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Students can Download Adisthana Padavali Unit 1 Chapter 3 Vellachattattinte Idimulakkam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Adisthana Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Adisthana Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Guide Unit 1 Chapter 3 Vellachattattinte Idimulakkam

Vellachattattinte Idimulakkam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Seasons and Time

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Seasons And Time Question 1.
Which of the following is summer solstice in Northern Hemisphere?
March 21
September 23
June 21
December 22
Answer:
June 21

Question 2.
The northward apparent movement of the sun from Tropic of Capricorn to Tropic of Cancer
Utharayanam
Dakshinayanam
Solstice
Equinox
Answer:
Utharayanam

Question 3.
The season that marks the transition from the severity of summer towards winter.
Spring season
Rainy season
Autumn season
Winter season
Answer:
Autumn season

Question 4.
Which of the following is equinox?
September 23
December 22
June 21
July 14
Answer:
September 23

Question 5.
Based on the differences in the atmospheric conditions, the season experienced in India in the months of March and April.
Autumn
Spring
Summer
Winter
Answer:
Spring

Question 6.
When the sun is in the Northern Hemisphere, what will be the condition of 90°S?
6 months of day
1 month of night
24 hours of night
6 months of night
Answer:
6 months of night

Question 7.
What will be the Indian Standard Time when it is 8 a.m. on Sunday at Greenwich?
Monday 12.30 pm
Sunday 12.30 pm
Sunday 1.30 pm
Sunday 2.30 pm
Answer:
Sunday 1.30 pm

Answer in a sentence each.

Question 1.
What is meant by seasonal change?
Answer:
The earth experiences the recurrence of winter, summer and the rainy season one after the other.
Such a change on the earth is known as seasonal change.

Question 2.
What is revolution?
Answer:
The earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit. This motion which takes one year is known as revolution.

Question 3.
How much time does the earth take to complete one revolution?
Answer:
The earth takes 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes and 45 seconds to complete one revolution (365 \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) days).

Question 4.
Which is the standard meridian of India based for calculating time?
Answer:
82 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° E longitude

Question 5.
Which season is experienced in Southern Hemisphere when it is spring in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:

• Southern Hemisphere experiences autumn.
• Similarly, when it is spring in the Southern Hemisphere, it is autumn in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 6.
Why is zero degree longitude known as the. Greenwich meridian?
Answer:
It acquires its name from Greenwich, the place where the Royal British Observatory is situated and through which this line passes.

Answer the following. Score 2 each.

Question 1.
What are the reasons for the occurrence of different seasons?
Answer:

• Revolution of the earth
• Tilt of the earth’s axis
• Parallelism of the earth’s axis
• The apparent movement of the sun.

Question 2.
What is the Greenwich Mean Time when the Indian Standard Time is 1 p.m on Sunday?
Answer:
The time difference between India and Greenwich is 514 hours. The Greenwich time will be 7.30 a.m on Sunday. (1p.m – 5 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours = 7.30 am)

Question 3.
What is the tilt of the earth’s axis at vertical plane and horizontal plane?
Answer:

• At vertical plane, tilt of the earth’s axis is 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°
• At horizontal plane, the tilt is 66°.

Question 4.
What is known as parallelism of the earth’s axis?
Answer:
The axis of the earth is tilted at an angle of 66 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° from the orbital plane and 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° from the vertical plane. The earth maintains this tilt throughout its revolution. This is known as parallelism of the earth’s axis.

Question 5.
How does the tilt of earth’s axis influence the change of seasons?
Answer:
If the earth’s axis is not tilted, the sun’s position will have been over the equator always. If so, both the hemispheres would receive equal amount of sunlight. There wouldn’t have been change of seasons on earth. Since the tilt is maintained throughout the revolution, the position of the sun in relation to the earth varies. The sun shifts apparently between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn and this results in seasons.

Question 6.
What is meant by apparent movement of the sun? Name the two latitudinal lines that gain importance in this process.
Answer:
Since the parallelism of the earth’s axis is maintained same throughout the revolution, the position of the sun in relation to the earth varies apparently between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. This is known as the apparent movement of the sun.
The movement of the sun is in between 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° N and 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° S.

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 1 Question 7.
What are equinoxes?
Answer:
March 21 and September 23 are equinoxes. On these days, the sun is vertically over the equator. Both the hemispheres receive equal amount of sunlight. Hence the length of day and night will be equal on these days in both the hemispheres.

Question 8.
Answer the question based on the table.

a. What will be the season in Southern Hemisphere when it is summer in Northern Hemisphere?
b. What will be the season in Northern Hemisphere when it is summer in Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:
a. Winter season in Southern Hemisphere.
b. Winter season in Northern Hemisphere. Reason: The hemisphere in which the sun is located receives more heat.

Question 9.
Complete the table.

Hints:

• Spring season
• Summer season
• Autumn season
• Winter season

Answer:
A. Autumn season
B. Spring season
C. Winter season
D. Summer season

Question 10.
When Northern Hemisphere has the following seasons, which are the seasons experienced in the Southern Hemisphere?

• Summer
• Spring
• Winter
• Autumn

Answer:

Question 11.
Answer the following.
a. The season that marks the transition from summer to winier
b. The season that marks the transition from winter to summer
Answer:
a. Autumn
b. Spring

Question 12.
The duration of days and nights at each place on the earth is not the same throughout the year. Why?
Answer:

• Rotation and occurrence of day and night.
• Tilt of the earth’s axis and revolution.

Question 13.
How many time zones are there? What is the time/degree difference between each zone?
Answer:

• Based on the Greenwich line, the world is divided into 24 time zones, each with a time difference of one hour.
• The longitudinal extent of each time zone is 15°.

Question 14.
Writes noies on
Greenwich line
Greenwich Mean Time
OR
Write the sign if chance of Greenwich meridian
or
Q° longitude line in determining time.
Answer:

• The zero degree longitude is known as Greenwich line. Time is calculated worldwide based on the Greenwich line. Hence this line is also known as prime meridian.
• Based on the Greenwich line, the world is divided into 24 time zones. The local time at the Greenwich line is known Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 15.
How are the standard meridian and standard time calculated by each country?
OR
Every country considers a particular longitude as their standard meridian for determining time. Why?
Answer:
The local time would be different at each longitude. If we start calculating the local time at different places based on the longitude there, it would create lot of confusion. So each country in the world considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian.
The local time at the standard meridian is the standard time of the country.

Question 16.
Which longitude is considered as the standard meridian of India? Why is it considered so?
Answer:
82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°E longitude is considered as the standard meridian of India. The line passes almost through the middle of India.
Each country in the world considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian. The longitudinal extent of India is from 68°E to 97°E. This amounts roughly to 30°.

The 82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°E longitude passes almost through the middle of these longitudes. So 82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°E longitude is considered as the standard meridian of India.

Question 17.
What is known as Indian Standard Time? How does it differ from Greenwich Time?
Answer:

• 82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°E longitude is the standard meridian of India. The local time of this longitude is generally considered as the common time of India. This is known as Indian Standard Time.
• The IST is 5\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours ahead of Greenwich time.

Question 18.
Land areas through which the 180° longitude passes are avoided. Why? Based on the Greenwich line, the world is ;
Answer:
The west and east of 180° longitude line records two different times with 24 hours difference. This creates much difficulties. So land areas along the 1800 longitude are avoided and the longitude passes through ocean.

Question 19.
Arrange the columns suitably.

Answer:

Question 20.
Identify the longitude by examining the time difference.
The time at A is 10 pm Sunday. A is situated at 150° W to Greenwich. At the same time, it is 3 pm Monday at B. If so, find the longitude at which B is situated.
a. At 75° E of Greenwich
b. At 120° W of Greenwich
c. At 90° W of Greenwich
d. At 105° E of Greenwich
Answer:
d. At 105° E of Greenwich

10th Social Science Important Questions Question 21.
Identify the wrong statement from the following and rewrite it correctly.
A. The duration of day in the Southern Hemisphere increases from September 23 to December 22.
B. The duration of night in the Southern Hemisphere increases from September 23 to December 22.
C. The duration of day in the Northern Hemisphere increases from March 21 to June 21.
D. The duration of night in the Northern Hemisphere decreases from March 21 to June 21.
Answer:
The wrong statement is B.
The duration of night in the Southern Hemisphere decreases from Septembers 23 to December 22.

Question 22.
The seasons experienced in the Southern Hemisphere are given in the table. Write down the corresponding seasons in the Northern Hemisphere.

Answer:

Question 23.
The time of sunset varies over different months. Why?
Answer:
The apparent movement of sun between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is the reason.
When the sun is over the northern hemisphere, longer days and shorter nights are experienced here.

When the sun is over the southern hemisphere, the northern hemisphere experiences shorter days and longer nights. This causes variations in the time of sunrise and sunset.

Question 24.
There is an increase of time towards the east and decrease in time towards the west of zero degree longitude. Why?
Answer:

• The earth rotates from west to east. So the sun rises in the east and sets in the west.
• Hence there is an increase in time towards the east and decrease in time towards the west.

Answer the following. Score 3 each.

Question 1.
Which are the equinox days? Write the peculiarities of these days?
OR
Write the peculiarities of the days March 21 and September 23 based on the apparent position of the sun.
Answer:

• The equinox days are March 21 and September 23.
• The apparent position of the sun on these days would be over the equator.
• Equal amount of sunlight is received in the northern as well as the southern hemispheres when the sun is vertically over the equator.
• Hence the length of day and night will be equal on these days in both the hemispheres.

Sslc Social Science Important Questions Question 2.
Write the peculiarities of day and night on June 21 and December 22 in both the north and south hemispheres.
Answer:
June 21

• Known as summer solstice in Northern Hemisphere.
• The longest day and the shortest night in the Northern Hemisphere.
• The longest night and the shortest day in the Southern Hemisphere.

December 22

• Known as winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere.
• The longest day and the shortest night in the Southern Hemisphere.
• The longest night and the shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 3.
Which are the days of longest day and longest night in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres?
Answer:
June 21:

• Longest day in the Northern Hemisphere.
• Longest night in the Southçrn Hemisphere.

December 22:

• Longest day in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Longest night in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 4.
When is the summer in the Northern Hemisphere? Write the peculiarities of this season.
Answer:
Summer season is experienced in Northern Hemisphere during June 21 and September 23.
Peculiarities of Summer

• Vertical sun rays and more sunlight.
• Warm atmosphere.

Question 5.
If the earth’s axis was not tilted, where would be the position of sun? What may be its consequences?
Answer:
The sun would be always near the equator if the earth’s axis was not tilted. Sun rays fall vertically near the equator and the atmosphere gets heated excessively.
Consequences:

• Both the hemispheres receive equal amount of sunlight.
• Equatorial regions experience high temperatures always.
• No change in seasons
• Duration of day and night will be equal.

Question 6.
Which are the two transition seasons between summer and winter? Name the months in which they occur.
Answer:

• Spring and autumn.
• In Northern Hemisphere, spring season is experienced between 21 March and 21 June. This is the season of transition from winter to summer.
• Autumn is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere from 23 September to 22 December. It marks the transition from summer to winter.

Question 7.
Answer the questions based on the table.

a. Which latitude experiences equal day and night?
b. What is the duration of day at North Pole?
c. Which latitude in the Northern Hemisphere has the longest day?
Answer:
a. 0° latitude or equator experiences equal day and night.
b. 6 months. This is because the sun is in the Northern Hemisphere.
c. 90°N.

Question 8.
What is meant by local time? Is the local time at each place in India the same? What will be the complications if there are several local times in a country?
Answer:

• The time estimated at each place based on the apex position of the sun is known as local time.
• The local time is not the same at each place in India.
• If there are several local times in a country, it leads to complications like:

a. Cannot prepare a railway, plane and ship time. table applicable throughout the country.
b. Cannot give information on radio and television programs.
c. Inconvenience in the time schedule of National Day celebrations.

Question 9.
Write the peculiarities of earth’s rotation.
Answer:

• Day and night are caused due to rotation.
• It takes 24 hours to complete one rotation.
• The earth rotates from west to east and so the sun rises in the eastern side.

Question 10.
The zero degree longitude is called Greenwich line and Prime meridian. Why?
Answer:

• The zero degree longitude is known as Greenwich line. Time is calculated worldwide based on the Greenwich line. Hence this line is also known as prime meridian.
• Based on the Greenwich line, the world is divided into 24 time zones. The time is ahead to the east of Greenwich line and is behind to the west of Greenwich line. The local time at the Greenwich line is known Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 11.
What is International Date Line? What are its peculiarities?
OR
Write the significance of International Date Line in determining time.
Answer:
The 180° longitude line from the east and west of Greenwich line is the International Date Line. There is a time difference of 24 hours on both the sides of this line. It creates much difficulty if the same place records two different times with 24 hours difference. To solve this problem, adjustments have been made avoiding the land area along the 180° longitude.

The line is in such a way that it passes through Bering Strait in the Pacific Ocean and avoids some of the inhabited islands. So the International Date Line is not a straight line. The travellers who cross this line from the west calculate time by advancing one day and those who cross the line from the east deduct one day.

Question 12.
What change should be made in time by travellers who cross the International Date Line?
Answer:

• The travellers who cross this line from the west calculate time by advancing the day and those who cross the line from the east deduct one day.
• The travellers who cross the International Date Line from east to west gain a day and those who cross from west to east, lose a day.

Question 13.
Calculate the time.
The Greenwich time is 4 am on Monday. Calculate the time and date of a place 75°W.
Answer:
Time is behind the GMT at places lying to the west of Greenwich line. For every 15° longitude, the time decreases by 1 hour. So the time at 75 °W is 5 hours behind GMT.
\(\frac{75}{15}=5\)
The time at Greenwich = Monday 4 am
The time at 75 °W = 5 hours behind GMT
The time and day = Sunday 11 pm;

Question 14.
GMT is 12.00 noon. What is the time at 90°E?
Answer:
For every 15° longitude, the difference is 1 hour.
In 90° longitude the time difference = \(\frac{90}{15}\) = 6.
Since it is to east, the time increases.
12.00 + 6 = 6pm.

Question 15.
What are summer solstice and winter solstice? Write their peculiarities.
Answer:
From 21 March onwards, the sun apparently shifts from the equator northwards and reaches vertically above the Tropic of Cancer on June 21. This day is known as summer solstice in Northern Hemisphere. On this day, the Northern Hemisphere experiences the longest day and shortest night.

From 23 September onwards, the sun apparently shifts from the equator southwards and reaches vertically above the Tropic of Capricorn on December 22. This day is known as winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere. On this day the Northern Hemisphere experiences the shortest day and the longest night.

Question 16.
Examine the changes in the duration of day and night during solstices and equinoxes.
Answer:
March 21 and September 23 are called equinoxes. The apparent position of the sun on these days will be over equator. Hence the length of day and night will be equal on these days in both the hemispheres.

On June 21, known as summer solstice, the sun will be vertically above the Tropic of Cancer. This is the longest day and the shortest night in the Northern Hemisphere.

On December 22, known as winter solstice, the sun will be vertically above the Tropic of Capricorn. This is the longest night and the shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 17.
Write the reasons for the following.
a. Based on a particular longitude, the time is ahead to its east and behind to its west.
b.The length of day increases in Northern Hemisphere after March 21 and upto June 21.
c. There is a time difference of 24 hours on both sides of International Date Line.
Answer:
a. Time is calculated worldwide based on zero degree longitude or Greenwich meridian. As the earth rotates from west to east, the sun rises first in the eastern side. So the time is ahead to the east and behind to the west of zero degree longitude.

b. The apparent position of sun shifts from the equator to the Northern Hemisphere from March 21 to June 21.

c. There are 180 longitudinal lines to the east and 180 longitudinal lines to the west of zero degree longitude. 180° longitude is known as the International Date Line. Based on Greenwich line, the world is divided into 24 zones, each with a time difference of one hour. So there is a time difference of 24 hours on both the sides of 180° longitude.

Question 18.
Appu celebrated the New Year 2017 exactly at midnight in India. But to his friend Joe in England, it was only sunset.
i. How many hours Joe have to wait for the New Year 2017 to be born?
ii. What is the reason for this time difference?
Answer:
i. Joe will have to wait for 5 \(\frac{1}{2}\) hours for the new year. The time of England is 5\(\frac{1}{2}\) hours behind Indian time. When the new year 2017 was born in India, the time in England was 6.30 pm. on December 31, 2016.

ii. The earth rotates from west to east. So the sun rises first in the eastern side. The time decreases from the east to west by 1 hour for every 15° longitude. The standard meridian of India is 82’/2°E and that of England is 0°. Thus the Indian time is 554 hours ahead of time in England.

Answer the following. Score 4 each.

Question 1.
The Greenwich time is 10 am Monday. Determine the time at 60° E and 60°W
Ans:
60° E 2 pm Monday.\(\frac{60}{15}\) = 4 hours. 10am +4= 2pm.
60° W 6 am Monday .\(\frac{60}{15}\) = 4 hours. 10am -4 = 6 am.

Question 2.
One feature each of spring and autumn is given. Add more.

Answer:

Question 3.
Match the items in column A with the items in column B.

Answer:

Question 4.
Length of day and night will be equal in both the hemispheres on September 23.
i. Why is equal day and night experienced so?
ii. On which other day does the same phenomenon repeat?
iii. How are the above mentioned days known as?
Answer:
i. The apparent position of the sun on September 23 will be over the equator. Hence the length of day and night will be equal on this day in both the hemispheres.

ii. March 21

iii. Equinoxes

Question 5.
Analyse the following statements and write their reasons.
i. When it is summer in the Northern Hemisphere, it is winter in Southern Hemisphere.
ii. Different seasons occur on the earth.
Answer:
i. The apparent movement of the sun due to the inclination of axis is the reasons for the occurrence of different seasons. The sun’s rays fall vertically over one hemisphere during one half of the year and on the other hemisphere during the other half. When the sun rays fall vertically in the Northern Hemisphere, it is summer in the Northern Hemisphere and winter in the Southern Hemisphere. Similarly, when the sun rays fall vertically over the Southern Hemisphere, it is summer in the Southern Hemisphere and winter in the Northern Hemisphere.

ii. Reasons for the occurrence of seasons:

• Earth’s revolution
• Inclination of axis
• Migration of the sun

Question 6.
Write the peculiarities of the duration of day and night on 21s’ March, 23rd September, 21s’ June and 22nd December, based on the hints given:

• Apparent position of the sun
• The duration of day and night
• The names by which these days are known.

OR
Write the differences between equinoxes and solstices.
Answer:
March 21: The apparent position of the sun is over the equator and so equal amount of sunlight is received in both hemispheres. The length of day and night will be equal in both die hemispheres. This day is known as equinox.

June 21: The apparent position of the sun is vertically over the Tropic of Cancer. The day is known as summer solstice in Northern Hemisphere. On this day the Northern Hemisphere experiences its longest day and shortest night.

September 23: The sun comes vertically over the equator. The length of day and night is equal. The day is known as equinox.

December 22: The sun is vertically over the Tropic, of Capricorn. The day is known as winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere. This is the longest night and shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 7.
Explain the terms ‘Utharayanam ’ and ‘Dakshinayanam ’. What changes occur in, the duration of day in Northern Hemisphere during these periods?
Answer:
The northward apparent movement of the sun from Tropic of Capricorn to Tropic of Cancer is termed as Utharayanam. The duration of day in the Northern Hemisphere gradually increases during this period. The duration of day in the Southern Hemisphere gradually decreases.

The southward apparent movement of the sun from Tropic of Cancer to Tropic of Capricorn is termed as Dakshinayanam. The duration of day in the Northern Hemisphere gradually decreases and that of Southern Hemisphere gradually increases.

Answer the following. Score 5/6 each.

Question 1.
Spring and autumn are transition seasons between summer and winter. Explain.
Answer:
Spring and autumn are two transition seasons.

1. Spring: Spring is the season of transition from winter to summer. The peculiarities of spring are plants sprouting, mango trees blooming and jack fruit tree bearing buds. It is experienced between 21 March and 21 June in the Northern Hemisphere.
2. Autumn : Autumn marks the transition from the severity of summer towards winter. During this period, the atmospheric temperature decreases considerably. This is followed by a shortening of day and lengthening of night. The trees generally shed their leaves. Autumn is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere from 23 September to 22 December.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the occurrence of seasons?
Answer:
Variations in the amount of sunshine received are the basis for the occurrence of different seasons. The reasons for the occurrence of different seasons are,

• Revolution of the earth
• Tilt of the earth’ axis
• Apparent movement of the sun
• Revolution of the earth: The earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit. This motion is known as revolution. The earth takes 365\(\frac{1}{4}\) days to complete one revolution.
• Tilt of the earth’s axis: The axis of the earth is tilted at an angle of 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)° from the orbital plane and 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° from the vertical plane.

The earth maintains this tilt throughout its revolution. This is known as parallelism ofthe earth’s axis. Since the parallelism is maintained throughout the revolution, the position of the sun in relation to the earth varies.

Apparent movement of the sun : The sun shifts apparently between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. This is known as the apparent movement of the sun. There will be variation in the amount of solar energy received on earth due to the apparent movement of the sun.

The sun rays fall vertically over one hemisphere during one half of the year and on the other hemisphere during the other half. Temperature will be higher over places where the vertical rays ofthe sun fall. The temperature will be low at places where the sun rays are slanting.

Question 3.
Complete the table related to change in season.

Answer:

Question 4.
The shift in the relative position of the sun causes the occurrence of seasons. Based on this statement, prepare a table on the different seasons experienced in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
Answer:

Question 5.
Answer the following questions based on global determination of time?
i. By what name is the time estimated based on the apex position of the sun known?
ii. What are the practical difficulties in determining time based on the apex position of sun?
iii. How is time determined by countries as a solution to this?
iv. How is Indian Standard Time estimated?
Answer:
i. The time estimated at each place, based on the apex position of the sun is termed as local time.

ii. Cannot prepare a railway/flight/examination time table throughout the country. Cannot give information on radio/television program.

iii. To solve this, the local time at the longitude that passes through the middle of a country is selected as the common time for the whole country. Each country considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian. The local time at the standard meridian is the standard time of the country.

iv. Each country in the world considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian. The longitudinal extent of India is from 68°E to 97°E. This amounts roughly to 300. The 82\(\frac{1}{2}\) E longitude passes almost through the middle of these longitudes. So 82\(\frac{1}{2}\)°E longitude is considered as the standard meridian of India.

Question 6.
The picture depicts the seasons experienced in the Northern Hemisphere.
i. Which seasons are represented by the letters A and B?
ii. Write the peculiarities of the transition seasons.
iii. What are the reasons for the occurrence of seasons?
Answer:

i.
A. Spring
B. Autumn

ii. Spring.

• Season of transition from winter to summer.
• Plants sprout, mango trees bloom.

Autumn

• Transition from severity of summer towards winter.
• Atmospheric temperature decreases considerably during this period.
• Shortening of day and lengthening of night.
• Trees shed leaves.

iii. The apparent movement of the sun due to the inclination of the axis. Revolution.

Question 7.
What is the difference between local time and standard time? Why do countries follow a standard time? Calculate Indian Standard time when Greenwich time is 6.30 in the morning.
Answer:
Local time: The time estimated at each place based on the apex position of the sun is termed as the local time.

Standard time: Each country in the world considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian. The local time at the standard meridian is the standard time.

Why standard time? : The local time would be different at each longitude. If we start calculating local time at different places based on the longitude there, it would create lot of confusion. To solve this, the local time at the longitude that passes through the middle of a country is selected as the common time for the whole country.

The longitude of Greenwich is 0°
The Standard Meridian of India is 82\(\frac{1}{2}\)°E Indian Standard Time is 5\(\frac{1}{2}\) hours ahead of Greenwich time.
When the time is 6.30 am in Greenwich, the time in India is 6.30 + 5.30 = 12 = 12 noon

Question 8.
Write on the seasons experienced in Northern Hemisphere due to the apparent movement of the sun between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:
As a result of the apparent movement of the sun between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn, the different seasons like spring, summer, autumn and winter get repeated in a cyclic manner.
The apparent position of the sun will be over the equator on March 21 and September 23. So equal amount of sunlight is received in both the hemispheres.

Hence the length of day and night will be equal on these days in. both the hemispheres. These days are called equinoxes. From March 21 onwards, the sun apparently shifts from the equator northwards and reaches vertically over the Tropic of Cancer on June 21.

This day is known as the summer solstice in Northern Hemisphere. From September 23 onwards, the sun apparently shifts from the equator southwards and reaches vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn on December 22. This day is known as winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere.

The Northern Hemisphere generally experiences spring season between 21 March and 21 June. Spring is the season of transition from winter to summer.

The southward apparent movement of the sun begins from June 21 and again reaches vertically above the equator on 23 September. Summer season is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere during this period.

Autumn season is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere from 23 September to 22 December. Autumn marks the transition from the severity of summer towards winter.

The northward apparent shift of the sun begins by 22 December and again reaches vertically above the equator on 21 March. This period marks the winter season in Northern Hemisphere.

Question 9.
When the local time of Alexandria (30°E) in Egypt is 6 am on Monday morning, what will be the local time of New Orleans (90°W) in USA?
Answer:

• The longitudinal extent from Greenwich to Alexandria: 30°.
• The longitudinal extent from Greenwich to New Orleans: 90°.
• The total longitudinal extent from A lexandria to Greenwich: 120°.
• The difference of 1 ° longitude: 4 minutes.
• The difference of 15° longitude : 15 x 4 = 60 minutes or 1 hour.
• The difference of 120° longitude in minutes: 120 x 4 = 480 minutes.
  In hours :\(\frac{120}{15}\) = 8 hours.
• Time is 1 hour ahead for each 15° longitude from west to east. Similarly time is 1 hour behind for each 15° longitude from east to west.
• New Orleans is located to the west of Alexandria and the time there will be 8 hours behind the time of Alexandria.
• The time at New Orleans will be 10 pm on Sunday.

Question 10.
When it is Saturday 8 p.m at 90°W, what will be the time of 120°E?
Answer:

• Longitudinal extent from Greenwich to 90°W:90°.
• Longitudinal extent from Greenwich to 120°F: 120°.
  Total longitudinal extent : 2100(90+ 120).
• The difference of 15° longitude: 1 hour.
• The difference of 210° longitude : \(\frac{120}{15}\) = 14 hours. .
• For each 150 longitudes, time will be ahead by 1 hour from west to east.
• The time at 120°E will be ahead by 14 hours from the time at 90°W.
• The time of 120°E will be Sunday 10 a.m.

Question 11.
It is Monday 4.30 pm in India. Calculate the time at 78°W.
Answer:

• Longitudinal extent from Greenwich to 78° W: 78°.
• Longitudinal extent from Greenwich to India (82\(\frac{1}{2}\) °E): 82\(\frac{1}{2}\) °.
• Total longitudinal extent: 16\(\frac{1}{2}\)°. (78 + 82\(\frac{1}{2}\)°)
• The difference for 10 longitude: 4 minutes.
• The difference for \(\frac{1}{2}\)°0 longitude : 2 minutes
• The difference for 16\(\frac{1}{2}\)0
  in minutes = 160° x 4 = 642 minutes
  in hours = \(\frac{642}{60}\)= 10 hours 42 minutes.
• From east to west, time will be behind 1 hour for each 15° longitude.
• The time at 78°W will be 10 hours 42 minutes behind the time of India.
• It is 5.48 am on Monday.

Question 12.
When the Greenwich time was 2 pm on Wednesday, it was 10 pm in Australia and 11 am in Brazil. Calculate the longitude of Australia and Brazil.
Answer:

Brazil

• Time difference between Greenwich and Brazil: 3 hours behind.
• If the time is behind Greenwich time, the place will be in western longitude.
• The time required to complete 360° rotation is 24 hours. The longitudinal extent covered by earth in 1 hour=\(\frac{360}{24}\) = 15°.
• The longitudinal extent of Brazil from Greenwich: 3 x 15° = 45°W.
• The longitude of Brazil: 45°W.

Australia

• Time difference between Greenwich and Australia 8 hours ahead.
• As the time is ahead, the place will be in eastern longitude.
• The longitudinal extent covered by earth in I hour: 15°.
• The longitudinal extent of Australia from Greenwich: 8 x 15° = 120°.
• The longitude of Australia: 120°E.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions

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Yudhathinte Parinamam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Landscape Analysis through Maps

Geography Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Find out the location of settlements and graveyards in the given grid using 4- figure grid reference method.
Answer:

Graveyard
Write the value of northings along with the value of eastings of the grid in which the graveyard is situated. The four-digit number gained thus is the 4 – figure grid reference. The value of the easting to the immediate left of the graveyard is 22. Then the value of the northing just below the graveyard is to be written (77). Thus the location of the graveyard as per the 4 figure grid reference is 2277.

Settlements
The value of the easting to the immediate left of the settlement is to be written (23). Then the value of the northing just below the settlement is to be written (77). Thus the 4-figure grid reference of the settlements is 2377.

2. Find out the location of spring, mosque, railway station. Police station and well in the given grid using the 6 – figure grid reference method.

Answer:

Spring
The value of the easting to the left of the spring is to be written first (35). Then divide the area upto the next easting into 10 equal parts and find the exact division on which the spring is located and write it next to the value of easting already found (357). Now the value of the northing just below the spring (54) is to be written along with the easting’s value (35754). Divide the area upto the next northing into 10 equal parts and find the exact division on which the spring is located and write it with the values already written (357548). Thus the 6-figure grid reference of the spring is 357548.

Mosque

• Value of easting (34). Value obtained by dividing into ten parts (3). The total value of easting is 343.
• Value of northing (54). Value obtained by dividing into ten (6). Total value of northing is 546.
• The 6-figure grid reference of the mosque is 343546.

Railway station

• Value of easting (35) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts(7). Total value of easting is 357.
• Value of northing (54) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts (3). Total value of northing is 543.
• The 6-figure grid reference of the railway station is 357543.

Police station.

• Value of easting (34) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts(6). Total value of easting is 346.
• Value of northing(54) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts (4). Total value of northing is 544.
• The 6-figure grid reference of the Police 1 station is 346544.

Well

• Value of easting (35) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts (2). Total value = 352
• Value of northing (54) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts (8). Total value = 548
• The 6-figure grid reference of the well = 352548

Question 3.
Match the contour in column A with shape of landforms in column B.

Answer:

Question 4.
The following map is a part of a toposheet. Find out how it differs from the maps you are familiar with.

Answer:

• Topographical maps are maps prepared by incorporating minute details of comparatively small areas.
• These are large scale maps.
• Man-made and natural features on the earth’s surface are depicted in detail.
• Contour lines helping to identify undulations of the terrain are drawn in the map.
• Important surface features like rivers, other water bodies, forests, agricultural land, barren land, villages, towns and transport and communication systems are depicted.
• The number of toposheet, million sheet and degree sheet are recorded.
• Details like state, district, year of survey and the agency, scale of the map, contour interval, latitude and longitude lines and different colours for landfdhns are given.
• Other details like bridges, pools, altitude of the place, lakes, official buildings, settlements are also included in the map.

Question 5.
Look at the number (45\(\frac{D}{10}\)) noted above the given toposheet (as in question 4). What does this indicate? Do all the toposheets contain such numbers?
Answer:
A map series containing 105 topographical maps (numbering 1, 2, 3, 104, 105) have been prepared including the countries of Indian sub-continent and adjoining countries. The dS sheet in this series constitutes parts of the states Rajasthan and Gujarat in India. Each sheet of this type is known as million sheet. Each million sheet is divided into 16 parts in the order A, B, C, D, up to P. These are known as degree sheets. The degree sheets are further divided into 16 equal parts (1, 2, 3, 16).. For eg: 55, 55\(\frac{D}{2}\)). These are known as inch sheets.

The number 45 \(\frac{D}{10}\) is recorded in the given map in order to identify the map of which area. So the map depicts the details of inch sheet 10, part of degree sheet D which is a part of million sheet 45. All the toposheets contain such numbers to identify the map of which area.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions by analyzing the given map.

a. The parts of states that are included in toposheet number 45.
b. The index numbers of toposheets which cover the state of Odisha.
c. The states that are included in toposheet number 73.
d. The index numbers of toposheets which cover the state of Karnataka.
e. The index numbers of toposheets which cover the state of Kerala.
Answer:
a. Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh
b. IndexNumbers: 64,65,73,74
c. Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh
d. Index numbers: 47,48,56,57,58
e. Index numbers: 48,49, 58

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Find out the conventional colours used to represent different features.

Question 8.
Look at the given toposheet (of question 4). Find out the symbols and colours you have familiarized.
Answer:

• Colours
• Black
• Green
• Yellow
• Red
• White
• Brown
• Blue

Symbol

Question 9.
Haven’t you noticed the red lines drawn lengthwise and breadthwise in the given toposheet (fig. 4.1 or of Qn.4)? What are they? What are their uses?
Answer:
The north-south lines incorporated in toposheets are called Eastings. They are called eastings because their value increases towards the east.

The east-west lines incorporated in toposheets are called northings. They are called northings because their value increases towards the north.

Use
It is difficult to show the precise location of minor geographical features in toposheets. To solve this difficulty, eastings and northings are incorporated in toposheets. The grid formed by the eastings and northings are called reference grid. Accurate location of minor geographical details can be done using these lines.

Question 10.
Find the eastings and northings values from the given toposheet (fig. 4.1)
Answer:

• Values of eastings : 02, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 09
• Values of northings :01,2,3,4,5,6,7,8, 09
• Question 11.
  Locate the geographic features – fort, graveyard and settlements shown in the model grid using the 4-figure gird reference method.
  
  Answer:

Fort

• Value of easting 81
• Value of northing 34
• Four figure grid reference of the fort = 8134

Graveyard

• Value of easting 8$
• Value of northing 35
• 4 -figure grid reference of graveyard = 8535

Settlements

• Value of easting 85
• Value of northing 34
• 4 – figure grid reference of the settlements = 8534

Question 12.
Locate the smaller geographical features temple, church, well, light house and bridge shown in the model grid using 6-figure grid reference method, (fig. 4.9 or figure of Qn.11)
Answer:

Temple

• Value of easting 84
• Value obtained by dividing into ten parts: 7. Total = 847
• Value of northing 34
• Part of ten : 5 . Total = 345
• 6 – figure grid reference of temple = 847345

Church

• Value of easting 84
• Part of ten : 6 ‘
• Total = 846
• Value of northing 36
• Part of ten : 2 . Total = 362
• 6 -figure grid reference of church = 846362

Well

• Value of easting 83
• Part of ten : 7 . Total =837
• Value of northing 35
• Part of ten : 2 . Total = 352
• 6 – figure grid reference of well = 837352

Lighthouse

• Value of easting 85
• Part of ten : 3
• Total = 853
• Value of northing 37
• Part of ten : 3. Total = 373
• 6-figure grid reference of light house = 853373

Bridge

• Value of easting 82
• Part of ten: 4
• Total = 824
• Value of northing 36
• Part of ten: 4
• Total = 364
• 6 – figure grid reference of bridge = 824364

Question 13.
Find the contour interval in the toposheet provided (fig. 4.1)
Answer:
Contour interval: 20 metre

Question 14.
Find out the contour lines of the elevated regions in fig. 4.1. Mark their contour values and identify the shape of the landform.
Answer:

Question 15.
Plot the topography represented by the following contour patterns.

Answer:

Question 16.
Determine the shape of the terrain represented by the given contours and complete the table by checking the intervisibility between the places M, N, O and P
Answer:

Question 17.
The indicators regarding the marginal information of toposheets and a toposheet labelled with such information are given. Read the sheet based on the indicators and write down the marginal information, (fig. 4.25)

Answer:
Marginal information indicators:

• Toposheet number: 56—
• Name of the place represented : Gulbarga, Raichur districts of Karnataka.
• Latitudinal location:
  Between 16° 15′ N and 16° 20′ N
• Longitudinal location:
  Between 76° 30’ E and 76° 35′ E
• Eastings : 94,95,96,97,98,99,00,01,02
• Northings: 84,85, 86,87,88, 89,90,91,92
• Scale of the map : 1: 50000
• Contour interval: 20 metre
• Year of Survey : 1959 – 60
• Year of publication : 2005
• Agency in charge of survey : Dr. Prithish Nag (Surveyor General of India)

Question 18.
List the marginal information of the given topographic map 45 \(\frac{D}{10}\) in fig. 4.1 as was done with the toposheet 56\(\frac{D}{11}\)
Answer:

• Toposheet number : 45 \(\frac{D}{10}\)
• Name of the place represented: Banaskantha and Sirohi districts
• Latitudinal location: Between 24° 30′ N and 24° 35’ N
• Longitudinal location: Between 72° 30′ E and 12° 35′ E
• Eastings: From 02 to 09
• Northings: From 01 to 09
• Scale of the map : 1: 50000
• Contour interval: 20 metre
• Year of survey: 1959-60
• Year of publication: 2005
  Agency in charge of survey: Dr. Prithish Nag (Surveyor General of India)

Landscape Analysis Through Maps Question 19.
Find answers to the following questions by reading the given toposheet. (fig. 4.25)
Physical features
Which is the major river flowing through this area?
Answer:
Krishna

In which direction does it flow?
Answer:
From south-west to northeast direction.

On which bank of the river are the forest seen?
Answer:
To the right bank of the river.

What is the name of the reserve forest in this area?
Answer:
Lingsugar Reserve Forest.

How many springs are seen in this region? Locate them based on direction.
Answer:
Two springs
One is in east-south-east direction and the other is in east – northeast direction.

Locate the open scrubs in this area.
Answer:

• One is in the west near to the river.
• A second one is near to southwest comer.
• A third one is in the middle, towards south.

Find out the location of the following using the 6 – figure grid reference method. ‘

• 476Δ
• 447
• The spring north of Palampur village.

Answer:

476 Δ

• Easting 94
• Part of ten : 4
• Total = 944
• Northing: 83
• Part of ten : 9
• Total = 839
• 6 figure grid reference = 944839

447

• Easting 01
• Part of ten : 7
• Total = 017
• Northing: 90
• Part of ten : 3
• Total = 903
• 6 figure grid reference = 017903

The spring north of Parampur village

• Easting 01
• Part of ten : 3
• Total = 013
• Northing: 85
• Part of ten : 2
• Total = 852
• 6 figure grid reference = 013852

Question 20.
Find answers to the following questions by reading the given toposheet (fig. 4.25)
Answer:
Identify the districts in Karnataka to which the area belongs.
Answer:
Gulbarga and Raichur districts.

Based on which natural feature is district boundary determined?
Answer:
River: District boundary passes through the middle of River Krishna.

Which is the district on the right bank of River Krishna?
Answer:
Raichur

Where is the metalled road seen?
Answer:
Devarbhupur road in south-east direction

In which direction is the Gadalamari village located?
Answer:
In the north-west comer

Which are the villages where post offices can be found?
Answer:
Gadalamari
Ganavathala

Find the location using 4 figure grid reference method

• Aldobhavi village
• Ganavathala village
• Fort to the northeastern corner
  Answer:
• Aldobhavi village
• Easting 00
• Northing 90
• 4 – figure grid reference = 0090

Ganavathala village

• Easting 93
• Northing 86
• 4 – figure grid reference = 9386

Fort

• Easting 01
• Northing 92
• 4 – figure grid reference = 0192

Find the location using the 6-figure grid reference method

• Temple near Gadalamari village
• Temple within Lingusugar Reserve Forest
• Post Office in Ganavathala village

Answer:

Temple near Gadalamari village

• Easting 94
• Part of ten : 3
• Total = 943
• Northing: 91
• Part of ten: 7
• Total = 917
• 6 figure grid reference = 943917

Temple within Lingusugar Reserve Forest

• Easting 00
• Part of ten: 4
• Total = 004
• Northing: 86.
• Part of ten: 4
• Total = 864
• 6 figure grid reference = 004864

Post Office in Ganavathala village

• Easting 93
• Part of ten : 8
• Total = 938
• Northing: 86
• Part often : 3
• Total = 863
• 6 figure grid reference = 938863

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions

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Ammathottil Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 1 अकाल और उसके बाद (कविता)

अकाल और उसके बाद Text Book Activities & Answers

अकाल और उसके बाद विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

i. पढ़ें और चर्चा करें

अकाल और उसके बाद Notes Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
कई दिनों तक चूल्हा रोया, चक्की रही उदास
कई दिनों तक कानी कुतिया सोई उनके पास
चूल्हे का रोना और चक्की का उदास होना- इसका मतलब क्या है?

उत्तर:
इससे कवि यह बताना चाहते हैं कि घर में खाद्य वस्तुओं का बिलकुल अभाव है। कई दिनों इन दोनों का कोई इस्तेमाल नहीं हुआ है।

Akaal Aur Uske Baad Summary Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
कई दिनों तक लगी भीत पर छिपकलियों की गश्त
कई दिनों तक चूहों की भी हालत रही शिकस्त
ये पंक्तियाँ किस हालत की ओर इशारा करती हैं?

उत्तर:
घर में कई दिनों से खाने की चीजें नहीं हैं। जहाँ खाना नहीं होगा वहाँ दीप जलाने के लिए तेल की भी संभावना नहीं। तो वहाँ छोटे कीड़ों का होना असंभव है। इससे छिपकली परेशान है। इसलिए वे कीड़ों को तलाशते हुए दीवार पर घूम रहे हैं। घर में कोई खाद्य वस्तु नहीं है। इससे चूहे भी हार गए हैं।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Poem Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 3.
दाने आए घर के अंदर कई दिनों के बाद
धुआँ उठा आँगन से ऊपर कई दिनों के बाद
इन पंक्तियों से कवि क्या कहना चाहता है?

उत्तर:
अकाल के बाद के दिनों का चित्रण कवि ने इन पंक्तियों द्वारा किया है। अकाल के बाद घर में दाने आने पर घर के आँगन से ऊपर धुआँ उठता है। मतलब चूल्हा जलने लगा है। यह घर में खाने पकाने की ओर इशारा करता है।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 4.
कवि ने अकाल का चित्रण किस प्रकार किया है? चर्चा करें।

अकाल:
i. चूल्हे का रोना

ii. भीत पर छिपकलियों की गश्त

iii. चक्की का उदास रहना

iv. शिकस्त हालत वाले चूहे

उत्तर:
अकाल के भीइषण समय में चूल्हे रो रहे हैं। घर की दीवारों पर छिपकलियाँ खाना न मिलने की वजह से विवश होकर घूम रहे हैं। चक्की उदास है, मतलब कई दिनों से उसका कोई उपयोग नहीं है। चूहे पराजित-सा हो गए हैं। क्योंकि घर में दाने का अभाव ने उनके पेट भरने की आशा को निराशा बना दिया है।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Poem Summary In Malayalam Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 5.
कवि ने अकाल के बाद के हालत का चित्रण किस प्रकार किया है? चर्चा करें।

अकाल के बाद:
i. घर के अंदर दाने का आना

ii. घर भर की आँखों का चमक उठना

iii. आँगन के ऊपर धुएँ का उठना

iv. कौए के पंखों का खुजलाना

उत्तर:
घर के भीतर दाने आते हैं। घर भर की आँखें चमक उठती हैं। अभी भोजन बना नहीं है। लेकिन अन्न की आहट ने ही आँखों में रोशनी भर दी है। उम्मीद इसी तरह रोशनी लाती है। फिर धुआँ उठता है छप्पर के ऊपर ! यानि चूल्हा जल गया है। यह धुआँ शुभ संकेत दे रहा है। और कौए अब अपने पंख खुजला रहे हैं।

Akal Or Uske Baad Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 6.
चर्चा करें
कविता में कई दिनों तक और कई दिनों के बाद दूहराने का तात्पर्य क्या हो सकता है

उत्तर:
आचार्य नागार्जुन की कविता है ‘अकाल और उसके बाद।’ कविता की पहली चार पंक्तियों में कई दिनों तक’ की पुनरावृत्ति अभाव की निरंतरता को अंकित करती है। कविता में दूसरे खंड की चार पंक्तियों में कई दिनों के बाद ‘तक’ और ‘बाद’ के बीच एक लंबे अंतराल को व्यंजित करती है

Akal Aur Uske Baad Question Answer Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 7.
अकाल के क्या-क्या कारण हो सकते है? चर्चा करें।

उत्तर:
अकाल और उसके बाद’ कविता में बिहार राज्य में हुई अकाल का आँखों देखा हाल है। अकाल पडने के मुख्य कारण प्राकृतिक आपदाएँ (National Calamities) अत्याधिक जनसंख्या, फसलों की असफलता, दरिद्रता एंव बेरोज़गारी, सरकारी दुकानों का प्रभावशाली ढंग से प्रबंधन न होना आदि है। भूकंप हिम झंझावत, बाढ़, सूखा तथा महामारी के कारण अकाल की परिस्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाती है। संसाधनों से अधिक जनसंख्या के कारण कृषि पर अधिक भार पडता है। फसलों की असफलता होने पर भी अकाल पडता है। गरीब एंव बेरोज़गार लोगों की खाघ सामग्री खरीदने की क्षमता बहुत कम होती है। सरकारी दूकानों पर गरीब लोगों को सही समय पर पर्याप्त मात्रा में खाघ सामग्री नहीं मिलती। इस प्रकार का भ्रष्टाचार भी अकाल पडने में सहायक होता है।

अकाल और उसके बाद कविता का सारांश Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 8.
कविता की प्रासंगिकता पर टिप्पणी लिखें।

उत्तर:
बेहाल दीवजंतु
‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कवि नागार्जुन रचित कविता है। इसमें गरीब, बेबस, . व्यक्तियों के जीवन में व्याप्त भुखमरी और उससे उबरने का चित्र अंकित किया गया है। गरीब व्यक्ति ही बिना अन्न परेशान नहीं है। वरना जीवजंतुओं का हाल भी बेहाल है। छिपकालियाँ दीवारों पर गश्त लगाती है, परंतु उन्हें कुछ नहीं मिलता। चूहे भी भुख से व्याकुल हैं।

प्रस्तुत कविता में प्रत्यक्ष रूप से मनुष्य का चित्रण नहीं है। परंतू अन्न, भोजन, चूल्हा जलाना ये चारी चिजें मनुष्य संबंधित है। मनुष्य पूरी परिस्थिति में विघमान है। अकाल की विभीषिका आ जाती है, वह भी बडी शब्दावली में। अकाल जीवन को स्थगित करता है और अन्न जीवन में हलचल पैदा करता है। जनवादी कवी प्रस्तुत कविता में गरीबी का, भुखमरी का साक्षात्कार किया गया।

कवी जीवन की दो विरोधी स्थितियों को अलग-अलग बिंबों के माध्यम से व्यक्त करता है। ये बिम्ब यों तो जीवन की विरोधी स्थितियों को बड़ी सहजता से व्यक्त करते है। जब तक भूख रहेगी तब तक अकाल और उसके बाद कविता भी रहेगी।

अकाल और उसके बाद Orakkum Questions and Answers

गतिविधि – 1

सूचना :‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कविता का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
कई दिनों तक चुल्हा रोया, चक्की रही उदास
कई दिनों तक कानी कुतिया सोई उनके पास
कई दिनों तक लगी भीत पर छिपकलिया की गश्त
कई दिनों तक चूहों की भी हालत रही शिकस्त।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Kavita Ka Saransh Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
इस कविता में किन-किन जीव-जंतुओं का जिक्र है?
उत्तर:
कानी कुतिया, छिपकलियाँ, चूहे, कौए।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Ka Saransh Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
इसमें किन-किन निर्जीव वस्तुओं के बारें में बताया गया है?
उत्तर:
चूल्हा, चक्की, भीत।

Akal Or Uske Bad Summary Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 3.
निर्जीव वस्तुओं का मानवीकरण हुआ है। दो-एक उदाहरण बताइए।
उत्तर:
चूल्हे का रोना, चक्की का उदास रहना।

Akal Aur Uske Bad Kavita Ka Saransh Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 4.
जीव-जंतुओं के व्यवहारों की विशेषता क्या है?
उत्तर:
चूल्हे के जलने और चक्की के चलने की प्रतीक्षा में कानी कुतिया उनके पास सो गई। कई दिनों . तक चूहों की हालत बहुत दयनीय है। भूख से तड़पती छिपकलियाँ दीवार पर टहलती रही थी।

Akal Or Uske Bad Kavita Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 5.
इन जीव-जंतुओं और निर्जीव वस्तुओं की व्याकुल स्थिति का कारण क्या है?
उत्तर:
अकाल

प्रश्ना 6.
इन पंक्तियों के द्वारा कवि क्या कहना चाहते हैं?
उत्तर:
अकाल का समय केवल मानव पर ही नहीं, पूरे समाज पर पड़ता है। इसकी हानी कुछ समय केलिए भी समाज पर बनी रहती है।

प्रश्ना 7.
कवितांश का टिप्पणी लिखें।
उत्तर:
नागार्जुन हिन्दी के प्रगतिशील साहित्यकार हैं। लोकजीवन, प्रकृति और समकालीन राजनीति आप की रचनाओं के मुख्य विषय हैं। इस कविता में कवि अकाल की दयनीय स्थिति का वर्णन करते हुए कहते है कि कई दिनों से वहाँ अकाल पड़ा था। अकाल के दिनों में घर में अनाज का एक दाना भी नहीं था। कई दिनों से घर का चुल्हा नहीं जलाया था। अर्थात घर में भोजन नहीं बनाया था। इस से चुल्हा रो रहा था और चक्की उदास पड़ी थी। घर की दीवारों पर छिपकलियाँ घूम रही थी। चुल्हे और चक्की के पास घर की कानी कुत्तिया अनाज आने के प्रतीक्षा में सो रही थी। चूहों को भी खाने केलिए कुछ नही मिला था। यह सब अकाल की दयनीय दशा था।

अकाल और उसके बाद SCERT Questions and Answers

गतिविधि – 1

सूचनाः ‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कविता का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
दाने आए घर के अंदर कई दिनों के बाद।
धुआँ उठा आँगन से ऊपर कई दिनों के बाद।
चमक उठी घर भर की आँखें कई दिनों के बाद।
कौए ने सुजलाई पॉखे कई दिनों के बाद।

प्रश्ना 1.
पंक्तियों में किसका वर्णन हैं? (अकाल की स्थिति का, अकाल के पूर्व की स्थिति का, अकाल के बाद की स्थिति का)
उत्तर:
अकाल के बाद की स्थिति का।

प्रश्ना 2.
‘चमक उठीं घर भर की आँखें’ – का मतलब क्या हैं?
उत्तर:
अकाल के बाद घर में खाना पकाने लगा। कई दिनों के बाद चुल्हा में आग जलने लगे।

अकाल और उसके बाद Additional Questions and Answers

अकाल और उसके बाद आशयग्रहण के प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
‘चक्की रही उदास और चूल्हा रोया’ -से कवि का क्या तात्पर्य है?

उत्तर:
इससे कवि यह बताना चाहते हैं कि घर में खाद्य वस्तुओं का बिलकुल अभाव है। कई दिनों इन दोनों का कोई इस्तेमाल नहीं हुआ है।

प्रश्ना 2.
छिपकली, कानी कुतिया और चूहों की हालत खराब क्यों थी?

उत्तर:
घर में कई दिनों से खाने की चीजें नहीं हैं। जहाँ खाना नहीं होगा वहाँ दीप जलाने के लिए तेल की भी संभावना नहीं। तो वहाँ छोटे कीड़ों का होना असंभव है। इससे छिपकली परेशान है। घर में खाना न होने से कानी कुतिया और चूहे भी परेशान हैं।

प्रश्ना 3.
घर में रहनेवाले मानव और जीव-जंतुओं की किस समान भावना को कवि ने इस कविता में प्रकट किया है?

उत्तर:
चाहे घर के मानव हो या जीव-जंतु, सब भोजन सामग्री के नितांत अभाव में परेशान हैं। उनकी इस विवशता को कवि ने इस कविता में प्रकट किया है।

अकाल और उसके बाद विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
कानी कुतिया कहाँ सोई हुई थी? क्यों?

उत्तर:
कांनी कुतिया उदास रही चक्की के पास सोई हुई थी। क्योंकि उसे कहीं भी खाने को कुछ मिलने की संभावना नहीं थी।

प्रश्ना 2.
दीवारों पर छिपकलियाँ क्या कर रही थीं। ऐसा करने का कारण क्या है?

उत्तर:
छिपकलियाँ दीवारों पर गश्त लगा रहे थे। कठिन अकाल के समय घर में कोई दीया भी जलने की संभावना न होगी। ऐसे में छिपकलियों के लिए कीड़ों को मिलना भी मुश्किल है। इसलिए वे गश्त लगा रहे होंगे।

प्रश्ना 3.
‘चमक उठी घर भर की आँखें’ -इस प्रयोग का मतलब क्या होगा?

उत्तर:
आँखें जीव-जंतुओं की होती हैं। लेकिन यहाँ कवि ने निर्जीव वस्तुओं में भी मानवीय गुण का आरोप किया है। ऐसे में चूल्हा, चक्की, कुतिया, छिपकली, चूहा आदि घर के सब निर्जीव और सजीव घर में दाने आने के कारण खुश हैं। यही इसका मतलब है।

अकाल और उसके बाद विधात्मक प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
कविता की प्रासंगिकता पर टिप्पणी लिखें।

उत्तर:
अकाल और उसके बाद
इस छोटी-सी कविता के चार पंक्तियों में अकाल का विवरण है और चार पंक्तियों उसके बाद का दृश्य। इन चार पंक्तियों में भी “कई दिनों तक” हर पंक्ति के शुरू में बार-बार दुहराया जाता है। इसके बाद बहुत थोड़े-से सरल शब्द बजते हैं जिसमें अकाल की कथा कही गई है। इस अकाल कथा की पहली चार पंक्तियों में मनुष्य कहीं नहीं है। बिंबों में चूल्हा-चक्की है, कानी कुतिया है, चूहे हैं और छिपकलियाँ हैं।

अनाज नहीं है तो चूल्हा और चक्की तो उदास और उतरे हुए मुँह के होंगे ही। कुतिया है वह भी कानी। क्योंकि गरीब घर की है। संपन्न घर के कुत्ते तो झबरे बालों वाले सुंदर कुत्ते होते हैं। रोटी की आस में चक्की के पास पड़े नहीं रहते। छिपकलियाँ भला क्यों भीतर परेशान हाल गश्त लगा रही है? क्योंकि वे तो दाल-रोटी खाती नहीं हैं, कीड़े खाती हैं। लेकिन जिस घर में भोजन नहीं है वहाँ तेल क्या होगा! लिहाजा रात को घर में दीया भी नहीं जलता होगा और कीड़े तो रात की रोशनी में आते हैं। दिन की रोशनी में नहीं आते। ऐसे में छिपकलियाँ भी भूख की मारी हैं। चूहे तो कुत्ते की तरह स्वामीभक्त होते नहीं। शिकस्ता हाल चूहे उस घर में कर क्या रहे हैं? चूंकि अकाल पड़ा है, इसलिए गाँव के किसी घर में अन्न नहीं होगा। वरना चूहे वहाँ चले जाते। खेतों में तो अन्न होने का सवाल ही नहीं उठता! वरना हम जानते हैं कि चूहे खेतों से अन्न चुराकर अपने बिलों में घसीट ले जाते हैं।

बाद की चार पंक्तियों में हर पंक्ति का अंत ‘कई दिनों के बाद’ से होता है। जो भी होता है हर पंक्ति में कई दिनों के बाद’ होता है। घर के भीतर दाने आते हैं। घर भर की आँखें चमक उठती हैं। अभी भोजन बना नहीं है। लेकिन अन्न की आहट ने ही आँखों में रोशनी भर दी है। उम्मीद इसी तरह रोशनी लाती है। फिर धुआँ उठता है छप्पर के ऊपर ! यानि चूल्हा जल गया है। यह धुआँ शुभ संकेत दे रहा है।

और कौए अब अपने पंख खुजला रहे हैं। क्योंकि इन पंखों से वे बहुत तेज़ी से उठते हैं और किसी भी थाली में झपट्टा मारके अपने हिस्से की रोटी ले उठते हैं। . धुआँ देखकर वे भी उम्मीद से भर उठते हैं। कुत्ते, चूहे, छिपकलियाँ और कौए भी सामाजिक प्राणी हैं। वे बस्तियों में, घर में मनुष्यों के साथ ही रहना चाहते हैं। उजाड़ में नहीं।

प्रश्ना 2.
‘कौए ने खुजलाई पाँखें कई दिनों के बाद’ – कविता के संदर्भ में पंक्ति का विश्लेषण करें।
उत्तर:
कवि अकाल के बाद की स्थिति को सामने लाते हैं। अकाल की भयावह स्थिति से बेचारा कौआ भी हतबुद्धि था। लेकिन झूठ-मूठ की आशा जगते ही वह प्रबुद्ध होकर पंख खुजलाने लगा। कविता का दूसरा अंश, निम्नवर्गीय समाज की जिजीविषा और उसकी संघर्षशील प्रवृत्ति को सामने लाता है। यह बड़ी बात है कि भारतीय समाज का यह हिस्सा अत्यंत धैर्य से भरा है। वह अकाल में बेघर होता है, न जाने किन-किन कैंप-खंडहरों में शरण लेता है, फिर अपने नीड़ में लौटता है और फिर से उसका चूल्हा जलता है। यह कविता भारतीय समाज में परिवार के उस गठन को भी सामने लाती है जिसमें मनुष्य के साथ ही पशु-पक्षियों का भी बसेरा होता है।

अकाल और उसके बाद Summary in Malayalam and Translation

अकाल और उसके बाद शब्दार्थ

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Struggle and Freedom

Answer the following. Score 1 each.

A. Choose the correct answer.

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Important Questions Question 1.
The first Satyagraha organised by Gandhiji in India after returning from South Africa
Champaran Satyagraha
Ahmedabad Cotton Mill Strike
Kheda Satyagraha
Answer:
Champaran Satyagraha

Question 2.
The first of the regional agitation led by Gandhiji.
Khilafat Movement
Kheda Satyagraha
Champaran Satyagraha
Answer:
Champaran Satyagraha, 1917

Question 3.
Who directed the film ‘Gandhi’?
Syam Benagal
Richard Attenborough
Rajath Kapoor
Answer:
Richard Attenborough

Question 4.
The Act passed by the British Parliament in 1919 by which a person could be arrested and imprisoned without trial
Rowlatt Act
Minto-Morley Act
The Act of 1919
Answer:
Rowlatt Act

Question 5.
The Chairman of the Committee which recommended the Rowlatt Act
Sir Alan Rowlatt
Sir Sydney Rowlatt
Sir William Rowlatt
Answer:
Sir Sydney Rowlatt

Question 6.
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on
3 April 1919
13 April 1919
11 April 1919
Answer:
13 April 1919

Question 7.
The army chief who was responsible for the Jallian wala Bagh Massacre
General Dyer
General Sanderson
General Franco
Answer:
General Dyer

Question 8.
The first national level struggle by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Gandhiji
Khilafat movement
Non-Co-operation movement
Salt Satyagraha
Answer:
Non-Co-operation movement

Question 9.
The President of the Lahore Congress Session of 1929
Mahatma Gandhi
Jawaharlal Nehru
Subash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 10.
Quit India struggle began in the year
1942
1941
1943
Answer:
1942

Question 11.
The military wing started by Hindustan Socialist Republican Association for armed rebellion
Anuseelan Samiti
Indian National Army
Indian Republican Army
Answer:
Indian Republican Army

Question 12.
Who founded Abhinav Bharat Society?
V.D.Savarkar
Surya Sen
Sukh Dev
Answer:
V.D.Savarkar

Question 13.
The founder of Indian Republican Army
Lala Hardayal
Surya Sen
Bareenderkumar Ghosh
Answer:
Surya Sen

Question 14.
Under whose leadership was the Congress Socialist Party formed in 1934?
Jai Prakash Narayan
Jawaharlal Nehru
Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Jai Prakash Narayan

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Pdf Question 15.
The political party formed by Subhash Chandra Bose
Congress Socialist Party
Ghadar Party
Forward Bloc
Answer:
Forward Bloc

Question 16.
The founder of Indian National Army
Rash Bihari Bose
Subhash Chandra Bose
Captian Lakshmi
Answer:
Rash Bihari Bose

Question 17.
The centre of Salt Satyagraha in Kerala
Payyannur
Kozhikode
Thiruvananthapuram
Answer:
Payyannur

Question 18.
The founder of Ghadar Party
Lala Hardayal
Surya Sen
V.D.Savarkar
Answer:
Lala Hardayal

Question 19.
Who is known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?
Maulana Abdul Kalam
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

Question 20.
The last British Viceroy of India
Lord Mountbatten
Lord Wavel
Clement Atlee
Answer:
Lord Mountbatten

Question 21.
The first martyr of Indian freedom struggle from South India
Bhagat Singh
Vanchi Iyer
Raj Guru
Answer:
Vanchi Iyer

Question 22.
Which was the last popular protest organized by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Gandhiji?
Answer:
Quit India Movement

B. Answer in a sentence each.

Question 1.
What was the reason for the Ahmedabad cotton mill strike of 1918?
Answer:
Cotton mill workers in Ahmedabad started their strike in 1918 when they were denied ‘Plague Bonus’. During the plague outbreak in Ahmedabad in 1917, the labourers were given a bonus up to 80% of their wages to prevent labourers from quitting the job for fear of plague. When the plague threat was over, this bonus was withdrawn and the labourers started agitation against it.

Question 2.
Where was All India Kisan Congress formed? Name the leader who took efforts to form it.
Answer:

• Lahore
• N.G Renga

Question 3.
‘If the Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for British rule, Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation’. Whose words are these? When was this said?
Answer:
Gandhiji said this after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Question 4.
Name the national educational institutions started in India during the Non co-operation struggle.
Answer:

• Kashi Vidya Pith
• Gujarat Vidya Pith
• Jamia Millia

Question 5.
Who were the leaders of Indian Khilafat Movement?
Answer:

• Maulana Mohammad Ali
• Maulana Shoukath Ali

Question 6.
What were the important decisions of the Lahore Congress Session of1929? Who was its Chairman?
Answer:

• The Session declared that the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle was to attain complete freedom.
• It also decided to start the Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji.
• Jawaharlal Nehru was the Chairman.

Question 7.
When did the Quit India struggle begin? What was the slogan given by Gandhiji in this struggle?
Answer:

• Quit India struggle began in August 1942.
• Gandhiji gave the slogan ’Do or Die’.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
When was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association formed? Who were its main leaders?
Answer:

• Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed in Delhi in 1928 by the revolutionaries of Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
• Its main leaders were Bhagat Singh, Chandra Sekhar Azad, Raj Guru and Sukh Dev.

Question 9.
Why did Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt throw bomb at the Central Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
To protest against the attempts to pass laws curtailing civil rights.

Question 10.
Who were the founders of Anuseelan Samiti?
Answer:

• Bareender Kumar Ghosh
• Pulin Bihari Das

Question 11.
What was the name of the women wing of Indian National Army? Who was in charge of this regiment?
Answer:

• Jhansi Regiment
• Captain Lakshmi

Question 12.
Which were the earlier labour unions formed in India?
Answer:

• Ahmedabad Textiles Association
• Madras Labour Union
• All India Trade Union Congress

Question 13.
Who were the leaders of the All India Trade Union Congress at the time of its formation in 1920?
Answer:

• N.M. Joshi
• Lala Lajpat Rai

Question 14.
Name the British Prime Minister who agreed to the independence of India. To which political party did he belong?
Answer:

• Clement Atlee
• Labour Party

Question 15.
What was Mountbatten Plan?
Answer:
The strategy prepared by Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India, for the transfer of power, by dividing India into India and Pakistan.

Question 16.
When was the Indian Independence Act passed?
Answer:

• The British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act in July 1947.
• As per this Act, two free nations – India and Pakistan came into existence.

Question 17.
Who gave leadership to the anti-Rowlatt agitations in Punjab?
Answer:

• Saifuddin Kitchlew
• Satyapal

Question 18.
People’s protest against the Act which violated civil rights resulted in the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre? Which was that Act?
Answer:
RowlattAct, 1919

Question 19.
How did Gandhiji respond to jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
Answer:
If the battle of plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, the Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation.

Question 20.
Why did Gandhiji stop Non-Cooperation Movement after the Chauri Chaura incident?
Answer:
People turned to violence and Gandhiji was disappointed.

Question 21.
What did Gandhiji aim by Civil Disobedience?
Answer:
To disobey all anti-democratic and anti-popular civil laws made by the British government.

Question 22.
Who gave leadership to Dharasana struggle?
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu. It was a struggle in connection with Salt Satyagraha.

Answer the following. Score 2 each.

Question 1.
Write a note on the role of Gandhiji in the indigo farmers’ protest at Champaran.
Answer:
The indigo farmers of Champaran were exploited by the European planters. Gandhiji intervened.in the problems faced by the indigo farmers in Champaran and adopted the strategies of disobedience of British laws and Satyagraha. His involvement compelled the authorities to pass laws in favour of the indigo farmers. After the struggle in Champaran, Gandhiji worked for the progress of this region by establishing primary schools, initiating medical aids and involving in cleaning activities.

Question 2.
What was the reason for the Kheda agitation?
Answer:
The rulers decided to collect tax from the farmers of Kheda who were living in utter misery due to drought and crop failure. Gandhiji used the weapons of Satyagraha and non payment of tax in this agitation. The authorities agreed to reduce tax rates.

Question 3.
What was Rowlatt Act?
Answer:

• In the pretext of preventing extremist activities, the British Parliament passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919 limiting civil rights. As per this Act, any person could be arrested and imprisoned without trial.
• The Committee which recommended this Act was led by Sir Sydney Rowlatt.

Question 4.
What was the reason for Khilafat Movement?
Answer:

• Khilafat Movement was the worldwide protest against the efforts of Britain which tried to limit the power of Khalifa, the ruler of Turkey and the spiritual leader of world Muslims, after the First World War.
• In India, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Moulana Shoukath Ali gave leadership to Khilafat agitation.

Question 5.
Gandhiji supported the Khilafat agitation and used it as a forum to propagate his ideologies. What were its results?
Answer:

• Hindu-Muslim unity was intensified.
• Anti British feeling spread to the nook and comer of India.

Question 6.
Why did Gandhiji use salt as a tool of protest
against the British?
Answer:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• The tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.

Question 7.
Which were the main centres of Salt Satyagraha in India?
Answer:

• Dandi – Gujarat
• Payyannur – Kerala
• Vedaranyam – Tamil Nadu
• Bombay – Maharashtra
• Noakhali – Bengal

Question 8.
Write a note on Congress Socialist Party.
Answer:

• Taking cue from the Russian Revolution, socialist ideologies started to spread in India.
• At a meeting under the chairmanship of Jai Prakash Narayan in Bombay in 1934, the Congress Socialist Party was formed.
  During the Quit India agitation, leaders like Jai Prakash Narayan and Aruna Asaf Ali led the movement from their hideouts.

Question 9.
Who is known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’? Why is he called so?
Answer:

• Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan is called Frontier Gandhi.
• Gaffer Khan led countless agitations in the North West frontiers. Tried his best for Hindu- Muslim unity. Strongly opposed the dual nation theory.

Question 10.
What was the objective of Gandhi in travelling across India with the Khilafat leaders to propagate ideas?
Answer:

• To intensify Hindu – Muslim unity
• To spread anti – British feeling to the nook and corner of the nation.

Question 11.
Write the result of the rise of the movements of workers and peasants.
Answer:

• Organization of labourers and farmers and their subsequent protests energised Indian National Movement.
• Their policy of equally opposing the imperialist policies of the British government as well as the feudal system that existed in India triggered agitations and revolts in various parts of the country. E.g. Tebhga struggle.

Question 12.
Who were the leaders of Congress Socialist Party?
Answer:

• Jawaharlal Nehru
• Subhash Chandra Bose
• Jai Prakash Narayan
• Aruna Asaf Ali

Answer the following. Score 3 each.

Question 1.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the sun diagram on the characteristics of Non-Co-operation Movement.

Answer:

Question 3.
Write on the functioning of Hindustan Socialist Republican Organisation that adopted an approach different from Gandhian way of struggle for freedom.
Answer:
Revolutionaries from Punjab, Rajasthan, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh gathered in Delhi and formed the revolutionary organisation Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928. Bhagat Singh, Chandra Sekhar Azad, Raj Guru and Sukh Dev were the main leaders. They floated a military wing called Republican Army for armed revolution. Their plan was to overthrow the colonial government through military action and establish a federal republic of Indian states.

Question 4.
What led to the formation of peasant agitations in India?
Answer:

• The tax laws of the British
• Severe exploitation of the Zamindars
• Low price of agricultural produces

Question 5.
Match the agitations and places suitably.

Answer:

Question 6.
Write a note on Round Table Conferences.
Answer:
The British government convened in London three Round Table Conferences in 1930,1931 and 1932 to discuss the administrative reforms to be implemented in India. Representatives of Indian political parties, princely states and other organizations were invited to attend the conference. The Indian National Congress boycotted the first and third conferences. Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Conference as the representative of Indian National Congress.

Question 7.
Examine the factors that caused Quit India Movement.
Answer:

• Reluctance of the British to implement constitutional reforms in India.
• Public disgust with price hike and famine.
• The assumption that the British would be defeated in the Second World War.

Question 8.
What were the main objectives of the All India Trade Union Congress formed in 1920? Who were the main leaders at the time?
Answer:

• To organise and act as a working class.
• To facilitate Indian working class to co-operate with the working class outside India.
• To participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.
• Leaders were N.M. Joshy and Lala Lajpat Rai.

Question 9.
Which plan proposed that Punjab and Bengal should be partitioned? Write other two recommendations of the plan.
Answer:

• Mountbatten Plan
• Other recommendations:
  • To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per their wish.
  • To appoint a Commission to determine the borders in Punjab and Bengal.

Question 10.
Give a short description about the role of Subhash Chandra Bose in Indian National Movement.
Answer:
Subhash Chandra Bose was a leading figure in Indian freedom movement. At various stages of the national movement, he expressed his difference of opinion on Gandhian ideas of struggle. Quitting the Congress, he formed a political party called ‘Forward Bloc’. He took charge of the Indian National Army formed by Rash Bihari Bose to attain freedom for India.

He formed a provisional government for free India in Singapore, with the aim of forcing the British to quit India. With the support of the Japanese army, the Indian National Army marched to the northeast border of India and hoisted the Indian flag in Imphal.

Answer the following. Score 4 each.

Question 1.
The first national struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the Non Co-operation movement. Examine the characteristics of Non co-operation Movement.
Answer:

• Denial of taxes
• Boycott foreign products
• Boycott elections
• Lawyers shall boycott courts
• Students shall boycott English schools

Question 2.
Find out examples to show how the Indian society responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for Non Co-operation.
Or
How did people respond to Gandhiji’s appeal for Non Co-operation?
Answer:

• Workers in various parts of India struck work.
• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• Farmers in Uttar Pradesh refused to carry the luggage of the colonial officials.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest produces violating the forest laws.
• The public including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Question 3.
Match the columns suitably.

Answer:

Question 4.
Arrange the following in chronological order.

• Chauri Chaura incident
• Quit India Movement
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
• Kheda Peasant struggle

Answer:

• Kheda Peasant Struggle (1918)
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919)
• Chauri Chaura incident (1922)
• Quit India Movement (1942)

Question 5.
What were the proposals put forward by Gandhiji as part of Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary to top officials.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Question 6.
What were the instructions that Gandhiji gave to the people as part of Quit India Movement?
Answer:

• Farmers shall not pay land tax.
• Princely states shall recognise the sovereignty of their people.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• If possible, students shall boycott schools till obtaining freedom.

Question 7.
What was Mountbatten Plan? What were its main proposals?
Answer:
Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India prepared a strategy for India’s freedom by dividing it. This was the Mountbatten Plan.
Its Proposals were :

• To divide Punjab and Bengal.
• To appoint a Commission to determine the borders in Punjab and Bengal.
• To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per the Muslim wish.
• To conduct a referendum to determine whether to add North-West Frontier Province to Pakistan or not.

Question 8.
‘ Name the organisation that framed Kisan Manifesto. Write the demands included in the ‘Kisan Manifesto.
Answer:

• The All India Kisan Samiti Conference held in Bombay prepared Kisan Manifesto.
• Reduce 50% of land tax and lease charge.
• Write off debts.
• Cancel feudal taxes.
• Ensure minimum wage for agricultural workers.
• Recognise peasant unions.

Question 9.
Write the factors that helped Gandhiji to gain the trust and recognition of the common people of India.
Answer:

• Gandhiji became familiar to the Indians after his involvement in addressing the problems of the Indian expatriates in South Africa.
• His protests in South Africa made him famous.
• Gandhiji was very popular because he lived among the common people and his food and clothing was similar to that of the common man in India and he spoke in their language
• Common people found in Gandhiji a saviour who could solve their problems.

Question 10.
Write the main constructive programmes during the Non Co-operation movement.
Or
Along with Non Co-operation, constructive programmes were also given importance. Elucidate.
Answer:

• Established national educational institutions.
• People made indigenous products.
• Spun khadi clothes using charka.
• Participated to eradicate untouchability.
• Popularised Hindi.

Question 11.
Examine the reasons why Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon against the British during the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930?
Answer:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• Salt tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• British government banned small scale indigenous salt production.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of society.

Question 12.
Write the factors that forced Britain to give
independence to India.
Answer:

• The collapse of imperialism in the world after the Second World War.
• Consequent to financial crisis, Britain lost its capacity to maintain colonies.
• Freedom struggles in the colonies of Asia and Africa intensified.
• The super power USA and Soviet Union were against colonialism.

Question 13.
What were the common characteristics of the early struggles under Gandhiji?
Answer:

• The early struggles were originated and based on economic issues.
• Adopted the methods of non payment of tax and Satyagraha.
• Received the help of regional leaders.
• His methods of struggle made him acceptable to all sections of people.
• People got the belief that Gandhiji could solve the problems of people.

Question 14.
How did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre influence Indian National Movement?
Answer:
Rowlatt Act limited the civil right of Indians. People gathered at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar on 13 April 1919 to protest against the arrest of those who led anti – Rowlatt agitations in Punjab. The army chief ordered to shoot without warning and this resulted in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

The massacre intensified the protests at the national level. ‘Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation of British rule’, Gandhiji said. Anti – British feeling fuelled and strengthened the national movement. People became very courageous to fight against the British.

Question 15.
Which were the labour and peasant organisations formed after the Russian Revolution? What were their main objectives?
Answer:

• Ahmedabad Textile Association
• Madras Labour Union
• All India Trade Union Congress
• Objectives:
  • To organise and act as a working class.
  • To participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.

Answer the following. Score 5,6 each.

Question 1.
Examine the role of Gandhiji in Indian freedom struggle.
Answer:
The period from 1917 to 1947 in Indian history is known as Gandhian era.

Gandhiji and Champaran Satyagraha:
Gandhiji started his social activities in India by intervening in the problems faced by the indigo farmers in Champaran in 1917. In Champaran, he resorted to disobedience of British laws and Satyagraha. His involvement compelled the authorities to pass laws in favour of the indigo farmers.

Gandhiji and Ahmedabad Cotton Mill Strike:
Cotton mill workers in Ahmedabad started their strike in 1918 when they were denied plague bonus. Gandhiji adopted the tools of disobedience of British laws and Satyagraha here also. Following his Satyagraha, the authorities agreed to hike the wages of the employees.

Gandhiji and Kheda peasant struggle:
The rulers decided to collect tax from the poor farmers of Kheda who were living in utter misery due to drought and crop failure. Starting Satyagraha, Gandhiji protested against the decision. He advised the people not to pay tax. As a result, the authorities were forced to reduce tax.

Gandhiji and Rowlatt Act:
When the protests against Rowlatt Act failed, Gandhiji suggested starting Satyagraha. Vigorously reacting to this proposal, people in various parts of the country went to the streets and started demonstrations and strikes. The massacre at Jallianwala Bagh intensified the protest against the British. Gandhiji said about the Jallianwala Bagh massacre: ‘If the Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation’.

Gandhiji and Non-Co-operation Movement:
The first national level struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the non co-operation movement. The confidence gained from the anti- Rowlatt protest motivated Gandhiji to declare non co-operation against the British. The methods of agitation were denial of taxes, boycott foreign goods, boycott elections, etc.

In addition to this, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes like making indigenous products, spinning Khadi cloth using charka, establishing national educational institutions, popularising Hindi and eradicating untouchability. Non co-operation movement had a great role in making the national movement a grass root mass movement. But he suspended the Non cooperation movement due to the Chauri Chaura incident.

Gandhiji and Civil Disobedience:
The Lahore Congress Session of 1929 decided to launch a Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. With the civil disobedience, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic laws made by the British government. As part of the movement, Gandhiji demanded to lift salt tax, to declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers and to release political prisoners. Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon against the British.

The Civil Disobedience Movement began with the Dandi March in 1930. Gandhiji broke the salt law by making salt. Inspired by the call of Gandhiji, people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations. The British government arrested Gandhiji and suppressed the movement callously.

Gandhiji and Quit India Movement:
The Quit India Movement was the last popular protest organised by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji. It was a mass movement based on the ideology of non-violence, meant to force the British to leave the country, offering complete freedom to Indians. As part of the movement, Gandhiji called for:

• Princely states shall recognize the sovereignty of their people.
• Farmers shall not pay land tax.

Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’ to the Indians. The movement became strong all over India. The British government in India began to shake. But the government suppressed the movement very severely and arrested leaders including Gandhiji.
Gandhian ideas played a major role in making the national movement a mass movement and finally achieving independence.

Question 2.
Examine the relevance of Non-Co-operation Movement and Quit India Movement in Indian freedom struggle.
Answer:
Indian freedom movement became a mass movement after the adoption of Non-Co-operation movement.

Non-Co-operation Movement:
The first national level struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the Non-Co-operation movement. It was a novel agitation of not to co-operate with the British. The characteristics of Non- co-operation policy were:

• Denial of taxes
• Returning the British awards and prizes
• Boycott elections
• Boycott foreign goods
• Lawyers shall boycott courts
• Students shall boycott English schools

In addition to his appeal for Non-Co-operation, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes like making indigenous products, spinning khadi cloth using charka, establishing national educational institutions, popularising Hindi and eradicating untouchability. Kashi Vidya Pith, Gujarat VidyaPith and Jamia Millia were some of the national educational institutions started during this period.
People in different parts of India responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for non co-operation.

• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• Workers struck work.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest products violating the forest laws.
• Lawyers boycotted courts.
• Students quitted colleges and schools run by the British.
• The public, including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Non-Co-operation movement had a major role in making the national movement, which was till then confined to the elite of the society, a grass root mass movement. However, Gandhiji withdrew the movement following the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922.

Quit India Movement:
The Quit India Movement was the third mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British. It was a mass movement based on the ideology of nonviolence meant to force the British to leave the country offering complete freedom to Indians. As part of the movement, Gandhiji called for:

• Farmers shall not pay tax.
• Princely states shall recognise the sovereignty of their people.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’ to the common people. The Quit India Movement began on August 8,1942. The next day, Gandhiji and all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested. In protest, the uncontrolled mob demolished government offices, electric lines and railway lines. At the end of 1942, India was under the fire of popular unrest. The British government suppressed the movement very severely. The Quit India movement was a clear indication of the people’s determination to grab freedom for their country.

Question 3.
By making salt as a tool of protest, Gandhiji proved that any trivial issue can be snowballed into a popular strategy to trigger public protest and intensify a mass movement. Examine this statement in the light of Civil Disobedience Movement launched by Gandhiji.
Answer:
Civil Disobedience Movement:
The Lahore Congress Session of 1929 decided to start a civil disobedience movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. This was the second mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British.

With the civil disobedience movement, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic laws made by the British government. As part of the movement, Gandhiji proposed the following.

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of top officials.
• To dissolve the secret surveillance wing formed to watch Indians.
• To start coastal shipping service.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Gandhiji gave top priority to reducing salt tax due to a variety of reasons. He selected salt as a powerful tool against the British because:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• Salt tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The British government banned small scale indegenous salt production.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Gandhiji began the civil disobedience with Salt Satyagraha. The Salt Satyagraha began with the famous Dandi March by Gandhiji on 30 March, 1930. Gandhiji along with 78 followers marched from Sabarmali Ashram to Dandi, a coastal village in Gujarat. He broke the salt law by making salt. Inspired by the call of Gandhiji, people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations.

Payyannur in Kerala, Vedaranyam in Tamil Nadu, Bombay in Maharashtra, Naokhali in Bengal and North West Frontier Province were some of the centres of this protest. As part of the protest, volunteers made salt and distributed it to the people, hoisted national flag and chanted anti- British slogans. Gandhiji was arrested and the movement was suppressed callously.

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Which are the three major struggles organised under the leadership of Gandhiji? Explain each of them.
Answer:

• Non – Co – operation movement
• Civil Disobedience (Salt Satyagraha)
• Quit India movement

Non – Co-operation movement :
The first national level struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the Non-Co-operation movement. It was a novel agitation of not to co-operate with the British. The characteristics of Non- co-operation policy were:

• Denial of taxes
• Returning the British awards and prizes
• Boycott elections
• Boycott foreign goods
• Lawyers shall boycott courts
• Students shall boycott English schools

In addition to his appeal for Non-Co-operation, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes like making indigenous products, spinning khadi cloth using charka, establishing national educational institutions, popularising Hindi and eradicating untouchability. Kashi Vidya Pith, Gujarat Vidya Pith and Jamia Millia were some of the national educational institutions started during this period.
People in different parts of India responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for non co-operation.

• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• Workers struck work.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest products violating the forest laws.
• Lawyers boycotted courts.
• Students quitted colleges and schools run by the British.
• The public, including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Non-Co-operation movement had a major role in making the national movement, which was till then confined to the elite of the society, a grass root mass movement. However, Gandhiji withdrew the movement following the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922.

Civil Disobedience Movement:
The Lahore Congress Session of 1929 decided to start a civil disobedience movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. This was the second mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British.

With the civil disobedience movement, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic civil laws made by the British government. As part of the movement, Gandhiji proposed the following.

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of top officials.
• To dissolve the secret surveillance wing formed to watch Indians.
• To start coastal shipping service.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Gandhiji gave top priority to reducing salt tax due to a variety of reasons. He selected salt as a powerful tool against the British because:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• Salt tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The British government banned small scale indegenous salt production.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Gandhiji began the civil disobedience with Salt Satyagraha. The Salt Satyagraha began with the famous Dandi March by Gandhiji on 30 March, 1930. Gandhiji along with 78 followers marched from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a coastal village in Gujarat.

He broke the salt law by making salt. Inspired by the call of Gandhiji, people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations. Payyannur in Kerala, Vedaranyam in Tamil Nadu, Bombay in Maharashtra, Naokhali in Bengal and North West Frontier Province were some of the centres of this protest.

Quit India Movement:
The Quit India Movement was the third mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British. It was a mass movement based on the ideology of non¬violence meant to force the British to leave the country offering complete freedom to Indians.
As part of the movement, Gandhiji called for:

• Farmers shall not pay tax.
• Princely states shall recognise the sovereignty of their people.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’ to the common people. The Quit India Movement began on August 8, 1942. The next day, Gandhiji and all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested. In protest, the uncontrolled mob demolished government offices, electric lines and railway lines. At the end of 1942, India was under the fire of popular unrest. The British government suppressed the movement very severely. The Quit India movement was a clear indication Of the people’s determination to grab freedom for their country.

Question 5.
Match the items related to Column A from Columns B and C.

Answer:

Question 6.
Match suitably.

Answer:

Question 7.
Prepare a Timeline using the events and years.

• Lahore Congress Session
• Second Round Table Conference
• Champaran Satyagraha
• Quit India Movement
• Chauri Chaura Incident

Answer:

Question 8.
Arrange the following in chronological order.

• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
• Non Co-operation Movement
• Ahmedabad Cotton Mill strike
• Bombay Naval Mutiny
• Formation of Swaraj Party

Answer:

• Ahmedabad Cotton Mi 11 strike (1918)
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919)
• Non Co-operation Movement (1921)
• Formation of Swaraj Party (1923)
• Bombay Naval Mutiny (1946)

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions

You can Download Forces in Fluids Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Forces in Fluids

Forces in Fluids Textual Questions and Answers

Activity

Class 9 Physics Forces Of Fluids Kerala Scert Solutions Question 1.
Take water in a bucket. Place a tightly closed bottle on it. What do you observe?
Answer:
Bottle floats on water surface

Physics Class 9 Chapter 1 Forces In Fluids Notes Question 2.
Immerse the plastic bottle to the bottom of the bucket. Don’t you have to exert a force? Why is it so?
Answer:
It is because water exerts an upward force

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Chapter 1 Question 3.
Leave the bottle free. What do you observe?
Answer:
Bottle rises to the surface of water

Forces In Fluids Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus 9th Question 4.
When an object in water is lifted, what happens? What can be the reason?
Answer:
When an object in water is lifted, its weight appears diminished, when compared to that in air.
It is because water exerts an upward force on a body placed in it.
Fluids: Liquids and gases together are generally called fluids.
Buoyancy: When a body is immersed completely or partially in a liquid, the liquid exerts an upward force on the body. This force is the buoyancy.

Class 9 Physics Forces Of Fluids Kerala Scert Worksheets Question 5.
Tabulate some situations in your daily life where buoyant forces are experienced in liquids and gases.
Answer:

• A hydrogen-filled balloon rises in the air.
• Ships float on the surface of water.
• Submarines work by controlling the upthrust of water.
• While drawing water from well, weightlessness is felt when the bucket is underwater level.
• Life jacket floats on the surface of water.

To Measure Buoyancy?

Experiment:
Aim: To find method to measure the buoyancy experienced by a body in a liquid.
Materials: Stone, piece of metal, water, beaker, spring balance.
Procedure: Take a piece of stone and a piece of metal of almost the same size. Find out the weight of each in air using a spring balance calibrated in newton. Then find the weight of each of them when immersed in water. Record the data obtained in table.

Observation: The stone and the metal piece lose weight in water.
Conclusion: Buoyancy is the same as the loss of weight experience in water. That is in order to calculate the buoyancy experienced by a substance immersed in a fluid, it is enough to find out the loss of weight of the substance in that fluid.
Buopyant force of liquid = loss of weight

Factors That Influence Buoyancy

Experiment: To find the factors that influence buoyancy
Materials: Water, Kerosene, Saline water, beakers, spring balance, stone, copper block and iron block of same weight etc.
Activity 1: Take water, kerosene and saline water in three separate beakers. Find out the buoyancy of these liquids which is exerted on a piece of stone and tabulate.

• The stone experiences maximum buoyancy in saline water.
• The stone experiences least buoyancy in kerosene. Density of Kerosene is lower than that of other liquids.

Analysis:

Saline water has greatest density and kerosene has least density. As density increases, buoyancy also increases.
Conclusion
Density of a liquid is a factor that influences the buoyancy of a body in that liquid. As density of the liquid increases buoyancy increases.
Activity: Calculate the buoyancy exerted by water on two blocks of equal weight, one of copper and the other of iron.

Observation:

• Buoyancy experienced by each block can be seen different.
• Buoyancy exerted by water on copper block is greater and on iron block is less.

Analysis: The mass and weight of the copper and the iron blocks are the same. But their volumes are different. Copper block has greater volume, and the buoyancy experienced by copper block is greater. Iron block has less volume and the buoyancy experienced by iron block is less.
Conclusion: The buoyancy acting on a body depends also on its volume.

Archimedes principle

Experiment:
Aim: To find whether there is any relation between the weight of the fluid displaced and its buoyancy when an object is in a fluid.
Materials: Store, water, spring balance, overflowing jar, beaker, iron block

Activity: Find out the buoyancy of a piece of stone and an iron block in water. Simultaneously, using an overflowing jar, find out the volume of water they dis¬placed. Find out the weight of water overflowed using a spring balance. Tabulate the results in table.
Observation:

• The loss of weight of the stone in water (buoyancy) is the same as the weight of water overflowed.
• The loss of weight of the iron block in water (buoyancy) is the same as the weight of water overflowed.

Conclusion: The buoyancy experienced by an object in a liquid will be equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.
Archimedes principle:
When an object is immersed partially or completely in a liquid, the buoyancy experienced by it will be equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.

Archimedes:
Archimedes was born in 273 BC at Syracuse, a port city in Italy. He lived during the rule of Hiero II. King Heiro commissioned a goldsmith to fabricate a crown. He commanded Archimedes to find out whether there was any impurity in the crown. This problem confounded him. He knew that the density of pure gold could be calculated by dividing the mass of the gold bar by its volume.

His confusion was how to calculate the volume without damaging the crown. When he stepped into his bath, he could see water overflowing. This made him realise that he could calculate the volume of an object, by finding the volume of the water displaced by the same. By finding the density and volume of the gold he could prove that the crown contained impurities. He was stabbed to death by a Roman soldier in 212 BC during the Punic War. This happened when he was engaged in the complicated mathematical activities related to circle.

Forces In Fluids Worksheet Answers Kerala Syllabus 9th Floatation

Activity: Make a small vessel using aluminium foil of length and breadth 10 cm each. Place this small vessel on the surface of water in a trough. Then unfold the vessel of aluminium foil. Fold it till it becomes a small piece. Then put it in water.

Observation:

• The aluminium foil vessel floats on water.
• The folded foil sink in water.

Activity 2: Put some pieces of stone, wood, rubber cork etc., one by one into water. Note down the items which float on water. Find out the buoyancy and the weight of the water displaced by each floating body and record them in table. Observation: In the case of the floating object the buoyancy and weight of the displaced water is same.
Conclusion: A body float on a liquid when the weight of body is equal to the weight of displaced water.
Law of floatation:
Weight of a floating body is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Pdf Question 6.
Find out the reasons for the following.
a) A piece of stone experience a loss of weight within water.
b) Though an egg sinks in pure water, it floats on salt water.
c) Kerosene floats on water
d) A ship floats on water
e) When a body was placed in a liquid it remained in the same position.
Answer:
a) It is because of the buoyancy exerted by water.
b) As pure water has lower density it has less buoyancy. Saline water has greater density and has greater density and has greater buoyancy. So an egg sinker in pure water and floats on saltwater.
c) Kerosene has density less than that of water.
d) It is because weight of the ship is equal to the weight of the water displaced by it.
e) Density of the body is same as that of the liquid.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium Question 7.
Does a ship that enters a freshwater lake from the ocean sink more or rise move? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The ship sinks more.
Seawater has more density and has higher buoyancy. Pure water has less density and less buoyancy. So the ship that enters a freshwater lake from the ocean sinks more.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes English Medium Question 8.
What are the factors affecting buoyancy?
Answer:
Density of the liquid and volume of the body

9th Standard Physics Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
As density of a liquid increases buoyancy (increases/decrease)
Answer:
increases

Relative Density

Relative density of a substance is the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water.
Relative density = \(\frac{\text { Density of substance }}{\text { Density of water }}\)
Since it is a ratio, relative density has no unit.

Forces In Fluids Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Density of water is =
Answer:
1000 kg/m3

Hsslive 9th Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
How is relative density of kerosene calculated?
Answer:
Relative density of a liquid = \(=\frac{\text { Density of liquid }}{\text { Density of water }}\)

Hsslive Std 9 Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Write examples for liquids of density greater and lesser than that of water.
Answer:

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Malayalam Medium Question 13.
Which device is used to measure the relative density of a liquid?
Answer:
Hydrometer

Question 14.
What will be the reading when the hydrometer is dipped in water?
Answer:
1

Question 15.
Suppose the hydrometer is dipped in a liquid of density greater than that of water. Will the liquid surface be above or below the marking of 1?
Answer:
The liquid surface will be below the marking of 1.

Question 16.
In which case does the hydrometer sink more? In liquids of greater density or those with a lower density?
Answer:
In liquids of lower density.

Question 17.
Why do the markings on the hydrometer increase towards the bottom?
Answer:
When a hydrometer is dipped in a liquid of greater density, the liquid surface will be below the marking of 1. But in a liquid of lower density, the hydrometer sinks more and the liquid surface will be above the marking of 1. Relative density of water is 1, and that of liquids with higher density will be greater than 1 and that of liquids with lower density will be less than 1.

Question 18.
Name two instruments which work on the principle of floatation?
Answer:
Hydrometer:

Lactometer:

Question 19.
Which instrument is used to test the purity of milk?
Answer:
Lactometer

Pascal’S Law

Activity 1: Take a plastic bag without holes and fill it with water. Tie its mouth tightly so that no air gets inside. Make holes on the bag with a pin. Observe what happens?
Observation: There are identical streams of water from all the holes.
Conclusion: Pressure applied at any point of the bag is transmitted equally to entire bag.
Pascal’s Law:
The pressure applied at any point of a liquid at rest in a closed system will be experienced equally at all parts of the liquid.
Volume of a liquid can not be changed using pressure. This is the basis of Pascal’s law.
Activity 2: Fill two identical syringes with water. Connect them with a plastic tube. Then arrange them as shown in figure.

Question 20.
Press slightly on the end X. What do you observe.
Answer:
Y rises up

Question 21.
Bring the ends X and to the same level. Place a slotted weight of 1N (100 gwt) at the end of X. What happens at the end Y?
Answer:
Y rises

Question 22.
Place a weight of 1 N at the end Y as well. What do you observe now?
Answer:
X and Y balance
Then replace the syringe X with one of slightly smaller diameter and repeat the activity.

Question 23.
Are you able to balance with 1N at Y?
No
Now increase the weight at Y and find out the weight required to bring both the ends to the same level.

Question 24.
More weight was required at to attain equilibrium. Is it not due to the increased surface area of water at that end?
Answer:
Yes

It is the figure of a hydraulic jack. Two cylinders of different area of cross-section, filled with water, are connected using a pipe.
A₁ is the area of cross-section of the smaller piston and A₂, that of the bigger one.
When a force F₁ is applied on the piston X, a force F₂ will be experienced on the piston Y. Then according to Pascal’s Law, pressure applied on the side X will be equal to the pressure experienced on the side Y.
So P_x = P_y

If the area of cross-section of the 100 times that of the first piston
A₂ = 100A,
Therefore A₂/A₁ = 100
F₂ = 100F₁
That means the large piston will experience a force of 100N when a force of 1N is applied on the small piston. The amount of work done on the two dies of the tube is equal. Therefore if the section Y is to be raised by 1cm, the section X has to be lowered by 100cm.

Question 25.
Devices constructed on the basis of Pascal’s Law
Answer:

• Hydraulic brake of vehicles
• Hydraulic jack
• Hydraulic press
• Excavator, Hydraulic lift

Capillarity

Activity: Take two boiling tubes, one containing water, and the other mercury. Dip a capillary tube in each tumbler.

Question 26.
What happened to the water level in the capillary tube?
Answer:
Water rises up in the tube
The rising of water in a tube against gravitation or against the weight of water is known as capillary rise.

Question 27.
Does the capillary rise occur in mercury as well? What did you observe?
Answer:
No. depression occurs in the case of mercury.

Capillarity:
The rise or depression of a liquid in a narrow tube or a minute hole is capillarity.
Cohesive Force:
Cohesive force is the force of attraction between molecules of the same type.
Adhesive Force:
Adhesive force is the force of attraction between molecules of different types of substance.

Question 28.
What is the reason for capillary rise?
Answer:
Capillary rise occurs when the adhesive force is greater than the cohesive force.

Question 29.
What is the reason for capillary depression?
Answer:
Capillary depression occurs when the cohesive force is greater than the adhesive force.

Question 30.
Arrange capillary tubes of different diameter on a piece of thermocol. Dip the capillary tubes in water. Compare the capillary rises in the tubes.

a) Which has greater capillary rise?
In the tube of smaller / greater diameter
b) Which has lower capillary rise?
c) How is the diameter of the tube and capillary rise related?
Answer:
a) In the tube of smaller
b) Larger diameter
c) As the diameter of the tube decreases, capillary rise increases. As diameter increases, capillary rise decreases.

Question 31.
Why does the capillary rise increases when the diameter of the tube decreases?
Answer:
Weight of the liquid in the tube is supported by adhesive force. When the diameter of the tube decreases, the weight of the liquid it can contain also decreases. The adhesive force with the tube is greater than the cohesive force of the liquid. So the liquid is able to rise. Capillary rise increases with the decrease in the diameter.

Question 32.
Why does the capillary rise decreases when the diameter is increased?
Answer:
In bigger tube, as the liquid level rises, the volume increases and the weight of the liquid also increases. Capillary rise is opposed by the weight of the liquid in the tube.

Question 33.
How does the oil rise up along the wick made of cotton cloth in lamps?
Answer:
This is due to capillarity. Oil rises up through the narrow capillary tubes in the cotton wick.

Question 34.
Why is the land ploughed before the beginning of summer? Does it have any relation to the capillary rise?
Answer:
When the land is ploughed the separation between the soil particles increases. The diameter of the capillary tubes formed in the soil increases. So the capillary rise decreases. This helps to retain moisture in the soil.

Viscous Force

Place one drop each of kerosene, water, glycerine and honey at various places along a single line at one end of a glass plate. Hold the glass plate slightly tilted. Compare the speed of flow of each liquid and writedown.

• Water flows faster than honey
• Kerosene flows faster than water
• Water flows faster then glycerine.

Conclusion: Different liquids flow at different speed. There is frictional force between the layers of each. liquid. This frictional force is parallel to the layers which try to prevent the relative motion between the layers. This frictional force is viscous force. Every layer of liquid prevents the flow of the layer is contact with it. This is the reason for the variation in speed between the layer of liquid.

Question 35.
What is viscosity?
Answer:
Viscosity is the characteristic property of liquid to initiate a force that tries to prevent the relative motion between the layers of the liquid.

Question 36.
Find out liquids of viscosity greater and lower than that of water and tabulate them.

Answer:

Viscous liquids:
Liquids of greater viscosity are the viscous liquids, eg. honey, glycerine
Mobile liquids:
Liquids of very low viscosity are the mobile liquids eg. kerosene, diesel, petrol

Question 37.
What is the relation between temperature of a liquid and its viscosity?
Answer:
As temperature of a liquid increases, its viscosity decreases

Question 38.
Why is it said that the body of a person who gets an electric shock should be massaged well?
Answer:
The body temperature of a person who gets an electric shock falls suddenly. As a result, the viscosity of the blood increases, causing hindrance to the flow of blood, resulting in a heart attack. When massaged, the body becomes warm and the viscosity of the blood attains normal level. The person thus overcomes the dangerous situation.

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
The weight of a piece of stone in air is 120 N and its weight in water is 100 N. Calculate the buoyancy, experienced by the stone.
Answer:
Buoyancy = weight of stone in air – weight in water = 120 N – 100 N = 20 N

Question 2.
A body which floated in water sank when put in kerosene. Why did it happen?
Answer:
Kerosene has lower density than water. So kerosene can not exert more buoyancy when compared with water.

Question 3.
Observe the figures of an object placed in different liquids.

a) Compare the gravitational force and the buoyancy acting on the body when it is in the liquids A and B.
b) Among A and B, which is the liquid whose density is greater than that of the object? Why?
Answer:
a) In the liquid A, buoyancy is greater than the gravitational force. In B, buoyancy is less than the gravitational force,
b) Liquid A. As the body floats, the density of the liquid is greater.

Question 4.
A body of weight 1000 N sinks in water. The weight of the liquid overflowed is 250 N.
a) What will be the weight of the body in water?
b) A body of the same weight as above floats in water. What is its weight in water? What will be the weight of the water displaced?
Answer;
a) Weight of the body in water = 1000 N – 250 N = 750 N
b) Zero, 1000N

Question 5.
The area of one end of a U-tube is 0.01 m² and that of the other end the force 1 m², When a force was applied on the liquid at the first end?
Answer:
A₁ = 0.01 m²
A₂ = 1 m²
F₁ = ?
F2 = 20000 N

Question 6.
Write down the reason for the following:
a) Ink can be blotted with chalk.
b) Sweat can be blotted with tissue paper.
Answer:
a) Due to capillarity
b) Due to capillarity

Question 7.
Which is the correct figure? Why?

Answer:
Fig. A
Reason: The centre portion of the liquid surface is seen higher than the edge portion. This is due to the reason that in this liquids, the cohesive force greater than the adhesive force. Insides liquids undergo capillary depression instead of capillary rise.

Question 8.
A hydraulic lift has been constructed to lift vehicles of maximum 3000 Kg. weight. The area of cross-section of the piston’s platform on which the vehicles are lifted is 580 Sq.cm. Calculate the maximum pressure experienced on the small piston.
Answer:
Area = 580cm² = 0.058m²
Force = 3000 × 10 = 30000N
Pressure = \(\frac { 3000 }{ 0.058 }\) = 517241.36Pa

Forces in Fluids More Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by fluids?
Answer:
Liquids and gases together are called fluids

Question 2.
What are the force experienced by an object inside a fluid?
Answer:
a) Weight of the object (gravitational force)
b) Buoyancy applied by the fluid

Question 3.
What is buoyancy? How is buoyancy measured?
Answer:
When a body is immersed completely or partially in a liquid, the liquid exerts an upward force on the body. This force is called buoyancy.
Buoyancy will be equal to the loss of weight experienced by the body inside the liquid.
Buoyancy = Weight of the body in air – weight of the body in the liquid.

Question 4.
What are the factors affecting buoyancy?
Answer;

• Density of liquid
• Volume of the object

Question 5.
State Achiemes principle.
Answer:
When an object is immersed partially or completely in a liquid, the buoyancy experienced by it will be equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.

Question 6.
The given below datas are tabulated by Gokul while conducting an experiment to prove Archimedes principles. Fill the missing parts.

Answer:

Question 7.
Kerosene and saline water are taken in two beakers. The same stone is immersed in both liquids.
a) In which liquid, more weight difference is experienced?
b) In which liquid, the stone experiences more buoy¬ancy?
c) Write whether the buoyancy of that liquid is more or less than that of the other liquid?
d) What is the relation between the density of a liquid and buoyancy?
Answer:
a) In saline water
b) In saline water
c) More
d) Buoyancy increases with increase in density of a liquid

Question 8.
X represents kerosene and Y represents water

Among A and B, which is the right figure? Why?
Answer:
B is the right figure.
Reason: Density of water is greater than that of kerosene. When taken in the same container due to the difference in density, water comes to the lower part and kerosene to the upper part.

Question 9.
A body of weight 10 N sinks in water. Weight of the water displaced is 2N.
a) What is the weight of the object in water?
b) Which principle is related to this?
Answer;
a) 8 N
b) Archimedes principle

Question 10.
State principle of floatation
Answer:
Weight of a floating body is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.

Question 11.
Does a ship enters a freshwater lake from a sea sink more or rise more? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Sinks more
Seawater has more density. Seawater exerts more buoyancy on the ship. Freshwater has less density. It exerts less buoyancy.

Question 12.
An object of weight 500 N sinks in water. Weight of water overflowed is 50 N.
a) What is the weight of the object in water?
b) If another object of the same weight floats on water, what is the weight in water? What is the buoyancy? What is the loss of weight in water?
Answer:
a) Weight in water = Weight in air – weight of water overflowed = 500 N – 50 N = 450 N
b) When floats,
Weight in water = 0 N
buoyancy = 500 N
Loss of weight in water = 500 N
(When a body floats on a liquid, weight of the body in air = loss of weight = buoyancy = weight of water displaced)

Question 13.
Density of water is = ………….
Answer:
1000 kg/m³

Question 14.
Relative density of water = ………
Answer:
1

Question 15.
Classify the following liquids into liquids having density greater than that of water and liquids having density less than that of water.
Honey, kerosene, glycerine, mercury, saline water, petrol, diesel
Answer:

Question 16.
What is the relation between the diameter of capillary tube and capillary rise? Why?
Answer:
As the diameter of the tube increases, capillary rise decreases.
Weight of the liquid inside the tube opposes capillary rise.

Question 17.
On which law, hydraulic break works? Name other three devices that works on the basis of this law. State the law.
Answer:
Hydraulic break works on the basis of Pascal’s law. Other devices are hydraulic jack, hydraulic press and excavator.
Pascal law: The pressure applied at any point of a liquid at rest in a closed system, will be experienced equally at all parts of the liquid.

Question 18.
Honey : Viscous liquid
Petrol : ……………
Answer:
Mobile liquid

Question 19.
P, Q and R are three capillary tubes. If these are dipped in water.

a) Which has greater capillary rise?
b) Which factor influenced capillary rise?
c) Why is the land ploughed before the beginning of summer?
Answer:
a) In R
b) Diameter of the tube
c) When the land is ploughed the separation between the soil particles increases. The diameter of the capillary tubes formed in the soil increases. So the capillary rise decreases. This help to retain moisture in the soil.

Question 20.
In the given figure, the area of cross-section of B is 10 times greater than that of A

a) What is the working principle behind this device?
b) If a force of 20 N is applied on A, what will be the force experienced on B?
c) If the section A is lowered by 1 cm, how much will B rise up?
Answer:
a) Pascal’s law

c) Rises 10 cm

Question 21.
An iron block of weight 2N is immersed in three dif-ferent liquids A, B, C weight of the iron block experi-enced inside the liquids are labelled in the figure.

a) In which liquid, the iron block experiences more buoyancy?
b) Among these three liquids, which has less density?
c) What is the relation between density of a liquid and buoyancy?
Answer:
a) C
b) B
c) As density of the liquid increases, buoyancy also increases.

Question 22.
When a hydrometer is dipped n a liquid, the reading is found to be 1.25. What is the density of the liquid?
Answer:
Relative density = \(\frac{\text { density of liquid }}{\text { density of water }}\)
∴ Density of liquid = Relative density x density of water
= 1.25 × 1000 = 1250 kg/m³

Question 23.
What is the relation between viscosity and temperature?
Answer:
Viscosity decreases with increase in temperature.

Question 24.
Whan a midrib of a coconut leaf, pencil etc. are dipped in water, and taken out, water is seen sticking to them. Why?
Answer:
Due to the adhesive force between the midrib of a coconut leaf and water.

Question 25.
When a piece of chalk is used on a blackboard, particles of the chalk stick to the board. Why?
Answer:
Due to the adhesive force between particles of chalk and particles of board.

Question 26.
Fingers are wetted at intervals when currency notes are being counted. Why?
Answer:
To make use of the adhesive force between notes and water. Otherwise, notes stick together.

Question 27.
Which attractive force between the molecules is responsible for the surface tension?
Answer:
Force of cohesion.

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Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 9 Guide Unit 3 Chapter 2 Arbhatattilninn Lalityattilekk

Arbhatattilninn Lalityattilekk Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

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Amma Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

You can Download सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 2 Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 2 Chapter 2 सबसे बड़ा शो मैन (जीवनी (अंश))

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Text Book Activities & Answers

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

Sabse Bada Showman Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
‘इस अभद्र शोर ने माँ को स्टेज से हने को मजबूर कर दिया’ -उस समय माँ की हालत कैसी होगी?

उत्तर:
माँ ने बहुत तनाव का अनुभव किया होगा। जब तारीफ़ करने वाले माँ की हालत समझे बिना शोर मचा रहे थे। किसी भी कलाकार के लिए यह सह पाना मुश्किल की बात है। माँ विवश हुई होगी।

Sabse Bada Showman Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
पाँच साल का चार्ली स्टेज पर अकेला था- उस समय चार्ली ने क्या सोचा होगा?

उत्तर:
चार्ली ने सोचा होगा कि माँ ने क्यों गाना बंद किया? माँ ने क्यों मुझे यहाँ अकेला छोड़ दिया है। इतने अधिक लोगों के सामने क्या करूँ। माँ ने गाने को कहा है, इसलिए मैं गाऊँगा।

Sabse Bada Showman Question And Answer Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 3.
‘इस बात ने हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया’ – क्यों?.

उत्तर:
चार्ली स्टेज के व्यवहार नहीं जानता था। वह स्टेज में बाल-सहज भोलेपन से जी रहा था। उसका .. गाना रोककर पैसा बटोरने की घोषणा, मैनेजर के पीछे संदेह के साथ जाना आदि इसका उदाहरण है। किसी भी बालक के इसी प्रकार के व्यवहार देखने पर लोग सब कुछ भूलकर हँसने लगते हैं।

Sslc Hindi Sabse Bada Showman Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 4.
‘उसने जन्म ले लिया था।’ इससे क्या मतलब है?

उत्तर:
चार्ली चैप्लिन विश्व के इतिहास में एक अद्वितीय व्यक्तित्व है। अपनी माँ की विवशता ही उसके स्टैज में आने का कारण बना। पाँच साल के उस भोलेपन में ही उसने लोगों को आनंदित कर दिया। इसलिए ऐसा कहा गया है।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Text Book Activities & Answers

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन विधात्मक प्रश्न

Sabse Bada Showman Summary Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
‘दुनिया के सबसे बड़े शो मैन का यह पहला शो था’ इस घटना के आधार पर एक रपट तैयार करें।

ध्यान दें,
1. रपट वस्तुनिष्ठ हो।

2. रपट क्या, कौन, कब, कैसे, कहाँ आदि प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने लायक हो।

3. रपट में लेखक का अपना दृष्टिकोण प्रकट हो।

4. शीर्षक आकर्षक हो।

उत्तर:
पाँच साल के बच्चे ने हॉल को हँसीघर में बदल दिया
लंदन :
आज शहर के प्रसिडेंसी हॉल को पाँच साल का चार्लस स्पेनसर चैप्लिन नामक बच्चे ने अपना गाना तथा भोलापन से हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। हॉल में चैप्लिन की माँ हन्ना का गाना चल रहा था। अचानक उसकी आवाज़ फट गई। लोगों ने शोर मचाना शुरू किया। हन्ना स्टेज से हटने को मज़बूर हुई। मैनेजर के आदेश से हन्ना के पाँच साल के बच्चे को गाने के लिए स्टेज पर लाया गया। चैप्लिन ने अपने सहज भोलेपन से गाना शुरू किया। लोग खुश होकर स्टेज पर पैसे फेंकने लगे। बच्चा गाना रोककर पैसा बटोरने की घोषणा की। बच्चे के इस व्यवहार ने हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। लोग इस छोटे से बच्चे में भविष्य के मशहूर कलाकार को देख रहे थे।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Orakkum Questions and Answers

गतिविधि -1

सूचना : ‘सबसे बडा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़ें और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
‘गाना अभी आधा ही हआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शरू हो गई। चार्ली ने गाना रोक दिया और घोषण की कि पहले मैं ये पैसे बटोरूँगा और उसके बाद गाऊँगा। इस बात ने हाँल को हँसीघर में तबदील कर दी।’

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
चार्ली को क्यों स्टेज जाना पड़ा?
उत्तर:
स्टेज में गाते माँ की आवाज़ फटकर फुसफुसाहट में तब्दील हो गई। लोग चिल्लाने लगे। माँ को स्टेज से हटाना पड़ा। तब मैनेजर ने चार्ली को स्टेजपर भेजने की ज़िद किया। इसलिए चार्ली को स्टेज जाना पड़ा।

Sslc Hindi Sabse Bada Showman Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
‘चार्ली ने गाना रोक दिया।’ इस वाक्य में ‘रोक दिया’ शब्द का सीधा संबंध वाक्य के किस शब्द से हैं?
उत्तर:
वाक्य में रोक दिया’ शब्द का सीधा संबंध ‘गाना’ शब्द से हैं।

Sabse Bada Show Man Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 3.
पाँच साल के एक बालक ने हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। इस शीर्षक में एक रपट तैयार करें।
उत्तर:
‘पाँच साल के एक बालक ने हाँल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया।
लंदन : कल लंदन के बालवर्त थिएटर में स्टेज पर सुप्रसिद्ध गायिका हेन्ना गा रही थी। अचानक उसकी आवाजं फटकर फुसफुसाहट में तब्दील हो गई। लोक चिल्लाने लगे। तब मैनेजर ने उसका बेटा चार्ली को स्टेज पर भेजा गया। उस ने मशहूर गीत ‘जैक जोन्स गाना’ शुरु किया। आर्केस्ट्रावाले उसका गाना सजाने लगा। गाना आधा ही हुआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शुरु हो गई। हाँल हँसी से तब्दील हो गया। लोगों ने चार्ली की प्रशंसा की।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन SCERT Question Pool Questions and Answers

गतिविधि – 1

सूचना : ‘सबसे बडा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
गाना अभी आधा ही हुआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शुरु हो गई। चार्ली ने गाना रोक दिया और घोषणा की कि पहले मैं ये पैसे बटोरूँगा और उस के बाद ही गाऊँगा। इस बात ने हाँल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। तब तक मैनेजर एक रुमाल लेकर आया और पैसे बटोरने लगा।

Sabse Bada Showman Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
मैनेजर के स्थान पर ‘माँ’ का प्रयोग करके वाक्य बदलकर लिखें।
मानेजर एक रुमाल लेकर आया।
उत्तर:
माँ एक रुमाल लेकर आयी।

Sabse Bada Showman Summary In Malayalam Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
मान लें, चार्ली की माँ इस दिन डायरी लिख रही हैं। उसने डायरी में क्या – क्या लिखा होगा? कल्पना करके लिखें।
उत्तर:
20 आगस्त 2017
रविवार
आज एक अविस्मरणीय दिन था। मैं स्टेज पर गा रही थी, अचानक मेरी आवाज़ फटकर फुसफुसाहट में तब्दील हो गई। लोग चिल्लाने लगे। तब मैनेजर को मेरा बेटा चाली को स्टेज पर भेजना पडा। चाली ने मशहर गीत ‘जैक जोन्स गाना’ शुरु किया। आर्केस्ट्रा वाले उस का गाना सजाने लग। गाना आधा ही हुआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शुरू हो गई। चार्ली ने पैसों को बटोरना चाहा पर मैनेजर ने एक रुमाल लेकर पैसों को बटोरकर मुझे सौंप दिया। मेरा प्यारा बेटा अपना गीत से हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। वह ऐसा नहीं किया तो… क्या करें? आज का दिन मैं कभी भी भलँगी।

गतिविधि – 2

सूचना : ‘सबसे बडा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नो के उत्तर लिखें।
चार्ली ने जनता में गुदगुदी फैला दी थी। उसके बाद उसने दर्शकों से बातचीत की, नृत्य किया और अपनी माँ सहित कई गायकों की नकल उतारी।

Hindi Sabse Bada Showman Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
‘उसके’ में निहित सर्वनाम कौन-सा हैं ? (वह, हम, वे)
उत्तर:
वह।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Malayalam Meaning Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
‘अनुकरण करना’ के अर्थ में प्रयुक्त प्रयोग चुनकर लिखें। (नकल उतारना, फैला देना, बातचीत करना)
उत्तर:
नकल उतारना।

गतिविधि – 3

सूचना : संबंध पहचानें और सही मिलान करें।

उत्तर:

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Grammar Questions and Answers

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन व्याकरण के प्रश्न

Sabse Bada Showman Malayalam Meaning Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
पढ़ें
1. लोग चिल्लाने लगे।

2. कहीं से कछ लोग म्याऊं-म्याऊं की आवाज़ निकालने लगे।

3. वह उसे स्टेज पर भेजने की ज़िद करने लगा।

4. मैनेज़र एक रूमाल लेकर आया और पैसे बटोरने लगा।

रेखांकित शब्दों पर ध्यान दें और पहचानें इन शब्द-रूपों में समानता कहाँ है? चचो करे।


उत्तर:
यहाँ रेखांकित शब्द ‘लग’ सहायक क्रिया के विभिन्न रूपों में है। ‘लग’ सहायक क्रिया के रूप में प्रयुक्त होते समय यह किसी व्यापार के आरंभ को सूचित करती है। मुख्य क्रिया के चिल्लाना, निकालना, ज़िद करना, बटोरना आदि के रूपों के साथ लग’ सहायक क्रिया लगती है। ‘लग’ सहायक क्रियावाले वाक्य के कर्ता के साथ कोई परसर्ग नहीं जुड़ता। यह कर्ता के लिंग-वचन का अनुसरण करती है।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन अनुबद्ध कार्य

Sslc Hindi Unit 2 Chapter 2 Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
चार्ली चैप्लिन पर एक विशेषांक निकालें।

उत्तर:
चाप्लिन की ज़िंदगी
जन्मः
1889 ब्रिटन में
1925 ‘द गोल्ड रश’
1889 हास्य प्रदर्शनियों की शुरूआत
1931 ‘सिटी लाइट्स”
1910 अमरीका में भ्रमण
1936 ‘मॉर्डन टाइम्स’
1913 सिनेमा जीवन का आरंभ
1940 ‘ग्रेट डिक्टेटर’
1914 पहली सिनेमा ‘मेकिंग ए लिविंग’ ।
1952 अमरीका से निकाला गया।
1918 अपनी स्टुडियो की स्थापना
1972 स्पेशल ऑस्कार
1919 यूनाइटड आर्टिस्ट की स्थापना
1975 सर की उपाधि
1921 ‘द किड’
1977 मृत्यु

Hsslive Guru 10th Hindi Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
चार्ली चैप्लिन और सत्यजीत रे- दोनों की फिल्म की शैली अलग-अलग है। दोनों की फिल्मों के फेस्टिवल का आयोजन करें।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Summary in Malayalam and Translation

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन शब्दार्थ

Students can Download Kerala Padavali Unit 4 Chapter 1 Akkarmashi Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Guide Unit 4 Chapter 1 Akkarmashi

Akkarmashi Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes