Plus Two

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two English Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two English Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 with Answers

Time: 2 1/2 Hour
Cool off time: 15 Minutes
Maximum: 80 Score

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is ‘cool off-time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of  2^1/2 hours.
• You are not allowed to write your answers or to discuss anything with others during the cool off time’.
• Read questions carefully before answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examina­tion Hall.

Questions 1 – 3: Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

“I knew then that this could be my country, and that whatever I did here could make more of a difference than in the manicured reality of my university life in the states.”

Question 1.
Who is the narrator? (1)
Answer:
Shaheen Mistri

Question 2.
What does the author mean by the word “manicured”? (1)
a) Scholastic
b) Polished
c) Commonplace
d) Exciting
Answer:
b) Polished

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks with suitable prepositions :
The teacher was obliged ………… begin the story ………… a bison and a tiger, and then he passed on ………… “Ali Baba and the Forty Thieves” and “Aladdin’s Lamp”. The boy listened, rapt and ordered “I want to hear the story of the bison again. It is good …………”. The teacher was short ………… breath. (4)
Answer:
to, about, to, of

Question 4.
Edit the following letter of recommendation correcting the mistakes, if any. (4)

Dear Sir,
The purpose of this letter was to provide a character reference to Mr. Ram whom I have known as a colleague and a friend for a period of five years. I believe I were in a position to provide you with a pretty accurate assessment of his character.

As an employee, he has been very hard working and highly committed to his job. He has also been very outgoing and always willing to help others. I would conclude saying that Mr. Ram is a fine, well-balanced person with abundant of positive qualities.

Yours Sincerely,
Sankar

Answer:

(Questions 5 – 6): Read the passage and answer the questions:

“It is time to create a world where all women can meet their potential without impediment or prejudice and the world will reap the benefits. The three Ls will help us get there.”

Question 5.
What are the three Ls referred to? (1)
Answer:
Learning, Labour, and Leadership

Question 6.
What does ‘impediment’ mean? (1)
Answer:
Obstacle

Question 7.
The Amigo brothers left the ring arm in arm, without waiting for the verdict. Prepare the script for an announcement to be made soon after their exit. (3)
Answer:
Antonio Cruz and Felix Vargas fought valiantly. And the winner is ……. Oh My God! Where are they? Look at that! They are going arm in arm as if they never fought. A moment ago they were fighting like mad bulls. And now? Look at them! They are going like intimate friends! What do you call it? Yes, friendship!
Who is the winner? Both are winners!

Question 8.
“Some tortures are physical and some are mental But the one that is both is dental”.
Why does the poet find it hard to keep calm while sitting before a dentist? (4)
Answer:
The poet finds it hard to keep calm while sitting before the dentist because he knows he is going to have some torture and he will have to suffer some agony. Some tortures are physical and some are mental. But here he is going to have both – physical and mental torture. Sitting on a dentist’s chair with one’s jaws on the chest and the mouth wide open is a situation that does not allow a person to be in confidence or self-control. Naturally, he can’t keep calm thinking of the impending torture that is going to be inflicted on him.

Question 9.
“We are called to assist the Earth to heal her wounds and in the process heal our own indeed, to embrace the world of creation in all its diversity, beauty and wonder.” Prepare a blog entry based on your understanding of Wangari Maathai’s speech. (4)
Answer:
Emerson once said, “Nature never hurries, atom by atom, little by little, she achieves her work.” He is very right when we think how the trees grow taking their time to reach their full status as trees. Before a tree becomes a full-fledged tree it passes through many stages – seed, seedling, sapling and then a tree. Some trees take years to become real trees. But look at man! How cruelly he cuts them down in just a few minutes to use it as fuel, for furniture work, construction works and even to make paper. Sometimes man destroys entire forests to convert into farmlands or to make factories and residential areas. Large scale deforestation brings about climatic changes.

Trees absorb the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and supply us oxygen. They prevent the soil from eroding. They help in blocking the clouds and bring rain. They supply us a lot of forest products like honey, wax and different kind of herbs and roots. Nowadays forests are converted into National Parks attracting tourists from all over the world. That way also, trees bring us money. Thus forests help us in so many ways and so destroying them will be suicidal.

We all should emulate Wangari Maathai, the Kenyan lady and the Nobel Prize Winner, who led a crusade against deforestation. She rightly said: We are called to assist the Earth to heal her wounds and in the process heal our own.” She wanted a world of creation, in all its diversity, beauty and wonder. She wanted each person to plant some trees as his duty to help himself and also posterity. John Keats, the famous English Romantic poet said, “A thing of beauty is a joy forever.” I believe a tree is a thing beauty and we should do our best to preserve our trees and plant new ones.

Question 10.
Fill in the blanks choosing the correct expressions from those given in brackets:
After Marshall left Baldwin took out his diary and wrote as follows:
God! What a turn of events! I never thought that my own wife and children would persuade me to do a dishonourable thing. I was almost …………. (pushing/pushed) into accepting the bribe. Thank God, Marshall …………. (coming/came) at the right time. His …………. (offering/offered) the position came as a pleasant surprise, though. I …………. (feels/feel) pity for poor Gresham. May God bless him. (4)
Answer:
pushed, came, offering, feel

Question 11.
While reading about Irfan Alam’s Sammaan rickshaws, you are reminded of ‘She taxi’ introduced in Kerala. Write an e-mail to Irfan Alam informing him about this project for the social and economic empowerment of women.
(‘She taxi’ – technology-enabled safety cab services – operated by women – to carry women commuters – first of its kind in India – 24 x 7 – with emergency response systems and control room – ensures the safety of women travellers – empowers the women – makes them financially independent) (5)
Answer:
[email protected]
Sub: Empowering Women – ‘She Taxi’ Kerala’s Experiment

Dear Irfan, I read about the Samman Foundation and how it has been helpful in empowering the poor rickshaw pullers to have a comfortable life. I want to congratulate you on your initiative in starting this Foundation and its continued support of its members. I thought about your foundation when I saw the ‘She Taxi’ that is recently introduced in Kerala. In our State we have a very large number of women workers who commute to work. Because of the IT companies, hospitals and newspaper offices and such other place which continue working in the night, women are required to travel at night also. There were cases of molestations and rapes. And this has led to the concept of ‘She Taxi’.

She-Taxi is a technology-enabled safety cab service operated by women. They carry women passengers, mainly commuters. This is the first of its kind in India. Their services are available 24 × 7. There is provision for emergency response systems and access to the police control rooms. The main idea behind ‘She-taxi’ is ensuring the safety of female travellers. It empowers the women who drive these taxis and those who manage them by making them financially independent. The She-taxi venture has been receiving good support from the public.

Question 12.
The teacher in “Crime and Punishment’ is a pathetic figure at the mercy of his student who blackmails him. Don’t you think that he should change his approach to the child for making him disciplined? Write four sentences giving your suggestions to the teacher. (4)
Answer:

1. The teacher should change his attitude toward his job. Here he seems to work only to get his extra 30 rupees a month.
2. He should use more positive methods to make the child listen to him.
3. Make the lesson inter¬esting for the boy so that the boy is properly motivated.
4. Teachers should never resort to corporal punishment. Slapping a small boy hard on the cheek, leaving a scar there is not at all good for a teacher.

Question 13.
The incident that occurs in the play “Post Early for Christmas” shows the lack of security measures in the post office as well as the ignorance of the postal and the police personnel about handling an issue. Prepare a news report of the incident highlighting the corrective measures to be taken. (1)
Answer:
London: 20 December 2016. There was a time bomb scare at the Milton Square Post Office in London in the rush hours of the morning. From my talks with the Post office Assistant and some onlookers this is what transpired at the post office. A foreign tourist arrived with well-wrapped parcel and he said it contained something precious and he was sending it to his friend as a special Christmas present.

Some questions he asked about the safety of the parcel and about the time it would reach the central post Office for clearing created some doubts in the minds of the Postal Assistant.

The parcel was booked and the tourist left forgetting his gloves on the counter. Soon the Assistant noticed that there was a ticking sound coming from the parcel. She mentioned it and immediately a farmer who was present there said it must be a time bomb. He had read an alert in the Newspaper which was issued by the Scotland Yard asking people to be on their alert for ominous looking parcels.

He was certain that his parcel contained a time bomb. People got scared and they ran for cover. The farmer asked for a bucket of water. In the meantime a police man was brought. Soon the tourist returned to take his gloves back. There was an argument between the policeman and the tourist. The policeman then threw the parcel into the bucket of water. The tourist was angry with everyone there for spoiling his precious Swiss Watch he had bought for his friend.

It is obvious that the both the Postal Assistant and the policeman made mistakes. The post office should not have accepted any suspicious looking parcel. The contents of the packet should be verified before accepting it. This can be done in two ways. The packet should be transparent. Or the content should be packed before the person accepting the parcel. The policeman should not have rushed to the conclusion that it was a time bomb. Would the foreign tourist return to the place if it was a time bomb? Simple logic should have told the policeman it is not a time bomb.

Question 14.
After reading “Mending Wall” and in the wake of newspaper reports about millions of refugees who are denied entry into the developed nations you feel that there should be one world for all without any walls or boundaries. Prepare a script for presentation as the first speaker in a panel discussion on “One World Without Walls”. (5)
Answer:

One World without Walls

Dear friends,
I’m happy to open this panel discussion on the topic “One World without Walls”. You are hearing reports that refugees are refused entry into many countries. Where will they go? They flee their motherland because of the suicidal wars going on there in the name of religion, tribe, race, language, region or some kind of ‘isms’. In their own land they will be killed. So what is their choice except to run away and seek shelter in another country? But the country to which they intend to go blocks them and says, “Don’t come here!”

In Mending the Wall, Robert Frost says that we make walls to keep some things in and some things out. We want to keep those things and people we like inside the wall. We want the things and people we don’t like to be outside the wall. Building wall is against the natural process and it brings calamity. We all heard about the Berlin Wall which divided East and West Germany. Where is the Wall now? Gone! Gone into history.

Look at our own country. Before our independence we had one unified India. Then there was partition, dividing India into India and Pakistan. So many people were killed in India and Pakistan and so much suffering came to people. Families, kith and kin were separated into two countries. Then what happened? In 1971 there was the Indo-Pakistani War leading to the creation of Bangladesh. Pakistan was divided into two – Pakistan and Bangladesh. So, one person who was an Indian in 1947, became a Pakistani after the Partition and then a Bangladeshi after 1971. The same person becoming three different citizens at three different stages of his life! Isn’t it ridiculous!

Science and technology have made the world a big village. So why don’t we think of a world without walls? Things happening in one county affect the others also. What we need is a peaceful, joyful world where we all can live like brothers and sisters enjoying all the good things of life. A dream? I’m not sure!

Question 15.
What are the personality changes manifested due to the sensory deprivation induced by drug addiction, according to Dr. Hardin B. Jones? (4)
Answer:
Dr. Hardin B. Jones shows that there are many per¬sonality changes manifested due to the sensory deprivation induced by drug addiction. Sensual drugs and alcoholic drinks play havoc with the body and mind of their users. The drug and alcoholic addicts experience sensory deprivation. They feel physical discomfort and there are personality changes in them. They often feel depressed. They fail to respond either to their environment or to other people. Their mental disturbances can be like paranoia.

The addicts know they have a problem, but they can’t solve it. Drugs and alcoholic drinks cause hair fall and the addicts can easily catch diseases like pneumonia tuberculosis, malnutrition and weight loss. Overdoses of drugs and alcohol can cause respiratory and cardiac failure and result even in death. It is easy to start any bad habit but it will be difficult to stop it. So say no to drugs and alcoholic drinks.

Question 16.
Read the following advertisement and prepare a letter of application and a resume in response to it.
Vidyajyothi High School, Pathanamthitta
We are a dynamic and progressive educational institution with a strong and firm focus on quality and innovative practices in education.
We are on the lookout for High School Teachers
Subject: Maths
Candidates must have

• Bachelor’s / Master’s Degree in Maths with first class
• A minimum of two years of teaching experience
• Excellent communication skills

Interested candidates may send their resume with recent photograph to [email protected]
Last Date of Submission : 31.01.2016 (6)
Answer:
Letter of application and resume
[email protected]
Sub: Application for the post of a Maths Teacher

I saw your advertisement, l am interested in applying for the post as I thought my qualification and experience would suit your requirements.

I am enclosing my detailed resume for your perusal.

I will be available for an interview from now till the end of this month. You may decide the time and place. I will present all the original documents at the time of the interview.

Hoping to get the interview letter soon,

Yours faithfully,
Hamza Mohammed

RESUME OF HAMZA MOHAMMED

Question 17.
Wangari Maathai’s Nobel Price Acceptance speech reveals how environmental degradation is carried out on a large scale basis. Prepare an essay on the factors that lead to a destruction of our environment.
(OR)
“The challenge is to restore the home of the tadpoles . and give back to our children a world of beauty and wonder”. Wangari Maathai calls upon the youth to save the earth from destruction. Write an essay exploring the positive steps that we can take to save the planet from environmental degradation (8)
Answer:
Factors that Lead to the Destruction of our Environment:
With the growth of the world population, there is an increasing need for space. Land is needed for agricultural, industrial and most importantly urban needs to contain cities. People find an easy solution in “Deforestation”. Deforestation is the basic cause of the destruction of our environment. Deforestation means the felling of trees and clearing of forest to make that land available for residential, commercial or industrial purposes.

Deforestation can also be seen as removal of forests leading to several imbalances ecologically and environmentally. What make deforestation alarming are the immediate and long term effects it is bound to cause. Some predictions state that the rainforests of the world will be destroyed completely if deforestation continues at its current pace.

Destruction of the environment occurs due to several reasons. They include agricultural activities, logging, urbanization, desertification of land and soil erosion, mining and forest fires. As can be seen, most of them are caused by man whereas a couple of them – like desertification and forest fires – could be natural causes. But even those are aided by man through defective use of land and carelessness.

The effects of the destruction of our Environment can be are calamitous. It brings climate imbalance. It increases global warming. It causes soil erosion. It causes floods in some areas and droughts in some other areas. There is the danger of wild life extinction. Unless we become sensible and conserve our forests we are willingly causing our doom. If we destroy nature, nature has a way of destroying us. Nature has patience but it can run out at anytime and once it runs out only God can save us! Remember that we have only one habitat – the earth. By destroying our environment we are destroying our home, our habitat. Each one of us has to do our bit in protecting our home.

(OR)

Steps We Can Take To Save The Planet:
As Wangari Maathai said, “The challenge is to restore the horned of tadpoles and give back to our children a world of beauty and wonder.” It is a big challenge. Today the environment is destroyed in a mindless manner. There is air pollution, water pollution and soil pollution. There is deforestation. And all these culminate in serious damages to the ecosystem and the environment.

Ralph Waldo Emerson once said, “Nature never hurries, atom by atom, little by little, she achieves her work,” He is very right when we think how the trees grow taking their time to reach their full status as trees. Before a tree becomes a full-fledged tree it passes through many stages – seed, seedling, sapling and then tree. Some trees take years to become real trees. But look at man! How cruelly he cuts them down in just a few minutes to use it as fuel, for furniture work, construction works and even to make paper. Sometime man destroys entire forests to convert into farmlands or to make factories and residential areas. Large scale deforestation brings about climatic changes. Even in Kerala there are climatic changes because of the large scale destruction of forests.

Trees absorb the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and supply us oxygen. They prevent the soil from eroding. They help in blocking the clouds and bring rain: They supply us a lot of forest products like honey, wax and different kind of herbs and roots. Nowadays forests are converted into National Parks attracting tourists from all over the world. That way also, trees bring us money. Thus forests help us in so many ways and so destroying them will be suicidal.

Wangari Maathai wanted each person to plant some trees as his duty to help himself and also posterity. In India we had the Chipko Movement. When the contractors came to cut down the trees, the women from the locality rushed to the forest and stood near the trees embracing them. Chipko in Hindi means embrace. The men who came to cut down the trees had to go back because of the people em¬bracing the trees. We can help the preservation of our environment by planting trees.

We can also help by having kitchen gardens and herbal groves in our yards and compounds. In the kitchen garden we should ensure that we grow only organic vegetables. No artificial fertilizers and no pesticides.

We can help by keeping our watersheds safe and clean. Avoid the use of plastic bags and bottles. Plastic bags do a lot of harm to the environment. We can also make use of the public transport systems instead of riding our own cars and bikes. We also can try to prevent people from throwing waste here and there and from letting the factory effluents and sewage water running into lakes and streams. Many drops make a mighty ocean. Let us do our bit and see how we can help in preserving the environment.

Question 18.
The literacy club of your school is celebrating the International Women’s Day. Prepare the script for a speech on “Educating the girl child” to be delivered on the occasion.
(OR)
“ …….. They need to change the mindest and reset the narrative in their favour. So it is essential that women be ready to “dare the difference” – to take risks and step outside their comfort zones.” Based on your reading of Christine Lagarde’s speech, prepare an essay on how women can realise their true potential. (8)
Answer:
Educating a girl child:
Respected Principal, dear teachers and friends,

There is a beautiful adage among Africans which says, “If you educate a boy, you educate an individual. But if you educate a girl, you educate a whole village.” They are also fond of saying: “What a man can do, a woman can do better.” I think both these adages carry a lot meaning especially these days when we are keen on talking about women empowerment.

Empowering women is an urgent need of the day, especially in our society. In the Indian society, women do not have equality with men in many areas. Although the Constitution of India ensures equality of women in all aspects of life, in practice that equality remains on paper. In the social, economic and cultural status, women are considered inferior to men. Even now there is the dowry system. When a man marries he not only gets a wife, but he also gets a lot of money or ornaments. Many women don’t get married because they have no money to pay huge dowries to men. Culturally a woman is discriminated against. She is refused entry in many places, even in places of worship just because she is a woman. There is also economic discrimination.

If a man gets Rs. 800 as his daily wages, a woman is paid only Rs. 400, although she may do more work than a man. Look at the Ministries in the Centre and the States. How many women ministers are there? Look at the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies. How many women representatives are there? We find in India equality of women is only on paper. Therefore empowerment of women is very essential.

For empowering women there are 3 Ls – Learning, Labour and Leadership.

Modern women think they are equal to men and they have a role to play even outside their homes. In the modern world, women are educated and they also want to work and earn money. They don’t want to depend on the goodwill of their husbands to get certain things they want.

Modern women also want their share in politics and leadership positions. They are no more satisfied to be led by men. They think they too have the capacity for leadership. Women like Golda Meir (Israel), Mrs. Bandaranaike (Sri Lanka), Margaret Thatcher (England) and Indira Gandhi of India have shown that women can be even better leaders than men. Today we have Theresa May as the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, Angela Merkel as the President of Germany. It was only because of some bad luck Hillary Clinton lost to Donald Trump in the USA. Otherwise, we would have a woman at the helm of affairs in the richest and most powerful nation in the world.

(OR)

Changing the Mindset of Women:
If women are to get empowered and get equality with men in various walks of life, first of all they have to change their mindset. It is essential that women be ready to dare the difference. The problem with women is that most of them are satisfied with the status quo. They are happy to be ‘housewives’ and they willingly change their names to be Mrs. some-body after their marriage! It is this mindset that needs to change. Women should feel that they have their individualities, their personalities and their existence. They are not mere appendage to men.

Many women of today have multiple needs. Gone are the days when they would be happy at home doing the household chores and looking after the children. Today they need good education. They want to get knowledge and thereby increase their wisdom. They want to know what is happening around the world and they want to read great books about which they have been hearing so many things from others.

Today’s women also want equality with men in job opportunities. If we look at the various professions, we find that most of the employees are men. The people on top also will be men. It is rare to find women executives at the top. Except in professions like teaching and nursing women are not given opportunities like men. Women resent it and they believe that what a man can do a woman can do better.

Today’ women want to be leaders also. Women are often kept out of leadership positions and this is more so in African countries. There they believe that women are incapable of good leadership. But today’s women want to change that attitude. In their opinion, women tend to make decisions based on consensus building, inclusion, compassion and sustainability.

They should be ready to take risk and step outside their comfort zones. The life outside the four walls of home is not all that smooth and comfy. Challenges will be there. Risks will be there. Obstacles will there. But then they have to overcome and show the world they are equal to the task. For that they need the 3 Ls of Empowerment – Learning, Labour and Leadership.

Question 19.
Read the following poem and compare it with “Any Woman” by Katharine Tynan. (8)

The Sad Mother

Sleep, sleep, my beloved,
without worry, without fear
although my soul does not sleep,
although I do not rest.

Sleep, sleep and in the night
may your whispers be softer
than a leaf of grass,
or the silken fleece of lambs.

May my flesh slumber in you,
my worry, my trembling,
In you, may my eyes close
and my heart sleep.

– Gabriela Mistral

Answer:
In “Sad Mother” Gabriela Mistral, speaks about the thoughts of a sad mother. She wants her child to sleep without any worry and fear. But she can’t sleep although she is very tired as she was working without rest the whole day. She wants her child to sleep peacefully lulled by sounds softer than a blade of grass or the silken fleece of lambs. She finds her rest in the child. All her worries and fears are forgotten when she sees her child slumbering sweetly. All her dreams and joy are concentrated on her child.

It is beautiful poem with a fine imagery. We can see a mother sitting near her sleeping child watching over it. She does not sleep, but she is contented to see her child is sleeping well. The poem has good rhythm but no rhyme. The language is simple. There is a fine comparison of sounds to a blade of grass and the silken fleece of a lamb. There is repetition the world sleep, making the reader also feel sleepy as he reads the poem.

The poem ‘Any Woman’ by Katharine Tynan speaks of the importance of the woman in the family. She is the pillars of the house. She is the keystone of the arch. She is the roof and walls. She is the fire upon the hearth. The children come to her for love and affection. She holds the family together. She is everywhere in the house – from floor to roof. She protects the children from all dangers. At the end, the woman prays to Jesus to spare her life till the children are grown up.

The language of the poem is very simple. The entire poem is an exquisite metaphor. The imagery is great. The woman doing all kinds of jobs and standing guard at the same time make us admire her capabilities. Her love is superb. There is utter unselfishness in her activities. At last we also see the birth of Jesus in the manger. We see the woman standing before Jesus praying to him to let her live till her children grow up. Katharine has painted a fine picture of a devoted mother with words. The poem in rhyme. Except in the first stanza the rhyming scheme is abab.

Between the two poems I prefer “Any Woman” because it has deeper meaning and better artistic merit.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two English Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two English Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 with Answers

Time: 2 1/2 Hours
Cool off time: 15 Minutes
Maximum: 80 Score

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off-time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2^1/2 hours.
• You are not allowed to write your answers or to discuss anything with others during the cool off time’.
• Read questions carefully before answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examina­tion Hall.

(Questions 1 to 6): Answer all the questions as directed.

Read the lines from the poem ‘Stammer1 and answer the questions that follow:

‘Stammer is the silence that falls
between the word and its meaning
just as lameness is the
Silence that falls between
the word and deed

Question 1.
What is common to ‘stammer’ and ‘lameness’? (1)
Answer:
Silence

Question 2.
Identify the figure of speech employed in the lines. (1)
Answer:
Metaphor Simile

Question 3.
What does the poet think of ‘stammer”? (1)
Answer:
Stammer is the silence that falls between the word and its meaning.

Question 4.
Your class is conducting a debate on the topic ‘Nature conservation is more important than development.’ Write four arguments either in favour of or opposing the topic. (4)
Answer:
Nature Conservation is more important than development because:

1. Without Nature Conservation our flora and fauna would be ruined.
2. There will be climatic change, ozone layer depletion and global warming if Nature is not conserved.
3. We have to preserve our Nature for posterity.
4. We have only one habitat and if we don’t conserve it, we will be doomed.

Question 5.
Shaheen Mistri felt dejected when all the 20 schools in Mumbai refused permission to conduct classes for slum children in their classrooms for 3 hours in the evenings. If you were a friend of Shaheen Mistri, how would you offer sympathy and encouragement to her?
Write 3 sentences expressing your sympathy and support for her. You may use expressions like: I am sorry to ………. It is unfortunate that ……….. etc. (3)
Answer:
a) I am sorry to hear that 20 schools in Mumbai refused permission to conduct classes for slum children in their classrooms for 3 hours.
b) It is unfortunate that people are so callous that they don’t see the need for slum children to educate themselves.
c) It is very strange that even the so-called charitable and religious institutions are ready to work only for the rich who can afford to pay huge fees for their children.

Question 6.
The passage given below contains a few errors in concord and in the use of tenses, prepositions and articles. Edit the passage for these errors.
There was termites in the wooden box. They grew upwards from the bottom left corner in the shape of serpent. It was quite sometime since he had opened the box. What could he do about the trail of mud created by the termites? If he did not destroyed it immediately, it would spread over the whole box and eat up everything that was at it. (4)
Answer:
were termites; a serpent; did not destroy; in it.

(Questions 7 to 12): Each question carries 4 scores. Answer any 5 questions. (5 × 4 = 20)

Question 7.
A grand function is organized by the authorities of St. Xaviers College to felicitate the former student, Shaheen Mistri. The Principal himself introduces her to the audience. How would he introduce Shaheen Mistri? Draft the speech for him.
Answer:
My dear colleagues, students, parents, ladies and gentlemen,
We have organized this function to felicitate our former student Shaheen Mistri, who has made our school proud. In fact I remember when she came here for admission. She almost forced me to admit her. She entered my room through the side door. I was quite surprised. Before I could open my mouth, she told me, “Father, my life is in your hands. I want to do something for the children of India. I don’t know how, only that I must.” I asked her a few questions and I admitted her. I had never seen a student so committed to her ideals. If I hadn’t admitted her that day, it would have been a big loss not only for this school but the whole of India.

She founded Akanksha. The basic principle of Akanksha is providing underprivileged children with opportunities for learning. Akanksha wants the classroom to be a safe place for the children where they can forget, at least for some time, their troubles at home, and study and also enjoy. Akanksha came into existence in 1991. It started with 15 children. Now it has 3500 children with 58 centres and 6 schools. The children are taught, apart from English and Maths, values, self-esteem and confidence.

Shaheen Mistri, I would say, is a little angel. She did to the underprivileged children of Bombay what Mother Theresa did to the destitute in the streets of Calcutta. Akanksha definitely gives hope and optimism to thousands underprivileged children who have been roaming the streets, poor and hungry and prone to commit crimes. Shaheen Mistri is a reformer and she will be remembered by the people for a long time to come.

Let there be more Shaheen Mistris in our midst so that we can have a great country!

Question 8.
“Antonio and Felix were well liked and respected. Each had his own loyal following”, says Piri Thomas in ‘Amigo Brothers’. How did these adolescent boys become the role models of the residents of Manhattan? Attempt your answer in a paragraph of 80 words.
Answer:
Antonio Crux and Felix Vargas were both 17. They were so together in friendship that they felt like brothers. They had known each other from childhood. They grew up in the same building on the lower East Side of Manhattan. They both had a dream – becoming the light weight champion of the world. Whenever they got a chance they exercised. They would run every day morning wearing sweat shirts and short towels around their necks. Soon a wall arose between them. They were told that they were to meet each other on the division finals. The winner would represent the Boy’s Club in the Golden Gloves Championship Tournament. That means only one of them would go to the Tournament. They were both popular as boxers.

In the division finals they fight 3 rounds. In the two 2 rounds they remain even. In the 3rd round they fight fiercely, so fiercely that the spectators thought they were witnessing a fight to death and not a boxing match. They did not even hear the whistle to end the match but went on pounding each other. Finally the referee and trainers had to separate them. They leave the stage embracing each other. Their friendship is still intact. Thus they became role models of the residents of Manhattan.

Question 9.
Elaborate the idea in the lines given below:
This is better than money what good times! The government gives rice to those who don’t have paddy fields.
Answer:
This should be taken as a joke because no government can give rice to those who don’t have paddy fields. The paddy cultivators are only a few and the vast majority of the people don’t have paddy fields. How is it then possible for the government to give rice to all? If the government gives rice to those without paddy fields, definitely it will be better than money. We can surely say then that good times have come to our land.

But this is simply the fond dream of some funny guys who want to say things without any basis. This is also a kind of ridicule at the rulers, who obviously, can’t fulfil the dreams of the people. Or this can be considered an election promise which will never be carried out. When standing for elections, various parties come out with empty promises. This can be just one of them to fool the ignorant masses who never really learn their lesson.

Question 10.
Poet critic K. Satchidanandan has won the Ezhuthachan Award for his contribution to literature. Your class has decided to send an e-mail congratulating him on this achievement. As the leader of the class, what would you write in the e-mail? Draft the e-mail.
Answer:
[email protected]
Dear Sir,
We have come to know that you have won the Ezhuthachan Award for your contribution to literature. Congratulations!

You are a noted and critic, writing in Malayalam and English. You are a pioneer of modem poetry in Malayalam. We can very well say you are a versatile genius as you are also a bilingual literary critic, playwright, editor, columnist and translator. You were also the former Editor of Indian Literature journal and the former Secretary of Sahitya Akademi. You are also a public intellectual of repute upholding secular anti-caste views, supporting causes like environment, human rights and free software and you are also a well-known speaker on issues concerning contemporary Indian literature. We are very proud of you. We pray God to give you a long life so that you can continue writing to benefit people like us.

Question 11.
Your class is conducting a group discussion on the topic ‘Discipline at home and in the school creates good citizens’. As the first presenter of the topic, write your script for the presentation.
Answer:
My dear friends,

The topic for our Group Discussion today is “Discipline in the home and in the school creates good citizens”. I don’t think there is any controversy in this topic. There is a Latin proverb which says, “Serva ordinem et ordo servabit te”. It means keep the law and the law will keep you. This is a very sound advice. Right from the childhood, starting from home, we should learn to be disciplined. A child who is disciplined at home tends to be disciplined in the school also. But there are people who think too much discipline takes away the curiosity and fun from the mind of children. Nobody says there should be too much discipline. Discipline is a positive thought.

Discipline does not necessarily mean a list of Don’t Dos. A disciplined child behaves well, respects his elders and teachers and is helpful to others. He is not greedy or selfish and such children soon become the darlings of everyone. Discipline demands hard work. Only with hard work one can succeed today. So I would say “Be Disciplined” and that would help you to go a long way in the journey of life.

Question 12.
Do you agree with Irfan Alam that “It is important to dream, but it is equally important to take calculated risks to achieve your dream”? Express your own opinion in a paragraph of 80 words.
Answer:
I quite agree with Irfan Alam that “It is quite important to dream, but it is equally important to take calculated risks to achieve your dream”. Irfan Alam was only 17, when the idea of selling water bottles in rickshaws occurred to him. He soon took a calculated risk. The very next day he talked to 5 rickshaw pullers and gave them 8 bottles of water each. The profit was to be split between them and Irfan. For each bottle the profit would be Rs. 2. The very first day Irfan got Rs. 8. Later in 2006, in a TV show, Irfan suggested that rickshaws should be redesigned so that the spaces on the vehicles could be sold for advertising and brand promotion. He also suggested additional income for the rickshaw pullers by selling water, juice, biscuits, mobile cards and newspapers to the passengers.

His proposal won the competition and he was did not take the money because the organizers of the TV show did not agree with his proposals. But later in 2007 with the support of rickshaw pullers SammaaN was founded. There are some 10 million rickshaws operating in India. SammaaN helped rickshaw pullers to increase their income by 30 to 40%. SammaaN has been successful in making the lives of the rickshaw pullers and their families happier. Irfan has done a wonderful job and he did it by taking calculated risks. Anybody can cream, but only the one ready to take risks will succeed.

(Questions 13 to 18): Answer any 5 questions. Each question carries 6 scores. (5 × 6 = 30)

Question 13.
In connection with Anti-narcotics Day, your school is holding an elocution competition on the topic ‘Drug abuse destroys the individual, the society and the nation’. You are one of the competitors. Prepare your speech.
Answer:
Respected Chairman and honourable guests on the dais, friends, ladies and gentlemen,

Today we are observing Anti-Narcotics Day because many people abuse drugs for some temporary pleasure without realizing how dangerous drug abuse can be. Drug abuse has both mental and physical impacts. The drug addict experiences sensory deprivation. He has a general feeling of physical discomfort and there are personality changes in him. The addict feels depressed.

He fails to respond to his environment and to other people. His mental disturbance can be like paranoia. The addict knows he has a problem but he does not know what the cause for it is. He looks at external objects with suspicion. Anything outside scares him and he draws further and further into himself. There are also drug related physical disorders. Dry needles and solutions used for injecting drugs can cause abscesses in the arms and veins. They can cause liver disease, venereal diseases and infection of the kidney and brain. Sniffing cocaine and amphetamines can damage the tissue of the nose.

Marijuana and tobacco smoking can cause lung diseases. Babies of women who are addicted to opiates are likely to be bom addicted and suffer from withdrawal symptoms. Cocaine and amphetamines cause hair fall. Marijuana can damage cells. A drug addict can easily get pneumonia, tuberculosis, malnutrition and weight loss. An overdose of any sensual drug can cause respiratory or cardiac failure and death.

Question 14.
A reporter who happened to visit the post office at the time of the incidents in ‘Post Early for Christmas’ started writings news report in this manner:
Commotion in Post Office over a Hoax Bomb Alert East London: A hoax bomb alert caused much panic and confusion in a rural post office …………
Complete the report.
Answer:
Commotion in Post Office over a Hoax Bomb Alert Easton London: A hoax bomb alert caused much panic and confusion in a rural post office. The Village Post Office was crowded because people wanted to post their Christmas presents in time. The young Lady Assistant in the Post Office was very busy. Customers like Mrs. Smith, Mr. Jones, a deaf old gentleman, a farmer, a fussy old lady, Mrs. Higgins and Bertie, her son, were giving their parcels to the Assistant and were talking to one another about the offered seed money of Rs. 150 lakhs for his ideas to be implemented. He current happenings in the village. Then came a foreign tourist.

He was dark and evil looking. Her was dressed in black and spoke with an accent. He greeted the Assistant and told her to send the parcel he had brought. He removed his gloves and left them on the counter. The Assistant was happy the way the parcel was packed. It was very heavy. He said he could not post the parcel earlier because he came to this country only a few days ago. He wanted to know how long it would take for it to reach the Central Post Office to be sorted. He hoped the postal department would take good care of the parcel. He wanted to know if it would be opened. He was worried if it would be stolen. The Assistant reassured him that it would be safely delivered to his friend.

The Assistant was a bit worried as to what was in the parcel. Bertie had a look at it. Bertie could hear some sound from the parcel. The Assistant also heard some ticking noise. The Farmer said he also could hear it. Mrs. Jones and Mrs. Smith also heard it. The Farmer thought it was a time bomb. Everybody was worried. Mrs. Higgins asked Bertie to go and bring a policeman. The Assistant wanted to take and place the parcel outside but the farmer asked her to leave it as it would explode if she took it.

The Farmer asked people to take cover as the ticking noise was increasing. The policeman came. As the policeman was noting down things, the Foreign Tourist came back to take his gloves which he had left on the counter. He said the parcel contained a clock which he had bought all the way from Switzerland! There was no bomb!

Question 15.
The dialogues of John, son of Robert Baldwin, at the beginning and in the middle of the play are given below:

Now, attempt a character sketch of John Robert Baldwin in about 100 words.
Answer:
John is the 27-year old son of Baldwin and Martha. He earns just 30 dollars a week. His father had taught him to remain honest and truthful in all circumstances. When he comes to know that Gresham had stolen bank’s money he was angry with Gresham. He said Gresham was a bad man who wanted his father to tell a lie just to save his skin. If he were in his father’s position he would tell Gresham to go to hell. According to him Gresham was a really cruel man who underpaid his employees and now he wanted to rob his depositors also.

John would not do anything to save Gresham. But John’s stand changed when he came to know that his father was offered 100,000 dollars by Gresham just to say “I don’t remember” when he was asked crucial questions in the court. Now John comes out with some queer logic. He tells his father that if Gresham is put in jail there would be a nasty mess, meaning his father should help him not to go to jail. Nobody loses a cent and nobody wants to see Gresham punished.

So why doesn’t his father take 100,000 dollars and say “I don’t remember”? A hundred dollars, after all, is a lot of money. Here we see how the young man Jphn is ready to sell his soul for a certain amount of money. He forgets all his morals and all his honesty. Money can really make saints sinners.

Question 16.
“God has given me two ears to listen to others. I hear them out with sympathy and without any judgement. When a person in trouble or under a lot of strain finds an outlet for his worries, it relieves half his burden”.
These words of Ratna inspired Sudha Murty. She wants to report Ratna’s words to her own children. Write down the report.
Answer:
Ratna said that God had given hertwo earsto listen to others. She added that she heard them out with sympathy and without any judgement. She further said that when a person in trouble or under a lot of strain found an outlet for his worries, it relieved half of his burden.

Question 17.
A ‘Female Films’ Festival was held in your school to focus on women empowerment in the arts. Read the notice and prepare a report of the film festival.

Answer:

ABC SCHOOL

Date 8.12.2017

A “Female Film Festival” was held in our school auditorium on 7 December 2017. It started at 9.30 am. The Festival began with a prayer by the school Choir. Welcome Speech followed. It was delivered by Dr. Sujata S., the Principal of the school. The Presidential Address was given by Smt. Devi N., the PTA President. The Inaugural Address was by Vidhu Vincent, the film Director. Felicitations were offered by Sri M. Raju, Panchayat Member. Vote of Thanks followed and it was done by Smt. Sreekala N., Staff Secretary. All the speakers highlighted the need for women empowerment in the arts.

This was followed by film shows. At 10.30, the film “Udaharanam Sujatha” was shown. After the film there was lunch break. All the participants were provided with lunch.

After lunch two more films were shown. At 1.00 p.m. the film “English Vinglish” was screened. Then at 4 the film “Chak De, India!” was shown. The programme came to a close at 6.45 p.m. with the National Anthem sung by the School Choir. It was a highly successful Festival and the participants were quite pleased.

Question 18.
The literary club of your school has decided to visit the poet satirist Chemmanam Chacko and interview him. What would you ask him?
Frame 6 relevant questions for the interview.
Answer:
Interview with Chemmanam Chacko

Leader: Sir, we are the members of the literary club of our school and we have come to ask you some questions about your work. We will not take much of your time. We shall be recording your replies.
Chemmanam Chacko: You are welcome. Please make yourself comfortable. Okay, I am ready to answer your questions.

1st Member: We studied your poem “Rice” as part of our school work. How do you get these ideas?
2nd Member: Sir, most of your poems are satires. Have you written any lyric poem?
Leader: Which Malayalam poet do you admire most?
1st Member: We have seen that in some of your poems you ridicule the politicians and leaders. Do they show any anger for exposing them?
2nd Member: We too want to write poems like yours. What advice would you give us?

(Questions 19 to 21): Answer any 2 questions. Each question carries 8 scores. (2 × 8 = 16)

Question 19.
Read the following advertisement put forward by the Research and Development wing of SammaaN to recruit Junior Assistant. Draft an application letter and resume.

Answer:
From:
Abdul Umar
11/XI Azad Road
Irinjalakuda
PIN: 680-125

To
The Officer In-Charge
Research and Development Wing
SammaaN Foundation
P.B. No. 395
Bihar
PIN: 180 123
3 August 2018

Dear Sir,
Sub: Application forthe post of a Junior Assistant.

This has reference to your advertisement appearing in “The Hindu”, dated 1 August 2018.

I am a graduate with additional skills in computer operations. I can handle 3 languages easily. I have excellent communication skills and I feel I can perform well if you give me an opportunity to work in your organization.

I can come for any interview at any time and in any place of your choice. I am enclosing my Bio-data and also copies of my certificates.

I assure you of full satisfaction if I am given a chance to work under you.
Hoping to hear from you,

Yours faithfully,
(Abdul Umar)
Encl: 3

BIO-DATA OF ABDUL UMAR:
Career Objective: To work in a firm where I can use my talents and capabilities for the welfare of all and also learn new things.
1. Name : Abdul Umar
2. Contact Address : 11/XI Azad Road, Irinjalakuda, Kerala, 680-125
3. E-mail : [email protected]
4. Mobile No. : 8547028876
5. Educational Qualifications:

• B.A. English, (2016), from Christ College irinjalakuda, with 80% marks.
• +2 (2013) from Don Bosco HSS, Irinjalakuda, with 85% marks.
• SSLC from Don Bosco, Irinjalakuda, with 79% marks.

6. Computer Skills : Tally
7. Experience : Worked for Kerala Solvent Extractions (P) Ltd, Irinjalakuda, for one year as an office clerk.
8. Languages known : Malayalam, Hindi, English
9. Hobbies : Reading and Outdoor Games
10. Special Abilities :

• I was on the Editorial Board of the College Magazine.
• I was a member of the College Football team

Referees:

• Joe Cheriyan, Lecturer in English. Christ College, Irinjalakuda, Phone No. 85470 255882.
• Gafoor Mohammed, Ward Member, Irinjalakuda Panchayat, Phone No. 0480-2825506.

I hereby declare that the above information is true to the best of my knowledge and belief.

Sd/-
(Abdul Umar)

Question 20.
Study the poster given below:

Now, write an essay on ‘Co-existence of man and nature for sustainable living’ in about 150 words.
Answer:
Co-existence of man and nature for sustainable living: The world is facing a crisis today. We hear about dangerous things like global warming, ozone layer depletion, atmospheric pollution and many flora and fauna going extinct. If global warming continues at the present rate the polar ice will melt flooding the oceans which will drown coastal towns and cities. Some island countries would be wiped out completely.

Why are all these dangerous things happening? They are happening because of man’s greed and avarice’. He wants to exploit nature excessively. The results are easy to see. Our water is contaminated, there is too much plastic waste, there is heavy industrial waste, there is deforestation because of development projects that destroy our forests and convert them into concrete jungles. There is also noise pollution which badly affects our mind and thought processes.

Fortunately everything is not lost. There are some solutions to the problems. We should do our best to preserve our mangroves. We should protect our marine life. There are the Rs.3 that are significant – Reduce our consumption, Reuse the things and Recycle our waste. We should conserve our wild life. We should respect the earth and obey the environment protection laws. If we don’t do these things we are going to be in trouble. The earth is patient, but if we play with her patience she can unleash her fury – tsunamis and Okhis are manifestations of the anger of Mother Earth.

Question 21.
Read the poem carefully. Compare the poem with ‘Any Woman’.

The Heart of a Woman

The heart of a woman goes forth with the dawn
As a lone bird, soft winging, so restlessly on
A far o’er life’s turrets and vales does it roam
In the wake of those echoes the heart calls home.
The heart of woman falls back with the night,
And enters some alien cage in its plight,
And tries to forget it has dreamed of the stars
While it breaks, breaks, breaks on the sheltering bars.

– Georgia Douglas Johnson

Answer:
“The Heart of a Woman” by Maya Angelou (Not by Georgia Douglas Johnson as mentioned in the question paper) is a beautiful little poem which contrasts the dreams and desires of a woman with the actual realities. The heart of a woman goes out in the dawn as a lone bird and it roams about the towers and valleys of life.

But soon her heart remembers her home. She comes back in the night and is in her home like a caged bird. She then forgets all her fantastic dreams which break up against the realities of life. The poem is in rhyme with the scheme aabb. There is personification and repetition in it. It is pessimistic in tone.

“Any Woman” by Katherine Tynan shows the importance of the mother. She is the pillar of the house. She is the keystone of the arch. If you take her away, the roof and the wall will fall down. She is the fire upon the hearth, She is the light of the sun. She is the heat that warms the sun. The children get their warmth from her. She is the light of their love. Without her the children would not thrive. She holds the children together. She is the wall that protects the children from all kinds of dangers.

She constantly prays to God to keep her alive until her children are grown up. In this poem except in the first stanza the rhyme scheme is abab. There is personification and hyperbole here. There is also repetition. Between the two poems, I prefer “Any Woman” by Katherine Tynan as it is positive in its outlook.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Model Question Paper 5

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time: 10 Minutes
Maximum: 30 Score

Answer all the following questions. Each carries 1 score.

Question 1.
Name the person who studied the species-area relationship.

Question 2.
Pick the odd one out of the given amino acids.

Question 3.
Note the relationship between the first pair and complete the second pair.
Natural selection: Darwin; Inheritance of ac­quired characters:………………..

Answer any nine questions from 4 – 14. Each car­ries 2 scores.

Question 4.
Complete the table using suitable terms

Question 5.
To find out the unknown genotype of a vio­let flowered pea plant a researcher did the following cross. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions:
(Hint: Violet flower color in pea plant is dominant over white)

a. What would be the above cross called?
b. Can you determine the unknown geno­type of a violet flowered parent by drawing punnet square?

Question 6.
Diagram of a double-stranded polynucleotide chain is shown below:

What do the numbers I, II, III and IV indi­cates?

Question 7.
In which part of the human reproductive system the following events occur?
1. Fertilisation
2. Implantation

Question 8.
Explain transcription. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three re­gions. Write the names of any two re­gions.

Question 9.

The above-shown pictures are beaks of a particular type of bird seen on an island during Darwin’s journey.
a. Identify the bird and name the island.
b. Write the significance of this process in evolution.

Question 10.
Microbes can also be used as a source of energy. Substantiate with suitable ex­amples.

Question 11.
Classify the diseases given in the box as two groups based on their causative organisms. Specify the type of causative organism for each group.
Typhoid, Malaria, Pneumonia, Diphtheria, Amoebiasis.

Question 12.
Most often HIV infection occurs due to con­scious behavior patterns. Do you agree with this statement? Substantiate your an­swer.

Question 13.
Given below is the figure showing func­tioning of the lac operon in presence of lac­tose. Redraw the figure and label the parts numbered 1 to 6.

Question 14.
Nature has many varieties of plants which give drugs for abuse, as there are medici­nal plants which give medicines. Substan­tiate with two examples.


Answer any three from 15 -18 questions. Each car­ries 3 scores.

Question 15.
“Prediction of the sequence of amino ac­ids from the nucleotide sequence in mRNA is very easy, but the exact prediction of the nucleotide sequence in mRNA from the sequence of amino acids coded by mRNA is difficult.”
a. Which properties of the genetic code is the reason for the above condition? Ex­plain.
b. Which are the stop codons in DNA repli­cation?

Question 16.
A transcriptional unit is given below. Observe it and answer the questions.

1. How can you identify the coding strand?
2. Write the sequence of RNA formed from this unit?
3. What would happen if both strands of the DNA act as templates for transcription?

Question 17.
A poultry farm manager was cursing his hens for producing lion share of cocks in its prog­eny. Hearing this, Kumar – farm attender.starts to blame his wife for delivering con­secutive girl children. Analyze the situations scientifically and state whether you agree with Kumar.

Question 18.
The diagram represents the process of gametogenesis. Closely observe it and an­swer the following.

a. Is it spermatogenesis or oogenesis?
b. What does the smaller shaded circles rep­resent?
c. Write down two significance of produc­tion of the same.

Answers

Answer 1.
Alexander von Humboldt

Answer 2.
Trp

Answer 3.
Lamark

Answer 4.

Answer 5.
a. Test cross

The unknown genotype of Violet flowered par­ent is WW.

Answer 6.
I – Phosphorus/P
II- Pentose Sugar
III – Thymine/T
IV – Cytosine/C

Answer 7.
a
1. Fertilisation takes place in the ampulla of the fallopian tube,
2. Endometrium,
b.
A – Trophoblast
B – Inner cell mass

Answer 8.
The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as transcription. The strands are transcripted 1. If both strands act as a tem­plate, they would code for RNA molecule with different sequences and in turn, if the code for proteins, the sequence of amino acids in the proteins would be different. A transcription unit in DNA is defined pri­marily by the three regions in the DNA:

1. a promoter
2. the structural gene
3. a terminator

Answer 9.
The bird is Darwin’s Finches. The name of Island is Galapagos Island, b. Darwin finches differed primarily in body size and beak shape as an adaptation to types of food available on islands. All these species evolved in different directions from the common ancestral form and adapted to new invaded habits and to modes of life necessary there. This phenomenon is called an adaptive radiation.

Answer 10.
The microbes can also be used as a source of energy. Very nice example of this is the production of biogas from the dung of cattle in the gobar gas plants by the microbes called methanogens.

Answer 11.
Bacterial diseases: Typhoid, pneumonia, diphtheria.
Protozoan diseases: Amoebiasis, malaria.

Answer 12.
Yes. The HIV infection is mainly by blood transfusion may take place due to poor monitoring.
Use of condoms during sexual contact will prevent from getting HIV. So alertness about infection of HIV will protect us from. getting AIDS.

Answer 13.

Answer 14.
Ganja – from female inflorescence of the can­nabis plant.
Bhang- dried leaves, stems and flowering shoots of Cannabis plant.
Cannabis sativa plant produces Gannab- inside of which is used as medicine in Ayurveda and Unani. Morphine from a poppy plant used as a painkiller.

Answer 15.
Degeneracy of specificity. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is degenerate.
b. UAA, UAG, UGA.

Answer 16.
a.  The strand with polarity 5¹-3¹ called cod­ing strand.
b. UCAGUACA
c.
1. If both strands act as a template, they would code for RNA molecule with dif­ferent sequences.
2. If the code for proteins, different amino acids will be formed. So more com­plications.
3. If two RNA molecule produced at the same time they would be complementary to each other would form double-stranded RNA. So translation affected.

Answer 17.
I cannot agree with Kumar because of the sex of progeny is not determined by parents but by chance by which the combining of gametes produced by parents. In birds, sex determination mechanism is as follows.

Answer 18.
a. Oogenesis.
b. Polar bodies
c. Polar body formed help to concentrate more cytoplasm in the ovum. It also helps to reduce the chromosome number into half in the egg.

Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Model Question Paper 4

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time: 10 Minutes
Maximum: 30 Score

Answer all the following questions. Each carries 1 score.

Question 1.
…………is a metabolic disorder that oc­curs due to the lack of an enzyme, that con­verts phenylalanine to tyrosine.

Question 2.
Study the relationship between the first two words and fill the blank space with a suit­able word.

AIDS: ELISA
Thyphoid:………………..

Question 3.
The following statements compare the pro­cess of oogenesis and spermatogenesis. Which one is not true?
a. Production of ovum ceases at a certain age, but sperm production continues in old men.
b. Oogenesis begins in the embryonic stages, but spermatogenesis starts at the onset of puberty.
c. A meiotic arrest occurs both in oogenesis and spermatogenesis.
d. Polar bodies are formed in oogenesis.


Answer any nine questions from 4 – 14. Each car­ries 2 scores.

Question 4.
An evolutionary process occurred in the evo­lution of marsupial mammals in Australia is given below.

a. Name this evolutionary process.
b. Suggest another example of this phe­nomenon.

Question 5.
Rearrange the columns B & C with respect A

Question 6.
Ramu cultivated pea plants as an intercrop in his paddy field. After harvesting, he allowed the roots of the pea plants remain in the soil for some period.
a. Do you think the action of Ramu is reasonable?
b. Justify your answer.

Question 7.
When the urine sample of a lady is tested, the presence of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is detected.
a. What does the presence of HCG indi­cate?
b. Which is the source of HCG?

Question 8.
Fill the columns A and B using the items given below.

(Lamarkism, Evolution by anthropogenic action, Gene flow by chance, varieties of marsupials in Australia, De Vries)

Question 9.
The first child of a couple is affected with phenylketonuria. During the second preg­nancy, they visited a genetic counselor and he prepared a pedigree chat of their fam­ily.
a. What is pedigree analysis?
b. Draw the symbols for

• Affected female.
• Sex unspecified.
• Consanguineous mating.

Question 10.
Arrange the following examples under two heads viz-homologous organs and analo­gous organs.

Forelimb of whale and bat,
Wings of butterfly and bat,
Heart of man and cheetah,
Eyes of octopus and mammals

Question 11.
The meaning of ‘antibiotics’ is ‘against life’, whereas with reference to human beings they are ’pro-life’.
Substantiate the statement with a suitable example.

Question 12.
Expand the following abbreviations which are commonly used in reproductive health

a. ART
b. ZIFT

Question 13.
One of your neighbour is suffering from itching, fluid discharge, slight pain and swelling in the genital region.
a. What do you think the disease he is suffering from?
b. What measures are to be taken to pre­vent such diseases?

Question 14.
Identify the diagram and write how it acts?

Answer any three from 15 – 18 questions. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 15.
Read the principle and answer the que­stions :
“Allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant from generation to generation called genetic equilibrium.”
a. Name the principle mentioned here.
b. Mention any two factors affecting the equilibrium.
c. What ¡s the significance .of disturbances occur in the genetic equilibrium?

Question 16.
Observe the figures and answer the que­stions.

a. Identify the type of natural selection A, B, and C with an explanation of each.
b. Define the Hardy-Weinberg principle

Question 17.
Blood of a man is tested positive for cannabinoid.
a. What are these?
b. From where these are extracted naturally?
c. Which part of the body is affected by these?

Question 18.
Given below is the diagrammatic represen­tation of the operation of Natural Selec­tion on different traits.

a. Identify the type of natural selection A, B, and C with an explanation of each.
b. Define the Hardy-Weinberg principle.

Answers

Answer 1.
Phenylketonuria

Answer 2.
Widal test

Answer 3.
c. A meiotic arrest occurs both in oogenesis and spermatogenesis.

Answer 4.
a. Adaptive radiation.
b. Darwin’s finches seen in Galapagos Island around South America

Answer 5.

Answer 6.
a. yes.
b. Rhizobium found in the root nodules of

Answer 7.
a. Pregnancy,
b. Placenta

Answer 8.

Answer 9.
Analysing the inheritance of the character through several previous generations in a family called pedigree analysis.

Answer 10.

Answer 11.
The discovery of antibiotics greatly improved the quality of human life. Antibiotic drugs are made from living organisms such as fungi, molds of certain soil bacteria. Some bacteria that enter the human body can destroy human cells or causing diseases. Like pneumonia or tuberculosis. An antibiotic such as penicillin and streptomycin or others fight bacteria either by killing them or preventing them from multiplying. So antibiotics are ‘Pro-life’ to human beings.

Answer 12.
a. Assisted Reproductive Technology,
b. Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer

Answer 13.
a. Sexually transmitted disease (STD),
b.
1. Avoid sex with an unknown partner.
2. Always use a condom during coitus.

Answer 14.
CuT condom. lUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of Sperms.

Answer 15.
a. Hardy – Weinberg principle.
b. Gene migration or gene flow, genetic drift and mutation.
c. Disturbance in genetic equilibrium change of frequency of alleles in a population would then be interpreted as resulting in the evolution

Answer 16.
a.
A – Klinefelter syndrome
B – Turner’s syndrome
b.
Chromosome number in A = 47
Chromosome number in B = 45

Answer 17.
a. Cannabinoid is a group of chemicals which interact with cannabinoid receptors present principally in the brain.
b.It is extracted from the inflorescences of the plant Cannabis sativa.
c. Which interact with Cannabinoid receptors present principally in the brain. Generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion, these are known for their effects on the cardiovascular system of the body.

Answer 18.
a. A-Stabilising selection – (Intermediate characters are selected).
B-Directional selection – (Any one of the extreme characters selected).
C-Disruptive selection (Both the extreme characters selected).
It states that under certain conditions of stability, allele frequencies of a population are stable and constant from generation to generation in a sexually reproducing organism. This equilibrium is called genetic equilibrium or Hardy— Weinberg equilibrium.

Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Model Question Paper 3

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time: 10 Minutes
Maximum: 30 Score

Answer all the following questions. Each carries 1 score.

Question 1.

Addition or detection of chromosome gen­erally results in …………….

Question 2.
One among the contraceptive method is peculiar. Find the odd one. What is com­mon among others?
a. Periodic abstinence
b. Coitus interruptus
c. Lactational amenorrhea
d. lUD’s

Question 3.
Observe the diagram below:

Which among the following is the compli­mentary sequence of the DNA fragment shown above?

a. 5′ → ATTCG → 3’
b. 3′ 4 ATTCG → 5′
c. 3′ → TAAGC → 5′
d. 3′ → CGAAT → 5′

Answer any nine questions from 4 – 14. Each car­ries 2 scores.

Question 4.
The treatment facility advertised on the bro­chure of a private clinic is shown below.
IVF     ZIFT    GIFT   IUI

a. Can you suggest what type of a clinic it is?
b. Make a brief note on any three of the treatment procedures.

Question 5.
Analysing the relationship among different columns, fill the gaps appropriately.

Question 6.
The widespread incidence of diseases like H₁,N₁, Chikungunya, dengue fever etc., are reported recently. As a science student, prepare an action plan in your school to control those diseases.

Question 7.
A DNA sequence is provided below:
TACGAGTTATATATACAT
a. Write down the triplet codons it codes for.
b. If a nitrogen base is added in between 4^th and 5^th nitrogen bases, what will be its effect on transcription?

Question 8.
Arrange the following diseases in the fol­lowing columns in a meaningful order.
Typhoid, Ringworms, Amoebiasis, AIDS, Malaria, Pneumonia, Common cold.

Question 9.
Identify the traits from the pedigree chart. Give one example each.

Question 10.
Nature does a lot of services for which an economic value or price tag can be put”. Substantiate giving examples.

Question 11.
The flow of genetic information is shown below.

Name the processes a, b, c, and d.

Question 12.
0bserve the diagram and answer the questions:

a. Identify the process shown in the figure and define it.
b. Identify the structure B. Write any one function of it in the process shown in the diagram.

Question 13.
Prepare a pamphlet for an awareness programme in your school about the measures to prevent and control alcohol and drug abuse in adolescents.

Question 14.
” Gopalan argues that if the father is of ‘A’ blood group, the mother is of’B’ blood group. Their children can only be ‘A’ group, B group or ‘AB’ group.”
a. Do you agree with Gopalan’s argument?
b. Give a reason for your answer.

Answer any three from 15-18 questions. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 15.
“Nature provides all for the need of man but not for his greed.”
a. Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
b. Distinguish between two types of biodiversity conservations.

Question 16.
We have a moral responsibility to take good care of earth’s biodiversity and pass it on in good order to the next generation.
a. Define biodiversity.
b. Write causes for biodiversity losses.
c. Name two types of biodiversity conser­vation.

Question 17.
a. Identify the syndrome from the diagram, and write the genotype.
b. It occurs in both sexes (male and female). Write the reason.

Question 18.
a. The steps in DNA fingerprinting are given below. Complete the flowchart (A& B).
b. Mention the applications of DNA fingerprinting.

Answers

Answer 1.
Aneuploidy

Answer 2.
d. lUD’s. Others are natural contraceptive methods and IUD is the barrier method.

Answer 3.
3’→ TAAGC→ 5′

Answer 4.
a. Infertility clinic.
b.
1. IVF (In Vitro Fertilisation): Fertilisation outside the body in almost similar condi­tions as that in the body.

2. ZIFT (Zygote IntraFallopian Transfer): After IVF, the zygote thus formed is al­lowed to develop in vitro until it reaches 8 celled stages. Then it is transferred into the fallopian tube. This technique is called ZIFT.

3. GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one, but can provide a suitable environment for fertilisation and further development is another method attempted.

4. IUI (Intra-Uterine Insemination): In this technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the va­gina or into the uterus.

Answer 5.
a. Bacteria
b. Common Cold
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d.  Helminth of Roundworm

Answer 6.
To control or eliminate the vectors and their breeding places. This can be achieved by avoiding stagnation of water in and around residential areas, regular cleaning of house­hold coolers, use of mosquito nets, intro­ducing fishes like Gambusia in ponds that feed on mosquito larvae, spraying of insec­ticides in ditches, drainage areas, and swamps, etc. In addition, doors and win­dows should be provided with wire mesh to prevent the entry of mosquitoes.

Answer 7.
a. AUG/CUC/AAU/AUA/UAU/GUA.
b. Frameshift mutation

Answer 8.
Bacterial diseases: Typhoid,pneumonia,
Viral diseases: Common cold, AIDS
Fungal diseases: Ringworm
Protozoan diseases: Amoebiasis, malaria.

Answer 9.
a. Autosomal dominant trait.
eg., myotonic dystrophy
b. Autosomal recessive trait,
eg., Sickle cell anemia

Answer 10.
Nature does a lot of service to mankind, eg., Amazone rain forest produce 20% of total oxygen.in the atmosphere. It make an organism live by helping each other, eg., pollination.
Nature provide aesthetic value and happi­ness to our mind, eg., walking through for­est or watching spring flowers in full bloom etc. give pleasure to our mind. So the ser­vice of nature is countless where we can­not give economic value.

Answer 11.
a. Replication
b. Transcription
c. Translation
d. Reverse transcription

Answer 12.
a. Protein synthesis.
b. B- Ribosome. It help the formation of a protein by sliding over amino acid.

Answer 13.
Some of the measures useful for preven­tion and control of alcohol and drugs abuse among adolescents are:

1. Avoid undue peer pressure
2. Education and counseling.
3. Seeking help from parents and peers.
4. Looking for danger signs.
5. Seeking professional and medical help, action.

Answer 14.
a. No.
b. A blood group means it exists as i iA or i^A
i^A, B blood group means it exists as i^Bi, i^B
i^B. So the child can have genotype.

So the child can have ‘O’ blood group also. Blood group system in human is a \ example for co-dominance.

Answer 15.
a.Yes. The accelerated rates of species ex­tinctions that the world is facing now are largely due to human activities,
b.
(1) In-situ conservation: On-site conser­vation, eg., national park, sanctuary, biosphere reserve, sacred-groves etc.
(2) Ex-situ conservation: Off-site conser­vation. eg., botanical garden, zoologi­cal park, safari park, seed bank.

Answer 16.
a. It refers to the totality of genes, species, and ecosystems of a region, The term biodiversity is popularized by Edward Wilson.
b.
(1) habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) overexploitation
(3) alien species invasions
(4) co-extinctions
c.
(1) In-situ conservation: On site conser­vation. eg., national park, sanctuary, biosphere reserve, sacred-groves etc.
(2) Ex-situ conservation: Off-site conser­vation. eg., botanical garden, zoological park, safari park, seed bank.

Answer 17.
a. Down’s syndrome.,
b. The disorder is due to the additional copy of chromosome number. 21, i.e., 21^st Trisomy.

Answer 18.
a.
A – Digestion of DNA by a restriction endonuclease.
B – Hybridisation using labeled VNTR probe.
b.
It is used as a forensic tool to solve the problems of paternity, rape, and mur­der etc.
It is used to determine population and genetic diversity.
Used in the diagnosis of genetic dis­eases.

Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Model Question Paper 2

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time: 10 Minutes
Maximum: 30 Score

Answer all the following questions. Each carries 1 score.

Question 1.
Study the relationship between the first two terms and fill the blank space with a suitable word
Androgen – Leydig’s
cells

Question 2.
Pick the odd one out of the given amino acids.

Question 3.
Which theory talks about the huge explo¬sion that leads to the origin of the universe.

Answer any nine questions from 4 – 14. Each car­ries 2 scores.

Question 4.
Theory of chemical evolution is a version of the theory of abiogenesis. Analyze the state­ment.

Question 5.
Some bioactive molecules, their source, and their medical importance are given in the table below. Fill up the missing parts.

Question 6.
a. Arrange the given chemical compounds in the sequential order as per the con­cept of origin of life.             (Ammonia, Hydrogen, Protein, Nucleic acid, Amino acid)
b. Correlate Miller’s experiment with this.

Question 7.
Lakshmi and Sujitha are two nursery stu­dents. Sujitha gets common cold very of­ten. Lakshmi not.
a. How do you interpret this in an immuno­logical aspects?
b. What are the common barriers protect­ing Lakshmi from the cold?

Question 8.
Given below is the diagrammatic represen­tation of the human blastocyst. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

a. Identify A and B.
b. Write the functions of A and B.

Question 9.
Arrange the following in a hierarchical man­ner based on the period of their evolu­tion. Homoerectus, Ramapithecus, Austral opithecus, Homosapiens, Neanderthal man.

Question 10.
“More and more children in metro cities in India suffer from allergies and asthma.”
a. Do you agree with this statement?
b. Justify your answer.

Question 11.
a. A couple has two daughters. The blood group of husband and wife is ‘O’.
What is the possible blood groups the children should have?
b. Whether any change in blood group will occur if they have two sons instead of daughters.
Substantiate your answer.

Question 12.
A bacterial infection was effectively con­trolled by using a specific antibiotic for a long time. But nowadays this antibiotic is not found to be so effective to control the said infection.
Give a scientific explanation for this phe­nomenon based on evolution.

Question 13.
Make pairs by putting the related items together stating their relationship.

• Monascus Purpureus
• Trichoderma polysporum
• Ethanol
• Blood clot
• Streptokinase
• Statin
• Saccharomyces cerevisiae
• Cyclosporin

Question 14.
Identify the given structure.
Give its role in protein synthesis.

Answer any three from 15-18 questions. Each carries 3 scores.

Question 15.
Some stages of the embryonic develop­ment are given below. Observe these dia­grams and answer the questions.

a. What is A & B?
b. Name the two types of cells found in the blastocyst.
c. Which layer of the blastocyst is attached to the endometrium? And name the process

Question 16.
“STDs present a major health concern in both industrialized and developing countries.”
a. What do you mean by STDs?
b.Name two STDs.
c. Suggest two preventive measures.

Question 17.

The above graph shows the level of ova­rian hormones in a normally menstruat­ing woman during the follicular phase.
a. Name ‘a’ and ‘b ‘
b. Mention the role of pituitary hormones in maintaining this condition.
c. Reconstruct the graph for Luteal phase.

Question 18.
The year 2010 has been declared as the International Biodiversity Year by United Nations (UN).

1. Point out the levels of diversity in na­ture.
2. Give a brief description of ‘The Evil Quartet’.

Answers

Answer 1.
Placenta

Answer 2.
Met

Answer 3.
Big Bang theory

Answer 4.
The theory of chemical evolution says that small elements combined to form com­pounds which further form small molecules.

In theory of Abiogenesis living organisms formed from non-living substances that are small elements combined to form com­pounds which further forms small living molecules i.e., non-living substance com­bined to form large living molecules.

Answer 5.
a-Streptokinase
b- Trichoderma, polysporum
c – Immuno suppressant,
d – Statins.

Answer 6.
a. Hydrogen → Ammonia → Amino acid → Protein → Nucleic acid,
b. Miller and Urey in their experiment cre­ated a condition which was similar to that of the primitive earth. In this experiment, they created an electric discharge in a closed flask containing methane (CH₄), Hydro­gen (H₂), ammonia (NH₃) and water vapour at 800 °C. After one week, they analysed the chemical composition of the liquid inside the apparatus and found a large number of simple organic compounds including some amino acids.

Answer 7.
a. Low level of innate immunity to Sujitha.
b.
1. Physical barriers (skin, a mucous coating of epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts).
2. Physiological barriers (Acid in the mouth, saliva in mouth and enzyme, lysozyme found in tears from eye),
3. Cellular barriers (Leukocytes of our body like polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL), monocytes, natural killer (a type of lymphocytes) in the blood and macrophages
4. Cytokine barriers (interferons).

Answer 8.
a. A – Inner cell mass B – Trophoblast
b. Trophoblast – Differentiates into extraembryonic membranes, eg., Amnion, Chorion etc.
Inner cell mass- Differentiates into an embryo.

Answer 9.

Answer 10.
a. Yes.
b. Overexposure to allergens or pollutants in the metro cities.

Answer 11.
a. O’ group.
b. No. There is no sex specificity in blood group alleles.

Answer 12.
Antibiotics were considered to be very ef­fective against disease-causing bacteria. But within a few years of continuous use of an­tibiotic, new antibiotic-resistant bacteria will appear in the bacterial population. Sometimes bacterial population happens to contain one or a few bacteria having mutations which make them resistant to the antibiotic. Such resistant bacteria survive and multiply quickly. Soon the resistance providing gene become widespread and entire bacterial population become antibiotic resistant. It is an example of evolution by anthropogenic

Answer 13.
Monascus Purpurreus- Stain
Trichoderma Polysporum – Cyclosporin
Saccharomyces cervisiae – Ethanol
Streptokinase – a Blood clot

Answer 14.
t-RNA
It carries amino acids to the site of protein syn­thesis. It can read and pair with codons of m- RNA during translation.

Answer 15.
a. A – Blastomere, B-Morula
b. Trophoblast and Inner cell mass.
c. Trophoblast. The process is called implan­tation.

Answer 16.
a. Sexually Transmitted Diseases
b. Syphilis, Gonorrhoea.
c. 1. Avoid sex with unknown partners.
2. Always use condoms during coitus.

Answer 17.
a – Oestrogen,
b – Progesterone.
b.
i.FSH: It influences the maturation of Graffian Follicles and the secretion of Oestrogen.
ii. LH: It stimulates ovulation, development of Corpus Luteum and secretion of progesterone.
c.

Answer 8.a.

1. Genetic level diversity
2. Species-level diversity
3. Ecosystem-level diversity

b.
1.Habitat loss and fragmentation: It is due to cutting down trees, ploughing a grass­land, filling a wetland or burning a forest. The fragmentation of forest due to hu­man activities also lead to loss of biodiversity.

2. Over exploitation: Biodiversity satisfies all human needs. But when the need turns to greed, it leads to the over ex­ploitation of nature and natural resources.

3. Alien species invasions: Introduction of alien species (exotic species) into a new habitat by man may adversely affect the indigenous (native) species.

4. Co-extinctions: When a species becomes extinct, the animal or plant associated with it also becomes extinct.

Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Score

General Instructions to Candidates :

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time of 1 hour each. Further, there is ‘5 minutes’ ‘Preparatory Time’ at the end of the Botany Examination and before the commencement of Zoology Examination.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’ and ‘Preparatory time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

I. Answer All questions. Each question carries 1 score. (3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
The middle layer of uterus is called ………….
Answer:
Myometrium

Question 2.
Find the odd one out
1. Trichoderma polysporum
2. Clostridium butylicum
3. Acetobacteraceti
4. Aspergillus niger
Answer:
1. Trichoderma polysporum

Question 3.
Study the relationship between the first two words and fill the blank space with a suitable word.
Pneumonia – Streptococcus pneumoniae
Typhoid – ……………
Answer:
Salmonella typhi

II. Answer any 9 of the questions. Each question carries 2 scores. (9 × 2 = 18)

Question 4.
From an infertility clinic a doctor advised a childless couple to undergo GIFT.
1. Expand GIFT
2. Mention the steps involved in this procedure
Answer:
1. Gamete intrafallopian transfer
2. At first egg collected from donor, then it is transferred into fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce but they can provide suitable environment for the fertilization and further development.

Question 5.
Vasectomy and tubectomy are said to be effective and irreversible contraceptive methods.
Differentiate between these two methods.
Answer:
Vasectomy:
It is the sterilization procedure in male hear a small part of Vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum

Tubectomy:
It is the sterilization procedure in female here a small part of fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina.

Question 6.
Construct a monohybrid cross between homozygous violet and white coloured flowers of a pea plant.
How can one determine whether the F1 progenies are homozygous or heterozygous?
Answer:

b) Test cross

Question 7.
From a clinical laboratory Ramu’s blood group was identified as ‘AB’ group. But his father has ‘A’ blood group and mother has ‘B’ blood group.
a) Is Ramu’s blood group identification correct?
b) Substantiate your answer using co-dominance principle
Answer:
a) Yes
b) Genotype of Ramu’s Father and mother are either I^AI^A or I^Ai and I^BI^B or I^Bi respectively.

Genotype of AB blood group is I^AI^B. AB blood group is heterozygous but here both alleles ex-press their own type of sugar, it an example for codominance, It is an deviation from Mendelian principle.

Question 8.
Identify the syndromes ‘A’ and ‘B’.

Answer:
A) Down’s syndrome
B) Turner’s syndrome

Question 9.
Complete the flow chart of Southern blot hybridization.

c) Mention two uses of DNA fingerprinting.
Answer:
A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases
B) Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane such as nitrocellulose or nylon.
C) 1. To identify the criminal.
2. To solve paternity dispute.

Question 10.
Read the following statements and answer the following questions.
1. A genetic material should be able to generate its replica
2. A genetic material should not provide scope for mutation
3. A genetic material should be able to express itself in the form of mendelian characters.
a) Choose the correct statements from the above.
b) Rewrite the wrong statement to correct one.
Answer:
a) 1. A genetic material should be able to generate its replica
2. A genetic material should not provide scope formulation.

b) A genetic material should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution.

Question 11.
Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions.

1. Identify the above process
2. Name the enzyme required to polymerise the DNA strand
3. Name the enzyme required to join the discontinuous strands.
4. In eukaryotes replication of DNA occurs at ……….. phase of cell cycle.
Answer:
1. DNA replication
2. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
3. DNA Ligase
S – Phase

Question 12.
Diagrammatic representation of Miller experiment is given below. Answer the following questions.
1. Name ‘A’and B’
2. From those given below choose the new molecules obtained by other scientists from similar experiments
(Amino acid, Protein, Sugar, fat, Alkaloid, pigments, flavanoid)

Answer:
1) A – CH₄
B – NH₃
2) Sugar, Fat, Pigments

Question 13.
A collection of moths made in England during 1850, supported evolution by natural selection. Write a note on the process of natural selection on months influenced by industrialization.
Answer:
Before industrialization white coloured lichen covered the trees in that background white winged moth survived but dark coloured moth where picked out by predators.

After industrial revolution tree trunk became dark due to industrial smoke and suit, under this condition white winged moth did not survived due to predators dark winged or melanised Moth survived this showed that in a mixed population those that can better adapted survive and increase in population.

Question 14.
1. Name the yeast used for the commercial production of ethanol.
2. Name the yeast used for the production of statins.
Answer:
1) Brewer’s Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae)
2) Monascus purpureus

Answer any 3 of the following. Each carries 3 scores. (3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Arrange the following names in ascending order of evolution.
Homosapiens, Ramapithecus, Australopithecines, Homo habilis, Neanderthal, Homo erectus
Answer:
Ramapithecus – Australopithecines – Homo Habilis – Homo erectus – Neanderthal man – Homo sapiens

Question 16.
Prepare a hand out to educate students about the symptoms of the dreaded disease cancer, its detection and treatment.
Answer:
Symptoms of cancer:
It is uncontrolled and unwanted multiplication of some kind of cell

Detection:
Biopsy and histopathological studies and MRI scan

Treatment:
Radiation therapy immunotherapy

Question 17.
“The accelerated rates of species extinction that the world is facing today is largely due to human activities”.
Do you agree with this statement. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes
i) Habitat loss and fragmentation:
This is the most important cause of extinction of animals and plants.
The degradation of many habitats by pollution affects the survival of many species. It results large habitats are broken up into small fragments

ii) Over-exploitation:
It leads to the over-exploitation of natural resources.
It leads to the over-exploitation of natural resources. For example the extinction of Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon was due to humans

Question 18.

1. Name ‘A’ and ‘B’ from the above diagram.
2. Describe the following terms
a) Capping
b) Tailing
Answer:
1. A) RNA
B) RNA polymerase

2. a) Capping: In Eukaryotes methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5′-end of hnRNA.
b) Tailing: In tailing, adenylate residues are added at 3′-end of mRNA in a template-independent manner.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 with Answers

Time: 2½ Hours
Cool off time : 15 Minutes

General Instructions to Candidates

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2½ hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Question 1.
The following table shows the F₂ generation of a dihybrid cross. Identify the ‘Phenotype’ with homozygous re­cessive genotype. Find out AB: C:D.

Question 2.
values of a frugivorous bat species are given below. Which value is not applicable to continents?
1. 0.6
2. 65
3. 20
4. 0.68

Question 3.
Distinguish in-situ conservation from ex-situ conservation with one example each.

Question 4.
Which of the following pairs of STDs is completely curable?
1. HIV, Hepatitis-B
2. Hepatitis-6, Gonorrhoea
3. Syphilis, Gonorrhoea
4. Chlamydomonasgenital herpes

Question 5.
Which of the following do not have similar sex chromosomes? (Homogam­etic)
1. Human female
2. Drosophila female
3. Bird female
4. Bird male

Question 6.
Feeding…………. in the first few days is essential for preventing infections in a newly born baby.

Question 7.
L.H. and FSH are gonadotrophins. Distinguish their roles in males and females.

Question 8.
Examine the following fragment of the beta-globin chain in human hemoglobin and identify the hereditary disease with reason.

Question 9.
A population of 208 people of MN blood group was sampled and it was found that 119 were MM group, 76 MN group, and 13 NN groups. Answer the following questions:
a. Determine the gene frequencies of M and N alleles in the population.
b. How do the above frequencies af­fect evolution?
OR
Examine the pictures of Darwin’s finches given below and answer the following:
a. What phenomenon in evolution is represented in the picture?
b. Explain the phenomenon with the help of an additional example.

Question 10.
What is the advantage of   biofertiliz­ers over chemical fertilizers / Give an example for biofertilizers?

Question 11.
What is ART? Categorize the fol­lowing ARTs based on their applica­tions in male sterility and female ste­rility: GIFT, Al.

Question 12.
Which of the following sets of gases were used in Miller’s experiment?
1. CH₄, no₂, H₂0, C0₂
2. NH₃, CH₃, H₂0, H₂
3. H₂, CH₄, NH₃ , H₂O
4. H₂0, N, CH₄, H₂

Question 13.
Which of the following combinations do not apply to DNA?
a. Deoxyribose, Guanine
b. Ribose, Adenine
c. Deoxyribose, Uracil
d. Guanine, Thymine
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (c) and (d)
4. (a) and (d)

Question 14.
Examine the diagram of mRNA given below. Mark the 5’ and 3’ end of the mRNA by giving reasons.

Question 15.
A small fragment of the skin of a differ­ent person was extracted from the nails of a murdered person. This fragment of skin led the crime investigators to the murderer. Based on this incident answer the following questions:
a. What technique was used by the investigators?
b. What is the procedure involved in this technique?
OR
In an E. coli culture, lactose is used as food instead of glucose. If so, answer the following questions:
a. How do the bacteria respond to the above situation at the genetic level?
b. If lactose is removed from the medium what will happen?

Question 16.
Morphine is said to be an abused drug. Discriminate the terms ‘use’ and ‘abuse’ of drugs based on this example.

Question 17.
Differentiate Active immunity from Passive immunity. Give an example of Passive immunity.

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Previous Year Question Paper March 2018 with Answers

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Score

General Instructions to Candidates :

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 10 minutes each for Botany and Zoology in addition to the writing time of 1 hour each. Further, there is ‘5 minutes’ ‘Preparatory Time’ at the end of the Botany Examination and before the commencement of Zoology Examination.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’ and ‘Preparatory time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Answer all questions from 1 – 3. Each question carries 1 Score. (Scores: 3 × 1 = 3)

Question 1.
Name the cells in testes which synthesize and secrete the androgens.
Answer:
Interstitial cells or Leydig cells

Question 2.
Different contraceptive methods are given below. Pick out the odd one.
a) CuT
b) Saheli
c) Multiload 375
d) Lippes loop
Answer:
b) Saheli

Question 3.
Expressed sequences in the gene are called
a) Introns
b) Mutons
c) Exons
d) Cistrons
Answer:
c) Exons

II. Answer any nine questions from 4 – 14. Each question carries 2 Scores. (Scores: 9 × 2 = 18)

Question 4.
In a classroom discussion, a student said that the sex of the baby is determined by father. Analyse the statement and give reason for it.
Answer:
Chromosome pattern of human female is XX and male is xy
Haploid gametes produced by female contain only X chromosome while male produces either x or y.
Hence father determines sex of a child

Question 5.
Different contraceptive methods are used to control population explosion. Summarise the natural method and barrier method of contraception.
Answer:
a) Natural methods:
Periodic abstinence, Coitus interruptus, etc

b) Barrier method:
Use of condoms, diaphragms, etc

Question 6.
DNA is tightly packed structure and is found as units called nucleosomes.
a) Explain the concept of nucleosomes.
b) Differentiate between euchromatin and heterochromatin
Answer:
a) Nucleosomes are histone octamer, in this negatively charged DNA wrapped around it.

b) Euchromatin:

• Here, chromatin region is loosely arranged and they are transcriptionally active Heterochromatin:
• Here, Hchromatin region is densely packed and transcriptionally inactive

Question 7.

a) Observe the above cross and name the phenomenon.
b) Write down the theoretically given explanations of the phenomenon.
Answer:
a) Incomplete dominance
b) It is the blending of characters, that lead to the production of intermediate flower colour-pink.
In this less efficient enzyme is produced.

Question 8.
Complete the boxes with the suitable words given below:
[Analogus, Homologus, Convergent evolution, Divergent evolution]

Answer:
A – Homologous organ
B – Divergent evolution
C – Analogous organs
D – Convergent evolution

Question 9.
Explain the factors affecting the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Answer:

• Gene flow
• Genetic drift
• Mutation and
• Natural selection

Question 10.
Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defense and consists of four types of barriers. Categorize the barriers and give one example for each.
Answer:
i) Physical barriers:
It includes skin or mucous coating of respiratory system

ii) Physiological barriers:
Acid in stomach or saliva

iii) Cellular barriers:
It includes natural killer cells and monocytes

iv) Cytokines barriers:
It includes interferon

Question 11.
Complete the table given below:

Answer:
A – Salmonella
B – common cold
C – plasmodium falciparum
D – elephantiasis

Question 12.
Consumption of drug and alcohol affects the persons mental and physical health very badly. List the warning signs of alcohol or drug abuse.
Answer:

• Drop in academic performance
• Lack of interest in personal hygiene
• Depression
• Withdrawal symptoms

Question 13.
Identify the disadvantages of RNA over DNA as a genetic material and explain it.
Answer:

• Hydroxyl group of RNA is reactive and easily degradable
• RNA is catalytic and highly reactive
• Mutation takes place at a faster rate
• Presence of uracil makes RNA less stable

Question 14.
Complete the table with appropriate terms.

Answer:
A – Aspergillus Niger
B – bacterium
C – cyclosporine A
D – Monascus purpureus

III. Answer any three from 15 – 18 questions. Each question carries 3 scores. (Scores: 3 × 3 = 9)

Question 15.
Observe the graph and answer the following questions:

a) Name S, A, Z and C in the graph.
b) Name the scientists who explained Species – Area relationship.
Answer:
a) S – Species richness
A – Area
Z – Regression coefficient
C – Y Intercept

b) Alexander Von Humboldt

Question 16.
a) In lac Operon lactose act as inducer molecule. Evaluate the statement and explain it.
b) Observe the diagram of lac Operon and identify labelled parts A, B, C and D.

Answer:
a) Lactose that binds with repressor and make structural modification hence it cannot bind with operator therefore lactose switch off Lac Operon act as inducer.

b) A – Repressor mRNA
B – Bete galactosidase
C – Permease
D – Transacetylase

Question 17.
Sexually transmitted disease (STD) are mainly transmitted through sexual contact.
a) Name any two example of sexually transmitted disease.
b) Explain any two methods adopted to prevent STDs.
Answer:
a) Gonorrhea, syphilis
b)

1. Avoid sex with multiple partners
2. Always use condoms during coitus

Question 18.
Hemophilia, Sickle cell anemia, and Phenyl Ketonurea are Mendelian disorders.
a) What do you mean by Mendelian disorder?
b) Which one of the above is an example of inborn error of metabolism? Mention the cause of the disorder.
Answer:
a) Mendelian disorder is determined by a mutation in a single gene
b) Phenylketonuria.
It is an autosomal recessive trait in which lack of enzyme for the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Model Question Paper 5

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off,time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question’itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Answer all the questions. Each question carries 1 score.

Question 1.
Insects feeding on plant sap and other parts are known to be?
.

Question 2.
Name the first transgenic cow.

Question 3.
The hard outer layer of pollengrain is com-posed of
a. cellulose
b. Pectin
c. Suberin
d. Sporopollenin

Question 4.
MOET is a programme for herd improvement. Name the hormone used in it

Answer any 10 questions. Each question carries 2 score.

Question 5.
Artificial hybridisation is one of the major approaches of crop improvement program-me. Suggest the techniques used to protect the stigma of bisexual flowers during hybridisation.

Question 6.

Observe the above figure
a. Identify i and ii
b. Distinguish i and ii

Question 7.
Bee keeping though relatively easy does require some specialised knowledge. List out the important points for its success.

Question 8.

Question 9.
List out any four changes that occur in flower after fertilisation

Question 10.
Isolation of DNA from plant cell involves many steps. Explain the different steps.

Question 11.
Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self pollination and to encourage cross pollination. List out such features found in plants.

Question 12.
Succession takes place on bare rock is called Xerarch succession. List out its sequential stages

Question 13.
In angiosperms during fertilization two types of fusion occurs in the embryo sac.
a. Name the types of fusion
b. Which are the nuclei involved in each fusion.

Question 14.
Match the column A with B

Question 15.
The first clinical gene therapy was given to a four year old girl child,
a. What was her genetic disorder?
b. Briefly describe the clinical procedure adopted in this case.

Question 16.
High level of noise is considered as pollution.
a. What are its effects?
b. How it can be controlled?

Answer any 2 questions. Each question carries 3

Question 17.
Identify the figure given below and explain the principles behind it.

Question 18.
For reducing the air pollution in delhi the entire fleet of public transport buses were converted to CNG
a. Exand CNG
b. List out its advantages.

Question 19.
Identify the following interactions
a. Barnacles on whale
b. Wasp on fig.
c. Ticks on dog
d. Abigdon tortoise and goats
e. Tiger and deer
f. Mycorrhiza

Answers

Answer 1.
Phytophagous

Answer 2.
Rosie

Answer 3.
Sporopollenin

Answer 4.
FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormones)

Answer 5.
This is achieved by emasculation and bagging techniques. If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces using a pair of forceps is necessary. This step is referred to as emasculation. Emasculated flowers have to be covered with a bag of suitable size, generally made up of butter paper, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This process is called bagging. When the stigma of bagged flower attains receptivity, mature pollen grains collected from anthers of the male parent are dusted on the stigma, and the flowers are rebagged, and the fruits allowed to develop.

Answer 6.
a. i. Proinsulin
ii. Insulin
b. Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs. Insulin from an animal source, though caused some patient to develop allergy or other types of reactions to the foreign protein. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains. Chain A and chain B, that are linked together by disulphide bridges. In mammals, including humans, insulin is synthesised as a pro-hormone which contains an extra stretch called the C peptide.

Answer 7.

• Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees.
• Selection of suitable location for keeping rtthebeehives.
• Catching and hiving of swarms (group of bees).
• Management of beehives during different seasons.
• Handling and collection of honey and of beewax.

Answer 8.
Inverted pyramid of biomass. Pyramid of biomass shows relationship between producers and consumers in an ecosystem terms of biomass. If can be inverted in case of pond ecosystem. If shows small standing crop of phytoplankton supports large standing crop of zooplankton

Answer 9.

1. Zygote formed changes into embryo
2. Ovule changes into seed
3. Ovary develops into fruit and
4. Sepals and petals neither away

Answer 10.
The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation (you cannot see pure DNA fragments in the visible light and without staining). You can see bright orange coloured bands of DNA ! in a ethidium bromide stained gel exposed to UV light. The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This step is known as elution. The DNA fragments purified in this way are used in constructing recombinant DNA by joining them with cloning vectors.

Answer 11.

1. Release of pollen much before or much after the stigma is ready to accept it.
2. Placement of anther & stigma at such positions so that the pollens do not reach the stigma of the same plant or the same flower.
3. It is a chemical method in which the stigma inhibits the growth of the pollen tubes into the pistil. This process 15 known as self-incompatibility.
4. Production of flowers or plants that are uni-sexuel.

Answer 12.

• Pioneer species are the first ones to in vade a bare area, i.e., on rocks.
• These are usually lichens which secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation.
• This paves way for some very small plants like bryophytes, which are able to grow in the small amount of soil.
• Over the time, they are succeeded by bigger plants and after several more stages, ultimately a stable climax forest community is formed.
• The climax community remains stable if the environment remains unchanged.
• With time, the xerophytic habitat gets converted into a mesophytic one.

Answer 13.
a. Syngamy & Triple fusion
b. Syngamy: The pollen tube releases two male gametes into a cytoplasm of a synergid out of which one male gamete fuses with the egg cell to form a diploid zygote. This process is called syngamy.
Triple Fusion : The other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei in the central cell to form triploid PEN (Primary Endosperm Nucleus). This process is called triple fusion.

Answer 14.
1 – d
2 – a
3 – c
4 – b

Answer 15.
a. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
b. In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplantation; in others it can be treated by enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection. But the problem with both of these approaches that they are not completely curative. As a first step towards gene therapy, lymphocytes 18. from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the body. A functional ADA cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then introduced into these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the patient. However, as 19. these cells are not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes. However, if the gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.

Answer 16.
a.

• It may cause sleeplessness, increased heart rate, breathing problem, feeling of stress.
• Discomfort, permanent hearing loss and other psychological and physiological disorders,

b.

1. Turn off appliances at Home & Offices
2. Use ear plugs
3. Follow the limits of noise level
4. Go Green by planning trees
5. Regularly check noise level
6. Hotify authorities about disobedience of noise rules.

Answer 17.
Gel electrophoresis The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA. These fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Since DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/ matrix. Nowadays the most commonly used matrix is agarose which is a natural polymer extracted from sea weeds. The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.

Answer 18.
a. CNG – Compressed Natural Gas
b.

1. CNG burns most efficiently, unlike petrol, petrol or diesel
2. CNG is cheaper than petrol or diesel
3. It cannot be siphoned off by thieves.

Answer 19.
a. Commensalism
b. Mutualism
c. Parasitism
d. Competition
e. Predation
f. Mutualism

Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala Plus Two Botany Model Question Paper 4

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off,time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question’itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

(Questions 1 to 2): Answer all questions. Each question carries 1 score.

Question 1.
A unisexual flower having no andreorecium is called
a. Dithecous
b. Dioecious
c. Monoecious
d. Pistillate

Question 2.
In honey bees and some lizards female gamete undergoes development to form new oroanisms without fertilization This
phenomenon is called…………

(Questions 3 to 15): Answer any eleven quesions from the following. Each questions carries 2 scores.

Question 3.
In human beings, certain diseases are caused due to genetic disorders.
a. Name the method that allows the correction of a aene defect that has been diagnosed in a child or embryo.
b. How this method has been used for treatina ADA (Adenosine deaminase) deficiency?

Question 4.
A novel strategy to prevent nematode infestation is based on ‘ RNA interference’.
a. Explain RNA interference.
b. Can you suggest, how it can be used for producing nematode resistant plant?

Question 5.
Species diversity decreases from equator towards poles. Ecologists proposed various hypothesis. Suggest two hypothesis for this phenomenon.

Question 6.
Match the following

A                         B
Zoospores      Hydra
Conidia          Sponges
Bud                Chlamydomonas
Gemmules    Penicillium

Question 7.
The gradual and fairly predictable changes in the species composition in an area is called ecological succession.
a. Name the pioneer species in the primary succession in water.
b. Give the sequence of events and climax community in the hydrarch succession.

Question 8.
Infection by nematodes cause threat to t cultivation and yield loss of tobacco plants. A strateav has been developed at RNA level to control this infestation.
a. Name the process.
b. Explain how this process works at the molecular level.

Question 9.
In maize, the chromosome number present in the meiocvte is 20. Give the number of chromosomes present in the following:
a. Maize pollen
b. Maize endosperm

Question 10.
The gradual change in the species composition of a given area leading to the formation of climax community is called ecological succession. In a rocky area,
a. What is the expected type of pioneer species?
b. How this pioneer species leads to the establishment of a stable climax community?

Question 11.
During a .study tour teacher showed the primary colonisers on the banks of the river ‘Nila’.
a. Identify the succession and justify your answer.
b. List the different stages of the identified succession.

Question 12.
Jaya read in a biotechnology book that alien DNA can be introduced into host cell by micro injection and biolistics. Explain these methods.

Question 13.
Sophie was born with a genetic disorder – ADA deficiency.
a. What is ADA deficiency?
b. Can you suggest methods to treat this ADA deficiency?

Question 14.
An article in the newspaper reports that ‘Refrigerants like Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) pose threat to the environment’. How CFCs are harmful to the environment?

Question 15.
Genetically Modified Organism (GMO) is always a debatable topic among scientists, academicians and public. State any four usefulness of GMOs.

Question 16.
Interspecific interaction from the interaction of populations of two different species. If we assign + for beneficial, – for detrimental and 0 for neutral interactions, copy and complete the following chart.

Question 17.
A newspaper report read like this. “Conventional agricultural products like cereals, pulses and other seeds may not be able to meet the demand of food according to the increase in population. So focus has to be shifted to alternate food sources like SCPs.
a. What are SCPs? ”
b. Give one example of SCPs.
c. What are the advantages of SCPs?

Question 18.
Restriction endonucleases are the enzymes used to cut the DNA molecules.
a. Give the general term of the specific sequences where these enzymes cut the DNA.
b. Name the enzyme that joints the foreign DNA and vector DNA.
c. Give any two procedures to introduce the recombinant DNA into the host cell.

Answers

Answer 1.
d. Pistillate

Answer 2.
Parthenogenesis.

Answer 3.
a. Gene therapy.
b. ADA deficiency can be treated using bone marrow transplantation or by enzyme therapy. In gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the body. A functional ADA cDNA is then introduced into lymphocytes and return back to patient.

Answer 4.
a. RNA interference (RNAi) is the phenomenon of inhibiting activity of a gene through production of sense RNA and anti-sense RNA
b. The nematode specific genes introduced into the host plant using vectors. The introduction of DNA, it produce both sense and anti sense RNA in the host cells. These two DNA’s it form double stranded RNA that initiated RNA which silenced the specific mRNA of the nematode. Thus parasite could not survive in the host.

Answer 5.

1. Tropical regions have relatively more constant and predictable climate.
2. Tropical regions remained undisturbed for millions of years which results in greater diversification.
3. Availability of more solar energy con-tribute much productivity at tropical regions.

Answer 6.
A                     B
Zoospores     Chlamydomonas
Conidia          Penicillium
Bud                 Penicillium
Gemmules     Sponges

Answer 7.
a. Phytoplanktons
b.

1. Phytoplanktons
2. Submerged stage
3. Floating stage
4. Reed swamp stage
5. Sedge meadow stage
6. Woodland stage
7. Climax forest stage.

Answer 8.
a. RNA interference.
b. RNA interference (RNA) is the phenomenon of inhibiting activity of a gene through production of sense RNA and anti-sense RNA.

Answer 9.
a. 10
b. 30

Answer 10.
a. Lichen, ie., crustose lichen is the pioneer species.
b. Crustose lichen stage → Foliose lichen stage → moss stage → herb stage → shrub stage → forest stage.
Forest stage is a stable climax community.

Answer 11.
a. Hydarch succession.
b.

1. Phytoplanktons
2. Submerged stage
3. Floating stage
4. Reed swamp,stage
5. Sedge meadow stage
6. Woodland stage
7. Climax forest stage.

Answer 12.
Microinjection: Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animals cell. ,
Biolistics: Cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA.

Answer 13.
a. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme is crucial for the immune system function. Absense or decrease of this enzyme cause disorder. It is due to the deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase enzyme.’ This is called ADA deficiency,
b. Gene therapy, Bine marrow transplantation

Answer 14.
CFC released from refrigerant to the atmosphere, is split in to chlorofluro components and combined with ozone in the ozone layer and induce its decomposition. So ozone readily become O₂ molecule. This decreases the concentration of ozone in ozone layer which cause holes in the ozone layer. Through the holes, UV rays and other harmful rays can be easily fall up on earth which cause other diseases like cancer.

Answer 15.

1. The GM props have enhanced nutritional quality and yield.
2. Transgenic crops grow well in saline soil and show salt tolerance.
3. They increase productivity of crops generally by showing resistance against plant pathogens and to some herbicides.
4. Transgenic pig organs like heart, kidney, pancreas can be transplanted into humans.

Answer 16.
Species Species Name of interaction

Answer 17.
a. Single Cell Proteins.
b. Spirullina.
c.

1. It can be grown easily on materials like waste water, straw, sewage etc.
2. It can be serve on food rich in protein, minerals,fats, carbohydrate and vitamins.
3. It reduce environmental pollution.

Answer 18.
a. Palindrome sequences
b. DNA Ligases
c. Micro-injection : Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cells.
Biolistics or gene gun: Cells are bom barded with high velocity micro par tides of gold or tungsten coated with DNA

Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala Plus Two Botany Model Question Paper 3

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off,time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question’itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Answer all questions. Each question carried 1 score.

Question 1.
Bv observinq the relationship of the first, fill in the blanks.
Unisexual male flower : Staminate
Unisexual female flower : ………………

Question 2.
Johny, a plus two student is from a tribal colony with lower level of vitamins, minerals and protein deficiency. He wishes to be a plant breeder to help the public by producing new crops with high levels of vitamins, minerals, protein etc. Identify the phenomenon.

Question 3.
After syngamy and triple fusion in embryosac, embryo will be diploid and endosperm will be…………….

Question 4.
In some seeds the nucellus may be persistent. Such nucellus is called
a. Endosperm
b. Scutellum
c. Plumule
d. Perisperm

Answer any 10 questions. Each question j carried 2 score.

Question 5.
Raju is searching blight resistant plants for his crossing experiments. Unfortunately no such varieties are available.
a. Suggest a process to create such plants.
b. Justify your suggested method.

Question 6.
Given below is a table which shows the interspecific interaction. ‘ + ’ sign indicates beneficial, sign indicates detrimental and ‘0’ indicates neutral.
a. Fill in the blanks.
Species A        Species B     Interaction
–                             –               Competition
0                            –                …………………
+                            –                …………………
b. Name the interactions where one species is benefited and the other is detrimental.

Question 7.
Given below are 3 gametes a, b and c. a and b gametes undergoes fusion.

a. Identify the fusion.
b. Give the explanation for the identification.

Question 8.
Industrial effluents and domestic sewage seriously affect fresh water bodies. For protecting aquatic life Govt, of India recently declared an animal as national aquatic animal.
a. Identify the animal.
b. Distinguish biomagnification from eutrophication.

Question 9.
Copy the picture given below and mark the following:

a. Connective tissue
b. Endothecium
c. Tapetum
d. Sporogenous tissue

Question 10.
Ram singh is a conventional wheat breeder. One of the promising wheat varieties is found to be susceptible to leaf rust. , What breeding steps will be adopt to make his original promising variety resistant to leaf rust?

Question 11.
Consider pond as an ecosystem showing the number of individuals in the following ‘ categories.
Carnivores – 2500,
Producers – 15000,
Herbivores – 5000
a. Draw the pyramid of numbers in this ecosystem.
b. Comment on the energy flow in the ecosystem.

Question 12.
Meena, an environmental activist, noticed a gradual decline in the population of birds in the open agricultural fields near her place. She has heard of the excessive use of pesticides like DDT around that area.
a. What might have led to the decline of bird population in that area?
b. Name the process that has caused this phenomenon.

Question 13.
The regeneration of whole plants from any part of the plant grown under sterile conditions is called tissue culture.
a. The general term of the part of the plant taken out for tissue culture is …………
b. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any plant cell is………….

Question 14.
In summer we use air conditioners and in winter we use heaters. Here homeostasis is accomplished by artificial means. Explain four ways by which other living organisms cope with the situation.

Question 15.
Match the Column A with B:
A                        B
1. Bulbil             a. Bulbophyllum
2. Offset            b. Sponge
3. Gemmules   c. Water hyacinth
4. Leaf buds     d. Agave

Question 16.
In a debate one of the speaker reported like this. “Continuous inbreeding leads to inbreeding depression”. If so define the following:
a. Outcross
b. Cross breeding

Answer any 2 questions. Each question carried 3 score.

Question 17.
Three different flowers are given to you in the practical class.
i. Maize
ii. Vallisneria
iii. Rose
You are asked to group them based on pollinating agents. Describe the adaptations of each flower related with the agents of pollination.

Question 18.
Population interactions may be beneficial or not. Write any three interactions in detail.

Question 19.
Resistance is the ability to prevent the pathogen from causing disease.
1. Elucidate the steps in breeding for disease resistance.
2. Cite two examples for virus resistant plants.

Answers

Answer 1.
Pistillate.

Answer 2.
Biofortification: Breeding of crops for higher levels of nutritional quality.

Answer 3.
Triploid.

Answer 4.
d. Perisperm

Answer 5.
a. Mutation breeding
b. A new character can be created by mutation through the changes in the genotype of plants.

Answer 6.
a.
–              –                  – Competition
–             0                  – Ammensalism
+            0                  – Commensalism
b. Parasitism

Answer 7.
a. Isogamy
b. Two identical gametes take place in sexual reproduction.

Answer 8.
a. Gangetic Dolphin.
b. Eutrophication : Natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.
Biomagnification : To the increases in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic level.

Answer 9.

Answer 10.

1. Collection of variability.
2. Evaluation & selection of parents.
3. Hybridisation among the selected pa-rents.
4. Selection and testing of superior combinants.
5. Testing, releasing and commercialization of new characters.

Answer 11.
a.

b. Energy flow is unidirectional. The . amount of energy flow decreases with successive trophic level.

Answer 12.
a. High concentration of DDT disturbs calcium metabolism in bird which causes thinning of egg shell and their . premature breaking eventually causing decline in bird population,
b. Biomagnification.

Answer 13.
a. Explant
b. Totipotency

Answer 14.

1. Migration: It is the movement of organism from one place to another region and return when the stressful period is over.
2. Suspend: Organism like bacteria and fungi produce thick walled spores and tide over unfavourable condition.
3. Hibernation (winter sleep): It is the period of dormacy during winter, eg., cold blooded animals like frog.
4. Aestivation (summer sleep): It is the period of dormancy during summer.

Answer 15.

1. Bulbil           d. Agave
2. Offset           c. Water hyacinth
3. Gemmules  b. Sponge
4. Leaf buds    a. Bulbophyllum

Answer 16.
a. The breeding of the unrelated animals of same breed is called out-crossing. The offspring of such a mating is known as an out-cross. It is the best breeding method for animals that are below average in productivity.
b. Out-breeding is the breeding of the unrelated animals, which may be between individuals of the same breed but having no common ancestors for 4-6 generations (out¬crossing) or between different breeds (cross-breeding) or different species (interspecific hybrid i-sation).

Answer 17.
i. Maize – Anemophily – Wind pollination. Numerous pollen grains, pollen is dry and light, stigma is feathery.
ii. Vallisneria – Hydrophily – Water pollination.In vallisneria pollination by water, male flower occur in clusters when mature it detached and reach to the surface of water.
iii. Rose – Entamophily – Insect pollination. Flowers large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nactar.

Answer 18.
a. Predation : It is a kind of interaction between species in which one individual kills another for food, eg., prey is deer and predator is tiger.
Amensalism : In this, one population inhibits the arowth and development of other population.
Mutualism : In which both the species benefit, eg., Lichens (between a fungus and algae), mycorrhizae (between funai and the mots of hiaher plants).

Answer 19.
a.

1. The various sequential steps are:
   • Screening germplasm for resistance sources.
   • Hybridisation of selected parents
   • Selection and evaluation of the hybrids.
   • Testing and release of new varieties.
2. Crop – Chilli
   • Variety – Pusa Sadabahar
     Disease – Chilly mosaic virus, leaf curl
   • Crop – Tomato
     Variety – Bolseno
     Disease – Tomato mosaic virus

Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala Plus Two Botany Model Question Paper 2

Time: 1 Hours
Cool off time : 10 Minutes

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• Your are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off,time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question’itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

(Questions 1 to 2): Answer all questions. Each questions carries 1 score.

Question 1.
From the following, select the two having haploid chromosome number.
a. egg
b. endosperm
c. zygote
d. pollen

Question 2.
Bt Cotton is regarded as an important achievment of genetic engineering. What does Bt stands for?

(Questions 3 to 15) : Answer any eleven questions from the following. Each questions carries 2 score.

Question 3.
Ecological pyramids are usually upright. Meanwhile some, pyramid of biomass is inverted. Explain the reason.

Question 4.
Figure representing the reactions associated with Polymer Chain Reaction (PCR). Name the steps A, B, C in the process.

Question 5.
Recombinant DNA technology can be accomplished only if we have the following key tools ie., Restriction enzymes, Polymerase enzyme, Ligases and Vectors. State the functions of
a. Ligases
b. Restriction enzymes

Question 6.
Match the following

Question 7.
Given below are the components related to simplified model of mineral cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem. Construct a flow chart.
(Hint : weathering of rock)

Question 8.
Primary succession of rocks is known as Xerosere. Answer the following related with Xerosere.
a. Name the pioneer community.
b. Organic acids have important roles in this succession. Justify.

Question 9.
An aquatic ecosystem having luxurious growth of cyanobacteria (Algal bloom) leads to eutrophication.
a. What kind of pollutants cause algal bloom to colonize the aquatic ecosystem?
b. What are the consequences of eutrophication ?

Question 10.
A list of different organisms in an ecosystem are given below. Arrange them in 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th trophic level.
i. Phytoplankton
ii. Man
iii. Fish
iv. Zooplankton

Question 11.
Use of thermostable DNA polymerase from the bacterium, Thermus aquaticus, made it possible to generate billion copies of DNA in a very short time using a process.
a. Name the process.
b. Name the three important steps in volved in this process.

Question 12.
Read the statements below and identify the mode of interaction between the species.
a. Tiger eating deer.
b. Butterfly feeding pollen.
c. Human liver fluke feeding on snail.
d. Lice on humans.
e. Orchid attached to a tree.
f. Mycorrhizal association of fungi and roots of higher plants.
g. Sparrow eating seed.
h. Egrets foraging close to cattle.

Question 13.
Environmentalists usually says: “There are may causes for biodiversity losses”. Illustrate four major causes of biodiversity loss.

Question 14.
In a marine ecosystem, a population of phytoplankton (1,50,000) supports a standing crop of fishes (40,000).
a. Draw the pyramid of biomass.
b. Draw the pyramid of numbers in this ecosystem.

Question 15.
Geetha resides in a city nearby a lake. Water from this lake was used for various domestic purposes earlier. Now-a- days, this water has become turbid and is with an unpleasant odour.
a. What can be the reason for this?
b. Name the scientific term that explains this effect.

(Questions 16 to 18): Write any two from the following questions. Each questions carries 3 score.

Question 16.
Raju is a diabetic patient who takes insulin injections regularly. The insulin used by such patients is produced by genetically engineered organism. Write the different steps involved in the production of insulin by genetic engineering.

Question 17.
Raman is learning the post-fertilization changes of an angiosperm embryosac with the help of slides. He identified the egg nucleus and polar nuclei with the help of his teacher.
a. Name the other nuclei present in the embryosac.
b. Help Raman by giving the changes that takes place with egg nucleus and polar nuclei after fertilization.

Question 18.
Given below is the bar diagram showing age structure of three different populations. Observe the diagram carefully and answer the following questions.

Answers

Answer 1.
egg, pollen

Answer 2.
B – Bacillus
T – thuringiensis

Answer 3.
In most ecosystems, all the pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass are upright, i.e., producers are more in number and biomass than the herbivores, and herbivores are more in number and biomass than the carnivores. Also energy at a lower trophic level is always more than at a higher level.
The pyramid of biomass in sea is also generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level.

Answer 4.
A – Denaturation
B – Annealing,
C – Primer extension

Answer 5.
a. Ligases are enzymes that can rejoin
cut fragments of DNA by sealing the sugar-phosphate back bone,
b. These are the molecular scissors that cut long DNA at specific points, into smaller fragments.
Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases.

Answer 6.
i. 4
ii. 1
iii. 2
iv. 3

Answer 7.

Answer 8.
a. Lichens are the pioneer community.
b. Lichens secrete acids to dissolve the rock, helping in weathering and soil formation.

Answer 9.
a. Due to the addition of domestic
sewage, water bodies become rich in nutrient content. Addition of nutrients stimulates profuse growth of planktonic algae (free-floating algae).
b. Luxuriant growth of algal bloom totally cover the water surface. This causes reduction in DO (dissolved oxygen content). Decomposition of algal blooms causes deficiency of 02 in water. Algal blooms also release some toxins in water. Toxins inhibit the growth of other algae in bloom infected water body. So, in this poor oxygenated water with high level of CO₂, fishes and other aquatic animals begins to die due to the toxicity.

Answer 10.

Answer 11.
a. PCR (Polymerase chain reaction).
b. Step I – Denaturation,
Step II – Annealing,
Step III – Primer extension.

Answer 12.
Predation:

1. Tiger eating deer
2. Sparrow eating seed

Commensalism:

1. Orchid attached to a tree
2. Egrets foraging close to cattle

Parasitism:

1. Human liver fluke feeds on snail
2. Lice on humans

Mutualism:

1. Butterfly feeding pollen.
2. Mycorrhizal association of fungi and roots of higher plants.

Answer 13.
Major cause of biodiversity loss are:

1. Habitat loss and fragmentation: Due to the loss of natural habitat or use of natural habitat of animals or plants for other purposes will decrease the biodiversity in that area.
2. Co-extinction: Extinction of an organism or tree may cause the extinction of other organisms or plants that depends on it.
3. Over exploitation: With the over use of natural resources the biodiversity decreases in earth.
4. Alien species invasion: The species that enter in a new area when compete with the indigenous species results in the decrease in the species or extinction of indegeneous species

Answer 14.

Answer 15.
a. Domestic sewage and fertilizers add large quantities of nutrients in the lake. The rich supply of these nutrient increased productivity of water bodies i.e., algal blooming or nutrient enrichment. The decomposed water has become turbid and is with an unpleasant odour.
b. Eutrophication.

Answer 16.

1. 1st two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin are prepared.
2. They are introduced into plasmids of E-coli to produce insulin chain.
3. Chains A and B were produced separately.
4. Extracted and combined by creating disulphide bonds to form human insulin.

Answer 17.
a. Synergids and antipodals.
b. One of the two male gametes fuses with the egg to form zygote (2n).
The other male gametes fuses with the secondary nucleus to form endosperm which is triploid.

Answer 18.
a. B is stable.
b. A- Pre-reproductive: High percentage of young individual positive growth and board based age pyramid.
B- Reproductive: Growth rate is slow and stable, ie., zero growth. It is belt shaped polygon.
C- Post reproductive: Growth rate is decline, negative growth phase. An urn-shaped figure.

Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Model Question Paper 1 with Answers

Time: 1 Hour
Cool off time : 10 Minutes
Maximum : 30 Score

General Instructions to candidates:

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2 hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.                  ,
• Calculations, figures and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

I. Answer All questions. Each question carries 1 score. (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Insects feeding on plant sap and other parts are known to be?
Answer:
Pest

Question 2.
Name the first transgenic cow ………..
Answer:
Rosie

Question 3.
The hard outer layer of pollen grain is composed of ………….
a) cellulose
b) pectin
c) suberin
d) sporopollenin
Answer:
d) Sporopollenin

Question 4.
MOET is a programme for herd improvement. Name the hormone used in it.
Answer:
FSH

II. Answer any 10 questions. Each question carries 2 Scores. (10 × 2 = 20)

Question 5.
Artificial hybridisation is one of the major approaches of crop improvement programme. Suggest the techniques used to protect the stigma of bisexual flowers during hybridisation.
Answer:
In artificial hybridisation bagging is used to prevent the entry of unwanted pollen grains, then pollen grains from desired plant is dusted on the stigma, after this stigma again bagged, this is called rebagging.

Question 6.

Observe the above figure
a) Identify i and ii
b) Distinguish i and ii
Answer:
a) i) it contains polypeptide chains A B and C connected together
ii) it contains polypeptide chains A and B connected together but the c-peptide chain is separated

b) i) non functional insulin
ii) functional insulin

Question 7.
Beekeeping though relatively easy does require some specialised knowledge. List out the important points for its success.
Answer:

• Knowledge of the natural habitat of bees
• Selection of suitable location for keeping beehives
• Catching and having of swarms
• Handling and collection of honey and bee wax

Question 8.

Identify the above pyramid and justify your answer.
Answer:
It is called pyramid of biomass, here biomass increases in successive trophic levels.

Question 9.
List out any four changes that occur in flower after fertilisation
Answer:

• PEN develops into endosperm
• Zygote develops into embryo
• Ovary develops into fruit
• Ovule develops into seed

Question 10.
Isolation of DNA from plant cell involves many steps. Explain the different steps.
Answer:
At first plant cell wall is removed by using cellulose and pectinase enzyme, after this other components of cell can be removed by protease, lipase, carbohydrates and RNAase.

Then fine DNA Threads are suspended in chilled alcohol, it is obtained for slicing by spooling technique. Thus genetic material is isolated.

Question 11.
Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination. List out such features found in plants.
Answer:

• Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not at the same time.
• The anther and stigma are placed at different positions.
• Self-incompatibility
• Production of unisexual flowers.

Question 12.
Succession takes place on bare rock is called Xerarch succession. List out its sequential stages.
Answer:
Lichen communities are first appear in the rock, after death and decay more amount of organic matter is added to the soil, in addition to this weathering process takes place and all this helps in the formation of next plant communities like bryophytes. Later, Herbs shrubs and finally climax vegetation (forest) appears in each stage one plant the community is replaced by other takes place.

Question 13.
In angiosperms during fertilization two types of fusion occurs in the embryo sac.
a) Name the types of fusion
b) Which are the nuclei involved in each fusion.
Answer:
a) Syngamy and triple fusion
b) In syngamy one male garnets and one egg cell is involved while in triple fusion one male gamete and two polar nuclei are involved.

Question 14.
Match the column A and B

Answer:
1. Catalytic converter – Platinum Palladium
2. Electrostatic precipitator – thermal power plants
3. Montreal protocol – ozone depletion
4. Jhum cultivation – deforestation

Question 15.
The first clinical gene therapy was given to a four-year-old girl child.
a) What was her genetic disorder?
b) Briefly describe the clinical procedure adopted in this case
Answer:
a) Denosine deaminase deficiency

b) Before gene therapy the diseases was cured by bone marrow transplantation and in enzyme replacement therapy, after genetic engineering, Lymphocytes taken from the patient’s blood, it is cultured outside and into this functional ADA cDNA are introduced, then it is taken back into patients body or functional ADA cDNA are introduced into embryonic stage

Question 16.
A high level of noise is considered as pollution
a) What are its effects?
b) How it can be controlled?
Answer:
a) Noise causes sleeplessness, increased heart beating, and altered breathing patterns in humans.

b) Use sound-absorbing materials in industries. Govt, laws are there to reduce noise pollution around hospitals and schools by avoiding the use of air – horns, restricting the use of loudspeakers, etc.

III. Answer any 2 questions. Each question carries 3 scores. (2 × 3 = 6)

Question 17.
Identify the figure given below and explain the principles behind it.

Answer:
Gel electroforesis:
It is used to separate DNA fragments under electric field, At first the DNA fragments are loaded in well, it it moves through the gel and move towards anode according to their size and charge.

For this, DNA are stained by using ethidium bromide and it is visualised by using UV light DNA fragments are appeared as orange coloured bands. It is separated and cut out from the gel by using elusion.

Question 18.
For reducing the air pollution in Delhi the entire fleet of public transport buses were converted to CNG
a) Expand CNG
b) List out its advantages
Answer:
a) Compressed natural gas
b)

• It burns most efficiently.
• It is cheaper than petrol or diesel and
• It cannot be adulterated like petrol or diesel

Question 19.
Identify the following interactions
a) Barnacles on whale
b) Wasp on fig.
c) Ticks on dog
d) Abingdon tortoise and goats
e) Tiger and deer
f) Mycorrhizae
Answer:
a) Barnacles on whale – Commensalism
b) Wasp on fig – Mutualism
c) Ticks on dog – Parasitism
d) Abingdon tortoise and goats – Competition
e) Tiger and deer – Predation
f) Mycorrhizae – Mutualism

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Papers and Answers.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Previous Year Question Paper March 2017 with Answers

Time: 2½ Hours
Cool off time : 15 Minutes

General Instructions to Candidates

• There is a ‘cool off time’ of 15 minutes in addition to the writing time of 2½ hrs.
• You are not allowed to write your answers nor to discuss anything with others during the ‘cool off time’.
• Use the ‘cool off time’ to get familiar with the questions and to plan your answers.
• Read questions carefully before you answering.
• All questions are compulsory and the only internal choice is allowed.
• When you select a question, all the sub-questions must be answered from the same question itself.
• Calculations, figures, and graphs should be shown in the answer sheet itself.
• Malayalam version of the questions is also provided.
• Give equations wherever necessary.
• Electronic devices except non-programmable calculators are not allowed in the Examination Hall.

Question 1.
A date palm seed discovered during archeological investigation retained viability even after 10000 years. The retention of viability is due to the state of inactivity of the embryo called…………

Question 2.
The plant in which adventitious buds along the margin of leaves give rise to new plants is
a. Water Hyacinth
b. Agave
c. Bryophyllum
d. Dahlia

Question 3.
Match the following varieties wit their respective crops:

Question 4.
Sequences of base pairs in DNA that reads the same on both the strands when the Orientation of reading is kept the same are called…………

Question 5.
When the pollen is transferred from anther to the stigma of the same flower,the pollination is called autogamy.
a. Cleistogamous flowers are Kinvara bly autogamous. Explain.
b. Geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination, but genetically similar to autogamy. Justify the statement.

Question 6.
The thick protective covering of the fruit is known…………

Question 7.
Match the following

Question 8.
Insulin getting assembled into a mature form was the major challenge in commercial insulin production by rDNA technology. How did Eli Nilly Company found a solution to this problem?

Question 9.
In a given habitat, the maximum number possible for a species is called ………… of that species in that habitat.

Question 10.
A common cause of deforestation is slash and bum agriculture.
a. What is the common name attributed to such type of cultivation?
b. Explain how this type of cultivation is practiced?

Question 11.
A. Different types of population interaction have been observed in a population.
Write the type of interaction observed among the following species:

OR
B. Organisms other than human beings manage or adapt to stressful conditions by adopting different mechanisms. Explain any three mechanisms adopted by them to maintain the internal environment.

Question 12.
Breeding crops with the objective of increased nutritional quality is called…………

Question 13.
A. The following photograph shows the result of a technique showing the separation of DNA.

a. Name the technique.
b. How the separated DNA is visualized?
c. DNA fragments of size 500 bp, 1600 bp and 2000 bp are separated by this process. Which fragment will migrate fast. Why?
B. Different methods have been suggested to introduce alien DNA into host cells. Give and explain any three methods adopted for this purpose.

Question 14.
The different stages of primary succession in water are represented below. Fill the gaps that are unfilled.
a. Phytoplankton
b. ……………………
c. Submerged free-floating plant stage
d. …………………….
e………………………
f. Shrub stage
g………………………

Question 15.
Particulate matter in polluted air is removed by the application of an electrostatic precipitator. Explain the working principle of the electrostatic precipitator.

Question 16.
Nature has mechanisms to promote outbreeding in plants. Explain any two mechanisms existing in plants to promote outbreeding.

Question 17.
An ecosystem consists of the following population: Phytoplankton, Man, Fish, Zooplankton Draw a food chain denoting each trophic level.