Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Operating Systems

You can Download Operating Systems Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 10 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Operating Systems

Operating Systems Questions and Answers

Section -1

Question 1.
Who is the father of computers?
a) Analytical Engine
b) Charles Babbage
c) Newton
d) Linus Torvalds
Answer:
b) Charles Babbage

Question 2.
Charles Babbage tried to build a computer called
a) Analytical Engine
b) ENIAC
c) I phone
d) Laptop
Answer:
a) Analytical Engine

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Question 3.
Which is the first working computer?
a) Desktop
b) Analytical Engine
c) ENIAC
d) Laptop
Answer:
c) ENIAC

Question 4.
Analytical Engine is called the first computer, why?
a) Basic concepts related to a modem computer are in the machine
b) Analytical engine can use for different activities
c) Analytical engine for special use
d) Basic concepts related to a modem computer were envisaged to this machine
Answer:
d) Basic concepts related to a modem computer ‘ were envisaged to this machine

Question 5.
Analytical engine was meant to be operated using
a) Current
b) Steam
c) Gas
d) Diesel
Answer:
b) Steam

Question 6.
Who agreed to prepare a program for analytical engine?
a) Parameswaran
b) Shakuntala Devi
c) Ada Byron
d) Madam Query
Answer:
c) Ada Byron

Question 7.
A software is designed for specific purposes are called
a) Application Software
b) Application
c) Files
d) Softwares
Answer:
a) Application Software

Question 8.
Do you know which operating system used in your school?
a) Unix
b) Windows
c) GNU/Linux
d) Mac os X
Answer:
GNU/Linux

Question 9.
AH, the computers have a general mode of operation. What is the name for the above general mode of operation?
a) Apple
b) Operating system
c) Linux
d) Application Software
Answer:
b) Operating system

Question 10.
Operating system having the mechanism to co-ordinate several applications is called…
a) Application
b) Places
c) Menu
d) Panel
Answer:
c) Menu

Question 11.
Which mechanism don’t have in many modern operating systems?
a) Application
b) Places
c) Menu
d) Panel
Answer:
c) Menu

Question 12.
A hardware is connected to a computer. It needs a …. is added to the operating system that controls the hardware.
a) Software
b) Operating system
c) Menu
d) Application
Answer:
a) Software

Question 13.
Who sorts and saves the files?
a) Hard disc
b) Operating system
c) Hardware
d) CD Drive
Answer:
d) CD Drive

Question 14.
Where does the files to be saved?
a) Operating system
b) CD
c) Hard disc
d) CD Drive
Answer:
c) Hard disc

Question 15.
Hard disc is divided into blocks giving them separate addresses is called
a) Formatting
b) Hard Disc
c) Operating System
d) FileSystem
Answer:
a) Formatting

Question 16.
Hard disc is divided into blocks are called
a) Operating System
b) Partition
c) Disc
d) Home
Answer:
b) Partition

Question 17.
How many partitions are required for GNU/Linux OS?
a) 2
b) 3
c) No need of partition
d) 4
Answer:
b) 3

Question 18.
The least number of partitions required for the proper working of GNU/Linux os is
a) 4
b) 3
c) 0
d) 2
Answer:
d) 2

Question 19.
Correct statement related to root partition is….
a) Files are saved in operating system
b) The store the programs of the operating system
c) To store the files created by the user
d) To store the details temporary
Answer:
b) The store the programs of the operating system

Question 20.
To store the files prepared by the user
a) Root (/)
b) Swap
c) /home
d) /user
Answer:
c) /home

Question 21.
Swap is a ……. file system
a) Application
b) fast
c) windows
d) data
Answer:
b) fast

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Question 22.
……… are designed normally for a single user
a) Computer
b) Smartphone
c) Pen Drive
d) laptop
Answer:
b) Smartphone

Question 23.
…….. are designed normally for more than one person
a) Smartphone
b) Computer
c) Operating system
d) Spectacles
Answer:
b) Computer

Question 24.
Name the person who handles the computer.
a) User
b) System
c) Home
d) Driver
Answer:
a) User

Question 25.
Give the order of activity to create a new user
a) Application → graphics → administration → user and group
b) Application → Office → User and groups
→ U s e r
accounts
c) Application → System Tools → User and groups user accounts
d) Application → system tools → User and groups
Answer:
c) Application → System Tools → User and groups. user accounts

Question 26.
Select the statement related to kernel
a) System to display the software windows
b) Which interacts with the hardware directly or through drives
c) An operating system
d) Appearance can be arranged to our wish
Answer:
b) Which interacts with the hardware directly or through drives

Question 27.
Which kernel program is used in GNU/Linux
a) Windows NT
b) X nu
c) Linux
d) Red hot
Answer:
c) Unix

Question 28.
Which kernel program is used in Microsoft windows?
a) X nu
b) Linux
c) Red hot
d) WindowsNT
Answer:
d) Windows NT

Question 29.
What are the specialties in olden days about the programs?
a) Able to copy
b) Able to copy and not allowed to share
c) Not allowed to copy and share
d) It is possible to copy and share
Answer:
d) It is possible to copy and share

Question 30.
The statement related to the pirated software?
a) Allow to copy
b) Allow to share
c) Allow to study
d) Not allow to study the software creation. Keep as secret.
Answer:
d) Not allow to study the software creation. Keep as secret.

Question 31.
The main cause for establishing GNU project is the following
a) To prepare free software ‘
b) To prepare proprietary software
c) Not able to examine the software’s for an academic purposes
d) To construct new software
Answer:
c) Not able to examine the software’s for a academic purposes

Question 32.
The aim of GNU/Linux is one of the following. Select the aim
a) To prepare proprietary software
b) To prepare an operating system that able to study, rewrite, copy and share
c) To prepare a new operating system
d) To prepare software for commercial purpose
Answer:
b) To prepare an operating system that able to study, rewrite, copy and share

Question 33.
The computer programmer of GNU/Linux project is
a) Richard Mathew Stallman
b) Ken Thomson
c) Linus Torvalds
d) Dennis Ritchie
Answer:
a) Richard Mathew Stallman

Question 34.
Unix is a model of a new operating system having all facilities of it. Programmers rewrite the operating system without using any Unix code. So they give a name
a) GNU
b) Linux
c) GNU Hurd
d) Kernel
Answer;
a) GNU

Question 35.
Correct statement is
a) GNU is Unix
b) GNU is not Unix
c) GNU is apple
d) GNU is windows
Answer:
b) GNU is not Unix

Question 36.
The other parts of GNU is completed before its kerned part who prepared the kernel part?
a) Richard Stallman
b) Linus Torvalds
c) Bill gralts
d) Charles Babbage
Answer:
b) Linus Torvalds

Question 37.
Kernel of Linus Torvalds and GNU components are used together as an operating system. So it is known as
a) Free BSD
b) Unix
c) GNU
d) GNU/Linux
Answer:
d) GNU/Linux

Question 38.
The name of the kernel to be built for GNU project is ……….
a) GNU HURD
d) Unix
c) Unix
d) GNU
Answer:
a) GNU HURD

Question 39.
Give the name of an free operating system using Linux Kernel
a) Windows 10
b) MacOSx
c) GNU/Linux
d) Microsoft windows
Answer:
c) GNU/Linux

Question 40.
Say the name of basic program used in Android operating system
a) Unix
b) Linux
c) QNX
d) Microsoft windows
Answer:
b) Linux

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Question 41.
A file is created by the user Thomas and Saved with table.odt on desktop. Location of the file is /home/ Thomas/Desktop/my-works/table.odf. The meaning is
a) the file should be in the folder Holy-works in the desktop folder.
b) File should be in the folder my-works in the Thomas desktop.
c) File name my-works in the desktop folder inside the home folder of Thomas created by him in the computer.
d) File is on the desktop named my-works.
Answer:
c) File name my-works in the desktop folder inside the home folder of Thomas created by him in the computer.

Question 42.
Number of users for a computer is
a) One
b) Five
c) Two
d) more than one
Answer:
d) more than one

Question 43
Select the correct statements given below.
a) Car is built for a single user
b) Smartphone is built for a single user
c) Computer is built for a single user
d) Television is build for a single user
Answer:
b) Smartphone is built for a single user

Question 44.
……… and ………. section of Bell Laboratories in USA built Unix operating System
a) Charts Babbage
b) Dennis Ritchie
c) Ken Thompson
d) Ada Byron
Answer:
b) Dennis Ritchie
and
c) Ken Thompson

Question 45.
Mention the relationship between Unix and operating systems that are existence today. Select the correct statements from given below
a) Expanded from Unix
b) Not designed like Unix
c) Designed and build like Unix
d) Unix
Answer:
a) Expanded from Unix
and
c) Designed and build like Unix

Question 46.
Applications in the mobile phones are activated by ……… and ………..
a) Using icons
b) Using menu
c) Giving commands to a terminal
d) Using a computer
Answer:
a) Using icons
and
c) Giving commands to a terminal

Question 47.
Bell Laboratories build Unix operating system. These versions used later, with a lot of modifications and addition in other operating systems made by
a) GNU/Linux
b) Berkeley
c) Microsoft
d) Apple Corporation
Answer:
b) Berkeley
and
d) Apple Corporation

Question 48.
Select the suitable file systems for GNU/Linux
a) NTFS
b) Ext 3
c) HPFS
d) Ext 4
Answer:
b) Ext 3
and
d) Ext 4

Question 49.
Select the suitable file systems for Microsoft windows
a) FAT32
b) Ext3
c) NTFS
d) Ext 4
Answer:
a) FAT32
and
c) NTFS

Question 50.
Select the statements suitable for swap
a) To store the operating system
b) To store the files created by the user
c) fast file system
d) for temporary storage of data
Answer:
c) fast file system
and
d) for temporary storage of data

Question 51.
What are the partitions needed for the proper working GNU/Linux
a) Root (/)
b) Linux
c) Swap
d) Windows
Answer:
a) Root (/)
and
c) Swap

Question 52.
What are benefits of a registered user of a computer?
a) They can protect their files and other arrangements using a password
b) Each user can keep their files separately from that of others
c) They can’t protect their files using a password
d) They can’t change the appearance as they like
Answer:
a) They can protect their files and other arrangements using a password
and
b) Each user can keep their files separately from that of others

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Question 53.
What are the two parts of an operating system?
a) Root(/)
b) Kernel
d) Appearance
d) Shell
Answer:
b) Kernel
and
d) Appearance

Question 54.
Select suitable statements for the computer programs during the early days
a) Made free to copy and study
b) No freedom to copy and share
c) Freedom to share
d) No freedom to share
Answer:
a) Made free to copy and study
and
c) Freedom to share

Question 55.
Free Softwares are installed in GNU/Linux. So many users change share and reuse the software. What are the other GNU/Linux versions using now?
a) Unix
b) Apple mac osx
c) IT @ school Linux
d) Red hat
Answer:
c) IT @ school Linux
and
d) Red hat

Question 56.
What are the facilities arranged in a smartwatches
a) Camera.
b) to listen to music
c) Make phone calls
d) Sensors
Answer:
b) to listen to music
and
c) Make phone calls

Question 57.
Correct statements for free software
a) Computer programs are made free to copy and share
b) Able to examine the programs for study purposes
c) No freedom to copy and share
d) No freedom to examine them for study purposes
Answer:
a) Computer programs are made free to copy and share
and
b) Able to examine the programs for study purposes

Question 58.
Correct statements for proprietary software
a) Computer programs are made free to copy and share
b) Able to examine the programs for study purposes
c) No freedom to copy and share
d) No freedom to examine them for study purposes
Answer:
d) No freedom to examine them for study purposes

Question 59.
Activities performed in a computer are given below. Also, the software used for the activities are given in four sets select the proper one form, each set.

Set -1

To edit an image
a) Libre Office writer
b) Libre Office Cale
c) Inkscape
d) Synfig studio
Answer:
c) Inkscape

Set – II

To create animation
a) GIMP
b) Synfig studio
c) Python
d) Libre Office base
Answer:
b) Synfig studio

Set – III

To handle a database
a) Libre office base
b) Libre office writer
c) Libre office calc
d) Abhiword
Answer:
a) Libre office base

Set – IV

To process text
a) Libre Office writer
b) Gimp
d) Libre office base
c) Synfig studio
Answer:
a) Libre Office writer

Question 60.
A file is saved in a computer with some other the information are also. Select one information form each set.

Set-I

a) Name of the operating system
b) Name of the computer
c) Name of the file
d) The name of the file creates
Answer:
c) Name of the file

Set – II

a) Computer
b) Pendrive
c) CD drive
d) location of saving
Answer:
d) location of saving

Set – III

a) File format
b) Name of the owner
c) Operating system
d) Temporary Name
Answer:
a) File format

Set – IV

a) Swap
b) Size of the file
d) Software
c) Driver
Answer:
b) Size of the file

Question 61.
What are the benefits of a user in a computer?

Set -1

a) No folder facility in a computer
b) When a user is created, at the same time a user folder is formed in the home
c) When a user is created, no folder formed in the home
d) Not able to create a folder in a computer
Answer:
b) When a user is created, at the same time a user folder is formed in the home

Set – II

a) Operating system creates a Desktop for each user in the home folder of the user.
b) As single desktop for a computer
c) Operating system creates a Desktop, not in the home
d) Operating system creates a Desktop for all users.
Answer:
a) Operating system creates a Desktop for each user in the home folder of the user.

Set-III

a) A user change system application
b) Not able to use all devices by the user
c) All users can configure the appearance of the computer separately
d) Users canot change appearance
Answer:
c) All users can configure the appearance of the computer separately

Set-IV

a) Anyone can delete the file
b) Files can’t be protected by the user
c) Files cannot be protected using password
d) Users can protect their files, configurations, etc. using a password
Answer:
d) Users can protect their files, configurations, etc. using a password

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Question 62.
A list of wearable devices with OS are given in four select correct devices from each set.

Set -1

a) Camera
b) Lockets contain camera and sensors
c) Phone
d) Watch
Answer:
b) Lockets contain camera and sensors.

Set – II

a) Gadgets that control the flow of insulin for diabetics
b) Syringe
c) TV set
d) Computer
Answer:
a) Gadgets that control the flow of insulin for diabetics,

Set – III

a) BP apparatus
b) Microscope
c) Window to mobile
d) Wrist bands that measure blood pressure
Answer:
d) Wrist bands that measure blood pressure

Set – IV

a) IT @ Linux
b) 1C chips
c) Black berry limited
d) Chips that are installer under the skin
Answer:
d) Chips that are installer under the skin

Question 63.
Devices having an operating system and work according to the given instruction. What are they?

Set-I

a) Watch
b) TV set
c) Mobile phone
d) Mobile charger
Answer:
c) Mobile phone

Set – II

a) Internet
b) ATM
c) Softwares
d) Radio
Answer:
b) ATM

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Set – III

a) Computer
b) Linux
c) Spectacles
d) Camera
Answer:
a) Computer

Set – IV

a) Cars
b) Motorcars
c) 1C chips
d) Apple corporation Inc
Answer:
b) Motorcars

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database – An Introduction

You can Download Database – An Introduction Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 8 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Database – An Introduction

Database – An Introduction Questions and Answers

Section -1

Question 1.
A systematic collection of data is called
a) Python
b) Database
c) Quantum GIS
d) GIMP
Answer:
b) Database

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Question 2.
Which form is used to record the data in database?
a) Picture
b) Chart
c) Tables
d) File
Answer:
c) Tables

Question 3.
How many tables can include in a database?
a) One
b) Two
c) One or more than one
d) Zero
Answer:
c) One or more than one

Question 4.
Give an example for database management systems
a) MySQL
b)GIM
c) Sampooma
d) Database
Answer:
a) MySQL

Question 5.
Which is a correct statement
a) A data from a database for one application software
b) A data from a database for other application software
c) No data to any software
d) No data form a database is in need for an application.
Answer:
b) A data from a database for other application software

Question 6.
Which can store and use data as required is an integral part of any software
a) System
b) Table
c) MS
d) DBMS
Answer:
d) DBMS

Question 7.
Which software is used to prepare DBMS in your computer
a) Libreoffice base
b) LibreOffice cale
c) Libreoffice writer
d) Quantum GIS
Answer:
a) Libreoffice base

Question 8
Select a suitable pair, for field name and field type to the define fields of a database table
Field Name — Field type
a) Name — Date: [Date]
b) Name — Decimal [DECIMAL]
c) Name — Text [VARCHAR]
d) Name — Number [NUMBERIC]
Answer:
c) Name — Text [VARCHAR]

Question 9.
The value of a primary key is.
a) Number
b) Unique
c) Decimal
d) Name
Answer:
b) Unique

Question 10.
To set the primary key, right-click on the left-hand side of the field having unique value and select.
a) cut
b) Delete
c) primary key
d) insert rows
Answer:
c) primary key

Question 11.
What technology incorporated in the database management system to enter data
a) Tables
b) Forms
c) Queries
d) Reports
Answer:
b) Forms

Question 12.
Enter the data to the table through a form in Libre office database. Each row in table is known as
a) Table
b) Forms
c) Record
d) Panel
Answer:
c) Record

Question 13.
The database recognizes each records based on the
a) Primary key
b) size
c) Field
d) DBMS
Answer:
a) Primary key

Question 14.
All details of the students in our public schools are contained in Software
a) Register.
b) Class register
c) Sampooma
d) School
Answer:
c) Sampooma

Question 15.
Who helps to do the works of sampooma software
a) Database
b) form
c) Table
d) System
Answer:
a) Database

Question 16.
Who acts as a link between the database and the user or application software?
a) system analysis
b) form
c) DBMS
d) Table
Answer:
c) DBMS

Question 17.
Where does appears the forms, labels, queries, and reports created by LibreOffice database?
a) Task panel
b) Work area
c) Database panel
d) Layer panel
Answer:
b) Work area

Question 18.
What is the difference to create, a new data base file libreoffcie base
a) Create a new database file and save it.
b) No facility forsaving the file
c) Automatically file saves
d) Save before creating a new database file
Answer:
d) Save before creating a new database file

Question 19.
Opening a saved file in database to create a table. What option to be selected from task panel?
a) Create view
b) Use wizard to create table
c) Create table in design view
d) Table-1
Answer:
c) Create table in design view

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Question 20.
A facility to get data with certain conditions from database is called,
a) Tables
b) Reports
c) Queries
d) Forms
Answer:
c) Queries

Question 21.
The queries created and saved by query wizard in database where do you see the queries
a) Work area
b) Task area
c) Back area
d) Panel
Answer:
a) Work area

Question 22.
According to you, what is the biggest advantage of database management system?
a) We can made one report
b) can’t make a report
c) We can make different types of reports
d) We can’t save the reports
Answer:
c) We can make different types of reports

Question 23.
Where did you get a newly created report
a) System analysis
b) form
c) work area
d) Table
Answer:
c) work area

Question 24.
Which button is used to create forms
a) Tables
b) Reports
c) Queries
d) forms
Answer:
d) forms

Question 25.
Select a software belongs to the library management system
a) Koha
b) Alexandria
c) Oracle
d) opals
Answer:
c) Oracle

Question 26.
Which button is used to create reports
a) Table
b) Reports
c) Queries
d) forms
Answer:
b) Reports

Question 27.
Which button is used to create queries
a) Table
b) Reports
c) queries
d) forms
Answer:
c) queries

Question 28.
Select a software not belongs to library management system using cloud technology.
a) Insignia software
b) Libramatie
c) world share
d) GIMP
Answer:
d) GIMP

Question 29.
The databases of all the people of India is called.
a) Big data
b) short data
c) medium data
d) simple data
Answer:
a) Big data

Question 30.
Pick out the odd one
a) Aadharcard
b) sampooma
c) WhatsApp
d) Wikipedia
Answer:
b) sampooma

Question 31.
An example fora big data is
a) sampoorna
b) Aadhar card
c) School identify card
d) move
Answer:
b) Aadhar card

Section – II

Question 32.
System analysis is associated with the field of computerization. Select two correct statements related to system analysis.
a) To study in detail in the field of computerization
b) To study the software used in the field of computerization
c) To understand in detail in the field of computerization
d) Does not understand the field of computerization
Answer:
a) To study in detail in the field of computerization
and
c) To understand in detail in the field of computerization

Question 33.
What are the uses of the data in Sampoorna?
a) To DBMS
b) To prepare the applications for school Youth festival
c) To know the school
d) To the distribution of scholarships for the student
Answer:
b) To prepare the applications for school Youth festival
and
d) To the distribution of scholarships for the student

Question 34.
Correct statements related to DBMS are
a) To know the data
b) To delete the data
c) To store the data
d) To use the data
Answer:
c) To store the data
and
d) To use the data

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Question 35.
What are the panel seen by opening LibreOffice base main
a) layer panel
b) database panel
c) Table
d) Task panel
Answer:
b) database panel and
d) Task panel

Question 36.
What are the means to enter the data to the DBMS
a) By properly designed application software
b) By typing the data’
c) Through the form in DBMS
d) Through the queries in DBMS
Answer:
a) By properly designed application software
and
c) Through the form in DBMS

Question 37.
Examples for query languages used to communicate with database are
a) C++
b) Java
c) SQL
d) MY SQL
Answer:
c) SQL
and
d) MY SQL

Question 38.
Open the libre office base from main menu. Select two correct arrangements to create a new database file using database wizard
a) Select the database option and click the back
b) Select the database option and click the finish button
c) A window appears to save the file with a name in your folder
d) A window appears to create the file.
Answer:
b) Select the database option and click the finish button
and
c) A window appears to save the file with a name in your folder

Question 39.
What are the fields seen in the window for define fields?
a) Field name
b) Textvarchar
c) Field type
d) Rows
Answer:
a) Field name
and
c) Field type

Question 40.
What are the activities can conduct through queries
a) To add records
b) To create tables
c) To change the records
d) To create a database file
Answer:
a) To add records
and
c) To change the records

Question 41.
Select two softwares handling big data
a) Spark
b) Android
c) Handoop
d) Linux
Answer:
a) Spark
and
c) Handoop

Question 42.
A database can do many activities. A list of activities are given below. Select one correct activity from each set.

Set -1

a) Data is not safe
b) Can’t store the data
c) No proper arrangements for the data
d) store the data safely
Answer:
d) store the data safely

Set – II

a) can’t add or delete a data
b) Adding a new data and delete unnecessary data
c) Adding a new data and not able delete it
d) Not able to adding a new data and can delete the – data
Answer:
b) Adding a new data and delete unnecessary data

Set III

a) To easy to handle data
b) Using the required data
c) Not able to analyze the data
d) Not able to use the date
Answer:
b) Using the required data

Set IV

a) To make change in several times
b) Not able to change in several times
c) To make change in one time
d) Not able to change in database file
Answer:
a) To make change in several times

Question 43.
Where are the utilities on the database panel of LibreOffice base main window?

Set-I

a) Charts
b) Table
c) Column
d) Picture
Answer:
b) Table

Set – II

a) Quarries
b) Primary key
c) Textvarchar
d) Date
Answer:
a) Quarries

Set III

a) Forms
b) Data
c) Tasks
d) Panel
Answer:
a) Forms

Set IV

a) Design window
b) Data
c) Type
d) Reports
Answer:
d) Reports

Question 44.
What are the field name and field type for define fields of a table in database? Select a suitable field name and field type from each set.

Set-I

a) Book No – Number [NUMERIC]
b) Book No-Text [VARCHAR]
c) Book No- Date [DATE]
d) Book No- Decimal [DECIMAL]
Answer:
a) Book No-Number [NUMERIC]

Set -II

a) Author-Name
b) Author-Number [NUMERICAL]
c) Author- Decimal [DECIMAL]
d) Author-Text [VARCHAR]
Answer:
d) Author-Text [VARCHAR]

Set-III

a) Book Price – Date [DATE]
b) Book Price – Decimal [DECIMAL]
c) Book Price-Number [NUMERIC]
d) Book Price – Text [VARCHAR] ‘
Answer:
b) Book Price – Decimal [DECIMAL]

Set-IV

a) Book Name – Text [VARCAAR]
b) Book Name-Number [NUMERIC]
c) Book Name – Date [DATE]
d) Book name-Decimal [DECIMAL]
Answer:
a) Book Name-Text [VARCAAR]

Question 45.
What are the field types to choose in the window for define fields in Database? Select one from each set.

Set -I

a) file
b) field
c) primary key
d) number
Answer:
d) number

Set-II

a) Row
b) columns
c) Date
d) form
Answer:
c) Date

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Set -III

a) Decimal
b) images
c) Panel
d) Reports
Answer:
a) Decimal

Set -IV

a) Text
b) Software
c) Data entry
d) Office writer
Answer:
a) Text

Question 46.
Select the order of activity to create a new database file in LibreOffice base

Set-I

a) Click the cancel button of the window for database wizard
b) Click the select database option of the window for database wizard
c) Click the reports option of the window for Database
d) Click the table option of the window for database
Answer:
b) Click the select database option of the window for database wizard

Set-ll

a) Select create a new database in database wizard
b) Select open an existing database file in database wizard
c) Select Connect to an existing database file in database
d) Click on OK button in database wizard
Answer:
a) Select create a new database in database wizard

Set-III

a) A window to create form will appear
b) A window to create report will appear
c) A window to save the file will appear
d) A window to cancel the file will appear
Answer:
c) A window to save the file will appear

Set – IV

a) Not sav6 the file
b) Not to pen the saved file
c) Give file name and save with proper folder
d) Don’t change in the window
Answer:
c) Give file name and save with proper folder

Question 47.
Which are available library management system software in use

Set-1

a) Sampooma
b) Koha
c) Evergreen
d) writer
Answer:
b) Koha

Set-II

a) Android
b) Linux
c) Evergreen
d) Writer
Answer:
c) Evergreen

Set-III

a) Gimp
b) L4U
c) Qgis
d)Inkscape
Answer:
b) L4U

Set -IV

a) opals
b) python
c) google
d) Database
Answer
a) opals

Question 48.
Which are the library management systems using cloud technology select correct answers to an each set?

Set-1

a) Writer
b) Cale
c) Database
d) Insignia software
Answer:
d) Insignia software

Set – II

a) Gimp
b) Libranaties
c) Inkscape
d) Qgis
Answer:

b) Libranaties

Set-III

a) World share
b) Sampooma
c) Spark
d) Android
Answer:
a) World share

Set-IV

a) Hadoop
b) Firewall
c) Alma
d) Sun clock
Answer
c) Alma

Question 49.
Name the challenging tasks to handle the database of a big data select one from each set

Set 1

a) Data collection
b) Small data
c) Reports
d) Aadhar card
Answer:
a) Data collection

Set II

a) Data
b)Sharing of data
c) form
d) news
Answer:
b)Sharing of data

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Set III

a) data
b) images
c) data exchange
d) WhatsApp
Answer:
c) data exchange

Set – IV

a) spark
b) use
c) Big data
d) Data analysis
Answer:
d) Data analysis

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 7 The Working of the Internet

You can Download The Working of the Internet Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 7 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 7 The Working of the Internet

The Working of the Internet Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give the name for publishing a website in a networked server ‘
a) IP address
b) hosting a website
c) Web browser
d) HTML
Answer:
b)

Question 2.
How many IP address can be given to a normal computer?
a) 4
b) 2
c) Not able to give
d) one
Answer:
d)

HSSLive.Guru

Question 3.
In server, computers can be given IP address
a) one
b) 4
c) two
d) more than one
Answer:
d)

Question 4.
In server computers systems that permits to setting a more than one IP address
a) networking
b) web browser 5
c) Host
d) Modem
Answer:
a)

Question 5.
Connecting the IP addresses to the names, that we can easily remember and vice versa. What do you call these names –
a) IP address
b)DNS
c) Hostnames
d)Name
Answer:
c)

Question 6.
The expanded form of DNS is
a) Domain Name Search
b) Domain Name Server
c) Domain Number Server
d) Domain Number Search
Answer:
b)

Question 7.
Find the suitable statement related to DNS
a) It is system in the internet that helps computers to convert web addresses to IP addresses and vice versa
b) A name that we can easily remember
c) A networking system to set IP address in Server Computers.
d) A system provided by busy internet service providers to improve their speed and efficiency.
Answer:
a)

Question 8.
Take a correct statement from below
a) Only one IP address for one website
b) For a website, there are different IP addresses
c) No IP address for a website
d) For different websites having only one IP address.
Answer:
b)

Question 9.
What do you need to get an information in the internet
a) Place of file in the website
b) Name of the file
c) IP address of the website
d) Exchange protocol
Answer:
c)

Question 10.
Name of the language used to prepare web pages
a) HTL
b) HTMC
c) HTTP
d) HTML
Answer:
d)

Question 11.
Which is the suitable statement for a web page?
a) Prepared in C+ language
b) Prepared in HTML Language
c) Prepared in English
d) Prepared in a computer
Answer:
b)

Question 12.
Expanded HTTP?
a) HyperText Transfer Protocol
b) Hyper Transfer Text Protocol
c) HyperText Provider
d) HyperText Time Protocol
Answer:
a)

Question 13.
Expanded the form of OTP
a) One time Protocol
b) One time Password
c) Overtime Password
d) Open Text Protocol
Answer:
b)

Question 14.
An information network having many pages with hyperlink to more pages in internet. This is called ……..
a) URL
b) worldwide web
c) Host Name b
d) HTTP
Answer:
c)

Question 15.
Expanded the form www
a) World web-wide
b) Web-wide world
c) World wide web
d) Wide world web
Answer:
a)

Question 16.
Expanded the form URL
a) Uniform Resource Locator
b) Uniform Resource Language
c) Uniform Research Locator
d) Unique Resource Locator
Answer:
a)

Question 17.
File exchanged through Http have an address other than hostname. That address is known as ……..
a) www
b) Http
c) Html
d) URL
Answer:
a)

HSSLive.Guru

Question 18.
We are using a utility for finding websites in internet called …….
a) URL
b)The Internet society
c) WWW
d) HTTP
Answer:
a)

Question 19.
……… are web sites to publish our works like stories, poems, and articles,
a) blogs
b) www
c) Internet
d) HTTP
Answer:
a)

Question 20.
Letters are exchanged through global computer net-work select a correct word for the above statement
a) SMS
b) WhatsApp
c) Email
d) Twitter
Answer:
c)

Question 21.
………. is a medium for open-source communication system
a) Facebook
b) Diaspora
c) Twitter b
d) Whatsapp
Answer:
b)

Question 22.
Which application is using to find IP address using hostname
a) Firefox
b) Terminal
c) Libre office data b
d) Libre office writer
Answer:
b)

Question 23.
Which website having the IP adress 216.58.197.83?
a) yahoo.com
b) bsnl.in
c) ircte.com
d) google.co.in
Answer:
d)

Question 24.
Who is the founder of world wide web
a) Newton
b) Leslie Lamport
c) Tim Berners-Lee
d) Donald Knuth
Answer:
c)

Question 25.
Give the name for the organization to supervise the internet
a) ICANN
b) The internet society
c) Red cross society
d) IETF
Answer:
b)

Question 26.
Give the name for the organisation to supervise the internet to manages the technical structure of the internet, make arrangements for the stability and safety of the internet, examine the revision of internet protocols.
a) IETF
b) The Internet society
c) ICANN
d) HTTP
Answer:
c)

Question 27.
Give the name for the organization to supervise the internet To Supervise the Domain Name System (DNS) and to ensures that all internet addresses reach their proper IP address
a) IETF
b) ICANN
c) The internet society
d) Host
Answer:
a)

Question 28.
Which is the system ensure that our online transactions are secure?
a) one text password
b) one password
c) password
d) one-time password
Answer:
d)

Question 29.
Where does the one-time password is send?
a) To the phone of account holder
b) To the mobile phone of account holder
c) TO the mobile, the number is given to the .. for configuring the account online transaction.
d) To the email address
Answer:
c)

Question 30.
Why did an OTP is send to the account holder for each online transactions?
a) Same OTP can be sued for an account to each online transat ion
b) OTP is send to the mobile for that transition and is carried out by that password for safety
c) Same password is sending for all transactions
d) To give a message to the account holder for transition
Answer:
b

Question 31.
An account holder can do the transactions through. a website, provided by the Bank is called
a) banking
b) net banking
c) e-banking
d) e-governance
Answer:
c

Question 32.
A page is prepared to publish on the internet. Give a name for that page?
a) Website
b) page
c) Webpage
d) HTML
Answer:
c

Section – II

Question 33.
Pick any two correct statements related to HTTP.
a) It is installed in server computer
b) It is installed in our home PC
c) It is the protocol used for transferring Html files
d) Relate to a web site
Answer:
a and c

HSSLive.Guru

Question 34.
There are some sites for sharing videos that we… What are they?
a) google
b) yahoo
c) youtube
d) Vimeo
Answer:
c and d

Question 35.
Who are the email service providers
a) www.gmail.com
b) IETF
c) www.yahoo.com
d) ICANN
Answer:
a and c

Question 36.
There are same organizations, not very formal for a systemic supervision of internet. Choose the correct two organizations
a) World wide web
b) Internet
c) The Internet Society
d) The Internet Engineering Taskforce
Answer:
c and d

Question 37.
What are the facilities allowed to an e-banking account holder through a website?
a) username
b) OTP
c) Password
d) Keywords
Answer:
a and c

Question 38.
What are the differences of a server computer compared to a normal computer
a) can give one IP address
b) can give more than one IP address
c) can host a website
d) can host different websites to different IP addresses
Answer:
b and d

Question 39.
Which are the sites allowed to create blogs free of cost?
a) www.blogger.com
b) www.word press.com
c) www.google.co.in
d) www.yahoo.com
Answer:
a and b

Question 40.
Find out any two new social media from given below
a) SMS
b) twitter
c) e-mail
d) facebook
Answer:
b and d

Question 41.
The digital resources or creations prepared by us con be shared others in two ways. What are they
a) youtube
b) twitter
c) e-mail
d) blogs
Answer:
a and d
Qn. 42

Question 42.
A list of new social media are given below. Select one from each set and make a list

Set -I

a) sms
b) e-mail
c) facebook
d) Inland
Answer:
c

Set – II

a) Airmail
b) Aerogram
c) Twitter
d) Gmail
Answer:
c

Set-III

a) Watsapp
b) Wikimania
c) yahoo
d) host
Answer:
a

Set – IV

a) Webpage
b) www
c) Diaspora
d) Email
Answer:
c

Question 43.
What are the hints contained in uniform resource locator? Select correct one form each set.

Set-1

a) Protocol
b) Exchange protocol
c) mail
d) Web service
Answer:
b

Set -II

a) Name of the site
b) HTTP
c) HTML
d) HTM
Answer:
a

Set – III

a) Twitter
b) WhatsApp
c) place where file
d) web page is save
Answer:
c

Set – IV

a) Google
b) Name of the file
c) Yahoo
d) File extension
Answer:
b

Question 44.
An account holder can use many facilities through e-banking without going to the bank. What are they?

Set -1

a) We can find out the details of our bank account form any place at any time
b) We can find out the details of our bank account from any place during bank time.
c) We can find out the details of our bank account at banking hours
d) We can’t find out our bank details
Answer:
a

Set-II

a) We can’t examine our recent bank transaction details
b) We can examine our recent bank transaction details form any place at any time
c) We can examine our recent bank transaction de-tails at banking hours
d) We can’t examine our bank transaction details
Answer:
b

Set – III

a) To transfer money is not possible
b) We can’t transfer money to another account at any place
c) WE can transfer money to another account at any place at any time.
d) we can’t transfer money to other accounts
Answer:
c

Set – IV

a) We can’t pay for things that we have bought
b) We can’t pay for services that we have bought
c) It is not easy for us
d) We can pay for things or services that we have bought any time at any place.
Answer:
d

HSSLive.Guru

Question 45.
What are the restrictions and stipulations bear in mind while using new social new social media?

Set-I

a) What things are posted on the media is removed, to prevent others see the matter
b) What things are posted on the media, is removed later. Before that can be removed, many people downloaded them or shared them with others.’
c) We can’t post things at any time
d) We can’t post different types of things
Answer:
a

Set II

a) Posting of vulgar messages and bullying are legally criminal
b) We can’t post vulgar messages or bullying to the media
c) Others cannot identify the person who posted the vulgar messages
d) Messages are legal
Answer:
a

Set-III

a) Don’t hide your personal details
b) Share your personal details to others
c) Hide your personal details and don’t share to others
d) Don’t’ spoil your life by revealing personal details to others
Answer:
c

Set IV

a) We can’t misuse the internet
b) We can’t post vulgar messages
c) Persons committing cyber crimes can hide forever
d) Delete your friendship with those people who misuse the internet
Answer:
d

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Map Reading

You can Download Map Reading Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Map Reading

Map Reading Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the application in IT@school GNu/Linux that explain the features of the Earth and its phenomenon
a) Inkscape
b) Gimp
c) Sun clock
d) Python
Answer:
c) Sun clock

HSSLive.Guru

Question 2.
How to make the menu bar appear in sun clock window?
a) by clicking anywhere in the window
b) by clicking on the title bar
c) by clicking on the maximize button
d) by clicking on the close button
Answer:
a) by clicking anywhere in the window

Question 3.
The tool used to display the map of the world showing time zones
a) Toggle Tropic tool
b) Clock and map tool
c) Toggle meridian
d) Sun/moon toggle menu
Answer:
b) Clock and map tool

Question 4.
The tool used to show main latitudinal lines is
a) B
b) A
c) G
d) T
Answer:
d) T

Question 5.
Which tool is Toggle meridian?
a) B
b) T
c) M
d) T
Answer:
c) M

Question 6.
Time forward tool is
a) A
b) B
c) T
d) M
Answer:
a) A

Question 7.
Time Backward tool is
a) A
b) B
c) T
d) M
Answer:
b) B

Question 8.
Animation tool is
a) !
b) T
c) ,
d) L
Answer:
c) ,

Question 9.
Which is the tool used to show the map of the world showing time zones
a) !
b) A
c) B
d) M
Answer:
a) !

Question 10.
Select the tool to show or hide the separation between night and day from the following
a) N
b) A
c) B
d) M
Answer:
a) N

Question 11.
By clicking on tool to show the sun?
a) M
b) A
c) B
d) y
Answer:
d) y

Question 12.
By clicking on tool to display the moon
a) Y
b) B
c) A
d) M
Answer:
a) Y

Question 13.
By clicking on tool to display the sun and moon
a) A
b) Y
c) B
d) !
Answer:
b) Y

Question 14.
The scale for normal rotational speed of earth is
a) 1s = 60 hour
b) Is = 1 hour
c) 1 second = 1 second
d) 1s = 1 day
Answer:
c) 1 second = 1 second

Question 15.
Sun clock software starts, it runs at the speed of our time
a) Normal rotation
b) Wrong rotation
c) with IS = 1 day
d) IS = 1 hour
Answer:
a) Normal rotation

Question 16.
The time based or the position of the sun at a place is called
a) Solar time
b) Legal time
c) Standard time
d) Time
Answer:
a) Solar time

Question 17.
The time based on the Greenwich time and the longitude of the place is called
a) Standard time
b) Solar time
c) Indian time
d) American time
Answer:
a) Standard time

Question 18.
Sun clock opens with time
a) Solar time
b) Indian time
c) Legal time
d) Sunrise time
Answer:
c) Legal time

Question 19.
Which tool in the menu is used to get solar time
a) L
b) B
c) A
d) S
Answer:
d) S

Question 20.
To change the animation speed or time using the tool
a) Toggle night N
b) Adjust progress value G
c) Time backward B
d) Time forward A
Answer:
b) Adjust progress value G

HSSLive.Guru

Question 21.
What happens when you press on G the sun clock/menu?
a) Animation speed
b) The time forward
c) Sun disappears
d) To display the map of the world showing time zones
Answer:
a) Animation speed increases

Question 22.
Open in your browser to see the digital map
a) wikimapia.org
b) google.co.in
c) Gmail.com
d) yahoo.com
Answer:
a) wikimapia.org

Question 23.
Open wiki map and enlarge the map to mark Anu’s house which button is used to mark Anu’s house?
a) Add attribute
b) Add place
c) Add
d) Measure tool
Answer:
b) Add place

Question 24.
Who add the places and things as objects to the collaborative maps?
a) Panchayat
b) Municipality
c) Government
d) Using the data given by users
Answer:
d) Using the data given by users

Question 25.
The file extension of the layers in QGIS is
a) .shp
b) .qgis
c) .xcf
d) .dos
Answer:
a) .shp

Question 26.
How can we include a project file in QGIS?
a) project → open
b) File → open
c) File →insert
d) Insert → Insert
Answer:
a) project → open

Question 27.
Where is the layer position of a comprehensive panchayat map in QGIS?
a) Layer palette is below
b) Above the window
c) Left side of the window
d) Right side of the window
Answer:
c) Left side of the window

Question 28.
The file extension of a project file in QGIS is
a) .shp
b) .qgis
c) .xcf
d) .dos
Answer:
b) .qgis

Question 29.
Select the markings for a well in the vector layer
a) Circle
b) Polygon
c) Point
d) Line
Answer:
c) Point

Question 30.
The activity to include a new shapefile layer in QGIS
a) layer → create layer → New shapefile layer
b) layer → create layer → Spatialite layer
c) layer → create layer → New temporary sratch layer
d) layer →Add layer
Answer:
a) layer → create layer → New shapefile layer

Question 31.
In order to remove a layer in QGIS is
a) Press the delete key on the keyboard
b) by clicking on the layer and select styles
c) Right-click on the layer and select toggle editing
d) Right-click on the layer and select remove
Answer:
d) Right-click on the layer and select remove

Question 32.
From where do we get buffer(s) option?
a) vector →buffer(s)
b) vector → geoprocessing tools → buffer(s)
c) vector → geometry tools → buffers)
d) vector → open street map → buffers)
Answer:
b) vector → geoprocessing tools → buffers)

Question 33.
What is the method to hide a house layer?
a) Remove the ‘✓’ mark in the checkbox of a house layer.
b) Put a ‘✓’ mark in the checkbox against the house layer.
c) No method to hide a house layer
d) There no checkbox on the house layer
Answer:
a) Remove the ‘✓’ mark in the checkbox of a house layer.

Question 34.
The PWD road is not visible on the panchayat map. The PWD layer is not active. Give a method to see the PWD road on the map.
a) There must be a checkbox against the PWD road layer
b) Put a S mark in the check against the PWD road layer
c) Remove S mark in the checkbox against the PWD road layer
d) Can’t activate the PWD road layer
Answer:
b) Put a S mark in the check against the PWD road layer

Question 35.
What type of data entry is done in a layer?
a) Picture
b) Paragraph
c) Table
d) Chart
Answer:
c) Table

Question 36.
The details in a layer can be added by pressing the ……… button for activating the editing tool.
a) Identify features
b) New print composer
c) Measure tool
d) Toggle editing
Answer:
d) Toggle editing

Question 37.
Which button is used to get a window to entire the attributes on the layer?
a) Add features
b) Toggle editing
c) Measure tool
d) New print composer
Answer:
a) Add features

HSSLive.Guru

Question 38.
Attributes are the features and specialties of
a) Name
b) Spatial information
c) Owner
d) Buffer
Answer:
b) Spatial information

Question 39.
The land that is being used for widening the road. The buildings that are get affected by this. How much can be saved by changing the width of the road? Above things are easily determined by a technology available in QGIS. Name that technology available in QGIS.
a) vector
b) Layer
c) Attributes
d) Buffers
Answer:
d) Buffers

Question 40.
…….. is used to measure the land that is being used for the road
a) Identify features tool
b) Measure tool
c) Toggle editing
d) Add features
Answer:
b) Measure tool

Question 41.
The facility to print a map in quantum GIS using
a) Project → select
b) Project → composer manager
c) Project → print composer
d) Project → New print composer
Answer:
d) Project → New print composer

Question 42.
Which button is used to add map to the print composer window
a) Add new label
b) Add place
c) Add new map
d) Add legend
Answer:
c) Add new map

Question 43
In order to add a picture in a print composer window by button
a) Add image
b) Add new map
c) Add new label
d) Add legend
Answer:
a) Add image

Question 44.
The method to re-arrange the layers is
a) Click and drag the layer towards bottom
b) Click and drag the layer towards top
c) Click in between the layers
d) Click and drag the layer top or bottom
Answer:
d) Click and drag the layer top or bottom

Question 45.
Which tool is used to add label in print composer
a) Add new map
b) Add new label
c) Add new legend
d) Add image
b) Add new label

Question 46.
Which tool is used to the buildings that will get affected by buffering?
a) Identify features tool
b) Measure tool
c) Toggle editing
d) Add feature
Answer:
a) Identify features tool

Section – II

Question 47.
What are the phenomena to explain through sun clock software
a) Concept of time zones of earth
b) India
c) The features of the earth surface
d) World map
Answer:
a and c

Question 48.
Whenever the sun clock software is open the menu bar is not visible. Write the order of activity to make the menu bar visible a) Minimise the window
b) Maximize the window
c) by clicking anywhere in the window
d) by right-clicking on the window
Answer:
b and c

Question 49.
Give the uses of toggle night tool(y) in sun clock software
a) To study sun and moon
b) To display or hide sun and the moon
c) To display along with their position in latitude and longitude
d) To display the latitude and longitude
Answer:
b and c

Question 50.
Open the sun clock window and the menubar. What happens when you click on ‘y’ at first time and on a second click?
a) If you click on y at first time display the position of the sun and moon in sun clock
b) At the second click, there is no change in sun clock window
c) If you click on y at second time, sun and moon will appear along with their position in latitude and longitude
d) At the second click sun and moon disappears
Answer:
a and c

HSSLive.Guru

Question 51.
If you click on a city marked in sun clock, what changes you can see below the window?
a) Name of the city along with their latitude and longitude
b) Name of the city
c) Displaying the legal time
d) Displaying the solar time
Answer:
a and c

Question 52.
Determine the time at different longitudes using sun clock. Find out your inferences from the following.
a) Time of one longitude to another towards west decreases
b) Time of one longitude to another towards west increases
c) Time of one longitude to another towards east increases
d) Time of one longitude to another towards east is same
Answer:
a and c

Question 53.
You have noted the time of sunrise and sunset in June and December. The city is situated in India. Find out your inferences.
a) Length of day is shorter in June
b) Length of day is longer in June
c) Length of day is shorter in December
d) Length of day is longer in December
Answer:
b and c

Question 54.
What are the details shown at the bottom of the sun clock window, when it opens?
a) No details at he bottom
b) Only Day and Date
c) Legal time
d) Day and Date
Answer:
c and d

Question 55.
What are windows used for proper working sun clock software
a) Only one window, Sunclock/menu
b) Only one window, sun clock/urban selector
c) Sun clock/clock window
d) Sun clock/menu window
Answer:
c and d

Question 56.
Give any two examples for collaborate map
a) Openstreet map
b) Wikimapia
c) Wiki
d) Quantum GIS
Answer:
a and b

Question 57.
Some software are given below. Find out two free software related to geographical information systems?
a) Arc GIS
b) GRASS
c) Sun clock
d) Quantum GIS
Answer:
b and d

Question 58.
Select the order activity to get open attribute table in QGIS.
a) Select a layer from the layer palette
b) Right-click on the layer
c) Right-click on the layer and select open attribute table
d) Right-click on the layer and select delete
Answer:
a and c

Question 59.
What can you find from buffered layer? Select any two correct statements.
a) Buildingsthatwill get affected
b) Cost of construction
c) Land used for the road
d) Breadth of the road
Answer:
a and c

Question 60.
What are the types of map formats using export as in the composer menu?
a) svg
b) pdf
c) xcf
d) ods
Answer:
a and b

Section – III

Question 61.
There are some statements related to longitudes of a sun clock map are given select one statement from each group.

Set – I

a) To display the longitudes by clicking on M on the
b) To display the longitudes by clicking on B on the menu bar
c) To display the longitudes by clicking on N on the menu bar
d) To display the longitudes by clicking on B on the menu bar
Answer:
a

Set – II

a) Click a second time on toggle tool on the menu bar
b) Click a second time on toggle tropic tool
c) Click a second time on Greenwich line
d) Click a second time on ‘M’ the degrees will become visible at the bottom
Answer:
d

Set – III

a) Click a third time on ‘M’ the degrees will become visible at the top
b) Click a third time on ‘N’ the degrees will be seen
c) Press T tool on the menu bar
d) Press v key on the keyboard
Answer:
a

Set – IV

a) Click a forth time on‘M’logitudes will bee seen
b) No change by clicking on T tool at forth time
c) No change by clicking on ‘M’ tool at forth time
d) Longitudes and degree measures are disappears by clicking on M tool at forth time
Answer:
d

Question 62.
Mark a city on the sun clock world map along with the time zones. Select the utilities given at the bottom of the window

Set – I

a) Only latitudes
b) Name of the place with longitude and latitude
c) Name of the place is not entered
d) Longitude and latitudes are not entered
Answer:
b

Set – II

a) Solar time
b) American time
c) Standard time
d) time is not seen
Answer:
c

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Set – III

a) only day
b) date only
c) only year
d) day and date
Answer:
d

Set – IV

a) day and night length
b) version
c) Sunrise and sunset time
d) Night length
Answer:
c

Question 63.
Utilities of Quantum GIS software

Set – I

a) Proprietary software
b) Free software
c) No freedom to change it.
d) No freedom to give others
Answer:
b

Set – II

a) The features and specialties of spatial information are recorded in different layers.
b) The features and specialties of spatial information are recorded in one layer
c) The features and specialties of spatial information are can’t record in layers
d) Only record in existing layer
Answer:
a

Set – III

a) Details are not digital
b) Details can’t record
c) The details are saved in digital form
d) Details can’t save
Answer:
c

Set – IV

a) Can’t change the details
b) Details can be collect, change and analyse at any time.
c) Details can’t analyse speedily
d) There are some restrictions to entre the details
Answer:
b

Question 64.
Rajan Decided to include well, lake, road and survey plots are in different layers. Select the correct mark-ing for the above in the new vector layer.

Set – I

a) Layer type is polygon fora lake
b) Layer type is point for a lake
c) Layer type is line for a lake
d) Layer type is number for a lake
Answer:
a) Layer type is polygon for a lake

Set – II

a) Layer type is polygon fora road
b) Layer type is point for a road
c) No layer type fora road
d) Layer type is line for a road
Answer:
d) Layer type is line fora road

Set – III

a) Layer type is polygon fora well
b) Layer type is point fora well
c) No layer type fora well
d) Layer is line for a well
Answer:
b) Layer type is point for a well

Set – IV

a) Layer type is polygon fora survey plots
b) Layer type is point for a survey plots
c) No layer type fora survey plots
d) Layer type is line fora survey plots
Answer:
a) Layer type is polygon for a survey plots

HSSLive.Guru

Question 65.
Quantum GIS software helps us to do many things quickly. They are given below. Select one each group.

Set – I

a) To prepare a new software
b) To display map with various information
c) Map without information
d) The information given in the map is not real
Answer:
b

Set – II

a) No information in Geographical information system
b) No room for analyse the data in GQIS
c) New information can’t add in GIS
d) Analyze the data available in QGIS
Answer:
d

Set – III

a) Maps can’t modify in several times
b) Modify maps
c) Can’t add to a map
d) Can’t modify maps
Answer:
b

Set – IV

a) It can’t display the analysis in the form of map
b) It can’t analyze the data as we required.
c) Analyze the data as we required and display its results in the form of tables or maps as required
d) Analyze the data as we required and it can’t display in the form of tables.
Answer:
c

Question 66.
The are some arrangements could be done in the buffer window for buffering. Select one statement from each group.

Set – I

a) change the position of the buffer layer
b) Select the layer to be buffered in the window
c) Delete all the layers except buffer layer
d) Delete the buffer layer
Answer:
b

Set – II

a) Don’t entre in the window
b) Close the window
c) Give the measure of the land
d) Give the buffer distance
Answer:
d

Set – III

a) Select the folder
b) Give the name to the new layer and select the folder where the layer to be saved
c) Give name
d) Click on cancel
Answer:
b

Set – IV

a) Click on OK button and close the window
b) Click on OK button
c) Close the window
d) Don’t do anything
Answer:
a

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Networking

You can Download Networking Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 5 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Networking

Networking Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A collection of computers, printer, scanner, and peripheral devices are connected by a medium is called
a) Networking
b) CSS
c) HTML
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Networking

Question 2.
What is the full form of UTP
Answer:
Unshielded Twisted Pair

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Question 3.
What is the full form of RJ45
Answer:
Registered Jack 45

Question 4.
From the following which device is used to send a copy of the data to all the computers in a network
a) Switch
b) Hub
c) Scanner
d) None of these
Answer:
b)Hub

Question 5.
From the following which device is used to send data only to the intended computer
a) Hub
b) Scanner
c) Switch
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Switch

Question 6.
……….. Tool is used to fix RJ45 connector to the end of a cable
a) Scissors.
b) screen driver
c) Crimping
d) None of these
Answer:
c) Crimping

Question 7.
Which connector is used to connect telephone line to modem in our computer lab
a) RJ 45
b) RJ 78
c) RJ 10
d) RJ 11
Answer:
d) RJ 11

Question 8.
What is the full form of LAN
Answer:
Local Area Network

Question 9.
What is the full form of WAN
Answer:
Wide Area Network

Question 10.
In computer, data is processed and stored in the form of signal.
a) Digital
b) Analog
c) Hybrid
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Digital

Question 11.
Which type of signal is used in telephone line for transferring data?
a) Digital
b) Analog
c) Hybrid
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Analog

Question 12.
From the following which device is used to convert digital signals to analog and vice versa
a) Modem
b) Hub
c) Switch
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Modem

Question 13.
From the following which device helps us to use internet through telephone line or cable.
a) Modem
b) Speaker
c) Camera
d) Scanner
Answer:
a) Modem

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Question 14.
Name the system that connects computers and other peripheral devices without the help of cables.
a) Cable network
b) Wireless network
c) None of these
Answer:
b) Wireless network

Question 15.
In wireless network, which medium is used for sending data.
a) Cable
b) R.F waves
c) None of these
Answer:
b) R.F waves

Question 16.
The computer placed in a building or in a room, or in a compound are connected by a medium. This type of network is called
a) LAN
b) MAN
c) WAN
d) None of these
Answer:
a) LAN

Question 17.
A computer network that spans over the world is called
a) LAN
b) MAN
c) WAN
d) None of these
Answer:
c) WAN

Question 18.
Computers in a network are identified by a unique number. This is called
a) IPAddress
b) memory Address
c) None of these
Answer:
a) IPAddress

Question 19.
Which protocol is used to give IP address to com-puters in a Network?
a) TCP/IP
b) SSH
c) SMB
d) POP
Answer:
a) TCP/IP

Question 20.
From the following select an option that is not an IP version
a) IPV4
b) IPV6
c) IPV10
d) None of these
Answer:
c)IPV10

Question 21.
From the following which is IPv4 based IP address.
a) 192.168.1.120
b) 192.268.1.120
c) 192.168.700.120
d) None of these
Answer:
a) 192.168.1.120

Question 22.
What is the network-related icon’ displayed on the screen of the computer connected to a Network?
a) Network Manager Applet
b) Network Neighbourhood
c) Network system
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Network Manager Applet

Question 23.
From the following which applet is used to find the IP address of a computer
a) Network Manager Applet
b) Network Neighbourhood
c) Network system
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Network Manager Applet

Question 24.
From the following which device is used for sending devices placed in shorter distance
a) Bluetooth
b) wifi
c) Lifi
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Bluetooth

Question 25.
What is the full form of WiFi?
Answer:
Wireless Fidelity

Question 26.
From the following what is the data transfer capacity of Cat 7 cable
a) 18 Gbps
b) 20 Gbps
c) 10 Gbps
d) 10 Mbps
Answer:
c) 10 Gbps

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Question 27.
The cable used for networking is from Cat 1 to
a) Cat 10
b) Cat 15
c) Cat 7
d) Cat 17
Answer:
c) Cat 7

Question 28.
What is the full form of Cat7?
a) Category 7
b) Cathode 7
c) None of these
Answer:
a) Category 7

Question 29.
Is it possible to give permanent IP address to computers in a Network
a) possible
b) Not possible
c) None of these
Answer:
a) possible

Question 30.
Each time when you switch on the Computer in a network, the IP address is created
a) Automatically
b) Given by human beings
c) None of these
Answer:
a) Automatically

Question 31.
Name the technology used for assigning IP address to computers in a Network Automatically
a) DMCP
b) DHCP
c) DMRC
d) None of these
Answer:
b) DHCP

Question 32.
What is the full form of DHCP
Answer:
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

Question 33.
From the following’ IP address which part is used to represent the host computer
192.168.1.25
a) 192
b) 168
c) 1
d) 25
Answer:
d)25

Question 34.
from the following IP address which part is used to represent the Network
192.168.1.25
a) 168.1.25
b) 192.168.1
c) 192.168
d) 1.25
Answer:
b) 192.168.1

Question 35.
From the following which option is used to deny the entry of others from Internet or Network
a) Firewall
b) Protocol
c) WiFi
d) LiFi
Answer:
a) Firewall

Question 36.
Which wireless technology is used light rays for transfer data between devices
a) blue tooth
b) WiFi
c) LiFi
d) None of these
Answer:
c) LiFi

Question 37.
In LiFi which medium is used for data transferring
a) Radiofrequency waves
b) Light rays
c) None of these
Answer:
b) Light rays

Question 38.
From the following select an IP address that is not in a valid range.
a) 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255
b) 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
c) 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
d) 255.1.255.255 – 255.255.255.255
Answer:
d) 255.1.255.255 – 255.255.255.255

HSSLive.Guru

Question 39.
From the following select the IP address that is not in the same network.
3) 192.168.1.1 3
b) 192.168.1.20
c) 192.168.1.30
d) 192.168.10.30
Answer:
d) 192.168.10.30

Question 40.
Is it possible to give permanent address to all computers and share internet facility to all computers,
a) Not possible
b) Possible
c) None of these
Answer:
b) Possible

Question 41.
You have to connect your modem to  ensure internet facility to every computers in a Net-work .
a) printer
b) speaker
c) switch
d) scanner
Answer:
c) switch

Question 42.
From the following which option is not needed to transfer a file from a computer to another computer in our lab
a) Name of the file
b) Location of the file
c) Stroing time of the file
d) The IP address username and password of the computer that started the file
Answer:
c) Storing time of the file

Question 43.
What you have to type in the server address box to connect our computer to another computer with IP address 192.168.1.15
a) ssh://192.168.1.15
b) POP://192.168.1.15
c) SMTP://192.168.1.15
d) None of these
Answer:
a) ssh://192.168.1.15

Question 44.
Is it possible to share a printer just like the files shared in a Network
a) Not possible
b) Possible
c) None of these
Answer:
b) Possible

Question 45.
What are the two energing technologies developed in the expansion of Network
a) Grid computing
b) Cloud computing
c) Share computing
d) Python
Answer:
a) Grid computing and
b) Cloud computing

Question 46.
A collection of computer from various location are working independently for a common objective is called computing
a) Cloud computing
b) Grid Computing
c) Share computing
d) Firewall
Answer:
b) Grid Computing

Question 47.
Instead of high-performance server this technology user ordinary computers from various parts of the world for computing Name this Computing?
a) Grid computing
b) Cloud computing
c) server computing
d) Share computing
Answer:
a) Grid computing

Question 48.
From the following name the people who considered to be started grid computing
a) Ian foster
b) Carl Kesselman
c) Steve Tuecke
d) Bert bos
Answer:
a) I an foster,
b) Carl Kesselman and
c) Steve Tuecke

Question 49.
………. Computing is a means of using the applications you use at home along with your files, from any part of the world
a) Grid computing
b) Cloud computing
c) Supercomputing
d) None of these
Answer:
b) Cloud computing

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Question 50.
Which among the following is not a cloud computing
a) Public
b) Private
c) Hybrid
d) Star
Answer:
d) Star

Question 51.
Multinational Companies depend as for many of their projects
a) Clouds
b) Star
c) Hub
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Clouds

Question 52.
How many pairs of wires are present in a UTP cable
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 2
Answer:
a) 4

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Python Graphics

You can Download Python Graphics Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Python Graphics

Python Graphics Questions & Answers

Question 1.
From the following select one that is not a computer programming language
a) Python
b) C++
c) Java
d) Scanner
Answer:
d) Scanner

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Question 2.
From the following select one computer programming language
a) Writer
b) GeoGebra
c) GIMP
d) Python
Answer:
d) Python

Question 3.
What is the full form of IDE
Answer:
a) Integrated Development Environment

Question 4.
From the following choose the IDE that are used to write programms in python language
a) IDLE
b) Geany
c) Turbo C++
d) VB IDE
Answer:
a and b

Question 5.
Noramlly when you execute a general purpose program in IDLE, the output will be shown in window.
a) python shell window
b) python graphic window
c) python editor
d) None of these
Answer:
a) python shell window

Question 6.
If the output a program written in python is graphical then it appears in a window
a) python shell window
b) python graphic window
c) python editor
d) None of these
Answer:
b) python graphic window

Question 7.
From the following which in the associated software to create geometric shapes in python
a) Turtle
b) Writer
c) Calc
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Turtle

Question 8.
Which command is used to add in the starting of a python program to work graphic commands
a) from turtle import
b) from input import
c) from Gimp import
d) None of these
Answer:
a) from turtle import

Question 9.
From the following which command is equivalent to forward(100)
a) fw (100)
b) for (100)
c) fd (100)
d) fwd (100)
Answer:
c) fd (100)

Question 10.
From the following which command is equivalent to right (90)
a) rt (90)
b) rgt (100)
c) rht (90)
d) rgt (90)
Answer:
a) rt (90)

Question 11.
A loop statement contains another loop statement then it is called ………….
a) Nested loop
b) Direct loop
c) Indirect loop
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Nested loop

Question 12.
What is the o/p of the following code snippet from turtle import for in range (3):
fd (100)
rt (120)
Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Python Graphics 1
Answer:
a

Question 13.
What is the o/p of the following code snippet from turtle import*
for i in range (5):
fd (100)
rt (72)
Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Python Graphics 2
Answer:
b

Question 14.
What is the o/p of the following code snippet from turtle import*
fori in range (4):
fd (100)
rt (90)
Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Python Graphics 3
Answer:
c

Question 15.
………. command is used to give different colors to geometric shapes created in python graphic window
a) color ()
b) forward ()
c) right ()
d) left ()
Answer:
a) color ()

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Question 16.
Which among the following is a loop statement?
a) for
b) print
c) home ()
d) iterate
Answer:
a) for

Question 17.
What is the instructions used for removing everything from the Turtle Graphics window?
a) write ()
b) clear ()
c) home ()
d) iterate ()
Answer:
b) clear ()

Question 18.
What is the purpose of the following instruction? Color (“black”, “red”)
a) For drawing geometric shape in black color and. filling it with red color
b) For drawing geometric shape in red color and filling it with black color
c) To fill a geometric shape with black and red color
d) The instruction is invalid
Answer:
a) For drawing geometric shape in black color and filling it with red color

Question 19.
Match the following
Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – a

Question 20.
Choose the correct code segment from the following
a) for i in range ():
fd (100)
rt (90)
b) for i in range (4):
fd (100)
rt (90)
c) fori in range (4):
fd(100)
rt (90)
d) for i in range (4):
fd (100)
rt (90)
Answer:
b) fori in range (4):
fd (100)
rt (90)

Question 21.
From the following choose the right command used to start filling colors to geometric shapes
a) begin_fill ()
b) start_fill ()
c) end_fill()
d) None of these
Answer:
a) begin_fill ()

Question 22.
From the following choose the right command used to stop filling colours to geometric shapes
a) begin_fill ()
b) stop_fill ()
c) end_fill ()
d) Noneofthese
Answer:
c) end_fill ()

Question 23.
Choose the correct code from the following
a) The instruction begin_fill () and end_fill () should be written in the same tab position
b) The instruction begin_fill () and end_fill () should not be written in the same tab position
c) Both a and b are correct
Answer:
a) The instruction begin_fill () and end_fill () should be written in the same tab position

Question 24.
From the following which code is used for assigning four colours in variable clr
a) clr = [“blue”, “red”, “green”; “orange”]
b) clr = {blue, red, green, orange}
c) clr = (blue, red, green, orange)
d) Noneofthese
Answer:
a) clr = [“blue”, “red”, “green”, “orange”]

HSSLive.Guru

Question 25.
What is the use of the command fd ()
a) Move the Turtle to the right
b) Move the Turtle in a circle
c) Mark a point on the graphic screen
d) Specify the color of the line to be drawn on the screen
Answer:
a) Move the Turtle to the right

Question 26.
What is the use of command circle ()?
a) Move the Turtle to the right
b) Move the Turtle in a circle
c) Mark a point on the graphic screen
d) Specify the color of the line to be drawn on the screen
Answer:
b) Move the Turtle in a circle

Question 27.
What is the use of command dot ()?
a) Move the Turtle to the.right
b) Move the Turtle in a circle
c) Mark a point on the graphic screen
d) Specify the color of the line to be drawn on the screen
Answer:
c) Mark a point on the graphic screen

Question 28.
What is the use of the command pen color ()?
a) Move the Turtle to the right
b) Move the Turtle in a circle
c) Mark a point on the graphic screen
d) Specify the color of the line to be drawn on the screen
Answer:
d) Specify the color of the line to be drawn on the screen

Question 29.
What is the use of command pen size ()
a) Specify the thickness of the line to be drawn on the screen
b) To turn the turtle to the right according to given angle
c) To turn the turtle to the left according to the given angle
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Specify the thickness of the line to be drawn on the screen

Question 30.
What is the use of command right ()?
a) Specify the thickness of the line to be drawn on the screen
b) To turn the turtle to the right according to given angle
c) To turn the turtle to the left according to the given angle
d) None of these
Answer:
b) To turn the turtle to the right according to given angle

HSSLive.Guru

Question 31.
What is the use of command left ()?
a) Specify the thickness of the line to be drawn on the screen
b) To turn the turtle to the right according to given . angle
c) To turn the turtle to the left according to the given angle
d) None of these
Answer:
c) To turn the turtle to the left according to the given angle

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Attractive Web Designing

You can Download Attractive Web Designing Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 3 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Attractive Web Designing

Attractive Web Designing Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write down the full form of HTML?
a) Hyper Text Mark up Language
b) Hyper Tool Mark up Language
c) Hyper Tool Model Link
Answer:
a) HyperText Mark up Language

HSSLive.Guru

Question 2.
What is the full form of CSS?
a) Computer System Style
b) Cascading Style Sheet
c) Cascading Style System
Answer:
b) Cascading Style Sheet

Question 3.
From the following options which one is used for the reusability of codes.
a) CSS
b) Head
c) Body
d) lip
Answer:
a) CSS

Question 4.
The idea of was suggested by Hakon Wium Lie and Bert Bos.
a) CSS
b) HTML
c) Python
Answer:
a) CSS

Question 5.
Adding the properties of each tag along with the tag itself is css.
a) Inline
b) Internal
c) External
Answer:
a) Inline

Question 6.
In ………… css the properties are defined using element selector or class selector inside the <style> tag
Answer:
Internal

Question 7.
In ……… css one or more webpages are included in a separate file with .css extension
Answer:
External

Question 8.
Say true or false
a) Use the colon (:) sign to separate property and value
b) No need to use the semicolon sign (;) after every property.
Answer:
a) True
b) False

Question 9.
There are two ways to include properties to tags using cascading style sheets. From the following which is not a cascading style sheet.
a) Element selector
b) HTML selector
c) Class selector
Answer:
b) HTML selector

Question 10.
The style is created in the same name of the tag itself is called selector.
a) Element selector
b) HTML selector
c) Class selector
Answer:
a) Element selector

Question 11.
From the following which tag is compulsory for creating internal cascading style.
a) <style>
b) <br>
c) <hr>
Answer:
a) <style>

Question 12.
In a webpage, different styles of a tag can be used in different places by using ……… selector.
a) Element selector
b) HTML selector
c) Class selector
Answer:
c) Class selector

Question 13.
p.cyan
{
color : # ffooff;
}
What is the class name of the above code?
a) cyan
b) p
c) color
Answer:
a) cyan

Question 14.
From the following choose the cascading style that are used to make the background colour as blue.
a) body
{
backgroud : #0000ff;
}
b) body
{
backg round : #ff0000;
}
c) body
{
backg round : #00ff00;
}
Answer:
a) body
{
backgroud : #0000ff;
}

Question 15.
From the following which is the extension of cascading style sheet.
a) .css
b). .kss
c) .csh
Answer:
a) .css

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Question 16.
The HTML tag used for adding paragraph content when creating a web page.
a) <ul> <li> …… </li></ul>
b) <p> ……. </p>
c) <img> ……. </img>
d) <body> ……. </body>
Answer:
b) <p> …….. </p>

Question 17.
To which HTMLtag should we add internal cascading style.
a) <body> ……. </body>
b) <syle> …….. </style>
c) <p> …….. </p>
d) <a> ……. </a>
Answer:
b) <syle> ……… </style>

Question 18.
Web page can be prepared in three different ways by using cascading style. From the following select the wrong one.
a) <rel>
b) <head>
c) <i>
d) <link>
Answer:
d) <link>

Question 19.
What is the full form of WCMS?
Answer:
Web Content Management System

HSSLive.Guru

Question 20.
Name the attribute of link tag used to include cascading style file namely style.css
a) rel
b) type
c) href
d) None of these
Answer:
c) href

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The World of Designing

You can Download The World of Designing Questions and Answers, Kerala SSLC 10th IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The World of Designing

The World of Designing Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Expand SVG.
a) Scalable viral Graphics
b) Scalable Vector Graphics
c) Scalable Vector Graphics
d) Scale vector Graphics
Answer:
b) Scalable Vector Graphics

Question 2.
Where did you get fill and stroke facility?
a) Edit → Fill and stroke
b) File → Fill and stroke
c) Object → Fill and stroke
d) Filters → Fill and stroke
Answer:
c) Object → Fill and stroke

Question 3.
Which is the tool to select and transform objects?
Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The World of Designing 1
Answer:
Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The World of Designing 2

Question 4.
Can you say the use of this tool
Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The World of Designing 3
a) To draw rectangles
b) To create and edit text object
c) To select and transform objects
d) Edit path by nodes
Answer:
c) To select and transform objects

HSSLive.Guru

Question 5.
Give the use of the tool O
a) To create circles, Ellipses and arcs
b) To create and edit text objects
c) To draw rectangles
d) To draw calligraphic strokes
Answer:
a) To create circles, Ellipses and arcs

Question 6.
Give the use of this tool
Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The World of Designing 4
a) To create and edit text objects
b) Edit path by nodes
c) To draw rectangles
d) To draw Bezier curves and straight lines
Answer:
b) Edit path by nodes

Question 7.
Use of ‘X’ in left side of the colour palette in Inkscape
a) To change the objects
b) To select the objects
c) To change the nodes
d) To remove the colour of the object
Answer:
d) To remove the colour of the object

Question 8.
Use of A’ tool in Inkscape?
a) To draw a circle
b) To create and edit text objects
c) To select
d) To give a colour
Answer:
b) To create and edit text objects

Question 9.
Saritha decided to take a duplicates of a circles. But she don’t know the menu to take duplicate utility. Can you help her?
a) Edit → duplicate
b) File → duplicate
c) Object → duplicate
d) Help → duplicate
Answer:
a) Edit → duplicate

Question 10.
Anu draws two object pictures in a Inkscape window. What she do to remove common parts of the objects?
a) Select the two objects and click path → Difference
b) Select the two objects and click object → Difference
c) Select the two objects and click edit → Difference
d) Select the two objects and click Group → Difference
Answer:
a) Select the two objects and click path → Difference

Question 11.
What happens when changing the measure of opacity in the Fill and stroke window of Inkscape?
a) No, change in the colour of the object
b) Object size increases
c) Objects size decreases
d) Change the depth of the colour in objects
Answer:
d) Change the depth of the colour in objects

Question 12.
Which tool is used to type a text in Inkscape software?
a) Calligraphic brush
b) Create and edit text objects
c) Gradient tool
d) Credit circles tool
Answer:
b) Create and edit text objects

Question 13.
Name the utility used in Inkscape to give a 3D effect to 2D images?
a) Radial Gradient
b) Blur
c) opacity
d) Difference
Answer:
a) Radial Gradient

Question 14.
Name the software used to export vector images to raster
a) Gimp
b) Inkscape
c) sun clock
d) Quantum GIS
Answer:
b) Inkscape

Question 15.
Say the true statement from given below.
a) Cannot import bitmap images to Inkscape
b) Cannot import raster images to Inkscape
c) Cannot include a text on the image in Inkscape
d) Import bitmap images to Inkscape
Answer:
d) Import bitmap images to Inkscape

Question 16.
Bitmap images are images
a) Raster
b) Vector
c) SVG
d) odt
Answer:
a) Raster

Question 17.
The SVG images are type images
a) Raster
b) PNG
c) Vector
d) xcf
Answer:
c) Vector

Question 18.
Group option is in the menu
a) File
b) Edit
c) Object
d) path
Answer:
c) Object

Question 19.
makes more easy, if you convert any picture drawn in Inkscape into path
a) clone
b) editing
c) export
d) stroke
Answer:
b) editing

Question 20.
Default page size of Inkscape is
a) A4
b) A3
C) A2
d) A6
Answer:
a) A4

Question 21.
In order to resize the page according to the image through
a) File → export
b) Edit → Document properties and select A4
c) File → Document properties and select A3
d) File → Document properties and click Resize page to content
Answer:
d) File → Document properties and click Resize page to content

Question 22.
In which menu the utility for object to path
a) Text → put on path b) Edit → put on path
c) File → put on path
d) Object →put on path
Answer:
a) Text put on path

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Question 23.
To draw a semicircle in Inkscape, the utility to change start value to
a) 0.00
b) 360.00
c) 180.00
d) 90.00
Answer:
c) 180.00

Question 24.
Move and imported image to behind drawn image through
a) Object → Raise
b) Text → Raise
c) Object → lower
d) Text →lower
Answer:
c) Object → lower

Question 25.
Default canvas in inkscape is
a) Transparent
b) Text
c) Object
d) Opaque
Answer:
a) Transparent

Question 26.
The file format of logo created in Inkscape
a) xcf
b) PNG
c) svg
d) jpg
Answer:
c) svg

Question 27.
Where is the menu to export png image in Inkscape?
a) File
b) Object
c) Text
d) Edit
Answer:
a) File

Question 28.
Which tool is used to draw an oval
a) Fill & Stroke
b) Gradient
c) Rectangle
d) Create cycles
Answer:
d) Create cycles

Question 29.
What to do, to remove the stroke of an image
a) Click no colour on stroke paint tab in the fill and stroke window
b) Click the No colour on fill tab in the fill and stroke window
c) Select stroke style in the fill and stroke window
d) Don’t change anything in fill and stroke window
Answer:
a) Click no colour on stroke paint tab in the fill and stroke window

Question 30.
Correct statement related to page border in Inkscape
a) No page border
b) Having a page border
c) There is a facility to remove the page border, you are in need.
d) can’t remove the page border
Answer:
c) There is a facility to remove the page border, you are in need.

Question 31.
To adjust the space in between the letters in a text by
a) Using arrow keys
b) Using mouse
c) Pressing the shift key and arrow key
d) Pressing the Alt key and arrow key
Answer:
d) Pressing the Alt key and arrow key

Question 32.
The main use of an ink space software is
a) To create reports
b) to handle maths
c) Creating images
d) to do programme
Answer:
c) Creating images

Question 33.
To draw a semicircle in Inkscape, the utility to change end value to
a) 180.00
b) 0.00
c) 360.00
d) 160.00
Answer:
b) 0.00

Question 34.
More than two pictures are placed on over the other, the option to raise lower to top by
a) Object → Lower to bottom
b) Object → Raise to top
c) Insert → Lower to bottom
d) Object → group
b) Object → Raise to top

Question 35.
More than two pictures are placed on over the other, the option to lower top to bottom by
a) Object → Lower to bottom
b) Object → Raise to top
c) Insert → Lower to bottom
d) Object → group
Answer:
a) Object → Lower to bottom

Question 36.
Pictures are placed one over the other in Inkscape, the option to raise by
a) Object → Raise
b) Object → Raise to top
c) Object → lower
d) Object → Fill and stroke
Answer:
a) Object → Raise

Question 37.
What happens when you tried to open an png image in Inkscape
a) Can’t open it
b) Can’t see the image
c) Image is opened in Inkscape
d) Can’t edit the image
Answer:
c) Image is opened in Inkscape

Question 38.
Which software is used to create SVG images?
a) Gimp
b) Libre office cale
c) Libre office
d) Inkscape vector graphics editor
Answer:
d) Inkscape Vector Graphics editor

Question 39.
What things are blended to give a 3D effect to 2D
a) Joining colours
b) light and shade
c) blur utility
d) changing the opacity
Answer:
b) light and shade

Question 40.
To change the (outline) of an objects and its colour using stroke Paint tab
a) Tool
b) Colour
c) Stoke
d) Fill
Answer:
c) Stoke

Question 41.
File format of Inkscape is
a) PNG
b) SVG
c) xcf
d) jpg
Answer:
b) SVG

Section – II
(Select any two correct answers to the following questions)

Question 42.
For drawing a semi-circle in Inkscape, the values in start is and end is to put text in a curve
a) 0.00
b) 180.00
c) Start is 180.00
d) End is 0.00
Answer:
c & d .

Question 43.
Statements related to Inkscape default canvas
a) Default page size is A4
b) Default canvas is object
c) Default page is at any size
d) Default canvas is transparent
Answer:
a & d

HSSLive.Guru

Question 44.
Free image editing software are
a) Libre off Draw
b) carbon
c) Gimp
d) Inkscape
Answer:
a & d

Question 45.
Uses of ‘x’ on the left side of the colour palette in Inkscape are
a) To give a colour to the selected of object
b) To remove the colour to the selected object
c) To give a colour to the stroke of an selected object
d) To remove the colour to the stroke of an selected object
Answer:
b & c

Question 46.
The text is placed over the semicircle. How to remove the fill and stroke colours in that semicircle?
a) Change the colour on fill tab
b) Don’t remove the colour on stroke paint tab
c) Select no paint infill tab of the fill and stroke window
d) Select no paint in stroke paint tab of the fill and stroke window
Answer:
c & d

Question 47.
What specialities you can see in Inkscape software
a) Facility to import and edit bitmap image
b) Facility to change vector image to raster
c) Cannot import bitmap images
d) Cannot import raster images
Answer:
a & b

Question 48.
There are different means to remove the colour of an image in Inkscape. What are they? Select any two
a) Pressing the §Mift key and click on ‘X’ near the colour palette
b) Click on ‘X’ near the colour palette
c) No colour stroke paint tab
d) No colour on the fill tab in fill and stroke window
Answer:
b & d

Question 49.
Uses of document properties window of Inkscape software
a) To change the page size
b) Not able to change the page size
c) To give a colour to the page
d) To remove the page border, if in need
Answer:
a & d

Question 50.
Gradient tool is available in Inkscape from
a) Colour palette
b) Tool Box
c) Through object → fill & stock
d) Path → fill
Answer:
b&c

Question 51.
Using gradient tool we give 3D effects to the circle what are the points to be noted for selecting the colours to the nodes
a) Dark colour for the node inside the circle
b) Light – colour for the node near the boundary of the circle
c) Light colour for the node inside the circle
d) Dark colour for the node near the boundary of the circle
Answer:
c &d

Question 52.
The different ways to select all created images in a canvas
a) Click and drag the mouse in such a way that it covers all images
b) While pressing on the shift key and click on all images separately
c) Select using mouse
d) Seledthrough the menu
Answer:
a & b

Section – III

Question 53.
The uses of Inkscape software are following select one from each set

Set -1

a) Inkscape software cannot import bitmap images
b) Inkscape is a free software
c) It is a pirated software
d) We can draw circles, rectangles and other objects in Inkscape to images
Answer:
d) We can draw circles, rectangles and other objects in Inkscape to images

Set – II

a) To include a text in objects
b) It is not used to create a logo
c) Circles, rectangles are not able draw in Inkscape
d) It is not used to draw pictures
Answer:
a) To include a text in objects

Set – III

a) Using Inkscape we cannot give colour to stroke
b) We can arrange words or a sentence the shape of an object
c) Words not able to arrange the shape of the objects
d) We cannot draw a semicircle using Inkscape
Answer:
b) We can arrange words or a sentence the shape of an object

Set – IV

a) We can’t include a text in Inkscape
b) Not able to give colours to the objects
c) Using lights and shade we can create 3D images
d) We can’t draw a semicircle using Inkscape
Answer:
c) Using lights and shade we can create 3D images

Question 54.
The utilities of fill and stroke is given below. Select suitable one for fill and stroke

Set-I

a) Cannot change the colour of the objects
b) Able to change the objects
c) Able to change the size
d) Give and remove colours to the objects
Answer:
d) Give and remove colours to the objects

Set – II

a) Blur utility is available in this window
b) Utility forgiving radial Gradient
c) No utility forgiving radial Gradient
d) Facility to draw pictures
Answer:
b) Utility forgiving radial Gradient

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Set – III

a) Utility to give opacity
b) Not able to change the measure of opacity
c) Opacity utility is not available in Inkscape
d) Opacity utility is not in this window
Answer:
a) Utility to give opacity

Set – IV

a) Not able to change the colour of stroke
b) No stroke for an object
c) To give the colour of the stroke and related change can be done
d) Not able to give colour to stroke
Answer:
c) To give the colour of the stroke and related change can be done

Question 55.
What are the activities to perform for steam rasing from the cup tea?

Set-I

a) Type letters using create and edit text objects
b) Draw a circle using create circle tool
c) Draw a rectangle using rectangle tool
d) Draw three vertical lines above thee teacup using calligraphy brush tool
Answer:
d) Draw three vertical lines above the c teacup using calligraphy brush tool

Set – II

a) Draw three vertical lines
b) Without selecting the lines give a colour
c) Selecting all lines and give a suitable colour
d) Add letters using text tool
Answer:
c) Selecting all lines and give a suitable colour

Set – III

a) Draw using calligraphic tool
b) Using blur utility in fill and stroke change the lines to steam raising
c) Using blur utility cannot change steam raising
d) Give light and shade to the lines
Answer:
b) Using blur utility in fill and stroke change the lines to steam raising

Set – IV

a) Group the images
b) Change the images to a shape of arch
c) Ungroup the images
d) Don’t group the images
Answer:
a) Group the images

Question 56.
Select the tools in Inkscape

Set-I

a) SVG
b) Clone formatting
c) To create and edit text objects
d) Colour palette
Answer:
c) To create and edit text objects

Set – II

a) To create circles, Ellipses and Arcs
b) Autosum
c) Path
d) Formatting tool
Answer:
a) To create circles, Ellipses and Arcs

Set – III

Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The World of Designing 5
b) Pixels
c) Image size
d) ungroup
Answer:
Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The World of Designing 6

Set – VI

a.
Kerala SSLC IT Theory Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The World of Designing 7
b) Calligraphic tool
c) Group
d) Lower
Answer:
b) Calligraphic tool

HSSLive.Guru

Question 60.
Select one correct statement related to the Inkscape software and make a short note

Set-I

a) It is a free software
b) It is a proprietary software
c) No freedom to change it
d) No suitable to create images
Answer:
a) Itis a fpee software

Set -II

a) It is used to get SVG vector images
b) Used to get raster images
c) No freedom to change it
d) No suitable edit pictures
Answer:
a) It is used to get SVG vector images

Set – III

a) Only to import bitmap images
b) Cannot edit or import PNG images
c) Facility to edit and import bitmap images
d) Cannot edit and import bitmap images
Answer:
c) Facility to edit and import bitmap images

Set – IV

a) Cannot change vector images to raster
b) Not able to create vector and raster images
c) Can change to Gimp images
d) Change vector images to raster
Answer:
d) Change vector images to raster

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Internal Trade

You can Download Internal Trade Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 10 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Internal Trade

1 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
…….. is a trade that takes place between the people of the same nation.
Answer:
Internal trade (Home trade).

Question 2.
Buying goods in larger quantities from producers and selling them in smaller quantities to retailers is called.
Answer:
Wholesale trade.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 3.
……… is the last link in the channel of distribution of goods and services.
Answer:
Retailers.

Question 4.
…….. have close contact with consumers.
Answer:
Retailers.

Question 5.
…….. traders do not have a fixed place of business.
Answer:
Itinerant traders.

Question 6.
…….. carry goods on wheeled carts or on bicycles.
Answer:
Hawkers.

Question 7.
……. carry the products on the head or in baskets or shoulder bags.
Answer:
Pedlars.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 8.
Identify the following types of retailers and state two features for each type.
(a) Mohan sells fish on his bicycle.
(b) Anand sells toys, plastic, utensils, etc. in front of a shop on Sundays.
(c) Rajan sells old film magazines and other periodicals in pavements near a railway station.
Answer:

  1. Hawkers
  2. Market traders
  3. Street traders

Question 9.
Identify the middleman – Manufacturer ………..?………… Retailer
Answer:
Wholesaler

Question 10.
Name the type of business.
Answer:
Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Internal Trade 1
Hawkers

Question 11.
Wholesaler acts as a link between the manufacturer and …………….
Answer:
Retailers

Question 12.
Trade between Bangalore and Bombay is an example of …………… trade
(a) foreign trade
(b) home trade
(c) wholesale trade.
Answer:
(b) Home trade.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 13.
Identify the types of retailing business.
(a) Stores dealing with a particular line of goods like books, toys, etc.
(b) Stores dealing with a variety of goods of a particular brand.
(c) Stores dealing with a variety of goods of daily use.
(d) Selling goods on the pavement of a city.
(e) Stores selling used books or garments at a cheaper price.
Answer:

  1. Single line store
  2. Specialty store
  3. General store or variety store
  4. Itinerant retailing
  5. Secondhand goods shop

Question 14.
Name the method of distribution in the following cases:
(a) The manufacturer approaches the customers directly.
(b) The marketing representative calls the customs over the telephone.
(c) Sale of goods and services by using the internet.
(d) Sale of goods through machines without any human intervention.
Answer:

  1. Direct marketing
  2. Telemarketing
  3. Internet Marketing
  4. Automatic vending machine

HSSLive.Guru

Question 15.
The shops which are owned by the same proprietor and located in different parts of the city or country are known as:
(a) Departmental store
(b) Super bazar
(c) Multiple shops
(d) Mail-order business
Answer:
(c) Multiple shops.

Question 16.
Which of the following is not an advantage of mail-order business?
(a) It required less capital.
(b) There is no risk of bad debts.
(c) It is not suitable for illiterates.
(d) Home delivery of goods is possible.
Answer:
(c)It is not suitable for illiterates.

Question 17.
It is a large scale retail organisation consisting of many departments each dealing in one item. Identify the type of organisation mentioned here.
Answer:
Departmental undertakings.

Question 18.
Find the odd one? Hawkers, cheap tacks, multiple shops, Street Traders.
Answer:
multiple shop.

Question 19.
“Absence of Salesman is one of the most important features of this shop”. Identify the shop and state it features.
Answer:
Supermarket.

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Question 20.
“Post office is the channel through which a type of business is conducted”. Identify the business.
Answer:
Mail order business

Question 21.
Multiple shops are also known as ……………
Answer:
Chain stores.

Question 22.
Bata Shoe Company is an example of …………..
Answer:
Chain stores.

Question 23.
Supermarkets are also known as …………
Answer:
Self Service store

Question 24.
Bulky and perishable goods are not suitable for …………..
Answer:
Mail Order business.

Question 25.
Mail-order business is also known as …………….
Answer:
Shopping by post.

Question 26.
VPP means ……………..
Answer:
Value Payable Post.

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Question 27.
“This is an agreement between the parent company and owner of an individual business unit”. Identify the category of retailers from the statement.
Answer:
Franchise.

2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Only the retailers know the pulse of the market” Do you agree? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Retailers have direct contact with consumers. So they can know the tastes and preferences of consumers. So a retailer occupies an important position in the distribution system.

Question 2.
a) Identify the following types of retailers.
b) State two features of such types of retailers.

  1. Chandran is a street fruit seller.
  2. Samuel sells vegetables in a wheeled cart.
  3. Amar sells mangoes on Sundays at a weekly market.
  4. Muneer sells goods by frequently changing the shop.

Answer:
a) Street traders
Features of street traders

  1. These traders display their articles on busy streets, bus stand, railway stations, etc.
  2. They sell low priced articles like pens, books, magazines, handkerchiefs, etc.

b) Hawkers
Features of Hawkers

  1. Hawkers are traders who carry their products in wheeled carts or bicycles.
  2. They deal with cheap and light articles like vegetables, fruits, toys, sweets, etc.

c) Market traders
Features of Market traders

  1. These traders sell their articles on fixed days in different places.
  2. They sell all kinds of goods like vegetables, ready-made garments, stationery, etc.

d) Cheap jacks
Features of Cheap jacks

  1. They do not stick to a particular place of business.
  2. They hire small shops located in residential areas and sell consumer items like fruits, vegetables, etc.

3 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following features under two heads departmental stores and multiple shops.
(a) Each shop deals with the same type of goods.
(b) A wide variety of products is available under one roof.
(c) There is uniformity in the shop’s design and layout.
(d) It aims at the elimination of middlemen.
(e) The products are arranged in separate departments.
(f) It deals in one or two lines of products.
Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Internal Trade 2
4 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“These traders have no fixed place of business, but deal in articles of small value having high mobility”. Identify the category of traders and explain two types of such traders.
Itinerant traders.
a) Hawkers and Pedlars:
They deal in light and cheap consumer goods of regular use. Hawkers are traders who carry their products in wheeled carts or bicycles. But pedlars carry their products on their back or head or in shoulder bags. They deal in vegetables, fruits, sweets, toys, etc.

b) Market Traders:
These traders sell their articles on fixed days in different places. They sell all kinds of goods like vegetables, ready-made garments, stationery, etc.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 2.
“Such traders do not have fixed place of business”. Identify the type of retailers. Also, explain types of such retailers.
Answer:
Itinerant Retailers:
The retailers who do not have a fixed place of business to operate from are called itinerant retailers. They have to move from one place to another along with their goods in search of consumers.

Characteristics of itinerant retailers.

  1. They are small traders having limited resources.
  2. They generally deal with consumer products of daily use.
  3. They emphasize on providing greater customer services.
  4. They do not have any fixed place to operate from.

Types of itinerant retailers

1. Peddlers and hawkers:
They can the products on a bicycle, a hand cart, a cycle-rickshaw or on their heads, and move from place to place to sell their products at the doorstep of the customers. They generally deal with non-standardised and low- value products such as toys, vegetables, fruits, etc.

2. Market traders:
They are the small retailer who open their shops at different places and sell the goods on fixed days such as every Saturday or Tuesday. These trader deals in a single line of goods such as toys, ready-made garment crockery, etc.

3. Street traders:
These traders display their articles on busy streets, bus stand, railway stations, etc. They sell low priced articles like pens, books, magazines, handkerchiefs, etc. They do not change their place of business frequently.

4. Cheap jacks:
They are small retailers who have independent shops of a temporary nature in a business locality. They keep on changing their business from one locality to another but not very frequently. They deal with consumer items such as repair of watches, shoes, buckets, etc.

2. Fixed Shop Retailers:
Retailers who maintain permanent establishment to sell their goods are called fixed shop retailers. Following are the main characteristics of fixed shop retailers:

  1. They have greater resources and operate on a relatively large scale.
  2. They deal in durable as well as non-durable goods.
  3. They provide greater services to the customers such as home delivery, repairs, credit facilities, etc.

Types of Fixed Shop Retailers
The fixed-shop retailers can be classified into two. They are:
(a) Small shop-keepers
(b) Large retailers

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Question 3.
Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Internal Trade 3
Answer:
Wholesaler
Functions of wholesalers :
(a) Wholesalers purchase, goods in large quantity from manufactures and sells them to retailers in small quantities.
(b) They store goods in their own warehouses
(c) They provide financial assistance to producers and retailers
(d) They make arrangements for the transportation of goods to the retailer’s shop
(e) They maintain a regular supply of goods. It stabilized the price.
(f) They give valuable information to producers and retailers regarding the product and market.

Question 4.
Explain the role of the Chamber of Commerce and Industry in the promotion of internal trade.
Answer:
Role of Chambers of Commerce and Industry in Promotion of Internal Trade.

Association of business and industrial houses are formed to promote and protect their common interest and goals. They undertake the following functions.

  1. The chamber of commerce and Industry help in the inter-state movement of goods through various activities.
  2. They ensure that the imposition of octroi and other local taxes do not affect trade adversely.
  3. They also undertake marketing of agro products and related issues.
  4. They interact with the Government to make laws relating to weights and measures and protection of brands.
  5. They discuss with the government to get sound infrastructure so that business activities could be undertaken easily.

6 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A commerce teacher, while going through the topic, internal trade, cites the example of Bata shoe company, having its headquarters in Bombay has its showrooms at different locations of the city as well as various cities all over India. The products of the company carry the same price in all these showrooms.
b) Explain the features of these types of shops.
Answer:
Chain Stores or Multiple Shops
Multiple shop is a system of branch shops operated under centralised management and dealing in a similar line of goods. Branches are located throughout the nation.

Features of multiple shops

  1. It deals in one or two lines of products.
  2. All branches are dealing in similar goods
  3. It has centralized management and a unified system of control
  4. It eliminates middlemen.
  5. It works on cash and carry the principle
  6. It has centralized buying and decentralized selling.
  7. There is uniformity in operation in all branches.
  8. It deals with goods of daily use and durables.

Advantages

  1. It enjoys economies of bulk purchase because the goods for all branches are purchased by head office.
  2. There is no risk of bad debts because all sales are on a cash basis.
  3. The advertisements for all branches are done by the head office. So there is an economy in the advertisement.
  4. Multiple shops are located in towns and cities. They attract a large number of customers.
  5. All branches of multiple shops are uniform in style, design, and display of goods.
  6. All the branches sell quality goods at uniform prices. It creates public confidence.
  7. The economy in large scale buying, centralized management, etc. reduces the cost of operations.
  8. Products having no demand in one branch can be transferred to another branch. It reduces business risk.
  9. Multiple shops enjoy the benefits of quick turn over because of countrywide location.

Limitations

  1. The multiple shops deal only in a limited range of products. So consumers have very little choice.
  2. They will not provide any credit facilities to consumers.
  3. There is a lack of personal touch between the company and consumers because branches are managed by salaried managers.
  4. The branch manager is only a salaried employee. He has no initiative to increase profits.
  5. As these shops deal in a limited line of goods, a fall in demand will affect the business.

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Question 2.
Alexander wants to deal with a particular commodity alone. He wants to have branches all over the country. Explain to him the suitable type of selling and also state its merits.
Answer:
Chain Stores or Multiple Shops
Multiple shop is a system of branch shops operated under centralised management and dealing in a similar line of goods. Branches are located throughout the nation.

Features of multiple shops

  1. It deals in one or two lines of products.
  2. All branches are dealing in similar goods
  3. It has centralized management and a unified system of control
  4. It eliminates middlemen.
  5. It works on cash and carry the principle
  6. It has centralized buying and decentralized selling.
  7. There is uniformity in operation in all branches.
  8. It deals with goods of daily use and durables.

Advantages

  1. It enjoys economies of bulk purchase because the goods for all branches are purchased by head office.
  2. There is no risk of bad debts because all sales are on a cash basis.
  3. The advertisements for all branches are done by the head office. So there is an economy in the advertisement.
  4. Multiple shops are located in towns and cities. They attract a large number of customers.
  5. All branches of multiple shops are uniform in style, design, and display of goods.
  6. All the branches sell quality goods at uniform prices. It creates public confidence.
  7. The economy in large scale buying, centralized management, etc. reduces the cost of operations.
  8. Products having no demand in one branch can be transferred to another branch. It reduces business risk.
  9. Multiple shops enjoy the benefits of quick turn over because of countrywide location.

Limitations

  1. The multiple shops deal only in a limited range of products. So consumers have very little choice.
  2. They will not provide any credit facilities to consumers.
  3. There is a lack of personal touch between the company and consumers because branches are managed by salaried managers.
  4. The branch manager is only a salaried employee. He has no initiative to increase profits.
  5. As these shops deal in a limited line of goods, a fall in demand will affect the business.

Question 3.
“Post office is the channel through which a type of business is conducted”.
(a) Identify the business. Explain.
(b) State its features, advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Mail Order Houses/shopping by Post

Mail-order business is a form of retailing where the business transactions are done through post or mail. Under this system orders for goods, delivery of goods and payment is made through VPP (Value Payable Post). Under this arrangement, the goods are delivered to the customers only on making full payment for the same. There is generally no direct personal contact between the buyers and the sellers in this type of trading.

This type of business is suitable for products that can be:

  1. graded and standardised,
  2. easily transported at low cost,
  3. have ready demand in the market,
  4. are available in large quantity throughout the year,
  5. involve the least possible competition in the market.
  6. can be described through pictures.

Bulky, heavy and perishable products are not suitable for this type of business.

Advantages

  1. It needs only limited capital because there is no need for building and other infrastructural facilities.
  2. Unnecessary middlemen between the buyers and sellers are eliminated.
  3. Since the mail-order houses do not extend credit facilities to the customers, there are no chances of any bad debt.
  4. Under this system, goods are delivered at the doorstep of the customers. This results in great convenience to the customers.
  5. There is a wider scope for business.
  6. It helps to avoid overstocking of goods as goods are collected only when the orders are received.

Disadvantages

  1. It has to spend a large amount of advertisement.
  2. There is no direct personal contact between the buyer and the seller.
  3. The buyer cannot inspect the goods personally before purchasing.
  4. They are not suitable for heavy and perishable goods.
  5. They do not provide credit facilities to customers.
  6. There may be a delay in getting goods.

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Question. 4
Distinguish between Wholesalers and Retailers.
Answer:
Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Internal Trade 4

Types of Retail Trade
Retail trade can be classified into the following two categories on the basis of whether or not they have a fixed place of business.
1. Itinerant Retailers
2.Fixed shop Retailers

Question 5.
Draw a chart showing the types of Retail Trade.
Answer:
Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Internal Trade 5
8 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Raja Agencies of Trivandrum buys Honey Biscuits from a company located in Tamil Nadu and supply it to various shops in the district.
(a) You are required to trace out the nature of trade engaged in by the Raja Agencies.
(b) Discuss the various functions performed by them?
Answer:
Wholesale Trade:
Wholesale trade means buying goods in large quantities from the producers and selling them in smaller quantities to the retailers. Wholesalers act as an important link between manufacturers and retailers.

Functions of Wholesaler
1. Buying and assembling:
The wholesalers buy goods from different producers and keep them in a central place.

2. Warehousing:
The goods are to be kept in the I warehouses till they are sold to retailers.

3. Grading and packing:
The goods purchased are sorted out on the basis of quality and size. This is called grading. After grading they are packed in attractive packages.

4. Pricing:
The wholesaler fixes the price of products.

5. Transportation:
The wholesalers move the goods from the production centre to the retail shop.

6. Risk bearing:
They assume the risk like change in demand, spoilage, theft during transportation, etc.

7. Financing:
Wholesalers purchase goods on a cash basis from manufacturers and sell them to the retailers on a credit basis.

8. Market information:
Wholesalers collect various market information for the benefits of manufacturers so that they can change the products accordingly.

Services of Wholesalers to Manufacturers
1. Facilitating large scale production:
As the wholesalers place bulk orders, the producers are able to undertake production on a large scale and take advantage of economies of scale.

2. Risk bearing:
Wholesaler deals in goods in their own name and bears a variety of risks such as the risk of falls in prices, theft, pilferage spoilage, fire, etc.

3. Financial assistance:
Wholesalers provide financial assistance to the manufacturers by making cash payment for the purchased goods.

4. Expert advice:
Wholesaler provides various useful information regarding customer preference, market conditions, etc to the manufacturer.

5. Help in marketing function:
As the wholesalers place bulk orders, it relieves the producer from many marketing activities and he can concentrate on production.

6. Storage facilities:
Wholesalers hold the goods in their own warehouses. It reduces the burden of storage of goods by the manufacturers.

7. Facilitate production continuity:
The wholesalers facilitate continuity of production activity throughout the year by purchasing the goods as and when these are produced.

Services of Wholesalers to Retailers
1. Availability of goods:
The wholesalers make the products of various manufacturers readily available to the retailers.

2. Marketing support:
They undertake advertisements and other sales promotional activities to induce customers to purchase the goods.

3. Grant of credit:
The wholesalers generally provide credit facilities to the retailers.

4. Specialised knowledge:
Wholesalers know the pulse of the market. They inform the retailers about the new products, their uses, quality, prices, etc.

5. Risk sharing:
Wholesalers sell goods to retailers in small quantities and thus retailers do not face the risk of storage, pilferage, reduction in prices, etc.

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Question 2.
Explain the functions of Retailers.
Answer:
Retail Trade
Buying goods in large quantities from the wholesalers and selling them in small quantities to the ultimate consumers is known as retail trade. Retailers serve as an important link between the producers and consumers in the distribution of products and services.

Functions of Retailers

  1. A retailer collects different varieties of goods. So he can satisfy different types of customers.
  2. A retailer provides market information to wholesalers and manufacturers.
  3. A retailer is in close contact with consumers. So he can persuade the consumers to buy the product.
  4. Retailers locate their business in residential areas. It helps the consumers to purchase the product easily.
  5. The retailers provide credit facilities to the consumers.
  6. Retailers provide after-sales services to attract consumers.

Services of Retailers to Manufacturers and Wholesalers

  1. Retailers help manufacturers & wholesalers in the distribution of their goods & services to the ultimate consumers.
  2. Retailers undertake personal selling efforts and thus, help manufacturers and wholesalers to increase the sale of the products.
  3. Retailers help manufacturers and wholesalers to operate production on a large scale by undertaking the distribution of goods.
  4. As retailers are in constant touch with customers, they can provide various market information such as the tastes, preferences, and attitudes, etc. of consumers to the producers.
  5. Retailers participate in various sales promotional activities conducted by producers and wholesalers.

Services Retailers to Consumers

  1. Retailers provide goods to consumers according to their requirements.
  2. Retailers keep large varieties of products of different manufacturers. It enables customers to select goods according to their choice.
  3. Retailers provide important information about the new products to the consumers.
  4. Retailers also provide after-sales services in the form of home delivery etc. to the customers.
  5. Retailers often supply goods on credit to the customers.
  6. Retailers keep ready stock of the products needed by the consumers.

Question 3.
Explain the services rendered by retailers to consumers.
Answer:
Retail Trade
Buying goods in large quantities from the wholesalers and selling them in small quantities to the ultimate consumers is known as retail trade. Retailers serve as an important link between the producers and consumers in the distribution of products and services.

Functions of Retailers

  1. A retailer collects different varieties of goods. So he can satisfy different types of customers.
  2. A retailer provides market information to wholesalers and manufacturers.
  3. A retailer is in close contact with consumers. So he can persuade the consumers to buy the product.
  4. Retailers locate their business in residential areas. It helps the consumers to purchase the product easily.
  5. The retailers provide credit facilities to the consumers.
  6. Retailers provide after-sales services to attract consumers.

Services of Retailers to Manufacturers and Wholesalers

  1. Retailers help manufacturers & wholesalers in the distribution of their goods & services to the ultimate consumers.
  2. Retailers undertake personal selling efforts and thus, help manufacturers and wholesalers to increase the sale of the products.
  3. Retailers help manufacturers and wholesalers to operate production on a large scale by undertaking the distribution of goods.
  4. As retailers are in constant touch with customers, they can provide various market information such as the tastes, preferences, and attitudes, etc. of consumers to the producers.
  5. Retailers participate in various sales promotional activities conducted by producers and wholesalers.

Services Retailers to Consumers

  1. Retailers provide goods to consumers according to their requirements.
  2. Retailers keep large varieties of products of different manufacturers. It enables customers to select goods according to their choice.
  3. Retailers provide important information about the new products to the consumers.
  4. Retailers also provide after-sales services in the form of home delivery etc. to the customers.
  5. Retailers often supply goods on credit to the customers.
  6. Retailers keep ready stock of the products needed by the consumers.

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Question 4.
Explain the features, advantages, and disadvantages of departmental stores.
Answer:
Departmental stores:
A departmental store is a large scale retail shop selling a wide variety of goods in different departments under one and management. Each department deals in a separate line of goods like stationery, books, furniture, clothing, etc. Consumers can purchase all goods from the departmental store.

Features of a departmental store

  1. It is a large scale retail organization.
  2. A number of retail shops in the same building.
  3. It offers a wide variety of products under one roof.
  4. It is located at central places of the city
  5. The products are arranged in separate departments
  6. Sales, control, and management are centralized
  7. It offers various services and facilities like free home delivery etc.

Advantages
1. Central locations:
As these stores are usually located in central places they attract a large number of customers.

2. Convenience in buying:
By offering a large variety of goods under one roof, the departmental stores provide great convenience to customers in buying almost all goods of their requirements in one place.

3. Attractive services:
A departmental store aims at providing maximum services to the customers.

4. Economy of large-scale operations:
As these stores are organised in a very large-scale, the benefits of large-scale operations are available to them.

5. Mutual advertisement:
All the departments are under one roof, so there is an economy in advertising.

6. Risk distribution:
If there is a loss in one department, it may be compensated for the profit of other departments.

7. Increased sales:
Central location, mutual advertisement, etc. will help a departmental store to increase its sales.

Limitations
1. Lack of personal attention:
Because of the large- scale operations, it is very difficult to provide adequate personal attention to the customers in these stores.

2. Inconvenient location:
As a departmental store is generally situated at a central location, it is not convenient for the consumers who reside away from town.

3. High price:
A departmental store charges a high price for the products because of high operating costs.

4. High operating cost:
As these stores give more emphasis on providing services, their operating costs tend to be high.

5. High advertisement cost:
The success and prosperity of a departmental store depends on advertisement. Therefore, it should spend a large amount on the advertisement.

6. Lack of effective control:
Departmental store works through a large number of departments. It creates so many problems.

7. High risk:
A departmental store keeps a large stock of goods. So changes in fashion, taste, price, etc will affect the profitability of the business.

Question 5.
Explain the features, advantages, and disadvantages of Consumers Co-operative store.
Answer:
Consumer Cooperative Store:
It is a retail store formed by the consumers on the basis of principles of co-operation. These stores are owned and managed by consumers. They deal all types of consumer goods.

Features of Consumers Co-operative

  1. It is a voluntary association of consumers.
  2. The liability of members is limited.
  3. Consumers can purchase quality goods at the lowest cost from these stores.
  4. Democratic control is exercised.
  5. It eliminates middlemen.

Advantages

  1. Consumers can purchase quality goods at the lowest cost from consumers’ co-operative store.
  2. There are no bad debts as goods are sold on a cash basis.
  3. Economies of large scale purchasing can be enjoyed.
  4. Less advertisement expenses are required.
  5. It restricts the monopoly and wasteful competition.

Disadvantages

  1. A consumer co-operative store can collect low capital. So they cannot start a business on a large scale.
  2. The management of a consumer co-operative store is inefficient.
  3. It lacks proper warehousing facilities.
  4. It will not attract consumers because of no credit facilities.

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Question 6.
“Absence of salesman is one of the most important features of this shop”.
a) Identify the shop. Explain
b) State its features, advantages, and disadvantages.
Answer:
Super Markets / Super Bazaar:
Supermarket is a large scale retail organisation selling a wide variety of consumer goods. The important feature of the supermarket is the absence of a salesman to help consumers in selecting goods. Hence the supermarket is also called ‘ Self Service Store’.

Features of Super Market

  1. They are located in the center of the town.
  2. They sell goods on a cash basis only.
  3. They deal with a wide variety of goods.
  4. There is no salesman to help consumers.

Advantages

  1. Consumers can purchase everything from supermarket
  2. There is no bad debt as sales are on a cash basis only.
  3. They are located in the centre of the town.
  4. It attracts a large number of consumers.
  5. Consumers can select goods according to their tastes and preferences.
  6. A variety of goods is available in a supermarket.

Disadvantages

  1. Large premises at a central location are not available easily.
  2. It lacks personal advice of salesman
  3. They do not provide credit facilities to customers.
  4. The employees in a supermarket do not take initiative to increase sales.
  5. It requires a huge capital investment.
  6. It is not suitable for products which require personal selling.
  7. There is no personal contact with consumers.

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation

You can Download Forms of Business Organisation Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation

1 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The structure in which there is a separation of ownership and management is called
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) All business
Answer:
(c) Company

Question 2.
Write the name of the form of business organisation found only in India.
Answer:
Hindu Undivided Family

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Question 3.
Name the type of Co. which must have a minimum paid-up capital of 5 lacs.
Answer:
Public Company

Question 4.
…… is the oldest and popular form of business organisation.
Answer:
Sole proprietorship

Question 5.
Profits do not have to be shared. This statement refers to ………
(a) Partnership
(b) Joint Hindu family business
(c) Sole proprietorship
(d) Company
Answer:
(c) Sole proprietorship

Question 6.
Quick decision, prompt action and business secrecy are the major features of this form of business. Name it.
Answer:
Sole proprietorship.

Question 7.
Mrs.Anupama is running a bookstall in the high school junction. She is the owner, manager and labourer of her business. She gives personal attention to each and every customer and attracts more customers and earns high profits. Identify the form of organization owned and operated by Mrs Anupama
Answer:
Sole proprietorship

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Question 8.
The liability of a sole trader is ………
Answer:
Unlimited.

Question 9.
The maximum number of partners allowed in the banking business is:
(a) Twenty
(b) Ten
(c) No limit
(d) Two
Answer:
(b) Ten

Question 10.
The minimum number of partners required to form a partnership business is
(a) Twenty
(b) Ten
(c) No limit
(d) Two
Answer:
(d) Two

Question 11.
A partner whose association with the firm is unknown to the general public is called
(a) Active partner
(b) Sleeping partner
(c) Nominal partner
(d) Secret partner
Answer:
(d) Secret partner

Question 12.
Mr Isaac contributes capital to partnership business, but not takes part in business, what kind of partner he is?
Answer:
Sleeping partner

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Question 13.
Identify the type of partners in the following situation:

  1.  The liability of Sridhar, a 25 years old partner is limited to the extent of his capital contribution.
  2. Madan has neither contributed any capital nor shares the profits of the firm though he is treated as a partner.
  3. Sunita has been admitted to the benefits of the firm at the age of 15.
  4. Sudhir had contributed to capital and shares the profit and loss of the firm. But he does not take part in the day-to-day activities.
  5.  A firm declares that Sachin is a partner of their firm. Knowing the declaration Sachin did not disclaim it.

Answer:

  1. Limited partner
  2. Nominal Partner
  3.  Minor partner
  4. Sleeping Partner/dormant partner
  5. Partner by holding out.

Question 14.
M, N and P are the partnership firm. In this firm ‘P’ contributes capital and take active part in business, while ‘R’ lends only his name and reputation. What type of partners are they?
Answer:
‘P’ is an active partner, ‘R’ is a nominal partner

Question 15.
Name the partner who shares the profits of the business without being liable for the losses.
Answer:
Partner in profit only

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Question 16.
The maximum number of partners in a partnership firm except banking business is ……..
Answer:
20

Question 17.
The liability of partners in a partnership business is ………
Answer:
Unlimited

Question 18.
The written agreement of partnership is called ………..
Answer:
Partnership Deed

Question 19.
Partnership formed for the accomplishment of a particular project or for a specified time period is called ………
Answer:
Particular partnership.

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Question 20.
Registration of a partnership is ………
Answer:
Optional

Question 21.
The Head of the joint Hindu family business is called
(a) Proprietor
(b) Director
(c) Karta
(d) Manager
Answer:
(c) Karta

Question 22.
The Karta in Joint Hindu family business has
(a) Limited liability
(b) Unlimited liability
(c) No liability for debts
(d) Joint liability
Answer:
(b) Unlimited liability

Question 23.
It is not formed by an agreement or by a contract. But it comes into existence by the operation of Hindu law. Name the type of business organisation.
Answer:
Hindu Undivided Family (HUF)

Question 24.
The members of a Joint Hindu Family business is known as …….
Answer:
Co-parceners.

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Question 25.
The liability of all members in H.U.F is ……..
Answer:
Limited

Question 26.
In a Co-operative society, the principle followed is
(a) One share one vote
(b) One man one vote
(c) No vote
(d) Multiple votes
Answer:
(b) One man one vote

Question 27.
The main aim of this organization is self-help through mutual help. Identify the type of organizations.
Answer:
Co-operative Society

Question 28.
“Each for All and All for Each” is a basic motto of a form of business organization. Identify the organization.
Answer:
Co-operative society

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Question 29.
Voting right in a cooperative society is based on the principle of …………
Answer:
One man one vote

Question 30.
The minimum number of persons to form a co-operative society is ……..
Answer:
10

Question 31.
The membership of a co-operative society is ……….
Answer:
Voluntary.

Question 32.
Registration of a Co-operative society is …….
Answer:
Compulsory

Question 33.
The liability of the members of a cooperative society is ………
Answer:
Limited

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Question 34.
The capital of a company is divided into a number of parts each one of which is called …………
(a) Dividend
(b) Profit
(c) Interest
(d) Share
Answer:
(d) Share

Question 35.
Name the following in reference to a joint-stock company

  1. The smallest unit into which the capital of the company is divided.
  2. The Act that governs the joint-stock companies in India.
  3. The sum total of the money contributed by the members of a joint-stock company.
  4. The official signature of a joint-stock company.
  5. The elected representatives of the members who manage the day to day affairs of the joint-stock company.

Answer:

  1. Share
  2. Companies Act 1956
  3. Share capital
  4. Common seal
  5. Directors

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2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Compare the status of a minor in a Joint Hindu Family Business with that in a partnership.
Answer:
The basis of membership in the HUF business is birth in the family. Hence, minors can also be members of the business. His liability is limited. In a partnership firm, a minor can be admitted to the benefits of a partnership firm with the mutual consent of all other partners. In such cases, his liability will be limited to the extent of the capital contributed by him.

Question 2.
Sunny Joseph wants to start a private business. Tell him the different forms in which a private business can be organized.
Answer:
There are five forms of business enterprises in the private sector.They are:

  1. Sole proprietorship
  2. Joint Hindu Family Business
  3. Partnership
  4. Joint Stock Company
  5. Co-operative Society

Question 3.
Name the form of business organisation where membership is acquired by birth. Explain any two features of such an organisation.
Answer:

  1. Joint Hindu Family Business
  2. Joint Hindu Family Business (HUF)

It refers to a form of organisation were in the business is owned and carried on by the members of a joint Hindu family. It is also known as Hindu Undivided Family Business (H.U.F). It is governed by the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. It is found only in India. The business is controlled by the head of the family who is the eldest member and is called Karta. All members have equal ownership right over the property of an ancestor and they are known as co-parceners.

Features

1. Formation:
For a Joint Hindu family business, there should be at least two members in the family and some ancestral property to be inherited by them.

2. Membership:
Membership by virtue of birth in the family.

3. Liability:
The Karta has unlimited liability. Every other coparcener has a limited liability up to his share in the HUF property.

4. Control:
The control of the family business lies with the Karta. He takes all the decisions and is authorised to manage the business.

5. Continuity:
The business is not affected by the death of the Karta as in such cases the next senior male member becomes the Karta.

6. Minor Members:
The basis of membership in the business is birth in the family. Hence, minors can also be members of the business.

Merits

1. Effective control:
The Karta has absolute decision making power. This avoids conflicts among members.

2. Continuity of business:
The death of the Karta will not affect the business as the next eldest member will then take up the position.

3. Limited liability of members:
The liability of all the co-parceners except the Karta is limited to their share in the business.

4. Increased loyalty:
Members are likely to work with dedication, loyalty and care because the work involves the family name.

Limitation

1. Limited capital:
The capital of HUF is limited since the ancestral property only can be used for the business. This reduces the scope for business growth.

2. Unlimited liability:
The liability of Karta is unlimited. His personal property can be used to repay business debts.

3. Dominance of Karta:
There is a possibility of differences of opinion among the members of the Joint Family. It may affect the stability of the business.

4. Limited managerial skills:
The Karta may not be an expert in all areas of management. It may affect the profitability of the business.

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Question 4.
What is a Private Company?
Answer:
Private Company:-
A private company means a company which:

  1. restricts the right of members to transfer its shares
  2. has a minimum of 2 and a maximum of 50 members
  3. does not invite public to subscribe to its share capital
  4. must have a minimum paid-up capital of Rs.1 lakh It is necessary for a private company to use the word private limited after its name.

Question 5.
What is Public Company?
Answer:
Public Company
A public company means a company which is not a private company. As per the Indian Companies Act, a public company is one which:

  1. has a minimum paid-up capital of Rs. 5 lakhs
  2. has a minimum of 7 members and no limit on maximum members
  3. can transfer its shares
  4. can invite the public to subscribe to its shares. A private company which is a subsidiary of a public company is also treated as a public company. A public company must use the word limited after its name.

3 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Tristar Traders’ is a real estate partnership firm having partners viz. Haridas, Balakrishnan and Venny. They are equal partners. Due to ill health, Mr.Balakrishnan wants to retire from the business and he asks other partners to admit his 17-year-old son Mr.Renjith into partnership. Mr.Haridas and Mr.Venny agree to admit Mr.Renjith into the partnership.

  1. Is it possible to admit Mr.Renjith into the partnership? Substantiate.
  2. What type of partner is Renjith?

Answer:

  1. Yes. It is possible to admit Renjith into partnership with the consent of all other partners.
  2. Minor partner.

Question 2.
Explain the status of a minor in a partnership firm.
Answer:
A minor can be admitted to the benefits of a partnership firm with the mutual consent of all. other partners. In such cases, his liability will be limited to the extent of the capital contributed by him in the firm. He will not be eligible to take an active part in the management of the firm. A minor can share only the profits. He can inspect the accounts of the firm.

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Question 3.
Mr. Unnikrishnan, a senior member, who looks after the family business, convened a meeting of the family members. He told that the firm is unable to pay its debts. So the personal property of all members must be made available for repaying the debts. All the members disagreed with the suggestion. As a commerce student what will be your opinion?
Answer:
The HUF business is governed by the law of succession. Here Mr. Unnikrishnan, a senior male member of the family runs the business. He is called Karta. The liability of the Karta is unlimited. But the liability of all other co-partners is limited. Only the personal property of the Karta can be used for the payment of business debts.

Question 4.
Distinguish between Private limited company and Public limited company.
Answer:
Difference between a public company and private company

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation 1

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4 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr.Jayan, still an unemployed youth, after two years of his post-graduation, decided to start a restaurant. In order to meet the capital requirements, he seeks his father’s help. His father agreed to give sufficient capital but asks him what prompted him to start this sort of a business. Jayan explains the essential factors he has considered for starting the restaurant.

  1. Identify the business.
  2. Explain the merits of the proposed business.

Answer:

  1. Sole Proprietorship
  2. Advantages of Sole Proprietorship

Sole proprietorship:
Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organization which is owned, managed and controlled by an individual who is the recipient of all profits and bearer of all risks. It is the most common form of business organization.

Features

  1. The sole trader is the single owner and manager of the business.
  2. The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.
  3. The liability of a sole trader is unlimited, i.e. in case of loss, his personal properties can be used to pay the business liabilities.
  4. The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the sole proprietor. If there is any loss it is also to be borne by the sole proprietor alone.
  5. The sole trader has full control over the affairs of the business. So he can take quick decisions.
  6. A sole trading concern has no legal existence separate from its owner.
  7. The death, insolvency etc. of a sole trader causes discontinuity of business.

Merits
1. Easy formation:-
The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.

2. Quick Decision:
The sole trader has full control over the affairs of the business. So he can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters.

3. Motivation:
The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the sole proprietor. It motivates him to work hard.

4. Secrecy:
A sole trader can keep all the information related to business operations and he is not bound to publish the firm’s accounts.

5. Close Personal Relation :
The sole proprietor can maintain good personal contact with the customers and employees and thus, business runs smoothly.

Limitations
1. Limited capital:
A sole trader can start business only on a small scale because of limited capital.

2. Lack of Continuity:
Death, insolvency or illness of a proprietor affects the business and can lead to its closure.

3. Limited managerial ability:
A sole proprietor may not be an expert in every aspect of management.

4. Unlimited liability:
The liability of a sole trader is unlimited, i.e. in case of loss, his personal properties can be used to pay off the business liabilities.

5. Suitability:
Sole proprietorship is suitable in the following cases.

  • Where the market is limited, localized and customers demand personalized services. Eg. tailoring, beauty parlour etc.
  • Where goods are unstandardised like artistic jewellery.
  • Where lower capital, limited risk & limited managerial skills are required as in case of retail store.

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Question 2.
I am on the look for a few persons who are ready to invest both their skills and money because I believe collective efforts are more fruitful and least bothered about the extent of liability.

(a) What type of business organization is suitable for me?

(b) Explain the procedure in the formation of this business.

Answer:

(a) Partnership

(b) Registration of partnership

According to Indian Partnership Act 1932, registration of a partnership is not compulsory, it is optional. However, they can register with the Registrar of firms of the state in which the firm is situated.

Procedure for Registration:
1. Submission of application in the prescribed form to the Registrar of firms. The application should contain the following particulars:

  • Name of the firm
  • Location of the firm
  • Names of other places where the firm carries on business
  • The date when each partner joined the firm
  • Names and addresses of the partners
  • Duration of partnership.

This application should be signed by all the partners.
2. Deposit of required fees with the Registrar of Firms.

3. The Registrar after approval will make an entry in the register of firms and will subsequently issue a certificate of registration.

The consequences of non-registration of a firm are as follows : –

  1. A partner of an unregistered firm cannot file suit against the firm or other partner.
  2. The firm cannot file a suit against the third party.
  3. The firm cannot file a case against its partner.

Question 3.
Certain companies cannot issue an invitation to the public to subscribe to its shares. The maximum shareholders of the company is limited to 50. The transfer of shares of the company is restricted.

(a) Identify the type of company.

(b) Explain the privileges enjoyed by these types of companies.

Answer:
(a) Private Company

(b) Privileges of a private company

  1. A private company can be formed by only two members.
  2. There is no need to issue a prospectus
  3. Allotment of shares can be done without receiving the minimum subscription.
  4. A private company can start business as soon . as it receives the certificate of incorporation.
  5. A private company needs to have only two directors.
  6. A private company is not required to keep an index of members.
  7. There is no restriction on the amount of loans to directors in a private company.

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5 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Arun, Nisha and Lekshmi, entered into an agreement for starting a supermarket – ‘Mythri’. The other terms and conditions of the business were. mentioned in their deed. While having an official meeting of the partners, Nisha and Lekshmi suggested that the firm should be registered. But Arun contented that, it is not essential to register Mythri. The other two partners disagreed with Arun and maintained that it is essential because they don’t want to bear the consequences. As an expert in this topic,
(a) Whom do you favour? Specify your reasons in support of your judgement.

(b) In your opinion, is there any consequences, if Mythri is not registered. Explain.

Answer:
a) Arun. It is not compulsory to register a partnership firm,

(b) Registration of partnership
According to Indian Partnership Act 1932, registration of a partnership is not compulsory, it is optional. However, they can register with the Registrar of firms of the state in which the firm is situated.

Procedure for Registration:

1. Submission of application in the prescribed form to the Registrar of firms. The application should contain the following particulars:

  • Name of the firm
  • Location of the firm
  • Names of other places where the firm carries on business
  • The date when each partner joined the firm
  • Names and addresses of the partners
  • Duration of partnership.

This application should be signed by all the partners.
2. Deposit of required fees with the Registrar of Firms.

3. The Registrar after approval will make an entry in the register of firms and will subsequently issue a certificate of registration.

The consequences of non-registration of a firm are as follows : –

  1. A partner of an unregistered firm cannot file suit against the firm or other partner.
  2. The firm cannot file a suit against the third party.
  3. The firm cannot file a case against its partner.

Question 2.
Name the following in reference to a joint-stock company.

  1. The smallest unit into which the capital of the company is divided.
  2. The Act that governs the joint-stock companies in India.
  3. The sum total of the money contributed by the members of a joint-stock company.
  4. The official signature of a joint-stock company.
  5. The elected representatives of the members who manage the day to day affairs of the joint-stock company.

Answer:

  1. Share
  2. Companies Act 1956
  3. Share capital
  4. Common seal
  5. Directors

6 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between Joint Stock Company and Partnership.
Answer:

Partnership FirmJoint Stock Company
1. Formed by an agreementFormed by registration
2. Governed by Partnership Act 1932Governed by the Companies Act 1956
3. Registration is optionalRegistration is compulsory
4. It has no separate legal existenceIt has separate legal existence
5. It does not possess continuous existenceIt has perpetual existence
6. Minimum number of persons required is twoMinimum number of persons required is seven (2 in Private company)
7. The liability of partners is unlimitedThe liability of shareholders is limited
8. All partners can take part in the managementAll shareholders cannot take part in the management

Partnership Firm Joint Stock Company
1. Formed by an agreement Formed by registration
2. Governed by Partnership Act 1932 Governed by the Companies Act 1956
3. Registration is optional Registration is compulsory
4. It has no separate legal existence It has separate legal existence
5. It does not possess continuous existence It has perpetual existence
6. Minimum number of persons required is two Minimum number of persons required is seven (2 in Private company)
7. The liability of partners is unlimited The liability of shareholders is limited
8. All partners can take part in the management All shareholders cannot take part in the management

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Question 2.
Discuss the factors that determine the choice of form of organisation.
Answer:
Choice of business organisation
The important factors determining the choice of organization are:-

1. Cost and Ease of formation:-
From the point of view of cost, sole proprietorship is the preferred form as it involves least expenditure and the legal requirements are minimum. Company form of organisation is more complex and involves greater costs.

2. Liability:-
In case of sole proprietorship and partnership firms, the liability of the owners/ partners is unlimited. In cooperative societies and companies, the liability is limited. Hence, from the point of view of investors, the company form of organisation is more suitable as the risk involved is limited.

3. Continuity:
The continuity of sole proprietorship and partnership firms is affected by death, insolvency or insanity of the owners. However, such factors do not affect the continuity of cooperative societies and companies. In case the business needs a permanent structure, company form is more suitable.

4. Management ability:
If the organisation’s operations are complex in nature and require professionalized management, company form of organisation is a better alternative.

5. Capital:
If the scale of operations is large, company form may be suitable whereas for medium and small-sized business one can opt for partnership or sole proprietorship.

6. Degree of control:
If direct control over business and decision making power is required, proprietorship may be preferred. But if the owners do not mind sharing control and decision making, partnership or company form of organisation can be adopted.

7. Nature of business:
If direct personal contact is needed with the customers, Sole proprietorship may be more suitable. Otherwise, the company form of organisation may be adopted.

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8 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar report on the merits of the Joint Stock Company form of business.
Answer:
Joint Stock company
A company may be defined as a voluntary association of persons having a separate legal entity, with perpetual succession and a common seal. It is an artificial person created by law. The companies in India are governed by the Indian. Companies Act, 1956.

The capital of the company is divided into smaller parts called ‘shares’ which can be transferred freely, (except in a private company). The shareholders are the owners of the company. The company is managed by Board of Directors, elected by shareholders.

Features
1. Incorporated association:
A company is an incorporated association, i.e. Registration of a company is compulsory under the Indian Companies Act, 1956.

2. Separate legal entity:-
A company is an artificial person created by law. Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members. It can enter into contracts, own property, sue and be sued, borrow and lend money etc.

3. Formation:-
The formation of a company is a time consuming, expensive and complicated process.

4. Perpetual succession:-
A company has a continuous existence. Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders. Members may come and go, but the company continues to exist.

5. Control:-
The management and control of the affairs of the company is in the hands of Board of directors who are elected the representatives of the shareholders.

6. Liability:-
The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of shares held by them.

7. Common seal:
The Company being an artificial person acts through its Board of Directors. All documents issued by the company must be authenticated by the company seal.

8. Transferability of shares:-
Shares of a joint-stock company are freely transferable except in case of a private company.

Merits

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation 2
1. Limited liability:- The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of shares held by them. This reduces the degree of risk borne by an investor.
2. Transferability of shares:- Shares of a public company are freely transferable. It provides liquidity to the investor.z
3. Perpetual existence:- A company has a continuous existence. Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders.
4. Scope for expansion:- A company has large financial resources. So it can start business on a large scale.
5. Professional management: A company can afford to pay higher salaries to specialists and professionals. This leads to greater efficiency in the company’s operations.
6. Public confidence:- A company must publish its audited annual accounts. So it enjoys public confidence.

Limitations

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation 3
1. Difficulty information:-
The formation of a company is very difficult. It requires greater time, effort and extensive knowledge of legal requirements.

2. Lack of secrecy:-
It is very difficult to maintain secrecy in case of a public company, a  company is required to publish its annual accounts and reports.

3. Impersonal work:-
It is difficult for the owners and top management to maintain personal contact with the employees, customers and creditors.

4. Numerous regulations:-
The functioning of a company is subject to many legal provisions and compulsions. This reduces the freedom of operations of a company.

5 Delay in decision making:-
A company takes important decisions by holding company meetings. It requires a lot of time.

6. Oligarchic management:-
Theoretically a company is democratically managed but actually it is managed by few people, i.e board of directors. The Board of Directors enjoy considerable freedom in exercising their power which they sometimes ignore the interest of the shareholders.

7. Conflict in interests:-
There may be a conflict of interest amongst various stakeholders of a company. It affects the smooth functioning of the company.

8. Lack of motivation:-
The company is managed by a board of directors. They have little interest to protect the interest of the company.

Types of Companies
A company can be either a private or a public company.

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Question 2.
Mrs.Sheela is running a Ladies Beauty Parlour in Calicut City. She is the owner, manager and labourer of her business.
a) What form of organisation Mrs.Sheela owns.

b) State its merits and demerits.
Answer:
a) Sole Proprietorship

(b) Sole proprietorship:
Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organization which is owned, managed and controlled by an individual who is the recipient of all profits and bearer of all risks. It is the most common form of business organization.

Features

  1. The sole trader is the single owner and manager of the business.
  2. The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.
  3. The liability of a sole trader is unlimited, i.e. in case of loss, his personal properties can be used to pay the business liabilities.
  4. The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the sole proprietor. If there is any loss it is also to be borne by the sole proprietor alone.
  5. The sole trader has full control over the affairs of the business. So he can take quick decisions.
  6. A sole trading concern has no legal existence separate from its owner.
  7. The death, insolvency etc. of a sole trader causes discontinuity of business.

Merits

1. Easy formation:-
The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.

2. Quick Decision:
The sole trader has full control over the affairs of the business. So he can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters.

3. Motivation:
The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the sole proprietor. It motivates him to work hard.

4. Secrecy:
A sole trader can keep all the information related to business operations and he is not bound to publish the firm’s accounts.

5. Close Personal Relation :
The sole proprietor can maintain good personal contact with the customers and employees and thus, business runs smoothly.

Limitations
1. Limited capital:
A sole trader can start business only on a small scale because of limited capital.

2. Lack of Continuity:
Death, insolvency or illness of a proprietor affects the business and can lead to its closure.

3. Limited managerial ability:
A sole proprietor may not be an expert in every aspect of management.

4. Unlimited liability:
The liability of a sole trader is unlimited, i.e. in case of loss, his personal properties can be used to pay off the business liabilities.

5. Suitability:
Sole proprietorship is suitable in the following cases.

  • Where the market is limited, localized and customers demand personalized services. Eg. tailoring, beauty parlour etc.
  • Where goods are unstandardised like artistic jewellery.
  • Where lower capital, limited risk & limited managerial skills are required as in case of retail store.

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Question 3.
Mr.Firoz, a graduate wants to start a business but on certain conditions –

  1. He does not want to go through a lot of legal formalities.
  2. He does not care to have unlimited liability.
  3. He does not bother admitting partners in his business.
  • Considering these factors, suggest a form of business suitable to Mr.Firoz.
  • Explain its merits and demerits.

Answer:

  1. Partnership
  2. Partnership
    The Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines partnership as “the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profit of the business carried on by all or any one of them acting for all.”

Features
1. Formation:-
For the formation of a partnership, agreement between partners is essential.

2. Liability:-
The partners of a firm have unlimited liability. The partners are jointly and individually liable for the payment of debts.

3. Risk bearing:
The profit or loss shall be shared among the partners equally or in agreed ratio.

4. Decision making and control:-
The activities of a partnership firm are managed through the joint efforts of all the partners.

5. Lack of Continuity:-
The retirement, death, insolvency, insanity etc of any partner brings the firm to an end.

6. Membership:-
There must be at least two persons to form a partnership. The maximum number of persons is ten in the banking business and twenty in non-banking business.

7. Mutual agency:-
In partnership, every partner is both an agent and a principal.

Merits of Partnership

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation 4

1. Easy formation and closure:-
A partnership firm can be formed and closed easily without any legal formalities.

2. Balanced decision making:-
In partnership, decisions are taken by all partners. So they can take better decisions regarding their business.

3. Division of labour:-
Division of labour is possible in partnership firm. Duties can be assigned to different partners according to their ability.

4. Large funds:-
In a partnership, the capital is contributed by a number of partners. So they can start business on a large scale.

5. Sharing of risk:-
The risks involved in running a partnership firm are shared by all the partners. This reduces the anxiety, burden and stress on individual partners.

6. Secrecy:-
A partnership firm is not legally required to publish its accounts and submit its reports. Hence it can maintain confidentiality of information relating to its operations.

Limitations of Partnership

1. Unlimited liability:-
The partners of a firm have unlimited liability. The partners are jointly and individually liable for the payment of debts.

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation 5
2. Limited resources:-
There is a restriction on the number of partners. Hence capital contributed by them is also limited.

3. Possibility of conflicts:-
Lack of mutual understanding and co-operation among partners may affect the smooth working of the partnership business.

4. Lack of continuity:-
The retirement, death, insolvency, insanity etc of any partner brings the firm to an end.

5. Lack of public confidence:-
A partnership firm is not legally required to publish its financial reports. As a result, the confidence of the public in partnership firms is generally low.

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Question 4.
“A Company is an artificial person created by law”. Based on the above statement, explain the features of a Joint Stock Company.
Answer:
Joint Stock company
A company may be defined as a voluntary association of persons having a separate legal entity, with perpetual succession and a common seal. It is an artificial person created by law. The companies in India are governed by the Indian. Companies Act, 1956.

The capital of the company is divided into smaller parts called ‘shares’ which can be transferred freely, (except in a private company). The shareholders are the owners of the company. The company is managed by Board of Directors, elected by shareholders.

Features
1. Incorporated association:
A company is an incorporated association, i.e. Registration of a company is compulsory under the Indian Companies Act, 1956.

2. Separate legal entity:-
A company is an artificial person created by law. Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members. It can enter into contracts, own property, sue and be sued, borrow and lend money etc.

3. Formation:-
The formation of a company is a time consuming, expensive and complicated process.

4. Perpetual succession:-
A company has a continuous existence. Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders. Members may come and go, but the company continues to exist.

5. Control:-
The management and control of the affairs of the company is in the hands of Board of directors who are elected the representatives of the shareholders.

6. Liability:-
The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of shares held by them.

7. Common seal:
The Company being an artificial person acts through its Board of Directors. All documents issued by the company must be authenticated by the company seal.

8. Transferability of shares:-
Shares of a joint-stock company are freely transferable except in case of a private company.

Merits

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation 6

1. Limited liability:-
The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of shares held by them. This reduces the degree of risk borne by an investor.

2. Transferability of shares:-
Shares of a public company are freely transferable. It provides liquidity to the investor.

3. Perpetual existence:-
A company has a continuous existence. Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders.

4. Scope for expansion:-
A company has large financial resources. So it can start business on a large scale.

5. Professional management:
A company can afford to pay higher salaries to specialists and professionals. This leads to greater efficiency in the company’s operations.

6. Public confidence:-
A company must publish its audited annual accounts. So it enjoys public confidence.

Limitations

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation 7
1. Difficulty information:-
The formation of a company is very difficult. It requires greater time, effort and extensive knowledge of legal requirements.

2. Lack of secrecy:-
It is very difficult to maintain secrecy in case of public company, as a company is required to publish its annual accounts and reports.

3. Impersonal work:-
It is difficult for the owners and top management to maintain personal contact with the employees, customers and creditors.

4. Numerous regulations:-
The functioning of a company is subject to many legal provisions and compulsions. This reduces the freedom of operations of a company.

5 Delay in decision making:-
A company takes important decisions by holding company meetings. It requires a lot of time.

6. Oligarchic management:-
Theoretically a company is democratically managed but actually it is managed by few people, i.e board of directors. The Board of Directors enjoy considerable freedom in exercising their power which they sometimes ignore the interest of the shareholders.

7. Conflict in interests:-
There may be a conflict of interest amongst various stakeholders of a company. It affects the smooth functioning of the company.

8. Lack of motivation:-
The company is managed by a board of directors. They have little interest to protect the interest of the company.

Types of Companies
A company can be either a private or a public company.

Question 5.
Briefly, explain different types of co-operative society.
Answer:
Types of co-operative society
1. Consumer’s cooperative societies:-
The consumer cooperative societies are formed to protect the interests of consumers. The society aims at eliminating middlemen to achieve economy in operations. It purchases goods in bulk directly from the wholesalers and sells goods to the members at the lowest price.

2. Producer’s cooperative societies:-
These societies are set up to protect the interest of small producers. It supplies raw materials, equipment and other inputs to the members and also buys their output for sale.

3. Marketing cooperative societies:-
Such societies are established to help small producers in selling their Products. It collects the output of individual members and sell them at the best possible price. Profits are distributed to members.

4. Farmer’s cooperative societies:-
These societies . are established to protect the interests of farmers by providing better inputs at a reasonable cost. Such societies provide better quality seeds, fertilisers, machinery and other modern techniques for use in the cultivation of crops.

5. Credit cooperative societies:-
Credit cooperative societies are established for providing easy credit on reasonable terms to the members. Such societies provide loans to members at low rates of interest.

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Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 International Business – I

You can Download International Business – I Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 11 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 International Business – I

1 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which of the following modes of entry, does the domestic manufacturer give the right to use intellectual property such as patent and trademark to a manufacturer in a foreign country for a fee.

a) Licensing
b) Contract manufacturing
c) Joint venture
d) None of these
Answer:
a) Licensing

Question 2.
Outsourcing a part of or entire production and concentrating on marketing operations in international business is known as
a) Licensing
b) Franchising
c) Contract manufacturing
d) Joint venture
Answer:
c) Contract manufacturing

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Question 3.
When two or more firms come together to create a new business entity that is legally separate and distinct from its parents. It is known as
Answer:
Joint venture

Question 4.
Which one of the following modes of entry requires a higher level of risks?
Answer:
Joint venture

Question 5.
Which one of the following modes of entry permits the greatest degree of control over overseas operations?
Answer:
Wholly owned subsidiary

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Question 6.
Which one of the following modes of entry brings the firm closer to international market.
Answer:
Licensing/Franchising

Question 7.
Buying and selling of goods and services between the two countries are called……….
Answer:
Foreign trade

2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 8.
Differentiate between international trade and international business.
Answer:
International trade consists of imports and exports of goods. But international business is a much broader term and is comprised of both the trade and production of goods and services across the countries.

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Question 9.
Distinguish between licensing and franchising.
Answer:
Licensing is used in connection with the production and distribution of goods. But the term franchising is used in connection with service business. Franchising is relatively more stringent than licensing.

4 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 10.
Enumerate limitations of contract manufacturing.
Answer:
Mode of Entry into International Business

1. Exporting and Importing:
When goods are sold to a foreign country, it is called export trade. When goods are purchasing from a foreign country, it is called import trade.

Advantages

  • It is the easiest way of gaining entry into international markets.
  • Business firms are not required to invest that much time and money in host countries.
  • It is less risky as compared to other modes of. entry into international business

Limitations

  • It involves additional packaging, transportation, and insurance costs.
  • Exporting is not possible in case the foreign country restricts imports.
  • The export firms do not have much contact with the foreign markets.

2. Contract Manufacturing (Outsourcing):
When a firm enters into a contract with one or a few local manufacturers in foreign countries to get certain goods produced as per its specifications it is called contract manufacturing. It is also known as outsourcing and it can take place in the following forms.

  • Production of certain components
  • Assembly of components into final products
  • Complete manufacture of the products

Advantages

  • It Permits international firms to get the goods produced on a large scale without requiring investment in setting up production facilities.
  • There is no investment risk involved in foreign countries.
  • It helps to get the products at lower cost
  • Local producers in foreign countries can ensure greater utilization of their idle production capacities.

Limitations

  • It may affect the quality of the products.
  • Local manufacturer in the foreign country loses his control over the manufacturing process because goods are produced strictly as per the terms and specifications of the contract.
  • The local firm cannot sell the contracted output as per their will.

3. Licensing and Franchising:
Licensing is a contractual arrangement in which one firm grant access to its patents, trade secrets or technology to another firm in a foreign country for a fee called royalty. The firm that grants permission is known as licensor and the firm that receives the right to use technology or patents is called the licensee.

Franchising is similar to licensing. But it is used in connection with the provision of services. The parent company is called the franchiser and the other party to the agreement is called franchisee.

Advantages

  • It is a less expensive mode of entering into international business.
  • There is no investment risk
  • Since the business in a foreign country is managed by the licensee/franchisee who is a local person, there are lower risks of business takeovers or government interventions.
  • Since licensee/franchisee is a local person, he has greater market knowledge and customer contacts. It helps the licensor/franchiser in successfully conducting its marketing operations.

Limitations

  • The licensee can start marketing an identical product under a slightly different brand name.
  • Trade secrets may lose in foreign markets.
  • Conflicts often develop between the licensor/ franchiser and licensee/franchisee over issues such as maintenance of accounts, payment of royalty, etc.

4. Joint Ventures:
Joint venture means establishing a firm that is jointly owned by two or more independent firms. It can be brought into existence in three major ways.

  • Foreign investors buying an interest in a local firm.
  • Local firms acquiring an interest in an existing foreign firm.
  • Both the foreign and local entrepreneurs jointly forming a new enterprise.

Advantages

  • Since the local partner also contributes to the equity capital, the international firm has less financial burden to expand the business globally.
  • It helps to execute large projects requiring huge capital outlays and manpower.
  • The foreign business firm benefits from local partner’s knowledge of the host countries.
  • The foreign business firm shares costs and risks with local partners. So they can enter into the foreign markets very easily and without high risk.

Limitations

  • Foreign firms entering into joint ventures share the technology and trade secrets with local firms. It leads to leakage of technology and secrets to others.
  • The dual ownership arrangement may lead to conflicts

5. Wholly Owned Subsidiaries:
The parent company (holding company) acquires full control over the foreign company by making 100% investment in its equity capital. It is called wholly-owned subsidiaries. It can be established in either of the two ways. i.e.

  • Setting up a new firm altogether to start operations in a foreign country.
  • Acquiring an existing firm in the foreign country.

Advantages

  • The parent firm is able to exercise full control over its operations in foreign countries.
  • It is not required to disclose its technology or trade secrets to others.

Limitations

  • It is not suitable for small and medium-size firms which do not have enough funds to invest abroad.
  • The parent company alone has to bear the entire losses.
  • It is subject to higher political risk.

5 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 11.
Sri. Swamynathan, a pure Gandhian, is of the view that India should never go for international trade for it results in draining out of scarce resources, dampen the domestic trade and this will lead to the complete destruction of our nation. How do you evaluate Mr. Swamynathan’s statement?
Answer:
Benefits of International Business:
The benefits of international business to the nations and business firms are:

Benefits to Nations
1. Earning of foreign exchange:
It helps a country to earn foreign exchange which can be used for importing capital goods, technology, petroleum products, and fertilisers, pharmaceutical products, etc.

2. More efficient use of resources:
External trade enables a country to utilize the available resources in the best possible manner.

3. Improving growth prospects and employment potentials:
External trade helps to accelerate the economic growth and employment opportunities of a country.

4. Increased standard of living:
Foreign trade helps in raising the standard of living of a country.

5. International relation:
External trade helps to promote harmonious and cordial relationship among the nations.

Benefits to Firms
1. Prospects for higher profits:
When the domestic prices are lower, business firms can earn more profits by selling their products in countries where prices are high.

2. Increased capacity utilisation:
It helps firms in using their surplus production capacities and improving the profitability of their operations. Large scale production helps to reduce the cost of production.

3. Prospects for growth:
It helps firms in improving their growth prospects by creating demands for their products in foreign countries.

4. Enhances competition:
External trade enhances competition, which compels the domestic firms to improve the technology of production, production process and quality of the products.

5. Improved business vision:
It improves business vision as it makes firms to grow, more competitive and diversified.

6 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 12.
Discuss briefly the factors that govern the choice of mode of entry into international business.
Answer:
Mode of Entry into International Business

1. Exporting and Importing:
When goods are sold to a foreign country, it is called export trade. When goods are purchasing from a foreign country, it is called import trade.

Advantages

  • It is the easiest way of gaining entry into international markets.
  • Business firms are not required to invest that much time and money in host countries.
  • It is less risky as compared to other modes of. entry into international business

Limitations

  • It involves additional packaging, transportation, and insurance costs.
  • Exporting is not possible in case the foreign country restricts imports.
  • The export firms do not have much contact with the foreign markets.

2. Contract Manufacturing (Outsourcing):
When a firm enters into a contract with one or a few local manufacturers in foreign countries to get certain goods produced as per its specifications it is called contract manufacturing. It is also known as outsourcing and it can take place in the following forms.

  • Production of certain components
  • Assembly of components into final products
  • Complete manufacture of the products

Advantages

  • It Permits international firms to get the goods produced on a large scale without requiring investment in setting up production facilities.
  • There is no investment risk involved in foreign countries.
  • It helps to get the products at a lower cost
  • Local producers in foreign countries can ensure greater utilization of their idle production capacities.

Limitations

  • It may affect the quality of the products.
  • Local manufacturer in the foreign country loses his control over the manufacturing process because goods are produced strictly as per the terms and specifications of the contract.
  • The local firm cannot sell the contracted output as per their will.

3. Licensing and Franchising:
Licensing is a contractual arrangement in which one firm grant access to its patents, trade secrets or technology to another firm in a foreign country for a fee called royalty. The firm that grants permission is known as licensor and the firm that receives the right to use technology or patents is called the licensee.
Franchising is similar to licensing. But it is used in connection with the provision of services. The parent company is called the franchiser and the other party to the agreement is called franchisee.

Advantages

  • It is a less expensive mode of entering into international business.
  • There is no investment risk
  • Since the business in a foreign country is managed by the licensee/franchisee who is a local person, there are lower risks of business takeovers or government interventions.
  • Since licensee/franchisee is a local person, he has greater market knowledge and customer contacts. It helps the licensor/franchiser in successfully conducting its marketing operations.

Limitations

  • The licensee can start marketing an identical product under a slightly different brand name.
  • Trade secrets may lose in foreign markets.
  • Conflicts often develop between the licensor/ franchiser and licensee/franchisee over issues such as maintenance of accounts, payment of royalty, etc.

4. Joint Ventures:
Joint venture means establishing a firm that is jointly owned by two or more independent firms. It can be brought into existence in three major ways.

  • Foreign investors buying an interest in a local firm.
  • Local firms acquiring an interest in an existing foreign firm.
  • Both the foreign and local entrepreneurs jointly forming a new enterprise.

Advantages

  • Since the local partner also contributes to the equity capital, the international firm has less financial burden to expand the business globally.
  • It helps to execute large projects requiring huge capital outlays and manpower.
  • The foreign business firm benefits from local partner’s knowledge of the host countries.
  • The foreign business firm shares costs and risks with a local partner. So they can enter into the foreign markets very easily and without high risk.

Limitations

  • Foreign firms entering into joint ventures share the technology and trade secrets with local firms. It leads to leakage of technology and secrets to others.
  • The dual ownership arrangement may lead to conflicts.

5. Wholly Owned Subsidiaries:
The parent company (holding company) acquires full control over the foreign company by making 100% investment in its equity capital. It is called wholly-owned subsidiaries. It can be established in either of the two ways. i.e.

  • Setting up a new firm altogether to start operations in a foreign country.
  •  Acquiring an existing firm in the foreign country.

Advantages

  • The parent firm is able to exercise full control over its operations in foreign countries.
  • It is not required to disclose its technology or trade secrets to others.

Limitations

  • It is not suitable for small and medium-sized firms that do not have enough funds to invest abroad.
  • The parent company alone has to bear the entire losses.
  • It is subject to higher political risk.

8 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 13.
What is an international business? How is it different from domestic business.
Answer:
Differences between International Business and Domestic Business
Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 International Business – II 1
Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 International Business – II 2

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 12 International Business – II

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Kerala Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 12 International Business – II

1 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The document containing the guarantee of a bank to honour drafts drawn on it by an exporter is.
Answer:
Letter of credit.

Question 2.
TRIP is one of the WTO agreements that deal with.
Answer:
Trade-related aspects of intellectual property.

Question 3.
RCMC means
Answer:
Registration Cum Membership Certificate.

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Question 4.
Which of the following documents is not required for obtaining an export license?

  1. IEC number
  2. Letter of credit
  3. Registration cum membership certificate
  4. Bank account number

Answer:
2. Letter of credit

Question 5.
Which of the following document is not required for an import of transaction?

  1. Bill of lading
  2. Shipping bill
  3. Certificate of origin
  4. Shipment advice

Answer:
4. Shipment advice.

Question 6.
Which one of the following is not a part of export documents?

  1. Commercial invoice
  2. Certificate of origin
  3. Bill of entry
  4. Mate’s receipt

Answer:
3. Bill of entry.

Question 7.
A receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship when the cargo is loaded on the ship is known as……..

  1. Shipping receipt
  2. Mate’s receipt
  3. Cargo receipt
  4. Charter receipt

Answer:
2. Mate’s receipt.

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Question 8.
Which of the following documents is prepared by the exporter and includes details of the cargo in terms of the shipper’s name, the number of packages, the shipping bill, port of destination, name of the vehicle carrying the cargo?

  1. Shipping bill
  2. Packaging list
  3. Mate’s receipt
  4. Bill of exchange

Answer:
1. Shipping bill.

Question 9.
The document containing the guarantee of a bank to honour drafts drawn on it by an exporter is

  1. Letter of hypothecation
  2. Letter of credit
  3. Bill of lading
  4. Bill of exchange

Answer:
2. Letter of credit

Question 10.
“It gives birth to a foreign territory within the home country for trading and for imposing duties”. What is referred to in this statement

  1. EPZ
  2. SEZ
  3. Superstar trading houses
  4. Deemed exports

Answer:
2. SEZ

Question 11.
This is a document stating the value and quantity of goods entering the country from abroad. It is submitted to the customs office either by the importer or his agent. What is this document?
Answer:
Bill of lading.

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Question 12.
EPZ means…….

  1. Advertisement
  2. warehousing
  3. insurance
  4. transport

Answer:
Export Processing Zone

Question 13.
provides an internationally competitive and duty-free environment for the production of export goods.
Answer:
Special Economic Zone (SEZ)

2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the IEC number?
Answer:
IEC means Importer’s Exporter’s Code Number. His number is to be filled within various papers connected with exports and imports.

3 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following in a word or phrase.

  1. The document prepared by the master of the ship acknowledging the receipt of good.
  2. The document issued as proof of the fact that goods have been produced in the country mentioned on it.
  3. The document forwarded by the exporter to the importer after the shipment of goods.
  4. The document issued by the dock authority after receiving the goods from the exporters.
  5. The document needed in sending goods by air.
  6. Document which acts as proof that goods of stated value and quantity are being brought into the country from abroad.

Answer:

  1. Bill of Lading
  2. Certificate of origin
  3. Export Invoice/Foreign Invoice
  4. Dock Receipt
  5. Airway Bill
  6. Bill of Entry.

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Question 2.
What do you mean by Bill of lading? Explain its features.
Answer:
Bill of lading is a document issued by the shipping company after the cargo is loaded on the ship. It is an acknowledgement of the receipt of goods by the shipping company.

Features of Bill of lading

  • It is an acknowledgement of the receipt of goods by the shipping company.
  • It is a document which shows the title to the goods
  • It is evidence of the contract of shipment.

4 Mark Questions & Answers:

Question 1.
Discuss the formalities involved in getting an export license.
Answer:

  • Opening a bank account.
  • Obtaining Import Export Code (IEC) number from the Directorate General Foreign Trade (DGFT)
  • Registering with the appropriate export promotion council.
  • Registering with Export Credit and Guarantee Corporation.

Question 2.
What is the bill of lading? How does it differ from the bill of entry?
Answer:
Bill of lading:
It is a document issued by the shipping company after the cargo is loaded on the ship. It is an acknowledgment of goods by the shipping company. It is a document which shows the title to the goods and is freely transferable by endorsement and delivery.

Bill of Entry:
It is a form supplied by the customs office to the importer who filled it at the time of receiving the goods. It has to be in triplicate and is to be submitted to the customs office. It contains information such as name and address of the importer, name of the ship, number of packages, description of goods, quantity and value of goods, name, and address of the exporter, port of destinations, customs duty payable, etc.

Question 3.
Name the documents used in external trade
Answer:
Indent
– Letter of Credit      – Bill of Lading
– Advice Letter         – Documentary Bill
– Insurance Policy    – Shipping order
– Shipping bill          – Mates Receipt
– Consular Invoice   – Certificate of origin
– Airway bill             – Export Invoice/Foreign Invoice
– Bill of Entry

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5 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the document referred to in each of the following cases.

  1. Agreement signed with the shipping company to enable us to put goods on the ship.
  2. Document issued by the captain of the ship after loading the goods on the ship.
  3. Assured payment on the strength of a document issued by the importer’s bank.
  4. Document which authorises the bank to sell the goods in case of dis honour of bill.
  5. Document received in exchange for Mate’s Receipt at the shipping office.

Answer:

  1. Shipping order
  2. Mate’s Receipt
  3. Letter of credit
  4. Letter of Hypothecation
  5. Bill of Lading

Question 2.
Write a detailed note on the features, structure, objectives, and functioning of WTO.
Answer:
World Trade Organisation :
The General Agreement for Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was transformed into the World Trade Organisation (WTO) with effect from 1 st January 1995. The headquarters of the WTO are situated in Geneva, Switzerland. The World Trade Organization deals with the global rules of trade between nations. Its main function is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible. It is concerned with solving trade problems between countries and providing a forum for multilateral trade negotiations. It has a global status similar to that of the IMF and the World Bank. India is a founding member of WTO.

Objectives of WTO:

  • To ensure a reduction of tariffs and other trade barriers imposed by different countries.
  • To engage in activities which improve the standards of living, create employment, increase Income, facilitate higher production and trade.
  • To facilitate the optimal use of the world’s resources.
  • To promote an integrated, more viable and durable trading system.

Functions of WTO:

  • To remove barriers to international trade.
  • Act as a dispute settlement body.
  • To ensure that all the rules regulations prescribed in the Act are duly followed by the member countries for the settlement of their disputes.
  • Laying down a commonly accepted code of conduct for international trade.
  • To consult with IMF, IBRD and its affiliated agencies to bring better understanding and cooperation in global economic policymaking.

Benefits of WTO:

  • It helps to promote international peace and facilitates international business.
  • All disputes between member nations are settled with mutual consultations.
  • It makes international trade and relations very smooth and predictable.
  • Free trade improves the standard of living of the people by increasing the income level.
  • Free trade provides an opportunity for getting varieties of qualitative products.
  • Economic growth has been increased.

6 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write short notes on

  1. Bill of lading
  2. Bill of entry
  3. Letter of credit
  4. Mate’s receipt
  5. Certificate of origin
  6. Shipping bill

Answer:
Documents for Export Transaction
A. Documents related to goods:

1. Export Invoice:
It is a seller’s bill which contains information about goods like quantity, number of packages, marks on packing, name of the ship, port of destination, terms of delivery &, payments, etc.

2. Packing List:
A packing list is a statement of the number of cases or packs and the details of the goods contained in these packs.

3. Certificate of Origin:
This is a certificate that specifies the country in which the goods are being produced. This certificate enables the importer to claim tariff concessions or other exemptions.

4. Certificate of Inspection:
For ensuring quality, the government has made an inspection of certain goods compulsory by some authorised agency like the export Inspection council of India (EICI), etc. After inspecting the goods, the agency issues a certificate of inspection that the consignment has been inspected as required under the export (Quality Control & Inspection) Act, 1963.

B. Documents Related to Shipment:

1. Mate’s Receipt:
A mate receipt is a receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship when the cargo is loaded on board and contains the information about the name of the vessel, berth, date of shipment, description of packages, condition of the cargo at the time of receipt on board the ship, etc.

2. Shipping Bill:
The shipping bill is the main document on the basis of which customs office grants permission for the export. It contains full details regarding the goods being exported name of the vessel, exporter s name & address, country of final destination, etc.

3. Bill of lading:
It is a document issued by the shipping company after the cargo is loaded on the ship. It is an acknowledgment of goods by the shipping company. It is a document that shows the title to the goods and is freely transferable by endorsement and delivery.

4. Airway Bill:
It is a document issued by the airline company acknowledging the receipt of goods for transshipment through air carriage.

5. Marine Insurance Policy:
It is a certificate of insurance contract whereby the insurance company agrees in consideration of premium to indemnify the insured against loss incurred by perils of the sea.

6. Cart Ticket:
It is also known as cart chit or gate pass. It is prepared by the exporter and contains details regarding export cargo like a number of packages, shipping bill number, port of destination, etc.

C. Document related to payment:

1. Letter of credit:
A letter of credit is a guarantee issued by the importer’s bank that it will honour up to a certain amount the payment of export bills to the bank of the exporter.

2. Bill of Exchange:
In export & import transaction, the exporter draws the bill on the importer asking him to pay a specified amount to a certain person or the bearer of the instrument. The documents required by the importer for claiming the title of exported goods are passed on to him only when the importer accepts this bill.

3. Bank Certificate of Payment:
It is a certificate that the necessary documents relating to the particular export consignment have been negotiated and payment has been received in accordance with the exchange control regulations.

Documents used in an Import Transaction

  1. Trade enquiry
  2. Proforma invoice
  3. Import order or indent
  4. Letter of credit
  5. Shipment advice
  6. Bill of lading
  7. Airway Bill
  8. Bill of entry

Bill of entry:
It is a form supplied by the customs office to the importer who filled it at the time of receiving the goods. It has to be in triplicate and is to be submitted to the customs office. It contains information such as name and address of the importer, name of the ship, number of packages, description of goods, quantity and value of goods, name, and address of the exporter, port of destinations, customs duty payable, etc.

Question 2.
What is IMF? Discuss its various objectives and functions.
Answer:
Trade Agreements:
At the international level, there are various international organisations such as the World Bank, IMF, and WTO for fostering economic cooperation, trade and investments . among the countries.

1. World Bank
The International Bank for reconstruction and development i.e. World Bank was established in 1945, whose main objectives were to aid the task of reconstruction of the war-affected economies of Europe and assist in the development of the underdeveloped nations of the world.
Functions:

  • To bring about economic growth and widen the scope of international trade.
  • To develop infrastructural facilities such as energy, transportation, etc.
  • To help different countries for raising cash crops so that their income rises.
  • In addition to providing financial assistance for infrastructure development, agriculture, industry, health, etc.

2. International Development Association (IDA)
International Development Association (IDA) was set up in 1960 as a part of the World Bank. IDA was established soft loans primarily to provide soft loans to the poorest countries. So it is called the Soft Loan Window of the IBRD.
Objectives of IDA

  • To provide development finance on easy terms to the less developed countries
  • To provide assistance for poverty eradication in the poorest countries
  • To provide finance at concessional interest rates in order to promote economic development, raise productivity and living standards in less developed nations
  • To extend macroeconomic management services relating to health, education, nutrition, human resource development and population control.

3. International Finance Corporation (IFC)
IFC was established in July 1956 in order to provide finance to the private sector of developing countries. All the members of the World Bank are eligible to become members of IFC.

4. The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency was established in April 1988 to supplement the functions of the World Bank and IFC.
Objectives of MIGA

  • To encourage direct foreign investment into the developing countries
  • To provide insurance cover to investors against political risks
  • To provide guarantee against non-commercial risks
  • To ensure new investments and expansion of existing investments
  • To provide promotional and advisory services
  • To establish credibility.

5. International Monetary Fund (IMF) International Monetary Fund: – it is the second international organization next to the World Bank. It came into existence in 1945 and its objective is the maintenance of exchange rates and providing short term loans to the countries facing short term foreign exchange problems.
Objectives of IMF

  • To provide international monetary cooperation through a permanent institution.
  • To facilitate the expansion of the balanced growth of international trade and to promote and maintain high levels of employment.
  • To promote exchange rate stability among member countries.
  • To help in the establishment of the International Payment System.

6. World Trade Organisation (WTO)

8. Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the World Bank? Discuss its various objectives and role of its affiliated agencies.
Answer:
Trade Agreements:-
At the international level, there are various international organisations such as the World Bank, IMF, and WTO for fostering economic cooperation, trade and investments . among the countries.

1. World Bank
The International Bank for reconstruction and development i.e. World Bank was established in 1945, whose main objectives were to aid the task of reconstruction of the war-affected economies of Europe and assist in the development of the underdeveloped nations of the world.
Functions:

  • To bring about economic growth and widen the scope of international trade.
  • To develop infrastructural facilities such as ‘ energy, transportation, etc.
  • To help different countries for raising cash crops so that their income rises.
  • In addition to providing financial assistance for infrastructure development, agriculture, industry, health, etc.

2. International Development Association (IDA)
International Development Association (IDA) was set up in 1960 as a part of the World Bank. IDA was established soft loans primarily to provide soft loans to the poorest countries. So it is called the Soft Loan Window of the IBRD.
Objectives of IDA:

  • To provide development finance on easy terms to the less developed countries
  • To provide assistance for poverty eradication in the poorest countries
  • To provide finance at concessional interest rates in order to promote economic development, raise productivity and living standards in less developed nations
  • To extend macroeconomic management services relating to health, education, nutrition, human resource development and population control.

3. International Finance Corporation (IFC)
IFC was established in July 1956 in order to provide finance to the private sector of developing countries. All the members of the World Bank are eligible to become members of IFC.

4. The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
The Multinational Investment Guarantee Agency was established in April 1988 to supplement the functions of the World Bank and IFC.
Objectives of MIGA

  • To encourage direct foreign investment into the developing countries
  • To provide insurance cover to investors against political risks
  • To provide guarantee against non-commercial risks
  • To ensure new investments and expansion of existing investments
  • To provide promotional and advisory services
  • To establish credibility.

5. International Monetary Fund (IMF) International Monetary Fund: –
It is the second international organization next to the World Bank. It came into existence in 1945 and its
objective is the maintenance of exchange rates and providing short term loans to the countries facing short term foreign exchange problems.
Objectives of IMF

  • To provide international monetary cooperation through a permanent institution.
  • To facilitate the expansion of balanced growth of international trade and to promote and maintain high levels of employment.
  • To promote exchange rate stability among member countries.
  • To help in the establishment of the International Payment System.

6. World Trade Organisation (WTO)

Question 2.
Mr. Prakash has got an opportunity to take part in a business meeting. He meets an exporter of certain fast-moving consumer goods from America. He describes the profitability of these products if they are distributed in India. Mr. Prakash, after hearing this, shows his interest in importing the goods but is unaware of the procedure of import. Can you help him?
Answer:
Import Procedure

1. Trade enquiry:
It is a written request by the importer to the exporters for the supply of relevant information regarding the price, quality, quantity and various terms and conditions of export, etc. Then, the exporter prepares the quotation and sends it to the importer. The quotation is known as a proforma invoice.

2. Obtaining import license:
In India, it is compulsory to get the IEC number from the Directorate General Foreign Trade ( DGFT).

3. Obtaining foreign exchange:
As foreign exchange transactions are controlled by Reserve Bank of India, the importer has to submit an application along with necessary documents to the RBI to issue foreign exchange.

4. Placing order or indent:
After obtaining the import license, the importer places an import order or indent with the exporter for the supply of the specified products. It contains information about the price, quality, quantity of goods ordered, ports of shipment and destination, etc.

5. Obtaining a letter of credit:
The importer must obtain a letter of credit from his bank and send it to the exporter.

6. Arranging for finance:
The importer should make arrangements in advance to pay to the exporter on the arrival of goods at the port.

7. Receipt of shipment advice:
After loading the goods on the ship, the exporter dispatches the shipment advice to the importer. Shipment advice contains information about the shipment of goods.

8. Retirement of import documents:
After shipping the goods, the overseas supplier prepares necessary documents and hands over to his banker for their onward transmission to the importer when he accepts the bill of exchange. The acceptance of a bill of exchange for the purpose of getting delivery of the documents is known as the retirement of import documents.

9. Arrival of goods:
When the goods arrive in the importer’s country, the person in charge of the carrier informs the officer in charge at the dock or the airport about it. He provides a document called import general manifest for unloading of cargo. Import general manifest is a document that contains the details of the imported goods.

10. Customs clearance and release of goods:
All the goods imported into India have to pass through customs clearance after they cross the Indian borders. The importer must fulfill the following formalities for clearing the goods.

  • Endorsement for delivery
  • Payment of dock charges
  • Bill of entry

Question 3.
Mr. Babu is running a ready-made garment manufacturing unit. He has got an order in the B2B meet held at Kochi, to export ready-made garments to Europe. How can execute it? Explain the procedure.
Answer:
Export Procedure

1. Receipt of enquiry and sending quotations:
The prospective buyer of a product sends an enquiry to different exporters requesting them to send information about price, quality, terms of payment, etc. The exporter sends a reply to the enquiry in the form of a quotation referred to as a proforma invoice.

2. Receipt of order or indent:
If the buyer is satisfied with the export price and other terms and conditions, he places the order or indent for the goods.

3. Assessing importer’s creditworthiness and securing a guarantee for payments: After receipt of the indent, the exporter makes a necessary enquiry about the creditworthiness of the importer. To minimise the risk, most exporters demand a letter of credit from the importer.

4. Obtaining an export license:
The exporter must apply for an export license to the appropriate authority. The following procedure is followed for obtaining the export license.

  • Opening a bank account in any bank authorised by the Reserve Bank of India
  • Obtaining Import Export Code (IEC) number
  • Registration cum Membership Certificate (RCMC) from appropriate export promotion council
  • Registering with Export Credit and Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) in order to safeguard against risks of non-payments.

5. Obtaining pre-shipment finance:
After obtaining the export license, the exporter approaches his banker in order to obtain pre-shipment finance for carrying out production.

6. Production or procurement of goods:
Exporter, after obtaining the pre-shipment finance from the bank, proceeds to get the goods ready as per the orders of the importer.

7. Pre-shipment inspection:
Quality control and pre-shipment inspection is compulsory in India as per Quality Control and Inspection Act. The inspection certificate is provided by the Export Inspection Council. The customs authority permits the shipment of goods only if there is an inspection certificate.

8. Excise clearance:
According to the Central Excise Tariff Act, excise duty on the material used in manufacturing goods is to be paid. For this purpose, the exporter applies to the concerned Excise Commissioner in the region with an invoice. But in many cases, the government exempts payment of excise duty or later on refunds it if the goods so manufactured are meant for exports. The refund of excise duty is known as duty drawback.

9. Obtaining certificate of origin:
In order to obtain Tariff concessions or other exemptions, the importer may ask the exporter to send the certificate of origin.

10. Reservation of shipping space:
The exporting firm applies to the shipping company for the provision of shipping space. Then the shipping company issues a shipping order. A shipping order is an instruction to the captain of the ship that the specified goods after their customs clearance at a designated port be received on board.

11. Packing and forwarding:
The goods are then properly packed and marked with necessary details such as name and address of the importer, gross and net weight, port of shipment and destination, country of origin, etc. The exporter then makes necessary arrangements for the transportation of goods to the port.

12. Insurance of goods:
In order to protect the goods against the risk of loss or damage the exporter gets the goods insured with an insurance company.

13. Customs clearance:
The goods must be cleared from the customs before these can be loaded on the ship. For obtaining customs clearance, the exporter prepares the shipping bill. The shipping bill contains particulars of the goods being exported, the name of the ship, the port at which goods are to be discharged, exporter’s name and address, etc. Five copies of the shipping bill along with the following documents are then submitted to the Customs Appraiser at the Customs House:

  • Export Contract or Export Order
  • Letter of Credit
  • Commercial Invoice
  • Certificate of Origin
  • Certificate of Inspection, where necessary
  • Marine Insurance Policy

14. Obtaining mates receipt:
A mate receipt is a receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship when the cargo is loaded on board and contains the information about the name of the vessel, berth, date of shipment, description of packages, condition of the cargo at the time of receipt on board the ship, etc.

15. Payment of freight and issuance of bill of lading:
The clearing & forwarding agent (C&F agent) hands over the mate s receipt to the shipping company for the computation of freight. After receipt of the freight, the shipping company issues a bill of lading which serves as evidence that the shipping company has accepted the goods for carrying to the designated destination.

16. Preparation of invoice:
The exporter prepares an invoice for the dispatched goods. Invoice contains information regarding the quantity of goods & sent the amount to be paid by the importer. It is duly attested by the customs.

17. Securing payment:
After the shipment of goods, the exporter informs the importer about the shipment of goods. Various documents like a certified copy of invoice, bill of lading, packing list, insurance policy, certificate of origin and letter of credit are sent by the exporter through his bank. These documents are required by the importer for getting the goods cleared from customs. The exporter gets payment from his bank on the submission of necessary documents called negotiations of the documents.

Question 4.
India is an active participant in the global economy. Foreign trade has a prominent role in reaping the benefits of this phenomenon. In this context does the government take any measures to promote foreign trade? Do you think that the Government motivates the Indian entrepreneurs towards this end? Cite examples.
Answer:
Foreign Trade Promotion Measures and Schemes.

1. Duty drawback scheme:
It refers to the refund of customs and excise duties paid on imported inputs used in the manufacture of export goods.

2. Export manufacturing under bond scheme: Under this facility firms can produce goods without payment of excise and other duties. The firms can avail this facility after giving an undertaking (i.e. bond) that they are manufacturing goods for export purposes.

3. Exemption from payment of sales taxes:
Goods meant for export purposes are not subject to sales tax. Income derived from export operations had been exempt from payment of income tax. Now, this benefit of exemption from income tax is available only to 100 percent Export Oriented Units (100 percent EOUs) and units set up in Export Processing Zones (EPZs) or Special Economic Zones (SEZs) for selected years.

4. Advance license scheme: It is a scheme under which an exporter is allowed duty-free supply of domestic as well as imported inputs required for the manufacture of export goods.

5. Export Promotion Capital Goods Scheme (EPCG): The main objective of this scheme is to encourage the import of capital goods for export production. This scheme allows export firms to import capital goods at zero or concessional rates of import duty.

6. Scheme of recognising export firms as an export house, trading house and superstar
trading house: The registered exporters having a record of export performance over a number of years are granted the status of export houses/ trading houses/star trading houses/superstar trading houses subject to the fulfillment of annual average export performance.

7. Export of Services: In order to boost the export of services, various categories of service houses have been recognised, i.e. Service Export House, International Service Export House, International Star Service Export House.

8. Export finance: Two types of export finances are made available to the exporters by authorised banks. They are termed as pre-shipment finance and post-shipment finance. Pre-shipment finance is provided to an exporter for financing the purchase, processing, manufacturing or packaging of goods for export purposes. Post-shipment finance is provided to the exporter from the date of extending the credit after the shipment of goods to the export country.

9. Export Processing Zones (EPZs): They are industrial estates, which form special enclaves separated from the domestic tariff areas. These are usually situated near seaports or airports. They are intended to provide an internationally competitive duty-free environment for export production at low cost. They can import capital goods and raw materials for the production of export goods without a license.

10. 100 percent Export Oriented Units (100 percent EOUs): These units are established with the main purpose of exporting their entire production except those which are specifically permitted to be sold in the domestic market.

11. Special Economic Zone (SEZ): It is specifically a delineated duty-free enclave, which is deemed to be foreign territory for the purpose of trading and imposing duties. It provided an internationally competitive and duty-free environment for the production of export of goods.

Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Social Movements

You can download Social Movements Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 8 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Social Movements

Social Movements Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who wrote the book The Logic of Collective Action’?
a) Mancur Olson
b) McCarthy
c) Zald
d) James Scott
Answer:
Mancur Olson

Question 2.
Where did the Chipko Movement start?
a) Haryana
b) Gujarat
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Punjab
Answer:
Himachal Pradesh

HSSLive.Guru

Question 3.
When did the Jharkhand Movement start?
a) 1994
b) 2000
c) 2001
d) 2002
Answer:
2000

Question 4.
…………. was a movement in England that conceived parliamentary democracy.
Answer:
Chartist

Question 5.
………and ……….. are the discoverers of Mobilization theory?
Answer:
McCarthy, Zald

Question 6.
The Movement organized by Sri Narayana Guru to change the social practice of the Ezhavas of Kerala is an example of ……… Social Movement.
Answer:
Transformatory

Question 7.
………. Social Movements try to bring social and political changes.
Answer:
Reformative

Question 8.
………… Social Movements acquire the ruling power and bring changes in the social relations.
Answer:
Revolutionary

Question 9.
………… Movement is against deforestation or felling of trees.
Answer:
Chipko

Question 10.
In his book, Gail Omvedt said that the primary attention of Social Movements must be in social inequality and differences in the distribution of raw I materials.
Answer:
Reinventing Revolution

Question 11.
What was the Movement that was formed in the Himalayan valleys?
Answer:
Chipko

Question 12.
The Movement that upheld the principle of bio-system and biodiversity?
Answer:
Chipko

Question 13.
The Movement that originated in Bengal demanding 2/3 share of what they produce, instead of the 50% they were getting?
Answer:
Naxalbari

Question 14.
Which Indian state has the maximum number of Tribal Movements?
Answer:
Jharkhand

Question 15.
Match the following.

AB
E.P. ThomsonThe Logic of Collective Action
Mancur OlsonMoral Economy
MaCarthyWeapons of the Weak
James ScottResource Management Theory

Answer:

AB
E.P. ThomsonMoral Economy
Mancur OlsonThe Logic of Collective Action
MaCarthyResource Management Theory
James ScottWeapons of the Weak

Question 16.
What are differences between Old and New Social Movements?
Answer:
There are differences between the two in the backgrounds, goals, political natures and their spread.
a) The historical backgrounds of the Old and New Social Movements are different. The old ones came up in the background of capitalism, socialist movements, colonialism and so on. With the growth of capitalism, a powerful working class came up. The working classes of the Western capitalist countries fought for better wages, better living conditions, social security, free education, health security, etc. Similar fights were also seen in the agricultural sector. There the fight was to end exploitations by the landowners and get their own lands.

There were also freedom movements in different parts of the world against colonialism. The New social movements had different backgrounds. These movements came up during the period after WWII. They originated from problems like war, gender exploitation, racial discrimination, exploitation of the environment, etc.

b) The goals are different. The old ones want the restructuring of authority. They were functioning within the framework of political parties. For example, Indian National Movement was led by the Indian National Congress. The Chinese Revolution was led by the Communist Party. A group of thinkers believes that the old activities carried out by trade unions and parties of workers are losing their relevance and they are becoming weak.

Another group thinks that wealthy Western nations have become Welfare States and therefore exploitation by a certain class and inequality are no more big issues. The new social movements are not interested in restructuring the authority. They handle general things like clean environment and so on.

c) Old Social Movements gave the central place to political parties. Rajni Kothari thinks that it as the dissatisfaction with parliamentary democracy that caused the social movements of the 1970s to come up. He thinks that all the establishments of the nation are in the hands of the elite. Therefore elections through political parties will not bring the voice of the poorto the Centre of Power.

So people leave political parties and join non-political movements. Thus they are able to put pressure on the government. Examples of such non-political movements are the new NGOs (Non-Governmental Organizations), Women Organizations, Environmental Fellowships, Tribal Movements, etc. To show the old and new social movements, nowadays the name Civil Society is used.

d) There is also difference in the spread between the Old and the New. Old ones remain within the boundaries of the nation. They did not have a global nature. But for the New Social movements, boundaries are not a problem.

Question 17.
Write a note on Naxalbari Movement.
Answer:
This Movement started in the region of Naxalbari In Bengal in 1967. OfSaru Majumdar, who belonged to the CPI (ML) led the protests against the exploitation and violence by landowners. The protests were done by Adivasis, sharecroppers, tenants and small-scale fanners. The mode of protest included forcefully taking the land from owners and distributing it to the landless, reaping the crops from the fields of the zamindars, attacking their homes and taking the grain hoarded there. The Naxalbaris killed some landowners who were very cruel.

They also organized guerrilla attacks. The protest began in March 1967. Kanu Sanyal points out that all villagers were involved in the protest in just one month: 15,000 to 20,000 villagers became full-time workers of the Movement. In each village, a committee was formed. The committee members were armed. They grabbed the land of the zamindars. They burned all the documents of ownership of land. Many zamindars were tried -by popular courts and were sentenced to death. They took the guns of the zamindars and formed armed groups.

They also used traditional weapons like bow and arrow and spears. They released hundreds of villages from the zamindars. They also set up parallel governments in the villages to look after their affairs. Although the government tried hard to suppress the Movement, it did not go away fully. Even now it is very active in many places.

Question 18.
How can we group the various Social Movements?
Answer:
We can group them into three:
a) Redemptive or Transformatory
b) Reformative
c) Revolutionary
Redemptory Social Movements are those which try to bring changes in the working of their members or In their personal awareness. For example, the Movement under the leadership of Sri Narayana Guru tried to bring changes in the social rituals of the Ezhava community in Kerala.

Reformative Social Movements try to bring about gradual changes in the existing socio-political order. Movements that organized the agitation demanding the formation of States on linguistic basis and those who fought for making the Right to Information Law are Reformative Social-Movements, Revolutionary Social Movements try to completely change the existing social order. Often they bring these changes by capturing power. The Bolshevik Revolution of Russia and the Naxalite Movement of India are examples. Bolshevik Revolution removed the Tsar from the throne and tried to make Russia a Communist country. The Naxalites tried to bring an equitable society by wiping out all the cruel zamindars and officials.

Question 19.
What are the special features of Social Movements?
Answer:
They are:
a) Stable and collective actions.
b) Organizing
c) Leadership
d) Structure

Question 20.
Which are the three Organizations that worked for gender equality?
Answer:
They are:
a) Women’s India Association (WIA 197)
b) All India Women’s Conference (AIWC 1926)
c) National Council for Women in India (NCWI 1925).

HSSLive.Guru

Question 21.
What are the special features of Social Movements?
Answer:
They are:
a) Stable and collective actions.
b) Organizing
c) Leadership
d) Structure
e) Common goals and ideology
f) Collective attitude to change

Question 22.
What are the differences between Social Changes and Social Movements?
Answer:
Social Movements work for social changes. Social changes are a continuous process. They happen because of the collective work of countless number of people. Social Movements are formed to achieve certain goals. Prolonged and continuous social efforts and working are the basic factors of Social Movements. Sanskritization and westernization are examples of Social Changes. The Reform Movements of the 19th century are examples of Social Movements.

Question 23.
Explain the theories of Social Movements in Sociology.
Answer:
There are many theories regarding Social Movements. The most important of them are
a) Relative Rejection Theory,
b) Mancur Olson’s Theory and
c) Theory of Resource Mobilization of McCarthy and Zald.

a) This theory says that conflict occurs when one social section feels that its condition is worse than the others. Such conflict may result in collective protests. This theory stresses psychological factors like anger and resentment in the formation of Social Movements. This theory has certain limitations. The feeling that one section is rejected might be necessary for collective action. But that need not be always a reason.

On many occasions, people feel that they are rejected, but they do not become Social Movements. In short, just because there is a problem, Social Movements don’t start. To form a Social a Movement in a stable and organized way there is a need to bring the affected people together. Through this, a common ideology and an action plan are made. Problems are deliberately brought forward to take corrective action. It is done by leadership and structure.

b) Mancur Olson presents his theory on Social Movement in his book titled “The Logic of Collective Action”. He argued that it is the activities of rational people who pursue their self-serving interests that allow the growth the Social Movements. A person becomes a member of a Social Movement only when he has some benefit from it. He should have more gains than losses to be a member of an organization. In short, people join Social Organizations to gain maximum benefit for themselves. Many people do not agree with this view of Olson. They argue that when people join organizations they do not first sit down to calculate the expenses and profits of such membership.

c) Resource Mobilization theory was put forward by McCarthy and Mayer Nathan Zald. They rejected theory of Olsen that Social Movements are the creations of self-serving people. They argued that the success of a Social Movement depends on its ability for resource mobilization. By resources they mean things like leadership, organizing skill and communication facilities. They added if the resources are used by taking advantage of the existing political opportunities, the Movement will be more successful. Critics had their own views on this theory. They argued that Social Movements do not rely on the available resources.

They can create new sources and go forward. They pointed out that many movements by poor people had succeeded although they did not have many resources. Even Movements formed with limited resources and organizational bases can get resources as the fight is on.

Social conflicts never lead to natural organized activities. For such an idea to come up, a section must consciously feel that it is suppressed or ignored by others. There is also a need for structure, leadership and a clear ideology.

Somehow social agitations and resistances do not follow this path. People may have a clear idea of their being exploited. But often they can’t fight against it through political force.

James Scott in his book called “Weapons of the Weak” described the lives of farmers and workers in Malaysia. There the protests against injustice were small activities. Such activities can be called ordinary resistance movements.

Question 24.
Mention some of the Old and New Social Movements.
Answer:
Old Social Movements include Movements based on class, Movements against colonization, Worker’s Movements, Farmers’ Movements, and National Movements.
New Social Movements include Anti-war Movements, Civil Rights Movements, Women Movements, and Environmental Movements.

Question 25.
Evaluate Chipko Movement as an Environmental Movement.
Answer:
Chipko Movement is an Environmental Movement. It was formed on the hills of the Himalayan Valley. In his book ‘Restless Forests”, Ramachandra Guha correctly evaluates this Movement. The villagers came together to protect the oak and rhododendron trees near their villages. When the forest contractors came to cut these threes, the villagers, including many women, embraced the trees preventing the workers from cutting them. (Chipko in Hindi means hold tightly or embrace.) These forests provided the livelihood of the villagers.

For their various needs like grass for the cattle, firewood and other things, they depended -on these forests. There the clash was between the government trying to make money by selling trees to greedy contractors and the people struggling for their livelihood. The economics of livelihood was clashing with the economics of profit.

The Chipko Movement raised the issue of environmental stability. Clearing forests will cause environmental damage. In some areas, it will result in soil erosion, floods and landslides.

For the villagers, their livelihood was as important as the protection of forests. As a natural wealth useful to all, they gave a lot of importance to forests. The anger and resentment of the villagers against a government that was unwilling to listen to their problems and solve them were also seen in the Chipko Movement.

The Movement started in Alaknanda village in Himachal Pradesh. This village had experienced many natural tragedies. In 1970, there was a flood. It destroyed the homes, vehicles, roads, and crops of the villagers. Many died in the flood. It was a lesson to the villagers. They started thinking of the relation between deforestation and natural calamities like floods and landslides. They realized that the worst affected areas were those below the deforested areas. A cooperative society named Dasholi Grama Swaraj Mandat, working in the Chamoli village took up the problem of the villagers.

The government did not mind the protests. The forests were auctioned. One of them was Reni forest. The workers of contractors came to Reni with implements to cut down the trees. A small girl who saw these people coming went and informed the matter to Gaura Devi, the president of the Mahila Mandal in the village. Gaura Devi got as many women as she could get and rushed to the forest. They requested the people who were ready to cut the trees, not to fell them. But they did not listen to the request of the village women. They abused Gaura Devi and threatened the other women. Then the women embraced the trees, refusing to go away. The workers were forced to go away.

Question 26.
Describe the special features of the Dalit Movements.
Answer:
The Dalit Movements that were formed after Ambedkar had a revolutionary nature. They put forward an alternative lifestyle. It included avoiding eating beef and conversion into other religions. They stood for ending caste discriminations and economic exploitation. In spite of their revolutionary agenda, they had a reformative nature. They were based on caste. Their efforts to end caste system were half-hearted. Only the educated minority among the Daiits got the benefits of the changes. They failed to uplift the vast majority of the Dalits.

Question 27.
Describe the working style of Social Movements.
Answer:
Social Movement do organized and collective activities. The most obvious action they do is protest. But there are also other things they do. They organize meetings. The purpose of these meetings is to give publicity to their ideologies and programmes and get support from people.

Such meetings help in the formation of common action plans and to bring about a common understanding. They also do things to influence government, the media, and public opinion. Social Movements express their protests in various ways. There are torch marches, showing black flags, street plays, songs, and poems.

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Question 28.
Describe the early agricultural protests,
the colonial period. In the Mughal period, there had been different agitations. During the colonial period, farmers protested against landowners, moneylenders, government and estate owners.
Agricultural Movements between 1858 to 1914 were regional, disorganized and limited themselves to some specific Issue. During 1859 to 62, the Bengali Rebellion was against plantation owners. The Deccan Rebellions of 1875 were against moneylenders.

To get the support of the villagers, Gandhi organized Agricultural Movements. There was the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917. It was a protest of the farmers against the indigo farm owners. In 1918 there was the Kheda Satyagraha. Here the farmers wanted tax reductions. In 1929 there was the Bardoli Satyagraha. This was a forerunner of the Civil Disobedience Movement. It was organized in Bardoli in the district of Surat. Here Gandhi asked the people not to pay their taxes. The agitation was organized by Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel, a follower of Gandhi.

During the colonial period, many agricultural movements were formed, most of them between 1920 and 1940. in 1920 many Kisan Sabhaswere formed and most of the later Movements were the Kisan Sabhas was ‘Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (1929). In 1936, an All-India Organization of Kisan Sabhas was formed. It is called All-India Kisan Sabha. The farmers demanded freedom from economic exploitations.

Just before and after independence, India witnessed two very famous agricultural revolts. They were the ‘Thebhaga Rebellion’ (1946-47) and Telangana Rebellion (1946-51) In the Thebhaga Rebellion sharecroppers wanted 2/3 of the produce instead of the 50% they were getting. This rebellion had the backing of the Kisan Sabha and the Indian Communist Party. Telangana Rebellion was against the big landlords in that native sate. It was led by the Indian Communist Party.

Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Mass Media and Communications

You can download Mass Media and Communications Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 7 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Mass Media and Communications

Mass Media and Communications Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Soap Opera means:
Answer:
a) talk show
b) Reality Show
c) Humorous Shows
d) The serial presentation of a story
Answer:
The serial presentation of a story

Question 2.
When did Radio Broadcast begin in India?
Answer:
a) 1910
b) 1918
c) 1920
d) 1923
Answer:
1920

Question 3.
The first mass medium was
Answer:
Radio

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Question 4.
The first printing press was established in Germany by ………..
Answer:
Johann Gutenberg

Question 5.
All the early Indian popular newspapers propagated the idea of
Answer:
Free India

Question 6.
It was the famous scholar………….. who argued that the print media helped in increasing national consciousness.
Answer:
Benedict Anderson

Question 7.
It was the famous scholar …………. who pointed out an imaginary community.
Answer:
Benedict Anderson

Question 8.
Match the following.

AB
Bombay Samachar1858
Somaprakasam1822
Radio1440
Printing Machine1920

Answer:

AB
Bombay Samachar1822
Somaprakasam1858
Radio1920
Printing Machine1440

Question 9.
What were the important papers during the colonial rule?
Answer:
Year — Newsoaoer — Founder/Place
1816 — Bengal Gazette — James Augustus Hickey (India’s fist newspaper)
1821 — Sampad Kaumudi Mirat-ul-Akbar — Rajaram Mohan Roy (first Indian papers with a democratic outlook.)
1822 — Bombay Samachar — Fardoonji Marzban (Gujarati)
1858 — Somana Prakasam — Iswara Chandra Vidyasagar (Bengali)
1868 — The Times of India — Bombay
1865 — The Pioneer — Allahabad
1868 — The Madras Mail — Madras Presidency
1875 — The Statesman — Calcutta
1876 — The Civil & Military Gazette — Lahore, Simla & Karachi

Question 10.
Which were the mass media in free India? What was the approach of Independent India to the media?
Answer:
The first Prime Minister of India, Jawaharlal Nehru, exhorted the media to be the watchdogs of democracy. Media were supposed to spread self-reliance and love for the nation. India at the beginning of independence gave stress to development. Media were seen as a means of letting the people know of the government’s development plans. Media were encouraged to fight against the ills of the society like untouchability, child marriage, isolating widows, witchcraft, faith healing and superstitions of all kinds.

Government wanted the media to help people develop rational and scientific thinking and help in the building of an industrialized society. The Films Division of India produced newsreels and documentaries. In every theatre, before the start of the regular film, these newsreels and documentaries were to be exhibited. Thus development plans of the government reached the people.

Question 11.
How did globalization affect the mass media?
Answer:
Newspapers were trying their best to increase their readership and to reach the maximum number of people. There were changes in the reading habit of people. Readers have’ reading habits according to their age. Those who are old read the entire paper. The youth are interested in sports, entertainment and gossip columns. Newspapers make their contents to meet the demand of different kinds of readers. In other words, newspapers give what the readers want.. There is now the new concept of infotainment. In this, there is no place for media morality or traditional values. The newspapers are produced not to work for social justice or preserving values. They have become another item for consumption like any other consumer item.

In 1991, there was only one TV channel Doordarshan controlled by the government. In 1998, there were 70 channels. 20 of them were broadcast by Doordarshan. The remaining were satellite channels owned by private companies. Increase in satellite channels was a feature of globalization. Viewers of private TV channels increased drastically. The homes with satellite TV connections also increased. Today in most homes there is satellite TV connection.

The Gulf War was in 1991. In that year Star TV (Hongkong), Red FM (Living Media) ad Radio City (Star Network) started operations in India. This marked the entry of satellite channels. CNN which gave live coverage of the Gulf War became very popular. The programs of StarTV were much popular. In 1992 CTV also began its telecast here. In 2000, Forty private satellite cable channels were available. They included regional language channels like Sun TV, Eenadu TV, (udaya TV, Raj TV, Asianet and so on. In the meantime, CTV started many regional channels. There were telecasts in Marathi and Bengali.

In 2000, in nearly 70% of the homes of India, all India Radio Programmes could be heard. They were broadcast in 24 languages and 146 dialects. There were more than 120 million radio sets.

A main change in radio broadcast during globalization was the coming of FM Radio Stations. With this entertainment programmes multiplied. Private FM channels were competing among themselves to give maximum entertainment to their listeners.

Private FM Channels don’t have permission to broadcast political news. Most channels get listeners by broadcasting music programmes, especially film songs. Most famous FM channels are under the media houses. Radio Mirch is owned by Times of India. Radio Mango is owned by Manorama. With the onslaught of FM radio stations, independent stations like National Public Radio and BBC are slowly disappearing from the field.

Films like Rang de Basanti, Lage Raho Munnabhai, etc. used the radio as an active medium. The hero of Rang de Basanti, inspired by the example of Bhagat Singh, kills a minister and captures All India Radio and through it he sends his message to the people. In Lage Raho Munnabhai, the hero makes use of a radio station to save the life of a girl. The privatization of radio stations and the growth of radio stations in the ownership of communities resulted in the fast growth of radio. Demand for regional and local news is increasing. Regional radio stations are in greater demand now. Since they broadcast local and regional news, there are ready listeners in most homes.

Question 12.
Describe newspaper revolution in Indian languages.
Answer:
During the last two decades of the 20th century, there were technological changes in the production of newspapers. Papers became fully automatic. PCs and software like Newsmaker brought revolutionary changes in this field. The change in technology brought changes in the functions and responsibilities of reporters. The shorthand notebooks which reporters carried with them, typewriters, old model telephones, etc. became outdated. Small tape recorder, laptop, mobiles, pen-drives, etc, became-the new tools of the trade.

With the changes in technology to gather news, it was possible to get the latest news and print it in the newspaper without any delay. Now there are district- wise editions for newspapers. Papers Ijke “Amar Ujala”, became very popular because of the technological changes. Many people thought that electronic media would reduce the importance of the print media. But nothing of that kind happened in India.

In fact, print media got better. But the newspapers had to make a lot of compromises. They were forced to reduce the prices and depend on advertisers. The advertisers started having some say in the content of the paper. Naturally, negative reports about the advertisers were not published in the’ newspaper for fear of losing their support.

Question 13.
As an important medium of communication, discuss the growth of the Indian language
Answer:
An important thing that has been happening for the last few decades is the newspaper revolution. This change had started even before the liberalization policy of India. Two of India’s most popular newspapers are ‘Dainik Jagran’ and ‘Dainik Bhaskar’. Dainik Jagran had 21 lakh readers. Dainik Bhaskar had 17. Assamese Dailies grew their circulation in urban areas by 51.8% and the Bengali Dailies increased their circulation in rural areas by 129%. These growths were fast.

The Paper ‘Eenadu’ also has a success story. It was started in 1974 by Ramoji Rao. As it worked in close collaboration with the anti-arrack organizations, this Telugu Paper got wide acceptance in villages. This prompted its district editions in 1989. District news, classifieds from villages and small towns were the main feature of this Paper, In 1998, it was published from 10 cities of Andhra Pradesh. It captured 70% circulation of all Telugu papers.

There are many reasons for this growth in the local papers. The first reason is the migration of literate people from villages to urban areas. For example, in 2003 a Hindi Daily from Delhi “Hindustan” had only a circulation of 64,000 copies. In 2005, it reached 425,000. This happened because many people from UP and Bihar migrated to Delhi.

The needs of the readers from villages and small towns are different from those of the cities. The second reason for their growth is they realized the needs of the readers and changed their content accordingly. Important newspapers like Malayala Manorama, Mathrubhoomi and Eeenadu came out of with regional editions with more local news. Papers like “Dailythanthi” (Tamil) used simple and conversational language. It attracted the rural population.

Indian language papers were able to make use of the latest technologies in printing. They also gave supplements, special editions and copies of popular books free to people. All this helped in the growth of papers. Another factor is the marketing techniques. There are programmes of meeting with the readers, home surveys and research. Dainik Bhaskar made the best use of these techniques. To compete with electronic media, the newspapers reduced their prices and were published from different centers. The National English Newspapers also did the same thing. All these helped the growth in the . Indian newspaper industry.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 14.
Trace the growth of Radio
Answer:
It was in the 1920s that radio broadcasting started in India. It was begun by some Clubs in Calcutta and Chennai. These clubs were interested in arts and they started radio broadcasting, not with any financial motive. In the 1940s, radio broadcasting became a government affair. In the Second World War, the Indian Radio became a means of propaganda for the Allied Powers (Britain, France, and America).

When India got freedom there were only 6 radio stations in India. They were broadcasting only for the people of cities. The 1950s, with the coming of transistors, radio became more popular. In those days a license was needed to keep a radio. By 1950, some 546,200 licenses were issued. Famous women like Amita Roy were working in the All India Radio.

Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Globalization and Social Change

You can Download Globalization and Social Change Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Globalization and Social Change

Globalization and Social Change Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The year in which WTO came into existence: WTO
1948,
b) 1991
c) 1994
d) 1995
Answer:
1995

Question 2.
The results of Globalization are:
a) increased job opportunities
b) international trade
c) growing inequality in income
d) all of the above
Answer:
d) all of the above

Question 3.
India’s financial capital?
Answer:
Mumbai

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Question 4.
When did the new Telecom policy come into effect?
Answer:
1999

Question 5.
Mobile service was first available in India in ..?
Answer:

Question 6.
In the past, in one centre large scale production as done. It is called …..
Answer:
Fordism

Question 7.
Production is done in different places according to the availability of workers. This is called ……….
Answer:
Post-Fordism

Question 8.
The agency that controls and supervises the trade relations of the world?
Answer:
WTO (World Trade Organization)

Question 9.
Match the following

AB
WTO1985
SAARC1995
ASEAN2006
SAFTA1967

Answer:

AB
WTO1995
SAARC1985
ASEAN1967
SAFTA2006

Question 10.
Explain the concept of “Electronic economic system”.
Answer:
This is a factor of economic globalization. It is the revolution in communication that made this development possible. As computer and the internet chains became widespread, it was possible for banks, corporations, fund managers and depositors to send money to any part of the world within seconds. Of course, there is the possibility of loss of ‘electronic money’ as the transaction happens with a click of the mouse. The rise of fall of share market is an example. We often see heavy losses in the share market. As changing money from one person to another or from one source to another has become very easy, the probability of losses also has increased.

Question 11.
What is knowledge economy?
Answer:
In the past, the basis of economy was agriculture and industry. But globalization has changed it. Today’s economic system is a burden-less or knowledge economy. Knowledge economy is the economy based on computer software, media and entertainment products, and internet services based on information.

It includes planning of materials, development-, technology, marketing, selling and services and the workers and professionals involved in them. Their work is not limited to producing and distributing things. This economy includes catering services, event management like marriages, conferences and other big functions. New professions about which we hadn’t even heard a few years ago are coming up. Event Management is an example.

Question 12.
Describe the various aspects of globalization.
Answer:
Some of the aspects are:
a) Electronic economic system.
b) Liberalized economic policy
c) Trans-national corporations (TNC’s).
d) Globalized economic policy
Globalization has different aspects. In India, we often use the words liberalization and globalization. They are closely related, but they are different in meaning. India brought changes in its economic policy in 1991. Then the government declared a new economic package. The most important point there was liberalization. Liberalized economic policy, Transnational corporations, knowledge economy, and globalized economy are the main economic factors of globalization.

In the liberalization policy, Indian economy was open to world market. This marked the end of our past economic policies. Until then, the government had followed a policy of protecting public sector and controlling private sector. There were many laws and regulations that protected Indian markets and businesses from foreign competition. It was believed that the government has a big role to play in the welfare of the people.

The government had never given a thought to free market. Liberalization changed everything. It stressed free market. It removed all laws and regulations controlling imports. The policy was called ‘economic reforms’. Liberalization brought changes in all spheres of Indian economy. Changes happened in agriculture, industry, commerce, foreign investment, technology, public sector, and financial institutions. Import regulations were withdrawn. Licensing was ended. It was thought , that liberalization would help our economy.

Taking loans from institutions like International Monetary Fund was an aspect of liberalization. Such loans were given with certain conditions. The .main, condition is that we have to carry out the economic policies suggested by IMF. Then we have to reduce spending in social spheres like health, education, social security and so on.
Subsidies had to be reduced. The country is forced to accept these conditions.

A driving force behind globalization is transnational corporations (TNCs). They are companies that manufacture and sell things or give marketing services in different countries. There are some 70,000 TNCs working in the world now. There are also small companies in this, as they have business only in 2 or 3 countries. But there are giants like Coca Cola, General Motors, Colgate, Palmolive, Kodak and Mitsubishi. Their main aim is profit. Some Indian companies are also becoming TNCs.

Electronic economic system is another aspect of globalization. It is the revolution in communication that made this development possible. As computer and the internet chains became widespread, it was possible for banks, corporations, fund managers and depositors to send money to any part of the world within seconds. Of course there is the possibility of the loss of ‘electronic money’ as the transaction happens with a click of the mouse. The rise of fall of share market is an example. We often see heavy losses in the share market. As changing money from one person to another or from one source to another has become very easy, the probability of losses also has increased.

In the past, the basis of economy was agriculture and industry. But globalization has changed it. Today’s economic system is burden-less or knowledge economy.

Knowledge economy is the economy based on computer software, media and entertainment products, and internet services based on information. It includes planning of materials, development, technology, marketing, selling and services and the workers and professionals involved in them. Their work is not limited to producing and distributing things.

This economy includes catering services event management like marriages, conferences, and other big functions: New professions about which we hadn’t even heard a few years ago are coming up. Event Management is an example.

Progress in technology has caused the globalization of world economy. In a matter of seconds, millions of dollars can be moved from one location to another. Capital and Security markets are open 24 hours. The main centers of money market are New York, Tokyo, and London. Mumbai is known as the financial capital of India.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 13.
How did globalization affect the communication field?
Answer:
The leap in technology and telecommunication has brought revolutionary changes in the communication field. Today we can communicate with the whole world sitting at home or in our offices. Telephones, mobiles, fax, e-mail, internet etc. have made the world one village.

Digital facilities may not be available in all parts of the country. But in some places, all kinds of facilities exist. This difference is called digital divide. The new means of communication overcome limitations of time and place. A person in India can speak, send documents and pictures to somebody . in America through satellite communication.

Question 14.
Describe the relation of work (profession) with globalization.
Answer:
With globalization, there came a professional divide. Let us take the example of the company Nike. This company as established in the 1960s. Its growth was phenomenal. The founder of the company Phil Knight imported shoes from Japan and sold them to Athletes and made huge profits. Slowly it became an international company and then a TNC. Its headquarters is in Beaverton in Oregon, USA. The production units of the company were in Japan. When the production cost increased in Japan, the units were moved to South Korea. Later they were moved to Thailand and then to Indonesia. In 1990 production units started in India also. In short, the production units are moved to places where cheap labor is available.

This process affects the workers most. When units are moved to another location they lose their jobs. It means workers have no job security in such units. It is advantageous to the employers. The change from ‘Fordism’ to post-Fordism helped them to make huge profits.

Question 15.
What are the changes that happened in the political field because of globalization?
Answer:
The most significant political change was the disintegration of the socialist world. The Soviet Union and the Socialist countries of Eastern Europe crumbled one by one. This speeded up the globalization process. There was a new approach to economic policies. this is called the new liberalism. Activities undertaken with this approach are called new liberal economic activities.

The liberalization policy in India had a political view. It gave prominence to private enterprise. The basis for this belief was that a free market would be more efficient and better. This political view opposes government interference and subsidies. Globalization includes all kinds of different people without any discrimination of any kind, Another political result of globalization is the formation of regional and international organizations. Countries formed different organizations with the view of political cooperation. Some of the important ones are:
a) European Union
b) ASEAN (Association of southeast Asian Nations)
c) SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation)
d) SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area)

An International Economic Organization has the power to supervise the economic activities of its member countries. An example is World Trade Organization. As the name indicates trade is its area of interest. It controls the trade matters across the globe.

International organizations like the above are not related to the government of any country. They are independent organizations. They give attention to international matters and decide on policies. Green Peace, Red Cross, Amnesty International, Medicines sans Frontiers, etc. are famous non-government International Organizations.

Question 16.
“Globalization paves the way for the globalization of culture.” Explain.
Answer:
From time immemorial India had an open mind to cultural influences. We always welcomed different cultures that came to our land. We did not want to be like the frog in the well which does not see, hear, know or understand anything beyond the well. We could receive and absorb many good things from other cultures.
This open-mindedness to cultures is still maintained in India. Therefore we have open discussions regarding our dress, lifestyle, music, cinema, languages, body language, and all such things.

The Reformists in the 19th century and the early nationalist leaders frequently talked about culture and tradition. Today also we discuss the same things. The only difference is that now there is greater intensity and breadth in the discussions and debates. It is true that globalization paves the way for the globalization of culture. We can see that from the behavior of the youths of today who copy foreign culture.

HSSLive.Guru

Question 17.
What is the meaning of corporate culture?
Answer:
With the purpose of increasing productivity and competence among the workers, a company deliberately tries to bring a special culture and this. is called corporate culture. The activities of the company, its rules, and conventions are part of this culture. It is believed that an energetic corporate culture will increase the efficiency and loyalty of the workers and it enhances their sincerity and dedication . and cooperation. The behavior of the workers, their style of work, manner of dress, working hours, promotion, product package, etc. are part of the corporate culture.

The spread of the TNCs, the revolutionary progress in communication, job opportunities, etc. created a class of professionals in the Indian metropolises. They worked mainly in software companies, international banks, chartered accountancy. institutions, share market, travel, designing, entertainment, and media. Their working hours were such that they had a lot of pressure and tension. But they were paid big salaries. They were also big consumers.