Plus Two

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Biotechnology and its Applications.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 5 Biotechnology and its Applications

Question 1.
Teacher asked Balan to write the principle of RNAi technology. Help him by describing the method.(MARCH-2010)
Answer:
The silencing of mRNA by a double stranded RNA (dsRNA) is called RNA interference.

Question 2.
Bt. Cotton is a well known example of application of Biotechnology in Agriculture. Bt. Cotton reduces use of pesticides. Explain. (MAY-2010)
Answer:
Bt. Cotton is a transgenic plant which contains the cry gene of bacillus thuringiensis. The cry gene produces cry protein which kills larvae of lepedopteran, diptern insects which attack cotton plants. This protein is inactive in bacteria and becomes active in the intestine of insects. When the cry gene is transferred to the plant it becomes resistant to the insects.

Question 3.
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency is a hereditary disease, where ADA, which is crucial for functioning of immune system is absent. Explain how ADA deficiency can be treated. (MAY-2010)
Answer:
Lymphocytes are taken from patient’s blood. It is grown invitro culture. By using retroviral vector functional ADA c DNA (from WBC of normal person) is introduced into invitro cultured lymphocytes of patients. These genetically engineered lymphocytes (corrected functional lymphocytes) are re injected to patients. If the ADA producing genes are introduce into cells at early embryonic stage it could be a permanent cure.

Question 4.
Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus thurungiensis that can kill certain insects. (MARCH-2011)
a) Name the bacterical gene that is producing this toxin.
b) Why the toxin produced by the bacterium is nontoxic to it?
Answer:
a) Cry-gene
b) Bt. toxin protein exist as inactive ie. protoxin in bacteria

Question 5.
Raju is a diabetic parient who takes insulin injections regulary. The insulin used by such patients is producted by genetically engineered organisms . Write the different steps involved in the production of insulin by genetic engineering. (MARCH-2011)
Answer:
1) Preparation of DNA sequences corresponding to A&B chain of human insulin.
2) Introduce them in plasmid of E.coli.
3) Products of A&B Chains are separated.
4) Combine A&B chains by creating disulphide bonds

Question 6.
Expand the common short forms used in biotechnology. (MAY-2011)
i) GEAC
ii) GMO
iii) PCR
iv) ELISA
OR
Bt toxins are not toxic to bacillus and Bt cotton plant but toxic to insects. Explain.
Answer:
i) GEAC – Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
ii) GMO – Genetically Modified Organisms
iii) PCR -Polymerase Chain reaction
iv) ELISA – Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay
OR
The protein crystals are solubilised in the presence of alkaline pH of insect gut, hence becomes toxic to insects.

Question 7.
In human beings, certain diseases are caused due to genetic disorders. (MARCH-2012)
a) Name the method that allows the correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed in a child or embryo.
b) How this method has been used for treating ADA (Adenosine deaminase) deficiency?
Answer:
a) Gene therapy
b) Introduction of functionalADAcDNAintothe lymphocyte of defective person.

Question 8.
Infection by nematodes cause threat to cultivation and yield loss of tobacco plants. A strategy has been developed at RNA level to control this infestation. (MARCH-2012)
a) Name the process.
b) Explain how this process works at the molecular level.
Answer:
a) RNA interference
b) In this process specific mRNA of the nematode is silenced due to a complementary ds RNA, that prevents the translation of mRNA

Question 9.
Using genetically modified crops, farmers can minimize use of insecticides and pesticides during cultivation. (MAY-2012)
a) Give name of one such genetically modified pest resistant crop.
b) Which gene is used for its production?
c) Name the source of pest resistant gene.
d) Write about its mode of action.
Answer:
a) Bt cotton
b) cry gene
c) Bacillus thuringiencis
d) The cry gene produce the insecticidal protein which solubilised in the alkaline PH of insect gut and make pores in the epithelial cells.This causes the death of insect.

Question 10.
Nita found that her Grandma used to inject human insulin that is genetically engineered. She wants to know how such insulin can be produced. Give her an idea about structure of insulin and production of genetically engineered insulin. (MAY-2012)
Answer:
It consists of two short polypeptide chains: chain A and chain B, that are linked together by disulphide bridges.
It is necessary to prepare two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin and inserted in plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and B are produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.

Question 11.
A novel strategy to prevent nematode infestation is (MARCH-2013)
based on ‘RNA interference’
a) Explain RNA interference.
b) Can you suggest, how it can be used for producing nematode resistant plant.
Answer:
a) it involves silencing of a specific mRNA of nematode Here the complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA (silencing).
b) Afterthe insertion of nematode-specific genes by Agrobacterium vectors into the host plant, it produce both sense and anti-sense RNA in the host cells. These double stranded RNA (dsRNA) that initiated RNAi and silenced the specific mRNA of the nematode.

Question 12.
Sophie was born with a genetic disorder – ADA deficiency. (MARCH-2013)
a) What is ADA deficiency?
b) Can you suggest methods to treat this ADA deficiency?
Answer:
a) Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
b) Bone marrow transplantation or gene therapy (Lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are cultured and functional ADA cDNA is introduced in it.Then, these cells are return back to the patient) .

Question 13.
Gene therapy aims in correcting diseases caused by defective genes. A Child is suffering from a disease due to deficiency of ADA enzyme. ADA gene which normally produce the enzyme is missing in the patient. Recommend any two methods to treat the child. (MAY-2013)
Answer:
Enzyme replacement therapy & Genetic engineering.

Question 14.
Expand the short forms used in Biotechnology. (MAY-2013)
1) PCR
2) ELISA
3) GEAC
4) GMO
Answer:
PCR – Polymerase Chain reaction
ELISA – Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay GEAC – Genetic Engineering Approval Committee GMO – Genetically Modified Organisms

Question 15.
Bt Cotton is regarded as an important achievement of genetic engineering. What does Bt stands for? (MARCH-2014)
Answer:
Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 16.
Animals that had their DNA manipulated to possess and express foreign DNA are called transgenic animals. Write briefly any three benefits of such transgenic animals to human beings. (MARCH-2014)
Answer:
a) Transgenic mice are used to test the safety of the polio vaccine.
b) Transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein enriched milk (2.4 grams per litre).The milk contained the human alpha-lactalbumin It is the balanced product for human babies than natural cow- milk.
c) Transgenic animals that carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic substances than non- transgenic animals. Toxicity testing in such animals get results in less time.

Question 17.
Consider you are appointed as biotechnologist in a National Institute: What are the basic steps to be designed to produce a genetically modified organism? (Hint 3 points) (MAY-2014)
Answer:
i) Identification of DNA with desirable genes.
ii) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host.
iii) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.

Question 18.
Pharmaceutical companies are producing large quantities of human insulin by genetic engineering. Briefly explain the process. (MAY-2014)
Answer:
1. Prepare two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin.
2. Introduced them in plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains.
3. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.

Question 19.
in the 2012 children’s science congress one of the speaker summarized like this – if we are not vigilant, countries or individuals encash our resources as their right. (MAY-2014)
Explain this with an example
Answer:
Basmati rice is distinct for its aroma and flavour and 27 documented varieties of Basmati are grown in India. There is reference to Basmati in ancient texts, folklore and poetry, as it has been grown for centuries.
In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent and Trademark Office. This allowed the company to sell a ‘new’ variety of Basmati, in the US and abroad.

Question 20.
In a class room seminar on cloning vectors, your friend asked to explain the steps to introduce the plasmid DNA to a bacteria cell, Microinjection and bilestics. Answer his questions. (MAY-2014)
Answer:
For this, bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’ to take up DNA. This is done by treating them with a specific concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium, Recombinant DNA can then be forced into such cells by incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them briefly at 42°C (heat shock), and then putting them back on ice. This helps to introduce the plasmid DNA into bacterial cell.
Microinjection – In this recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell. Biolistics – In this cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA

Question 21.
Genetically Modified Organism (GMO) is always a debatable topic among scientists,’academicians and public. State any four usefulness of GMOs. (MARCH-2015)
Answer:
i) More tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).
ii) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest- resistant crops).
iii) Helped to reduce post harvest losses.
iv) Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants
v) Enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., Vitamin ‘A’enriched rice.

Question 22.
Biotechnology in agriculture will lead to pest resistant plants, which could decrease the amount of pesticides used. For example Bt cotton. Expand the letter ‘B’ and ‘t’. (MARCH-2015)
Answer:
B-Bacillus t-thuringiensis

Question 23.
In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office. Variety of Basmati had actually been derived from Indian farmer’s varieties. If so, what is Biopiracy? (MARCH-2015)
Answer:
It is the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment.

Question 24.
One of the speaker in the National Children’s Science Congress delivered a talk about Transgenic animals. Explore any 2 benefits of Transgenic animals. (MAY-2015)
Answer:
i) Study of disease: Transgenic animals can be used to know, how genes contribute to the development of disease.
ii) Biological products: Transgenic animals that produce useful biological products. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein-enriched milk contained the human alpha- lactalbumin. It is nutritionally a more balanced product for human babies than natural cow-milk.

Question 25.
The recombinant DNA technological process have made immense impact in the area of healthcare. How Eli Lilly produced Insulin? (MARCH-2016)
Answer:
Eli lily prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains by using recombinant DNA technology , it is introduced into plasmid of E coli and produced polypeptide chains A and B.
These chains are separated and connected by using disulphide linkage to form human insulin

Question 26.
A farmer approached an Agriculture officer to tell his grievance i.e.. reduction in tobacco yield due to root damage by nematodes, (MARCH-2016)
a) What is your suggestion to prevent this infestation?
b) Briefly explain the process.
Answer:
a) RNA interference (RNAi)
b) The best method used to prevent the attack of nematode is RNA interference (RNAi). It involves silencing of a specific mRNA of nematode. Here the complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA (silencing).

Question 27.
RNA can suppress the activity of a gene. Explain it with suitable example. (MAY-2016)
Answer:
In this process nematode specific genes were introduced into the host plant through agrobacterium,it produce both sense and antisense RNA, since this two RNAs are complementary to each other, form a dsRNA RNAi is operated and the nematode can’t produce proteins.

Question 28.
Match the following: (MARCH-2017)

Answer:

Question 29.
Insulin getting assembled into a mature form was the major challenge in commercial insulin production by rDNA technology. How did Eli Nilly found a solution to this problem? (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
An American company Eli Lilly in 1983 prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B, chains of human insulin and inserted in plasmids of E, coli to produce insulin chains. Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulfide bonds to form human insulin.

Question 30.
A) Bt cotton is an example of genetically engineered cotton. (MAY-2017)
a) What does Bt stands for?
b) Name the gene responsible for Bt toxin production.
c) How does the toxin kill the insect?
OR
B) Gene therapy is a corrective therapy for a hereditary disease.
a) Name the disease which was successfully corrected by gene therapy for the first time.
b) How gene therapy is practiced for a permanent cure of the disease?
Answer:
A) a) Bacillus thuringiensis
b) Cry gene
c) Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins it is converted into an active form in the presence of the alkaline pH of insect gut. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and create pores that cause cell swelling and lysis and results in the death of insect.
OR
B) a) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (ADA)
b) In this, functional ADA cDNA is introduced into embryonic stage. It is permanent cure forthe disease.

Question 31.
Antigen-antibody reaction is the basis of the technique called ____. (MAY-2017)
a) ELISA
b) PCR
c) RNA interference
d) Gene therapy
Answer:
ELISA

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 4 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Question 1.
Rinku with a circular DNA contains sequence (MARCH-2010)
5′-> GGAATTCC -> 3′
3′ -> CCTTAAGG -> 5′
She wishes to add a new segment of DNA into it.
a) Identify the technology she planned.
b) Suggest the specific enzyme to make a cut in the DNA with above sequence.
c) Name the category of enzyme you suggested.
d) How this enzyme identifies the sequence ?
e) Draw the cut ends of the DNA with sequence.
OR
Rashid isolated a natural plasmid from a bacterium and planning to facilitate cloning.
a) What are the minimum requirements for considering the isolate & plasmid as a vector ?
b) How he identifies whether a foreign DNA is inserted or not after cloning ?
Answer:
a) Recombinant DNA technology
b) Eco- R-1
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) Palindromic sequence
e)

OR
a) It should have origin of replication (ori), selectable marker for identifiying transformants, cloning sites.
b) Selectable marker which helps in identifying and eliminating non transforms and selectively permitting the growth of transformants. The markers commonly unsed are the gene encoding reistance to antibiotics such as tetracycline, ampicillin etc.

Question 2.
Diagram shows a typical agarose gel showing migration fragments. (MAY-2010)

a) Which of the bands has largest and smallest DNA fragments?
b) How can you make fragments of DNA for electrophoresis ?
c) Explain separation of DNA fragments using electrophoresis.
d) Point out a method to visualize the separated DNA fragments after electrophoresis.
Answer:
a) a is the largest DNA fragment and d is the smallest DNA fragment
b) DNA fragments can be made by cutting the DNA by restriction endonuclease.
c) Separation of DNA fragments takes place through gel electrophoresis where the cut DNA fragments
matrix. The separation takes place according to the size of the DNA.
d) The DNA separated by electrophoresis is visualized by staining it with Ethidium Bromide dye and viewing it under UV light. The fragments of DNA appears as orange coloured bands.

Question 3.
The picture given below shows the technique used forgenerating multiple copies of the gene of interest. (MARCH-2011)

a) What is the technique called?
b) Name the reactions at Step I, Step II, Step III.
c) Explain the principle underlying this technique of DNA amplification.

The above picture shows cloning vector pBR 322.
a) What is Ori? Give its importance.
b) How does the insertion of foreign DNA at Bam Hi site selected ? What is ampR?
c) How many cloning sites are depicted in this vector as shown in the figure?
Answer:
a) Polymerase chain reaction
b) Step I denaturation
Step II annealing
Stepl II extention/amplification
c) Multiple copies of gene of interest is synthesized invitro by using the set of primer,/Taq polymerase and deoxy nucleotides
OR
a) Origin of replication. Controlling the copy no.of linked DNA
b) Due to insertion of Foreign DNA at Bam H1 site, recombinant plasmid will lose tetracycline resistance, thus recombinants will not grow in the medium containing tetracycline
c) 5 cloning sites-Eco R1, Bam H1, Puv^II, Pst1, Pvu1

Question 4.
In a class room seminar on cloning vectors, your friend asked to explain the steps to introduce the plasmid DNA to a bacteria cell, Micro injection and biolistics. Answer his questions. (MAY-2011)
Answer:
For this, bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’ to take up DNA. This is done by treating them with a specific concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium, Recombinant DNA can then be forced into such cells by incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them briefly at 420C (heat shock), and then putting them back on ice. This helps to introduce the plasmid DNA into bacterial cell.
Micro injection – In this recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.
Biolistics – In this cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.

Question 5.
Observe the relation in the first pair and fill up the blank in the second. (MAY-2011)
Cry I Ac: Control cotton bollworm
……………: Control corn borer
Answer:
Cry I Ab ………. control corn borer.

Question 6.
Restriction endonucleases are the enzymes used to cut the DNA molecules. (MARCH-2012)
a) Give the general term of the specific sequences where these enzymes cut the DNA.
b) Name the enzyme that joints the foreign DNA and vector DNA.
c) Give any two procedures to introduce the recombinant DNA into the host cell.
OR
During genetic engineering Vector with foreign DNA is transferred into a host bacterium. The next target will be the selection of transformants from non- ‘ transformants.
How antibiotic resistance and insertional inactivation is exploited for this purpose?
Answer:
a) Palindromic sequence or recognition sequence
b) DNAIigase
c) Direct gene transfer by gene gun (biolistics) Direct gene transfer by micro injection
OR
Antibiotic gene is used us selectable marker to identify the recombinants from non recombinant. Insertional inactivation is used to identify the transformants as white coloursed and non transformants as blue coloured

Question 7.
While studying nucleotide sequence. Raj found the following sequence which can be recognized by some enzymes : (MAY-2012)
5′- GAATTC – 3′
3′- CTTAAG – 5′
a) Give salient features of this sequence.
b) Write name of enzymes which recognize such sequences.
c) Elaborate importance of this enzyme in Genetic engineering.
OR
A group of students came to know about recombinant DNA technology. They want to know how scientists can produce a new desired product using rDNAtechnology. Can you give them an idea about the important steps that are involved in this process?
Answer:
a) Palindromic sequence
b) Restriction endonuclease enzyme
c) The enzyme cut at specific nucleotide sequence and get sticky ends.The same restriction enzyme is used to cut both foreign DNA and cloning vector.
OR
Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps.
They are
1) Isolation of the Genetic Material (DNA)
2) Cutting of DNA at Specific Locations
3) Amplification of Gene of Interest using PCR
4) Insertion of Recombinant DNA into the Host Cell Organism
5) Obtaining the Foreign Gene Product
6) Down stream processing

Question 8.
Jaya read in a Biotechnology book that alien DNA can be introduced into host ceil by micro injection and biolistics. Explain these methods. (MARCH-2013)
Answer:
1) Micro-injection- The recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.
2) Biolistics or gene gun- The cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA. It is suitable for plants.

Question 9.
Genetic Engineering include creation of recombinant DNA with the help of restriction enzymes. (MARCH-2013)
a) Explain recombinant DNA technology.
b) What are restriction enzymes? Name a restriction enzyme.
Answer:
a) Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps.
They are
1) Isolation of the Genetic Material (DNA)
2) Cutting of DNA at Specific Locations
3) Amplification of Gene of Interest using PCR
4) Insertion of Recombinant DNA into the Host Cell /Organism
5) Obtaining the Foreign Gene Product
6) Downstream Processing
b) Restriction enzyme is used to cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequence Examples are EcoR1 ,Hind111 etc.

Question 10.
Gel electrophoresis is a technique to separate fragments of DNA from a mixture. Some of the events of electrophoresis are given below. Arrange the events in order: (MAY-2013)
1) Cutout DNA bands
2) Expose to UV
3) Force DNA to move through gel
4) Stain DNA with ethidium bromide.
Answer:
Force DNA to move through the gel, stain DNA with ethidium bromide expose to UV ,cut out DNA bands.

Question 11.
Identify palindrome sequence from the following. (MAY-2013)
1) 5′-GAATTC-3′
3′-CTTAAG-5′
2) 5′-ATCG-3′
3′-TACG-5′
3) 5′ – AAAAA – 5′
5′ – TTTTT – 3′
4) 5′-CCCCC-3′
3′-GGGGG-5′
Answer:
5′ ___GAATTC ____ 3′
3′ ____ CTTAAG ____ 5′

Question 12.
_________ are the enzymes used for cutting the DNA molecule into fragments. An example for this type of enzyme is Eco Ri. What does Eco, R and I stand for? (MARCH-2014)
Answer:
UB Restriction Endonuclease,
Eco- Escherichia coli, R- letter ‘R’ is derived from the name of strain, I— It indicate the order in which the enzymes were isolated from that strain of bacteria.

Question 13.
Use of a thermostable DNA polymerase from the bacterium, Thermus aquaticus made it possible to generate billion copies of DNA in a very short time using a process. (MARCH-2014)
a) Name the process.
b) Name the three important steps involved in this process.
Answer:
a) Polymerase chain reaction
b) Denaturation, Anealing, Extension

Question 14.
There are many features required to facilitate successful cloning in to a vector. Write shortly any two such features required by a vector. (MAY-2014)
Answer:
Origin of replication (ori): This is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells.
Selectable market: Genes encoding resistance to antibiotics are considered as useful selectable markers which helps in identifying and eliminating non transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants.

Question 15.
Recombinant DNA technology can be accomplished only if we have the following key tools, ie. Restriction enzymes, Polymerase enzyme, Ligases and Vectors. (MARCH-2015)
State the functions of
a) Ligases
b) Restriction Enzymes
Answer:
a) Ligase- Enzyme which is used to join the DNA fragments
b) Restriction Enzymes- It is used to cut DNA at specific locations

Question 16.
Figure representing the reactions associated with Polymer Chain Reaction (PCR). Name the steps A, B, C in the process (MARCH-2015)

Answer:
A — Denaturation
B — Annealing
C — Extension/Elongation

Question 17.
Observe the cloning vector and explain the following: (MAY-2015)

a) Ori
b) Bam HI
Answer:
a) ori-origin of replication
b) Bam HI- restriction enzyme

Question 18.
A multinational company successfully cloned a gene of interest and also optimized the conditions to induce the expression of target protein. (MAY-2015)
a) Name the apparatus for large scale production of such proteins.
b) Briefly explain the apparatus.
Answer:
a) Bioreactor
b) It is the large culture vessel (100-1000 litres) used for the production of large quantities of recombinant protein, enzymes, etc. it,provides optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins and oxygen). It consist of agitator system, an oxygen delivery system and a foam control system, a temperature control system, pH control system and sampling ports.

Question 19.
Observe the sketch of stirred-tank bioreactor and label the parts A, B. C and D. (MARCH-2016)

Answer:
A – motor
B – Foam breaker
C- Flat bladed impeller
D – Acid or base for PH Control

Question 20.
Manipulating with nucleic acid is a trend in Biotechnology. (MARCH-2016)
a) Name any one organism used as vector.
b) What are DNA polymerase?
Answer:
a) Ecoli
b) It helps to add nucleotide one by one on template srtand (polymerization of deoxy ribonucleotides)

Question 21.
Electrophoresis is a method commonly used in Biotechnology. Write briefly about GelElectrophoresis. (MAY-2016)
Answer:
In this method DNA fragments are separated accord-ing to their charge and size.
DNA is negatively charged molecules they move through agarose gel towards positively charged anode, DNA fragments are stained by Ethidium bromide, separated fragments can be observed as orange coloured bands under UV light.

Question 22.
Genetic engineering is a promising branch recently developed in biological science. (MAY-2016)
a) Expand PCR and name three steps in each cycle.
b) What is a plasmid? Name three features required for cloning vectors.
Answer:
a)PCR or polymerase chain reaction involves 4 steps
1) Denaturation – It involves the separating of DNA strands.
2) Annealing – The double strands are synthesised from free nucleotides by the action of DNA polymerase.
3) Extension – The length of the strands are increased as a result of addition of more and more nucleotides. The process of replication is repeated many times & billions of copies of DNA is synthesised.
OR
b)Plasmids are circular double stranded DNA molecules occurring in extra chromosomal state
1) Ori (Origin of replication) it is the sequence from where replication starts.
2) Cloning sites: For linking the alien DNA into the vector, there must be preferably single recognition sites because more than one recognition sites within the vector results several fragments.
3) Selectable markers are employed in rDNA technology for selecting the recombinants from non recombinants.

Question 23.
The following photograph shows the result of a technique showing the separation of DNA. (MARCH-2017)

a) Name the technique.
b) How the separated DNA is visualized?
c) DNA fragments of size 500bp and 2000 bp are separated by this process. Which fragment will migrate fast. Why?
OR
B) Different methods have been suggested to introduce alien DNA into host cells. Given and explain any three methods adopted for this purpose.
Answer:
A) a) Gel electrophoresis
b) The separated fragments of DNA can be visualized only after staining with ethidium bromide followed by exposure to uv radiation. DNA will be visualized as bright orange coloured bands on the gel.
c) 500 bp migrate fast because it is the smaller fragment found nearer to anode than other fragments on the gel.
OR
B) 1) Micro-injection-recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.
2) Biolistics or gene gun – cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA. It is suitable for plants.
3) Disarmed pathogen – vectors when allowed to infect the cell, transfer the recombinant DNA into the host.

Question 24.
Sequences of base pairs in DNA that reads the same on both the strands when the orientation of reading is kept the same are called ______ sequences. (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
Palindromic nucleotides

Question 25.
Origin of replication and selectable markers are the two important features required for a cloning vector. Explain their role in facilitating cloning. (MAY-2017)
Answer:
Up Origin of replication – It is the start of replication required for making many copies of the desired gene. Selectable markers – They are antibiotic-resistant genes that helpful in identifying recombinants from non-recombinants.

Question 26.
Rhizome, bulbil, offset and the bulb is different methods of vegetative reproduction in plants. Of these, the vegetative reproductive structures of Agave and Ginger are and respectively. (MAY-2017)
Answer:
Bulbil, Rhizome

Question 27.
Denaturation, Annealing and Extension are three steps of a process used for gene amplification: (MAY-2017)
a) Name the process.
b) Name the organism from which the DNA polymerase for this process is extracted.
Answer:
a) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
b) Thermusaquaticus

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 3 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Question 1.
Johny, a Plus Two student is from a tribal colony with lower level of vitamins, minerals and protein deficiency. He wishes to be a plant breeder to help the public by producing new crops with high levels of vitamins, minerals, protein etc. Identify the phenomenon. (MARCH-2010)
Answer:
Biofortification

Question 2.
In mid 1960’s as a result of various plant breeding techniques, there was a drastic increase in food production in our country. This phase is often referred as _______. (MAY-2010)
Answer:
Green revolution

Question 3.
Tissue culture is a fast and efficient system for crop improvement. Scientists in a research institution wants to produce a hybrid of potato and tomato. Is it possible to make such a hybrid ? If possible, explain how. (MAY-2010)
Answer:
Somatic hybridisation – The isolated cells from to-mato and potato are converted into naked protoplasts by digesting the cell walls. Isolated protoplasts of the two plants are fused to get hybrid protoplasts which is further grown to form a new plant. Somatic hybrid of tomato and potato is called Pomato.

Question 4.
Ram Singh is a conventional wheat breeder, One the promising wheat varieties is found to be susceptible to leaf rust.
What breeding steps he will adopt to make his original promising variety resistant to leaf rust? (MARCH-2011)
Answer:
Breeding steps
a) screening germ plasm
b) hybridization of selected parents
c) selection and evaluation of hybrid
d) testing and release of new varieties

Question 5.
The method of producing thousands of plantlets through tissue culture is called ______.  (MARCH-2011)
These plantlets which are genetically identical to each other are called _______.
Answer:
a) Micropropagation
b) Somaclones

Question 6.
Being a member of the Committee of People’s Planning Programme of your Panchayat, suggest two common fresh water fishes to grow in the fresh water fishery project undertaken by your Panchayat.  (MAY-2011)
Answer:
Catla and Rohu

Question 7.
If the tomato plants of your village are virus affected, which part of the plant would you recommend to culture for virus free plants?  (MAY-2011)
Answer:
Meristem /Shoot tip

Question 8.
The regeneration of whole plants from any part of the plant grown under sterile conditions is called tissue culture.
a) The general term for the part of the plant taken out for tissue culture is _______.  (MARCH-2012)
b) The capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell is ______.
Answer:
a) Explant
b) Toti potency

Question 9.
Raju went to a Rice Research station on his study tour. There he noticed a scientist working on rice plants using scissors and forceps. To his surprise he saw the scientist covering the inflorescences with paper bags. (MARCH-2012)
a) Name the techniques the scientist was doing.
b) Give the purpose of these techniques.
Answer:
a) Emasculation & Bagging
b) It helps to prevent the contamination of unwanted pollen

Question 10.
A newspaper report read like this. (MARCH-2012)
“Conventional agricultural products like cereals, pulses and other seeds may not be able to meet the demand of food according to the increase in population. So focus has to be shifted to alternate food sources like SCP’s.
a) What are SCP’s?
b) Give one example of SCP’s.
c) What are the advantages of SCP’s?
Answer:
a) Single cell protein. It is alternative food source human consumption
b) Spirulina
c) They are protein rich food besides carbohydrate, fat and minerals.

Question 11.
Continued inbreeding, usually reduces fertility and causes non productivity. This is called ________. (MAY-2012)
Answer:
Inbreeding depression

Question 12.
Bee keeping requires some specialized knowledge for success. (MAY-2012)
a) What is the alternate name for Bee Keeping?
b) Give your suggestions for successful bee
Answer:
a) apiculture
b) i) Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees
ii) Selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives
iii) Catching and hiving of swarms (group of bees)
iv) Management of beehives during different seasons, and
Handling and collection of honey and beewax.

Question 13.
Plant breeding programmes are carried out in a systematic way in research organizations. Explain main steps in breeding to produce a new genetic variety. (MARCH-2013)
Answer:
i) Collection of variability
ii) Evaluation and selection of parents:
iii) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents:
iv) Selection and testing of superior recombinants.
v) Testing, release and commercialisation of new cultivars:

Question 14.
MOET is a programme for herd improvement. Expand MOET. (MARCH-2013)
Answer:
MOET- Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology

Question 15.
It is observed that continuous inbreeding of animals for 4 – 6 generations produce progeny with reduced fertility and productivity. What measures can be taken to improve fertility and productivity of progeny? (MAY-2013)
Answer:
The selected animals of the breeding population should be mated with unrelated superior animals of the same breed. This is usually helps to restore fertility and yield. The offspring of such a mating is known as an out-cross.
A single out cross helps to overcome inbreeding depression.

Question 16.
crop are completely used up and hence genetic variations are to be created for crop improvement. Suggest any one method for creating genetic variation. (MAY-2013)
Answer:
Mutation breeding

Question 17.
Vidya got a plant which was affected with a viral disease. Her objective is to raise a disease free plant from this infected plant through tissue culture. (MARCH-2014)
a) Which part of the plant should be selected as the explant?
b) State the reason for the selection of this part as the explant.
Answer:
a) Shoot tip
b) Conducting tissues are not present

Question 18.
Plant breeding involves techniques for manipulating plants in order to create the desired plant types. State the steps involved in the production of a new genetic variety of a crop. (MARCH-2014)
Answer:
The main steps in breeding a new genetic variety of a crop are:
i) Collection of variability
ii) Evaluation and selection of parents:
iii) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents:
iv) Selection and testing of superior recombinants Testing, release and commercialisation of new cultivars.

Question 19.
The local people in a village wanted to produce a crop with improved nutritional qualities. What are the major objectives to be included to improve the nutritional qualities? (MAY-2014)
Answer:
i) Protein content and quality
ii) Oil content and quality
iii) Vitamin content; and
iv) Micro nutrient and mineral content

Question 20.
Observe the relation in the first pair and fill up the blank in the second. (MAY-2014)
a)

b)

Answer:
a) Pusaswarnim
b) PusaSawani

Question 21.
In a debate one of the speaker reported like this. (MARCH-2015)
“Continuous inbreeding leads to inbreeding depression.” If so, define the following:
a) Outcross
b) Crossbreeding
Answer:
a) It is the practice of mating of animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations. The offspring of such a mating is known as an out-cross.
b) In this superior males of one breed are mated with superior females of another breed. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams.

Question 22.
250 Kg. cow produces 200g of protein/day. In the same period 250 g of Methylophilus methylotrophus produce 25 tonnes of protein. Then what is single cell protein?  (MARCH-2015)
Answer:
One of the alternate sources of proteins for animal and human nutrition is Single Cell Protein (SCP)
Eg- Spirulina

Question 23.
In a Grama Panchayat, Members wanted to start a Bee-keeping industry. What are your suggestions for successful bee keeping ?  (MAY-2015)
Answer:
For successful bee-keeping it requires
i) Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees.
ii) Selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives.
iii) Catching and hiving of swarms (group of bees).
iv) Management of beehives during different seasons.

Question 24.
Observe the relation in the first pair and fill up the blank in the second.  (MAY-2015)
a)

b)

Answer:
a) Pusa sadabahar
b) Pusa sem 2, Pusa sem 3

Question 25.
Resistance is the ability to prevent the pathogen from causing disease.  (MARCH-2016)
1) Elucidate the steps in breeding for disease resistance.
2) Cite two examples for virus resistant plants.
OR
Tissue culture is an achievement in plant breeding. What is a somaclone ? Describe the production of somatic hybrid.
Answer:
1) a) screening of germ plasm for resistance
b) Hybridization of selected plants
c) Selection and evaluation of hybrids
d) Testing and release of new varieties
2) pusa sadabahar, parbhani kranti
OR
Morphologically and genetically similar off springs are produced through tissue culture called somaclones. Isolation of somatic cells from two different varieties Digestion of cell wall using enzymes.
Fusion of protoplast of two different varieties forming somatic hybrid protoplast.
Culture of protoplast hybrid to produce somatic hybrid.

Question 26.
a) Describe the major steps followed for the production of new genetic variety starting from the collection of germplasm upto elucidating the cultivars.  (MAY-2016)
b) A plant breeder has a rare variety of cultivar with him but unfortunately it has become infected with vims. Suggest a suitable technique to produce many viable number of progenies with a short note.
Answer:
a) Collection of variability
Evaluation and selection of parents Cross hybridisation among the selected parents Testing, release and commercialisation of new cultivars. Selection and testing of superior recombinants,
b) Meristem culture In this method virus free plants are developed because it lack conducting tissues

Question 27.
Match the following varieties with their respective crops:  (MARCH-2017)

Answer:

Question 28.
Breeding crops with the objective of increased nutritional quality is called _______.  (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
Biofortification

Question 29.
Out crossing and cross breeding are two different aspects of out breeding in animals. How out crossing is different from cross breeding?  (MAY-2017)
Answer:
Out-crossing
It is mating of animals within the same breed, but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to 4-6 generations.
Cross-breeding
It is the method of mating superior males of one breed with superior females of another breed.

Question 30.
The practice of maintenance of honeybees for the production is called _______. (MAY-2017)
Answer:
Bee keeping (Apiculture)

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Question 1.
Given below in the diagram showing the transfer of pollen grains. (MARCH-2010)
i) Identify a & b with technical terms.
ii) Critically evaluate a & b.

Answer:
i) (a) Autogamy & (b) Geitonogamy
ii) (a) Transfer of pollen from antherto the stigma of the same flower is called autogamy.
b) Transfer of pollen from anther to the stigma of a different flower on the same plant.

Question 2.
Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers. Name the layer which nourishes developing pollen grains.   (MAY-2010)
Answer:
Tapetum

Question 3.
Match the following:  (MAY-2010)

Answer:

Question 4.

Copy the picture given above and mark the following:  (MARCH-2011)
a) Connective tissue
b) Endothecium
c) Tapetum
d) Sporogenous tissue
Answer:

Question 5.
Transfer of pollengrains from the anther to the sitgma of a flower is called pollination. Grass plants generally have small, inconspicuous flowers while plants belonging to many angiosperm families bear conspicuous coloured flowers. (MARCH-2011)
a) Comment on the type of pollination taking place in these two groups.
b) What are the salient features present in these two groups for effective pollination?
Answer:
a) 1) Wind pollination
2) Pollination by biotic agents

b) Floral features of wind pollination :-

1. Light pollengrain
2. Dry, smooth & large quantities of pollengrains
3. Exposed stigma
4. Lack of scent
5. Lack of nectar

c) Floral features of animal pollination :-

1. Large flower
2. Colourful and fragrant with nectar
3. Sticky pollengrain

Question 6.
After fertilization in flowering plants, seeds bearing embryos are found inside the fruits. If seeds are developed from ovules. (MARCH-2011)
a) Name the parts that given rise to embryo and fruits.
b) What is the thick wall of the fruit that is protective in function called?
Answer:
a) Zygote -> Embryo
Ovary -> Fruit
b) Pericarp

Question 7.
Teacher wrote the steps of a crop improvement programme on the blackboard as follows: (MAY-2011)
Bagging
Emasculation
Arrange the steps in correct order, explain them and name the process of crop imdorvement programme with the given steps.
Answer:
Emasculation
Bagging
If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces This step is called emasculation. Emasculated flowers have to be covered with a bag of suitable size prevent the contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This process is called bagging.
The above two process are coming under Artificial Hybridisation

Question 8.
+2 students of a school at Kasargod district on their study tour collected flowers showing the following character
1) Flowers are with light pollen grains. (MAY-2011)
2) Colourful flowers.
3) Nectar producing flowers.
4) Flowers with feathery stigma.
a) Arrange the characters underdifferent pollination groups in the given table.
b) Write the name of 2 flowers pollinating through water.

Answer:
a)

b) Hydrilla, vallisneria

Question 9.
a) Hilum (MARCH-2012)
b) Funicle
c) Micropylarpole
d) Nucellus
e) Chalazalpole
d) Embryosac
Answer:

Question 10.
Innermost wall layer of microsporangium which nourishes the developing pollen grain is called ________. (MAY-2012)
Answer:
Tapetum

Question 11.
In large number of plants, pollination is carried out by insects. List four characters of flowers that helps insect pollination. (MAY-2012)
Answer:
Characters of entamophilous flowers.
1) Flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
2) small flowers are clustered into an inflorescence to make them conspicuous.

Question 12.
In Papaya, male and female flowers are present in separate plants. They are said to be ______. (MAY-2012)
Answer:
Dioceous

Question 13.
In artificial hybridization, it is important to make sure that sigma is protected from unwanted pollen. This is achieved by emasculation and bagging techniques. Can you explain, how emasculation and bagging techniques are performed? (MAY-2012)
Answer:
Anthers are removed before the dehiscence of anther of female parent that bears bisexual flowers. This step is called as emasculation.
It is covered with a bag of suitable size, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This process is called bagging.

Question 14.
After syngamy and triple fusion in embryosac, embryo will be diploid and endosperm will be ________. (MARCH-2013)
Answer:
Triploid

Question 15.
Flowering plants evolved an array of adaptations to achieve pollination.(MARCH-2013)
a) Explain pollination.
b) Point out adaptations found in flowers for insect pollination and wind pollination.
c) Illustrate pollination in Vallisnaria.
(OR)
Artificial hybridization is one of the major approaches for crop improvement programme. In such crosses it is important to avoid unwanted pollen.
a) Explain how can we protect stigma from unwanted pollen.
b) How artificial pollination can be performed?
Answer:
a) It is the transfer of pollen grains to the stigma of a pistil.
b) Characters of entamophilous flowers
1) Flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
2) small flowers are clustered into an inflorescence to make them conspicuous.
Characters of anemophilous flowers
1) pollen grains are light and non-sticky.
2) They possess well-exposed stamens and feathery stigma.
3) The flowers have a single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence.
c) In Vallisneria, the female flower reach the surface of water by the long stalk and the male flowers or pollen grains are released on to the surface of water. The anthers eventually reach the female flowers and the stigma.
(OR)
a) It is covered with a bag of suitable size, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This process is called bagging.
b) 1) Anthers are removed before the dehiscence of anther of female parent that bears bisexual flowers. This step is called as emasculation.
2) It is covered with a bag of suitable size, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This process is called bagging.
3) When the stigma of bagged flower attains receptivity, mature pollen grains collected from anthers of the male parent are dusted on the stigma, and the flowers are rebagged, and the fruits allowed to develop.

Question 16.
In many grasses seeds are formed only after fertilization. There are reports that in some grasses, seeds are formed without fertilization. Explain the phenomenon. (MAY-2013)
Answer:
The phenomenon of formation of seeds without fertilization is called Apomixis.
Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction. In this phenomenon , the diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division and develops into the embryo without fertilization.

Question 17.
The diagramatic view of a typical anatropous ovule is show below. Copy the diagram and label the unlabelled parts. (MAY-2013)

Answer:

Question 18.
In flowering plants, double fertilization occurs during sexual reproduction. One of the events of double fer-tilization is triple fusion. Name the other event. (MAY-2013)
Answer:
Syngamy. (Fusion of egg cell with male gamete that leads the formation of zygote)

Question 19.
In flowering plants during double fertilization two events take place in the embryosac namely ______ and ______. (MARCH-2014)
Answer:
Syngamy and Triple fusion

Question 20.
From the following, select the two having haploid Chromosome number. (MARCH-2014)
a) Egg
b) endosperm
c) Zygote
d) Pollen
Answer:
Egg, pollen

Question 21.
Sunflower is pollinated by insects while rice is pollinated by wind.  (MARCH-2014)
a) How these plants are adapted to their respective type of pollination method? (Hint-any 4 points)
b) Plants can be self or cross pollinated. Write any two mechanisms existing in nature to promote cross pollination.
(OR)
a) The diagram given below shows the transverse section of a young anther. Identify the parts a, b, c and d.

The developmental stages of male gametes in plants consist of microsporogenesis and male ga- metophyte. Arrange the following terms in their correct developmental sequence.
Pollen grain
Sporogenous tissue
anther
microspore tetrad
pollen mother cell
male gamete.
Answer:
Adaptation for wind pollination
1) The pollen grains are light and non-sticky
2) They possess well-exposed stamens and feathery stigma
Adaptation for insect pollination
1) Insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
2) The flowers are small, a number of flowers are clustered into an inflorescence
b) 1) pollen release and stigma receptivity are not at the same time.
2) Anther and stigma are placed at different positions so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of the same flower. Both these devices prevent autogamy.
(OR)
a) a-connective
b- epidermis
c – sporogenous tissue
d-Tapetum
b) Anther -> sporogenous tissue —> pollen mother cell —> microspore tetrad —> pollen grain —> malegamete

Question 22.
Most of the plants produce single type of flowers but Viola, Commelina and Oxalis produce two type of flowers. Explain. (MAY-2014)
Answer:
Chasm ogamous
Flowers with exposed anthers and stigma.
Cleistogamous
Flowers which do not open at all. In such flowers, the anthers and stigma lie close to each other. These flowers are example for autogamous flowers (self pollination)

Question 23.
Egg cell formation in angiosperms involves me- gasporogenesis and female gametophyte development. (MAY-2014)
a) Briefly write the various steps involved in female gametophyte development.
b) Mature angiosperm embryosac at maturity, though 8 nucleated is 7 celled.
What is your explanation related to this statement? Explain.
Answer:
a) Single megaspore mother cell (MMC) in the micropylar region of the nucellus undergoes meiotic division results in the production of four megaspores. In a majority of flowering plants, one of the megaspores is functional while the other three degenerate. Only one functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte (embryo sac).

b) 2 polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus in the large central cell.
Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus, which play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid. Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals.

Question 24.
Development of fruit without fertilization and are seedless known as ______. (MARCH-2015)
a) Polyembryony
b) Apomixix
c) Parthenocarpy
d) Parthenogenesis
Answer:
Parthenocarpy

Question 25.
Given below are the components related to simplified model of mineral cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem. Construct a flow chart. (MARCH-2015)
(Hint: Weathering of rock)

Answer:
Producers consumers -> detritus -> soil solution -> Minerals in rock

Question 26.
a) Reeja a science student observed the structure of mature embryosac comprising antipodals, central cells and egg apparatus. Explain each one of them. (MARCH-2015)
(OR)
b) Three different flowers are given to you in the practical class.
i) Maize
ii) Vallisneria
iii) Rose
You are asked to group them based on pollinating agents. Describe the adaptations of each flower related with the agents of pollination.
Answer:
The typical female gametophyte or embryo sac is 8-nucleate and 7-celled.
2 polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus in the large centraftfell.
Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus, which play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.
Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals.
(OR)
1) Maize wind pollination
a. The pollen grains are light and non-sticky
b. They possess well-exposed stamens and feathery stigma
2) Vallisneria water pollination
a. Water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.
b. Pollen grains are protected from wetting by a mucilaginous covering
3) Rose Insect polination
a. Insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
b. The flowers are small, a number of flowersare clustered into an inflorescence.

Question 27.
You are supplied with three different flowers such as Maize, Vallisneria and Rose and they have different pollinating agents also. (MAY-2015)
a) Differentiate the type of pollination.
b) Write their various adaptability in the plants suited to pollination.
Answer:
a) Maize -> wind pollination Vallisneria-> water pollination Rose -> insect pollination
b) In maize pollen grains are produced in large quantity, small flowers are packed into inflorescence, and stamen and stigma are exposed.
In vallisneria pollen grains are non sticky and surrounded by mucilaginous layer to prevent from wetting. They have not produced nectar and scent. In rose pollen grains are sticky and produced strong scent, the flowers are brightly coloured. it attract insect for pollination.

Question 28.
In some seeds the nucellus may be persistent. Such nucellus is called _______. (MARCH-2016)
a) Endosperm
b) Scutellum
c) Plumule
d) Perisperm
Answer:
d) Perisperm

Question 29.
What is a false fruit ? Cite an example. (MARCH-2016)
Answer:
Fruit is developed from parts of flower other than ovary.
Eg. apple and strawberry

Question 30.
Many of the flowering plants have developed some devices for discouraging in breeding. Write any two of them. (MARCH-2016)
Answer:
Self incompatibility
Production of unisexual flowers

Question 31.
The development of pollen grains in Angiosperms is called _______. (MAY-2016)
a) Microsporogenesis
b) Embryogenesis
c) Megasporogenesis
d) Gametogenesis
Answer:
Microsporogenesis

Question 32.
Which of the following part in a flower is haploid? (MAY-2016)
a) Antherwall
b) Pollen mother cell
c) Synergid
d) Secondary nucleus
Answer:
c) Synergid

Question 33.
Observe the following diagram and label A, B, C and D. (MAY-2016)

Answer:
A) Epidermis
B) Endothecium
C) Middle layers and
D) Tapetum

Question 34.
In aquatic plants like water hyacinth and water Lily the pollinating agent is ________. (MAY-2016)
a) Wind and insect
b) Water
c) Birds and butterflies
d) Aquatic organisms
Answer:
a) Wind and insect

Question 35.
A date palm seed discovered during archeological investigation retained viability even after 10000 years. The retention of viability is due to the state of inactivity of embryo called ________. (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
Dormancy

Question 36.
When the pollen is transferred from anther to the stigma of the same flower, the pollination is called autogamy.
a) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous. Explain. (MARCH-2017)
b) Geitonogamy is functionally cross pollination, but genetically similar to autogamy. Justify the statement.
Answer:
a) In this, flowers are not open pollen falls to the stigma of the same flower and seed setting takesplace without the influence of external agency.
b) In geitonogamy transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant.
Functionally geitonogamy is a type of cross pollination but it is genetically similar to autogamy since the pollen grains come from the same plant.

Question 37.
The thick protective covering of the fruit is known as ______. (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
Pericarp

Question 38.
Nature has mechanisms to promote outbreeding in plants. Explain any two mechanisms existing in plants to promote outbreeding. (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
1) Anther and stigma are placed at different positions so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of the same flower.
2) Self-incompatibility is the genetic mechanism in which pollen cannot germinate on the stigma of the same flower or other flowers of the same plant by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.

Question 39.
Rose is a flower pollinated by insect while in paddy pollination is by wind. Give any three adaptations existing in these plants to facilitate their respective mode of pollination. (MAY-2017)
(OR)
(B) Double fertilization and triple fusion are the two terms associated with angiosperm fertilization.
a) What is double fertilization?
b) Explain triple fusion.
c) Give the ploidy level of
i) endosperm
ii) zygote
Answer:
(A) Pollination in Rose
1. Flowers are large and colourful
2. They are fragrant and rich in nectar
3. Pollen grain are sticky
Pollination in Paddv
1. Pollen grains are light weight and non-sticky.
2. They possess well-exposed stamens
3. They possess feathery stigma.
(OR)
(B) a) It is the fertilization take place in two times. It involves syngamy and triple fusion.
b) It is the fusion of two polar nuclei and male gametes and results primary endosperm nucleus (PEN)
c) i) endosperm – 3n
ii) zygote-2n

Question 40
Identify the following parts of a dicot embryo. (MAY-2017)

Answer:
a- plumule
b – cotyledons
c – hypocotyle
d – radicle

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms

Question 1.
Fill up the blanks after reading the statement: (MARCH-2010)
The postfertilisation events in angiosperms.
Zygote : Embryo
Ovule : ______
Ovary : _______
Answer:
Seed
Fruit

Question 2.
Given below are 3 gametes a, b and c. a and b gametes undergoes fusion. (MARCH-2010)
a) Identify the fusion.

b) Give the explanation for the identification.
Answer:
a) Isogamy
b) Fusion of two morphologically similar gametes (male & female) is called Isogamy

Question 3.
Raman is learning the post-fertilization changes of an angiosperm embryo sac with the help of slides. He identified the egg nucleus and polar nuclei with the help of his teacher. (MARCH-2010)
a) Name the other nuclei present in the embryo sac.
b) Help Raman by giving the changes that takes place with egg nucleus and polar nuclei after fertilization.
Answer:
a) Antipodals and synergids
b) Egg nucleus + Sperm -> Sygote (2n)
Polar nuclei + Sperm -> PEN (3n) primary endosperm nucleus.

Question 4.
Find out which of the statements are true. (MAY-2010)
a) Ovary develops into fruit.
b) In flowering plants, zygote is formed outside the ovule.
c) Ovules develops into fruit.
d) Zygote develops into embryo.
Answer:
Ovary develops into fruit.

Question 5.
Farmers are propagating plants using vegetative structures. Can you mention the names of any two such structures. (MAY-2010)
Answer:
Rhizome – Ginger
Bulb – Onion

Question 6.
Prefertilization events of sexual reproduction in all organisms are gametogenesis and gamete transfer. What are the post fertilization events? (MAY-2011)
Answer:
Formation of zygote
Embryogenesis

Question 7.
You are asked to plant ginger in your home. Which part of ginger you will plant? Name the type of reproduction. (MAY-2011)
Answer:
Underground stem
Asexual reproduction

Question 8.
In asexual reproduction, off springs are produced by a single parent with or without the involvement of gamete formation.(MARCH-2012)
Name the asexual reproductive structures (a & b) given below.
Answer:
a) Bud
b) conidia

Question 9.
Zoospores are common asexual reproductive structures in plants and animals with relatively simple organization. Name two other asexual reproductive structures seen in the group. (MAY-2012)
Answer:
Gemmules in sponges, conidia in penicillium

Question 10.
In honey bees and some lizards,female gamete undergoes development to form new organisms without fertilization. This phenomenon is called ________. (MARCH-2013)
Answer:
Parthenogenesis

Question 11.
Morphologically and genetically similar individuals are called ______ . (MARCH-2013)
Answer:
Clones

Question 12.
Match the following terms with regard to vegetative reproduction in plants. (MAY-2013)

Answer:
a-c
b-d
c-a
d-b

Question 13.
a) Amoeba asexually multiplies by binary fission whereas Sponge by _______ (MAY-2014)
b) Water hyacinth vegetatively multiples by offset agave by ______
Answer:
a) Gemmule
b) Bulbil

Question 14.
Match the Column A with B: (MARCH-2015)

Answer:

Question 15.
a) Yeast asexually multiples by budding whereas Penicillium by. (MAY-2015)
b) Bryophyllum vegetatively multiples by adventitious buds water hyacinth by
Answer:
a) Conidia
b) offset/stem

Question 16.
The chromosome number of onion is 16 (2n). Find the chromosome number in the following cells with reasons. (MAY-2015)
a) Endosperm cell
b) Zygote
Answer:
a) 24
b) 16

Question 17.
When a gamete without any fusion develop into a new organism the phenomenon is called ______. (MARCH-2016)
a) Syngamy
b) External fertilization
c) Parthenogenesis
d) Parthenocarpy
Answer:
c) Parthenogenesis

Question 18.
A unisexual flower having no androecium is called _____. (MARCH-2016)
a) Dithecous
b) Dioecious
c) Monoecious
d) Pistillate
Answer:
d) Pistillate

Question 19.
Select the one which is not helping vegetative propagation. (MAY-2016)
a) Bulb
b) Clone
c) Adventitious
d) Eyes of the potato
Answer:
b) Clone

Question 20.
The plant in which adventitious buds along the mar¬gin of leaves give rise to new plants is (MARCH-2017)
a) Water Hyacinth
b) Agave
c) Bryophyllum
d) Dahlia
Answer:
Bryophyllum

Question 21.
In flowering plants male flower is called ______ flower and female flower is known as _______ flower. (MAY-2017)
Answer:
Staminate
Pistillate

Students can Download Chapter 15 Kerala: Towards Modernity, Plus Two History Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two History Notes Chapter 15 Kerala: Towards Modernity (Economy, Society, and Polity)

In this chapter, we discuss the factors that led Kerala to modernity. The most important factor for the modernization of Kerala is the colonial intervention. Colonialism brought changes in the existing landowning system and system of laws. All this resulted in the development of the estate (plantation) economy, capital, investment, deposits, growth of new industries, and growth in travel and communication. This era witnessed the beginning of missionary education, the publication of dictionaries, the start of public education, the ban on slavery, movements for a democratic society, and the resistance to colonialism.

The national movements under the leadership of the Indian National Congress and Praja Mandal and the agricultural protests against feudal, colonial exploitation resulted in the formation of Kerala State. The 19th and 20th century Social Reform Movements and the formation of Malayali identity played a big role in leading Kerala to modernity. All these are stressed in this chapter.

In the first part of the 19th century, there was administrative stability in all three regions of Kerala. Western influence was most felt during this period. This influence positively helped in paving the base for modem Kerala. There were many reforms in the society initiated by the British as well as the rulers of Travancore and Kochi. Of course, behind the reforms brought by the British, there were colonial interests. Most of these reforms were brought with the intention of solidifying British rule in India. But they did bring changes in the attitude of Keralites and the circumstances prevailing here.

As the British established their authority here in Kerala, there were also strong resistance movements against them. Regional leaders and the people rose in revolt against British dominance. Pazhassiraja, Kurichiar, the Mappila farmers of Malabar, Veluthambi Dalava, Paliathachan, etc. were the leaders of these protests.

In the 19th century Kerala, there were many superstitions, evil practices, and social inequalities. The repressive administration by the feudal lords and the dominance by upper-caste Hindus made the life of the backward communities very painful and unbearable. Society had a lot of illegal and illogical practices in relation to menstruation, pregnancy, and death.

Many social evils and controls based on Caste existed in Kerala. Some sections of the society were denied even their essential fundamental rights. Human dignity did not mean anything to some people. Certain civil rights movements came up against such injustice. Some of them were very important.

The State Re-organization Committee under Sayyid Fasal Ali made the dream of a United Kerala a reality. The recommendation was to form Kerala State with Malabar, Kochi, and Travancore as its constituent regions. On 1 November 1956, Kerala officially became a reality.

Students can Download Chapter 14 Pre Modern Kerala, Plus Two History Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two History Notes Chapter 14 Pre Modern Kerala (Economy, Society, and Polity)

In this chapter, we talk about the historical changes that took place in Kerala from the early times to 1800 CE. This chapter is divided into 4: a. The EdVly Moopan rule and the different types of earning a livelihood, b. Unification of agricultural centers and the formation of a hierarchical society, c. The Rise of Makotha Perumals. d. The social, political, and economic activities from 1200 to 1800 CE.

The period 12 to 18th century was one of change and also continuity. Agricultural production, exchange, political structure, land ownership, land relations, tax system, etc. continued and at the same time changed gradually. This period witnessed the coming of the Europeans, the Mysore attack, and the establishment of British colonial rule.

“Sanketam” is another type of political power that existed in Kerala. The Sanketams of Brahmins and Temples were very famous. Sanketam is a semi-autonomous area. In this, there would be a Brahmin temple and around it some villages. Sanketams were of two kinds: a) Sanketams established by Brahmin landowners and b) Sanketams established by political authorities as symbols of dedication and; piety to Brahmins.

The first Europeans to come to Kerala were the Portuguese. In 1498, Vasco da Gama landed at Kappad in Kozhikode. This was the beginning of an eventful era. K.M. Panicker says that in Asian History it started an age called the Vasco da Gama Age. European Colonialism lasted in India for 5 centuries and it was started by the coming of the Portuguese.

In the 18th century, far-reaching economic and political changes took place in Travancore, Kochi, and Malabar. In 1792, Marthanda Varma came to power and from then there were changes in Travancore. He started a new era in the history of Travancore. He is considered the founder of modern Travancore. He brought drastic changes to the economic structure of Travancore.

With the establishment of British authority, a new era began in Kerala. It was an era of resistance against colonialism. In Malabar, this resistance movement was organized by Pazhassiraja and Kurichiars. In Travancore, it was Veluthampi Dalava and in Kochi Paliath Komi Achan led such resistance.

Students can Download Chapter 13 Understanding Partition, Plus Two History Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two History Notes Chapter 13 Understanding Partition (Politics, Memories, and Experiences)

On 15 August 1947, the British rule in India ended. India was divided into two sovereign nations-India and Pakistan. India witnessed some most tragic incidents as a result of the partition. The joy of freedom from colonial chains was extinguished by the cruelty and violence of the Partition. Thousands of people died. There were dramatic changes in the lives of people. Cities changed, India changed, a new nation was born. Mass murders and violence were everywhere. There was the flow of refugees and migrations.

This chapter deals with the history of Partition. It discusses why and how the Partition occurred. It also discusses the dreadful experiences of people during the 1946-50 period.

In the beginning, Congress was against Partition. But in March 1947, the Congress High Command agreed to divide Punjab into two – an area of Muslim majority and the other with Hindu/Sikh majority. By this time The Congress and Sikh leaders started seeing the partition of Punjab as a ‘necessary evil’. If there was no partition, the leaders thought, the Muslim majority would overshadow other communities. They were afraid they would have to obey the Muslim authorities.

The Congress thought in Bengal also such a partition was necessary. In Bengal, there was a section of Hindus known as ‘Bhadralok Bengali’. This section wanted to maintain its political power. Without partition, they would remain in the shadows of the Muslim majority.

Bhadralok was a minority in Bengal. They believed that only through partition they could maintain their political power.

Timeline

1930 – Urdu Poet Mohammed Iqbal presents the concept of a North-Western Indian Muslim Nation with autonomy within the Indian Federation.

1933 – Choudhary Rehmat Ali, a Punjabi student of Cambridge, proposes the name Pakistan for the proposed Muslim Nation.

1937-39 – In 7 out of the 11 Provinces of India, Congress Ministries come to power.

1940 – Muslim League passes a Resolution demanding self-rule in areas with Muslim majorities.

March-June 1946 – The Cabinet Mission visits India.

16 Aug. 1946 – To get Pakistan, Muslim League declares an agitation. Hindu-Muslim riots in Calcutta. Thousands are killed.

March 1947 – Congress agrees to divide Punjab into two on the basis of the majority population. One will be Muslim Majority and the other Hindu-Sikh majority. The same principle is used in Bengal. Britain is ready to leave India.

14-15 Aug. 1947 – India gets freedom. Pakistan is formed. To bring about peace Gandhi tours Noakhali (East Bengal)

Students can Download Chapter 12 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Civil Disobedience and Beyond, Plus Two History Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two History Notes Chapter 12 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement Civil Disobedience and Beyond

This chapter discusses the activities of Gandhiji during the period 1915-1948. it also talks about the work he did among the various sections of the Indian society, it examines many democratic Movements for which he was the inspiration and also the leader. This chapter also talks about Gandhiji’s life, political activities, and the social movements related to his work.

The Champaran, Kheda, and Ahmedabad Satyagraha of Gandhi were a preparation for his entry into Indian National Movement. These activities helped him in understanding the problems of the people.

They helped Gandhi to have close contact with people. The sympathy he showed to the poor people helped him to get a place in their hearts.

The Non-Cooperation Movement was the first strong moment of Gandhi against the British. It was part of Gandhi’s concept of non-violence. In the beginning, he co-operated with the British. He believed in their sense of righteousness. He showed his loyalty to the British in the First World War by asking the Indians to join the British army. But some developments in 1919 made Gandhi change his attitude. The Rowlett Acts, Jaiian Wala Bagh tragedy, the Khilafat Movement, etc. were some of them. These incidents made his attitude towards British change and made him not to cooperate with them. They also prompted him to start the Non-Cooperation Movement.

By 1922, Gandhi was able to make Indian Nationalism a highly popular Movement. Until then it was a Movement of intellectuals and professionals. But soon, with the efforts of Gandhi, thousands of farmers, artisans, and workers joined the Movement. Many of them started calling Gandhi ‘Mahatma’ showing him their respect. He was not like other leaders who preferred to keep some distance from people. He sympathized with them and became one of them. He lived like them and dressed like them. He also spoke in their language.

After the stopping of the Non-Cooperation Movement, Gandhiji retired from active political life. Then he concentrated on social issues like the propagation of khadi and removal of untouchability. Bu 1928, he started thinking of re-entering political activities. That year two important things happened – a. The visit of the Simon Commission and b. the Bardoli Satyagraha.

In 1942, the then British PM, Winston Churchill, sent a Mission under one of his Cabinet Members, Sir Stafford Cripps, to make an agreement with Gandhi and the Congress.

The Cripps Mission failed. After that Gandhiji decided to start his third protest against the British. This is the Quit India Movement. It was started in August 1942.

On 30 January 1948, as Gandhiji was going to take part in a prayer meeting, Nathuram Godse shot and killed him. Godse was a Brahmin from Pune.

Timeline

1915 – Mahatma Gandhi returns to India from South Africa.

1917 – Champaran Movement

1918 – The Peasant Unrest in Kheda, The Labour Movement in Allahabad.

1919 – Rowlett Satyagraha (March-April) Julian Wala Bagh murder (April)

1921 – Non-Cooperation Movement and the Khilafat Movement.

1928 – Peasant Revolt in Bardot.

1929 – Congress’s Lahore Meeting; Poorna Swaraj is accepted as the aim.

1930 – Civil Disobedience Movement starts – Dandi March (March-April)

1931 – Gandhi Irwin Pact (March), II Round Table Conference.

1935 – India Government passes Laws-Some form of Representative Government is promised.

1939 – Congress Ministries resign.

1942 – Quit India Movement (August)

1946 – Gandhiji visits Noakhali and other areas to prevent religious strife.

Students can Download Chapter 11 Rebels and the Raj The Revolt of 1857 and its Representations, Plus Two History Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two History Notes Chapter 11 Rebels and the Raj The Revolt of 1857 and its Representations

The 1857 mutiny (It is also called the First War of Independence) was the first effort of Indians to throw the British Raj out. It resulted from the dissatisfaction of Indians because of the anti-Indian policies of the British. British rule had created dissatisfaction among all sections of Indians. In 1857, it burst into a mutiny. It was the Sepoys in the Indian army that started the mutiny. Soon it became a nation-wide mutiny. It shook the base of the British Raj in India.

The Mutiny began in the military camp of Meerut on 10 May 1857. It started in the Native Infantry and soon it spread to the Cavalry.

The British did many things to capture the Princely States. Accusing the rulers of maladministration, they took over Awadh. Using the Law of Adoption, they acquired Jhansi and Satara. In all the places they took over, they implemented their own administrative system, laws, and land tax systems. They also arranged for the collection of taxes.

The British could not suppress the 1857 mutiny so easily. They took legal, military, and diplomatic strategies to suppress it.

The mutineers were killed in the most brutal manner. The thirst for their revenge is reflected in this. Some were killed by shooting and some were hanged. They also sent out pictures of the killings through their journals.

Timeline

1801 – Lord Wellesley introduces Military Aid System in Awadh.

1856 – Nawab Khalid Ali Shah removed from the throne. Awadh captured.

1856-57 – Temporary Tax system was introduced inAwadh.

10.5.1857 – Revolt starts in Meerut

10, 11.5.57 – Revolt in Delhi – Bahadur Shah takes up the leadership

May 30 – Revolts in Aligarh, Itawa, Mainpuri, and Ita

May-June – In the Chinhat Battle, the British lost.

Sept 25 – Under the command of Havelock and Outram, the British army enters Lucknow Residency.

1859 – Rani Laxmibai killed in battle.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 13 Probability.

Kerala Plus Two Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 13 Probability

Plus Two Maths Probability 3 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Suppose 10 cards numbered I to lo are placed in a box and shuffled and one card ¡s drawn at random.
(i) If A is the event that the number on the card is even, then write A.
(ii) If B is the event that the number on the card is more than 3, Find P(A/B). (May – 2010)
Answer:
A = {2,4,6,8,10}
B = {4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
A ∩ B = {4,6,8,10}
\(P(A / B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{\frac{4}{10}}{\frac{7}{10}}=\frac{4}{7}\)

Question 2.
\(P(A)=\frac{5}{12}, P(B)=\frac{7}{12}, P(A \cap B)=\frac{1}{4}\)
Find P(A/B) (March – 2010)
(ii) And B try independently to solve a problem.
The probability that A solves it 1/3 & that B is 3/5. Find the probability that the problem is solved.
Answer:

Question 3.
(i) If X is a random variable whose possible values x₁, x₂, …………….., x_n are occur with probabilities p₁, p₂, ……… p_n respectively, then E(X) =……..
(ii) A husband and wife appears for an Interview for 2 posts. The probability of husband selection is 1/7 and that of wife is 1/5. What is the probability that one is selected? (May – 2011)
Answer:

Question 4.
Two balls are drawn at random with replacement from a box containing 10 black aid 8 red balls. Find the probability that
(a) Both the balls are red.
(b)One of them is black and the other is red. (May – 2014)
Answer:
(a) P (both all red) \(=\frac{8}{18} \times \frac{8}{18}=\frac{16}{81}\)
(b) P (one of them is black and other red) = P(First ball black, second red) or P (First red, second black) \(=\frac{10}{18} \times \frac{8}{18}+\frac{8}{18} \times \frac{10}{18}=\frac{20}{81}+\frac{20}{81}=\frac{40}{81}\)

Question 5.
(a) For two independent events A and B, which of the following pair of events need not be independent?
(i) A’, B’
(ii) A,B’
(iii) A’,B
(iv) A-B, B-A

(b) it P(A) = 0.6; P(B) = 0.7 and P(A U B) = 0.9 , then find P(A/B) and P(B/A) (March – 2015)
Answer:
(a) A – B, B – A
(b) P(A∩B) = P(A) + P(B) -P(A∪B)
= 0.6 + 0.7 – 0.9 = 0.4
\(P(A / B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{0.4}{0.7}=\frac{4}{7}\)

Plus Two Maths Probability 4 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
The probability distribution of a random variable X is given below
(i) Find the value of k.
(ii) Find the mean and variance of the variable. (May – 2010)
Answer:
(i) We have sum of the probabilities ¡s 1.
k + 2k + 3k + 4k + 5k + 5k = 1 ⇒ k = 1/20

Question 2.
(i) An urn contains 8 white and 6 black balls. Two are drawn from the urn one after the other without replacement. What is the probability that both drawn balls arewhite?
(ii) Prove that Variance = E(X²) – [E(x)]² (March – 2010)
Answer:
Describe the events as follows.
W₁ : First ball is white.
W₂ : Second ball is white.
\(P\left(W_{1}\right)=\frac{8}{14}\)
Since the event is executed without replacement. The white ball number will be 7 and total will be 13.

Question 3.
(i) For any two events A and B, write the expression for P(A/B).
(ii) In a bulb factory, machine A, B and C manufacture60%, 30% and 10% bulbs respectively. 1%, 2% and 3%-of the bulbs produced byA, B and C respectively are defective. A bulb is drawn at randomfror the totaL “ production and found to b defective. Find the probability that-this has been produced from machine A. (May – 2011)
Answer:
(i) \(P(A / B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}\)
(ii) Describe the events as follows.
D: Getting a defective bulb.
A: Machine A. B: Machine B. C: Machine C.

Question 4.
(i) Two balls are drawn with replacement from a box containing lo black and 8 red balls. Find the probability that one of them is black and other is red.
(ii) Find the probability of getting 5 exactly twice in 7 throw of a die. (March – 2012)
Answer:
Describe the events as follows.
B₁, B₂ : first, second black.
R₁, R₂ : first, second red.
P(one black and other red) = P(B₁ R₂) + P(R₁ B₂)
= P(B₁) P(R₂/B₁) + P(R₁ ) P(B₂/R₁)
\(=\frac{10}{18} \times \frac{8}{18}+\frac{8}{18} \times \frac{10}{18}=\frac{40}{81}\)

(ii) Let X denotes the random variable of number of 5 in a throw of a die.
Clear X has a Binomial Distribution with n = 7

Question 5.
(i) Write the probability function of Binomial Distribution.
(ii) Five Defective bulbs are accidentally mixed with 20 good ones. It is not possible to just look at a bulb and tell whether or not it is defective. Find the probability distribution of the number of defective bulbs if 3 bulbs are drawn at random. (May – 2011)
Answer:
(i) P(X = x) = nC_xq^n-xp^x
(ii) Let X denotes the random vanable of number of defective bulbs. Then X can take values 0, 1, 2, 3 D: Getting a defective bulb.

The required Probability Distribution is

Question 6.
(i) Two balls are drawn with replacement from a box containing 10 black and 8 red balls. Find the probability that one of them is black and other ¡s red.
(ii) Find the probability of getting 5 exactly twice ¡n 7 throw of a die. (March – 2012)
Answer:
Describe the events as follows.
B₁, B₂: first,second black.
R₁, R₂: first, second red.
P(one black and other red) = P(B1R,)÷P(R1B2)
P(B₁) P(R₂/B₁) + P(R₁) P(B₂/R₁)
\(=\frac{10}{18} \times \frac{8}{18}+\frac{8}{18} \times \frac{10}{18}=\frac{40}{81}\)

(ii) Let X denotes the random variable of number of 5 in athrowofa die.
Clearly X has a Binomial Distribution with n = 7

Question 7.
(i) A die is tossed thrice. Find the probability of getting an odd number at least once.
(ii)Bag I contains 3 red and 4 black balls while another Bag Il contains 5 red and 6 black balls. One ball is drawn at random from one of the Bag it is found to be red. Find the probability that it was drawn from Bag II. (March – 2012)
Answer:
(i) P(getting an odd number)
= 1 – P(an even number I all three tosses)
\(=1-\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2}=\frac{7}{8}\)

(ii) Describe the events as follows.
A: getting a red ball
E1: Bagl. E2:Bagll.
P(E1) = P(E) = 1/2
P(A/E1) P (a red ball from Bag I) = 3/7
P(A/E2) P (a red ball from Bag II) = 5/11
P (a ball from Bag li, being given that it is red)

Question 8.
(i) If A and B are independent events, prove that \(\bar{A}\) and \(\bar{B}\) are independent
(ii) A box contains 30 defective bulbs and 30 non-defective bulbs. Two bulbs are drawn at random. The event A and B are defined as follows. A: first bulb is defective.’ B: ‘the second bulb is non-defective.’
Find probability of A and B. Prove that A and B are independent events. (May – 2012)
Answer:

Hence \(\bar{A}\) and \(\bar{B}\) are independent.

(ii) Given, A:’first bulb is defective.’
B: the second bulb is non-defective.’
Let D: Defective bulb, \(\bar{D}\): Non-defective bulb. Since the experiment is drawing 2btbs. The sample space will be \(S=\{D D, D \bar{D}, \bar{D} D, \overline{D D}\}\)

Hence independent events.

Question 9.
In a factory which manufactures bulbs, machine X,Y and Z manufactures respectively 25%, 35% and 40% of the bulbs. Of the outputs 1%, 2% and 3% are respectively defective bulbs. A bulb is drawn at random and found to be defective. What ¡s the probability that it is manufactured by machine Y? (May – 2012)
Answer:
Describe the events as follows.
D: Getting a defective bulb.
X: Machine X. Y: Machine Y. Z: Machine Z.

Question 10.
A and B try to solve a problem independently. Find probability that A solves the problem is and that of B solves the problem is. Find the probability that
(i) Both of them solve the problem.
(ii) The problem is solved. (March – 2013)
Answer:

Question 11.
If A and B are two independent events, then
(i) Prove that A and B’ are independent events.
(ii) Show that the probability of occurrence of at least one of A and B is I – P(A’)P (B’) (March – 2013)
Answer:

Hence A and B’ are independent events.

Question 12.
There are two identical boxes. Box I contains 5 red and 4 black balls, while Box II contains 3 red and 3 black balls. A person choose a box at random and takes out a ball.
(a) Find the probability that the ball drawn is red.
(b) If the ball drawn is black, what is the probability that it ¡s drawn from Box II. (May – 2014)
Answer:
(a) Let E1 be the event selecting box I and E2 be the event selecting box II.
\(P=\left(E_{1}\right)=1 / 2, P=\left(E_{2}\right)=1 / 2\)
Let A be the event selecting of a red ball then
\(P\left(A / E_{1}\right)=\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{5}{9}=\frac{5}{18}\)
\(P\left(A / E_{2}\right)=\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{3}{6}=\frac{3}{12}\)
P (taking a red ball) = \(\frac{5}{18}+\frac{3}{12}=\frac{19}{36}\)

b) Let B be the event selecting a black ball

Question 13.
(a) If P(A) = O.8,P(B) = O.5,P(B/A) = 0.4 then find P(AUB)
(b) If a fair coin is tossed 10 times, then find the probability of getting exactly 6 heads. (May – 2015)
Answer:

Question 14.
(a) If P(A) = 0.3, P(B) =0.4, then the value of where A and B are independent events
(i) 0.48
(ii) 0.51
(iii) 0.52
(iv) 0.58

(b) A card from a pack 0152 cards is lost. From the remaining cards of the packet, two cards are drawn and found to be diamonds. Find the probability of the lost card being a diamond. (March – 2016)
Answer:
(a) (iv) 0.58
(b) E₁: lost card is a diamond.
E₂: lost card is not a diamond.
A: Select 2 diamonds from the remaining cards.

Question 15.
(a) A pair of dice is thrown 4 times. If getting a doublet is considered as a success.
(b) Find the probability of getting a doublet.
(c) Hence find the probability of getting two success. (March – 2016)
Answer:
(a) Probability of getting a doublet = 1/6
(b) Let X denotes the random variable of number of doublet in 4 throws of a die.
Clearly X has a Binomial Distribution with n = 4

Plus Two Maths Probability 6 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
(i) State and prove the theorem of total probability.
(ii) If a fair coin is tossed 10 times, what is the probability that the outcome is exactly 6 heads? (May – 2010)
Answer:
Theorem:
Let {E₁,E₂,….,E_n}be a partition of the sample space S, and suppose that each of the events E₁, E₂,….,E_n as nonzero probability of occurrence. Let A be any event associated with S, then

By multiplication rule of probability we have;
\(P(A)=P\left(E_{1}\right) P\left(A / E_{1}\right)+P\left(E_{2}\right) P\left(A / E_{2}\right)+\ldots . .+P\left(E_{n}\right) P\left(A / E_{n}\right)\)

(ii) Let X denotes the random variable of number of heads in an experiment of 10 trials. Clearly X has a Binomial Distribution with n = 10
Here n = 10, p = 1/2, q = 1 – p = 1/2

Question 2.
(i) 3 Coin are tossed and X be the number of heads turning up. Write probability distribution of X.
(ii) There are 5% defective items in a large bulk of items. What is the probability that a sample of 10 items will include not more than one defective item? (March – 2010)
Answer:
(1) S = { HHH , HHT ,HTH, THH, HTT , THT , HTH , TTT)
Let X denotes the random variable of getting a Head. Then X can take values 0,1 ,2,3.
P(X = 0) = P(no Heads)

The required Probability Distribution is

(ii) Let X denotes the random variable of number of defective items.
Clearly X has a Binomial Distribution with n = 10

Question 3.
A class 15 students whose ages are 14, 17, 15, 14, 21, 17, 19, 20, 16, 18, 20, 17, 16, 19 and20 years. One student uis selected sucthat each has the same chance of being selected; the age X of the selected student is recorded.
(i) Write the probability Distribution of X.
(ii) Find E(X).
(iii) Find Var(X). (March – 2011)
Answer:
(i) Let X denotes the random vanable age of students.
Then X can take values 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21.

Question 4.
(i) An unbiased die is thrown twice. Let A be event ‘odd number on the first throw’ and B be the event ‘odd number on the second throw’. Check the independence of A and B.
(ii) If P(A) = O.8,P(B) = O.5,P(B/A) = 0.4,
Find
(a) P(A∩B)
(b) P(A/B)
(c) P(A∪B) (March – 2011)
Answer:

Question 5.
(i) A and B are two events such that P(A) = 0.8,P(B) = 0.5 and P(B/A) = 0.4, then find P(A/B)
(ii) Find the mean and variance of the number obtained on a throw of an unbiased die. (March – 2014)
Answer:

Question 6.
(i) Two events E and F are such that
P(E) = 0.6, P(F) = 0.2 and P(E∪F) O.68. Are E and F independent?
(ii) A die is thrown 6 times. If getting an odd number is a success, what is the probability of getting
(a) 5 successes?
(b) At least 5 successes?
(c) At most 5 successes? (March – 2014; May – 2016)
Answer:
(i) P(E∪F) = P(E) + P(F) – P(E∩F)
= 0.68 = 0.6 + 0.2 – P(E∩F)
= P(E∩F)=O.12
P(E) x P(F)= 0.2 x 0.6 = 0.12 = P(E∩F)
Hence E and F are independent events.

(ii) (a) Let X denotes the random variable of number of odd number in the throw of a die 6 times. Clearly X has a Binomial Distribution with n = 6 and \(p=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 7.
The probability distribution of a random variable X is as given below.

(a) Find the value of p.
(b) Find the mean of X.
(c) Find the variance of X. (March – 2015)
Answer:

Question 8.
(a) A die is thrown thrice. Find the probability of getting an odd number at least once.
(b) Two cards are drawn successively with replacement from a pack of 52 cards. Find the probability distribution of the number of aces. (May – 2015)
Answer:
Let X denote the number of odds, X = 0, 1, 2, 3
The experiment follows Binomial distribution
\(n=3, p=\frac{1}{2}, q=\frac{1}{2}\)
The required probability = 1 – P(X = O)
\(=1-{ }^{3} C_{0}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{3}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{0}=1-\frac{1}{8}=\frac{7}{8}\)

(b) P(Two cards are aces with replacement) = \(\frac{4 \times 4}{52 \times 52}=\frac{1}{169}\)
We know there are 4 aces in a deck of 52 cards.
Let X denote the number of aces. Then X can take values 0,1,2.
P(X0) = P(no ace and no ace)
= P(no ace) x P(no ace)
\(=\frac{48}{52} \times \frac{48}{52}=\frac{144}{169}\)
P(X=1)= P(ace and no ace or no ace and ace)
= P(ace and no ace ) + P(no ace and ace)
\(=\frac{4}{52} \times \frac{48}{52}+\frac{48}{52} \times \frac{4}{52}=\frac{24}{169}\)
P(X =2) = P(ace & ace) = P(ace) x P(ace)
\(=\frac{4}{52} \times \frac{4}{52}=\frac{1}{169}\)
Therefore the distribution is as follows.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 11 Trends and Issues in ICT

Plus Two Computer Application Trends and Issues in ICT 1 Mark Important Questions

Question 1.
_____ is a Linux based mobile operating system from Google. (MARCH-2016)
a) ios
b) Blackberry
c) Android
d) windows Phone
Answer:
Android

Question 2.
_________ is a packet-oriented mobile data service on GSM. (MARCH-2016)
Answer:
GPRS

Question 3.
In ______ system, several transmitters can send information simultaneously over a single communication channel. (MAY-2016)
Answer:
Decision Support System

Question 4.
SIM stands for ______ (MAY-2016)
a) Subscriber Information Module
b) Subscriber Identify Module
c) Subscriber Identify Machine
d) Subscriber Information Memory
Answer:
b) Subscriber Identify Module

Question 5.
A 4G mobile network uses ______ (MARCH-2017)
a) CDMA
b) WCDMA
c) OFDMA
d) None of these
Answer:
c) OFDMA

Question 6.
_______ is the popular mobile OS developed by Google based on Linux Kernel. (MAY-2017)
a) Android
b) iOS
c) Blackberry
d) go
Answer:
a) Android

Question 7.
Pick the odd one out: (MAY-2017)
a) Kitkat
b) Jelly Bean
c) Icecream Sandwich
d) iOS
Answer:
d) iOS

Plus Two Computer Application Trends and Issues in ICT 2 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Raju sends a short text message to his friend. Explain how the text message is exchanged. (MARCH-2016)
Answer:
SMS is used for sending short messages SMSC provides a store and forward mechanism. If the recipient is not available SMSC waits and retrieves. It uses the SS7 protocol.

Question 2.
GPS is very useful for tracking vehicles by transport companies. How is it possible? (MAY-2016)
Answer:
Global Positioning System(GPS): It is a space-based satellite navigation system that provides location and time information in all weather conditions, anywhere on or near the Earth where there is an unobstructed line of sight to four or more GPS satellites. The system provides critical capabilities to military, civil, and commercial users around the world. It is maintained by the United States government and is freely accessible to anyone with a GPS receiver. GPS was created and realized by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and was originally run with 24 satellites. It is used for vehicle navigation, aircraft navigation, ship navigation, oil exploration, Fishing, etc. GPS receivers are now integrated with mobile phones.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the Android operating system. (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
IP Android OS: It is a Linux-based OS for Touch screen devices such as smartphones and tablets. lt was developed by Android Inc. founded in Palo Alto, California in 2003 by Andy Rubin and his friends. In 2005, Google acquired this. A team led by Rubin developed a mobile device platform powered by the Linux Kernel. The interface of Android OS is based on touch inputs like swiping,-tapping, pinching in, and out to manipulate on-screen objects. From 2007 onwards this OS is used in many mobile phones and tablets

Plus Two Computer Application Trends and Issues in ICT 3 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
What is Industrial Property Right? Write a short note on any two Industrial property Rights. (MARCH-2016)
Answer:
Intellectual Property Right: Some people spend lots of money, time body, and mental power to create some products such as a classical movie, album, artistic work, discoveries, invention, software, etc. These types of Intellectual properties must be protected from unauthorized access by law. This is called Intellectual Property right(IPR). Paris convention held in 1883 protects Industrial Property Berne Convention held in 1886 protects Literary and Artistic work.

World Intellectual Property Organisation(WIPO) in 1960, Guided by the United Nations(UN) ensures/protects the rights of creators or owners and rewarded for their creation.
A person or an organization can register their Intellectual property such as creations, trademarks, designs, etc.

Intellectual property is divided into two categories

1. Industrial Property
2. Copyright

1. Industrial property: It ensures the protection of industrial inventions, designs, Agricultural products etc from unauthorized copying or creation or use. In India, this is done by the Controller of Patents Designs and Trademarks.

• Patents: A person or organization that invented a product or creation can be protected from unauthorized copying or creation without the permission of the creator by law. This right is called Patent. In India, the validity of the right is up to 20 years. After this, anybody can use it freely.
• Trademark: This is a unique, simple, and memorable sign to promote a brand and hence increase the business and goodwill of a company. It must be registered. The period of registration is for 10 years and can be renewed. The registered trademark under Controller General of Patents Design and Trademarks cannot use or copy by anybody else.
• Industrial designs: A product or article is designed so beautifully to attract customers. This type of design is called industrial design. This is a prototype and used as a model for large scale production.
• Geographical indications: Some products are well known by the place of their origin. Kozhikode Halwa, Marayoor Sharkkara (Jaggery), Thirupathi Ladoo, etc are examples.

2. Copyright: The trademark is ©, copyright is the property right that arises automatically when a person creates new work on his own, and by Law, it prevents the others from the unauthorized or intentional copying of this without the permission of the creator for 60 years after the death of the author.

Question 2.
What is Cyber Crime? Write a short note on any two cyber crimes against individuals. (MAY-2016)
Answer:
Just like normal crimes(theft, trespassing private area, destroy, etc,) Cybercrimes(Virus, Trojan Horse, Phishing, Denial of Service, Pornography, etc) also increased significantly. Due to cybercrime, the victims lose money, reputation, etc and some of them commit suicide.

Cybercrimes against individuals

i) Identity theft: The various information such as personal details(name, Date of Birth, Address, Phone number, etc.), Credit / Debit Card details(Card number, PIN, Expiry Date, CW, etc), Bank details, etc. are the identity of a person. Stealing this information by acting as the authorized person without the permission of a person is called Identity theft. The misuse of this information is a punishable offense.

ii) Harassment: Commenting badly about a particular person’s gender, color, race, religion, nationality, in Social Media is considered harassment. This is done with the help of the Internet is called Cyberstalking (Nuisance). This is a kind of torturing and it may lead to spoiling friendship, career, self-image, and confidence. Sometimes may lead to a big tragedy of a whole family or a group of persons.

iii) Impersonation and cheating: Fake accounts are created in Social media and act as the original one for the purpose of cheating or misleading others. Eg: Fake accounts in Social Medias (Facebook, Twitter, etc), fake SMS, fake emails, etc.

iv) Violation of privacy: Trespassing into another person’s life and try to spoil life. It is a punishable offense. A hidden camera is used to capture the video or picture and blackmailing them.

v) Dissemination of obscene material: With the help of hidden camera capture unwanted video or picture. Distribute or publish these obscene clips on the Internet without the consent of the victims may mislead people specifically the younger ones.

Question 3.
What is copyright? How does it differ from patent? (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
Copyright: The trademark is ©, copyright is the property right that arises automatically when a person creates a new work by his own, and by Law, it prevents the others from the unauthorized or intentional copying of this without the permission of the creator for 60 years after the death of the author. Patents: A person or organization that invented a product or a creation can be protected from unauthorized copying or creation without the permission of the creator by law. This right is called Patent. In India, the validity of the right is up to 20 years. After this, anybody can use it freely.

Question 4.
Differentiate GPS and EDGE. (MAY-2017)
Answer:
Global Positioning System(GPS): It is a space-based satellite navigation system that provides lo¬cation and time information in all weather conditions, anywhere on or near the Earth where there is an unobstructed line of sight to four or more GPS satellites. It is used for vehicle navigation, aircraft navigation, ship navigation, oil exploration, Fishing, etc. GPS receivers are now integrated with mobile phones.
EDGE(Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution): It is three times faster than GPRS. It is used for voice communication as well as an internet connection.

Question 5.
Write a short note on IPR infringement (MAY-2017)
Answer:
Infringement (Violation): Unauthorized copying or use of Intellectual property rights such as Patents, Copyrights, and Trademarks are called intellectual property Infringement(violation). It is a punishable offense.

• Patent Infringement: It prevents others from the unauthorized or intentional copying or use of Patent without the permission of the creator.
• Piracy: It is the unauthorized copying, distribution, and use of a creation without the permission of the creator. It is against the copyright act and hence the person committed deserves the punishment.
• Trademark Infringement: It prevents others from the unauthorized or intentional copying or use of Trademark without the permission of the creator.
• Copy right Infringement: It prevents others from the unauthorized or intentional copying or use of Copy right without the permission of the creator.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 10 Enterprise Resource Planning

Plus Two Computer Application Enterprise Resource Planning 1 Mark Important Questions

Question 1.
_______ is an open-source ERP software. (MARCH-2016)
a) SAP
b) Tally ERP
c) Oracle
d) Odoo
Answer:
d) Odoo

Question 2.
DSS stands for (MAY-2016)
a) Digital Signal System
b) Design Support System
c) Decision Support System
d) Database Support System
Answer:
c) Decision Support System

Question 3.
SAP stands for (MAY-2017)
Answer:
System Applications and products for data processing.

Plus Two Computer Application Enterprise Resource Planning 3 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Briefly explain any two ERP related technology. (MARCH-2016)
Answer:
Product Life Cycle Management (PLM): It manages the entire life cycle of a product. PLM consists of programs to increase the quality and reduce the price by the efficient use of resources.
2) Customer Relationship Management (CRM): As we know the customer is the king of the market. The existence of a company mainly the customers. CRM consists of programs to enhance the customer’s relationship with the company.

Question 2.
Explain the benefits of the ERP system. (MAY-2016)
Answer:
1) Improved resource utilization: Resources such as Men, Money, Material and Machine are utilized maximum hence increase productivity and profit.
2) Better customer satisfaction: Without spending more money and time all the customer’s needs are considered well. Because the customer is the king of the market. Nowadays a customer can track the status of an order by using the docket number through the Internet.
3) Provides accurate information: Right information at the right time will help the company to plan and manage the future cunningly. A company can increase or reduce production based upon the right information hence increase productivity and profit.
4) Decision-making capability: Right information at the right time will help the company to make a good decision.
5) Increased flexibility: A good ERP will help the company to adopt good things as well as avoid bad things rapidly. It denotes flexibility.
6) Information integrity: A good ERP integrates various departments into a single unit. Hence
reduce redundancy, inconsistency, etc.

Question 3.
List the benefits of ERP implementation in an Enterprise. (MAY-2017)
Answer:
Benefits of ERP system
1. Improved resource utilization: Resources such as Men, Money, Material, and Machine are utilized maximum hence increase productivity and profit.
2. Better customer satisfaction: Without spending more money and time all the customer’s needs are considered well. Because the customer is the king of the market. Nowadays a customer can track the status of an order by using the docket number through the Internet.
3. Provides accurate information: Right information at the right time will help the company to plan and manage future cunningly. A company can increase or reduce production based upon the right information hence increase productivity and Profit.
4. Decision-making capability: Right information at the right time will help the company to take a good decision.
5. Increased flexibility: A good ERP will help the company to adopt good things as well as avoid bad things rapidly. It denotes flexibility.
6. Information integrity: A good ERP integrates various departments into a single unit. Hence reduce the redundancy, inconsistency, etc.

Plus Two Computer Application Enterprise Resource Planning 5 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Explain the importance of BPR in ERP implementation. (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
ERP and BPR will not make much change if they are stand-alone. To improve the efficiency of an enterprise integrate both ERP and BPR because they are the two sides of a coin. For better results conducting BPR before implementing ERP, will help an enterprise to avoid unnecessary modules from the software.
The different phases of ERP implementation are given below

• Pre-evaluation screening: Many ERP packages are available in the markets. At most care should be taken before implementing an ERP. Select a few from the available ERP packages.
• Package selection: Selection of the right ERP to our enterprise is a laborious task and it needs a huge investment. Various factors should be kept in mind before you purchase an ERP that should meet our complete needs.
• Project planning: Good planning is essential to implement an ERP. From the beginning to the end activities are depicted in this phase.
• Gap analysis: A cent percent(100%) problem-solving ERP is not available in the market. Most of them solve a maximum of 70% to 80% problems. The rest (30% to 20%) of the problems and their solutions are mentioned here.
• Business Process Re-engineering: In general BPR is the series of activities such as rethinking and redesign of the business process to enhance the enterprise’s performance such as reducing the cost (expenses), improve the quality, prompt, and speed(time-bound) service.
  BPR enhances the productivity and profit of an enterprise
• Installation and configuration: In this phase, the new system is installing, before implementing the whole system a miniature of the actual system is going to be implemented as a test dose. Then check the reactions if it is good it is the time to install the whole system completely.
• Implementation team training: In this phase, the company trains its employees to implement and run the system.
• Testing: This phase is very important. It determines whether the system produces proper results. Errors in design and logic are identified.
• Going live: Here a change over is taken place to the new system from the old system. It is not an easy process without the support and service from the ERP vendors.
• End-user training: This phase will start familiarising the users with the procedures to be used in the new system. It is very important.
• Post-implementation: Once the system is implemented maintenance and review begin. In this phase repairing or correct previously ill-defined problems and upgrade or adjust the performance according to the company needs.

Question 2.
Selection of ERP package is very crucial in the implementation of ERP system. Give a short note on any four popular ERP packages. (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
Popular ERP packages are given below
A) Oracle: American based company famous in the database (Oracle 9i-SQL) packages situated in Redwood Shores, California.
ERP packages are a solution for finance and accounting problems. Their other products are
1) Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
2) Supply Chain Management (SCM)Software

B) SAP: SAP stands for Systems, Applications, and Products for data processing.
It is a German MNC in Walldorf and founded in 1972.
Earlier they developed ERP packages for large MNC. But nowadays they developed for small scale industries also.
The other software products they developed are

• Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
• Supply Chain Management (SCM)
• Product Life cycle Management (PLM)

C) Odoo: Formerly known as Open ERP.
It is an open-source code ERP. Unlike other companies, their source code is available and can be modified as and when the need arises.

D) Microsoft Dynamics
American MNC in Redmond, Washington
ERP for midsized companies.
This ERP is more user friendly
Another s/w is Customer Relationship Management(CRM)

E) Tally ERP
Indian company situated in Bangalore.
This ERP provides a total solution for accounting, inventory, and Payroll.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Structured Query Language.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 9 Structured Query Language

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language 1 Mark Important Questions

Question 1.
______ keyword is used in the SELECT query to eliminate duplicate values in a column. (MARCH-2016)
UNIQUE
b) DISTINCT
NOT NULL
d) PRIMARY
Answer:
DISTINCT

Question 2.
______ clause of SELECT query is used to apply conditions to form groups of records. (MAY-2016)
a) orderby
(b) groupby
(c) having
(d) where
Answer:
(b) groupby

Question 3.
_______ command in SQL is used to display the structure of a table.(MAY-2017)
a) LIST
b) STRUCT
c) DESCRIBE
d) SHOW
Answer:
c) DESCRIBE

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language 2 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
How will you add a new column to an existing table using SQL statement ? (MARCH-2016)
Answer:
Alter command with add keyword is used to add a new column to an existing table. Avertable <table name> add <column name> <datatype> [<size>] [<constraint>][FIRST/AFTER<column name>];
Eg : Avertable ACCOUNTS add Type varchar(10) AFTER Name;

Question 2.
What is a view? How can we create a view using SQL statement? (MAY-2016)
Answer:
A view is a virtual table. That does not really exists but is derived from one or more tables. It is used to view a small part of the entire database.
Create view command is used to create a view. Syntax eg:- create view <view name> as select * from <table name> [Where <condition>];
eg:- create view studentView as select from student;

Question 3.
Explain primary key constraint with an example. (MAY-2017)
Answer:
Primary Key: A primary key is one of the Candidate Keys. It is a set of one or more attributes that can uniquely identify tuples in a relation. Rollno, AdmNo, EmpCode etc are examples of primary key.

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language 3 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Answer the following questions. (MARCH-2016)

a) Write SQL statements to do the following :
i) Display all the details of accounts with an amount greater than 50000 in the Ernakulam branch.
ii) Display Acc. No., Branch and Amount in the descending order of amount.
iii) Display the number of accounts in each branch.
Answer:
i) Select * from ACCOUNTS where Amount>50000 and Branch = “Ernakulam”
ii) Select Acc.No, Branch, Amount from ACCOUNTS order by Amount desc;
iii) Select Branch, count (*) from ACCOUNTS group by branch.

b) write SQL statements to do the following
i) Add a new record to the table.
ii) Update the amount of Sanjay to 100000.
iii) Delete the details of Anil.
Answer:
i) Insert into ACCOUNTS values (1006, ‘Alvis’, ‘Thrissur’, 50000);
ii) Update ACCOUNTS set Amount = 100000 where Name = ‘Sanjay’;
iii) Delete from ACCOUNTS where Name = ‘Anil’;

Question 2.
a) Explain SQL statements used to insert and delete data from a table. (MAY-2016)
b) Explain any two DDL commands
Answer:
a) Insert command is used to insert new records into a table,. The keyword used with insert is into
Syntax: Insert into <table name>[column1, Column2,………, column N] values [value1,Value 2,……… value N];
eg:- Insert into student (Regno, name) Values(101,‘Jose’);

b) delete This command is used to delete one or all records from a table
Syntax: delete from <table name> [where con-dition];
eg:- delete from the student; -This command deletes all records.

b) DDL Commands

1) Create table: This command is used to create a table.
Syntax: create table <table name>
(column name> <data type>[<constraint>]
[, column name> <data type>,]……… );
eg:- create table student (Rno int primary key, name varchar(20));

2) Alter table: This command is used to change the structure or add a new column to an existing table.
Modify, Add are the keywords used.
Syntax: Alter table <table name> modify column name><data type>
[<size>] [constraint];
eg:- Alter table student modify name varchar (30);
Syntax: Alter table <table name>
Add <new column name> <data type>
[<size>] [constraint>] [first j After <column-name>];
eg:- Alter table student add grade varchar (2);

3) Drop table: This command is used to delete the structure of the table.
Syntax: Drop table <table name>;
eg:- Drop table student;

Question 3.
Write SQL for (MAY-2017)
a) Create a table student with the data [nafne_char(20), rollno number(3),marks number(3)].
b) List name and rollno of all students
c) List name and rollno of students having marks>600.
Answer:
a) create table student(name varchar(20) primary key.rollno int,marks int);
b) select name.rollno from student;
c) select name.rollno from student where marks>600;

Question 4.
An employee table contains name, empno, basicpay, desig. (MAY-2017)
Write SQL for
a) Display name, empno and basicpay of all managers,(desig=”manager”)
b) Display empno and salary of all employees
(salary=basicpay + da)
(da=basicpay  *  1.15)
c) Display name and empno of all the employees whose basicpay<10000.
Answer:
a) select name,empno,basicpay from employee where design=”manager”;
b) select empno,basicpay + basicpay * 1.15 from employee;
c) select name,empno from employee where basicpay< 10000;

Plus Two Computer Application Structured Query Language  5 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
The structure of the table ‘EMPLOYEE’ is given below. (MARCH-2017)

Write a SQL statement for the following
a) Insert a record into the table.
b) Update DA with 60% basic pay
c) Display the details of employees whose basic pay is greater than 20000.
d) Rename the table EMPLOYEE to EMPDETAILS
Answer:
INSERT INTO EMPLOYEE VALUES
(101,’Alvis’,25000,NULL,NULL);
b) UPDATE EMPLOYEE SET DA= Basicpay * 6;
c) SELECT * FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE Basicpay > 20000;
d) ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEE RENAME TO EMPDETAILS;

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database Management System.

Kerala Plus Two Computer Application Chapter Wise Previous Questions Chapter 8 Database Management System

Plus Two Computer Application Database Management System 1 Mark Important Questions

Question 1.
_____ level describes only a part of a database (MARCH-2016)
a) View
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) high
Answer:
a) View

Question 2.
The number of attributes in a relation is called _____ (MAY-2016)
a) tuple
b) degree
c) cardinality
d) domain
Answer:
b) degree

Question 3.
_______ is the symbol used for select operation in relational algebra. (MAY-2017)
a) σ
b) π
c) ∩
d) ∪
Answer:
a) σ

Plus Two Computer Application Database Management System 2 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Is it possible to combine SELECT and of relational algebra into a single statement? Explain with an example. (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
Yes. It is possible to combine SELECT and PROJECT operations of relational algebra into a single statement.
π_name(σ_{designation = “Manager”}(EMPLOYEE))
The above query means select the names of employee whose designation is Manager from the table EMPLOYEE.

Plus Two Computer Application Database Management System 3 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
Explain different level of data abstraction in DBMS. (MARCH-2017)
Answer:
Sip Levels of Database Abstraction
1) Physical Level (Lowest Level-how) – It describes how the data is actually stored in the storage medium.
2) Logical Level (Next Higher Level-what) – It describes what data are stored in the database.
3) View Level (Highest level-way) – It is closest to the users. It is concerned with the way in which the individual users view the data.

Plus Two Computer Application Database Management System 5 Marks Important Questions

Question 1.
What is relational algebra? Explain any three relational algebra operations. (MARCH-2016)
Answer:
Relational Algebra: It consists of a set of operations that takes one or two relations as input and produces a new relation as a result.
A) SELECT operation
SELECT operation is used to select tuples in a relation that satisfy a selection condition. Greek letter σ (sigma) is used to denote the operation. Syntax,
σ_condition (relation)
eg: – σ_salary<10000 (EMPLOYEE)-selects tuple whose salary is less than 10000 from EMPLOYEE relation.

B) PROJECT operation
PROJECT operation selects certain columns from the table and discards the other columns. Greek letter π(pi) is used to denote PROJECT operation.
Syntax, π_condition (relation)
eg:- π_name,salary (EMPLOYEE) displays only the name and salary of all employees

C) UNION operation
This operation returns a relation consisting of all tuples appearing in either or both of the two specified relations. It is denoted by U. duplicate tuples are eliminated. Union operation can take place between compatible relations only, i.e., the number and type of attributes in both the relations should be the same and also their order.
e.g:-SCIENCE U COMMERCE gives all the tuples in both COMMERCE and SCIENCE.

D) INTERSECTION operation
This operation returns a relation consisting of all the tuples appearing in both of the specified relations. It is denoted by n. It can takes place only on compatible relations,
e.g:- FOOTBALL ∩ CRICKET returns the players who are in both football and cricket teams.

Question 2.
Explain the components of DBMS. (MAY-2016)
Answer:
Components of DBMS are given below.
1) Hardware :- It includes computers such as pc, workstations, Server Computer and super computer, storage devices such as hard disk, network devices such as hubs, switches, routers and other supporting devices used for storage and retrieval.

2) Software:- Collection of programs (DBMS) used to define the structure of a table (DDL), used to add, retrieve, modify and delete records in database (DML), and used to maintain the security to the data (DCL).

3) Data:- It is the main Component for effective storage and retrieval of information data is categorised as fields, records and files.
Fields :- smallest unit of stored data, eg :- Regno, name, batch etc Record:-Collection of related fields eg :-101, Jose, Science
File:- collection of related records
eg :-101, Jose, Science
102, Raju, Commerce
103, Alvis, Humanities etc.

4) Users :- Those who uses the ata
eg :- Data Base Administrator (DBA), Application Programmes, Sophisticated users and end users.

5) Procedures:- These are the steps to follow while using a database.
1) Start and stop the DBMS
2) Log on the DBMS
3) Take backups in regular intervals.

Question 3.
Explain advantages of DBMS over conventional file system. (MAY-2017)
Answer:
Advantages of DBMS
1) Data Redundancy – It means duplication of data. DBMS eliminates redundancy. DBMS does not store more than one copy of the same data.
2) Inconsistency can be avoided – If redundancy occurs there is a chance to inconsistency. If redundancy is removed, then inconsistency cannot occur.
3) Data can be shared – The data stored in the database can be shared by the users or programs.
4) Standards can be enforced – The data in the database follows some standards.
Eg : a field ‘Name’ should have 40 characters long. Some standards are ANSI, ISO, etc.
5) Security restrictions can be applied – The data is of great value so it must be kept secure and private. Data security means the protection of data against accidental or intentional disclosure or unauthorized destruction or modification by unauthorized person.
6) Integrity can be maintained – It ensures that the data is to be entered in the database is correct.
7) Efficient data access – It stored a huge amount of data efficiently and can be retrieved whenever a need arise.
8) Crash recovery – Sometimes all or a portion of the data is lost when a system crashes. A good DBMS helps to recover data after the system crashed.