Class 10

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 2 ठाकुर का कुआँ (कहानी)

ठाकुर का कुआँ Text Book Questions and Answers

ठाकुर का कुआँ विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

Thakur Ka Kuan Questions And Answers 10th प्रश्ना 1.
‘ठाकुर के कुएँ पर कौन चढ़ने देगा?’ -गंगी क्यों इस प्रकार सोचती है?

उत्तर:
यहाँ जाति-पाँति की ओर संकेत है। जाति-पाँति एक विकट समस्या है। जाति-पाँति के कारण कुछ लोगों को अछूत समझे जाते हैं। ठाकुर ऊँची जाति के हैं। निम्न जाति के लोगों को उनके कुएँ से पानी भरने की अनुमति नहीं थी। जाति के कारण उत्पन्न गंगी की विवशता यहाँ स्पष्ट होती है।

ठाकुर का कुआँ Notes Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
‘मैदानी बहादुरी का तो अब न ज़माना रहा है न मौका। कानूनी बहादुरी की बातें हो रही हैं।’ -इसका मतलब है?

उत्तर:
पहले शारीरिक शक्ति के बल पर समाज के ऊँचे लोग अपना कार्य किया करते थे। लेकिन अब वे सिफारिश के बल पर कानून को अपने अनुकूल बना लेते हैं। कानूनमुकदमे के ज़रिए गरीबों को परास्त करते हैं। यही इस कथन का मतलब है।

Thakur Ka Kuan Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 3.
‘गंगी दबे पाँव कुएँ की जगत पर चढ़ी, विजय का ऐसा अनुभव उसे पहले न हुआ था।’ – गंगी को ऐसा अनुभव क्यों हुआ होगा?

उत्तर:
गंगी का मन सामाजिक रीति-रिवाज़ों के विरुद्ध संघर्ष करनेवाला है। चुपके से सही, वह उच्च वर्ग के लोगों को परास्त करना चाहती है। शुद्ध पानी की ज़रूरत अब उसकी विवशता है। अब सारी बाधाओं को तोड़कर वह पानी भरने जा रही है। उसके विचार में यह उच्च वर्ग के लोगों के ऊपर उसका विजय है।

Takur Ka Kuam Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 4.
‘शेर का मुँह इससे भयानक न होगा’ -यहाँ ठाकुर के दरवाज़े की तुलना शेर के मुँह से क्यों की गई है?

उत्तर:
शेर एक खूखार जानवर है। इसके मुँह के सामने पड़नेवालों को बचने की उम्मीद नहीं। इसी प्रकार ठाकुर का घर भी गंगी जैसे लोगों के लिए डरावना जगह है। ठाकुर के सामने पड़ने पर बचना मुश्किल है। इसलिए ऐसी तुलना की गई है।

ठाकुर का कुआँ Text Book Activities & Answers

ठाकुर का कुआँ अभ्यास के प्रश्न

ठाकुर का कुआँ कहानी का सारांश Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 5.
ये प्रसंग देखें
i. गंगी क्या जवाब देती, किंतु वह बदबूदार पानी पीने को न दिया।

ii. उसने घटा और रस्सी उठा ली और झुककर चलती हुई एक वृक्ष के अंधेरे छाए में जा खड़ी हुई।

iii. ठाकुर ‘कौन है, कौन है?’ पुकारते हुए कुएँ की तरफ़ आ रहे थे और गंगी जगत से कूदकर भागी जा रही थी।’

iv. इन व्यवहारों से गंगी के कौन-कौन से मनोभाव प्रकट होते हैं?

उत्तर:

ठाकुर का कुआँ Summary In Malayalam Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 6.
गंगी के ये विचार पढ़ें।

i. ठाकुर के कुएँ पर कौन चढ़ने देगा? दूर से लोग डॉट बताएँगे।

ii. हम क्यों नीच है और ये लोग क्यों ऊँच है? इसलिए कि ये गले में ताग डाल देते हैं। यहाँ तो जितने हैं एक-से-एक छंटे हैं।

iii. इन विचारों में गंगी के कौन-कौन से दृष्टिकोण प्रकट होते हैं?

उत्तर:

ठाकुर का कुआँ विधात्मक प्रश्न

Takoor Ka Kua Notes Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
गंगी के चरित्र पर टिप्पणी लिखें।

उत्तर:
गंगी : रिवाज़ी पाबंदियों पर विद्रोह की आवाज़
गंगी प्रेमचंद की की विख्यात कहानी ‘ठाकुर का कुआँ’ की पात्र है। वह एक साधारण गृहिणी है। गरीब परिवार की सदस्या है। जाति से निम्न वर्ग की है। वह कई प्रकार की सामाजिक कुरीतियों की शिकार है। पति बीमार है। वह पानी के लिए तरसता है। लेकिन पीने के लिए केवल बदबूदार पानी है। यह पानी पिलाने को गंगी तैयार नहीं है। वह सारी पाबंदियों को तोड़कर, ठाकुर के कुएँ से पानी भर लाने का साहस करती है। रात के अंधेरे में वह पानी लेने जाती है। उसकी चिंताएँ उसके मन के विद्रोह को व्यक्त करी हैं। अंत में वह कुएँ के जगत तक आ जाती है। उस समय उसका मन एक विजेता जैसा अनुभव करता है। लेकिन
परिस्थितियाँ उलटती हैं, ठाकुर जग जाते हैं और गंगी को विवश भागना पड़ता है। गंगी एक ही समय परिस्थितियों से विवश औरत, विद्रोह मन रखनेवाली नारी एवं षांत के प्रति प्यार रखनेवाली गृहिणी आदि का प्रतिनिधित्व करती है।

ठाकुर का कुआँ का सारांश Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
‘जाति प्रथा एक अभिशाप है’ – विषय पर आलेख तैयार करें और संगोष्ठी चलाएँ।

उत्तर:
जाति प्रथा : एक सामाजिक अभिशाप
जाति प्रथा समाज की एक विकट समस्या है। इसके कारण समाज में असमानता,एकाधिकार, विद्वेष आदि दोष उत्पन्न हो जाते हैं। जाति प्रथा की सबसे बड़ा दोष छुआछूत की भावना है। इसके कारण संकीर्णता की भावना का प्रसार होता है और सामाजिक राष्ट्रीय एकता में बाधा आती है।

जाति के नाम पर निम्न वर्ग के लोगों को कई प्रकार की यातनाएँ सहनी पड़ती हैं। उन्हें अपनी जिंदगी स्वतंत्र रूप से जीने में बाधा होती है। आम जगहों को इस्तेमाल करने से उनके लिए पाबंदी है। निम्न वर्ग के लोगों से छुआ पानी पीना, उनका बना भोजन खाना, रास्ते में दूसरों के सामने पड़ना आदि बातों को बुरा समझा जाता है।

कई लोगों ने जाति प्रथा को समाप्त करने की बात की। भारत संविधान में जाति के आधार पर अवसर में भेदभाव करने पर रोक भी लगाई है। पिछली कई सदियों से पिछड़ी रही कई जातियों के उत्थान के लिए आरक्षण की व्यवस्था की गई। निम्न वर्ग के लोगों को इससे कई फायदा हुए। लेकिन जहाँ जाति व्यवस्था कायम है वहाँ नीच जाति वालों को एक तरह से आरक्षण के नाम पर उनकी नीचता की याद दिलाई जा रही है। असल में आरक्षण जहाँ पिछड़ी जातियों को अवसर दे रहा है, वहीं वे उन्हें ये एहसास भी याद करवाता है कि वे उपेक्षित हैं।

कानूनी रोकथाम, शिक्षा में हुई उन्नति आदि के कारण इस कट्टरपन में थोड़ी सी कमी ज़रूर आई। लेकिन जाति प्रथा नए रूपों में वर्तमान है। विश्वविद्यालयों, शासक वर्गों, राजनीतिज्ञों आदि के बीच आज भी यह नए-नए रूप धरकर मौजूद है। अगर हम इसे सफल रूप से रोक न पाएँ तो हमारी सामाजिक उन्नति संभव नहीं होगी।

ठाकुर का कुआँ Orakkum Questions and Answers

गतिविधि -1

सुचनाः कहानी का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
गंगी ने क्षणिक सुख को साँस ली। किसी तरह मैदान तो साफ हुआ। अमृत चुरा लाने के लिए जो राजकुमार किसी ज़माने में गया था, वह भी शायद इतनी सावधानी के साथ और समझ-बूझकर न गया हो। गंगी दबे पाँव कुएँ की जगत पर चढ़ी, विजय का ऐसा अनुभव उसे पहले न हुआ था।

प्रेमचंद की कहानी ठाकुर का कुआँ का सारांश Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
यहाँ गंगी का मानसिक विजय किसके ऊपर है?
उत्तर:
जाति – प्रथा

Thakur Ka Kuan Short Summary In Hindi Pdf 10th प्रश्ना 2.
‘जाति प्रथा एक अभिशाप हैं – विषय पर संगोष्ठी होनेवाला हैं। इस केलिए एक पोस्टर तैयार करें।
उत्तर:

ठाकुर का कुआँ SCERT Questions and Answers

गतिविधि -1

सूचना : ‘ठाकूर का कुआँ’ कहानी का यह अंश पढें और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
उसने रस्सी का फंदा घडे में डाला। दाएँ-बाएँ चौकन्निदृष्टि से देखा जैसे कोई सिपाही रात को शत्र के किले में सुराख कर रहा हो। अगर इस समय वह पकड़ ली गई, तो फिर
उसके लिए माफी या रियायत की रात्री भर उम्मीद नहीं।

Thakur Ka Kuan Summary In Malayalam 10th प्रश्ना 1.
गंगी की सावधानी को प्रकट करनेवाले वाक्य चुनकर लिखें।
उत्तर:
दाँए-बाएँ चौकन्नि दृष्टि से देखा जैसे कोई सिपाही रात को शत्रु के किले में सुराख कर रहा हो।

ठाकुर का कुआँ Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
गंगी के चरित्र पर टिप्पणी लिखें।
उत्तर:
गंगी
गंगी प्रेमचंद की कहानी ‘ठाकूर का कुआँ’ का प्रमुख पात्र हैं। वह जाति – प्रथा से त्रस्त समाज की प्रतिनिधि हैं। कहानी के आंरभ में वह पति को पीने का पानी देती हैं। लेकिन पानी पीने का योग्य नहीं था, उस में सख् बदबू थी। दूर के कुएँ से वह रोज़ शाम को पानी भर लाती थी। कल वह पानी लाई थी तो उस में बदबुन थी। पति जोखू बीमार था वह प्यास रोक न सकने पर खराब पानी पीने को तैयार हो गया। लेकिन गंगी न पानी देती। वह जानती थी कि खराब पानी पीने से पति का बीमार पढ़ जाएगा। जाति-प्रथा ज़ोरों में था। निम्न जाति होने के कारण ठाकुर या साहूकार के कुएँ से वह पानी न भर सकती। जाति प्रथा के बारे में सोचते समय हम गंगी में एक विद्रोही का मन देखते हैं। उसकी शंका यह थी कि वह क्यों नीच हैं? और ये लोग क्यों ऊँचे हैं? कहते है जाति से ऊँच पर निम्न बातें करते हैं। ऐसे सोचकर बडी सावधानी से कुएँ की और चली। देवताओं को याद करके उसने घड़ा कुएँ में डाला। घड़े को पकड़कर जगत पर रखने वह झुकी कि एकाएक ठाकुर का दरवाज़ा खुल गया। गंगी का धैर्य टूट गया और उसके हाथ से रस्सी टूट गयी। रस्सी के साथ घडा पानी में गिर गया। कौन है कौन है पुकारते ठाकुर कुएँ की ओर आने लगे। इसी समय गंगी जगत से कूदकर भागी। इस प्रकार पति के स्वास्थ्य के बारे में सोचनेवाली धीर और जाति-प्रथा को घृणा करनेवानी नारी है – गंगी।

गतिविधि – 2

सूचना : ‘ठाकुर का कुआँ’ कहानी का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
बोली – “यह पानी कैसे पिओगे? न जाने कौन जानवर मरा हैं। कुएँ से मैं दूसरा पानी लाए देती हूँ।”
जोखू ने आश्चर्य से उसकी ओर देखा – “पानी कहाँ से लाएगी?”
“ठाकुर और साहू के दो कुएँ तो हैं। क्या एक लोटा पानी न भरने देंगे?”
“हाथ-पाँव तुड़वा आएगी और कुछ न होगा।”

Thakur Ka Kuan Kahani Ka Saransh Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
‘गंगी’ के बदले ‘जोखू’ का प्रयोग करके वाक्य बदलकर लिखें।
गंगी पानी लाएगी।
उत्तर:
जोखू पानी लाएगा।

Thakur Ka Kuan Summary Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
‘हाथ-पाँव तुड़वा आएगी और कुछ न होगा।’ इस कथन पर आपका विचार क्या हैं?
उत्तर:
जाति प्रथा एक अभिशाप हैं। ऊँच जाति निम्न जाति से कई प्रकार के क्रूर व्यवहार करते हैं। निम्न जाति ऊँच जाति के कुएँ से पानी लेना मना हैं।

Thakur Ka Kuan In Malayalam 10th प्रश्ना 3.
कहानी के अंश के आधार पर पटकथा का एक दृश्य लिखें।
उत्तर:

गतिविधि – 3

सूचना : ‘ठाकुर का कुआँ’ कहानी का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
गंगी के हाथ से रस्सी छूट गई। रस्सी के साथ घडा धड़ाम से पानी में गिरा और कई क्षण तक पानी में हिलकोरें की आवाजें सुनाई देती रही। ठाकुर ‘कौन है, कौन है?’ पुकारते हुए कुएँ की तरफ आ रहे थे और गंगी जगत से कूदकर भागी जा रही थी। घर पहुँचकर देखा कि जोखू लोटा मुँह से लगाए वही मैला – गंदा पानी पी रहा है।

Takur Ka Kuam Malayalam 10th प्रश्ना 1.
मान लें, भागी आई गंगी ने देखा कि जोखू लोटे का गंदा पानी पी रहा हैं। इस प्रसंग पर दोनों के बीच का संभावित वार्तालप लिखें।
उत्तर:
गंगी : अरे यह आप क्या कर रहे हैं?
जोखू : आ गयी! घडे भर पानी मिला?
गंगी : नहीं
जोखू : मैं ने पहले ही बताया है न? मुझे मालूम था कि नहीं मिलेगा।
गंगी : कुएँ के पास कोई नहीं था। इसलिए सीधे वहाँ पहुँची। पर
जोखू : क्या हुआ?
गंगी : दो लौडियाँ पानी भरने आई। उनके चले जाने तक वृक्ष की छाया में जा खडी हुई।
जोखू : उन्होने तुझे देखा क्या?
गंगी : वे चले जाने के बाद कुएँ के जगह मैं पहूँची। ठाकुर दरवाज़ा बंद करने के बाद पानी भरा और घड़े को पकड़कर जगत पर रखा। तब ठाकुर का दरवाज़ा खुल गया।
जोख : त ने क्या किया?
गंगी : भय से हाथ से रस्सी छूट गयी। रस्सी के साथ घडा धड़ाम से पानी में गिरा। पानी में हिलकोरे की आवाज़ सुनकर ठाकुर कौन है – कौन है पुकारते आये।”
जोखू : फिर!
गंगी : तब मैं जगत से कूदकर भागी।
जोखू : हमें शुद्ध पानी पीने का अवकाश नहीं।

प्रश्ना 2.
‘गंगी जगत से कूदकर भागी जा रही थी।’ – इस में भागी जा रही थी’ क्रिया का सीधा संबंध वाक्य के किस शब्द से है? (जगत, गंगी, कूदकर)
उत्तर:
गंगी।

प्रश्ना 3.
‘गिरा’ क्रिया के स्थान पर कोष्ठक के किस रूप रखकर सही वाक्य बना सकता हैं?
उत्तर:
घड़ा धड़ाम से पानी में गिरा। उः घड़ा धड़ाम से पानी में गिरेगा।

गतिविधि – 4

प्रश्ना 1.
संबंध पहचानें, सही मिलान करें।

उत्तर:

प्रश्ना 2.
संबंध पहचानें, सही मिलान करें।

उत्तर:

ठाकुर का कुआँ Additional Questions and Answers

ठाकुर का कुआँ आशयग्रहण के प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
‘कुआँ दूर था। बार-बार जाना मुश्किल था।’ यहाँ गंगी की कौन-सी विवशता प्रकट होती है?

उत्तर:
यहाँ गंगी की गरीबी का चित्र उभर आता है। गरीबी के कारण उन्हें अपना कुआँ नहीं है। गाँव के अन्य दो ही कुओं से पानी लेना पड़ता है। वे कुएँ घर से बहुत दूर भी थे।

प्रश्ना 2.
‘खराब पानी से बीमारी बढ़ जाएगी, इतना जानती थी। परंतु यह न जानती थी कि पानी को उबाल लेने से उसकी खराबी जाती रहती है।’ -इससे कौन-सी सामाजिक वास्तविकता प्रकट होती है?

उत्तर:
यहाँ गंगी की अशिक्षा का संकेत है। निम्न और गरीब लोग शिक्षा से भी वंचित रह जाते हैं। इसलिए उनमें अनजानी, अंधविश्वास आदि भी देखे जाते हैं। यह सामाजिक वास्तविकता यहाँ प्रकट होती है।

प्रश्ना 3.
‘ब्राह्मण देवता आशीर्वाद देंगे, ठाकूर लाठी मारेंगे, साहूजी एक के पाँच लेंगे। गरीबों का दर्द कौन समझता है?’ -जोखू के इस कथन का मतलब क्या है?

उत्तर:
समाज में गरीब लोग सभी प्रकार के शोषण के शिकार है। चाहे ब्राह्मण हो, ठाकुर हो, साहुकार हो सब गरीबों को लुटा रहे हैं। गरीबों के दुख-दर्द को समझनेवाले कोई नहीं है। कोई सहायता देनेवाले भी नहीं हैं। ये सारी बातें जोखू के कथन से स्पष्ट होती हैं।

प्रश्ना 4.
‘गंगी का विद्रोही दिल रिवाज़ी पाबंदियों और मज़बूरियों पर चोटें करने लगा।’ -यहाँ प्रस्तुत रिवाज़ी पाबंदी और मज़बूरी क्या-क्या हैं?

उत्तर:
जाति के नाम पर समाज में बड़ा अलगाव था। निम्न कहे जानेवाले लोगों से छुआ पानी पीना, भोजन खाना, कुएँ से पानी भरना, रास्ते में उनसे मिलना आदि बातों में पाबंदी थी। निम्न वर्ग के लोग ये सब सहकर जीने को विवश थे। उच्च वर्ग के लोगों के हितानुसार अपनी ज़िंदगी की प्राथमिकताओं को तय करने के लिए भी वे विवश थे।

प्रश्ना 5.

उत्तर:
ये लोग ऊँचे क्यों हैं? चोरी ये करते हैं, जाल-फ़रेब ये करें, जूठे मुकदमे ये करें। साहुजी मिलावाट के सामान बेचते हैं। बारहों मास जुआ ये खेलते हैं। काम पर मजूरी नहीं देते हैं। गरीब नारियों को रस भरी आँखों से देखते हैं।

प्रश्ना 6.
‘हम लोगों को आराम से बैठे देखकर जैसे मरदों को जलन होती है।’ -यहाँ किस सामाजिक स्थिति की ओर संकेत है?

उत्तर:
यह एक अलिखित कानून है कि औरतें घरेलू काम के लिए हैं। खाना बनाना, बर्तन मांजना, पानी भरना, कपड़ा धोना, बच्चों को पालना आदि बातों में उनकी जिंदगी फँसी रहती हैं। अगर कभी इसमें कोई चूक होती है तो पिटने तक नौबत आती है। मर्द चाहे आराम करें, लेकिन औरतों को आराम करने का हक नहीं है। यह विकट स्थिति यहाँ व्यक्त होती है।

ठाकुर का कुआँ Summary in Malayalam and Translation

ठाकुर का कुआँ शब्दार्थ

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 2 Notes Windows of Knowledge English Medium

Biology Notes Class 10 Kerala Syllabus

Sense organs are windows which lead sensations like fabulous sights, varied sounds, different smells, drooling tastes and touch into our consciousness. The sense organs help to understand the changes of our surroundings. The receptors which perform specific functions together form sense organs. This unit explains the sense organs eye, ear, nose, tongue and skin in detail.

→ About eighty percent of our sensations are provided by the eye.

→ Layers of the eye : Sclera, Choroid, Retina

→ Cornea : Slightly projected transparent anterior part of sclera.

→ Iris : Part of the choroid seen behind the cornea.

→ Pupil : The aperture seen at the centre of the iris.

→ Yellow spot: The part of the retina where plenty of photoreceptors are present.

→ Power of accommodation : The capacity’ of the eye to change the curvature of lens depending on the distance between eye and the object by adjusting the focal length.

→ Night blindness : Condition in which a person cannot see objects clearly in dim light.

→ Xerophthalmia: Due to the prolonged deficiency of Vitamin A, the conjunctiva and cornea will become dry and opaque.

→ Colour blindness : Persons with this defect cannot distinguish green and red colours.

→ Glaucoma : The condition in which the. reabsorption of aqueous humour does not occur, it causes an increase in the pressure.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Notes Pdf

→ Cataract: It is a condition in which the lens of the eyes become opaque resulting in blindness.

→ Parts of ear : External ear, middle ear, internal ear

→ Tympanum : A thin circular membrane that separates external ear from the middle ear.

→ Eustachian tube : Connects middle ear and pharynx.

→ Organ of Corti: Constituted of basilar membrane and sensory hair cells.

→ Chemoreceptors seen inside the mouth and tongue help us to detect taste.

→ Papillae : The projected structures seen on the surface of the tongue.

Biology Notes for Class 10 Kerala Syllabus

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 Malayalam Medium, Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 Malayalam Medium

Students can Download Kerala Padavali Unit 5 Chapter 1 Urulakkilann Tinnunnavar Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Guide Unit 5 Chapter 1 Urulakkilann Tinnunnavar

Urulakkilann Tinnunnavar Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Chapter 2 World in the Twentieth Century

Sslc Geography Chapter 1 English Medium Question 1.
What is meant by imperialism?
Answer:
The distinctive phase of flow of finance capital to colonies is known as imperialism. It is the developed form of capitalism. Imposing a nation’s political, economic and cultural dominance on another nation is a fundamental feature of imperialism.

Question 2.
How does colonization differ from imperialism?
Answer:
Industrial Revolution led to factory system which in turn led to the emergence of capitalist economic system. The over-production forced the industrialised European countries to search for markets in Asia, Africa and Latin American countries.

This search for markets led to competition among them. Using political power and military forces, the European countries economically exploited die nations of Africa, Asia and Latin America. Later, they became the colonies of European countries. This process is called colonization.

Formation of trade unions, their constant agitations and the resultant increase in the wages of workers diminished the profit of the capitalists. So the colonial masters started to invest capital in the colonies. The distinctive phase of flow of finance capital to colonies is known as imperialism.

The factors that led to aggressive nationalism

• Competition among European countries in the search for markets.
• European nations used language,religion and culture to induce a feeling of love towards one’s mother country among the people.
• The merits and traditions of nations were highlighted.
• The desire to invade other countries and to conquer their regions.
• Considering one’s own nation as the supreme and justifying its actions – whether good or bad.
• Movements started in other countries rooted in aggressive nationalism.
• Formation of secret organizations.
• The growth of Pan-Slav Movement started by Russia, Pan-German Movement started by Germany and Revenge Movement started by France.

Question 3.
“Paris Peace Conference led to the outbreak of the Second World war”. Do you agree with this statement? Why?
Answer:

• The statement is correct.
• In the Paris Peace Conference of 1919, the winning allies under the leadership of Britain and France signed different treaties with defeated nations.
• Among these, the most important one was the Treaty of Versailles of 1919, signed with Germany.
• As per the treaty,
  • German colonies were divided among victorious powers.
  • Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war indemnity.
  • The allies occupied the rich mines of Germany.
  • The war guilt was imposed on Germany,
  • Germany was disarmed.
• The treaty incited a spirit of revenge and aggressive nationalism among the Germans. The Germans under Hitler resented the unilateral and unjust provisions of the treaty and this led to the Second World War.

Question 4.
What are the factors that led America into economic crisis?
Answer:

• People who became pauper because of the war, couldn’t afford the commodities.
• Goods were kept unsold in factories.
• European nations failed to repay their debt to USA.
• Banks collapsed.
• Acute unemployment and poverty.
• The crash of share market.
• Increase in inflation.
• Fall in the price of agricultural products.

Question 5.
List the features of Fascism.
Answer:

Question 6.
Match Column A with Column B.

Answer:

Question 7.
Elucidate the political circumstances that resulted in Palestine-Israel conflict.
Answer:
Palestine was occupied by both Jews and Arabs. The Jews claim it to be their home land. Following the Babylonian attack, many Jews from Palestine migrated to different parts of the world.

• Until the First World War, the territory including Palestine was part of the Turkish Empire.
• As Turkey was defeated in the war, Britain took over the Palestine region.
• Since the Jews helped Britain in the war, the British Foreign Secretary Arthur Balfour declared the establishment of a Jewish nation in West Asia as a reward. It is known as Balfour Declaration.
• Zionism is an international movement with an objective of the establishment of a homeland for the Jews.
• In 1948, the nation Israel was formed for the Jews. This was followed by many wars between Israel and Arab nations.
• Israel seized Palestine expelling the Palestinians from their homeland.
• The Palestine Liberation Organization was founded with Yasser Arafat as President with the objective of establishing a nation for the Palestinians.
• After a series of bloodsheds and massacres, Israel agreed in principle to recognize Palestine as a free nation, as per the Oslo Pact.

10 Th Std Geography Question 8.
Examine the relevance of non-alignment.
Answer:
Non-alignment is a movement of the unity of the newly independent countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America that did not join the capitalist bloc or the socialist bloc and remained independent. Non-alignment is a policy of neither neutrality or non-intervention. It demands the active intervention in the international events.

Non-alignment Movement (NAM) is the second largest international organisation after UNO, working for world peace. NAM permits member states to adopt an independent stand in international relations and to follow a foreign policy based on peace and co-operation.

It denounces all kinds of violence based on colour and race. It opposed the arms race and military alliances of power blocs. NAM believes that a world devoid of wars and conflicts alone can progress economically and socially.

The problems faced by the present day world are religious intolerance, racist conflicts, global terrorism, ecological problems and the evils of globalisation suffered by developing countries of the world. NAM can play an effective role in solving these problems and thus to build a new world order.

Question 9.
What are the changes that the disintegration of the Soviet Union brought to the world?
Answer:

• USA became the global power due to the disintegration of Soviet Union.
• A unipolar world emerged under the leadership of USA instead of a bipolar world.
• USA became the centre of world politics.
• Cold war ended.
• The policies and programmes of the capitalist countries remained unquestioned.

Question 10.
Examine the map of Africa (page number 29) and answer the following questions.
a. Find out the speciality of the boundaries of African countries.
b. Why do the African countries share straight borderlines?
c. Why did the European nations partition Africa?
Answer:
a. Most of the borderlines of African countries are straight.

b. The Europeans who reached Africa in search of natural resources partitioned the continent at the beginning of the 20th century. On the basis of some agreements among the European countries, they divided the African nations amongst themselves by just drawing straight lines on maps.

c. European nations partitioned Africa for exploitation of resources, markets and colonies.

Question 11.
How did Industrial Revolution cause colonization? Prepare a flowchart.
Answer:

Question 12.
How does imperialism differ from colonization?
Answer:
The European countries had established trade relationships with Asian, African and Latin American countries. They searched for markets and raw materials in these countries. Using political power and military forces, the European countries economically exploited the nations. Later they became the colonies of European countries. This process is called colonization.

The distinctive phase of flow of finance capital to colonies is known as imperialism. Colonialists imposed their dominance using legal system, administrative measures, military force, etc.

Question 13.
How did the Industrial Revolution cause conflict among nations?
Answer:
Following the Industrial Revolution, many nations produced more than they needed and more than they could accommodate in their domestic markets. The over-production forced them to search for markets. The search for markets by the industrialised countries of Europe led to competition among them.

The Europeans had established trade relationship with Asian, African and Latin American countries. They also competed for colonies. Competition led to conflicts among colonial powers. Thus competition and conflict among imperialist nations for colonies and markets led to the outbreak of wars.

Question 14.
How did the competition among the imperialist nations lead the world to a war?
Answer:
Colonization became complete during the period of imperialism. The European nations vied with each other in establishing colonies. They had considered the colonies as the source of raw materials and the market for their industrial products.

The competition among European nations led to conflicts among them and caused mutual mistrust and enmity. This further drove them to the signing of military alliances. These conflicts among the imperial powers ultimately led the entire world to a war. Moroccan crisis and Balkan crisis are examples for imperialist crises.

Question 15.
The Treaty of Versailles was an example of the vengeance against the defeated nations. Discuss.
Or
The Treaty of Versailles signed with Germany was humilating. Explain.
Answer:

• The Treaty of Versailles was signed with the defeated nation Germany by the victorious nations Britain and France after the First World War.
• The Treaty imposed the war guilt on Germany.
• Germany was disarmed.
• Germany was forced to pay a huge war idemntity of 6.6 million dollars to the victors.
• German colonies were divided among victorious powers.
• Germany had to give Alsace-Lorraine and Saar Coal fields to France.
• Thus the victorious powers revengefully imposed the humiliating treaty on Germany.

Social Science Short Notes For Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
Find out how the economic depression in the
United States of America affected the economy
of other nations and prepare a short note.
Answer:
The World Economic Depression of 1929 originated in USA. It began with the Stock Market crash in New York Stock Exchange.
The Treaty of Versailles 1919
War indemnity

• Germany was forced to pay 6.6 million dollars as war indemnity. It amounted to about 2% of the national product of Germany.
• Germany should compensate for the loss incurred by France, Belgium and Britain till 1921.

War guilt
The war guilt was imposed ón Germany.

Disarmament

• The number of soldiers was restricted to 1 lakh.
• No more conscription.
• No production of tanks, submarines and war planes.
• Surrender her battleships to allies.

Return of the territories conquered by Germany

• All German colonies were divided among Britain and France. The colony of South West Africa (modern Namibia) was given to Britain.
• Germany had to give Alsace – Lorraine and Saar basin (coal field) to France.
• The connection between Austria and Germany was severed.
• Poland was given Upper Silesia and Western Prussia.
• Danzig became a free city.
• Though production was increased by the use of science and technology, the people couldn’t afford to buy them.
• About ten thousand banks crashed between 1929 and 1932.
• The cultivators could not sell their products. They lost their land also.
• Fall in the price of agricultural products. As a result, debt and interest increased.
• Unemployment became grave.
• Increase in poverty.
• Labourers lost their jobs. Rapid decline in the wages of labourers.
• Inflation became uncontrollable.
• Many died around the world due to famine and poverty.
• European nations imposed heavy taxes on the colonies.
• Though production was increased by the use of science and technology, the people couldn’t afford to buy them.
• About ten thousand banks crashed between 1929 and 1932.
• The cultivators could not sell their products. They lost their land also.
• Fall in the price of agricultural products. As a result, debt and interest increased.
• Unemployment became grave.
• Increase in poverty.
• Labourers lost their jobs. Rapid decline in the wages of labourers.
• Inflation became uncontrollable.
• Many died around the world due to famine and poverty.
• European nations imposed heavy taxes on the colonies.

Question 17.
The ideologies put forth by both Fascists and Nazis had several similarities. Find some examples from the textbook.
Answer:

Question 18.
Fascism was a product of the First World War. Discuss.
Answer:

• The conditions of both the victorious and the defeated nations in the First World War were miserable.
• Many European governments lost their power.
• People were in misery.
• Unemployment, poverty and inflation gnawed the entire system.
• Economic destruction, rivalry against the victors and aimlessness.
• Though Italy was on the winning side after the war, she did not gain much when the spoils were shared.
• Political instability and opposition to republican ideas.
• The fascists rose to power capitalizing the political and economic chaos prevailing then.

Treaties Signed after the First World War
The victorious powers Britain and France signed treaties with the defeated nations Germany, Austria-Hungary, Turkey and Bulgaria.

• Treaty of Versailles 1919 : With Germany
• Treaty ofStGermain 1919: Signed with Austria- Hungary. Hungary was severed from Austria.
• Treaty of Sevres 1920 : With Turkey-Turkey lost all her claims over Africa and West Asia.
• Treaty of Neuilly 1919 : With Bulgaria

Question 19.
How did Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany defy world peace? Conduct a seminar on this topic.
Answer:

Seminar

Topic: Fascism and Nazism, a threat to World Peace .

Introduction:
Fascism was a political ideology which exerted decisive influence on the political and social life of Europe after the First World War. The economic disaster and political instability caused by die First World War compelled the people to distrust republican governments. It was in this context that Fascism was presented as an alternate ideology rooted in aggressive nationalism and antidemocratic principles. Fascism originated in Italy. Nazism which originated in Germany was the German version of fascism.

Fascism and Mussolini:
The growing fascist movement in Italy was led by Benito Mussolini. In 1921 he founded the Fascist Party.
The reasons for the growth of Fascism in Italy were the following.

• Italy got nothing, though she was with the victors in the First World War. Her imperialistic ambitions were not fulfilled.
• Post-war destruction of industries, unemployment, increase in tax, inflation, etc. kept the people away from the government.
• Industrialists, in fear of Italy moving towards socialism, were prompted to support Fascism.

The Fascist party grew up in Italy by resorting to terror and violence. They branded communists, socialists and the leaders of peasants and workers as enemies of the state. To create terror among people/Mussolini deputed armed gangs known as ‘Fasces’.

The government did not take any steps to control the Fascists. In the elections held in Italy in 1921, the Fascists did not get the majority. In 1922, Mussolini led a March to Rome, threatening to capture power. Victor Emmanuel D, the king of Italy invited Mussolini to form a government. Thus the Fascists came to power in Italy.

Once Mussolini came to power, he turned Italy into a despotic state. He resorted to despotic measures in the political and economic fields of Italy. Violence and ferocity were the strategies of Fascists. The steps taken by Mussolini to consolidate power were:

• Socialists and leaders of peasants and workers were proclaimed as enemies and executed them.
• Opponents of Fascism were executed.
• Using the military force ‘Black Shirts’, Mussolini suppressed the opponents.
• Imposed censorship on the press and cinema.
• Created a feeling that war was inevitable for progress.
• Communist Party and Labour Unions were prohibited.
• Thousands were imprisoned.
• Mussolini’s aggressive foreign policy led to conquer nations like Ethiopia and Albania. Italy’s run for dictatorial power led to the outbreak of the Second World War.

Nazism and Hitler:
Nazism was the German version of Fascism. The monstrous form of Fascist dictatorship in Germany was known as Nazism. Adolf Hitler was the leader of Nazism. The reasons that led to the growth of Nazism in Germany were:

The humiliation by the Treaty of Versailles. Germany felt humiliated when the Treaty of Versailles was imposed on them by the victorious powers after the First World War. They were agitated and yearned for a leader who could avenge this unfair treatment. The Germans sought someone who could restore the lost grandeur of Germany. It was under these circumstances that Nazi Party under Adolf Hitler gained support.

Economic destruction and inflation.

Failure of German government and the resultant political uncertainty.
Hitler joined the National German Workers Party which in short form was known as ‘Nazi’ Party in 1919. In 1923, Hitler was arrested and imprisoned for trying to usurp power. While in prison, Hitler wrote the book ‘Mein Kampf’ (My Struggle) which became the Bible of Nazism. Later in the elections, the Nazi Party came out as the single largest party and Hitler was appointed as the Chancellor.

Nazism opposed civic rights and freedom. It declared communism as its enemy and proclaimed the destruction of communism its avowed aim. Racism was its essence. Nazis claimed that the Aryans were the noblest of races and that the Germans were the best of Aryans. Hitler held the view that Aryans should rule Germany and Germany should rule the world. Nazis accused the Jews for the defeat of Germany in the First World War.

Hitler took many steps to consolidate his power in Germany.

• Socialists, communists, Jews and democrats were executed.
• Jews were massacred in masses in specially built concentration camps. This was known as the Holocaust. .
• A military force ‘Brown Shirts’ and a secret police troop ‘Gestapo’ were in charge of assaulting and massacring Jews.
• Hitler projected the purity of the Aryan race and argued that Aryans should rule the world.
• All other political parties, except the Nazi party were banned.
• Trade unions were banned.
• Military service was made compulsory.
• He incited a spirit of revenge among the Germans against the Treaty of Versailles.
• He used newspapers, radio, cinema and education systems widely to propagate Nazi ideologies.
• His aggressive foreign policy made him attack Austria, Czechoslovakia and Poland.
• Formed Rome-Berlin-Tokyo military alliance against other countries. This led to the Second World War.

Fascist and Nazi ideologies were similar.

• Opposition to democracy ad socialism
• Glorifying the nation
• Justifying war
• Deifying the past
• Military dictatorship
• Adoring the purity of race
• Diffusion of aggressive nationalism
• Destruction of political rivals
• Indoctrination of ideologies through arts, literature and education.
• Hero worship
• Craze for war
  Thus we can infer that the ideologies of Fascism and Nazism were a threat to world peace.

Question 20.
The reasons behind the outbreak of the First World War and the Second World War had x several similarities. Analyse the statement.
Answer:
The reasons for the outbreak of the First and Second World Wars had many similarities. They are discussed below.

Aggressive – nationalism:
Various movements rooted in aggressive nationalism emerged in Europe before the First World War. Russia started the Pan Slav Movement to unite the Slavic people of Serbia, Bulgaria and Greece in Eastern Europe under her leadership. Germany started the Pan German Movement to establish her dominance in Central Europe and Balkan provinces and to unite the Teutonic people.

France started the Revenge Movement against Germany to regain her territories of Alsace and Lorraine captured by Germany in the Franco-Prussian war of 1871. The aggressive nationalist movements that led to the Second World War were Fascism and Nazism.

Fascism began in Italy under Mussolini and Nazism began in Germany under Hitler. Violence and ferocity were the strategies of Fascists and Nazis. Fascists aimed at the restoration of ancient Roman empire. Nazis upheld the purity of Aryan race.

Formation of military alliances:
Military alliances led to both the wars. Mutual suspicion and enmity among nations led to the formation of military alliances. The two military alliances formed before the First World War were Triple Alliance and Triple Entente. Italy, Germany and Austria-Hungary formed the Triple Alliance. Triple Entente by Britain, France and Russia was formed to oppose this.

The military alliances that led to the Second World War were Axis Powers and Allied Powers. To conquer colonies and attack weaker nations, Italy, Germany and Japan formed the Axis Powers. Countering this alliance, Britain, France and China formed the Allied Powers.

Imperialist conflicts:
Imperialist rivalries led to many crises before both the wars. The imperialist rivalries that led to the First World War were Moroccan Crisis, Balkan Crisis and the Bosnian Crisis.

The competition among imperialist countries became acute after the First World War. Most of the colonies of Asia and Africa were controlled by Britain, France, Holland, etc. Countries like Italy, Germany and Japan had neither colonies nor markets. So they tried to capture the colonies of other countries and to invade weak nations. The conquest of Manchuria by Japan, Ethiopia by Italy and Rhineland and Austria by Germany were part of this project.

Immediate cause:
The immediate cause for the First World War was the assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand, the heir to the throne of Austria by a Serbian youth. Germany’s attack on Poland was the immediate cause for the Second World War.

Question 21.
Given below are some of the outcomes of the First World War. Discuss how they resulted in the Second World War
i) The Treaty of Versailles
ii) Formation of the League of Nations
iii) The emergence of Fascism and Nazism
Answer:
The First World War termed as ‘the war to end all wars’ could bring neither peace nor democracy in the world as it was promised. In the post war period, enmity and friction increased among the nations. This dragged the world into a terrible . Second World War.

i) The Treaty of Versailles:
The victorious Allied Powers revengefully imposed the Treaty of Versailles after the First World War on Germany. German colonies were divided among victorious powers. Germany was forced to pay a huge war indemnity. All war guilt was imposed on her and she was disarmed. These unilateral and unjust provisions of the treaty were highly resented by the Germans. Hitler incited a spirit of revenge among the Germans against the tertns of the Treaty of Versailles.

ii) Formation of the League of Nations:
The League of Nations was the international organization formed after the First World War. The League was formed on February 10, 1920. It’s aims were to ensure world peace and security, to promote international co-operation, to prevent wars, etc. But the League failed to prevent the attacks made by big powers. It could not implement disarmament. It failed to prevent Italy’s attack on Ethiopia and Japan’s attack on Manchuria. Thus the failure of the League of Nations led to the Second World War.

iii) The emergence of Fascism and Nazism:
The First World War devastated both the Allies. Many European governments lost their power. People were in misery. Unemployment, poverty and inflation gnawed their entire system. Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany rose to power, capitalizing on the political and economic chaos prevailing then.
Economic destruction, rivalry against the victors, aimlessness etc.

facilitated the Fascists and Nazis to grab power. The strategies adopted by them were violence and ferocity They opposed democracy and socialism, justified war, believed in military dictatorship, destroyed political rivals and followed a policy of aggressive nationalism. All these led to the Second World War.

Question 22.
Elucidate how far the activities of the UNO have succeeded in maintaining peace around the world.
Answer:
The United Nations Organisation came into existence on October 24, 1945. Some of its objectives are to save the succeeding generations from the scourge of war, to protect international treaties and laws and to foster social and economic development of countries.

For the purpose of encouraging friendship between states and for maintaining international peace and security, UNO intervenes in disputes between nations of the world. Interventions by UNO are by way of Peace Missions, Diplomatic Methods and Peace Keeping Force. The following are some of the problems settled by UNO.

• Solved the Israel-Palestine issue amicably.
• Ended Iran-Iraq war
• Solved Iraq-Kuwait issue
• Ended the civil war in Congo
• In the Gulf war between Iraq and Kuwait in 1991, freed Kuwait from Iraq.
• Ended the fights between different groups in Cambodia and Mozambique.
• Liberated South Africa from apartheid and made it an independent nation.
• In 2006, the UN created the Counter Terrorism Implementation Task Force for anti-terrorist activities.
• Conducted Cultural Fest at Oslo against global warming.

Thus the UNO is a world public forum that works for the security of human kind by stressing on social and economic progress and sustainable development.

Question 23.
Prepare a table on the liberated nations and their leaders in Asia and Africa.
Answer:

Question 24.
Was the cold war a threat to world peace? Evaluate.
Or
It was the conflicting ideologies that led to cold war. Evaluate.
Answer:
USA and the Soviet Union became super powers after the Second World War. The USA floated an alliance of capitalist countries while the USSR led socialist nations. These two blocs – capitalist bloc and socialist bloc continued their political and diplomatic wars. This enmity based on ideological conflict and diplomatic confrontations was called the cold war. Cold war was neither a state of war nor of peace. It was a diplomatic war. Ideological-hatred and political distrust were the bases of cold war.

Cold war was a threat to world peace. Cold war became intense when two blocs formed new military alliances and regional coalitions. The military pacts formed by USA against Soviet Union were North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), South East Asia Treaty Organization (SEATO) and Central Treaty Organization (CENTO). To counter this, Soviet Union formed the Warsaw Pact. Often the disputes between the blocs almost led the world to the brink of war.

10 Std Geography Question 25.
How did decolonization and cold war pave the way for the formation of non-aligned movement?
Answer:
As a result of decolonization, many countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America became independent. The super powers namely USA and USSR supported the freedom of the colonies. These countries did not join the capitalist bloc of USA or socialist bloc of USSR. They realized that the Cold war was yet another face of imperialism and that it would threaten world peace. The unity . among these countries led to the origin of Non-alignment. Decolonization and cold war paved the way for it.

Question 26.
Conduct a Seminar on the Topic ‘The Impacts of the Second World War on World History ’. Areas to be considered.
i) Liberation of Asian and African Countries
ii) Non-Aligned Movement
iii) Cold War
Answer:

Seminar

Topic: The Impacts of Second World War on World History

Introduction
The world faced a disastrous war during the period from 1939 to 1945. This war known as the Second World War which even threatened the very existence of mankind. The war led to the end of European dominance in world affairs. America and Soviet Union emerged as global powers. Over 10 million people died in the war.

i) Liberation of Asian and African Countries:
Anti-imperial struggles intensified in Asia and Africa when the war ended. The imperialist nations of Europe could not suppress these movements. The USA and the USSR which emerged as super powers after the war supported the freedom movements in the various colonies.

Gradually, colonies started to secure freedom from the imperialist control. India became independent in 1947. Burma (Myanmar) and Ceylon (Sri Lanka) became independent from England in 1948. Ghana became independent in 1957 under Kwame Nkrumah. In 1980 Southern Rhodesia became independent as Zimbabwe.

With the liberation of Namibia in 1990, European colonial rule came to an end in Africa. Countries like Spain, Portugal, Italy, Belgium and Holland were compelled to give independence to their colonies as a result of intensive struggles.

iii) Cold War:
The world was divided into two blocs on the basis of ideological differences after the war. They were the capitalist bloc under USA and the socialist bloc under USSR. The enmity based on ideological conflict and diplomatic confrontations was known as cold war.

Cold war was neither a state of war nor of peace. It was a diplomatic war. Cold war led to the formation of military alliances and arms race. Often the world was threatened by another war.

ii) Non-Aligned Movement:
The newly independent countries of Asia and Africa realized that cold war was yet another face of imperialism and that it would threaten world peace. Non-alignment was the unity forged by the newly independent countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America, without joining any of the power blocs.

These nations understood that the race of super powers for weapons and a stronger military force would pose harm to them. The idea ofNon-Aligned Movement was mooted at a meeting held in Bandung in Indonesia in 1955.

Question 27.
Examine how the imperialist interests caused the unrest in West Asia.
Answer:
Until the First World War, the territory including Palestine was part of the Turkish Empire. As Turkey was defeated in the war, Britain took over the region. Since the Jews helped Britain in the war, the then British Foreign Secretary Arthur Balfour declared the establishment of a Jewish nation in West Asia as a reward. Israel, a nation for the Jews was formed in 1948. This was followed by Arab-Israel conflicts. By the Oslo Pact of 1993. Israel recognized Palestine. The imperialist conflicts of European nations led to West Asian crisis. West Asia holds half of the world’s total oil reserves. Arab nations used oil export as a strategy to resolve Palestine issue. They executed this strategy by reducing oil production and hiking the price.

Question 28.
How does neo imperialism affect the economy of third world countries?
Answer:

• The multi-national companies competed with one another to control the resources and assets of third world countries.
• They promoted consumerism in third world countries to sell their products.
• Developing nations became markets for multinational companies.
• The products of multinational companies reached even the villages of developing nations.
• Due to the pressure from multinational products and marketing strategies, the economy of many third world countries started to collapse.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions

Students can Download Kerala SSLC English Model Question Paper First Term Evaluation Pdf, Kerala SSLC English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC English Model Question Paper First Term Evaluation

Time: 2½ Hours
Maximum: 80 Scores

Instructions:

• The first fifteen minutes is cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan the answers.
• Read the questions carefully before answering.
• Certain Sections of the questions have choices. Follow the instructions.

Questions 1 – 5: Read the extract from Adventures in a Banyan Tree and answer the questions that follow. Each question carries one score. (5 × 1 = 5)

In the spring, when the banyan tree was full of small red figs, birds of all kinds would flock into its branches, the red-bottomed bulbul, cheerful and greedy; gossiping rosy pastors, and parrots and crows, squabbling with each other all the time. During the fig season, the banyan tree was the noisiest place on the road.

Halfway up the tree I had built a small platform on which I would often spend the afternoons when it wasn’t too hot. I could read there, propping myself up against the bole of the tree with cushions taken from the drawing room. Treasure Island, Huckleberry Finn. The Mowgli stories, and the Novels of Edgar Rice Burroughs and Louisa May Alcott made up my bag of very mixed reading.

Question 1.
When would birds flock into the branches of the banyan tree?
Answer:
Birds would flock into the branches of the’ banyan tree in the spring, when it was full of small red figs.

10th Class First Term Question Paper 2021 Question 2.
A word in the passage means ‘noisy quarrel’. Identify the word.
Answer:
Squabbling

Question 3.
What did the boy do while sitting on the platform on the banyan tree?
Answer:
He spent the afternoons, when it was not too hot, reading different kinds of books.

Question 4.
How did the banyan tree become the noisiest place?
Answer:
The banyan tree became the noisiest place because different kinds of birds came to the tree to eat its small red figs.

Question 5.
Name the books that gave the boy the mixed reading experience.
Answer:
Treasure Island, Huckleberry Finn, the Mowgli Stories, Novels of Edgar Rice Burroughs and Louisa May Alcott.

Questions 6 – 9: Read the following lines from the poem Lines Written in Early Spring and answer the questions that follow. Each question carries one score. (4 × 1 = 4)

I heard a thousand blended notes,
While in a grove I sate reclined,
In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts
Bring sad thoughts to the mind.

To her fair works did Nature link The human sould that through me ran ‘
And much it grieved my heart to think What man has made of man.

Question 6.
What does the poet mean by the expression a thousand blended notes’?
Answer:
He means different kinds of music.

Question 7.
Why did the pleasant thoughts bring sad thoughts to the poet’s mind?
Answer:
The pleasant thoughts brought sad thoughts to the poet’s mind because he saw what man has made of man because of his greed, jealousy and conflicting ideologies.

Question 8.
Pick out an example of auditory image from the given lines.
Answer:
“I heard a thousand blended notes.”

Question 9.
Identify the lines that tell us Nature is linked to the soul of human beings.
Answer:
To her fair works did Nature link/The human soul that through me ran.

Model Question Paper English Question 10.
Read the following lines from Lines Written in Early Spring and write a note of appreciation focusing on the theme, and other poetic devices.  (1 × 5 = 5)

The budding twigs spread out their fan,
To catch the breezy air;
And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there.

If this belief from heaven be sent,
If such be Nature’s holy plan,
Have I not reason to lament
What man had made of man?
Answer:
The poet says that while sitting reclined on a woodland grove, his mind was filled with several thoughts. While he finds solace in the nature’s beauty, the same beauty also reminds him of sad thoughts. The speaker appreciates the nature for her god like abilities of linking a human soul to herself but he also feels grief while thinking about how cruelly man has separated himself from mother nature. The poet is highly appreciative of nature’s beauty.

He finds delight in the green bowers and has faith that the beautiful flowers enjoy every ounce of the air they breathe and they are thankful for living beside the nature. The speaker observes the birds which sing and hop around him. He is in awe of these creatures. Though the speaker does not understand their language and ways, he does recognize that the birds are creating all these movements out of sheer pleasure and joy.

The breeze blowing is sweet and light, the twigs are spreading out as if to catch the sweet air and all the poet can do is gather pleasure in their existence. The speaker questions that if this is heaven and this is the holy plan of nature then what man has done to himself is really bad. Man has separated himself from such joy and is spending his time hating one another and fighting wars.

The poem has 6 quatrains and the rhyming scheme is abab. There are examples of personification. There ‘is fine visual and auditory imagery. We too feel like the poet reclining in the grove watching the flowers and listening to the music of the birds. Nature is really beautiful.

Questions 11 – 15: Read the story given below and answer the questions that follow. (5 × 1 = 5)

There was a man who had four sons. He wanted his sons to learn not to judge things too quickly. So he sent them each to go and look at a pear tree that was a great distance away.

The first son went in the winter, the second in the spring, the third in summer, and the youngest son in autumn. When they had all gone and returned, he called them together to describe what they had seen. The first son said that the tree was ugly, bent and twisted. The second son said it was covered with green buds and full of blossoms that smelled so sweet and looked so beautiful, it was the most graceful thing he had ever seen.

The third son disagreed with all of them; he said it was ripe and drooping with fruit, full of life and fulfilment. The fourth son disagreed to all and said that the tree was covered with red leaves and the floor was carpeted with golden leaves. The man then explained to his sons that they had each seen one season in the tree’s life.

He told them, that they could not judge a tree, or a person, by only one season, but could only be measured at the end, when all the seasons were up. If you give up when it’s winter, you will miss the promise of your spring, the fulfillment of your summer, beauty of your autumn. He said, “Don’t judge a life by one difficult season. Don’t let the pain of one season destroy the joy of all the rest.”

Question 11.
Where did the man send his sons to learn the lesson of life?
Answer:
The man sent his sons to go and look at a pear tree that was a great distance away.

Question 12.
How did the second son describe the tree?
Answer:
He described the tree as covered with green buds and full of blossoms that smelled so sweet and looked so beautiful. It was the most graceful thing he had ever seen.

Question 13.
How was the tree in autumn season?
Answer:
It was covered with red leaves and the floor was carpeted with golden leaves.

Question 14.
What made the father say that no one can judge a tree by only one season?
Answer:
He said that because a tree has different appearances in different seasons. In winter it may look ugly, bent and twisted. In summer it is full of buds and flowers. In spring it is full of fruit and in autumn the leaves fall away.

Question 15.
What message did the father give his sons?
Answer:
The pain of one season should not ruin the joy of all the rest.

Question 16.
Prepare a profile of william Wordsworth, using the hints given below. Use appropriate linkers whereever necessary.
Born: April 7,1770 Cockermouth, England
Famous as: One among the trios of romantic revolution in poetry.
Notable works: The Solitary Reaper, The Prelude, Lyrical Ballads, The World Is Too Much with Us, Ode: Intimations of Immortality, The Excursion
Title: Poet Laureate (1843-1850)
Movement: Romanticism
Died: April 23,1850 (aged 80) Westmorland, England
Answer:
William Wordsworth was born on 7 April 1770 at Cockermouth in England. He is famous as one of the three poets who led the romantic revolution in poetry. His notable works are “The Solitary Reaper”, “The Prelude”, “Lyrical Ballads”, “The World is Too Much with Us”, “Ode: Intimations of Immortality” and “The Excursion”.

He was the Poet Laureate of England from 1843 to 1850. He is known as the High Priest of Nature, He along with Samuel Taylor Coleridge paved the way for Romanticism in poetry. He died on 23 April, 1850 at Westmoreland, England. The world remembers him as one of the greatest English poets who instilled the love of Nature into his readers.

Questions 17 -18: Answer any ONE of the following questions. (1 × 7 = 7)

Question 17.
The boy in the story ‘Adventures in a Banyan Tree’ had a wonderful experience during his vacation. He narrated the events to his friends. Prepare the likely narrative.
(Hints: Old Banyan tree – favourite domain – friendship with squirrel – hot summer – making platform for reading – fight between mongoose and the snake – supporters of mongoose – friendship of white rat and grey squirrel)
Answer:
There is an old banyan tree near my house. I often sit on a platform I made in the tree and read different books. It was an Aprif afternoon and itwas quite warm.

I soon saw a black cobra coming out of a group of cactus and he was looking for a very cool place in the garden. A mongoose also came out and went towards a cobra. They came face to face. The cobra knew the mongoose was a fine fighter, very clever and aggressive. But the cobra was also an experienced fighter.

His teeth were full of poison. I was now seeing a battle of champions. The cobra darted its tongue in and out. The cobra was 6 feet long. It raised its head and spread its hood. The mongoose also was ready to fight. Its hair on the spine stood up like bristles. This would prevent its body from getting bitten by the cobra.

A myna and a jungle crow were watching the fight. At one stage they dived towards the cobra but they missed it. The myna went back to the tree. But the crow was trying to turn around and it was struck by the cobra. The crow died soon. The mongoose proved too clever for the cobra and finally the cobra was killed by the mongoose which dragged it into the bush nearby.

I saw another interesting sight. I saw a glint from nest of the squirrel which I had seen often. I wanted to investigate. To my great surprise I saw three white baby squirrels in the in the nest. The nest was made with wool taken from my grandmother’s knitting. I told my grandfather about the 3 white baby squirrels in the nest. My grandfather had brought a white rat.

I had often seen the white rat often going with the squirrel. I soon learned that rats and squirrels belonged to the same family and they could breed. In fact the white rat was the father of white baby squirrels.

10 Class First Term Question Paper Question 18.
Satyajit Ray made eleborate preparations for the shooting of a scene with the tiger in his film ‘Goopy Gyne Bagha Byne’. In the light of reading the memoir, ‘Project Tiger’, prepare a write up on the difficulties faced by Ray in the making of the film.
(Hints: meeting with Thorat travel to Notun Gram – large crowd gathered – tiger’s violent behaviour – tiger walks in the grove – dim light – second shooting at . Calcutta-successful)
Answer:
As arranged with Mr. Thorat of Bharat Circus, a lorry arrived with two well-fed tigers. He brought two so that if one did not do things properly the other could be used. Atripod was placed facing the bamboo grove to mount the camera. The audience was instructed to get behind the camera. Goopy and Bagha were placed close to the bamboo grove so that they could be seen along with the tiger. A five-foot iron rod was fixed to the ground, some 30 feet from the area where the tiger was to walk.

A tiger-skin collar with a thin wire inside was placed in the neck of the tiger. The door of the cage was opened and the tiger jumped out. But instead of walking calmly it started running and jumping about. When it became calm some shots were taken. But the shots were later found to be dark owing to poor light.

The scenes had to be shota second time. A bamboo grove near Calcutta in Boral was found. The lorry arrived with Thorat, the tiger, the steel wire, the special collar arid the iron rod. The whole village came to watch the shooting. The villagers were told to keep at least 70 feet away from the scene of the shot.

Without listening to the instructions, the entire crowd got as close to the camera as they could. Thorat opened the cage. With a roar the tiger charged towards the crowd. The crowd disappeared as if my magic. Soon the tiger calmed down and the shots were taken as required. This time the tiger and the camera behaved well.

Questions 19 – 21: Answer any TWO of the following questions. (2 × 5 = 10)

Question 19.
The boy was excited to see the thrilling fight between the snake and the mongoose. That night, he wrote his feelings in his diary. Prepare the likely diary entry.
Answer:
I was sitting on the platform of the old banyan tree near my house. I often sit there and read different books. Today being an April afternoon and it was quite warm. I soon saw a black cobra coming out of a group of cactus and he was looking for a very cool place in the garden. A mongoose also came out and went towards a cobra. They came face to face. The cobra knew the mongoose was a fine fighter, very clever and aggressive. But the cobra was also an experienced fighter.

His teeth were full of poison. I was now seeing a battle of champions. The cobra darted its tongue in and out. The cobra was 6 feet long. It raised its head and spread its hood. The mongoose also was ready to fight. Its hair on the spine stood up like bristles. This would prevent its body from getting bitten by the cobra. A myna and a jungle crow were watching the fight.

At one stage they dived towards the cobra but they missed it. The myna went back to the tree. But the crow was trying to turn around and it was struck by the cobra. The crow died soon. The mongoose proved too clever for the cobra and finally the cobra was killed by the mongoose which dragged it into the bush nearby. What a wonderful fight it was!

Sslc English Question Paper Pdf Question 20.
The news about the robbery that happened in the homoeopath’s house appeared in a leading daily. Write the likely news report.
Answer:
Robbery In a Hotel:
Palakkad: A robbery was reported in a local hotel named “Everyman’s Hotel”. The police said that a homeopath rented a room in this small hotel as he did not have much money. The room had no electricity and it was rat-infested. The homeopath took his meal in a restaurant nearby. He returned to the room. He lit a lamp. He sat on a chair near the table and looked into the mirror. As he sat admiring himself and making his future plans, a cobra fell from above and coiled around his hand.

He was so shaken that he could not even utter a sound. He thought his end was near and cursed himself for choosing such a hotel which did not even have electricity. Fortunately, the cobra saw its reflection in the mirror and it thought it was another cobra. It then uncoiled itself from the body of the homeopath.

The homeopath ran for his life and spent the night in the house of a friend. . But the homeopath’s misfortune did not end there. When he returned to bis room in the hotel with his friend the next morning, all his belongings were gone. His trunk which had all his possessions was gone. Even the mirror was gone. He had to borrow some money from his friend to buy some clothes – and other essential things. The police are investigating.

Question 21.
The English Club of your school invites teh noted writer Ruskin Bond to inaugurate a three day literary festival in your school. Prepare a notice to invite the parents, teachers and students of the school to the function.
Answer:

St. Joseph’S H.S.S. Edappally
English Club

8 December 2019

Notice

The English Club of our School is planning to organize a Three-Day Literary Festival. The famous writer Ruskin Bond has kindly agreed to inaugurate the Festival. The festival will feature poems, short stories ’and short plays written by our students. The Festival is from 15 to 17 December 2019. On the last day of the Festival many famous writers will be presenting their compositions. The Festival will end with the staging of the play “Never-Never Nest” by the famous writer Cedric Mount. The play satirizes modern man’s desire to live beyond his means and the consumer culture that has gripped our society.

The Inaugural Meeting will be at 10.00 a.m. on 15 December 2019, in the Assembly Hall. Parents, teachers and all students are cordially invited for this great event. Do come and make the event a resounding success.
Natasha Saj
Secretary

Questions 22 – 26: Answer any TWO of the following questions. (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 22.
The homoeopath narrates his experience with teh snake to one of his friends, who is a journalist in a leading newspaper. Prepare the likely conversation between the homoeopath and the journalist.
Answer:
Journalist: Doctor, I heard that you had a problem in the Everyman’s Hotel. What was it?
Homeopath: Problem? You can say I escaped from death.
Journalist: What happened?
Homeopath: Everyman’s hotel is a cheap one. It has no electricity and its rooms are infested with rats.
J: Then why did you go there?
H: I did not have much cash with me. I thought I can spend the night there.
J: Then what happened?
H: I took my supper in a nearby restaurant. Then I went back to the hotel. My room had a table with a mirror on it. I was sitting on the chair
near the table and looking into the mirror and thinking about my future when suddenly a cobra fell down on ‘ my body. It coiled around my hand. I was so frightened that I could neither move nor scream. I thought my end was near.
J: Oh my God! And then?
H: Fortunately for me, the cobra looked into the mirror and saw its reflection there. It must have thought there is another cobra. It slowly uncoiled itself and started moving towards the mirror. I then ran for my life. I went to a friend’s house nearby to,pass the night. The next morning I went back to my hotel room to take my things. And what do I see there? All my things were stolen. Even the mirror was stolen.
J: Most unlucky! What did you do then?
H: I reported the matter to the police. They are investigating.
J: I hope and pray you get back your things.
H: Thanks!

Question 23.
Satyajit Ray arranges a press meet soon after the shooting of his film ‘Goopy Gyne Bagha Byne’. You are one of the reporters present on the occasion. Prepare six questions that you may ask ray about the shooting.
Answer:
Mr Ray, how did you manage to shoot with a tiger? Wasn’t it dangerous to job?
Did the shots come the way you wanted?
Would you use a tiger in your next film?
Why do you take such great risks?
Was the film a great success in the box office?

Adventures In A Banyan Tree Model Question Paper Question 24.
Based on the reading of the stories Adventures in a Banyan free and ‘Snake and the Mirror’, prepare a Speech on the topic The need of living in harmony with nature’, to be delivered in the school assembly.
Answer:
Respected Principal, teachers and my dear students, Today I am going to talk to you about the need for living in harmony with nature. We know that nature is like our mother who nourishes us by giving us all the things we need. Who gives us the air we breathe? From where does the food we eat come from? Who gives us the water we drink? Who gives us the beautiful dawn and glorious sunset? The answer to all these questions is “Mother Nature”.

When I talk about the need of living in harmony with nature, I am reminded of two stories from a lesson we have to study for four SSLC. The lesson is titled “Adventures in a Banyan Tree” by the famous writer Ruskin Bond. There was an old banyan tree near the house of the narrator of the story. He made a platform on the tree and often spent his time-there reading different books and watching the things going on around him.

In the spring when the banyan tree had small red figs, different kinds of birds would come to eat them. The birds included bulbul, rosy pastors, parrots and crows. During the fruit season, the banyan tree was the noisiest place around, One he saw a fight between a mongoose and a cobra. The fight was watched by a myna and also a crow. The crow was killed by the cobra as it went too close to it. In the end the mongoose kills the cobra and takes it away into the bush around.

Another sight was very thrilling. There was squirrel living in the tree. The narrator’s grandfather had brought a white rat, The rat became a close friend of the squirrel. The squirrel made a nest taking the wool from the narrator’s grandmother’s knitting. Once, the narrator saw a glint from the nest.

When he went to investigate he found there were three white squirrel babies. The white rat was the father of the squirrel babies. He was told by his grandfather that squirrels and rats belonged to the same family and so they could breed! It was new knowledge to him. Nature has many wonders for us. Nurture her and observe her for a rewarding life.

Thanks for listening!

Question 25.
The homeopath in the story The Snake and The Mirror’ is a man who is able to find humour in every aspect of life. Prepare the character sketch of the homoeopath.
Answer:
The homeopath in the story “The Snake and the Mirror” is a man who is able to find humour in every aspect of life. Basheer has used contrasts to bring humour into a frightening story where a full-blooded cobra coils around a doctor. The doctor is a poor man. His earnings were meagre. He had only Rs. 60 with him. He lived in a small rented room. There was no electricity in the room. It was infested with rats. He is concerned with his appearance.

He is conscious that he is a doctor. He realizes that he is capable of committing blunders. But he wants to appear smart and more handsome. For that he will keep a thin moustache and keep smiling. He wants to be a successful and rich man. He wants to marry a lady doctor with money and also good practice. He wants her to be fat so that she does not catch up with him if he makes a mistake and wants to run away. But he ends up marrying a thin and slender woman.

She could run like a sprinter. He was proud of his looks. He is a doctor and he would marry a rich woman. He wanted to appear more handsome. He was feeling happy when suddenly from the beam a cobra fell down and coiled around him. All his thoughts about making himself more handsome and getting married vanished like mist in sunshine.

He was so terrified that he turned into a stone. He thought of God. He felt pain when the snake coiled around his arm. He would be in trouble if the snake bit him. He had no medicine against snake poison. He considers himself as a poor, foolish and stupid doctor. When the snake releases its hold on him we see him fleeing for his life.

Question 26 – 31: Given below is a pie-diagram of the time spend by a cricket team. Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Question 26.
What does the cricket team spend maximum time for?
Answer:
For eating and sleeping.

Question 27.
How mucli time does the team spend for batting?
Answer:
Ten percent.

Question 28.
The circket team speds 15% of their time for ……………….. and ………………..
Answer:
The cricket teams spend 15% of their time for fitness exercises and 15% for field work.

First Term Previous Year Question Paper Question 29.
What percentage of time is spend for improving fit-ness?
Answer:
15%

Question 30.
What is the percentage of time spend by the team for eating and sleeping?
Answer:
37.50%

Question 31.
Read the coversation between the boy and the grandfather and answer the questions given below. (2 × 1 = 2)
Grandfather: Why do you look very excited?
The Boy: I saw a thrilling fight between a snake and a mongoose
a) What did the grandfather ask the boy?
b) What was his reply?
Answer:
a) The grandfather asked the boy why he looked very excited.
b) The boy replied saying that he had seen a thrilling fight between a snake and a mongoose.

Question 32.
Fill in the blanks using the phrasal verbs given in brackets. (4 × 1 = 4)

The homoeopath ………….a…………. to look hand-some. He …………..b………….. another idea that his wife had to be rich and fat. Suddenly an unwelcome guest entered the room. It was a snake. The doctor was …………..c………….. when it coiled around his arm. The snake suddenly saw its reflection in the mirror and got fascinated. It slowly uncoild itself and moved on to the table. The doctor …………..d…………. his shirt and ran to his friend’s house.
Answer:
a) made up his mind
b) put forward,
c) taken aback,
d) put on

Question 33.
Edit the following passage. The errors are given in bold. (4 × 1=5)
It was (a) at April. The warm breeze of the approaching summer (b) have sent everyone indoors including grandfather. Suddenly I saw a snake (c) out coming of a group of cactus and (d) slow moving to the cooler part of the garden.
Answer:
a) in
b) had
c) coming out
d) slowly

Question 34.
Some parts of the conversation between Ali’s father and mother are missing complete them suitably.

Father: What happened dear?
Mother: The back pain is troubling me again.
Father: Oh! If you work with his slipped disc, ……………(a)………………
Mother: You want me to take rest all day, …………(b)………….. ?
Father: Then you tell me a solution.
Mother: We had better …………….c)…………….
Father: Surgery is very risky. It is very expensive as well.
Mother: …………… (d)……………?
Father: But the company has already stopped giving loans.
Mother: …………… (e)…………….?
Father: You should learn to live with it.
Answer:
a) the pain will continue,
d) don’t you
c) go for a surgery
d) Can’t you take a loan from the company?
e) Then what will I do?

10th First Term Question Paper Question 35.
Pick out the noun phrase in the subject position from the following sentences.
a) A fat snake coiled around the doctors arm.
b) The owners of the dogs mage a lot of money from just one film.
Answer:
a) A fat snake,
b) The owners of the dogs

Question 36.
Given the below is a chart displaying the classroom conduct for students inside a classroom. Some ar- eas.are missing in it. Fill them up from those given in the box. (4 x 1 = 4)

1. Maintain discipline …………(a)………… the classroom.
2. Follow the instructions ……………(b)………….. teachers.
3. Keep ………………(c)…………….. classroom neat and clean.
4. Do not scribble ……………(d)………….. the blackboard,

Answer:
a) in
b) of
c) the
d) on

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions Chapter 1 Seasons and Time

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Seasons And Time Question 1.
Which of the following is summer solstice in Northern Hemisphere?
March 21
September 23
June 21
December 22
Answer:
June 21

Question 2.
The northward apparent movement of the sun from Tropic of Capricorn to Tropic of Cancer
Utharayanam
Dakshinayanam
Solstice
Equinox
Answer:
Utharayanam

Question 3.
The season that marks the transition from the severity of summer towards winter.
Spring season
Rainy season
Autumn season
Winter season
Answer:
Autumn season

Question 4.
Which of the following is equinox?
September 23
December 22
June 21
July 14
Answer:
September 23

Question 5.
Based on the differences in the atmospheric conditions, the season experienced in India in the months of March and April.
Autumn
Spring
Summer
Winter
Answer:
Spring

Question 6.
When the sun is in the Northern Hemisphere, what will be the condition of 90°S?
6 months of day
1 month of night
24 hours of night
6 months of night
Answer:
6 months of night

Question 7.
What will be the Indian Standard Time when it is 8 a.m. on Sunday at Greenwich?
Monday 12.30 pm
Sunday 12.30 pm
Sunday 1.30 pm
Sunday 2.30 pm
Answer:
Sunday 1.30 pm

Answer in a sentence each.

Question 1.
What is meant by seasonal change?
Answer:
The earth experiences the recurrence of winter, summer and the rainy season one after the other.
Such a change on the earth is known as seasonal change.

Question 2.
What is revolution?
Answer:
The earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit. This motion which takes one year is known as revolution.

Question 3.
How much time does the earth take to complete one revolution?
Answer:
The earth takes 365 days, 5 hours, 48 minutes and 45 seconds to complete one revolution (365 \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) days).

Question 4.
Which is the standard meridian of India based for calculating time?
Answer:
82 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° E longitude

Question 5.
Which season is experienced in Southern Hemisphere when it is spring in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:

• Southern Hemisphere experiences autumn.
• Similarly, when it is spring in the Southern Hemisphere, it is autumn in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 6.
Why is zero degree longitude known as the. Greenwich meridian?
Answer:
It acquires its name from Greenwich, the place where the Royal British Observatory is situated and through which this line passes.

Answer the following. Score 2 each.

Question 1.
What are the reasons for the occurrence of different seasons?
Answer:

• Revolution of the earth
• Tilt of the earth’s axis
• Parallelism of the earth’s axis
• The apparent movement of the sun.

Question 2.
What is the Greenwich Mean Time when the Indian Standard Time is 1 p.m on Sunday?
Answer:
The time difference between India and Greenwich is 514 hours. The Greenwich time will be 7.30 a.m on Sunday. (1p.m – 5 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours = 7.30 am)

Question 3.
What is the tilt of the earth’s axis at vertical plane and horizontal plane?
Answer:

• At vertical plane, tilt of the earth’s axis is 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°
• At horizontal plane, the tilt is 66°.

Question 4.
What is known as parallelism of the earth’s axis?
Answer:
The axis of the earth is tilted at an angle of 66 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° from the orbital plane and 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° from the vertical plane. The earth maintains this tilt throughout its revolution. This is known as parallelism of the earth’s axis.

Question 5.
How does the tilt of earth’s axis influence the change of seasons?
Answer:
If the earth’s axis is not tilted, the sun’s position will have been over the equator always. If so, both the hemispheres would receive equal amount of sunlight. There wouldn’t have been change of seasons on earth. Since the tilt is maintained throughout the revolution, the position of the sun in relation to the earth varies. The sun shifts apparently between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn and this results in seasons.

Question 6.
What is meant by apparent movement of the sun? Name the two latitudinal lines that gain importance in this process.
Answer:
Since the parallelism of the earth’s axis is maintained same throughout the revolution, the position of the sun in relation to the earth varies apparently between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. This is known as the apparent movement of the sun.
The movement of the sun is in between 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° N and 23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° S.

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 1 Question 7.
What are equinoxes?
Answer:
March 21 and September 23 are equinoxes. On these days, the sun is vertically over the equator. Both the hemispheres receive equal amount of sunlight. Hence the length of day and night will be equal on these days in both the hemispheres.

Question 8.
Answer the question based on the table.

a. What will be the season in Southern Hemisphere when it is summer in Northern Hemisphere?
b. What will be the season in Northern Hemisphere when it is summer in Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:
a. Winter season in Southern Hemisphere.
b. Winter season in Northern Hemisphere. Reason: The hemisphere in which the sun is located receives more heat.

Question 9.
Complete the table.

Hints:

• Spring season
• Summer season
• Autumn season
• Winter season

Answer:
A. Autumn season
B. Spring season
C. Winter season
D. Summer season

Question 10.
When Northern Hemisphere has the following seasons, which are the seasons experienced in the Southern Hemisphere?

• Summer
• Spring
• Winter
• Autumn

Answer:

Question 11.
Answer the following.
a. The season that marks the transition from summer to winier
b. The season that marks the transition from winter to summer
Answer:
a. Autumn
b. Spring

Question 12.
The duration of days and nights at each place on the earth is not the same throughout the year. Why?
Answer:

• Rotation and occurrence of day and night.
• Tilt of the earth’s axis and revolution.

Question 13.
How many time zones are there? What is the time/degree difference between each zone?
Answer:

• Based on the Greenwich line, the world is divided into 24 time zones, each with a time difference of one hour.
• The longitudinal extent of each time zone is 15°.

Question 14.
Writes noies on
Greenwich line
Greenwich Mean Time
OR
Write the sign if chance of Greenwich meridian
or
Q° longitude line in determining time.
Answer:

• The zero degree longitude is known as Greenwich line. Time is calculated worldwide based on the Greenwich line. Hence this line is also known as prime meridian.
• Based on the Greenwich line, the world is divided into 24 time zones. The local time at the Greenwich line is known Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 15.
How are the standard meridian and standard time calculated by each country?
OR
Every country considers a particular longitude as their standard meridian for determining time. Why?
Answer:
The local time would be different at each longitude. If we start calculating the local time at different places based on the longitude there, it would create lot of confusion. So each country in the world considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian.
The local time at the standard meridian is the standard time of the country.

Question 16.
Which longitude is considered as the standard meridian of India? Why is it considered so?
Answer:
82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°E longitude is considered as the standard meridian of India. The line passes almost through the middle of India.
Each country in the world considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian. The longitudinal extent of India is from 68°E to 97°E. This amounts roughly to 30°.

The 82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°E longitude passes almost through the middle of these longitudes. So 82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°E longitude is considered as the standard meridian of India.

Question 17.
What is known as Indian Standard Time? How does it differ from Greenwich Time?
Answer:

• 82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°E longitude is the standard meridian of India. The local time of this longitude is generally considered as the common time of India. This is known as Indian Standard Time.
• The IST is 5\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours ahead of Greenwich time.

Question 18.
Land areas through which the 180° longitude passes are avoided. Why? Based on the Greenwich line, the world is ;
Answer:
The west and east of 180° longitude line records two different times with 24 hours difference. This creates much difficulties. So land areas along the 1800 longitude are avoided and the longitude passes through ocean.

Question 19.
Arrange the columns suitably.

Answer:

Question 20.
Identify the longitude by examining the time difference.
The time at A is 10 pm Sunday. A is situated at 150° W to Greenwich. At the same time, it is 3 pm Monday at B. If so, find the longitude at which B is situated.
a. At 75° E of Greenwich
b. At 120° W of Greenwich
c. At 90° W of Greenwich
d. At 105° E of Greenwich
Answer:
d. At 105° E of Greenwich

10th Social Science Important Questions Question 21.
Identify the wrong statement from the following and rewrite it correctly.
A. The duration of day in the Southern Hemisphere increases from September 23 to December 22.
B. The duration of night in the Southern Hemisphere increases from September 23 to December 22.
C. The duration of day in the Northern Hemisphere increases from March 21 to June 21.
D. The duration of night in the Northern Hemisphere decreases from March 21 to June 21.
Answer:
The wrong statement is B.
The duration of night in the Southern Hemisphere decreases from Septembers 23 to December 22.

Question 22.
The seasons experienced in the Southern Hemisphere are given in the table. Write down the corresponding seasons in the Northern Hemisphere.

Answer:

Question 23.
The time of sunset varies over different months. Why?
Answer:
The apparent movement of sun between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is the reason.
When the sun is over the northern hemisphere, longer days and shorter nights are experienced here.

When the sun is over the southern hemisphere, the northern hemisphere experiences shorter days and longer nights. This causes variations in the time of sunrise and sunset.

Question 24.
There is an increase of time towards the east and decrease in time towards the west of zero degree longitude. Why?
Answer:

• The earth rotates from west to east. So the sun rises in the east and sets in the west.
• Hence there is an increase in time towards the east and decrease in time towards the west.

Answer the following. Score 3 each.

Question 1.
Which are the equinox days? Write the peculiarities of these days?
OR
Write the peculiarities of the days March 21 and September 23 based on the apparent position of the sun.
Answer:

• The equinox days are March 21 and September 23.
• The apparent position of the sun on these days would be over the equator.
• Equal amount of sunlight is received in the northern as well as the southern hemispheres when the sun is vertically over the equator.
• Hence the length of day and night will be equal on these days in both the hemispheres.

Sslc Social Science Important Questions Question 2.
Write the peculiarities of day and night on June 21 and December 22 in both the north and south hemispheres.
Answer:
June 21

• Known as summer solstice in Northern Hemisphere.
• The longest day and the shortest night in the Northern Hemisphere.
• The longest night and the shortest day in the Southern Hemisphere.

December 22

• Known as winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere.
• The longest day and the shortest night in the Southern Hemisphere.
• The longest night and the shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 3.
Which are the days of longest day and longest night in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres?
Answer:
June 21:

• Longest day in the Northern Hemisphere.
• Longest night in the Southçrn Hemisphere.

December 22:

• Longest day in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Longest night in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 4.
When is the summer in the Northern Hemisphere? Write the peculiarities of this season.
Answer:
Summer season is experienced in Northern Hemisphere during June 21 and September 23.
Peculiarities of Summer

• Vertical sun rays and more sunlight.
• Warm atmosphere.

Question 5.
If the earth’s axis was not tilted, where would be the position of sun? What may be its consequences?
Answer:
The sun would be always near the equator if the earth’s axis was not tilted. Sun rays fall vertically near the equator and the atmosphere gets heated excessively.
Consequences:

• Both the hemispheres receive equal amount of sunlight.
• Equatorial regions experience high temperatures always.
• No change in seasons
• Duration of day and night will be equal.

Question 6.
Which are the two transition seasons between summer and winter? Name the months in which they occur.
Answer:

• Spring and autumn.
• In Northern Hemisphere, spring season is experienced between 21 March and 21 June. This is the season of transition from winter to summer.
• Autumn is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere from 23 September to 22 December. It marks the transition from summer to winter.

Question 7.
Answer the questions based on the table.

a. Which latitude experiences equal day and night?
b. What is the duration of day at North Pole?
c. Which latitude in the Northern Hemisphere has the longest day?
Answer:
a. 0° latitude or equator experiences equal day and night.
b. 6 months. This is because the sun is in the Northern Hemisphere.
c. 90°N.

Question 8.
What is meant by local time? Is the local time at each place in India the same? What will be the complications if there are several local times in a country?
Answer:

• The time estimated at each place based on the apex position of the sun is known as local time.
• The local time is not the same at each place in India.
• If there are several local times in a country, it leads to complications like:

a. Cannot prepare a railway, plane and ship time. table applicable throughout the country.
b. Cannot give information on radio and television programs.
c. Inconvenience in the time schedule of National Day celebrations.

Question 9.
Write the peculiarities of earth’s rotation.
Answer:

• Day and night are caused due to rotation.
• It takes 24 hours to complete one rotation.
• The earth rotates from west to east and so the sun rises in the eastern side.

Question 10.
The zero degree longitude is called Greenwich line and Prime meridian. Why?
Answer:

• The zero degree longitude is known as Greenwich line. Time is calculated worldwide based on the Greenwich line. Hence this line is also known as prime meridian.
• Based on the Greenwich line, the world is divided into 24 time zones. The time is ahead to the east of Greenwich line and is behind to the west of Greenwich line. The local time at the Greenwich line is known Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 11.
What is International Date Line? What are its peculiarities?
OR
Write the significance of International Date Line in determining time.
Answer:
The 180° longitude line from the east and west of Greenwich line is the International Date Line. There is a time difference of 24 hours on both the sides of this line. It creates much difficulty if the same place records two different times with 24 hours difference. To solve this problem, adjustments have been made avoiding the land area along the 180° longitude.

The line is in such a way that it passes through Bering Strait in the Pacific Ocean and avoids some of the inhabited islands. So the International Date Line is not a straight line. The travellers who cross this line from the west calculate time by advancing one day and those who cross the line from the east deduct one day.

Question 12.
What change should be made in time by travellers who cross the International Date Line?
Answer:

• The travellers who cross this line from the west calculate time by advancing the day and those who cross the line from the east deduct one day.
• The travellers who cross the International Date Line from east to west gain a day and those who cross from west to east, lose a day.

Question 13.
Calculate the time.
The Greenwich time is 4 am on Monday. Calculate the time and date of a place 75°W.
Answer:
Time is behind the GMT at places lying to the west of Greenwich line. For every 15° longitude, the time decreases by 1 hour. So the time at 75 °W is 5 hours behind GMT.
\(\frac{75}{15}=5\)
The time at Greenwich = Monday 4 am
The time at 75 °W = 5 hours behind GMT
The time and day = Sunday 11 pm;

Question 14.
GMT is 12.00 noon. What is the time at 90°E?
Answer:
For every 15° longitude, the difference is 1 hour.
In 90° longitude the time difference = \(\frac{90}{15}\) = 6.
Since it is to east, the time increases.
12.00 + 6 = 6pm.

Question 15.
What are summer solstice and winter solstice? Write their peculiarities.
Answer:
From 21 March onwards, the sun apparently shifts from the equator northwards and reaches vertically above the Tropic of Cancer on June 21. This day is known as summer solstice in Northern Hemisphere. On this day, the Northern Hemisphere experiences the longest day and shortest night.

From 23 September onwards, the sun apparently shifts from the equator southwards and reaches vertically above the Tropic of Capricorn on December 22. This day is known as winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere. On this day the Northern Hemisphere experiences the shortest day and the longest night.

Question 16.
Examine the changes in the duration of day and night during solstices and equinoxes.
Answer:
March 21 and September 23 are called equinoxes. The apparent position of the sun on these days will be over equator. Hence the length of day and night will be equal on these days in both the hemispheres.

On June 21, known as summer solstice, the sun will be vertically above the Tropic of Cancer. This is the longest day and the shortest night in the Northern Hemisphere.

On December 22, known as winter solstice, the sun will be vertically above the Tropic of Capricorn. This is the longest night and the shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 17.
Write the reasons for the following.
a. Based on a particular longitude, the time is ahead to its east and behind to its west.
b.The length of day increases in Northern Hemisphere after March 21 and upto June 21.
c. There is a time difference of 24 hours on both sides of International Date Line.
Answer:
a. Time is calculated worldwide based on zero degree longitude or Greenwich meridian. As the earth rotates from west to east, the sun rises first in the eastern side. So the time is ahead to the east and behind to the west of zero degree longitude.

b. The apparent position of sun shifts from the equator to the Northern Hemisphere from March 21 to June 21.

c. There are 180 longitudinal lines to the east and 180 longitudinal lines to the west of zero degree longitude. 180° longitude is known as the International Date Line. Based on Greenwich line, the world is divided into 24 zones, each with a time difference of one hour. So there is a time difference of 24 hours on both the sides of 180° longitude.

Question 18.
Appu celebrated the New Year 2017 exactly at midnight in India. But to his friend Joe in England, it was only sunset.
i. How many hours Joe have to wait for the New Year 2017 to be born?
ii. What is the reason for this time difference?
Answer:
i. Joe will have to wait for 5 \(\frac{1}{2}\) hours for the new year. The time of England is 5\(\frac{1}{2}\) hours behind Indian time. When the new year 2017 was born in India, the time in England was 6.30 pm. on December 31, 2016.

ii. The earth rotates from west to east. So the sun rises first in the eastern side. The time decreases from the east to west by 1 hour for every 15° longitude. The standard meridian of India is 82’/2°E and that of England is 0°. Thus the Indian time is 554 hours ahead of time in England.

Answer the following. Score 4 each.

Question 1.
The Greenwich time is 10 am Monday. Determine the time at 60° E and 60°W
Ans:
60° E 2 pm Monday.\(\frac{60}{15}\) = 4 hours. 10am +4= 2pm.
60° W 6 am Monday .\(\frac{60}{15}\) = 4 hours. 10am -4 = 6 am.

Question 2.
One feature each of spring and autumn is given. Add more.

Answer:

Question 3.
Match the items in column A with the items in column B.

Answer:

Question 4.
Length of day and night will be equal in both the hemispheres on September 23.
i. Why is equal day and night experienced so?
ii. On which other day does the same phenomenon repeat?
iii. How are the above mentioned days known as?
Answer:
i. The apparent position of the sun on September 23 will be over the equator. Hence the length of day and night will be equal on this day in both the hemispheres.

ii. March 21

iii. Equinoxes

Question 5.
Analyse the following statements and write their reasons.
i. When it is summer in the Northern Hemisphere, it is winter in Southern Hemisphere.
ii. Different seasons occur on the earth.
Answer:
i. The apparent movement of the sun due to the inclination of axis is the reasons for the occurrence of different seasons. The sun’s rays fall vertically over one hemisphere during one half of the year and on the other hemisphere during the other half. When the sun rays fall vertically in the Northern Hemisphere, it is summer in the Northern Hemisphere and winter in the Southern Hemisphere. Similarly, when the sun rays fall vertically over the Southern Hemisphere, it is summer in the Southern Hemisphere and winter in the Northern Hemisphere.

ii. Reasons for the occurrence of seasons:

• Earth’s revolution
• Inclination of axis
• Migration of the sun

Question 6.
Write the peculiarities of the duration of day and night on 21s’ March, 23rd September, 21s’ June and 22nd December, based on the hints given:

• Apparent position of the sun
• The duration of day and night
• The names by which these days are known.

OR
Write the differences between equinoxes and solstices.
Answer:
March 21: The apparent position of the sun is over the equator and so equal amount of sunlight is received in both hemispheres. The length of day and night will be equal in both die hemispheres. This day is known as equinox.

June 21: The apparent position of the sun is vertically over the Tropic of Cancer. The day is known as summer solstice in Northern Hemisphere. On this day the Northern Hemisphere experiences its longest day and shortest night.

September 23: The sun comes vertically over the equator. The length of day and night is equal. The day is known as equinox.

December 22: The sun is vertically over the Tropic, of Capricorn. The day is known as winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere. This is the longest night and shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere.

Question 7.
Explain the terms ‘Utharayanam ’ and ‘Dakshinayanam ’. What changes occur in, the duration of day in Northern Hemisphere during these periods?
Answer:
The northward apparent movement of the sun from Tropic of Capricorn to Tropic of Cancer is termed as Utharayanam. The duration of day in the Northern Hemisphere gradually increases during this period. The duration of day in the Southern Hemisphere gradually decreases.

The southward apparent movement of the sun from Tropic of Cancer to Tropic of Capricorn is termed as Dakshinayanam. The duration of day in the Northern Hemisphere gradually decreases and that of Southern Hemisphere gradually increases.

Answer the following. Score 5/6 each.

Question 1.
Spring and autumn are transition seasons between summer and winter. Explain.
Answer:
Spring and autumn are two transition seasons.

1. Spring: Spring is the season of transition from winter to summer. The peculiarities of spring are plants sprouting, mango trees blooming and jack fruit tree bearing buds. It is experienced between 21 March and 21 June in the Northern Hemisphere.
2. Autumn : Autumn marks the transition from the severity of summer towards winter. During this period, the atmospheric temperature decreases considerably. This is followed by a shortening of day and lengthening of night. The trees generally shed their leaves. Autumn is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere from 23 September to 22 December.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the occurrence of seasons?
Answer:
Variations in the amount of sunshine received are the basis for the occurrence of different seasons. The reasons for the occurrence of different seasons are,

• Revolution of the earth
• Tilt of the earth’ axis
• Apparent movement of the sun
• Revolution of the earth: The earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit. This motion is known as revolution. The earth takes 365\(\frac{1}{4}\) days to complete one revolution.
• Tilt of the earth’s axis: The axis of the earth is tilted at an angle of 66\(\frac{1}{2}\)° from the orbital plane and 23\(\frac{1}{2}\)° from the vertical plane.

The earth maintains this tilt throughout its revolution. This is known as parallelism ofthe earth’s axis. Since the parallelism is maintained throughout the revolution, the position of the sun in relation to the earth varies.

Apparent movement of the sun : The sun shifts apparently between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. This is known as the apparent movement of the sun. There will be variation in the amount of solar energy received on earth due to the apparent movement of the sun.

The sun rays fall vertically over one hemisphere during one half of the year and on the other hemisphere during the other half. Temperature will be higher over places where the vertical rays ofthe sun fall. The temperature will be low at places where the sun rays are slanting.

Question 3.
Complete the table related to change in season.

Answer:

Question 4.
The shift in the relative position of the sun causes the occurrence of seasons. Based on this statement, prepare a table on the different seasons experienced in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
Answer:

Question 5.
Answer the following questions based on global determination of time?
i. By what name is the time estimated based on the apex position of the sun known?
ii. What are the practical difficulties in determining time based on the apex position of sun?
iii. How is time determined by countries as a solution to this?
iv. How is Indian Standard Time estimated?
Answer:
i. The time estimated at each place, based on the apex position of the sun is termed as local time.

ii. Cannot prepare a railway/flight/examination time table throughout the country. Cannot give information on radio/television program.

iii. To solve this, the local time at the longitude that passes through the middle of a country is selected as the common time for the whole country. Each country considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian. The local time at the standard meridian is the standard time of the country.

iv. Each country in the world considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian. The longitudinal extent of India is from 68°E to 97°E. This amounts roughly to 300. The 82\(\frac{1}{2}\) E longitude passes almost through the middle of these longitudes. So 82\(\frac{1}{2}\)°E longitude is considered as the standard meridian of India.

Question 6.
The picture depicts the seasons experienced in the Northern Hemisphere.
i. Which seasons are represented by the letters A and B?
ii. Write the peculiarities of the transition seasons.
iii. What are the reasons for the occurrence of seasons?
Answer:

i.
A. Spring
B. Autumn

ii. Spring.

• Season of transition from winter to summer.
• Plants sprout, mango trees bloom.

Autumn

• Transition from severity of summer towards winter.
• Atmospheric temperature decreases considerably during this period.
• Shortening of day and lengthening of night.
• Trees shed leaves.

iii. The apparent movement of the sun due to the inclination of the axis. Revolution.

Question 7.
What is the difference between local time and standard time? Why do countries follow a standard time? Calculate Indian Standard time when Greenwich time is 6.30 in the morning.
Answer:
Local time: The time estimated at each place based on the apex position of the sun is termed as the local time.

Standard time: Each country in the world considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian. The local time at the standard meridian is the standard time.

Why standard time? : The local time would be different at each longitude. If we start calculating local time at different places based on the longitude there, it would create lot of confusion. To solve this, the local time at the longitude that passes through the middle of a country is selected as the common time for the whole country.

The longitude of Greenwich is 0°
The Standard Meridian of India is 82\(\frac{1}{2}\)°E Indian Standard Time is 5\(\frac{1}{2}\) hours ahead of Greenwich time.
When the time is 6.30 am in Greenwich, the time in India is 6.30 + 5.30 = 12 = 12 noon

Question 8.
Write on the seasons experienced in Northern Hemisphere due to the apparent movement of the sun between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:
As a result of the apparent movement of the sun between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn, the different seasons like spring, summer, autumn and winter get repeated in a cyclic manner.
The apparent position of the sun will be over the equator on March 21 and September 23. So equal amount of sunlight is received in both the hemispheres.

Hence the length of day and night will be equal on these days in. both the hemispheres. These days are called equinoxes. From March 21 onwards, the sun apparently shifts from the equator northwards and reaches vertically over the Tropic of Cancer on June 21.

This day is known as the summer solstice in Northern Hemisphere. From September 23 onwards, the sun apparently shifts from the equator southwards and reaches vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn on December 22. This day is known as winter solstice in Northern Hemisphere.

The Northern Hemisphere generally experiences spring season between 21 March and 21 June. Spring is the season of transition from winter to summer.

The southward apparent movement of the sun begins from June 21 and again reaches vertically above the equator on 23 September. Summer season is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere during this period.

Autumn season is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere from 23 September to 22 December. Autumn marks the transition from the severity of summer towards winter.

The northward apparent shift of the sun begins by 22 December and again reaches vertically above the equator on 21 March. This period marks the winter season in Northern Hemisphere.

Question 9.
When the local time of Alexandria (30°E) in Egypt is 6 am on Monday morning, what will be the local time of New Orleans (90°W) in USA?
Answer:

• The longitudinal extent from Greenwich to Alexandria: 30°.
• The longitudinal extent from Greenwich to New Orleans: 90°.
• The total longitudinal extent from A lexandria to Greenwich: 120°.
• The difference of 1 ° longitude: 4 minutes.
• The difference of 15° longitude : 15 x 4 = 60 minutes or 1 hour.
• The difference of 120° longitude in minutes: 120 x 4 = 480 minutes.
  In hours :\(\frac{120}{15}\) = 8 hours.
• Time is 1 hour ahead for each 15° longitude from west to east. Similarly time is 1 hour behind for each 15° longitude from east to west.
• New Orleans is located to the west of Alexandria and the time there will be 8 hours behind the time of Alexandria.
• The time at New Orleans will be 10 pm on Sunday.

Question 10.
When it is Saturday 8 p.m at 90°W, what will be the time of 120°E?
Answer:

• Longitudinal extent from Greenwich to 90°W:90°.
• Longitudinal extent from Greenwich to 120°F: 120°.
  Total longitudinal extent : 2100(90+ 120).
• The difference of 15° longitude: 1 hour.
• The difference of 210° longitude : \(\frac{120}{15}\) = 14 hours. .
• For each 150 longitudes, time will be ahead by 1 hour from west to east.
• The time at 120°E will be ahead by 14 hours from the time at 90°W.
• The time of 120°E will be Sunday 10 a.m.

Question 11.
It is Monday 4.30 pm in India. Calculate the time at 78°W.
Answer:

• Longitudinal extent from Greenwich to 78° W: 78°.
• Longitudinal extent from Greenwich to India (82\(\frac{1}{2}\) °E): 82\(\frac{1}{2}\) °.
• Total longitudinal extent: 16\(\frac{1}{2}\)°. (78 + 82\(\frac{1}{2}\)°)
• The difference for 10 longitude: 4 minutes.
• The difference for \(\frac{1}{2}\)°0 longitude : 2 minutes
• The difference for 16\(\frac{1}{2}\)0
  in minutes = 160° x 4 = 642 minutes
  in hours = \(\frac{642}{60}\)= 10 hours 42 minutes.
• From east to west, time will be behind 1 hour for each 15° longitude.
• The time at 78°W will be 10 hours 42 minutes behind the time of India.
• It is 5.48 am on Monday.

Question 12.
When the Greenwich time was 2 pm on Wednesday, it was 10 pm in Australia and 11 am in Brazil. Calculate the longitude of Australia and Brazil.
Answer:

Brazil

• Time difference between Greenwich and Brazil: 3 hours behind.
• If the time is behind Greenwich time, the place will be in western longitude.
• The time required to complete 360° rotation is 24 hours. The longitudinal extent covered by earth in 1 hour=\(\frac{360}{24}\) = 15°.
• The longitudinal extent of Brazil from Greenwich: 3 x 15° = 45°W.
• The longitude of Brazil: 45°W.

Australia

• Time difference between Greenwich and Australia 8 hours ahead.
• As the time is ahead, the place will be in eastern longitude.
• The longitudinal extent covered by earth in I hour: 15°.
• The longitudinal extent of Australia from Greenwich: 8 x 15° = 120°.
• The longitude of Australia: 120°E.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions

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Yudhathinte Parinamam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Chapter 4 Landscape Analysis through Maps

Geography Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Find out the location of settlements and graveyards in the given grid using 4- figure grid reference method.
Answer:

Graveyard
Write the value of northings along with the value of eastings of the grid in which the graveyard is situated. The four-digit number gained thus is the 4 – figure grid reference. The value of the easting to the immediate left of the graveyard is 22. Then the value of the northing just below the graveyard is to be written (77). Thus the location of the graveyard as per the 4 figure grid reference is 2277.

Settlements
The value of the easting to the immediate left of the settlement is to be written (23). Then the value of the northing just below the settlement is to be written (77). Thus the 4-figure grid reference of the settlements is 2377.

2. Find out the location of spring, mosque, railway station. Police station and well in the given grid using the 6 – figure grid reference method.

Answer:

Spring
The value of the easting to the left of the spring is to be written first (35). Then divide the area upto the next easting into 10 equal parts and find the exact division on which the spring is located and write it next to the value of easting already found (357). Now the value of the northing just below the spring (54) is to be written along with the easting’s value (35754). Divide the area upto the next northing into 10 equal parts and find the exact division on which the spring is located and write it with the values already written (357548). Thus the 6-figure grid reference of the spring is 357548.

Mosque

• Value of easting (34). Value obtained by dividing into ten parts (3). The total value of easting is 343.
• Value of northing (54). Value obtained by dividing into ten (6). Total value of northing is 546.
• The 6-figure grid reference of the mosque is 343546.

Railway station

• Value of easting (35) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts(7). Total value of easting is 357.
• Value of northing (54) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts (3). Total value of northing is 543.
• The 6-figure grid reference of the railway station is 357543.

Police station.

• Value of easting (34) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts(6). Total value of easting is 346.
• Value of northing(54) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts (4). Total value of northing is 544.
• The 6-figure grid reference of the Police 1 station is 346544.

Well

• Value of easting (35) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts (2). Total value = 352
• Value of northing (54) Value obtained by dividing into ten parts (8). Total value = 548
• The 6-figure grid reference of the well = 352548

Question 3.
Match the contour in column A with shape of landforms in column B.

Answer:

Question 4.
The following map is a part of a toposheet. Find out how it differs from the maps you are familiar with.

Answer:

• Topographical maps are maps prepared by incorporating minute details of comparatively small areas.
• These are large scale maps.
• Man-made and natural features on the earth’s surface are depicted in detail.
• Contour lines helping to identify undulations of the terrain are drawn in the map.
• Important surface features like rivers, other water bodies, forests, agricultural land, barren land, villages, towns and transport and communication systems are depicted.
• The number of toposheet, million sheet and degree sheet are recorded.
• Details like state, district, year of survey and the agency, scale of the map, contour interval, latitude and longitude lines and different colours for landfdhns are given.
• Other details like bridges, pools, altitude of the place, lakes, official buildings, settlements are also included in the map.

Question 5.
Look at the number (45\(\frac{D}{10}\)) noted above the given toposheet (as in question 4). What does this indicate? Do all the toposheets contain such numbers?
Answer:
A map series containing 105 topographical maps (numbering 1, 2, 3, 104, 105) have been prepared including the countries of Indian sub-continent and adjoining countries. The dS sheet in this series constitutes parts of the states Rajasthan and Gujarat in India. Each sheet of this type is known as million sheet. Each million sheet is divided into 16 parts in the order A, B, C, D, up to P. These are known as degree sheets. The degree sheets are further divided into 16 equal parts (1, 2, 3, 16).. For eg: 55, 55\(\frac{D}{2}\)). These are known as inch sheets.

The number 45 \(\frac{D}{10}\) is recorded in the given map in order to identify the map of which area. So the map depicts the details of inch sheet 10, part of degree sheet D which is a part of million sheet 45. All the toposheets contain such numbers to identify the map of which area.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions by analyzing the given map.

a. The parts of states that are included in toposheet number 45.
b. The index numbers of toposheets which cover the state of Odisha.
c. The states that are included in toposheet number 73.
d. The index numbers of toposheets which cover the state of Karnataka.
e. The index numbers of toposheets which cover the state of Kerala.
Answer:
a. Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh
b. IndexNumbers: 64,65,73,74
c. Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh
d. Index numbers: 47,48,56,57,58
e. Index numbers: 48,49, 58

Class 10 Geography Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Find out the conventional colours used to represent different features.

Question 8.
Look at the given toposheet (of question 4). Find out the symbols and colours you have familiarized.
Answer:

• Colours
• Black
• Green
• Yellow
• Red
• White
• Brown
• Blue

Symbol

Question 9.
Haven’t you noticed the red lines drawn lengthwise and breadthwise in the given toposheet (fig. 4.1 or of Qn.4)? What are they? What are their uses?
Answer:
The north-south lines incorporated in toposheets are called Eastings. They are called eastings because their value increases towards the east.

The east-west lines incorporated in toposheets are called northings. They are called northings because their value increases towards the north.

Use
It is difficult to show the precise location of minor geographical features in toposheets. To solve this difficulty, eastings and northings are incorporated in toposheets. The grid formed by the eastings and northings are called reference grid. Accurate location of minor geographical details can be done using these lines.

Question 10.
Find the eastings and northings values from the given toposheet (fig. 4.1)
Answer:

• Values of eastings : 02, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 09
• Values of northings :01,2,3,4,5,6,7,8, 09
• Question 11.
  Locate the geographic features – fort, graveyard and settlements shown in the model grid using the 4-figure gird reference method.
  
  Answer:

Fort

• Value of easting 81
• Value of northing 34
• Four figure grid reference of the fort = 8134

Graveyard

• Value of easting 8$
• Value of northing 35
• 4 -figure grid reference of graveyard = 8535

Settlements

• Value of easting 85
• Value of northing 34
• 4 – figure grid reference of the settlements = 8534

Question 12.
Locate the smaller geographical features temple, church, well, light house and bridge shown in the model grid using 6-figure grid reference method, (fig. 4.9 or figure of Qn.11)
Answer:

Temple

• Value of easting 84
• Value obtained by dividing into ten parts: 7. Total = 847
• Value of northing 34
• Part of ten : 5 . Total = 345
• 6 – figure grid reference of temple = 847345

Church

• Value of easting 84
• Part of ten : 6 ‘
• Total = 846
• Value of northing 36
• Part of ten : 2 . Total = 362
• 6 -figure grid reference of church = 846362

Well

• Value of easting 83
• Part of ten : 7 . Total =837
• Value of northing 35
• Part of ten : 2 . Total = 352
• 6 – figure grid reference of well = 837352

Lighthouse

• Value of easting 85
• Part of ten : 3
• Total = 853
• Value of northing 37
• Part of ten : 3. Total = 373
• 6-figure grid reference of light house = 853373

Bridge

• Value of easting 82
• Part of ten: 4
• Total = 824
• Value of northing 36
• Part of ten: 4
• Total = 364
• 6 – figure grid reference of bridge = 824364

Question 13.
Find the contour interval in the toposheet provided (fig. 4.1)
Answer:
Contour interval: 20 metre

Question 14.
Find out the contour lines of the elevated regions in fig. 4.1. Mark their contour values and identify the shape of the landform.
Answer:

Question 15.
Plot the topography represented by the following contour patterns.

Answer:

Question 16.
Determine the shape of the terrain represented by the given contours and complete the table by checking the intervisibility between the places M, N, O and P
Answer:

Question 17.
The indicators regarding the marginal information of toposheets and a toposheet labelled with such information are given. Read the sheet based on the indicators and write down the marginal information, (fig. 4.25)

Answer:
Marginal information indicators:

• Toposheet number: 56—
• Name of the place represented : Gulbarga, Raichur districts of Karnataka.
• Latitudinal location:
  Between 16° 15′ N and 16° 20′ N
• Longitudinal location:
  Between 76° 30’ E and 76° 35′ E
• Eastings : 94,95,96,97,98,99,00,01,02
• Northings: 84,85, 86,87,88, 89,90,91,92
• Scale of the map : 1: 50000
• Contour interval: 20 metre
• Year of Survey : 1959 – 60
• Year of publication : 2005
• Agency in charge of survey : Dr. Prithish Nag (Surveyor General of India)

Question 18.
List the marginal information of the given topographic map 45 \(\frac{D}{10}\) in fig. 4.1 as was done with the toposheet 56\(\frac{D}{11}\)
Answer:

• Toposheet number : 45 \(\frac{D}{10}\)
• Name of the place represented: Banaskantha and Sirohi districts
• Latitudinal location: Between 24° 30′ N and 24° 35’ N
• Longitudinal location: Between 72° 30′ E and 12° 35′ E
• Eastings: From 02 to 09
• Northings: From 01 to 09
• Scale of the map : 1: 50000
• Contour interval: 20 metre
• Year of survey: 1959-60
• Year of publication: 2005
  Agency in charge of survey: Dr. Prithish Nag (Surveyor General of India)

Landscape Analysis Through Maps Question 19.
Find answers to the following questions by reading the given toposheet. (fig. 4.25)
Physical features
Which is the major river flowing through this area?
Answer:
Krishna

In which direction does it flow?
Answer:
From south-west to northeast direction.

On which bank of the river are the forest seen?
Answer:
To the right bank of the river.

What is the name of the reserve forest in this area?
Answer:
Lingsugar Reserve Forest.

How many springs are seen in this region? Locate them based on direction.
Answer:
Two springs
One is in east-south-east direction and the other is in east – northeast direction.

Locate the open scrubs in this area.
Answer:

• One is in the west near to the river.
• A second one is near to southwest comer.
• A third one is in the middle, towards south.

Find out the location of the following using the 6 – figure grid reference method. ‘

• 476Δ
• 447
• The spring north of Palampur village.

Answer:

476 Δ

• Easting 94
• Part of ten : 4
• Total = 944
• Northing: 83
• Part of ten : 9
• Total = 839
• 6 figure grid reference = 944839

447

• Easting 01
• Part of ten : 7
• Total = 017
• Northing: 90
• Part of ten : 3
• Total = 903
• 6 figure grid reference = 017903

The spring north of Parampur village

• Easting 01
• Part of ten : 3
• Total = 013
• Northing: 85
• Part of ten : 2
• Total = 852
• 6 figure grid reference = 013852

Question 20.
Find answers to the following questions by reading the given toposheet (fig. 4.25)
Answer:
Identify the districts in Karnataka to which the area belongs.
Answer:
Gulbarga and Raichur districts.

Based on which natural feature is district boundary determined?
Answer:
River: District boundary passes through the middle of River Krishna.

Which is the district on the right bank of River Krishna?
Answer:
Raichur

Where is the metalled road seen?
Answer:
Devarbhupur road in south-east direction

In which direction is the Gadalamari village located?
Answer:
In the north-west comer

Which are the villages where post offices can be found?
Answer:
Gadalamari
Ganavathala

Find the location using 4 figure grid reference method

• Aldobhavi village
• Ganavathala village
• Fort to the northeastern corner
  Answer:
• Aldobhavi village
• Easting 00
• Northing 90
• 4 – figure grid reference = 0090

Ganavathala village

• Easting 93
• Northing 86
• 4 – figure grid reference = 9386

Fort

• Easting 01
• Northing 92
• 4 – figure grid reference = 0192

Find the location using the 6-figure grid reference method

• Temple near Gadalamari village
• Temple within Lingusugar Reserve Forest
• Post Office in Ganavathala village

Answer:

Temple near Gadalamari village

• Easting 94
• Part of ten : 3
• Total = 943
• Northing: 91
• Part of ten: 7
• Total = 917
• 6 figure grid reference = 943917

Temple within Lingusugar Reserve Forest

• Easting 00
• Part of ten: 4
• Total = 004
• Northing: 86.
• Part of ten: 4
• Total = 864
• 6 figure grid reference = 004864

Post Office in Ganavathala village

• Easting 93
• Part of ten : 8
• Total = 938
• Northing: 86
• Part often : 3
• Total = 863
• 6 figure grid reference = 938863

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions

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Ammathottil Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 1 अकाल और उसके बाद (कविता)

अकाल और उसके बाद Text Book Activities & Answers

अकाल और उसके बाद विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

i. पढ़ें और चर्चा करें

अकाल और उसके बाद Notes Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
कई दिनों तक चूल्हा रोया, चक्की रही उदास
कई दिनों तक कानी कुतिया सोई उनके पास
चूल्हे का रोना और चक्की का उदास होना- इसका मतलब क्या है?

उत्तर:
इससे कवि यह बताना चाहते हैं कि घर में खाद्य वस्तुओं का बिलकुल अभाव है। कई दिनों इन दोनों का कोई इस्तेमाल नहीं हुआ है।

Akaal Aur Uske Baad Summary Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
कई दिनों तक लगी भीत पर छिपकलियों की गश्त
कई दिनों तक चूहों की भी हालत रही शिकस्त
ये पंक्तियाँ किस हालत की ओर इशारा करती हैं?

उत्तर:
घर में कई दिनों से खाने की चीजें नहीं हैं। जहाँ खाना नहीं होगा वहाँ दीप जलाने के लिए तेल की भी संभावना नहीं। तो वहाँ छोटे कीड़ों का होना असंभव है। इससे छिपकली परेशान है। इसलिए वे कीड़ों को तलाशते हुए दीवार पर घूम रहे हैं। घर में कोई खाद्य वस्तु नहीं है। इससे चूहे भी हार गए हैं।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Poem Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 3.
दाने आए घर के अंदर कई दिनों के बाद
धुआँ उठा आँगन से ऊपर कई दिनों के बाद
इन पंक्तियों से कवि क्या कहना चाहता है?

उत्तर:
अकाल के बाद के दिनों का चित्रण कवि ने इन पंक्तियों द्वारा किया है। अकाल के बाद घर में दाने आने पर घर के आँगन से ऊपर धुआँ उठता है। मतलब चूल्हा जलने लगा है। यह घर में खाने पकाने की ओर इशारा करता है।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 4.
कवि ने अकाल का चित्रण किस प्रकार किया है? चर्चा करें।

अकाल:
i. चूल्हे का रोना

ii. भीत पर छिपकलियों की गश्त

iii. चक्की का उदास रहना

iv. शिकस्त हालत वाले चूहे

उत्तर:
अकाल के भीइषण समय में चूल्हे रो रहे हैं। घर की दीवारों पर छिपकलियाँ खाना न मिलने की वजह से विवश होकर घूम रहे हैं। चक्की उदास है, मतलब कई दिनों से उसका कोई उपयोग नहीं है। चूहे पराजित-सा हो गए हैं। क्योंकि घर में दाने का अभाव ने उनके पेट भरने की आशा को निराशा बना दिया है।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Poem Summary In Malayalam Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 5.
कवि ने अकाल के बाद के हालत का चित्रण किस प्रकार किया है? चर्चा करें।

अकाल के बाद:
i. घर के अंदर दाने का आना

ii. घर भर की आँखों का चमक उठना

iii. आँगन के ऊपर धुएँ का उठना

iv. कौए के पंखों का खुजलाना

उत्तर:
घर के भीतर दाने आते हैं। घर भर की आँखें चमक उठती हैं। अभी भोजन बना नहीं है। लेकिन अन्न की आहट ने ही आँखों में रोशनी भर दी है। उम्मीद इसी तरह रोशनी लाती है। फिर धुआँ उठता है छप्पर के ऊपर ! यानि चूल्हा जल गया है। यह धुआँ शुभ संकेत दे रहा है। और कौए अब अपने पंख खुजला रहे हैं।

Akal Or Uske Baad Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 6.
चर्चा करें
कविता में कई दिनों तक और कई दिनों के बाद दूहराने का तात्पर्य क्या हो सकता है

उत्तर:
आचार्य नागार्जुन की कविता है ‘अकाल और उसके बाद।’ कविता की पहली चार पंक्तियों में कई दिनों तक’ की पुनरावृत्ति अभाव की निरंतरता को अंकित करती है। कविता में दूसरे खंड की चार पंक्तियों में कई दिनों के बाद ‘तक’ और ‘बाद’ के बीच एक लंबे अंतराल को व्यंजित करती है

Akal Aur Uske Baad Question Answer Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 7.
अकाल के क्या-क्या कारण हो सकते है? चर्चा करें।

उत्तर:
अकाल और उसके बाद’ कविता में बिहार राज्य में हुई अकाल का आँखों देखा हाल है। अकाल पडने के मुख्य कारण प्राकृतिक आपदाएँ (National Calamities) अत्याधिक जनसंख्या, फसलों की असफलता, दरिद्रता एंव बेरोज़गारी, सरकारी दुकानों का प्रभावशाली ढंग से प्रबंधन न होना आदि है। भूकंप हिम झंझावत, बाढ़, सूखा तथा महामारी के कारण अकाल की परिस्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाती है। संसाधनों से अधिक जनसंख्या के कारण कृषि पर अधिक भार पडता है। फसलों की असफलता होने पर भी अकाल पडता है। गरीब एंव बेरोज़गार लोगों की खाघ सामग्री खरीदने की क्षमता बहुत कम होती है। सरकारी दूकानों पर गरीब लोगों को सही समय पर पर्याप्त मात्रा में खाघ सामग्री नहीं मिलती। इस प्रकार का भ्रष्टाचार भी अकाल पडने में सहायक होता है।

अकाल और उसके बाद कविता का सारांश Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 8.
कविता की प्रासंगिकता पर टिप्पणी लिखें।

उत्तर:
बेहाल दीवजंतु
‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कवि नागार्जुन रचित कविता है। इसमें गरीब, बेबस, . व्यक्तियों के जीवन में व्याप्त भुखमरी और उससे उबरने का चित्र अंकित किया गया है। गरीब व्यक्ति ही बिना अन्न परेशान नहीं है। वरना जीवजंतुओं का हाल भी बेहाल है। छिपकालियाँ दीवारों पर गश्त लगाती है, परंतु उन्हें कुछ नहीं मिलता। चूहे भी भुख से व्याकुल हैं।

प्रस्तुत कविता में प्रत्यक्ष रूप से मनुष्य का चित्रण नहीं है। परंतू अन्न, भोजन, चूल्हा जलाना ये चारी चिजें मनुष्य संबंधित है। मनुष्य पूरी परिस्थिति में विघमान है। अकाल की विभीषिका आ जाती है, वह भी बडी शब्दावली में। अकाल जीवन को स्थगित करता है और अन्न जीवन में हलचल पैदा करता है। जनवादी कवी प्रस्तुत कविता में गरीबी का, भुखमरी का साक्षात्कार किया गया।

कवी जीवन की दो विरोधी स्थितियों को अलग-अलग बिंबों के माध्यम से व्यक्त करता है। ये बिम्ब यों तो जीवन की विरोधी स्थितियों को बड़ी सहजता से व्यक्त करते है। जब तक भूख रहेगी तब तक अकाल और उसके बाद कविता भी रहेगी।

अकाल और उसके बाद Orakkum Questions and Answers

गतिविधि – 1

सूचना :‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कविता का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
कई दिनों तक चुल्हा रोया, चक्की रही उदास
कई दिनों तक कानी कुतिया सोई उनके पास
कई दिनों तक लगी भीत पर छिपकलिया की गश्त
कई दिनों तक चूहों की भी हालत रही शिकस्त।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Kavita Ka Saransh Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
इस कविता में किन-किन जीव-जंतुओं का जिक्र है?
उत्तर:
कानी कुतिया, छिपकलियाँ, चूहे, कौए।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Ka Saransh Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
इसमें किन-किन निर्जीव वस्तुओं के बारें में बताया गया है?
उत्तर:
चूल्हा, चक्की, भीत।

Akal Or Uske Bad Summary Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 3.
निर्जीव वस्तुओं का मानवीकरण हुआ है। दो-एक उदाहरण बताइए।
उत्तर:
चूल्हे का रोना, चक्की का उदास रहना।

Akal Aur Uske Bad Kavita Ka Saransh Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 4.
जीव-जंतुओं के व्यवहारों की विशेषता क्या है?
उत्तर:
चूल्हे के जलने और चक्की के चलने की प्रतीक्षा में कानी कुतिया उनके पास सो गई। कई दिनों . तक चूहों की हालत बहुत दयनीय है। भूख से तड़पती छिपकलियाँ दीवार पर टहलती रही थी।

Akal Or Uske Bad Kavita Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 5.
इन जीव-जंतुओं और निर्जीव वस्तुओं की व्याकुल स्थिति का कारण क्या है?
उत्तर:
अकाल

प्रश्ना 6.
इन पंक्तियों के द्वारा कवि क्या कहना चाहते हैं?
उत्तर:
अकाल का समय केवल मानव पर ही नहीं, पूरे समाज पर पड़ता है। इसकी हानी कुछ समय केलिए भी समाज पर बनी रहती है।

प्रश्ना 7.
कवितांश का टिप्पणी लिखें।
उत्तर:
नागार्जुन हिन्दी के प्रगतिशील साहित्यकार हैं। लोकजीवन, प्रकृति और समकालीन राजनीति आप की रचनाओं के मुख्य विषय हैं। इस कविता में कवि अकाल की दयनीय स्थिति का वर्णन करते हुए कहते है कि कई दिनों से वहाँ अकाल पड़ा था। अकाल के दिनों में घर में अनाज का एक दाना भी नहीं था। कई दिनों से घर का चुल्हा नहीं जलाया था। अर्थात घर में भोजन नहीं बनाया था। इस से चुल्हा रो रहा था और चक्की उदास पड़ी थी। घर की दीवारों पर छिपकलियाँ घूम रही थी। चुल्हे और चक्की के पास घर की कानी कुत्तिया अनाज आने के प्रतीक्षा में सो रही थी। चूहों को भी खाने केलिए कुछ नही मिला था। यह सब अकाल की दयनीय दशा था।

अकाल और उसके बाद SCERT Questions and Answers

गतिविधि – 1

सूचनाः ‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कविता का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
दाने आए घर के अंदर कई दिनों के बाद।
धुआँ उठा आँगन से ऊपर कई दिनों के बाद।
चमक उठी घर भर की आँखें कई दिनों के बाद।
कौए ने सुजलाई पॉखे कई दिनों के बाद।

प्रश्ना 1.
पंक्तियों में किसका वर्णन हैं? (अकाल की स्थिति का, अकाल के पूर्व की स्थिति का, अकाल के बाद की स्थिति का)
उत्तर:
अकाल के बाद की स्थिति का।

प्रश्ना 2.
‘चमक उठीं घर भर की आँखें’ – का मतलब क्या हैं?
उत्तर:
अकाल के बाद घर में खाना पकाने लगा। कई दिनों के बाद चुल्हा में आग जलने लगे।

अकाल और उसके बाद Additional Questions and Answers

अकाल और उसके बाद आशयग्रहण के प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
‘चक्की रही उदास और चूल्हा रोया’ -से कवि का क्या तात्पर्य है?

उत्तर:
इससे कवि यह बताना चाहते हैं कि घर में खाद्य वस्तुओं का बिलकुल अभाव है। कई दिनों इन दोनों का कोई इस्तेमाल नहीं हुआ है।

प्रश्ना 2.
छिपकली, कानी कुतिया और चूहों की हालत खराब क्यों थी?

उत्तर:
घर में कई दिनों से खाने की चीजें नहीं हैं। जहाँ खाना नहीं होगा वहाँ दीप जलाने के लिए तेल की भी संभावना नहीं। तो वहाँ छोटे कीड़ों का होना असंभव है। इससे छिपकली परेशान है। घर में खाना न होने से कानी कुतिया और चूहे भी परेशान हैं।

प्रश्ना 3.
घर में रहनेवाले मानव और जीव-जंतुओं की किस समान भावना को कवि ने इस कविता में प्रकट किया है?

उत्तर:
चाहे घर के मानव हो या जीव-जंतु, सब भोजन सामग्री के नितांत अभाव में परेशान हैं। उनकी इस विवशता को कवि ने इस कविता में प्रकट किया है।

अकाल और उसके बाद विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
कानी कुतिया कहाँ सोई हुई थी? क्यों?

उत्तर:
कांनी कुतिया उदास रही चक्की के पास सोई हुई थी। क्योंकि उसे कहीं भी खाने को कुछ मिलने की संभावना नहीं थी।

प्रश्ना 2.
दीवारों पर छिपकलियाँ क्या कर रही थीं। ऐसा करने का कारण क्या है?

उत्तर:
छिपकलियाँ दीवारों पर गश्त लगा रहे थे। कठिन अकाल के समय घर में कोई दीया भी जलने की संभावना न होगी। ऐसे में छिपकलियों के लिए कीड़ों को मिलना भी मुश्किल है। इसलिए वे गश्त लगा रहे होंगे।

प्रश्ना 3.
‘चमक उठी घर भर की आँखें’ -इस प्रयोग का मतलब क्या होगा?

उत्तर:
आँखें जीव-जंतुओं की होती हैं। लेकिन यहाँ कवि ने निर्जीव वस्तुओं में भी मानवीय गुण का आरोप किया है। ऐसे में चूल्हा, चक्की, कुतिया, छिपकली, चूहा आदि घर के सब निर्जीव और सजीव घर में दाने आने के कारण खुश हैं। यही इसका मतलब है।

अकाल और उसके बाद विधात्मक प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
कविता की प्रासंगिकता पर टिप्पणी लिखें।

उत्तर:
अकाल और उसके बाद
इस छोटी-सी कविता के चार पंक्तियों में अकाल का विवरण है और चार पंक्तियों उसके बाद का दृश्य। इन चार पंक्तियों में भी “कई दिनों तक” हर पंक्ति के शुरू में बार-बार दुहराया जाता है। इसके बाद बहुत थोड़े-से सरल शब्द बजते हैं जिसमें अकाल की कथा कही गई है। इस अकाल कथा की पहली चार पंक्तियों में मनुष्य कहीं नहीं है। बिंबों में चूल्हा-चक्की है, कानी कुतिया है, चूहे हैं और छिपकलियाँ हैं।

अनाज नहीं है तो चूल्हा और चक्की तो उदास और उतरे हुए मुँह के होंगे ही। कुतिया है वह भी कानी। क्योंकि गरीब घर की है। संपन्न घर के कुत्ते तो झबरे बालों वाले सुंदर कुत्ते होते हैं। रोटी की आस में चक्की के पास पड़े नहीं रहते। छिपकलियाँ भला क्यों भीतर परेशान हाल गश्त लगा रही है? क्योंकि वे तो दाल-रोटी खाती नहीं हैं, कीड़े खाती हैं। लेकिन जिस घर में भोजन नहीं है वहाँ तेल क्या होगा! लिहाजा रात को घर में दीया भी नहीं जलता होगा और कीड़े तो रात की रोशनी में आते हैं। दिन की रोशनी में नहीं आते। ऐसे में छिपकलियाँ भी भूख की मारी हैं। चूहे तो कुत्ते की तरह स्वामीभक्त होते नहीं। शिकस्ता हाल चूहे उस घर में कर क्या रहे हैं? चूंकि अकाल पड़ा है, इसलिए गाँव के किसी घर में अन्न नहीं होगा। वरना चूहे वहाँ चले जाते। खेतों में तो अन्न होने का सवाल ही नहीं उठता! वरना हम जानते हैं कि चूहे खेतों से अन्न चुराकर अपने बिलों में घसीट ले जाते हैं।

बाद की चार पंक्तियों में हर पंक्ति का अंत ‘कई दिनों के बाद’ से होता है। जो भी होता है हर पंक्ति में कई दिनों के बाद’ होता है। घर के भीतर दाने आते हैं। घर भर की आँखें चमक उठती हैं। अभी भोजन बना नहीं है। लेकिन अन्न की आहट ने ही आँखों में रोशनी भर दी है। उम्मीद इसी तरह रोशनी लाती है। फिर धुआँ उठता है छप्पर के ऊपर ! यानि चूल्हा जल गया है। यह धुआँ शुभ संकेत दे रहा है।

और कौए अब अपने पंख खुजला रहे हैं। क्योंकि इन पंखों से वे बहुत तेज़ी से उठते हैं और किसी भी थाली में झपट्टा मारके अपने हिस्से की रोटी ले उठते हैं। . धुआँ देखकर वे भी उम्मीद से भर उठते हैं। कुत्ते, चूहे, छिपकलियाँ और कौए भी सामाजिक प्राणी हैं। वे बस्तियों में, घर में मनुष्यों के साथ ही रहना चाहते हैं। उजाड़ में नहीं।

प्रश्ना 2.
‘कौए ने खुजलाई पाँखें कई दिनों के बाद’ – कविता के संदर्भ में पंक्ति का विश्लेषण करें।
उत्तर:
कवि अकाल के बाद की स्थिति को सामने लाते हैं। अकाल की भयावह स्थिति से बेचारा कौआ भी हतबुद्धि था। लेकिन झूठ-मूठ की आशा जगते ही वह प्रबुद्ध होकर पंख खुजलाने लगा। कविता का दूसरा अंश, निम्नवर्गीय समाज की जिजीविषा और उसकी संघर्षशील प्रवृत्ति को सामने लाता है। यह बड़ी बात है कि भारतीय समाज का यह हिस्सा अत्यंत धैर्य से भरा है। वह अकाल में बेघर होता है, न जाने किन-किन कैंप-खंडहरों में शरण लेता है, फिर अपने नीड़ में लौटता है और फिर से उसका चूल्हा जलता है। यह कविता भारतीय समाज में परिवार के उस गठन को भी सामने लाती है जिसमें मनुष्य के साथ ही पशु-पक्षियों का भी बसेरा होता है।

अकाल और उसके बाद Summary in Malayalam and Translation

अकाल और उसके बाद शब्दार्थ

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Struggle and Freedom

Answer the following. Score 1 each.

A. Choose the correct answer.

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Important Questions Question 1.
The first Satyagraha organised by Gandhiji in India after returning from South Africa
Champaran Satyagraha
Ahmedabad Cotton Mill Strike
Kheda Satyagraha
Answer:
Champaran Satyagraha

Question 2.
The first of the regional agitation led by Gandhiji.
Khilafat Movement
Kheda Satyagraha
Champaran Satyagraha
Answer:
Champaran Satyagraha, 1917

Question 3.
Who directed the film ‘Gandhi’?
Syam Benagal
Richard Attenborough
Rajath Kapoor
Answer:
Richard Attenborough

Question 4.
The Act passed by the British Parliament in 1919 by which a person could be arrested and imprisoned without trial
Rowlatt Act
Minto-Morley Act
The Act of 1919
Answer:
Rowlatt Act

Question 5.
The Chairman of the Committee which recommended the Rowlatt Act
Sir Alan Rowlatt
Sir Sydney Rowlatt
Sir William Rowlatt
Answer:
Sir Sydney Rowlatt

Question 6.
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on
3 April 1919
13 April 1919
11 April 1919
Answer:
13 April 1919

Question 7.
The army chief who was responsible for the Jallian wala Bagh Massacre
General Dyer
General Sanderson
General Franco
Answer:
General Dyer

Question 8.
The first national level struggle by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Gandhiji
Khilafat movement
Non-Co-operation movement
Salt Satyagraha
Answer:
Non-Co-operation movement

Question 9.
The President of the Lahore Congress Session of 1929
Mahatma Gandhi
Jawaharlal Nehru
Subash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 10.
Quit India struggle began in the year
1942
1941
1943
Answer:
1942

Question 11.
The military wing started by Hindustan Socialist Republican Association for armed rebellion
Anuseelan Samiti
Indian National Army
Indian Republican Army
Answer:
Indian Republican Army

Question 12.
Who founded Abhinav Bharat Society?
V.D.Savarkar
Surya Sen
Sukh Dev
Answer:
V.D.Savarkar

Question 13.
The founder of Indian Republican Army
Lala Hardayal
Surya Sen
Bareenderkumar Ghosh
Answer:
Surya Sen

Question 14.
Under whose leadership was the Congress Socialist Party formed in 1934?
Jai Prakash Narayan
Jawaharlal Nehru
Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Jai Prakash Narayan

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Pdf Question 15.
The political party formed by Subhash Chandra Bose
Congress Socialist Party
Ghadar Party
Forward Bloc
Answer:
Forward Bloc

Question 16.
The founder of Indian National Army
Rash Bihari Bose
Subhash Chandra Bose
Captian Lakshmi
Answer:
Rash Bihari Bose

Question 17.
The centre of Salt Satyagraha in Kerala
Payyannur
Kozhikode
Thiruvananthapuram
Answer:
Payyannur

Question 18.
The founder of Ghadar Party
Lala Hardayal
Surya Sen
V.D.Savarkar
Answer:
Lala Hardayal

Question 19.
Who is known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?
Maulana Abdul Kalam
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

Question 20.
The last British Viceroy of India
Lord Mountbatten
Lord Wavel
Clement Atlee
Answer:
Lord Mountbatten

Question 21.
The first martyr of Indian freedom struggle from South India
Bhagat Singh
Vanchi Iyer
Raj Guru
Answer:
Vanchi Iyer

Question 22.
Which was the last popular protest organized by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Gandhiji?
Answer:
Quit India Movement

B. Answer in a sentence each.

Question 1.
What was the reason for the Ahmedabad cotton mill strike of 1918?
Answer:
Cotton mill workers in Ahmedabad started their strike in 1918 when they were denied ‘Plague Bonus’. During the plague outbreak in Ahmedabad in 1917, the labourers were given a bonus up to 80% of their wages to prevent labourers from quitting the job for fear of plague. When the plague threat was over, this bonus was withdrawn and the labourers started agitation against it.

Question 2.
Where was All India Kisan Congress formed? Name the leader who took efforts to form it.
Answer:

• Lahore
• N.G Renga

Question 3.
‘If the Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for British rule, Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation’. Whose words are these? When was this said?
Answer:
Gandhiji said this after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Question 4.
Name the national educational institutions started in India during the Non co-operation struggle.
Answer:

• Kashi Vidya Pith
• Gujarat Vidya Pith
• Jamia Millia

Question 5.
Who were the leaders of Indian Khilafat Movement?
Answer:

• Maulana Mohammad Ali
• Maulana Shoukath Ali

Question 6.
What were the important decisions of the Lahore Congress Session of1929? Who was its Chairman?
Answer:

• The Session declared that the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle was to attain complete freedom.
• It also decided to start the Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji.
• Jawaharlal Nehru was the Chairman.

Question 7.
When did the Quit India struggle begin? What was the slogan given by Gandhiji in this struggle?
Answer:

• Quit India struggle began in August 1942.
• Gandhiji gave the slogan ’Do or Die’.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
When was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association formed? Who were its main leaders?
Answer:

• Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed in Delhi in 1928 by the revolutionaries of Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
• Its main leaders were Bhagat Singh, Chandra Sekhar Azad, Raj Guru and Sukh Dev.

Question 9.
Why did Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt throw bomb at the Central Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
To protest against the attempts to pass laws curtailing civil rights.

Question 10.
Who were the founders of Anuseelan Samiti?
Answer:

• Bareender Kumar Ghosh
• Pulin Bihari Das

Question 11.
What was the name of the women wing of Indian National Army? Who was in charge of this regiment?
Answer:

• Jhansi Regiment
• Captain Lakshmi

Question 12.
Which were the earlier labour unions formed in India?
Answer:

• Ahmedabad Textiles Association
• Madras Labour Union
• All India Trade Union Congress

Question 13.
Who were the leaders of the All India Trade Union Congress at the time of its formation in 1920?
Answer:

• N.M. Joshi
• Lala Lajpat Rai

Question 14.
Name the British Prime Minister who agreed to the independence of India. To which political party did he belong?
Answer:

• Clement Atlee
• Labour Party

Question 15.
What was Mountbatten Plan?
Answer:
The strategy prepared by Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India, for the transfer of power, by dividing India into India and Pakistan.

Question 16.
When was the Indian Independence Act passed?
Answer:

• The British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act in July 1947.
• As per this Act, two free nations – India and Pakistan came into existence.

Question 17.
Who gave leadership to the anti-Rowlatt agitations in Punjab?
Answer:

• Saifuddin Kitchlew
• Satyapal

Question 18.
People’s protest against the Act which violated civil rights resulted in the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre? Which was that Act?
Answer:
RowlattAct, 1919

Question 19.
How did Gandhiji respond to jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
Answer:
If the battle of plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, the Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation.

Question 20.
Why did Gandhiji stop Non-Cooperation Movement after the Chauri Chaura incident?
Answer:
People turned to violence and Gandhiji was disappointed.

Question 21.
What did Gandhiji aim by Civil Disobedience?
Answer:
To disobey all anti-democratic and anti-popular civil laws made by the British government.

Question 22.
Who gave leadership to Dharasana struggle?
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu. It was a struggle in connection with Salt Satyagraha.

Answer the following. Score 2 each.

Question 1.
Write a note on the role of Gandhiji in the indigo farmers’ protest at Champaran.
Answer:
The indigo farmers of Champaran were exploited by the European planters. Gandhiji intervened.in the problems faced by the indigo farmers in Champaran and adopted the strategies of disobedience of British laws and Satyagraha. His involvement compelled the authorities to pass laws in favour of the indigo farmers. After the struggle in Champaran, Gandhiji worked for the progress of this region by establishing primary schools, initiating medical aids and involving in cleaning activities.

Question 2.
What was the reason for the Kheda agitation?
Answer:
The rulers decided to collect tax from the farmers of Kheda who were living in utter misery due to drought and crop failure. Gandhiji used the weapons of Satyagraha and non payment of tax in this agitation. The authorities agreed to reduce tax rates.

Question 3.
What was Rowlatt Act?
Answer:

• In the pretext of preventing extremist activities, the British Parliament passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919 limiting civil rights. As per this Act, any person could be arrested and imprisoned without trial.
• The Committee which recommended this Act was led by Sir Sydney Rowlatt.

Question 4.
What was the reason for Khilafat Movement?
Answer:

• Khilafat Movement was the worldwide protest against the efforts of Britain which tried to limit the power of Khalifa, the ruler of Turkey and the spiritual leader of world Muslims, after the First World War.
• In India, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Moulana Shoukath Ali gave leadership to Khilafat agitation.

Question 5.
Gandhiji supported the Khilafat agitation and used it as a forum to propagate his ideologies. What were its results?
Answer:

• Hindu-Muslim unity was intensified.
• Anti British feeling spread to the nook and comer of India.

Question 6.
Why did Gandhiji use salt as a tool of protest
against the British?
Answer:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• The tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.

Question 7.
Which were the main centres of Salt Satyagraha in India?
Answer:

• Dandi – Gujarat
• Payyannur – Kerala
• Vedaranyam – Tamil Nadu
• Bombay – Maharashtra
• Noakhali – Bengal

Question 8.
Write a note on Congress Socialist Party.
Answer:

• Taking cue from the Russian Revolution, socialist ideologies started to spread in India.
• At a meeting under the chairmanship of Jai Prakash Narayan in Bombay in 1934, the Congress Socialist Party was formed.
  During the Quit India agitation, leaders like Jai Prakash Narayan and Aruna Asaf Ali led the movement from their hideouts.

Question 9.
Who is known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’? Why is he called so?
Answer:

• Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan is called Frontier Gandhi.
• Gaffer Khan led countless agitations in the North West frontiers. Tried his best for Hindu- Muslim unity. Strongly opposed the dual nation theory.

Question 10.
What was the objective of Gandhi in travelling across India with the Khilafat leaders to propagate ideas?
Answer:

• To intensify Hindu – Muslim unity
• To spread anti – British feeling to the nook and corner of the nation.

Question 11.
Write the result of the rise of the movements of workers and peasants.
Answer:

• Organization of labourers and farmers and their subsequent protests energised Indian National Movement.
• Their policy of equally opposing the imperialist policies of the British government as well as the feudal system that existed in India triggered agitations and revolts in various parts of the country. E.g. Tebhga struggle.

Question 12.
Who were the leaders of Congress Socialist Party?
Answer:

• Jawaharlal Nehru
• Subhash Chandra Bose
• Jai Prakash Narayan
• Aruna Asaf Ali

Answer the following. Score 3 each.

Question 1.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the sun diagram on the characteristics of Non-Co-operation Movement.

Answer:

Question 3.
Write on the functioning of Hindustan Socialist Republican Organisation that adopted an approach different from Gandhian way of struggle for freedom.
Answer:
Revolutionaries from Punjab, Rajasthan, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh gathered in Delhi and formed the revolutionary organisation Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928. Bhagat Singh, Chandra Sekhar Azad, Raj Guru and Sukh Dev were the main leaders. They floated a military wing called Republican Army for armed revolution. Their plan was to overthrow the colonial government through military action and establish a federal republic of Indian states.

Question 4.
What led to the formation of peasant agitations in India?
Answer:

• The tax laws of the British
• Severe exploitation of the Zamindars
• Low price of agricultural produces

Question 5.
Match the agitations and places suitably.

Answer:

Question 6.
Write a note on Round Table Conferences.
Answer:
The British government convened in London three Round Table Conferences in 1930,1931 and 1932 to discuss the administrative reforms to be implemented in India. Representatives of Indian political parties, princely states and other organizations were invited to attend the conference. The Indian National Congress boycotted the first and third conferences. Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Conference as the representative of Indian National Congress.

Question 7.
Examine the factors that caused Quit India Movement.
Answer:

• Reluctance of the British to implement constitutional reforms in India.
• Public disgust with price hike and famine.
• The assumption that the British would be defeated in the Second World War.

Question 8.
What were the main objectives of the All India Trade Union Congress formed in 1920? Who were the main leaders at the time?
Answer:

• To organise and act as a working class.
• To facilitate Indian working class to co-operate with the working class outside India.
• To participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.
• Leaders were N.M. Joshy and Lala Lajpat Rai.

Question 9.
Which plan proposed that Punjab and Bengal should be partitioned? Write other two recommendations of the plan.
Answer:

• Mountbatten Plan
• Other recommendations:
  • To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per their wish.
  • To appoint a Commission to determine the borders in Punjab and Bengal.

Question 10.
Give a short description about the role of Subhash Chandra Bose in Indian National Movement.
Answer:
Subhash Chandra Bose was a leading figure in Indian freedom movement. At various stages of the national movement, he expressed his difference of opinion on Gandhian ideas of struggle. Quitting the Congress, he formed a political party called ‘Forward Bloc’. He took charge of the Indian National Army formed by Rash Bihari Bose to attain freedom for India.

He formed a provisional government for free India in Singapore, with the aim of forcing the British to quit India. With the support of the Japanese army, the Indian National Army marched to the northeast border of India and hoisted the Indian flag in Imphal.

Answer the following. Score 4 each.

Question 1.
The first national struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the Non Co-operation movement. Examine the characteristics of Non co-operation Movement.
Answer:

• Denial of taxes
• Boycott foreign products
• Boycott elections
• Lawyers shall boycott courts
• Students shall boycott English schools

Question 2.
Find out examples to show how the Indian society responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for Non Co-operation.
Or
How did people respond to Gandhiji’s appeal for Non Co-operation?
Answer:

• Workers in various parts of India struck work.
• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• Farmers in Uttar Pradesh refused to carry the luggage of the colonial officials.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest produces violating the forest laws.
• The public including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Question 3.
Match the columns suitably.

Answer:

Question 4.
Arrange the following in chronological order.

• Chauri Chaura incident
• Quit India Movement
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
• Kheda Peasant struggle

Answer:

• Kheda Peasant Struggle (1918)
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919)
• Chauri Chaura incident (1922)
• Quit India Movement (1942)

Question 5.
What were the proposals put forward by Gandhiji as part of Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary to top officials.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Question 6.
What were the instructions that Gandhiji gave to the people as part of Quit India Movement?
Answer:

• Farmers shall not pay land tax.
• Princely states shall recognise the sovereignty of their people.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• If possible, students shall boycott schools till obtaining freedom.

Question 7.
What was Mountbatten Plan? What were its main proposals?
Answer:
Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India prepared a strategy for India’s freedom by dividing it. This was the Mountbatten Plan.
Its Proposals were :

• To divide Punjab and Bengal.
• To appoint a Commission to determine the borders in Punjab and Bengal.
• To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per the Muslim wish.
• To conduct a referendum to determine whether to add North-West Frontier Province to Pakistan or not.

Question 8.
‘ Name the organisation that framed Kisan Manifesto. Write the demands included in the ‘Kisan Manifesto.
Answer:

• The All India Kisan Samiti Conference held in Bombay prepared Kisan Manifesto.
• Reduce 50% of land tax and lease charge.
• Write off debts.
• Cancel feudal taxes.
• Ensure minimum wage for agricultural workers.
• Recognise peasant unions.

Question 9.
Write the factors that helped Gandhiji to gain the trust and recognition of the common people of India.
Answer:

• Gandhiji became familiar to the Indians after his involvement in addressing the problems of the Indian expatriates in South Africa.
• His protests in South Africa made him famous.
• Gandhiji was very popular because he lived among the common people and his food and clothing was similar to that of the common man in India and he spoke in their language
• Common people found in Gandhiji a saviour who could solve their problems.

Question 10.
Write the main constructive programmes during the Non Co-operation movement.
Or
Along with Non Co-operation, constructive programmes were also given importance. Elucidate.
Answer:

• Established national educational institutions.
• People made indigenous products.
• Spun khadi clothes using charka.
• Participated to eradicate untouchability.
• Popularised Hindi.

Question 11.
Examine the reasons why Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon against the British during the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930?
Answer:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• Salt tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• British government banned small scale indigenous salt production.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of society.

Question 12.
Write the factors that forced Britain to give
independence to India.
Answer:

• The collapse of imperialism in the world after the Second World War.
• Consequent to financial crisis, Britain lost its capacity to maintain colonies.
• Freedom struggles in the colonies of Asia and Africa intensified.
• The super power USA and Soviet Union were against colonialism.

Question 13.
What were the common characteristics of the early struggles under Gandhiji?
Answer:

• The early struggles were originated and based on economic issues.
• Adopted the methods of non payment of tax and Satyagraha.
• Received the help of regional leaders.
• His methods of struggle made him acceptable to all sections of people.
• People got the belief that Gandhiji could solve the problems of people.

Question 14.
How did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre influence Indian National Movement?
Answer:
Rowlatt Act limited the civil right of Indians. People gathered at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar on 13 April 1919 to protest against the arrest of those who led anti – Rowlatt agitations in Punjab. The army chief ordered to shoot without warning and this resulted in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

The massacre intensified the protests at the national level. ‘Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation of British rule’, Gandhiji said. Anti – British feeling fuelled and strengthened the national movement. People became very courageous to fight against the British.

Question 15.
Which were the labour and peasant organisations formed after the Russian Revolution? What were their main objectives?
Answer:

• Ahmedabad Textile Association
• Madras Labour Union
• All India Trade Union Congress
• Objectives:
  • To organise and act as a working class.
  • To participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.

Answer the following. Score 5,6 each.

Question 1.
Examine the role of Gandhiji in Indian freedom struggle.
Answer:
The period from 1917 to 1947 in Indian history is known as Gandhian era.

Gandhiji and Champaran Satyagraha:
Gandhiji started his social activities in India by intervening in the problems faced by the indigo farmers in Champaran in 1917. In Champaran, he resorted to disobedience of British laws and Satyagraha. His involvement compelled the authorities to pass laws in favour of the indigo farmers.

Gandhiji and Ahmedabad Cotton Mill Strike:
Cotton mill workers in Ahmedabad started their strike in 1918 when they were denied plague bonus. Gandhiji adopted the tools of disobedience of British laws and Satyagraha here also. Following his Satyagraha, the authorities agreed to hike the wages of the employees.

Gandhiji and Kheda peasant struggle:
The rulers decided to collect tax from the poor farmers of Kheda who were living in utter misery due to drought and crop failure. Starting Satyagraha, Gandhiji protested against the decision. He advised the people not to pay tax. As a result, the authorities were forced to reduce tax.

Gandhiji and Rowlatt Act:
When the protests against Rowlatt Act failed, Gandhiji suggested starting Satyagraha. Vigorously reacting to this proposal, people in various parts of the country went to the streets and started demonstrations and strikes. The massacre at Jallianwala Bagh intensified the protest against the British. Gandhiji said about the Jallianwala Bagh massacre: ‘If the Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation’.

Gandhiji and Non-Co-operation Movement:
The first national level struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the non co-operation movement. The confidence gained from the anti- Rowlatt protest motivated Gandhiji to declare non co-operation against the British. The methods of agitation were denial of taxes, boycott foreign goods, boycott elections, etc.

In addition to this, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes like making indigenous products, spinning Khadi cloth using charka, establishing national educational institutions, popularising Hindi and eradicating untouchability. Non co-operation movement had a great role in making the national movement a grass root mass movement. But he suspended the Non cooperation movement due to the Chauri Chaura incident.

Gandhiji and Civil Disobedience:
The Lahore Congress Session of 1929 decided to launch a Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. With the civil disobedience, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic laws made by the British government. As part of the movement, Gandhiji demanded to lift salt tax, to declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers and to release political prisoners. Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon against the British.

The Civil Disobedience Movement began with the Dandi March in 1930. Gandhiji broke the salt law by making salt. Inspired by the call of Gandhiji, people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations. The British government arrested Gandhiji and suppressed the movement callously.

Gandhiji and Quit India Movement:
The Quit India Movement was the last popular protest organised by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji. It was a mass movement based on the ideology of non-violence, meant to force the British to leave the country, offering complete freedom to Indians. As part of the movement, Gandhiji called for:

• Princely states shall recognize the sovereignty of their people.
• Farmers shall not pay land tax.

Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’ to the Indians. The movement became strong all over India. The British government in India began to shake. But the government suppressed the movement very severely and arrested leaders including Gandhiji.
Gandhian ideas played a major role in making the national movement a mass movement and finally achieving independence.

Question 2.
Examine the relevance of Non-Co-operation Movement and Quit India Movement in Indian freedom struggle.
Answer:
Indian freedom movement became a mass movement after the adoption of Non-Co-operation movement.

Non-Co-operation Movement:
The first national level struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the Non-Co-operation movement. It was a novel agitation of not to co-operate with the British. The characteristics of Non- co-operation policy were:

• Denial of taxes
• Returning the British awards and prizes
• Boycott elections
• Boycott foreign goods
• Lawyers shall boycott courts
• Students shall boycott English schools

In addition to his appeal for Non-Co-operation, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes like making indigenous products, spinning khadi cloth using charka, establishing national educational institutions, popularising Hindi and eradicating untouchability. Kashi Vidya Pith, Gujarat VidyaPith and Jamia Millia were some of the national educational institutions started during this period.
People in different parts of India responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for non co-operation.

• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• Workers struck work.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest products violating the forest laws.
• Lawyers boycotted courts.
• Students quitted colleges and schools run by the British.
• The public, including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Non-Co-operation movement had a major role in making the national movement, which was till then confined to the elite of the society, a grass root mass movement. However, Gandhiji withdrew the movement following the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922.

Quit India Movement:
The Quit India Movement was the third mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British. It was a mass movement based on the ideology of nonviolence meant to force the British to leave the country offering complete freedom to Indians. As part of the movement, Gandhiji called for:

• Farmers shall not pay tax.
• Princely states shall recognise the sovereignty of their people.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’ to the common people. The Quit India Movement began on August 8,1942. The next day, Gandhiji and all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested. In protest, the uncontrolled mob demolished government offices, electric lines and railway lines. At the end of 1942, India was under the fire of popular unrest. The British government suppressed the movement very severely. The Quit India movement was a clear indication of the people’s determination to grab freedom for their country.

Question 3.
By making salt as a tool of protest, Gandhiji proved that any trivial issue can be snowballed into a popular strategy to trigger public protest and intensify a mass movement. Examine this statement in the light of Civil Disobedience Movement launched by Gandhiji.
Answer:
Civil Disobedience Movement:
The Lahore Congress Session of 1929 decided to start a civil disobedience movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. This was the second mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British.

With the civil disobedience movement, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic laws made by the British government. As part of the movement, Gandhiji proposed the following.

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of top officials.
• To dissolve the secret surveillance wing formed to watch Indians.
• To start coastal shipping service.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Gandhiji gave top priority to reducing salt tax due to a variety of reasons. He selected salt as a powerful tool against the British because:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• Salt tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The British government banned small scale indegenous salt production.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Gandhiji began the civil disobedience with Salt Satyagraha. The Salt Satyagraha began with the famous Dandi March by Gandhiji on 30 March, 1930. Gandhiji along with 78 followers marched from Sabarmali Ashram to Dandi, a coastal village in Gujarat. He broke the salt law by making salt. Inspired by the call of Gandhiji, people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations.

Payyannur in Kerala, Vedaranyam in Tamil Nadu, Bombay in Maharashtra, Naokhali in Bengal and North West Frontier Province were some of the centres of this protest. As part of the protest, volunteers made salt and distributed it to the people, hoisted national flag and chanted anti- British slogans. Gandhiji was arrested and the movement was suppressed callously.

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Which are the three major struggles organised under the leadership of Gandhiji? Explain each of them.
Answer:

• Non – Co – operation movement
• Civil Disobedience (Salt Satyagraha)
• Quit India movement

Non – Co-operation movement :
The first national level struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the Non-Co-operation movement. It was a novel agitation of not to co-operate with the British. The characteristics of Non- co-operation policy were:

• Denial of taxes
• Returning the British awards and prizes
• Boycott elections
• Boycott foreign goods
• Lawyers shall boycott courts
• Students shall boycott English schools

In addition to his appeal for Non-Co-operation, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes like making indigenous products, spinning khadi cloth using charka, establishing national educational institutions, popularising Hindi and eradicating untouchability. Kashi Vidya Pith, Gujarat Vidya Pith and Jamia Millia were some of the national educational institutions started during this period.
People in different parts of India responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for non co-operation.

• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• Workers struck work.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest products violating the forest laws.
• Lawyers boycotted courts.
• Students quitted colleges and schools run by the British.
• The public, including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Non-Co-operation movement had a major role in making the national movement, which was till then confined to the elite of the society, a grass root mass movement. However, Gandhiji withdrew the movement following the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922.

Civil Disobedience Movement:
The Lahore Congress Session of 1929 decided to start a civil disobedience movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. This was the second mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British.

With the civil disobedience movement, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic civil laws made by the British government. As part of the movement, Gandhiji proposed the following.

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of top officials.
• To dissolve the secret surveillance wing formed to watch Indians.
• To start coastal shipping service.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Gandhiji gave top priority to reducing salt tax due to a variety of reasons. He selected salt as a powerful tool against the British because:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• Salt tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The British government banned small scale indegenous salt production.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Gandhiji began the civil disobedience with Salt Satyagraha. The Salt Satyagraha began with the famous Dandi March by Gandhiji on 30 March, 1930. Gandhiji along with 78 followers marched from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a coastal village in Gujarat.

He broke the salt law by making salt. Inspired by the call of Gandhiji, people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations. Payyannur in Kerala, Vedaranyam in Tamil Nadu, Bombay in Maharashtra, Naokhali in Bengal and North West Frontier Province were some of the centres of this protest.

Quit India Movement:
The Quit India Movement was the third mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British. It was a mass movement based on the ideology of non¬violence meant to force the British to leave the country offering complete freedom to Indians.
As part of the movement, Gandhiji called for:

• Farmers shall not pay tax.
• Princely states shall recognise the sovereignty of their people.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’ to the common people. The Quit India Movement began on August 8, 1942. The next day, Gandhiji and all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested. In protest, the uncontrolled mob demolished government offices, electric lines and railway lines. At the end of 1942, India was under the fire of popular unrest. The British government suppressed the movement very severely. The Quit India movement was a clear indication Of the people’s determination to grab freedom for their country.

Question 5.
Match the items related to Column A from Columns B and C.

Answer:

Question 6.
Match suitably.

Answer:

Question 7.
Prepare a Timeline using the events and years.

• Lahore Congress Session
• Second Round Table Conference
• Champaran Satyagraha
• Quit India Movement
• Chauri Chaura Incident

Answer:

Question 8.
Arrange the following in chronological order.

• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
• Non Co-operation Movement
• Ahmedabad Cotton Mill strike
• Bombay Naval Mutiny
• Formation of Swaraj Party

Answer:

• Ahmedabad Cotton Mi 11 strike (1918)
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919)
• Non Co-operation Movement (1921)
• Formation of Swaraj Party (1923)
• Bombay Naval Mutiny (1946)

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 2 Chapter 2 सबसे बड़ा शो मैन (जीवनी (अंश))

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सबसे बड़ा शो मैन विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

Sabse Bada Showman Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
‘इस अभद्र शोर ने माँ को स्टेज से हने को मजबूर कर दिया’ -उस समय माँ की हालत कैसी होगी?

उत्तर:
माँ ने बहुत तनाव का अनुभव किया होगा। जब तारीफ़ करने वाले माँ की हालत समझे बिना शोर मचा रहे थे। किसी भी कलाकार के लिए यह सह पाना मुश्किल की बात है। माँ विवश हुई होगी।

Sabse Bada Showman Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
पाँच साल का चार्ली स्टेज पर अकेला था- उस समय चार्ली ने क्या सोचा होगा?

उत्तर:
चार्ली ने सोचा होगा कि माँ ने क्यों गाना बंद किया? माँ ने क्यों मुझे यहाँ अकेला छोड़ दिया है। इतने अधिक लोगों के सामने क्या करूँ। माँ ने गाने को कहा है, इसलिए मैं गाऊँगा।

Sabse Bada Showman Question And Answer Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 3.
‘इस बात ने हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया’ – क्यों?.

उत्तर:
चार्ली स्टेज के व्यवहार नहीं जानता था। वह स्टेज में बाल-सहज भोलेपन से जी रहा था। उसका .. गाना रोककर पैसा बटोरने की घोषणा, मैनेजर के पीछे संदेह के साथ जाना आदि इसका उदाहरण है। किसी भी बालक के इसी प्रकार के व्यवहार देखने पर लोग सब कुछ भूलकर हँसने लगते हैं।

Sslc Hindi Sabse Bada Showman Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 4.
‘उसने जन्म ले लिया था।’ इससे क्या मतलब है?

उत्तर:
चार्ली चैप्लिन विश्व के इतिहास में एक अद्वितीय व्यक्तित्व है। अपनी माँ की विवशता ही उसके स्टैज में आने का कारण बना। पाँच साल के उस भोलेपन में ही उसने लोगों को आनंदित कर दिया। इसलिए ऐसा कहा गया है।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Text Book Activities & Answers

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन विधात्मक प्रश्न

Sabse Bada Showman Summary Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
‘दुनिया के सबसे बड़े शो मैन का यह पहला शो था’ इस घटना के आधार पर एक रपट तैयार करें।

ध्यान दें,
1. रपट वस्तुनिष्ठ हो।

2. रपट क्या, कौन, कब, कैसे, कहाँ आदि प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने लायक हो।

3. रपट में लेखक का अपना दृष्टिकोण प्रकट हो।

4. शीर्षक आकर्षक हो।

उत्तर:
पाँच साल के बच्चे ने हॉल को हँसीघर में बदल दिया
लंदन :
आज शहर के प्रसिडेंसी हॉल को पाँच साल का चार्लस स्पेनसर चैप्लिन नामक बच्चे ने अपना गाना तथा भोलापन से हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। हॉल में चैप्लिन की माँ हन्ना का गाना चल रहा था। अचानक उसकी आवाज़ फट गई। लोगों ने शोर मचाना शुरू किया। हन्ना स्टेज से हटने को मज़बूर हुई। मैनेजर के आदेश से हन्ना के पाँच साल के बच्चे को गाने के लिए स्टेज पर लाया गया। चैप्लिन ने अपने सहज भोलेपन से गाना शुरू किया। लोग खुश होकर स्टेज पर पैसे फेंकने लगे। बच्चा गाना रोककर पैसा बटोरने की घोषणा की। बच्चे के इस व्यवहार ने हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। लोग इस छोटे से बच्चे में भविष्य के मशहूर कलाकार को देख रहे थे।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Orakkum Questions and Answers

गतिविधि -1

सूचना : ‘सबसे बडा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़ें और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
‘गाना अभी आधा ही हआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शरू हो गई। चार्ली ने गाना रोक दिया और घोषण की कि पहले मैं ये पैसे बटोरूँगा और उसके बाद गाऊँगा। इस बात ने हाँल को हँसीघर में तबदील कर दी।’

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
चार्ली को क्यों स्टेज जाना पड़ा?
उत्तर:
स्टेज में गाते माँ की आवाज़ फटकर फुसफुसाहट में तब्दील हो गई। लोग चिल्लाने लगे। माँ को स्टेज से हटाना पड़ा। तब मैनेजर ने चार्ली को स्टेजपर भेजने की ज़िद किया। इसलिए चार्ली को स्टेज जाना पड़ा।

Sslc Hindi Sabse Bada Showman Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
‘चार्ली ने गाना रोक दिया।’ इस वाक्य में ‘रोक दिया’ शब्द का सीधा संबंध वाक्य के किस शब्द से हैं?
उत्तर:
वाक्य में रोक दिया’ शब्द का सीधा संबंध ‘गाना’ शब्द से हैं।

Sabse Bada Show Man Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 3.
पाँच साल के एक बालक ने हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। इस शीर्षक में एक रपट तैयार करें।
उत्तर:
‘पाँच साल के एक बालक ने हाँल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया।
लंदन : कल लंदन के बालवर्त थिएटर में स्टेज पर सुप्रसिद्ध गायिका हेन्ना गा रही थी। अचानक उसकी आवाजं फटकर फुसफुसाहट में तब्दील हो गई। लोक चिल्लाने लगे। तब मैनेजर ने उसका बेटा चार्ली को स्टेज पर भेजा गया। उस ने मशहूर गीत ‘जैक जोन्स गाना’ शुरु किया। आर्केस्ट्रावाले उसका गाना सजाने लगा। गाना आधा ही हुआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शुरु हो गई। हाँल हँसी से तब्दील हो गया। लोगों ने चार्ली की प्रशंसा की।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन SCERT Question Pool Questions and Answers

गतिविधि – 1

सूचना : ‘सबसे बडा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
गाना अभी आधा ही हुआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शुरु हो गई। चार्ली ने गाना रोक दिया और घोषणा की कि पहले मैं ये पैसे बटोरूँगा और उस के बाद ही गाऊँगा। इस बात ने हाँल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। तब तक मैनेजर एक रुमाल लेकर आया और पैसे बटोरने लगा।

Sabse Bada Showman Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
मैनेजर के स्थान पर ‘माँ’ का प्रयोग करके वाक्य बदलकर लिखें।
मानेजर एक रुमाल लेकर आया।
उत्तर:
माँ एक रुमाल लेकर आयी।

Sabse Bada Showman Summary In Malayalam Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
मान लें, चार्ली की माँ इस दिन डायरी लिख रही हैं। उसने डायरी में क्या – क्या लिखा होगा? कल्पना करके लिखें।
उत्तर:
20 आगस्त 2017
रविवार
आज एक अविस्मरणीय दिन था। मैं स्टेज पर गा रही थी, अचानक मेरी आवाज़ फटकर फुसफुसाहट में तब्दील हो गई। लोग चिल्लाने लगे। तब मैनेजर को मेरा बेटा चाली को स्टेज पर भेजना पडा। चाली ने मशहर गीत ‘जैक जोन्स गाना’ शुरु किया। आर्केस्ट्रा वाले उस का गाना सजाने लग। गाना आधा ही हुआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शुरू हो गई। चार्ली ने पैसों को बटोरना चाहा पर मैनेजर ने एक रुमाल लेकर पैसों को बटोरकर मुझे सौंप दिया। मेरा प्यारा बेटा अपना गीत से हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। वह ऐसा नहीं किया तो… क्या करें? आज का दिन मैं कभी भी भलँगी।

गतिविधि – 2

सूचना : ‘सबसे बडा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नो के उत्तर लिखें।
चार्ली ने जनता में गुदगुदी फैला दी थी। उसके बाद उसने दर्शकों से बातचीत की, नृत्य किया और अपनी माँ सहित कई गायकों की नकल उतारी।

Hindi Sabse Bada Showman Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
‘उसके’ में निहित सर्वनाम कौन-सा हैं ? (वह, हम, वे)
उत्तर:
वह।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Malayalam Meaning Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
‘अनुकरण करना’ के अर्थ में प्रयुक्त प्रयोग चुनकर लिखें। (नकल उतारना, फैला देना, बातचीत करना)
उत्तर:
नकल उतारना।

गतिविधि – 3

सूचना : संबंध पहचानें और सही मिलान करें।

उत्तर:

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Grammar Questions and Answers

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन व्याकरण के प्रश्न

Sabse Bada Showman Malayalam Meaning Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
पढ़ें
1. लोग चिल्लाने लगे।

2. कहीं से कछ लोग म्याऊं-म्याऊं की आवाज़ निकालने लगे।

3. वह उसे स्टेज पर भेजने की ज़िद करने लगा।

4. मैनेज़र एक रूमाल लेकर आया और पैसे बटोरने लगा।

रेखांकित शब्दों पर ध्यान दें और पहचानें इन शब्द-रूपों में समानता कहाँ है? चचो करे।


उत्तर:
यहाँ रेखांकित शब्द ‘लग’ सहायक क्रिया के विभिन्न रूपों में है। ‘लग’ सहायक क्रिया के रूप में प्रयुक्त होते समय यह किसी व्यापार के आरंभ को सूचित करती है। मुख्य क्रिया के चिल्लाना, निकालना, ज़िद करना, बटोरना आदि के रूपों के साथ लग’ सहायक क्रिया लगती है। ‘लग’ सहायक क्रियावाले वाक्य के कर्ता के साथ कोई परसर्ग नहीं जुड़ता। यह कर्ता के लिंग-वचन का अनुसरण करती है।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन अनुबद्ध कार्य

Sslc Hindi Unit 2 Chapter 2 Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
चार्ली चैप्लिन पर एक विशेषांक निकालें।

उत्तर:
चाप्लिन की ज़िंदगी
जन्मः
1889 ब्रिटन में
1925 ‘द गोल्ड रश’
1889 हास्य प्रदर्शनियों की शुरूआत
1931 ‘सिटी लाइट्स”
1910 अमरीका में भ्रमण
1936 ‘मॉर्डन टाइम्स’
1913 सिनेमा जीवन का आरंभ
1940 ‘ग्रेट डिक्टेटर’
1914 पहली सिनेमा ‘मेकिंग ए लिविंग’ ।
1952 अमरीका से निकाला गया।
1918 अपनी स्टुडियो की स्थापना
1972 स्पेशल ऑस्कार
1919 यूनाइटड आर्टिस्ट की स्थापना
1975 सर की उपाधि
1921 ‘द किड’
1977 मृत्यु

Hsslive Guru 10th Hindi Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
चार्ली चैप्लिन और सत्यजीत रे- दोनों की फिल्म की शैली अलग-अलग है। दोनों की फिल्मों के फेस्टिवल का आयोजन करें।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Summary in Malayalam and Translation

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन शब्दार्थ

Students can Download Kerala Padavali Unit 4 Chapter 1 Akkarmashi Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Guide Unit 4 Chapter 1 Akkarmashi

Akkarmashi Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Students can Download Kerala Padavali Unit 3 Chapter 1 Pralobhanam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

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Pralobhanam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes