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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 2  Chapter 3 Human Resource Development in India Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 3 Notes

Human Resource Development In India Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Prepare a note on the facilities provided in your area for the development of human resource ?
Answer:

• Provides better health facilities.
• Many welfare schemes have been implemented.
• Provides institutions providing higher education
• Provide training programmes
• Balancing multiple objectives of labor market regulations

Explain The Different Levels Of Human Resource Development Class 10 Question 2.
Find out from your elders what information was collected from your home for the 2011 census.
Answer:
In India, population census is conducted once in ten years. The last census was conducted in 2011. Information related to the population was collected as on 1^st March 2011. According to this census India’s population was 121.02 crores. Out of this 58.65 crores are . females and 62.37 crores are males.

Human Resource Development Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Collect more information on the population by visiting the website www.censusindia.gov.in.
Answer:
Total population of India 121.02 crores
Men :- 62.37 crores
Female :- 58.65 crores
The most populated state — Uttar Pradesh.
Least populated state — Sikkim
Most densely populated state — Bihar
Least densely populated state — Arunachal Pradesh
The state having least decadal growth rate — Nagaland
The state having highest decadal growth that rate — Meghalaya
Union territory having least decadal growth rate — Lakshadweep
Union territory having highest decadal growth rate — Dadra- Nagar- Havelli

Human Resource Development In India Sslc Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
How does the population density of an area influence the availability of human resource? Discuss.
Answer:

• In a densely populated region Labour force will be more.
• It will become fruitful only if the human resource development is possible.
• If government provide better education, health care, practice etc. they become skilled and quality labours.
• Otherwise high density of population leads to unemployment and poverty.

Human Resource Development In India Class 10 Notes Question 5.
Which decade has marked the maximum population growth ?
Answer:
1961 – 71

State Syllabus Class 10 Social Science Notes Pdf  Question 6.
From which year on wards is there a decrease in the population growth rate ?
Answer:
1991

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
ow much decrease did the population growth rate record in the decade 2001 – 2011 ?
Answer:
4%

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
What changes are made in the population of a country by birth rate, death rate and migration ? Prepare a note.
Answer:

Hsslive Guru Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Given below is the age structure based on Census of India 2011. Observe the diagram and find out the answers.

A. What percentage of the total population belongs to the age group of 0 -14 years ?
B. What percentage of the total population belongs to the age group of 60 years and above?
C. What percentage of the total population belongs to the age group of 15 – 59 years ?
Answer:
A. 29.4 %
B. 8 %
C. 62.5 %

10th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Discuss the problems in the economy as a result of a decrease in the labor force participation rate and increase in the dependency ratio.
Answer:
A decrease in the labor force participation rate means decrease in the number of employed person. It means decrease in the age group who has the ability to contribute to the progress of the nation. There by increase in the dependency rate cause decrease in per capita income, and increase in poverty. It also leads to low standard of living of the people. It will be an obstacle to the economic development.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 11.
Conduct a discussion in class on the topic sex ratio and the nation’s economic development.
Answer:
Sex ratio is related to economic development. Sex ratio is high in economically developed countries but it is low in undeveloped countries. The Increase in death rate of females causes low sex ratio. Besides, abortion, unhealthy treatment and discrimination’s against women within families are the reasons behind low sex ratio. In developed countries sex ratio is high due to better health, high literacy, sound finance, high standard of living etc. Under developed countries can attain high sex ratio by providing priority in economic planning.

Scert Class 10 Social Science Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
What are the qualitative factors that improve the labor potential?
Answer:

• Education
• Healthcare
• Training
• Social capital
• Life span
• Literacy rate

Hss Live Social Science 10th Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
Prepare a note on how human resource development helps in economic development.
Answer:
Human resource development helps to increase production directly and indirectly. A country requires people to produce goods and services efficiently. Labor force in various fields has to be developed for the same. People contribute for the production. As they own the labor power and helps to increase in production of goods and services. As a result this improves the social- economic condition.

The development prospects of a country don’t depend on the natural resources. The coal reserves of Korbar field in M.P remain unutilized, until the zone was opened with railway link connecting Bhilai Steel Plant. Man is a development key, whose abilities, values and attitudes must be changed for a development process. Education and healthcare helps the human resource development.

Social Science 10th Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Prepare a report collecting details about the different educational development programmes undertaken by the state and local government institutions in Kerala.
Answer:
Athulyam project :- Project undertaken by Kerala state literacy mission authority. This project explains who haven’t got primary education within the age group of 15 – 50.

National Skill Development Corporation :- Gives skill training in various fields such as construction, tourism, banking and engineering.

Question 15.
Conduct a discussion on the Topic “Educational facilities in India and the existing problems.”
Answer:

• All the students are not getting proper education
• Drop out still continues
• Basic facilities are not available
• Quality of education has to be improved.
• The economically and socially backward are denied the opportunity of education.

Question 16.
Discuss how the different institutions working in the health sector help in making avail-able the medical attention and preventive measures to the people.
Answer:
In India network operates widely at different levels to ensure the people’s health in rural sector. There are different layers of health facilities. Most of the people live in rural areas and they possess sufficient medical institutions which realize the objectives of health. Health indices is developed by attaining basic facilities in health sector. Co-operative and private sectors are the main hospitals.

The multi specialty hospitals operates modem treatment facilities, there are several institutions which provide different streams in medicine like Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Sidha and Homeopathy. The National Rural Health Mission operates in the rural sector. The National Urban Health Mission provides improved health services towards urban slums and township.

Question 17.
Organize a seminar on the Topic ‘The role of education and health care in human resource development’.
Answer:
Education and healthcare help human resource development. There is an element of personal gain in it. When the capacity of an individual is increased, it improves his personal life.

It facilitates the individual to prepare or participate more effectively in social and economic activities which may benefit the whole society- over all development of the people is the ultimate aim of human resource development.

It can be developed by providing education and healthcare to the people. Various resources have to be used to increase human resource development. Humans are as important as natural resources. When the natural resources are combined with human resources there is an increase in production which leads to economic development. Only the quality and development of human resources can be attained.

Question 18.
Do you agree with the statement that the main reason for prosperity and poverty in the world is the difference in human resource development ? Prepare a note.
Answer:
Each country tries to develop its main human resource as to realize their developmental goals. Research and Training centers for education and healthcare are established for this. The knowledge, skill, expertise and health of the people are enhanced. This will facilitate the creation of an efficient labour force in the country. Programmes improve skills of labour force and helps in human resource development.

Human Resource Development in India Let Us Assess

Question 1.
List out the quantitative and qualitative aspects of human resource ?
Answer:
Human Resource refers to people who have the man power which can be utilized in the production sector. Human Resource has qualitative and quantitative aspects.
Quantitative aspects:

• Size of population
• Growth of population
• Population density
• Birth and death rate
• Population structure
• Age structure
• Sex ratio
• Labour force participation
• Dependency ratio

Qualitative aspects:

• Education
• Literacy rate
• Health care
• Life expectancy

Question 2.
Prepare a note by analyzing the importance of population studies.
Answer:
In India, population census is conducted once in ten years. Population studies help the government to quantitatively assess the different needs of the people and to plan activities and programmes accordingly. It also provides various other helps such as

• Informs the availability of human resource in a country.
• Depicts the extent of basic facilities required by the people.
• Quantifies the goods and services required.
• Determines the social economic development policies.

Question 3.
Compare the changes in population due to birth rate, death rate and migration.
Answer:

Question 4.
Labor force participation rate and dependency rate as per the census of India 2011 is given below. Prepare a graph based on this.

Answer:

Question 5.
List the advantages of the increase in labor force participation rate and disadvantages due to increase in dependency rate. Advantages due to increase in labor force participation rate.
Answer:

• It leads to the progress of the nation.
• Per capita income will increase.
• Standard of living of the people will increase.
• Increase in production of goods and services.
• Natural resources can be utilized properly.

Disadvantages due to increase in dependency rate

• Economic progress of the country will decrease.
• It decreases percapita income.
• Standard of living of the people will decrease.
• Production of goods and services also will decrease.

Question 6.
What are the factors that improve human resource? How does this influence a country’s development?
Answer:
There are various factors that improve human resource. They are:

• Provide quality education
• Provision of proper health care
• Job training programmes
• Creation of social capital
• Investment in information

Development in human resource can influence a country’s development by various ways. Such as

• Productivity of workers increases
• Economic inequality will reduce
• Entrepreneurship improvement
• Natural resource is utilized effectively
• Development and use of advanced technology makes possible

Question 7.
How does education help in a country’s development? Prepare a flow chart
Answer:
Education helps in the development of a country. Education has a major role in molding skilled people.

Flowchart:
Education
↓
Improves the skills of individuals
↓
Knows better technology
↓
Helps to secure better job and income
↓
Improves the standard of living

Question 8.
List the existing problems in the health sector.
Answer:
Problems in the health sector.

• Unavailability of nutritious food
• Lack of clean and safe drinking water
• No cleanliness
• Inadequate medical facilities
• Unhealthy Environment.
• Lack of proper time for leisure and relaxation.

Question 9.
Explain how education and health care help in human resource development
Answer:
Education and health care integral to human well-being because only when people have the ability to read and write and the ability to lead a long healthy life, they will be able to make other choices which they valye. In human resource development human beings end in themselves.

Labor skill of an educated person is more than that of an uneducated person hence educated person generates more income. Likewise, a healthy person could provide uninterrupted labor supply for a longer period of time, then the health care is also an important factor. Therefore education and health care help in human resource development.

Human Resource Development in India Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the flow chart

Answer:
a. Human Resource
b. Human resource development
c. Different levels

• Individuals take efforts to develop their own skills.
• Family creates an environment for the development of the potential of individuals.
• Various institutions and agencies provide facilities for education and training.
• Nation provides the necessary facilities for its people to develop their skills

Question 2.
Fill the table which is based on the features of ‘Human Resource.’

Answer:
a. Quantitative,
b. Quantitative,
c. Health care
d. Literacy Rate,
e. Life Expectancy.

Question 3.
Combine the ‘boxes’ suitably.

Answer:

Question 4.
Complete the picture.

Answer:
a. Informs the availability of human resource in a country.
b. Depicts the extent of basic facilities required by the people.
c. Quantifies the goods and services required.
d. Determines the social economic development policies.

Question 5.
Fill in the blank spaces of the boxes.

Answer:
a. Quantitative features of human resources,
b.Growth of population,
c. Birth rate decreases, death rate increases,
d. Birth rate and death rate are equal.

Question 6.
Fill the boxes with relevant details.

Answer;
Birth rate is the number of live births per 100, b. Death rate is number of deaths per 10 00. c. Migration, d. Age structure is the classification of population into different age groups and presenting the ratio of each group in the population, e. 940.

Question 7.
Complete the table.

Answer:

• Health care
• Training
• Social Capital

Question 8.
Using the hints given below, prepare a write up on the topic ‘Advantages of the development of Human resources’.
a. Productivity of the workers
b. Economic equality
c. Utilization of natural resources.
d. Use of advanced technology
e. Entrepreneurship
Answer:
a. Productivity increases: By developing human resources the productivity of workers can be increased. In this way workers contribute more in the productivity process.

b. Economic inequality : In a society with developed human resource economic inequality will be reduced.

c. Utilization of natural resources : Natural resources can be utilized easily by developing natural resources.

d. Use of Advanced technology : Improved human resource make possible the development and use of advanced technology.

e. Entrepreneurship : When human resources are developed entrepreneurship improves

Question 9.
Fill the ‘gaps’ in the flow chart given below.

Answer:
Improves the skills of individuals,
b. Helps to secure better job and income.

Question 10.
One of the projects implemented in India to develop education and skill is given below. Find out similar projects and write down in the box. The project which is implementing in India to ensure integrated development of children up to 6 years, and to provide health care for pregnant and lactating women is Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS).

Answer:
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA): To ensure universal primary education to all. To improve educational facilities.

Rashtriya Uchthal Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA): To increase the access to higher education. To improve the quality of higher education.

National Skill Development and Monetary Reward Scheme: To improve the working skills of the youth To ensure the availability of people with employable skills.

Question 11.
Complete the chart

Answer:
a. Lack of availability of basic facilities
b. Quality of education has to be improved.

Question 13.
Fill the chart by supplying correct details.

Answer:
a. State of physical mental and social well being,
b. Production increases with the increase in efficiency and number of working days.
c. Natural resources can be utilized properly,
d. Medical expense can be reduced, thereby reducing the government’s expenditure
e. Economic development is possible through increase in production.

Question 14.
‘Word Wheel’

Answer:

• Cleanliness
• Preventive measures
• Medical facilities
• Ensuring of leisure and environment
• Availability of clean water
• Healthy environment.

Question 15.
Fill the gaps by writing the names of institutions that work at different levels in the Medical Sector.

Answer:

• District Hospitals
• Community Health centers
• Primary Health Centers
• Health Sub Centers.

Question 16.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 17.
Fill the blank spaces.

Answer:
a. Life expectancy is the average number of years that a person lives
b. Female 67.7
c. Male 64.6
d. Total 66.1

Human Resource Development in India Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by‘Human Resources’?
Answer:
Human resources refers to the people who have the manpower which can be utilized in the production sector.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of ‘Human Resource Development’?
Answer:
Human resource development is the development of man’s physical and mental abilities through education, health care and training. There are different levels of human resource development.

Question 3.
Which are two features of population studies.
Answer:
Quantitative Features ( Size of population, Growth of population, Population structure). Qualitative features (Education, Health care)

Question 4.
List out the importance of population studies.
Answer:
Population studies help the government to quantitatively assess the different needs of the people and to plan activities and programmes accordingly.
They help that they offer are

• Informs the availability of human resource in a country.
• Depicts the extent of basic facilities required by the people.
• Quantifies the goods and services required.
• Determines the social economic development policies.

Question 5.
What is the difference between ‘density of population’ and ‘population growth’?
Answer:
Density of population refers to the number of people per square kilometer area. Population growth refers to the increase in the number of people in an area within a specific period of time. lt is indicated in terms of percentage and states the increase in a year as compared to the previous year.

Question 6.
What is the change in total population in the two contexts:
(a) Birth rate increases
(b) Birth rate decreases.
Answer:
a. If the birth rate increases and death rate decreases population increases,
b. If the birth rate decreases and death rate increases population declines.

Question 7.
One advantage of human resource development is ‘effective utilization of natural resources’, write any three other advantages.
Answer:
Productivity of the workers increases, Economic inequality is reduced, Entrepreneur-ship improves.

Question 8.
How do ‘education’ helps the development of a country?
Answer:

• Improves the skills of individuals
• Betters the technological know- how
• Helps to secure better job and income
• Improves the standard of living.

Question 9.
Prepare a write up on any one project undertaken by the Government which develops education and skills.
Answer:
National Skill Development and monetary Reward scheme: To improve the working skills of the youth, To ensure the availability of people with employable skills.

Question 10.
What is the importance of RTE?
Answer:
The constitution ensures the goal of elementary education for all.

Question 11.
‘Healthy persons can participate in the progress of a country?’ Justify the statement
Answer:
Production increases with the increase in efficiency and number of working days. Natural resources can be utilized properly. Medical expense can be reduced, thereby reducing the government’s expenditure. Economic development is possible through increase in population

Question 12.
Name the institutions which are providing quality health services in the Rural and urban areas.
Answer:

• National Rural Health Mission Rural areas.
• National Urban Health Mission Urban areas

Human Resource Development in India SCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by human resource development?
Answer:
Development of physical and mental abilities of human beings through education, health care and training.

Question 2.
Different dimensions of human resource development is given below. Prepare a note on the facilities to improve them.
a. Family creates an environment for the development of the potential of the individuals.
b. Nation provide facilities for the people to develop their skills.
Answer:
a. Individuals take efforts to develop their own skills.
b. Various institutions and agencies provide facilities for education and training.

Question 3.
Which are the various factors included in the quantitative features of human resource?
Answer:

• Size of population
• Density of population
• Growth of population
• Structure of population

Question 4.
Complete the flowchart given below based on the quantitative factors of human resources.

Answer:
a. Population density
b. Age structure
c. Sex ratio
d. Labor force participation rate
e. Dependency ratio
f. Birth rate/death rate.

Question 5.
What is Census?
Answer:
Every country at specific intervals of time Collects information on the number of people, age, sex, social-economic status and analyses them. This is called Census.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions related to census in India.
a. How often is the census conducted in India?
b. When was the last census conducted?
Answer:
a. Once in ten years
b. 2011 March 1^st

Question 7.
Write down your inferences about the scope of population studies.
Answer:
Help the government to quantitatively assess the extent of different needs of the people and help to plan activities and programmes accordingly.

Question 8.
How do you think population study help the government? Justify your opinion.
Answer:

• To quantitatively assess the different needs of the people
• To plan activities and programmes
• To know the availability of human resource
• To improve basic facilities
• To quantify the goods and services required
• To determine social-economic policies (Consider similar answers also).

Question 9.
Countries that become successful in developing human resources has achieved greater high economic development. Evaluate with suitable examples.
Answer:
Countries can attain economic development through human resource development.
Eg: USA, Japan, China.

Question 10.
How does density of population affect the availability of man power?
Answer:

• Human resource availability is more in areas of high density of population.
• Human resource availability is less in areas of less population density.

Question 11.
Which date is observed as World Population Day? Write any one programme you are planning to implement in your school on that day.
Answer:

• July -11
• Seminar on population growth – Awareness classes (any one such programme)

Question 12.
Table showing the population growth rate in India is given below. With the help of the table answer the questions.

a Which year has decrease in population growth rate?
b. Which years have increase in population growth rate?
c. What might be the reasons for this?
Answer:
a. 1951
b. 1971,1981
c. Changes in the birth rate and death rate and migration

Question 13.
What changes do birth rate, death rate and migration make. Explain.
Answer:

• Increase in birth rate – Results in the in-crease in population decrease in death rate
• Decrease in birth rate – Results in the decrease in population increase in death rate
• Birth rate and death rate equal – No change in population
• Migration – Population of a region increases Population decreases at another place

Question 14.
What is labour force participation rate and dependency rate?
Answer:

• Labour force participation rate – Ratio of the population in the age group of 15 – 59, who are either employed or actively looking for jobs
• Dependency ratio – The number of people in the age group 0-14 and 60 above and their proportion to the population.

Question 15.
When the age structure is examined the need for proper utilization of human resource will be understood. Write your response to this statement.
Answer:
Many people in the age group 15-59 years do not have job. This points to the necessity of utilizing the human resources aptly.

Question 16.
In your opinion, what are the advantages in developing human resource?
Answer:

• Productivity increases
• Economic inequality is reduced
• Natural resources, can be utilized effectively.
• Entrepreneurship improves
• Social welfare is ensured (Consider similar answers also).

Question 17.
Complete the word web.

Answer:
a. Economic inequality is reduced
b. Natural resources is utilized effectively
c. Entrepreneurship improves

Question 18.
People with labor potential is the strength of a nation. Which are the qualitative fac¬tors that improve labour potential?
Answer:

• Education
• Improving the skills of the individuals
• Imparting the technological know-how
• Improve labor skills
• Health care (any four)

Question 19.
How does human resource development help economic development? Prepare a short note.
Answer:

• For the economic development of a nation, various resources are to be utilized properly.
• Like natural resources, human resources are also important.
• When the natural resources are combined with human efforts, there is an increase in production leading to economic development.
• Therefore availability and quality of the human resource is to be ensured for the economic development.

Question 20.
Fill in the missing portion of the flowchart showing human resource development through education.


Answer:
a. Improves the skills of individuals
b. Helps to secure better job and income
c. Improves the standard of living

Question 21.
When was the Ministry of Human Resource Development formed? What is its main responsibility?
Answer:

• The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) was formed in 1985.
• To plan and implement the activities necessary for human resource development.

Question 22.
Some of the programmes implemented in, India to develop education and skills are given below. Write down their objectives.
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
Rashtriya Uchthal Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)
Answer:
SSA:

• To ensure primary education to all
• To improve.educational facilities

RUSA:

• To increase access to higher education
• To improve the quality of higher education

Question 23.
Which programme is implemented in our country to ensure access to Secondary edu-cation to all and to improve educational facilities?
Answer:
Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)

Question 24.
From Suitable Pairs.
Goals:
a. To ensure integrated development of children up to 6 years
b. To ensure primary education to all.
c. To improve the working skills of the youth.
d. To ensure assess to secondary education
Projects:
i. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
ii. Integrated Child Development,
iii. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
iv. National Skill Development and Monetary Reward Scheme
Answer:
a – ii,
b- iii,
c – iv,
d – i

Question 25.
“Problems still exist in the education sector.” Write your response to this statement.
Answer:

• Certain sections drop out from schools without completing primary education.
• There is lack of availability of basic facilities in the education sector.
• Quality of education has yet to be improved

Question 26.
Prepare a short note on the educational facilities in India.
Answer:

• To improve education and skills, government has implemented the following projects.

ICDS, SSA, RMSA, RUSA
National Skill Development and Monetary Reward Scheme.

• To provide education, there are institutions at various levels in the country.
• Our country has made education fundamental right and has passed the Right to Education Act (RTE) in 2009.

Question 27.
How does healthy individuals become the backbone of development of a nation?
Answer:

• Healthy individuals work for the economic development of the nation.
• Healthy individuals participate in the development process of the country.
• Increase in the number of working days.
• Proper utilization of natural resources.
• Medical expenses can be reduced there by reducing the government expenditure.
• Economic development is possible through increase in production.

Question 28.
Prepare a list of facilities to be ensured for health care.
Answer:

• Availability of nutritious food
• Availability of clean water
• Maintenance of cleanliness
• Medical facilities

Question 29.
Critically evaluate the work of the institutions that are engaged in health sector for preventive measures and treatment
Answer:

• Multi specialty hospitals
• Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Sidha, Homeopathy
• National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)
• National Urban Health Mission (NUHM)

Question 30.
Prepare a paper on ‘The role of education and health care in human resource development’
Answer:
Education:

• Improves the skills of the individuals
• Improves the technological know-how
• Helps to secure better job and income
• Projects implemented to develop educa tion and skills, Integrated Child Deve-lopment Scheme (ICDS), Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Siksha Abhiyan (RMSA), Rashtriya Utchal Siksha Abhiyan (RUSA), Right To Education Act.

Health:

• Increase in the number of working days
• Proper utilization of natural resources
• Less medical expenses
• Increase in production
• Hospital functioning at different levels
• National Rural Health Mission (NHRM)
• National Urban Health Mission (NURM)

Question 31.
Evaluate how education is helpful for the development of a nation?
Answer:

• Improves the capacity of the people. to-population.
• Access to the technological know – how
• Helps to secure better job and income

Question 32.
‘Many problems still remains unresolved in the health sector’. Write your response to this statement.
Answer:

• Lack of health care facilities in the rural areas.
• Lack of health care facilities in proportion to population.
• Increasing medical expense in the public sector.

Question 33.
Write any two activities you recommend to improve the standard of education in the schools.
Answer:

• Continuous evaluation to be made effective
• Prevent drop outs (Similar answers also can be considered).

Human Resource Development in India Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which day has been declared as the World Population Day ?
Answer:
July 1 1

Question 2.
What is the population of India according to 2011 census ?
Answer:
121.02 crore

Question 3.
is the settlement of people of one region in another region.
Answer:
Migration

Question 4.
Human resource consists of mainly two aspects. What are they ?
Answer:
Quantitative and Qualitative aspects

Question 5.
W’hat is human Resource ?
Answer:
Human resource refers to people who have the manpower which can be utilized in the production sector.

Question 6.
What are the advantages behind the development of human resource ?
Answer:
Increase in production and progress of a country can be accelerated.

Question 7.
What is human resource development?
Answer:
Development of human beings physical and mental abilities through education, healthcare and training.

Question 8.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:

Question 9.
What is meant by size of population?
Answer:
Total number of people residing in a country at a particular time.

Question 10.
Define the term “Demography”
Answer:
The branch of social science that analyses the population, the changes in its size, its structural aspects etc is known as demography.

Question 11.
What is population census ? In India who is collecting or organizing the population census ?
Answer:
Every country collects information on the number of people in the country, their age, sex, social economic status etc and analysed for a specific intervals of time. In India census activities are spearheaded by the Office of the Population Registrar General and Census Commissioner. In India census is carried out every ten years.

Question 12.
Why are population studies conducted ?
Answer:

• Population studies help the govt to quantitatively assess the different needs of the people and to plan activities and programmes accordingly.
• Informs the availability of human resources in accounting.
• Depicts the extent of basic facilities required by the people.
• Determines social- economic development policies.
• Qualities the goods and services required
• To evaluate standard of living.
• To understand various problems caused by growth of population.
• To build healthy society and environment

Question 13.
On which date world population day is celebrate why this particular date is selected for world population day?
Answer:
July 11^th, this day was selected because the world population reached 500 crore on July 11^th, 1987.

Question 14.
What does Density of population indicates?
Answer:
The number of people living per square kilometer area.

Question 15.
What is meant by population growth rate?
Answer:
It refers the increase in the number of people in an area within a specified period of time.

Question 16.
Examine the table given below and answer the following questions.
Answer:

Question 17.
What are the factors that affect the population of a country?
Answer:
The birth rate, The death rate and Migration.

Question 18.
Distinguish between Birth rate and Death rate.
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per 1000. Death rate is the number of deaths per 1000.

Question 19.
What is migration ?
Answer:
Migration is the settlement of people of a region to another region.

Question 20.
What is age structure ?
Answer:
This is the classification of population into different age groups and presenting the ratio of each group in the population.

Question 21.
How is the population of a country divided on the basis of age? Explain.
Answer:
Classification is done in age group like 0-14 years, 15-59 years and 60 and above years. Labour force participation rate is the ratio of the population in the age group 15- 59, who are either employed or actively looking for jobs. This age group has a capability to con-tribute to the progress of the nation. The age group 0-14 years and 60 years and above are included in the dependent group.

Question 22.
What is labor force participation rate ?
Answer:
Labor force participation rate is the ratio of the population in the age group 15-59, who are either employed or actively looking for jobs.

Question 23.
a. Define dependency rate. Who are all included in dependency rate ?
b. What are the qualitative factors that improve the labor potential ?
Answer:
a. Labor force participation rate proportion in total population is known as dependency rate. The age group 0-14 years and 60 years and above are included in this.

b. Education, healthcare, training, social capital

Question 24.
Define sex ratio ?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000, males.

Question 25.
Write some advantages in developing human resource.
Answer:
Human resource developing leads to

• Increase in the productivity of the workers
• Economic inequality reduced
• Natural resource utilized effectively
• Social welfare is ensured
• Makers possible the development and use of advanced technology.

Question 26.
How education helps in the development of a country? Present this through a flow chart?
Education
↓
Improves the skills of individuals
↓
Betters the technological know-how
↓
Helps to secure better job and income
↓
Improves the standard of living

Question 27.
What is meant by literacy rate ?
Answer:
It is the percentage of population that can read and write with comprehension.

Question 28.
Write a short note on RTE Act ?
Answer:
Our country has made education a fundamental right and has passed the Right To Education Act (RTE Act) in 2009. The constitution ensures the goal of elementary education for all through RTE.

Question 29.
What are the problems that exist in educational sector ?
Answer:

• Certain sectors drop out from schools without completing primary education.
• There is a lack of availability of basis facilities in the education sector.
• Quality of education has to be improved.

Question 30.
a. What is health?
b. What is life expectancy ?
c. What are different systems of medicine?
Answer:
a. According to WHO, health is a state of physical, mental and social well being.
b. Average number of years that a person lives.
c. Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Sidha, Allopathy and Homeopathy (AYUSH).

Question 31.
How can a healthy person participate in the progress of a country ?
Answer:
Production increases with the increase in efficiency and the number of working days. Natural resource can be utilised properly. Medical expense can be reduced, thereby reducing the govt expenditure. Economic development is possible through increase in production.

Question 32.
List various types of facilities to be ensured for health care.
Answer:

• Availability of nutritious food
• Availability of clean water
• Preventive measures
• Cleanliness
• Medical facilities
• Ensuring of leisure and entertainment
• Healthy environment.

Question 33.
Write some of the institution,Working at different levels in the medical sector.
Answer:
Medical colleges, District hospitals, Community health center, Primary health centers and Health sub centers.

Question 34.
What is the main aim of National Urban Health Mission ?
Answer:
To provide improved health service to the residents of urban slums and other marginalized people in towns with a population of more than 50,000.

Question 35.
List the existing problems in the health sector.
Answer:

• Limited social intervention
• Poor quality
• Low priority to public sector
• Less opportunity for the poor
• Less access to medical facilities
• Neglect of the rural sector
• Difficulty to control epidemics
• Lack of sufficient nutritious food
• Insufficient preventive healthcare
• Unsolved pollution problems
• Increasing cost of treatment

Question 36.
What are the different levels of human re-source development.
Answer:

• Individuals take efforts to develop their own skills.
• Family creates an environment for the development of the potential of individuals.
• Various institutions and agencies provide facilities for education and training.
• Nation provides the necessary facilities for its people to develop their skills.

You can Download Society and Economy in Medieval India Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 5 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 5 Society and Economy in Medieval India Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 5 Notes

Society And Economy In Medieval India Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Complete the table related to agricultural progress in medieval India.

Answer:

Society And Economy In Medieval India Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Analyze the progress in the field of agriculture during the Chola period.
Answer:
During the medieval India, there was tremendous, progress in agricultural activities. Irrigation facilities improved with the construction of canals and digging of wells. Advent of new machines and tools improved the possibility of crop production. Many varieties of paddy and other crops were being cultivated in India. The Chola kings who ruled south India at the beginning of the medieval period adopted several measures to ensure agricultural progress. The steps taken by the Chola kings include the following.

• Construction of canals
• Steps to ensure water prosperity in river Kaveri
• Measures taken by the summit that worked. under the Subhas, the body for village administration.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium Question 3.
How did the technological advancement help occupational field? Conduct a discussion and prepare a note.
Answer:
Several technological advancements and inventions took place in medieval period.
Charkha (a domestic spinning wheel) was the key factor that facilitated the development of textile industry. It was in the fourteenth century that charkha began to be used in India. Indians adopted this technology from the Chinese. With the advent of charkha, the production of yarn in-creased by six times.

Weaving also advanced along with spinning. The invention of loom brought tremendous changes in weaving. The technology for the production of silk from silkworms also spread widely during that period. It was Bengal that pioneered the production of silk in the fourteenth century. The production of carpet and paper were other major handi-crafts prevalent then. There was great demand for Indian carpets in the foreign market. In India paper began to be used in the thirteenth century.

Metallurgy and mining were other industries that flourished in this period. Those who were engaged in metallurgy mostly produced agriculture tools and war equipment. The production of horseshoe, and iron stirrup made drastic changes in war technology. Copper and gems were mined from Rajasthan and Golkonda respectively. Salt production was another important occupation that thrived much in this period. Seashore, salt rocks, and salt lakes were the major sources of salt. West Punjab and Sambhar in Rajasthan were the chief salt-producing centers.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
With the help of an atlas, identify and mark the above-given countries in the world map

Answer:

• Sumatra and Java (Indonesia)
• Persia (Iran)
• Holland
• England
• China
• Portugal
• France

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Question 5.
Mark the major ports in the map of India and identify the states where they are situated now.
Answer:

• Ports — States
• Cambaby — Gujarat
• Broach — Gujarat
• Surat — Gujarat
• Goa — Goa
• Nagapatanam — Tamil Nadu
• Kozhikode — Kerala
• Kollam — Kerala

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Guide Question 6.
Discuss the role of the government in the promotion of medieval trade and commerce.
Answer:
The government played significant role in the promotion of medieval trade and commerce. The measures taken by the government include the following.

• Constructed roads connecting major cities
• Granted loans to traders
• Constructed Sarais (rest houses)
• Implemented uniform taxation
• Postal facilities were made efficient
• Implemented efficient coinage system

9th Class Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
What were the factors that facilitated the growth of medieval Indian cities.
Answer:

• Agricultural and commercial progress
• Rapid increase in urban population
• New sections of people inhabited in the cities
• Large number of slaves were captured from battles to cities
• Migration of people including cooks, weavers and leather craftsmen to the cities.

Social Notes For Class 9 State Syllabus Question 8.
The medieval period was played with inequalities’. Analyze the statement.
Answer:
In medieval India, there were 3 strata of people such as the upper class, the middle class, and the lower class. Majority of the people were farmers. When landlords lived luxuriously, the common mass had to struggle with a pathetic life. They were burdened by excessive tax. Majority of the farmers could not own land, oxen, and plough. According to the historical sources of the Mughal period, there were two types of peasants-Khud-Kashta and Pahi-Kashta.

The Zamindars were the dominant class in the agricultural sector during the Mughal period. They were the owners of vast agricultural fields. They did not cultivate directly. They used others to cultivate. They enjoyed high position in the society and collected tax from peasants on behalf of the rulers. They maintained their own castles and troop. Slavery system was also prevalent in medieval India. In short, it can be stated that the medieval period was plagued with inequalities

Hss Live Guru 9th Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Prepare a note on the condition of women in medieval India
Answer:
The condition of women in medieval India was very pathetic. The practice of Sati and child marriage were existed in India. There were restrictions for remarriage. Since girls were married at a very tender age, they did not get the opportunity for education. The role of women in agricultural and non-agricultural sectors was significant. They involved themselves in all the stages of farming from sowing to harvesting.

They were engaged in weaving, pottery, and embroidery too. Even then, there were several women who had adorned higher political and social positions. Noorjahan, the wife of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir and Sultana Rasiya were excellent administrators. Gulbadan Begum (sister of Humayun), Jahanara (daughter of Shah Jahan), and Jeeja Bai (the mother of Shivaji) were women who. held higher positions.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science English Medium Question 10.
Discuss the social life in medieval India and prepare a note.
Answer:
The hierarchy based on caste system prevailed in medieval period too. The Brahmins enjoyed a higher status. Increase in the number of castes was a major feature of this period. The newly formed occupational groups gradually evolved as castes.

Similar to that in North India, the castes in South India were Idankai and valenki. Even though there was economic progress in medieval period, very less could get benefit from it. Majority were affected by poverty. Caste system and slavery intensified inequalities in the social set up.

Let Us Assess

Hsslive Class 9 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
How did the development in agricultural sector help the economic progress of medieval India? Evaluate
Answer:

• Large scale cultivation of crops helped attain food security.
• As part of agricultural progress, irrigation facilities improved in the country.
• Several industries based on agricultural products were developed in medieval India.
• Textile Industry, weaving, and spinning, handi-crafts, metallurgy and mining flourished in India leading to economic prosperity.
• Surplus agricultural production helped the growth of commerce and trade.
• Trade centers and ports were developed.

9th Class Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 12.
What were the major means of livelihood of Indians during the Sultanate and the Mughal periods?
Answer:

• Forming
• Construction for farming purposes
• Handicrafts
• Spinning and weaving
• Metallurgy and mining
• Trade and commerce

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Question 13.
How did the invention of new technologies help the progress in occupational and industrial sectors.
Answer:
Several technological advancement and inventions took place in medieval period.
Charkha (a domestic spinning wheel) was the key factor that facilitated the development of textile industry. It was in the fourteenth century that charkha began to be used in India. Indians adopted this technology from the Chinese. With the advent of charkha, the production of yarn increased by six times.

Weaving also advanced along with spinning. The invention of loom brought tremendous changes in weaving. The technology for the production of silk from silkworms also spread widely during that period. It was Bengal that pioneered the production of silk in the fourteenth century. The production of carpet and paper were other major
handicrafts prevalent then. There was great demand for Indian carpets in the foreign market. In India paper began to be used in the thirteenth century. Metallurgy and mining were other industries that flourished in this period.

Those who were engaged in metallurgy mostly produced agriculture tools and war equipments. The production of horseshoe, and iron stirrup made drastic changes in war technology. Copper and gems were mined from Rajasthan and Golkonda respectively. Salt production was another important occupation that thrived much in this period. Seashore, salt rocks, and salt lakes were the major sources of salt. West Punjab and Sambhar in Rajasthan were the chief salt-producing centers.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
What were the steps taken by the rulers of India in medieval period for the progress in trade.
Answer;

• Constructed roads connecting major cities
• Granted loans to traders
• Constructed Sarais (rest houses)
• Implemented uniform taxation
• Postal facilities were made efficient
• Implemented efficient coinage system

Question 15.
What were the two major trade groups in India? Which were the areas of trade they engaged?
Answer:

Export items:

• Cotton fabrics
• Indigo
• Salt
• Sugar

Import Items Metals:

• Leather
• Velvet
• Dry fruits
• Horse

Question 16.
Prepare a note on the life of peasants in medieval India.
Answer:
In the medieval India, there were two types of peas-ants namely khud-kasta and Pahi-Kashta

Question 17.
What was the socio-economic status of women in medieval India
Answer:
The socio-economic status of women in Medieval India was not satisfactory. The practice of Sati and child marriage were existed in India. There were restrictions for remarriage. Since girls were married at a very tender age, they did not get the opportunity for education. The role of women in agricultural and non-agricultural sectors was significant. They involved themselves in all the stages of farming from sowing to harvesting. They were engaged in weaving, pottery, and embroidery too.

Even then, there were several women who had adorned higher political and social position. Noorjahan, the wife of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir and Sultana Rasiya were excellent administrators Gulbadan Begum (sister of Humayun), Jahanara (daughter of Shah Jahan), and Jeeja Bai (the mother of Shivaji) were women who held higher positions.

Society and Economy in Medieval India Model Questions and Answers

Question 18.
‘Qitab-ul-Rihla’ was written by
Answer:
I bn Battuta

Question 19.
List the factors that helped agricultural progress in, South India.
Answer:

• Water prosperity in River Kaveri
• Alluvaial deposit of its tributaries
• Canal constructed for irrigation by the Chola Kings
• The measures taken by the Samitis that worked under the Sabhas, the body for village administration.

Question 20.
Construct a table showing types of farmlands and their features
Answer:
The historical sources of the Chola period confirm that there were four types of farmlands.

Question 21.
……….. was the key factor that facilitated the development of textile industry.
Answer:
UseofCharkha

Question 22.
Indians adopted the technology of charkha from
a) England
b) Portugal
c) South Africa
d) China
Answer:
d) China

Question 23.
Identify important handicrafts prevalent during medi-eval period.
Answer:

• Carpet
• Paper

Question 24.
What made drastic changes in war technology
Answer:

• Production of horseshoe
• Production of iron stirrup

Question 25.
Complete the table related to production of salt during medieval period.

Answer:

Question 26.
Identify two major inland trade routes that facilitated trade during medieval period.
Answer:

1. From Lahore to Kabul
2. From Multan to Kandahar

Question 27.
Maritime trade was who known as
Answer:
Coastline trade

Question 28.
Name major ports of medieval India
Answer:

1. Cambay
2. Broach
3. Surat
4. Goa
5. Nagapattanam
6. Kozhikode
7. Kollam

Question 29.
Categories the following items an export and import items.
1. Cotton fabrics
2. Indigo metal
3. Salt leather
4. Velvet
5. Sugar
6. Dry fruits horse
Answer:
Export items:
1. Cotton fabrics
2. Indigo
3. Salt
4. Sugar
Import Items Metals
5. Leather
6. Velvet
7. Dry fruits
8. Horse

Question 30.
In south India, the horse traders were also known as
Answer:
Kuthirachettis

Question 31.
Name the countries in the field of horse trade
Answer:

• Arab countries
• Portuguese

Question 32.
Prepare a note on the postal system that prevailed in India.
Answer:
Ullokh and Dava were the postal systems that prevailed in India. For carrying posts, horses and foot runners were used in Ullookand Dava respectively. There were three collection and distribution centers within a distance of one mile.

Question 33.
Complete the table showing the Europeans who arrived in India for trade and the items they traded

Answer:

Question 34.
What lead to the direct trade between India and Europe?
Answer:
Arrival of Vasco da Gama at Calicut in 1498 led to the direct trade between India and Europe.

Question 35.
Prepare a note on the system of coinage existed in medieval India.
Answer:
Ah efficient coinage existed in the Sultanate period. Tanka, the silver coin and Jital, the copper coin were in use at that time. SherShah made drastic reforms in coinage. The Rupeed, a silver coin he introduced, survived for long Emperor Akbar issued the silver coin called Jalali and the gold coin called illahi.

Question 36.
Identify major cities in Medieval India.
Answer:

• Gra
• Lahore
• Delhi
• Khandesh
• Ahmmedabad
• Dacca
• Daulathabad
• Banaras

Question 37.
Complete the flow chart

Answer:

Question 38.
The Zamindars who belonged to high castes were known as ……………
Answer:
Deshmukh, Patil and Naik

Question 39.
Complethe flowchart

Answer:

Question 40.
The travelogues of the medieval period record that slavery had prevailed in India. Substantiate.
Answer:
The travelogues of the medieval period record that slavery had prevailed in India then. Ibn Bathuta, a traveler to India in the 14th century, revealed that he had bought horses, camels, and slaves to present to Muhammed Bin Tughlaq, the then ruler. He also stated that the slaves in the courts excelled in music and dance. Markets exclusively for slave trade existed then. Majority of the slaves were detainers of the battles. They were imported from Africa.

Question 41.
Name the women who held higher positions during medieval period.
Answer:

• Noorjahan
• Sultana Rasiya
• Gulbadan Beegum
• Jahanara
• Jeeja Bai

Question 42.
What do you mean by Idankai and Valankai?
Answer:
The castes in South India were broadly divided into Idankai and Valankai. Those who engaged in trade and handicrafts were known as Idankai castes and those who engaged in agriculture sector were known as Valankai castes.

You can Download By the Hands of the Nature Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 4 By the Hands of the Nature Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 4 Notes

By The Hands Of The Nature Kerala Syllabus 9th Question 1.

Observe the diagram. Haven’t you seen how rainwater carries away the loose rock particles from elevated regions and deposits elsewhere? What all changes take place on the surface of the earth as a result of both the process mentioned above?
Answer:
Carries loose material away – erosion
Deposits in low lying regions – deposition

By The Hands Of The Nature Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus 9th Question 2.
What are the different process of weathering?
Answer:
Weathering is the process where rock is dissolved, worn away or broken down into smaller and smalleds pieces. There are three different weathering processes such as mechanical, chemical and organic/biological.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Geography Notes Question 3.
Varied features are seen in the river course at every stage. Observe the diagram and answer the following questions by analyzing the features of these three courses.
i) In which stage is the intensity of erosion more?
ii) Which process results in the landforms in the lower course?
iii) In which stage of the river is the amount of sediments more?
Answer:
i) Upper course
ii) Active depositional process
iii) Middle course

Hss Live Guru Class 9 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
What could be the reason behind the round shape and polished surface of pebbles?
Answer:
The rock particles are carried by the river rub against the rocks along the bed and both the sides of the river. This results in the wearing down of rocks. Such erosion is known an abrasion or corrosion. Through these processes, the river can polish even the hard rocks along its course.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Question 5.
Why are gullies formed along steep slopes?
Answer:
Gullies are formed through intense erosion resulting from an increase in the velocity of water flow.

Hss Live Guru 9th Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 6.


Observe the pictures to understand how oxbow lakes take birth from meanders.
Answer:
Meanders are usually formed in the middle and lower courses of wide rivers. The transformation happening to the meanders through further erosion and deposition: Meanders may further curve through continuous erosion and deposition. Finally, the river takes a straight course. The curves may get detached from the main river to form isolated water bodies. Such water bodies are called oxbow lakes.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Prepare notes by discussing the agricultural importance of flood plains.
Answer:
The deposition of alluvium along both the flooded banks may cause the formation of plains called flood plains. Flood plains contain rich and fertile soil suitable for cultivation. Agricultural improvement is possible in flood plains. This has historically led to the development of various civilizations along the flood plains. Flood plains are along the banks of rivers. Thus the area is rich in water availability. The physiography of flood plains is suitable for both agricultural activities and settlement.

Hsslive Guru 9th Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Complete the table based on what you have learnt about the landform created by rivers.

Answer:

Hsslive Guru 9th Geography Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Why is water is called universal solvent?
Answer:
Water is called as universal solvent because most of the mineral present in the rocks gets dissolved as water pass through them.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Identify the landform created by the merging of stalacticles and stalagmites.
Answer:
Limestone pillars

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium Question 11.
Name the districts in which the tourism-oriented beaches in Kerala can be found? )
Answer:
Thiruvananthapuram, Alappuzha, Kannur, Kozhikode, Kasaragod, and Kollam

Hsslive Guru Class 9 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Which is the major geomorphic agent creating landforms in deserts?
Answer:
Rock pedestals, Deflation hollows, Oasis, Sand dunes, Yasdangs and Desert Pavements.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Question 13.
What could be the reason for the increased erosion at the bottom of the rocks as shown in the figure?

Answer:
Mushroom rocks are created by wind blowing material and eroding the rocks to form a mushroom rock. It also can be formed by glacial erosion. This can happen when a glacier retreats and leaves behind rocks causing the rock on the bottom to erode faster leaving behind a mushroom rock. One day, erosion will weaken the base of these rocks and the top part will come tumbling down.

By the Hands of the Nature Model Questions and Answers

Hsslive Guru Social Science 9th Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
What are glaciers?
Answer;
Thick masses of ice slowly move downhill in snow-clad region are called glaciers.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Guide Question 15.
Define geomorphology
Answer:
Geomorphology is the branch of geography which deal with the study of origin and evolution of landforms.

Question 16.
What are geomorphic processes?
Answer:
The processes that help in the formation of landforms are called geomorphic processes.

Question 17.
Distinguish between erosion and deposition.
Answer;
The transfer of rock particles framed by chemical, physical or biological weathering processes from one place to another by external agencies such as running water, wing, glaciers, sea waves, etc. is called erosion. These materials will be deposited in low lying regions and this process is called deposition.

Question 18.
Identify the external agencies that help in erosion?
Answer:
Running water, wing, glaciers, sea waves.

Question 19.
Place of origin of river is called
Answer:
Source

Question 20.
The place at which river discharges into the sea or water bodies called ……………
Answer:
River mouth.

Question 21.
Complete the flow chart

Answer:

Question 22.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 23.
Point out the features of upper course
Answer:

• Place of origin of the river
• River flows through steep slopes
• Intense rate of erosion
• Less amount of sediments
• No deposition
• Landforms such as valley, waterfall, etc. are seen

Question 24.
What are the features of middle course?
Answer:

• Flows through the foothills
• Both erosional and depositional processes are active
• More sediments are carried down
• Features such as meanders and oxbow lakes are seen

Question 25.
Mention important peculiarities of lower course.
Answer:

• Flows through the plains
• Active depositional process
• The quantity of water, as well as sediments, is high
• Depositional landforms such as flood plains are deltas are seen

Question 26.
Point out the factors affecting the intensity of river erosion.
Answer:

• Velocities of water flow
• Slope of the terrain
• Rock structure

Question 27.
Explain the process of abrasion or corrosion.
Answer;
The rock particles like gravel, sand, pebbles, etc. carried by the river rub against the rocks along the bed and the sides of the river. This results in the wearing down of rocks. Such erosion is known as abrasion or corrosion. Through these processes, the river can polish even hard rocks along its course.

Question 28.
River bed erosion is more prevalent in ………..
a) Upper course of the river
b) Middle course of the river
c) Lower course of the river
Answer:
a) Upper course of the river

Question 29.
Examine the process that results in waterfalls.
Answer:
Waterfalls are generally formed at the upper course of rivers as a result of erosion. Soft rocks are easily eroded in the valleys where soft and hard rocks are found intermingled. This results in the formation of waterfalls.

Question 30.
What do you mean by flood plains?
Answer:
Rivers overflowing their banks during rainy seasons. Flood water may cover extensive areas on both sides of the river. The deposition of alluvium along both the flooded banks may cause the formation of plains. Such plains are called flood plains.

Question 31.
How is deltas formed?
Answer:
Velocity of the river decreases when it nears the river mouth. Most rivers branch out to distributaries at this stage where the volume of both water and sediments is high. The sediments brought by the river are deposited between these distributaries forming almost triangular-shaped landforms called deltas. These features are called as they resemble the Greek alphabet A (Delta).

Question 32.
Name the largest delta in the world.
Answer;
The Sundarbans in West Bengal

Question 33.
Why are the erosional and depositional landforms of underground water mainly confined to limestone region?
Answer;
Rocks like limestone easily dissolve in rainwater which percolates to form underground water. Hence the erosional and depositional landforms of underground water are mainly confined to limestone regions.

Question 34.
Categorize the following based on their formation.
1. Limestone caves
2. Stalactites
3. Stalagmites
4. Limestone Pillars
Answer:
Erosion:
Limestone caves
Depositions:

• Stalactites
• Stalagmites
• Limestone Pillars

Question 35.
Give an example of limestone caves.
Answer;
The Borra caves near Visakhapatnam in Seemandhra

Question 36.
What are coastlines? Give different types of coastlines.
Answer:
Coastal landforms are created by the erosional and depositional processes carried out by the waves. There are two types of coastlines namely.

• Rocky coasts
• Non-rocky coasts

Question 37.
Define sea cliff.
Answer:
The steep hillocks facing the sea are called sea cliffs.

Question 38.
Give an example of sea cliff in Kerala.
Answer:
Varkala beach

Question 39.
Landforms created by wind are mostly seen in
a) Valleys
b) Beaches
c) Deserts
d) Farmlands
Answer:
c) Deserts

Question 40.
What is the process of deflation?
Answer:
The strong whirlwind carry away the dry desert sands from one place to another. This process of wind erosion is called deflation.

Question 41.
What do you mean by barchans?
Answer;
The sand dunes formed in the deserts are as a result of the deposition by wind. The sand dunes commonly formed in crescent shapes are called barchans.

Let Us Assess

Question 42.
Describe the characteristic of different stages in a river’s course.
Answer;
The course of a river can generally be divided into three stages based on the difference in slope from its source to mouth.

• Upper course
• Middle course
• Lower course

Upper course is that part of the river where it rapidly flows down along steep slopes from the place of origin. The intensity of erosion is severe in this course. Middle course is that stage of the river where it flows through gently sloping foothills. As the velocity of the flow decreases, the intensity of erosion declines and deposition begins.
Lower course is the stage where the river flows through the plains. The rate of deposition will be higher due to the slow pace of the river and the increase in the amount of sediments during this stage.

Question 43
Compare the ‘v-shaped’ valleys with ‘u shaped’ valleys based on processes of formation.
Answer:
Deepening of gullies occurs through intense erosion resulting from an increase in the velocity of water flow. The valleys take a distinct shape as a result of the intensity of erosion along the river bed. Such valleys are called V-shaped valleys.

The rate of erosion along the river bed decreases as the river leaves the upper course. However lateral erosion dominates, the river flowing through comparatively gentle slopes takes deviations when the sediments or rock forms create obstruction to the flow. Such bending course of a river is leading to u shaped valleys.

Question 44.
List with example the agricultural and environmental significance of deltas and flood plains.
Answer:
The deposition of alluvium along both the flooded banks may cause the formation of plains called flood plains. Flood plains contain rich and fertile soil suitable for cultivation. Agricultural improvement is possible in flood plains. This has historically led to the development of various civilizations along the flood plains. Flood plains are along the banks of rivers. Thus the area is rich in water availability. The physiography of flood plains is suitable for both agricultural activities and settlement.

Question 45.
Illustrate the formation of mushroom rocks with the help of a diagram
Answer:
As a result of the continued erosion caused by sand and other rock particles carried by strong winds, rocks in deserts get worn down. This process of wind erosion is called abrasion. Figure given below shows here is of a rock formed in this manner. Such rocks seen in deserts resembling mushrooms are called mushroom rocks.

Question 46.
Explain the formation of any two erosional landforms created by glaciers.
Answer:
Glacial landforms are generally confined to the high mountain ranges and the poles. The movement of a glacier along the mountain slope is depicted in the given picture.

Observe the changes happening to the valley at different stages. Different types of valleys as shown in the pictures are formed by glacial erosion. Armchair like valleys so formed are called cirques.

Question 47.
Prepare a table showing the erosional and depositional landforms created by any three external forces.

Answer:

Question 48.
Identify the landforms shown in the pictures and explain how they are formed

Answer:
A — Oxbow lakes:
Meanders are usually formed in the middle and lower courses of wide rivers. The transformation happening to the meanders through further erosion and deposition. Meanders may further curve through continuous erosion and deposition. Finally, the river takes a straight course. The curves may get detached from the main river to form isolated water bodies. Such water bodies are called oxbow lakes.
B — Mushroom Rocks:
As a result of the continued erosion caused by sand and other rock particles carried by strong winds, rocks in deserts get worn down. This process of wind erosion is called abrasion. Figure given below shows here is of a rock formed in this manner. Such rocks seen in deserts resembling mushrooms are called mushroom rocks.

You can Download Indian Constitution: Rights and Duties Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 3 Indian Constitution: Rights and Duties Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 3 Notes

Indian Constitution Rights And Duties 9th Class Question 1.
Fundamental Rights are very essential for leading a dignified life. Discuss.
Answer:
Fundamental rights are those rights which cannot be denied to a person at any cost. Right to equality, right to freedom, right against exploitation, right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights and right to constitutional remedies are the fundamental rights.

Every individual wishes to lead a dignified life. This is not an easy task. When one gets freedom, equality and relief from exploitation, a dignified in made possible. The constitution provides all these rights to an individual through provision of fundamental rights. Thus it can be seen that fundamental rights are very essential for leading a dignified life.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Question 2.
Elaborate the list by adding the important measures taken by the government for achieving equality.
1. Untouchability Offences Act 1955
2. ……………….
3. ……………….
4. ……………….
Answer:

1. Untouchability Offences Act 1955
2. Equality before law
3. Abolition of Titles
4. Equality of opportunity in public employment
5. Prohibition of discrimination on the basis of caste, religion, race sex play of birth.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
How does the right against exploitation protect the citizens? Discuss.
Answer;
It is the right of every citizen the enjoyment of freedom. In a democratic country, such freedom has great significance. In India there exist different types of exploitation including child labour. We can see economic exploitation similar to slavery around us. The Right against exploitation is concerned with the prohibition of this type of exploitation and equip the individuals for lead¬ing a dignified life.
As per this right:

• Forced labour and trafficking human beings are prohibited
• Employment of children in factories and other dangerous sectors are forbidden.

Hsslive Guru Class 9 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
How does the right against exploitation protect the citizens? Discuss.
Answer:

• Protection form child labour
• Protects citizens form forced labour
• Prohibits human trafficking
• Protects children and women from employment in factories and dangerous sectors

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard History Notes Question 5.
How does right to freedom of religion promote secularism? Discuss.
Answer:
Indian Constitution ensures the right to freedom of religion. This enables people to believe in any religion. The right to freedom of religion ensures the right to protects, practice and propagate any religion. Freedom is also given to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. The country is not having any official religion. In this way the right to freedom of religion promotes secularism.

9th Class Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Cultural and educational rights help to protect the cultural progress of the nation. Discuss.
Answer:
Every nation expects cultural advancement. India, the land of cultural diversity is particular about it. The Constitution also helps to achieve this goal, by ensuring cultural and educational rights. By education, everyone learn about the cultural diversity of our nation. Similarly one can learn the culture of various regions through education. This knowledge will enable us to improve our cultural aspects and life in this way cultural and educational rights help to protect the cultural progress of the nation.

Class 9 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Analyse the importance of the right to Constitutional remedies.
Answer:
Fundamental rights are to be protected.
The Constitution proposes remedial measures if the Fundamental Rights are violated. This is known as the Right to constitutional remedies. As per this right, if the Fundamental Rights are violated an individual can approach either the Supreme Court or the High Courts for enforcing them. The orders issued by the respective courts for the enforcement of the Fundamental rights are known as writs. Thus the right to constitutional remedies plays significant role in protecting our rights.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Question 8.
Fill column B with appropriate fundamental rights corresponding to the items given in A.

Answer:

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Question 9.
Define Directive Principles. Evaluate their importance.
Answer;
The Constitution directs the central and the state governments to organize and implement programmes keeping the public welfare in mind. Such directives are included in part IV of the Indian Constitution as the Directive Principles.

There is an indivisible relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. Directive Principles are to be implemented for the realization of Fundamental Rights in its full sense. As a criterion which helped the evaluation and betterment of the governmental activities, no one can deny the importance of the Directive Principles.

Social Science Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Find out the Directive Principles which are implemented by the government and list them.
Answer:

• Free legal aid
• Equal pay for equal work to both and women.
• Protection of the education, economic interests of the school’s castes and scheduled tribes.
• Ensuring international peace security.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Social Science Question 11.
Fundamental duties are the responsibility which individuals have to perform towards themselves. Analyze
Answer:
Fundamental Duties are included in Part IV A of the constitution. Certain duties are to be performed by the citizens towards the state to protect the unity and integrity of the nation. These duties are known as Fundamental Duties. When the state provides us rights and protection, it is our duty to abide The Constitution to develop cordiality among the citizens and to provide help for the betterment of the nation.

Accomplishing the fundamental Duties in this manner will create a better society and its result will reach everyone. In effect, the Fundamental Duties can be considered as the responsibilities which the individual have to perform towards themselves.

Std 9 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Prepare a chart containing the fundamental duties.
Answer:

• Stand up while the national anthem is sung
• Protect historical monuments
• Foster cordiality among the people
• Protect the unity and integrity of the nation
• Protect the environment

Let Us Assess

Social Science Class 9 Notes State Syllabus Question 13.
Define fundamental rights
Answer;
Fundamental rights are those rights which cannot be denied to a person at any cost.

Class 9 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Which country’s Constitution influenced the formation of Fundamental Rights in India (America, Britain, France) ’
Answer:
America

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Geography Question 15.
What are the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?
Answer:

• Right to equality
• Right to freedom
• Right against exploitation
• Right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights
• Right to constitutional remedies are the fundamental rights.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf In English Medium Question 16.
Why are certain rights known as Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are those rights which cannot be denied to a person at any cost. They are inevitable for the holistic development of an individual. They are very essential for leading a dignified life. So the Fundamental Rights and their protection are very important in a democratic society.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Notes Question 17.
Which are the ideas included in the Right to Equality
Answer:
The ideas included in the Right to equality are given below:

• Ensure equality before law
• Prohibition of discrimination on the basis of caste, religion, race, sex, place of birth, etc.
• Ensure equality of opportunity in public employment
• Abolition of titles

Question 18.
Which are the different types of freedom given in the Fundamental Right to Freedom? Evaluate its importance.

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully, without arms. Besides these two rights, the following rights are also included in the right to freedom.
• Freedom to form associations.
• Freedom to travel anywhere in India.
• Freedom to reside anywhere in India
• Freedom to carry on any occupation, trade, or business
• Right to life and personal liberty.
• Right to free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of 6 -14 years.
• Protection from arbitrary arrest and detention.

Question 19.
Free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of 6 to 14 is a part of which Fundamental Right? (cultural and Educational Rights, Right to Equality, Right to Freedom of Religion)
Answer:
Cultural and educational rights

Question 20.
Which are the areas protected by Right against Exploitation?
Answer:

• Child labor
• Exploitation at job sites
• Forced labor
• Human trafficking
• Dangerous job conditions
• Slavery

Question 21.
Explain the Rights to freedom of religion, analyze how it protects secularism.
Answer:
There is no official religion for India. India does not promote any religion. But religious, freedom is en¬sured by the constitution.
Right to freedom of religion ensures the following.

• Right to professes, practice and propagate any religion.
• Freedom to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.

Question 22.
Which Fundamental right prohibits untouchability? (Right against Exploitation, Right to Equality, Right to Freedom of Religion)
Answer:
Right to equality

Question 23.
Which Fundamental Right mentions about the right ‘ of minorities? (Right to Equality, Cultural and Educational Rights, Right to Freedom of Religion)
Answer:
Cultural and educational right

Question 24.
Explain how cultural and educational rights protect the interest of minorities.
Answer:
India is a land of diversity. It is inevitable to recognize and respect the diversity for maintaining the unity and development of the country. Hence, our Consti¬tution gives prime consideration for the protection of minority interest. Cultural and educational rights have been included in the Constitution for the protection of the interest of the minority sections. According to this, the following aspects have been ensured for the minorities.

• Protection of their language, script, and culture
• Religious and linguistic minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institu¬tions of their choice.

Question 25.
What is meant by Right to Constitutional remedies?
Answer:
Fundamental rights are to be protected.
The Constitution proposes remedial measures if the Fundamental Rights are violated. This is known as the Right to constitutional remedies. As per this right, if the Fundamental Rights are violated an individual can approach either the Supreme Court or the High Courts for enforcing them. The orders issued by the respective courts for the enforcement of the Fundamental rights are known as writs. Thus the right to constitutional remedies plays significant role in protecting our rights.

Question 26.
Find out the Fundamental right which was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution and evaluate its importance.
Answer:
Right to constitutional remedies

Question 27.
Arrange the facts given below in the table.

Answer:
Right to freedom, organization of village panchayaths, protecting the unity and integrity of the nation, cultural and educational rights, prohibition of intoxicating substances protection of historical monuments, ensure international peace and security.

Question 28.
What is meant by writs? Evaluate its importance.
Answer;
The orders issued by the supreme court and the High courts for the enforcement of the fundamental rights are known as writs. Writes are of 5 types. Through writs, the court are protecting the fundamental rights.

Question 29.
Explain the Directive Principles. Analyze how it becomes a criterion for the valuation of the working of the government.
Answer;
The Constitution directs the central and the state governments to organize and implement programmes keeping the public welfare in mind. Such directives are included in part IV of the Indian Constitution as the Directive Principles.

There is an indivisible relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. Directive Principles are to be implemented for the realization of Fundamental Rights in its full sense. As a criterion which helped the evaluation and betterment of the governmental activities, no one can deny the importance of the Directive Principles.

Question 30.
What is meant by fundamental duties?
Answer:
Fundamental duties can be considered as the responsibilities which the individual have to perform towards themselves.

Indian Constitution: Rights and Duties Model Questions and Answers

Question 31.
Name the country which influenced the formulation of our Fundamental Rights
Answer:
a) America
b) France
c) Australia
d) Switzerland

Question 32.
Who is the architect of the Constitution of India?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 33.
Did the people of India enjoy rights and liberty during foreign rule? How as India’s response?
Answer:
You might have understood that the Indians have been denied many rights during the British rule. The Indian freedom movement repeatedly raised the demand for ensuring rights of the citizens. The most important among them was the Nehru Committee Report of 1928. This report submitted a list of rights which are to be ensured to the people of India. The framers of the Constitution prepared the Fundamental Rights based on the rights aimed by the struggle for Independence and recommended by Nehru Committee Report.

Question 34.
Read the following news item.
Human Rights Associations for demolishing the ‘Caste Fort’ in Madhyamapuram village.
Delhi: Various Human Rights Associations urged the government to demolish the wall in the north Indian village of Madhyamapuram which was constructed to present the entry of Dalit sections in the residential area of the upper caste people. The discrimination in Madhyamapuram are not confined to caste alone. Denial of entry for. women in streets and restaurants and no entry for outside villagers to this village were also in the’ news early.
What are the different types of discrimination mentioned in the news given above?
Answer:

• Discrimination based on caste
• Gender inequality
• Discrimination based on place of birth

Question 35.
Complete the checklist given below.

Answer:
a) yes
b) yes
c) yes
d) yes
e) yes

Question 36.
Point out the idea of Mahatma Gandhi that have been. included in the Directive Principles
Answer:
Several ideas of the father of our nation, Mahatma Gandhi, have been included in the Directive Principles. Some of them are mentioned below.

• Organization of Grama Panchayaths.
• Promotion of cottage industries
• Prohibiting of intoxicating substances.

Question 37.
Prepare a note on welfare state.
Answer:
A welfare state aims to develop and implement policies for the welfare of all the people. Welfare states aim to provide protection and services for the uplift of the people
as best as they can. A welfare state ensures the fair distribution of public resources, education, and health.

Question 38.
What is the aim of issuing writs?
Answer:
The aim of issuing writs is the enforcement of the fundamental rights.

Question 39.
Point out different types of writs.
Answer:
Write are of 5 types. They are

1. Habeas corpus
2. Mandamus
3. Quowarrantto
4. Certiorari
5. Prohibition

Question 40.
‘Directive Principle are directions’. Justify.
Answer:
As the name indicates, all these are directions. These are the directives to the state, which are to be considered while formulating policies and implementing plans.

Question 41.
What do you mean by equality before law?
Answer:
Equality before law means that all are equal before the legal system. Whatever be the official position and powers, one should not be above the law.

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Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 7 For a Safer Future Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 7 Notes

9th Geography Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Mention any two benefits from the environment
Answer:

• It provides cool climate
• It helps cultivation of crops

9th Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Prepare a note on environmental protection.
Answer;
Man is just one among the numerous organisms on earth. No other organism on earth depends on other organisms so much for its sustenance. The plants and animals in the environment provide us food, clothing, shelter, medicine, fuel, etc. Like air and water, soil is also important for survival. You have already learnt about ecosystem and food chain. Man is the last kink in the continuous process of evolution in nature.

The interventions of man in nature with selfish motives will have adverse effects. Interaction in nature without disturbing its diversity is an important aspect in the conservation of the environment. Conservation of the environment and its diversity is a must for the healthy sustenance of not only man but all life forms as well.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
What is meant by natural disasters?
Answer;
Disasters occurring due to natural causes are termed as natural disasters.

Hsslive Guru Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
What is landslide?
Answer;
During severe rains, large quantity of water seeps into the soil, this exerts pressure on the pores in the soil. Due to the pressure of water, the soil under the loose rocks will move downwards. Due to gravity, the whole or part of the area will collapse with great noise. This phenomenon is known as landslide.

9th Std Geography Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Prepare a list of natural disasters occurring in India.
Answer:

• Cyclone
• Earthquake
• Landslide
• Hailstorm
• Drought
• Lightning
• Tsunami
• Flood
• Avalanche
• Frostbite

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium Question 6.
Identify the most widespread natural disasters in Kerala.
Answer;

• Landslides
• Tsunami
• Earthquakes
• Flood

9th Class Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Discuss the after-effects of landslides.
Answer:
Following landslides, the water that is stored in the soil starts flowing down as streams. Many a time this flow will last only for a few days. But on some occasions, these may become permanent streams. Many of the streams in hilly terrains are formed in this manner. The valleys formed by the continuous erosion by streams will grow in area in course of time. The scientific world believes that such formation of streams is a part of the landform evolution.

9th Class Social Science Notes State Syllabus Question 8.
How are streams formed in the hilly terrains?
Answer:
After the landslide, the water stored in the soil starts flowing down as streams. Many a time this flow will last only for a few days. But on some occasions, there may become permanent streams.

9th Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 9.
What are the unscientific activities along hilly terrains.
Answer:

• Demolishing hillsides for soil.
• Cultivation of crops that need frequent tillage along steep slopes.
• Construction of houses and other buildings along steep slopes.

9th Standard Social Science Guide Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Point out two methods of housing to resist earthquakes.
Answer:

• Adopt seimic resistant construction
• Light roofs are comparatively safe

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Question 11.
What are the precautions to be adopted to avoid the danger offload?
Answer:
The following precautions may be adopted in order to avert the danger of flood.

• Do not build houses on the river banks.
• Do not reclaim the paddy fields. They are the natural sinks for rainwater.
• Construct bunds on the river banks.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes English Medium Question 12.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Question 13.
Prepare a note an various government mechanism for disaster management.
Answer:
The Kerala State Disaster Management Authority (KSDMA) is entrusted with the task of coordinating the disaster mitigation measures in Kerala. Under the authority, the State Emergency Operations Centre (SEOC) supervises the disaster mitigation measures in the various districts. It issues warnings of disaster possibilities and measures to be adopted in the event of emergency situations.

District Emergency Operations Centre (DEOC) is responsible for the disaster management activities of a particular region. Warnings to people are issued through these centers. Their mission is to coordinate the actions of various government departments such as health, law and order, fire force, and public works in disaster management

Social Science Standard 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Prepare a charts showing steps to tackle the natural disasters.
Answer:

9th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Observe the map of India (page 108) in your textbook and answer the following question.
a) Identify the states/regions where the intensity of the earthquake is more.
b) What is the intensity of earthquake in Kerala?
c) Identify the states where the intensity of the earthquake is less.
Answer:
a) The intensity of earthquake is more: Uttaranchal, Bihar, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Assam, Meghalaya, Jammu and Kashmir, and Gujarat.
b) Kerala has average earthquake intensity.
c) Karnataka, Telangana, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh are the states with less intensity.

9th Standard Social Science Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
If you analyze Kerala based on the intensity of earthquake, what are the things we can understand?
Answer:
The map indicates that Kerala is also prove to earthquakes. Due to frequent occurrence of mild earthquakes, Kerala also is considered as region of high intensity. In these regions, it is advisable to avoid high rise buildings.

Question 17.
Explain the various steps to be followed in the event of flood.
Answer:

• People residing along river banks should move to higher grounds as fast as they can.
• Do not step into rivers in torrent.
• Disconncet electricity if water enters your home.

Question 18.
List down the measures to be adopted in the event of landslide.
Answer:

• Settle down in areas away from steeper slopes.
• Be more cautious during the rainy seasons.

Question 19.
Prepare a list of precautions to be adopted in the event of lightning.
Answer:

• Disconnect electricity.
• Sit on wooden planks or wooden cot without touching the ground
• If outside, sit with chin on your knee.
• Move away from isolated trees.

Question 20.
Explain the precautions to be adopted during Tsunami.
Answer:

• Move away from the coast if you notice anything strange happening in the sea or get some warning in this regard.
• Keep life-jacket or inflated tube with you.

Question 21.
Prepare a list of precautions that are to be taken in the event of earthquake.
Answer:

• Move away from buildings or hoardings that may fall.
• As there are chances of aftershocks do not return home until formal directions are received.
• Open spaces are safe.
• Do not use lifts.
• The inner corners are the safer areas inside the house.
• Keep away from windows.

Question 22.
What are the general measures to be adopted in the event of a natural disaster?
Answer:

• Provide immediate medical aid to the injured.
• Do not believe or spread rumors.
• Keep only precious items or documents along with you.
• Drink boild water only.
• Keep the necessary medicines with you.

Question 23.
Children also can participate in the disaster management. Explain.
Answer:
Prepare and circulate pamphlets and exhibit notices in public places explaining the steps to be adopted by the people in emergency situations. Organize orientation programmes on scientific landse practices.

Question 24.
Why is it said that the land use practice in Kerala should be scientific?
Answer:
Lack of space is one of the crucial problems that Kerala faces. Besides, more than 30% of the total land area of Kerala consists of slopes also.

Question 25.
What are flash floods?
Answer:
The phenomenon of sudden rise of water level following heavy rain in known as flash flood.

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Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 9 Towards a Bright Future Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 9 Notes

Scert Class 9 Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 1.
What are the problems faced by the society today?
Answer:

• Poverty
• Unemployment
• Lack of shelter
• Insecurity of old age people
• Juvenile crimes
• Crimes against women
• Environmental damages

Scert Class 9 Social Science Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Define poverty
Answer:
Poverty is the inability to secure the minimum consumption requirements of life, health and efficiency.

Social Science Class 9 Notes State Syllabus Question 3.
How does unemployment cause poverty?
Answer:
Unemployment is a social problem related to poverty. While a section of people in the world finds employment of any kind, many people cannot find any. Unemployment is a situation in which a person is physically and mentally able and willing to work but cannot get a job. Thus they may fail to secure the basic needs. This will cause poverty.

Class 9 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Identify the problems faced by old a people.
Answer;

• Disaffection
• Disregard
• Loneliness
• Uncertainty
• Economic crisis
• Health problems
• Stress

Social Guide For Class 9 State Syllabus Question 5.
Point out some sorts of violence against women in our society.
Answer:

• Atrocities against women.
• Crime such as denial of the right to education.
• Different wages for the same job.
• Denial of opportunities for proving their abilities.

9 Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
What are the evil effects of intoxicants?
Answer:

• Increase crimes
• Cause mental and physical problems
• Cause family problems
• Cause economic crisis
• Cause accidents, deaths etc.

Social Notes For Class 9 State Syllabus Question 7.
Prepare a note on Juvenile crimes.
Answer:
Crimes among children have become a big social problem. The crimes done by children of below fourteen years of age are called juvenile crimes. They are called juvenile offenders. Different types of such crimes appear in the newspapers. There are many reasons for children to engage in crimes.

1. Defects in family relations
2. Use of intoxicants
3. Misuse of media
4. Deterioration of social values

9 Class Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 8.
What is childline?
Answer:
The childline is an agency under the Ministry of Women and Child Development to identify the problems and difficulties of children and to protect them.

Scert Class 9 Social Science Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
What are cybercrimes?
Answer:
Crimes using information technology are called cyber crimes.

Social Science Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
The number of people living below poverty line in India are.
a) 20%
b) 21%
c) 22%
d) 23%
Answer:
22%

Std 9 Geography Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
What is meant by a social problem?
Answer:
Problems, whether individual or common that exist for a long time affecting the society, are called social problems. Those problems which affect the society directly or indirectly are considered as social problems.

State Syllabus Class 9 Social Science Question 12.
Analyse the interrelationship of different social problems.
Answer:

• Many of the social problems are interrelated.
• The consequences of social problems have common features.
• Social problems change according to the changing times.
• Joint effort and actions are necessary to solve social problems.

Social Science Textbook Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Pdf Download Question 13.
Identify the measures to prevent juvenile crimes.
Answer:

• Child guidance clinic: The facility helps to find and analyze problems of children.
• Counselling Center: This center helps to provide solutions for the behavioral problems of children.

9th Standard Social Science Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
What do you mean by unemployment?
Answer:
Unemployment is a situation in which a person is physically and mentally able and willing to work but cannot get a job.

Std 9 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
What is lack of shelter?
Answer:
Lack of shelter is the situation in which an individual is not able to secure and keep a suitable house.

Social Science Class 9 Malayalam Medium Question 16.
Elucidate what is juvenile crimes.
Answer:
The crimes done by children of below fourteen years of age are called juvenile crimes.

Hss Live Guru 9th Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
Who were juvenile offenders?
Answer:
The crimes done by children of below fourteen years of age are called juvenile crimes. They are called juvenile offenders.

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 7 India after Independence Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 7 Notes

Independent India took its birth by facing many challenges. India’s partition and the subsequent communal riots and refugee problems were the most disastrous problems. The integration of around 600 princely states and the reorganization of states were other problems faced by independent India. In order to become a federal state, India had to settle these problems in an urgent manner peaceful and tactical settlement of these problems helped India for its later development.

India After Independence Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Discuss the circumstances. that led to the flow of refugees in independent India.
Answer:
Followed by the division of nation there was flow of refugees from India to Pakistan and from Pakistan to India. Along with this, there were religious conflicts in many places. As the conflicts intensified many people left the place and became refugees. There were around 10 million refugees traveled by walk, bullock carts, and train. This issue of refugees was effectively solved by the new administration in the independent India.

India After Independence Notes Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Discuss the role of the Constitution in protecting India’s democracy.
Answer:
Our Constitution came into effect on 26th January 1950. Thus India becomes a republic on that day. As per the Constitution, the first general election in the country took place in 1951-52. The independent and impartial election was a great success of Indian democracy even though several Asian and African countries, attained independence along with India deviated from the democratic values. India still remains to be a strong democratic country. This is just because our Constitution is
simply the custodian of our democracy.

India After Independence Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Why language considered as criteria formation of states?
Answer:
After the integration of kingly states, the next major issue faced by India was the formation of states. There were demands and agitations from various parts of the country for language-based state formulation. Potti Sreeramulu undertook a hunger strike demanding the formation of Andhra Pradesh for the Telugu speaking population. He lost his life in the process. Finally, Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1953.

This intensified the demand for language-based state formation. Government then constituted state reorganization commission under the chairmanship of Fassal Ali. On the basis of the report of this commission, State Reorganization Act was passed in 1956. As per this Act, 14 states and 6 union territories came into existence. Independent India achieved progress in many fields. By adopting a mixed economic system and introducing five year plans India strengthened its basic sectors. India achieved tremendous progress in agricultural and industrial fields. In the field of science also India had enviable growth. By reading the importance of national education in the progress of a nation, the rulers of India implemented innovative reforms in education. ‘

Post Independent India 10th Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Conduct a discussion on the economic development of independent India.
Answer:
India followed a mixed economic system comprising the features of socialism and capitalism. As part of economic planning, India started five-year plans. This helped the development of agricultural and industrial sectors as well as eradication of poverty. Education scenario also developed. With the foreign aid, iron and steel industries were set up in different places. Heavy irrigation projects and dams played significant role in India’s economic advancement. Dams contributed water for irrigation and energy production for industry was made easier. With the development of irrigation facilities, agricultural production in the country increased.

Kerala Sslc Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 5.
Point out the peculiarities of independent India’s economic development.
Answer:

• Mixed economy
• Planned economy
• Five-year plans
• Foreign aided iron and steel industries
• Heavy and large dams
• Increased agricultural production.

Post Independent India Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Prepare a picture album based on Indian achievements in space research.
Answer:

Education In India After Independence Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
How did the achievements in scientific field help India’s development?
Answer:
Independent India achieved remarkable progress on science and technology fields. Science and technology has very significant role in India’s agricultural as well as industrial developments. Several research institutions and five Indian Institution of technologies were set up in India soon after independence. India also gained rapid progress in medical education, biomedical engineering, nuclear science, biotechnology, health, transportation, oceanic research information technology, space research, etc. All these developments lead to overall development of the country.

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Evaluate the achievements of independent India in the education sector.
Answer:
Independent India tried to develop an indigenous education policy government-appointed different commission at different times to study our education system and make recommendation. Dr. Radhakrishnan Commission, Dr. Lakshmana Swami Muthaliar Commission, Dr. D. S. Kothari Commission, etc., were important among them. A natural Education Policy was formulated in 1986 with aim of leading the country to 21^st century. In 2009, the Government of India passed an Act making education a fundamental right. Similar schemes for education development include SSA, RMSA, etc.

After attaining freedom from a colonial hegemony. India formed an anti-imperialist movement called the Non-Aligned movement by joining hands with those who had such experience like India. The policy of non-alignment was the watchword of India’s foreign policy designed by Jawaharlal Nehru. Independent India adopted a foreign policy which was anti-imperial, anticolonial and giving emphasis to Panchsheel. Its ultimate aim was world peace.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Question 9.
How far the values of nationalist movements reflected in India’s foreign policy? Examine, IP Independent India accepted the policy formulated by Indian National Congress during the period of freedom struggle. Jawaharlal Nehru was the chief architect of the policy. Given below are the important principles of India’s foreign policy.

• DB agreement towards colonialism.
• Belief in united nations organization
• Peaceful co-existence
• Panchsheel principles
• Emphasis on the foreign aid
• Non-alignment

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 10.
Examine the present foreign policy of India and discuss whether there in any change in its basic principles.
Answer:
Disintegration of Soviet Union, End of Cold War, New Economic Policy, Unipolar world under USA, etc. made changes in India’s foreign policy.

Sslc Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Pdf 2021 Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
What were the important challenges India had to face at the time of independence?
Answer:
India had to face several challenges at the time of independence. Important among them were:

• Religious riots and problems of refugees
• Unification of kingly states
• Rearrangement of states on the basis of language
• Formation of democratic system
• Economic growth.

Sslc History Notes Malayalam Medium Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Prepare a note on the integration of princely states.
Answer:
This was the most crucial issue faced by independent India. In union cabinet, Sardar Vallabhbhai Pate! was in charge of the portfolio relating to states. Patel and V.P. Menon prepared an instrument of accession. Due to agitation of people and practical approach of the government, majority of princely states signed this agreement and joined in Indian Union. However Hyderabad, Kashmir and Junagad refused to join in Indian union. Later by some compromise and military reorganization of states.

Hss Live Guru 10th History Kerala Syllabus  Question 13.
Prepare a note on the formation of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Even before the attainment of independence, the Cabinet Mission had recommended of a constituent assembly. In 1976, a constituent assembly was constituted as Dr. Rajendra Prasad as its chairman. A Drafting Committee was appointed to write down the Constitution under the leadership of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Finally, after long series of discussions and debates, the Constitution was formed. On 26th January 1950 independent India’s Constitution came into existence and India became a republic.

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus  Question 14.
Explain the progress in space research of India after independence.
Answer:

• Indian National Committee for Space Research was set up — 1962.
• Space Science and Technology Centre — Thumba
• First Indian Satellite — Aryabhata — 1975
• National Remote Sensing Agency
• Physical Research Laboratory
• Missile Technology
• India’s First Moon Mission — Chandrayaan — 2008
• Mars Mission — Mangalyaan

Social Science Sslc Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Explain the features of National Policy on Education 1986.
Answer:

• The National Education Policy of 1986 was formulated with the objective of leading India to new millennium major recommendations of the policy include:
• Give priority to primary education and higher education
• Implement operation blackboard schemes in order to make primary education universal and enhance physical facilities of schools.
• Establish Navodaya Schools in each district.
• Encourage education of girl.

Question 16.
Prepare a table showing the cultural institutions of independent India.
Answer:

Question 17.
Point out the Principles of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:

• Belief in United Nations Organization
• Peaceful co-existence
• Panchsheel principles
• Emphasis on the foreign aid
• Non-alignment

Question 18.
Why was conflicts intensified in Calcutta, Bihar, Navokali, Delhi, Punjab, and Kashmir at the time of partition of India?
Answer:
These places formed the boundary of India in the East and West. Since these places shared boundary with Pakistan, conflicts intensified there.

Question 19.
‘Even after independence, there was foreign aggression in India’. Substantiate.
Answer:
European countries like fame and Portuguese has their colonial sports in India even after India’s independence. These places became independent by forceful military actions. Given below the details.

Question 20.

Answer:

Question 21.
List the iron and steel industries started in India with foreign aid. Name the countries helped in their set up.
Answer:
Bhilai — Soviet Union
Bokaro — Soviet Union
Rourkela — Germany
Durgapur — Britain

Question 22.
What was the visible change in Indian economy since 1990’s?
Answer:
Instead of public sector, private sector gained priority.

Question 23.
List the following chronological order.
1. India became Republic
2. Cabinet Mission
3. Panchsheel Principles
4. Dr. Radhakrishnan Commission.
Answer:
1. Cabinet Mission
2. Dr. Radhakrishnan Commission
3. India became Republic
4. Panchsheel Principles

Question 24.
Prepare a table showing important education com-missions of Independent India, their objectives and recommendations.
Answer:

Question 25.
Explain Panchsheel Principles.
Answer:
Panchsheel agreement was signed between India and China in 1954. The principles are

1. Mutual respect of each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
2. Mutual non-aggression
3. Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
4. Equality and mutual
5. Peaceful co-existence

Question 26.
Match the following tables suitably

Answer:

Question 27.
Name the first Indian state formed on the basis of language.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh.

Let Us Assess

Question 28.  (Qn. Pool-2017)
What were the major problems faced by India? When she got independence?
Answer:
Partition, influx of refugees, communal riots, integration of princely states, reorganization of states.

Question 29. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Write a short note on the integration of princely states into Indian Union.
Answer:

• There were around six hundred princely states in pre-independent India.
• The princely states were given the option to join any union.
• Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the Union Minister for the Department of States.
• V.P. Menon was the Secretary of the Department of States.
• Patel and V.P. Menon prepared an Instrument of Accession.
• Princely states had to hand over their control over defence, information, and communication, external affairs to the Government of India.
• All princely states except Junagarh, Hyderabad, Kashmir joined in the Indian Union.
• Later on these states were integrated into the Indian union through conciliation talks and military interventions under the initiative of Patel and V.P. Menon led the process.

Question 30.
Examine the circumstances that led to linguistic-based state formation.
Answer:
After the integration of kingly states, the next major issue faced by India was the formation of states. There were demands and agitations from various parts of the country for language-based state formulation. Potti Sreeramulu undertook a hunger strike demanding the formation of Andhra Pradesh for the Telugu speaking population. He lost his life in the process. Finally, Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1953.

This intensified the demand for language-based state formation. Government then constituted state reorganization commission under the chairmanship of Faisal AN. On the basis of the report of this commission, State Reorganization Act was passed in 1956. As per this Act, 14 states and 6 union territories came into existence.

Question 31.
‘Independent India achieved remarkable progress in science and technology’. Examine this statement.
Answer:
The following flow chart depicts the achievements * India attained during the period after independence

Question 32.
Write a note on the formation of Indian Constitution?
Answer:

• ln 1946 the Cabinet Mission proposed to form a Constituent Assembly.
• Dr. Rajendraprasad was appointed as the Chairman of Constituent Assembly.
• Appointed a drafting committee with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as Chairman.
• The Constitution came into effect on 26th January 1950.

Question 33 (Qn. Pool-2017)
Explain the advancement in space research in independent India.
Answer:

• Thumba rocket launching station.
• Indian National Committee for Space Research.
• Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) in 1969.
• The launching of the satellite Aryabhatta in 1975.
• Chandrayaan-2006

Question 34. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Explain the features of the National Policy on Education 1986.
Answer:

• Focus on primary and continuing education.
• Universalise primary education
• Starting Navodaya Vidyalayas in every district.
• Encouraging girl’s education.

Question 35. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Make a list of the fundamental principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

• Panchsheel Principles
• Non-alignment
• Anti-racist
• Emphasis on the necessity for foreign aid

India after Independence Model Questions

Question 36. (Qn. Pool – 2017)
Which was the provision incorporated in the Instrument of Accession concerning the princely states?
Answer:
The princely states had to hand over their control over defence, external affairs, and information and communications to the Government of India.

Question 37. (Qn. Pool-2017)
List out the territories that were acceded to the Indian union through military operations and popular protests?
Answer:
A. Popular Protests-Pondicherry, Karakkal
B. Military operations-Goa, Daman,
Mahe, Yanam – French settlements
Diu – Portughese settlements

Question 38. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Examine the circumstances that led to the formation of the first unilingual state of Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
After independence there emerged demand for linguistic reorganization of states. In 1953 Potti Sreeramulu started fast for the formation of the state of Andhra Pradesh for Telugu speaking people. He died in 1953. It was followed by strong protest demanding formation of the state of Andhra Pradesh. Thus in 1953 the first unilingual
state of India, Andhra Pradesh was formed.

Question 39. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Who were the members of the commission to reorganize Indian states?
Answer:
Fazl Ali, Hrudaya Nath Kunzru, K.M. Panikkar.

Question 40. (Qn. Pool-2017)
What is meant by mixed economy?
Answer:
Mixed economy is a combination of both socialist and capitalist economic systems.

Question 41. (Qn. Pool-2017)
How did the five-year plans help the economic growth of India?
Answer:

• Agriculture and industrial sectors flourished.
• Eradication of poverty.
• Improvement in education sector.
• Formation of iron and steel industrial firms.
• Major dams.

Question 42. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Name the foreign countries that assisted the settings up of following iron and steel industrial firms in India. (Bhilai, Bokaro, Rourkela, Durgapur)
Answer:

• Bhilai — Soviet Union
• Rourkela — Germany
• Durgapur — Britain
• Bokaro — Soviet Union

Question 43. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Name the two agencies that develop satellites in India.
Answer:

• National Remote Sensing Agency
• Physical Research Laboratory.

Question 44. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Explain any two cultural institutions in India and their activities that aim for cultural development.
Answer:

• Sangeet Natak Akademi, Aimed at the promotion of Drama and Music,
• Lalit Kala Akademy – Promotion of Indian arts in India and abroad.
• Sahitya Akademy – Promotion of Literature in Indian languages.
• National School of Drama – Promotion of Drama, works under Sangit Natak Akademy.
• National Book Trust of India – To make books available cost-effectively. To promote Indian books in India and abroad.

Question 45. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Arrange the following in chronological order.
1. Chandrayaan Mission
2. Formation of the ISRO
3. Launching of Aryabhatta
4. Formation of National Committee for Space Research.
Answer:

1. Formation of National Committee for Space Research.
2. Formation of the ISRO
3. Launching of Aryabhatta.
4. Chanrdrayaan Mission.

Question 46. (Qn. Pool-2017)
What was the aim of the Operation Blackboard Programme?
Answer:

• Universalise primary education
• Improve primary facilities in schools.

Question 47. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Which education commission recommended to establish 10 + 2 + 3 pattern of education?
Answer:
Kothari Commission

Question 48. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Make a list of the fundamental principles of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

• Panchsheel Principles
• Non-alignment
• Anti-racist
• Emphasis on the necessity for foreign aid

Question 49. (Qn. Pool- 2017)
The Panchsheel Principles are the agreement signed by India and China in 1954.
What are its provisions?
Answer:

• Mutual respect for each, other territorial integrity and sovereignty
• Mutual non-aggression
• Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.
• Equality and cooperation for mutual benefit.
• Peaceful co-existence

Question 50. (Qn. Pool-2017)
‘Panchsheel Principles are provisions of mutual agreement.’ Substantiate.
Answer:

• This agreement was signed between India and China.
• This agreement was signed for maintaining mutual relationship.
• Mutual non-aggression.
• Other provisions being the mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
• Each of the provisions of the agreement aimed for mutual relationships.

Question 51. (Qn. Pool-2017)
How did the construction of dams help in the economic modernization of India?
Answer:

• Availability of water for agriculture.
• Availability of electricity for industries
• Increased agricultural production.

Question 52. (Qn. Pool-2017)
How did the five-year plans that started in 1951 help to the developmental process of India?
Answer:

• Flourished agriculture and industrial sectors progress in poverty alleviation, energy production, and education.
• Recent development in these fields may be mentioned.

Question 53. (Qn. Pool-2017)
The process of attainment of India’s freedom completed in 1961. How much is the statement valid?
Answer:
In 1947 Britain gave freedom to India. But regions like Goa, Daman and Diu were under Portuguese control while Pondicherry, Mahe, Yaman, and Karaikal were under French domination. In 1954 the French settlements were liberated while the Portuguese settlements were liberated in 1961. That is why it is said that India got complete independence in 1961.

Question 54. (Qn. Pool-2017)
What was the circumstances that forced the central government to form Andhra Pradesh State on Linguistic base?
Answer:
Satyagraha of freedom fighter Potti Sreeramulu and its effects.
Hunger strike which led later to the death of the freedom fighter Potti Sreeramulu.

Question 55. (Qn. Pool-2017)
The major events in post-independent India are given below. Arrange them in chronological order.
1. India became Republic
2. Formation of the States, Reorganisation Commission.
3. The French settlements were acceded to the Indian Union.
4. The Portuguese quit India
5. First General Election in free India
Answer:

1. India became a Republic
2. First General Election in Free India
3. Formation of the States, Reorganisation Commission.
4. The French settlements were acceded to the Indian Union.
5. The Portuguese quit India.

Question 56. (Orukkam 2017)
List the major challenges of post-independent India.
1. Flow of Refugees
2. …………..
Answer:

1. Flow of Refugees
2. Communal riots
3. States’reorganisation
4. Partition
5. Integration of princely states.

Students can Download Social Science Part 1 Chapter 7 India after Independence Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus Class 10th Standard Social Science History Chapter 7 Notes Malayalam Medium സ്വാതന്ത്ര്യത്തിനു ശേഷം ഇന്ത്യ

India after Independence Textbook Questions and Answers in Malayalam

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 2 World in the Twentieth Century Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 2 Notes

World In The Twentieth Century Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
How did Industrial Revolution cause colonization? Prepare a flow chart and explain.
Answer:

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
How does imperialism differ from colonization?
Answer:
Colonization:
Colonial countries considered the colonies as the source of raw materials and the market for their industrial products.

Imperialism:
The distinctive phase of flow of finance capital to colonies is known as imperialism. Imposing a nation’s political, economic and cultural dominance on other nation is a fundamental feature of imperial.

History Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
How did Industrial Revolution cause conflicts among nations?
Answer:
Industrial Revolution resulted in the increase of capital and that was to be invested in for eign trades. These resulted in financial ex-exploitation and competition among the nations and as a result the strong and powerful ones began to divide Africa. This competition for the markets, raw materials and the colonies went on in the last phase of 19th and in the 20th century. All the imperialist nations too joined in this competition that resulted in the outbreak of wars.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Question 4.
How did the competitions among the imperialist nations lead the world to a war? Discuss.
Answer:
Imperialist rivalry drove the European countries into several crisis among which the Moroccan crisis and Balkan crisis were considered to be important. When Austria laid its claim over the Balkan region with the support of Germany, Serbia claimed this region with the support.of Russia.

During this time, a Serbian youth GaveriloPrinsep, assassinated Francis Ferdinand, the heir to the throne of Austria at the Bosnian capital Sarajevo in July 1914. Austria held Serbia responsible for it and declared war on Serbia on 28 July 1914. The allied nations rushed to help their allies. Almost all the nations of the world directly or indirectly were involved in it. Therefore this war is known as the First World War.

Social Science 10th Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
The Treaty of Versailles was an example of the vengeance against the defeated nations. Discuss.
Answer:
A peace conference was convened at Paris in 1919 to discuss post war situation under the leadership of the winning allies, Britain and France. They signed different treaties with the defeated nations. The treaty of Versailles, the important one was signed with Germany in 1919.

German colonies were divided among the victorious powers and Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war intensity. Germany had to accept the whole. Austria, Hungary, Bulgaria, Turkey also signed treaties. Treaty of Versailles stood only for the interests of winning allies.

Hsslive Social Science 10th Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Find out how the economic depression in the USA affected the economy of other nations and prepare a short note.
Answer:
After losing in the war, the European nations managed to get loans from the U.S.A. The economic crisis began in USA in 1929. American dollar over took British pound on the basis of foreign exchange holding. The loans given for Germany could not be refunded as the banks collapsed.

Inflation became uncontrollable. Unemployment and poverty increased. Goods were kept unsold in factories. To overcome the crisis, European nations imposed heavy taxes on the colonies. The economic depression in the USA affected other nations.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 7.
“ Fascism was a product of the First World War”. Discuss.
Answer:
The European nations resorted to various strategies to succeed in their imperialistic competitions. Aggressive nationalism was one among them. The European nations used aggressive nationalism to invade other countries. Aggressive nationalists considered their own nations as the supreme and justified whatever be the actions of their nations. Various movements in Europe were an offshoot of aggressive nationalism.

The First World War devastated both the allies. Many European governments lost their power. People were in misery. Unemployment, poverty and inflation gnawed their entire system. Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany rose to power, capitalizing on the political and economic chaos prevailing then. Economic destruction, rivalry against the victors, aimlessness etc. facilitated these forces to grab power.

Hss Live Class 10 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
The ideologies put forth by both Fascists and Nazis had several similarities. Find some examples from the textbook and complete the table.
Answer:

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Notes Question 9.
How did Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Ger-many defy world peace? Conduct a seminar on this topic.
Answer:
The First World War devastated both the allies. Many European governments lost their power. People were in misery. Unemployment, poverty and inflation gnawed their entire system. Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany rose to power, capitalizing on the political and economic destruction, rivalry against the victors, aimlessness etc. facilitated these forces to grab power.

Fascism and Nazism were geared for war and expansion. Both regimes started from a vision of a world of narrowing opportunities in which nations and races had to struggle, expand, or die. Nazism was the German version of fascism Hitler adopted and aggressive foreign policy and attacked Austria and Czechoslovakia. Alliances with Italy and Japan was formed, our countries opposed this which led to the Second world war.

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
The reasons behind the outbreak of First World War and Second World War had several similarities’. Analyze the statement.
Answer:

10th Social Science Notes Pdf State Syllabus Question 11.
Given below are some of the outcomes of the First World War. Discuss how they resulted in the Second World War.

a. The Treaty of Versailles
b. Formation of the League of Nations
c. The emergence of Fascism and Nazism

Answer:
The Treaty of Versailles:
According to the Peace of Treaty of Versailles, signed in 1919, German colonies were divided among the victorious powers.Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war indemnity. She was disarmed.

Formation of the league of nations:
To bring about peace in the world, the league of nations was formed. But if failed to maintain world peace.

Emergence of Fascism and Nazism:
Based on extreme nationalism Fascism (Italy) and Nazism (Germany) rose to power. By fol-lowing aggressive foreign policy, these two nations began to conquer other nations, they prepared the ground for the second World War.

Hss Live Social Science 10th Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
War affects both innocents and culprits. Prepare a note on the lessons that we can imbibe from the First and Second World Wars.
Answer:
Many lost their lives in 1st world war. They suffered from poverty and unemployment. The culture and development was lost in IInd world war. The dangers of nuclear explosion in Hiroshima and Nagazaki are still continuing. Every nation has developed in the field of science and technology. If a world war hap pens again the new weapons would bring an end to the whole mankind. So, let us dream for a world wide peace.

Hsslive Guru Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
Prepare a magazine on the liberated nations and their leaders in Asia and Africa.
Answer:
India:
India contributed for the freedom movements in Asian countries. Indian become aware of the religious, education, social reformation and connection with western nations in 19th century. India was saved from British under the leadership of Gandhiji. On 15 August 1947 India and Pakistan became independent.

Burma:
Burma was under British rule till Japan surrendered in the second world war. When Japan lost in the war, British tried to capture Burma, but they protested under the leadership of OngSan. Burma became free in 1948.

10th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
It was the conflicting ideologies that led to ‘Cold war’? Evaluate.
Answer:
The USA and the USSR that formed antifascist alliance during the Second World War parted from each other after the war. The USA floated a new alliance of capitalist countries while the USSR led socialist nations. These two blocs capitalist bloc and socialist bloc that represented contradictory ideas continued their political and diplomatic wars. This enmity based on ideological conflict and diplomatic confrontations was called the cold war.

Social 10th Class Notes State Syllabus Question 15.
How did decolonization and cold war lead to the formation of Non-Aligned Movement?
Answer:
America and Soviet Union which were united leaving Fascism during the second world war were again separated after the war. America became the new economic nation and led capitalists. Soviet Union formed socioeconomic growth of the nations.

A result of cold war was the differences in the ideologies and diplomatic confrontation of two regions which were enemies. They planned to help their own regions. When the whole world decided to be a part of any powerful region the countries in Asia arid Africa stayed free. They were called third world nations. They feared that the powerful regions may lead for threats and use of dangerous weapons may lead for a 3rd world war. Gradually non-alignment was formed.

Question 16.
Examine how imperialist interests caused the unrest in West Asia.
Answer:
Until the First World War, the territory including Palestine was part of the Turkish Empire. As Turkey was defeated in the war, Britain took over the region. Since the Jews helped Britain in the war, then British foreign secretary Arthur Balfour declared the establishment of a Jewish nation in West Asia as a reward. It is known as Balfour Declaration.

Zionism is an international movement with an objective of the establishment of a homeland for the Jews. We have already discussed the assault and cruelty of Hitler towards the Jews. This intensified the demand for a separate Jewish state. In 1948, the nation Israel was formed. Consequently, many wars broke out between Israel and the Arab nations. Israel seized Palestine, expelling the Palestinians from their homeland.

The Palestinian refugees migrated to various Arab countries. In this context, with an objective of establishing a nation for the Palestinians, a movement called Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) was founded with Yasser Arafat as the President. After a series of bloodshed’s and massacres, Israel agreed in principle to recognize Palestine as a free nation. This agreement mediated by the US is called the Oslo Pact (1993). But, the provisions in the pact are yet be implemented.

Question 17.
How does neo imperialism affect the economy of Third World countries?
Answer:
A new imperialistic view came out for serving the interests of capitalist countries. The MNCs competed with one another to control the resources and assets of 3rd world countries. They promoted consumerism. As a result, the farmers suffered and could not export their goods. They could not get even what they had spent. Unemployment and no wages brought the nation to disaster.

World in the Twentieth Century Let Us Assess

Question 1.
What is meant by imperialism?
Answer:
Using the political power and military forces European countries captured the colonies and considered it as the source of raw materials and market for their industrial products. Later on, the colonial masters started to invest capital in the colonies.

The distinctive phase of flow of finance capital to colonies is Imperialism. The fundamental feature of imperialism is to impose a nation’s political economic and cultural dominance over another ration. Colonialists imposed their dominance using legal system, administrative measures, military forces etc.

Question 2.
How does colonization differ from imperialism?
Answer:
In the 18th century, as a result of Industrial Revolution, the investment began to increase and many nations produced more than what they needed. It could not be accommodated in domestic markets. The trade relation was established with Asian, African and Latin American nations. The European countries economically exploited other from tries using political power and military forces.

The nations produced more than their need and it could not be accommodated in domestic markets. This resulted in competition among the European countries. The economical exploitation of European countries using political power and military forces among the nations later resulted in colonization.

They had considered the colonies as the source of raw materials and market for industrial products. The colonial masters began to invest capital in the colonies.

The phase of flow of finance capital to colonies is termed as imperialism. A nation imposing its political, economic and cultural dominance on another is a fundamental feature of Imperialism. This was done using legal system, administrative measures, military force etc.

Question 3.
“Paris Peace Conference led to the outbreak of the second world war”. Do you agree? Why?
Answer:
Indeed the statement is true. The winning allies of the first world war signed the Treaty of Versailles with Germany. According to the treaty, German colonies were divided among the Victorian powers and Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war indemnity. Germany was disarmed.

The Germans were depressed and agitated. On account of the Treaty, Nazism under Hitler came into power succeeding in creating revenge and nationalism in Germany.

When Germany, Italy and Japan attacked nations, Britain and France did not protest. Socialist country Soviet Union, was their chief enemy. This encouraged fascists attack and was called the policy of Appeasement. Poland was attacked by Germany on 1 “ September 1939. Allied nations declared war on September 3 which resulted in the second world war.

Question 4.
What are the factor that led America into economic crisis?
Answer:
The world was thrown into economic crisis in 1929. Poverty increased among the majority. The production rate increased but goods were kept unsold. The fall in share market resulted in economic crisis. Banks collapsed in the years between 1929 and 1932. Farmers could not sell the products and lost the property.

Question 5.
List the features of fascism.
Answer:

• Antagonism to democracy
• Opposition to socialism
• Glorifying the nation
• Adoring the purity of peace
• Justification of war
• Diffusion of aggressive nationalism
• Deifying the past
• Indoctrination of ideologies through art, literature and education
• Military dictatorship
• Destruction of political rivals

Question 6.
Match column A with column B.

Answer:

a. ii,
b. i,
c. iv,
d. iii

Question 7.
Elucidate the political circumstances that led to Isreal-Palestine conflict.
Answer:
Palestine was a part of Turkey till the first world war. But when Turkey was captured, Palestine came under Britain. As the Jews helped Britain in the war, then the foreign secretary Arthur Balfour declared the establishment of Jewish nation in West Asia as a reward. This is Balfour declaration.

Zionism is an international movement with an objective of the establishment of a homeland for the Jews. The cruelty upd assault of Hitler towards Jews intensified the demand for a separate Jewish state. In 1948, Israel was formed. Many wars broke out between Israel and Arab nations. Israel seized Palestine and they were expelled from their homeland. The Palestinian refugees migrated to Arab countries.

PLO (Palestine Liberation Organisation) was formed to establish a nation for Palestinians. Yasar Arafat was the President. After a series of blood shed and massacres, Israel agreed to recognize Palestine as a free nation. This agreement was mediated by the U.S in Oslo Pact. But the provisions are yet to be implemented.

Question 8.
Examine the relevance of Non-Alignment.
Answer:
After the Second World War, Asian, African and Latin American countries became independent. They realized that cold war was another face of imperialism and a threat to world peace. The liberated nations decided not to join any of the blocs and formed Non-Aligned Movement.

They realized that weapons and strong military force would be a threat. Only a world without war or conflict would develop economically and socially. The idea of Non-Aligned Movement was formed in Bandung in Indonesia in 1955. The First Conference was held in Belgrade in 1961.

Question 9.
What are the changes that the disintegration of the Soviet Union brought to the world?
Answer:
The world faced a drastic change after the second world war. America to protect vested interests of imperialism and Soviet Union to protect socialistic ideas. Soviet Union could protect the world from American imperialism. Soviet Union was able to protect the interest of Egypt in the Suez Canal Crisis. Also, Soviet Union stood for justice in the Cuban Crisis and in the conflict on Kashmir between India and Pakistan.

But Soviet Union lost its power in the year 1991. Deviation from the basic principle of socialism and the external intervention as a part of globalization was the reason for the disintegration. The policies of Michael Gorbachev, the President, took Soviet Union to Imperialism.

World in the Twentieth Century Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare an essay on ‘the impact of multinational companies on our daily life.
Answer:
Have you ever thought on the influence of multinational companies in our daily life?
There are mainly 10 multinational companies in India. Microsoft tops the list. American company Microsoft was established in 1991. The second one is IBM which brought drastic changes in the field of Information Technology.

Nestle is another one, which has a prominent place in our day to day life. Maggi, Nestle Milk, Kitkat Bon Bons, Nestea, etc. are the products. It has the third place in MNCs. P&G, the fourth one is for vicks, Ariel, olay, Parrtene, Tide, etc. These products have more than 600 million world wide consumers.

Next is Coco cola:
Lays, Kurkure, Cheetos, 7up, Pepsi all these are unavoidable for us. It is made by Pepsi Co. It came in 1960 and is in the sixth place. Next is ctti group, a venture in the banking sector. It has many branches in India.

T.V, mobile phones, cameras, head phones, memory cards etc. are the products of Sony corporation.Online provides software services part of multinational products. Laptop, desktop, tablet, monitor, printers all belong to the same company.

Apple INC stays for online services and electronic gadgets, i-phones, i-pad, i-pod are its contributions. Majoriy of food products and other items are the contributions of MNCs. Thus the importance of these companies are relevant in our day to day life.

World in the Twentieth Century Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the flow chart explaining the emergence of Imperialism. Industrial Revolution.

Answer:

a.Capitalism
b. Over Production
c. Expensive production
d. Export of Capital
e. Colonization.

Question 2.
Identify and write how Imperialism affected the Colonies.
Traditional economic system of the colonies was destroyed.
Answer:

• Traditional economic system of the colonies was destroyed.
• Administrative and judicial systems were replaced.
• Poverty and unemployment increased.
• Natural resources were widely exploited.
• People in colonies were forced to cultivate cash crops in lieu of traditional food crops.
• Indigenous arts, literature,language,culture and education system were destroyed.

Question 3.
List down the reasons for the first world war.
Imperialist competition for colonies
Answer:

• Aggressive Nationalism
• Assassination of Francis Ferdinand
• Signing of military alliances.

Question 4.
Complete the table.

Answer:

a. Austria Hungary
b. Italy
c. England
d. Russia

Question 5
Complete the following table.

Answer:

a. Russia
b. Germany
c. France

Question 6.
Identify and write down the impacts for the First World War.

• Economic dominance of Europe diminished.

Answer:

• In Over 10 million people lost their lives or were injured in the war.
• Poverty, Unemployment and inflation increased.
• Liberation movements in Asia and Africa strengthened.
• Agriculture , industry and communication system were destroyed.
• In a bid to bring about peace in the world, the league of nations was formed.
• Economic depression.
• Fascism and Nazism.

Question 7.
Complete the time line given below.

Answer:

Question 8.
Complete the Comparison Table given below.

Answer:

a. Germany
b. Mussolini
c. Brown Shirts
d. To glorify the nation.

Question 9.
Find out and write down the reasqps for the Second World War.

• Treaty of Versailles.
• Polish invasion of Germany.

Answer:

• Emergence of Fascism and Nazism.
• Formation of league of Nations.
• Nationalism.
• Poland invasion of Germany.

Question 10.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

a. Italy
b. Japan
c. England
d. France

Question 11.
List down the results of the Second world War.

a. Over 10 million people died.
b. Independence of the Asio-African colonies.

Answer:

• Economic system of European countries were destroyed.
• European dominance in the world diminished.
• America and Soviet Union emerged as global powers.
• Freedom movements in Asia and Africa intensified.
• In a bid to preserve and maintain world peace the United Nations Organization (UNO) was formed.

Question 12.
Complete time line below.

Answer:

a. 1939 September 1,
b. 1939 September 3,
c. United States of America dropped 2 atom bombs in Japan Little boy in Hiroshima on 6th August and Fat man in Nagasakiqn the 9th August,
d. 1945 August 15,
e. 1945, October 24,
f. Formation of Israel,
g. Non- aligned movement was formed,
h.l 96 l,
i. 199 l,
j. Oslo Pact

Question 13.
Complete the table

Answer:

a. South Africa,
b. Ghana,
c. Kenya

Question 14.
List down the reasons for the disintegration of Soviet Union.

• Deviation from the basic principles of socialism.

Answer:

• Failure in bringing about changes in economic sector.
• Regulation on freedom of expression and opinion.
• Corruption and inefficiency of the bureaucracy.
• Administrative measures of Mikhail Gorbachev.

Question 15.
Explain the following related to the West Asian problems.

Answer:

a. The idea of establishing a jewish homeland,
b. Establishing a nation for Palestines,
c. The agreement mediated by the U.S to recognize Palestine as a free nation.

Question 16.
Which were the strategies adopted by America to establish its dominance over the World.
• Extended Military Alliances
Answer:

• Media were used to promote America’s vested interests.
• Utilizing international agencies, America provided financial and military aids to the countries of the world.

Question 17.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

a. Adoption of liberal regulations and taxation systems to facilitate import of multinational products to domestic products,

b. Privatization,

c. Economic system of country linked to global economy, Competition driven market came into existence, Trans- border flow of products , services,raw materials, capital, latest technology and human resources facilitated.

Question 18.
Write how did globalization adversely affect developing nations.

• Destruction of the indigenous culture.

Answer:

• Destruction of indigenous culture.
• Intervention of multinational companies challenged the concept of nation state.
• Price of agricultural products plunged.
• Public sector undertakings were destroyed.
• Natural Resources were looted.

World in the Twentieth Century Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
Which are the factors that prompted the capitalist nations to invest in the colonies?
Answer:

• Cheap Labour
• Availability of raw materials
• Low cost involved in manufacturing and selling goods in colonies.

Question 2.
Analyse the back ground of the First World War.
Answer:
Traditional economic system of the colonies:
The European nations vied with each other in establishing colonies. This competition led to conflicts among them and caused mutual distrust and enmity. This further drove the nations to the signing of military alliances. The Triple Alliance and Triple Entente were examples of such military alliances.

Germany, Austria Hungary and Italy were members of triple alliance.Triple entente consisted of England, France and Russia. The formation of such alliances created a war atmosphere in Europe. They started manufacturing and buying lethal weapons.

Aggressive Nationalism:
The European nations used aggressive nationalism to invade other countries. Aggressive nationalists considered their own nations as the supreme and justified whatever be the actions of their nations. Various movements in europe were an offshoot of Aggressive nationalism.

Assassination of Francis Ferdinand:
When Austria laid its claim over the Balkan region with the support of Germany, Serbia claimed this region with the support of Russia. During this time a Serbian youth Gaverilo Prinsep assassinated Francis Ferdinand the heir to the throne of Austria at the Bosnian capital Sarajevo in June 1914.

Austria held Serbia responsible for it and declared war on serbiaon 28 July 1914. Almost all nations of the world directly or indirectly were involved in it. Therefore this war is known as the First world war.

Question 3.
Evaluate the results of the First World War.
Answer:

• The first world war ended in 1918. It produced far reaching impacts around the world.
• Over 10 million people lost their lives or were injured in the war.
• Economic dominance of Europe diminished.
• Poverty, unemployment and inflation increased.
• Liberation movements in Asia and Africa strengthened agriculture, industry and com munication systems were destroyed.
• In a bid to bring about peace in the world, the league of nations was formed.

In 1919 a peace conference was convened at paris to discuss post war situation under the leadership of winning allies, Britain and fiance. They signed different treaties with defeated nations. The Versailles Treaty signed with Germany in 1919 was the most important one. According to this treaty, German colonies were divided among victorious powers and Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war indemnity. The allies occupied the rich mines of Germany.

Europe was the focal point of first world war and it had to bear the major brunt. Hence economically and politically, the European nations suffered serious setbacks. Ruling dynasties like Romanov in Russia , Hohenzollern in Germany and Hapsburg in Austria Hungary lost power.

The United states of America was not affected by war. Hence European countries was not affected by war. Hence european nations managed to get loans from the USA. Consequently American dollar overtook british pound on the basis of foreign exchange holding.

Question 4.
Arrange the following table.

Answer:

Question 5.
What is meant by New-imperialism?
Answer:
In the post war period a new kind of imperialism emerged. Multinational companies which are registered in a country and functioning in many countries, began to interfere in the economic, social and cultural sectors of the latter for serving the interests of the capitalist countries. It is known as New Imperialism.

Question 6.
What were the factors that led to the Second World War.
Answer:
Emergence of Fascism and Nazism:
Based on extreme nationalism Fascism (Italy?) and Nazism (Germany) rose to power. By following aggressive foreign policy, these two nations began to conquer other nations, they prepared the ground for the second World War.

The Treaty of Versailles:
According to the Peace of Treaty of Versailles, signed in 1919, German colonies were divided among the victorious powers. Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war indemnity. She was disarmed.

Formation of the league of nations:
To bring about peace in the world, the league of nations was formed. But if failed to maintain world peace.

Question 7.
How did Fascism and Nazism become a threat to world peace?
Answer:
In 1919 Hitler formed the Nazi party. Hitler projected the purity of Aryans race and argued that Aryans should rule the world. He defied the aryans ancestry of the Germans. All other political parties except the Jazi party were banned. Military Service was made compulsory Hitler incited a spirit of revenge among the Germans against the terms of the Treaty of Versailles.

Taking advantage of the Feeling of revenge among German, he adopted an aggressive foreign policy. He attacked Austria and Czechoslovakia. Germany formed alliance with Italy and Japan. It was opposed by other countries. Ultimately this led to the outbreak of another world war.

Mussolini resorted to despotic measures in the political and economic fields of Italy. Violence and Ferocity were the strategies of Fascist. Socialists and leaders of peasants and workers were proclaimed as enemies of the nations. Those who opposed the fascist party were executed. Using his military force the black shirts, Mussolini suppressed the opponents through Fascist policies.Italy’s run for dictatorship paved the way for outbreak of another war.

Question 8.
In which country did World economic depression start?
Answer:
America

Question 9.
Explain, what paved the way for the formation of cold war and Non-Aligned Movement
Answer:
The USA and USSR that formed anti – fascist alliance during the second world war parted from each other after the war.The USA floated a new alliance. The USA floated a new alliance of capitalist countries while the USSR led socialist nations.These two blocs- capitalist bloc capitalist bloc and socialist bloc that represented contradictory ideas continued their political and diplomatic wars.

This enmity based on ideological conflict and diplomatic confrontations was called the cold war. Cold war became intense when the two blocs started new military alliances and regional coalitions. Following the second war many Asian, African and Latin american countries became independent.

They realized that the cold war was yet another face of imperialism. and that it would threaten world peace. The liberated nations decided not to join any of the blocs and formed the Non aligned movement. They understood that the race of super powers for weapons and a stronger military force would pose harm to them.

Question 10.
Arrange the following incidents in chronological order.

• Disintegration of Soviet Union
• Formation of Israel
• Oslo pact
• Belgrade Sommit

Answer:

• Formation of Israel -1948
• Belgrade Summit-1961
• Disintegration of Soviet Union -1991
• Oslo Pact -1993

Question 11.
Arrange the following table.

Answer:

Question 12.
Evaluate, how America established its dominance over the world.
Answer:

• America emerged as a global power and center of world politics following the disintegration of Soviet Union.This is called Uni polar world order.Several strategies were adopted by america to establish its dominance over the world . They are-
• Utilizing international agencies, America provided financial and military aids to the countries of the world.
• Extended military alliances
• Media were used to promote America’s vested interests. It was America’s imperialist policy that paved the way for the gulf war. America utilized their military facilities and technological progress in these wars.

World in the Twentieth Century SCERT Questions and Answer

Question 1.
What are the consequences of industrial revolution which began in England in the eighteenth century.
Answer:

• Capitalists invested in factories.
• Capitalists increased production.
• This made increase in profit.
• Production and distribution were controlled by private individuals with the aim to increase profit.
• The advent of large scale industries enhanced capital investments.
• Over production forced them to search for foreign markets.
• Asian and African nations were exploited by using political power and military forces.

Question 2.
What were the circumstances that led to the supremacy of Europeans in Asian and African nations?
Answer:

• Capital investment in factories.
• Capitalists increased production.
• This made increase in production.
• Production and distribution were controlled by private individuals with the aim to increase profit.
• The advent of large scale industries enhanced capital investment.
• Over production forced them to search for world markets.
• Using political power and military forces Asian and African nations were exploited.

Question 3.
What are the factors that forced the capitalist countries to begin production in their colonies in Asia and Africa.
Answer:

• Cheap labour.
• Availability of raw materials.
• Low cost as a result of manufacturing and selling goods in colonies.

Question 4.
How did imperialism affect the colonial countries.
Answer:

• Traditional economic system of the colonies were destroyed.
• Administrative and judicial system were replaced.
• Forced to cultivate cash crops instead of food crops.
• Indigenous art, literature, language, culture and education system were destroyed.
• Poverty and unemployment increased.
• Natural resources were exploited.

Question 5.
How did imperialist forces implement exploitative policies in the colonies?
Answer:
By using legal system, military force, administrative measures etc.

Question 6.
Which were the movements formed in connection with aggressive nationalism?
Answer:

• Plan Slav movement, Pan – German movement, Revenge movement.
• To unite the Slav people of Serbia, Bulgaria, Greece etc. in Eastern Europe was the objectives of Pan Slav movement.
• To unite the Teutonic people in central Europe and Balkan provinces was the objective of Pan German movement.
• The objective of Revenge movement in France was to conquer AlsaceLorrane which was under the control of Germany.

Question 7.
How did the imperialist crises cause the First World War. Explain.
Answer:
Moroccan Crisis:

• A secret treaty was signed between Britain and France in 1904 in which Britain accepted the French supremacy in Morroco.
• Germany did not approve it.
• Germany sent battleships to Morroco.
• The problem was solved by giving some parts of French congo to Germany.

Balkan Crisis :

• Balkan was a part of the Ottoman empire.
• In 1912, Balkan League defeated Turkey.
• Difference of opinion among Balkan countries started in sharing the benefits of the war.

Question 8.
Analyse the results of the First World War.
Answer:

• Millions of people lost their lives.
• Economic dominance of Europe diminished.
• Poverty, unemployment and inflation increased.
• Agriculture, industry and communication systems were destroyed.
• In a bid to bring about peace in the world, the League of Nations was formed.

Question 9.
What were the consequences of the First World War in Europe?
Answer:

• As Europe was the focal point of war, it had to bear the major brunt.
• Economically and politically, the European nations suffered set backs.
• Ruling dynasties in Europe, lost power. (Hohenzollern in Germany, Habsburg in Austria – Romanov in Russia)

Question 10.
America was not affected by the hazards of the First World War. Substantiate the statement
Answer:

• War did not take place in the USA.
• European nations which were destroyed in war took large scale loans from the USA.
• American dollar overtook British pound on the basis of foreign exchange holding.

Question 11.
Name of the leaders who gave leadership to the Non-Aligned Movement are given below. Name the countries they represent. Jawaharlal Nehru, Marshal Tito, Ahmed Sukarno, Gamal Abdul Nasser
Answer:

• Jawaharlal Nehru – India
• Gamal Abdul Nasser – Egypt
• Marshal Tito – Yugoslavia
• Ahmed Sukarno – Indonesia

Question 12.
Write a note on Non-Aligned movement.
Answer:

• Movement formed after the Second World War. It was a unity of nations which did not become part of capitalist or socialist bloc
• NAM was formed in the conference held at Bandung in Indonesia in 1955.
• First conference was held at Belgrade in 1961.

Question 13.
What do you mean by Balfour declaration. Explain.
Answer:
Jews helped Britain in the First World War. As a reward for this the British foreign secretary Arthur Balfour declared the establishment of a Jewish nation including Palestine in West Asia. This is known as Balfour declaration.

Question 14.
Which was the agreement recognized by Israel with the mediation of America in 1993 to liberate Palestine.
Answer:
Oslo pact

Question 15.
What were the aims of Zionist movement and the PLO?
Answer:

• Objective of the Zionist movement was to form a nation for the Jews.
•  The objective of the PLO was to establish a nation for the people of Palestine.

Question 16.
Evaluate the causes for the disintegration of Soviet Union.
Answer:

• Deviation from the basic principles of socialism.
• Over importance to defense.
• Regulation on freedom of expression and opinion.
• Corruption and inefficiency of the bureaucracy.
• The administrative reforms of Mikhail Gorbachev.

Question 17.
What were the changes brought about by the disintegration of Soviet Union in the international level?
Answer:

• Marked the end of cold war.
• Bipolar world destroyed.
• Uni polar world emerged.
• America became a supreme power.

Question 18.
What are the strategies adopted by America to retain its dominance over the world?
Answer:

• By utilizing international agencies America provided financial and military aids to countries of the world.
• Extended military alliances.
• Overthrew the governments disliked by America.
• Media were used to promote America’s vested interests.

Question 19.
How did the competition of multinational companies affect the developing countries?
Answer:

• They tried to occupy the wealth of third world countries.
• A new consumer culture developed.
• Developing nations became the markets of the multinational companies.
• Indigenous economy collapsed.

Question 20.
Liberalization, privatization and globalization are the concepts of neo imperialism. Substantiate the statement.
Answer:

• Globalization:
  Protects the interests of multinational companies. Connected nation’s econorific system with global economic system. Trans border flow of products, raw materials, capital, latest technology and human resources facilitated.
• Liberalization:
  Adoption of liberal regulation to facilitate the import of multinational products and capital.
• Privatization:
  Privatization of public sector institutions to promote private sector.

Question 21.
Name the international organisations formulating the policies of globalization.
Answer:
World Bank, International Monetary Found, World Trade Organisation

Question 22.
Explain how globalization adversely affected the developing countries.
Answer:

• Led to the destruction of indigenous culture.
• The intervention of multinational companies over the concept of nation state.
• Price of agriculture products plunged.
• Natural resources were looted.
• Government withdrew from social service sector.

Question 23.
The Treaty of Versailles was a one sided treaty. Substantiate the statement by analyzing the provisions of the treaty.
Answer:

• German colonies were divided among allied powers.
• Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war indemnity.
• The allies occupied the rich mines.
• The war guilt was imposed on Germany and she was disarmed.

Question 24.
Analyse the results of the economic depression which affected the world in 1929?
Answer:

• People who became pauper as a result of the war, could not purchase commodities.
• Goods were kept unsold in factories.
• European nations failed to repay their debts to the USA.
• Banks collapsed.
• Inflation became uncontrollable.
• Acute unemployment and poverty.

Question 25.
Economic destruction, rivalry against the victors, aimlessness etc. were the factors that helped the growth of Fascism. Analyse the features of Fascism based on this statement ’
Answer:
Antagonism to democracy, glorifying the nation, justifying war, deifying the past, military dictatorship, opposition to socialism, adoring the purity of race, diffusion of aggressive nationalism, indoctrination of ideologies through arts, literature and education, annihilation of political rivals.

Question 26.
Analyse the circumstances that led the Fascist party into power in Italy.
Answer:

• Italy got nothing though she was one among the victors of the First World War.
• Destruction of industries, unemployment, increase in tax, inflation etc.
• Fear of nation moving to socialist revolution.

Question 27.
Italy’s imperialist ambition led the nations of the world war. Substantiate the statement by evaluating the administration of Mussolini.
Answer:

• Adopted violence.
• Socialists and leaders of peasants and workers were proclaimed as enemies of the nation.
• Those who opposed the fasist party were executed.
• Aimed to restore Roman empire.
• By using his military force, the ‘Black shirts’, he executed enemies.
• Conquered nations like Ethiopia and Albania.

Question 28.
What are the factors that helped Hitler to become the ruler of Germany?
Answer:

• Treaty of Versailles imposed by the victorious allies on Germany after the First World War.
• Economic crisis and inflation.
• Failure of German governments and the political uncertainty.

Question 29.
Nazism was the German version of Fascism. Substantiate.
Answer:

• Major enemies of Nazism like socialists, communists, jews and democrats were executed.
• Jews were declared as enemies of Germany.
• Jews were massacred in concentration camps.
• For executing enemies they formed military force ‘Brownshirt secret police troop – ‘Gestapo’.
• They argued for the Aryan racial supremacy.
• All the political parties except Nazi party were banned.
• Military service was made compulsory.
• Spread of ideas.

Question 30.
Differentiate and list out the following countries into Axis powers and Allied powers. England, China, Germany, France, Italy, Japan.
Answer:

Question 31.
The Second World War had left far reaching consequences for the human beings. Evaluate the validity of the statement
Answer:

• Millions of people died.
• Economic system of European countries was destroyed.
• European dominance in the world diminished.
• Freedom movements in Asia and Africa intensified.
• America and Soviet Union emerged as global powers.
• To maintain world peace, the United Nations Organisation was formed.

Question 32.
What are the important aims of the United Nations Organisation?
Answer:

• To save the succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
• To protect international treaties and laws.
• To consolidate activities for the development of the nations of the world.

Question 33.
Analyse the causes of decolonization.
Answer:

• Supremacy of imperialist countries was questioned.
• Freedom movements strengthened in colonies.
• Super powers like USA and USSR supported freedom movements in colonies.

Question 34.
What do you mean by cold war? What was its base?
Answer:

• Enmity based on ideological conflict and diplomatic confrontation between two power blocs was called the cold war.
• Ideological conflict and political mistrust.

Question 35.
Why is the First World War called as an imperialist war? Explain.
Answer:
Crises as part of exploiting wealth by conquering colonies.

Question 36.
There were certain similarities between the ideologies put forward by Fascism and Nazism. Substantiate the statement.
Answer:
Hero worship, racism, glorification of the past, war mania, opposition to democracy and socialism

Question 37.
What was the reason for the Moroccan crisis? How was it solved?
Answer:

• Germany opposed the claim of France over Morocco.
• Morocco was given to France.
• France allowed Britain to interfere in Egypt.
• A part of French Congo was given to Germany.

Question 38.
Names of certain countries who participated in the First World War are given below. List out them into Allied powers and Central powers.
Russia, Turkey, France, Bulgaria, Germany, Serbia, Britain, Austria.
Answer:

Question 39.
Elucidate the circumstances that led to the formation of military alliances among imperialist nations.
Answer:
Balkan crisis, Moroccan crisis and construction of the Baghdad rail by Germany created conflict among imperialist nations and eventually led to the formation of military alliances. This created suspicion and fear among two groups.

Question 40.
The reforms of Gorbachev intensified the disintegration of Soviet Union. Evaluate the statement.
Answer:

a. Deviation from the basic principles of socialism,
b. The reforms of Gorbachev led to capitalism,
c. Internal problems,
d. Corruption in administration.

Question 41.
The Non-Aligned Movement has relevance today even though there are no power blocs.

1. What were the circumstances that led to formation of the Non-Aligned Movement?
2. Who were its leaders?
3. What does the non-alignment aim?

Answer:

1. When the world was divided into two blocs, the newly independent nations wanted to stay independent without aligning to any bloc.
2. Nehru, Tito, Nasser, Sukarno.
3. Active interference in international issues.

Question 42.
Evaluate the circumstances after the Second World War which led to the formation of the Non-Aligned Movement
Answer:
World was divided into two power blocs under the USA and the USSR. Newly independent nations wanted to stay remain free. In this circumstances the NAM was formed in the Bandung conference held in 1955 in Indonesia.

World in the Twentieth Century Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which organisation was formed to maintain world peace after the First World War ?
Answer:
The League of Nations

Question 2.
What was the name of the secret police troop of Hitler?
Answer:
Gestapo

Question 3.
What was the name of the atom bomb which America dropped in Hiroshima on 6 August 1945 ?
Answer:
Little Boy

Question 4.
Where is the headquarters of the United Nations Organization situated ?
Answer:
New York, United States of America

Question 5.
Analyse how the UNO succeeded in gaining peace in the world?
Answer:
The UNO is strictly under powerful nations. It failed in protecting the small countries when subjected to powerful dangers. The UNO could not bring any control over the use of nuclear weapons.

• It could not withdraw the Soviet forces from Hungary.
• It was forced to surrender before, America in Afghanistan and Iraq.

Question 6. Fascism was a creation of 1“ world war. Discuss.
Answer:
First world war that began so as to protect democracy brought it towards destruction. The victorious nations suffered from unemployment, poverty and inflation. But the failed ones suffered severely. As a result, the treaties which stopped the war created enmity. Fascism in Italy, Nazism in Germany and Communism in Russia were the result.

Question 7.
Decolonization cold war led to Non-Alignment Movement Explain.
Answer:
America and Soviet Union which were united leaving Fascism during the second world war were again separated after the war. America became the new economic nation and led capitalists. Soviet Union formed social-economic growth of the nations.

A result of cold war was the differences in the ideologies and diplomatic confrontation of two regions which were enemies

They planned to help their own regions. When the whole world decided to be a part of any powerful region the countries in Asia and Africa stayed free. They were called third world nations. They feared that the powerful regions may lead for threats and use of dangerous weapons may lead for a 3rd world war. Gradually non-alignment was formed.

Question 8.
Was cold war a threat for world peace? Explain the specialties of cold war.
Answer:
Cold war was the powerful competition between the socialists under Soviet Union and capitalists under the US, after II nd world war. The war was with words and ideologies. The US propagated that Soviet Union was trying to propagate communism. Soviet Union propagated that US was trying to gain mastery over the world. This resulted in cold war. Many nations joined with American and Russian sides. They came to be militant forces and this enhanced cold war.

Question 9.
Examine if the imperialist interests became a reason for the conflicts in west Asia.
Answer:
When Turkey surrendered in the first world war the countries including Palestine became under Britain. Israel was formed in 1948 when the need for a nation for Jews became strong. Arab countries were anxious when foreign countries tried to block the formation of Israel.

Question 10.
Results of 1st world war are known. Discuss how it became a reason for the IInd world war.
Answer:
Treaty of Versailles:
German colonies were divided among the victorious powers and Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war indemnity. Hitler was against this and protested strongly which led to an outbreak of war.

Growth of Fascism & Nazism:
The fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany were the root cause of IInd World War. The competition between imperialist nations be¬came severe. Britain France and Holland captured majority of the colonies and markets in Asia & Africa. Germany, Italy & Japan had no colonies. This made them in misery. They planned to capture colonies and conquer the weakest nations.

Question 11.
Prepare a note on the lessons taught by war to mankind.
Answer:
Many lost their lives in 1st world war. They suffered from poverty and unemployment. The culture and development Ws lost in IInd world war. The dangers of nuclear explosion in Hiroshima and Nagazaki are still continuing. Every nation has developed in the field of science and technology. If a world war hap pens again the new weapons would bring an end to the whole mankind. So, let us dream for a world wide peace.

Question 12.
Explain the formation of the United Nations Organization.
Answer:

• Although the League of Nations was established following the first world war, it failed to maintain world peace.
• After the Second World War, efforts were taken to set up an organisation for preserving global peace.
• This resulted in the establishment of the United Nations Organisation on 24 October, 1945.
• The headquarters of the UN is in New York, United States of America.
• Some of its objectives are to save the succeeding generations from the scourge of war, to protect international treaties and laws and to foster social and economic development of countries.

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 10 Consumer: Satisfaction and Protection Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 10 Notes

Question 1.
What do you mean by consumption?
Answer:
Consumption means the buying and use of goods and services by people in order to satisfy their needs.

Question 2.
Who is a consumer?
Answer:
Consumer is a buying or spending unit. In other words, consumer is one who buys and uses goods and services after paying the price.

Question 3.
While using goods and services, what all things does a consumer expect? Complete the list.
Answer:
1. Quality
2. ………..
3………….
4. ………..
Answer:
Quality
Reliability
Fair price
After-sale service

Question 4.
What do you mean by consumer satisfaction?
Answer:
The fulfillment of consumer’s needs through the consumption of goods and services is called consumer satisfaction.

Question 5.
There are a three-tier system of consumer courts in India. Which are they?
Answer:

• District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum
• State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
• National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

Question 6.
Identify the problems faced by the consumers day today.
Answer:

• Defective weights and measures
• Adulteration and poor quality of goods
• Extracting excess price
• Selling expired goods
• Lack of standardized goods
• Delay in providing services.

Question 7.
Describe the structure and powers of the consumer courts in India.
Answer:
The Consumer Protection Act of 1986, seeks to protect and promote the interests of consumers. The Act provides for the setting up of a three-tier machinery consisting of District Forums. State Commissions and the National Commission. It also provides for the formation of consumer protection councils in every district and state and at the apex level.

District Forum:
Structure: The District Consumer Dispute Redressal Forum functions at the district level. It consists of a President and two other members, one of whom should be a woman. They are all appointed by the state government.

Power:
A complaint can be made to the District Forum when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, does not exceed 20 lakhs. On receiving the complaint, the District Forum shall refer the complaint to the party against whom the complaint is filled. If required, the goods shall be sent for testing in a laboratory. The District Forum shall pass an order after considering the test report. If the aggrieved party is not satisfied with the verdict of the District Forum. He can appeal before the State Commission within 30 days of the passing of the order.

State Commission:
Structure: The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission functions at the state level. It consists of a President and not less than two other members, one of whom should be a woman. They are all appointed by the state government

Power: A complaint can be made to the State Commission when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds Rs. 20 lakhs, but does not exceed Rs.1 crore. The Commission shall pass an order after considering the test report from the laboratory. In case the grieved party is not satisfied, he can appear before the National Commission within 30 days of the passing of the order.

National Forum:
Structure: The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission functions at the national, level. It consists of a President and atleast 4 other members, one of whom should be a woman. They are all appointed by the Central Government.

Power:
A complaint can be made to the National Commission when the value of the goods and services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds Rs. 1 crore. The Commission passes the order after following the necessary procedures.

Question 8.
Point out important features of consumer courts.
Answer:

• Consumer courts assure justice quickly.
• The procedures are very simple.
• The cost of case or trial is less.

Question 9.
Identify the methods to be adopted for consumer education.
Answer:

• Observation of consumer day.
• Organize awareness programs
• Include consumer rights a part of curriculum.
• Conduct seminars and workshops on consumer
• Rights and problems
• Provide legal assistance.

Question 10.
What are the rights guaranteed by the Consumer Protection Act of 1986?
Answer:

• The right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property.
• The right to be informed about the quality, quan¬tity, standard and prices of goods and services.
• The right to have access to a variety of goods and services at a reasonable price.
• The right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices or in case the product or service falls short of the expectations of the consumer.
• The right to consumer education.

Question 11.
Name the departments and institutions functioning at the administrative level for the protection of consumer rights.
Answer:

• Legal Metrology Department.
• Food Safety Department
• Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
• Drugs Control Department
• Food Safety and Standard Authority of India.

Question 12.
Apart from the Consumer Protection Act of 1986, there are several laws passed in India for consumer protection. Examine.
Answer:
1) The Sale of Goods Act 1930: The Act ensures that the provisions for the purchase of goods are observed. The Act provides safeguards to the buyers of the goods in case the goods do not comply with express or implied conditions or warranties, guarantee, warranty, and aftersale service come under the purview of this Act.
2) The Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marketing) Act 1937: The Act prescribes grade standards for agricultural commodities and livestock products (wheat, gram, flour, ghee). The Act stipulates the conditions and standards for grading, marking and packing these products. The quality mark provided under the Act is known asAGMARK, an acronym for Agricultural Marketing.
3) The Essential Commodities Act 1955: The Act aims at controlling production, supply and distribution of essential commodities and ensure that these commodities and essential services are available in the market at reasonable price. The Act gives protection to consumers from profiteering, hoarding, and black marketing
4) The Standard of Weights and Measures Act 1976: The Act provides protection to consumers against the malpractice of underweight or under measure of the products. The Act prevents the use of non-standard weights and measures

Question 13.
Do you think that consumer education is inevitable today? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, consumer education is inevitable today. This is because

• consumption has become a complex process
• there are widespread exploitation
• there are widespread ignorance of consumers
• they lack consumer organizations

Question 14.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 15.
National Consumer Day is ……………
Answer:
December 24

Question 16.
Complete the following table showing products and institutions relating to the standardized marks.

Answer:

Question 17.
Hallmark symbol shows the purity of ………….
Answer:
Gold ornaments

Question 18.
Give full form of FPO.
Answer:
Fruits products order

Question 19.
Prepare a note on Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
Answer:
The Act seeks to promote and protect the interests of consumers. It provides safeguards to consumers against defective goods, deficient services, unfair trade practices and other forms of their exploitation. The Act provides for the setting up of consumer courts at the district levels, state levels and national levels. It also provides for the formation of consumer protection councils in every district and state and at the apex level.

Question 20.
Identify the first act for consumer protection.
1. The sale of Goods Act
2. The Consumer Protection Act
3. The Essential Commodities Act
Answer:
The sale of Goods Act

Question 21.
Who gives ISI mark? On which products is this mark seen?
Answer:

• Bureau of Investigation Standards (BIS) issues the ISI mark to assure the required quality of products. BIS is the national standards body of India.
• ISI mark can be seen on electrical equipments, cement, paper, paint, gas cylinder, etc.

Question 22.
What is the service of ISO?
Answer:

• International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is an International Standard-Setting body. It certifies and assures the quality and standard of goods and services of more than 160 countries including India.
• ISO gives certification or approval to service institutions like hospitals, banks, and telecommunication and also to may products. ,

Question 23.
Match the following

Answer:

Let Us Assess

Question 24.
economic activities. Do you agree with this statement? Why?
Answer:
The statement is correct. The ultimate aim of all economic activities taking place around us is consumer’s satisfaction. Production, distribution, and consumption are mutually related economic activities. When the consumer does not get satisfaction from the use of some goods and services, they may be rejected in the market. It will affect their production and distribution adversely. It retards the growth of the economy.

Question 25.
What are the situations when consumers fall as victims of exploitation?
Answer:

1. Selling at higher prices: The prices charged for the product will not be proportional to quality.
2. Selling sub-standard products: Selling items whose quality is far below the required standard.
3. Adulteration: Selling defective goods which are highly injurious to health.
4. Product risk: Products that are banned or be-yond expiry date are sold.
5. Underweight and under measurement: Shop-keepers weigh less than what they should.
6. Delay in providing after-sale services.
7. Unsatisfactory after-sale services.

Question 26.
What are the rights of the consumers included in the Consumer Protection Act of 1986?
Answer:

1. The right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property.
2. The right to be informed about the quality, quantity, standard and price of goods and services.
3. The right to get quality goods and services at fair price.
4. The right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices.
5. The right to consumer education
6. The right to choose.
7. The right against consumer exploitation.

Question 27.
Consumer courts are the guardians of the protec¬tion of consumer’s rights. Substantiate.
Answer:
Consumer courts are systems which have the responsibility to provide legal assistance to consumers when they get unsatisfactory experiences from producers and distributors. They deal with causes of consumer disputes and grievances and play a decisive role in getting justice to the consumers, including compensation. Consumer courts protect the rights of the consumer and instill confidence in them and thus to bring about qualitative change in life. They ensure justice quickly through simple and less expensive procedures. So they are called the guardians of the rights of consumers.

Question 28.
Point out the means useful for consumer education.
Answer:

• Observation of days
• Awareness programmes
• Inclusion in curriculum

Question 29.
Consumer education is essential today. Why?
Answer:

• Consumer education helps to
• develop the ability to decide and choose intelligently
• demand safe, reliable and quality products
• be alert, informed and vigilant against malpractices in market.
• take suitable action when exploited.

Question 30.
Distinguish between consumption and consumer?
Answer:

• Consumption means the buying and use of goods and services by people in order to fulfill their needs.
• Consumer is the one who buys and uses goods and services after paying the price. In other words, consumers are people who buy goods and services to satisfy their needs.

Question 31.
How will you intervene in the consumer disputes in your locality?
Answer:

• Empower consumer by forming consumer orga¬nization.
• Organize classes by experts on consumer awareness
• Take initiative to submit cases of public interest in consumer court.
• Organize demonstrations peacefully.
• Distribute pamphlets on the topic.

Question 32.
How does the influence of advertisements affect the consumer harmfully? Explain with example.
Answer:
Almost all the advertisements in the modern media attract the attention of the consumers. Consumers become aware of the use of certain goods and services through advertisements. Consumers fall as victims of misleading advertisements. Often the goods advertised may not have the required quality or life. The consumers are cheated through advertisements by not giving the after-sale service, not giving the products shown in the advertisements and not giving the goods and services after accepting money. Housewives who are attracted by the beauty of dress materials in advertisement, buy low-quality clothes through online shopping is an example for this bad influence of advertisements. Misreading advertise¬ments to accelerate.sale are a curse to consumers.

Question 33.
Compare the working of Department of Legal Metrology and District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum.
Answer:

Question 34.
A seminar is conducted in the school on World Consumer’s Rights Day. What points will be included as part of the presentation of the topic?
Answer:

• Importance of Consumer’s Day
• Rights of consumers
• Situations when the consumers are cheated
• Consumers Protection Act
• Consumer Courts
• Institutions and departments to protect the interest of consumers
• Social intervention
• Importance of consumer education

Question 35.
Consumer and consumption are interrelated. Substantiate citing examples.
Answer:
Consumption is the satisfaction of humon wants using goods and services a consumer is a person who purchases and uses goods and services by paying or agreeing to pay a price.

Question 36.
Give examples for the situations in which consumers are cheated or exploited.
Answer:

• Selling low-quality products
• Adulteration
• Charging excess price
• Manipulation in weights and measures
• Delay in making services available

Question 37.
What is the major feature of consumer protection act 1986? What are the important rights included in the Act?
Answer:

• Consumer Protection Act of 1986 is to protect the right of a consumer. The important rights are:
• The right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services.
• The right to be informed about the quality-related aspects of goods and services.
• The right to have access to goods and services at fair prices.
• The right to be heard and to seek redressed at appropriate forums.
• The right to consumer education.

Question 38.
Write the structure and jurisdiction of consumer courts – district – state – national
Answer:

Question 39.
In your opinion what are the uses of consumer education? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Consumer education is necessary for the acquisition of right habits. It is possible through awareness programmes. Inclusions in the curriculum. Observance of the National Consumer Day.

Question 40.
Do advertisements create positive or negative effect on consumers’? Substantiate your opinion.
Answer:
Advertisement helps to inform the consumer about a products and helps him to compare it with other brends. If the same time mismeading advertisements may lead to a situation where a consumer is cheated.

Question 41.
Suggest some programmes which can be conducted on world consumer day.
Answer:
Seminars, awareness programmes

Question 42.
How can become a good consumer without being exposed?
Answer:

• Ask for the bill every purchase made.
• Make sure that the weights and measures are accurate.
• Make sure, while purchasing packed items that the name of the product date of packing, expiry date, weight, price and producers address are stated.
• Note the symbols representing the standard of the products.
• Understand how to use and operate the products purchased.

Question 43.
Write a short note on ‘Satisfaction of consumer1.
Answer:
In order to satisfy the wants a consumer consumers the goods and services by paying agreeing to pay. A consumer has certain rights. His rights are protected through the Consumer Protection Act 1986. He has this right to protected from being cheated while consuming goods and services. There is district, state and national level redressal forums to solve the grievances.

Question 44.
Choose the correct statements.
a. All economic activities are meant to satisfy the producers.
b. All economic activities are meant to satisfy the customers.
c. In order to satisfy our wants, we depend primarily on sale outlets and service centers.
(i) ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct.
(ii) ‘b’ and ‘c’ are correct.
(iii) ‘a’ and ‘c’ are correct.
(iv) ‘a\ ‘b’ and ‘c’ are correct.
Answer:
(ii) ‘b’ and ‘c’ are correct

Question 45.
When was the Consumer Protection Act introduced?
Answer:
In 1986

Question 46.
What are the features of the Consumer Protection Act of 1986?
Answer:
The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 clearly defines the consumer’s rights and set up special judiciary mechanisms for consumer protection in India.

Question 47.
What are the objective of the consumer courts?
Answer:
Consumer courts play an important role in ensuring justice to the consumers.

Question 48.
If the consumer has a dispute where compensation claimed is above Rs. 20 lakhs?
Answer:
State Consumer disputes redressal commission

Question 49.
Apart from the consumer courts, what are the three-level advisory councils that have been set up?
Answer:
District Consumer Protection Council State Consumer Protection Council National Consumer Protection Council

Question 50.
Write the name of the Act that protects the consum¬ers from supernormal profit, hoarding, and black marketing, etc.
Answer:
Essential Commodities Act 1955

You can Download The Signature of Time Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 2 The Signature of Time Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 2 Notes

The Signature Of Time Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
You have recognized from the map that the earthquake zones, volcanoes and mountain ranges overlap. Why is this so?
Answer:

• The crust, which is the outermost layer of the earth is solid.
• The crust, together with the upper part of the mantle, is the lithosphere.
• The lithosphere exists as several fragments just like the broken shell of an egg.
• Compared to the thickness of the portion from the crust to the inner core, the lithosphere is very thin.
• The portions of the lithosphere which are several thousand kilometers wide and roughly, 100 kilometers thick are called lithospheric plates.
• Whether big or small, each plate contains oceanic as well as continental areas.

The Signature Of Time Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Observe the following figures.

Zones of severe earthquakes:

Volcanic Zones:

Can you mark the information in each of the above maps in a single map? Don’t forget to use different colors or symbols for each type of feature.
Answer:

Hss Live Guru 9th Geography Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Look at the following diagrams and find out different movements of the lithospheric plates.

Answer:
a) Divergent margin: Plates move apart from each other.
b) Convergent margin: Plates move towards each other.
c) Transform margin (sheer margins): Plates slide past each other

Hss Live Class 9 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
What is the average thickness of the lithosphere?
Answer:
The average thickness of the lithosphere is 100 kilometers.

Hsslive Class 9 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
The following are the pictures of some landforms formed due to plate movements.

Identify their respective plate margins.
Answer:
a) Convergent margins. Fold mountains are formed along the convergent margins, eg. Himalaya.
b) Divergent margins: Magma comes out through the gap formed due to the divergence of plates and solidifies to form mountains.
Eg. Mid Atlantic Ridge.

Hsslive Social Science 9th Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Identify the Plate margins where the World’s major fold mountains are formed?
Answer:
Fold mountains are formed along the convergent margins. The Himalayas, the Alps, the Andes, the Atlas, etc are all folded mountains. The Himalaya fold mountain is formed between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian plate.

Hsslive Guru Class 9 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Identify and mark the focus and epicenters in the given diagram

Answer:
A – shows the epicenter B – shows the focus

Social Science Class 9 Notes State Syllabus Question 8.
Collect the details of earthquakes that have occurred since 2005.
Answer:

Let Us Assess

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Question 9.
Identify the different plate margins. Which are the associated landforms:
ANswer:

• There are three types of plate margins. They are Divergent margin, Convergent margin and Trans-form margin.
• Divergent margin: Plates move apart from each other. Oceanic ridges are formed.
• Convergent margin: Plates move towards each other. Fold mountains and ocean trenches are formed.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 10.
Answer the following questions based on earthquakes.
a) How are earthquakes formed?
b) Which are the different types of seismic waves?
c) Which seismic wave causes maximum destruction on the earth’s surface?
d) On what scale are earthquakes measured?
Answer:
a) The processes that take place in the interior of the earth cause in the storage of energy in some portions in the Earth. Earthquakes occur on those instances. When this energy is bring released.
b) i. Primary waves
ii. Secondary waves
iii. Surface waves
c) The surface waves are the most destructive.
d) In Richter scale

9th Geography Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
What does the term’ the Pacific Ring of Fire’ mean?
Answer:
Nearly 80 percent of the world’s volcanoes are situated around the Pacific Ocean. This zone containing more than 452 volcanoes is therefore known as ‘the Pacific Ring of Fire’.

Hss Live Guru 9th Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Explain the various instances where volcanoes are useful to man.
Answer:

• Though the volcanic eruptions are threats to human life. The regions where it occurs are useful to man.
• These areas are rich in minerals. The Black soil that formed as a result of volcanic eruption is very suitable for cotton cultivation.
• The hot springs that are found on volcanic mountains are supposed to have healing properties.
• Volcanic ash is a good manure.
• Geysers are formed in many volcanic regions.
• These places have been developed as tourist spots. They are known as spas.

The Signature of Time Model Questions and Answers

Hsslive Guru 9th Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
Analyze the maps given in textbook and make a list of the conclusions that you have reached.
Answer:

• Earthquakes are comparatively frequent in certain parts of the earth.
• Volcanoes are more common in certain specific places.
• There are some peculiarities in the distribution of mountains.
• Earthquake zones and distribution of mountains on the earth’s surface more or less coincide.

Hsslive Guru Social Science 9th Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Define Lithosphere. What is its important feature?
Answer:
The crust, together with the upper part of the mantle is known as the Lithosphere. The portions of the Lithosphere which are several thousand kilometers wide and roughly 100 kilometers thick enable to exist the life on the earth. Lithosphere exists like a broken eggshell. It consists of 7 major plates and about a dozen of minor plates.

Hss Live Guru Social Science 9th Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Define Lithospheric plates?
Answer:
The portions of the Lithosphere, which are several thousand Kilometres wide and roughly 100 Kilometres thick are called Lithospheric plates.

Hss Live Guru Class 9 Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
Identify and list the different lithospheric plates from the following map.

Answer:

1. Pacific plate
2. Australian plate
3. North American plate
4. South American plate
5. Eurasian plate
6. African plate
7. Antarctic plate

9th Standard Social Science Map Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
Complete the following

Answer:

1. Major plates
2. Minor plates

Question 18.
Write the names of the landforms that are created along the plate margins by the movements of plates?
Answer:

• Fold Mountains
• Seafloor
• Ocean Trenches
• Oceanic Mountain Ranges

Question 19.
Classify the following into major and minor plates.
1. Pacific
2. Cocos
3. Arabian
4. Eurasian
5. Scotia
6. African
Answer:
Major plates:
1. Pacific
4. Eurasian
6. African
Minor plates:
2. Cocos
3. Arabian
5. Scotia

Question 20.
The plates move at a speed of cms a year.
Answer:
2 to 12 cms

Question 21.
Analyze the figure given below summarise your findings

Answer:

• The lithospheric plates are situated above the asthenosphere which is in a semi-plastic state.
• Magma, which is a part of the mantle, remains molten due to the high temperature at the earth’s interior and undergoes continuous convection.
• The plates move due to convection. As a result of this, new ocean floors and subduction zones are formed.

Question 22.
What do you mean by subduction zones?
Answer:
Due to difference in density between the plates along a convergent margin, the denser plate will submerge under the lighter one. These zones are called subduction zones.

Question 23.
Who put forward the idea of continental drift.
Answer:
Alfred Wegener

Question 24.
Prepare a flow chart based on plate margins.
Answer:

Question 25.
Complete the following flow chart.

Answer:

Question 26.
Which are the Earth Movements that cause a lot of destruction to the mankind?
Answer:

• Volcanic eruptions
• Earthquakes

Question 27
Give examples of fold mountains.
Answer:

• The Himalayas
• The Alps
• TheAndes
• TheAtlas

Question 28.
How does the Earthquake occur?
Answer:
Rocks in the deeper interior of the earth undergo displacement and faults due to the plate movements and other causes. Under such situations, severe pressure is exerted on the earth’s lithosphere and seismic waves are generated. These waves create tremors on the earth’s surface: These are experienced by as Earthquakes.

Question 29.
Write down the various reasons for the Earthquake.
Answer:

• Plates movements and faulting
• Collapse of roofs of mines
• Pressure in reservoirs
• Volcanic eruptions.

Question 30.
What is developed in subduction zones?
Answer:
Ocean trenches are developed in subduction zones.
Eg. The Challenger Deep in the Pacific Ocean.

Question 31.
Prepare a note on the Continental Drift Hypothesis.
Answer:
Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist, put forward the idea of continental drift in 1912. He argued that millions of years ago, all the present-day continents were a single unit forming supercontinent named Pangea which was encircled by an ocean called Panthalassa. Wegener believed that over millions of years, the continental portions drifted over the ocean floor forming the present continents.

Some recent studies indicate that mostly all the continents on earth come together once in every 500 million years. It is believed that the most recent for¬mation of Pangea was about 200 million years back, which means that we will have to wait for another 300 years for the next Pangea

Question 32.
What is seafloor spreading?
Answer:
New ocean floor is continuously being created as a result of magma that comes out through the divergent margins and solidification along the edges of the plates. This results in the phenomenon called seafloor spreading.

Question 33.
Prepare a table showing earth’s major fold mountains? Where have they formed?
Answer:
Fold mountains → Plates
Himalayas → Between the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian plate.
The Andes → Between South American and the Nasca plates.
The Alps → Between Eurasia and African plates.
The Atlas → Between Eurasia and African plates.

Question 34.
Give an example of fault zone.
Answer:
The San Andreas Fault Zone in North America.

Question 35.
The plate margins are generally vulnerable. Why?
Answer:
The plate margins are generally vulnerable to earthquakes, volcanoes, and faults. This is because the plate margins are weaker than other areas.

Question 36.
Prepare a table showing the features of earthquakes having different intensities.
Answer:
The features of earthquakes having different intensities

Question 37.
Give two examples of sudden movements of the earth.
Answer:

• Earthquakes
• Volcanic eruption

Question 38.
How are volcanoes formed?
Answer:
The plate margins are active with volcanoes. The hot molten rock that comes out through the fissures on the crust. Volcanoes are formed by such molten rock material coming out through the fissures along the plate margins.

Question 39.
How are earthquakes formed?
Answer:
Rocks in the deeper interior of the earth undergo displacement and faults due to plate movements and other causes. Under such situations, severe pressure is exerted on the earth’s lithosphere and seismic waves are generated just like waves in a pond spreading, in all directions when a heavy object falls into it. These waves create tremors on the earth’s surface. These tremors are experienced by us as an earthquake.

Question 40.
Name the most destructive type of seismic wave.
Answer:
The surface waves

Question 41.
Point out the relief features on the surface of the earth due to the movement of plates.
Answer:

• Volcanoes
• Plateaus
• Fold mountains

Question 42.
Give reasons for the occurrence of earthquakes.
Answer:

• Plate movements
• Faulting
• Collapse of roofs of mines
• Pressure in reservoirs
• Volcanic eruptions.

Question 43.
Distinguish between focus and epicenter.
Answer:
The deep points inside the earth where the earth-quake occurs are known as focus and the point vertically above it on the earth’s surface is known as epicenter.

Question 44.
The seismic waves are recorded by
Answer:
Seismograph

Question 45.
Which was the most severe earthquake occurred? What was its intensity?
Answer:

• The earthquake that occurred in Chile.
• It recorded an intensity of 9.5 in the Richter Scale.

Question 46.
Find out and prepare a note on different types of Vol-canoes?
Answer:

• Active Volcanoes: The frequently erupted Volcanoes. Eg. Mount Fujiyama in Japan
• Extinct Volcanoes: Active at a time. But will not erupt again. Eg. Kilimanjaro in Africa
• Dormant Volcanoes: Volcanoes that have erupted earlier and not active in the recent past. But can become active. Eg. Vesuvius in Italy

Question 46.
What are the three types of waves produced from Focus during the Earthquake? Which is the most destructive among them?
Answer:

• Primary waves
• Secondary waves
• Surface waves
• The surface waves are the most destructive.

Question 47.
What is Seismograph?
Answer:
It is an instrument used to record the seismic waves.

Question 48.
The word ‘Tsunami’ means.
Answer:
Harbourwaves

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