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You can Download Breathing for Energy Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Part 1 Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Breathing for Energy

Breathing for Energy Textual Questions and Answers

……… is essential for releasing energy from nutrients.
Answer:
Oxygen

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 4 Question 2.
Oxygen from the atmospheric air is taken into the body through the ………. system.
Answer:
Respiratory

Breathing For Energy Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
List of important parts of the respiratory system in humans?
Answer:
Nostril, Nasal Cavity, Trachea, Bronchus, Bronchiole, Alveolus, Pleura, and Diaphragm

Breathing For Energy Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
……….. is the pathway which extends from the external nostrils to the internal alveoli.
Answer:
The respiratory tract

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 4 English Medium Question 5.
An opening through which air passes in and out of the body is called
Answer:
Nostril

Class 9 Biology Chapter 4 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
……….. connects nostrils with the pharynx
Answer:
Nasal cavity

Class 9 Biology Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
State whether true or false
There are no cartilaginous rings in the bronchioles
Answer:
True

Biology 9th Class Chapter 4 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Which part of respiratory system takes place in the exchange of gases?
Answer:
Alveoli

9th Class Biology Notes Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
……… is the double-layered protective membrane of the lungs.
Answer:
Pleura

9th Class Biology Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
What is the function of pleura?
Answer:
Pleural fluid seen in between the membraneous layers prevents friction between lungs and walls of the thoracic cavity. ‘

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Question 11.
Complete the word relation
Bronchus: cartilaginous rings
………..: no cartilaginous rings
Answer:
Bronchiole

Class 9 Biology Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
……… is a long tube strengthened by ‘C’ shaped cartilaginous rings
Answer:
Trachea

Biology Class 9 Chapter 4 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
Which is the muscular wall that separates thoracic and abdominal cavities?
Answer:
Diaphragm

Class 9 Biology Notes Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Prepare a table of parts and functions of the respiratory system.
Answer:

9th Biology Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Complete the flow chart of the pathway of atmospheric air from the nostrils to the alveoli
Answer:
Nostrils → Nasal cavity → Trachea → Bronchus Bronchiole → Alveoli

Atmospheric Air In To Lungs

9th Class Biology Chapter 4 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
What helps in variation in volume of the thoracic cavity?
Answer:
The combined working of intercostal muscles and the diaphragm help in increasing and decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity.

9 Class Biology Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
In humans, tidal volume is about …….. ml
Answer:
500ml

Biology Class 9 Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 18.
Complete the table given below

Answer:

Biology Chapter 4 Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 19.
What is the surface area of the skin that covers the entire body?
Answer:
2 sq. mtrs

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Malayalam Medium Chapter 4 Question 20.
Surface area of both the lungs together turn up to be at least…. sq. mtrs.
Answer:
70

Exchange Of Gases In The Alveoli

Biology Chapter 4 Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 21.
How far is the structure of alveoli suitable for the exchange of respiratory gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide?
Answer:
Alveoli increase the respiratory surface area in lungs. The large surface area help in the easy exchange of respiratory gases.

Class 9 Chapter 4 Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 22.
Explain the exchange of gases in alveoli?
Answer:
Alveoli increase the respiratory surface area in lungs. This large surface area help in the easy exchange of respiratory gases. Alveoli are surrounded by numerous capillaries. The inner wall of the alveoli is always kept moist. During inspiration, the concentration of oxygen inside the alveoli is higher than that of blood capillaries whereas the concentration of carbon dioxide in blood capillaries is higher than that of alveoli. As a result oxygen from the alveoli diffuses to the capillaries and carbon dioxide from capillaries diffuses to the alveoli

Biology Class 9 Chapter 4 Question Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 23.
The average amount of hemoglobin in a healthy man is
Answer:
15gm/100 ml blood

Chapter 4 Biology Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 24.
15gm/100 ml blood : Haemoglobin: man
……… : Haemoglobin: Woman
Answer:
13 gm/100ml blood

Chapter 4 Biology Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 25.
Complete the flow chart given below

Answer:

Question 26.
What is the compound formed by the combination of oxygen and hemoglobin?
Answer:
Oxyhaemoglobin

Question 27.
……….. is caused when the amount of hemoglobin in the blood decreases.
Answer:
Anemia

To Release Energy

Question 28.
What do you mean by cellular respiration?
Answer:
The process by which energy is released from glucose in cells is called cellular respiration.

Question 29.
Energy is released mainly from
Answer:
Glucose

Question 30.
Name the first phase in cellular respiration
Answer:
Glycolysis

Question 31.
Glycolysis: Cytoplasm
………: Mitochondria
Answer:
Krebs’’ cycle

Question 32.
Complete the table

Answer:

Question 33.
“Food containing iron should be taken included in diet,” said Sabari. Do you agree with this opinion? Why?
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this opinion because iron molecules
are essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin

Question 34.
Complete the worksheet of cellular respiration?

Answer:

Question 35.
Find the relation between respiration and photosynthesis and complete the table.

Answer:

1. Food production, energy released from glucose
2. Dark reaction and light reaction, Glycolysis and Krebs’ cycle
3. CO2 + water, Glucose + Oxygen
4. Glucose + Oxygen, CO2 + water + 30 ATP

Expulsion Of Carbon Dioxide

Question 36.
Water is eliminated from the body in the form of…. & …..
Answer:
Sweat and urine

Question 37.
What are the major byproducts of respiration?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide and water

Question 38.
The …… & ………. changes back to carbon dioxide in the lungs.
Answer:
Carbamino hemoglobin and bicarbonate.

When Carbon Dioxide Becomes Excessive

Question 39.
What is Homeostasis?
Answer:
Maintenance of internal equilibrium by removal of harmful materials is called homeostasis.

Question 40.
How does increased amount of carbon dioxide affect the internal environment of our body?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide formed by the cellular respiration combines with water present in and out of the cell to form carbonic acid and this increases the activity in the body, which in turn changes the internal environment.

Question 41.
What is the role of the respiratory system in maintaining homeostasis?
Answer:
The respiratory system helps in the maintenance of homeostasis by eliminating carbon dioxide.

Respiration Without Oxygen

Question 42.
Prepare a flow chart relating to Anaerobic respiration
Answer:

Question 43.
Name some microorganisms live without oxygen?
Answer:
Bacteria, yeast, etc.

Question 44.
What is fermentation?
Answer:
Fermentation is the process of the production of lactic acid or alcohol from glucose by anaerobic respiration.

Question 45.
Merits of Anaerobic respiration – prepare a flow chart
Yeast  Fermenting batter to soften it
↑
Anaerobic
respiration
↓
Lactobacillus bacteria  Curding milk

Question 46.
Describe a circumstance anaerobic respiration takes place in human beings
Answer:
During straneow exercise, energy utilization in muscles increases and the oxygen availability decreases. In such situations muscle cells produce energy by anaerobic
respiration and lactic acid is formed in the muscle cells.

Question 47.
How does butter become soft and puffy?
Answer:
Fermentation helps the batter rise, become lighter and increase in volume making it double in size, thicker and fluffier.

Do Not Damage The Respiratory System

Question 48.
………. is an army in the lungs?
Answer:
Macrophages

Question 49.
……… is the specialized cells seen in the alveoli that engulf dust particles and germs.
Answer:
Macrophages

Question 50.
What are the instances that are harmful to lungs?
Answer:
Dust, germs, chemicals, etc. which are contained in the air we breathe in.

Question 51.
Find out the protective mechanism of the respiratory system? Explain.
Answer:
Nose, nasal cavity:

• Small hairs prevent dust and germs from entering the lungs.
• Dust particles and germs get entangled in the mucus secreted by the mucous membrane.
• Lysozyme present in the mucous destroys germs.
• Ciliary cells transport mucus that contains dust and germs to the pharynx and from there to the digestive tract.

Trachea:

• The germs and dust particles get entangled in the mucus secreted by the mucous cells(Goblet cells) and mucus glands seen throughout the tracheal wall.
• The cilia of ciliary cells in the tracheal wall move the mucus containing dust and germs to pharynx.

Alveoli:

• Macrophages, the specialized cells seen in the alveoli, engulf dust particles and germs.

Question 52.
‘Smoking is injurious to health’ Rekha reminded Rajeev. Do you agree with Rekha? Justify your answer.
Answer:
I agree with Rekha’s statement. Smoking is a bad habit that harmfully affects the human race. It not only affects the person who smokes but also affects the nearby persons who breathe the smoke. Carcinogens present in tobacco cause lung cancer. Alveoli rupture due to the loss of elasticity by the deposition of toxic substances contained in tobacco. This reduces the respiratory surface and reduces vital capacity. This stage is emphysema. The tar, carbon monoxide, etc. in tobacco leads to the deposition of mucus and the swelling of lungs due to the proliferation of germs in the alveoli. This stage is known as bronchitis.

Question 53.
Prepare a poster relating to anti-smoking
Answer:

Vital Capacity

Question 54.
What do you mean by Tidal volume?
Answer:
Tidal volume is the volume of air we breathe in and out during a normal breathing.

Question 55.
What is vital capacity?
Answer:
Vital capacity is the volume of air that can be breathed out by forceful expiration after maximum or forceful inspiration. ,

Question 56.
What can be taken as an indicator of normal and healthy respiratory capacity?
Answer:
Vital capacity

Question 57.
What is the vital capacity of men?
Answer:
It is about 4.5 liters

Question 58.
What is the vital capacity of women?
Answer:
about 3 liters

Respiration In Other Organism

Question 59.
Collect data on respiratory diversity in organisms and complete the table.
Answer:

Do Plants Breathe

Question 60.
State whether true or false.
Plants also utilize glucose for the production of energy.
Answer:
True

Question 61.
The oxygen needed for the oxidation of glucose is absorbed from ………….
Answer:
Atmospheric air

Question 62.
………. are the centers of exchange of gases in plants.
Answer:
Stomata

Question 63.
Exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen takes place in stems and roots through ………….
Answer:
Lenticels

Question 64.
Prepare a poster for environment day observation.
Answer:
Plant trees
Plant generations

Let Us Assess

Question 65.
Reason for the diffusion of oxygen from alveoli to blood.
a) Low concentration of oxygen in blood.
b) As the walls of the alveoli and blood vessels are thin.
c) High concentration of oxygen in alveoli.
d) All of the above,
Answer:
d) All of the above.

Question 66.
Observe the two reactions given below
Reaction 1:
C₂H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + energy Reaction

a) Identify the process occurring in plants and in animals.
b) Which is the process that takes place only in plants?
Answer:
a) C₂H₁₂O₂ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + energy

You can Download Structure of Atom Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 Structure of Atom

Structure of Atom Textual Questions and Answers

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Chapter 1 Question 1.
Explain the postulates of Rutherford model of atom?
Answer:

• An atom has a center called nucleus
• Compared to the size of an atom the size of the nucleus is very smell
• All the positively charged particles and most of the mass are concentrated in the nucleus of atoms.
• Negatively charged electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular path.
• This atom model is known as planetary model of atom because sun at the center is compared to the nucleus planets revolving around the sun is compared to electrons.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Notes Question 2.
Explain the limitations of Rutherford’s model of atom?
Answer:
According to James Clerk Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory, a charged body in circular motion continuously emits energy as radiations. Electrons which revolve around the nucleus are negatively charged. Hence while electrons revolve around the nucleus, they should emit electromagnetic radiations lose energy and come closer to the nucleus Finally the negatively charged electrons should collapse into the nucleus. But this does not happen in an atom. It Rutherford’s model failed to explain this.

9th Chemistry Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Explain Bohr model of atoms?
Answer:

• Electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed paths called orbit or shells.
• Electrons in each shell have a definite energy hence shells are also called energy levels.
• As long as an electron revolves in a particular orbit its energy remains constant.
• The energy of the shell increases as the distance form the nucleus increases
• The shells.around the nucleus can be numbered from near the nucleus 1,2, 3,4…. or represented by the letters K, L, M, N

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Guide Pdf Question 4.
Explain the discovery of chargeless particles too- within an atom?
Answer:
The actual mass of an atom should be equal to the sum of the mass of particles present in it. Scientists realized the fact that there is no relation between the total mass of particle, ie., electrons, and protons in an atom and the actual mass of an atom.

From this, it can be inferred that nucleus may contain neutral particles having mass equal to that of protons predicted by Rutherford. In 1932 James Chad Wick-confirmed the presence of neutral particles within the nucleus of an atom. These particles are called neutrons. The mass of neutron is determined slightly higher than that of protons.

Fundamental particles of an atom

Answer:

Mass Number and Atomic Number

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Notes Chemistry Question 5.
Which are the fundamental particles whose masses are mainly responsible for the mass of an atom?
Answer:
Protons and neutrons

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Question 6.
Is there any relation between the total number of protons and neutrons in an atom and its mass?
Answer:
Same

Chemistry Notes Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Define mass n u m ber of an atom?
Answer:
The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom is called the mass number it is represented by the Letter ‘A’.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Notes Pdf Question 8.
Which is the particle of an atom- that has the possibility of changing of position, which can be exchanged when atoms rub against each other collide or chemically react with other atoms?
Answer:
Electrons

9th Class Chemistry Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Atoms are electrically Neutral” Justify it?
Answer:
The number of protons and electrons are equal in an atom.

Chemistry 9th Class Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Define atomic number of an element?
Answer:
The total number of protons in an atom is called atomic number it is represented as Z.

Chemistry Notes For Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
Which are the particles whose numbers you can find out if you know the atomic number of an atom?
Answer:
No. of protons and electrons

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Notes English Medium Question 12.
Why?
Answer:
Because the number of protons and electrons in an atom are equal.

Hsslive Guru Chemistry Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
How to write the mass number and atomic number of an element if the symbols are known?
Answer:
Mass number on the left side above the symbol and atomic number on the left side below the symbol.
Eg. Sodium atom can be represented as \(\begin{array}{l}{23 \mathrm{Na}} \\ {\text { 11 }}\end{array}\)

Question 14.
Symbol of certain atoms are given in the table complete the table

Answer:

Electronic Configuration in Atom

Question 15.
Analyze the electronic configuration of atoms of element 1 – 18 in the following table:

Question 16.
What is maximum electrons that can be accommodated in K shell?
Answer:
2

Question 17.
What is maximum electrons in that can be accommodated in L shell?
Answer:
8

Rules for filling electrons in shells
1. The maximum electrons that can be accommodated in any given shell can be calculated by the equation 2n² where ‘n’ represents the number of shells.

2. Shells with lower energy will be filled with maximum number of electrons first. Thereafter shells having higher energy will get filled.
3. The maximum number of electrons that can be contained the outermost shell of an atom is 8.

Question 19.
Write down the electron configuration of the following elements Draw its Bohr model.

Answer:
1. \(\frac{14}{7} \mathrm{N}\) Atomic No.: -7
Electron configuration – 2, 5

2. \(\frac{24}{12} \mathrm{Mg}\) Atomic No.: 12
Electron configuration – 2, 8,2

3. \(\frac{32}{16} \mathrm{S}\) Atomic No.: -16
Electron configuration – 2, 8,6

Question 20.
Bohr model of atoms of certain elements are given below (Fig 1.9) asess their electronic configuration.

Question 21.
The symbol of the aluminum atom is \(\frac{27}{13} \mathrm{AI}\) Bohr model of the atom is given in Fig. 1.10 analyze these and complete the table

Answer:

Isotopes

Question 22.
You would have understood that the number of protons in an atom determines the element. Analyze the given Bohr models.

Question 23.
Complete the table providing details related to these atoms.

Answer:

Question 24.
Among these atoms which is the particle that is differs in numbers?
Answer:
Neutrons

Question 25.
Which inferences can you arrive at when you examine the atomic number and mass number of these elements?
Answer:
They are atoms of the same element with same atomic number. But different mass numbers.

Question 26.
What is meant by Isotopes?
Answer:
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with same atomic number but different mass number.

Question 27.
Which isotope of Hydrogen is used in atomic reactors?
Answer:
Deuterium

Question 28.
Write the isotopes of carbon?
Answer:

Question 29.
Which are the isotopes is used as tracers for identifying the nutrient exchange in plant?
Answer:
Phosphorous-31

Question 30.
Which isotope of Uranium is used in atomic reac¬tors as fuel?
Answer:
Uranium – 235

Question 31.
What is meant by isobar?
Answer:
Isobars are atoms having the same mass number but different atomic number
e.g. \(_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca}, \quad_{18}^{40} \mathrm{Ar}\)

Question 32.
Symbols of certain isotopes are given in table 1.9. Complete the table writing their atomic number, mass number, number of protons, electrons and neutrons.

Answer:

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Name of some scientists and their contributions are given in in the following table. Match them suitably in the chronological order.

Answer:

Question 2.
Atomic number of an atom Z=17, Mass number 35.
a) Find the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in the atom.
b) Write the electronic configuration of different shells.
c) Draw the Bohr model of atom.
Answer:
a) No. of protons -17
No. of electrons -17 No. of neutrons = 35 – 17 =18
b) 2, 8, 7

Question 3.
The mass number of an atom is 31. The M shell of this atom contains 5 electrons.
a) Write the electronic configuration.
b) What is the atomic number of this atom?
c) How many neutrons does this atom have?
d) Draw the Bohr model of the atom.
Answer:
a) 2, 8, 5
b) 15
c) 31 – 15 = 16

Question 4.
Bohr models of atoms A, B, C, D are given (Symbols are not real).
a) Write the atomic number, mass number and electronic configuration of the atoms.
b) Among these, which are isotopes? Why?



Answer:

Question 5.
Symbols (not real symbols) of some atoms are given.
\(_{17}^{8} \mathrm{P}, \quad_{40}^{18} \mathrm{Q}\)\(_{8}^{16} \mathrm{P}, \quad_{40}^{20} \mathrm{R}\)
a) Find the atomic number and mass number of these elements.
b) Which among these are isotopic pairs?
c) Draw the Bohr model of atom Q
Answer:
a)
b) Isotopes P, R

Structure of Atom Model Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the atomic number of an atom is 18 and mass number is 40
a) Find the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in the atom.
b) Write the electronic configuration of different shells
c) Draw the Bohr model of the atom
Answer:
a) No. of protons -18
No. of electrons -18
No. of neutrons – 40 – 18 = 22
b) 2, 8, 8

Question 2.
The 3^rd shell ie. M shell of an atom contains 3 electrons. The mass number is 27.
a) Write the atomic number of this atom.
b) Write the electronic configuration.
c) How many electrons, neutrons does this atoms have?
d) Draw the Bohr model of atom?
Answer:
a) 13
b) 2, 8, 3
c) No. of protons -13 No. of electrons -13
No. of neutrons – 27 – 13 = 14

Question 3.
Write the uses of the following isotope
a) Carbon – 14
b) Phosphorous – 31
c) Iodine – 131 and cobalt 60
d) Uranium – 235
Answer:
Isotope Uses
a) Carbon-14 — Used to determine the age of fossils and prehistoric objects
b) Phosphorous-31 — Used as tracers for identifying the nutrient exchange in plants
c) Iodine -131 or cobalt – 60 — In medical sciences for the diagnosis and treatment of cancer and tumor
d) Uranium – 235 — Used in atomic reactor as fuel

Question 4.
Write the electronic configuration and draw the Bohr model?
Answer:
1) \(_{35}^{17} \mathrm{CI}\)
Electron configuration : 2, 8, 7
No. of neutrons = 35 – 17 = 18

2) \(_{23}^{11} \mathrm{Na}\)
No. of neutrons = 23 – 11 = 12
Electron configuration -2,8,1

Question 5.
\(\frac{12}{6} \mathrm{C}, \frac{14}{6} \mathrm{C}\)
Find the isotopes and isobars pairs among them. Justify it?
Answer:
\(\frac{40}{18} \mathrm{Ar}, \frac{40}{20} \mathrm{Ca}\) are Isotopes. Because they are atoms of the same element with same atomic number but different mass numbers.
1840Ar, 2040Ca are Isobars because they are atoms of different elements with different atomic numbers but same mass number.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 5 Questions Soldiers of Defense English Medium

Question 1.
The vitamin that helps in blood clotting
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
Answer:
d. Vitamin K

Question 2.
The normal temperature of human body
a. 36° C
b. 37° C
c. 38° C
d. 39° C
Answer:
b. 37° C

Question 3.
The white blood cell that stimulates other white blood cells
a. Neutrophil
b. Basophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Monocyte
Answer:
b. Basophil

Question 4.
The equipment used to record the electric waves in brain.
a. EEG
b. ECG
c. CT Scan
d. BCG
Answer:
a. EEG

Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship between the first pair.
a. To get the three-dimensional visuals of internal organs: MR scanner
To record the electric waves in heart muscle: ………………….
b. Vaccine: Edward Jenner
Antibiotic: ………………….
c. Cardiology: Treatment of heart
Ophthalmology: ………………….
Answer:
a. Electrocardiogram
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Treatment of eye.

Question 6.
Find the odd one out and note down the common features of others.
a. Inflammatory response, Phagocytosis, Fever, Production of antibodies
b. Allopathy, Ayurveda, Antibiotics, Unani
c. Sphygmomanometer, Electrocardiogram, E.N.T, E.E.G
Answer:
a. Production of antibodies. The others are nonspecific defense.
b. Antibiotics. The others are various treatment methods.
c. E.N.T. The others are modem diagnostic tools.

Question 7.
A person felt reduced level of vitamin in his body who takes some medicines for fever without consulting a doctor.
a. What type of medicine may be used by this person?
b. What are the side effects of using them? Explain the reason.
Answer:
a. Use of antibiotics
b. Though antibiotics are effective medicines, their regular use brings many side effects. Some important side effects of regular use are it develops immunity in pathogens against antibiotics, destroys useful bacteria in the body, reduces the quantity of some vitamins in the body.

Question 8.
What is the role of cuticle, cell wall and callose in defense of plants?
Answer:
Cuticle: The external layer of the epidermis of leaves defends the attack of microorganisms.
Cell wall: A well equipped resistant coat.
Chemical substances such as lignin, cutin, suberin, etc., provide rigidity to the cell wall.
Callose: Prevents the entry of germs which, have crossed the cell wall, through the cell membrane

Question 9.
Sharon hit his head while falling and the head swelled.
a. Is this reaction useful to the body? Why?
b. What is this type of reaction called?
c. How is this reaction helpful in defending diseases?
Answer:
a. Yes. Second level defense.
b. Inflammatory response
c. Blood vessels dilate and white blood cells from the blood vessel reach the wound site. White blood cells destroy the germs.

Question 10.
Observe the picture and answer the question given.

a. Identify the white blood cells indicated by A, B.
b. Write the defense activities of these white blood cells.
Answer:
a.
A – Neutrophil B – Basophil
b.

• Neutrophil – engulfs and destroys the bacteria produces chemicals that can destroy bacteria.
• Basophil – stimulates other white blood cells, dilates the blood vessels.

Question 11.
When infection becomes uncontrollable, the body temperature may rise very high.
a. How is this situation known as?
b. Write the reason for the rise in body temperature.
c. How the rise in body temperature controls the infection? –
Answer:
a. Fever
b. The presence of toxins produced by the pathogens stimulates white blood cells, the chemical substances produced by the white blood cells rise the body temperature.
c. The rise in the body temperature reduces the rise of multiplication of pathogens, increases the effect of phagocytosis.

Question 12.
Observe the picture of skin and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the parts indicated as A, B, C.
b. What is the role of these parts in defense mechanism?
Answer:
a. A – Epidermis B – Sebaceous gland C – Sweat gland
b. A protein called keratin present in the epidermis prevents the entry of germs. Sebum produced by the sebaceous gland makes the skin oily and waterproof. The disinfectants present in the sweat produced by sweat gland destroy the germs.

Question 13.
Complete the flow chart related to inflammation.

Answer:
A: Produces chemical messages.
B: White blood cells reach the wound site through the walls of the capillaries.

Question 14.
Select the suitable statements related to B lymphocytes.
a. Mature in the bone marrow.
b. Stimulate other defense cells of the body.
c. These cells are capable of destroying cancer cells.
d. Neutralise the toxin of the antigens.
Answer:
a. Mature in the bone marrow.
d. Neutralise the toxin of the antigens.

Question 15.
Whichever be the type of germs infected, the initial symptom appears in human body will be the fever. Give reason.
Answer:
Pathogens enter the body. Then the presence of toxins produced by the pathogens stimulate the white blood cells. The chemical substances produced by the white blood cells raise the body temperature. The rise in body temperature reduces the rate of multiplication of pathogens and increases the effect of phagocytosis. So fever is a defense mechanism.

Question 16.
Select the correct pairs.
a. Cardiology – Treatment of heart
b. Ophthalmology – Cancer treatment
c. Chemotherapy – Treatment of disorders of the nervous system.
d. E.N.T – Treatment of ear, nose and throat disorders.
Answer:
a. Cardiology – Treatment of heart
d. E.N.T – Treatment of ear, nose and throat disorders.

Question 17.
Select the statements related to specific defense from the statements given below.
a. Destroys the germs that have entered the body.
b. Sebum is a disinfectant
c. Neutrophil is a phagocyte.
d. Prevents the germs from entering the body.
e. Identifies and destroys pathogens.
f. Neutralises the toxin of the antigens.
Answer:
b. Sebum is a disinfectant
c. Neutrophil is a phagocyte.
d. Prevents the germs from entering the body.

Question 18.
The stages related to phagocytosis are given below. Arrange them in correct order.
a. The pathogens are degenerated and destroyed by the enzymes in lysosome.
b. Engulfs the pathogen in the membrane sac.
c. Phagocytes reach near the pathogens.
d. Membrane sacs combine with the lysosome.
Answer:
c. Phagocytes reach near the pathogens.
b. Engulfs the pathogen in the membrane sac.
d. Membrane sacs combine with the lysosome.
a. The pathogens are degenerated and destroyed by the enzymes in lysosome.

Question 19.
The immunity to disease of a child living in natural environment will be ‘greater than that of a child living in over hygienic environment. Do you agree with this statement? Give reason for this.
Answer:
a. Natural environments increase immunity. More chances to acquaint with antigens and to form antibodies against them in the body. Over hygienic environment leads to reduction in natural immunity.

b. When we avoid situations for the body to make antibodies against antigens, we develop poor immunity.

Question 20.
Given below are the two methods which can be used against diseases.
a. Antibiotics
b. Vaccines
i. What is the major difference between the two?
ii. Give one example for each.
Answer:
i. Antibiotics – Antibiotics are used to resist bacterial diseases.
Vaccines – Used for immunity.
ii. Antibiotics-Penicillin Vaccines – B.C.G

Question 21.
What is the role of calcium, thrombin, and fibrin in blood clotting?
Answer:
Calcium ions- Play a major role in the convention of prothrombin in plasma to thrombin by thromboplastin
Thrombin – Thrombin converts the fibrinogen in the plasma to fibrin.
Fibrin – Blood clot is formed by the entangling of platelets and red blood cells in the fibrin network.

Question 22.
Everyone cannot receive blood from all blood groups. Justify this statement.
Answer:
When a foreign antigen reaches one’s blood, it stimulates the defense mechanism. On receiving unmatching blood, the antigen present in the donor’s blood and the antibody present in the recipient’s blood will react with each other and form a blood clot. Hence, everyone cannot receive blood from alt blood groups.

Question 23.
Observe the given picture and answer the questions given below.

a. Name the defense activity indicated in the illustration.
b. Write the stages of this activity.
Answer:
a. Phagocytosis
b. Phagocytes reach near the pathogens.
Engulfs the pathogen in the membrane sac.
Membrane sac combines with lysosome.
The pathogens are degenerated and destroyed by the enzymes in lysosome.

Question 24.
Write down the correct ones among the following statements related to defense.
a. Specific defense is the mechanism in which monocytes engulf the pathogens.
b. Non-specific defense mechanism is a mechanism that protects us from all pathogens without considering their characteristic features.

c. Lymphocytes are the part of non-specific defense mechanism.
d. T-Lymphocytes destroy cancer cells.
Answer:
b. Non- specific defense mechanism is a mechanism that protects us from all pathogens without considering their characteristic features.
d. T-Lymphocytes destroy cancer cells.

Question 25.

a. Identify A
b. B is a vitamin and C is an enzyme. Name them.
c. How does the lack of B or C affect the consequent chemical process?
Answer:
a. A – Prothrombin
b. B – Vitamin K, C – Thromboplastin
c. Thrombin is not formed Fibrinogen will not be converted to fibrin.

Question 26.
One of the scars of the wound obtained by Binu while playing football remained even after 10 years. What explanation will you give for the scar remaining as such?
Answer:
Connective tissue heals the wound.
New tissues are not formed in the place of damaged tissues.

Question 27.
Ashiq who met with an accident, was in need of blood. Antigen A and D and Antibody b was identified in his blood.
a. Name his blood group?
b. Whose blood, among the following, can be accepted by Ashiq?
i. Venu: A +
ii. Amal: AB+
iii. Sahara: AB-
iv. Anoop: A-
Answer:
a. A+
b. i. Venu : A+
ii. Anoop : A-

Question 28.
Complete the table.

Answer:
a. B.C.G.
b. O.P.V.
c. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough), hepatitis B and Haemophilus influenza type b
d. Measles, mumps, and rubella (German measles)
e. Tetanus

Question 29.
Given below is the picture of white blood cells which are parts of specific defense.

a. Identify A and B.
b. What is the role of A in specific defense?
c. Give any one difference between A and B.
Answer:
a. A – T – lymphocyte B – B lymphocyte

b. Stimulates other defense cells.
Destroys cancer cells and virus affected cells.

c. B – lymphocytes mature at bone marrow.
T – lymphocytes mature at thymus.

Question 30.
What all things should be taken care of while transfusing blood?
Answer:

• People in the age group 18-60 can donate blood.
• Blood donation can be done once in three months.
• Blood donation causes no problem to the donor’s health.
• Pregnant women and breastfeeding mothers should not donate blood.
• Persons with communicable diseases (transmitted through blood) should not donate blood.

Question 31.
How do the following situations help in defense activity?
a. Many useful bacteria that habitat in the coverings of the body.
b. Rise in body temperature
c. Antibodies
d. Vaccines
Answer:
a. Coverings of the body act as a habitat for many useful bacteria. The genus that enter the body need to compete with such useful bacteria for shelter and nutrients. A great number of germs get destroyed in this competition.

b. The rise in the body temperature reduces the rise of multiplication of pathogens, increases the effect of phagocytosis.

c. Antibodies destroy the pathogens in three different ways.

1. Destroy the bacteria by disintegrating their cell membrane.
2. Neutralise the toxin of the antigens.
3. Destroy the pathogens by stimulating other white blood cells.

d. Vaccines are the substances used for artificial immunization. Vaccines act as antigens that stimulate the defense mechanism of the body. Antibodies are formed in the body against them. These antibodies are retained in the body which in future protect the body from the pathogen responsible for the same disease.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 6 Questions Unravelling Genetic Mysteries English Medium

Question 1.
The scientist who has laid the foundation of Genetics
a. Carl Linnaeus
b. Gregor Johann Mendel
c. James Watson
d. Charles Darwin
Answer:
b. Gregor Johann Mendel

Question 2.
The different forms of genes that control the trait,
a. Chromosome
b. Allele
c. Nucleotide
d. Nucleus
Answer:
c. Allele

Question 3.
The genetic constitution of females,
a. 44 + XX
b. 44 + XY
c. 43 + XX
d. 43 + XY
Answer:
a. 44 + XX

Question 4.
The sugar seen in DNA.
a. Ribose
b. Ribosome
c. Ribulose
d. Deoxyribose sugar
Answer:
d. Deoxyribose sugar

Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship between the first pair.
a. DNA: Two strands RNA: …………………..
b. Associated with ribosome: rRNA
Carry amino acids to the ribosome: …………………..
c. TT: tall
tt: …………………..
Answer:
a. Single strand
b. tRNA
c. Dwarf

Question 6.
Find the odd one out, note down the common features of others.
a. TTRR, TtRr, TTRr, ttrr
b. A-T, G-C, T-A, U-A
c. Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Uracil
Answer:
a. ttrr
Others are tall plant with round seed
b. U-A
Others are nitrogen base pairs in DNA.
c. Thymine
Others are nitrogen bases seen in RNA.

Question 7.
Select the statements related to RNA from the given statements.
a. Has two strands
b. Ribose sugar is seen
c. Do not participate directly in protein synthesis
d. The nitrogen bases are Adenine, Uracil, Cytosine, Guanine
Answer:
b, d

Question 8.
Given below is the illustration showing how sex determination is taking place in human beings.

b. What are the inferences you arrive at from this illustration?
Answer:
a. i. 44 + XX
ii. 44 + XY
iii. 44 + XX
iv. 44 + XY
b. The male and female ratio will be 1:1. The XY chromosomes of the father determine whether the child is male or female.

Question 9.
The stages related to action of gene is given below. Arrange them in correct order.
a. mRNA reaches the ribosome.
b. mRNA reaches outside the nucleus.
c. Protein is synthesized.
d. tRNA carries amino acids to the ribosome.
e. mRNA forms from DNA.
f. Based on the information in mRNA amino acids are added.
Answer:
e, b, a, d, f, c

Question 10.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions given below.

a. Name the illustration.
b. What is its importance?
Answer:
a. Crossing over
b. As a result of this, part of a DNA crosses over to become the part of another DNA. This causes a difference in the distribution of genes. When these chromosomes are transferred to the next generation, it causes the expression of new characters in offspring.

Question 11.
Select the correct statements.
a. 46 chromosomes are seen in humans.
b. 23 pairs of autosomes are found in humans.
c. Genetic constitution of male is 44 + XY.
d. Sex chromosomes are of two types.
e. Genetic constitution of female is 46 + XX.
Answer:
a, c, d

Question 12.
Observe the illustration related to hybridization of two types of pea plants and answer the following questions.

a. Which are the characters expressed in first-generation?
b. Which are the hidden characters in this experiment?
c. Write the possible expression of different characters in next generation.
Answer:
a. Round seed, white flower
b. Flat seed, red flower
c. Round seed, white flower Round seed, red flower Flat seed, white flower Flat seed, red flower.

Question 13.
Given below is the illustration of a cross conducted between red-flowered and white-flowered pea plants. Complete it suitably.

a. First-generation
b. Write down the ratio of pea plants with different characters in the second generation.
Answer:

b. 3 red flowers: 1 white flower

Question 14.
Complete the given illustration of a nucleotide molecule.

Answer:
a. Sugar molecule
b. Phosphate

Question 15.
Complete the flow chart showing gene action.

Answer:
a. mRNA reaches outside the nucleus.
b. mRNA reaches ribosomes.
c. Based on the information in mRNA amino acids are added.

Question 16.
Complete the table suitably.

Answer:

Question 17.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions given below.

a. What is the dominant and recessive characters in the first generation?
b. If the plants obtained in first-generation is self-pollinated, what are the characters appear in the second generation? In which ratio.
c. Redraw the illustration using letters.
Answer:
a. Dominant character – Tall Recessive character – Dwarf
b. 3 Tall: 1 Dwarf

Question 18.
Analyze the illustration based on the self-pollination of first-generation.

a. Complete the illustration.
b. Offsprings of second generation. In which ratio?
Answer:
a. 1 – T
2-t
3 – TT
4 – Tt
5 – Tt
6 – tt

b. 3 tall: 1 Dwarf

Question 19.
A pea plant with genetic constitution TtRr (Tall plant producing round seed) was subjected to self-pollination. The genetic constitution of some of the progenies obtained are given below. Write the expressed character of the given progenies based on their genetic constitution.
a. TTRr
b. ttRr
c. ttrr
d. Ttrr
Answer:
a. TTRr – Tall plant producing round seed
b. ttRr – Dwarf plant producing round seed.
c. ttrr – Dwarf plant producing wrinkled seed
d. Ttrr – Tall plant producing wrinkled seed

Question 20.
The note prepared by Shahana on Mendel’s inferences during the classroom analysis of Mendel’s hybridization experiment in pea plants, based on a single trait is given below. Analyse the statements in the note and correct those that are wrong ones.
a. A trait is controlled by a specific factor.
b. A character is expressed and the other remains hidden in the first generation.
c. The character that remains hidden in the first generation does not appear in the second generation.
d. The ratio of characters in the second generation is 3:1.
Answer:
a. One trait is controlled by the combination of two factors.
c. The character that remains hidden in the first generation appears in the second generation.

Question 21.
Complete the flowchart illustrating the location of gene by using the information given in the box:

Answer:

Question 22.
Observe the illustration given below and answer the questions.

a. Identify the dominant character.
b. How does the parental plant with green-colored seed and the plant in the first generation differ in their alleles?
c. Describe alleles.
Answer:
a. Green
b. Alleles in parental plant-QG Allele in the first generation – Gg
c. Different forms of a gene.

Question 23.
Observe the nucleotide strands given below and answer the questions. ‘

a. Identify the strand that is found in DNA only.
b. Identify the strand that can be found in both DNA and RNA.
c. What is a nucleotide?
Answer:
a. B
b. A
c. A unit of sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base/ Component of nucleic acid.

Question 24.
Given below is an illustration regarding sex determination. Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

a. Complete A, B, C in the illustration.
b. What is the possibility of the formation of a male child or a female child? Explain.
Answer:
a.
A. 44 + XY
B. 22 + X
C. 22 + Y
b. Equal chance. The number of male gametes with X chromosome and those with Y chromosome are equal. Egg with the X chromosome has equal chance to combine with sperm having Y chromosome and those having X chromosome.

Question 25.
Given below is a placard exhibited in a school rally organised ‘Against Racism ’.
It is not racial difference that makes the skin colour different; This is an adaptation to live under the sun.
a. How will you explain the difference in skin colour of people living in different parts of the world?
b. What attitude should be adopted by a scientifically enlightened society towards the idea in the placard? Substantiate.
Answer:
a. Melanin, a pigment protein imparts colour to skin.
It is due to the difference in gene function.

b. Skin colour is an adaptation to live under the sun.

• Races among mankind are only cultural.
• Scientifically, all men are of the same race.
• Consider all men as equal, without any racial difference.

Question 26.
‘Gene itself is allele; allele itself is gene Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Statement is partly correct. Each character is controlled by pair factors called genes. Different forms of a gene are called alleles. Generally, a gene has two alleles. Alleles can be of the same types (TT) or of different types (Tt). If the alleles are of different types, only one trait represented by any one of the alleles get expressed.

Question 27.
In the hybridization experiment conducted by Mendel on the basis of two contrasting traits of the character height in pea plant
a. In the first generation, tall plants are expressed. No dwarf plant is seen in the first generation.
b. The dwarf plants were expressed in second generation. Give explanation.
Answer:
a. When plants that differ in a pair of contrasting traits are hybridized, only one trait is expressed while the other remains hidden in the offsprings of the first generation. The expressed trait is called dominant trait and the hidden trait is called recessive trait.
b. During gamete formation the factors that determine height segregate without getting mixed. This is the reason for the expression of the dwarf plants in second generation.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 1 Questions Sensations and Responses English Medium

Select the correct answer.

Question 1.
The tip of axonite
a. Axon
b. Dendron
c. Synaptic knob
d. Dendrite
Answer:
c. Synaptic knob

Question 2.
In spinal cord
a. white matter outside and grey matter inside ”
b. white matter on outside and inside
c. grey matter on outside and inside
d. white matter inside and grey matter outside
Answer:
a. white matter outside and grey matter inside

Question 3.
The part of brain which plays a major role in the maintenance of homeostasis.
a. Thalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Cerebrum
d. Medulla oblongata
Answer:
b. Hypothalamus

Question 4.
Read the statements given below.
i. The part where myelinated neurons are present in abundance is called white matter.
ii. Nerves are groups of dendrites covered by connective tissue.
a. i and ii correct
b. i and ii wrong
c. i wrong ii correct
d. i correct ii wrong
Answer:
d. i correct ii wrong

Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship between the first pair.
a. SoundExternal stimulus : : Hunger : …………………
b. Spinal nerves : 31 pairs : : Cranial nerves …………………
c. Sensory impulses reach the spinal cord : Dorsal root: : Motor impulses go out of the spinal cord : ………………..
Answer:
a. Internal stimulus
b. 12 pairs
c. Ventral root

Question 6.
Find out the odd one and note down the com-mon features of others.
a. Alzheimer’s, Tuberculosis, Parkinson’s, Epilepsy
b. Dendron, Axon, Nephron, Dendrite
c. Thought, maintains equilibrium, memory, imagination
Answer:
a. Tuberculosis
Others are diseases affecting nervous system
b. Nephron. Others are parts of neuron
c.

• Maintains equilibrium
• Others are functions of cerebrum

Question 7.
Explain the differences between axons and dendrons.
Answer:
Axons and dendrons are projections from the cyton (cell body). Axons are the longest filament from the cell body and dendrons are the short filament from the cell body. Dendrites are the branches of dendron and branches of axons are axonites. Dendron carries impulses from dendrites to the cell body while axon carries impulses from the cell body to outside. Axon is encircled by myelin sheath.

Question 8.
Complete the table suitably.

Answer:
a. Carries impulses from various parts of the body to the brain and the spinal cord.
b. Motor nerve
c. Mixed nerve
d. Carries impulses to and from the brain and spinal cord.

Question 9.
Select the correct pairs.
a. Axonite – secretes neurotransmitter
b. Schwann cell – encircles the axon
c. Axonite – branches of dendron
d. Axon – carries impulses from the cell body to outside
e. Synaptic knob – secretes neurotransmitter
Answer:
b. Schwann cell – encircles the axon
d. Axon – carries impulses from the cell body to outside
e. Synaptic knob – secretes neurotransmitter

Question 10.
Arrange columns B, C in accordance with the data given in column A.

Answer:

Question 11.
The cause of a disease affecting the nervous system is given below.
Continuous and irregular flow of electric charges in the brain
a. Identify the disease.
b. Write the symptoms.
Answer:
a. Epilepsy
b. Fits due to continuous muscular contraction, frothy discharge from the mouth, clenching of teeth following which the patient falls unconscious.

Question 12.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions given below.
a. Identify the part indicated as A.
b. How is this part formed?
c. Write the functions of this part.

Answer:
a. A – Myelin sheath.
b. Schwann cells repeatedly encircle the axons to form the myelin sheath.
c. To provide nutrients and oxygen to the axon, accelerate impulses, act as an electric insulator and protect the axon from external shocks.

Question 13.
Rajesh ate his food while watching the hairraising scenes of a film on TV. Will this affect hi’s digestion? Formulate an inference related to sympathetic-parasympathetic actions. List out the facts which led you to the inference.
Answer:
Adversely affects digestion.
Sympathetic system gets stimulated in such situations. So secretion of saliva decreases, peristalsis slows down and functions of the stomach slow down in this situation.

Question 14.
a. What are the parts of the central nervous system?
b. What are the parts included in the peripheral nervous system?
c. How does the brain communicate with organs?
d. How does the spinal cord communicate with organs?
e. Complete the flowchart of nervous system.

Answer:
a. Brain and spinal cord
b. Peripheral nervous system includes 12 pairs of cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves and sympathetic and parasympathetic systems of autonomous nervous system.
c. Brain communicates with the organs by 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
d. Spinal cord communicates with the organs by 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Question 15.
The diagram below shows neuron and the direction of nerve impulse through it. Observe the diagram and answer the questions.

a. If there is a mistake in the direction of nerve impulse, redraw the diagram and correct it.
b. How does the impulse pass through the part X?
Answer:

b. When electric impulses from the axon reach the synaptic knob, certain chemical substances are secreted from there to the synaptic cleft. These chemical substances are called neurotransmitters. They stimulate the adjacent dendrite or cell and new electric impulses are generated.

Question 16.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the figure.
b. Identify the parts A, B and C.
c. Write the functions of part indicated as A and B.
d. Write the peculiarity of part indicated as C.
Answer:
a. Spinal cord
b. A – Dorsal root B – Ventral root C – Central canal
c. Dorsal root – Sensory impulses reach the spinal cord through the dorsal root.
Ventral root – Motor impulses go out of the spinal cord through the ventral root.
d. Filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

Question 17.
Select the answer for the statements from the box given below.
Thalamus, Synaptic knob, Spinal cord, Dendrite, Axonite, Medulla oblongata

a. Secretes neurotransmitter.
b. Carries impulses to the synaptic knob.
c. Branches of dendron.
d. Acts as relay station of impulses.
e. Controls involuntary actions
f. Coordinates the rapid and repeated movements during walking, running.
Answer:
a. Synaptic knob
b. Axonite
c. Dendrite
d. Thalamus
e. Medulla oblongata
f. Spinal cord

Question 18.
Arrange the statements suitably.
a. Trachea dilates
b. Glycogen is converted to glucose.
c. Production of hormone increases.
d. Urinary bladder contracts
e. Production of saliva increases.
f. Peristalsis in the intestine slows down
g. Heartbeat increases.
h. Glucose is converted to glycogen.

Answer:

Question 19.
The symptoms of a disease affecting the nervous ’ system are given below.
Loss of body balance, irregular movement of muscles, shivering of the body, profuse salivation
a. Identify the disease.
b. Write the causes of this disease.
Answer:
a. Parkinson’s
b. Destruction of specialised ganglions in the brain, production of dopamine reduces.

Question 20.
Redraw the picture of brain and identify and label the parts based on the statements given below.
a. Centre of thought, intelligence, memory and imagination.
b. The part which controls involuntary actions.
c. The part which coordinates muscular activities and maintains equilibrium of the body.

Answer:

a. Cerebrum
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Cerebellum

Question 21.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

a. Identfy the parts indicated as A, B, C.
b. How are the parts indicated by A and B structurally different?
c. What are the functions of part indicated as C?
Answer:
a. A – Cerebrum B – Cerebellum
C – Medulla oblongata
b

• Cerebrum – the largest part of the brain, numerous fissures and folds are seen.
• Cerebellum – the second largest part of brain, fissures and grooves are present.

c. Medulla oblongata controls involuntary actions like heartbeat, breathing. etc.

Question 22.
Arrange columns B and C in accordance with the data given in A.

Answer:

B

Question 23.
Radha is moving away with fear from a snake.
a. State what happens to the functioning of following organs?

• Heart
• Pupil
• Trachea
• Liver

b. Which nervous system is activated during such emergency situations?

Answer:

a.

• Heart – Heart beat increases
• Pupil – The pupil in the eye dilates
• Trachea – Trachea dilates
• Liver – Glycogen is converted to glucose

b. Sympathetic system

Question 24.
Myelin sheath in the brain and the spinal cord is formed of specialized cells called ………………….
Answer:
oligodendrocytes.

Question 25.
The thalamus is the post office of the brain. Evaluate this statement based on the function of thalamus.
Answer:
Thalamus analyses impulses from various parts of the body and sends the important ones to cerebrum. Thalamus also acts as relay station of impulses to and from the cerebrum.

Question 26.
Segregate the following statements suitably.
a. Covered by meninges
b. Connected to different parts of body through 31 pairs of nerves
c. Part of central nervous system
d. Filled with cerebrospinal fluid
e. Filled with aqueous fluid
f. Consists of 12 pairs of nerves
g. Centre of consciousness
h. All are mixed nerves

Answer:
A – f, g
B – b, h
C – a, c, d
D – e

Question 27.
How is the brain protected?
Answer:
The brain is protected inside a hard skull. Brain is covered by the meninges, a three-layered membrane. The cerebrospinal fluid is filled within the inner membranes of meninges and the ventricles of the brain help to protect the brain from injuries.

Question 28.
How does sympathetic system act on the ‘ following organs?

• Liver
• Heart
• Stomach

Answer:

• Liver – Glycogen is converted to glucose.
• Heart – Heartbeat increases
• Stomach – Gastric activities slow down.

Question 29.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:
A – Sensory neuron – carries impulses to the spinal cord
B – Motor neuron – carries the information from spinal cord to related muscles.

Question 30.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the part indicated as A.
b. Explain the role of the part in the transmission of impulses from one neuron to another.
Answer:
a. Synapse .
b. The electric impulses generated by stimuli reach the synaptic knob where certain chemical substances are secreted. The chemical substance (neurotransmitter) which is released in the synaptic cleft stimulates the adjacent dendrite and new electric impulses are formed.

Question 31.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:
a. Dendrite
b.Axon
c. Synaptic knob
d. Synapse

Question 32.
Observe the figure and answer the following questions.

a. What is indicated in the diagram?
b. What are the peculiarities of this, common to that of brain?
Answer:
a. Spinal cord
b. Covered with meninges and filled with cerebrospinal fluid

Question 33.
Analyze the illustration and answer the questions.

a. What is indicated in the illustration?
b. A and B are neurons. Write their difference.
c. Write an example related to this illustration.
Answer:
a. Reflex action
b. A – Sensory neuron
Carries impulses to the spinal cord . B – Motor neuron
Carries the information from the spinal cord to related muscles.
c. Hand is withdrawn while touching fire.

Question 34.
The brain contains a fluid which is formed from and reabsorbed into the blood.
a. Identify the fluid.
b. What are the functions of that fluid?
Answer:
a. Cerebrospinal fluid
b. Provides nutrients and oxygen to brain tissue, protects the brain from injuries

Question 35.
One of the components of the nervous system is illustrated below. Fill in the blanks appropriately.

Answer:
a. Cranial nerves
b. 31 pairs
c. Autonomous nervous system
d. Sympathetic system

Question 36.

The causes of diseases related to the nervous system in two individuals X and Y are given above.
i. Identify the diseases.
ii. The deficiency of which neurotransmitter causes disease in Y?
Answer:
i. X-Alzheimer’s Y – Parkinson’s
ii. Dopamine

Question 37.
Analyse the illustration of impulse transmis¬sion through axon and answer the following questions.

a. What are the changes that take place in illustration B when compeared to A? Give reasons for this change.
b. Explain how this change brings about the transmission of impulses through axon.
Answer:
a. When stimulated, ionic equilibrium in the particular part changes, and the outer surface of the plasma membrane of axon becomes negatively charged while the inner surface becomes positively charged.

b.

• These changes generate impulses.
• The momentary charge difference in the axon stimulates its adjacent parts.
• Similar changes occur there also.
• Impulses get transmitted through axon

Question 38.
Mohan lost his memory and was partially paralysed after he met with an accident.
a. Which part of Mohan’s brain was affected?
b. How is the brain protected?
Answer:
a. Cerebrum
b.

• Skull
• Meninges
• Cerebrospinal fluid

Question 39.
Identify the correct statements from those given below.
i. The central nervous system consists of the brain and the spinal cord.
ii. The peripheral nervous system consists of 31 pairs of cranial nerves and 12 pairs of spinal nerves.
iii. The sympathetic system and the parasym-pathetic system are parts of the central nervous system.
iv. The autonomous nervous system which is a part of the peripheral nervous system helps to overcome the emergency situations.
Answer:
i. The central nervous system consists of the brain and the spinal cord,
iv. The autonomous nervous system which is a part of the peripheral nervous system helps to overcome the emergency situations.

Question 40.
Balu :
In the spinal cord and the cerebrum , white matter is seen outside and grey matter is seen inside.

Ramu :
In the cerebrum, the grey matter is seen outside and the white matter is seen inside, But in the spinal cord, the white matter is seen outside and the grey matter is seen inside.
In the group discussion related to the nervous system, Balu and Ramu said so.
a. Whose opinion do you agree with?
b. Explain white matter and grey matter.
Answer:
a. Ramu’s opinion
b.

• White matter
  The part of the brain and the spinal cord where myelinated nerve cells are present in abundance.
• Grey matter.
  The part where non-myelinated nerves cells are present is called grey matter.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 8 Questions The Paths Traversed by Life English Medium

Question 1.
The theory argues that life has originated in some other planet in the universe and accidentally reached the earth.
a. Natural selection
b. Chemical evolution
c. Panspermia
d. Mutation theory
Answer:
c. Panspermia

Question 2.
The chemical evolution theory was put forward by
a. Urey – Miller
b. Oparin – Halden
c. Watson – Crick
d. Hugo de Vries
Answer:
b. Oparin – Halden

Question 3.
The islands in which Charles Darwin conducted his study.
a. Galapagos
b. Indonesia
c. Japan
d. Sri Lanka
Answer:
a. Galapagos

Question 4.
Most primitive member of human race.
a. Ardipithecus ramidus
b. Homo habilis
c. Homo erectus
d. Homo sapiens
Answer: .
a. Ardipithecus ramidus

Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship – between the first pair.
a. Darwin: Natural selection
Hugo de Vries: ……………………….
b. Gibbon: Hominoidea
Gorilla: ……………………….
c. Contemporary to modern man: Homo neanderthalensis
Modern man:……………………….
Answer:
a. Mutation
b.Hominoidea
c. Homo sapiens

Question 6.
Find the odd one out, note down the common features of others.
a. Homo habilis, Orangutan, Homo sapiens, Ardipithecus ramidus
b. Gibbon, Monkey, Gorilla, Chimpanzee
c. Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon dioxide
Answer:
a. Orangutan, others are members of human evolution.
b. Monkey, others are members of Hominoidea.
c. Oxygen, others are gases present on primitive earth.

Question 7.
The names of organisms that are included in the evolutionary history of modern man are given in the box. Select the answer from the box related to the statements given below.
Homo neanderthalensis, Homo erectus,
Ardipithecus ramidus, Homo sapiens,
Homo habilis

a. Modern man
b. Most primitive member of the human race.
c. Made weapons from stones and bone pieces.
d. Contemporary to modern man.
e. Have the ability to stand erect, thick chin and large teeth.
Answer:
a. Homo sapiens
b. Ardipithecus ramidus
c. Homo habilis
d. Homo neanderthalensis
e. Homo erectus

Question 8.
Some situations that helped in the origin of life existed in primitive earth. Select the situation from the following.
a. There was no water in primitive earth.
b. There was no free oxygen in primitive earth.
c. There were no gases in primitive earth.
d. There was availability of energy in primitive. earth.
Answer:
b. There was no free oxygen in primitive earth, d. There was availability of energy in primitive earth.

Question 9.
Read the description on bacteria and answer the questions given below.
Under favourable circumstances, bacteria divide every 20 minutes. The rapid multiplication results in the mutation in the DNA. Mutation causes the formation of new bacteria, producing different enzymes.
a. What will be the crisis created in the medical field by such changes in pathogenic bacteria?
b. Which theory of evolution is justified by changes in bacteria?
Answer:
a. Bacteria which show immunity to medicines are formed.
b. The theory of Natural Selection.

Question 10.
The main ideas related to an argument attempted to explain the history of evolution is given below.

• The characters developed during the lifetime of organisms are called acquired characters.
• The accumulation of acquired characters led to the formation of new species.

a. Name the scientist who put forward these ideas?
b. This argument was not accepted by the . scientific world. Why?
Answer:
a. Jean Baptist Lamarck.
b. The acquired characters were not inheritable.

Question 11.
Description of Darwin’s theory is given below. Which is the wrong statement?
a. Competition between organisms for the limited resources is known as struggle for existence.
b. Organisms with favourable variations survive.
c. The structure of organisms formed by continuous use is transmitted to next generations.
d. Organisms with unfavourable variations get eliminated.
Answer:
c. The structure of organisms formed by continuous use is transmitted to next generations.

Question 12.
What are the evidences given by biochemistry and physiology for evolution?
Answer:
Enzymes control chemical reactions in all organisms. Energy is stored in ATP molecules. Genes determine hereditary traits. Carbohydrates, proteins and fats are the basic substances. It is clear from these facts that different species that exist today have a common ancestor.

Question 13.
Arrange column B in accordance with column A.

Answer:

Question 14.
What are homologous organs? Write the evidences given by these for evolution?
Answer:
Organs that are similar in structure and perform different functions are called homologous organs. Such anatomical resemblances justify the inferences that all organisms evolved from a common ancestor.

Question 15.
Given below are the criticisms raised against – Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection.
a. Lack of experimental support.
b. Does not explain how variations within species are transmitted to the next generation.
What explanation will you give to this in the background of the advancement of genetics?
Answer:
a. Molecular biology, Mutation, etc.
b. Explanations from Neo Darwinism, Mutation, Crossing over.

Question 16.
Create an evolutionary tree of Anthropoidea by using the words given in the box.
Monkey, Gorilla, Gibbon, Cercopithecoidea, Orangutan, Man, Hominoidea, Chimpanzee.
Answer:

Question 17.
Write two examples for the theories discussed among the scientists in connection with the origin of life.
Answer:
The theory of chemical evolution, The panspermia theory.

Question 18.
What are fossils? What are the inferences you can arrive at from fossil studies?
Answer:

• Fossils are the remnants of primitive organisms. The inferences that we can arrive at from such studies.
• Primitive fossils have simple structure.
• Recently formed fossils have complex structure.
• Certain fossils are connecting links between different species.

Question 19.
Gibbon, Baboons, Oranguttan, Gorilla. Find the odd one. In which group the other organisms belong? Write the characteristics of this group.
Answer:
Baboons Gibbon, Oranguttan, Gorilla belong to the Hominoidea group.
The characteristics of Hominoidea are developed brain, freely movable hands.

Question 20.
Dinesh applied DDT, a pesticide in his garden to control termites. He could control termites successfully during the initial stages, but subsequent usage of the same did not produce any results. Evaluate the survival of termites on the basis of Natural Selection.
Answer:
According to The Theory of natural selection, the organisms are in competition for limited resources (struggle for existence). Only organisms with favourable variations survive. And this leads to the evolution of new species with favourable variations. They become accustomed to the new environment.

This new species produce more number of offsprings (overproduction).
Here the pests have variations to overcome the DDT. Organisms with favourable variations survive and lead to the evolution of new species which can survive DDT.

Question 21.
Write your inference by analyzing the following information in connection with evolution.
Difference from the amino acids in the beta chain of haemoglobin in man.
Chimpanzee: Nil
Gorilla: difference of one amino acid Rat: difference of 31 amino acids
a. Substantiate the reason for variations of amino acids of protein like haemoglobin in above organisms.
b. Write the advantage of the micro-level knowledge of protein and genes of related organism.
Answer:
a. Mutation
b. Through a comparative study of protein molecules in different species, the evolutionary relationship among organisms can be identified.
This is an effective method to draw the evolution showing the branching of organisms from a common ancestor.

22. Tabulate the data appropriately in the box given below:
i. Chemical evolution
ii. Natural selection
iii. Panspermia theory
iv. Mutation theory

Answer:

Question 23.
“The coñstant use of antibiotics develops resistance in bacteria” Substantiate the above statement on the basis of the theory of natural selection.
Answer:

• Presence of antibiotics in body.
• Bacteria capable of and incapable of resisting antibiotics
• Those that are capable of resisting antibiotics will exist.
• Resistant bacteria produce more offspring.

Question 24.
Scientific study of the remnants, body parts. and imprints of primitive organisms are evidences on evolution.
a. What inferences do we arrive at, through such scientific studies?
b. How will you explain these inferences as evidences on evolution?
Answer:
a.

• Primitive fossils have simple structure.
• Recently formed fossils have complex structure.
• Certain fossils are connecting links between different species.

b.

• Organisms with complex structure are formed from those with simple structure.
• Certain fossils indicate the evolution of one species from another species.

Question 25.
A few concepts of scientists like Darwin and Malthus are given below. Classify them in the table given below.
a. Selection by nature leads to the diversity of species.
b. Rate of food production does not increase proportionately to the increase in population.
c. Those organisms that ovèrcome the unfavourable situations will survive.
d. Scarcity of food and starvation lead to struggle for existence.

Answer:
Concepts of Darwin
a. Selection by nature leads to the diversity of species.
c. Those organisms that overcome the unfavourable situations will survive.

Concepts of Matthus
b. Rate of food production does not increase proportionately to the increase in population.
d. Scarcity of food and starvation lead to struggle for existence.

Question 26.
An excerpt from the science article ‘Man and Evolution’ is given below. Analyse the excerpt and answer the questions.
Certain evolutionary features that make man different from other animals are included in evolutionary history. This helped him in his dominance over nature and other organisms. His interferences had created a negative impact on the existence of other organisms.

a. What are the features that make man different from other animals?
b. Has man’s interference led to Biodiversity deterioration as mentioned in the excerpt? Evaluate.

Answer:
a. High cranial capacity, ability to stand erect, ability to walk on two legs, ability to make and use machines and tools, cultural development.
b. Yes. Climate changes, deteriorating habitats, extinction.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 8 Notes The Paths Traversed by Life English Medium

Earth originated first, followed by Later so many diverse organisms were formed on the earth. These facts fascinated human beings always. Though many arguments originated in course of time, most of them were discarded for want of evidences. Scientific enquiries are going on even today to collect more evidences to make explanations more logical.

→ The Panspermia theory and the theory of chemical evolution are theories related to the origin of life on earth and are discussed even today.

→ Acquired characters : The characters developed during the life time of organisms.

→ Darwin’s finches : The finches that led Charles Darwin to the theory of natural selection.

→ Charles Darwin presented his Natural selection theory on the origin of species by means of natural selection.

→ Thomas Robert Malthus An economist, influenced Darwin’s speculations about the diversity of the beaks of finches.

→ Neo Darwinism : Modified version of Darwinism revised in the light of new information from the branches of genetics, cytology, geology and paleontology.

→ Homologous organs : Organs that are similar in structure and perform different functions.

→ Fossils: Are the remnants of primitive organisms.

→ Anthropoidea : The category which included humans, chimpanzee, gorilla, orangutan, gibbon and monkeys.

→ Cercopithecoidea : The category in which monkeys are included.

→ Hominoidea : The category which included humans, chimpanzee, gorilla, orangutan and gibbon.

Biology Notes for Class 10 Kerala Syllabus

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 7 Notes Genetics for the Future English Medium

Farmers traditionally adopted the’| method of selection and rearing of cattle and crops of superior hybrid variety. These methods can be considered as traditional biotechnology. But modern biotechnology includes the production of organisms with desired qualities by changing their genetic material. This unit explains how genetic engineering influences diverse area of life.

→ Biotechnology: The use of microorganisms and biological processes for industrial purpose.

→ Genetic engineering : Is the technology of controlling traits of organisms by bringing about desirable changes in the genetic constitution of organisms.

→ Genetic scissors : The enzyme used to cut genes.

→ Genetic glue : The enzyme used to join genes.

→ Vectors : Used to transfer a gene from one cell to another cell.

→ Gene therapy : Is a method of treatment in which the genes that are responsible for diseases are removed and normal functional genes are inserted in their place.

→ Gene mapping : The technology helped to identify the location of a gene in the DNA responsible for a particular trait.

→ Genome : The sum of genetic material present in an organism.

→ Junk genes : The nonfunctional genes.

→ DNA profiling : The technology of testing the arrangement of nucleotides.

Biology Notes for Class 10 Kerala Syllabus

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 6 Notes Unravelling Genetic Mysteries English Medium

The similarities between parents children are due to the transmission of characters from parents to offsprings. But are the characters of parents alone transmitted to offsprings? Why is it that only some of the characters of parents are expressed in offsprings? How do differences also occur along with similarities? Such questions and the assumptions related to them have arisen since very ancient times. This unit unravels the genetic mysteries.

→ Heredity : The transmission of features of parents to offsprings.

→ Variations : The features seen in offsprings that are different from their parents.

→ Genetics : The branch of science that deals with heredity and variation is called genetics.

→ Gregor Johann Mendel is considered as the father of Genetics.

→ Allele : A gene that controls a trait has different forms. The different forms of a gene are called alleles.

→ Two scientists, James Watson and Francis Crick, presented the double helical model of DNA.

→ Nucleotides: The units by which DNA molecule is made up of.

→ A nucleotide contains a sugar molecule, a phosphate molecule and a nitrogen base.

→ Protein molecule is synthesized by adding Amino acids as a result of action of mRNA, tRNA, rRNA.

→ The genetic constitution of female is 44

→ Crossing over: During the initial phase of meiosis, chromosomes pair and exchange their parts.

→ When gametes undergo fusion, the combination of allele changes.

→ Mutation : A sudden heritable change in the genetic constitution of an organism.

→ The XY Chromosomes of the father determine whether the child is male or female.

→ The change in skin colour, dark or light, is an adaptation to live under the sun.

Biology Notes for Class 10 Kerala Syllabus

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 5 Notes Soldiers of Defense English Medium

Though we live in the midst of germs, we are not susceptible to diseases. We have several mechanisms to prevent the entry of germs. Our body is equipped with a variety of de¬fense mechanisms like body covering, body secretions and body fluids. The body can be protected from diseases only if it can re¬spond properly against even mild attack of germs. Treatment is the ultimate defense strategy. Several modes of treatment have been developed according to the situations in different countries. This unit familiarizes the various soldiers of defense.

→ Defense : The ability of the body to prevent the entry of pathogens and to destroy those that have already entered the body.

→ Body coverings like skin and mucous mem-brane are the defense mechanisms of the body.

→ Body secretions like mucous, saliva, tear, hydrochloric acid, etc. destroy germs.

→ Skin : The protective covering of the body.

→ Body fluids like blood and lymph play an important role in defense mechanism.

→ White blood cells like neutrophil, basophil, eosinophil, monocyte and lymphocyte play a significant role in defense.

→ Inflammatory response: The defense mechanism in which when a wound occurs, that part swells up.

→ Phagocytosis : The process of engulfing and destroying germs. Monocytes and neutrophils are phagocytes.

→ Blood clotting is also a defense mechanism.

→ Non-specific defense mechanism : Is a mechanism that protects us from all pathogens without considering their characteristic features.

→ Antigens : Any foreign body that stimulates the defense mechanism.

→ Specific defense : The defense mechanism that identifies the structure of each antigen and destroys it specifically.

→ Antibodies : Certain proteins that act against

→ Lymph : The body fluid formed from the blood and reabsorbed into blood.

→ Immunization: Is the artificial method to make the defense cells alert against the attack of pathogens.

→ Vaccines : Are the substances used for artificial immunization.

→ Medicines : Substances either extracted from plants, animals or microorganisms or chemical substances synthesized in laboratories.

→ Antibiotics : Medicines that are extracted from microorganisms like bacteria, fungi, etc. and used to destroy bacteria.

→ On receiving unmatching blood, the antigen present in the donor’s blood and the antibody present in the recipient’s blood will react with each other and form a blood clot.

→ Vaccines : Substances used for synthesizing antibodies.

Biology Notes for Class 10 Kerala Syllabus

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 4 Notes Keeping Diseases Away English Medium

In order to maintain homeostasis, organisms keep their internal environment free from wastes. We are highly concerned about personal hygiene, but many of us do not give adequate attention to community hygiene. We conserve our external environment for the well being of nature and its countless species of living beings. This unit mainly deals with various types of diseases which adversely affect the health of a person.

→ Communicable diseases : Diseases caused by the invasion of pathogens into the body and are transmitted from one person to another.

→ Virus enters into the body through body fluids, air, mosquitoes and animals.

→ Aids : Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.

→ HIV : Human Immuno-deficiency Virus.

→ Bacteria multiply through binary fission.

→ Leptospira is the bacteria that causes rat fever.

→ Corynebacterium diphtheria is the pathogen of Diphtheria.

→ Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

→ The toxins produced by the fungi cause diseases.

→ Malaria is caused by Plasmodium, a protozoa.

→ Filariasis is caused by filarial worms that are spread by Culex mosquitoes.

→ Haemophilia : The condition in which excess blood is lost even through minor wounds.

→ Sickle cell anaemia : The condition in which the structure of haemoglobin changes and this in turn decreases its oxygen carrying capacity.

→ Cancer : A condition caused by uncontrolled division of cells and their spread to other tissues.

→ Life style diseases : Caused by unhealthy living style.

→ Animal diseases are caused by microorganisms like bacteria, virus.

→ Plant diseases are caused by microorganisms like bacteria, virus and fungi.

→ We can keep away diseases by practising healthy habits.

Biology Notes for Class 10 Kerala Syllabus

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 3 Notes Chemical Messages for Homeostasis English Medium

You have already understood that transmission of message takes place in the body through nerves in the form of electric signals. The transmission of message from one neuron to another takes place in the form of chemical signals. There are certain chemical substances namely hormones which play a significant role in cell to cell communication. Hormones are produced in glands and are discharged not through ducts but directly into the blood stream. In plants certain chemical substances namely plant growth regulators are present to control and coordinate life activities as in animals.

→ Endocrine glands : The glands which secrete hormones.

→ Hormones : Chemical messengers that regulate cellular activities secreted by endocrine glands. The hormones secreted by pancreas are Insulin and Glucagon.

→ The normal level of glucose in blood is 70-110 mg/100 ml.

→ The level of glucose in blood is maintained by the combined action of insulin and glucagon.

→ Diabetes is clinically referred to as a condition when the level of glucose before breakfast is above 126 mg/100 ml of blood.

→ Hypothyroidism : Under secretion of thyroxine.

→ Hyperthyroidism : Over secretion of thyroxine.

→ Cretinism : The condition due to the deficiency of thyroxine during the foetal stage leads to mental retardation and stunted growth.

→ Myxoedema : The condition due to the lack of thyroxine in adults.

→ Melatonin : The hormone secreted by pineal gland which helps in maintaining the rhythm of our daily activities.

→ Gigantism : The condition in which the production of somatotropin increases during growth phase, which leads to the excessive growth pf the body.

→ Dwarfism : Caused when the production of somatotropin decreases during growth phase.

→ Pheromones : Chemical substances that are secreted in trace amount to the surroundings, in order to facilitate communication among organisms.

→ Plant hormones : Auxin, abscisic acid, cytokinin, gibberellins and ethylene are plant hormones.

Biology Notes for Class 10 Kerala Syllabus

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions Chapter 8 Resource Wealth of India

Answer the following. Score 1 each

A. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
Wheat
Pulses
Maize
Answer:
Maize

Question 2.
Which of the following is a millet?
Barley
Ragi
Jute
Answer:
Ragi

Question 3.
Two-third of the total coffee production in India is from
Kerala
Karnataka
Andhra Pradesh
Answer:
Karnataka

Question 4.
A non-metallic mineral
Coal
Bouxite
Silver
Answer:
Coal

Question 5.
The largest agro-based industry in India.
Cotton textile industry
Jute industry
Sugar industry
Answer:
Cotton textile industry

Question 6.
The leading producer of sugarcane in India.
Uttar Pradesh
Bihar
Punjab
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh

Question 7.
The crop that is mainly cultivated in the Deccan Plateau region.
Jute
Cotton
Wheat
Answer:
Cotton

Question 8.
An example for a beverage crop.
Coffee
Rubber
Cardamom
Answer:
Coffee

Question 9.
Which of the following is a metallic mineral?
Coal
Gypsum
Manganese
Answer:
Manganese

Question 10.
A non-ferrous metallic mineral.
Silver
Chromite
Mica
Answer:
Silver

Question 11.
The ore of aluminium.
Pyrite
Bauxite
Mica
Answer:
Bauxite

Question 12.
The National Waterway passing through the inland waterway in Kerala.
NW 1
NW 2
NW 3
Answer:
NW 3

Question 13.
The most suitable means of transport for international trade
Air transport
Rail transport
Water transport
Road transport
Answer:
Water transport

Question 14.
The largest coalfield in India.
Digboi in Assam
Mumbai High in Maharashtra
Jhar in Odisha
Jharia in Jharkhand
Answer:
Jharia in Jharkhand

Question 15.
In which state is Narora Nuclear Power Plant located?
Gujarat
Karnataka
Uttar Pradesh
Rajasthan
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh

Question 16.
Which of the following is non-metallic mineral?
Iron ore
Mica
Manganese
Bauxite
Answer:
Mica

Question 17.
Laterite soil which is generally not suitable for other crops is good for the cultivation of
Sugarcane
Coffee
Rubber
Jute
Answer:
Rubber

Question 18.
Which of the following is a rabi crop?
Pulses
Cotton
Jute
Maize
Answer:
Pulses

Question 19.
The foreign country that assisted India’s iron and steel industrial firm in Bhilai.
Russia
Germany
England
USA
Ans:
Russia

Question 20.
The places in Tamil Nadu where nuclear power stations are established.
Answer:
Kalpakkam
Koodamkulam

Question 21.
Which places are linked by National Waterway III?
Answer:
Kollam – Kottappuram

Question 22.
Which places are linked by National Waterway 2?
Answer:
Sadia to Dubai

Question 23.
Name the six-lane superhighways connecting the four metropolitan cities Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata.
Answer:
The Golden’Quadrangle Super Highway

Question 24.
Which is the largest agro based industry in India?
Answer:
Cotton textile industry

Question 25.
Which state in India is the largest producer of rubber?
Answer:
Kerala

Question 26.
Name the largest coalfield in India.
Answer:
Jharia in Jharkhand

Question 27.
Name the first iron and steel plant established in South India.
Answer:
Visweswaraya Iron and Steel Ltd.

Question 28.
The Ganga – Brahmaputra delta region in West Bengal is known for
Tea plantation
Wheat cultivation
Cotton cultivation
Jute cultivation.
Answer:
Jute cultivation

Question 29.
Rourkela steel plant is established in collaboration with
Russia
Germany
United Kingdom
France
Answer:
Germany

Question 30.
The two Iron and Steel Plants established with the collaboration of Russia:
Answer:

1. Hindustan Steel Limited, Bhilai
2. Hindustan Steel Limited, Bokaro

Question 31.
The most important cotton textile centre in India.
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 32.
The state leading in the production of coffee in India.
Answer:
Karnataka

Question 33.
The Indian state leading in the production of both sugarcane and cane sugar.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh

B. Answer in a sentence each.

Question 1.
Where did petroleum mining first start in India?
Answer:
Digboi in Assam

Question 2.
The largest oil field in India.
Answer:
Mumbai High in Maharashtra

Question 3.
Which are the petroleum-producing states of India?
Answer:
Assam, Gujarat, Maharashtra

Question 4.
Which mineral is the less energy efficient coal? Where is it found in India?
Answer:

• Lignite
• Neyveli in Tamil Nadu

Question 5.
Which type is most of the coal found in India?
Answer:
Bituminous

Question 6.
Which are the nuclear power stations in the following states?

• Maharashtra
• Karnataka

Answer:

• Tarapur in Maharashtra
• Kaiga in Karnataka

Question 7.
Which is the largest public sector undertaking in India?
Answer:
The Indian Railway

Question 8.
Which was the first rail route in India?
Answer:
The 34 km long rail between Mumbai and Thane, started in 1853.

Question 9.
Which are the places linked by National WaterM’ay 4?
Answer:
Canal from Kakinada to Puducherry linking Godavari and Krishna (1095 km).

Question 10.
Which are the Corporations that handle international and domestic flights in India?
Answer:

• Air India – International flights
• Indian Airlines – Domestic flights

Question 11.
Which are the iron and steel plants started in 1959 and 1964 with Russian collaboration?
Answer:

• 1959 – Bhilai Steel Plant (Hindustan Steel Limited)
• 1964 – Bokaro Steel Plant (Hindustan Steel Limited)

Question 12.
In which states are the following iron ore mines located?

• Singhbhum
• Sundargarh

Answer:

• Singhbhum – Jharkhand
• Sundargarh – Odisha

Question 13.
Which is the largest private-sector iron and steel plant in India? In which state is it located?
Answer:

• Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO)
• Jamshedpur in Jharkhand state.

Question 14.
Why is cotton known as ‘universal fibre’?
Answer:
Cotton is used worldwide in the textile sector.

Question 15.
To which agricultural crops are the following terms related?

• Arabica
• Sucrose

Answer:

• Arabica – High-quality coffee seed produced in India.
• Sucrose – The juice extracted from sugarcane.

Question 16.
What are cash crops?
Answer:
Cash crops are those having industrial and commercial significance.

Question 17.
Write the climate suitable for Kharif crops.
Answer:

• High temperature
• High rainfall
• Cultivation is started by the beginning of monsoon and harvested by the end of monsoon.

Question 18.
Which are the most suitable soils for the cultivation of rice and wheat?
Answer:

• Rice: Alluvial soil
• Wheat: Well-drained alluvial soil

Question 19.
Plantation of spices are concentrated mostly to the ranges of Western Ghats. Why?
Answer:
Favourable factors of the ranges like well-drained forest soil or sandy soil and the tropical climate with large amount of rainfall.

Question 20.
Which is the fibre for jute industry? Where in India is it cultivated mainly?
Answer:

• Jute
• Jute is mainly cultivated in the Ganga Brahmaputra delta in West Bengal.

Question 21.
Copper is used in electrical goods industry. Why?
Answer:
Copper is a good conductor of electricity.

Question 22.
What is the advantage of railways?
Answer:
Rail transport is equally important for cargo as well as passenger transport.

Answer the following. Score 2 each

Question 1.
Which is the cropping season in which sowing period is in June and harvesting period is in early November? Write examples.
Answer:

• Kharif season
• Rice, cotton

Question 2.
What is rabi season?
Answer:
The cropping season in which the cultivation is started by the beginning of winter and harvested by the beginning of summer.

Question 3.
Which are the soils ideal for cotton cultivation?
Answer:

• Black soil of Deccan plateau.
• Alluvial soil ofNorth Indian Plain.

Question 4.
What are the raw materials for iron and steel industry?
Answer:

• Iron ore
• Manganese
• Dolomite
• Coal
• Limestone

Question 5.
What are the favourable geographical factors for the cultivation of diverse agricultural crops in India?
Answer:

• Suitable agricultural climate for different crops.
• Diverse topography.
• Fertility of soil.
• Availability of water.

Question 6.
What is Kharif season? Give example.
Answer:
The agricultural season in which the cultivation is started by the beginning of monsoon in June and harvested by the end of monsoon in early November. Eg. Rice, Maize.

Question 7.
Distinguish between metallic minerals and non-metallic minerals.
Answer:

• Minerals with metallic content are called metallic minerals. Eg. Iron ore.
• Minerals without metallic content are called non metallic minerals. Eg. Mica.

Question 8.
Which are the four types of iron ore found in India?
Answer:

1. Magnetite
2. Haematite
3. Limonite
4. Siderite

Question 9.
What are the advantages of water transport compared to road and railways?
Answer:

• The cheapest means of transport.
• Suitable for large scale cargo transport.
• Most suited for international trade.
• Does not cause environmental pollution.

Question 10.
What is the importance of agriculture in Indian economy?
Answer:

• Three-fourths of Indian population depend on agriculture.
• Agriculture is the source of raw materials for many industries.
• It makes the food basket richer.

Question 11.
Classify the following minerals as metallic and non-metallic.
Copper, Coal, Manganese, Mica
Answer:

Question 12.
How are the roads of India classified?
Answer:

• National Highways
• State Highways
• District Roads
• Village Roads

Question 13.
What are the conclusions to be drawn on the analysis of the location of the agro-based industries in relation to agricultural regions?
Answer:
All the agro-based industries of India are located near to places where the raw materials for them are cultivated. This enables to get raw materials cheaply and in plenty. For eg: Mumbai and Ahmedabad, the centres of cotton textile industry’ in India are located near to places where cotton is cultivated on a large scale.

Question 14.
Rail and road transports are not developed in north-east states of India and in the . regions lying close to the Himalayas. Why?
Idukki and Wayanad districts in Kerala have no railway lines. Why?
Answer:
The construction of road and railway network is difficult in mountainous regions, hilly areas, valleys and slopes: The above said regions belong to such places.

Question 15.
Which are the by-products obtained from petroleum?
Answer:

• Chemical fertilizers
• Artificial rubber
• Artificial fibre
• Vaseline

Question 16.
Write the names of the nuclear power plants in the states of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Answer:

• Rajasthan – Rawatbhata
• Gujarat – Kakrapaara

Question 17.
Where are the plantation of spices concentrated in Kerala? Why?
Answer:

• Plantations of spices are concentrated mostly to the ranges of the Western Ghats.
• The reasons are the well drained forest soil or sandy soil and the tropical climate with large amount of rainfall.

Question 18.
Choose the correct order related to the National waterways in India.

Hints:
A. I and II are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. I and IV are correct
D. II and III are correct
Answer:
C. I and IV are correct.

Question 19.
Choose the cash crops from the list given below. Justify your answer.
Rice
Cotton
Wheat
Millets
Answer:
Cotton
Cotton has industrial and commercial significance. It is used widely in textile sector.

Question 20.
The given term is about a major crop in India. Identify the crop and write the states that produce this crop.
Arabica
Answer:
The term Arabica is related to coffee. It is the high quality coffee seed that India pro¬duces which has great demand in the international market.

The states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu produce coffee.

Question 21.
Copper and mica are used in electrical goods. industry. What feature of these minerals is the reason for this?
Answer:

• Copper – Conductor
• Mica – Insulator

Question 22.
Choose the correct pair.

I. a. iii, b. iv, e. ii, d. i
II. a. i, b. ii, e. iii, d. iv
III. a. ii b. iii, c.i, d. iv
IV. a. iv, b. i, c. Hi, d. ii
Answer:
I. a. iii, b. iv, c. ii, d. i

Question 23.
Distinguish between Kharif and Rabi cropping seasons.
Answer:

• In Kharif season, the sowing period is on the onset of moon and harvesting period is in the end of monsoon.
• In Rabi season, the sowing period is in the beginning of winter and harvesting period is in the beginning of summer.

Question 24.
In the production of petroleum, Digboi and Mumbai High are significant in different ways. How?
Answer:

• Petroleum mining started first in Digboi in Assam.
• Mumbai High is the largest oil field in India.

Question 25.
Which soil is suitable for the jute cultivation? Which is the major jute producing region?
Answer:

• Well drained alluvial soil.
• Ganga – Brahmaputra Delta in West Bengal.

Answer the following. Score 3 each

Question 1.
Write the geographical conditions for the cultivation of sugarcane. What is the significance of this crop?
Answer:
Sugarcane, which is a tropical crop requires hot and humid climate for growth. Black soil and alluvial soil are ideal.
Sugarcane is the raw material for sugar industry.

Question 2.
What are the geographical conditions for the cultivation of rice? ‘
Answer:

• Temperature: High temperature above 24°C.
• Rainfall: Annual rainfall above 150 cm.
• Soil: Alluvial soil.

Question 3.
Write the geographical conditions for the cultivation of wheat. Wheat cultivation in India is mainly dependent on irrigation. Why?
Answer:

• Wheat is a temperate crop.
• Temperature and rainfall: A temperature of 10°C to 26°C and an annual rainfall of 75 cm are needed.
• Soil: Well-drained alluvial soil is suitable.
• It is because wheat is a winter crop.

Question 4.
Which food crop is cultivated in both summer and winter in India? Write the geographical conditions for its cultivation.
Answer:

• Maize is cultivated in both winter and summer.
• 75 cm of average rainfall.
• Well-drained fertile soil is ideal.

Question 5.
What are the geographical conditions for the cultivation of tea?
Answer:

• Hill slopes are suitable for cultivation.
• Temperatures varying from 25°C to 30°C and an annual rainfall of 200 cm to 250 cm are desirable.
• Well-drained soil with rich humus content.

Question 6.
Write the geographical conditions required for rubber cultivation.
Answer:

• Temperature ranging above 25°C is required.
• Annual rainfall of over 150 cm is ideal.
• Laterite soil is ideal.

Question 7.
Mumbai is the largest cotton textile manufacturing centre in India. What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

• Easy availability of abundant raw materials from neighbouring regions.
• Cheap availability of power.
• Availability of freshwater.
• Export and import facilities of Mumbai port.
• Availability Of human resources.

Question 8.
What are the factors influencing the location of industries?
Answer:

• Availability of raw materials
• Availability of energy sources
• Transport facilities
• Nearness to ports
• Availability of freshwater
• Availability of human resources

Question 9.
List the following crops as Kharif rabi and said.
Maize, mustard, fruits, vegetables, wheat, jute
Answer:

• Kharif crops: maize, jute
• Rabi crops: mustard, wheat
• Zaid crops: fruits, vegetables

Question 10.
Classify the following crops as food crops, cash crops and plantation crops.
Rubber, cotton, wheat, sugarcane, coffee, rice
Answer:

• Food crops: wheat, rice
• Cash crops: cotton, sugarcane
• Plantation crops: rubber, coffee

Question 11.
Classify the following crops as tropical crops, fibre crops and beverage crops.
Tea, sugarcane, jute, rice, coffee, cotton
Answer:

• Tropical crops: sugarcane, rice
• Fibre crops: jute, cotton
• Beverage crops: tea, coffee.

Question 12.
Which are the major nuclear minerals and where are they found? Also write the names of nuclear power plants located in South India.
Answer:

• Humid climate.
• Uranium and thorium are the major nuclear minerals. Rich reserves of uranium are found in the states of Jharkhand, Rajasthan and Maharashtra.
• Thorium produced from ilmenite and monazite deposits are largely found in the coastal sands of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
• Nuclear power plants in South India: Kalpakkam and Koodamkulam in Tamil Nadu. Kaiga in Karnataka.

Question 13.
Which metropolitan cities are connected by ‘Golden Quadrilateral Super Highway What is its main feature? Name the department responsible for the construction of this road.
Answer:

• Golden Quadrilateral Super Highway connects the metropolitan cities of Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi and Chennai.
• This is a six-lane superhighway.
• National Highway Authority of India is responsible.

Question 14.
What is the basis for the classification of railways in India as broad gauge, metre gauge and narrow gauge? Which rail gauge has the maximum length in India? Which guage tracks are replaced and how?
Answer:

• Railways is classified based on guage width of rails.
• Broad gauge track has maximum length of about 74%.
• Metre guage and narrow guage are replaced to broad guage.

Question 15.
The following statements are related to the cropping seasons in India. Identify the crop season and write one more feature of that season.
i. Rice is the main crop
ii. Wheat is the main crop
iii. Fruits are the main crop
Answer:
i. Kharif season : Sowing period is on the onset of mansoon and harvesting period is at the end of mansoon.
ii. Rabi season: Sowing period is at the beginning of winter and harvesting period is at the beginning of summer.
iii. Zaid season: Sowing period is at the beginning of summer and harvesting is at the beginning of monsoon.

Question 16.
India stands second in the world in jute production.
a. What are the geographical factors for the cultivation of jute?
b. Which is the major jute producing region in India?
c. Jute products have high demand in international market. Why?
Answer:
a. Hot and humid conditions are ideal for jute cultivation. High temperature and rainfall above 150 cm are essential for jute cultivation. Well drained alluvial soil is required.
b. The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region of West Bengal is the major jute producing region.
c. Due to low cost.

Question 17.
Which crop is known as ‘Universal fibre’? What are the geographical conditions for its cultivation? What is the significance of this crop to India?
Answer:
Cotton is known as universal fibre because it is used world wide in the textile sector.
i. Frost-free growing season.
ii 20° C to 30°C temperature.
iii Small amount of annual rainfall.
iv. Black soil and alluvial soil are most suitable.
Cotton is the raw material for textile industry.  Cotton textile industry is the largest agro-based industry in India.

Question 18.
Answer the questions based on minerals in India.
a. Where are most of the mineral resources of India found?
b. Shimoga in Karnataka, Singhbhum in Jharkhand and Mayurbhanj in Odisha are the mining centers of a major metallic mineral. Which is that metallic mineral?
c. Manganese is a metallic mineral largely used in the iron and steel industry. Write another use of manganese.
Answer:
a. Most of the mineral resources of India are found in the igneous and metamorphic rocks of the Peninsular plateau.
b. Iron ore.
c. Manganese is also used Jo make ferroalloys.

Question 19.
Answer the questions related to the iron and steel industries in India. Which is the largest private sector iron and steel plant in India? Where is it located?
ii. Which is the iron and steel plant established in collaboration with Britain in 1962? Where is it located?
iii. What is the main feature of Visweswarayya Iron and Steel Plant?
Answer:
i. Tata Iron and Steel Company, Jamshedpur in Jharkhand.
ii. Durgapur Steel Plant (Hindustan Steel Limited) in West Bengal.
iii. First Iron and Steel Plant in South India.

Question 20.
What is the significance of non-conventional sources of energy in the modern period? Which are the non-conventional energy sources in India?
Answer:

• Non-conventional energy sources are cheap, renewable and environment friendly.
• Solar energy, wind energy, wave energy, biogas.

Question 21.
Reforms have been implemented from time to time in Indian railways which is important for cargo as well as passenger transport. Write any three such reforms.
Answer:

• Meter guage and narrow guage tracks are replaced as broad guage.
• The steam engines have given way to diesel and electric locomotives.
• Metro rail projects are being established iii major cities.

Question 22.
The presence of mineral resources has made some regions industrial centre. Substantiate this statement based on any three iron and steel industrial centre of India.
Answer:

1. Bokaro Steel Plant, Jharkhand: The factors responsible for this industrial centre are iron ore and manganese from Singhbhum and coal from sharia.
2. Rourkela Steel Plant, Odisha: The factors are iron ore and manganese from Sundargarh and Mayurbhanj.
3. Visweswarayya Iron and Steel Ltd., Bhadravathi, Karnataka: The factors are iron ore and manganese deposits from Bellary, Chikmagalur and Shimoga in Karnataka.

Question 23.
Which are the regions in India where inland water transport is largely used?
Answer:

• Ganga – Brahmaputra rivers and their tributaries.
• Godavari-Krishna rivers and their tributaries.
• Buckingham Canal of Andhra – Tamil Nadu region.

Question 24.
Complete the table as column A should indicate different types of minerals and column B their examples.

Answer:
a. Iron ore
b. Non – ferrous metals
c. Mineral fuels

Question 25.
Conventional energy sources are getting exhausted, Suggest suitable remedies indicating their relative advantages.
Answer:
Advantages

• The use of non-conventional sources of energy is the remedy.
• The sources of non-conventional energy are solar energy, wind energy, wave energy, tidal energy and biogas.
• Non-conventional energy sources are renewable.
• They are environment friendly.
• They are cheap.

Question 26.
Write a note in the possibilities of nuclear energy in India.
Answer:
Nuclear energy in India
Nuclear minerals: Uranium and thorium are the major nuclear minerals.
Mines: There are .rich reserves of uranium in Jharkhand, Rajasthan and Maharashtra. Thorium is produced from ilmenite and monazite deposits largely found in the coastal sands of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Nuclear power stations in India are :

• Tarapur, Maharashtra
• Kawabata, Rajasthan
• Kalpakkam and Koodamkulam, Tamil Nadu
• Kaiga, Karnataka
• Kakrapra, Gujarat
• Narora, Utter Pradesh

Question 27.
Elucidate the construction and management of State Highways, District Roads and village Roads.
Answer:
State Highways: State Highways are the major roads connecting the state capitals with the district headquarters. State governments are responsible for the construction and maintenance of such roads.

District Roads: District roads are those linking the district headquarters with the important places within the district. These roads are built and maintained by the district Panchayats.

Village Roads: Village roads are those ensuring the domestic movement within the villages. More than 80% of the roads in India are village roads. The construction and maintenance of such roads are done by the local self governments.

Question 28.
What is the significance of non – conventional sources of energy in the modern world? Suggest any two non – conventional sources of energy that can be used in Kerala.
Answer:

• Non – conventional sources of energy are
• Cheap
• Renewable ‘
• Environment friendly
• Non – conventional sources of energy that can be used in Kerala are solar energy, waves – tidal energy, wind energy and organic gases.

Question 29.
What are conventional source of energy? Their use is restricted. Why?
Answer:

• The mineral resources such as coal, petroleum, etc. are being harnessed for energy requirement since ages. Hence such energy sources are called conventional sources.
• The use of conventional energy sources are restricted due to the following.
• These are not renewable.
• These are getting exhausted.
• The burning of these fuels creates large scale environmental pollution.

Answer the following. Score 4 each

• Question 1.
  The map gives the distribution of the cultivation of a major crop in India.
  
  a. Which is the crop?
  b. What are the geographical conditions for its cultivation?
  c. Name the states leading in its production.
  Answer:
  a. Wheat

b. Temperature: 10°C to 26°C

• Annual rainfall: 75 cm
• Well drained alluvial soil is ideal.

c. The leading producers of wheat in India are Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana.

Question 2.
Mark the following geoinformation in the given map.
a. The state which is the leading producer of sugarcane and sugar.
b. The state which is the leading producer of tea in India.
c. The largest centre of cotton textile industry.
d. The steel plant established at Sundargarh in Odisha in collaboration with Germany in 1959.

Answer:
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Assam
c. Mumbai
d. Rourkela Iron and Steel Plant (Hindustan Steel Limited)

Question 3.
What is the importance of agriculture in Indian economy?
Answer:

• India is an agrarian country.
• Three fourth of the people of India depend on agriculture and related occupations for livelihood.
• Agriculture sector is the source of raw materials for many industries.
• It makes the food basket rich.

Question 4.
Write a note on the agricultural seasons of India and the crops cultivated.
Answer:

• India has three agricultural or cropping seasons:
• Kharif season: The sowing period at the beginning of monsoon in June and harvesting period by the end of monsoon in the early days of November. The major crops of this period are rice, maize, cotton, jute, etc.
• Rabi season: The sowing period is by the beginning of winter in mid-November and harvesting period by the beginning of summer in March. The major crops of this period are wheat, tobacco, mustard, etc.
• Zaid season: The period when the cultivation is started by the beginning of summer and harvested by the beginning of monsoon. The major crops are fruits and vegetables.

Question 5.
Compared to road transport, what are the advantages of rail, water and air transport?
Answer:
Each means of transport has its own advantage. Road transport links the rural and urban centres scattered throughout the country. But the other means of transport have certain advantages over road transport.

Rail transport

• Important for cargo as well as passenger transport.
• Plays a decisive role in industrial development.
• Suitable for long distance travel and cargo.

Water transport

• Cheapest means of transport.
• Suitable for large scale cargo transport.
• Does not cause environmental pollution.
• Most ideal for international trade.

Air transport

• Suitable for rugged terrain and in places which cannot be reached by roads and railways.
• Most speedy form of transport.

Question 6.
Which are the raw materials required for iron and steel industries? Are all the major iron and steel industries located where all raw materials are available? Why do you think is the reason for their location in those places?
Answer:
The raw materials required for iron and steel industries are iron ore, coal, manganese and limestone.
The major iron and steel industries of India are located in places where raw materials are available in plenty. The Chotanagpur plateau and the Damodar valley of Peninsular plateau including the states of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal are the mineral belts of India.

The coal from Damodar valley, iron ore from Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Jharkhand, manganese from Odisha, hydroelectricity from Hirakud and Damodar valley projects, thermal power from the thermal power stations of Damodar belt, nearness to Kolkata port, good road and railway network, availability of fresh water and easy availability of human resources are the factors for the location of iron and steel industries in the northeast of Peninsular India. The cost of production can be reduced by setting up industrial units here.

Question 7.
Agro-based industries and mineral-based industries are mainly concentrated in the Great Northern Plains and Peninsular Plateau respectively. Explain.
Answer:
Industries are formed in areas where locational factors are favourable. The agricultural operations in India are mainly done in North Indian plains. Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of sugarcane in India. Naturally, the sugar industries are concentrated in these areas. Jute is produced in West Bengal, Assam and Odisha. As a result, jute industries are located in these areas. Cotton textile industry is the largest agro-based industry in India. It is concentrated in the cotton producing states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, etc.

In India, the minerals are mainly mined from the north east, south east and central parts of “Peninsular plateau. As a result, a large number of mineral based industries are concentrated here. The major minerals mined from here are iron ore, manganese, coal, limestone, bauxite, copper and mica. Mineral based industries are concentrated in the states of Jharkhand, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Andhra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.

Question 8.
Answer the questions based on the network of roads in India.
a. Which category of road is the most in India? Who constructs and maintains these roads?
b. Which category of roads links state capitals. and major cities? Who is responsible for the construction and management of these roads?
c. Which are the places linked by State Highways?
Answer:
a. Morethan 80% of the roads in India are village roads. The construction and mainte¬nance of these roads are done by the local self-government.

b. National Highways link the state capitals and major cities. The Union Ministry is responsible for the construction and management of these roads.

c. State Highways connect the state capitals with the district headquarters.

Question 9.
In which states and coastal plains are the following ports situated?
a. Paradweep
b. Mangalore
c. Tuticorin
d. Kandla
Answer:

Question 10.
Which is the largest mineral based industry in India? Write the features of this industry using the hints given.
Hints:
Raw materials
Locational factors
Mining possibilities
Answer:

• Iron and steel industry is the largest mineral-based industry in India.
• Raw materials: Iron ore, coal, manganese, limestone and dolomite.
• Locational factors: Availability of raw materials, transportation facilities, availability of water, export facilities, availability of labour, cheap availability of power, etc.
• Mining possibilities: Iron is extracted from iron ore. Nearly 20% of the total iron ore reserves in the world is in India. The major mining centres of iron ore in India are :
  Sundargarh, Mayurbhanj – Odisha Singhbhum – Jharkhand Bellary, Chikmagalur – Karnataka
• Manganese: This is a metallic mineral largely used in the iron and steel industry. Odisha, Karnataka and Maharashtra are the leading producers.
• Coal: This is the major source of thermal power in India. West Bengal, Jharkhand and Odisha are the major producing states.

Question 11.
Hints about two agricultural crops of India are given. Identify the crops and write the geographical conditions for their cultivation.
A. Cultivated in hill slopes with well-drained soil rich in humus content.
B. The raw material for the largest agro-based industry in India.
Answer:

A.Tea:

• 25°C to 30°C of temperature.
• Annual rainfall range of200 to 250 cm.
• Well-drained soil rich in humus content.

B. Cotton:

• 20°C to 30°C of temperature.
• Small amount of annual rainfall.
• Black soil and alluvial soil.

Question 12.
Identify the regions where the following agricultural crops are cultivated. Also write the geographical conditions for their cultivation.
Rubber
Coffee
Answer:
Rubber: Rubber is mainly cultivated in Kerala. Certain parts of Tamil Nadu and the Andaman Nicobar Islands have small scale rubber cultivation. Rubber cultivation requires temperature above 25°C and rainfall of more than 150cm. Laterite soil is suitable.

Coffee: Coffee plantations of India are confined to the Western Ghat ranges of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Two-third of the total production is from Karnataka. Moderate temperature and high rainfall are required for coffee cultivation.

Question 13.
Write the reason for the following.
Rice is cultivated widely in Kerala, but wheat is not cultivated.
Hint: Answer based on geographical requirements.
Answer:
Rice requires high temperature (above 24°C) and a good amount of rainfall (more than 150cm). These conditions favour rice cultivation in Kerala. But wheat is cultivated mainly in temperate regions. It requires 10°C to 26°C temperature and 75cm of rainfall for its cultivation. These conditions are not present in Kerala, which is a tropical region.

Alluvial soil is suitable for rice cultivation. Well drained alluvial soil is ideal for wheat cultivation. Kerala which receives more than 200cm rainfall does not have well drained alluvial soil.
Since the above mentioned geographical factors are not present in Kerala, wheat is not cultivated here.

Question 14.
The iron and steel industries of India are located at places with raw material availability. Explain.
Answer:

Question 15.
Indian roads are classified based on the construction and management. Explain.
Answer:
Based on construction and management, roads in India are classified into four;
1. National Highways: The major roads in the country linking the state capitals, major cities and ports. The Union Ministry is responsible for their construction and management.

2. State Highways: The major roads in a state connecting the state capitals with the district headquarters. State governments are responsible for their construction and management.

3. District Roads: Roads linking the district headquarters with the important places within the district. These roads are built and maintained by district panchayaths.

4. Village Roads: Roads which ensure domestic movement within the villages. These roads are constructed and maintained by local self government.

Question 16.
Rice and wheat are the major food crops of India. But the geographical conditions required for their cultivation are different. Write these differences.
Answer:

• Rice requires high temperature of above 24°C and a good amount of rainfall, more than 150cm. But wheat requires 10° to 26°C temperature and 75cm of rainfall.
• Alluvial soil is suitable for both the crops. But wheat requires well drained alluvial soil.
• Rice is a Kharif crop while wheat is rabi crop.
• Rice is a tropical crop while wheat is a temperate crop.

Question 17.
Which ore the nuclear minerals and the state where they are found in India? Which are the nuclear power plants in India?
Answer:
Uranium and thorium are the major nuclear minerals. There are rich reserves of uranium in the states of Jharkhand, Rajasthan and Maharashtra. Thorium is produced from limestone and monazite deposits largely found in the coastal sands of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

The nuclear power plants in India:

• Tarapur, Maharashtra.
• Rawatbhata, Rajasthan.
• Kalpakkam and Koodamkulam, Tamil Nadu.
• Kaiga, Karnataka.
• Kakrapaara, Gujarat.
• Narora, Uttar Pradesh.

Question 18.
Non-conventional sources of energy are utilised today in the place of conventional sources of energy. Why?
Answer:

Question 19.
Examine the advantages of water transport in India. Also write the major waterways in India. ,
Answer:
Advantages of water transport:

• The cheapest means of transport.
• Suitable for large scale cargo transport.
• Does not cause environmental pollution.
• Most suited for international trade.
• Waterways in India: Inland water transport and marine transport are the two classifications.

Inland water transport: Water bodies like rivers, lakes and canals are used for inland water transport.

• Inland water transport in India is largely concentrated in,
• Ganga-Brahmaputra rivers and their tributaries.
• Godavari-Krishna rivers and their tributaries.
• Buckingham canal of Andhra-Tamil Nadu region.
• Mandovi and Zuvari rivers of Goa.
• Backwaters of Kerala.

National Waterways of India

• NW 1: Allahabad to Haldia in river Ganga (1620 km)
• NW 2: Sadia to Dubri in river Brahmaputra (891 km)
• NW 3: West Coast Canal in Kerala from Kollam to Kottappuram (205 km)
• NW4: Canal from Kakinada to Puducherry linking Godavari-Krishna (1095km)
• NW 5: Brahmani – Mahanadi delta river system linked to east-coast canal (623 km)

Marine transport: There are about 12 major and 185 minor ports situated in the west and east coasts of India. These ports have great significance in international trade.

Question 20.
Write the relevance of inland water transport in India.
Answer:

• In India, water bodies like rivers, lakes and canals are used for inland water transport.
• Inland water transport is used for passenger and cargo transport.
• Suitable for fishing.
• Utilized for tourism.

Answer the following. Score 5/6 each

Question 1.
Which are the major food crops of India? Write the climatic conditions for their cultivation. Name the states leading in their production also.
Answer:
The crops which can be directly consumed as food are food crops.

Question 2.
Prepare a note Of any three cash crops cultivated in India, the geographical conditions for their cultivation and the states
leading in ‘heir cultivation.
Answer:
Cash crops are those having industrial and commercial significance. These are the raw- materials for agro based industries. Cotton, jute and sugarcane are the major cash crops.

Sugarcane: Sugarcane, a tropical crop, requires hot and humid climate, requires hot and humid climate.
Alluvial soil and black soil are suitable. The leading sugarcane producing state is Uttar Pradesh followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Sugar and jaggery are produced from sugarcane.

Cotton: Cotton is a fibre crop. Cotton requires frost-free growing season, 20°C to 30°C temperature and small amount of rainfall.
Black soil and alluvial soil are suitable. Maharashtra and Gujarat are the leading producers. Cotton is the raw material for cotton textile industry.

Jute: Jute is also a fibre crop. Hot and humid conditions are ideal for its cultivation. High temperature and rainfall above 150 cm are essential. Well drained alluvial soil is required. The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region of West . Bengal is the major jute producing region.

Question 3.
By analysing the various means of transportation, prepare a seminar on the topic ‘ ‘Influence of transportation on the life of the people of India. ’
Answer:
Seminar
Topic: ‘Influence of transportation on the life of the people of India.’
Transport routes are considered as the lifeline of a nation. They connect different comers of the country and bring people together. Efficient mode of transport is essential for ensuring the infrastructure in the areas of production and to bring the products to the consumers.The role played by transportation routes in the process of urbanization, in addition to industrialisation is decisive.

Transportation helped in linking rural and urban areas and expediting the process of urbanization. Modes of transport are selected in accordance with the physical characteristics of each region. The various means of transportation in India are discussed below.

Road transport: Road transport is the most important means to link the rural and urban centres scattered throughout the country. India is one of the countries of the world with a broad network of roads. The influence of topography is decisive in the building and development of roads. Road networks are mainly found in the Northern Plains, the coastal plains and in the Deccan Plateau. But road network is comparatively less in the Himalay an region and in the North-Eastern states. In India roads are classified based on the construction and management.

• National Highways: The major roads in the country that link state capitals, major cities and ports. Construction and management of these roads are done by the Union Ministry.
• State Highways: They are the major roads in a state and link state capitals with district headquarters. The construction and maintenance are done by the State Governments.
• District Roads: These link district headquarters with important places within a district. The construction and maintenance are done by District Panchayats.
• Rural Roads: Village roads ensure domestic movement. These are constructed and maintained by local self government.

Golden Quadrangle Super Highway is the six lane superhighways, connecting the metropolitan, cities of Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai. The National Highway Authority oflndia is responsible for such roads.

Railways: India has the largest network of railways in Asia. It is the suitable means of transport for both the passenger and heavy’ cargo transport. Railway network is seen more in Great Plains, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu. For administrative convenience, the Indian Railway is divided into 16 zones. Metro rail projects are being established in cities

Water transport: The cost of construction and maintenance of water transport routes is less compared to that of road and railway networks. Moreover, this does not cause environmental pollution. It is suitable for large scale cargo transport. Rivers, canals and long coastline increase the possibility of water transport in India. Water transport is divided into marine transport and inland water-transport. Transportation through the rivers and lakes inside the land is known as inland water transport.

India’s inland water transport is concentrated in the river Ganga, Brahmaputra and in their tributaries, river Godavari-Krishna and in tributaries, in Buckingham canals of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, river Mandovi and river Suvari in Goa and in the backwaters of Kerala. India has a long coastline. The west and east coasts of India have immense potential for marine transport. The 12 major ports and 185 minor ports on the east and west coasts of India play a decisive role in international trade and in the country’s economy.

Airways: Airways are the most speedy and the most expensive mode of transportation. In rug¬ged terrain and in places which cannot be reached by roads and railways, airways are the only means of transportation. The air traffic in India is under the control of the Airport Authority of India. There are 126 airports including 11 international airports under this establishment. The international services are handled by Air India and domestic flights by Indian Airlines. A number of private companies also operate flight service. Means of transport thus play a decisive role in the economic progress, cultural unity and national integration.

Question 4.
Give an account of the iron and steel industries in India.
Answer:
The following are the iron and steel industries in India.
i. Tata Iron and Steel Company(TISCO) :
if was established in 1907 at Jamshedpur by Jamshedji Tata. This is the largest private-sector iron and steel plant. It is in the state of Jharkhand.

ii. Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Limited (VISL): This plant was set up in 1923 at Bhadravati in Shimoga district of Karnataka. It is the first iron and steel plant in South India.

iii. Bhilai steel plant: It is in Durg in Chhattisgarh state. It was established in collaboration with Russia in 1959. This plant mainly produces railway sleepers and beams.

iv. Durgapur steel plant: It is in Durgapur in Burdwan district of West Bengal. It was established in collaboration with Britain in 1962.

v. Rourkela steel plant: It is at Rourkela in the Sundergarh distriót of Odisha. It was established in collaboration with Germany in
1959.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions Chapter 9 Financial Institutions and Services

Answer the following. Score 1 each

Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following has the power to regulate the financial institutions in India?
Commercial banks
Reserve Bank of India
Ministry of Finance
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India

Question 2.
The banks established in 1975 to provide banking services in rural areas.
NABARD
Regional Rural Banks
Co-operative Banks
Answer:
Regional Rural Banks

Question 3.
The deposit that allows to deposit and withdraw money many times in a day.
Current deposit
Recurring deposit
Saving deposit
Answer:
Current deposit

Question 4.
Industrial Finance Corporation of India is an example for
Commercial Banks
Development Banks
Non Banking Financial Institution
Answer:
Development Banks

Question 5.
An example for specialised bank in India
NABARD
Bharatiya Mahila bank
Mudra bank
Answer:
NABARD

Question 6.
Kudumbasree and Self Help Groups for men are examples for
Co-operative bank
Non banking finance company
Micro finance
Answer:
Micro finance

Question 7.
Which of the following is not related to primary co-operative banks?
Area of functioning is limited
Apex body in the state co-operative sector.
Function in villages
Answer:
Apex body in the state co-operative sector.

Question 8.
The deposit not accepted by commercial banks
Current deposit
Share deposit
Saving deposit
Answer:
Share deposit

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a function of RBI?
Printing of notes
Controlling credit
Banker’s bank
Accepting deposits
Answer:
Accepting deposits

Question 10.
Which is true about current deposit?
High interest rate
Low interest rate
No interest
Receive deposits monthly
Answer:
No interest

Question 11.
The aim of MUDRA Bank.
Women empowerment
Loan to small scale entrepreneurs
Construction of house
Provide high rate of interest
Answer:
Loan to small scale entrepreneurs

Question 12.
Example for micro finance.
Kudumbasree
K.S.F.E.
L.I.C.
U.T. I.
Answer:
Kudumbasree

Question 13.
The deposit that does not receive any interest.
Saving deposit
Current deposit
Fixed deposit
Recurring deposit
Answer:
Current deposit

Question 14.
The banks which have been established to help low income groups, small scale industrialists and migrant labourers.
MUDRA bank
Development banks
Payment banks
Co-operative banks
Answer:
Payment banks

Question 15.
Name any two commercial banks.
Answer:

1. State Bank of India
2. Allahabad Bank

Question 16.
Which among the following is not an aim of co-operative banks?
Provide loans to public.
Protect the villagers from private money lenders.
Provide long-term loans for the modernization of industries.
Encourage saving habit.
Answer:
Provide long-term loans for the modernization of industries.

Question 17.
Write one feature of the EXIM Bank of India.
Answer:
Provides loans for exporting and importing products.

Question 18.
Commercial banks provide its current account holders a facility to withdraw money over and above the balance in the account. Identify the name of this facility.
Answer:
Overdraft

Question 19.
Co-operation, self help and mutual help are the working principles of
Commercial banks
Co-operative banks
NABARD
Answer:
Co-operative banks

Question 20.
Which among the following deposits receives the highest rate of interest?
Savings deposit
Fixed deposit
Recurring deposit
Answer:
Fixed deposit

Question 21.
The banker to the Central and State Governments in India.
Bank of India
Reserve Bank of India
State Bank of India
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India

Question 22.
‘Women empowerment is India’s empowerment ’ was the slogan of
MUDRA Bank
Bharatiya Mahila Bank
State Bank of India
Answer:
Bharatiya Mahila Bank

Question 23.
The deposit that does not receive any interest
Savings deposit
Fixed deposit
Current deposit
Recurring deposit
Answer:
Current deposit

Question 24.
Which of the following bank was not merged with SBI in 2017?
Bharatiya Mahila Bank
State Bank of Travancore
State Bank of Mysore
MUDRA Bank
Answer:
MUDRA Bank

Question 25.
The major financial institution in India working for the protection of individuals life and health.
Answer:
Life Insurance Corporation of India

Question 26.
The biggest bank in India
Answer:
State Bank of India

Complete the statement suitably

Question 1.
In India, the ………………… issues one rupee note and subsidiary coins.
Answer:
Finance Ministry

Question 2.
……………. are the institutions that undertake financial transactions like deposit and loan.
Answer:
Financial institutions

Question 3.
The banks which are registered in India but have their headquarters abroad are called ………………………..
Answer:
Private foreign banks

Question 4.
The banks that are set up in 1975 to provide banking services to rural areas are ……………………
Answer:
Regional Rural Ranks

Question 5
…………………. banks are the oldest banks and have many branches.
Answer:
Commercial

Question 6.
The deposit that does not offer any interest is …………………
Answer:
current deposit

Question 7.
The interest on ……………….. is more than the interest on deposit.
Answer:
loan

Question 8.
………………. helps customers to withdraw money without stepping into the banks.
Answer:
ATM

Question 9.
Banks offer ………………. to keep costly articles of their customers.
Answer:
locker facility

Question 10.
The first insurance company of India was set up in 1818 in ………………….
Answer:
Kolkata

Answer in a sentence each

Question 1.
Which institution in India has the sole right to print currency?
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India

Question 2.
How can we distinguish the currency notes of India from the currency notes of other countries?
Answer:
All the currency notes in India bear the emblem of the Reserve Bank of India.

Question 3.
Name the Central Bank in India.
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India

Question 4.
Which is the first modem bank in India?
Answer:
Bank of Hindustan started in 1770

Question 5.
What was the major factor that led to bank nationalization in India?
Answer:
The view that banks should operate with the objective of social progress.

Question 6.
What were the reforms that occurred in banking sector in 1969 and 1980?
Answer:
14 banks were nationalized in 1969 and 6 banks were nationalized in 1980.

Question 7.
In which deposit is a certain amount deposited monthly for a fixed period?
Answer:
Recurring deposit

Question 8.
How do banks mobilize sum to give as loans?
Answer:
By accepting deposits from the public.

Question 9.
Name the facility that banks provide to send money from one place to another without the help of bank account.
Answer:
Demand draft

Question 10.
What is plastic money?
Answer:
Without keeping money in hand, all monetary requirements can be fulfilled by using cards. Such cards are called plasting money.

Answer the following. Score 2 each

Question 1.
Which are the institutions in India that issue currency notes and coins?
Answer:

• In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues all currency notes except one rupee and subsidiary coins.
• The Ministry of Finance issues one rupee note and subsidiary coins.

Question 2.
What is the criteria followed by RBI to issue note?
Answer:
The proportional value of gold and foreign exchange is kept as reserve for issuing notes of a particular amount.

Question 3.
How does the availability money supply increase in Indian economy?
Answer:

• Distribution of printed currency by RBI.
• Through credit creation by RBI.

Question 4.
How does RBI act as banker to government?
Answer:

• RBI accepts deposits from central and state governments and sanctions loans to them.
• It also renders other banking services to them.

Question 5.
Why is RBI called the bankers’ bank?
Or
Which bank in India is called Banker’s bank? Why is it called so?
Answer:

• Reserve Bank of India is called Banker’s bank.
• RBI advises and assists all banks in their operations.
• RBI acts as the last resort to all banks in their financial matters.

Question 6.
What is the main revenue of the banks?
Answer:
Banks accept deposits and give interest for it Similarly banks impose interest on loans. The rate of interest on loans will be higher than the rate of interest on deposits. The difference between these interests is the main revenue of the banks.

Question 7.
What was the speciality of the first phase of the growth of banks in India?
Answer:

• The first phase of the growth of banking in India was from 1770 to bank nationalization.
• The growth and operations of bank were slow during this phase.

Question 8.
Why did the number of nationalized banks decrease from 20 to 19?
Answer:

• In 1993, New Bank of India, the nationalized bank, was merged with Punjab National Bank.
• There are only 19 nationalized banks today.

Question 9.
Why are banks classified differently though they basically perform the same functions?
Answer:
Banks differ in their operations, though all of them basically perform the same functions. Based on the operations, banks are classifiedas commercial banks, co-operative banks, development banks and specialized banks.

Question 10.
Complete the sundiagram showing the deposits accepted by commercial banks.

Answer:

Question 11.
Write the peculiarities of New Generation Banks. How do they differ from the other banks?
Answer:
The private banks which are given license after 1991, in the third phase of the growth of banking sector are called New Generation Banks. They introduced new and innovative functions at a much quicker pace. These banks adopted new trends in banking sector like ATM, credit card, phone banking, net banking and core banking. They have also adopted steps to make the proceedings easy and simple.

Question 12.
The name of a nationalized bank is given. Add more to the list.
State Bank of India
Answer:

• Canara Bank
• Union Bank of India
• Indian Bank
• Indian Overseas Bank

Question 13.
What are the purposes for which commercial banks provide cash credit to public?
Answer:
Commercial banks provide cash credit for

• Agriculture
• Industry
• House construction
• Purchase of vehicle
• Purchase of home appliances

Question 14.
Whom do Regional Rural Banks give loans to?
Answer:

• Small farmers
• Agricultural labourers
• Small entrepreneurs

Question 15.
Why do banks not give interest on Current deposits?
Answer:
In current deposit scheme, money can be deposited and withdrawn many times in a day without any restrictions. Normally, traders and industrialists deposit money in this scheme. The banks do not offer any interest to this deposit because banks do not get the time to make use of the amount in this deposit profitably.

Question 16.
How is current deposit more beneficial to traders and industrialists?
Answer:
Normally, traders and industrialists deposit money in current deposit scheme. Banks allow the customer to deposit and withdraw money many times in a day without any restriction. Banks do not provide such a facility to any other deposit.

Question 17.
What are the factors that bring about difference in the rate of interest on loans?
Answer:

• Tenure of loan
• Mode of repayment
• Reason for taking loan

Question 18.
How does telegraphic transfer differ from mail transfer?
Answer:

• Mail transfer:
  Mail transfer is a system in which money can be transferred from any part of the world to one’s own account or to someone else’s account.
• Telegraphic transfer:
  The mechanism wh ich can transfer money through a message. It is faster than mail transfer.

Question 19.
What details are included in ATM cards?
Answer:

• Number of card
• Name of the bank
• Emblem of the bank
• Name of the customer

Question 20.
What are the advantages of credit card system?
Answer:

• Consumers can purchase goods with the help of credit card, without having to keep money on person.
• Consumers can purchase goods using credit card even without having sufficient money in their account. The money has to be remitted to the bank later within a specific period.

Question 21.
What are the two new trends in banking?
Answer:

1. Electronic banking
2. Core banking

Question 22.
How is core banking helpful to customers?
Answer:
In core banking, all the branches of the banks are brought under a central server to enable transaction from one bank to another. By using this facility, a customer can send money from his bank account to his friend’s account else where.

Question 23.
What are the working principles of Co-operative banks?
Answer:

• Co-operation
• Self help
• Mutual help

Question 24.
What was the slogan of Bharatiya Mahila bank? Which section of people benefited from it more?
Answer:

• Slogan : Women Empowerment is India’s Empowerment.
• The bank accepts money from all, but provides loans mainly to women.

Question 25.
Write the aims of Mudra bank?
Answer:

• Established to give short term loans.
• Gives financial help to microfinance and small entrepreneurs.

Question 26.
Write examples for Mutual Fund operating in public sector
Answer:

• Unit Trust of India
• SBI Mutual Fund

Question 27.
What are commercial banks?
Answer:
The banks which accept deposits from public and lend money for commercial, industrial and agricultural purposes subject to certain conditions are called commercial banks. They are the oldest banks and have many branches. These banks play a decisive role in the financial activities of a country.

Question 28.
What are public sector commercial banks?
Answer:
The banks which are owned by the government are called public sector commercial banks. Their functions are controlled by RBI. Public sector commercial banks in India include State Bank of India and its associate banks, nationalized banks and Regional Rural banks.

Question 29.
Explain the following.
a. Private Indian commercial banks
b. Private foreign commercial banks
Answer:
a. Private Indian commercial banks are owned by private individuals. These banks operate under the control of RBI.
b. Banks owned by private individuals and registered in India, with their headquarters abroad are called private foreign commercial banks. These also operate under the control of RBI.

Question 30.
Accepting deposits is an important function of commercial banks. Can you prepare a flow chart showing the different deposits accepted by the banks?

Answer:
a. Savings deposit
b. Current deposit
c. Fixed deposit
d. Recurring deposit

Question 31.
Examine the role of NABARD in rural development.
Answer:

• NABARD is the apex bank which functions for agricultural and village development.
• Co-ordinates all the banks working for development of villages.
• Provides financial assistance to agriculture, small scale industries, handicrafts, etc.

Question 32.
Examine how the role of insurance companies is helpful to the society?
Answer:

• Insurance companies are institutions that provide financial protection to individuals’ life and wealth.
• They assure social security and personal welfare.

Question 33.
Choose two features of non banking financial institutions from the following.
a. Do not provide the facility of withdrawal of cash by cheque.
b. The facility to deposit and withdraw money using ATM.
c. Demand draft facility is provided to send money from one place to another.
d. Locker and mail transfer facilities are not provided.
Answer:
a. Do not provide the facility of withdrawal of cash by cheque.
d. Locker and mail transfer facilities are not provided.

Question 34.
Different types of banks and their examples are given in columns A and B. Choose their correct order.

A – i and ii are correct
B – i and iii are correct
C – ii and iii are correct
D – All are correct
Answer:
i and ii are correct

Question 35.
Classify the following banks based on their functions.

• NABARD
• Industrial Finance Corporation of India
• State Bank of India
• Primary Co-operative Bank

Answer:

• NABARD – Specialised bank
• Industrial Finance Corporation of India – Development bank
• State Bank of India – Commercial bank
• Primary Co-operative Bank – Co-operative bank

Question 36.
Complete the flow chart related to commercial banks.

Answer:

Question 37.
Which are the major microfinance institutions working in Kerala?
Answer:

• Kudumbasree
• Men Self Help Groups

Answer the following. Score 3 each

Question 1.
Complete the sundiagram on the functions of the Reserve Bank of India.

Answer:
a. Printing of currency
b. Controlling of credit
c. Banker to Government

Question 2.
Control of credit is an important function of RBI. Explain.
Or
What is the influence of control of credit in the economy?
Answer:
The control of credit is an important function of RBI. The RBI increases the money supply in Indian economy through the distribution of printed currency and through credit creation. This is made possible by bringing about changes in the rate of interest. As rate of interest increases, volume of loans decreases and vice versa.

Question 3.
Which were the banks established in the first phase of the growth of banks in India? What was the peculiarity of this period?
Answer:

• The first phase in the growth of banks in India stretches from 1770 to bank nationalization (1969).
• In this phase, the English East India Company established the Presidency Banks of Bank of Bengal, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras.
• The growth and operations of the banksin this phase were slow.

Question 4.
What were the main changes in the second phase of the growth of banks in India?
Answer:

• The second phase of the growth of banks from 1969 to 1990, witnessed a speedy development of banks.
• The view that banks should operate with the aim of social progress led to bank nationalization in 1969.
• 14 banks with assets worth more than ₹ 50 crores were nationalized in 1969 and 6 more banks were nationalized in 1980.

Question 5.
What is overdraft? To whom do the banks give this facility?
Or
Explain the grounds under which over drafts are issued.
Answer:

• Overdraft is a type of loan given by commer¬cial banks to customers. This facility enables a customer to withdraw money over and above the balance in his account.
• Banks give this facility to individuals who have frequent transactions with the bank.
• Generally this facility is provided to those who maintain current deposits. Bank charges interest for the additional amount.

Question 6.
Banking operations became easy and people friendly with core hanking. Explain.
Answer:

• Core banking is a banking facility under which the branches of all the banks are brought under a central server so that banking services from one bank to another is made possible. It operates with the help of internet.
• Facilities like ATM, debit card, credit card, net banking, telebanking, mobile banking, etc. are brought together through core banking. Naturally transactions have become simple.
• Making use of this facility, an individual can send money from his account to his friend’s account else where.

Question 7.
What are the things to be followed while using ATM cards?
Answer:

• Make sure that there is no one at the counter.
• Do not disclose your ATM pin code number to anyone.
• Assure the balance amount on receiving the receipt money withdrawal. Do not throw away the receipt carelessly.

Question 8.
Write the features of NABARD.
Answer:
The institutions that give financial assistance for the development of certain specific sectors are called specialised banks. NABARD is a specialised bank. Its features are:

• The apex bank in India which functions for the development of villages and agriculture.
• Co-ordinates all banks working for the development of villages.
• Provides financial assistance to agriculture, handicrafts and small scale industries.

Question 9.
What are non – banking financial institutions? What are the services not provided by non banking financial institutions compared to banking institutions?
Answer:
Non banking financial institutions operate in the financial sector but do not perform all the functions of a bank. They perform the basic functions of banks such as accepting deposits and lending loans. But they do not provide the following services.

• Withdrawal of cash using cheques
• Mail transfer
• Locker facilities

Question 10.
Which is the major non banking financial company operating in Kerala? What are the services they provide?
Answer:
Kerala State Financial Enterprises (KSFE)
Services

• Operate chitties
• Provide Housing loan
• Provide Gold loan
• Provide loans for Hire purchase

Question 11.
Mutual fund helps common man to overcome the constraints in investing money in share market. Explain.
Answer:
Mutual fund is a mode of investment. Common man is not always able to invest in share market directly. Mutual fund helps investors to overcome this constraint. Money is mobilized from various investors and is invested in share markets, debentures, etc. The profit or loss resulting from this is distributed among the investors.

Question 12.
Write the difference between life insurance company and non – life insurance company. Write example for each.
Answer:
Life Insurance Company :
Life insurance companies are institutions that provide security to life, health and property of individuals. Eg. Life Insurance Corporation of India.

Non – Life insurance companies :
These are institutions that provide security to individuals from the loss incurred due to accident and natural calamity. Eg. General insurance companies

Question 13.
Write the features of savings deposit.
Answer:

• A scheme that helps the public to deposit their savings.
• It offers low rate of interest.
• Depositors can withdraw money from the deposit subject to restrictions.

Question 14.
Usually banks lend to public by accepting certain collaterals. Which are the collaterals accepted by banks?
Answer:

• Physical assets like gold, title deed of property
• Salary certificate
• Fixed deposit certificate

Question 15.
How do the co-operative banks in your area help the public?
Answer:

• Provide monetary help to common people especially the villagers.
• Provide services to farmers, artisans, small scale entrepreneurs, etc.
• Provide loans to the public
• Protect the villagers from private money lenders.
• Provide loans at low interest rate
• Encourage saving habit among people.

Question 16.
Examine the statements related to specialised banks and choose the correct one.
A. Provides financial assistance to agriculture, handicraft and small scale industries.
B. Provides loans for exporting and importing products.
Hints:
a. A and B are the features of EXIM Bank of India.
b. A and B are the features of NABARD.
c. A is the feature of EXIM bank of India and B is the feature of NABARD.
d. A is the feature of NABARD and B is the feature of EXIM Bank of India.
Answer:
d. A is the feature of NABARD and B is the feature of EXIM Bank of India.

Question 17.
Answer the following questions related to money supply.
i. How does the money supply increase in Indian economy?
ii. Whose function is the control of credit?
iii. How is the control of credit made, possible?
Answer:
i. Money supply increases in Indian economy through the distribution of printed currency and through credit creation.
ii. Control of credit is the function of RBI.
iii. Control of credit is the made possible by bringing about changes in the rate of interest. As rate of interest increases, volume of loans decreases. As rate of interest decreases, volume of loans increases.

Question 18.
What are the differences and similarities between banks and non – banking financial institutions?
Answer:
Similarities

• Banks; Banks accept deposits from the public and grant loans to the needy subject to conditions. They operate on the basis of the general guidelines and conditions set by the Reserve Bank of India. ,
• Non banking financial institutions: They do basic banking functions like accepting deposits and lending loans. They also operate under the guidelines of RBI.

Differences

• Banks provide services like withdrawal of cash by cheque, mail transfer and locker facilities.
• Non banking financial institutions do not’ provide services like withdrawal of cash by cheque, mail transfer and locker facilities.

Question 19.
What are the features of fixed deposit?
Answer:
Features of fixed deposit:
Fixed deposits are ideal for depositing money for a specific period of time. The interest is high. Interest rate is calculated on the basis of the time period for which the money is deposited. Deposits could be withdrawn after maturity. If the money is withdrawn only after the completion of the specific period of time, then the specified interest rate will be provided. If the amount is withdrawn before the maturity of deposits, then the interest rate will be lower.

Question 20.
How is electronic banking helpful to customers?
Answer:
Electronic banking is a method by which all transactions can be carried out through net banking and tele banking. Any time banking, anywhere banking, net banking and mobile banking are part of electronic banking. The assistance of the bank employees is not required.

• Customers can send money and bills can be paid anywhere in the world from home.
• Save time
• Low service charge

Question 21.
Common people are not always able to invest in the share market directly. Write two examples of public sector institutions that help them in this matter. How do these institutions help the investors?
Answer:

• Life Insurance Corporation Mutual Fund
• SBI Mutual Fund.
  • The mutual fund institutions collect money from various investors and invest in share markets, debentures, etc. The profit or loss from this is distributed among investors.

Answer the following. Score 4 each

Question 1.
Write note on the functions of banks based on the hints in the diagram

Answer:
Banks are those institutions which accept deposit . from the public and grant loans to the needy subject to conditions. Banks pay interest to deposits accepted from people, institutions and government. Banks lend out money received as deposits to people, institutions and government. Banks collect the loan amount with interest. Thus banks act as financial intermediary by collecting the loan amount with interest to give back the deposit with interest.

Question 2.
Explain the functions of the Reserve Bank of India.
Answer:
Reserve Bank is the Central Bank of India. It was established in .1935 and its headquarters is in Mumbai. It is the apex bank that controls all the other banks. RBI not only regulates and supervises the banks, but also other financial institutions in the country by giving them necessary directions and advices. It acts as the last resort to all banks in their financial matters.
The functions of RBI are;

Printing of currency :
RBI has the legal right to print all currency notes except one rupee note and subsidiary coins. The Finance Ministry is authorised to issue one rupee note and subsidiary coins. A proportional value of gold and foreign exchange is kept as reserve for issuing notes.

Controlling credit :
The RBI increases the money supply in the economy through the distribution of printed currency and through credit creation. Controlling credit is an important
function of RBI. This is done by changing the rate of interest. When the rate of interest increases, the volume of loans decreases. As the rate of interest decreases, the volume of loans increases.

Banker to Government :
The RBI acts as the banker to both the Central Government and the State Governments. As banker to government, the RBI accepts deposits from central and state governments, sanctions loans and renders other banking services to them. The Reserve Bank does not charge any fees for these services.

Bankers’s bank :
The RBI is the apex bank of all banks. It is the function of the RBI to help in the operations of other banks and to advise them when needed. It acts as a last resort to all books in their financial matters.

Question 3.
The third stage in the development of banks nearly concentrated on the implementation of new systems. Explain the role played by them in modification of banks and execution of services.
Answer:
In the third phase stretching from 1991, banks started rendering services, other than their basic functions. There were several banking reforms which helped in quick and time saving services, ease of procedures, etc. Introduction of ATM, credit card, phone banking, net banking, core banking, etc. are the results of the development in third phase. The private banks that received license in this phase implemented the new and innovative functions at a quicker pace. These banks are known as new generation banks.

Question 4.
Complete the table based on the peculiarities of commercial banks.

Answer:

Question 5.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 6.
Write on the different types of deposits accepted by commercial banks. Write their differences also.
Answer:
Commercial banks accept the following deposits:
Savings deposit
It is a scheme that helps the public to deposit their savings. Banks offer low rate of interest for this deposit. Depositor can withdraw money from this deposit subject to certain restrictions.

Current deposit
This deposit facilitates depositing and withdrawing money many times in a day. Normally traders and industrialists use this deposit scheme. It does not offer any rate of interest.

Fixed deposit
Fixed deposits are ideal for depositing money for a specific period of time. Interest rate is calculated on the basis of the time period for which the money is deposited. If the money is withdrawn only after the completion of the specific period of time, then the specified interest rate will be provided.

Recurring deposit
Recurring deposits receive a specific amount every month for a specified period of time. The interest rate of this deposit will be higher than that of saving deposits, but less than that of fixed deposits. The interest rate will be less if the deposits are withdrawn before the maturity date.

Question 7.
What is cash credit? What are the purposes for which banks give cash credit?
Answer:
The loans given to individuals and institutions by accepting collaterals are called cash credit. The collaterals that the bank accepts are:

• Salary certificate
• Fixed deposit certificate
• Physical assets like gold

Cash credit is given for the following purposes:

• For agriculture
• For industry
• For house construction
• Purchase of vehicle

Question 8.
Write a note on the other services provided by commercial banks, besides the basic functions.
Answer:

• Provide locker facilities to individuals and institutions to keep their valuable assets (gold, title deed of property).
• Demand Draft facility to send money from one ’ place to another.
• Mail transfer and telegraphic transfer to transfer money from anywhere in the world.
• ATM facility to withdraw money any time without going to the bank.
• Credit cards to purchase goods without carrying money along with.
• Banks help their customers to remit their insurance premium, telephone bills, electricity bills and to purchase travel tickets.

Question 9.
What are the working principles of co-operative banks? Write their aims also.
Answer:
Aims:
Co-operation, self help and mutual help are the working principles of co-operative banks.

• To give monetary help to common people, especially villagers like farmers, handicrafts men and small scale industrialists.
• To promote saving habits among people, especially rural folk.
• Provide loans to the public
• Protect the villagers from private money lenders.
• Provide loan at low rate of interest

Question 10.
What are development banks?
Answer:
Development banks are those that provide long term loans for various needs such as modernisation of industries. Now they provide loans to agriculture and trade sectors also.
Features of Development banks

• Act as an agent for the development of different sectors like industry, agriculture, trade, etc.
• Provide loans for house construction, small scale industry and the development of basic infrastructures. Eg. IFCI

Question 11.
Write the features of the following specialised banks.
Exim Bank of India
Small Industries Development Bank of India
Answer:

• Exim Bank of India
  • Provides loans for the export and import of products.
  • Provides instructions to individuals who come into this sector.
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)\
  • Provides help to start new small scale industries and to modernise existing industries.
  • To vitalize village industries.

Question 12.
What are Payment Banks? What are the features of Payment Banks compared to other banks?
Answer:
Payment banks have been established to help low income groups,, small scale industrialists and migrant labourers. They do not provide all facilities provided by other banks. Their features are:

• Accept deposits upto only one lakh rupees from individuals.
• Provide interest on deposit as specified by the RBI
• Do not provide loans
• Charge a specific fee as commission for bank transactions
• Debit card is provided but no credit card.

Question 13.
What is the objective of insurance companies? Which are the things that can be insured?
Answer:
Insurance institutions provide financial protection to life and wealth of individuals. They ensure social security and personal welfare.
Things that can be insured are :

• Individual’s life
• Wealth
• Vehicles
• Items in institutions
• Agricultural crops
• Export goods
• Temporary enterprises like circus.

Question 14.
Write the difference between fixed deposit and recurring deposit.
Answer:

Question 15.
Classify the following financial institutions suitably.

• Co-operative banks
• Mutual Fund institutions
• Commercial banks
• Development banks
• Insurance companies
• Specialised banks

Answer:

Question 16.
What are specialised banks? Give example.
Answer:
Specialised banks are those that provide financial help for the development of certain specific sectors. They provide help to start new enterprises.
Eg.

• EXIM Bank of India: Provides loans for exporting and importing products.
• Small Industries Development Bank of India: Provides help to start new small scale industries.
• National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development : Apex bank in India which functions for the development of villages and agriculture.

Question 18.
Write an example for a microfinance institution operating in Kerala. Write the goals of microfinance also.
Answer:
Microfinance institution operating in Kerala is Kudumbasree.

Goals of Microfinance

• Encourages saving habit among low income groups in the society.
• Provides help to seek self employment
• Helps to increase the standard of living of the poor.
• Provides loans to members in need.

Question 19.
Match the following.

Answer:

Answer the following. Score 5 each

Question 1.
Complete the flowchart on financial institutions.

Answer:
a. Banks
b. Commercial banks
c. Co-operative banks
d. Development banks
e. Mutual Fund
f. Insurance companies
g. Self Help Group for Men

Question 2.
Explain the different phases in the growth of banks in India and their features,
Answer:

First phase (1770 to 1969)

• English East India Company established three Presidency Banks: Bank of Bengal, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras.
• The operations and growth of banks were slow.

Second phase (1969 to 1990)

• Witnessed a speedy development of banks.
• The awareness that banks should operate with the objective of social progress became prevalent.
• This view lead to the Bank nationalization of 1969 and 1980.

Third phase (From 1991 onwards)

• Banks started rendering services other than the basic functions.
• Introduced new trends in banking like ATM, credit card, phone banking, net banking, core banking, etc.
• Emergence and operations of New Generation Banks.

Question 3.
How are electronic banking and core banking helpful to the customers?
Or
The new trends in banking sector make banking more people friendly. Substantiate.
Answer:
The two new trends in banking sector are electronic banking and core banking.

Electronic banking :
Banking services have been made easy by computerisation and the availability of ATM facility. Electronic banking is a method by which all banking transactions can be carried out through net banking and telebanking. Any time banking, anywhere banking, net banking and mobile banking are part of electronic banking. It does not need the assistance of employees and banking instruments. Only bank account and net banking facility are required for this.

• Customers can send money and bills can be paid anywhere in the world from home.
• Saves time.
• Low service charge

Core banking :
Core banking is a banking facility under which the branches of all the banks are brought under a central server to enable bank transaction from one bank to another. It operates with the help of internet. As a result, facilities like ATM, debit card, credit card, tele banking and mobile banking are brought together. This made bank transactions simple. By using this facility, an individual can send money from his bank account to his friend’s account else where.

Question 4.
Explain the goals and working of microfinance.
Answer:
The aim of micro finance is to provide different financial services including micro credit to low income groups.-This helps to promote saving habits and self employment activities among low income groups. Examples for micro finance are Kudumbasree and Self Help Group for Men.

Goals of microfinance

• Helps in collective development by mobilising money from individuals.
• Helps to increase the standard of living of the poor
• Promotes saving habit
• Makes use of individual potential for group development.
• Provides loans to members in need
• Starts small scale enterprises

Functioning
Women or men in a locality join together and form small groups of 20 members each. Each member invests a fixed sum in the group. Banks provide loans to these groups at low rate of interest. The amount mobilized from members and the loans from the banks constitute the working capital of the society. This amount is disbursed as loan amount to members in need. With the assistance of the local bodies, SHGs run productive small enterprises. It is possible to protect the poor from local money lenders through self help groups. Examples for units run by SHGs

• Pickles snack units
• Hotels
• DTP centres

Question 5.
Some new banks have emerged in the banking sector with certain specific aims. Which are they? What are their features?
Answer:
The new banks that have emerged in the banking sector with specific aims are

• Mahila Banks
• Payment Banks
• Mudra Bank

Bharatiya Mahila Bank
Bharatiya Mahila Bank was started in November 2013. Its slogan is ‘Women’s Empowerment is India’s Empowerment’. This bank has branches in many states today. The bank accepts deposits from all but provides loans mainly to women. (This bank is merged with SBI in 2017).

Payment Banks
Payment banks have been established to help low income groups, small scale industrialists and migrant labourers. These banks do not provide all the services rendered by banks. Their features are:

• Accept deposits only upto ? 100000 from individuals.
• Provide interest on deposits as specified by RBI.
• Do not provide loans.
• Issue debit cards, do not issue credit cards.
• Charge a specific fee as commission for banking transactions.

Mudra Bank
Mudra bank was launched in April 2015 to provide short term loans. It provides financial help to small entrepreneurs and micro finance institutions.

Answer the following. Score 6 each

Question 1.
Besides the basic functions, commercial banks render certain other services to their customers,
What are they? Explain.
Answer:
The services rendered by banks include:
Locker facility :
Banks offer locker facility to keep costly articles (gold, title deed of property) of their customers. Banks charge a certain amount for availing this facility.

Demand Draft :
Demand draft is a facility provided by banks to send money from one place to another. It is not necessary to have an account for this.

Mail transfer :
Mail transfer is a facility j provided by banks to transfer money from anywhere in the world to one’s own account or to the account of another person, Telegraphic transfer is faster than mail transfer, Telegraphic transfer is the inechanism which can transfer money through a message.

ATM :
Automated Teller Machine helps the customers to withdraw money any time without stepping into the banks. Majority of the banks have ATM facility today. Now ATM of some banks provide the opportunity to deposit and withdraw money. The banks j provide ATM debit cards for this.

Credit card :
Banks provide credit card facility which helps in purchasing products without having to keep money on person, Using this, goods and services can be purchased even without having sufficient cash in one’s account. The money has to be remitted to the bank later within a specific period.

• Banks help the customers to remit their insurance premium, telephone bills and electricity bills and to purchase travel tickets.
• Service pension is also disbursed through banks.

Question 2.
Which are the different levels of Co-operative banks? Explain their functioning.
Answer:
The main aim of co-operative banks is to provide monetary help to common people especially villagers. Farmers, artisans, small scale entrepreneurs etc. chiefly avail the services of co-operative banks.

The aims of Co-operative banks are

• Provide loans to the public
• Protect the villagers from private money lenders
• Provide loans at low rate of interest
• Promote saving habits among the rural folk Co-operative banks function at different levels
• State Co-operative Bank
  • The apex body in the state co-operative sector.
  • Provides financial assistance to District Co-operative Banks and Primary Cooperative Banks.
• District Co-operative Banks
  • Operate at the district level.
  • Provide assistance and guidance to Primary Co-operative Banks.
• Primary Co-operative Banks
  • Function in villages
  • Area of functioning is limited.
  • Promote the saving habits in villagers
  • Provide loans to villagers at low rate of interest

Question 3.
Prepare table showing the basic functions and other services of banks.
Answer:

Question 4.
Examine the features of financial institutions and write their names.

Hints:

• Payment Bank
• Non Life Insurance Companies
• Mudra Bank
• EXIM Bank of India
• Non Banking Financial Companies
• NABARD
• Micro Finance
• Development Banks
• Co-operative Banks
• Mutual Fund

Answer:
a. Micro Finance
b. Mutual Fund
c. Non Life Insurance Companies
d. Non Banking Financial Companies
e. Payment Banks
f. Development Banks
g. EXIM Bank of India
h. NABARD
i. Mudra Bank
j. Co-operative Banks

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions Chapter 7 India: The Land of Diversities

Answer the following. Score 1 each

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following neighbouring countries does not share land frontier with India?
Afghanistan
Bhutan
Sri Lanka
Answer:
Sri Lanka

Question 2.
The mountain range which is part of the Himalayas
Karakoram
Siwalik
Ladakh
Answer:
Siwalik

Question 3.
Godwin Austin, the highest peak in India is located in the
Karakoram ranges
Himalayan ranges
Lushai hills
Answer:
Karakoram ranges

Question 4.
The highest Himalayan peak in India.
Godwin Austin
Kanchenjunga
Nanga Parbat
Answer:
Kanchenjunga

Question 5.
The highest Himalayan range
Himadri
Himachal
Answer:
Himadri

Question 6.
River Indus originates from
Manasarovar lake.
Gaimukh cave
Chemayungdung glacier
Answer:
Manasarovar lake

Question 7.
Which of the following is a tributary of the Brahmaputra?
Vista
Jhelum
Beas
Answer:
Vista

Question 8.
Peninsular river that joins with the Arabian sea
Mahanadi
Godavari
Narmada
Answer:
Narmada

Question 9.
The oldest and the extensive physiographic division of India
Northern Great Plains
Northern mountains
Peninsular Plateau
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau

Question 10.
A north-flowing Peninsular river
Mahanadi
Chambal
Tapti
Answer:
Chambal

Question 11.
The longest Peninsular river
Mahanadi
Godavari
Narmada
Answer:
Godavari

Question 12.
Choose the wrong statement about Eastern Coast plain
Backwaters and estuaries are seen
Southern part is called Coromandel Coast
Delta formation
Answer:
Backwaters and estuaries are seen

Question 13.
The capital of Lakshadweep
Port Blair
Kavaratti
Indira Point
Answer:
Kavaratti

Question 14.
The main reason for the occurrence of winter rainfall in Punjab region.
Northeast monsoon wind
Cyclones originating in the Mediterranean sea shift towards east
Cyclone originating in the Arabia Sea.
Answer: ‘
Cyclones originating in the Mediterranean sea shift towards east

Question 15.
The rainfall beneficial for winter crops.
Rainfall due to western disturbance
Southwest monsoon rain
Northeast monsoon rain
Answer:
Rainfall due to western disturbance

Question 16.
When the sun is over the northern hemisphere, North Indian regions experience intense low pressure. Which atmospheric phenomenon is its result?
Northeast monsoon wind
Southwest monsoon wind
Cyclone
Answer:
Southwest monsoon wind

Question 17.
A feature of mountain soil found in northern mountain system.
Generally fertile
High salt content
Comparatively low fertility
Answer:
Generally fertile

Question 18.
The physiographic division of India known as the ‘Granary of India ’.
Northern Great Plains
Coastal Plains
Peninsular India
Answer:
Northern Great Plains

Question 19.
What is the reason for the scarce rainfall along the western parts of Northern Great Plains?
Southwest monsoon branch blows parallel to the Aravalli mountain ranges.
By the time southwest monsoon branch reaches Rajasthan, loses much of its moisture content.
Both of the above reasons.
Answer:
Both of the above reasons.

Question 20.
North India experiences high temperature during summer season than the coastal regions. This is because of
Distance from ocean
Nearness to ocean
Sun is over the Southern Hemisphere
Answer:
Distance from ocean

Question 21.
The Coromandel Coast of India receives heavy rainfall in the months of November – December due to the influence of
Southwest monsoon
Northeast monsoon
Southeast monsoon
Answer:
Northeast monsoon

Question 22.
Identify the regions where laterite soils are formed.
Regions made of igneous rocks named basalt.
Regions with monsoon rains and intermittent hot seasons.
Desert regions.
Plains formed by the river deposition.
Answer:
Regions with monsoon rains and intermittent hot seasons.

Question 23.
Identify the mountain region from which both Narmada and Mahanadi’ rivers originate
Maikala ranges
Mahabaleswar hills
Western Ghats –
Answer:
Maikala ranges

Question 24.
In which Himalayan range are hill stations like Shimla and Darjeeling situated?
Himadri
Himachal
Siwalik
Answer:
Himachal

Question 25.
Choose the wrong statement about river Indus.
Source is Manasarovar lake in Tibet
Merges with the Bay of Bengal.
Length is about 2880 km.
Answer:
Merges with the Bay of Bengal

Question 26.
Identify the correct statement about river Ganga.
Merges with the Arabian Sea.
Jhelum and Chenab are tributaries % The main tributary is Yamuna.
Source is Chemayungdung glacier in Tibet.
Answer:
The main tributary is Yamuna

Question 27.
Choose the correct statement about Peninsular rivers
Intensive erosion
Intensity of erosion is less
Extensive catchment area
High irrigation potential
Answer:
Intensity of erosion is less

Question 28.
Find out the correct pair.
Godavari – Sabari
Kaveri – Bhima
Narmada – Indravati
Mahanadi – Thungabhadra
Answer:
Godavari – Sabari

Question 29.
Kabani is the tributary of
Krishna
Kaveri
Mahanadi
Godavari
Answer:
Kaveri

Question 30.
Choose the wrong statement about Himalayan rivers
Do not create deep valleys
Extensive catchment area
High irrigation potential
Intensive erosion
Answer:
Do not create deep valleys

Question 31.
Which of the following is not included in Eastern Highlands?
Khasi
Garo
Jayanti
Karakoram
Answer:
Karakoram

Question 32.
Which of the following is not included in Trans Himalayas?
Karakoram
Siwalik
Ladakh
Zaskar
Answer:
Siwalik

Question 33.
Which of the following is not a Himalayan river?
Indus
Godavari
Ganga
Yamuna
Answer:
Godavari

Question 34.
The physiographic division which is not a part of Peninsular plateau.
Aravalli range.
Deccan plateau
Thar desert
Western Ghats
Answer:
Thar desert

Question 35.
The soil found in Northern Great Plains and coastal plains
Red soil
Alluvial soil
Black soil
Laterite soil
Answer:
Alluvial soil

Complete the statement suitably.

1. The highest peak in India is ………………………
2. In India, the highest temperature of summer is felt at ………………………
3. The river ……………………… originates from the Maikala ranges in Madhya Pradesh.
4. Agra is on the bank of the river ………………………
5. The strong upper air currents in the troposphere are called ………………………
Answer:
1. Godwin Austin/Mount K2
2. Barmer
3.Mahanadi
4. Yamuna
5. Jet streams

Answer in a sentence each.

Question 1.
What are dunes?
Answer:
Broad flat valleys seen across the Siwalik ranges.

Question 2.
How are Northern Great Plains formed?
Answer:
Northern Great Plains are formed by the continuous alluvial deposits of Himalayan rivers for thousands of years.

Question 3.
How is Marusthali Bagar plain formed?
Answer:
The Marusthali Bagar plain in Rajasthan is formed by the deposits of rivers Luni and Saraswathi.

Question 4.
Most Peninsular rivers carry less water during summer. Why?
Answer:
Most Peninsular rivers are rain-fed.

Question 5.
How are Peninsular rivers classified based on the direction of flow?
Answer:

• West flowing rivers
• East flowing rivers
• North flowing rivers

Question 6.
Which is the highest waterfall in India?
Answer:
Jog falls in Saravathi river in Karnataka.

Question 7.
What are the peculiarities of Lakshadweep?
Answer:
Presence of lagoons, sandy beaches and coral reefs.

Question 8.
What are Kalbaisakhi?
Answer:
Thundershowers in West Bengal during summer.

Question 9.
Rajas tan gets only scanty rainfall. Why?
Answer:
Aravalli mountains are in Rajasthan. The Arabian sea branch of southwest monsoon passes parallel to these mountains. These mountains cannot obstruct the moisture-laden monsoon winds.

Question 10.
Which is the second-highest range in the Himalayas? What is its average altitude?
Answer:

• Himachal
• Average altitude is 3000 meters

Question 11.
The northern mountains are the paradise of tourists. Why? Name the famous hill stations here.
Answer:

• Due to its natural beauty
• Hill stations are
• Shimla
• Kulu
• Darjeeling
• Manali

Question 12.
Which soil is formed by the disintegration of black lava rocks?
Answer:
Black soil

Question 13.
Which are the islands of India located in the Arabian sea and the Bay of Bengal?
Answer:

• Arabian Sea – Lakshadweep
• Bay of Bengal- Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer the following. Score 2 each

Question 1.
Write the features of desert soil.
Answer:

• Very little moisture content
• Rich salt content

Question 2.
Aravalli is a mountain in Peninsular plateau. Which are the other mountains in the Peninsular plateau?
Or
Complete the sun diagram on the mountains of Peninsular plateau.
Answer:

• Vindhya range
• Satpura range
• Eastern Ghats
• Western Ghats

Question 3.
Where is laterite soil formed in India?
Answer:
Laterite soil is formed in the regions with monsoon rains and intermittent hot seasons. It is found mainly in some parts of Peninsular plateau.

Question 4.
Besides laterite soil, which are the soils found in Peninsular plateau. Write one feature of each.
Answer:
Black soil: Suitable for cotton cultivation, high fertility.
Red soil: Red in colour because of the presence of iron content.

Question 5.
Why is Peninsular plateau called the store-house of minerals?
Answer:

• Peninsular plateau holds numerous deposits of diverse minerals.
• Iron ore, coal, manganese, bauxite, limestone, etc. are found.

Question 6.
Which are the river basins in eastern coastal plain where paddy is cultivated extensively?
Answer:
River basins of Kaveri, Krishna, Godavari and Mahanadi

Question 7.
What is western disturbance? Write its benefit.
Or
Write the reason for the winter rainfall in Punjab region. What is the agricultural importance of this rainfall?
Answer:
During the cold-weather season of India, cyclones originating in the Mediterranean sea shift towards east under the influence of jet streams and enter India. This causes winter rainfall in North plains, especially in Punjab. This is known as western disturbance. This is much beneficial for the cultivation of rabi crops like wheat and barley.

Question 8.
Explain ‘October heat’.
Answer:
The northeast monsoon season is a transition period between rainy season and the forthcoming winter season. This season experienced in the months of October and November makes the days unbearable due to high temperature and humidity.

The high temperature and humidity experienced all over India during this time make the daytime very uncomfortable or sultry. This phenomenon is called October heat.

Question 9.
Though northeast monsoon winds are dry, they cause heavy rainfall along the Coromandel coast of India. Write the reason.
Or
Coromandal coast receives rainfall during northeast monsoon. Why? In which months are these seasons experienced?
Answer:
Northeast monsoon winds blowing from land to sea due to the attraction of low pressure over the Bay of Bengal takes a northeast to southwest direction.

It absorbs moisture from the Bay of Bengal and causes heavy rainfall along the Coromandel coast. This rainfall occurs in the months of October and November.

Question 10.
The coastal plains to India are subdivided into five. Classify them suitably.
a. Konkan Coast plain
b. North Circar Coastal plain
c. Gujarat Coastal plain
d. Coromandal Coastal plain
e. Malabar Coastal plain

Answer:

Question 11.
Most parts of Rajasthan are desert and the amount of rainfall received is less there. Biju is of the opinion that Aravalli mountain is responsible for this.
a. Do you agree with him?
b. Why?
Answer:
a. I agree
b. The reasons are given below.
It is because of the Aravalli ranges that Rajasthan receives only scanty rainfall. Lying parallel to the monsoon winds from the Arabian sea, it cannot obstruct the moisture-laden monsoon winds. Moreover, by the time the Arabian sea branch reaches Rajasthan, it loses much of its moisture content.

Question 12.
Using the indicators, complete the columns to compare the Himalayan and Peninsular rivers.

Answer:

Question 13.
Chirapunji and Mawsynram are regarded as the rainiest spots in the world. Find out the topographical factors that enable these places to retain this name.
Answer:
The Bay of Bengal branch of south west monsoon advances northward by absorbing more moisture from the Bay of Bengal. On reaching West Bengal, crossing the Sundarban delta, it bifurcates into two branches. One branch reaches the Brahmaputra plains and causes heavy rainfall there. The Khasi- Jaintia hills of Meghalaya obstruct these winds and cause heavy rainfall in these regions. Chirapunji and Mawsynram are in this region.

Question 14.
Some of the rivers of India are marked as a, b, c, d, e and f in the given map. Identify those rivers and classify them as Himalayan and Peninsular rivers.

Answer:
a – Kaveri
C – Yamuna
e – Brahmaputhra
b – Tungabhadra
d – Narmada
f- indus

Question 15.
Given below are the characteristic features of one of the physical divisions of India. Based on the indicators, find out the physical division and add to the list.
Storehouse of minerals
Built of hard Crystalline rocks
Answer:
The physiographic division is Peninsular plateau. Characteristic features
i. It has an area of about 15 lakh sq. km.

ii. Has a diverse topography of mountains, plateaus and valleys.

iii. Anamudi is the highest peak in this zone, iv. The main vegetations here are tropical deciduous and tropical rain forests.

Question 16.
The names of the subdivisions of the Great Plains are given. Write the names of the rivers causing their formation.
(ganga plain, Punjab – Haryana plan Marusrhali – Bagar plain. Brahmaputra plan)
Answer:

Question 17.
classify the Peninsular rivers as those flowing into Arabian sea and Bay of Bengal
Answer:

Question 18.
The Northern Great Indian plain is densely populated. Why?
Or
The Northern Great Indian plain is known as the granary of India. Why’
Answer:
The Northern Great Indian plain is formed by the continuous deposition of sediments brought by the Himalayan rivers for thousands of years. It is one of the most fertile and extensive alluvial plains of the world. It extends over 7 lakh sq.kms with kilometres of thick sediments.

Since this plain is formed by the deposition of fertile alluvium, this has become the most important agricultural region in the country and sois called the granary of India. Naturally this is densely populated.

Question 19.
Alluvial soil is dominant in most parts of Northern plains. Why?
Answer:
The Northern plains are formed by the deposits of alluvium brought down by rivers Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra and their tributaries flowing down the Himalayas for thousands of years.

Question 20.
Which soil is suitable for cotton cultivation? Where is it found in India?
Answer:
Black soil is suitable
Black soil is extensively found in Deccan plateau, which is the southern part of Peninsular plateau. A major portion of Deccan plateau has been formed by the cooling of lava that spread over the region millions of years ago. Thus the region is made of igneous rocks, namely basalt.

Question 21.
The Northern mountain system influences the climate of India. Substantiate.
Answer:

• Blocks the monsoon winds blowing from the south and causes rainfall throughout North India.
• Prevents the dry cold winds blowing from the north from entering India during winter.

Question 22.
Complete the table.

Answer:
a. Arabian Sea
b. Narmada

Question 23.
Because of the peculiar shape of the Indian peninsula, the southwest monsoon winds bifurcate into two branches before entering the land. Which are the two branches?
Answer:
Arabian Sea branch
Bay of Bengal branch

Question 24.
Bajra and jowar are the main crops cultivated in Rajasthan. Why?
Answer:
Crops like bajra and jowar require very little amount of water to grow.
Rainfall is very less in Rajasthan

Question 25.
Why does, the temperature decrease from south to north during winter season in India?
Answer:
India experiences winter when the position of the sun is over the southern hemisphere. So the southern parts of India receive more sun rays than the northern parts.
The southern parts which lie close to the sea experience high temperature.

Question 26.
Which type of soil is mainly found in the following states?
a. Himachal Pradesh
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Rajasthan
d. Maharashtra
Answer:
a. Mountain soil
b. Alluvial soil
c. Desert soil
d. Black soil

Question 27.
Using the hints, write the names of Himalayan ranges.
a. Broad and flat valleys called Duns are seen.
b. Hill stations like Shimla and Darjeeling are seen.
c. Average altitude is 6000 metres.
d. Peaks like Kanchenjunga and Nandadevi are seen.
Answer:
a. Siwaliks
b. Himachal
c. Himadri
d. Himadri

Question 28.
The statements given below are related to the rivers in India.
Statement A: Catchment area is comparatively smaller.
Statement B: Creates gorges.
Based on these statements, identify the correct one from among the following.
a. Both statements indicate Himalayan rivers.
b. Both statements indicate Peninsular rivers.
c. Statement A is related to Himalayan river and statement B is related to Peninsular rivers.
d. Statement A is related to Peninsular rivers and statement B is related to Himalayan rivers.
Answer:
d. Statement A is related to Peninsular rivers and statement B is related to Himalayan rivers.

Answer the following. Score 3 each

Question 1.
Complete the diagram on some of the rivers of India, their tributaries and the states through which they flow based on the hints.
Hints:

• Hiran
• Kaveri
• Narmada
• Andhra Pradesh
• Tungabhadra
• Tamil Nadu

Answer:
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Narmada
d. Kaveri
e. Hiran
f. Thungabhadra

Question 2.
Which are the physical divisions located between Arabian sea and Western Ghats and Bay of Bengal and Eastern Ghats? Write their. features also.
Or
Compare the west coast and east coast plains of India based on the given hints.

• Location
• Landform created
• Length
• Influence of monsoon
• Width

Answer:
West coast plain, East coast plain

Question 3.
The tributaries of some Indian rivers are given in the picture: Complete the picture by adding the names of their major rivers.

Answer:
a. Ganga
b. Brahmaputra
c. Indus
d. Godavari
e. Krishna
f. Mahanadi

Question 4.
Make a comparison between Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers.
Answer:

Question 5.
Complete the following table suitably Rivers

Answer:

Question 6.
Mention the characteristic features of the Peninsular plateau.
Or
The Peninsular Plateau is a phýsiographic division with some unique characteristics. What are these characteristics?
Answer:
i. Made of hard crystalline rocks.
ii Flas&nareaofabouti5lakhsq.km
iii. it has diverse topography of mountains, plateaus and valleys.
iv. The vegetation here includes tropical deciduous type and tropical rain forests.
v. Anamudi with a height of 2695m is the highest peak of this zone.
vi. Has black soil and red soil.
vii. Holds numerous deposits of diverse minerals and so known as storehouse of a minerals.
viii.Deccan plateau which is formed by the cooling of lava lies to the south of Peninsular Plateau.

Question 7.
The names of the tributaries of sonic rivers are given below. Write the name of the main river against each.

Answer:

Question 7.
Table the Himalayan rivers on the basis of sources, tributaries, states through which they flow and the sea which they join.
Answer:

Question 8.
From which state do the following rivers originate?
Narmada, Mahanadi, Tapti, Kaveri, Krishna, Godavari
Answer:

Question 9.
The names of some rivers are given. List them as originating from the Himalayas and from the Western Ghats.
Jhehrn, Kaveri, Yamuna, Krishna, Kosi, Godavari.
Answer:

Question 10.
Identify the soil type from the hints given
a. Generally fertile and dark brown or black in colour
b. Seen on river banks and coastal plains.
c. Dry and salty
d. Formed by the disintegration of igneous rocks called basalt.
e. Soil with iron content
f. Soil formed in monsoon climatic region.
Answer:
a. Mountain soil
b. Alluvial soil
c. Desert soil
d. Black soil
e. Red soil
f. Laterite soil

Question 11.
Answer the following questions based on, Northern Great plains of India.
a. Rivers that caused the formation of Northern Great Plains.
b. From which physiographic division do these rivers originate?
c. How does the peculiarity of the soil here influence human life?

Answer:
a. Northern Great Plains are formed by the continuous depositional work of the Himalayan’ rivers Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
b. These rivers originate from northern mountain
c. The alluvial soil formed by the Himalayan rivers is highly fertile. So this region is the backbone of Indian agriculture and so known as the granary of India. This is one of the most densely populated regions also.

Question 12.
Just as in physiography, India has climatic variation too. Examine the reasons for the variations of climate in India.
Answer:

• Latitudinal location
• Topography
• Nearness to oceans
• Altitude above sea level
• Himalayan mountains
• Distance from oceans

Question 13.
There is regional variation in the distribution of rainfall in India. What are the reasons?
Answer:

• Topography
• Nearness to oceans
• Distance from oceans
• Location of mountain ranges
• Direction of wind
• Extent of land

Question 14.
Choose the correct pairs from the columns

A. a→q, b→p, c→r
B. a→r, b→p, c→q
C. a→r, b → q, c→p
D. a → q, b→p, c→r
Answer:
B. a→ r, b→p, c→q

Question 15.
Identity the rivers hinted below and write any two features of them.
a. River originating from the Manasarovar lake in Tibet.
b. River originating from the Gaumukh caves in the Gangotri glacier:
Answer:
a. River Indus

• About 2880 km long
• Jhelum, Chenab and Beas are tributaries
• Joins the Arabian Sea

b. Ganga

• About 2500 km long .
• Yamuna and Kosi are tributaries
• Joins the Bay of Bengal

Question 16.
Just as the diversity in the physiography of India, there is diversity in climate also.
a. Write an example for the diversity in climate
b. Write any two reasons for the diversity in climate.
c. The south west and north eastern parts of India receive heavy rainfall during the south west monsoon period. Why?
Answer:
a. Kerala receives more rainfall within a day than the annual rainfall received in Rajasthan.
b. Nearness to ocean Latitude
c. The Western Ghats block the Arabian Sea branch of south west monsoon and cause heavy rainfall in the south west parts of India. One branch of the Bay of Bengal branch of south west monsoon reaches the north eastern states through the Brahmaputra plains and causes heavy rainfall there. The Khasi and Garo hills block the winds and cause rainfall.

Question 17.
Explain the terms
Himalayan rivers
Peninsular rivers
Answer:
The snow-clad peaks and glaciers in the Himalayas are rich sources of freshwater. Numerous great rivers take birth through the confluence of streams originating from the melting snow. These rivers are known as Himalayan rivers.The rivers originating from the elevated regions of the Peninsular plateau are known as Peninsular rivers.

Question 18.
What are the peculiar features of Eastern Highlands?
Answer:

• Lie at an’altitude of 500 to 3000 metres.
• Known as Purvachal
• Khasi, Garo, Jaintia and Mizo hills are here.
• Cherrapunji, the place receiving the highest rainfall in the world is situated here.
• This region is covered by dense tropical forests.
• Fertile mountain soil is found here.

Question 19.
Write the name of the three parallel ranges of the Himalayas and match them with the following.

1. Dunc
2. Kanchenjunga
3. Darjeeling

Answer:

1. Duns – Siwaliks – Southernmost Himalayan range.
2. Kanchenjunga – Himadri – the highest Himalayan range.
3. Darjeeling – Himachal – the middle range

Question 20.
Certain geoinformation f Peninsular plateau are given. Classify them as mountains and plateaus.

• Malwa
• Vindhya
• Western
• Chota Nagpur
• Satpura
• Deccan

Answer:

Question 21.
Analyse the following statements and write the reasons for them.
a. While Mangalore receives rainfall from June to September, Chennai usually receives rainfall in November – December.
b. Rajasthan receives very little rainfall.
Answer:
a. Southwest monsoon season is experienced from June to September. The western parts of Kerala, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat receive rainfall during this period. Mangalore is situated to the west of Karnataka. The north east monsoon season is experienced in the months of November and December along the eastern coast of India. Chennai is situated on the eastern coast of Tamil Nadu and so receives rainfall in November and December.

b. Rainfall is scarce in Rajasthan because the monsoon branch entering through Gujarat blows para lei to the Arrival Ii mountain ranges.

Question 22.
Write the reasons for the following.
a. The Western portion of Northern plains are least populated.
b. Bajra and jowar are the ,main crops cultivated here.
Answer:
a. The Western portion of Northern ptains is the Thar desert in Rajasthan. Rainfall is scarce here. The highest temperature of India is experienced here.

b. Dry and salty desert soil is found in this region. Bajra and jowar require very little amount of water to grow.

Question 23.
Choose the correct column from the following.

A. a.i and c. iii
B. b. ii and d. iv
C. a.i and d. iv
D. b. ii and a. iii
Answer:
C. a.i and d. iv

Question 24.
The following table is on the Himalayan rivers. Identify the mistakes if any and correct accordingly.

Answer:

Question 25.
The role of Northern plains is decisive in the agricultural economy of India. Explain.
Answer:
Northern plains are the backbone of Indian agriculture. Fertile soil, water availability and favourable climate, etc. are conducive for agriculture. ,
This region is known as the granary of India.
Wheat, maize, rice, sugarcane, cotton, pulses, etc. are largely cultivated here.

Question 26.
The names of a few mountain ranges are given.
Categorize them suitably.
a. Karakoram
b. Jaintia
c. Himachal
d. Siwalik
e. Ladak
f. Naga hills

Answer:

Question 27.
Identity the physiographic division from where the following rivers originate. Classify these rivers as east flowing and west flowing rivers.

• Narmada
• Godavari
• Tapti
• Kaveri
• Mahanadi
• Krishna

Answer:

• These Peninsular rivers originate from Peninsular plateau
• East flowing rivers – Godavari, Kaveri, Mahanadi, Krishna
• West flowing rivers – Narmada, Tapti

Question 28.
Write a description on the human life in the northern mountain region.
Answer:

• Animal rearing is the major means of livelihood.
  Sheep are commercially reared in Jammu- Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh. ,
• Agriculture: Potato, barley, saffron, apple, orange and tea are cultivated.
• Tourism – Scenic beauty of the mountains attract tourists. Hill stations like Shimla, .. Darjeeling, Kulu and Manali are situated here.

Question 29.
Identify the rivers hinted below and write any two of their features.
a. River originating from the Chema-Yung- dung glacier in the Kaila’s ranges.
b. Longest Peninsular river.
Answer:
a. Brahmaputra:

• Has a length of about 2900 km.
• Joins the Bay of Bengal.

b. Godavari:

• Originates from Western Ghats – Nasik district of Maharashtra
• Flows through Maharashtra, Telengana and Andhra.

Question 30.
Give reasons for the following:
a. Continuity of Siwaliks breaks at many places.
b. Punjab region receives winter rainfall.
c. Coromandal coast receives north east monsoon rain.
Answer:
a. The Himalayan rivers cut across the Siwalik range, its continuity breaks at many places.

b. Punjab region receives winter rainfall due to the phenomenon of western disturbance. The cyclones originating in the Mediterranean Sea during winter gradually shift towards east, reach India and cause rainfall in the northern plains, especially in the Punjab region. This is known as western disturbance.

c. The northeast monsoon winds blowing over the Bay of Bengal absorb moisture and pass through the Coromandel coast, causing rainfall along this coast.

Question 31.
Write a note on the advancement of Arabian Sea branch of monsoon winds.
Answer:
Arabian Sea branch of monsoon winds:
Because of the particular shape of the Indian peninsula, the south west monsoon winds bifurcate into two branches before entering the land. One branch is the Arabian Sea branch. It reaches the coast of Kerala by early June and causes heavy rainfall there.

Then it advances to the states of Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat and causes rainfall in the western parts. Rainfall is scarce in the Rajasthan region because the monsoon branch entering through Gujarat blows parallel to the Aravalli mountain ranges. The Arabian Sea branch merges with the other branch of the Bay of Bengal branch in the Punjab plains, advances north further and causes heavy rainfall along the foothills of the Himalayas.

Question 32.
Explain the features of west coastal plain in India.
Answer:
Features of West Coastal Plain:

• Between the Arabian Sea and the Western Ghats
• From the Rann of Kutchh to Kanyakumari
• Comparatively narrow
• Can be divided into Gujarat coast, Konkan coast and Malabar coast.
• Lakes and backwaters can be found.

Question 33.
Write a note on the north east monsoon season in India.
Answer:
Northeast monsoon season
By the end of September, as the sun shifts towards the southern hemisphere, intense high pressure develops over the Northern plains. Comparatively low pressure over the Indian” ocean causes wind to blow from the northern part of India towards the south. These are the northeast monsoon winds. These winds are dry and do not cause rain in India.

This season is a transition period between the rainy season and the forthcoming winter. This season experienced during the months of October and November makes the days unbearable due to high temperature and humidity. This phenomenon is known as October heat.

The winds blowing from land to sea due to the attraction of low pressure over the Bay of Bengal takes; a northeast to southwest direction. It absorbs moisture from the Bay of Bengal and causes rainfall along the Coromandal coast, especially the Tamil Nadu coast. Kerala and some parts of Karnataka also receive northeast monsoon.

Question 34.
Write a short note on Trans Himalayas.
Answer:
Trans Himalayas: Trans Himalayas are a part of northern mountain ranges. Trans Himalayas include Karakoram, Ladakh and Zaskar mountain ranges. Mount K₂ or Godwin Austin (8661 m), the highest peak in India, is in the Karakoram range. The average height of the Trans Himalayas is 6000m.

Question 35.
Which are the types of soils found in Peninsular plateau? Write their features also.
Answer:
The soils found in Peninsular plateau are black soil, red soil and laterite soil.

Black soil

• Formed by the cooling of lava.
• Suitable for cotton cultivation.

Red soil

• Formed by the weathering of igneous and metamorphic rocks.
• Presence of iron gives red colour.

Laterite soil
Formed in the regions with monsoon rains and intermittent hot seasons.

Question 36.
Write a note on human life in the Peninsular plateau.
Answer:

• Agriculture: Cotton, pulses, groundnut, sugarcane, maize, ragi, chilli, etc. are the major agricultural crops of this region. –
• Mining: Iron ore, coal, manganese, bauxite, limestone, etc. are the major minerals found here.
• Industries: Agro-based industries and mineral-based industries are found.

Question 37.
Write a note on human life along coastal plains of India.
Answer:

• Fishing is the main occupation of the people.
• Tourism has great possibilities here.
• Agriculture: Rice and coconut are the major agricultural crops along the west coast.

Question 38.
Write a note on the Lakshadweep island and human life there.
Answer:

• The Lakshadweep islands are situated in the Arabian Sea, There are 36 islands in this island group, of which only 11 are inhabited.
• Lagoons, sandy beaches and coral reefs are the specialities of the Lakshadweep island group.
• People depend largely on sea for their sustenance as agriculture is sparse. Fishing and tourism are the major sources of income.

Answer the following. Score 4 each

Question 1.
Mark the answers to the following geoinformation in the outline map India.
a. The southernmost Himalayan range
b. Major type of soil in Marusthali Bagar plain
c. Coromandel Coast
d. The southern endpoint of India ‘
Answer:
a. Siwalik
b. Desert soil
c. Coromandel Coast
d. Indira Point

Question 2.
Mark the answers to the following geoinformation in the outline map of India.
Answer:
a. Peninsular river with lb as tributary
b. River which originates from Gaimukh caves
c. Himalayan river which joins the Arabian Sea
d. River which originates from Madhya Pradesh flows through Gujarat and Maharashtra and joins the Arabian sea.
Answer:
a. Mahanadi
b. Ganga
c. Indus
d. Tapti

Question 3.
Statements A and B deal with the island groups of India. Which are they? Write their features also.
Statement A: Situated in the Arabian Sea
Statement B: Port Blair is the capital of this island group.
Answer:
Statement A: Lakshadweep

• Causes the emergence of diverse flora and fauna
• Forms the source of many perennial rivers.
• The region has a remarkable role in the formation of the Northern Great Plains, which is the food bowl of India.
• Agriculture is sparse and people mainly depend on sea for sustenance.
• Fishing and tourism are the main sources of income. ,

Statement B : Andaman & Nicobar Islands

• Situated in the Bay of Bengal.
• Consist of two groups of islands – Andaman with 200 islands and Nicobar with 19 islands.
• Most of the islands are uninhabited.
• Many of them have dense forests.
• The only volcano of India is situated in the Barren island here.
• Indira Point which is the southernmost tip of Nicobar islands is considered as the southern end of India.

Question 4.
Explain the ròle of the Northern mountain system in influencing the physiography, climate and human life of India.
Answer:

• Protects from foreign invasions from the north since ancient time onwards.
• Obstructs the monsoon winds and causes rainfall throughout North India.
• Prevents the dry cold wind blowing from north from entering India during winter.
• Causes the emergence of diverse flora and fauna
• Forms the source of many perennial rivers.
• The region has a remarkable role in the formation of the Northern Great Plains. which is the food bowl of India.
• Attracts tourists and mountaineers. Tourism is ail Important source of income of this region.
• Supports an indigenous culture.

Question 5.
The south-west monsoon winds provide about 70% of the rainfall received in India. Which are the two branches of this monsoon? Explain their role in giving rainfall throughout India.
Answer:
Arabian Sea Branch
The Arabian sea branch which reaches Kerala coast by the beginning of June gives heavy rainfall here. Then it advances to the states of Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat and causes rainfall in the western parts.

Bay of Bengal branch
The Bay of Bengal branch advances north by absorbing moisture from Bay of Bengal. On reaching West Bengal, crossing the Sundarban delta, it bifurcates into two branches. One branch enters the Brahmaputra plains and gives heavy rainfall in the north eastern states. Khasi, Garo hills obstruct the winds to cause rainfall.

Question 6.
The sketch of river Ganga is given. &amine the information given and complete the table.


Answer:
a. Gaimukh caves in the Gangotri glacier, Uttarakhand
b. About 2500 km
c. Yamuna
d. Uttar Pradesh, Bihar
e. Hooghly
f. Bay of Bengal

Question 7.
India is largely influenced by the peculiarities of the Himalayas. Complete the Sun diagram by writing two examples each.

Answer:
A : Kulu, Manali, Shimla, Darjeeling, Nainital, Mussoorie
B : Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra
C : Ganga plain, Brahmaputra plain, Punjab – Haryana plain, Marusthali – Bagar plain.
D: Himadri, Himachal, Siwalik
E: Major means of livelihood is animal rearing. Potato, barley, apple and tea are cultivated in the fertile Siwalik valley.

Question 8.
Match the items in columns A, B and C.

Answer:

Question 9.
The following are some of the features related to the physiographic divisions of India. Find out to which physiographic division each is related. Write two features of these divisions also.
a. The region where Mount K₂ is located.
b. The region of numerous deposits of minerals.
c. The region influenced by northeast monsoon.
Answer:
a. Mount K₂ is located in Northern mountain region.
b. Region of numerous deposits of minerals is Peninsular plateau.
c. Eastern coastal plain is influenced by northeast monsoon.

Features of the physiographic divisions

• Northern mountain region Functions as a great wall starting from north west of Kashmir and extends upto eastern border.
• The region of highest rainfall in the world is located in the east of this mountain.

Peninsular plateau

• Has an area of about 15 lakh km²
• Has a diverse topography of mountains, plateaus and valleys.

Eastern coastal plain

• Located between Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
• Deltas are formed in this coastal stretch.

Question 10.
The map depicting the physical divisions of India are given. Write the name of physical divisions represented by the English alphabets. Also write the type of soil found in each and the major crops cultivated.

Answer:
A – Peninsular plateau
B – Western coastal plain
C – Northern Great Plains
D – Northern mountains

• Peninsular plateau – black soil, red soil – cotton, sugar cane, maize
• Coastal plains – Alluvial soil-paddy, coconut
• Northern Great Plains – Alluvial soil, desert soil- wheat, maize, paddy, cotton
• Northern mountain – mountain soil – saffron, potato, apple, tea.

Question 11.
Complete the columns based on the Peninsular rivers

Answer:
a. Munthai plateau
b. Anar
c. Krishna
d. 1400 km
e. Brahmagiri hills
f. Kabani
g. Narmada
h. Hiran

Question 12.
The list of mountain passes of Northern mountain system are given. Write the places connected by them.

Answer:
A. Srinagar-Kargil
B. Jammu-Srinagar
C. Himachal Pradesh-Tibet
D. Sikkim-Lhasa

Question 13.
Given map shows the direction of monsoon winds. Observe the map and prepare a description based on the hints given.

Monsoon Season : Southwest monsoon season,
Nature of winds: Since North Indian regions experience intense low pressure and Indian Ocean region high pressure, winds blow from Indian Ocean to the Indian subcontinent. The winds deflect to right due to Coriolis effect and reach India as south west monsoon winds. Because of the peculiar shape of the Indian peninsula, the south west monsoon winds bifurcate into two branches – Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch- before entering the land.

Question 14.
What are the regional variations in the distribution of rainfall in India? Write the reasons also.
Answer:

• Reasons for the regional variations in rainfall.
• Nearness to sea
• Distance from sea
• Location of mountains
• Direction of winds
• Extent of land

Regional variations in the distribution of rainfall include places receiving more than 200cm rainfall, places receiving rainfall between 100 cm and 200 cm, places receiving rainfall between 60 cm and 100 cm and those less than 60 cm.
Location of mountain is the reason for rainfall of more than 200 cm. Heavy’ rainfall is received on the west of Western Ghats and north east of Khasi and Garo hills. Nearness to sea and Himalayan mountains are the reasons for rainfall between 100 cm and 200 cm. Distance from sea is the reason for rainfall between 60 cm and 100 cm. Distance from Sea and location of mountain are the reasons for rainfall less than 60 cm. Eg. Location of Aravalli.

Question 15.
Is the atmospheric condition of New Delhi and Trivandrum the same during summer and winter? Why? Explain.
Answer:
The atmospheric condition is not the same.
During summer season, the atmospheric temperature of Trivandrum is low and that of New Delhi is high. But during winter season, the atmospheric temperature of Trivandrum is high and that of New Delhi is low.

Reasons;
i. Migration of Sun: India experiences summer when the sun is over the northern hemisphere. So the temperature will be high over northern parts of India including New Delhi. Temperature will be low over southern parts of India including Trivandrum. India experiences winter when the sun is over the southern hemisphere. Temperature will be high over the southern parts of India including Trivandrum which lies near to southern hemisphere. Delhi which lies away experiences low temperature.

ii. Nearness to Sea: Regions located close to sea experience moderate climate. But regions located far from sea experience extreme climate-intense cold during winter and intense heat during summer. Trivandrum lies close to sea and so has moderate climate. Since Delhi lies away from sea, it experiences extreme climate during summer and winter.

Question 16.
Give reasons for the regional variations in the distribution of south west monsoon rain.
Answer:
Location of mountains: Rainfall is maximum along the windward slopes of the mountains. The western side of the Western Ghats, the Eastern Highlands and southern slopes of the Himalayas get heavy rainfall during south west monsoon. The Western Ghats obstruct the south west monsoon winds and cause heavy rainfall on the western side. The eastern slope of Western Ghats is rainshadow region. Khasi, Garo and Jaintia hills obstruct the Bay of Bengal branch of south west monsoon and cause heavy rainfall in the north eastern India. The Himalayas obstruct the monsoon winds and cause heavy rainfall in the southern slopes. Rajasthan receives scanty rainfall due to the location of Aravalli hills.

Distance from sea: As the amount of moisture decreases with the advancement of Arabian Sea branch and Bay of Benga l branch, the amount of rainfall decreases from the coast towards interior. By the time the Arabian Sea branch reaches Rajasthan, the amount of moisture content in it will be less. That iS why most parts of Rajasthan are deserts.

Question 17.
Write notes on the major soil types and major crops cultivated in the Northern mountain region, Northern plains, Peninsular plateau and coastal plains.
Answer:
Northern mountain :
Soil: Mountain soil
Crops : Potato, barley, saffron, apple, orange

Northern Plains :

• Soil: Alluvial soil ‘
• Crops: Wheat, maize, rice, sugarcane

Peninsular plateau :

• Soil: Black soil
• Crops: Cotton, maize, sugarcane

Coastal plains :
Soil: Alluvial soil Crops: Paddy, coconut

Answer the following. Score 5 each

Question 1.
Which are the two branches of south west monsoon winds? Identify the regions where they cause rainfall.
Answer:
Due to the peculiar shape of the Indian peninsula, the south west monsoon winds bifurcate into two branches – Arabian Sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch before entering the land. ‘

Arabian Sea branch
The Arabian Sea branch that reaches Kerala coast by the beginning of June gives heavy rainfall there. Then it advances to the states of Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat and causes rainfall in the western parts.

Bay of Bengal branch
The Bay of Bengal branch which absorbs moisture from Bay of Bengal advances through Sundarban delta and enters West Bengal and bifurcates into two. One branch enters the Brahmaputra plains and gives heavy rainfall in the north eastern states. Khasi, Garo hills obstruct the winds to cause rainfall.

The other branch enters the Ganga plains and gives rainfall in the states of West Bengal, Bihar and Utter Pradesh. This branch joins with the Arabian Sea branch in the Punjab plain, moves northward and gives heavy rainfall in the foothills of the Himalayas.

Question 2.
Write the features of winter season in India.
Answer:
Winter season is experienced in India from December to February. India experiences winter season when the sun is in the southern hemisphere. North India experiences severe cold during this time. This is because temperature decreases from south to north.
During this season, days are generally warm and nights are severely cold in North India. Snowfall is a common phenomenon in hill stations like Manali and Shimla.

The phenomenon of western disturbance is another feature of the cold season; Cyclones originating in the Mediterranean Sea in winter travel eastwards and enter India. This causes winter rainfall in North Indian plains, especially in Punjab region. This is known as western disturbance. This rainfall is very beneficial for rabi crops. Jet streams bring western disturbance to India.

Question 3.
Write the features of the summer season in India based on the hints.
Duration
Intensity of heat
Local storms
Answer:
summer season in India is experienced from March to May. India experiences summer when the sun is in the northern hemisphere. There is a steady increase in temperature from south to north. North India has high temperature compared to the southern regions located close to sea.

The highest temperature in India during summer season is experienced at Barmer (55°C) in the western part of Rajasthan. The low pressure that develops over North India results in the formation of dry, hot wind called Loo. The local wind known as Mangoshowers causes rainfall in Kerala during this time. Kalbaisakhi is a local wind in West Bengal causing thundershowers and hailstorms.

Question 4.
Classify the Peninsular rivers based on origin, direction of flow, length, tributaries, states through which they flow and the sea to which they join.
Answer:
Mahanadi: Maikala ranges of Madhya Pradesh – east-flowing – 857 km – lb, Tel, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha- Bay of Bengal.

Godavari: Nasik district of Maharashtra – east-flowing – 1465 km – Indravathi, Sabari – Maharashtra, Telengana, Andhra Pradesh- Bay of Bengal.

Krishna: Mahabaleswar hills in Maharashtra- east flowing – 1400km, – Bhima, Tungabhadra- Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telengana, Andhra Pradesh – Bay of Bengal.

Kaveri: Brahmagiri hills is Karnataka – east flowing – 800km – Kabani, Amaravathi – Karnataka, Tamil Nadu – Bay of Bengal.

Narmada : Maikala ranges of Chhattisgarh – west flowing – 1312km – Hiran, Banjan- Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat-Arabian Sea.

Tapti: Muntai plateau in Madhya Pradesh – west flowing – 724 km – Anar, Gima- Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat – Arabian Sea.

Question 5.
The names of tributaries of some rivers are given. Answer the questions based on them. –
Chambal
Gomati
Tungabhadra
Sutlej
a. Which are the tributaries of Himalayan rivers?
b. Which are the tributaries of Peninsular rivers?
c. Which river originates from Peninsular plateau and joins Ganga?
d. Which river originates from Himalayas and joins Ganga?
e. Complete the table

Answer:
a. Chambal, Gomati, Sutlej, Ravi, Manas, Tista
b. Thungabhadra, Gima, lb
c. Chambal
d. Gomati
e.

Answer the following. Score 6 each

Question 1.
The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges. Write their features.
OR
Arrange the mountain ranges Himachal, Siwalik and Himadri in accordance with altitude and write their features.
Answer:
The Himalayan mountain range forms an arc shaped physical division extending between north-
west Trans Himalayas and the south east Eastern Highlands. These mountain ranges have a length of about 2400 km. It consists of three parallel ranges namely Himadri, Himachal and Siwalik.
Himadri: 6000 m
Siwalik:1220 m
Himachal:3000 m

Himadri

• Highest mountain ranges in the Himalayas.
• Average altitude is about 6000 m.
• The source of Ganga and Brahmaputra
• Mountain peaks with a height of more than 8000 m are situated in this range!
  Eg: Kanchenjunga, Nanda Devi .
• Snow covered throughout the year.

Himachal

• Situated to the south of the Himadri
• Average altitude is above 3000 m.
• Hill stations like Shimla, Dajjeeling are situated on the southern slope of this range. “

Siwalik

• Situated to the south of the Himachal and is . the southernmost range.
• Average altitude is about 1220 m.
• As the Himalayan rivers cut across the range, its continuity breaks at many places.
• Broad flat valleys called Duns are seen along these ranges.
  Eg. Dehradun.

Question 2.
What are the different types of soils found in India? Write their features.
Answer:

Question 3.
India is a land of diverse topography, climate and- drainage. Substantiate with example. •
Answer:
India presents a diverse topography with lofty mountains, broad plateaus, extensive plains and long coast line. She is a land of long rivers, local and seasonal climatic difference and diverse natural vegetation. The following is a description of the diversity seen in the above mentioned factors.

Topography: Physiographically India can be classified into four divisions.

• Northern mountain region
• Great plains of the north
• Peninsular plateau
• Coastal plains and islands

The Northern mountain ranges are subdivided into Trans Himalayas, Himalayas and Eastern Highlands. The highest peak in India Mount K₂ or Godwin Austin is in the Karakoram range of Trans Himalayas. Himadri is the highestmountain range in the Himalayas. Himachal range is located south of Himadri and Siwalik range to further south. The world’s rainiest spot Cherrapunji is located in the thickly forested Khasi, Jaintia and Garo Hills of Eastern Highlands.

Climate: The climate is not the same in all the months in all places of India. Though there is much local diversity in climate, India in general, has a monsoon climate. Based on temperature and rainfall, the seasons of India are divided into four – winter season, summer season, south west monsoon season and north east monsoon season. In India there are places like Cherrapunji with more than 1080 cm of annual rainfall and places like Jaisalmer with less than 12 cm of annual rainfall.

While the western coastal plains and the north east regions receive an annual rainfall greater than 400 cm, Western Rajastan, Gujarat, Haryana and Punjab have less than 60 cm. The Himalayan peaks experiencing intense cold conditions throughout the year and the place Banner that recorded the highest temperature (55°C) are also in India. In this way, India experiences diverse climatic conditions.

Drainage (Rivers): Indian rivers are classified into Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers. Floods occur in the Himalayan rivers due to rainfall in the rainy season and the melting of ice in summer. But the Peninsular rivers overflow during the rainy season and cause floods and dry up during summer causing destruction to crops. The Himalayan rivers that carry large volume of water are suitable for inland navigation. They have a number of tributaries. Peninsular rivers are not ‘ very long and do not have many tributaries. Thus India has a diverse drainage system.

Question 4.
Compare the two monsoon seasons of India and state the influence they exert on different parts of India. ,
Answer:
The rainy season of India is known as monsoon season. The two monsoon seasons namely south west monsoon and north east monsoon exert great influence all over India.

South west monsoon season
The period of south west monsoon season in India is from June to September. This is the main rainy season in India because the country receives about 60% rainfall during this period.
When the sun is in the northern hemisphere, North Indian regions experience intense low pressure. Owing to high pressure over the oceans, winds blow from high pressure to low pressure, ie, from the Indian Ocean to the , Indian subcontinent. As the winds deflect towards right due to Coriolis effect, they reach India as south west monsoon winds.
Because of the peculiar shape of the Indian Peninsula, the south west monsoon winds bifurcate into two branches before entering the land – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

The Arabian Sea branch
The Arabian Sea branch which reaches Kerala coast by early June gives heavy rainfall there. Then it advances to the states of Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat and causes rainfall in the western parts. This is because the Western Ghats obstruct the moisture-laden monsoon winds. But the eastern slopes of Western Ghats receive very little rainfall and have become a rain shadow region. This branch then enters Rajasthan through Gujarat and passes parallel to the Aravalli ranges. As a result, Rajasthan gets only scanty rainfall.

Bay of Bengal branch
The Bay of Bengal branch advances northward and absorbs moisture from the Bay of Bengal and enters West Bengal and bifurcates into two. One branch enters the Brahmaputra valley and gives heavy rainfall in the north eastern states. This is because Khasi and Garo hills obstruct this wind. The other branch enters the Ganga plains and gives rainfall in Wcst Bengal. Bihar and Uttar Pradesh. It joins with the Arabian Sea branch in the Punjab plain, moves northward and gives heavy rainfall in the foothills of the Himalayas.

North east monsoon season
The months of October and November are the period of north east monsoon. Intense high pressure develops over North Indian plains and winds are retreating. High temperature and humidity make the days unbearable. The sun is in the southern hemisphere after September and so North Indian plains experience high pressure. But the Indian Ocean regions experience low pressure. So winds blow from the north of India to the Indian Ocean. These are the north east monsoon winds. As they are dry, they do not cause rainfall.

These winds attracted to the low-pressure regions of Bay of Bengal absorb moisture from Bay of Bengal and move in the north east to south east direction. As a result, heavy rainfall is caused on the Coromandal Coast, especially in Tamil Nadu. Kerala and some parts of Karnataka also receive north east monsoon rain.

Question 5.
The distribution of rainfall in India is not uniform. Why? On the basis of rainfall. classfy India into djfferent rainfall regions.
Answer:
Though the whole of India experiences the influence of monsoon rainfall, there is regional variation in the amount of rainfall received. In India there are places like Cherrapunji with more than 1080 cm of rainfall and places like Jaisalmer with less than 12 cm rainfall. Similarly when Kerala gets heavy rainfall during the south west monsoon season, the neighbouring Tamil Nadu gets very less rainfall during this period.

Reasons for tlie disparity in the distribution of rainfall
i. Nearness to sea
ii. Distance from the sea
iii. Location of the mountains
iv. Direction of winds
v. Area of land regions

Rainfall zones in India
i. Heavy rainfall regions and reasons (above 200 cms): West coast plains (region between Kerala and Maharashtra), some places in North-Eastern regions, north – eastern parts of North Indian plains come under this zone. The annual rainfall here is more than 200 cms. The reasons for the heavy rainfall here are Western Ghats, North Eastern Hills and the Himalayas.

ii. High rainfall regions and reasons (between 100 and 200 cms): This zone includes Western Ghat regions, most parts of North Indian plains, north – eastern paits of Peninsular India and North Eastern regions. The reasons are nearness to sea and the Himalayas.

iii. Moderate rainfall regions (between 60 and 100 cms): This zone includes the south and south-west of Kashmir, Malwa Plateau, Deccan plateau and central parts of Tamil Nadu. The reason for the moderate rainfall is the distance from the sea.

iv. Low rainfall regions (below 60 cms) :
Rajasthan, western parts of Gujarat, central parts of Deccan plateau and northern parts of Kashmir come under this zone. The reasons for low rainfall are distance from the sea and the location of regional land forms like mountains (eg. Aravalli mountains).

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions