accounting System One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Accounting Packages are developed on the basis of
(a) Accounting concepts
(b) Accounting conventions
(c) Both Accounting concepts and Conventions
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both Accounting concepts and Conventions

Question 2.
What type of Software is an Accounting Package?
(a) System Software
(b) Application Software
(c) Utility Software
(d) Basic
Answer:
(b) Application Software

Question 3.
The components of computerised accounting system are
(a) Data, Report, Ledger, software, Hardware
(b) Software, Hardware, People, Procedure, Data
(c) Data, Coding, Procedure, Objective, Output
(d) People, Procedure, Hard ware, software
Answer:
(b) Software, Hardware, People, Procedure, Data

Question 4.
Grouping of Accounts means the classification of data from:
(a) Assets, Capital, and Liabilities
(b) Assets, Capital, Liabilities, Revenues & Expenses
(c) Assets, Owners equity, Revenue & Expenses
(d) Capital, Liabilities, Revenues, & Expenses
Answer:
(b) Assets, Capital, Liabilities, Revenues & Expenses

Question 5.
Codification of Accounts required for the purpose of:
(a) Hierarchical relationship between groups and components
(b) Data processing faster and preparing of final accounts
(c) Keeping data and information secured
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Hierarchical relationship between groups and components

Question 6.
Method of codification should be
(a) Such that it leads to grouping of accounts
(b) An identification mark
(c) Easy to understand and leads to grouping of accounts
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Easy to understand and leads to grouping of accounts

Question 7.
Final account subsystem in Accounting Information System (AIS) deals with
(a) Preparation of budgets
(b) Preparation of Pay Roll
(c) Preparation of Final Accounts
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Preparation of Final Accounts

Question 8.
Pick the odd one out
(a) Password security
(b) Data Audit
(c) Data Bank
(d) Data vault
Answer:
(c) Data Bank

Question 9.
Which among the following is an example of mnemonic codes.
(a) AS03, AS04, AS05
(b) 1925, 1926, 1927, 1928
(c) ACC, ECO, ENG, MAL
(d) 001-100, 101-200, 201-300, 301-400
Answer:
(c) ACC, ECO, ENG, MAL

Question 10.
Which among the following deals with generation of reports that are vital for management decision making?
(a) Costing sub system
(b) Pay Roll Accounting Sub system
(c) Budget Sub System
(d) Management Information System
Answer:
(d) Management Information System

Question 11.
The need of codification is
(a) Easy to process data
(b) Keeping proper records
(c) The generation of block codes
(d) The encryption of data
Answer:
(d) The encryption of data

Question 12.
Choose the correct pair
(a) Cash and Bank sub system – Deals with receipts and payments of cash
(b) Inventory subsystem – deals with recording of sales
(c) Payroll Accounting sub system – deals with the preparation of final accounts
(d) Accounts receivable sub system – deals with expenses.
Answer:
(a) Cash and Bank sub system – Deals with receipts and payments of cash

Plus Two Accountancy Overview of Computerised Accounting System Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the Five pillers of computerised Accounting System.
Answer:
Procedure, Data, people, Hardware and software

Question 2.
What is computerised accounting?
Answer:
Computerised accounting is the process of recording business transactions and generating financial statements and reports with the help of computer.

Question 3.
List down any Five popular accounting softwares available in India.
Answer:
GNUKhata, Tally, Dac Easy, Tata Ex, Peach Tree

Question 4.
Define Data
Answer:
Data is raw, unorganised facts that need to be processed. Data can be something simple and useless until it is organised.
When data is processed, organised, structured or presented in a given context so as to make it useful, it is called information. A computer is an information processing machine. Computers process data to produce information

Question 5.
Write down any two features of computerised accounting system
Answer:
Features of computerised accounting system:
1. Simple and Integrated:
Computerised accounting system is designed to integrate all the business operations such as sales, finance, purchase, etc.

2. Accuracy and speed:
Computrised Accounting system provides data entry forms for fast and accurate data entry of the transactions.

3. Scalability:
The system can cope easily with the increase in the volume of business transactions. The software can be used for any size and type of the organisation.

Question 6.
What are the account groups of Trading Account under Computerised Accounting System?
Answer:

• Sales account
• Purchase account
• Direct Expenses Account
• Direct Incomes Account

Question 7.
Complete the Table
Name of Account –  Account group in financial Account
Sundry Debtors –  Balance sheet, Asset side

1. Indirect Income __________________________
2. Current Liabilities ________________________
3. Stock in hand ____________________________
4. Sales Account ___________________________

Answer:

1. Profit & Loss Account, Credit side
2. Balances Sheet, Liability side
3. Balance Sheet, Asset side
4. Trading Account, Credit side

Question 8.
What do you mean by sequential code? Give example.
Answer:
Sequential codes:
Here numbers or alphabets are assigned in consecutive order. These codes are applied primarily to source documents such as cheques, invoices, etc.
Example:

Question 9.
What are the basic accounting reports prepared by Computerised Accounting System?
Answer:

• Day Book/ Journals
• Ledges
• Trial balance
• Profit and Loss Account
• Balance Sheet

Plus Two Accountancy Overview of Computerised Accounting System Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A computerised accounting software is developed for a company. In Ledger Group, Expenses are divided in to direct expenses and indirect expenses. All the possible expenses of the company are listed under these two sub headings. Appropriate identification numbers are assigned to each such items.

1. Identify the concepts referred to this context
2. Give explanations to each.

Answer:

1. Grouping of Accounts and codification of Accounts
2. Grouping of accounts means classifying the ledger accounts and organizing them under major heads of accounts
   The process of assigning codes to account groups and ledger groups is called codification of accounts.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of computerised Accounting System?
Answer:

• Financial reports can be prepared in time
• Alterations and additions in transactions are easy and gives the changed result in all books of accounts instantly
• It ensures effective control over the system
• Economy in the processing of accounting data
• Confidentiality of data is maintained
• The closing balance of one financial year is automatically carried forward to next financial year

Question 3.
Create an accounting hierarchy for the following ledger account:

• Cash-in-hand
• Provisions for Tax
• Land and Buildings
• Bank Account (Current)
• Trade Investments
• Investments in Govt. Securities
• Deposits with Bank
• Duties and Taxes
• Sundry Debtors

Answer:

• Fixed assets: Land & Building Investment in Govt. Securities
• Current assets: Cash in hand Trade Investments
• Bank: Bank a/c (Current), Deposits with bank
• Sundry debtors: Sundry debtors
• Loans & advances: Provision for Tax
• Duties and Taxes: Duties of Taxes

Question 4.
What are the different types of codes commonly used in CAS?
Answer:
Sequential codes:
Here numbers or alphabets are assigned in consecutive order. These codes are applied primarily to source documents such as cheques, invoices, etc.
Example:

2. Block Codes:
In Block codes, a range of numbers is alloted to a particular account group. Here, numbers within a range follow sequential coding scheme.
Room Numbering System of a Lodge

Coding of Dresses

3. Mnemonic codes:
A mnemonic code consists of alphabets or abbreviations as symbols to codify an account.
1.

2.

Question 5.
Distinguish between Data Audit and Data Vault
Answer:
Security Features of Computerised Accounting Software
1. Data Audit:
It enables one to know as to who and what changes have been made in the original data there by helping and fixing the responsibility of the person who has manipulated the data and ensures data integrity.

2. Data Vault:
Software provides additional security through data encryption. Encryption means scrambling the data so as to make its interpretation impossible.

Question 6.
What is the activity sequence of computerised Accounting information processing model?
Answer:

• Collect data
• Organise data
• Communicate Accounting Information

Question 7.
Akhil, your class mate, argues that computerised Accounting System suffers some draw

1. Do you agree with this?
2. Give your justification

Answer:

1. I agree
2. Limitations of CAS.
   • Faster Obsolescence of technology necessitates frequently upgradation in accounting software.
   • Data may be lost or corrupted due to power interruption.
   • Un programmed reports can not be generated
   • Alterations in transactions are easy. This reduces the reliability of accounting work.
   • Work with CAS is expensive.

Question 8.
What are the different components of computerised Accounting System?
Answer:
Components of computerised Accounting System:

• Procedure: A logical sequence of actions to perform a task.
• Data: The raw fact for any business operation.
• People: Users of computerised accounting system
• Hardware: The physical components of a computer.
• Software: A set of programmes to do a work.

Plus Two Accountancy Overview of Computerised Accounting System Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In the computerised accounting package used by a trading concern, the fixed assets and current assets are combined to form the assets group. The fixed assets are sub divided into tangible and intangible assets.
Show the hierarchy of this ledger group, assuming various assets items.
Answer:

Question 2.
Illustrate with example methodology to develop coding structure.
Answer:
Methodology to Develop Coding Structure:
Let us examine the 15 digit Goods and Services Tax Identification Number (GSTIN). GSTIN is a 15 digit unique code that is assigned to each taxpayer, which will be state-wise and PAN-based.

GSTIN Format or Structure (GSTIN):

From the above details, we can identify that GSTIN is a combination of state code, PAN, number of registration within the state, default digit and check code to detect errors.

Another Example:
Let us examine how to develop a coding structure for students in Thrissur district under DHSE. The first step is to develop a hierarchy of the school system and attributes

Thus we allocate 13 digit code to a student.

Question 3.
What do you mean by AIS? What are the different subsystems of AIS?
Answer:
Accounting Information System (AIS):
Accounting Information System (AIS) and its various subsystems may be implemented through the Computerised Accounting System (CAS). Such system of AIS are described below.

1. Cash and Bank subsystem:
Receipts and payments of cash

2. Sales and Accounts Receivable sub system:
Maintaining of sales and Receivables ledgers.

3. Inventory sub system:
Purchase and sale of goods, Specifying the price, quantity, and date.

4. Purchase and Accounts Payable Sub system:
Maintaining of purchase and payable leadgers.

5. Pav Roll Accounting sub System:
Payment of salaries and wages.

6. Fixed Assets Accounting Sub system:
Purcahses, additions, sale and usage of fixed assets.

7. Expense Accounting sub system:
Various types of expenses.

8. Tax Accounting Sub system:
Deals with GSTIN, Income Tax etc.

9. Final Accounts sub system:
Preparation of final accounts.

10. Costing sub system:
Ascertainment of cost of goods produced.

11. Budget sub system:
Preparation of budgets.

12. Management information sub system (MIS):
Preparation of reports that are vital for management decision making.

Question 4.
What is DATA Encryption? What are the security features of CAS?
Answer:
Security Features of Computerised Accounting Software:
Every accounting software ensures data security, safety, and confidentiality by providing the features like Password Security, Data Audit and Data Vault.

1. Password Security:
Password is the key to allow the access to the system. Computerised accounting system protects the unauthorised persons from accessing to the business data. Only authorised person, who is supplied with the password, can enter to the system.

2. Data Audit:
It enables one to know as to who and what changes have been made in the original data there by helping and fixing the responsibility of the person who has manipulated the data and ensures data integrity.

3. Data Vault:
Software provides additional security through data encryption. Encryption means scrambling the data so as to make its interpretation impossible.

Question 5.
Draw a chart showing different sub systems of Accounting information system.
Answer:
Accounting Information System (AIS):
Accounting Information System (AIS) and its various sub-systems may be implemented through Compterised Accounting System (CAS). Such system of AIS are described below.

1. Cash and Bank subsystem:
Receipts and payments of cash

2. Sales and Accounts Receivable sub system:
Maintaining of sales and Receivables ledgers.

3. Inventory sub system:
Purchase and sale of goods, Specifying the price, quantity, and date.

4. Purchase and Accounts Payable Sub system:
Maintaing of purchase and payable leadgers.

5. Pav Roll Accounting sub System:
Payment of salaries and wages.

6. Fixed Assets Accounting Sub system:
Purcahses, additions, sale and usage of fixed assets.

7. Expense Accounting sub system:
Various types of expenses.

8. Tax Accounting Sub system:
Deals with GSTIN, Income Tax, etc.

9. Final Accounts sub system:
Preparation of final accounts.

10. Costing sub system:
Ascertainment of cost of goods produced.

11. Budget sub system:
Preparation of budgets.

12. Management information sub system (MIS):
Preparation of reports that are vital for management decision making.

Question 6.
Differentiate between Data and Information.
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 1 The Solid State Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The Solid State

Plus Two Chemistry The Solid State One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The 14 possible three dimensional crystal lattices are called ____________.
Answer:
Bravais Lattices

Question 2.
Which of the following type of cubic lattices has maximum number of atoms per unit cell?
(a) simple cubic
(b) body centred cubic
(c) face centred cubic
(d) all have same
Answer:
(c) face centred cubic (4 atoms per unit cell)

Question 3.
F- centres in an ionic crystal are
(a) lattice sites containing electrones
(b) interstitial sites containing electrons
(c) lattice cites that are vacant
(d) interstitial sites containing electrones
Answer:
(a) lattice sites containing electrons

Question 4.
The colour imparted by excess potassium in KCl crystal is ________.
Answer:
Violet (or lilac)

Question 5.
Which of the following substances show anti-ferromagnetism?
(a) ZrO₂
(b) CdO
(c) CrO₂
(d) Mn₂O₃
Answer:
(d) Mn₂O₃

Question 6.
The number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in a ccp array of 100 atoms are respectively.
Answer:
200 and 100

Question 7.
Potassium dichromate belongs to which crystal system.
Answer:
Triclinic

Question 8.
A solid compound contains XYZ atoms in a cubic lattice with X atoms occupying the corners, Y atoms in the body centred positions and Z atoms at the centres of faces of the unit cell. What is the empirical formula of the compound Answer:
XYZ₃

Question 9.
The empty space in body centred cubic lattice is
Answer:
32%

Question 10.
Which solid has the weakest intermolecular force
Answer:
ice

Question 11.
In crystalline solid, atoms, ions or molecules are held in an orderly array. But some point defect is observed in a crystal, when a vacancy is created by an atom or ion dislocated from its normal position to an interstitial site. What is the defect called?
Answer:
Frenkel defect

Plus Two Chemistry The Solid State Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Write the names of A and B?
2. Identify and write the name of the shaded parts of A and B?

Answer:
1. Names of A and B are:

• Hexagonal close packing.
• Square close packing,

2. shaded parts of A and B are:

• Is octahedral void; in
• Is tetrahedral void.

Question 2.
Teacher said that Frenkel defect will not happen in alkali metal halides. Ramu asked the reason for this. Can you explain?
Answer:
Frenkel defect is favoured by the small size of cations. In alkali metal halides both cations and anions are of almost same size.

Question 3.
“Dielectric substances are related to conductors.”
“Dielectric substances do not conduct electricity at normal condition”
These are two arguments of a class discussion.

1. Do you agree with these arguments?
2. If yes, justify both statements?

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Dielectric substances do not conduct electricity through them. But they can be made conductors either by heating the substances or by applying mechanical stress.

Question 4.

1. Identify A and B.
2. Explain them.

Answer:
1. A and B.

• A – Square close packed (scp) arrangement in two dimensions.
• B- Hexagonal close packed (hep) arrangement in two dimensions.

2. Explanation:

(a) A – Square close packed:
(scp) arrangement in two dimensions – particles of the second row are arranged just below the first row. Similarly, particles of third row are arranged just below the particles of the second row and so on. Here vertical as well as horizontal alignment is possible. In this arrangement each particle is in direct contact with four other particles and the coordination number is 4.

(b) B- Hexagonal close packed:
(hep) arrangement in two dimensions – In this arrangement, particles of second row are arranged in the depressions of the particles of the first row. Similarly the particles of the third row are arranged in the depressions of the particles of the second row. In this arrangement, each particle is in direct contact with six other particles and the coordination number is 6.

Question 5.

1. Name the unit of magnetic moment.
2. Match the following.
   • Paramagnetic – Fe₃O₄
   • Ferromagnetic – O₂
   • Antiferromagnetic – CrO₂
   • Ferrimagnetic – MnO

Answer:

1. Bohr magneton (μ_B)
2. Match
   • Paramagnetic – O₂
   • Ferromagnetic – CrO₂
   • Antiferromagnetic – MnO
   • Ferrimagnetic – Fe_3O4

Question 6.
All crystals exhibit imperfections.

1. Which law is related to this statement?
2. Draw the picture showing Frenkel defect.

Answer:
1. Third law of thermodynamics.

2.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Anisotropy how is it differ from isotropy
Answer:

Question 8.
A cubic solid is made of two elements P and Q. Atoms of Q are at the corners of the cube and P at the body-centre. What is the formula of the compound? What are the coordination numbers of P and Q?
Answer:
The atom at the corner makes \(\frac{1}{8}\) contribution while atom at body centre makes 1 contribution to the unit cell.
No. of atoms of Q per unit cell = 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) = 1
No. of atoms of P per unit cell = 1 × 1 = 1 Therefore, formula of the compound is PQ.
The atom at the body centre would be in contact with all the atoms at the corners. Hence, the coordination number of P is 8.
Similarly, coordination number of Q is 8 because it is shared by 8 other atoms.

Question 9.
Packing efficiency differ for B.C.C, F.C.C and Simple cube what is packing efficiency?
Answer:
Packing efficiency is the % of total space filled by the particle.

OR

Packing efficiency = \(\frac{\text { Volume occupied by spheres in the unit cell }}{\text { Total volume of the unit cell }} \times 100[/latex ]

Question 10.
If NaCl is doped with 10^-3 mol % of SrCl₂, what is the concentration of cation vacancies?
Answer:
Every Sr²⁺ ion causes one cation vacancy (because two Na⁺ ions are replaced by one Sr²⁺ and it occupies the site of one Na⁺ ion and the other site remains vacant.) Therefore, introduction of 10^-3 moles of SrCl₂ per 100 moles of NaCl would introduce 10^-3 moles cation vacancies in 100 moles of NaCl.
No. of vacancies per mole of NaCl = [latex]\frac{10^{-3}}{100}\) × 6.02 × 10²³ = 6.02 × 10¹⁸

Question 11.
Even crystal, the substance which we consider as the most perfect solid, shows some defects or imperfections.

1. Which law in thermodynamics deals with this topic?
2. Explain the law.

Answer:

1. Third law of thermodynamics
2. Entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is zero at absolute zero temperature.

Question 12.
Excess of Li makes LiCl crystal pink and excess of K makes KCl crystals lilac. Is this true? How will you account for the above processes?
Answer:
Yes. This is an example for metal excess defect due to anion vacancies. The colour is due to the presence of F – centre in the crystals.

Question 13.
What are the consequences of Schottky and Frenkel defects?
Answer:
Frenkel defect does not change the density of the crystal but Schottky defect decreases the density of the substance.

Question 14.
Calculate the number of atoms per unit cell of silver which crystallizes in fee lattice.
Answer:

• Contribution of particles from one corner = 1/8
• Contribution from 8 corners = 1/8 × 8 = 1
• Contribution from 6 face centres = 1/2 × 6 = 3
• Total number of particles present in the unit cell of the crystal = 1 + 3 = 4
• Number of atoms present in one unit cell of Ag = 4.

Question 15.
Explain the type of voids found in three-dimensional close packing in crystals.
Answer:
Two voids

Plus Two Chemistry The Solid State Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In an answer paper a student wrote as “carborundum crystals are very soft.”

1. Do you agree with this?
2. What is your opinion?
3. In which crystal type carborundum is included?
4. Substantiate your view.

Answer:

1. No.
2. Carborundum crystals are very hard.
3. Covalent crystal.
4. In the case of covalent crystals the constituent particles are atoms and they are held together by strong covalent bond network. In carborundum covalent bond network is constituted by Si and C atom which are held very strongly at their positions. Hence, carborundum is a covalent crystal and is very hard.

Question 2.
During a seminar a student asked another student, “Can NaCl give flame test?”

1. Write your answer.
2. Write the colour of sodium during flame test.
3. Write the name of the point which is responsible for the colour of alkali metal halides having excess metal ions.

Answer:

1. Yes
2. Golden yellow
3. F-centre electron trapped anion vaccancy

Question 3.
Solids are classified into two types.

1. What are they?
2. Give two examples.
3. Give 3 features of them.

Answer:
1. Crystalline and amorphous.

2. Crystalline – NaCl, KCl. Amorphous-Plastic, rubber.

3.

Question 4.
Teacher explained that due to a stoichiometric defect, the density of a crystal changes.

1. Name the defect.
2. What change can we observe?
3. Give an example.

Answer:

1. Schottky defect
2. Density decrease
3. NaCl

Question 5.
1. Packing efficiency is the percentage of total space filled by the particles. Which of the following lattices has the highest packing efficiency? Simple cubic lattice, body centered cubic lattice, hexagonal close packed lattice.

2. An element has a body centred cubic structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The density of the element is 7.2 g/cm³. How many atoms are present in 208 g of the element?
Answer:
1. Hexagonal close packed lattice.

2. a = 288 pm = 288 × 10^-10 cm
Volume of the unit cell = (288 × 10^-10cm)³
= 23.9 × 10^-24cm³
Volume of 208 g of the element
\(\frac{208 \mathrm{g}}{7.2 \mathrm{g} \mathrm{cm}^{-3}}\) = 28.88 cm³
∴ Number of units cells in 208 g =
\(\frac{28.88 \mathrm{cm}^{3}}{23.9 \times 10^{-24} \mathrm{cm}^{3}}\) = 1.208 × 10²⁴
For bcc structure, number of atoms in one unit cell = 2
∴ Number of atoms in 208 g = 2 × 1.208 × 10²⁴
= 2.416 × 10²⁴

Question 6.
Derive packing efficiency of

1. ccp and hep structure
2. Body centered cubic
3. Simple cubic

Answer:
1. Packing Efficiency in ccp and hep Structures:
In the case of ccp and hep, the edge length

We know that each unit cell in ccp structure has 4 spheres.
Volume of sphere = \(\frac{4 \pi r^{3}}{3}\)
Volume of the cube = a³

2. Packing Efficiency of Body Centred Cubic Structures:
In this case radius of a sphere.

We know that bcc has 2 spheres in the unit cell.
∴ Packing efficiency = \(\frac{2 \times \frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}}{\left[\left(\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}} r\right)\right]^{3}}\) × 100% = 68%

3. Packing Efficiency is Simple Cubic Lattice:
In simple cubic lattice edge length ‘a’ and radius of the sphere ‘r’ are related as,

We know that a simple cubic unit cell contains only one sphere.
∴ Packing efficiency = \(\frac{1 \times \frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}}{(2 r)^{3}}\) × 100%
= 52.36%
= 52.4%

Question 7.
Iron (II) oxide crystallise in cubic structure with unit cell edge of 5.0 Å If the density of the oxide is 3.8 g cm^-3. Calculate the no.of Fe²⁺ and O^2- present in each unit cell, [atomic mass of Fe = 56, O = 16] (3)
Answer:
Cell edge a = 5.0Å = 5.0 × 10^-1 m = 5 × 10^-8 cm
Density = 3.8 g/cm³ Molecular mass of FeO = 56 + 16 = 72 u
N_A = 6.022 × 10²³
d = \(\frac{Z M}{N_{A} a^{3}}\)
Z = \(\frac{d N_{A} a^{3}}{M}=\frac{3.8 \times 6.022 \times 10^{23}}{72} \times\left(5 \times 10^{-8}\right)^{3}\)
= 3.97 = 4
Each cell contain 4 FeO molecule every FeO molecule contain one Fe²⁺ and one O^2- ion. So no. of Fe²⁺ ion =4 no.of O^2- ion = 4

Question 8.
Which are the two types of close packing in two dimension. What are its differences?
Answer:
1. Square close packing or AAA type.

• Coordination no.4. One sphere is in touch with 4 other spheres
• 2^nd raw placed exactly under the first raw

2. Hexagonal close packing or AB AB Type.

• Coordination no.6 ie. one spheres is in touch with other six spheres.
• 2^nd raw is placed in the depressions of first raw.

Question 9.
Classify the following solids as ionic, metallic, molecular, network (covalent) or amorphous.

• Tetraphosphorus decoxide (P₄O₁₀)
• Ammonium phosphate (NH₄PO₄)
• SiC
• I₂
• P₄
• Plastic
• Graphite
• Brass
• Rb
• LiBr
• Si

Answer:

• Tetraphosphorus decoxide (P₄O₁₀) – Molecularsolid
• Ammonium phosphate (NH₄PO₄) – Ionic solid
• SiC – Network(covalent) solid
• I₂ – Molecular solid
• P₄ – Molecular solid
• Plastic-Amorphous solid
• Graphite – Network(covalent) solid
• Brass – Metallic solid
• Rb- Metallic solid
• LiBr – Ionic solid
• Si – Network(covalent) solid

Question 10.
A substance A’ crystallizes in fee lattice.

1. Calculate the number of atoms present per unit cell of ‘A’.
2. In a crystalline solid AB, some vacancy is produced by missing of equal number of oppositely charged ions. What is the defect called?

Answer:

1. The number of atoms present per unit cell of ‘A’.
   • Contribution from 8 corners = 1/8 × 8 = 1
   • Contribution from centres of 6 faces = 1/2 × 6 = 3
   • Total number of atoms of A’ per unit cell = 1 +3 = 4
2. Schottky defect

Question 11.

1. What is meant by the term coordination number?
2. What is the coordination number of atoms:
   • In a cubic close-packed lattice?
   • In a body-centred cubic structure?

Answer:

1. The number of nearest neighbours in a packing is called coordination number.
2. The coordination number of atoms
   • In cubic-close packed structure each atom is in direct contact with 12 other atoms. Hence, its coordination number is 12.
   • In a body centred cubic structure coordination number is 8

Question 12.
Identify the crystal.

1. Write the name of the crystal.
2. How many particles are present the unit cell of this crystal?
3. Write the relation connecting edge length and radius of the particle.

Answer:

1. Face centred cubic crystal.
2. Particles are present the unit cell of this crystal.
   • Contribution from 8 corners = 1/8 × 8 = 1
   • Contribution from 6 face centers = 1/2 × 6 = 3
   • The total number of particles = 4
3. r = \(\frac{\sqrt{2} a}{4}=\frac{a}{2 \sqrt{2}}\).

Question 13.
1. The following diagram shows the alignment of magnetic moments for some magnetic properties.

• ↑↑↑↑↑↑
• ↑↓↑↓↑↓
• ↑↑↓↑↑↓

Identify the magnetic properties denoted by (a), (b), (c).

2. Examine the substances H₂O, NaCl, C₆H₆ and name the magnetic property common to them.
Answer:
1. The alignment of magnetic moments for some magnetic properties.

• Ferromagnetic
• Antiferromagnetic
• Ferrimagnetic

2. Diamagnetism

Question 14.
How many lattice points are there in one unit cell of the following lattices?

1. Face centred cubic
2. Body centred cubic
3. Simple cubic

Answer:

1. Face centred cubic – 4
2. Body centred cubic – 2
3. Simple cubic – 1

Plus Two Chemistry The Solid State Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

• Classify the following into crystalline and amorphous solids.
  1. NaCl
  2. Graphite
  3. Plastic
  4. Diamond
  5. Rubber
  6. KCl
  7. Wood
  8. CaCO₃
  9. Iodine
• Write any two properties of graphite.

Answer:

• Two properties of graphite
  1. It is a good conductor of electricity.
  2. Graphite is a good solid lubricant.

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:

Question 3.

1. NaCl shows mainly Schottky defect and AgCl shows Frenkel defect. Do you agree with this statement? Justify.
2. Classify the following solids into isotropic and anisotropic.
   Polyvinylchloride, Rubber, Glucose, Glass

Answer:

1. Yes. In NaCl, both Na⁺ and Cl^– are of almost same size and hence it shows Schottky defect. But in AgCl, Ag+ is smaller than Cf. Hence, it shows Frenkel defect.
2. Anisotropic-Glucose
   Isotropic – Glass, Rubber, Polyvinylchloride

Question 4.
The common salt, sodium chloride is an example for a crystal system with edge length a = b = c and axial angles α = β = γ = 90°.

1. Identify the crystal system.
2. What happens when sodium chloride crystal is heated in presence of sodium?

Answer:

1. Cubic crystal
2. Gives yellow colour to the crystal due to F centre, ie. electron trapped anion vaccancy. It is a metal excess defect.

Question 5.
Stoichiometric defects are of two types such as vacancy defects and interstitial defects.

1. Which defect is basically a vacancy defect in ionic solids?
2. Which stoichiometric defect causes the decrease in density of solid?
3. On heating white ZnO it turns yellow. Which is the crystal involved here? Explain.

Answer:

1. Schottky defect
2. Schottky defect
3. It is due to metal excess defect caused by the presence of extra cations at interstitial sites. ZnO is white in colour at room temperature. On heating it loses oxygen and turns yellow.

The excess Zn²⁺ ions move to interstitial sites and the electrons to neighbouring interstitial sites. The yellow colour of non-stoichiometric ZnO (Zn_1+xO) is due to these trapped electrons.

Question 6.

1. Why is Frenkel defect not found in alkali metal halides?
2. A crystalline solid has simple cubic structure in which P atoms are present at the corners, Q atoms are present at the edge centres and R atoms are present at the centre of the unit cell. What is the formula of the compound?

Answer:
1. Frenkel defect is favoured by the small size of cations. In alkali metal halides both cations and anions are of almost same size.

2. Number of atoms of P = \(\frac{1}{8}\) × 8 = 1
Number of atoms of Q = \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 12 = 3 4
Number of atoms of R = 1
∴ Formula of the compound is PQ₃R

Question 7.

1. Classify each of the following solids as ionic, metallic, molecular, network or amorphous.
   • I₂
   • Plastic
   • LiBr
   • SiC
2. In terms of band theory differentiate Conductors, insulators & semi conductors

Answer:

1. Classification of solids as ionic, metallic, molecular, network or amorphous.
   • I₂ – Molecular
   • Plastic – Amorphous
   • LiBr – Ionic
   • SiC – Covalent
2. Differences between Conductors, insulators & semi conductors.
   • Conductors:
     The valence band overlaps with the conduction band or no energy gap exists between them.
   • Insulators:
     The energy gap between valance band and conduction band is very large. Hence electrons from valence band cannot move into the conduction band. Semi conductors have small energy gap between valence band and conduction band.

Question 8.
On the basis of nature of constituent particles crystals are classified into four types.

1. Which are they?
2. In which type does diamond belongs to? Why?
3. Can you say whether Iodine can be written as an example of ionic crystal? Why?

Answer:

1. Ionic crystals, Molecular crystals, Covalent crystals and Metallic crystals.
2. Diamond belongs to covalent crystals, because in diamond, the constituent particles are carbon atoms connected by strong covalent bonds.
3. No. In ionic crystal the constituent particles are ions. Since the constituent particles of iodine are molecules, it is a molecular crystal.

Question 9.

1. Distinguish between A and B?
2. Explain the defect in figure B.
3. Give two examples of crystals showing this defect.

Answer:

1. Fig. A – Ideal crystal. Fig. B – Frenkel defect.
2. Frenkel defect is due to the migration of cation from its original position to the void. This type of defect is favoured by the small size of cation. As a result of this defect, the neutrality, density and stoichiometry remain the same. But the conductivity increases.
3. AgCl, AgBr

Question 10.
The teacher explained crystal defects in classroom.

1. What are the different types of crystal defects?
2. Explain with the help of diagram the important difference between Schottky and Frenkel defects?

Answer:
1. Stoichiometric defects and Non-Stoichiometric defects.

2.

Question 11.
NaCl is an example for diamagnetic substance.

1. Write an example for paramagnetic substance.
2. What is the difference between ferromagnetic and anti ferromagnetic substances?
3. In case of ferri magnetic substances net magnetic moment is not zero. Justify.

Answer:
1. CuO
2. & 3.

Question 12.
The diagram of a cubic crystal whose molecular mass = M, edge length = a, density = ρ,  is given below. N is the Avogadro number.

1. From the above given details find the mass of this cube and also the mass of N particles?
2. By equating these two equations, try to find out a suitable equation for the density of this cube.

Answer:
1. Mass of cube = volume × density = a³ ρ ……………. (1)
Mass of N particles = N × Mass of one particle
= N × \(\frac{M}{N_{A}}\) (M = Gram Atomic Mass) …………. (2)

2. The equations (1) & (2) represent the mass of the cube.
i.e., a³p = N × \(\frac{M}{N_{A}}\)
∴ \(\rho=\frac{N \times M}{a^{3} \times N_{A}}\)

Question 13.

1. Classify each of the following as being either a p- type or a n-type semiconductor.
   • Ge dopped with In
   • Si dopped with B
2. A compound is formed by two elements P and Q. The element Q forms ccp and atoms of P occupy 1/3^rd of the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?

Answer:
1. Either a p- type or a n-type semiconductor

• Ge dopped with In → p-type
• Si dopped with B → p-type

2. The formula of the compound
Q = 4
No. of tetrahedral voids = 2N = 2 × 4 = 8
P = 1/3 × 8 = 8/3
Q_8/3P₄ = Q₈P₁₂ = Q₂P₃

Plus Two Chemistry The Solid State NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following solids as ionic, metallic, molecular, network (covalent) or amorphous.

• Tetraphosphorus decoxide (P₄O₁₀)
• Ammonium phosphate (NH₄PO₄)
• SiC
• I₂
• P₄
• Plastic
• Graphite
• Brass
• Rb
• LiBr
• Si

Answer:

• Tetraphosphorus decoxide (P₄O₁₀) – Molecularsolid
• Ammonium phosphate (NH₄PO₄) – Ionic solid
• SiC – Network(covalent) solid
• I₂ – Molecular solid
• P₄ – Molecular solid
• Plastic-Amorphous solid
• Graphite – Network(covalent) solid
• Brass – Metallic solid
• Rb- Metallic solid
• LiBr – Ionic solid
• Si – Network(covalent) solid

Question 2.

1. What is meant by the term coordination number?
2. What is the coordination number of atoms:
   • In a cubic close-packed lattice?
   • In a body-centred cubic structure?

Answer:

1. The number of nearest neighbours in a packing is called coordination number.
2. The coordination number of atoms
   • In cubic-close packed structure each atom is in direct contact with 12 other atoms. Hence, its coordination number is 12.
   • In a body centred cubic structure coordination number is 8

Question 3.
How many lattice points are there in one unit cell of each of the following lattice?

1. Face-centred cubic
2. End-centred monoclinic
3. Body-centred

Answer:
1. A face-centred cubic unit cell has lattice points at the corners of the cube and at face centres. There are eight comers and six faces of the cube. Each atom at corner makes a contribution of \(\frac{1}{8}\) while each atom at face centre makes a contribution of \(\frac{1}{2}\) to the unit cell.

Therefore, the number of atoms per unit cell
= 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 6 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 1 + 3 = 4

2. A end-centred monoclinic unit cell has lattice points at the face centres of only one set (two) of faces, in addition to the lattice points at the comers of the unit cell.

Therefore, the number of atoms per unit cell =
8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 2 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 1 + 1 = 2

3. A body centred cubic unit cell has lattice points at the comers of the cube and at the body centre.

Therefore, the number of atoms per unit cell
= 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) + 1 × 1 = 1 + 1 = 2

Question 4.
A cubic solid is made of two elements P and Q. Atoms of Q are at the corners of the cube and P at the body-centre. What is the formula of the compound? What are the coordination numbers of P and Q?
Answer:
The atom at the corner makes \(\frac{1}{8}\) contribution while atom at body centre makes 1 contribution to the unit cell.
No. of atoms of Q per unit cell = 8 × \(\frac{1}{8}\) = 1
No. of atoms of P per unit cell = 1 × 1 = 1 Therefore, formula of the compound is PQ.
The atom at the body centre would be in contact with all the atoms at the corners. Hence, the coordination number of P is 8.
Similarly, the coordination number of Q is 8 because it is shared by 8 other atoms.

Question 5.
If NaCl is doped with 10^-3 mol % of SrCl₂, what is the concentration of cation vacancies?
Answer:
Every Sr²⁺ ion causes one cation vacancy (because two Na⁺ ions are replaced by one Sr²⁺ and it occupies the site of one Na⁺ ion and the other site remains vacant.) Therefore, introduction of 10^-3 moles of SrCl₂ per 100 moles of NaCl would introduce 10^-3 moles cation vacancies in 100 moles of NaCl.
No. of vacancies per mole of NaCl = \(\frac{10^{-3}}{100}\) × 6.02 × 10²³ = 6.02 × 10¹⁸

Students can Download Chapter 3 Matrices Questions and Answers, Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Matrices

Plus Two Maths Matrices Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the value of a, b and c from the following equations;
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{a-b} & {2 a+c} \\{2 a-b} & {3 c+d}
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}{-1} & {5} \\{0} & {13}\end{array}\right]\).
Answer:
Given;
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{a-b} & {2 a+c} \\{2 a-b} & {3 c+d}
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}{-1} & {5} \\{0} & {13}\end{array}\right]\)
⇒ a – b = -1, 2a + c = 5, 2a – b = 0, 3c + d = 13
⇒ a – b = -1
2a – b = 0
– a = -1
⇒ a = 1
We have, a – b = -1 ⇒ 1 – b = -1 ⇒ b = 2
⇒ 2a + c = 5 ⇒ 2 + c = 5 ⇒ c = 3
⇒ 3c + d = 13 ⇒ 9 + d = 13 ⇒ d = 4.

Question 2.
Simplify cosx\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{\cos x} & {\sin x} \\{-\sin x} & {\cos x}\end{array}\right]\) + sinx\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{\sin x} & {-\cos x} \\{\cos x} & {\sin x}\end{array}\right]\).
Answer:

Question 3.
Solve the equation for x, y z and t; if
\(2\left[\begin{array}{ll}{x} & {z} \\{y} & {t}\end{array}\right]+3\left[\begin{array}{cc}{1} & {-1} \\{0} & {2}\end{array}\right]=3\left[\begin{array}{ll}{3} & {5} \\{4} & {6}\end{array}\right]\).
Answer:

⇒ 2x + 3 = 9 ⇒ x = 3
⇒ 2z – 3 = 15 ⇒ z = 9
⇒ 2y = 12 ⇒ y = 6
⇒ 2t + 6 = 18 ⇒ t = 6.

Question 4.
Find A² – 5A + 6I If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{2} & {0} & {1} \\{2} & {1} & {3} \\{1} & {-1} & {0}\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:

A² – 5A + 6I

Question 5.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{3} & {-2} \\{4} & {-2}\end{array}\right]\) find k so that A² = kA – 2I.
Answer:

Given A² = kA – 2I

1 = 3k – 2 ⇒ k = 1.

Question 6.
Express A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{-1} & {2} & {3} \\{5} & {7} & {9} \\{-2} & {1} & {1}
\end{array}\right]\) as the sum of a symmetric and skew symmetric matrix.
Answer:

P = 1/2 (A + A^T) is symmetric.
Q = 1/2 (A – A^T) is skew symmetric.

Question 7.
Find the inverse of the following using elementary transformations.

Answer:
(i) Let A = I A

(ii) Let A = IA

(iii) Let A = IA

(iv) Let A = IA

Question 8.
Find the inverse of the matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{2} & {3} \\{-1} & {5}\end{array}\right]\) using row transformation.
Answer:
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{2} & {3} \\{-1} & {5}\end{array}\right]\)
Let A = IA

Question 9.
\(A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}{2} & {3} \\{4} & {5} \\{2} & {1}\end{array}\right] B=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{1} & {-2} & {3} \\{-4} & {2} & {5}\end{array}\right]\)

1. Find AB
2. If C is the matrix obtained from A by the transformation R₁ → 2R₁, find CB

Answer:

(ii) Since C is the matrix obtained from A by the transformation R₁ → 2R₁
⇒ C = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{4} & {6} \\{4} & {5} \\{2} & {1}\end{array}\right]\)
Then CB can be obtained by multiplying first row of AB by 2.
CB = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{-20} & {-4} & {42} \\{-16} & {2} & {37} \\{-2} & {-2} & {11}
\end{array}\right]\).

Question 10.
Construct a 3 × 4 matrix whose elements are given by

1. a_y = \(\frac{|-3 i+j|}{2}\) (2)
2. a_ij = 2i – j (2)

Answer:

a₁₃ = 0, a₁₄ = \(\frac{1}{2}\), a₂₁ = \(\frac{5}{2}\), a₂₂ = 2, a₂₃ = \(\frac{3}{2}\), a₂₄ = 1, a₃₁ = 4, a₃₂ = \(\frac{7}{2}\), a₃₃ = 3, a₃₄ = \(\frac{5}{2}\)


a₁₁ = 1, a₁₂ = 0, a₁₃= -1, a₁₄ = -2, a₂₁ = 3, a₂₂ = 2, a₂₃ = 1, a₂₄ = 0, a₃₁ = 5, a₃₂ = 4, a₃₃ = 3, a₃₄ = 2

Question 11.
Express the following matrices as the sum of a Symmetric and a Skew Symmetric matrix.
(i) \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{6} & {-2} & {2} \\{-2} & {3} & {-1} \\{2} & {-1} & {3}
\end{array}\right]\)
(ii) \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{3} & {3} & {-1} \\{-2} & {-2} & {1} \\{-4} & {-5} & {2}
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:

Question 12.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{2} & {4} & {3} \\{1} & {0} & {6} \\{0} & {-2} & {-3}\end{array}\right]\)

1. Find 3A. (1)
2. Find A^T (1)
3. Evaluate A + A^T , is it symmetric? Justify your answer. (1)

Answer:
1. 3A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{6} & {12} & {9} \\{3} & {0} & {18} \\{0} & {-6} & {-9}
\end{array}\right]\)

2. A^T = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{2} & {1} & {0} \\{4} & {0} & {-2} \\{3} & {6} & {-3}
\end{array}\right]\)

3. A + A^T

The elements on both sides of the main diagonal are same. Therefore A + A^T is a symmetric matrix.

Plus Two Maths Matrices Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the following statement: P(n) : Aⁿ = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{1+2 n} & {-4 n} \\{n} & {1-2 n}\end{array}\right]\) for all n ∈ N

1. Write P (1). (1)
2. If P(k) is true, then show that P( k + 1) is also true. (3)

Answer:
1. P(1) : A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{1+2} & {-4} \\{1} & {1-2}\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}{3} & {-4} \\{1} & {-1}\end{array}\right]\)

2. Assume that P(n) is true n = k

Hence P(k+1) is true n ∈ N.

Question 2.
Find the matrices A and B if 2A + 3B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{1} & {2} & {-1} \\{0{1} & {2} & {4}\end{array}\right]\) and A + 2B = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}{2} & {0} & {1} \\{1} & {1} & {2} \\{3} & {1} & {2}\end{array}\right]\).
Answer:

Solving (1) and (2) ⇒ 2 × (2)


Question 3.

1. Construct a 3 × 3 matrix A = [a_ij] where a_ij – 2(i – j) (3)
2. Show that the matrix A is skew-symmetric. (1)

Answer:
1.

2.

Therefore A is skew-symmetric matrix.

Question 4.
Consider the following statement P(n ): Aⁿ = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{\cos n \theta} & {\sin n \theta} \\{-\sin n \theta} & {\cos n \theta}\end{array}\right]\) for all n ∈ N

1. Write P(1). (1)
2. If P (k) is true then show that P (k+1) is true (3)

Answer:
1.

2. Assume that P(n) is true for n = k

P(k+1) = A^k+1

∴ P(k+1) is true. Hence true for all n ∈ N.

Question 5.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}{1} & {2} & {2} \\{2} & {1} & {2} \\{2} & {2} & {1}\end{array}\right]\), then

1. Find 4A and A² (2)
2. Show that A² -4A = 5I₃ (2)

Answer:
1.

2.

Question 6.
Let A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}{2} & {1} & {3} \\{4} & {1} & {0}\end{array}\right]\) and B= \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{1} & {-1} \\{0} & {2} \\{5} & {0}\end{array}\right]\)

1. Find A^T and B^T (1)
2. Find AB (1)
3. Show that (AB)^T = B^T A^T (2)

Answer:
1.

2.

3.

∴ (AB)^T = B^T A^T.

Question 7.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{1} & {-3} & {1} \\{2} & {0} & {4} \\{1} & {2} & {-2}\end{array}\right]\) Express A as the sum of a symmetric and skew symmetric matrix.
Answer:

\(\frac{1}{2}\) (A + A^T) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (A – A^T)

Question 8.

1. Consider a 2 × 2 matrix A = [a_ij], where a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{2}}{2}\)
2. Write the transpose of A. (2)
3. Show that A is symmetric. (2)

Answer:
1. A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{2} & {\frac{9}{2}} \\{\frac{9}{2}} & {8}\end{array}\right]\)

2. A^T = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{2} & {\frac{9}{2}} \\{\frac{9}{2}} & {8}\end{array}\right]\)

3. A^T = A therefore symmetric matrix.

Question 9.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{6} & {5} \\{7} & {6}\end{array}\right]\) is a matrix

1. What is the order of A. (1)
2. Find A² and 12 A. (2)
3. If f(x) = x^T – 12x +1; find f(A). (1)

Answer:
1. Order of A is 2 × 2.

2.

3. f(x) = x² – 12x + 1 ⇒ f(A) = A² – 12A + I

Plus Two Maths Matrices Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Let A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{2} & {4} \\{3} & {2}\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{1} & {3} \\{-2} & {5}\end{array}\right]\), C = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}{-2} & {5} \\{3} & {4}\end{array}\right]\)
Find each of the following
(i) A + B; A – B
(ii) 3A – C
(iii) AB
(iv) BA
Answer:

Question 2.
Let A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{1} & {2} \\{3} & {4}\end{array}\right]\); B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{2} & {1} \\{4} & {5}\end{array}\right]\); C = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{1} & {-1} \\{0} & {2}\end{array}\right]\)
(i) Find A + B and A – B (2)
(ii) Show that (A + B) + C = A + (B + C) (2)
(iii) Find AB and BA
Answer:


∴ (A + B) + C = A + (B + C)

Question 3.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{-1} & {0} & {2} \\{4} & {0} & {-3}\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{0} & {2} \\{-1} & {3} \\{0} & {4}\end{array}\right]\)

1. What is the order of matrix AB ? (1)
2. Find A^T, B^T (2)
3. Verify (AB)^T = B^T A^T (3)

Answer:
1. Order of AB is 2 × 2. Since order of A is 2 × 3 and B is 3 × 2.

2.

3.

(AB)^T = B^T A^T.

Question 4.
Let A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}{1} & {2} & {-3} \\{2} & {1} & {-1}\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{2} & {3} \\{5} & {4} \\{1} & {6}\end{array}\right]\)
(i) FindAB. (1)
(ii) Find A^T, B^T & (AB)^T (3)
(iii) Verify that (AB)^T = B^T A^T (2)
Answer:

Question 5.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{c}{-2} \\{4} \\{5}\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}{1} & {3} & {6}\end{array}\right]\)
(i) Find A^T, B^T (1)
(ii) Find (AB)^T (2)
(iii) Verify (AB)^T = B^T A^T (3)
Answer:

Question 6.
Let A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{3} & {1} \\{-1} & {2}\end{array}\right]\)
(i) Find A² (1)
(ii) Show that A² – 5A + 7I = 0 (1)
(iii) Using this result find A^-1 (2)
(iv) Slove the following equation using matrix: 3x + y = 1, – x + 2y = 2.
Answer:

(iii) A² – 5A + 7I = 0 ⇒ A² – 5A = -7I,
multiplying by A^-1 on both sides,
⇒ A – 5I = -7 A^-1

(iv) The equation can be represented in matrix form as follows, AX = B ⇒ X = A^-1B

Question 7.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{1} & {2} & {3} \\{3} & {-2} & {1} \\{4} & {2} & {1}
\end{array}\right]\)
(i) Show that A³ – 23A – 40I = 0 (3)
(ii) Hence find A^-1 (3)
Answer:

A³ – 23A – 40I = 0

(ii) A^-1A³ – 23 A^-1A – 40A^-1I = 0
⇒ A² – 23I – 40A^-1 = 0

Question 8.
A is a third order square matrix and \(a_{i j}=\left\{\begin{aligned}-i+2 j & \text { if } i=j \\i \times j & \text { if } i \neq j\end{aligned} \text { and } B=\left[\begin{array}{lll}{2} & {1} & {1} \\{1} & {1} & {5} \\{1} & {5} & {2}\end{array}\right]\right.\)

1. Construct the matrix A. (1)
2. Interpret the matrix A. (1)
3. Find AB – BA. (3)
4. Interpret the matrix AB – BA. (1)

Answer:
1. a₁₁ = 1, a₁₂ = 2, a₁₃ = 3, a₂₁ = 2, a₂₂ = 2, a₂₃ = 6, a₃₁ = 3, a₃₂ = 6, a₃₃ = 3
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}{1} & {2} & {3} \\{2} & {2} & {6} \\{3} & {6} & {3}\end{array}\right]\)

2. Now,

Therefore A is symmetric matrix.

3.

4.

= -(AB – BA)
∴ skew symmetric matrix.

Question 9.
Find x and y if

Answer:

Question 10.
Given that A + B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{2} & {5} \\{7} & {8}\end{array}\right]\) and A – B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{6} & {8} \\{4} & {3}\end{array}\right]\)

1. Find 2A. (1)
2. Find A² – B². (3)
3. Is it equal to (A + B) (A – B)? Give reason (2)

Answer:
1. 2A = A + B + A – B

2.

3. (A + B)(A – B)

(A + B)(A – B) = A² + AB – BA – B²
≠ A² – B²
∵ AB ≠ BA.

Question 11.
(i) Consider A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}{1} & {x} & {1}\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{1} & {3} & {2} \\{2} & {5} & {1} \\{15} & {3} & {2}
\end{array}\right]\), C = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}{1} \\{2} \\{x}\end{array}\right]\) (2)

(ii) Find x if ABC = 0 (4)
Answer:
(i)

(ii) Given, ABC = 0

⇒ x² + 16x + 28 = 0
⇒ (x + 14)(x + 2) = 0
⇒ x = -14, -2.

Students can Download Chapter 5 Web Designing Using HTML Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Web Designing Using HTML

Plus Two Computer Science Web Designing Using HTML One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the tag to which the attribute frame is associated.
Answer:
<Table>
Frame attribute specifies the border lines around the table. Possible values are void, box, above, below, hsides, Hsides, Lhs, Rhs Eg. <Table Frame = “below”>

Question 2.
The tag used to create combo in HTML is _______
Answer:
<Select>

Question 3.
The option attribute is associated with _______ <tag>
Answer:
<Select>

Question 4.
Consider the following.
<FRAMESET Cols= “50%, *”>
What will be the output of the above HTML statement?
Answer:
It divides browser window with frames of equal width in column-wise.

Question 5.
Consider the following.
<FRAMESET Rows= “50%,*”>
What will be the output of the above HTML statement?
Answer:
It divides browser Window into two frames in row-wise equally.

Question 6.
<Select> Tag create ______ in HTML.
Answer:
Combo box

Question 7.
The default align value for a table is ______
(a) Left
(b) Right
(c) Center
(d) Justify
Answer:
(a) Left

Question 8.
A submit button can be created by____ tag
(a) <SUBMIT>
(b) <INPUT>
(c) <SELECT>
(d) <ACTION>
Answer:
(b) <INPUT>

Question 9.
_____ Tag enclosed the heading cells in a table.
(a) <TABLE>
(b) <TR>
(c) <TH>
(d) <TD>
Answer:
(c) <TH>

Question 10.
______ is an empty tag.
(a) <FRAME>
(b) <FORM>
(c) < FRAMESET
(d) <TABLE>
Answer:
(a) <FRAME>

Question 11.
Pick the odd one out. Justify your answer
(a) NOFRAME
(b) Body
(c) SRC
(d) HEAD
Answer:
(c) SRC. It is an attribute. All other are tags.

Question 12.
Name the tag which is used as an attribute to another tag?
Answer:
<Center>or<Frame>

Question 13.
The borderlines around a table is specified by _____ Attribute.
(a) Frame
(b) cellborder
(c) Background
(d) Border
Answer:
(d) Border

Question 14.
To change the background colour of a table, which attribute of <table>tag is used for this purpose.
Answer:
BGCOLOR – This attribute specifies the background colour of the table.
<TABLE B0RDER=2 BGCOLOR= “Blue”>

Question 15.
Which tag is used to divide the window more than one?
Answer:
<Frameset>

Question 16.
_____ tag is used to pass information from web viewers to web server.
Answer:
<Form>

Question 17.
_______ tag provides a label for the form control.
Answer:
<Label>

Question 18.
A_____ has no <body> section.
Answer:
<Frameset> tag

Question 19.
A <frameset> tag no _____ tag.
Answer:
<Body> tag

Question 20.
Name the attribute used to merge two or more rows of a table in an HTML document.
Answer:
Rowspan

Question 21.
In HTML ______ tag is used to create a row in a table
Answer:
<TR>

Question 22.
The space between the bonder of the cell and its content can be adjusted by an attribute of the < TABLE > tag. Identify this attribute.
Answer:
Cell padding

Question 23.
Give the value of the frame attribute of <TABLE> tag to get the outer border only.
Answer:
box.

Question 24.
Baiju wants to place a picture in a table cell. Which attribute of the <TD> tag will be used for this.
Answer:
Background

Question 25.
_____ tag forms the definition term in a definition
(a) <DD>
(b) <DT>
(c) <DL>
(d) <DR>
Answer:
(b) <DT>

Question 26.
Name the possible values of type attribute of UnOrdered list.
Answer:
tag <UL> can take values square, circle or disc

Question 27.
To create a list using Upper case letters use ______?
Answer:
<OLType=”A”>

Question 28.
To create a list using Lower case letters use ______?
Answer:
<OLType=”a”>

Question 29.
To start a list from the count of 3 using _____?
Answer:
a <OLstart=”3”>

Question 30.
Mr. Suresh wants to prepare a list of students with register number. But he wants to start numbering from 5? How can it be done using HTML?
Answer:
Ordered list is used for this <OL start = “5”>

Question 31.
Pick the wrong one from the statements given below:
(a) <OL>and <UL> have Type attribute
(b) Default numbering scheme in <OL> is 1,2, 3…
(c) In Definition List, <DD> tag is used to give definition of terms
(d) Start attribute, of ordered list, should always be set to 1
Answer:
(d) Start attribute, of ordered list, should always be set to 1

Question 32.
Which of the following is the correct way to create an email link?
(a) <A href= “abc@xyz”>
(b) <mail href= “abc@xyz”>
(c) <mail> “abc@xyz”>
(d) <A href= “mailto: abc@xyz”>
Answer:
(d) <A href= “mailto: abc@xyz”>

Question 33.
There are two web pages in the class project created by Mathew. The second page should appear in the browser when clicked at a particular text in the first page. What do you call this feature? Name the tag and attribute needed for creating such a feautre
Answer:
This feature is called link
Tag used is <A> and attribute is HREF

Question 34.
Observe the table with two rows. Which of the following is used with TD tag to merge the cells C and D?

(a) Merge=colspan 2
(b) Rowspan= “2”
(c) Colspan= “2″
(d) Merge=raw2
Answer:
(c) Colspan= “2″

Question 35.
Why do we use <NOFRAME> tag?
Answer:
<NOFRAME> tag is used to give content when some browser that does not support frameset.

Question 36.
Which of the following tag is used to create a list box in a html Form?
(a) <SUBMIT>
(b) <INPUT>
(c) <SELECT>
(d) <ACTION>
Answer:
(c) <SELECT>

Question 37.
The tag used for creating a drop down list in HTML is ______
Answer:
<select> tag

Plus Two Computer Science Web Designing Using HTML Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Manju wants to display 3 web pages on the same screen horizontally. Which HTML statements can be used for this?
Answer:
<Frameset Rows=“33%, *, * ” >
<Frame SRC = Page1. html>
<Frame SRC = Page2. html>
<Frame SRC – Page3. html>
< / Frameset >

Question 2.
Adithya College of Engineering wants to Create its web site, in which the home page is to be designed as a combination of two Vertical panes.
Answer:

1. Suggest suitable tags used for this.
2. Write the HTML statements to get this type of page

Answer:
1. < Frame set > and < Frame > tags

2. < Frameset cols = “ 50%, * ” >
< Frame SRC = “ Page1. HTML” >
< Frame SRC = “ Page2. HTML ” >
< / Frameset >

Question 3.
‘Kerala Communication channel’ conducts a TV program based on Education policies of Kerala Govt. They want to take the feedback from the viewers through their website.

1. While creating this site, which type of tag is used to accept multiple line of text from the viewers,
2. Name any two attributes of this tag.

Answer:

1. <TEXTAREA>
2. Cols, rows, name

Question 4.
Distinguish between cell spacing and cell padding attribute of <Table> tag.
Answer:

1. Cellspacing: It specifies the space between two table cells
2. Cellpadding: It specifies the space between cell border and content

Question 5.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 6.
Differentiate <frame> and <frameset> tags.
Answer:
The <frameset> tag defines the frame sections and the <frame> tag specifies the pages to be loaded in each frame
<FRAMESET> tag And <FRAME>tag Attributes of <FRAMESET>

• Rows: Used to divide screen in row wise
• Cols: Used to divide screen in column wise Attributes of <FRAME>
• SRC: Specifies name of web page to be loaded in Frame
• Scrolling: Enables the web page displayed to be scrolled

Eg: <FRAMESET Cols=“50%,*”>
< FRAME SRC=“page1.html”>
< FRAME SRC=“page2.html”>
</FRAMESET>

Question 7.
How can you merge cells in a table?
Answer:
By using attributes Colspan or Rowspan
1. colspan: It Is used to span or to stretch a cell, over a number of columns.
Eg: <TD Colspan=3> spans the cell over three columns

2. rowspan: It is used to span or to stretch a cell over a number of rows.
Eg: <TD Rowspan=3> spans the cell over three rows.

Question 8.
Raju created a web page as follows:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>SampieTable</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<TABLE><TR><TH>Roll.No.</TH><TH>Name
</TH><TR>
<TR><TD>1</TD><TD>Raju</TD></TR>
<TR><TD>2</TD><TD>Ramu</TD></TR>
</TABLE>
</BODY>
</HTML>
But he is unable to view any tabular format in the . web page, when it is displayed in the browser.
Find the reason for it and correct the same.
Answer:
Without the “Border” attribute it never shows tabular form, Border attribute is missing.
<TABLE BORDER=3>

Question 9.
Name the possible values of type attribute of Ordered list.
Answer:
Values as follows

1. type = 1 for 1, 2, 3,….
2. type = i for i, ii, iii ……..
3. type = I for I, II, III …….
4. type = a for a, b, c,…
5. type = A for A, B, C ………

Question 10.
Predict the output of the following HTML segment.
<OLType = “1” start = “5”>
<Li> Chocolate</Li>
<Li> Milk </Li>
<Li> Coffee</Li>
</OL>
Answer:
5. Chocolate
6. Milk
7. Coffee

Question 11.
Compare the use of Type attribute in Ordered and Unordered list in HTML?
Answer:
1. Unordered List (<UL>) – Items are displayed with square, circle or disc in front.
Eg: <UL TYPE=”circle”>

2. Ordered List (<OL>) – Items are displayed with the following type values.
Type = 1 for 1, 2, 3,
Type = i for i, ii, iii
Type = I for I, II, III
Type = a for a, b, c,
Type = A for A, B, C
Eg: <OLTYPE=”A”>

Question 12.
Differentiate internal linking and external linking with examples.
Answer:
1. External Linking -: Used to connect two different webpages
Eg:<A href = “School. html”> School</A>

2. Internal linking: Internal links are given to a section in the same document.
<A href =“#top”>Goto Top </A>
<A href = “#bottom>Goto Bottom </A>

Question 13.
While moving the mouse pointer over a web page, the mouse pointem changes its shape to hand icon symbol.

1. Give reason for this change in mouse pointer.
2. Name the tag and attributes used for it.

Answer:

1. It is a hyper link
2. <A> tag, href attribute

Question 14.
HTML has facility to provide external and internal hyper links.

1. Which tag is used to include a hyperlink?
2. Explain two attributes needed for creating internal

Answer:

1. <A>
2. name, href

Question 15.
Match the following.

Answer:
EMBED- hidden, OL – start, A – href, BGSOUND – loop

Question 16.
Categorize the following tags into container tags and empty tags.
<A>, <FRAME>, <FRAMESET>, <INPUT>
Answer:
1. Empty tags
<FRAME> & <INPUT>

2. Container tags
<FRAMESET> & <A>

Question 17.
The <FORM> tag is used to accept data and communicate with a server program.

1. Name any two attributes of FORM tag.
2. How will you create a “SUBMIT” button and a “RESET” button within the FORM tag?

Answer:

1. Action, Method
2. <INPUT Type = “submit”>
   <INPUT Type = “reset”>

Question 18.
Aliya wants to display three webpages (A.htm, B.htm, C.htm) on the same screen horizontally at the ratio 20%, 40%, 40%. Write the HTML code for the same.
Answer:
<FRAMESET ROWS=”20%, 40%, 40%”>
<FRAME Src= “A.html”>
<FRAME Src= “B.html”>
<FRAME Src= “C.html”>
</FRAMESET >

Question 19.
Distinguish Cellspacing and Cellpadding attributes of <TABLE> tag.
Answer:
Cell spacing: Specifies space between table cells Cell padding- Specifies space between cell border and content.

Plus Two Computer Science Web Designing Using HTML Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Point out the difference between relative and absolute URL.
Answer:
URL means uniform Resource Locator.
Two type of URL
1. Relative URL – Here we explicitly give the web site address
Eg: <A href=http://www.hscap.kerala.gov.in>

2. Absolute URL – Here we implicitly give the web site address. The path is not specified here.
Eg: Consider the web pages index.html and school.html saved in folder C:\BVM.The file indexs.html contains the following.
<A href=”school.html”>. Here we did not specify the full path of the file school.html. But this implicitly points to the file stored in C:\BVM

Question 2.
Name the tag which is used to play the music in background while the webpage is being viewed.
Answer:
<BGSOUND>
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<Title> Table </Title>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<Table Border = “1”>
<TR align = “Center”>
<TH COLSPAN = “2” > ANIMALS</TH>
</TR>
<TR align-‘center”>
<TD> WILD <BR>BEAR, TIGER</TD> <TD>DOMESTIC <BR>GOAT, DOG</TD>
</TR>
</TABLE>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 3.
Differentiate <FRAME>, <FRAMESET> and <NOFRAME> tags.
Answer:

1. <FRAMESET> tag is used to divide the window more than one pane. It has no body section.
2. <FRAME> It specifies the pages within a frameset.
3. <NOFRAME> <NOFRAME> tag is used to give content when some browser that does not support frameset.

Question 4.
In a web page, user needs to enter the address of persons. Name the tag used for this. List and explain any two main attributes of it.
Answer:
<TEXTAREA>. This is used to enter multiple lines in a Text Box of a web page. Main attributes are

1. Rows: Specifies the height of text area control, ie. The number of Lines the Text Area should have
2. Cols: Specifies width ie number of characters per line.
3. Name: Gives a variable name to the Text Area control. Eg: <TEXTAREA Name = ”Address” Cols = 20 Rows = 5>

Question 5.
Consider the following table.

Write the HTML code for the above.
Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>TABLE</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<CENTER><B>TABLE</CENTER>
<TABLE BORDER = 1>
<TR>
<TH>Batch</TH>
<TH>Boys</TH>
<TH>Girls</TH>
</TR>
<TR>
<TH>Science</th>
<TD>25</TD>
<TD>26</TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TH>COMMERCE</TH>
<TD>20</TD>
<TD>30</TD>
</TR>
</TABLE>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 6.
Name the tag which permits a user to add more than one web page in a single window. List any attributes of it with explanation.
Answer:
<FRAMESET> tag and <FRAME>tag Attributes of <FRAMESET>

1. Rows: Used to divide screen in row wise
2. Cols: Used to divide screen in column wise Attributes of <FRAME>
3. SRC: Specifies name of web page to be loaded in Frame
4. NAME: Gives a name for the frame.

Eg. <FRAMESET Rows= “50%,*”>
<FRAME SRC= “page1.html”> <FRAMESRC=“page2.htm”>
</FRAMESET>

Question 7.
In VB, a Programmer can use Option Button, Text Box, Combo box, etc. to accept inputs from the user. But in HTML <INPUT> tag is used for creating ail the above controls. Which attributes of the <INPUT> tag is used for this. List and explain the possible values of it.
Answer:
The ‘type’ attribute of <INPUT> tag is used to create different control. The main values of type attribute is given below.

1. Text: Creates a single line Text Box. Eg. <INPUT Type= “Text”>
2. Password: creates a password box in which characters are displayed by symbols like asterisk(*) Eg. <INPUTType= “Password”>
3. Check Box: Creates a check box. Eg. INPUT Type = “Check Box”>
4. Radio: Creates option button (Radio Button) Eg. <INPUT Type= “Radio” Name=“sex” Value= “M”>Male
5. Reset: Creates reset button. It is used to clear all the data entered Eg. <INPUT Type=“Reset”>
6. Submit: Creates a submit Button. When click on it data Entered in the form will sent to web server. Eg. INPUT Type = “Submit”>

Question 8.
Write the HTML code for the following.

Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>TABLE</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<TABLE BORDER = ”1”>
<TR>
<TH> Computer </TH>
<TH> Acer </TH>
<TH>HP</TH>
</TR>
<TR>
<TH>PC</TH>
<TD>30,000</TD>
<TD>32,000</TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TH>Laptop</TH>
<TD colspan = 2>40,000</TD>
</TR>
</Table>
</Body>
</HTML>

Question 9.
Write the HTML Code for the following.

Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>TABLE EXAMPLE</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<TABLE BORDER = ‘1’>
<TR>
<TH>Subject</TH>
<TH>Type of<BR>Exam</TH>
<TH>Mark</TH>
</TR>
<TR>
<TH Rowspan=2>Computer<BR>Application</TH> <TH>Theory</TH>
<TD>42</TD>
</TR>
<TR>
<TH>Practical</TH>
<TD>26</TD>
</TR>
</Table>
</Body>
</HTML>

Question 10.
Name the attributes in HTML, which can present in more than one tag.
Answer:
The attributes are

1. Border: lt can act in <Table> and in <Frameset>Tag.
2. Bgcolor: It can act in <Table> and in <Body>tag.
3. Type: It can act in <OL> and in <lnput>tag.

Question 11.
What are the main attributes of the <Form> tag?
Answer:
1. Method:
It determines the method of submission of form data to the server. Get and Post are the two form submission methods. Post method is used to pass large volume of data. Also, post method is more secure as data entered is not visible during submission. The get method is faster and is used to send lesser volume of data and it is not secure.

2. Action:
The URL of the server side program to process the form data is specified by the Action attribute.
Eg: <Form Action=”http://www.scert.com/asp/. process. asp”>

Question 12.
What are the difference between get method and post method?
Answer:

Question 13.
Lena wants to create a web page, to select the district name from a combo. By default the combo box contain the district Trichur. Help her to do so.
Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>COMBOBOX</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
DISTRICT
<SELECT>
<OPTION SELECTED>TRICHUR <OPTION>ERNAKULAM <OPTION>PALAKKAD </SELECT>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 14.
Ram creates a web page to record the sex of a student. But he has made a mistake that the student can select both male and female choices at a time. What is the reason for the same? Help him to correct the mistake.
Answer:
To record sex of student radio buttons are used. Usu-ally radio buttons are provided as a group from which exactly one can be selected at a time by giving the same name for both radio buttons. But here Ram did not give same narfie for both buttons. Therefore the mistake. The correct code is as follows,
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>RADIO BUTTON</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
sex<input type=”radio” name=’’sex” value= “Male”> Male
<input type=”radio” name=”sex” value= “Female”> Female
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 15.
Explain the attributes of <Frameset> Tag.
Answer:

1. Cols: It determines the dimension of vertical frames(Columns) in the frameset page. Eg: <Frameset Cols=”50%,*”> creates two vertical frames with equal width
2. Rows: It determines the dimension of horizontal frames(Rows) in the frameset page. Eg: <Frameset Rows=”50%,*”> creates two horizontal frames with equal height.
3. Border: It specifies the thickness of the border for the frames.
4. Border color: It specifies the colour for the frame border.

Question 16.
Explain the attributes of <Frame tag>
Answer:

1. Src: It specifie the URL of the document to be loaded in the frame.
2. Scrolling: It indicates scroll bar is to be shown in the frame or not, values are yes, no or auto
3. No resize: It stops the resizing of the frame, no value is to be assigned.
4. Margin width and Marginheight: It sets the hori¬zontal and vertical margins, values are in pixels.
5. Name: It gives a name for the frame.
6. Target: It specifies the target frame.

Question 17.
Mr. Sonet visited a website that contains two frames. He tries to resize the first frame by mouse.But he failed to do so. What is the reason behind. Explain?
Answer:
This is because the web designer used Noresize attribute of frame tag while he design the page. No resize attribute stops the resizing of the frame, no value is to be assigned.
Eg: <frame src=”page1.html” noresize>

Question 18.
We know that an HTML document contains two sec¬tions head and body section. While designing a web page as follows what will happen?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
</head>
<body>
<frameset cols=”50%,*”>
<frame src=”page1 .html” noresize> <frame src=”page2.html”>
</frameset>
</body>
</html>
There is no output because a <frameset> tag has no body tag. It is very important. So the correct code is as follows,
<html>
<head>
</head>
<frameset cols=”50%,*”>
<frame src=”page1 .html” noresize>
<frame src=”page2.html”>
</frameset>
</html>

Question 19.
Create a web page as follows to display a list contains items.

Answer:
T0 create a list box set the size property of <Select> tag to more than 1.
<html>
<head>
</head>
<body>
House Hold ltems<Br>
<select size=3>
<option>TV
<option>Fridge
<option selected>Washing Machine </select>
</body>
</html>

Question 20.
In VB there are separate controls to create List Box and Combo Box. But in HTML these controls can be created by using a single tag.

1. Name the tag used for this?
2. Which attribute is used for this and how?

Answer:
1. < SELECT >

2. Size attribute
< SELECT Size = 1> gives combo box
< SELECT Size = 3> gives a list box

Question 21.
Write HTML code for creating the following webpage using tag.

Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>List Tag</TITLE.
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<H2 Align=”centre” ><B>Net Link Ltd></ B><H2><BR>
<H2 Align=”centre”><B>Bangalore></B></H2><BR>
<HR>
<B>Our products</B>
<BR>
<OLtype=1>
<LI>Television <LI>Washing Machine <UL>
<LI><Model 2005XP Series <LI> Model 2006 ST Series </UL>
</OL>
</Body>
</HTML>

Question 22.
Write the HTML code for creating the following web page using List tag.

Answer:
HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>Definition List Tag</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY>
<H1 Align= “center“><B>COMPUTER TERMS</B>< H1><BR>
<DL>
<DT>CPU
<DD>Central Processing Unit <DT>ALU
<DD>Arithmetic and Logic Unit <DT>WWW <DD>World Wide Web </DL>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 23.
What will be the output of the following?
<html>
<head>
</head>
<body>
<OL type=”A” start=5>
<LI>COMPUTER
<LI>BIOLOGY
</OL>
</body>
</html>
Answer:
The output is as follows
E.COMPUTER, F.BIOLOGY

Question 24.
Find the errors from the following and correct it.

1. <ULtype=”A” start=5>
2. <IMG src=”picture.jpg”size=100>
3. <HTML>
   <HEAD><TITLE></HEAD></TITLE> <BODY>This is a sample web page</BODY>

Answer:

1. UL has only specified types and has no start attribute
2. IMG has no size attribute, use height or width attribute
3. <HTML>
   <HEAD><TITLE></TITLE></HEAD> <BODY>This is a sample web page</BODY> </HTML>

Question 25.
Your brother requested you to prepare a list of best friends, from your class using HTML.

1. Which type of list you will prefer?
2. Write HTML code to create such a list of 4 students.

Answer:
1. Ordered List<OL> Can be used

2. <HTML>
<HEAD>
<Title>list<Title>
</HEAD>
<BODY>< center><B><U>List of best studentsc/ B></U></Center>
<OL type=1>
<LI> Christeena
<LI>Vijitha
<LI>Archa
<U>Tija
</OL>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 26.
Ravi wants to display the name of 6 subjects as a list by using Upper case Roman Numerals. Help him to do so.
Answer:
<OL type= “I”>
<LI>English
<LI> Sanskrit
<LI>Business studies
<LI>Accountancy
<LI>Economics
<LI>Computer Applications
</OL>

Question 27.
Your class selected you as the group leader of Group V. In your group there are 5 students with Roll No. 20 to 24. Prepare a list using appropriate tag in HTML.
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>
Ordered list </title>
</head>
<body>
<B><U>Group V</U></B>
<OL start = 20>
<LI>Manisha
<LI>Anisha
<LI>Nisha
<LI>lsha
<LI>Sha
</OL>
</body>
</html>

Question 28.
Write HTML code to get the following output.

Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>
Unordered list </title>
</head>
<body>
<OL type=”a”> <LI><B>Computer</B> <UL >
<LI>Laptop
<LI>desktop
</UL>
</OL>
</body>
</html>

Question 29.
Write HTML code to get the following table as output.

Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>
Table
</title>
</head>
<body>
<table border=1> <tr>
<th>Name
<th>Score
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Raju
<td>90
</tr>
<tr>
<td>Reena
<td>84
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 30.
Write the tags to define the following:

• Text Box
• Subnnit Button
• Reset Button
• Radio Button

Answer:

• .<input type=”text” name=”txtname”>
• .<input type=”Submit” value=”Send”>
• .<input type=”Reset” value=”Clear”>
• .<input type=”Radio” name=”Sex” value= “Male”>Male <input type=”Radioi’ name=”Sex’’ value=” Female”>Female

Plus Two Computer Science Web Designing Using HTML Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write an HTML code to create a web page with 3 frames as shown below:

Answer:
Step 1: Take a notepad, type the following and save it as main.html on Desktop.
<html>
<head>
<title>
Main page </title>
</head>
<body bgcolor = “red”>
<center> main page.
</center>
</body>
</html>

Step 2: Take another notepad, type the following and save it as page1.html on Desktop.
<html>
<head>
<title>
pagel
</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor = “yellow”>
<center> page 1 </center>
</body>
</html>

Step 3: Take another notepad, type the following and save it as page 2.html on Desktop.
<html>
<head>
<title> page 2 </title>
</head>
<body bgcolor = “blue”>
<center> page 2 </center>
</body>
</html>

step 4: Take another notepad, type the following and save it as frame.html on Desktop.
<html>
<head>
<title> frame </title>
</head>
<frameset rows = “30%, *”>
<frame src = “main.html ”>
<frameset cols = “50%, *”>
<frame src = “page1.html”>
<frame src= “page2.htmr>
</frameset>
</frameset>
</html>

Step 5. Finally run the frame.html file.

Question 2.
Explain any three attributes of <FORM>tag.
Answer:
1. Action – Here we give the name of program (including the path) stored in the Webserver.

2. Method – There are 2 types of methods get and post.

3. Target – Specifies the target window for displaying the result. Values are given below.

• _blank-Opens in a new window
• _self-Opens in the same frame
• _parent – Opens in the parent frameset
• _top-Opens in the main browser window
• name – Opens in the window with the specified name.

Question 3.
Explain the attributes of <Table> tag?
Name any six attributes of <table> tag that determine the general layout of table.
Answer:

1. Border: It specifies the thickness of the border lines around the table
2. Bordercolor: It specifies the colour for border lines
3. Align: It specifies the table alignment, the values can b,e left, right or center
4. Bgcolor: It specifies the back ground colour for the table.
5. Cellspacing: It specifies the space between two table cells
6. Cellpadding: It specifies the space between cell border and content
7. Cols: It specifies the number of columns
8. Width: It determines the table width
9. Frame: It specifies the border lines around the table, values are void, border, box, above, below,…

Question 4.
Explain the attributes of <TH> and <TD>?
Answer:

1. Align: It specifies the horizontal alignment of the content, the values can be left, right, center and justify.
2. Valign: It specifies the vertical alignment of the content, the values can be top, middle, Bottom, and baseline.
3. Bgcolor: It specifies the background colour for the cell.
4. Colspan: It is used to span or to stretch a cell over a number of columns. Eg: <TD Colspan=3> spans the cell over three columns
5. Rowspan: It is used to span or to stretch a cell over a number of rows. Eg: <TD Rowspan=3> spans the cell over three rows.

Question 5.
Create an HTML page as shown below using lists.
The recipe for preparation
1. The ingredients
•100g flour
• 10g sugar
• 1 cup water
• 2 egg
• Salt and pepper

2. The procedure
A. Mix dry ingredients thoroughly
B. Pour in wet ingradients
C. Mix for 10 mts
D. Bake for 1 hr at 100 degree C temperature <HTML>
Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>
List Demo </TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY Bgcolor = “Green”>
The recipe for preparation <OL>
<LI> The ingredients </LI>
<ULtype=”disc”>
<LI> 100 g flour </LI>
<LI> 10 g Sugar </LI>
<LI> 1 cup water </LI>
<LI>2egg </LI>
<LI> Salt and pepper </LI>
</UL>
<LI> The procedure </LI>
<OL TYPE =”A”>
<LI> Mix dry ingredients thoroughly </LI>
<LI> Pour in wet ingredients </LI>
<LI> Mix for 10 mts </LI>
<LI> Bake for 1 hr at 100 degree C temperature </LI>
</OL>
</OL>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Question 6.
Create HTML code for the following output.
1. Flowers
• Jasmine
• Rose
• Lily
2. Vegetables
• Beetroot
• Cabbage
• Cucumber
3. Fruits
i. Apple
ii. Orange
iii. Pineapple
Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>
Nested List </TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY Bgcolor = “Blue”> <OL>
<LI> Flowers </LI>
<UL TYPE=”disc”>
<LI> Jasmine </LI>
<LI> Rose </LI> <LI>Lily</LI>
</UL>
<LI> Vegetables </LI>
<ULTYPE=”disc”>
<LI>Beetroot</LI>
<LI>Cabbage</LI>
<LI>Cucumber</LI>
</UL>
<LI> Fruits</LI>
<OL type=T> <LI>Apple</LI> <LI>Orange</LI> <LI>Pineapple</LI>
</OL> </OL>
</BODY>
</HTML>

Students can Download Chapter 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions Questions and Answers, Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Plus Two Maths Inverse Trigonometric Functions Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prove the following

Answer:

Question 2.
Find the value of

Answer:

Question 3.
If tan^-1x + tan^-1y + tan^-1z = π, show that x + y + z = xyz
Answer:
Given;
tan^-1x + tan^-1y + tan^-1z = π
⇒ tan^-1x + tan^-1y = π – tan^-1z

⇒ x + y + z = xyz.

Question 4.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 5.
Solve 2 tan^-1(cos x) = tan^-1(2 cos x)
Answer:
2 tan^-1(cosx) = tan^-1(2cosx)
⇒ \(\frac{2 \cos x}{1-\cos ^{2} x}\) = 2cosx
⇒ 1 = 1 – cos² x ⇒ 1 = sin²x
⇒ x = ±\(\frac{\pi}{2}\).

Question 6.
Solve the following

1. 2tan^-1(cosx) = tan^-1(2cosecx)
2. tan^-12x + tan^-13x = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Answer:
1. 2tan^-1(cosx) = tan^-1(2cosecx)

2. tan^-12x + tan^-13x = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

⇒ (6x – 1)(x + 1) = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{1}{6}\), x = – 1
Since x = – 1 does not satisfy the equation, as the LHS becomes negative. So x = \(\frac{1}{6}\).

Question 7.
Solve 2 tan^-1(cos x) = tan^-1(2 cos x)
Answer:
2 tan^-1(cos x) = tan^-1(2 cos x)
⇒ \(\frac{2 \cos x}{1-\cos ^{2} x}\) = 2cosx
⇒ 1 = 1 – cos² x
⇒ 1 = sin² x ⇒ x = ±\(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Plus Two Maths Inverse Trigonometric Functions Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prove that \(\sin ^{-1} \frac{12}{13}+\cos ^{-1} \frac{4}{5}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{63}{16}=\pi\)
Answer:

Question 2.

1. Find the principal value of sec^-1\(\left(-\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\) (1)
2. if sin\(\left(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)+\cos ^{-1}(x)\right)=1\), then find the value of x. (3)

Answer:
1. principal value of:

2. find the value of x:

Question 3.
Solve the following

Answer:

The value x = –\(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{28}}\) makes the LHS negative, so rejected.

Question 4.
(i) Choose the correct answer from the bracket. cos(tan^-1 x), |x| < 1 is equal to (1)


Answer:



(draw a right triangle to convert ‘tan’ to ‘sin’).

Question 5.
(i) In which quadrants are the graph of cos^-1 (x) lies, x ∈ [-1,1 ] (1)
(ii) If cos^-1x + cos^-1y = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\), then
sin^-1x + sin^-1y = ……… (3)
(a) \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
(d) \(\frac{\pi}\)
(iii) If tan^-1x + tan^-1y = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) then prove that x + y + xy = 1 (2)
Answer:
(i) First and Second quadrant


⇒ x + y = 1 – xy ⇒ x + y + xy = 1.

Question 6.
(i) sin(tan^-1(1)) is equal to


Answer:

Plus Two Maths Inverse Trigonometric Functions Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Show that sin^-1\(\frac{3}{5}\) – sin^-1\(\frac{8}{17}\) = cos^-1\(\frac{84}{85}\).
Answer:


(draw a right triangle to convert ‘tan’ to ‘cos’).

Question 2.
(i) Choose the correct answer from the Bracket.
If cos^-1x = y, then y is equal to (1)
(a) π ≤ y ≤ π
(b) 0 ≤ y ≤ π
(c) \(-\frac{\pi}{2}\) ≤ y ≤ \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(d) 0 ≤ y ≤ π
(ii) Find the value of cos^-1 cos\(\left(\frac{7 \pi}{3}\right)\) (3)
(iii) Solve for x if, tan^-1\(\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)\) = 2 tan^-1x (2)
Answer:
(i) Range of cos^-1x is [0, π] ⇒ 0 ≤ y ≤ π

(ii) Here \(\left(\frac{7 \pi}{3}\right)\) lie outside the interval [0, π]. TO make it in the interval proceed as follows.

Students can Download Chapter 4 Web Technology Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Web Technology

Plus Two Computer Science Web Technology One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Specify an attribute of the HTML tag.
Answer:
DIR: Indicates documents direction. It can take values rtl or ltr.
Eg. <HTML DIR= “rtl”> This specify that document is to read from right to left.

Question 2.
Mention the default value of size attribute of <BASEFONT> tag.
Answer:
3.

Question 3.
Name the tag which has ‘Noshade’ attribute.
Answer:
<HR>Tag

Question 4.
Maximum possible value of the size attribute of the <BASEFONT>tag?
Answer:
7.

Question 5.
Salim developed a personal website. In which he has to create an e-mail link. Can you suggest the protocol used to achieve this task?
Answer:
Mailto.
Eg. <A href= “Mailto:[email protected]” >Mail to me</A>.

Question 6.
You want to connect your webpage to the web portal www.yahoo.com. Mention the tag that can be used for this.
Answer:
<A> Anchor Tag
Eg. <Ahref=”www. yahoo.com”>Yahoo</A)

Question 7.
Specify the main attribute of <IMG> tag used to include an image file in web page.
Answer:
SRC. It specify the name of the image file to be included in the page.
Eg. <IMG SRC= “C:/home.Jpg”>

Question 8.
Select the attribute associated with <IMG> tag from the following: (Name, size, Align, value)
Answer:
Align

Question 9.
Write HTML code forgiving hyperlink in webpage.
Answer:
<A HREF= “page2.htm”>Page2</A>

Question 10.
The default colour of Vlink is ________
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Red
(d) Yellow
Answer:
(c) Red

Question 11.
ThedefauKcolour of A link is ________
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Red
(d) Yellow Green
Answer:
(b) Green

Question 12.
Saritha is assigned the task of writing explanatory notes in an HTML code. Which tag she can utilize.
Answer:
Explanatory notes can be given using <comment> tag. Using two mark up elements. as<!— and →

Question 13.
Pick the odd man out.
(a) BODY
(b) HTML
(c) CENTER
(d) ALIGN
Answer:
(d) ALIGN, all others are tag

Question 14.
Your school has a web site, www.myschool.otg. You want to create a link to this site from your website. Write the code for implementing this.
Answer:
<A href=”www.myschool.org”>My School</A>

Question 15.
HTML was developed by ________
Answer:
Tim Berners-Lee

Question 16.
What are the two major sections of an HTML document?
Answer:
Head section and Body section

Question 17.
An HTML file is saved with _____ extension.
(a) .vbp
(b) .mdb
(c) .htm
(d) .frm
Answer:
(c) .htm or .html

Question 18.
The software used to view web page is _____
(a) Notepad
(b) web browser
(c) Webserver
(d) Web Editor
Answer:
(b) web browser

Question 19.
The default alignment of image in HTML is _____
(a) Left
(b) Right
(c) Center
(d) Inline with content
Answer:
(a) Left

Question 20.
_______ is an alternative for centralizing a paragraph other than using <P> tag
(a) <AUGN>
(b) <C>
(c) <CENTER>
(d) <CENTRE
Answer:
(c) <CENTER>

Question 21.
______ attribute Of <A> tag specifies the URL of the hyper linked document.
(a) Name
(b) Target
(c) HREF
(d) SRC
Answer:
(c) HREF

Question 22.
What does HTML stands for?
Answer:
Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 23.
Communication on web can be classified into _____ and ______ .
Answer:
Client to Server and Server to Server

Question 24.
The protocol which is responsible for splitting the data into smaller packets is _____
Answer:
TCP.

Question 25.
The protocol which is responsible for the routing of data packets through the correct destination is _____
Answer:
IP (Internet Protocol)

Question 26.
TCP/IP stands for
Answer:
Transmission Control Protocol/lntenet Protocal

Question 27.
Identify the protocol responsible for e-mail communication.
Answer:
(a) DNS
(b) HTTP
(c) TCP/IP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(d) SMTP

Question 28.
In server to server communication, authentication is done with help of _____
(a) HTTP
(b) Digital certificate
(c) Client
(d) DNS
Answer:
(b) Digital certificate

Question 29.
Which server acts between merchant server and bank server for transferring data in encrypted format?
Answer:
Payment Gateway

Question 30.
Identify the name of a place where servers and networking systems are placed with high security.
(a) Head office
(b) DNS
(c) Data centre
(d) IIS
Answer:
(c) Data centre

Question 31.
Identify the port number which requests for the service of sending e-mail communication.
(a) 22
(b) 25
(c) 53
(d) 80
Answer:
(b) 25

Question 32.
The IP address corresponding to a domain name is ______ presenting server.
Answer:
DNS

Question 33.
Programs embedded in HTML documents are termed as ______
Answer:
Scripts

Question 34.
Running of ____ scripts can be blocked by the user
(a) Client side
(b) Server side .
(c) Both client side and server side.
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Client side

Question 35.
A platform-independent serverside scripting language is ______
Answer:
PHP

Question 36.
Which among the following tools is used for easy formatting and defining style of a document written in HTML?
(a) Ajax
(b) CSS
(c) JSP
(d) JavaScript
Answer:
(b) CSS

Question 37.
Pick the Odd one from the following list and give reason. (IMG, FONT, BR, ALIGN, PRE)
Answer:
ALIGN which is an attribute, all others are tags.

Question 38.
Choose the correct HTML statement to display an image with file name “kerala.jpg” as the background of the web page.
(a) <IMG src=”kerala.jpg”>
(b) <BODYbgcolor=”kerala.jpg”>
(c) <BODY src=”kerala.jpg”>
(d) <BODY background=”kerala.jpg”>
Answer:
(d) <BODYbackground=”kerala.jpg”>

Question 39.
Two of the following HTML tags have same attribute ‘Align’. Identify them.
(<IMG>, <MARQUEE>, <B>, <P>, <BODY>)
Answer:
<IMG> AND <P>

Question 40.
Identify the correct HTML statement to draw a horizontal line with half the width of the screen.
(a) <HR width=“50%” size= “3″>
(b) <HR size= “50%” width= “3″>
(c) <HR length=“50%” size= “3″>
(d) <HR width= “50%” length= “3″>
Answer:
(a) <HR width=“50%” size= “3″>

Question 41.
A student wants to display a poem in a web page just like as he entered in the text editor. Which tag in HTML will help him?
Answer:
<PRE>tag

Question 42.
A student created a web page about his school. The school name is displayed in the page. He wanted to change the style, colour, and size of the school name. Identify the most appropriate tag in HTML needed for that.
Answer:
<FONT> tag

Plus Two Computer Science Web Technology Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A student developed a web page about India. He wanted to display a scrolling text moving from right side to left side with a background colour blue.
The text is “I Love My Country”.

1. Identify the tag needed for it.
2. Write the HTML statement to do the task.

Answer:

1. <MARQUEE>
2. <MARQUEE direction=”left” bgcolor=”blue” > I Love My country </MARQUEE>

Question 2.
Write HTML statement for displaying the following text items:

1. A₂B³
2. A>B

Answer:

1. A <SUB>2</SUB> B <SUP>3</SUP>
2. A&gt;B

Question 3.
Two HTML tags are given. They are <BODY> and <FONT>. Identify and write the attribute of each from the following list. (Size, Text, Link, Bgcolor, Color)
Answer:
The attributes of <BODY> tag are Text, Link and Bgcolor The attributes of <FONT> tag are size and color.

Question 4.
Write the use of Border and Alt attribute of <IMG> tag.
Answer:
Border: This attribute is used forgiving border to an image
Alt: This attribute is sued for giving an alternate text. When there is no image in the specified location or the browser doesn’t support the image them this text will be displayed.

Question 5.
When a client send request to a server, the server must know which service is demanded by the client.

1. How does the server identify the type of service requested?
2. Write the name of any one of the services in the Webserver.

Answer:

1. Port number
2. Any service like FTP, SMTP, HTTP etc

Question 6.
Following are steps for searching the IP address of a domain name by a browser. Rearrange them in proper order.

1. Look in the local memory of ISP
2. Look in the DNS servers starting from the root server .
3. Look in the local memory of brower
4. Look in the local memory of Operating System

Answer:
Correct order is 3, 4, 1, 2

Question 7.
Categorise the following tags into Container tags and empty tags.
<B>, <BR>, <A>,<FRAME>, <FRAMESET>, <LI>, <HR>
Answer:
1. Container tags:
<B>, <A>,<FRAMESET>

2. Empty tags:
<BR>, <HR>, <LI>, <FRAME>

Question 8.
Write the HTML statement to get the following output.

1. Commerce
2. Humanities

Answer:

1. <B>Commerce</B>
2. <l>Humanities</l>

Question 9.
Write the HTML statement to get the following output.

1. H₂SO₄
2. a² + b²
3. Computer

Answer:

1. H₂SO₄
2. a² + b²
3. <b>Computer</b>

Question 10.
Write HTML code to display as follows.
The <IMG> tag is used for placing images
Answer:
The &lt IMG &gt tag is used for placing images.

Question 11.
Name some browsers.
Answer:

1. Internet Explorer
2. Netscape Navigator
3. Opera
4. Eudora

Question 12.
What is a website?
Answer:
A website is a collection of webpages. A webpage is created by using HTML tags.

Question 13.
What is the role of attributes in an HTML tag?
Answer:
Attributes are parameters for providing additional information within a tag. Attribute values specify certain characteristics of the tag.
Eg: <P align=”right”>

Question 14.
What is HTML?
Answer:
HTML stands for HyperText Markup Language. It is used to create web pages. It has two types of tags empty and container. The important thing we have to remember in container tag is first opened tag must be closed last.

Question 15.
Name the main attributes of the <HR> tag.
Answer:

• Size: It specifies the line thickness
• Width: It specifies the length
• Noshade: It specifies no shade is given for the line.
• Color: It specifies the color.

Question 16.
Mary wants to display her name in various head-ings. Name the heading tags available in HTML.
Answer:
Heading can be given in six levels from <H1> to <H6>.The tag <H1> produces big heading. The tag <H6> produces small heading. The heading size re¬duce from <H1> to <H6> sequentially.

Question 17.
Differentiate between <FONT> and <BASEFONT>tags
Answer:
<BASEFONT>tag sets the normal font for the entire document text. The font specified will be taken as the default font for the entire document. The main attributes are size, face, and color. The <FONT> tag defines the font characteristics of the text enclosed. <Font> tag change the font property of the text enclosed within <Font> and </Font> whereas <BaseFont> tag specifies the default font characteristics.

Question 18.
Explain the different types of hyperlinks.
Answer:
The two types of Hyper Links are

1. External HyperLink: This is used two connect the locations of two different web pages
2. Internal HyperLink: This is used to connect the different locations of the same web page

Question 19.
Write the HTML code to display the following list:

• Form
• TextBox
• Label
• Command Button

Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>
list
</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”vbcyan”>
<ul type=”circle”>
<li>Form
<li>TextBox
<li>Label
<li>CommandButton</ul>
</body>
</html>

Question 20.
The body section forms the content displayed in the browser window. Briefly explain any four attributes in the BODY tag.
Answer:

1. Bgcolor – It is used to set background colour
2. Background – It is used to set a background picture
3. Text – it is used to set the foreground colour
4. Left margin – It is used to set the left margin

Question 21.
HTML has the facility to provide External Jinks as well as Internal links.

1. Which tag is used to include an External link?
2. How will you construct an Internal link?

Answer:
1. Anchor Tag i.e. <a href=”filename”>

2. Internal link is used to link two places of the same web page
<html>
<head>
<title>
Internal link
</title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”vbcyan”>
<a name=top href=#bottom>Goto Bottom</a>
<ul type=”circle”>
<li>Form
<li>TextBox
<li>Label
<li>CommandButton
</ul>
<a name=bottom href=#top>Goto top</a>
</body>
</html>

Question 22.
Categorise the following tags in HTML and write the criterian for the categorisation.
<BR>, <P>, <BODY>, <B>, <HR>, <IMG>
Answer:
1. Empty tag:
<BR>
<HR>
<IMG>
2. Container tag
<P>
<BODY>
<B>

Question 23.
Differentiate empty tags and container tag with example.
Answer:
1. Empty tags: It has opening tag only, no closing tag
Eg; <hr>, <br> etc
2. Container tag: It as both opening and closing tag.
Eg: <html> </html>
<body></body>etc.

Question 24.
Write True or False

1. Text is an attribute of <BODY> tag to insert a text matter in the web page.
2. <EM> tag functions similar to <l> tag.

Answer:

1. False
2. True

Plus Two Computer Science Web Technology Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write and explain any four text formatting tags in HTML.
Answer:
Text formatting tags are given below.

1. <B>: This tag is based to make the text Bold Eg: <B> Computer application </B>
2. <l>: This tag is used to make the text in italics eg: <l> computer aplication</l>
3. <U>: This tag is used to underline the text eg: <U> computer aplication</U>
4. <S>: This tag is used for striking out the text eg: <S> computeraplication</S>

Question 2.
Match the following.

Answer:
Correct match as given below

• <H2> – Heading-Align
• <MARQUEE> – Scrolling text – Bgcolor
• <IMG> – Inserting picture-Src

Question 3.
Briefly explain the use of tags <Q>, <PRE> and <ADDRESS> tags.
Answer:

1. <Q>: It is used to give text within double quotes
2. <PRE>: This tag is used to display the content as we entered in the text editor.
3. <ADDRESS>: This tag is used to provide information of the author or owner

Question 4.
Write a HTML code to develop a web page about Kerala state as shown below:

The specifications for the page are:

1. The main heading must be of bigger in size, centralised and bold.
2. Subheadings must be lesser size than main heading and in italics.
3. There should be a picture at the center of the page with filename“tree.jpg”.
4. The background colour of the page must me blue.

Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>Kerala State</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<BODY bgcolor = “blue”>
<center> <H1> kerala state </H1 >
<I><H2> <br> God’s own country </H2></l> </center>
<img src = “tree.jpg” align = “middle”>
<br>
Capital: Thimvanthapuram </BODY>
</HTML>

Question 5.
PHP is a popular scripting language.

1. Write whether it is client side or server side.
2. Write a brief note on PHP.

Answer:

1. Server side
2. PHP (PHP Hypertext Preprocessor)
   • It is an open-source, general-purpose scripting language.
   • It is a server-side scripting language
   • Introduced by Rasmus Lendorf
   • A PHP file with extension .php
   • It support database programming the default * DBMS is MySQL
   • It is platform-independent
   • PHP interpreter in Linux is LAMP(Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP)

Question 6.
How client side scripting differs from server side scripting?
Answer:
Following are the differences

Question 7.
Briefly explain the two types of communication on the web.
Answer:
The two types of communication on the web are given below.
1. Client to Web server communication:
This communication is carried out. between client to the webserver (shopping site). The technology used to protect data that are transferred from client to web server is https.

2. Web server to web server communication:
This communication is usually carried out between web sever (seller) to another web server (normally bank). For the safe transaction. Digital certificate issued by third-party web sites are used.

Question 8.
Compare static and dynamic webpages.

Question 9.
Differentiate Empty tag and Container tag.
Answer:
There are two types of tags, opening tag, and closing tag
1. Empty tag: It has only opening tag and no closing tag
Eg: <br>, <hr>,..

2. Container tag: It has both opening and closing tags. This tag contains some text data
Eg:<html>, <head>, <body>,….

Question 10.
Create a webpage using HTML to display the following message.
Answer:
‘The symbol H₂O represents water’.
<HTML>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>Subscript</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<Body>
<B>’The symbol H<SUB>2</SUB>O represents water’<B> .
</Body>
</HTML>

Question 11.
While designing a webpage Neena wants to explain the meaning of each step. Can you help her?
Answer:
Neena can use Comments while writing the code. It is a good programming practice. Comments improve readability. It is not the part of a program. Comments <!—and —>
Eg.
<!—This is used to display an information—> <HTML>
<!—head section—>
<HEAD>
<TITLE>Subscript</TITLE>
</HEAD>
<!—BODY section—>
<Body>
<B> The symbol H <SUB>2</SUB>O represents water’</B>
</Body>
</HTML>

Question 12.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

Question 13.
Give HTML tag to display the sentence “WELCOME TO HTML” as centralized heading, having red colour.
Answer:
<HTML>
<HEAD><TITLE>My page</TITLE></HEAD> <BODY>
<FONTCOLOR=“RED”>
<H1 ALIGN= “CENTER”>WELCOME TO HTML</ H1>
</FONT>
</BODY>
<HTML>

Question 14.
Explain the Main attributes of font tag.
Answer:
<FONT>tag defines the font properties of text en-closed
The main attributes are:

1. Face – This specifies the type of font.
2. Color – This specifies the colour of the text enclosed
3. Size – This specifies the font size
   Eg. <FONT Face= “Arial” size = “3” color= “magenta”>

Question 15.
John visited a website, it is found that when clicking on a particular text the browser open a new web page. Name the feature and Identify the tag used for this purpose. Write the HTML code to link to a file name “main.html”.
Answer:

1. Hyper Linking. By clicking on hypertext we can see or go to other webpages or to other section of same document.
2. <A> tag is used
3. <A href=”main.htmr>Main</A>

Question 16.
Antony visited his school website, he could not see the picture of his school instead of that there is a text message “Your browser could not support images”. Why it is happened and write the html code for this.
Answer:
Because the browser he used cannot load the image. He can use Alt attribute of IMG Tag.
<IMG SRC =“D:\school.jpg” Alt-Your browser could not support images”>

Question 17.
Suppose you want to display a picture named school.jpg located in the ‘Photos’ subdirectory of the directory ‘My documents’ of C drive in your web page.

1. Name the tag used for this purpose.
2. Write HTML code for the web page.

Answer:
1. <IMG>tag. It is used to display images in webpage.

2. code for the web page.
<HEAD><TITLE>
</HEAD>
<Body>
<IMG SRC= ‘C:/My documents/Photos/School.jpg’></Body>
<html>

Plus Two Computer Science Web Technology Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the main list tags in HTML?
Answer:
HTML provides three basic types of lists- unordered, ordered and definition list.
1. Unordered list:
Unordered list arranges the list items with bullet symbols in front. <UL> and </UL> tag encloses an Unordered list. List items are specified by <LI> tag. The tag <UL> can take values square, circle or disc. The default type is disc.
Eg: <UL>
<LI>COMPUTER
<LI>BIOLOGY
</UL>

2. Ordered list:
In Ordered list, the list items are numbered in sequence. <OL> and </OL> tag encloses an Ordered list. List items are specified by <LI> tag. The tag <OL> can take values as follows

1. type = 1 for 1,2,3
2. type = i for i, ii, iii
3. type = I fori, II, III,….
4. type = afora,b,c,…
5. type = AforA,B,C

Eg:<OL>
<LI>COMPUTER
<LI>BIOLOGY
</OL>

3. Definition List:
It is formed by a group of definitions and their descriptions. No bullet symbol or number is provided for the list items. The <DL> and </DL> tags enclose the definition list. The <DT> tag contains the definition term and <DD> tag specifies the description.
Eg: <DL>
<DT>Echeque
<DD>Electronic cheque
</DL>

Question 2.
Explain the use of <BODY> tag and list any four of its attributes
Answer:
Web page contents are given int the body section. Attributes of body tag are:
1. BGCOLOR – Specifies background color for the document Body
Eg. <BODY BGCOLOR= “RED”>

2. BACKGROUND – Sets the image as background for the document body
Eg. <BODY BACKGROUNG= “C:\result.jpg”>

3. TEXT – Specifies the color of the text content of the page
Eg. <BODYTEXT= “Red”>

4. LINK – Specifies colour of the hyperlinks that are not visited by the user

5. ALINK – Specifies the colour of hyperlinks

6. VLINK – Specifies the color of hyperlinks which are already visited by the viewer.
Eg. < BODY ALINK= “Cyan” LINK=” Magenta” VLINK= “Orange”>

7. Left margin and Right margin-Sets margin from left and top of the document window.

Students can Download Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Questions and Answers, Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions

Plus Two Maths Relations and Functions Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Show that the relation R in the set is given by A = {x ∈ Z, 0 = x = 12}
R = {(a,b): a – b is a multiple of 4}
Answer:
Given; R = {(a,b): a – b is a multiple of 4}
Clearly a – a = 0 is a multiple of 4. So
(a, a) ∈ R, hence Reflexive
(a,b) ∈ R ⇒ a  -b is a multiple of 4, imply that b – a is a multiple of 4 ⇒ (b, a) ∈ R So Symmetric.
(a, b), (b, c) ∈ R ⇒ a – b and b – c are multiple of 4.
a – b + b – c is a multiple of 4
a – c is a multiple of 4 ⇒ (a, c) ∈ R So Transitive.
Hence R is an equivalence Relation.

Question 2.
Let R be a Relation in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} defines as R = {(x,y): y = 2x – 1}

1. Write R in roster form and find it’s domain and range
2. Is R an equivalence relation ? Justify.

Answer:
1. R ={(1, 1), (2, 3), (3, 5)}
Domain = {1, 2, 3} ; Range ={1, 3, 5}

2. Since (2, 2) ∉ R, R is not reflexive
(2, 3) ∈ R but (3, 2) ∉ R
R is not symmetric.
(2, 3) ∈ R, (3, 5) ∉ R but, (2, 5) ∉ R
R is not transitive
∴ R is not an equivalence relation.

Question 3.

Answer:
Given;

Question 4.
Let ‘ * ’ is a binary operation on the set Q of rational numbers as follows;

1. a * b = a – b
2. a * b = a + ab
3. a * b = a² + b²
4. a * b = (a – b)²

Find which of the binary operation are commutative and associative. Also find the identity element if exists.
Answer:
1. Given; a * b = a – b
b * a = b – a ≠ a – b = a * b
Hence not commutative.
Now; a * (b * c) = a * (b – c)
= a – (b – c) – a – b + c
(a * b) * c = (a – b) * c = a – b – c
a * (b * c) ≠ (a * b) * c
Hence not associative.
Now; a * e = a ⇒ a – e = a ⇒ e = 0
e * a = a ⇒ e – a = a ⇒ e = 2a
a * e ≠ e * a.
So identity element does not exist.

2. Given; a * b = a + ab
b * a = b + ab ≠ a + ab = a * b
Hence not commutative.
Now; a * (b * c) = a * (b + bc)
= a + a(b + be) = a + ab + abc
(a * b) * c = (a + ab) * c
= a + ab + c(a + ab)
= a + ab + ac + abc
a * (b * c) * (a * b) * c
Hence not associative.
Now; a * e = a ⇒ a + ae = a ⇒ e = 0
e * a = a ⇒ e + ea = a ⇒ e = \(\frac{a}{1+a}\)
a * e ≠ e * a.
So identity element does not exist.

3. Given; a * b = a² + b²
b * a = b² + a² = a² + b² = a * b
Hence commutative.
Now; a * (b * c) = a* (b² + c²) = a² + (b² + c²)²
(a * b) * c = (a² + b²) * c
= (a² + b²)² + c²
a * (b * c) ≠ (a * b) * c
Hence not associative.
Now; a * e – a ⇒ a² + e² = a
⇒ e = \(\sqrt{a-a^{2}}\) ∉ Q
So identity element does not exist.

4. Given; a * b = (a – b)²
b * a = (b – a)² = (a – b)² = a * b
Hence commutative.
Now; a * (b * c) = a * (b – c)² (a – (b-c)²)²
(a * b) * c – (a – b)² * c = ((a – b)² – c)²
a * (b * c) ≠ (a * b) * c
Hence not associative.
Now; a * e = \(\sqrt{a}\) ⇒ e = a – \(\sqrt{a}\) ∉ Q
So identity element does not exist.

Question 5.
Show that the relation R on the set of natural numbers defined as R: { (x, y): y – x is a multiple of 2} is an equivalance relation
Answer:
Since x – x = 0 is multiple of 2, (x, x)∈ R
Therefore reflexive.
If y – x is a multiple of 2 then x – y is also a multiple of 2. Therefore (x, y) ∈ R ⇒ (y, x) ∈ R. Hence symmetric.
If y – x is a multiple of 2 and z-y is a multiple of 2, then their sum y – x + z – y = z – x is a multiple of 2. Therefore (x, y), (y, z) ∈ R ⇒ (x, z) ∈ R
Hence transitive.
Therefore R is an equivalance relation.

Question 6.
Consider f : [3, ∞) → [1, ∞) given by f(x) = x² – 6x + 10. Find f^-1
Answer:
f(x) = (x – 3)² + 1
y = (x – 3)² + 1
⇒ (x – 3)² = y – 1
⇒ x = \(\sqrt{y-1}\) + 3
∴ f^-1(x) = \(\sqrt{x-1}\) + 3

Question 7.
‘*’ be a binary operation on N × N defined as (a, b) * (c, d) – (ac, bd)

1. Show that * is commutative.
2. Find the identity element of * if any
3. Write an element of N × N which has an inverse.

Answer:
1. (a, b) * (c, d) = (ac, bd) = (ca, db)
= (c, d) * (a, b)
Hence * is commutative.

2. (a, b) * (e, e) = (a, b)
⇒ (ae, be) = (a, b)
⇒ ae = a ⇒ e = 1
⇒ be = b ⇒ e = 1
Therefore (1,1) is the identity element.

3. Invertible element is (1,1).

Question 8.
Show that the relation R in the set R of Real numbers defined asR = {(a, b): a ≤ b²} is neither reflexive, nor symmetric nor transitive.
Answer:
a ≤ a² is not true for all a. So (a, a) ∉ R hence not Reflexive.
(a, b) ∈ R ⇒ a ≤ b² does not imply that b ≤ a². So (b, a) ∉ R, hence not Symmetric. (a, b),(b, c) ∈ R ⇒ a ≤ b² and b ≤ c² does not imply that a ≤ c². So (a, c) ∉ R, hence not Transitive.

Question 9.
Consider f :R⁺ → [-5, ∞) given by f(x) = 9x² + 6x – 5. Show that fis invertible with f^-1(y) = \(\frac{\sqrt{y+6}-1}{3}\)
Answer:

f is invertible and f^-1(y) = \(\frac{\sqrt{y+6}-1}{3}\).

Question 10.
Let A = R – {3} and B = R – {1} consider the function f: A → B defined by f(x) = \(\frac{x-2}{x-3}\) is f one-one and onto? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Given; f: A → B, A = R – {3} and B = R – {1}
f(x₁) = f(x₂) ⇒ \(\frac{x_{1}-2}{x_{1}-3}=\frac{x_{2}-2}{x_{2}-3}\)
⇒ (x₁ – 2)(x₂ – 3) = (x₂ – 2)(x₁ – 3)
⇒ x₁x₂ – 2x₂ – 3x₁ + 6 = x₂x₁ – 2x₁ – 3x₂ + 6
⇒ -2x₂ – 3x₁ = – 2x₁ – 3x₂ ⇒ x₁ = x₂
Hence one-one
Let y ∈ B ⇒ f(x) = y ⇒ \(\frac{x-2}{x-3}\) = y
⇒ x – 2 = xy – 3y
⇒ x – xy = 2 – 3y
⇒ x(1 – y) = 2 – 3y ⇒ x = \(\frac{2-3 y}{1-y}\) ∈ A=
Hence onto. Therefore bijective.

Question 11.

Answer:

Plus Two Maths Relations and Functions Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The relation R defined in the set A = {-1, 0, 1} as R = {(a,b):a = b²}

1. Check whether R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.
2. Is R an equivalence relation

Answer:
1. (-1, -1) ∉ R, R is not reflexive
(-1,1) ∈ R but (1, -1) ∉ R, R is not symmetric
(-1,1) ∈ R, (1, 1) ∈ R and (-1, 1) ∈ R,
R is transitive.

2. R is not reflexive, not symmetric and not transitive. So R is not an equivalence relation.

Question 2.
Let A = {1, 2, 3}. Give an example of a relation on A which is

1. Symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive.
2. Transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric.

Answer:
1. R = {(1, 2),(2, 1)}
(1, 1) ∉ R ⇒ R is not reflexive
(1, 2) ∈ R ⇒ (2, 1) ∈ R, R is symmetric
(1, 2) ∈ R, (2, 1) ∈ R but (1,1) ∉ R,
R is not transitive

2. R = {(1, 2),(1, 3),(2, 3)}
(1, 1) ∉ R ⇒ R is not reflexive
(1, 2) ∈ R ⇒ but (2,1) ∉ R, R is not symmetric
(1, 2) ∈ R, (2, 3) ∈R ⇒ (1, 3) ∈ R,
R is transitive.

Question 3.
Find fog and gof if

1. f(x) – |x| and g(x) – |3x + 4|
2. f(x) = 16x⁴ and g(x) = x ^{\(\frac{1}{4}\)}

Answer:
1. Given; f(x) = |x| and g(x) = |3x + 4|
fog(x) = f(g(x))
= f(|3x + 4|) = ||3x + 4|| = |3x + 4|
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(|x|) = |3|x| + 4|

2. fog(x) = f(g(x)) = g(x^{\(\frac{1}{4}\)}) = 16(x^{\(\frac{1}{4}\)})⁴ = x
gof (x) = g(f(x)) = g(16x⁴) = (16x⁴)^{\(\frac{1}{4}\)} = 4x.

Question 4.
Consider the binary operation* : Q → Q where Q is the set of rational numbers is defined as a * b = a + b – ab

1. Find 2 * 3 (1)
2. Is identity for * exist? If yes, find the identity element. (2)
3. Are elements of Q invertible? Is yes, find the inverse of an element in Q (1)

Answer:
1. 2 * 3 = 2 + 3 – 6 = -1.

2. a * e = a ⇒ a + e – ae = a
⇒ e(1 – a) – 0 ⇒ e = 0
e * a = a ⇒ e + a – ea = a
⇒ e(1 – a) = 0 ⇒ e = 0 is the identity element.

3. a * b = 0 ⇒ a + b – ab = 0 ⇒ b = \(\frac{a}{a-1}\)

Question 5.
‘*’ is a binary operation on R defined as a * b = 2ab

1. Determine whether * is commutative and associative
2. Find the identity element if exists.
3. Find the inverse element, if exists

Answer:
1. a * b = 2ab = 2ba = b * a
Therefore commutative
a * (b * c) = a * (2bc) = 4abc
(a * b) * c = (2ab) * c = 4 abc
Therefore is associative.

2. a * e = a ⇒ 2ae = a ⇒ e = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
e * a = a ⇒ 2ea = a ⇒ e = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Therefore identity element is \(\frac{1}{2}\).

3. a * b = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ⇒ 2ab = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ⇒ b = \(\frac{1}{4a}\), a ≠ 0.

Question 6.

1. If f: R – {2} → R – {2}, defined by f(x) = \(\frac{2 x-3}{x-2}\) then find fof
2. Which of the following satisfies the condition f^-1 ≠ f.

(a) f : R – {0} → R – {0}, f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x}\)
(b) f :R → R, f(x) = -x
(c) f : R – {-1} → R – {-1}, f(x) = \(\frac{x}{x+1}\)
(d) f: R – {2} → R – {2}, f(x) = \(\frac{2 x-3}{x-2}\)

Answer:
1. fof(x) = f(f(x)) = f\(\left(\frac{2 x-3}{x-2}\right)\)

2. Following satisfies the condition f^-1 ≠ f:
(a) f : R – {0} → R – {0}, f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x}\)
(b) f :R → R, f(x) = -x
The graph of functions in (a) and (b) symmetric with respect to the line y = x. The function in (d) we have already shown that fof (x) = x. So the answer is (c)
f : R – {-1} → R – {-1}, f(x) = \(\frac{x}{x+1}\).

Question 7.
If f :R → R is a function defined by f(x) = 3x – 2

1. Show that f is one-one.
2. Find fof(x).
3. Find the inverse of f if exists.

Answer:
1. f(x₁) = f(x₂)
⇒ 2x₁ – 3 = 2x₂ – 3 ⇒ x₁ = x₂
Therefore one-one.

2. fof(x) = f(f(x)) = f(3x – 2)
f (x) = 3(3x – 2) – 2 = 9x – 6 – 2 = 9x – 8.

3. Let g(x) = \(\frac{x+2}{3}\)
fog(x) = f(g(x))
= f\(\left(\frac{x+2}{3}\right)\) = 3\(\left(\frac{x+2}{3}\right)\) – 2 = x
Similarly we can show that
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = x
Therefore; f^-1 = \(\frac{x+2}{3}\).

Question 8.
Let A = N × N and be the binary operation. On A defined by (a, b) * (c, d) = (a+c, b+d). Show that ‘ * ’ is commutative and associative. Find the identity for ‘ * ’ on A if any.
Answer:
Given; A = N × N and
(a, b) * (c, d) = (a + c, b + d)
(c, d) * (a, b) = (c + a, d + b)
= (a + c, b + d) = (a, b) * (c, d))
Hence commutative.
Now; (a, b) * [(c, d) * (e, f)] = (a, b) * [c + e, d+f]
= (a + c + e, b + d + f)
[(a, b) * (c, d)] * (e, f) = [a + c, b + d] * (e, f)
= (a + c + e, b + d + f)
Hence associative.
(a, b) * (e, e) = (a, b) ⇒ (a + e, b + e) = (a, b)
⇒ a + e = a, b + e = b ⇒ e=0, e = 0 ⇒ (0,0) ∉ A
So identity element does not exist.

Question 9.
If f(x) = \(\left(\frac{4x+3}{6x-4}\right)\), x ≠ \(\frac{2}{3}\)

1. Show that fof{x)=x, for all x ≠ \(\frac{2}{3}\).
2. What is the inverse of ‘f?

Answer:
1.

2. Since; fof(x) = x
f is the inverse of it self.

Question 10.
1. Let f be a function defined by f(x) = \(\sqrt{x}\) is a function if it defined from (1)
(a) f : N → N
(b) f : R → R
(c) f : R → R⁺
(d) f : R⁺ → R⁺
2. Check the injectivity and surjectivity of the following functions (3)
(a) f : N → N defined by f(x) = x³
(b) f : R → R given by f(x) = [x]
Answer:
1.
(d) f : R⁺ → R⁺

2.
(a) For x, y ∈ N,
f(x) = f(y) ⇒ x³ = y³ ⇒ x = y
Therefore, f is injective
For 2 ∈ N, there does not exist x in the domain N such that f(x) = x³ = 2.
∴ f is not surjective.

(b) f : R → R given by f(x) = [x]
It seen that f(1.1) = 1 and f(1.8) = 1;
But 1.1 ≠ 1.8;
∴ f is not injective
There does not exist any element x ∈ R
such that f(x) = 0.7
∴ f is not surjective.

Plus Two Maths Relations and Functions Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the function f(x) \(=\frac{x+1}{x-1}\); x ≠ 1
1. fof(2) = ____
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
2. What is the inverse of f?
3. f(3) + f^-1(3)
Answer:
1. fof(2):
(b) 2

2. Let g : range of f → R- {1} inverse of f Let ‘y be any arbitrary element in the range of f
then y = f(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{x-1}\)
⇒ xy – y = x + 1 ⇒ x(y – 1) = y +1

Let us defi ne g : range of f → R- {1} as

3. f(3) = 2, f^-1(3) = 2
f(3) + f^-1(3) = 2 + 2 = 4.

Question 2.
1. Show that the function f: R → R defined by f(x) = 2x – 3 is one-one and onto. Find f^-1
2. Which of the following figure represents the graph of a function on R which is onto but not one-one.


3. Write a function on R which is onto but not one-one
Answer:
1. f(x) = 2x – 3
f(x₁) = f(x₂)
⇒ 2x₁ – 3 = 2x₂ – 3 ⇒ x₁ = x₂
Therefore f is one-one.
Let f(x) = yeR, then
y = 2x – 3 ⇒ 2x = y + 3 ⇒ x = \(\frac{y+3}{2}\) ∈ R
Therefore f is onto. Then f^-1(x) = \(\frac{x+3}{2}\).

2. Option (c)
[(b),(c),(d) are not one-one since for different values of x, we have same value of y. ie; horizontal line meets at more than one point, (b) and (d) are not onto since range and codomain are different].

3. f(x) = x², f : R → [0, ∞) (Any other function).

Question 3.
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}, * is a binary operation on A is defined as a * b = HCF of a and b.

1. Represent * with the help of an operation table.
2. Find the identity element.
3. Write a commutative binary operation on A with 3 as the identity element. (Hint: Operation table may be used.

Answer:
1.

2. From the table it is clear that the identity element is 6.

3. We can write any operation table which is commutative with 3 as the identity element.

Question 4.
Let * be a binary operation on the set of all real numbers R defined by a * b = a + b + a²b for a, b R.

1. Find 2 * 6 and 6 * 2. (2)
2. Prove that * is neither commutative nor associative. (2)
3. Find the identity elements in R if exists. (2)

Answer:
1. a * b = a + b + a²b
2 * 6 = 2 + 6 + 2² × 6 = 8 + 24 = 32
6 * 2 = 6 + 2 + 6² × 2 = 8 + 72 = 80.

2. a * b = a + b + a²b a * b ≠ b * a
b * a = b + a + b²a
∴ is not commutative.
(ab)c = (a + b + a²b) c
= a + b + a²b + c + (a + b + a²b)²c
a * (b * c) = a * (b + c + b²c)
= a + b + c + b²c + a²(b + c + b²c)
∴ is not associative.

3. Let e is the identity element.
∴ a * e = a ⇒ a + e + a²e = a ⇒ e(1 + a²) = 0
∴ e = 0
∴ e * a = a ⇒ e + a + e²a = a ⇒ e + e²a = 0
⇒ e(1 + ae) = 0
⇒ e = 0; (1 + ae) = 0
ea = -1 ⇒ e = – \(\frac{1}{a}\)
Identity element does not exists.

Question 5.

1. Consider f: {3, 4, 5, 6} → {8, 10, 12, 13, 14} And f = { (3, 8), (4, 10), (5, 12), (6, 14)}. State whether f has inverse ? Give reason. (2)
2. Consider f : R → R given by f(x) = 3x + 2 Show that f is invertible. Find the inverse of f

Answer:
1. Distinct elements in set {3, 4, 5, 6} has distinct images, under f.
∴ f is one- one
But 14 in the codomain has no pre image.
∴ f is not onto.
∴ f has no inverse.

2. f(x) = 3x + 2; then
f(x₁) = f(x₂) = 3x₂ + 2 ⇒ x₁= x₂
Hence F is one – one
For y ∈ R, let y = 3x + 2 ⇒ x = \(\frac{y-2}{3}\) ∈ R

Students can Download Chapter 3 Electrochemistry Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Electrochemistry

Plus Two Chemistry Electrochemistry One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The metal which acts as the anode in Daniell cell is _______
Answer:
Zinc

Question 2.
Electrolysis of dilute H₂SO₄ liberates ________ gas at cathode.
Answer:
Hydrogen

Question 3.
The charge required to reduce 1 mole of I₂ to I_– is
(a) 96500 C
(b) 2 × 96500 C
(c) \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 96500 C
(d) 4 × 96500 C
Answer:
(b) 2 × 96500 C

Question 4.
Of the following metals that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solution of their salts are
(a) Ag and Mg
(b) Ag and Al
(c) Mg and Al
(d) Cu and Cr
Answer:
(c) Mg and Al

Question 5.
Chemically, rust is _______
Answer:
Hydrated ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃.xH₂O)

Question 6.
One of your friends argues that in the laboratory CuS04 is not stored in Aluminium bottles.

1. Do you agree?
2. Justify.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. Aluminium displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. Because, in electrochemical series Al stands before copper. The reduction potential of Cu is greater than that of Al. Greater the value of reduction potential, more easily is the substance reduced.
E°_(Al⁺³/Al) = – 1.66 V,
E°_(Cu⁺²/Cu)= + 0.34V

Question 7.
Arrange the following metals in the order in which they displace each other from the solution of their salts:
Al, Cu, Fe, Mg and Zn
Answer:
The correct order is Mg, Al, Zn, Fe, Cu

Question 8.
The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.0248 S cm^-1. Calculate the molar conductivity.
Answer:

Question 9.
The limiting molar conductivity of HCl, CH₃COONa and NaCl are respectively 425, 90 and 125 mho cm²mol^-1 at 25°C. The molar conductivity of 0.01 m. CH₃COOH solution is 7.5 mho cm² mol^-1 at the same temperature. The degree of dissociation of 0.1 as acetic acid solution at the same temperature is _________
Answer:
0.02

Question 10.
The ion of least limiting molar conductivity among the following is
(a) SO^2-₄
(b) H⁺
(c) Ca²⁺
(d) CH₃COO^–
Answer:
(d) CH₃COO^–

Question 11.
Standard electrode potential of three metals XY and Z are 0.52V, 2.87 V and -0.44 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals are
Answer:
Y > Z > X

Question 12.
A current of strength of 9.65 ampere is passed through excess fused AlCl₃ for 5 hours. How many liters of chlorine will be liberated at STP.
Answer:
20.16

Question 13.
Consider the following four electrodes
P = Cu²⁺(.0001 M/Cu(s) Q = Cu²⁺(0.1 M)/Cu(s)
R = Cu²⁺(0.01 M)/Cu(s) S = Cu²⁺(0.001 M)Cu(s)
If the standard reduction potential of Cu²⁺/Cu is +.34V the reduction potential in volts of the above electrode follows the order.
Answer:
Q > R > P

Plus Two Chemistry Electrochemistry Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Resistance of lead is greater than that of gold.

1. Do you agree?
2. What do you mean by resistance?
3. What do you mean by resistivity?

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Resistance is the hindrance offered by a substance to the flow of electricity through it.
3. Resistivity is the resistance of a conductor of length 1 cm and area of cross section 1 cm².

R ∝ \(\frac{\ell}{\mathrm{A}}\) Or R = ρ\(\frac{\ell}{\mathrm{A}}\) where R → Resistance
and ρ → resistivity.
When l = 1 cm and A = 1 cm²
then, R = ?

Question 2.
In the chemistry lab, a student immersed two platinum electrodes in a solution of CuSO₄ and electric current was passed through the solution. After sometime he noticed that the colour of CuSO₄ disappeares with the evolution of a gas at the electrode. In his Practical Log, he recorded that the colourless solution contains H₂SO₄.

1. Is it true?
2. Comment on his findings and justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Yes.

2. When aqueous CuSO₄ solution is electrolysed using Pt electrodes, Cu is deposited at the cathode and O₂ is liberated at the anode.
CuSO₄(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + SO₄^2-(aq)
Cu²⁺(aq) + 2\(\bar { e }\) → Cu(s) (at cathode)
H₂O(l) → 2H+(aq) + 1/2 O₂(g) + 2\(\bar { e }\) (at anode)
Thus, H₂SO₄ is formed as the secondary product.

Question 3.
Consider the argument, “On the basis of position in the electrochemical series, Al does not displace hydrogen from water and acids

1. Do you agree with the argument?
2. Substantiate your answer.

Answer:

1. No.
2. Metals which are above hydrogen in the electro chemical series can displace H₂ from acids, i.e., elements having lower reduction potential than hydrogen, can liberate H₂ from acids and water. Al displaces hydrogen from water and acids.

Question 4.
How much electricity in Faraday is required to produce

1. 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl₂?
2. 45.0 g of Al from molten Al₂O₃?

(Hint: Atomic masses – Ca: 40 u, Al: 27 u)
Answer:
1. The electrode reaction is Ca²⁺(aq) + 2e^– → Ca(s)
Electricity required to produce 40 g Ca = 2 F
Electricity required to produce 20 g Ca = 1 F

2. The electrode reaction is.
Al³⁺(aq) + 3e^– → Al(s)
Electricity required to produce 27 g of Al = 3 F
Electricity required to produce 45 g Al = 5 F

Question 5.
In a debate, a student said “Electrolytes dissolved in water dissociate into constituent ions”. His friend supported this statement and said “The degree of dissociation of an electrolyte increase with the increasing concentration of the electrolyte.”

1. Do you agree with these statements?
2. If you agree or not, give the reason.

Answer:

1. The first statement is correct, but the second statement is wrong.
2. Degree of dissociation of an electrolyte increases with dilution and not by increasing the concentration.

Question 6.
The standard electrode potential of the elements A, B and C are 0.68, – 2.50 and – 0.50 volts respectively.

1. Arrange them in the order of their reducing power.
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. B < C < A
2. Greater the value of reduction potential, greater will be the reducing power.

Question 7.
In a standard hydrogen electrode, is it possible to replace the Platinum wire in the glass tube with Aluminium wire? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. Platinum is an inert electrode and moreover the coefficient of cubical expansion of platinum is equal to that of glass. But, aluminium being an active metal will interfere in the cell reaction.

Question 8.
Listen to the following statements.
“Zinc displaces silver from AgNO₃ solution, because standard oxidation potential of zinc is greaterthan that of silver”.

1. Is it true?
2. What happens when we use copper instead of zinc?
3. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Copper also displaces Ag from AgNO₃ solution.
3. In electrochemical series, Cu lies above Ag. The reduction potential of copper is +0.34 V. But in the case of silver, the reduction potential is +0.80 V.

Question 9.
“Metal having -ve reduction potential when dipped in the solution of its own ion has a tendency to go into the solution”.

1. Analyse the above statement.
2. Compare the reduction potential of H⁺ ion with that of other metal ions.

Answer:

1. The statement is correct.
2. The reduction electrode potentials of elements lying above hydrogen in the electrochemical series are negative while those of elements lying below hydrogen are positive. The standard potential for the reaction 2H⁺ + 2e^– → H_2(g) is taken as 0.00 V.

Question 10.
Consider the statement ‘Specific conductance increases on dilution’.

1. Is it true?
2. What is your opinion about it? Justify.
3. Define specific conductance and give its equation.

Answer:

1. No.
2. This is because, the number of ions per unit volume that carry the current in a solution decreases on dilution.
3. Specific conductance/Conductivity of a conductor is the conductance offered by the conductor of unit length and unit area of cross section.

k = \(\frac{l}{R A}=\frac{1}{R} \times \frac{l}{A}\) where \(\frac{l}{A}\) is the cell constant.

Question 11.
Write Nernst equation and calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K.

Answer:

Question 12.
The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 1500 Ω. What is the cell constant if conductivity of 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.146 × 10^-3 S cm^-1?
Answer:
Cell constant = \(\frac{\text { Conductivity }}{\text { Conductance }}\)
i.e., Cell constant = Conductivity × Resistance
= 0.146 × 10^-3 S cm^-1 × 1500 Ω
= 0.219 cm^-1

Question 13.

1. Give the name for the iron coated with the Zinc.
2. Can we store Cl₂ gas in copper vessel? Give reason.
   (E°_{(Cu²⁺/ Cu)} = + 0.34 V E°_{(Cl²/Cl^–)} = +1 -36 V)(2)
3. The equilibrium constant of a reaction which is difficult to calculate can be calculated by knowing the standard potential of the cell in which reaction takes place. Give the mathematical expression relating equilibrium constant and cell potential (2)

Answer:

1. Galvanised iron
2. No. Since the reduction potential of chlorine is greater than that of copper, chlorine reacts with copper to form cuprous chloride. E°_{(Cl²/Cl^–)} > (E°_{(Cu²⁺/ Cu)})
3. E°_cell = \(\frac{2.303 \mathrm{RT}}{\mathrm{nF}} \log \mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{c}}\)

where E°_cell is the standard cell potential (E°_cell = E°_cathode – E°_anode and K_c is the equilibrium constant of the cell reaction.

Plus Two Chemistry Electrochemistry Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Corrosion causes huge loss of metals.

1. Can you suggest two examples of corrosion from everyday life?
2. Suggest any two factors which enhance the rate of corrosion.
3. What is the chemical name of rust?

Answer:

1. Rusting of iron, Tarnishing of silver
2. two factors which enhance the rate of corrosion.
   • Presence of impurities
   • Air and moisture
3. Hydrated ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃.xH₂O)

Question 2.
Write a note on primary cells, secondary cells and fuel cells.
Answer:

Question 3.
Various factors influence the conductance of solutions.

1. What do you mean by conductance?
2. Write its formula.
3. Write the factors influencing it.

Answer:
1. It is also defined as the reciprocal of resistance. It is denoted by C.

2. Conductance, C = \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
But, R = ρ\(\frac{l}{A}\)
∴ C = \(\frac{1}{\rho} \frac{\mathrm{A}}{\ell}\)

3. The factors influencing it.

• The nature of the electrolyte added.
• Nature of solvent and its viscosity.
• Concentration of the solution.
• Temperature.

Question 4.
The position of some metals in the electrochemical
series in the decreasing order of electropositive
character is given:
Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag

1. What would happen if a copper spoon is used to stir a solution of aluminium?
2. Is there any reaction?
3. Comment on your response and justify.

Answer:

1. Nothing will happen. The Al solution can be safely stirred using a Cu spoon.
2. No.
3. The Cu spoon will not react with the solution of Al. Greater the value of reduction potential of a metal, more easily it is reduced. The element having low reduction potential is more reactive and is oxidised. Cu has greater reduction potential than Al and is more active metal than Cu.

Question 5.
In the lab a student added a zinc piece to CuSO₄ solution,

1. What may be his observation?
2. What did that observation indicate?
3. Give reason for the above observation.

[Hint: Process related to electrolysis]
Answer:

1. Zinc pieces will dissolve in CuSO₄ solution and the intensity of the blue colour of CuSO₄ solution decreases.
2. Zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
3. Lower the value of reduction potential more easily is the substance oxidised and greater the value of reduction potential, more easily is the substance reduced. Zinc is more reactive. Hence Zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.

Question 6.
Observe the given figure.

1. Identify the process.
2. Identify A and B.
3. Illustrate the mechanism of this process.

Answer:

1. Electrolysis.
2. A: Anode B: Cathode
3. During electrolysis, initially the electrolyte gets ionised. On passing electricity, the ions migrate to oppositely charged electrodes. Cations move towards cathode and anions move towards anode. Cations gain electrons from cathode while anions give out electrons to anode during discharge. The movement of ions in solution is responsible for conduction of electricity.

Question 7.
In the Chemistry lab the teacher told the students to label some electrolytes suitably. The labelling given by one student is as given:
Strong electrolyte – H₂SO₄, NH₄OH, KOH, Ca(OH)₂
Weak electrolytes – NaOH, HCN, NaCl, HCl

1. Is it correct? Justify.
2. Correct it.
3. What do you mean by electrolysis?

Answer:

1. No.
2. Strong electrolytes – H₂SO₄, KOH, HCl, NaOH, NaCl
   Weak electrolytes – NH₄OH, HCN, Ca(OH)₂
3. The process of chemical decomposition of electrolyte by the passage of electricity through its molten or dissolved state is called electrolysis.

Question 8.
This figure shows the corrosion of iron.

1. What happens to a metal during corrosion – oxidation or reduction?
2. Explain the electrochemical theory of rusting of iron.
3. Write two examples for metals which undergo corrosion.

Answer:
1. Oxidation.

2. The impure surface of iron behaves like as electrochemical cell. Pure iron functions as the anode while the impure surface acts as cathode. The electrolyte is moisture containing dissolved O₂ or CO₂.
At anode: 2Fe(s) → 2Fe²⁺(aq) + 4e^–
At cathode: 4H⁺(eq) + O₂(g) + 4e^– → 2H₂O(l)
The overall reaction is
2Fe(s) + O₂(g) + 4H⁺(aq) → 2Fe²⁺(aq) + 2H₂O(l)
Ferrous ions so formed are oxidised by atmospheric oxygen to ferric ions. The rust formed is chemically hydrated ferric oxide (Fe₂O₃.xH₂O)

2Fe²⁺(aq) + 2H₂O + 1/2 O₂ → Fe₂O₃ + 4H⁺
Fe₂O₃ + xH₂O → Fe₂O₃.xH₂O (rust)

3. Iron and Copper.

Question 9.
In an experimental set-up for the measurement of potential of a half-cell using the reference electrode and a salt bridge, the salt bridge was suddenly removed.

1. What happens to the voltage when the salt bridge is removed?
2. Justify your answer.
3. Write any two examples of inert electrolytes used for the construction of salt bridge.

Answer:

1. Voltage ceases.
2. When the salt bridge is removed the migration of ions between the half cells is hindered which results in the accumulation of charge near the electrodes. This decreases the cell voltage.
3. KCl, NH₄NO₃

Question 10.
In the class, teacher wrote some ions on the black board. It is given below.

1. Which among the ions, gain electron more easily?
2. Is it true that the reduction potential of hydrogen is less than that of Na and Mg?
3. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. Mg²⁺
2. No. The reduction potential of hydrogen is greater than that of both Na and Mg.
3. In electrochemical series, sodium and magnesium lie above hydrogen. Standard reduction potential of hydrogen electrode is taken as zero volt.

Question 11.

1. What does this figure represent?
2. What is its potential?
3. How can we construct this?

Answer:

1. SHE (Standard Hydrogen Electrode) Or NHE (Normal Hydrogen Electrode).
2. Its potential is taken as zero.
3. It consists of a platinum wire sealed into a glass tube carrying a platinum foil, coated with finely divided Pt, at one end. The electrode is dipped in an aqueous acid solution of 1M concentration. Pure hydrogen gas at 1 bar pressure is bubbled through the solution at 298 K.

Question 12.
Given the standard electrode potential values
E° _(Al³⁺/Al) = -1 -66 v E°_(Zn²⁺/Zn) = -0.764 V.

1. Draw a neat diagram of galvanic cell using the above electrodes and write the cell reaction.
2. Calculate the emf of the above cell.

Answer:
1.

2. Cell emf, E_cell = E°_(Zn²⁺/Zn) – E°_(Al³⁺/Al)
= – 0.764 – (-1.66) = + 0.896 V

Question 13.
Depict the galvanic cell in which the reaction Zn(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺ + 2Ag(s) takes place. Further show:

1. Which of the electrodes is negatively charged?
2. The carriers of current in the cell.
3. Individual reaction at each electrode.

Answer:
The electrochemical cell which will involve the given cell reaction is depicted as Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(aq) || Ag⁺(aq) | Ag(s)

1. In this cell, the electrode Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(aq) will act as negative terminal and Ag | Ag⁺(aq) electrode will act as positive terminal.
2. The conventional current will flow from silver to zinc electrode in the external circuit.
3. Individual reaction at each electrode.
   • Cathodic reaction: 2Ag⁺(aq) + 2e^– → 2Ag(s)
   • Anodic reaction: Zn(s) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e^–

Question 14.
How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to produce

1. 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl₂?
2. 40.0 g of Al from molten Al₂O₃?

Answer:
1. The electrode reaction is
Ca²⁺+ 2e^– → Ca
Electricity required to produce 40 g of Ca = 2 F
Electricity required to produce 20 g of Ca = 1 F

2. The electrode reaction is Al³⁺ + 3e^– → Al
Electricity required to produce 27 g of Al = 3 F
Electricity required to produce 40 g of Al = \(\frac{3 \mathrm{F} \times 40}{27}\) = 4.44 F

Question 15.
We can calculate the molar conductivity of NH₄OH at infinite dilution if Λ° of Ba(OH)₂, BaCl₂ and NH₄Cl are known.

1. Can you agree with this statement? Explain the law behind it.
2. Give the equation for Λ° of NH₄OH from the above data.

Answer:
1. Yes. According to Kohlrausch’s law the molar conductivity of an electrolyte at infinite dilution is equal to the sum of the molar ionic conductivities of the cations and anions at infinite dilution.

2.

Question 16.

1. Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place.
   Mg(s) + 2Ag²⁺(0.0001M) → Mg²⁺(0.130M) + 2 Ag(s). Calculate its E_cell if E°_cell = + 3.17 V.
2. Discuss the variation of molar conductivity with concentration for acetic acid and KCI.

Answer:
1. Mg(s) | Mg²⁺(0.130M) || Ag⁺(0.0001M) | Ag(s)

2. Conductivity decreases with dilution because the number of ions per unit volume that carry the current in a solution decreases on dilution. For strong electrolytes molar conductivity increases steadily with increase in dilution due to decrease in interionic attraction. For weak electrolytes molar conductivity increases with dilution due to increase in degree of dissociation.

Question 17.

1. Write the relation between molar conductance and molarity of an electrolyte solution.
2. λ_m^∞ of NaCl, HCl and CH³COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and 91 S cm² mol^-1 respectively. Calculate the λ_m^∞ of acetic acid.

Answer:
1. Λ_m = \(\frac{1000 \mathrm{k}}{\mathrm{M}}\)

2. Λ°_CH3COOH = Λ°_CH3COONa + Λ°_HCl – Λ°_NaCl
= 91 + 425.9 – 126.4
= 390.5 Ω^-1 cm² mol^-1

Question 18.
Certain cells are given below.

1. Classify them into primary, secondary and fuel cells. (Mercury cell, Nickel-Cadmium cell, Lead storage battery, H_2- O₂ cell, Dry cell)
2. Represent the cell in which the overall reaction is,
   Cd + 2Ag⁺ → Cd²⁺ + 2Ag

Answer:
1. Primary cells: Mercury cell, Dry cell
Secondary cells: Nickel-Cadmium cell, Lead storage battery.
Fuel cell : H₂ – O₂ cell

2. Cd → Cd²⁺ + 2e^– (Oxidation half cell)
2Ag⁺ + 2e^– → 2Ag (Reduction half cell)
Therefore the cell is represented as Cd | Cd²⁺ || Ag⁺ | Ag

Plus Two Chemistry Electrochemistry Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Every conductivity cell has a definite value for its cell constant.

1. What is cell constant?
2. How is it related with specific conductance?
3. Calculate the cell constant of a conductivity cell containing 0.05M KCl solution, whose resistance is 100 ohm and conductivity is 0.0075 ohm^-1 cm^-1.

Answer:
1. The quantity \(\ell / \mathrm{A}\) is called cell constant.
A = Area of cross section of the electrodes.
\(\ell\) = distance of separation of two electrodes.

2. Specific conductance = Cell constant × Conductance

3. Cell constant = Specific conductance × Resistance
= 0.0075 ohm 1 cm^-1 × 100 ohm = 0.75 cm^-1

Question 2.

1. Explain the working of a H₂ – O₂ fuel cell.
2. What are the advantages of fuel cells over other cells?

Answer:
1. In H₂ – O₂ fuel cell, hydrogen and oxygen are bubbled through porous carbon electrodes into concentrated aqueous NaOH solution, which acts as the electrolyte. The electrode reactions are,
Anode: 2H₂(g) + 4 OH^–(aq) → 4 H₂O(l) + 4 \(\bar { e }\)
Cathode: O₂(g) + 2 H₂O(l) + 4 \(\bar { e }\) → 4 OH^–(aq)
Overall reaction: 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2 H₂O(l)

2. The advantages of fuel cells over other cells

• They are pollution free.
• More efficient than conventional methods.
• Runs continuously as long as the reactants are supplied.
• Electrodes are not affected.

Question 3.
Consider the equation, λ_m^∞HCl = λ_m^∞H⁺ + λ_m^∞Cl^–

1. Is the above equation correct?
2. Explain the law.
3. Write the application of this law.

Answer:
1. The above equation is correct.

2. Kohlrausch’s law. Molar conductance at infinite dilution of an electrolyte is the sum of the molar ionic conductivities at infinite dilution of the cations and anions present in the solution.

3. The application of this law:

• To find the molar conductivity at infinite dilution (Λ°m) of weak electrolytes.
• To find the degree of dissociation (α) of weak electrolytes.
  α = \(\frac{\Lambda_{m}}{\Lambda_{m}^{0}}\)
• To determine the dissociation constant of weak electrolytes.
  Ka = \(\frac{\mathrm{c}_{\alpha}^{2}}{1-\alpha}\)

Question 4.
1. Depict the galvanic cell in which the reaction Zn(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s) takes place.
2. Further show

• Which of the electrodes is negatively charged?
• The carriers of current in the cell.
• Individual reaction at each electrode.

Answer:
1. Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(aq) || Ag⁺(aq) | Ag(s)

2. Further show

• Zn electrode is negatively charged (Anode).
• Ions
• Individual reaction at each electrode.
  • At anode : Zn(s) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e^–
  • At cathode : 2Ag⁺(aq) + 2e^– → 2Ag(s)

Question 5.

1. It is not possible to determine the molar conductivity of weak electrolytes at infinite dilution graphically. Do you agree with this? Justify your answer.
2. Calculate the molar conductivity of NH₄OH at infinite dilution if molar conductivity at infinite dilution of Ba(OH)₂, BaCl₂, and NH₄Cl are 523.4, 280 and 130 ohm^-1 cm² mol^-1 respectively.

Answer:
1. Yes. I agree with this statement because for weak electrolytes such as acetic acid, molar conductivity increases rapidly with dilution.
Hence, the plot of Λ_m against \(\sqrt{\mathrm{C}}\) (C = concentration of electrolyte) is not linear. Therefore the value of Λ°_m for weak electrolytes cannot be obtained by extraploting the graph.

Question 6.
Standard reduction potentials of some elements are given below.
Al = – 1.66 V, Cd = – 0.40 V, Ag = + 0.80 V & Au = + 1.36 V

1. Which of these can displace hydrogen from hydrochloric acid. Why?
2. Construct a galvanic cell using any two electrodes. Write the cell reaction and calculate the standard emf.

Answer:
1. Al and Cd can displace hydrogen from HCl. Metals with low reduction potential than H (i.e., with -ve value) can liberate H₂ from acids.

2.

Question 7.
Molar conductance at infinite dilution of acetic acid cannot be determined experimentally.

1. How can it be determined?
2. State the law.
3. Give two sets of electrolytes which can be used to find out the molar conductance of acetic acid at infinite dilution.

Answer:

1. It can be determined using Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration of ions.
2. Molar conductivity at infinite dilution of an electrolyte is the sum of molar ionic conductivities of the cation and anion at infinite dilution.
3. CH₃COONa, HCl, NaCl & CH₃COOK, HCl, KCl.

Question 8.
An electrochemical cell is a combination of two half cells consisting of a metal with its own ions in solution.

1. Represent the Daniell cell.
2. E°_cathode and E°_anode for the above cell are + 0.34 V and – 0.76 V respectively. Calculate the E°_cell?
3. Give the graphical interpretation of the following graph.

Answer:

1. Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(aq) || Cu²⁺(aq) | Cu(s)
2. E°_cell = E°_cathode – E°_anode = (-0.34V) – (-0.76V) = +1.1V
3. The graph indicates the variation of conductance with dilution for strong and weak electrolytes. For both of them Λ_m increases with dilution. For strong electrolytes like KCl, the graph is a straight line since the variation is linear. But for weak electrolytes like CH₃COOH the graph is a curve due to step increase in the value of molar conductance near infinite dilution.

Question 9.
The standard electrode potential of some electrodes are given below.

• Ag⁺/Ag = + 0.80 V
• Fe²⁺/Fe = – 0.44 V
• Cu²⁺/Cu = + 0.34 V
• Al³⁺/Al = – 1.66 V

Construct 4 possible electrochemical cells and calculate the cell potential of the corresponding cells?
Answer:

Question 10.

1. What do you mean by cells?
2. What is the difference between primary cells and secondary cells?
3. Fill in the following table:

Answer:
1. Cells are the devices in which chemical energy is converted into electrical energy.

2.

3.

• a – Zinc
• b – Graphite
• c – Zinc-Amalgam
• d – HgO and Carbon
• e – Paste of NH₄Cl and ZnCl₂
• f – Paste of KOH and ZnO

Question 11.
Iron gets destroyed due to continuous contact with the environment.

1. Name the phenomenon.
2. Suggest some prevention methods.
3. Explain any one prevention method

Answer:
1. Corrosion

2. Some prevention methods

• By using non-metallic coating
• By using metallic coating
• Cladding
• Cathodic protection
• Alloy formation

3. Metallic coating or electroplating iron is coated with zinc. Iron thus obtained is called galvanised iron. Coating of an electropositive metal on the metal surface.

Question 12.
Corrosion causes enormous damage to various articles made of metal.

1. What do you mean by corrosion?
2. What is barrier protection?
3. Name any two metals which can be used as sacrificial electrodes in the electrochemical method of protecting iron.

Answer:
1. Destruction of a metal.

2. In this method, a barrier film is introduced between metal and atmospheric oxygen and moisture. Painting or with a thin film of oil or grease electroplaing.

3. Two metals which can be used as sacrificial electrodes in the electrochemical method of protecting iron

• Mg
• Zn

Question 13.
Scientists suggest fuel cells as an alternative for conventional methods of power generation.

1. What are fuel cells?
2. Give the overall cell reaction of the H₂ – O₂ fuel cell. Also draw a neat labelled diagram of this cell.
3. What are the advantages of the fuel cells?

Answer:
1. Fuel cells are Galvanic cells designed to convert the energy of combustion of fuels directly into electrical energy.

2. The overall reaction taking place in an H₂ – O₂ fuel cell is 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l)

3. Advantages:

• High efficiency
• Steady voltage
• Pollution free

Question 14.
Certain cells are given below.

1. In Daniel cell, if Zn electrode is replaced by Mg what happens? Why?
2. Zinc displaces copper from copper sulphate solution while copper doesn’t replace zinc from zinc sulphate solution. Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. If Zinc electrode is replaced by Mg, a greater voltage (> 1.1 V) will be produced by the cell. Because Mg lies above Zn in electrochemical series.
E°_Mg²⁺Mg) = -2.36 V
E°_Zn²⁺Zn) = -0.76 V
i. e., Mg is a stronger reducing agent than Zn.

2. Zinc lying above hydrogen in the electrochemical series has relatively greater tendency to lose electrons. Hence Zn is capable of displacing hydrogen from acids. Moreover, a more active metal Zn, displaces, a less reactive copper from the salt solution. But Cu, being less active than Zn cannot displace Zn from its salt, ZnSO₄.

Plus Two Chemistry Electrochemistry NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Depict the galvanic cell in which the reaction Zn(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Zn²⁺ + 2Ag(s) takes place. Further show:

1. Which of the electrodes is negatively charged?
2. The carriers of current in the cell.
3. Individual reaction at each electrode.

Answer:
The electrochemical cell which will involve the given cell reaction is depicted as Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(aq) || Ag⁺(aq) | Ag(s)

1. In this cell, the electrode Zn(s) | Zn²⁺(aq) will act as negative terminal and Ag | Ag⁺(aq) electrode will act as positive terminal.

2. The conventional current will flow from silver to zinc electrode in the external circuit.

3. Individual reaction at each electrode:

• Cathodic reaction: 2Ag⁺(aq) + 2e^– → 2Ag(s)
• Anodic reaction: Zn(s) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2e^–

Question 2.
The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001
M KCl solution at 298 K is 1500 Ω. What is the cell constant if conductivity of 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.146 × 10^-3 S cm^-1?
Answer:
Cell constant = \(\frac{\text { Conductivity }}{\text { Conductance }}\)
i.e., Cell constant = Conductivity × Resistance = 0.146 × 10^-3 S cm^-1 × 1500 Ω
= 0.219 cm^-1

Question 3.
How much electricity in Faraday is required to produce

1. 20.0 g of Ca from molten CaCl₂?
2. 40.0 g of Al from molten Al₂O₃?

Answer:
1. The electrode reaction is
Ca²⁺(aq) + 2e^– → Ca(s)
Electricity required to produce 40 g Ca = 2 F
Electricity required to produce 20 g Ca = 1 F

2. The electrode reaction is
Al³⁺(aq) + 3e^– → Al(s)
Electricity required to produce 27 g of Al = 3 F
Electricity required to produce 40 g Al = \(\frac{3 F \times 40}{27}\) = 4.44 F

Question 4.
The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.0248 S cm^-1. Calculate the molar conductivity.
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 3 Data Structures and Operations Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Data Structures and Operations

Plus Two Computer Science Data Structures and Operations One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write down the full form of FIFO.
Answer:
First In First Out

Question 2.
A queue is implemented in a ………… manner
(a) fifo
(b) filo
(c) life
(d) lilo
Answer:
(a) fifo

Question 3.
People waiting in a cinema theatre counter for taking tickets is an example for …………
(a) stack
(b) queue
(c) array
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) queue

Question 4.
A linked list is a linear collection of data elements called ………….
Answer:
nodes

Question 5.
A stack can be grow or shrink, so it can be considered as ……………… data structure.
Answer:
dynamic

Question 6.
The data structure in which elements are arranged in non-sequence is named as type of data structure.
(a) Heterogeneous data structure
(b) Synthetic data structure
(c) Linear data structure
(d) Non-linear data structure
Answer:
(c) Linear data structure

Question 7.
Consider the following two statements.
(i). Memory of size dynamic data structures can be changed during execution.
(ii). Static data structures are associated with primary memory
(a) Statement (i) and statement (ii) are not true
(b) Statement (i) is true and statement (ii) is false
(c) Statement (i) is false and statement (ii) is true
(d) Statement (i) and statement (ii) are false
Answer:
(a) Statement (i) and statement (ii) are not true

Question 8.
……………… is a data structure in which items are added at one end and removed from the other,
(a) Stack
(b) Queue
(c) List
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Queue

Question 9.
…………………. is very useful in situation when data have to be stored and then retrieved in reverse order,
(a) Stack
(b) Queue
(c) List
(d) Link list
Answer:
(a) Stack

Question 10.
Which of the following data structure is linear type?
(a) Graph
(b) Trees
(c) Binary tree
(d) Stack
Answer:
(d) Stack

Question 11.
Combining the elements of two sorted data structures to form a new one is referred as
(a) Merging
(b) Sorting
(c) Traversal
(d) Searching
Answer:
(a) Merging

Question 12.
Which term is applicable with stack data structure?
(a) LILO
(b) FILO
(c) LIFO
(d) FIFO
Answer:
(c) LIFO

Question 13.
Placing glasses one above another can be considered similar to ……….. data structure.
(a) Queue
(b) Stack
(c) Record
(d) Graph
Answer:
(b) Stack

Question 14.
Each node containing data and a pointerto the next node is applicable with …………. data structure.
(a) Array
(b) Linked List
(c) Stack
(d) Queue
Answer:
(b) Linked List

Question 15.
Identify and correct mistake in the following Stack – PUSH algorithm,
start
if stack is full
return null
endif
top = top -1
stack[top] = data
stop
Answer:
top = top – 1 is to be replaced by top = top + 1

Question 16.
People waiting in a cinema theatre counter for taking tickets is an example for ………………
(a) stack
(b) queue
(c) array
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) queue

Plus Two Computer Science Concepts of Object-Oriented Programming Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A word, say “computer” is stored in an array. Another array is to be created by storing the reverse of the word. How can stack support you to perform this task? Explain the algorithm.
Answer:
This can be performed by pushing each character of the word “computer” onto a stack as it is read. After the word is finished, then the characters are popped off the stack, so they will come in the reverse order such as “retupmoc” in the desired output.

Question 2.
Name the principle by which tickets are issued in a Cinema Ticket counter. Which data structure supports this principle?
Answer:
It is an example for Queue. Here the persons are added at the back end and tickets are issued to the front end. The FIFO method is used.

Question 3.
Define stack. Write down short notes about stack.
Answer:
A stack is a linear structure in which items can be added or removed only at one end called top. Add an item into the stack is called push and deleting an item from the stack is called pop.

Question 4.
Write short notes about queue.
Answer:
A queue is also a linear structure in which the items can be added at the back end called rear and the items are removed from the front end. There are two operations adding an item at the rear end and removing an item from the front end.

Question 5.
Write an algorithm for Push operation on a stack;
Answer:

• Step 1: If top = N. Then print “OVERFLOW” and return
• Step 2: Set top = top + 1
• Step 3: Set Stack[top] = item
• Step 4: stop

Question 6.
Write an algorithm for Pop operation on a stack;
Answer:

• Step 1: If top = Null. Then print “UNDERFLOW” and return
• Step 2: Set item=Stack[top]
• Step 3: Set-top = top – 1
• Step 4: stop

Question 7.
A linked list containing all the name of students in your class is to be created. Write its C++ structure to define the node.
Answer:
struct node
{
char name[15];
node *link;
}

Question 8.
Write a short note about circular queue.
Answer:
ClrcularQueue Is a linear data structure in which the operations are performed based on FIFO (First In First Out) principle and the last position is connected back to the first position to make a circle.

Question 9.
With suitable diagrams and notes, Explain the different classifications of data structures.

Plus Two Computer Science Concepts of Object-Oriented Programming Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write an algorithm for inserting an element into a queue
Answer:

• Step 1: If front = 1 and rear = N or front =rear + 1. Then print “OVERFLOW” and return
• Step 2: If front = Null then Set front = 1 and rear = 1 Else if rear = N then set rear * 1 Else Set rear* rear + 1 End if
• Step 3: Set Queue[rear] = item
• Step 4: stop

Question 2.
Write an algorithm for deleting an element from a queue
Answer:

• step 1: If front = Null then print “UNDERFLOW” and return
• Step 2: Set item = Queue[front]
• Step 3: If front = rearthen Set front = Null and rear = Null Else if front = N then set front = 1 Else Set front = front + 1 End if
• Step 4; stop

Question 3.
Write the steps for inserting a new element to a queue.
Answer:

• Step 1: If front = 1 and rear = N or front = rear +1 Then print “ OVERFLOW and return
• Setp 2: If front = Null then Setfront = 1 and rear = 1 Else if near = N then Set rear * 1 Else Set rear* rear + 1 End if
• Step 3: Set queue [rear] * item.
• Step 4: Stop

Question 4.
Write the steps for deleting an element from a queue
Answer:
Deletion operation
It is. the process of deleting(removing) a data item. from the queue from the front. If the queue is empty ‘ v ‘.and we try to delete an item from the queue makes 1 the queue underflow. Algorithm is given below

• Step 1: If front = Null then print “UNDERFLOW: and return
• Step 2: Set item = Queue [front]
• Step 3: If front = Null and rear = Null Else if front N then set front = 1 Else Set front = front + 1 End if
• Step 4: stop

Question 5.
Write the steps for deleting a node from a linked list?
Answer:
Deletion from a linked list
It is the removal of a node from the data structure.

• Step 1: Get the address of the previous node (POS – 1) and next node (POS + 1) in the pointers PreNode and PostNode respectively.
• Step 2: Copy the contents of PostNode into the link part of node at position (POS – 1).
• Step 3: Free the node at position POS.

Plus Two Computer Science Concepts of Object-Oriented Programming Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a short note about all the operations associated with data structures:
Answer:
Operations on data structures

1. Traversing – Accessing or visiting or reading all elements of a data structure is called Traversal.
2. Searching – Searching is the process of finding elements in a data structure
3. Inserting – It is the process of adding new data at particular location is called insertion.
4. Deleting – It is the process of removing a particular element from the data structure.
5. Sorting – Arranging elements in a particular order(ascending or descending) is called sorting. Examples are bubble sort and selection sort.
6. Merging – This is the process of combining two sorted data structure and form a new one.

Question 2.
You are given a queue containing 50 students. Who will get the first chance and who will be irt the last position if the queue is in linear form.

1. In which position you add a new student?
2. In which problem you remove a student?
3. Which operations are performed for this purpose?
4. Write all steps for adding new students to a queue
5. Write all steps for removing a student from the queue?

Answer:
1. At the back or rear position
2. From the front position
3. Add a new student to the queue is insertion and removing a student from the queue is called deletion
4.

• Step 1: If front =1 and rear=N or front =rear+1. Then print “OVERFLOW” and return
• Step 2: If front = Null then Set front = 1 and rear =1 Else if rear 3 N then set rear = 1 Else Set rear = rear+1 End if
• Step 3: Set Queue[rear]=item Step 4: Stop

5.

• Step 1: If front = Null then print “UNDERFLOW and return
• Step 2: Set item = Queue[front]
• Step 3: If front = rear then Set front Null and rear =Null Else if front N then set front = 1Else Set front = front + 1 End if
• Step 4: stop

Question 3.
Class teacher said to the class leader to collecting their observation books and place them in a table one by one. Teacher should take books one by one from this group always from the top. Suppose that books be arranged in linear form from bottom to top

1. In which position a new book can be placed?
2. How can a book be taken from this group?
3. Which operations are performed for this purpose?
4. Write all steps for adding new books to this group or
5. Write all steps for removing books one by one from this group.

Answer:
1. At the top
2. From the top.
3. To place a new book it is push operation and taking books from the stack is pop operation
4.

• Step 1: If top = Null. Then print “UNDERFLOW” and return
• Step 2: Set item = Stack[top]
• Step 3: Set-top = top – 1
• Step 4: stop

5.

• Step 1: If front = 1 and rear=N or front =rear+1. Then print “OVERFLOW and return”
• Step 2: If front = Null then Set front = 1 and rear =1 Else if rear = N then set rear = 1 Else Set rear = rear + 1
  End if

Students can Download Chapter 2 Concepts of Object-Oriented Programming Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Concepts of Object-Oriented Programming

Plus Two Computer Science Concepts of Object-Oriented Programming One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Protecting data from access by unauthorized function is Data
(a) Polymorphism
(b) encapsulation
(c) data abstraction
(d) Inheritance
Answer:
(b) encapsulation

Question 2.
The act of partitioning a program into individual compoents is called,
(a) Polymorphism
(b) encapsulation
(c) data abstraction
(d) modularity
Answer:
(d) modularity

Question 3.
Which of the following is not an OOP concept?
(a) Overloading
(b) procedural programming
(c) data abstraction
(d) Inheritance
Answer:
(b) Procedural programming

Question 4.
The ability for a message or data to be processed in more than one form is called 6303 message or data.
(a) Polymorphism
(b) encapsulation
(c) data abstraction
(d) Inheritance
Answer:
(a) Polymorphism

Question 5.
C++ is a ……. language.
(a) Qbject based
(b) non-procedural
(c) Object-oriented
(d) procedural
Answer:
(c) Object-oriented

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of OOP?
(a) It emphasises more on procedure rather than data.
(b) It models real world
(c) It wraps up related data items and associated functions in the unit.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) It emphasises more on procedure rather than data.

Question 7.
Which among the following is true about OOPs.
(a) It supports data abstraction
(b) It supports polymorphism
(c) It supports structured programming.
(d) It supports all the above
Answer:
(d) It supports all the above

Question 8.
Identify the correct statements from the following.
(a) Procedural programming approach aims more at procedures.
(b) The object-oriented approach views a problem in terms of objects involved.
(c) Real life cannot be modeled in OOP.
(d) Procedures takes a secondary status in object-oriented approach.
Answer:
(a), (b), (d)

Question 9.
“One form many behaviours” represents
(a) modularity
(b) Abstraction
(c) polymorphism
(d) Inheritance
Answer:
(c) polymorphism

Question 10.
What do you understand by programming paradigm?
Answer:
Paradigm means organizing principle of a program. It is an approach to programming.

Question 11.
What are the characteristics of procedural paradigm? Procedural programming.
Answer:
In procedural paradigm, the emphasis is on doing things. Data is the reason for a program’s existence. Yet data is given second class status while programming.

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a programming paradigm?
Answer:
(a) Object oriented
(b) Procedure oriented
(c) Both a and b
(d) Standard
Answer:
(d) Standard. This is not a programming paradigm

Question 13.
In programming, modules are composed of
(a) data types
(b) functions
(c) statements
(d) programs
Answer:
(b) functions

Question 14.
The following function prototypes implement an OOP concept. Identify the concept and explain it.
Answer:
Polymorphism

Plus Two Computer Science Concepts of Object-Oriented Programming Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State whether the following statements are true or false.

1. In procedural oriented programming, data is the reason for a program’s existence.
2. The real word concept gets simplified using concept of abstraction.

Answer:
1. False. In procedural programming, the emphasis is on doing actions or operations. Here data is not secure.

2. True. The real world concept gets simplified using concept of abstraction. In object-oriented programming the problems are viewed in terms of objects involved. Thus modeling real-world becomes easy in object oriented programming. Objects essential features alone are represented. This property is known as data abstraction.

Question 2.
How does inheritance support ‘reusability’?
Answer:
Inheritance allows the addition of additional features to an existing class without modifying it. One can derive a new class (subclass) from an existing one and add new features to it. There is reduction in amount of typing and efforts.

Question 3.
Define the termbase class, subclass and the relationship between a base class and subclass.
Answer:
Inheritance is the capability of a class to inherit properties from another class. That class that inherits from other class is subclass and the other class is base class. For eg: when we say that the class ‘student’ inherits from the class ‘person’, then ‘person’ is a base class of ‘student’ and ‘student’ is a subclass of ‘person’.

Question 4.
How the data is hidden and safe if encapsulation is implemented?
Answer:
Encapsulation is the way of combining both data and the functions that operate on that data. Encapsulation is most often achieved through information hiding, which is the process of hiding all the secrets of an object that do not contribute to its essential characteristics. The structure of an object is hidden.

Question 5.
Differentiate object and Class.
Answer:
An object is an identifiable entity with some characteristics and behavior. It represents an entity that can store data and its associated functions. A class is a group of objects that share common properties and relationships. It represents a group of similar objects

Question 6.
Distinguish class and object with the help of examples.
Answer:

• Class – A class is a collection of objects with similar attributes.
• Object – An object is an instance of the class. Furniture class is an example for class. Chair, Table, etc. are the instances ie. objects of the class furniture

Question 7.
When we switch on the computer, booting takes place. We do not know what all things are happening inside. Identify the OOP concept that resembles this scenario. Give another situation that resembles this concept.
Answer:
Data abstraction: It refers to the act of representing essential features without including the background details. Switchboard is an example for this.

Question 8.
Which of the following members of a C++ class data type are hidden from accessing?
(a) Private and protected members
(b) Private and public members
(c) Public and protected members
(d) Private, public and protected members
Answer:
(a) Private and protected members

Question 9.
Explain how operator overloading implements polymorphism.
Answer:
Polymorphism is the ability for a message or data to be processed in more than one form. This is achieved by function overloading, operator overloading and dynamic binding.

Plus Two Computer Science Concepts of Object-Oriented Programming Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
You have seen a flask. When you put some ice-cubes in it, it will stay there for hours without melting and when you pour some hot water it will stay hot.

1. Name the OOP feature that we can correlate with this situation.
2. Write a short note about that feature

Answer:
1. Polymorphism

2. Polymorphism is an essential feature of object oriented programming. Polymorphism means having many forms. It is the capability of an object to behave differently in response to a message or action. That is, the same operation is performed differently depending upon the type of data it is working with. Polymorphism is implemented in C++ in two ways, compile time polymorphism and runtime polymorphism

Question 2.
Suppose your school is selected as the venue for conducting District youth festival. For the smooth functioning of the programme different committees are formed and each committee is assigned separate duties.

1. Which OOP feature can be correlated to this situation?
2. Write a brief note on that feature

Answer:
1. Modularity

2. When programs become larger, the program is broken into functions or modules. A module is separate unit in itself. Each unit can be compiled separately. All modules work hand in hand in order to achieve the program’s goal. The act of partitioning a program into individual unit is called modularity. It reduces program’s complexity.

Question 3.
You have seen the enquiry machine in a railway station. The user just types in a few details like train number, station, and date. The details of train, seat availability, fare, etc. will be displayed. The user is not aware of its working. Which OOP feature can you correlate with this situation?
Answer:
Data Abstraction:
Data abstraction is an important feature of OOP. It refers to the act of representing essential features without including the background details or explanations. Abstraction supports data hiding so that only the relevant information is expressed to the user and the rest of the information remains hidden from the user.

Question 4.
The famous luxury ship ‘TITANIC’ has provided all facilities like food, entertainment and medical aid available at that time for its passengers. Can you correlate this with any of the OOP features you have left. Justify.
Answer:
Encapsulation:
Encapsulation is the most fundamental concept of OOP. Placing data and functions together is the central idea of object oriented programming. This is known as Encapsulation

Question 5.
Using a real world example explain the concept of inheritance.
Answer:
Parent child relationship is the best example of inheritance. Child derives properties of parents. C++ supports inheritance.

It is the capability of one class to inherit properties from another class. In other words, inheritance is the process of creating new classes called derived classes, from existing base classes. The derived class inherits all the properties of base class but can add features of its own. The base class is unchanged by this process.

Question 6.
In an ATM machine the user will be given options to access their account details, withdraw money, deposit money, etc. only. The background details are not shown to the user.

1. Name the object oriented feature that we can correlate with this situation.
2. Briefly explain about the feature.

Answer:
1. Data abstraction

2. Abstraction refers to the act of representing essential features without including the background details or explanations. Abstraction supports data fiding so that only the relevant information is expressed to the user and the rest of information remains hidden from the user.

Question 7.
Consider the diagram. Can you correlate any OOP feature from this? Write a note on the feature.

Answer:
Data Encapsulation. Placing data and functions together is the central idea of object oriented programming. This is encapsulation. It is a way to implement abstraction by wrapping up data and associated functions into a single unit.

Question 8.
Consider the following statements.
6 + 9 = 15 but ‘x’ + ‘yz’ = ‘xyz’ Which OOP feature can you infer from the above. Explain.
Answer:
Polymorphism. Polymorphism is the ability for a message or data to be processed in more than one form. The same operation is performed differently depending upon type of data it is working with.

Question 9.
Abstraction and encapsulation are complementary concepts of OOP. Justify.
Answer:
Abstraction and encapsulation are complementary concepts of OOP. Abstraction refers to the act of representing essential features without including the background details. Encapsulation is wrapping up of data and functions into a single unit. Abstraction focuses upon the observable behaviour of an object, whereas encapsulation focuses upon the implementation that gives rise to this behaviour

Question 10.
Write four reasons for the increasing complexity of procedural programming.
Answer:
Following are the main reasons of increasing the procedural language complexity.

1. Data is undervalued
2. Adding new data requires modifications to all/many functions.
3. Creating new data types is difficult
4. Provides poor real world modeling

Question 11.
List the advantages of Object Oriented Programming.
Answer:

1. OOP allows modularity (divide the large programs into smaller ones.)
2. it is good for defining abstract data types
3. It allows data abstraction
4. It allows code reusability
5. Real life entities can be easily created
6. It supports to create new data types.

Question 12.
Identify a suitable attribute from the 2nd column and an associated behaviour from 3^rd column for each object in the 1^st column.

Answer:
i) → b → 4
ii) → d → 3
iii) → a → 2

Question 13.
“School kalolsavam” is organised with the help of various committees. Each committee is assigned with a specific task. Identify the OOP concept that is analogous to this situation. Give another real life case that resembles with this concept.
Answer:
The OOP concept used in this situation is modularity. Consider the situation to fill up the application forms of students in a class. Suppose one application form takes nearly 5 minutes of time.

So a class teachers will take 5 * 50 = 250 minutes to fill up the application forms of the entire class. Instead of this, the teacher distributes the application forms to the students, that takes only 5 minutes and teachers gives 5 minutes instructures to the students how to fill up the forms:

Next 5 minutes enough for the students to complete the work. After that the next 5 minutes to return back the filled up application forms. So the entire work will take only 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 = 20 minutes

Question 14.
Look at the following figure:

1. Identify the OOP concept shown by the figure.
2. Write short note about this concept.

Answer:
1. Inheritance

2. Inheritance is the capability Of one class of things to inherit properties from another class. The class from which attributes are inherited is called the base class. The inherited class is called derived class.

Students can Download Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics Questions and Answers, Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics

Plus Two Chemistry Chemical Kinetics One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The rate of a reaction is expressed as

The reaction is
(a) 4A + B → 2C + 3D
(b) B + 3D → 4A + 2C
(c) A + B → C + D
(d) B + D → A + C
Answer:
(b) B + 3D → 4A + 2C

Question 2.
Order of a reaction can
(a) rational
(b) zero
(c) integer
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
The unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is.
(a) L s^-1
(b) L mol^-1 s^-1
(c) mol L^-1 s^-1
(d) mol s^-1
Answer:
(c) mol L^-1 s^-1

Question 4.
The expression for half-life period of a first order is ___________
Answer:
t_1/2 = \(\frac{0.693}{k}\)

Question 5.
A plot of log k vs \(\frac{1}{T}\) helps to calculate
(a) Energy of activation
(b) Rate constant of the reaction
(c) Order of the reaction
(d) Energy of activation as well as the frequency factor.
Answer:
(d) Energy of activation as well as the frequency factor

Question 6.
When the initial concentration of the reactant in a reaction is doubled the half life period of the reaction gets halved. The order of the reaction is _____
Answer:
2

Question 7.
In first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.6 M to 0.3 M in 30 minutes. The time taken for the concentration to change from 0.1 M to 0.25 M is
Answer:
60 minute

Question 8.
The rate constant of a first order reaction is doubled when the temperature is increased from 20°C to 25°C. How many times to rate constant will increase if the temperature is raised from 20°C to 40°C
Answer:
16

Question 9.
The unit mol L^-1 s^-1 is meant for the rate constant of the reaction having the order _____
Answer:
Zero

Question 10.
If the activation energy for the forward reaction is 150 kJ/mol and that of the reverse reaction is 260 kJ/ mol. What is the enthalpy change?
Answer:
110 kJ/mol

Plus Two Chemistry Chemical Kinetics Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain a graphical method for determination of activation energy.
Answer:
Activation energy can be determined graphically from the Ink vs 1/T graph. From the graph,
In k = ln(Ae^-E_a/RT)
In k = In A + in e^-E_a/RT
In k = In A + -E_a /RT
This is in the form of y = mx + c
When a graph is plotted between 1/T and ln k, a straight line is obtained.
Slope of the line = ^–E_a/R
Therefore, E_a = slope × R

Question 2.
Choose the correct answer. The equation for t_1/2 of first order reaction is

1. t_1/2 = 0.693/k
2. t_1/2 = [R]₀/2k

Answer:
1. t_1/2 = 0.693/k

Question 3.
In a Chemistry class, teacher asked to write the rate expressions for the reaction,
NO₂ + CO → NO + CO_2-
Student 1 wrote: Rate ∝ [NO_1/2] [CO]
Student 2 wrote: Rate ∝ [NO_1/2] [NO_1/2]

1. Which is correct?
2. Justify your answer.

Answer:

1. Student 2 is correct.
2. In fact the reaction takes place in 2 steps. They are,

According to the law of chemical kinetics, the rate of a reaction is determined by the slowest step. Here step 1 is the slowest step i.e., rate determining step. By the law of mass action, rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the product of molar concentration of the reactants.
rate = k[NO₂][NO₂]= k[NO₂]²

Question 4.
What do you mean by rate of a reaction? Explain the method for the determination of the rate of reaction.
Answer:
Rate of a chemical reaction is the amount of product formed in unit time or the amount of reactant that reacted in unit time.
Rate = dx/dt. Here dx represents the amount of the product formed in a small interval of time dt.

Question 5.
1. Mention the order of the following reactions:

• CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O → CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH
• C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ + H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + C₆H₁₂O₆

2. Unit of the rate constant of a reaction depends on the order of the reaction. If the concentration is expressed in mol/L and time in second. Find the unit of k for zero, first and second order reactions.
Answer:
1. Order of the reactions:

• Pseudo 1^st order
• Pseudo 1^st order

2. Zero order = L^-1 mol¹ s^-1
1^st order = s^-1
2^nd order = L mol^-1 s^-1

Question 6.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 7.
Mention the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.
Answer:
The various factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction are:

• Concentration of reactants
• Temperature of reaction
• Presence of catalyst
• Nature of reactants
• Surface area
• Exposure to radiation

Plus Two Chemistry Chemical Kinetics Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Derive the expression for the half-life of a chemical reaction of first order?
Answer:
For a first order reaction,

Thus, for a first order reaction, half-life period is constant, i.e., it is independent of initial concentration of the reacting species.

Question 2.
Say True or False.

1. The rate of the reaction NO₂ + CO → NO + CO₂ can be written as a rate a [NO₂]¹ [CO]¹.
2. The reaction NO₂ + CO → NO + CO₂ takes place through one step.
3. If a reaction takes place through more than two steps, the rate of the reaction is determined by the slowest step.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True

Question 3.
The rate of a chemical reaction is influenced by many factors.

1. Write any five factors influencing rate of a reaction.
2. Write a short note about temperature dependence of rate of a reaction.

Answer:

1. Nature of the reactants, concentration of the reactants, temperature, pressure, catalyst, surface area, influence of radiation.
2. Usually the rate of chemical reaction increases when the temperature increases. The rate of a chemical reaction is found to be twice that of the original value for every 10° raise of temperature.

Question 4.
Consider the statement: “Sum of average kinetic energy and activation energy is equal to threshold energy”.

1. Is this correct?
2. Define activation energy.
3. Name the two methods used to determine the activation energy.

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. The excess amount of energy that is to be given to the reactant molecules in order to involve in a chemical reaction is called activation energy.
3. Theoretical method and graphical method.

Question 5.
“Nuclear reactions are first order reactions.”

1. Do you agree?
2. What do you mean by order of a reaction?
3. Write two differences between order and molecularity.

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Order of a chemical reaction is the sum of the powers of the concentration terms which occur in the rate expression.
3. Two differences between order and molecularity:
   • Order: Experimental, can be zero.
   • Molecularity: Theoretical, cannot be zero.

Question 6.
Analyse the statements:
Statement 1: “Half life of every reactions depend upon the initial amount.’’
Statement 2: “Half life depends on the initial amount except in the case of first order reactions.”

1. Which statement is correct?
2. Give the expressions for half life of a first order reaction. State how it is related to the initial concentration.
3. Show that t_1/2 of zero order reaction depends on initial amount?

Answer:
1. Statement 2.

2. t_1/2 = \(\frac{0.693}{k}\)
t_1/2 of a first order reaction is independent of the initial concentration of the reacting species.

3. For a zero order reaction,

Where [R]₀ is the initial amount.
i.e., t_1/2 of zero order reaction is directly proportional to the initial amount.

Question 7.
A relation is given below. Answer the following questions.
Average kinetic energy + Activation energy = Threshold energy

1. Explain Average Kinetic Energy, Activation Energy, and Threshold Energy.
2. Give the equation showing the relation between rate constant and temperature and explain the terms.
3. Name the above equation.

Answer:
1. Average kinetic Energy – The energy possessed by the reactant molecules which are involved in a chemical reaction.
Threshold energy – The minimum amount of energy required for the reactant molecules in order to involve in a chemical reaction.
Activation Energy – The excess amount of energy that is to be given to the reactant molecules in order to involve in a chemical reaction.

2. k = A e^-E_a/RT

• A → constant (frequency factor)
• T → Temperature in Kelvin
• E_a → Activation energy
• K → Rate constant

3. Arrhenius equation.

Question 8.
Inversion of sucrose in presence of dilute acid is said to be pseudo first order reaction.

1. Why is it said to be so?
2. Give another example of pseudo order reaction.

Answer:
1.

The rate depends only on the concentration of sucrose and it is independent of the concentration of water. Thus, the reaction appears to be of second order but actually follows first order kinetics,

2. Hydrolysis of ester in presence of acid.

Question 9.
For a reaction A + B → C + D, the rate equation is given by, r = k[A] [B],

1. What is the order of the above reaction?
2. Find the unit of k in the above rate equation.
3. What happens to the order of the reaction if‘B’is taken in large excess?

Answer:

1. 2^nd order
2. L mol^-1s^-1
3. If B is taken in large excess, the reaction behaves as 1^st order reaction. Such reactions are called pseudo 1^st order reactions.

Question 10.
For a reaction A → P, the rate of the reaction doubles when the concentration of A is increased by two times.

1. Determine the order of the reaction.
2. Derive an expression to determine the 14^th life period of above order reaction.

Answer:

1. First order reaction.
2. 1/4^th life of a first order reaction can be determined as follows.

Question 11.
Fora reaction A + B → products, the rate equation is given as rate = k[A]^1/2 [B]²

1. What is the order of the above reaction?
2. Distinguish between order and molecularity.

Answer:
1. Order of the reaction = \(2+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{5}{2}\)
2.

Question 12.
For the reaction:
2A + B → A₂B
the rate = k[A][B]² with k = 2.0 × 10^-6 mol^-2 L² s^-1. Calculate the initial rate of the reaction when [A] = 0.1 mol L^-1 [B] = 0.2 mol L^-1. Calculate the rate of reaction after [A] is reduced to 0.06 mol L^-1.
Answer:
Initial rate = k[A][B]²
But [A] = 0.1 M, [B] = 0.2 M and
k = 2.0 × 10^-6 mol^-2 L² s^-1
∴ Initial rate
= 2.0 × 10^-6 mol^-2 L² s^-1 × 0.1 M × (0.2 M)²
= 8 × 10^-9 M s^-1

From the equation 2A + B → A₂B it is clear that when 2 moles of A are used then 1 mol of B is used in the same time. Therefore, when A has been reduced to 0.06 M , 0.04 M of A and hence 0.02 M of B have reacted. Thus,
Concentration of A left = [A] = 0.06 M
Concentration of B left = [B] = (0.2 M – 0.02 M) = 0.18 M
Rate = k[A][B]²
= 2.0 × 10^-6 mol^-2 L² s^-1 × 0.06M × (0.18 M)²
= 3.89 × 10^-9M s^-1

Question 13.
The decomposition of NH₃ on platinum surface is zero order reaction. What are the rates of production of N₂ and H₂ if k = 2.5 × 10^-4 mol^-1 L s^-1?
Answer:
The decomposition of NH₃ is
2NH₃ → N₂ + 3H₂
Rate of reaction,

where k is the rate constant. Since, reaction is of zero order,

Question 14.
The rate constant of a first order reaction is 60 s^-1. How much time will it take to reduce the initial concentration of the reactant to its 1/16^th value?
Answer:
Rate constant of reaction, k = 60 s^-1
t_15/16 = ?
Rate constant of first order reaction is given as,

Question 15.
The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.
Answer:
T₁ = 293K, T₂ = 313K
According to Arrhenius equation,

2.303 × 8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1 × 4585.45 K × 0.6021
= 52863.33 J mol^-1 = 52.86 kJ mol^-1

Plus Two Chemistry Chemical Kinetics Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Which type of the reaction is this?
2. Write the order and molecularity of the reaction.
3. What is the unit of rate constant?
4. Write the 3 steps involved in this reaction?

Answer:

1. Photochemical reaction
2. Order = 0 Molecularity = 2
3. L^-1 mol¹ sec^-1
4. Initiation, propagation, termination

Question 2.
K = Ae^-E_a/RT

1. Write the name of this equation.
2. What do you mean by E_a?
3. Draw the graph between 1/T and Ink.
4. Write the significance of k.

Answer:
1. Arrhenius equation.

2. The excess amount of energy that is to be given to the reactant molecules in order to involve in a chemical reaction is called activation energy (E_a)

3.

4. By noting the value of k, we can predict the speed of a chemical reaction. In the case of a fast reaction, the value of k is high and in the case of a slow reaction value of k is small. By noting the unit of rate constant, we can predict the order of chemical reaction.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 4.
Consider the reaction

Answer the following questions

1. Write down 2 steps through which the reaction takes place.
2. Find out the slowest step.
3. Which is the rate-determining step?
4. Find out the order of the reaction.

Answer:
1. 2H₂O₂ + I^– → H₂O + IO^–
H₂O₂ + IO^– → H₂O + I^– + O₂

2. 2H₂O₂ + I^– → H₂O + IO^–

3. 2H₂O₂ + I^– → H₂O + IO^–

4. Order = 2

Question 5.
A chemical reaction is conducted within two hours. But after one hour half of the product is obtained.

1. Name the term used to designate this time?
2. Give the expression for this term if it is a first order reaction.
3. Calculate the rate constant of the above reaction.

Answer:

1. Half life of a chemical reaction.
2. t_1/2 = \(\frac{0.693}{k}\)
3. k = \(=\frac{0.693}{t_{1 / 2}}=\frac{0.693}{1 \mathrm{hr}}\) = 0.693 hr^-1

Question 6.

1. Define half-life period of a reaction.
2. A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant k = 5.5 × 10^-14 s^-1. Find the half-life period of the reaction.

Answer:
1. Time in which the concentration of the reactant is reduced to one half of its initial concentration.
2.

Question 7.
Order of a reaction is an experimental quantity.
(1) Calculate the overall order of a reaction which has the rate expression:
a) Rate = k[A]^1/2[B]^3/2
b) Rate = k[A]^3/2[B]^-1
(2) The initial concentration of N₂O₅ in the following first order reaction N₂O₆ (g) → 2NO₂(g) + 1/2 O₂(g) was 1.24 × 10^-2 mol/L at 318 K.

The concentration of N₂O₅, after 60 min was 0.20 × 10^-2  mol/L. Calculate the rate constant of the reaction at 318 K.
Answer:

Question 8.
1. Write the rate expression for the following reaction.
2N₂O₅(g) → 4NO₂(g) + O₂(g)
2. For a hypothetical reaction, aX + bY → Products, the rate law is given as \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = k[X]²[Y]^1/2. What happens to the rate of the reaction when

• The concentration of ‘X’ is doubled keeping that of ‘Y’ constant.
• The concentration of both ‘Y’ is doubled keeping that of ‘X’ constant.

Answer:
1. Rate expression:

2.

• Increases by 4 times
• Increases by \(\sqrt{2}\) times.

Question 9.
1. Identify the reaction order.

• k= 2.3 × 10^-5 L/mol/s
• k= 3 × 10^-4 s^-1

2. Calculate the activation energy. The rate constants of a reaction are 1 × 10^-3 s^-1 and 2 × 10^-3 s^-1 at 30°C and 40°C respectively.
Answer:
1. The reaction order:

• Second order
• First order

2.

Question 10.
For a reaction A + B → Product, the rate law is given by r= k[A] [B],

1. What is the order of the reaction?
2. What will be the effect of temperature on rate constant?
3. Can activation energy for reactions be zero? Justify your answer.

Answer:
1. Order is the sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate law.
rate = K [A]^x [B]^y
∴ Order = x + y

2. According to Arrhenius equation, at a particular temperature for a definite value of activation energy, rate constant,
k ∝ e^-1/T

3. If average kinetic energy of reactant molecule is equal to threshold energy, then activation energy can be zero.

Plus Two Chemistry Chemical Kinetics NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
For the reaction:
2A + B → A₂B
the rate = k[A][B]² with k = 2.0 × 10^-6 mol^-2 L² s^-1. Calculate the initial rate of the reaction when [A] = 0.1 mol L^-1 [B] = 0.2 mol L^-1. Calculate the rate of reaction after [A] is reduced to 0.06 mol L^-1.
Answer:
Initial rate = k[A][B]²
But [A] = 0.1 M, [B] = 0.2 M and
k = 2.0 × 10^-6 mol^-2 L² s^-1
Initial rate
= 2.0 × 10^-6 mol^-2 L² s^-1 × 0.1 M × (0.2 M)²
= 8 × 10^-9 M s^-1

From the equation 2A + B → A₂B it is clear that when 2 moles of A are used then 1 mol of B is used in the same time. Therefore, when A has been reduced to 0.06 M , 0.04 M of A and hence 0.02 M of B have reacted. Thus,
Concentration of A left = [A] = 0.06 M.
Concentration of B left = [B] = (0.2 M – 0.02 M) = 0.18 M
Rate = k[A][B]²
= 2.0 × 10^-6 mol^-2 L² s^-1 × 0.06M × (0.18 M)²
= 3.89 × 10^-9M s^-1

Question 2.
Mention the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction.
Answer:
The various factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction are:

• Concentration of reactants
• Temperature of reaction
• Presence of catalyst
• Nature of reactants
• Surface area
• Exposure to radiation

Question 3.
The decomposition of NH₃ on platinum surface is zero order reaction. What are the rates of production of N₂ and H₂ if k = 2.5 × 10^-4 mol^-1 L s^-1?
Answer:
The decomposition of NH₃ is
2NH₃ → N₂ + 3H₂
Rate of reaction,

where k is the rate constant. Since, reaction is of zero order,

Question 4.
The rate constant of a first order reaction is 60 s^-1. How much time will it take to reduce the initial concentration of the reactant to its 1/16^th value?
Answer:
Rate constant of reaction, k = 60 s^-1
t_15/16 = ?
Rate constant of first order reaction is given as,

Question 5.
The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 293 K to 313 K. Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction assuming that it does not change with temperature.
Answer:
T₁ = 293K, T₂ = 313K
According to Arrhenius equation,

2.303 × 8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1 × 4585.45 K × 0.6021
= 52863.33 J mol^-1 = 52.86 kJ mol^-1

Students can Download Chapter 1 Structures and Pointers Questions and Answers, Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus Two Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Structures and Pointers

Plus Two Computer Science Structures and Pointers One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name a method used to put logically related elements in one unit.
Answer:
Structure or class

Question 2.
…………… keyword is used to specify a structure.
Answer:
struct.

Question 3.
State True or False.
Answer:
‘A structure can be assigned to another structure only if both the structures are of same structure type’.

Question 4.
A structure brings together a group of
(a) Items of the same data type
(b) Integers with user defined names.
(c) Related data items and functions, if needed.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Related data items and functions, if needed.

Question 5.
Pick the odd one out from the following.
(a) int
(b) struct
(c) char
(d) long
Answer:
(b) struct

Question 6.
Select the structure member operator. Structure member operator select
(a) *
(b) .
(c) ®
(d) [ ]
Answer:
(b) .

Question 7.
The address of a computer memory starts at ………
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 1024
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 8.
The area used for dynamic memory allocation is called
(a) heap
(b) stack
(c) RAM
(d) Hard Disk
Answer:
(a) heap

Question 9.
Given int *P, x = 35; P = &x; what is the value of *P?
(a) 34
(b) 35
(c) 0
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) 35

Question 10.
int *P; p is having the address 2340. What will be the value of P after the execution of the statements P++; P = P – 3;
(a) 2340
(b) 2342
(c) 2338
(d) 2332
Answer:
(d) 2332

Question 11.
Dynamic allocation means memory allocation at the time of ……….
(a) compilation
(b) debugging
(c) execution
(d) programming
Answer:
(c) execution

Question 12.
The ‘new’ operator should be matched with a ……….
(a) pointer
(b) reference
(c) delete
(d) address
Answer:
(c) delete

Question 13.
In the declaration void ff (int &, float &); the parameters are passed by …….
(a) reference
(b) value
(c) pointers
(d) default
Answer:
(a) reference

Question 14.
Using ……… the memory location of a variable can be directly accessed and manipulated.
Answer:
Pointers.

Question 15.
Anil argued that memory can be allocated as and when required during runtime. Do you agree with this opinion? Justify.
Answer:
Yes. Memory can be allocated during run time using the operator new.

Question 16.
Name the unary operator that returns the address of its operand.
Answer:
& operator. Operator (Address operator)

Question 17.
Which among the following operators cannot be used with pointers?
(a) +
(b) –
(c) /
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) /

Question 18.
The address of the first byte is known as
(a) start
(b) Base address
(c) int address
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) Base address

Question 19.
What are the free store operators?
Answer:
‘new’ and ‘delete’ operators.

Question 20.
Give the syntax of new operator.
Answer:
= new ;
eg: int *P = new int;

Question 21.
What does the following stmt mean?
int *P = new int [15];
Answer:
Allocating memory for an integer array of 15 elements.

Question 22.
The ……. operator reverses the action of the ‘new’ operator.
Answer:
delete.

Question 23.
Which operator is used to access individual elements of a structure ora class while using pointer variables?
Answer:
(a) *
(b) .
(c) ?
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) .

Question 24.
A pointer is
(a) the address of a variable
(b) an indication of the variable to be accessed next
(c) a variable for storing addresses
(d) the datatype of an address variable
Answer:
(c) a variable for storing addresses

Question 25.
The expression * test can be said to ‘test
(a) be a ponterto test
(b) refer to the contents of test
(c) dereference test
(d) refer to the value of the variable pointed to by test
Answer:
(d) refer to the value of the variable pointed to by test

Question 26.
The expression double * can be said to double*
(a) be a pointer pointing to variable double
(b) refer to contents of double
(c) be a pointer to a double type value
(d) refer to the value of the variable pointed to by double.
Answer:
(c) be a pointer to a double type value

Question 27.
The new operator –
(a) returns a pointer to a variable
(b) creates a variable called new
(c) obtains memory for a new variable
(d) tells how much memory is available
Answer:
(c) obtains memory for a new variable

Question 28.
Write a declaration for an array of 8 pointers to float float values
(a) float a []
(b) float*[*a] [8]
(c) float *a[8]
(d) float [*a][8]
Answer:
(b) float*[*a] [8]

Question 29.
A pointer to void can hold pointers to ………….
(a) void
(b) int
(c) float
(d) any data type
Answer:
(d) any data type

Question 30.
The contents of two pointers that point to adjacent variable of type float differ by
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 8
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 31.
In the …….. memory allocation, the amount of memory to be allocated is not known beforehand
(a) Static
(b) binding
(c) object
(d) dynamic
Answer:
(d) dynamic

Question 32.
Improper use of ‘new’ and ‘delete’ may lead to ….. ‘new’, ‘delete’ operator
(a) increase of memory
(b) memory leaks
(c) destruction of memory
(d) syntax errors
Answer:
(b) memory leaks

Question 33.
If ‘p’ is pointer to the variable ‘x’, which of the following statement are correct.
(a) ‘p’ and ‘x’ may be of different data types
(b) if ‘p’ points to ‘x’, then ‘x’ also points to ‘p’
(c) the statement x = &p is valid
(d) *p will give the value of the variable ‘x’
Answer:
(d) *p will give the value of the variable ‘x’

Question 34.
Suppose ‘m’ is a float variable. Another variable ‘ptr’ stores the address of it, which is 2001. After the operation ptr++, it will point to the location having address ………. Why?
(a) 2002
(b) 2003
(C) 2004
(d) 2005
Answer:
(d) 2005 (add the size of its data type, 2001 + 4)

Question 35.
State True of False.
‘Only integers can be added or subtracted from pointers’.
Answer:
True

Question 36.
Give the syntax for delete operator, delete operator
Answer:
delete pointer-variable;

Question 37.
What does the following statement mean?
delete [ ] marks;
Answer:
Deallocating marks array

Question 38.
Name the operator that returns the data value stored in the area being pointed to by the pointer.
Answer:
* Operator

Question 39.
If the name of an array is a pointer to its first ele¬ment, how to move to third element.
Answer:
Array name +2 gives the address of third element

Question 40.
What does the following statement mean?
int * ptr [10];
Answer:
An array of 10 integer pointers

Question 41.
State True of False.
‘It is faster to use an element pointer rather than an index when scanning arrays’.
Answer:
True.

Question 42.
S[0] is not equal to S[0]
(a) *(S+0)
(b) *S
(c) *(s)
(d) S
Answer:
(d) S

Question 43.
Which of the following declaration is valid?
(a) int*p = &a,
(b) int&p = *a,
(c) int &p = &a,
(d) int a = &p;
Answer:
(a) int*p = &a,

Question 44.
*p means ……….
(a) address of p
(b) value of p
(c) address of variable pointed to which p points
(d) value of virile to which p points
Answer:
(a) address of p

Question 45.
& p means ……..
(a) address of p
(b) value of p
(c) address of variable pointed to which p points
(d) value of variable to which p points
Answer:
(a) address of p

Question 46.
State True of False.
‘Only integers can be added or substracted from pointers’.
Answer:
True.

Question 47.
Read the following statements:
(i) While defining a structure in C++, tag may be omitted.

(ii) The data contained in a structure variable can be copied into another variable only if both of them are declared using the same structure tag.

(iii) Elements of a structure is referenced by structure_name.element

(iv) A structure can contain another structure.

Now, Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Statements (ii) and (iv) are true
(e) Statements (i), (ii) and (iv) are true
(d) Statements (i) and (iii) are true
Answer:
(d) Statements (i) and (iii) are true

Question 48.
Choose the correct syntax for accessing a structure element.
(a) structure_name.element_name;
(b) element_name.structure_name;
(c) structure_variable.element_name;
(d) element_name.structure_variable;
Answer:
(c) structure_variable.element_name;

Question 49.
Which one of the following is not correct about a pointer.
Answer:
(a) A pointer stores address
(b) A Pointer stores L-value of a variable
(c) A Pointer points to a memory location
(d) A pointer stores R-Value of a variable
Answer:
(d) A pointer stores R-Value of a variable

Question 50.
The following are some pointer variable declarations.
(a) float *ptr;
(b) int ptr*;
(c) short *ptr1,*ptr2;
(d) double ptr;
Choose the correct declaration
(i) a and b
(ii) a and c
(iii) a and d
(iv) a only
Answer:
(ii) a and c

Question 51.
The address of operator (&) is used for
(a) Obtaining R-Value of a variable
(b) Obtaining L-Value of a variable
(c) Obtaining content of a variable
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Obtaining L-Value of a variable

Question 52.
Differentiate static and dynamic memory allocation.
Answer:
When the amount of memory to be allocated is known in advance and memory is allocated during compilation itself, it is referred to as static memory allocation. When the amount of memory to be allocated is not known in advance and it is required to allocate memory as and when required during run time, it is known as dynamic memory allocation.

Question 53.
If a memory allocated using the dynamic memory allocation operator new, is not deallocated using the operator delete, a problem is occurred. Name that problem.
Answer:
Memory leak

Question 54.
There is no chance of memory leak in static memory allocation”. Say True/False. Justify.
Answer:
The operating system takes the responsibility of memory allocation and deallocation without users instruction.

Question 55.
Write a C++ code segment to declare an integer pointer variable named p and store the address of an integer variable n into the pointer variable p.
Answer:
int * p, n; p = &n;

Question 56.
Consider the following code segment in C++. If a is stored at memory location 4020 and size of int is 4, then predict the output.
int *x, a;
x = &a;
cout << x ++ << “\n”; .
cout << ++ x;
Answer:
4020
4028

Question 57.
Choose the operator which is not associated with a pointer variable.
(a) *
(b) .
(c) &
(d) →
Answer:
(b) .

Question 58.
The arrow (→) operator is used for accessing
(a) structure element using structure variable.
(b) structure element using a structure name.
(c) structure element using structure pointer variable.
(d) structure element using structure tag.
Answer:
(c) structure element using structure pointer variable.

Question 59.
Write a C++ statement to declare an array, using character pointer variable, which can store names of 60 students in a class.
Answer:
char*name[60];

Question 60.
Read the following statements.
(i) A structure which contains another structure is called self referential structure.
(ii) A structure which, contains pointer to another structure is called self referential structure
(iii) A structure which contains another structure is called nested structure.
(iv) A structure which contains pointer to same structure is called self referential structure
Now, choose the correct option from the following
(a) statements (i) and (ii) are true
(b) statements (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) statements (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) statements (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) statements (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 61.
Structure is a …………………. data type.
Fill up the blank by choosing correct option from the following.
(a) Fundamental
(b) Derived
(c) User defined
(d) Built in
Answer:
(c) User defined

Question 62.
Write the declaration statement of a student structure variable named ‘s’ which is initialized with admission number 19, name as ‘Aysha’ and mark as 75.
Answer:
student s = {19,“aysha”,75};

Question 63.
“The dot(.) operator cannot be used for Recessing structure member by using structure pointer variable” Say True or False. Justify your answer.
Answer:
False. Arrow (→) operator is used for accessing structure member by using structure pointer variable.

Plus Two Computer Science Structures and Pointers Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write C++ statement for the following.

1. To declare an integer variable named ‘x’ using new operator.
2. To initialize the integer pointer variable x with value 5.
3. To declare a dynamic array of ten integers named x.

Answer:

1. int*x = newint;
2. int*x = newint(5);
3. int *x = new int[10];

Question 2.
Consider the following C++ program code to store address of an integer variable a into a pointer variable p
int a = 5,*p;
P = a;
cout<< p;
Identify the error in the above program segment and correct the error.
Answer:
P = a is the error because p is an integer pointer and can store only address. The correct code is p = &a;

Question 3.
Correct the program code given below:
int a = 5;
float *p;
p = &a;
cout << p;
Answer:
float*p; is to be corrected as int *p;
or
int a = 5; is to be corrected as float a = 5;

Question 4.
Calculate the memory requirement for the following structure variable s1.
[Consider the size of int = 4, char = 1 and float = 4]
struct student
{
int mo;
char name[25];
float height;
}s1;
Answer:

Question 5.
Consider the following array initialisation, int ar[5]={-2,-4,-6,2,4}; If first element of array is stored at 2050 and size of int is 4, find the output of the following.

1. cout<< *ar+*(ar+3);
2. cout<< ar+*(ar+4);

Answer:
1.
*ar = -2
*(ar + 3) = 2 (fourth element)
Hence *ar + *(ar + 3) = -2 + 2 = 0
Hence output is 0

2.
Here ar = 2050 (starting address)
and * (ar + 4) = *(2050 + 4*4)
= *(2050+16)
= *(2066)
= 4 (fifth element)
Hence ar + * (ar + 4)
= 2050 + 4
= 2054

Question 6.
Match the following:

Answer:
a – iii
b – iv
c – ii
d – i

Question 7.
Complete the following table. The table is differentiating array and structure.

Answer:

Question 8.
Identify the errors in the following code fragment and correct it.
struct sample
{
int x;
float y;
} S1 ,S2;
void main()
{Struct test
int a;
float 6;
}T1,T2;
T1 = T2;
T1=S1;
}
Answer:
The assignment T1 = S1 is not correct. It is a variable of type test and S1 is a variable of type sample. So it cannot be assigned.

Question 9.
When a C++ program is executed, the primary memory allocated for it is organized in a particular manner to deal with runtime memory allocation, function calls, variables, etc. Show a diagrammatic representation of it with brief explanation.
Answer:
After compilation of C++ creates four distinct regions of memory used for distinct functions:

The first area (1) is used for storing the compiled code of the program. The second area (2) is used for storing global variables of the program. It remains in memory till the program ends. The third region (3) known as the stack is used for holding the return addresses of function calls, arguments passed to the function, etc. The last region heap is used for dynamic allocation.

Question 10.
Analyze the following C++ statements and predict
the output.
int k = 4 ;
int *p ;
p = &k ;
cout<< k ;
cout<< *p;
cout<< *p++ ;
cout<< *(&k);
Answer:
4, 4, 4, 4

Question 11.
A boy wrote a C++ program that uses several pointer variables out of which some are used for dynamic allocation. He did not use the ‘delete’ operator anywhere in the program. While running the program, the computer got stuck up after some time. Predict the reason for this kind of situation, in connection with the above program code
Answer:
The situation is called memory leak. The memory allocated using ‘new’ should be properly deallocated using ‘delete’. If any function forgets to deallocate the memory using ‘delete’ which was allocated using the ‘new’ operator, it consumes some memory in every execution.

Thus a part of memory disappears with its every execution and it has some adverse effect on the system. This situation is called memory leak.

Question 12.
Is there any difference between structure and array? Explain.
Answer:
Yes. An array can hold multiple elements of same datatype whereas a structure can hold multiple elements of different data types.

Question 13.
Write a C++ structure definition to store the student details given below:

1. Admission number
2. Name
3. Marks in six subjects

Answer:
Struct student
{
intAdmno;
charname[30];
int mark[6];
}

Question 14.
Observe the following layout of data,

1. Name the data type in C++ used to represent the above data format.
2. Write the definition for implementing the above layout.

Answer:
1. Structure

2. struct Account
{
int accno;
char name[30];
struct lastdate
{
int day;
int month;
int year;
} tdate;
float balanceamt;
}

Question 15.
Consider the following code segment.
struct student
{
int rollno;
char name[20];
struct date
{
int day;
int month;
int year;
} birthday;
char batch[30];
int score;
}
Write valid statements in C++ to accept the name and date of birth of a student.
Answer:
gets(S1 .name);
S1.birthday.day=25;
S1.birthday.month=5;
S1.birthday. year=1991;

Question 16.
Why do we need structure variables, once a structure is defined in program?
Answer:
Structure specification is merely a data type definition. Memory allocation does not take place during specification. To handle data, memory locations are needed. For memory allocation, variables are to be declared. Hence structure variable is essential for handling structured data in programs.

Question 17.
With an example explain how structures can be initialized.
Answer:
Student stud = {“Athul”, 17,101, “XII Science”};
The above statement initializes structure variable stud of type student which has data members name, age, roll no, batch.

Question 18.
Can we declare a structure within another structure? Explain.
Yes. We can declare a structure as a member of another structure. It is known as nested structure.

Question 19.
What does the following statement mean?
Answer:
It is accessing the element of a nested structure. S is a structure variable that contains another structure variable dob. ‘month’ is a member of inner structure variable dob. This statement assigns a value 10 to the member month.

Question 20.
Thomas says that name of an array is a pointer by default. Do you agree with him? Justify.
Answer:
Yes. C++ takes the array name as the address of its first element. That is, the name of an array is actually a pointer pointing to the first element of an array.

Question 21.
Distinguish between
int * ptr = new int (5);
int * ptr = new int [5];
Answer:
The first statement allocates memory of one integer to ptr and initialized it with value 5. The second statement allocates memory of 5 contiguous integers (ie. an array of 5 integers) and stores begining address in pointer ptr.

Question 22.
Give the syntax to declare an integer 2D array dy namically.
Answer:
int * ptr = new int [m*n];
where m and n are rows and columns

Question 23.
The array of character pointers is generally preferred over two dimensional array of characters. Justify.
Answer:
The array of character pointers is preferred. There are two reasons:
1. An array of pointers makes more efficient use of available memory by consuming lesser number of bytes to store the strings.

2. An array of pointers makes the manipulation of the strings much easier. One can easily exchange the positions of the strings in the array of pointers without actually touching their memory locations.

Question 24.
Predict the errors in the following code fragment in C++.
1. float f= 1.42;
float *a;
a = f;
2. int *p,*q;
p = q + 1;
Answer:

1. a=&f is correct
2. No values assigned for p and q.

Question 25.
Define a structure in C++ to store book details such as book id, book name, price, and author name.
Answer:
Structure is a group of different types of logically related data referenced by a single name,
struct book
{
int book id;
charbook_name[40];
float price;
chart author_name[40];
};

Question 26.
Complete the following structure definition, to store students details with appropriate values. Students details are roll number, name and height.

Answer:
struct students
{
short rno;
char name[25];
float height;
};

Question 27.
Correct the following structure definition to represent an employee with employee code, employee name, and salary.
Answer:
Employee struct
{
ecode int;
char name[25];
salary double;
}

Question 28.
Consider the array declaration. Assume that the first element of array is stored in 2020 location,
int a[] = {2,5,8,9,4},*p1 ,*p2;
p1 = a;
p2 = &a[0];
cout<< p1<< “\t”<< p2;
Predict the output and justify.
Answer:
p1 = a means, the array name is the starting address of an array.
That means p1 = 2020
p2 = &a[0] means p2 = 2020
Hence the output is 2020 2020