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Students can Download Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting

Plus One Accountancy Introduction to Accounting One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Business Studies Chapter 1 Notes Pdf Question 1.
Who among the following are not a user of accounting information?
(a) Management
(b) Investors
(c) Advertisers
(d) Lenders
Answer:
(c) Advertisers

Plus One Business Studies Chapter 1 Notes Question 2.
Spot the odd one out and state reason
(a) Loose Tools
(b) Copy Write
(c) Patent
(d) Goodwill
Answer:
(a) Loose Tools, is a Fixed assed, all others are intangible assets.

Plus One Business Studies Chapter 1 Question 3.
A Person who owes money to the business is a
(a) Debtor
(b) Investor
(c) Creditor
(d) Borrower
Answer:
(a) Debtor

Plus One Business Studies Notes Question 4.
Book-keeping is concerned with
(a) Analysis of transaction
(b) Recording of transaction
(c) Classification of transaction
Answer:
(b) Recording of transaction

Plus One Business Studies Notes In English Question 5.
Amount spent for purchasing fixed asset is a
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
Answer:
(b) Capital Expenditure.

Plus One Business Studies Chapter 1 In Malayalam Question 6.
Which quantitative characteristics of accounting in-formation is reflected when accounting information is clearly presented?
(a) Understandability
(b) Relevance
(c) Comparability
(d) Reliability
Answer:
(a) Understandability.

Plus One Business Studies Notes Pdf Question 7.
Which of the following is an example of a business transaction?
(a) Appointed Mr.Ram as the Manager of the business with a salary of Rs. 15,000.
(b) Obtain a loan of Rs. 1,00,000 to the business from Bank of India.
(c) Sent a quotation to Matha Traders worth Rs. 20,000.
Answer:
(b) Obtained a loan of Rs. 1,00,000 from Bank of India. Loan is taken meant for business. So it is a business transaction.

Hsslive Plus One Business Studies Notes Question 8.
Find the odd one out and state the reasons,
(a) share capital
(b) Debentures
(c) Sundry creditors
(d) Long-term loans.
Answer:
(c) Sundry creditors, all others are long term liabilities.

Business Studies Plus One Notes Question 9.
Value of goods remaining unsold at the end of an accounting period is termed as …………
Answer:
Closing Stocks

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Notes Question 10.
Arun, a sole trader, draw Rs. 500 from the business for paying tuition fees to his child. This amount is termed as ……….
Answer:
Drawings.

Nature And Purpose Of Business Notes Pdf Question 11.
Assets minus liabilities are called ……….
Answer:
Capital.

Nature And Purpose Of Business Class 11 Notes Pdf Download Question 12.
………….. assets are those assets, which do not have any real value.
Answer:
Fictitious Assets.

Hss Live Business Studies Plus One Notes Question 13.
The amount earned by a business concern through sale of its products or providing services to customers is called ……
Answer:
Revenues.

Plus One Business Studies Notes In English Pdf Question 14.
The assets bought for long-term use in the business are termed as …………….. assets
Answer:
Fixed.

Hsslive Business Studies Plus One Notes Question 15.
Analysis of recorded data to bring entries of similar nature to one plane is called …………..
Answer:
Classifying.

Hsslive Plus One Business Studies Malayalam Notes Question 16.
A Person who is entitled to get money from the business is termed as …………
Answer:
Creditor

Question 17.
Information in financial reports is based on …………….. transaction.
Answer:
Economic.

Question 18.
All claims against the business are called ………………..
Answer:
Equity

Question 19.
The transaction is one wherein payment or receipt of money is postponed for a future date.
Answer:
Credit transaction.

Question 20.
Mr. Ismail, who is the owner of a Provision shop, took 50 kg. of rice worth Rs. 600 for his house-hold use. He should record this as
Answer:
Drawings.

Question 21.
Ravi, a trader purchased 100 notebooks from ‘Shyni stores’ on credit. How is Shyni stores related to Ravi?
Answer:
Shyni stores is the creditor of Ravi.

Question 22.
Who was the inventor of double-entry bookkeeping?
Answer:
Luca Pacioli

Question 23.
Expand AICPA
Answer:
The American Institute of Certified Public Accounts.

Question 24.
Identify the events not used to the accounting treatment.
(a) Commenced business with cash
(b) Bought Machinery for cash
(c) Cash Purchase of goods.
(d) The firm appointed an efficient Manger.
Answer:
(d) The firm appointed an efficient Manger.

Plus One Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Accounting.
Answer:
According to American Institute of certified Public Accountants, “Accounting is the art of recording, classifying and summarizing in a significant manner and in terms of money, transactions and events which are in part, at least, of a financial character and interpreting the results thereof.”

Question 2.
‘Accounting is the language of the business’. Why?
Answer:
Accounting is the language of the business:
The performance of business in terms of profit or losses is conveyed to users of accounting information in a systematic manner. The financial position of the business concerned is revealed through accounting information.

Question 3.
“Raju sold goods to Rahim on credit”. What relation exists between them? What are the accounting terms involved in it?
Answer:

• Rahim – Debtor
• Raju – Creditor

Question 4.
You are the accountant of a firm. What are the functions to be performed by you?
Answer:
Accounting provides information regarding the financial status of a business and results of its operations. The following are the important functions of accountant of a firm.

1. Recording transactions by referring source documents.
2. Preparing journal, subdivision of journal.
3. Preparing ledger accounts.
4. Summarising.
5. Making statements of interpretation 0 Reporting to Management.

Question5.
Users of accounting are classified as under:

1. Internal users – Management, Investor, Creditor, Bank, Employees, Stock exchange.
2. External Users – Customers, Government, Researchers, Lenders.

Do you agree with this classification, if not correct it?
Answer:
No,
1. Internal Users:

• Management
• Employees

2. External Users:

• Investors
• Creditors
• Bank
• Stock Exchange
• Government
• Customers
• Lenders
• Researchers

Question 6.
All business transactions are events. But all events are not business transactions. Comment.
Answer:
Events can be anything, some events can be expressed in monetary terms while others are not. Only those events which can be expressed in money, terms are business transactions. Transaction is an event or economic activity of a businessman in his business having exchange of money or money’s worth. While events is part of the business transaction.

Question 7.
Classify the following expenses into capital expenditure and revenue expenditure.

• Machinery purchased
• Rent paid
• Interest paid
• Purchased building
• The amount for repair of the building

Answer:
1. Capital Expenditure:

• Machinery Purchase
• Purchased building

2. Revenue Expenditure:

• Rent paid
• Interest
• paid Amount for repair of building

Question 8.
How will you define Revenue and Expenses?
Answer:
1. Revenue:
These are the amounts earned by a business concern through sale of its products or providing services to customers. The common items of revenues are sales, commission received, rent received, interest received, etc.

2. Expenses:
The amount spent in the process of earning revenue is termed as expenses. Examples are Wages, Salaries, rent, Interest paid, electricity charges, etc.

Question 9.
What is a capital expenditure? Give some examples?
Answer:
Capital expenditure represents the amount spent for the acquisition of assets, the benefit from which is derived over a period that extends beyond the accounting year. It is long term in nature.
Examples: Furniture purchased, Land Purchased, Building purchased, etc.

Question 10.
Explain the meaning of Gain and Profit.
Answer:
1. Profit: The excess of revenues of a period over its related expenses during an accounting year is profit. Profit increases the investment of the owners.

2. Gain: A profit that arises from events or transactions which are incidental to business such as sale of fixed assets, winning a court case, receipt of interest and dividend, etc. Gain is irregular in nature. Gains are part of capital receipt. Gains are also known as “non-operating income.”

Question 11.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 12.
Name the branches of accounting.
Answer:

1. Financial Accounting
2. Cost Accounting
3. Management Accounting

Plus One Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the following assets into suitable head Goodwill, Building, Land, Patent, Cash, Oilwell, Copy-write, Debtors, Stock, mines, Bill receivable, Preliminary expenses.
Answer:

Question 2.
Define assets, Liabilities, and capital.
Answer:
1. Assets:
Assets are properties and things of value owned by the business which can be expressed in monetary terms. Examples of Machinery, Buildings, Stock, Debtors, Furniture, etc.

2. Liabilities:
Liabilities are the obligations that an enterprise owes. These represent the amount payable by the business in the future. They represent the claim against the asset of business. Examples Loans, Creditors, Bills payable, etc.

3. Capital:
Capital is the investment made by the owners for use in the business. It is owner’s claim on the total assets of the business and is also called “owners equity”.

Question 3.
Distinguish between:

1. Goods and Assets
2. Expense and Loss

Answer:
1. Goods and Assets:

• Goods refer to things in which the trader deals. But assets refers to things with which the trader deals.
• Goods are meant for resale, while assets are kept in the business permanently with the help of which the business is carried on.

2. Expense and Loss:

• Costs incurred by a business in the process of earning revenue are known as expense.
• The excess of expenses of a period over its related revenues is termed as loss. It decreases in owner’s equity.

Plus One Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Accounting has certain objectives to business Explain.
Answer:
The following are the important objectives of accounting.

1. Keeping of records of business transactions.
2. Ascertainment of Profit or Loss.
3. Ascertainment of financial position of business enterprises.
4. Providing meaningful information to different groups of people having interest in the business.

1. Keeping of records of business transaction:
The main purpose of accounting is to identify business transactions of financial nature and enter into appropriate books of accounts. The accounting records should be made properly and systematically, so that requisite information may be obtained at a glance.

2. Ascertainment of Profit or Loss:
The result of business (Profit or Loss) is available from the statement prepared for ascertaining it, called the Profit and Loss Account.

3. Ascertainment of financial position:
At the end of an‘ accounting year, a position statement known as the ‘Balance Sheet’ is prepared. The value of assets and liabilities are depicted in the Balance Sheet. The Balance sheet gives a true and fair view of the state of affairs of the concern.

4. Providing meaningful information to different groups of people having interest in the business:
Accounting records provide meaningful information to different groups of people having interest in the business.

Question 2.
Accounting information must possess certain qualitative characteristics. What are they?
Answer:
The following are the qualitative characteristic of accounting information.

1. Reliability: Accounting information will be reliable if it is free from error and faithfully represents what it seeks to represent.
2. Relevance: Information should be relevant and must be available in.time.
3. Understandability: Accounting information that is relevant must be capable of being understood by all its users.
4. Timeliness: Information must be available timely. If not, it loses its ability to influence decision.
5. Comparability: Accounting information should facilitate inter-firm comparison as well as interfirm comparison.
   Maximum Cputtishers

Question3.
Accounting and Book-keeping are viewed as distinct functions. Mention any four differences between Accounting and Book Keeping.
Answer:

Question 4.
“Accounting gives number of advantages to the business”. What are the important advantages of accounting?
Answer:
The following are the advantages of accounting
1. Provide Quantitative information:
Accounting helps in gathering quantitative information on profits earned by the business or loss sustained by them.

2. Helps in ascertaining financial position of the business that is, total assets owned and total liabilities owed.

3. Helps in making a systematic record of transactions, which can be used for future reference and appropriate retrieval.

4. Acts as an information system:
It provides adequate information to the interested users in a processed form.

5. Beneficial to different interested users of accounting information.

Question 5.
Accounting has certain ‘Limitations’. Explain.
The following are the limitations of accounting.
Answer:
1. It records only transactions which can be recorded in monetary terms:
Qualitative aspects like managerial skill, Services of experts, etc. are not recorded.

2. Accounting is a post mortem survey:
It records events as they have taken place. For example, expenses are recorded as incurred, assets are recorded at their cost of purchase. There is no scope for ascertaining what the appropriate expenditure or cost of acquisition should have been.

3. Effect of price level changes are not considered:
Transactions are always recorded in the books at cost price and not at market price.

4. Inexactness:
Accounting transactions are not exact. Different firms have their own different methods, so the results of the business will change in the practice.

Plus One Accountancy Introduction to Accounting Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the different types of assets? Explain briefly.
Assets are things of value owned. They may be subdivided into the following.
Answer:
1. Fixed Assets:
Fixed Assets are assets held on long term basis, such as land, buildings, machinery, plant, furniture, etc. These assets are used for the normal operations of the business.

2. Current Assets:
These are assets held on a short-term basis such as debtors, bills receivables, stock, cash in hand, cash at bank, etc. It is also known as “Floating asset.”

3. Fictitious Assets:
These are those assets, which do not have a physical form. They do not have any real value. Actually, they are not the real assets but they are called assets on legal and technical grounds. Examples are preliminary expenses, discount on issue of shares or debentures, etc.

4. Tangible Assets:
Assets having physical existence which can be seen, touched are known as tangible assets. These assets are land, building, plant, equipment, etc.

5. Intangible Assets:
These assets have no physical existence which cannot be touched, seen or felt. Examples are Goodwill, trademark, patent, copyright.

6. Wasting Assets:
Assets, whose value goes on declining with the passage of time, are known as wasting assets. Mines, oilwells, quarries are its examples.

7. Liquid Assets:
Liquid assets are those assets, which can be converted into cash at short notice. The examples of liquid assets are cash in hand, cash at bank, debtors, bills receivable, etc. Liquid assets = Current Assets – (Stock + Prepaid Expenses)

Question 2.
“Accounting provides information to various users.” Discuss accounting as an information system.
Answer:
Accounting plays a significant role in society by providing information to management at all levels (internal users) and to those having a direct financial interest in the enterprise (external users), such as present and potential investors, creditors. Accounting information is also important to those having an indirect financial interest, such as regulatory agencies, tax authorities, customers, labour unions, stock exchange, and others.

Internal users, mainly management, need timely information on cost of sales, profitability, etc. for planning, controlling and decision making. External users who have limited authority, ability and resources to obtain the necessary information have to rely on financial statements. The external users are interested in the following.

1. Investors and Potential investors:
Information on the risks and returns on investments.

2. Suppliers and Creditors:
Information on whether amounts owed will be repaid when due and on the continued existence of the business.

3. Customers:
Information on the continued existence of the business and thus the profitability of a continued supply of products, parts, and after-sales services.

4. Employees:
They are interested in getting their salary, welfare measures, bonus, working conditions, etc. which are all related to financial performance of the business.

5. Lenders:
Information on the creditworthiness of the business and its ability to repay loans and pay interest.

6. Government and other regulators:
Information on the allocation of resources and the compliance to regulators.

Students can Download Chapter 1 Nature and Purpose of Business Notes, Plus One Business Studies Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Notes Chapter 1 Nature and Purpose of Business

1st Standard Malayalam Textbooks Chapter 1 Contents

• Economic and non-economic activities
• Business and its characteristics
• Business, Profession and Employment
• Classification of business activities
• Industry and commerce
• Objectives of business
• Business risk
• Factors to be considered before starting a business.

Activities which human beings undertake are known as human activities. We can divide these activities into two categories.

1. Economic activities
2. Non-economic activities

1. Economic Activities:
The human activities that are undertaken with an objective to earn money or livelihood is known as economic activities. eg: A worker working in a factory, a doctor operating in his hospital, a manager working in the office, a teacher teaching in a school etc.

2. Non-economic activities:
Activities are undertaken to derive psychological satisfaction are known as non economic activities. eg: Mother preparing food for her children, Praying, listening to radio or watching television, playing football with friends, etc.

Types of economic activities:

• Business
• Employment
• Profession

1st Standard Malayalam Chapter 1 Business:
Business may be defined as an economic activity involving the production or purchase and sale of goods and services with the main object of earning profit by satisfying human needs in the society.
Characteristics of business

1. Business is an economic activity with the object of earning profit.
2. Business includes all the activities concerned with the production or procurement of goods and services.
3. There should be sale or exchange of goods and services for the satisfaction of human needs.
4. Business involves dealings in goods or services on a regular basis. Normally, one single transaction of sale or purchase is not treated as business.
5. One of the main objectives of business is to earn maximum profit.
6. Business involves risk and uncertainty of income. Risk means the possibility of loss due to change in consumer taste and fashion, strike, lockout competition, fire, theft etc.

Malayalam Text Book Std 1 Pdf Download Employment:
Employment refers to that type of economic activity in which people engage in some work for others regularly and get salary or wages in return of their services.
Characteristics of Employment

1. There must exist employer-employee relationship.
2. There must be a service contract between the employer and employee.
3. Employees get salary or wages for their services
4. Regularity in service.

First Standard Malayalam Textbooks Chapter 1 Profession:
Profession refers to an occupation which requires specialized knowledge, skip and training. Its objective is to provide service to the society.
Characteristics of Profession

1. A profession requires specialized knowledge, training and skill
2. The membership of a professional body is a must
3. Professionals have a code of conduct
4. They charge fee in return of their service.

Comparison of Business, Profession and Employment:

Classification of Business Activities: Business activities may be classified into two categories

• Industry
• Commerce.

Chart showing business activities

1 Standard Malayalam Textbooks Chapter 1 Industry:
Industry refers to economic activities, which are connected with conversion of resources into useful goods. Industries may be divided into 3 categories.
They are
1. Primary industries:
Primary industries are connected with the extraction and production of natural resources and reproduction and development of living organisms, plants, etc. Such industries are further divided into two.
(i) Extractive industries:
These industries extract products from natural resources. eg: mining, farrqing, hunting, fishing etc.

(ii) Genetic industries:
These industries are engaged in activities like rearing and breeding of animals, birds and plants. eg: diary faming, paultry farming, floriculture, pisciculture etc.

2. Secondary industries:
Secondary industries deal with materials extracted at the primary stage. Such goods may be used for consumption or for further production. Secondary industries are classified into two.
They are:
(i) Manufacturing industries:
Manufacturing industries engage in converting raw materials into finished goods. eg: Conversion of rubber into cotton, timber into furniture rubber into tyres etc. Manufacturing industries may be further divided into four categories. They are,

• Analytical industry which analyses and separates different elements from the same materials. eg: Oil refinery
• Synthetical industry which combines various ingredients into a new product. eg: cement
• Processing industry which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products. eg: Sugar and paper industry.
• Assembling industry which assembles different component parts to make a new product. eg: television, car, computer, etc.

(ii) Construction industries:
These industries are involved in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads etc.

3. Tertiary industries:
These are concerned with providing support services to primary and secondary industries. eg: Transport, banking, insurance, warehousing, communication, advertising etc.

1st Standard English Book Chapter 1 Commerce:
Commerce is defined as all activities involving the removal of hindrances in the process of exchange of goods. It includes all those activities, which are necessary for the free flow of goods and services from the producer to the consumer. Commerce includes trade and auxiliaries to trade.
Commerce = Trade + auxiliaries to trade
Functions of commerce:

Malayalam 1st Standard Chapter 1 Trade:
Trade refers to sale, transfer or exchange of goods. Trade may be classified into two broad categories
They are:

1. Internal trade
2. External trade

1. Internal, domestic ot dome trade:
is concerned with the buying and selling of goods and services within the geographical boundaries of a country. This may further be divided into two. They are:-
(a) Wholesale trade:
Under wholesale trade, the trader purchases goods in large quantities from the producers, and sells them in smaller quantities to the retailers.

(b) Retail trade:
Under the retail trade, the trader buys in comparatively smaller quantities from the wholesalers or producers and sells them to ultimate consumers.

2. External or Foreign trade:
Foreign trade consists of exchange of goods and services between two or more countries. Foreign trade may be divided in to three.

• Import trade: If goods are purchased from a foreign country, it is called import trade.
• Export trade: When goods are sold to a foreign country, it is known as export trade.
• Entrepot trade: When goods are imported for export to other countries, it is known as entrepot trade.

Auxiliaries to Trade (Aids to trade):
Activities which assist trade are called aids to trade or auxiliaries to trade.

1. Transport & Communication:
Transport facilitates the movement of raw material to the place of production and the finished products from factories to the place of consumption. Communication helps the producers, traders and consumers to exchange information with one another.

2. Banking & Finance:
Banking helps business activities to overcome the problem of finance. Commercial banks lend money in the form of overdraft, cash credit, loans and advances etc… and they also provide many services required for the business activity.

3. Insurance:
The goods may be destroyed while in production process or in transit due to accidents, or in storage due to fire or theft, etc. Insurance provides protection in all such cases.

4. Warehousing:
The goods should be stored carefully from the time they are produced till the time they are sold. This function is performed by warehouses.

5. Advertising:
Advertising helps in providing information about available goods and services and create in them a strong desire to buy the product.

Multiple Objectives of Business:
The main objectives of a business are:
1. Market standing:
A business firm can succeed only when it has a good market standing. Market standing refers to the position of an enterprise in relation to its competitors.

2. Innovation:
Innovation means developing new product or services orfinding new ideas and new methods of production and distribution. Innovation accelerates the growth of an enterprise.

3. Productivity:
Productivity is ascertained by comparing the value of output with the value of input. Every enterprise must aim at greater productivity through the best use of available resources.

4. Physical and financial resources:
The business must aim at maximum utilization of available physical and financial resources, i.e. men, material, money and machine in the best possible manner.

5. Earning Profit:
Earning maximum profit is the primary objective of every business. Profit is required for survival and growth of a business.

6. Manager performance and development:
Efficient managers are needed to conduct and co-ordinate business activities. So it is the objective of an enterprise to implement various programs for motivating the managers.

7. Worker performance and attitude:
Every enterprise must aim at improving its workers performance by providing fair salary, incentives, good working conditions, medical and housing facilities.

8. Social responsibility:
It refers to the obligation of business firm to contribute resources for solving social problems and work in a socially desirable manner.

Malayalam Text Book Std 1 Chapter 1 Business Risks:
The term ‘business risks’ refers to the possibility of inadequate profits or even losses due to uncertainties or unexpected events. Business enterprises may face two types of risk, i.e. speculative risk and pure risk.

Speculative risks involve both the possibility of gain as well as the possibility of loss. It arise due to change in demand, change in price etc. Pure risks involve only the possibility of loss or no loss. The chance of fire, theft or strike is examples of pure risks.
Nature of Business Risks:

1. Business risks arise due to uncertainties.
2. Risk can be minimized, but cannot be eliminated. It is an essential part of business.
3. Degree of risk depends mainly upon the nature and size of business.
4. Profit is the reward for risk taking.

Causes of Business Risks: Business risks arise due to a variety of causes.
They are:

1. Natural Causes: it includes natural calamities like flood, earthquakes, lightning, heavy rains, famine, etc.
2. Human Causes: Human causes include dishonesty, carelessness or negligence of employees, strikes, riots, management inefficiency, etc.
3. Economic causes: These include change in demand, change in price, competition, technological changes etc.
4. Political Causes: Change in Govt, policies, taxation, licensing policy etc.

Starting a Business – Basic Factors:
Factors to be considered for starting a business:
1. Selection of line of business:
The first thing to be decided by any entrepreneur of a new business is the nature and type of business to be undertaken.

2. Size of the firm:
If the market conditions are favorable, the entrepreneur can start the business at a large scale. If the market conditions are uncertain and risks are high, a small size business would be better choice.

3. Choice of form of ownership:
The selection of a suitable form of business enterprise i.e. Sole proprietorship, Partnership or a Joint stock company is an important management decision. It depends on factors like nature of business, capital requirements, liability of owners, legal formalities, continuity of business etc.

4. Location of business enterprise:
Availability of raw materials and labour, power supply and services like banking, transportation, communication, warehousing, etc., are important factors while making a choice of location.

5. Financing:
Proper financial planning must be done to determine (a) the requirement of capital, (b) source from which capital will be raised and (c) the best ways of utilizing the capital in the firm.

6. Physical facilities:
Availability of physical facilities including machines and equipment, building and supportive services is a very important factor to be considered at the start of the business.

7. Plant layout:
Layout means the physical arrangement of machines and equipment needed to manufacture a product.

8. Competent worked force:
Every enterprise needs competent and committed employees to perform various activities so that physical and financial resources are converted into desired outputs.

9. Tax planning:
The promoter must consider in advance the tax liability under various tax laws and its impact on business decision.

Students can Download Chapter 1 Biological Classification Notes, Plus One Botany Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Botany Notes Chapter 1 Biological Classification

Two kingdom classification:

• It was proposed by Linnaeus, include two Kingdoms-Plantae & Animalia.
• In two kingdom classification following things are not considered

Cell structure, nature of wall, mode of nutrition, habitat methods of reproduction and evolutionary relationship .

Five kingdom classification:

• It was first proposed by R H.Whittaker (1969).
• It includes Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia
• Blue green algae are placed in kingdom Monera.
• Chlamydomonas, Chlorella with Paramoecium and Amoeba are placed in kingdom protista
• Chlorophyll less and non cellulosic (chitin)type plants are placed in kingdom Fungi
• All photosynthetic plants are placed in-kingdom plantae
• All animals with mode of nutrition(ingestion) placed in kingdom animalia.
• The characteristics of classification are

Kite Victers Plus One Botany Notes Pdf Kingdom monera:
Types of bacteria:
Based on shape, bacteria are of 4 types

1. Spherical – Coccus
2. Rod – shaped – Bacillus
3. Comma – shaped – Vibrium
4. Spiral – Spirillum.

Based on nutrition, bacteria are of 3 types:

1. Photosynthetic autotrophic: Bacteria can synthesise their own food by using chlorophyll in the presence of light.
2. Chemosynthetic autotrophic: Bacteria can synthesise their own food from inorganic substrates.
3. Heterotrophs: They are depend on other organisms for food.

Plus One Botany Notes Archaebacteria:

• These bacteria can live in extreme conditions.
• Its cell wall structure is different from other bacteria

Types of archaebacteria:

1. Halophiles: They are found in salty areas
2. Thermoacidophiles: They are found in hot springs.
3. Methanogens: They are found in marshy areas and guts of ruminant animals eg-cows, buffaloes etc.

Importance in industry:
They are responsible for the production of methane (biogas) from the dung.

Eubacteria Cyanobacteria (blue-green algae):

• They have chlorophyll a similar to green plants called as photosynthetic autotrophs.
• Some of them found in polluted water bodies.

Significance of cyanobacteria:
They can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts and increases fertility of soil eg: Nostoc and Anabaena

Chemosynthetic autotrophs:
They oxidise various inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia and use the released energy for their ATP production.

Significance chemosynthetic autotrophs:
They play a great role in the recycling of nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and sulphur.

Heterotrophic bacteria:

• They depend upon others for getting energy.
• Most of them are decomposers.
• They are helpful in making curd from milk, production of antibiotics, fixing nitrogen in legume roots, etc.

Disease caused by bacteria:
Some are pathogens causing disease to plants and animals, eg: Cholera, typhoid, tetanus, and citrus canker in plants.

Cell division in bacteria:
Reproduction:

• Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission.
• Some bacteria produce spores during unfavourable conditions.
• In sexual reproduction, transfer of DNA from one bacterium to the other takes place

Mycoplasmas:
Salient features:

• They are the smallest living cells can survive without oxygen
• They are pathogenic in animals and plants
• They lack a cell wall.

Plus One Botany Chapter Wise Notes Kingdom Protista:
Salient features:

• They are single-celled eukaryotes.
• Their cell body contains a well defined nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.
• They are mainly aquatic.

Types of protist:
The kingdom include chrysophytes, Dianoflagellates, Euglenoids, Slime moulds and Protozoans.

Plus One Botany Chapters Chrysophytes:

• They are diatoms(chief ‘producers’ in the oceans) and golden algae (desmids).
• Most of them are photosynthetic.

Salient features:

• In diatoms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells,which fit together as in a soap box.
• Their cell wall contain silica

Economic value:
Their cell wall deposited in ocean floor over billions of years in large amount called as ‘Diatomaceous earth’. It is used in polishing, filtration of oils and syrups.

Plus One Botany Notes Hsslive Dinoflagellates:
Salient features:

• They are marine and photosynthetic
• Most of them have two flagella one lies longitudinally and the other transversely.

Harmful effects:

• Red dianoflagellates -Gonyaulax undergoes rapid multiplication and sea appear red (red tides).
• Toxins released by them kill other marine animals such fishes.

Plus One Botany Victers Notes Euglenoids:
Salient features:

• They are fresh water organisms found in stagnant water.
• Pigments of Euglenoids are identical to those of higher plants.
• They have a protein rich layer called pellicle which makes their body flexible.
• They have two flagella, a short and a long one.

Mode of nutrition:
They are photosynthetic in the presence of sunlight (autotrophic) and predating on other smaller organisms in the absence of sunlight (heterotrophs). Hence nutrition is mixotrophic. Example: Euglena.

Plus One Botany Notes Victers Slime Moulds:
Salient features:

1. They are saprophytic protists.
2. They form an aggregation during favourable conditions called plasmodium which may grow and spread over several feet.
3. The plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips during unfavourable conditions.
4. They are resistant and survive for many years under adverse conditions.

Plus One Botany Notes Pdf Protozoans:
They are heterotrophs and live as predators or parasites.
Type of protozoans:
1. Amoeboid protozoans:

• They live in freshwater or sea water
• They capture their prey by pseudopodia (false feet) as in Amoeba.
• Some are parasites as in Entamoeba

2. Flagellated protozoans:

• They possesss flagella.
• The parasitic forms cause diseases such as sleeping sickness. Example: Trypanosoma.

3. Ciliated protozoans:

• They are aquatic and have a cavity (gullet) that collect food from outside.
• They move with the help of cilia. Example: Paramoecium.

4 Sporozoans:
They are infectious due to the spore-like stage in their life cycle. eg: Plasmodium (malarial parasite) which causes malaria.

Hsslive Plus One Botany Notes Kingdom Fungi:
They are heteterotrophs, mainly 2 types

1. Saprophytes: They can absorb soluble organic matter from dead substrates
2. Parasites: They are depend on living plants and animals

Symbiotic associations:

1. Lichens-Fungi forms an association with algae
2. Mycorrhiza-Fungi forms association with roots of higher plants.

Disease caused bv fungi:
They cause diseases in plants and animals. eg: wheat rust disease by Puccinia.

Salient features:

• Yeast is unicellular fungus but others are multicellular.
• Mycelium: lt is body of fungi contains many hyphae
• Hyphae It is the long, slender thread-like structures
• Some hyphae with multinucleated cytoplasm are called coenocytic hyphae.
• Others have septae or cross walls in their hyphae. eg: Penicillium.
• The cell walls of fungi are composed of chitin and polysaccharides

Types of Reproduction:

1. Vegetative method: It takesplace by fragmentation, fission and budding.
2. Asexual method: It takesplace by spores called conidia orsporangiospores or zoospores.
3. Sexual reproduction: It takesplace by oospores, ascospores and basidiospores.
4. The spores are produced in special structures called fruiting bodies.

Steps of sexual cycle:

In this, two haploid hyphae come together and fuse results in diploid cells (2n).

Dikarvotic stage in funai:

1. In ascomycetes and basidiomycetes, after plasmogamy dikaryotic stage (n + n ) occurs for some time. Later these nuclei fuse and the cells become diploid.
2. The fungi form fruiting bodies in which reduction division occurs and forms haploid spores.

Hss Live Plus One Botany Notes Phvcomycetes:
Salient features:

• They are found in aquatic habitats and on decaying wood.
• Their mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic.

Types of reproduction:
1 Asexual reproduction:
It takes place by zoospores (motile) or by aplanospores (non-motile). These spores are produced in sporangium.

2 Sexual reproduction:
It is the fusion of gametes have similar structure (isogamous) or dissimilar structure (anisogamous or oogamous) and after fusion zygospore is formed. Examples are Mucor, Rhizopus (the bread mould) and Albugo (the parasitic fungi on mustard).

Hss Live Plus One Biology Notes Ascomycetes:
Salient features:

• They are commonly known as sac-fungi, eg-unicellular- yeast (Sacharomyces) or multicellular Penicillium.
• Some are coprophilous (growing on dung).
• Mycelium is branched and septate.
• The asexual spores are conidia produced on conidiophores.
• Sexual spores are called ascospores which are produced in sac like ascus.
• Spores are arranged in fruiting bodies called ascocarps.
• Examples are Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora.

Economic value:

• Neurospora is used in genetic studies.
• Edible members are morels and buffles.

Plus One Botany Notes Chapter 1 Basidiomycetes:
Salient features:

• Their mycelium is branched and septate.
• Some members grow as parasites and disease causing organisms e.g. rusts and smuts
• Common basidiomycetes are mushrooms, bracket fungi or puffballs

Reproduction:

1. The asexual spores and sex organs are not found but vegetative reproduction by fragmentation.
2. In sexual reproduction, plasmogamy occur by fusion of two vegetative cells of different strains. It results dikaryotic mycelia which gives rise to basidium. Later, karyogamy and meiosis takeplace in the basidium and producing four basidiospores.
3. The basidia are arranged in fruiting bodies called basidiocarps.
4. Examples -Agaricus (mushroom) Ustilago (smut) and Puccinia (rust fungus).

Hsslive Botany Plus One Notes Deuteromvcetes:
Salient features:

• They are called as imperfect fungi because perfect stage or sexual reproduction is absent.
• Their asexual reproduction takes place with the help of conidia. ,
• The mycelium is septate and branched.

Economic value:

• Some members are decomposers play an important role in the mineral cycling.
• Examples are Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma.

Hsslive Botany Notes Plus One kingdom Plantae

1. Majority members are eukaryotic, chlorophyll-containing organisms.
2. Few members are partially heterotrophic- insectivorous plants or parasite. eg: Bladder wort and Venus fly trap are examples of insectivorous plants and Cuscuta is a parasite.

Different types of plant group:
The kingdom Plantae includes algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms.

Life cycle:
It has two distinct phases – the diploid sporophytic and the haploid gametophytic – that alternate with each other.

Plus One Botany Biological Classification Notes Kingdom Animalia:
Salient features:

• It includes heterotrophic eukaryotic organisms.
• They are multicellular and their cells lack cell wall.
• Their mode of nutrition is holozoic (ingestion of food).
• Most of them are capable of locomotion.

Plus One Botany Kite Victers Notes Pdf Viruses, Viroids And Lichens:
R.H. Whittaker not placed acellular organisms such as viruses, viroids and lichens in five kingdom classification.

VIRUSES:
Historical aspects and Discovery

1. Name virus that means venom or poisonous fluid was given by Pasteur D.J. Ivanowsky.
2. Extract of the infected plants of tobacco could cause infection in healthy plants and called the fluid as Contagium vivum fluidum (infectious living fluid).It was identified by M.W. Beijerinek (1898)
3. Viruses could be crystallised and crystals consist of proteins outside. It was identified by W.M. Stanley. (1935)

Salient features:

• Viruses are non living particle outside the living cell.
• It has an inert crystalline structure .
• They have living state inside the host and multiply by using host cell machinery-Ribosome. So they are called as obligate parasites.
• They are smaller than bacteria because they passed through bacteria-proof filters.

Structure of viruses:
Viruses contain proteins coat outside, either RNA or DNA inside, (i.e either single or double stranded RNA or double stranded DNA).

Symptoms and disease caused by viruses:
Disease:
Mumps, smallpox, herpes, influenza and AIDS
Symptoms in plants:

Viroids:
Strucure:
It has free RNA without protein coat.

Discovery:
T .O .Diener found that this infectious agent was smaller than viruses.

Disease:
It causes potato spindle tuber disease

Lichens:
They are symbiotic associations between algae and fungi.

Types of component:

1. The algal component is called phycobiont: (autotrophic) prepare food for fungi
2. The fungal component is called mycobiont: (heterotrophic) provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water for algae.

Significance:
Lichens are very good pollution indicators i.e they do not grow in polluted areas.

Ncert Supplementary Syllabus
Six kingdom classification:
It was proposed by Carl Woese. It includes kingdoms like Archaebacteria, Eubacteria Protista, Mycota, Plantae and Animalia.

Students can Download Chapter 2 Structure of Atom Questions and Answers, Plus One Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Structure of Atom

Plus One Chemistry Structure of Atom One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Chemistry Structure Of Atom Questions Question 1.
Which of the following is not true for cathode rays?
a) They possess kinetic energy
b) They are electromagnetic waves
c) They produce heat
d) They produce mechanical pressure
Answer:
b) They are electromagnetic waves

Previous Hse Questions From The Chapter Structure Of Atom Question 2.
The mass of the electron = ________ kg
Answer:
9.11 × 10^-31 kg

Plus One Chemistry Chapter 2 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Bohr’s orbits are called stationary states because
a) Electrons in them are stationary
b) Their orbits have fixed radii
c) The electrons in them have fixed energy
d) The protons remain in the nuclei and are stationary
Answer:
c) The electrons in them have fixed energy

Structure Of Atom Class 11 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 4.
The metal which gives photoelectrons most easily is
a) Lithium
b) Sodium
c) Calcium
d) Cesium
Answer:
d) Cesium

Questions On Structure Of Atom Class 11 Question 5.
The orbitals having same energy are called ________ orbitals.
Answer:
degenerate

Questions On Quantum Numbers Class 11 Question 6.
Match the following:

1. Spherically symmetrical – d
2. Dumb-bell – s
3. Doubly dumb-bell – p

Answer:

1. Spherically symmetrical – s
2. Dumb-bell – p
3. Doubly dumb-bell – d

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Important Questions With Answers Question 7.
Which of the following set of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in 4/ orbital
a) n = 4 l = 4 ml = -4 ms = +14
b) m = 4 l = 3 ml = +4 ms = +14
c) n = 4 l = 3 ml = -3 ms =-14
d) n = 4 l = 3 ml = +4 ms = -14
Answer:
c) n = 4 l = 3 ml = -3 ms = -14

Structure Of Atom Class 11 Questions And Answers Question 8.
The limiting line of Balmer Series has the frequency of ________ .
Answer:
8.23 × 10¹⁴

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Important Questions Question 9.
The number of orbitals and the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a principal quantum level are
Answer:
n² & 2n²

Structure Of Atom Important Questions Question 10.
If the uncertainty in position and momentum of a particle like electrons are equal the uncertainty in velocity is ________
Answer:
\(\triangle V=\frac { 1 }{ 2m } \sqrt { \frac { h }{ \pi } } \)

Important Questions Of Atomic Structure Class 11 Question 11.
The total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is given by ________
Answer:
\(\frac{-Z e^{2}}{8 \pi \varepsilon_{0} r}\)

Plus One Chemistry Structure of Atom Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 2
Of the following which is/are correct? Give justification.
a) n = 2 l = 1 m = 0 s = +½
b) n = 3 l = 3 m = 2 s =-½
c) n = 4 l = 3 m = 1 s = +½
d) n = 3 l = 2 m = 3 s = +½
Answer:
a) n = 2 f = 1 m = 0 s = +½
c) n = 4 f = 3 m=1 s= -½
Option b) is wrong because when n = 3, ^ =0, 1, 2
Option d) is wrong because when l = 2, m = -2, -1, 0, 1, 2

Question 3.
Match the following:
1. Anode rays – Nucleus
2. Cathode rays – Plum-pudding model
3. J.J Thomson – Proton
4. Thea-particle scattering experiment – Electron
Answer:
1. Anode rays – Proton
2. Cathode rays – Electron
3. J.J Thomson – Plum-pudding model
4. Thea-particle scattering experiment – Nucleus

Question 4.
Calculate the uncertainty in the determination of velocity of a ball of mass 200 g, if the uncertainty in the determination of position is 1 A.
[h=6.626 × 10^-34 J s]
Answer:

Question 5.
Which among the following sets of quantum numbers is/are not possible?
a) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = +½
b) n = 2, l= 1, m = 0, s = +½
c) n = 1, l= 0, m = 0, s = -½
d) n = 4, l = 2, m = 2, s = -½
Answer:
All sets are possible.

Question 6.
1. How many sub-shells are associated with n = 4?
2. How many electrons will be present in the sub-shells having m_s value of –\(\frac{1}{2}\) for n = 4?
Answer:
1. For n = 4, l can have values 0, 1, 2, 3. Thus, there are four sub-shells in n = 4 energy level.
These four sub-shells are 4s, 4p, 4d and 4f.

2. For n = 4, the number of orbitals = (4)² = 16.
Each orbital can have one electron with m_s = –\(\frac{1}{2}\).
Thus, there are 16 electrons in sub-shells having n = 4 and m_s = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 7.
i) Name the principle which restricts the pairing of electrons in degenerate orbitals. .
ii) How many electrons can be accomodated in the sub-shell having n = 4 and l = 2?
Answer:
i) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity,
ii) 10 electrons (4d sub-shell).

Question 8.
If the electron is to be located within 5 x 10^-5A°, what will be the uncertainty in its velocity?
(Mass of the electron = 9.1 x 10^-31 kg).
Answer:
According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle,

Question 9.
Nitrogen laser produces a radiation at a wavelength of 337.1 nm. If the number of photons emitted is 5.6 x 10²⁴per second, calculate the power of this laser.
Answer:

Plus One Chemistry Structure of Atom Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks suitably by studying the relationship of the given pairs:

1. Lyman : Ultraviolet:: Balmer: ……………..
2. s-subshell:spherical:: p-subshell: …………….
3. Rydberg’s formula: \(\frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left[\frac{1}{n_{1}^{2}}-\frac{1}{n_{2}^{2}}\right]\) :: de Broglie relation:

Answer:

1. Balmer: Visible
2. psubshell: dumb-bell
3. de Broglie relation: \(\lambda=\frac{h}{m v}\)

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks:

Answer:

Question 3.
Filling of electrons in the orbitals on a ground state atom is governed by three rules.
a) Which are the three rules?
b) State any one of them.
Answer:
a) 1) Aufbau principle
2) Pauli’s exclusion principle
3) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity

b) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity – electron pairing in orbitals of same energy will not take place until each degenerate orbital of a given subshell is singly occupied.

Question 4.
During a class room discussion, one of your friends argued that, “we can’t determine both position and velocity of an electron”.

1. Is it true?
2. Which principle is behind your answer?
3. State it.

Answer:

1. Yes. It is true.
2. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.
3. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle states that it is not possible to determine simultaneously both position and momentum of a microscopic moving particle such as electron with absolute accuracy.

Question 5.
The arguments of two students is as given:
Student 1 : “We need four quantum numbers to represent an electron in a multi-electron atom.”
Student 2 : “We need only first three quantum numbers to represent an electron in a multi-electron atom.”
a) Which are the four quantum numbers?
b) Who is correct? Why?
c) Write the possible four quantum numbers of the valence electron of Na atom.
Answer:
a) The four quantum numbers are:
i) Principal quantum number (n)
ii) Azimuthal quantum number (l)
iii) Magnetic quantum number (m_l)
iv) Spin quantum number (m_s)

b) The argument of student 1 is correct. If there are two electrons in the same subshell the first three quantum numbers become the same. Hence we need fourth quantum number to identify the electron.

c) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +½

Question 6.
a) Identify the experiment associated with the following figure:

b) Explain the experiment done by Rutherford and give its observations.
c) Write the concludions of the experiment.
Answer:
a) It is the figure of α -particle scattering experiment (gold foil experiment).

b) In this experiment, a stream of high energy α – particles from a radioactive source was directed at a thin foil of gold metal which had a circular fluorescent zinc sulphide screen around it. Whenever α-particles struck the screen, a tiny flash of light was produced at that point. The α-particles striking the gold foil were analysed. It was observed that:

1. Most of the α – particles passed through gold foil undeflected.
2. A small fraction of the α – particles are deflected by small angles.
3. A very few α – particles(1 in 20,000) bounced back i.e., deflected by nearly 180°.

c) Rutherford drew the following conclusions regard¬ing the structure of atom from this experiment:

1. Most of the space in the atom is empty as most of the α – particles passed through the foil undeflected.
2. The positive charge of the atom is concentrated in a very small volume (called nucleus) that repelled and deflected the positively charged α – particles.
3. Volume occupied by the nucleus is negligibly small as compared to the total volume of the atom.

Question 7.
The 4s subshell has more energy than 3p subshell.
a) Is it true? Justify your answer.
b) StateAufbau principle.
Answer:
a) Yes. For both 4s and 3p subshells the (n+l) value is 4. But 4s, with high value of ‘n’ has higher en¬ergy.
b) Aufbau principle – In the ground state of the atoms, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies.

Question 8.
Two students were analysing the electronic configurations of the first 30 elements of the Periodic Table as part of an assignment. They found that two elements showed difference from other twenty eight elements.

1. Which are the two elements?
2. Write their electronic configurations.
3. Why they show this anomalous behaviour?

Answer:
1. ₂₄Cr and ₂₉Cu.
2. ₂₄Cr = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d⁵ and ₂₉Cu = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d¹⁰
3. This is due to the fact that exactly half filled and completely filled orbitals (i.e., d⁵, d¹⁰) have extra stability due to symmetrical distribution of electrons and maximum exchange energy.

Question 9.
Three box diagrams of 2p³ configuration are given below:
i)

1. Which one is correct?
2. Name the principle behind your answer.
3. State the principle.

Answer:

1. The correct one is (ii).
2. Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.
3. Pairing of electrons in the orbitals belonging to the same subshell does not take place until each orbital belonging to that subshell has got one electron each i.e., it is singly occupied.

Question 10.
J.J. Thomson proposed his atom model in 1898.

1. Explain Thomson’s model of atom.
2. Why Thomson’s atom model is called plum pudding model or watermelon model?
3. What is the limitation of Thomson’s atom model?

Answer:
1. J.J. Thomson proposed that an atom possess a spherical shape in which the positive charge is uniformly distributed. The electrons are embedded into it in such a manner as to give the most stable electrostatic arrangement. The mass of the atom is assumed to be uniformly distributed over the atom. This model explained the overall neutrality of the atom.

2. Thomson’s model of atom can be visualised as a pudding or watermelon of positive charge with electrons embedded into it like the plums or seeds.

3. Thomson’s model was not consistent with the results of later experiments. It failed to explain the observations of Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment.

Question 11.
A student argued that the 3d orbitals will be filled only after the 4s orbital is completely filled in accordance with aufbau principle. Then another student opposed by saying that it is not true for certain elements like Cr and Cu.
a) Whose argument is correct?
b) Write electronic configurations of ₂₄Crand ₂₉Cu. Justify your answer.
Answer:
a) Both arguments are correct.
b) Cr and Cu have anomalous electronic configurations. This is because half filled and completely filled sub-shells have extra stability due to the symmetrical distribution of electrons maximum exchange energy.
₂₄Cr = 1 s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵ 4s¹ OR [Ar]3d⁵ 4s¹ This is due to the extra stability of half filled 3d⁵ sub-shell.

₂₉Cu = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹⁰ 4s¹ OR [Ar]3d¹⁰ 4s¹ This is due to the extra stability of completely filled 3d¹⁰ sub-shell.

Question 12.
a) What are the atomic numbers of elements whose
outermost electronic configurations are given by
i) 3s¹
ii) 3p⁵?
b) Which of the following are isoelectronic species?
Na⁺, K⁺, Mg²⁺,Ca²⁺, S^2-,Ar
c) What will be the wavelength of a ball of mass 0.1 kg moving with a velocity of 10 ms^-1? m
Answer:
a) i) 3s¹-Atomic number is 11 (Na)
ii) 3p⁵ -Atomic number is 17 (Cl)

b) Na⁺, Mg²⁺ (both of them have same no. of electrons, i.e., 10 each)

Question 13.
Quantum numbers are a set of four numbers used to designate electron in an atom.

1. How many electrons in an atom can have the following quantum numbers, n = 1, l = 0 ?
2. Give the quantum numbers of the valence electron of an atom with atomic number 13.
3. Draw the shape of orbital having n = 1 and l = 0.

Answer:
1. 2 electrons (i.e., 1s orbital)
2. The element with atomic number 13 is aluminium. ₁₃Al ⇒ [Ne] 3s²3p¹⁺
The valence electron is in the 3p orbital. Hence, the quantum numbers for the valence electron are n = 3, l= 1, m = -1, 0 +1
3. It is the 1s orbital

Question 14.
a) i) What is meant by line spectra or atomic spectra?
ii) Name the series of lines in the hydrogen spectrum belonging to the visible region.
iii) What is the wave length of light emitted when the electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes transmission from n = 4 to n = 2? (RH= 109677 cm-1)
b) State the principles/rules for filling of orbitals in atoms.
Answer:
a) i) Line spectra or atomic spectra are the spectra obtained from excited atoms due to emission of radiation. The emitted radiation is identified by the appearance of bright lines.
ii) Balmer series
iii) n₁ = 2, n₂ = 4

b)

1. Aufbau principle: In the ground state of the atoms, the orbitals are filled in order of their increasing energies.
2. Pauli’s exclusion principle: No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.
3. Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity: Pairing of electrons in the orbitals belonging to the same subshell does not take place until each orbital belonging to that subshell has got one electron each i.e., it is singly occupied.

Question 15.
Line emission spectra are often called finger print of atoms.
a) Justify the above statement.
b) Yellow light emitted from a sodium lamp has a wave length (X) of 580 nm. Calculate the frequency and wave number of this yellow light.
Answer:
a) Each element has a unique line emission spectrum. The characteristic lines in atomic spectra can be used in chemical analysis to identify unknown atoms in the same way as finger prints are used to identify people.

Question 16.
1. How many orbitals are possible in a p-subshell. Which are they?
2. What is the shape of p-orbital?
3. Sketch the boundary surface diagrams of 2p orbitals.
Answer:
1. Three.
These are p_x, p_y and p_z orbitals.
2. Dumb-bell shaped.
3.

Question 17.
Electronic configuration of an element written by a student is given below:

a) Which rule is violated here?
b) Give the correct configuration.
c) What is the uncertainty in position of an electron if the uncertainty in its velocity is 1.159×107 m/s?
Answer:
a) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity.

Plus One Chemistry Structure of Atom Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom is a modification of
Rutherford’s model.
a) Write any two merits of Bohr’s model.
b) Write any two demerits of Bohr’s model.
Answer:
a)

1. Bohr’s model could explain the stability of an atom.
2. Bohr’s model could explain the atomic spectrum of hydrogen.

b)

1. Failed to explain the finer details of hydrogen atom spectrum observed by using sophisticated spectroscopic techniques.
2. It could not explain the ability of atoms to form molecules by chemical bonds.

Question 2.
Consider the statement, “The two electrons of He atom have the same set of quantum numbers.”

1. Do you agree?
2. Name the principle applied here.
3. State the principle.
4. Write the all quantum numbers of outer electrons of the atom.

Answer:

1. No.
2. Pauli’s exclusion principle.
3. No two electrons in an atom can have same set of four quantum numbers.
4. Forthe1st electron: n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = +½.
   For the 2nd electron: n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = -½

Question 3.
Complete the following table with respect to the va¬lence electron of each element.

Answer:

Question 4
Analyse the following figure showing transitions of electrons in the hydrogen atom.

a) Name the series (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e).
b) Mention the region of the spectrum in which each series belongs to.
c) Explain how they are obtained.
d) Calculate the wave length of the first line of series (b).
[R_H = 109677 cm^-1]
Answer:
(a) = Lyman series,
(b) = Balmer series,
(c) = Paschen series,
(d) = Brackett series,
(e) = Pfund series

b)
Lyman series – UV region
Balmer series – Visible region
Paschen series – Infrared region
Brackett series – Infrared region
Pfund series – Infrared region

c) In hydrogen atom there is one electron which is present in first orbit in ground state. When energy is supplied this electron may be excited to some higher energy level. Since in a sample of hydrogen there are large number of atoms, the electrons in different atoms absorb different amounts of energies and are excited to different higher energy levels. Now, from excited states, the electron may return to ground state in one or more jumps. These different downward jumps are associated with different amounts of energies and hence result in the emission of radiations of different wavelengths which appear as different lines in the hydrogen spectrum.
Series – Obtained when electron jumps from any of the higher energy levels to
Lyman series – 1^st energy level
Balmer series – 2^nd energy level
Paschen series – 3^rd energy level
Brackett series – 4^th energy level
Pfund series – 5^th energy level

d) n₁ = 2, n₂ = 3, R_H = 109677 cm^-1

Question 5.
Quantum numbers are the address of an electron in an atom. Justify the statement by explaining different quantum numbers.
Answer:
Quantum numbers are certain numbers which are used to identify an electron in an atom.
The following four quantum numbers are used for this purpose.
1. Principal quantum number (n):
It determines the size and to large extent the energy of the orbital. It also identifies the shell. The value of ‘n’ ranges from 1 to a. With increase in the value of ‘n’, the number of allowed orbitals increases and are given by ‘n2’. All the orbitals of a given value of ‘n’ constitute a single shell of atom and are represented by letters K (n = 1), L (n = 2), M (n = 3), N (n = 4) etc. The size and energy of the orbital will increase with increase of ‘n’.

2. Azimuthal/Orbital angular momentum/Subsidiary quantum number (l): It defines the three dimensional shape of the orbital. For a given value of n, l can have n values ranging from 0 to (n-1). It gives an idea regarding the subshell in which the electrons are present.

3. Magnetic quantum number (m_l):
It gives information about the spatial orientation of the orbital with respect to standard set of coordinate axis. For any sub-shell, (2l+1) values of m_l are possible ranging from -l to +l including zero. The permitted values of m_l gives the number of orbitals in that sub-shell.

4. Spin quantum number (m_s) :
It refers to the orientation of the spin of the electron. An orbital can have two electrons. If an electron is spinning in the clockwise direction, it is given a spin quantum number value of+1/2 and if an electron is spinning in the anti-clockwise direction it is given spin quantum number value of -1/2. These are called two spin states of the electron and are represented by two arrows ↑ (spin up) and ↓. (spin down). Thus, the two electrons in an orbital should have opposite spins.

Question 6.
Dual nature of matter was proposed by Louis de Broglie.
a) Calculate the de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron with velocity equal to that of light.
b) State Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle and give its mathematical expression.
Answer:

b) It states that it is impossible to determine simultaneously, the exact position and exact momentum (or velocity) of an electron.
Mathematically, it can be given as in the equation

∆x ⇒ uncertainty in position of the particle
∆px ⇒ uncertainty in momentum of the particle
∆vx ⇒ uncertainty in velocity of the particle
m ⇒ mass of the particle and
h ⇒ the Planck’s constant

Question 7.
Rutherford’s atom model had strong similarity to a small scale solar system. (4)
a) What are the important features of Rutherford’s. nuclear model of atom?
b) What are the drawbacks of Rutherford’s model of atom?
Answer:
a) i) The positive charge and most of the mass of the atom is densely concentrated in extremely small region of the atom called nucleus.
ii) The nucleus is surrounded by electrons that ’ move around the nucleus with a very high speed in circular paths called orbits.
iii) Electrons and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of attraction.

b) i) It failed to explain the stability of atom,
ii) It says nothing about the electronic structure of atoms.

Question 8.
a) Calculate the momentum of a particle which has de Broglie wave length of 250 pm. (4)
b) The distribution of electron into orbitals of an atom is called its electronic configuration.
i) Give the valence shell electronic configuration of chromium atom.
ii) Which among the following configurations is more.stable, d4 ord5? Justify your answer.
Answer:
a) According to the de Broglie matter wave equation

b) i) ₂₄Cr → 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵ 4s¹
ii) d⁵ is more stable.
The d⁵ configuration is half filled. It has symmetrical distribution of electrons and maximum exchange energy. Hence, it has extra stability compared to d⁴ configuration.

Question 9.
a) Name and state the principle, which restricts the maximum number of electrons in an orbital to be two.
b) Using s, p, d, f notation represent the sub-shell with the following quantum numbers.
i) n = 1, l = 0
ii) n = 4, l=3
c) The uncertainty in the position and velocity of a particle are 10 cm and 5.27 × 10³m/s respectively. Calculate the mass of the particle (h=6.626 × 10^-34 J s).
Answer:
a) Pauli’s exclusion principle
No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.
b) i) 1s ii) 4f
c) According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle,

Question 10.
The photoelectric effect was first observed by H.Hertz.
a) What is photoelectric effect?
b) What are the observations of photoelectric effect experiment?
Answer:
a) It is the phenomenon of ejection of electrons when certain soft metals like potassium, rubidium, cae-sium, etc. are exposed to a beam of light.
b) i) The electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as the beam of light strikes the surface of metal.
ii) The number of electrons ejected is proportional to the intensity or brightness of light.
iii) For each metal, there is a characteristic minimum frequency (υ₀), known as threshold frequency below which photoelectric effect is not observed.

Question 11.
A mathematical representation is given below:
\(\Delta x \times \Delta p_{x} \geq \frac{h}{4 \pi}\)
a) Which principle is illustrated by this equation?
b) If the position of the electron is measured within an accuracy of ±0.002 nm, calculate the uncertainty in the momentum of the electron.
c) Using s, p, d notation represent the sub-shell with the following quantum numbers:
i) n = 3 l = 2
ii) n = 5 l = 1
Answer:
a) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle.

Plus One Chemistry Structure of Atom NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. Calculate the number of electrons which will together weigh one gram.
2. Calculate the mass and charge of one mole of electrons.

Answer:
1. Mass of one electron = 9.11 × 10^-31 kg
∴ Number of electrons in one gram = \(\frac{10^{-3} \mathrm{kg}}{9.11 \times 10^{-31} \mathrm{kg}}=1.098 \times 10^{27}\)

2. Mass of one electron = 9.11 × 10^-31 kg
∴ Mass of 1 mole of electrons = 9.11 × 10^-31 kg × 6.022 × 10²³ = 5.486 x 10^-7 kg
Charge on one electron = 1.602 × 10^-19 C
∴ Charge on one mole of electrons
= (1.602 × 10^-19C) × (6.022 × 10²³)
= 9.65 × 10⁴ C.

Question 2.
Write the complete symbol forthe atom with the given atomic number (Z) and atomic mass (A):
i) Z = 17, A = 35
ii) Z = 92, A = 233
iii) Z = 4, A = 9
Answer:

Question 3.
Electro.magnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is just sufficient to ionise the sodium atom. Calculate the ionisation energy of sodium in kJ mol^-1.
Answer:
Ionisation energy of sodium = Energy of one photon of radiation of wavelength.
Energy of photon = hυ

Question 4.
What is the number of photons of light with a wavelength of 4000 pm that provide 1 J energy?
Answer:
Suppose N photons of the light with wavelength 4000 pm can provide 1 J of energy.
Energy of N photons = Nhυ

Question 5.
Calculate the wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity of 2.05 × 10⁷m S^-1. (2)
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 1 The Living World Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examination

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 The Living World

Plus One The Living World One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Zoology Exercise Answers Chapter 1 Question 1.
As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common characteristics
(a) Will decrease
(b) Will increase
(c) Remain same
(d) May increase or decrease
Answer:
(a) Will decrease

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 2.
Which of the following ‘suffixes’ used for units of classification in plants indicates a taxonomic category of ‘family’.
(a) -Ales
(b) -Onae
(c) -Aceae
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) -Aceae

Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 3.
The term ‘systematics’ refers to:
(a) Identification and classification of plants and animals
(b) Nomenclature and identification of plants and animals
(c) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship
(d) Different kinds of organisms and their classification
answer:
(c) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Download Question 4.
Genus represents
(a) An individual plant or animal
(b) A collection of plants or animals
(c) Group of closely related species of plants or animals
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Group of closely related species of plants or animals

Plus One Zoology Previous Question Papers Chapter Wise  Question 5.
The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent to which hierarchical level in classfication of plants.
(a) Class
(b) Order
(c) Division
(d) Family
Answer:
(c) Division

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 6.
Correct and rewrite the following if there is any mistake.
Sativa Oriza, Tigris Panthera
Answer:
Oriza sativa, Panthera tigris

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Questions And Answers Question 7.
Kingdom – Carnivora
Phylum – Mammalia
Class – Felidsffe
Order – Chordata
Family – Tigris
Genus – Animalia
Sps – Panthera

Correct the mistakes of the flow chart to get the hierarchical arrangement of tiger in the ascending order.
Answer:
Kingdom – Animalia
Phylum – Chordata
Class – Mammalia
Order – Carnivora
Family – Felidae
Genus – Panthera
Sps – Tigris

Hsslive Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 8.
Match the following:

1. A Unit of classification – kingdom
2. Lowest taxonomic category – Genus
3. Panthera – Species
4. Highest Taxonomic category – Taxon

Answer:

1. A Unit of classification – Taxon
2. Lowest taxonomic category – Species
3. Panthera – Genus
4. Highest Taxonomic category – kingdom

Plus One Zoology Previous Question Papers Chapter Wise Hsslive Question 9.
Expand the term ICBN and ICZN.
Answer:
1. ICBN: International Code for Botanical Nomenclature.
2. ICZN: International Code for Zoological Nomenclature.

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Hsslive Question 10.
Given below is the scientific name of Frog. Identify the correctly written name.
(a) Rana Tigrina
(b) Rana tigrina
Answer:
(b) Rana tigrina

Plus One Zoology Animal Kingdom Questions Question 11.
Rearrange the order of classification.
Genus, Family, Phylum, Species, Class, Kingdom, Order
Answer:
Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom

The Living World Class 11 Questions And Answers Question 12.
Arrange the given terms in their taxonomic hierarchy.
Primata, Homosapien, Chordata, Mammalia, Hominidae.
Answer:
Homosapiens, Hominidae, Primata, Mammalia, Chordata.

Plus One The Living World Two Mark Questions and Answers

The Living World Class 11 Important Questions With Answers Question 1.
You are provided with a stuffed rabbit and a dried leaf. As a student of biology which taxonomic aid will you choose to store them.
Answer:
1. Stuffed rabbit – Museum
2. Dried leaf – Herbarium.

Question 2.
Find the odd one out and give reason.
Herbarium, botanical garden, museum, aquarium
Answer:
Aquarium – Aquarium is not a taxonomical aid.
All other are taxonomical aids.

Question 3.
Once you visited a museum. There are different kinds of animals and plants are preserved. How these plants and animals all preserved in a museum.
Answer:
Plants and animals are preserved in the containers or jars in preservative solutions. These may also be preserved as dry specimen. Insects are preserved in insect box.

Larger animals like birds and mammals are usually stuffed and preserved. Museums often have collections of skeleton of animals too.

Question 4.
Zoological parks are different from museums. Give reason?
Answer:
Zoological parks are the places where wild animals are kept in protected environments, that the conditions similar to their natural habitats. Museums have collection of preserved plants and animal specimens for study and reference.

Question 5.
Raju collected a skull of an animal and a living rare animal during a study tour. Select the suitable location for each from the list given in the brackets. (Botanical garden, Zoological park, Herbarium, Museum)
Answer:
Skull of an animal – museum
Living rare animal – Zoological park

Question 6.
Distinguish between taxonomic category and taxonomic hierarchy.
Answer:
Classification involves hierarchy of steps in which each step represents a rank or category. Since category is a part of overall taxonomic arrangement, it is called taxonomic category. All the categories together constitute taxonomic hierarchy.

Question 7.
Write the scientific name of following animals.

1. Lion
2. Frog
3. Housefly
4. Tiger

Answer:

1. Pantheraleo
2. Ranatigrina
3. Musca domestica
4. Panthera tigris

Question 8.
Fill in the blank spaces in the table given below.

Answer:

(a) Live
(b) Museum

Question 9.
Panthera jeo is the scientific name of Lion. List the rules you follow to write this scientific name.
Answer:

1. Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics.
2. When handwritten, the words in a biological name are separately underlined.
3. The first word in a biological name represents the genus and second word represents the species name.
4. The first name (Genus) starts with capital letter and the second name (species) starts with small letter.

Question 10.
List the advantages of

1. Taxonomical key
2. Herbarium

Answer:
1. axonomical key is a taxonomical aid used for identification of plants and animals based on the similarities and dissimilarities. Key are generally analytical in nature.

2. Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets. These specimens, along with their descriptions on herbarium sheets, became a store house or repository for future use. Herbarium serves as quick reference system in taxonomical studies.

Question 11.
Give the terms.

1. The actual account of habital and distribution of plants of a given area.
2. Providing information for identification of names of species found in an area.
3. Contain information on any one taxon.
4. Identification of plants and animals based on the similarities and dissimilarities.

Answer:

1. Flora
2. Manuals
3. Monographs
4. Taxonomical key

Question 12.
Define a taxon. Give some examples of taxon at different hierarchical levels.
Answer:
Each category in the taxonomical hierarchy is considered as a taxonomic unit and is known as a taxon. The taxon used in the classification of animals are kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus and species.

Plus One The Living World NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do we learn from identification of individuals and populations?
Answer:
In a diverse country like India can learn following things from identification of individuals and population:

1. Native place
2. MotherTongue
3. Costumes
4. Cuisine
5. Religion
6. Caste
7. Socio-economic Background

Question 2.
Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomical categories?
(a) Species → Order → Phylum → Kingdom
(b) Genus → Species → Order → Kingdom
(c) Species → Genus → Order → Phylum
Answer:
As clear from the table in previous answer, (a) and (c) are showing the correct order.

Question 3.
Why are the classification system changing every now and then? ,
Answer:
In any branch of science nothing is written in concrete. Theories keep on changing as more relevant and correct theories are being discovered. In case of living beings certain species become extinct and some new species is being formed in every era.

This process of addition and deletion of species necessitates the continuous change of the classification system.

Question 4.
Define a taxon. Give some examples of taxa at different hierarchical levels.
Answer:
A taxon is a particular level of hierarchy in the system of classification of living beings. The following figure gives taxa at different hierarchical levels:

Plus One The Living World Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Binomial nomenclature is described in the book
(a) Genera Plantarum
(b) Historia Plantarum
(c) Systema Naturae
(d) Flora Japonica
Answer:
(c) Systema Naturae

Question 2.
Which of the following is not the main criteria for five kingdom system of classification?
(a) Cell structure and thallus organization
(b) Mode of nutrition and reproduction
(c) Phylogenetic relationship.
(d) Gram staining
Answer:
(d) Gram staining

Question 3.
Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they
(a) Can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
(b) have more than 90 percent similar genes
(c) look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites
(d) have same number of chromosomes
Answer:
(a) Can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds

Question 4.
ICZN stands for
(a) International code of Botanical Nomenclature
(b) International code of Zoological Nomenclature
(c) international code of Viral Nomenclature
(d) International code of Zoo Nomenclature
Answer:
(b) International code of Zoological Nomenclature

Question 5.
In Mangifera indica L. Generic epithet is
(a) Indica
(b) Mangifera
(c) Linnaeus
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Mangifera

Question 6.
ICBN stands for
(a) Indian Congress of Biological Names
(b) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(c) International Congress of Biological Names
(d) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
Answer:
(b) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

Question 7.
Taxon is the
(a) taxonomic group of any rank
(b) procedure to assign a scientific name
(c) process of classification
(d) process by which anything is grouped into convenient categories based on characters
Answer:
(a) taxonomic group of any rank

Question 8.
Which of the following is famous for stating that “Population increases much faster than its food supply”?
(a) Fredrick Losch
(b) R Vircow
(c) T R Malthus
(d) Karl Von Baer
Answer:
(c) T R Malthus

Question 9.
Reproduction is the characteristic feature of living organisms. Which of the following can not reproduce?
(a) Amoeba and Paramecium
(b) Fungi and filamentous algae
(c) Humans and Ayes
(d) Mules and worker bees
Answer:
(d) Mules and worker bees

Question 10.
Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N.tobacurh flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to flower at the same time and can be cross fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N. sylvestris and N. tobocum to be separate species?
(a) They are physiologically distinct
(b) They are morphologically distinct
(c) They cannot interbreed in nature
(d) They are reproductively distinct
Answer:
(c) They cannot interbreed in nature

Question 11.
Which of the following book is not associated with Carolus Linnaeus, the father of Taxonomy and Nomenclature?
(a) Systema Naturae
(b) Genera Plantarum
(c) Species Plantarurn
(d) Historia Generalis Plantarum
Answer:
(d) Historia Generalis Plantarum

Question 12.
Philosophie Zoologique, a book written by Jean Baptiste de Lamarck is based on
(a) Survival of the fittest
(b) Natural Selection
(c) Inheritance of acquired characters
(d) Biogenetic law
Answer:
(c) Inheritance of acquired characters

Question 13.
The book “Philosophic Zoologique” was written by
(a) Lamarck
(b) Mendel
(c) Haeckel
(d) Hugo deVries
Answer:
(a) Lamarck

Question 14.
Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Darwin
(c) Aristotle
(d) deCandoile
Answer:
(a) Linnaeus

Students can Download Chapter 2 Animal Kingdom Questions and Answers, Plus One zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examination

Kerala Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Animal Kingdom

Plus One Animal Kingdom One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Zoology Animal Kingdom Questions Chapter 2 Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

Answer:
i) B – Nereis
ii) B – Ctenoplanna
C – Ctenophora
iii) A – radula

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Chapter 2 Question 2.
Write any two members of the Phylum Aschelminthes which are found parasitic on Human beings.
Answer:

1. Ascaris (Roundworm)
2. Wuchereria (Filaria worm)

Plus One Zoology Previous Question Papers Chapter Wise Chapter 2 Question 3.
In some animal groups, the body is found divided into compartments with at least some organs/ organ repeated. This characteristic feature is named
(a) Segmentation
(b) Metamerism
(c) Metagenesis
(d) Metamorphosis
Answer:
(b) Metamerism

Presence Of Column And Metamerism Are The Most Important Characters In Chapter 2 Question 4.
Given below are types of cells present in some animals. Each one is specialized to perform a single specific function except
(a) Choanocytes
(b) Interstitial cells
(c) Gastrodermal cells
(d) Nematocytes
Answer:
(b) Interstitial cells

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Chapter 2 Question 5.
Which one of the following sets of animals share a four chambered heart?
(a) Amphibian, Reptiles, Birds
(b) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals
(c) Crocodiles, Lizards, Turtles
(d) Lizards, Mammals, Birds
Answer:
(b) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals

Hsslive Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Chapter 2 Question 6.
Which of the following pairs of animals has non glandular skin.
(a) Snake and Frog
(b) Chameleon and Turtle
(c) Frog and Pigeon
(d) Crocodile and Tiger.
Answer:
(c) Frog and Pigeon

Plus One Zoology Previous Question Papers Chapter Wise Hsslive Chapter 2  Question 7.
Birds and mammals share one of the following characteristics as a common feature.
(a) Pigmented skin
(b) Alimentary canal with some modification
(c) Viviparity
(d) Warm blooded nature
Answer:
(d) Warm blooded nature

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Download Chapter 2 Question 8.
Note the relationship between the first two words and find a suitable word for the fourth place,

1. Coelenterata: radial symmetry, platyhelminthes, _______
2. Lizard: Poikilothermous, crow, _________

Answer:

1. bilaterally symmetrical
2. Homoiothermous

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Questions And Answers Chapter 2 Question 9.

1. Annelida: Parapodia :: __________ : Comb plates
2. _________: Water vascular system :: Coelenterata : cnidoblast

Answer:

1. Ctenophora
2. Echinodermata

Plus One Zoology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Hsslive Chapter 2 Question 10.
Malpighian tubule is the excretory organ of which phylum?
(a) Phylum porifera
(b) Phylum arthropoda
(c) Phylum Coelenterata
(d) Phylum mollusca
Answer:
(b) Phylum Arthropoda

Pick Out The Acoelomate Organisms From The Following Chapter 2 Question 11.
A chordate animal having flame cells as the excretory organ.
Answer:
Amphioxus

Animal Kingdom Class 11 Important Questions And Answers Chapter 2 Question 12.
From the pictures given below, find out the poikilothermic animals.

Answer:
B and D are poikilothermic animals.

Question 13.
Segmentation in the body is first observed in which of the following:
(a) Platyhelminthes
(b) Aschelminthes
(c) Annelida
(d) Arthropoda
Answer:
(c) Annelida

Question 14.
Shark has to swim continuously, otherwise, it will sink down. Give reason.
Answer:
Due to absence of air bladder.

Plus One Animal Kingdom Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Arrange the phylum in order.
Arthropoda → Platyhelminthes → Porifera → Ctenophora → Cnidaria → Mollusca → Annelida → Echinodermata → Aschelminthesip
Answer:

• Presence of milk producing mammary gland.
• Presence of hair on skin.
• External ear or pinnae is present.
• Different types of teeth are present in the jaw.

Question 2.
Complete the blanks.

Answer:

Question 3.
Triploblastic animals are more complex than diploblastic animals. Do you agree with this statement? Justify.
Answer:
Triploblastic animals have more cell layers so they have the possibility of greater degree of cellular specialisation.

Question 4.
All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates. Justify.
Answer:
Notochord is present in all vertebrates but vertebral column is present only in vertebrates and not in all chordates.

Question 5.
Copy and complete the table.

Answer:

Question 6.
Arrange the phylum in order.
Arthropoda → Platyhelminthes → Porifera → Ctenophora → Cnidaria → Mollusca → Annelida → Echinodermata → Aschelminthes
Answer:
Porifera → Cnidaria → Ctenophora→ Platyhelminthes → Aschelminthes → Annelida → Arthropoda → Mollusca → Echinodermata

Question 7.
Categorise and classify the following organisms and arrange them in a table with separate columns and provide appropriate headings.
Exocoetus, Physalia, Ascaris, Apis, Locusta, Corvus, Pita, Hydra, Sepia, Ancylostoma.
Answer:

Question 8.

1. Identify the phylum which exhibit metagenesis or alternation of generation.
2. What is meant by alternation of generation?

Answer:

1. Cnidaria
2. Alternation of sexual and asexual forms of organism: ie., Polyp asexually produce medusa, medusa sexually product polyp.

Question 9.
Name the following.

1. Phylum in which flatworms are included
2. Excretory organs of Annelids.
3. Largest phylum.
4. An oviparous mammal.

Answer:

1. Platyhelminthes
2. Nephridia
3. Arthropoda
4. Platypus

Question 10.
Apis, Prawn, Locust, Spider
Following animals have different habit and habitat. But they have many common characters.

1. Mention the common characters.
2. Identify their phylum.

Answer:

1. Joint footed animals
   • Metameric segmentation
   • Chitinous exoskeleton
2. Arthropoda

Question 11.
A list of animals are given below. Arrange them according to increase in complexity of organization. Scorpion, Earthworm, Liver fluke, Pigeon, Seaanemon, Sycon, Elephant, Anabas.
Answer:
Sycon, Seaanemon, Liver fluke, Earthworm, Scor¬pion, Anabas, Pegeon, Elephant.

Question 12.
Nithin is Studying in Std. XI. He collected some specimens during the field trip conducted by the Science Club of his School. Help Nithin to Classify the Animal in respective Phylum.
Prawn, Slug worm, Butterfly, Pila, Grass Hopper, Crab
Answer:

Question 13.
During a field trip Raju has collected some organisms with the following characters. Help him to identify the phyla of those organisms.

1. Metamerically segmented body.
2. Body covered with calcareous shell.
3. Dorso-ventrally flattened leaf like body.
4. Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen.

Answer:

1. Annelida
2. Mollusca
3. Platyhelminthes
4. Arthropoda

Question 14.
Categorise the following fishes into Osteichthyes and Chondrichthyes?

1. Exocoetus
2. Trygon

Answer:

1. Exocoetus – Oesteichthyes
2. Trygon – Chondrichthyes

Question 15.
Arrange the following terms in two columns correctly. Malpighian tubules, radula, metamerism, Bioluminescence, choanocytes, nematocytes, Phylum-coelenterate, phylum-Arthropoda, phylum- ctnophora, phylum-Mollusca, Phylum-Porifera.
Answer:

Question 16.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 17.
Observe the given organisms

1. Place these animals in proper phylum.
2. Segmentation in the body is first observed in which of the above phylum?

Answer:

1.  i) Arthropoda,
   ii) Porifera,
   ii) Annelida
2. Annelida

Question 18.
Observe the table given below and fill the blank columns A, B, C and from the animals given in brackets. (Ascaris, Starfish, Fasciola, Earthworm)

Answer:

Question 19.
1. Identify the animal given below.

2. Write one well marked property of the above animal.
Answer:

1. Pleurobrachia
2. Bioluminescence is well marked property of pleurobrachia

Question 20.
Representatives of some vertebrate classes are introducing themselves. Write down the name of the class in which they belong.

1. My gills are covered by operculum. I have bony endoskeleton.
2. I give birth to young ones. My body is covered by hair.
3. My skin is glandular? Have trilocular heart.
4. I live only in marine water. My endoskeleton is made up of cartilage.

Answer:

1. Osteichthyes
2. Mammalia
3. Amphibia
4. Chondrichthyes

Question 21.
During classroom discussion a student said that sponges are more complex than cnidarians. Do you agree with him. Justify.
Answer:
NO. Sponges are asymmetrical and body is formed of loose aggregate of cells. Cells are not organised to from tissues and organs. Cnidarians are radially symmetrical and tissue grade of organisation. So cnidarians are more complex than sponges.

Question 22.
Due to the absence of air bladder, fishes belonging to the class Chondrichthyes have to swim constantly. How important is the presence of air bladder in these fishes?
Answer:
Due to the absence of air bladder in chondrichthyes, they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking. If air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy.

Question 23.
Match the column A, B &C in the table given below:

Answer:

Question 24.
Identify the phylum whose larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, but adults are radially symmetrical.

1. Annelida
2. Arthropoda
3. Mollusca
4. Echinodermata

Mention two salient features of the phylum.
Answer:
4. Echinodermata
Salient features Presence of Echinodermata:

• Water vascular system
• Spiny bodies, Endoskeleton of Calcareous ossicles

Question 25.
Write the name of phylum.

1. Diploblastic, tissue grade of organisation, radially symmetrical, polymorphic animals.
2. Soft bodied, Unsegmented, Bilaterally symmetrical animals with open type circulation.
3. Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, true coelomic animals with metamerism, closed circulation.
4. Triploblastic, chitinous exoskeleton and open circulation.

Answer:

1. Cnidaria
2. Mollusca
3. Annelida
4. Arthropoda

Question 26.
Observe the table given below and fill the blank columns a, b, c, and d from the animals given in brackets.

(Hydra, Shark, Spongilla, Obelia)
Answer:
(a) Hydra/Obelia
(b) Shark
(c) Spongilla
(d) Hydra/Obelia

Question 27.
Copy and complete the table.

Answer:

Question 28.
You are provided with two fishes Catla (Bony fish) and Shark (Cartilagenous fish). Prepare a table showing difference in:
(a) Position of mouth
(b) Air bladder
(c) Scales
(d) Fertilization
Answer:

Question 29.
Prepare a list of some animals that are found parasitic on human beings.
Answer:
Tapeworm (Taenia), Ascaris (Roundworm), Wuchereria (Filaria worm), Ancylostoma(Hookworm)

Question 30.

1. Identify the 2 forms of Cnidarians.
2. Mention any 2 difference between them.

Answer:

1. A – polyp
   B – medusa
2. Polyp: Asexual, sessile, mouth upwards Medusa: Sexual, Free swimming, Mouth downwards

Plus One Animal Kingdom Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Classify the given organisms and arrange them in the order of their phylum.
Limulus, Corvus, Spongilla, Ascaris, Physalia, Nereis, Catla, Sepia, Echinus, Taenia, Pleurobrachia, Tiger, Viper, Toad.
Answer:

Question 2.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 3.
Observe the diagram

1. Identify the phylum of this hypothetical organism.
2. List out the features that helps in identifying it.
3. Write about the fate of notochord in Urochordata, Cephalochordata and Chordata.

Answer:

1. Chordata
2. Notochord, Dorsal nerve cord, Pharyngeal gill slits, Post anal tail
3. In Urochordatarfiotochond is present only in larval tail. In Cephalochondata, notochord extends from head to tail region is persistent throughout their life. In vertebrata, the notochord is replaced by a cartilagenous or bony vertebral column in the adults.

Question 4.
Select the following items into their appropriate phylum.
Radula, Parapodia, Comb plate, Nephridia, Choanocytes, Flame cells.
Answer:

• Radula – Mollusca
• Parapodia – Annelida
• Comb plate – Ctenophora
• Nephridia – Annelida
• Choanocytes – Porifera
• Flame cells – Platyhelminthes

Question 5.

(a) Fill and complete the chart given below.

(b) Write any two fundamental characters of the phylum chordata.
(c) Classify Tetrapoda into classes:
Answer:
Male accessory ducts store and transport the sperms from testis to the outside through urethra. Male accessory glands secrete seminal Plasma, Which is rich in fructose, citrate, prostaglandins and certain enzymes. The secretion of cowper’s glands lubricate the penis.

Question 6.
Write down the functions of the following (any two) structures and assign their phyla.

1. Radula
2. Flame cells
3. Parapodia

Answer:

1. Radula: File like rasping organ for feeding.
   Phylum: Mollusca
2. Flame cells: Osmoregulation and excretion
   Phylum: Platyhelminthes
3. Parapodia: help in swimming
   Phylum: Annelida

Question 7.
1. Identify the organism A and B.

2. Which features of these organism enable you to identify them?
Answer:

1. A-Tapeworm
   B – Earthworm
2. Features of these organism:
   • Tapeworm: Scolex is present, suckers and hooks are present. No true segmentation.
   • Earthworm: True segmentation, Absence of Scolex, hook and suckers, Clitellum is present.

Question 8.

1. Which of the following animals exhibit metagenesis? (Ascaris Obelia Earthworm Crab)
2. To which phylum does it belong?
3. Write any two features of the phylum.

Answer:

1. Obelia
2. Cnidaria
3. Two features of the phylum:
   • Presence of Cnidoblasts
   • Cnidarians exhibit two basic forms called polyp and medusa.

Question 9.
Pick out the appropriate one from the term given within bracket and put against the corresponding phylum.

1. Porifera
2. Coelenterata
3. Platyhelminthes
4. Annelida
5. Arthropoda
6. Mollusca
7. Echinodermata
8. Chordata

(Hirudin, Flame cell, Choanocytes, Cnidoblast, Jointed legs, Radula, Notochord and Dermal Ossicles)
Answer:

1. Porifera – Choanocytes
2. Coelenterata – Cnidoblast
3. Platyhelminthes – Flame cells
4. Annelida – Hirudin
5. Arthropoda – Jointed legs
6. Mollusca – Radula
7. Echinodermata -Dermal ossicles
8. Chordata – Notochord

Question 10.

1. Identify the organism (A) and (B) and which class do they belong?
2. On which basis do you classify these animals?

(Hint: Write any 2 Identifying characters)
Answer:

1. Organism in (A) and (B)
   • A – Bony fish – Osteichthyes
   • B – Cartilagenous fish – Chondrichthyes

2.

Question 11.
From a fish market, you got a fish, on a close watching you friend says it is a cartilaginous fish.

1. Which characters helped him to identify it as a cartilaginous fish, (any four characters.)
2. Name the class it belongs.

Answer:

1. Characters:
   • a – Gillslits are separate and without operculum
   • b – Placoidscale
   • c – Mouth is located ventrally
   • d – heterocercal caudal fin
2. Chondrichthyes

Question 12.
Presence or absence of a cavity between the body wall and the gut wall is very important in classification.

1. Identify the different types of body cavities.
2. Give examples to each

Answer:

1. Different types of Body Cavities:
   • a – Coelomate
   • b – Pseudocoelomate
   • c – Acoelomate
2. Examples:
   • Coelomate – Chordates
   • Pseudocoelomate – Aschelminthes
   • Acoelomate – Platyhelminthes

Question 13.
From the following general characters find out corresponding/Class with an Example

1. Exclusively marine, triploblastic, spines on the skin, radially symmetrical in the adult and bilaterally symmetrical in the larval stage.
2. Marine, they migrate towards freshwater for spawning, then their larvae return to ocean after metamorphosis.
3. Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, coelomate and metamerically segmented animals.

Answer:

1. Echinodermata
   • eg: Starfish
2. Class – Cyclostomata
   • eg: Petromyzon
3. Annelida
   • eg: Earthworm

Question 14.
Arrange the following points in a two-column table and give suitable heading for each column.

1. Notochord present
2. Post anal tail absent
3. Pharynx Perforated by gill slits
4. Notochord absent
5. Posts anal tail present
6. Gill slits are absent

Answer:

Question 15.
Observe the figure and answer the questions.

1. Identify the structure.
2. Name the phylum which possess this structure.
3. How this structure help the organism?

Answer:

1. Cnidoblastornematocyst
2. Cnidaria
3. Capture of Prey
   • Defense organ.

Question 16.
Note the relationship between first two words and suggest suitable words for the 4th place.

1. Planaria: Flartfe cells: Earthworm: _________
2. Jaw present: Gnathostomata:: Jaw absent: ___________

Answer:

1. Nephridia
2. Agnatha

Question 17.
Give reasons for the following.

1. Respiratory and circulatory system are absent in parasitic platyhelminthes and Aschelminthes.
2. Arthropods are the most successful invertebrate.
3. Body of endoparasites are covered with cuticle.

Answer:

1. Parasitic Plalyhelminthes and Aschelminthes lives in anaerobic condition. So respiratory and circulatory systems are absent in these parasitic forms.
2. Arthropods are most successful, because of the presence of unique chitinous cuticle.
3. In these parasites, the cuticle helps in escaping from the action of digestive enzymes.

Question 18.
Arthropodes are organisms with chitinous exoskeleton. Suppose exoskeleton is absent in arthropods. List the difficulties arthropodes has to face.
Answer:

1. Their body will be dried up due to evaporation
2. They couldn’t escape from predators.
3. They couldn’t live in all environments.

Question 19.
Suppose during your field visit for collection from a rocky seashore you have got some live specimens such as sea urchin, sea cucumber, sea anemone. Is it possible to keep them on an aquarium in your school. Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
No. It is not possible.
Marine animals cannot live on freshwater because it leads to endosmosis and death occurs.

Question 20.

1. Why nematocysts are more concentrated on the oral end and tentacles of cnidarians?
2. What are the difficulties that coelenterate have to face if nematocysts were absent in body.

Answer:

1. Nematocysts are concerned with defence and offence. Tentacles are usually used for defence, offence and food collection. Hence nematocysts are more concentrated in the oral end.
2. The major difficulties cnidarians has to face in the absence of nematocysts are for food collection and escaping from enemies.

Question 21.

1. Which of the following show the body cavity of earthworm?
2. Identify the names of germlayers ‘a’ and ’b’.

Answer:

1. Figure C is the body cavity of earthworm. Because it is a true coelom
2. The names of germlayers
   • a-ectoderm
   • b-endQderm

Question 22.
Identify the characters listed below and put (✓) mark on appropriate places

Answer:

Question 23.

1. Identify the organisms.
2. Which feature of these organisms enable you to identify them?

Answer:

1. The organisms:
   • A-Tape worm
   • B – Ascaris
   • C – Earthworm
2. Features:
   • Tapeworm – Body is dorso-ventrally flattened and segmented.
   • Ascaris – Body is cylindrical and vermiform
   • Earthworm – Body is divided into similar segments and clitellum is present.

Question 24.
During a classroom discussion a student said that sponges are more complex than cnidarians. Do you agree with him. Jusftfy.
Answer:
1. Sponges: Cellular grade of organisation and cell aggregate body plan.

2. Cnidarians: Tissue level of organisation and blind sac body plan. So Cnidarians are more complex than sponges.

Question 25.
While comparing the digestive system of a roundworm and flatworm, a boy noted some differences. List out the differences.
Answer:
1. Flatworms: Digestive system incomplete, has only a single opening, ingestion and egestion occurs through the same opening.

2. Round worm: Complete digestive system, it has both mouth and anus. A muscular pharynx is also present in their digestive system.

Question 26.

1. Identify the invertebrate whose mouth is on ventral or lower side and anus is on dorsal or upper side.
2. Mention the phylum.
3. Comment on its General characters.

Answer:

1. Starfish
2. Echinodermata
3. Its General characters are:
   • Water vascular system
   • Tube feet
   • Coelomate
   • Spiny body

Question 27.
Match the following.

Answer:

• Arthropoda – Bombyx – Joint footed animals
• Annelida – Earthworm – Little rings
• Echinodermata – Antedon – Spiny bodies animals
• Mollusca – Pila – Soft bodies animals

Question 28.
Animals showing metameric segmentation are included under annelida. Body of tapeworm has numerous segments, but the animal is not included under annelida. How will you account for it?
Answer:
Tapeworm show false segmentation. In true segmentation number of segments is fixed and age of the segments are all same.

Question 29.
Complete the given flow chart showing the flow of water through canal system in sponges.

Answer:

Question 30.
Mention a single word for the following.

1. Sexes are not separate.
2. Body wall with three layers.
3. File like rasping organs in Mollusca.
4. Segmentation of animal body.
5. The property of a living organism to emit light.
6. Alternation of generation in Cnidarians.

Answer:

1. Hermaphrodite
2. Triploblastic
3. Radula
4. Metamerism
5. Bioluminescence
6. Metagenesis

Question 31.
The birds are well adapted for flying.

1. Write the general characters of Aves.
2. Give some of the flight adaptations seen in birds.

Answer:

1. General characters of Aves:
   • Presence of feathers
   • Presence of beak
   • Forelimbs are modified into wings.
   • Warm blooded
   • Respiration by lungs with air sacs.
   • Oviparous
2. Flight adaptations:
   • Forelimbs are modified into wings
   • Long bones are hollow with air cavities (Pneumatic)
   • Air sacs connected to lungs supplement respiration
   • Constant body temperature

Plus One Animal Kingdom NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the difference between direct and indirect development?
Answer:
1. Direct Development:
In direct development the young animal resembles an adult. There is no intermediate stage.

2. Indirect Development:
In indirect development there is intermediate stage, like larval stage. For example, frog before being developed into adult passthrough a tadpole stage. This is the case of indirect development.

Question 2.
What are the peculiar features that you find in parasitic platyhelminthes?
Answer:
In parasitic platyhelminthes hooks and suckers are present. Suckers help the parasite, in sucking the blood from the host.

Question 3.
What are the reasons that you can think of for the arthropods to constitute the largest group of the animal kingdom?
Answer:
Arthropods are the first phylum to have well developed systems to carry out different activities. There is distinct system for respiration, locomotion and reproduction. Their survival capacity is great because of elaborate system. This has helped them survive in diverse conditions. They can live in water, on land and in air.

This can be one of the reasons why arthropods are the largest group among the animal kingdom. Another reason is their early development compared to animals of higher phylum.

Question 4.
Water vascular system is the characteristic of which group of the following:
(a) Porifera
(b) Ctenophora
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Chordata
Answer:
(c) Echinodermata

Question 5.
“All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates”. Justify the statement.
Answer:
All chordates have notochord present in some stage of life.
The difference between vertebrates and nonvertebrates is as follows:
In vertebrates the notochord is present in the embryonic stage. This is replaced by a vertebral column during the adult stages.

Question 6.
How important is the presence of air bladder in Pisces?
Answer:
Presence of air-bladder in Pisces helps in buoyancy. This means that members of pisces don’t have to keep on swimming to remain floating.

Question 7.
What are the modifications that are observed in birds that help them fly?
Answer:
Following modification in birds help them fly:

1. Pneumatic or hollow bones make for a light weight skeleton.
2. Fore limbs are modified into wings to assist in flight.
3. Excertion of urine and faeces is through single opening facilitating weight reduction.
4. Aerodynamic body helps in flying.

Question 8.
Could the number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous and viviparous mother be equal? Why?
Answer:
Usually number of eggs produced by oviparous mothers is greater than number of young ones produced by viviparous mothers. The main reason for this is the need of resources required for development of the embryo.
In oviparous the major part of development of the embryo takes place outside the uterus. This makes lesser burden on the mother.

On the other hand in viviparous animals the development takes place inside the uterus so lesser number of young ones can be successfully incubated. Moreover, once eggs are outside they are at risk of getting eaten by some predator because of their immobility, so need of more eggs is there to ensure continuity of progeny.

Plus One Animal Kingdom Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Calcareous skeleton is found in
(a) echinoderms
(b) some sponges
(c) mollusca
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 2.
Which cannot be the character of cnidaria
(a) musculoepithelial cells
(b) gastrovascular cavity
(c) nerve cells and process
(d) organ grade organization
Answer:
(d) organ grade organization

Question 3.
A non-matching set in the following is
(a) sepia – cuttle fish
(b) octopus – devilfish
(c) limulus – king crab
(d) ancylostoma – pinworm
Answer:
(d) ancylostoma – pinworm

Question 4.
A character common to Echinoderms and chordates
(a) marine
(b) benthonic
(c) deuterostome
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) deuterostome

Question 5.
Largest animal in the world that feed on smallest plankton is the
(a) dolphin
(b) killer whale
(c) blue whale
(d) sea cow
Answer:
(c) blue whale

Question 6.
Which is common to amphibian, reptelia and fishes
(a) nucleated RBC
(b) dermal scales
(c) poikelothermic condition
(d) both a and d
Answer:
(d) both a and d

Question 7.
Which of the following has pseudocoelomate tube within a tube body plan
(a) hydra
(b) planaria
(c) ascaris
(d) pheretima
Answer:
(c) ascaris

Question 8.
Ink gland associated with alimentary canal is found in
(a) sepia
(b) earthworm
(c) starfish
(d) cockroach
Answer:
(a) sepia

Question 9.
Which is common to all tetrapods
(a) epidermal scales
(b) red coloured blood
(c) 12 pairs of cranial nerve
(d) ureotelism
Answer:
(b) red coloured blood

Question 10.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum annelida?
(a) closed circulatory system
(b) segmentation
(c) pseudocoelom
(d) ventral nerve cord
Answer:
(c) pseudocoelom

Question 11.
Respiratory pigment of mollusc is
(a) haemocyanin
(b) haemoglobin
(c) haemoerythrin
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(a) haemocyanin

Question 12.
Select the character that can be attributed to chondrithytes
(a) persistened notochord
(b) placoid scales
(c) poikelothermic body
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 13.
The central cavity of sponge is called
(a) spongocoel
(b) coelocentron
(c) canal system
(d) spongilla
Answer:
(c) canal system

Question 14.
Flame cell are excretory organ of
(a) hydra
(b) cockroach
(c) planaria
(d) frog
Answer:
(c) planaria

Question 15.
Pneumatic skeleton is a feature of
(a) amphibians
(b) reptiles
(c) fishes
(d) birds
Answer:
(d) birds

Question 16.
The number of gills present in osteichthyes is
(a) 2 pairs
(b) 6-15 pairs
(c) 5 pairs
(d) 4 pairs
Answer:
(d) 4 pairs

Students can Download Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power Questions and Answers, Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Work, Energy and Power

Plus One Physics Work, Energy and Power One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Physics Work Energy Power Questions Question 1.
Find the odd one out and find the relation connecting the remaining quantities. Joule, Calorie, Kilowatt, electron volt.
Answer:
kilowatt, unit of power
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 electron volt = 1.6 × 10^-19J.

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 2.
What is the work done by the tension in the string of simple pendulum?
Answer:
Zero

Plus One Physics Work Energy Power Question 3.
When is the exchange of energy is maximum during an elastic collision?
Answer:
When mass of two colliding bodies are same, there will be maximum exchange of energy.

Work Energy And Power Questions And Answers Question 4.
In atom, an electron is revolving around the nucleus. What is the work done?
Answer:
Work done is zero because work done by centripetal force is zero.

Plus One Physics Important Questions And Answers Pdf Question 5.
What is the type of collision when macroscopic particles collide?
Answer:
Perfectly inelastic collision.

Hsslive Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 6.
Name the parameter which is a measure of degree of elasticity of a body.
Answer:
Coefficient of restitution.

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Hsslive Question 7.
What is the source of kinetic energy for falling rain drops?
Answer:
Gravitational potential energy.

Plus One Physics Work, Energy and Power Two Mark Questions and Answers

Work Energy And Power Class 11 Important Questions With Answers Question 1.
The law of conversation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but can only change from one form into another. A bus and a car, moving with the same kinetic energy are brought to rest by applying an equal retardation force by the breaking systems. Which one will come to rest at a shorter distance? Give the reason behind your answer.
Answer:
Change in K.E. = Force × Displacement
1/2 mv² = F × S
ie. KE α s
KE_car α S_car _____(1)
KE_bus α S_bus ______(2)

ie. S_car = S_bus
Both will travel equal distance.

Work Energy And Power Questions And Answers Pdf Question 2.
A body constrained to move alomg the Z-axis of a co-ordinate system is subjected to a constant force \(\bar{F}=(\hat{i}+2 \hat{\jmath}+3 \hat{k}) N\)

1. What is the magnitude of force along z direction.
2. What is the work done by this force in moving the body over a distance of 4m along z-axis.

Answer:

1. 3N
2. Work done = Force × Displacement = 3 × 4 = 12J.

Physics Questions On Work Energy And Power Question 3.
Match the following

Answer:
Collision of two balls – inelastic – TE and momentum Collision of two molecules – elastic – KE, TE, and momentum.

Plus One Physics Work, Energy and Power Three Mark Questions and Answers

Questions From Work Energy And Power Question 1.
A car of mass 1000kg moving with a speed 18mk/h on a horizontal road collides with a horizontally mounted spring of spring constant 6.25 × 10³N/m

1. What do you mean by Spring constant.
2. What is the maximum compression of the spring?

Answer:
1. Spring constant is the force required to stretch the spring by a unit distance.

2. \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv² = \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx², 18km/h = 5m/s.

x = 2m.

Question 2.
A man tries to lift a mass 200kg with a force 100N

1. Is he doing work? Explain.
2. If yes, find the amount of work done If No, find the force required to lift it.
3. If it is lifted to 2m in 10 seconds, find his power.

Answer:

1. No work is done, as there is no displacement, 100N force is insufficient to raise 200kg.
2. Force required to lift 200 kg = 200 × 9.8 = 1960N
3. Power = \(\frac{m g h}{t}=\frac{200 \times 9.8 \times 2}{10}\) = 392W.

Question 3.
Two cricket balls are colliding each other.

1. Name the collision
2. Say whether law of conservation of Kinetic Energy hold good in this case. Why?
3. State and prove the other conservation law applicable here.

Answer:

1. Inelastic collision
2. No, Total KE before collision is not equal to total KE after collision.
3. Proof and statement of law of conservation of momentum.

Plus One Physics Work, Energy and Power Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two cars A and B travelling with speeds 20m/s and 10m/s respectively applies breaks,.so that A comes to rest in 15 second and B in 7.5s

1. From the graph determine which of the two cars travelled further after brakes were applied and by how much distance it travelled?
2. Draw the velocity time graph of A and B in the same graph.
3. In the above process ,the wear and tear of which the car gets affected more ?

Answer:
1. The area of velocity time graph gives displacement distance travelled by the car A, S_A = 1/2 × 20 × 15 = 150 m
distance travelled by the car B, S_B = 1/2 × 10 × 7.5 = 37.5.

2.

3. Wear and tear gets affected more for the car A.

Question 2.
A sphere of mass m is moving with a velocity u and makes a head on collision with another identical mass which is at rest. It is observed that the stationary mass starts moving with a lesser velocity than u, after the collision.

1. Which physical quantity is conserved here?
2. Define coefficient of restitution.
3. Determine the ratio of the velocities of the two spheres after elastic collision if ‘e’ is the coefficient of restitution.

Answer:
1. conservation of linear momentum.

2. It is defined as the ratio of relative velocity of separation after collision to the relative velocity of approach before collision.

3. Coefficient of restitution,
e = \(\frac{v_{2}-v_{1}}{u_{1}-u_{2}}\)
in this cos u₁ = u, u₂ = 0, v₁ = 0, v₂ = u
∴ e = \(\frac{u-0}{u-0}\)
e = 1.

Question 3.
From the table given below

1. Draw the force displacement curve
2. Analyse the graph & find the type of force involved
3. Estimate the workdone

Answer:
1.

2. Workdone by a variable force.

3. Workdone = Area of the graph
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)bh
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)5 × 10 = 25J.

Question 4.
Raju increased the speed of moving mass ‘50 kg’ from 2 m/s to 4m/s.

1. How much force will be required, if velocity change takes place with in 0.2 sec?
2. How much work is done by Raju?

Answer:
1. F = mass × acceleration
= 50 × \(\frac{(4-2)}{0.2}\)
= 500N.

2. w = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv² – \(\frac{1}{2}\)mu².
=\(\frac{1}{2}\)50 (4² – 2²)
= 300 J.

Plus One Physics Work, Energy and Power Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A car and a truck have the same kinetic energies at a certain instant while they are moving along two parallel roads. (Assume that the truck is heavier than the car)

1. Which one will have greater momentum?
2. Write the relationship between kinetic energy and linear momentum.
3. If the mass of truck is 100 times greater than that of the car, find the ratio between their velocities.

Answer:
1. Kinetic energy, of car, K.E_c = \(\frac{P_{c}^{2}}{2 m_{c}}\)
Kinetic energy of truck,

Since m_c < m_t
Hence P_t > P_c
∴ momentum of truck is greater than car.

2. KE = P²/2m.

3. KE_c = KE_t
1/2m_c V_c² = 1/2 x m_tV_t²
But m_t = 100m_c
\(V_{t}^{2}=\frac{V_{c}^{2}}{100}\)
Velocity of truck, Vt = \(\frac{V_{c}}{10}\)
ratio of velocity, 10V_t = V_c
10:1.

Question 2.
Raju dropped a rubber ball of mass m from a height h to the ground. He observed that the ball rebounds vertically and along the same line to a height h₁, which is less than h.

1. Is it an elastic or inelastic collision?
2. Find the velocity with which it strikes the ground?
3. If it is replaced by a solid aluminium ball, then what happens to the height of rebound?
4. If the rubber ball is allowed to fall on a spring placed on the ground then what change will Raju notice in the height of rebound?

Answer:
1. Inelastic collision.

2. The velocity with which ball strikes the ground,
v² = u² + 2as
v² = 0 + 2g × h
v = \(\sqrt{2 g h}\).

3. Height of rebound decreases.

4. Height of rebound depends on the state of potential energy stored in the spring. If ball falls on a compressed spring, the height of rebound increases due to potential energy given by the spring to bail.

Question 3.
A man tries to lift a mass 200kg with a force 100N.

1. Is he doing work? Explain.
2. If it is lifted to 2m in 10s, find the power.
3. Show that total mechanical energy is conserved fora freely falling body.

Answer:
1. No. Force required to lift the body is 2000N (w = mg = 200 × 10). But the applied force is 100N. Hence there is no displacement due to this applied force.

2. Power P = \(\frac{w}{t}=\frac{m g h}{t}=\frac{200 \times 10 \times 2}{10}\) = 400 watt.

3.

Consider a body of mass ‘m’ at a height h from the ground.
Total energy at the point A
Potential energy at A,
PE = mgh
Kinetic energy, KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² = 0
(since the body at rest, v = 0).
∴ Total mechanical energy = PE + KE
= mgh + 0 = mgh
Total energy at the point B
The body travels a distance x when it reaches B. The velocity at B, can be found using the formula.
v² = u² + 2as
v² = 0 + 2 gx

∴ KE at B, = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) m2gx
= mgx
P.E. at B, = mg(h – x)
Total mechanical energy = PE + KE
= mg(h – x) + mgx
= mgh
Total energy at C
Velocity at C can be found using the formula
v² = u² + 2as
v² = 0 + 2 gh
∴ KE at C, = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv²
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)m2gh
= mgh
P.E. at C = 0
Total energy = PE + KE = 0 + mgh = mgh.

Question 4.
An elevator of total mass 1800kg is moving up with a constant speed of 2m/s. A frictional force of 400N acts on this motion.

1. The direction of frictional force is______
   • Opposite to direction of motion
   • In the direction of motion
2. What is the work done by gravitational force.
3. What is the total work done by the elevator?

Answer:
1. Opposite to direction of motion

2. w = F × V
w = mg × 2
= 1800 × 10 × 2
w = 36000J

3. P = P_total × V
= (mg + F_fricti0n) × V
= (1800 × 10 + 4000) × 2
= (18000 + 4000) × 2
P = 44000w.

Question 5.
A stone of mass ‘m’ is to be thrown to a height h

1. What is the acceleration of the stone?
2. With what minimum velocity should it be thrown.
3. At what height does the KE and PE become equal?
4. Find the velocity at that height

Answer:
1. ^–g or ^–9.8m/s.

2. v = 0, a = -g, S = h
Substitute this values in
V² = u² + 2as we get
0 = u² – 2gh
u = \(\sqrt{2 g h}\)

3. at \(\frac{h}{2}\)., KE and PE are equal.

4. V² = U² + 2aS
= U² – 2g \(\frac{h}{2}\) (u² = 2gh) = U² – \(\frac{U^{2}}{2}\),
V² = \(\frac{U^{2}}{2}\),
V = \(\frac{U}{\sqrt{2}}\).

Question 6.
A toy gun, with a spring compresser 3cm is used to project a stone of mass 50gm to a height of 10m.

1. What is the potential energy of spring.
2. How much it should be compressed to throw the stone to a height 5m.
3. Find out the physical constant associated with the spring.

Answer:
1. PE of the spring = PE of the mass at the height h
= mgh = 0.050 × 9.8 × 10
= 5 × 9.8 = 4.9J

2. \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx₁² = mgh₁
\(\frac{1}{2}\)kx₂² = mgh₂

3. physical constant associated with the spring constant
\(\frac{1}{2}\)kx² = mgh

Question 7.
Find the odd one out and find the relation connecting the remaining quantities. Joule, Calorie, Kilowatt, electron volt.
Answer:
kilowatt, unit of power
1 calorie = 4.2 joule
1 electron volt = 1.6 × 10^-19J.

Question 8.
Atoy gun, with aspring compresser3cm is used to project a stone of mass 50gm to a height of 10m.

1. What is the potential energy of spring.
2. How much it should be compressed to throw the stone to a height 5m.
3. Find out the physical constant associated with the spring.

Answer:
1. PE of the spring = PE of the mass at the height h
= mgh = 0.050 × 9.8 × 10
= 5 × 9.8 = 4.9J

2. \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx₁² = mgh₁
\(\frac{1}{2}\)kx₂² = mgh₂

3. physical constant associated with the spring constant
\(\frac{1}{2}\)kx² = mgh

Question 9.

A graph paper is fitted on a board as shown in figure. Near to the graph paper a spring is placed. A pencil is attached to the end of the spring as shown in figure. The pencil is free to move on the graph paper. A stone of mass 50 gm is placed 1m above the spring. [Spring constant k = 98N/m]

1. The energy possessed by the stone due to its height is called_______
2. If this stone falls on the spring, find the length of mark that produced on the graph paper due to pencil [The change in P E of stone due to compression may be negleted]
3. What will happen to the length of mark, if spring having smaller spring constant is used? Justify.

Answer:
1. Potential energy.

2. \(\frac{1}{2}\)kx² = mgh
\(\frac{1}{2}\) × 98 × x² = 50 × 10^-3 × 9.8 × 1
x² = 100 × 10⁴
x = 10cm.

3. The length of mark will be decreased. Compression of spring depends on spring constant.

Plus One Physics Work, Energy and Power NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The sign of work done by a force on a body is important to understand. State carefully if the following quantities are positive or negative:

1. work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket.
2. work done by gravitational force in the above case.
3. work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane.
4. work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity.
5. work done by the resistive force of air on vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.

Answer:

1. +ve
2. -ve
3. -ve
4. +ve
5. -ve

Question 2.
The potential energy function fora particle executing linear simple harmonic motion is given by
V(x) = \(\frac{k x^{2}}{2}\), where k is the force constant of the oscillator, For k = 0.5N nm^-1, the graph of V(x) versus x is shown. Show that a particle of total energy 1 J moving under this potential must ‘turn back’ when it reaches x = ± 2m.
Answer:
We know that maximum potential energy = total energy
∴ (\(\frac{1}{2}\)kx²) max = 1 joule or \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.5 × (x²)_max = 1
or (x²)_max = 4 or (x)_max = ± 2m.

Question 3.
Choose the correct alternative:

1. When a conservative force does positive work on a body, the potential energy of the body increases/ decreases/remains unaltered.
2. Work done by a body against friction always results in a loss of its kinetic/potential energy.
3. The rate of change of total momentum of a many particle system is proportional to the external force/sum of the internal forces on the system.
4. In an inelastic collision of two bodies, the quantities which do not change after the collision are the total kinetic energy/total linear momentum/ total energy of the system of two bodies.

Answer:

1. decreases
2. kinetic energy
3. external force
4. total linear momentum and also total energy (if the system of two bodies is isolated).

Question 4.
State if each of the following statements is true or false.

1. In an elastic collision of two bodies, the momentum and energy of each body is conserved.
2. Total energy of a system is always conserved, no matter what internal and external forces on the body are present.
3. Work done in the motion of a body over a closed loop is zero for every force in nature.
4. In an inelastic collision, the final kinetic energy is always less than the initial kinetic energy of the system.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. False (true usually but not always).

Question 5.
A rain drop of radius 2mm falls from a height of 500m above the ground. It falls with decreasing acceleration (due to viscous resistance of the air) untill at half its original height, it attains its maximum (terminal) speed, and moves with uniform speed thereafter. What is the work done by the gravitational force on the drop in the first and second half of its journey? What is the work done by the resistive force in the entire journey if its speed on reaching the ground is 10ms^-1?
Answer:
r = 2 × 10^-3m,
volume = \(\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7}\) (2 × 10^-3)³ m³
p = 1000kgm^-3,
h = 250m
W= \(\frac{4}{3} \times \frac{22}{7}\) × 8 × 10^-9 × 1000 × 9.8 × 250J = 0.082J
Data reamains unchanged in the next half.

Question 6.
A bullet of mass 0.012kg and horizontal speed 70ms-1 strikes a block of wood of mass 0.4kg and instantly comes to rest with respect to the block. The block is suspended from the ceiling by means of thin wires. Calculate the height to which the block rises. Also, estimate the amount of heat produced in the block.
Answer:
If V be the velocity of the block after collision, the using law of conservation of momentum, we get
0.012 × 70 + 0 = (0.012 + 0.4)V
or V = \(\frac{0.012 \times 70}{0.412}\) ms^-1 = 2.04ms^-1
If h be the height through which block rises, then
(M + m) gh = \(\frac{1}{2}\) (M + m)V²
or h = \(\frac{v^{2}}{2 g}\) or
h = \(\frac{2.04 \times 2.04}{2 \times 9.8}\)m = 0.212m = 21.2 cm
Amount of heat produced in the block = loss of K.E.
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.012 × 70 × 70 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.412 × 2.04 × 2.04
= 29.4J – 0.857J = 28.543J.

Students can Download Chapter 1 Fundamentals of Computer Questions and Answers, Plus One Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions Chapter 1 Fundamentals of Computer

Plus One Computer Application Fundamentals of Computer 1 Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Computer Application Textbook Questions And Answers Question 1.
________ is a collection of unorganized fact.
Answer:
Data

Plus One Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 2.
Data can be organized into useful ______.
Answer:
Information

Plus One Computer Application Textbook Solutions Question 3.
________ is used to help people to make decision.
Answer:
Information

Plus One Computer Application Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Processing is a series of actions or operations that convert inputs into _______.
Answer:
Output

Plus One Computer Application Textbook Answers Question 5.
The act of applying information in a particular con-text or situation is called ________.
Answer:
Knowledge

Plus One Computer Application Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 6.
What do you mean by data processing?
Answer:
Data processing is defined as a series of actions or operations that converts data into useful information.

Plus One Commerce Computer Application Textbook Answers Question 7.
Odd man out and justify your answer.
(a) Adeline
(b) 12
(3) 17
(d) Adeline aged 17 years is in class 12.
Answer:
d) This is information. The others are data.

Computer Application Exam Questions And Answers Question 8.
Raw facts and figures are known as ________.
Answer:
data

Plus One Computer Application Textbook Question 9.
Processed data is known as ______.
Answer:
Information

Plus One Computer Application Chapter Wise Notes Question 10.
Which of the following helps us to take decisions ?
(a) data
(b) information
(c) Knowledge
(d) intelligence
Answer:
(b) information

All In One Computer Application Class 10 Pdf Question 11.
Manipulation of data to get information is known as _________.
Answer:
Data processing

Class 7 Computer Chapter 1 Number System Question 12.
Arrange the following in proper order .
Process, Output, Storage, Distribution, Data Capture, Input.
Answer:
a) Data Capture
b) Input
c) Storage
d) Process
e) Output
f) Distribution

Question 13.
Pick the odd one out and give reason
a) Calculation
b) Storage
c) Comparison
d) Categorization
Answer:
b) Storage
It is one of the data processing stage the others are various operations in the stage Process.

Question 14.
Information may act as data. State true or False.
Answer:
False

Question 15.
Complete the Series.
a) 1012,1112,10012 ______,_______.
b) 10112,11102,100012 , ______,______.
Answer:
a) 1011, 1101
b) 10101,10111

Question 16.
What are the two basic types of data which are stored and processed by computers?
Answer:
Characters and number

Question 17.
The number of numerals or symbols used in a number system is its _____.
Answer:
Base

Question 18.
The base of decimal number system is _____.
Answer:
Base

Question 19.
MSD is _______.
Answer:
Most significant digit

Question 20.
LSD is ________.
Answer:
Least significant digit

Question 21.
Consider the number 627. Its MSD is _____.
Answer:
6

Question 22.
Consider the number 23.87. Its LSD is ______.
Answer:
7

Question 23.
The base of Binary number system is ________.
Answer:
2

Question 24.
What are the symbols used in Binary number system?
Answer:
0 and 1

Question 25.
Complete the following series.
(101)2, (111)2, (1001)2, ……..
Answer:
1011, 1101

Question 26.
State True or False.
In Binary, the unit bit changes either from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 with each count.
Answer:
True

Question 27.
The base of octal number system is
Answer:
8

Question 28.
Consider the octal number given below and fill in the blanks.
0, 1,2, 3, 4, 5,6, 7, _
Answer:
10

Question 29.
The base of Hexadecimal number system is
Answer:
16

Question 30.
State True or False.
In Positional number system, each position has a weightage.
Answer:
True

Question 31.
In addition to digits what are the letters used in Hexa decimal number system.
Answer:
A(10), B(11), C(12), D(13), E(14), F(15)

Question 32.
Convert (1110.01011)2 to decimal.
Answer:
1110.01011 = 1 x 23 + 1 x 22 + 1 x 21 + 0 x 20 + 0 x 2- 1 + 1 x 2 – 2 + 0 x 2 – 3 + 1 x 2 – 4 + 1 x 2 – 5
= 8 + 4 + 2 + 0 + 0 + 0.25 + 0 + 0.0625 + 0.03125
= (14.34375)₁₀

Question 33.
1 KB is ______ bytes.
(a) 2⁵
b) 2¹⁰
c) 2¹⁵
d) 2²⁰
Answer:
d) 2²⁰

Question 34.
The base of hexadecimal number system is _______ Hexadecimal number system .
Answer:
16

Question 35.
A computer has no _______.
(a) Memory
(b) l/o device
(c) CPU
(d) IQ
Answer:
IQ

Question 36.
Real numbers can be represented in memory by using ______.
Answer:
Exponent and Mantissa

Question 37.
Consider the number 0.53421 x d) 10^-8 Write down the mantissa and exponent.
Answer:
Mantissa : 0.53421
Exponent:- 8

Question 38.
Characters can be represented in memory by using ______.
Answer:
ASCII Code

Question 39.
ASCII Code of ‘A’ is
Answer:
(100 0001)₂= 65 .

Question 40
ASCII Code of ‘a’ is
Answer:
(110 0001)₂= 97

Question 41.
Find MSD in the decimal number 7854.25
Answer:
Because it has the most weight

Question 42.
Which is the MSB of representation of-80 in SMR?
Answer:
It is 1 because In SMR if the number is negative then the MSB is 1.

Question 43.
Write 28.756 in Mantissa exponent form.
Answer:
28756 = .28756 x 100
= .28756 x10₂
= .28756 E + 2

Question 44.
ASCII stands for ______.
Answer:
American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 45.
List any two image file formats.
Answer:
BMP, GIF

Question 46.
Name the character representation coding scheme developed in India and approved by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
Answer:
lSCII(lndian Standard Code for Information Interchange)

Question 47.
Fill the series. Series
(151)₈, (153)₈, (155)₈ _____,_____.
Answer:
(157)₈, (161)₈

Question 48.
Meaningful and processed form of data is known as _______ Process
Answer:
Information

Question 49.
Choose the correct number system from the following to which the number 121 (one hundred and twenty one) belongs.
a) Octal and Decimal
b) Binary only
c) Binary, Octal, Decimal and Hexadecimal
d) Decimal only
Answer:
d) Decimal Only OR a) Octal and Decimal

Question 50.
Which one of the following is considered as brain of the computer?
a) Central Processing Unit
b) Control Unit
c) Arithmetic Logic Unit
d) Monitor
Answer:
Central Processing Unit

Question 51.
Which one of the following CPU resister helds address of next instruction to be executed by the processor?
a) Accumulator
b) Instruction Register (IR)
c) Memory address Register
d) Program Counter (PC)
Answer:
d) Program Counter (PC)

Question 52.
Processed data is known as ______.
a) facts
b) figures
c) information
d) raw material
Answer:
c) information

Plus One Computer Application Fundamentals of Computer 2 Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do we store information?
Answer:
Normally large volume of data has to be given to the computer for processing so the data entry may be taken more days, hence we have to store the data. After processing these stored data, we will get Information as a result that must be stored in the computer for future references.

Question 2.
Which is the final stage in data processing?
Answer:
Distribution of information is the final stage in data processing

Question 3.
What is source document.
Answer:
Acquiring the required data from all the sources for the data processing and by using this data design a document, that contains all relevant data in proper order and format. This document is called source document.

Question 4.
Convert (106)₁₀ = ( )₂?
Answer:

Question 5.
Convert (106)₁₀ = ( )₈
Answer:

Question 6.
(106)₁₀ = ( )₁₆?
Answer:

Question 7.
Convert (55.625)₁₀ = ( )₂
Answer:

Question 8.
Convert (55.140625)₁₀ = ( )₈
Answer:

Question 9.
(55.515625)₁₀ = ( )₁₆
Answer:

Question 10.
Convert (101.101)₂ = ( )₁₀?
Answer:

Question 11.
Convert (71.24)₈ = ( )₁₀?
Answer:

Question 12.
Convert (AB.88)₁₆ = ( )₁₀
Answer:

Question 13.
Convert (1011)₂ = ( )₈?
Answer:

Question 14.
Convert (110100)₂ = ( )₁₆?
Answer:

Question 15.
(72)₈ = ( )₂?
Answer:

Question 16.
Convert (AO)₁₆ = ( )₂ ?
Answer:

Question 17.
Convert (67)₈ = ( )₁₆ ?
Answer:

Question 18.
Convert (A1)₁₆ = ( )₈ ?
Answer:

Question 19.
Write short notes about Unicode Unicode
Answer:
it is like ASCII Code. By using ASCII, we can represent limited, number of characters. But using Unicode we can represent all of the characters used in the written languages of the world.
Eg:- Malayalam, Hindi, Sanskrit …….

Question 20.
What is the use of the ASCII Code ?
Answer:
ASCII means American Standard Code for Information Interchange. It is a 7 bit code. Each and every character on the, keyboard is represented in memory by using ASCII Code.
Eg:- A’s ASCII Code is 65 (1000001).
a’s ASCII Code is 97 (1100001)

Question 21.
Define the term’bit’?
Answer:
A bit stands for Binary digit. That means either 0 or 1.

Question 22.
Convert the decimal number 31 to binary
Answer:

Question 23.
Find decimal equivalent of (10001 )₂
Answer:

Question 24.
If (X)₈ =(101011 )₂ then find X.
Answer:
Divide the binary number into groups of 3 bits and write down the corresponding octal equivalent.

Question 25.
Fill the blanks
(____)₂ = (AB)₁₆
Write down the 4 bit equivalent of each digit
Answer:

Question 26.
Represent-60 in 1’s complement form – 60 am 1’s complement form
Answer:
Change all 1 to 0 and all 0 to 1 to get the 1’s complement.
– 60 is in 1’s complement is 11000011

Question 27.
Define Unicode.
Answer:
The limitations to store more characters is solved by the introduction of Unicode.
It uses 16 bits so 2¹⁶ =65536 characters(i.e,world’s all written language characters) can store by using this.

Question 28.
Find the smallest number in the list.
a) (1101)₂
b) (A)₁₆
c) (13)₈
d) (15)₁₀
Answer:
Convert all the numbers into a common base i.e. to decimal

Question 29.
Represent – 83 in 1’s complement form.
Answer:
Divide the number 82 by 2 successively and write down the remainders from bottom to top + 83=01010011
To take 1 ‘s complement of a binary number change all 1 s to 0 and all 0’s to 1.
Hence – 83 is 10101100

Question 30.
a) Write the two’s complement form of the decimal number-119.
b) State the benefit of using two’s complement representation as compared to one’s complement form.
Answer:
Binary equivalent of 119 in 8 bit is (0111 0111)2.
To find the 2’s complement of -119. First find the 1’s complement and Odd 1 to it.

b) If a computer uses 8 bit word length, 1 ’s complement method can represent numbers from – 127 to + 127. That means only 127 + 128 = 255 numbers can represent. But 2’s complement method can represent numbers from – 128 to + 127. That means we can represent a total of 256 numbers. We can represent one number more in 2’s complement representation.

Question 31.
Write a short note on Unicode.
Answer:
It is like ASCII Code. By using ASCII, we- can represent limited number of characters. But using Unicode we can represent all of the characters used in the written languages of the world.
Eg:- Malayalam, Hindi, Sanskrit,….

Question 32.
“Central Processing Unit (CPU) is the brain of the computer”. What is the role of Control Unit (CU) in the CPU?
Answer:
All the activities of a computer is controlled by the control unit. That means the function of key board, mouse, monitor, memory etc. are controlled by the control unit.

Question 33.
Storage of data, capturing of data, processing of data, input of data, and output of data are the different stages in data processing. Write these stages in correct order?
Answer:
1) Capturing of data
2) Input of data
3) Storage of data
4) Processing of data
5) Output of data

Question 34.
There is a memory inside the CPU. What is its name? Write down its purpose In the computer.
Answer:
It stores data, intermediate results, Address, instructions etc for CPU to process temperarily.

Question 35.
Convert the hexadecimal (A2D)₁₆ into its octal equivalent.
Answer:
Step 1: First convert the number into binary for this do the following.

Plus One Computer Application Fundamentals of Computer 3 Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Briefly explain data, information and processing with real life example.
Answer:
Consider the process of making coffee.
Here data is the ingredients – water, sugar,milk and coffee powder.
Information is the final product- i.e, Coffee Processing is the series of steps to convert the in-gradients into final product, Coffee. That is mix the water,sugar and milk and boil it. Finally pour the coffee powder.

Question 2.
Differentiate manual data processing and electronic data processing?
Answer:
In manual data processing human beings are the processors. Our eyes and ears are input devices. We get data either from a printed paper, that can be read using our eyes or heard with ears. Our brain is the processor and it can process the data, and reach in a conclusion known as result. Our mouth and hands are output devices.
In electronic data processing the data is processing with the help of a computer. In a super market, key board and hand held scanners are used to in. put data, the CPU process the data, monitor and printers (Bill) are output devices.

Question 3.
Complete the series.
(a) 324₈,327₈,332₈ ,______,______.
(b) 567₈,576₈,605₈ ,______,_______.
Answer:

Question 4.
Fill up the missing digits
(a) (4___)₈=(___110)₂
(b) ( __7___ )₈ = (100 ___ 110)₂
Consider the following:

Answer:
a) 4 ……..100
and 110 ……… 6
So (46)₈ = (100 110)₂
b) 100 ……… 4
7 ………. 111
110 …….. 6
So (476)₈ = (100 111 110)₂

Question 5.
Fill up the missing numbers.
(a) (A ___)₁₆ = ( ___ 1001)₂
(b) ( __ B ___ )₁₆ = (1000 ___ 1111)₂
consider the following:

Answer:

Question 6.
Complete the Series.
(a) 6ADD , 6ADF , 6AE1 ___,____.
(b) 14A9,14AF , 14B5 , ___,____.
Answer:
a) Consider the Seguence.-
6ADD, 6ADF, 6AE1,
Here the ’numbers’ are
0,1,2, 3, 4, 5,6, 7, 8, 9,A,,B, C, D, E, F, 10, 11, ………
The difference between 6ADD & 6ADF is 2

So Add 2 to 6AE1 we will ge 6AE3 Then add 2 to 6AE3 we will get 6AE5 Therefore the missing terms 6AE3, 6AE5
b) Consider the sequence.

So the missing terms are 14BB and 14C1

Question 7.
Find the octal numbers corresponding to the following numbers using shorthand method.
Short hand method
(a) (ADD)₁₆
(b)(DEAD)₁₆
Answer:
a) Step 1 : Write down the 4 bit binary equivalent of each digit.

Step 2 : Divide this number into groups of 3 bits starting from the right and write down the octal equivalent.

b) Step 1 : Write down the 4 bit binary equivalent of each digit.

Step 2 :Divide this number into groups of 3 bits starting from the right and write down the octal equivalent.

Question 8.
The numbers in column A have an equivalent number in another number system of column B.
Find the exact match.

Answer:

Question 9.
ASCII Is used to represent characters in memory. Is it sufficient to represent all characters used in the written languages of the world ? Propose a solution. Justify.
Answer:
No It is not sufficient to represent all characters used in the written languages of the world because , it is a 7 bit code so it can represent 2⁷ = 128 possible codes. To represent all the characters Unicode is used because it uses 4 bytes, so it can represent 232 possible codes.

Question 10.
If (126)x = (56)y , then find x and y.
Answer:

Question 11.
If (102)x = (42)y then (154)x = (___) y.
Answer:

Question 12.
a) Name various number systems commonly used in computers.
b) Include each of the following numbers into all possible number systems
Answer:
a) The number system are binary, octal, decimal and hexa decimal.
b) 123 Octal, decimal and hexa decimal
569 Decimal, hexa decimal
1101 Binary, Octal, Decimal, Hexa decimal

Question 13.
Fill up the missing digit. (Score 1)
(41)₈ = ( )₁₆
Answer:
Step 1 : Divide the number into one each and write doWn the 3 bits equivalent.
Step 2: Then divide the number into group of 4 bits starting from the right then write its equivalent hexa decimal.’

So the answer is 21.

Question 14.
Fill up the missing digit. (Score 2)
If (220)_a = (90)_b then (451 )_a = ( )₁₀
Answer:
It contains 2 & 9, so a and b 2, b 8. The values of a can be 8 or 19. The values of b can be 10 or 16, L.H.S > R.H.S. a The possible values of a and b are given below

Question 15.
Fill up the missing digit. . (Score.3)
If (121)_a = (441)_b then (121)_b = ()₁₀
Answer:

Question 16.
Fill up the missing digit. (Score 3)
If (128)_a = (450)_b then (16)_a = ()₁₀
Answer:

Question 17.
Fill up the missing digit.
(3A.6D)₁₆ = ( )₈
Answer:
Step I: Write down the 4 bits equivalent of each digit.

Step II : Divide this number into groups of 3 bit starting from the right side of the left side of the decimal point and starting from the left side of the right side of the decimal point.
So 00/111/010.011/011/010
Step III: Write the octal equivalent of each group: So we will get. (72.332)₈
(3A.6D)₁₆ = (72.332)₈

Question 18.
What are the various ways to represent integers in computer?
Answer:
There are three ways to represent integers in computer. They are as follows:
1) Sign Magnitude Representation (SMR)
2) 1’s Complement Representation
3) 2’s Complement Representation .
1) SMR : Normally a number has: two parts sign and magnitude, eg:- Consider a number +5. Here + is the sign and 5 is the magnitude. In SMR the most significant Bit (MSB) is used to represent the sign. If MSB is 0 sign is +ve and MSB is 1 sign is – ve.

Here MSB is used for sign then the remaining 7 bits are used to represent magnitude. So we can represent 27 = 128 numbers. But there are negative and positive numbers. So 128 + 128 = 256 number. The numbers are 0 to + 127 and 0 to – 127. Here zero is repeated. So we can represent 256 – 1 = 255 numbers.
2) 1’s Complement Representation : To get the 1’s complement of a binary number, just replace every 0 with 1 and every 1 with 0. Negative numbers are represented using 1’s complement but + ve number has no 1’s complement,
eg:- To find the 1 ‘s complement of 21 +21 = 00010101
To get the 1 ‘s complement change all 0 to 1 and all 1 to 0.
– 21 = 11101010
1’s complement of 21 is 11101010
3) 2’s Complement Representation : To get the 2’s complement of a binary number, just add 1 to its 1’s complement +ve number has no 2’s complement.
eg:- To find the 2’s complement of 21
+21 = 00010101
First lake the 1’s complement for this change all 1 to 0 and all 0 to 1

2’s complement of 21 is 1110 1011

Question 19.
Match the following.

Answer:
1-b
2-f
3-a
4-c
5-d
6-e

Question 20.
Pick invalid numbers from the following.
i) (10101 )₈
ii) (123)₄
iii) (768)₈
iv) (ABC)₁₆
Answer:
i) (10101 )₈ – Valid
ii) (123)₄ – Valid
iii) (768)₈ – Invalid. Octal number system does not contain the symbol 8
iv) (ABC)₁₆ – Valid

Question 21.
Find the largest number in the list
i) (1001 )₂
ii) (A)₁₆
iii) (10)₈
iv) (11)₁₀
Answer:
Convert all numbers into decimal

Question 22.
If (11011)₂ = (A)₈ = (B)₁₆ = (c)₁₀.
Find the value of A, B and C.
Answer:
i) To find the value of A, First divide the binary number (11011)₂ into groups of 3 bits (starting from the right) Then write down the corresponding octal number of each group for this insert a zero (0) in the left side of the binary number.

ii) To find the value of B, First divide the binary number (11011)₂ into groups of 4 bits (starting from the right). Then write down the corresponding.
Hexa decimal equivalent of each group. For this insert 3 zeroes in the left side of the binary number.

iii) To find the value of C find the decimal equivalent so as to do the following.

Question 23.
(i), Binary representation of +38 is 00100110. Which of the following is the 2’s compliment representation of -38?
a) 11011001
b) 00100111
c) 11011010
d) 11011011
ii) If the Octal representation of decimal number X is (64)8. Find the hexa decimal equivalent of X.
Answer:
i) (c) 11011010
ii) Step 1 : First convert the octal number (64)₈ into binary for this write down the 3 bit binary equivalent

Step II:- The obtained binary number is divided into groups of 4 bits, starting from the right. For this insert 2 zeroes in the left side. After that write down the corresponding Hexa decimal number .

Question 24.
Convert the decimal number 29 into binary. Using sign and magnitude form arid 1 ’s complement form represent +29 and -29 in memory in 8-bit word length?
Answer:

A computer with 8 bit word length, sign and magnitude representation of +29 is (00011101)₂ and -29 is (10011101)₂.
1 ’s complement form of (-29) is (11100010)₂.
Note : To find the 1 ’s complement of (+29), change all ones to zeroes and all zeroes to ones.

Question 25.
Data processing refers to the activities performed on dafa to generate information. List the stages of data processing.
Answer:
Data processing phases (6)
a) Capturing data – In this step acquire or collect data from the user to input into the computer.
b) Input- It is the next step. In this step appropriate data is extracted and feed into the computer.
c) Storage – The data entered into the computer must be stored before starting the processing.
d) Processing /Manipulating data – It is a laborious work. It consists of various steps like computations, classification, comparison, summarization etc. that converts input into output.
e) Output of information – In this stage we will get the results as information after processing the data.
f) Distribution of information – in this phase the information(result) will be given to the concerned persons / computers.

Question 26.
a) Convert (1010.11)₂ to decimal.
b) Find the missing terms in the following series.
Answer:

Plus One Computer Application Fundamentals of Computer 5 Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the components of Data processing
Answer:
Data processing consists of the techniques of sorting, relating, interpreting and computing items of data in order to convert meaningful information. The components of data processing are given below.
a) Capturing data – In this step acquire or collect data from the user to input into the computer.
b) Input – It is the next step. In this step appropriate data is extracted and feed into the computer.
c) Storage – The data entered into the computer must be stored before starting the processing.
d) Processing / Manipulating data – It is a laborious work. It consists of various steps like computations, classification, comparison, summarization, etc. that converts input into output.
e) Output of information – In this stage we will get the results as information after processing the data.
f) Distribution of information – In this phase the information(result) will be given to the concerned persons / computers.

Question 2.
Define computer. What are the characteristics?
Answer:
A computer is an electronic device used to perform operations at very high speed and accuracy. Following are the characteristics of the computer.
1) Speed : It can perform operations at a high speed.
2) Accuracy : It produces result at a high degree . of accuracy.
3) Diligence: Unlike human beings, a computer is
free from monotony, tiredness, lack of concentration etc. We know that it is an electronic machine. Hence it can work four hours without making any errors.
4) Versatility: it is capable of performing many tasks. It is useful in many fields.
5) Power of Remembering: A computer consists of huge amount of memory. So it can store and recall any amount of information. Unlike human beings it can store huge amount of data and can be retrieved when needed.

Disadvantages of computer

(1)No. IQ : It has no intelligent quotient. Hence they are slaves and human beings are the masters. It can’t take its own decisions.
(2) No feelings: Since they are machines they have no feelings and instincts. They can perform tasks based upon the instructions given by the humans (programmers)

Students can Download Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation Notes, Plus One Business Studies Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Notes Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation

Plus One Business Studies Chapter 2 Notes Contets

• Sole Proprietorship – Meaning – Features Advantages & Disadvantages
• Joint Hindu Family Business (H.U.F) – Meaning – Features – Advantages & Disadvantages
• Partnership – Meaning – Features – Advantages & Disadvantages – Types of Partners – Types of Partnership – Partnership Deed – Registration
• Co operative Society – Meaning – Features Advantages & Disadvantages – Types of Co-operative Societies
• Joint Stock Company- Meaning – Features – Advantages & Disadvantages – Types of Companies-Choice of form of Business organisation

Various forms of business organisations are:

(a) Sole proprietorship,
(b) Joint Hindu family business,
(c) Partnership,
(d) Cooperative societies, and
(e) Joint stock company.

Plus One Business Studies Chapter 2 Sole proprietorship:
Sole proprietorship refers to a form of business organization which is owned, managed and controlled by an individual who is the recipient of all profits and bearer of all risks. It is the most common form of business organization.
Features:

1. The sole trader is the single owner and manager of the business.
2. The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.
3. The liability of a sole trader is unlimited, i.e. in case of loss, his personal properties can be used to pay the business liabilities.
4. The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the sole proprietor. If there is any loss it is also to be borne by the sole proprietor alone.
5. The sole trader has full control over the affairs of the business. So he can take quick decisions.
6. A sole trading concern has no legal existence separate from its owner.
7. The death, insolvency etc. of a sole trader causes discontinuity of business.

Merits:
1. Easy formation:
The formation of a sole proprietorship is very easy. There are no legal formalities to form and close a sole proprietorship.

2. Quick Decision:

The sole trader has full control over the affairs of the business. So he can take quick decisions and prompt actions in all business matters.

3. Motivation:
The entire profit of the sole trading business goes to the sole proprietor. It motivates him to work hard.

4. Secrecy:
A sole trader can keep all the information related to business operations and he is not bound to publish firm’s accounts.

5. Close Personal Relation:

The sole proprietor can maintain good personal contact with the customers and employees and thus, business runs smoothly.

Advantage And Disadvantage Of Cooperative Society Limitations

1. Limited capital: A sole trader can start business only on a small scale because of limited capital.
2. Lack of Continuity: Death, insolvency or illness of a proprietor affects the business and can lead to its closure.
3. Limited managerial ability: A sole proprietor may not be an expert in every aspect of management.
4. Unlimited liability: The liability of a sole trader is unlimited, i.e. in case of loss, his personal properties can be used to pay off the business liabilities.
5. Suitability: Sole proprietorship is suitable in the following cases.
   • Where the market is limited, localized and customers demand personalized services. Eg. tailoring, beauty parlour etc.
   • Where goods are unstandardized like artistic jewellery.
   • Where lower capital, limited risk & limited managerial skills are required as in case of retail store.

Joint Hindu Family Business (HUF):
It refers to a form of organisation where in the business is owned and carried on by the members of a joint Hindu family. It is also known as Hindu Undivided Family Business (H.U.F). It is governed by Hindu succession Act, 1956. It is found only in India.

The business is controlled by the head of the family who is the eldest member and is called karta. All members have equal ownership right over the property of an ancestor and they are known as co-parceners.

Features
1. Formation:
For a Joint Hindu family business there should be at least two members in the family and some ancestral property to be inherited by them.

2. Membership:

Membership by virtue of birth in the family.

3. Liability:
The Karta has unlimited liability. Every other coparcener has a limited liability up to his share in the HUF property.

4. Control:
The control of the family business lies with the karta. He takes all the decisions and is authorised to manage the business.

5. Continuity:

The business is not affected by the death of the Karta as in such cases the next senior male member becomes the Karta.

6. Minor Members:
The basis of membership in the business is birth in the family. Hence, minors can also be members of the business.

Merits
1. Effective control:
The karta has absolute decision making power. This avoids conflicts among members

2. Continuity of business:
The death of the karta will not affect the business as the next eldest member will then take up the position

3. Limited liability of members:
The liability of all the co-parceners except the karta is limited to their share in the business.

4. Increased loyalty:
Members are likely to work with dedication, loyalty and care, because the work involves the family name.

Limitation
1. Limited capital:
The capital of HUF is limited since the ancestral property only can be used for the business. This reduces the scope for business growth.

2. Unlimited liability:
The liability of Karta is unlimited. His personal property can be used to repay business debts.

3. Dominance of karta:
There is a possibility of differences of opinion among the members of the Joint Family. It may affect the stability of the business.

4. Limited managerial skills:
The karta may not be an expert in all areas of management. It may affect the profitability of the business.

Advantages And Disadvantages Of Cooperative Society Partnership:
The Indian Partnership Act, 1932 defines partnership as “the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profit of the business carried on by all or any one of them acting for all.”
Features

1. Formation: For the formation of a partnership, agreement between partners is essential.
2. Liability: The partners of a firm have unlimited liability. The partners are jointly and individually liable for payment of debts.
3. Risk bearing: The profit or loss shall be shared among the partners equally or in agreed ratio.
4. Decision making and control: The activities of a partnership firm are managed through the joint efforts of all the partners.
5. Lack of Continuity: The retirement, death, insolvency, insanity etc of any partner brings the firm to an end.
6. Membership: There must be at least two persons to form a partnership. The maximum number of persons is ten in banking business and twenty in non banking business.
7. Mutual agency: In partnership, every partner is both an agent and a principal.

Merits of Partnership:

1. Easy formation and closure:
A partnership firm can be formed and closed easily without any legal formalities.

2. Balanced decision making:
In partnership, decisions are taken by all partners. So they can take better decisions regarding their business.

3. Division of labour:
Division of labour is possible in partnership firm. Duties can be assigned to different partners according to their ability.

4. Large funds:
In a partnership, the capital is contributed by a number of partners. So they can start business on a large scale.

5. Sharing of risk:
The risks involved in running a partnership firm are shared by all the partners. This reduces the anxiety, burden and stress on individual partners..

6. Secrecy:
A partnership firm is not legally required to publish its accounts and submit its reports. Hence it can maintain confidentiality of information relating to its operations.

Limitations of Partnership:
1. Unlimited liability:
The partners of a firm have unlimited liability. The partners are jointly and individually liable for payment of debts.

2. Limited resources:
There is a restriction on the number of partners. Hence capital contributed by them is also limited.

3. Possibility of conflicts:
Lack of mutual understanding and co-operation among partners may affect the smooth working of the partnership business.

4. Lack of continuity:
The retirement, death, insolvency, insanity etc of any partner brings the firm to an end.

5. Lack of public confidence:
A partnership firm is not legally required to publish its financial reports. As a result, the confidence of the public in partnership firms is generally low.

Business Studies Class 12 Notes Chapter 2 Types of Partners:
1. Active partner:
A partner who contribute capital and takes active part in the business is called an active partner.

2. Sleeping (Dormant partner):
Partners who do not take part in the day to day activities of the business are called sleeping partners. He contributes capital, share profits and losses and has unlimited liability.

3. Secret partner:
A secret partner is one whose association with the firm is unknown to the general public. He contributes to the capital, takes part in the management, shares its profits and losses, and has unlimited liability.

4. Nominal partner (Quasi Partner):
A nominal partner neither contributes capital nor takes any active part in the management of the business. He simply lend his name to the firm. But, he is liable to third parties for all the debts of the firm.

5. Partner by estoppel:
If a partner by his talk or action leads others to believe that he is a partner in a firm, then he is known as partner by estoppel. However, he is liable to third parties.

6. Partner by holding out:
if a partner declares that a particular person is a partner of their firm, and such a person does not disclaim it, then he/she is known as ‘Partner by Holding out’. Such partners are not entitled to profits but are liable to third parties.

7. Minor Partner:
A minor can be admitted to the benefits of a partnership firm with the mutual consent of all other partners. In such cases, his liability will be limited to the extent of the capital contributed by him.

He will not be eligible to take an active part in the management of the firm. But, a minor can share only the profits and cannot be asked to bear the losses. However, he can inspect the accounts of the firm.

Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 2 Notes Types of Partnerships:
On the basis of duration, there are two types of partnerships:

1. Partnership at will
2. Particular partnership

1. Partnership at will:
This type of partnership exists at the will of the partners. It can continue as long as the partners want and is terminated when any partner gives a notice of withdrawal from partnership to the firm.

2. Particular partnership:
Partnership formed for the accomplishment of a particular project or for a specified time period is called particular partnership.

On the basis of liability, the two types of partnerships are:

1. General partnership
2. Limited partnership

1. General Partnership:
In general partnership, the liability of partners is joint and unlimited. Registration of the firm is optional. The existence of the firm is affected by the death, lunacy, insolvency or retirement of the partners.

2. Limited Partnership:
In limited partnership, the liability of at least one partner is unlimited whereas the rest may have limited liability. Registration of such partnership is compulsory. Such a partnership does not get terminated with the death, lunacy or insolvency of the limited partners. This form of partnership is permitted in India after the introduction of Small Enterprise Policy in 1991.

Class 11th Business Studies Chapter 2 Notes Partnership Deed:
The written agreement which specifies the terms and conditions that govern the partnership is called the partnership deed;
Contents

1. Name of firm
2. Nature of business and location of business
3. Duration of business
4. Investment made by each partner
5. Profit sharing ratio
6. Rights, duties and powers of the partners
7. Salaries and withdrawals of the partners
8. Terms governing admission, retirement and expulsion of a partner
9. Interest on capital and interest on drawings
10. Procedure for dissolution of the firm
11. Preparation of accounts and their auditing
12. Method of solving disputes

Registration of partnership:
According to Indian Partnership Act 1932, registration of a partnership is not compulsory, it is optional. However, they can register with the Registrar of firms of the state in which the firm is situated.
Procedure for Registration:

1. 1. Submission of application in the prescribed form to the Registrar of firms. The application should contain the following particulars:
   • Name of the firm
   • Location of the firm
   • Names of other places where the firm carries on business
   • The date when each partner joined the firm
   • Names and addresses of the partners
   • Duration of partnership. This application should be signed by all the partners.
2. Deposit of required fees with the Registrar of Firms.
3. The Registrar after approval will make an entry in the register of firms and will subsequently issue a certificate of registration. The consequences of non-registration of a firm are as follows:
   • A partner of an unregistered firm cannot file suit against the firm or other partner.
   • The firm cannot file a suit against third party.
   • The firm cannot file a case against its partner.

Business Studies Class 11 Notes Chapter 2 Co-operative Society:
The cooperative society is a voluntary association of persons, who join together with the motive of welfare of the members. The basis of co-operation is self help through mutual help, the motto is “each for all and all for each”.

The cooperative society is compulsorily required to be registered under the Cooperative Societies Act 1912. At least ten persons are required to form a society. The capital of a society is raised from its members through issue of shares.

Features:
The important features of a co-operative society are:

1. Voluntary membership: The membership of a cooperative society is voluntary. Membership is open to all, irrespective of their religion, caste, and gender.
2. Legal status: Registration of a cooperative society is compulsory.
3. Limited liability: The liability of the members of a cooperative society is limited to the extent of the amount contributed by them as capital.
4. Control: Management and control lies with the managing committee elected by the members.
5. Service motive: ‘Self help through mutual help’ or ‘each for all and’ all for each’ is the foundation of co-operative society.

Merits:

1. Equality in voting status: The principle of ‘one man one vote’governs the cooperative society.
2. Limited liability: The liability of members of a cooperative society is limited to the extent of their capital contribution.
3. Stable existence: Death, insolvency or insanity of the members do not affect continuity of a cooperative society.
4. Economy in operations: Co-operative society aims to eliminate middlemen. This helps in reducing cost.
5. Support from government: A co-operative society gets support from the government in the form of low taxes, subsidies and low interest rates on loans.
6. Easy formation: The cooperative society can be started with a minimum often members. Its registration procedure is simple involving a few legal formalities

Limitations:

1. Limited resources:
Resources of a cooperative society consists of limited capital contributions of the members.

2. Inefficiency in management:
Cooperative societies are unable to attract and employ expert managers because of their inability to pay them high salaries.

3. Lack of secrecy:
As a result of open discussions in the meetings of members it is difficult to maintain secrecy about the operations of a cooperative society.’

4. Government control:
cooperative societies have to comply with several rules and regulations related to auditing of accounts, submission of accounts, etc. It affects its freedom of operations.

5. Differences of opinion:
The different viewpoints of members in a co-operative society may lead to difficulties in decision making.

Class 11 Bst Chapter 2 Notes Types of co-operative society:
1. Consumer’s cooperative societies:
The consumer cooperative societies are formed to protect the interests of consumers. The society aims at eliminating middlemen to achieve economy in operations. It purchases goods in bulk directly from the wholesalers and sells goods to the members at the lowest price.

2. Producer’s cooperative societies:
These societies are set up to protect the interest of small producers. It supplies raw materials, equipment and other inputs to the members and also buys their output for sale.

3. Marketing cooperative societies:
Such societies are established to help small producers in selling their Products. It collects the output of individual members and sell them at the best possible price. Profits are distributed to members.

4. Farmer’s cooperative societies:
These societies . are established to protect the interests of farmers by providing better inputs at a reasonable cost. Such societies provide better quality seeds, fertilizers, machinery and other modern techniques for use in the cultivation of crops.

5. Credit cooperative societies:
Credit cooperative societies are established for providing easy credit on reasonable terms to the members. Such societies provide loans to members at low rates of interest.

Joint Stock company:
A company may be defined as a voluntary association of persons having a separate legal entity, with perpetual succession and a common seal. It is an artificial person created by law. The companies in India are governed by the Indian . Companies Act, 1956.

The capital of the company is divided into smaller parts called ‘shares’ which can be transferred freely, (except in a private company). The shareholders are the owners of the company. The company is managed by Board of Directors, elected by shareholders.
Features:
1. Incorporated association:
A company is an incorporated association, i.e. Registration of a company is compulsory under the Indian Companies Act, 1956.

2. Separate legal entity:
A company is an artificial person created by law. Company has a separate legal entity apart from its members. It can enter into contracts, own property, sue and be sued, borrow and lend money etc.

3. Formation:
The formation of a company is a time consuming, expensive and complicated process.

4. Perpetual succession:
A company has a continuous existence. Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders. Members may come and go, but the company continues to exist.

5. Control:
The management and control of the affairs of the company is in the hands of Board of directors who are elected the representatives of the shareholders.

6. Liability:
The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of shares held by them.

7. Common seal:
The Company being an artificial person acts through its Board of Directors. All documents issued by the company must be authenticated by the company seal.

8. Transferability of shares:
Shares of a joint stock company are freely transferable except in case of a private company.

Merits:

1. Limited liability:
The liability of the shareholders is limited to the extent of the face value of shares held by them. This reduces the degree of risk borne by an investor.

2. Transferability of shares:
Shares of a public company are freely transferable . It provides liquidity to the investor.z

3. Perpetual existence:
A company has a continuous existence. Its existence not affected by death, insolvency or insanity of shareholders.

4. Scope for expansion:
A company has large financial resources. So it can start business on a large scale.

5. Professional management:
A company can afford to pay higher salaries to specialists and professionals. This leads to greater efficiency in the company’s operations.

6. Public confidence:
A company must publish its audited annual accounts. So it enjoys public confidence.

Limitations:

1. Difficulty in formation:
The formation of a company is very difficult. It requires greater time, effort and extensive knowledge of legal requirements.

2. Lack of secrecy:
It is very difficult to maintain secrecy in case of public company, as company is required to publish its annual accounts and reports.

3. Impersonal work:
It is difficult for the owners and top management to maintain personal contact with the employees, customers and creditors.

4. Numerous regulations:
The functioning of a company is subject to many legal provisions and compulsions. This reduces the freedom of operations of a company.

5 Delay in decision making:
A company takes important decisions by holding company meetings. It requires a lot of time.

6. Oligarchic management:
Theoretically, a company is democratically managed but actually it is managed by few people, i.e board of directors. The Board of Directors enjoy considerable freedom in exercising their power which they sometimes ignore the interest of the shareholders.

7. Conflict in interests:
There may be conflict of interest amongst various stakeholders of a company. It affects the smooth functioning of the company.

8. Lack of motivation:
The company is managed by board of directors. They have little interest to protect the interest of the company.

Types of Companies:
A company can be either a private or a public company.
Private Company:
A private company means a company which:

1. restricts the right of members to transfer its shares
2. has a minimum of 2 and a maximum of 50 members
3. does not invite public to subscribe to its share capital
4. must have a minimum paid up capital of Rs.1 lakh

It is necessary for a private company to use the word private limited after its name.

Privileges of a private company:

1. A private company can be formed by only two members.
2. There is no need to issue a prospectus
3. Allotment of shares can be done without receiving the minimum subscription.
4. A private company can start business as soon . as it receives the certificate of incorporation.
5. A private company needs to have only two directors.
6. A private company is not required to keep an index of members.
7. There is no restriction on the amount of loans to directors in a private company.

Public Company:
A public company means a company which is not a private company. As perthe Indian Companies Act, a public company is one which:

1. has a minimum paid-up capital of Rs. 5 lakhs
2. has a minimum of 7 members and no limit on maximum members
3. can transfer its shares
4. can invite the public to subscribe to its shares.

A private company which is a subsidiary of a public company is also treated as a public company. A public company’must use the word limited after its name

Difference between a public company and private company:

A Comparative assessment of different forms of business organisation:

Choice of business organisation:
The important factors determining the choice of organization are:
1. Cost and Ease of formation:
From the point of view of cost, sole proprietorship is the preferred form as it involves least expenditure and the legal requirements are minimum. Company form of organisation, is more complex and involves greater costs.

2. Liability:
In case of sole proprietorship and partnership firms, the liability of the owners/ partners is unlimited. In cooperative societies and companies, the liability is limited. Hence, from the point of view of investors, the company form of organisation is more suitable as the risk involved is limited.

3. Continuity:
The continuity of sole proprietorship and partnership firms is affected by death, insolvency or insanity of the owners. However, such factors do not affect the continuity of cooperative societies and companies. In case the business needs a permanent structure, company form is more suitable.

4. Management ability:
If the organisation’s operations are complex in nature and require professionalized management, company form of organisation is a better alternative.

5. Capital:
If the scale of operations is large, company form may be suitable whereas for medium and small sized business one can opt for partnership or sole proprietorship.

6. Degree of control:
If direct control over business and decision making power is required, proprietorship may be preferred. But if the owners do not mind sharing control and decision making, partnership or company form of organisation can be adopted.

7. Nature of business:
If direct personal contact is needed with the customers, Sole proprietorship may be more suitable. Otherwise, the company form of organisation may be adopted.

Students can Download Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane Questions and Answers, Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane

Plus One Physics Motion in a Plane One Mark Questions and Answers

Motion In A Plane Previous Questions And Answers Chapter 4 Question 1.
A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100m. With the same speed how much high above the ground can the cricketer throw the same ball?
(a) 200m
(b) 150m
(c) 100m
(d) 50m
Answer:
(d) 50m
R_max = \(\frac{u^{2}}{g}\)
100 = \(\frac{u^{2}}{g}\) or u² = 100g
Using, v² = u² + 2as
0 = (100g) + 2(-g)h or h = 50m.

Motion In A Plane Previous Year Questions Chapter 4 Question 2.
If vectors \(\hat{\mathrm{i}}-3 \hat{\mathrm{j}}+5 \hat{\mathrm{k}}\) and \(\hat{\mathrm{i}}-3 \hat{\mathrm{j}}-\mathrm{ak}\) are equal vectors, then the value of a is
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) -3
(d) -5
Answer:
(d) Comparing vector, we get = \(+5 \hat{k}=-a \hat{k}\)
a = -5.

Motion In A Plane Questions And Answers Chapter 4 Question 3.
State which of the following algebraic operations are not meaningful
(a) Addition of a scalar to a vector
(b) Multiplication of any two scalars.
(c) Multiplication of vector by scalar
(d) Division of a vector by scalar Addition of a scalar to a vector
Answer:
(a) Addition of a scalar to a vector

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Chapter 4 Question 4.
What is the acceleration of train travelling at 40ms^-1 as it goes round a curve of 160m radius?
Answer:
a = \(\frac{v^{2}}{r}=\frac{40 \times 40}{160}\) = ms^-2.

Plus One Physics Important Questions And Answers Pdf Chapter 4 Question 5.
What provides centripetal force in the following cases.

1. Electron revolving around nucleus.
2. Earth revolving around sun

Answer:

1. Electrostatic force
2. Gravitational force

Hsslive Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Chapter 4 Question 6.
Why a cyclist has to bend inwards while going on a circular track?
Answer:
The cyclist bends inwards to provide required centripetal force.

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Hsslive Chapter 4 Question 7.
A body executing uniform circular motion has constant
(i) velocity
(ii) acceleration
(iii) speed
(iv) angular velocity
Answer:
(iii) speed

Motion In A Plane Class 11 Question Bank Pdf Chapter 4 Question 8.
Name a quantity which remains unchanged during projectile motion.
Answer:
Horizontal component.

Motion In A Plane Questions And Answers Pdf Chapter 4 Question 9.
What is the effect of air resistance in time of flight and horizontal range?
Answer:
The effect of air resistance is to increase time of flight and decrease horizontal range.

Motion In A Plane Class 11 Important Questions Chapter 4 Question 10.
What is the angle between directions of velocity and acceleration at the highest point of trajectory of projectile?
Answer:
At the highest point velocity is horizontal and acceleration is vertical. So angle is 90°.

Motion In A Plane Class 11 Questions And Answers Pdf Chapter 4 Question 11.
Can a body have constant velocity and still have a varying speed?
Answer:
No.
If velocity is constant, speed also will be constant.

Important Questions Of Motion In A Plane Class 11 Chapter 4 Question 12.
Can a body have zero velocity, still accelerating?
Answer:
Yes.
When a body is at highest point of motion, its velocity is zero but acceleration is equal to acceleration due to gravity.

Motion In A Plane Class 11 Solved Problems Chapter 4 Question 13.
A quantity has both magnitude and direction. Is it necessarily a vector? Give an example.
Answer:
No. The given quantity will be a vector only if it obeys laws of vector addition.
Example: Current.

Motion In A Plane Class 11 Solved Problems Pdf Chapter 4 Question 14.
What is the angle between \(\vec{A} \times \vec{B}\) and \(\vec{B} \times \vec{A}\) ?
Answer:
These two vectors will be antiparallel. Hence θ = 180°.

Plus One Physics Motion in a Plane Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A particle is projected with a velocity u so that its horizontal range is twice the greatest hieght attained. The horizontal range is
(a) \(\frac{u^{2}}{g}\)
(b) \(\frac{2 u^{2}}{g}\)
(c) \(\frac{4 u^{2}}{5g}\)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Horizontal range, R = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\);
Maximum height, H = \(\frac{u^{2} \sin ^{2} \theta}{2 g}\)
As per question, R = 2H

or sin2θ = sin²θ
or 2sinθcosθ = sin²θ or tanθ = 2
Hence, sinθ = \(\left(\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}\right)\) and cosθ = \(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}\right)\)
Horizontal range, R = \(\frac{2 u^{2} \sin \theta \cos \theta}{g}\)

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.
Choose the correct alternative given below. A Particle executing uniform circular motion. Then its
(a) Velocity and acceleration are radial.
(b) Velocity and acceleration are tangential.
(c) Velocity is tangential, acceleration is radial.
(d) Velocity is radial, acceleration is tangential.
(e) In a circus, a rider rides in a circular track of radius Y in a vertical plane. The minimum velocity at the highest point of the track will be

• \(\sqrt{2 g r}\)
• \(\sqrt{ g r}\)
• \(\sqrt{3 g r}\)
• 0

Answer:
(c) Velocity is tangential, acceleration is radial.
(e) \(\sqrt{ g r}\)

Question 4.
Two non-zero vectors \(\bar{A}\) and \(\bar{B}\) are such that \(|\bar{A}+\bar{B}|=|\bar{A}-\bar{B}|\). Find the angle between them.
Answer:
\(|\bar{A}+\bar{B}|=|\bar{A}-\bar{B}|\)
|A² + B² + 2ABcosθ| = |A² + B² – 2ABcosθ|
|4ABcosθ| = 0
Since A and B are non-zero we get, cos θ = 0 or θ = 90°.

Question 5.
Consider a particle moving along the circumference of a circle of radius R with constant speed with a time period T.

1. During T, what is the distance coverd and displacement?
2. What is the direction of the velocity at each point?

Answer:

1. Distance = 2πR. Displacement = 0
2. Tangent to the circle at every point.

Question 6.
Classify into scalars and vectors. Frequency, velocity gradient, instantaneous velocity, Area.
Answer:

Question 7.
A body is projected so that it has maximum range R. What is the maximum height reached during the fight?
Answer:
At maximum range, θ = 45°

Plus One Physics Motion in a Plane Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An electron of mass ‘m’ moves with a uniform speed v around the nucleus along a circular radius Y.

1. Derive an expression for the acceleration of the electron.
2. Explain why the speed of electron does not increase even though it is accelerated by the above acceleration.

Answer:
1.

The acceleration is directed towards the centre of the circle and is called centripetal acceleration.
a₀ = \(\frac{v^{2}}{R}\)
But V = Rω
Substituting we get
a_c = Rω²

2. The direction of centripetal force is towards the centre. The angle between force and displacement is 90°. Hence the work done by the centripetal force is zero. So speed does not increase.

Question 2.
A boy pulls his friend in a home made trolley by means of a rope inclined at 30° to the horizontal. If the tension in the rope is 400N.

1. Draw the vertical and horizontal components of tension in the rope.
2. Find the effective force pulling the trolley along the ground.
3. Find the force tending to lift the trolley off the ground.

Answer:
1.

2. Effective horizontal force = T Cos30°
= 400 × Cos 30°

3. Vertical force = T Sin 30°
= 400 × Sin 30°

Question 3.
A stone tied to the end of a string is whirled in a horizontal circle with constant speed.

1. Name the acceleration experienced by the stone.
2. Arrive at an equation for magnitude of acceleration experienced by the stone.

Answer:
1. Centripetal acceleration

2.

The acceleration is directed towards the centre of the circle and is called centripetal acceleration.
a₀ = \(\frac{v^{2}}{R}\)
But V = Rω
Substituting we get
a_c = Rω²

Plus One Physics Motion in a Plane Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two balls are released simultaneously from a certain height, one is allowed to fall freely and other thrown with some horizontal velocity.

1. Will they hit the ground together?
2. At any time during the fall will the velocities of the balls are same?
3. How does the path of the balls appear to a person standing on the ground?

Answer:

1. Both balls will reach at same time.
2. Total velocity of first body and second body is different. First ball has only downward velocity but second ball has both downward and horizontal velocity.
3. The path of first ball appears to be straight line and that of second ball appears to be parabola.

Question 2.
A ball is thrown straight up.

1. Obtain a mathematical expression for the height to which it travels.
2. What js its velocity and acceleration at the top?
3. Draw the velocity-time graph for the ball showing its motion up and down.

Answer:
1. u = u, v = o, a = -g, h = ?
We can find maximum height using the equation
v² = u² + 2as
0 = u² + 2 × – g × H
2gh = u²
H = \(\frac{u^{2}}{2 g}\)

2. Velocity is zero, but it has a acceleration and its value g = 9.8 m/s².

3.

Question 3.

1. Parallelogram law helps to find the magnitude and direction of the resultant of two forces. State the law.
2. For two vectors \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) are acting at a point with an angle a between them, find the magnitude and direction of the resultant vector.
3. What will be the angle between two vectors of equal magnitude for their resultant to have the same magnitude as one of the vectors?

Answer:
1. Law of parallelogram of vectors:
If two vectors acting simultaneously at a point are represented in magnitude and direction by the two adjacent sides of a parallelogram then the diagonal of the parallelogram passing through that point represents the resultant in magnitude and direction.

2.

Consider two vectors \(\vec{A}(=\overrightarrow{O P}) \text { and } \vec{B}(=\overrightarrow{O Q})\) making an angle θ. Using the parallelogram method of vectors, the resultant vector R can be written as,

SN is normal to OP and PM is normal to OS. From the geometry of the figure
OS² = ON² + SN²
but ON = OP + PN
ie. OS² = (OP+PN)² + SN² ______(1)
From the triangle SPN, we get
PN = Bcosθ and SN = Bsinθ
Substituting these values in eq.(1), we get
OS² = (OP + Bcosθ)² + (Bsinθ)²
But OS = R and OP = A
= A² + 2ABcosθ + B²cos²θ + B²sin²θ
² = A² +2 ABcosθ + B²
R = \(\sqrt{A^{2}+2 A B \cos \theta+B^{2}}\)
The resultant vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) make an angle a with \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\). From the right angled triangle OSN,

But SN = Bsinθ and PN = Bcosθ

3. 120°

Question 4.
A ball of mass m is projected at an angle with the ground and it is found that its kinetic energy at the highest point is 75% of that at the point of projection.

1. Is it a one dimensional or a two-dimensional motion? Why?
2. Find the angle of projection
3. Determine another angle of projection which produces the same range.

Answer:
1. Two-dimensional motion. Projectile has two dimensions.

2. The K.E at highest point
E_k = E cos²θ,
where E = initial K.E
0.75 E = E cos²θ
cos²θ = 0.75 = 3/4
cosθ = \(\sqrt{3} / 2\)
θ = 60°

3. When an object is projected with velocity ‘u’ making an angle θ to with the horizontal direction, the horizontal range will be
R₁ = \(\frac{u^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{g}\) ____(1)
when an object is projected with velocity u making an angle (90° – θ) with the horizontal direction, then horizontal range will be

From eq (1) eq (2), we get R₁ = R₂, which means that we get same horizontal range for two angles θ and (90 – θ).

Question 5.
“The graphical method of adding vectors helps us in visualizing the vectors and the resultant vector. But, sometimes, it is tedious and has limited accuracy”.

1. Name the alternative method of vector addition.
2. Write a mathematical expression to find resultant of two vectors.
3. A particle is moving eastward with a velocity of 5m/s. |f in 10s, the velocity changes by 5 m/s northwards, what is the average acceleration in this time.

Answer:
1. Analytical method of vector addition.

2. R = \(\sqrt{A^{2}+B^{2}+2 A B \cos \theta}\)

3. Change in velocity

Average acceleration

Question 6.

Answer:

Question 7.
A projectile is an object projected into air with a velocity V so that it is moving under the influence of gravity.

1. What is the shape of the path of projectile?
2. As a projectile moves in its path, is there any point along the path where the velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other
3. If E is energy with a projectile is projected.

(i) What is the Kinetic energy at the highest point.
(ii) What is P.E at highest point?

Answer:
1. Parabola

2. Yes, highest point

3. Energy with a projectile is projected:
(i) Kinetic energy E_k = 1/2mv²
Velocity at the highest point = Vcosθ
∴ K.E. at highest point = 1/2m(Vcosθ)²
= 1/2 mv²cos²θ
K.E. = E_k cos²θ

(ii) Potential energy at highest point,
P.E. = mgh
= mg\(\frac{v^{2} \sin ^{2} \theta}{2 g}\) = 1/2mv²sin²θ
P.E. = E_k sin²θ.

Plus One Physics Motion in a Plane Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An object is projected with velocity U at an angle θ to the horizontal.

1. Obtain a mathematical expression for the range in the horizontal plane.
2. What are the conditions to obtain maximum horizontal range?
3. Find the maximum height of the object when its path makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal (velocity of projection = 8 ms^-1)

Answer:
1. If we neglect the air resistance, the horizontal velocity (ucosθ) of projectile will be a constant. Hence the horizontal distance (R) can be found as
R = horizontal velocity × time of flight

2. when θ = 45° we get maximum horizontal range

3. Height H

Question 2.
The path of projectile from A is shown in the figure. M is the mass of the particle.

When the particle moves from A to M.

1. a) What is the change in vertical velocity?
2. b) What is the change in speed?
3. What is the change in linear momentum?
4. The ceiling of a long hall is 25m high. What is the maximum horizontal distance that a ball thrown with a speed of 40 ms^-1 can go without hitting the ceiling of the hall?

Answer:
1.

When the particle reaches at M, the vertical component of velocity becomes zero.
change in vertical velocity = u sinθ – 0
= u sinθ

2. change in speed = u cosθ – u

3. change in momentum = mu sinθ – 0
= mu sinθ

4.

θ = 33°48¹
The horizontal range of the ball is

Question 3.
A particle moving uniformly along a circle, experiences a force directed towards the centre and an equal and opposite force directed away from the centre.

1. Name the two forces directed towards and away from the centre.
2. Obtain an expression for the force directed towards the centre.
3. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop at a speed of 720 km hr^-1 with its wings banked at 15°. What is the radius of the loop?

Answer:
1. centripetal force and centrifugal force.

2.


force which produces this centripetal acceleration is called centripetal force.
Centripetal force can be written as F = ma.
F = m\(\frac{V^{2}}{R}\)

3. Speed of aircraft, 720 × \(\frac{5}{18}\) = 200 m/s
The velocity of aircraft, ν = \(\sqrt{r g \tan \theta}\)

Question 4.
A body is projected with a velocity ‘u’ in a direction making an angle θ with the horizontal.

1. Derive the mathematical equation of the path followed.
2. Draw the velocity-time graphs for the horizontal and vertical components of velocity of the projectile.
3. Obtain an expression for the time of flight of the projectile.

Answer:
1. The vertical displacement of projectile at any time t, can be found using the formula.
S = ut + 1/2at²
y = usinθt – 1/2gt²
But we know horizontal displacement,
x = ucosθxt

In this equation g, θ and u are constants. Hence eq.(4) can be written in the form
y = ax + bx²
where a and b are constants. This is the equation of parabola, ie. the path of the projectile is a parabola.

2.

3. The time taken by the projectile to cover the horizontal range is called the time of flight.
Time of flight of projectile is decided by usinθ. The time of flight can be found using the formula s = ut + 1/2 at²
Taking vertical displacement s = 0, a = -g and initial vertical velocity = usinθ, we get
0 = usinθt – 1/2gt²
1/2 gt² = usinθt
t = \(\frac{2 u \sin \theta}{g}\).

Question 5.
An object projected into air with a velocity is called a projectile.

1. What will be the range when the angle of projections are zero degrees and ninety degrees?
2. Show that fora projectile, the upward time of flight is equal to the downward time of flight.
3. At what angles will a projectile have the same range fora velocity?

Answer:
1. When θ = 0°
R = 0
When θ = 90°

2. Upward motion
u = u sinθ, a = -g, v = 0
V = u + at
0 = u sinθ + ^–gt
t_a = \(\frac{u \sin \theta}{g}\) ____(1)
Downward motion
u = 0, V= u sinθ, a = +g
V = u + at
u sinθ = 0 + gt
t_a = \(\frac{u \sin \theta}{g}\) ____(2)
eq (1) and (2), shows up ward time of flight is equal to downward time of flight.

3. θ, 90 – θ.

Question 6.
“An object that is in flight after being thrown or projected is called a projectile”.
1. Which of the following remains constant throughout the motion of the projectile?
(i) Vertical component of velocity
(ii) Horizontal component of velocity
2. Derive an expression for maximum range of a projectile.
3. Show that range of projection of a projectile for two angles of a projection a and (3 is same where α + β = 90°.

Answer:
1. (ii)

2. If we neglect the air resistance, the horizontal velocity (ucosθ) of projectile will be a constant. Hence the horizontal distance (R) can be found as
R = horizontal velocity × time of flight

3. Range of projectile R = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{\mathrm{g}}\)
Case – 1
at angle α,
R_α = \(\frac{\mathrm{u}^{2} \sin 2 \alpha}{\mathrm{g}}\) ____(1)
Case – 2
at an angle β,

From (1) and (2), we get
R_α = R_β

Question 7.
A bullet is fired with a velocity ‘u’ at an angle ‘θ’ with the horizontal such that it moves under the effect of gravity.

1. What is the nature of its trajectory.
2. Arrive at an expression for time of flight of the bullet.
3. What is the relation between time of ascent and time of decent, when air resistance is neglected.
4. How the relation is affected when air resistance . is considered.

Answer:
1. Parabola

2. The time taken by the projectile to cover the horizontal range is called the time of flight. Time of flight of projectile is decided by usinθ. The time of flight can be found using the formula s = ut + 1/2 at²
Taking vertical displacement s = 0, a = -g and initial vertical velocity = usinθ, we get
0 = usinθt – 1/2gt²
1/2 gt² = usinθt
t = \(\frac{2 u \sin \theta}{g}\).

3. Time of ascent = time of descent

4. Time of descent > time of ascent

Plus One Physics Motion in a Plane NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State for each of the following physical quantities, if it is a scalar or a vector:
Volume, mass, speed, acceleration, density, number of moles, velocity, angular frequency, displacement, angular velocity.
Answer:

• Scalars: Volume, mass, speed, density, number of moles and angular frequency.
• Vectors: acceleration, velocity, displacement, and angular velocity.

Question 2.
Pick out the two scalar quantities in the following list: force, angular momentum, work, current, linear momentum, electric field, average velocity, magnetic moment, relative velocity.
Answer:
Work, current.

Question 3.
State, with reasons, whether the following algebraic operations with scalar and vector physical quantities are meaningful:

1. Adding any two scalars.
2. Adding a scalar to a vector of the same dimensions
3. Multiplying any vector by any scalar
4. Multiplying any two scalars
5. Adding any two vectors
6. Adding a component of a vector to the same vector.

Answer:

1. No. Scalars must represent same physical quantity.
2. No. Vector can be added only to another vector.
3. Yes. When a vector is multiplied by any scalar, we get a vector.
4. Yes. In multiplication, scalars may not represent the same physical quantity.
5. No. The two vectors must represent the same physical quantity.
6. Yes. The vector and its component must have the same dimensions.

Question 4.
Pick out the only vector quantity in the following list: temperature, pressure, impulse, time, power, total path length, energy, gravitational potential, coefficient of friction, charge.
Answer:
Impulse.

Question 5.
Read each statement below carefully and state with reasons, if it is true or false:

1. The magnitude of a vector is always a scalar.
2. Each component of a vector is always a scalar.
3. The total path length is always equal to the magnitude of the displacement vector of a particle.
4. The average speed of a particle (defined as total path length divided by the time taken to cover the path) is either greater or equal to the magnitude of average velocity of the particle over the same interval of time.
5. Three vectors not lying in a plane can never add up to give a null vector.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True.

In order to give a null vector, the third vector should have the same magnitude and opposite direction to the resultant of two vectors.

Question 6.
A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park, then cycles along the circumference, and returns to the centre along QO as shown. If the round trip takes 10 minute, what is the

1. Net displacement.
2. Average velocity and
3. Average speed of the cyclist?

Answer:
1. Since both the initial and final positions are the same therefore the net displacement is zero.

2. Average velocity is the ratio of net displacement and total time taken. Since the net displacement is zero therefore the average velocity is also zero.

3. Average Speed

Question 7.
A passenger arriving in a new town wishes to go from the station to hotel located 10km away on a straight road from the station. A dishonest cabman takes him along a circuitous path 23 km long and reaches the hotel in 28 minute, what is

1. The average speed of the taxi
2. The magnitude of average velocity? Are the two equal?

Answer:
Magnitude of displacement = 10km
Total path length = 23km
Time taken = 28 min

Average Speed = \(\frac{23 \mathrm{km}}{\frac{7}{15} \mathrm{h}}\)
= 49.3 kmh^-1
Magnitude of average velocity

Students can Download Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence

Plus One Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Chapter 1 Question 1.
Who among the following attempted to estimate India’s national income for the pre-independence period.
(i) Dadabhai Navoroji
(ii) V.K.R.V. Rao
(iii) R.C. Desai
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Chapter 1 Question 2.
Zamindari system was introduced in India in:
(i) 1757
(ii) 1782
(iii) 1793
(iv) 1800
Answer:
(iii) 1793

Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Download Chapter 1 Question 3.
The theory of demographic transition has ____ stages.
(i) 2
(ii) 3
(iii) 4
(iv) 5
Answer:
(iii) 4

Plus One Economics Chapter 1 In Malayalam  Question 4.
Choose the correct answer.
The first all India population census was conducted in the year.
(i) 1965
(ii) 1870
(iii) 1872
(iv) 1882
Answer:
(iii) 1872

Plus One Economics Textbook Answers Chapter 1 Question 5.
Occupational structure refers to:
(i) number of workers living in a country
(ii) size of working population in the industrial sector
(iii) distribution of working population among different occupations
(iv) nature of different occupations in the economy.
Answer:
(iii) distribution of working population among different occupations

Plus One Economics Important Questions And Answers Chapter 1 Question 6.
When was India’s first official census operation undertaken?
Answer:
India’s first official census took place in 1881.

Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Malayalam Chapter 1 Question 7.
Per capita income means:
(i) National income / population
(ii) Population / national income
(iii) Total capital /population
(iv) None of these
Answer:
(i) National income / population

Plus One Economics Questions And Answers Chapter 1 Question 8.
At the time of independence, _____ % of population in India engaged in agricultural activities.
Answer:
72%

Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Malayalam Chapter 1 Question 9.
How many stages are there in theory of demographic transition?
Answer:
Four Stages.

Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Question Papers Chapter 1 Question 10.
According to 2011 census, the total population of India is _____ crores?
Answer:
121 crores.

Plus One Economics Question And Answer Chapter 1 Question 11.
Which is regarded as the defining year to mark the demographic transition from its first to the second decision stage?
Answer:
1921 is considered as the dividing year. Before 1921, India was in the first stage of demographic transition. The second stage of transition started after 1921.

Hsslive Economics Plus One Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Chapter 1 Question 12.
Which of the following factors are true regarding the foreign trade of India under colonial period?
(i) Large export surplus
(ii) Import of commodities like wool, sugar, and indigo to India.
(iii) Light machinery produced in the factories of India.
(iv) Indian trade was dominated with China, Ceylon, and Persia.
Answer:
(i) Large export surplus

Plus One Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Comment on Indian infant mortality rate and life expectancy.
Answer:
At the time of British rule, Indian infant mortality rate was very high. It was 218 per thousand. Life expectancy was very low. It was just 44 years.

Question 2.
Mention the growing regional variation in occupational structure of India under British rule.
Answer:
70 -75 percent of Indian workforce was engaged in agriculture 10 percent in manufacturing and 15-20 percent in services. But parts of the Madras presidency witnessed a fall in the dependence of the workforce on agricultural sector and an increase in manufacturing and service sector.

Question 3.
State whether true or false.

1. Rao’s estimate of national income during the colonial period is regarded very significant
2. The policy of British government made India an exporter of finished goods and importer of primary products.

Answer:

1. True
2. False. The British policy made India an importer of finished products and exporter of primary products.

Question 4.
Name some notable economists who estimated India’s per capita income during the colonial period?
Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji, Finlay Shirras, William Digby, VKRV Rao, and RC Desai were the notable economists who estimated India’s per capita income during the colonial period.

Question 5.
Name some modern industries which were in operation in our country at the time of independence.
Answer:
The modern industries which were in operation in our country at the time of independence were:

• Cotton and jute textile mills
• The iron and steeUjompany
• Sugar industry
• Cement industry

Question 6.
What was the twofold motive behind the systematic de-industrialization effected by the British in pre-independence India?
Answer:
The primary motive of the colonial government behind the policy of systematic de-industrialization was two-fold:

1. To turn India into a market of finished products of those industries which were established in Britain.
2. To reduce India to a status of a mere exporter of important raw materials for the industries in Britain.

Question 7.
What do you mean by commercialisation of agriculture?
Answer:
Commercialisation of agriculture means the production of cash crops for the market rather than food crops for self-consumption.

Question 8.
Define economic development.
Answer:
Economic development refers to that process as a result of which, along with increase in real per capita income, there is reduction in inequality, poverty, illiteracy, and disease.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘tariff?
Answer:
Tariff is a tax or duty on imports which can be levied either on physical units.

Plus One Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“The traditional handicrafts industries were ruined under the British rule”. Do you agree with this view? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer:
Yes. India’s traditional handicraft industries were ruined under British rule. There were many reasons behind this. The British adopted the strategy of systematically de-industrializing India. The main raw materials required by the handicraft industries such as cotton and silk were exported to Britain and instead imported to Indian markets the finished products which are low cost.

Thus, due to lack of raw materials, reduced markets and no government policies to protect the handicraft industry resulted in collapse of the Indian handicraft industries.

Question 2.
Highlight the salient features of India’s pre-independence occupational structure?
Answer:
The distribution of working persons across different industries and sectors is called occupational structure. The agricultural sector accounted for the largest share of workforce. About 72 percent people were engaged in agriculture, 10 percent in manufacturing and 18 percent in service sector.

Question 3.
Mention the objectives of British policies of infrastructure development in India?
Answer:
Basic infrastructure like railways, roads, telegraphs, etc. were developed during British period. The purpose behind this was to satisfy various colonial interests.

• Roads were built for the purpose of mobilising the army.
• The introduction of telegraph in India was basically to maintain law and order.
• Railways introduced to mobilise army and raw materials.

Question 4.
Name the states where the following iron and steel industries are located?

1. TISCO
2. IISCO
3. Bhila Steel Plant

Answer:

1. TISCO – (Tata Iron and Steel Co.) – Jharkhand
2. IISCO – (Indian Iron and Steel Co.) – West Bengal
3. Bhilai Steel Plant – Chattisgarh.

Question 5.
What are the major economic challenges of India today?
Answer:

• Low agricultural growth rate
• Rising prices
• Food inflation
• Rapid growth of population
• Poor infrastructure facilities
• Shortage of resources
• Poverty and unemployment

Question 6.
“During British rule land and labour were transformed into commodity”. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Land being the most important income yielding asset in the rural society became a much sought after commodity. The Zamindars, who got land in the British settlement and money lenders who acquires land against their debt, wanted to acquire more and more of it.

All artisans who lost craft and could not be accommodated on land came to town in search of employment. Some of them got employment in factories; some others became coolies and domestic servants. In their case also, labour power became a commodity Thus it can be concluded that during British rule land and labour were transformed into commodity.

Question 7.
What do you understand by the drain of Indian wealth during the colonial rule?
Answer:
The most important feature of India’s foreign trade throughout the colonial period was generation of large export surplus. But this caused scarcity in the domestic market. Further, this export surplus did not result in any flow of gold or silver into India. Rather, this was used to make payments for the expenses incurred by,

• expenses on war
• office setup of British government and
• Import of invisible items.

All these led to drain of Indian wealth during the colonial period.

Plus One Economics Indian Economy on the Eve of Independence Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the columns

Answer:

Question 2.
The British rule made certain positive contributions. Do you agree? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Though the basic intention of the British government was not the development of Indian economy, it left some beneficial effects. The positive contribution of the British rule are noted below

1. Development of means of transport especially railways and communication
2. Political and economic unification of the country
3. Evolution of banking and monetary system
4. Stability, peace, and order
5. Emergence of market economy
6. Introduction of new system of education
7. Establishment of civil laws and courts

Question 3.
“India’s agriculture sector was stagnant during the colonial rule” Do you agree? Substantiate.
Answer:
Yes, India’s agriculture sector was stagnant during the colonial rule. The stagnation in agriculture sector was caused mainly because of the following.

1. The various systems of land settlement in India.
2. The British government did nothing to improve the condition of agriculture
3. There was immense misery and social tension among the cultivators because of the exploitation by the zamindars
4. Low level of technology, lack of irrigational facilities and use of negligible amount so fertilizers were also responsible for low production in agriculture.

Question 4.
“Our agricultural production received a set back due to the partition of the country”. Do you agree? Substantiate.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement that our agricultural production received a set back due to the partition of the country India’s agricultural production received a further set back due to the country’s partition at the time of independence. A sizeable portion of the undivided country’s highly irrigated and fertile land went to Pakistan this had an Adverse impact upon India’s output from the agriculture sector.

Particularly affected was India’s jute industry since almost the whole of the jute producing area became part of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh). India’sjute goods industry (in which the country had enjoyed a world monopoly so far), thus, suffered heavily for lack of raw material.

Question 5.
Given below are certain items of export and import of India during British period. Classify them into a table. (Raw silk, Cotton, Silk, Raw cotton, Machinery, Wool, Chemicals, Edible oils, Medicines, Sugar, Woolen cloth, Indigo, Jute)
Answer:

Question 6.
Indicate the direction of trade at the time of independence.
Answer:
During the British period, the colonial government maintained monopoly over India’s trade. As a result, at the time of independence, more than half of India’s foreign trade was restricted to Britain while the rest was allowed with a few other countries like China, Srilanka, and Iran.

Question 7.
Give an account of the economic policies pursued by the colonial government in India?
Answer:
Since the Britishers had their vested interests in India, that could be seen in the economic policies implimented which meant only to promote their economy at the cost of India’s economy. The impact of the policies resulted into a major change in the structure of the Indian economy:

1. Transformed the country into a net supplier of raw materials and the consumer of the finished industrial products from Britain.

2. The agricultural sector continuously faced stagnation and enormous deterioration. Agricultural productivity become incrementally low.

3. No modern industrial base was allowed to come up. The policies meant to systematically deindustrialise the country.

4. India’s world-famous and centuries old handicraft industry perished due to the policies layed by colonial rule.

5. Due to all the above factors, the level of unemployment increased.

6. India’s foreign trade was mostly restricted to Britain.

You can Download Nature and Purpose of Business Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Nature and Purpose of Business

1 Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Business Studies Important Questions And Answers Question 1.
State examples of Analytical industries.
Answer:
Petrol, diesel

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 2.
Which of the broad categories of industries covers oil refinery and sugar mills?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of them
Answer:
(b) Secondary

Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Question Papers Question 3.
Which of the following cannot be classified as an auxiliary to trade?
(a) Mining
(b) Insurance
(c) Warehousing
(d) Transport
Answer:
(a) Mining

Find The Odd One Banking Insurance Transport Manufacturing Question 4.
The industries which provide support services to
other industries are known as …….
(a) Primary industries
(b) Secondary industries
(c) Commercial industries
(d) Tertiary industries.
Answer:
(d) Tertiary industries

Plus One Business Studies Question Paper And Answers Question 5.
Which of the following cannot be classified as an objective of business?
(a) Investment
(b) Productivity
(c) Innovation
(d) Profit earning
Answer:
(a) Investment

Business Studies Class 11 Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Question 6.
Business risk is not likely to arise due to
(a) Changes in government policy
(b) Good management
(c) Employee dishonesty
(d) Power failure
Answer:
(b) Good management

Business Studies Class 11 Chapter 1 Important Questions And Answers Question 7.
Mr. Abu produces wheat for personal consumption. Will it be a business activity?
Answer:
No. It is not for performed for earning profit.

Business Studies Class 11 Chapter 2 Important Questions And Answers Question 8.
The human activities that are undertaken with an objective to earn money or livelihood are called ……….
Answer:
Economic Activities.

Business Studies Class 12 Chapter 1 Important Questions Question 9.
Activities undertaken to derive mere satisfaction are known as ……..
Answer:
Non-Economic Activities.

Find The Odd Man Out Banking Insurance Transport Manufacturing Question 10.
The activity is undertaken primarily to satisfy social, religious or cultural requirements of human beings. Which is this activity?
Answer:
Non economic activity

Plus One Business Studies Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Question 11.
Classify the following activities into Economic and Non-Economic activities ………

1. Running a stationery shop
2. Conducting a seminar
3. Operating a Cine house
4. Watching television

Answer:

1. Running a stationary shop – Economic activity
2. Playing cricket – Non-economic activity
3. Operating a cine house – Economic activity
4. Watching television – Non-economic activity

Plus One Business Studies Question Paper 2020 Question 12.
Identify the following activities ………..

1. A Person visit to the temple for daily prayers.
2. Driving a car for rent.
3. Running a Hotel.

Answer:

1. Non-economic activity
2. Economic activity
3. Economic activity

Business Studies Class 11 Important Questions With Answers Question 13.
Identify the nature of activities of the following persons on the basis of economic and non-economic activities.

1. Teacher in a School
2. Gardener
3. Housewife
4. Social Worker
5. Businessman
6. Doctor

Answer:

1. Economic activity
2. Economic activity
3. Non-economic activity
4. Non-economic activity
5. Economic activity
6. Economic activity

Question 14.
Below are given certain non-economic activities. Convert them into economic activities.
Example: A nurse attending her ailing son. (Non-economic activity)
A nurse attending patients in her hospital. (Economic activity)

1. A person working in his own garden.
2. A lady preparing food for her husband.
3. A man white-washing his own house.
4. A teacher teaching his son at home.
5. A chartered accountant preparing his own accounts.

Answer:

1. A person working in a school garden.
2. A lady preparing food in a restaurant.
3. A man white-washing the building of a trade centre.
4. A teacher teaching students in a school.
5.  A chartered Accountant preparing accounts of a firm.

Question 15.
Find the odd one
(a) Teaching in a school
(b) Practicing in a court
(c) Praying in a church
(d) Running a hotel
Answer:
(c) Praying in a church

Question 16.
The occupation in which people work for others and get remunerated in return is known as ………..
(a) Business
(b) Employment
(c) Profession
(d) None of them
Answer:
(b) Employment

Question 17.
…… is an economic activity performed for the purpose of earning profit.
Answer:
Business

Question 18.
……. is an occupation involving the provision of personal services of a specialized and expert nature.
Answer:
Profession

Question 19.
……. is an index of performance of business
Answer:
Profit

Question 20.
Complete the following on the basis of given hint
Profession: Fee
Business: ………
Employment: ………
Answer:
Business: Profit
Employment: Salary

Question 21.
Which of the following does not characterize business activity?
(a) Production of goods and services
(b) Presence of risk
(c) Sale or exchange of goods and services
(d) Salary or wages
Answer:
(d) Salary or wages

Question 22.
Identify the type of activity the following person is doing:-
(a) Alex is an advocate
(b) Balan works in an organization as an Accountant
(c) Chandran buys goods from Banglore and sells in Kerala
(d) David is a doctor and has his own Hospital
Answer:
(a) Profession
(b) Employment
(c) Business
(d) Profession

Question 23.
Identify the following activities and give reason.
(a) A Chartered Account work in a company
(b) A Chartered Account runs a firm
Answer:
(a) Employment
(b) Profession

Question 24.
Identify the type and reward of this activity. Balabhasker, a doctor in a medical college
Answer:
Employment. The reward for employment is salary

Question 25.
Ajith running an internet cafe. Identify the economic activity mentioned here.
Answer:
Business

Question 26.
Mr. Shyam sold his own house for ? 5 lakhs, which is purchased for ? 4 lakhs. Decide whether it is a business activity or not.
Answer:
No. It is not a business activity

Question 27.
Complete the following equation:
Commerce = + Aids to trade
(a) Service
(b) Industry
(c) Business
(d) Trade
Answer:
(d) Trade

Question 28.
……. is the process of buying and selling of goods and services.
Answer:
Trade

Question 29.
Thajudeen, a businessman from Japan purchased goods worth ₹ 5,00,000 from Kumar associates of India. Can you identify which type of trade was conducted between Thajudeen and Kumar associates?
Answer:
Export trade.

Question 30.
Trade between Bombay and Chennai is an example of ……Trade.
Answer:
Home trade

Question 31.
Buying and selling of goods between different countries are called …….
Answer:
Foreign Trade

Question 32.
When trade takes place within the boundaries of a country, it is called ……..
Answer:
Internal trade.

Question 33.
…… is the process of selling goods to a foreign country.
Answer:
Export trade

Question 34.
When goods are purchased from a foreign country, it is known as ……
Answer:
Import trade

Question 35.
……. means importing of foreign goods from some countries to re-export them to other countries.
Answer:
Entrepot trade

Question 36.
When goods are bought in bulk from manufacturers/produces and sold in bulk to retailers is called ……..
Answer:
Wholesale trade

Question 37.
When goods are bought from wholesalers/produces and sold them to consumers is termed as …….
Answer:
Retail trade

Question 38.
Diary farming for milk is an example of ………. industry.
Answer:
Genetic.

Question 39.
Extraction of coal is an example of industries.
(a) Genetic
(b) Construction
(c) Extractive
(d) Manufacturing
Answer:
Extractive industry

Question 40.
Time utility is created by
(a) transport
(b) warehousing
(c) insurance
(d) person
Answer:
(b) warehousing

Question 41.
Complete the following
Removing the hindrance of knowledge: Advertising
Removing the hindrance of time:?
Answer:
Warehousing

Question 42.
Hindrance of knowledge in the exchange of goods are removed by ………
Answer:
Advertisement

Question 43.
……. removes hindrance of person.
Answer:
Trade

Question 44.
……. removes hindrance of place.
Answer:
Transport

Question 45.
……. removes hindrance of risk.
Answer:
Insurance

Question 46.
……… removes hindrance of finance.
Answer:
Banking

2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain any two business activities which are auxiliaries to trade.
Answer:
Auxiliaries to Trade (Aids to trade)
Activities which assist trade are called aids to trade or auxiliaries to trade.

1. Transport & Communication:-
Transport facilitates movement of raw material to the place of production and the finished products from factories to the place of consumption. Communication helps the producers, traders, and consumers to exchange information with one another.

2. Banking & Finance:-
Banking helps business activities to overcome the problem of finance. Commercial banks lend money in the form of overdraft, cash credit, loans, and advances, etc… and they also provide many services required for the business activity.

3. Insurance:-
The goods may be destroyed while in the production process or in transit due to accidents, or in storage due to fire or theft, etc. Insurance provides protection in all such cases.

4. Warehousing:-
The goods should be stored carefully from the time they are produced until the time they are sold. This function is performed by warehouses.

5. Advertising:-
Advertising helps in providing information about available goods and services and create in them a strong desire to buy the product.

Plus one Business Studies Question 2.
Abhijith owns an old car. He sells it and buys a new car. While Ajith purchases a few cars for selling at an assured profit. Do Abhijith and Ajith engage in business activities? Give reason.
Answer:
The activity of Abhjith is not a business activity. But we can say Mr. Ajith engages in business activities. Business is a continuous activity, so there must be regularity in its dealings and its ultimate objective is earning profit. Abhijith’s transaction is casual. So it is not a business activity.

Question 3.
Find the odd one.

1. Regularity in service / getting salary/service contract between employer and employee / huge capital investment
2. Earning profit / innovation / effective utilization of resources / Appointment letter

Answer:

1. Huge capital investment – others are features of employment
2. Appointment letter – others are objectives of business

Plus One Business Question 4.
State any two characteristics of ‘business’.
Answer:
Business:-
Business may be defined as an economic activity involving the production or purchase and sale of goods and services with the main object of earning profit by satisfying human needs in the society.

Characteristics of business

1. Business is an economic activity with the object of earning profit.
2. Business includes all the activities concerned with the production or procurement of goods and services.
3. There should be a sale or exchange of goods and services for the satisfaction of human needs.
4. Business involves dealings in goods or services on a regular basis. Normally, one single transaction of sale or purchase is not treated as a business.
5. One of the main objectives of business is to earn maximum profit.
6. Business involves risk and uncertainty of income. Risk means the possibility of loss due to change in consumer taste and fashion, strike, lockout competition, fire, theft, etc.

Question 5.
The terms both industry and commerce related to business. As a student how do you correlate these two terms in the business?
Answer:
Business activities can be classified into two. They are Industry and commerce. Industry involves production or processing of goods meant for consumption or for production of other products. Business is a broader term than commerce. Commerce is the sum total of those processes which are engaged in the removal of hindrances of person, place and time in the exchange of commodities. Commerce includes all activities ensuring the free flow of goods and services from the producer to the consumer.
Commerce = Trade + aids to trade.

Question 6.
Define Commerce.
Answer:
Commerce is the sum total of all activities involving the removal of hindrances in the process of exchange of goods and services and facilitates the availability for consumption. So it consists of trade and other support services that facilitate trade.

3 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the ‘odd one’ and state the reason.

1. Teaching in a school, Practising in a court, Praying, Running a hotel.
2. Regularity, Body of knowledge, Profit motive, Heavy Risk.
3. No capital, Salary, Freedom of work, Service agreement.

Answer:

1. Praying – All others are economic activities.
2. Body of knowledge – All others are features of Business.
3. Freedom of work – All others are features of employment.

Question 2.
Complete the following table with the help of the hints given below.

Question 3.
Identify the following activities and give reason.

1. A doctor works in a Government hospital
2. A doctor runs his own clinic.
3. A doctor treats his own family members.

Answer:

1. Employment – Here, the doctor works for others, on a regular basis and gets a salary for his service.
2. Profession – Here, the doctor is rendering services for others and gets fees for his service
3. Non-economic activity – Here, no monetary benefit is derived but mental satisfaction.

Question 4.
Compare business with profession and employment.
Answer:
Comparison of Business, Profession, and Employment.

Classification of Business Activities
Business activities may be classified into two categories –

1. Industry
2. Commerce.

Chart showing business activities

Question 5.
Match column A with column B and column C

Answer:

Question 6.
Explain the characteristics of business risk.
Answer:
Business Risks
The term ‘business risks’ refers to the possibility of inadequate profits or even losses due to uncertainties or unexpected events.
Business enterprises may face two types of risk,

i.e. speculative risk and pure risk. Speculative risks involve both the possibility of gain as well as the possibility of loss. It a rise due to a change in demand, change in price, etc. Pure risks involve only the possibility of loss or no loss. The chance of fire, theft or strike is examples of pure risks.

Nature of Business Risks

1. Business risks arise due to uncertainties.
2. Risk can be minimized, but cannot be eliminated. It is an essential part of business.
3. Degree of risk depends mainly upon the nature and size of business:
4. Profit is the reward for risk-taking.

Causes of Business Risks
Business risks arise due to a variety of causes. They are:-
1. Natural Causes:-
it includes natural calamities like flood, earthquake, lightning, heavy rains, famine, etc.

2. Human Causes:-
Human causes include dishonesty, carelessness or negligence of employees, strikes, riots, management inefficiency, etc.

3. Economic causes:
These include change in demand, change in price, competition, technological changes, etc.

4. Political Causes:-
Change in Govt, policies, taxation, licensing policy, etc.

4 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the Following.

Answer:

Question 2.
Following is a list of activities. Classify these activities as Business, Profession or Employment

1. Policeman on duty at your local police station.
2. Teacher working in an educational institution.
3. A driver driving a bus of a State Road Transport Corporation.
4. A taxi-driver who runs his own taxi.
5. A fisherman selling fish in a village.
6. Gopal stitching cloth of the customers regularly at home.
7. A daily-wager working in a factory.
8. A gardener maintaining the lawns in a college.
9. A lawyer practicing in a court.
10. An engineer running his consultancy firm.

Answer:

1. Employment
2. Employment
3. Employment
4. Business
5. Business
6. Business
7. Employment
8. Employment
9. Profession
10. Profession

Question 3.
Mr. Jagajeevanram, who is running a skin clinic, got his MBBS degree and MD degree from Kerala University. Rahul has been working as an attender in the clinic for the last five years. After having this experience, he started his own clinic for skin diseases.
(a) Is it possible to start a clinic legally in his own name? Why?
(b) What are the essentials to run such an organization?
Answer:
(a) No. Mr. Rahul cannot start legally the clinic in his own name because he has no professional qualification and training,
(b) The essentials to run such an organization are:-

1. There must be specialized knowledge and skill, i.e. MBBS degree approved by Medical Council of India.
2. Formal training.
3. Membership in Indian Medical Association (IMA)
4. Follow the code of conduct enforced by IMA
5. Charging fee for service.

Question 4.
The following are some examples of industries
Fishing                           Textile industry
Bridge construction       Poultry farming
Limestone mining         Animal husbandry
Cement factory             Building works
Classify these industries under suitable heads.
Answer:
Extractive industry          Fishing, Limestone
Genetic industry              Poultry farming, Animal husbandry
Manufacturing industry   Textile industry, Cement industry
Construction industry      Bridge construction, Building works

Question 5.
Explain the concept of business risk and its causes.
Answer:

Business Risks
The term ‘business risks’ refers to the possibility of inadequate profits or even losses due to uncertainties or unexpected events.
Business enterprises may face two types of risk,

i.e. speculative risk and pure risk. Speculative risks involve both the possibility of gain as well as the possibility of loss. It a rise due to a change in demand, change in price, etc. Pure risks involve only the possibility of loss or no loss. The chance of fire, theft or strike is examples of pure risks.

Nature of Business Risks

1. Business risks arise due to uncertainties.
2. Risk can be minimized, but cannot be eliminated. It is an essential part of business.
3. Degree of risk depends mainly upon the nature and size of business:
4. Profit is the reward for risk-taking.

Causes of Business Risks
Business risks arise due to a variety of causes. They are:-
1. Natural Causes:-
it includes natural calamities like flood, earthquake, lightning, heavy rains, famine, etc.

2. Human Causes:-
Human causes include dishonesty, carelessness or negligence of employees, strikes, riots, management inefficiency, etc.

3. Economic causes:-
These include change in demand, change in price, competition, technological changes, etc.

4. Political Causes:-
Change in Govt, policies, taxation, licensing policy, etc.

5 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain different types of manufacturing industries.
Answer:
Industry
Industry refers to economic activities, which are connected with the conversion of resources into useful goods. Industries may be divided into 3 categories. They are

1. Primary industries:-
Primary industries are connected with the extraction and production of natural resources and reproduction and development of living organisms, plants, etc. Such industries are further divided into two.

Extractive industries:-
These industries extract products from natural resources. E.g. mining, farming, hunting, fishing, etc.

Genetic industries:-
These industries are engaged in activities like rearing and breeding of animals, birds, and plants. E.g. diary farming, paultry farming, floriculture, pisciculture, etc.

2. Secondary industries:-
Secondary industries deal with materials extracted at the primary stage. Such goods may be used for consumption or for further production. Secondary industries are classified into two. They are:-

(i)   Manufacturing industries:-
Manufacturing industries engage in converting raw materials into finished goods. E.g. Conversion of rubber into cotton, timber into furniture rubber into tires, etc. Manufacturing industries may be further divided into four categories. They are,

• Analytical industry which analyses and separates different elements from the same materials. E.g. Oil refinery
• Synthetical industry which combines various ingredients into a new product. E.g. cement
• Processing industry which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products. Eg. Sugar and paper industry.
• Assembling industry which assembles different component parts to make a new product. E.g. television, car, computer, etc.

(ii)  Construction industries:-
These industries are involved in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads, etc.

3. Tertiary industries:-
These are concerned with providing support services to primary and secondary industries. Eg. Transport, banking, insurance, warehousing, communication, advertising, etc.

Question 2.
Mr. Shyam is a leading advocate in Ernakulam. He is also working as a lecturer in a law college. Identify and distinguish with the activities in which Mr. Shyam is engaged.
Answer:
Profession and Employment. Comparison of Business, Profession, and Employment.

Classification of Business Activities
Business activities may be classified into two categories –

1. Industry
2. Commerce.

Chart showing business activities

Question 3.
The following are some examples of trade. Find the types of trade each of these belongs to.

1. Purchase of petroleum products by India from Iraq.
2. Purchase of fast-moving consumable goods from Bombay for sale in Kochi.
3. Sale of tea leaf to Gulf countries.
4. A provision store in a village.
5. A shop which deals in tea only in bulk quantity.

Answer:

1. Import trade
2. Internal trade
3. Export trade
4. Retail trade
5. Wholesale trade

Question 4.
Explain the features of business.

Business:-
Business may be defined as an economic activity involving the production or purchase and sale of goods and services with the main object of earning profit by satisfying human needs in the society.

Characteristics of business

1. Business is an economic activity with the object of earning profit.
2. Business includes all the activities concerned with the production or procurement of goods and services.
3. There should be a sale or exchange of goods and services for the satisfaction of human needs.
4. Business involves dealings in goods or services on a regular basis. Normally, one single transaction of sale or purchase is not treated as business.
5. One of the main objectives of business is to earn maximum profit.
6. Business involves risk and uncertainty of income. Risk means the possibility of loss due to change in consumer taste and fashion, strike, lockout competition, fire, theft, etc.

6 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study of commerce is the study of Trade and Aids to Trade”. Evaluate this statement.
Answer:
Commerce includes Trade as well as Aids to Trade. Trade means exchange or buying and selling of goods. Classification of Trade 1. Internal 2. External
Activities which assist trade are called aids to trade. Classification of Aids to Trade

1. Transport
2. Communication
3. Insurance
4. banking
5. Advertising
6. Warehousing
7. Sales promotion

8 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the factors to be considered before starting a business.
Answer:
Starting a Business – Basic Factors
Factors to be considered for starting a business
1. Selection of line of business:
The first thing to be decided by any entrepreneur of a new business is the nature and type of business to be undertaken.

2. Size of the firm:
If the market conditions are favorable, the entrepreneur can start the business at a large scale. If the market conditions are uncertain and risks are high, a small size business would be a better choice.

3. Choice of form of ownership:
The selection of a suitable form of business enterprise i.e. Sole proprietorship, Partnership or a Joint-stock company is an important management decision. It depends on factors like the nature of business, capital requirements, liability of owners, legal formalities, continuity of business, etc.

4. Location of business enterprise:
Availability of raw materials and labour, power supply and services like banking, transportation, communication, warehousing, etc., are important factors while making a choice of location.

5. Financing:
Proper financial planning must be done to determine (a) the requirement of capital, (b) source from which capital will be raised and (c) the best ways of utilizing the capital in the firm.

6. Physical facilities:
Availability of physical facilities including machines and equipment, building and supportive services is a very important factor to be considered at the start of the business.

7. Plant layout:
Layout means the physical arrangement of machines and equipment needed to manufacture a product.

8. Competent worked force:
Every enterprise needs competent and committed employees to perform various activities so that physical and financial resources are converted into desired outputs.

9. Tax planning:
The promoter must consider in advance the tax liability under various tax laws and its impact on business decision

Question 2.
The main objective of business is to earn profit through service. Explain the objectives of business in the light of this statement.
Answer:
Multiple Objectives of Business
The main objectives of a business are:-

1. Market standing:-
A business firm can succeed only when it has a good market standing. Market standing refers to the position of an enterprise in relation to its competitors.

2. Innovation:-
Innovation means developing new products or services or finding new ideas and new methods of production and distribution. Innovation accelerates the growth of an enterprise.

3. Productivity:-
Productivity is ascertained by comparing the value of output with the value of input. Every enterprise must aim at greater productivity through the best use of available resources.

4. Physical and financial resources:-
The business must aim at maximum utilization of available physical and financial resources, i.e. men, material, money, and machine in the best possible manner.

5. Earning Profit:-
Earning maximum profit is the primary objective of every business. Profit is required for the survival and growth of a business.

6. Manager performance and development:-
Efficient managers are needed to conduct and coordinate business activities. So it is the objective of an enterprise to implement various programs for motivating the managers.

7. Worker performance and attitude:-
Every enterprise must aim at improving its worker’s performance by providing fair salary, incentives, good working conditions, medical and housing facilities.

8. Social responsibility:-
It refers to the obligation of business firms to contribute resources for solving social problems and work in a socially desirable manner.

Question 3.
Explain with the help of a diagram, the different types of industries with suitable examples.
Answer:
Industry
Industry refers to economic activities, which are connected with the conversion of resources into useful goods. Industries may be divided into 3 categories. They are

1. Primary industries:-
Primary industries are connected with the extraction and production of natural resources and reproduction and development of living organisms, plants, etc. Such industries are further divided into two.

Extractive industries:-
These industries extract products from natural resources. E.g. mining, farming, hunting, fishing, etc.

Genetic industries:-
These industries are engaged in activities like rearing and breeding of animals, birds, and plants. E.g. diary farming, paultry farming, floriculture, pisciculture, etc.

2. Secondary industries:-
Secondary industries deal with materials extracted at the primary stage. Such goods may be used for consumption or for further production. Secondary industries are classified into two. They are:-

(i) Manufacturing industries:-
Manufacturing industries engage in converting raw materials into finished goods. E.g. Conversion of rubber into cotton, timber into furniture rubber into tires, etc. Manufacturing industries may be further divided into four categories. They are,

• Analytical industry which analyses and separates different elements from the same materials. E.g. Oil refinery
• Synthetical industry which combines various ingredients into a new product. E.g. cement
• Processing industry which involves successive stages for manufacturing finished products. Eg. Sugar and paper industry.
• Assembling industry which assembles different component parts to make a new product. E.g. television, car, computer, etc.

(ii) Construction industries:-
These industries are involved in the construction of buildings, dams, bridges, roads, etc.

3. Tertiary industries:-
These are concerned with providing support services to primary and secondary industries. Eg. Transport, banking, insurance, warehousing, communication, advertising, etc.

You can Download Paths to Modernization Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 11 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Paths to Modernization

Paths To Modernisation Class 11 Extra Questions Question 1.
There are physical differences between China & Japan. Explain.
Answer:
China was under Japanese and Western domination for long. The people of China began to react to these changes. They wanted to reconcile themselves with the modern world and recover their lost glory. For that, they had to free themselves from Japanese and Western control. Their two main aims were removing the gross inequalities in the country and rebuilding the nation. They realized that this could be achieved only through a revolution.

In the 1949 civil war, the Chinese Communist Party became victorious. But by the end of the 1970s, the leaders there realized that the principles of the Communist Party were actually going against the economic growth and development of the country. Following this, radical changes were brought in the economic sphere. This brought back capitalism and a free market. But at the same time, the Party retained its political control.

Japan grew into an industrially developed country. But its efforts to establish an empire led to WW II and its defeat. After the War, the control of Japan was taken over by the US. This caused the beginning of the formation of a democratic system in Japan. Japan rebuilt its economy. In the 1970s Japan became a strong economic power.

The Japanese path to modernization was made by capitalist ideologies. Modernization of Japan happened in a world where Western colonialism is dominant. The fast development of Japan underscored the power of tradition in Japanese Institutions and society. At the same time, it showed the capacity of the Japanese to understand things and the strength of their nationalism.

Paths To Modernisation Class 11 Important Questions Question 2.
China and Japan have a long tradition of historiography. Evaluate.
Answer:
China and Japan definitely have a long tradition of historiography. For their rulers, history was a great guide. They had made departments to preserve documents and to write the royal history. The greatest historian of ancient China was Sima Quian (145 – 90 BC). Japan also had given great importance to history. This was because of the influence of Chinese culture.

Paths To Modernisation Extra Questions Question 3.
Naito Konan is a famous Japanese scholar on China. Describe his contributions.
Answer:
Naito Konan is a famous Japanese scholar on China. His books have influenced scholars all over the world. He developed a tradition using new methods of scientific historiography to study about China. He helped the authorities to establish a Department of Oriental Studies at Kyoto University in 1907.

Naito argued that The Republican Government of Sun Yat-sen showed a way to end the dominance of the aristocracy and centralised power that were in existence in China right from the time of the Sung dynasty. He showed that there are powers in Chinese history to modernise and democratise China. He thought that Japan has a special role to play in China. He somehow lessened the power of Chinese nationality.

Paths To Modernisation Important Questions Question 4.
In Japan the political system was feudal. Evaluate this statement.
Answer:
In Japan the political system was feudal. The country was divided into 250 sectors. The administration of s each sector was entrusted to a Daikyo who were a group of feudal lords. Over the Daikyo there were Shoguns. Edo (the modem Tokyo) was the capital. The shoguns often asked the Daikyo to spend time in the capital. This was to prevent any threat from them. The shoguns also controlled important cities and mines. The Samurai were a set of warriors and they were the elite in the administration. They assisted the Shoguns and, Daikyos.

Class 11 History Chapter 11 Extra Questions And Answers Question 5.
Meiji Restoration was a revolution. Based on this statement, prepare a seminar paper on Meiji Restoration.
Answer:
Meiji Restoration:
Japan was more or less isolated from other, countries. Japan was the only country . that escaped colonization by Europeans. There was only one Western country that had trade relations with Japan and that was Holland. The US had always Wanted the Japanese ports to open for foreign trade.

In 1853, under Matthew Perry, a powerful navy was sent to Japan by the USA. The aims of the US were getting permission for trade and establishing diplomatic relations with Japan. Japan is on the way to the sea-route to China. Therefore the US saw Japan as a good strategic point and market. They also thought of Japan as a place where their ships could refill their fuel tanks.

Matthew Perry returned to Japan the next year also. The government was forced to open two ports for the US ships and do some trade in a controlled manner. The arrival of Matthew Perry caused big movements 1 in Japanese politics. It resulted in the end of the Shogun rule and the restoration of Emperor Meiji. There was a strong protest against the Shoguns that succumbed to the foreign powers. The protesters wanted the restoration of Meiji rule. With this, the image of the emperor, who was until then a nominal figure, increased.

in 1868 there was an open revolt against the Shoguns. The revolutionaries drove away the Shogun from Edo and brought the emperor there, Edo was renamed Tokyo (Capital of the East) and was declared as the capital of the nation.

The new emperor took the title Meiji or Enlightened and became the official ruler of the country. This revolution of 1868 was known as the Meiji Restoration. The officials and people of Japan were aware of the fact that Europeans were building their colonial empires in India and other places. They also knew about the defeat of China by Britain. They were afraid if Japan also would become a colony of foreign powers.

The scholars and leaders wanted to learn about the ideas of Europeans unlike the Chinese who simply rejected them. One section of the people thought that they should learn the technology of the West but keep them away from the country. There was also an opinion that Japan should slowly open its gates to the external world.

A slogan that summed up the ideals of the Meiji Era was Fukoku Kyohei, meaning Enriching the Country and Strengthening the Army or Rich Country and Strong Army. It became the principle that led to the modernization and transformation of Japan. Japan resized that a strong economy and a strong army were needed to resist the foreigners. They saw how India yielded to the foreigners in the absence of these two things. For realizing these aims there was the need to make the people loyal citizens and build a strong sense of unity based on nationalism.

The administrative system of Japan was reorganized. The new government tried to formulate a system called the Emperor System. It was a system that followed the European model. They sent officials to Europe to study it thoroughly and then only they implemented it.

It was a system that gave the Emperor a divine aura. The emperor was considered a direct descended of the sun-god and therefore he deserved maximum reverence. He was also depicted as the leader bringing in Europeanization. His birthday was declared a national holiday. The emperor wore the military uniform of the Europeans. All edicts and orders to establish new institutions were sent out in his name.

In its education system it followed the European model, in the 1870s, stress was laid on the studies of Japanese history so that students could develop loyalty to their nation. The Educational Ministry strictly controlled the curriculum. If chose the textbooks and gave training to teachers. Education also stressed developing a moral culture in the students. The children were asked to respect and show loyalty to their nation and become good citizens.

To unify the country, the Meiji administration brought a new administrative system. The old boundaries of villages were changed. Each administrative unit had to run schools and give health facilities to its people. It also worked as an agency for the recruitment of soldiers to the army, Everyone who had passed 20 years of age had to do compulsory military service for a fixed minimum period. Japan organized a strong army. It brought a legal system that controlled the formation of political parties and meetings and did the censorship. The army and bureaucracy were under the direct control of the emperor. All these activities of the government faced stiff opposition from the public.

The new democratic constitution and the modern army were not ideologically compatible. The army started demanding a more aggressive foreign policy to conquer new regions. This led to wars with both Russia and China and in both the wars Japan came out victorious.

The demand of people for greater democracy was against the aggressive policy of the government. Japan developed economically and built an empire, suppressing democracy at home.

Important Questions Of Paths To Modernisation Question 6.
The industrialization of Japan created environmental problems. Do you agree with this statement? Clarify with examples.
Answer:
With industrialization, the factories became bigger and more numerous. In 1909, there were 1000 factories in which more than 100 people each worked. In 1920, this figure grew to 2000 factories with each one having more than 4000 workers. In spite of all that there were some 550,000 small workshops there with less than 5 workers each.

The uncontrolled and fast growth of factories, the need for natural resources like timber, etc. caused environmental damage. Tanaka Shozo, who was elected to the first House of Representatives, started the first protest against industrial pollution in 1897. This protest in which 800 villagers took part forced the government to take steps against environmental pollution.

Paths To Modernisation Question Answers Question 7.
What were the reasons behind the growth of the Japanese army and its aggressive nationalism?
Answer:
The Commander-in-Chief of the army was the emperor. But from 1890, it was interpreted that the army and the navy had independent control. In 1899, the, prime Minister issued an order specifying that only serving Generals and Admirals could become ministers. This increased the power of the army. The army propagated the fear that Japan is always under threat from the Western powers and it increased its strength. The same technique was used to increase its territory. They also used it to suppress the protest of the people against higher taxes and for the expansion of the army.

How Did Japan Escape Colonization Class 11 Question 8.
One section of the people in Japan supported Westernization but another section held fast to traditions: Discuss these paradoxical views.
Answer:
Scholars had different views about the relations Japan should have with other countries. Some scholars wanted to have cordial relations with the USA and other Western nations which were culturally on top of the world. The Meiji intellectual Fukuzawa Yukichi was highly pro-American. He was of the opinion that using its specialties Japan should become part of the Western nations.

But the next generation was not willing to accept this view of Fukuzawa. They questioned the idea of accepting Western ideas blindly. They gave stress to nationalism based on traditional values. Miyake Setsiirei, a famous Japanese philosopher, wanted Japan to develop its competence for the betterment of world culture. He said that dedicating oneself to the nation is dedicating himself to the whole world.

Another group of intellectuals was attracted by the liberalism of the West. They wanted Japan not to just concentrate oh militarism but on liberalism. Ueki Emori was the leader of the democratic movement in Japan. He wanted the establishment of a democratic government in Japan. He was an admirer of the principles of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity, popularised by the French Revolution and he had -the view that students should be given a liberal education for their proper development. He said that liberty is more important than law and order. Another group wanted women to be given voting rights. All these pressures forced to government to declare a new Constitution.

Paths To Modernisation Class 11 Question Answer Question 9.
The transformation of Japan into modernity was reflected in the life of the people. Explain.
Answer:
The transformation of Japan into modernity definitely was reflected in the life of the people. It brought great changes in family relations. Japan had a patriarchal joint family system. Under the elder of the family, many generations lived under the same roof. But when Japan became modern, the old system collapsed and nuclear families replaced the old system. In the nuclear family, the husband earned the livelihood and the wife managed the household affairs.

This change in the system brought changes in the family possessions, family entertainment and even the structure of the house. Construction companies made cheap houses and gave them to people on installment.

Paths To Modernisation Class 11 Notes Question 10.
After their defeat in WW II, Japan resurrected as a global economic power. Evaluate this statement.
Answer:
The quick rebuilding of the economy that Japan achieved after their defeat in the WW II is called the Post-War Wonder or the Post-War Miracle. The roots of that success can be seen in the long history of Japan.

Japan had a tradition of democratic protests and intellectual and creative activities. Moreover, the social solidarity that was there even before the War became stronger after the War. It helped in the cooperation and collective efforts of government, bureaucracy, and industry. The demands for many things created by the Korean and Vietnam Wars also helped in boosting the Japanese economy.

The Tokyo Olympics of 1964 was the start of a new era in Japanese history. The high-speed bullet trains that began in 1964 showed the world the competence of Japanese technology. The ability of the Japanese to produce high quality but cheap products by using top technology surprised the world.

Class 11 History Paths To Modernisation Notes Question 11.
When was a Republican Government established in China? Who is the founder of modem China?
Answer:
In 1911, overthrowing the Manchu dynasty, a Republic was established in China under Sun Yat-sen. He is the founder of modem China.

Path To Modernisation Class 11 Question Answer Question 12.
For the reconstruction of the country, Sun Yat-sen prepared a scheme. What was that?
Answer:
Sun Yat-sen was worried about China’s fate. For the reconstruction of the country, he prepared a scheme. This is called “Three Principles” or San-Min Doctrine or Tridemism. The three principles are nationalism, democracy, and socialism.

Nationalism meant driving away the Manchus and other imperialists. Democracy meant establishing a democratic government. Socialism meant controlling capital and bringing equality in land ownership.

Class 11 Paths To Modernisation Question Answer Question 13.
What is the reason for the origin of the May 4 Movement? What were its goals?
Answer:
The Republican Revolution of 1911 did not bring any basic change in the society. When the WW I started, China joined the Allied Powers, but Britain did not return the regions it had captured earlier. Naturally, there was a serious protest against the decisions of the Paris Conference. Gradually it became a Movement. This Movement started on 4 May 1919 in Beijing and it was known as May 4 Movement.

This Movement severely attacked tradition calling to save the country through modem science, nationalism, and democracy. It demanded the sending away of foreigners, removing inequalities and reducing poverty. Their other demands were: Use simple language for writing, stop the custom of foot-binding, end the slavery of women, bring equality in marriage and bring economic development to end poverty.

Class 11 History Chapter 11 Questions And Answers Question 14.
The Kuomintang government was a failure. Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:
After the republican revolution, the country entered an era of crises. The Kuomintang (National People’s Party) tried to unify the nation and bring stability and the Chinese Communist Party became the most powerful one.The base of the political vision of Kuomintang was the ideas of Sun Yat-sen. They put forward 4 great principles: clothes, food, shelter, and travel.

After the death of Sun Yat-sen, Chiang Kai-shek became the leader of Kuomintang. In 1928, a national government was formed by Kuomintang. Chiang Kai- shek was the President of the government. Kuomintang government was a failure. The causes for its failure were its narrow social base and narrow political vision. The Party ignored the farmers. It did not take into account the increasing social inequalities. The Chiang government could not carry out Socialism, which was the main principle of Sun Yat-sen’s scheme for China. The Chiang government tried to impose a military order and suppress protests instead of solving popular problems.

Path To Modernisation Class 11 History Notes Question 15.
Prepare a seminar paper on the 1949 Chinese Revolution.
Areas to be considered: Background, Chinese Communist Party and Mao Zedong, Long March, Civil War.
Answer:
In 1937 Japan attacked China. Instead of resisting the Japanese attack, the Kuomintang government retreated. Long wars had weakened China. The prices of things skyrocketed and the life of common people was hard.

Rural China faced two crises:

a) Environmental crisis:
Soil fertility was lost, there was deforestation and there were floods.

b) Social and economic crisis:
Exploitative land-owning system, debt, primitive technology, very poor exchange system.

Following the Russian Revolution, in 1921 the CPC (Communist Party of China) was established. The success of the Russian Revolution had a big impact on the world. Soon the Russian leaders Lenin and Trotsky established the Comintern (Community International) or Third International. Its aim was to end exploitation and establish a world government. If supported all the Communist Parties all over the world. But they had the traditional Marxist view that only an urban labour class could bring about a revolution. Soon Comintern became a means of protecting only Soviet interests, it was disbanded in 1943.

Mao Zedong was the leader of CPC. In the strategy of the Communist Party, Mao brought a big change. He saw the peasants as a great power. He believed that only peasants could bring about a revolution. Thus he moved away from the traditional Marxian view. The success of Mao made CPC very strong and it was helpful in bringing victory over the Kuomintang.

When the attacks from the Kuomintang became intense, Mao and his followers retreated to the Jiangxi Mountain. From 1928 to 1934 he camped here. There he formed a strong Peasant Council. By confiscating land the distributing them to people, he made the Council very strong. Mao wanted to establish an independent government and army. He was aware of the problem of women. He encouraged the formation of organizations of village women. He objected to the traditional system of marriage and brought a new marriage law. It made divorces simple.

In 1934, Mao and his followers left their camps to escape from the attacks by Kuomintang. Their destination was Yanan, 6000 miles away. This march became a historical event and is called the Long March. The Communists who reached Yanan formulated their plans. They gave importance to suppress the warlords, bring land reforms and fight against the foreign imperial powers. This helped them to make a strong social base.

In 1937 when Japan attacked China, the Communists cooperated with the Kuomintang to fight against the common enemy, Japan. But when the war ended, this cooperation ended and the civil war between Kuomintang and Communists restarted. The Communists led a final assault against the Kuomintang and captured the capital Nanjing. Chiang Kai-shek and his army escaped to Taiwan. On 1st October 1949, the new Chinese Republic under Mao was proclaimed.

Chapter 11 History Class 11 Question 16.
The basis of the 1949 Chinese Democratic Republic was “New Democracy”. Explain.
Answer:
In 1949, the Chinese Republic was established. Its basis was a new democracy. This was different from the Soviet Union s concept of the dictatorship of the Proletariat. Democracy means the union of all social classes.

All the decisive areas of the economy were taken under the control of the government. Private entrepreneurship and private land owning were gradually ended. This scheme lasted until 1953, The government declared that there was going to be a socialist transformation. To make industrialization fast, Mao brought in the scheme called the Great Leap Forward, in 1958.

The government encouraged people to establish iron melting furnaces behind their homes. For collective farming, in the rural sector, communes of people were established. In 1958 itself there were 26,000 such communes.

Mao was able to make people ready for working to achieve the aims of the Party. His main goal was creating a socialist man.

A socialist man should have five livings:
love for the fatherland, love for people, hard work, science, and common property. Democratic organizations were formed for peasants, women, students and other classes of people.

Path Of Modernization Class 11 Question 17.
Write a note on Mao’s “Great Cultural Revolution”.
Answer:
To defeat his critics and enemies in 1965 Mao started his scheme called the Cultural Revolution. It was a movement against the old culture and old customs and rituals. It gave more importance to ideological knowledge than professional knowledge. Instead of healthy debates, it gave prominence to slogans. He entrusted the job of making Cultural Revolution practical to the Red Guards which consisted of the army and students.

In the beginning, the CR was a failure. It weakened the Party. It ruined the economy and educational system. The entire country was in turmoil. But by the end of the 1960s, things began to change. In 1975 Deng Xiao Ping came to power and he ended the CR.

Class 6 History Chapter 11 Extra Questions Question 18.
Critically examine the reforms made in China from 1978.
Answer:
Deng Xiao Ping brought many revolutionary reforms. Many of them were of a deviant nature from the Socialist Principles. He made Party control very strong. He brought in a Socialist market system. In 1978 the Party declared its four reformist goals, known as four modernizations. They were developments in science, industry, agriculture, and defence. He allowed debates that did not question party lines.

In the new free atmosphere, new ideas developed. On 5 December 1978, there was a wall writing declaring the fifth modernization. It declared that without democracy all other modernizations were useless. It also criticized the Communist Party for not solving the problem of poverty and for not ending sexual exploitation. But all the demands were suppressed. In 1989 more intellectuals in China demanded greater democracy. It demanded the ending of unchanging ideologies. In 1989 students protested in the Tiananmen Square in Beijing. The protests were cruelly put down by the army and many students died. This incident was condemned by the whole world.

There were debates about the development of China after the reform period. There are three distinct views.

1. The first view was that through strict political control, economic liberalization and cooperation with the global market, development was possible. The Party supported this view.
2. Many questioned the stress on the market. Critics pointed out that inequalities among social classes and regions and gender inequality would cause conflicts in the society.
3. There was also a view that the ideas of Confucianism should be revived. They argued it was possible to build a new society by using their own traditions and without borrowing ideas from Western models.

Class 11 History Chapter 11 Notes Question 19.
Evaluate the political changes in Taiwan and discuss the possibility of its unification with China.
Answer:
Chiang Kai-shek who was defeated by China escaped to Taiwan (Formosa). He went to Taiwan with a lot of gold and priceless artifacts. In Taiwan, he formed a government in exile called Republic of China. Taiwan was once part of the Chinese Empire. In 1894-95, when China was defeated by Japan, Japan occupied this region and transformed it into their colony. When Japan lost in the WW II, Taiwan was again given back to China.

Chiang Kai-shek ruled Taiwan like a despot. His government was repressive. Chiang denied the people freedom of speech and political protests. He also kept the local people away from the administration. But through land reforms, he was able to increase agricultural production and to revive the economy. The economy which was based on trade grew fast and the gap between the rich and poor was reduced. The biggest change that happened in Taiwan was its step toward democracy.

This happened after the . Death of Chiang Kai-shek in 1975. In 1987 the martial law in Taiwan was repealed. Opposition political parties were allowed to function. In the first free elections, the process to bring the local people to power was started. Most countries had only trade relations with Taiwan. Since Taiwan is part of China, it is not possible to have full diplomatic relations and embassies there. The unification of Taiwan with China is a matter of dispute. However, the relations between Taiwan and China are improving. Taiwan has large investments and trade with China.

Question 20.
Japan and China chose different paths for their modernization. Discuss.
Answer:
Both China and Japan are industrialized but they chose separate paths for their modernization. Japan was successful in maintaining its freedom and in using its traditional expertise and styles in new ways. But the elite class who were responsible for the modernization process made the people develop an aggressive nationalism. It helped in the continued rule by an administration that often suppressed the demands for democracy and social changes.

Although it developed internally, it embarked on an imperial policy. The modernization process of Japan was influenced by Western powers. Even as the Japanese followed Western models they also practised their own ideas. All this affected Japan’s nationalism. Japan wanted to free Asia from Western domination. This was the justification they gave for their own imperial designs.

In the 19^th and 20^th centuries, China changed a lot. It tried to deny tradition and look for new ways to build national unity and strength. The Chinese Communist Party and its followers tried to end traditions which kept the people in poverty, made women slaves and kept the country underdeveloped. They made a slogan that meant power to people and it raised people’s hope. But the repressive regime often spoilt the beauty of the slogans of liberty and equality. However, it was able to end centuries-old inequalities and to spread education among people and make people aware or the need for change.

You can Download Changing Cultural Traditions Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 7 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Changing Cultural Traditions

Class 11 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions And Answers Question 1.
Plenty of facts are available about the history of Europe from the 14^th century. Explain.
Answer:
Plenty of facts are available to us to understand the history of Europe from the 14^th century. They include documents, printed books, artworks, sculptures, buildings, and clothes. In Europe and America, they have been carefully preserved. The first person who taught people the importance of preserving historical evidences was Leopold von Ranke, the famous German historian. He said that the most important responsibility of a historian is writing about nations and their politics and to do that a historian must make use of different documents and files in the various government departments.

Important Questions Of Changing Cultural Traditions Question 2.
During the period of Renaissance, the Italian cities revived. Evaluate the validity of this statement.
Answer:
With the fall of the Western Roman Empire, many of the Italian cities which were the centres of political and cultural activities faced ruin. There was no unified government in Italy. Although the Pope was a sovereign in his own nation, he did not have any appearance of a ruler of strength. As Islam was building up a common culture outside Europe, Italy was a weak and scattered place. But the Renaissance slowly helped the revival of Italy.

When trade between the Byzantine Empire and the Islamic countries increased, the Italian ports were re-energized. From the 12th century, when the Mongols began trade with China through the silk route, the trade between some Oriental countries and Europe increased. Some Italian cities had their role in this expansion of trade.

Changing Cultural Traditions Class 11 Extra Questions Question 3.
“Humanism is part of a curriculum.” Based on this statement, write about the features of humanism and its relation with the Universities.
Answer:
Humanism is an important feature of Renaissance. The Italian cities and universities played a major role in the growth of humanism. The first universities of Europe were started in Italian cities. From 11^th century onwards universities in Padua aid Bologna there were centres of law studies. Since the main business in the cities was trade, there was a great need for pleaders and notaries. To enact laws and to interpret them and to make written agreements, their service was essential. So law became an important subject in universities. Since law is an important discipline in Humanities, humanism became a major part of the curriculum.

Changing Cultural Traditions Class 11 Important Questions Question 4.
Who is “Renaissance Man”? Explain.
Answer:
The term Renaissance Man is used to mean a person with different interests and capabilities. It was a common term used for showing that a person is an exceptional one. Since the famous people or the geniuses of those times came from different countries, this term was used to refer to anyone of them. The leaders of Renaissance were people that were simultaneously experts in scholarship, diplomacy, theology, and art.

Changing Cultural Traditions Extra Questions And Answers Question 5.
“Humanists divided history into many eras.” This is an opinion Biju expressed in a classroom discussion. Do you agree with him? Can you approve of this division of history by the humanists? Explain.
Answer:
Humanists divided history into the following Ages:

1. 5^thcentury to the 14^thcentury – Middle Ages.
2. From the 15^thcentury onwards-Modern Age.

The Middle Ages Period was further subdivided like this:

1. 5^th to the 9^thcentury – Dark Age.
2. 10^th to 11^thcentury – Early Middle Age.
3. 11^th to 14^thcentury – Late Middle Age.

This division of history into various Ages by humanists was later approved by scholars. But recently some historians questioned this division. They disagreed with the idea of dividing centuries into Ages depending on the dynamics of culture. They felt that calling and depicting a period as Dark Age is not appropriate.

Changing Cultural Traditions Questions And Answers Question 6.
The Arabs have contributed greatly to the growth of Renaissance Science and philosophy. Discuss.
Answer:
The monks and priests of the Middle Ages were familiar with the writings of the Greeks and Romans. But they did not do anything to popularise these writings. In the 14^thcentury, many scholars started reading the translated works of Greek writers like Plato and Aristotle. For this they, the scholars, are indebted to the Arab translators. It was the Arabs that carefully preserved the old manuscripts and translated them.

The works of Greek writers were available to the European scholars in two ways. They were able to read them through Arabic translations. Moreover, the works of Arabic Persian scholars were translated by Greeks and thus they too became available to the Europeans.

All these books were about Nature Science, Mathematics, Astronomy, Medicine, and Chemistry. Four most important scholars that contributed greatly to the growth of Renaissance Science and philosophy
were: Ptolemy, Avicenna, al-Rasi and Ibh Rasheed.

Changing Cultural Traditions Class 11 Questions And Answers Question 7.
Realism was The most important feature of Renaissance Art. What is realism? How did it reflect in the Renaissance Art? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Realism was the most important feature of Renaissance Art. Renaissance Artists tried to picture the human body exactly as it is. The studies of the scientists helped them to do it.

To learn about the structure of the skeleton, artists visited laboratories in medical schools. It was Andreas Vesalius who for the first time examined the human. body by cutting it into pieces. Andreas Vesalius was a Belgian who was a Professor at the Padua University. This greatly helped the modem anatomical studies. Renaissance artists wanted to present things as they were.

Changing Cultural Traditions Important Questions Question 8.
In the Renaissance period, there lived some geniuses who were equally proficient in painting (drawing), sculpture and architecture. Explain with examples.
Answer:
In the Renaissance period, there lived some geniuses who were equally proficient in painting, sculpture and architecture: The most important among them was Michelangelo (1475-1564). The pictures he drew on the ceiling of Sistine Chapel, the sculpture of Pieta, and the dome of the St. Peter’s Basilica which he planned, etc. made him immortal.

Another person who was a genius in sculpture and architecture was Filippo Brunelleschi. It was he who drew the plan for the exceptional dome of the Florence Cathedral.

There was a significant change at this time. Until now, an artist was known as a member of some guild of artists. But from the Renaissance Period, they were known by their personal names.

Class 11 History Chapter 7 Questions And Answers Question 9.
“It was not the Europeans that discovered printing, Sini.
“It was Gutenberg who discovered printing,” Shamir.
With whose opinion do you agree? Along with your views, write about the changes printing brought in society.
Answer:
The greatest discovery of the 16th century was the “printing press”. It is true that printing was not originally discovered by the Europeans. For printing, the Europeans must be indebted to the Chinese and the Mongolian rulers. When European traders and diplomats visited the royal courts of the Chinese and Mongol rulers, they learned some things about printing. This helped the Europeans to develop their own printing. Even gun powder, magnetic compass, and abacus were developed this way.

Before the advent of printing, books existed in the form of manuscripts. But the invention of the printing machine by Gutenberg started the printing revolution.

Changing Cultural Traditions Question Answer Question 10.
Humanists brought a new concept about human beings. Discuss.
Answer:
Humanists gave importance to ways of good conduct. They suggested how people should talk politely and dress decently. They also pointed out the characteristics a cultured person should have. Humanism taught that people have the capacity to make a good life even without power and wealth. It taught that human nature had different aspects and some of them were against the three special aspects which the feudal society thought essential for attaining a satisfactory life.

Ch 7 History Class 11 Question Answer Question 11.
During the period of Renaissance, the role of women in public life was very limited. Examine the validity of this statement.
Answer:
The dowry which women received at the time of marriage was invested in the business of their husbands, but they did not have the right to interfere in business affairs or have their say in any such matters. Very often marriage alliances were used to strengthen, businesses. It was usual for parents to send their daughters to convents to become nuns if they could not find the dowry necessary for their marriage. The role of women in public life was very limited. The society looked at them as keepers of the house, housewives.

The Revival Of Italian Cities Class 11 Question 12.
Religious reform movement was started in Germany. Based on this statement, prepare a seminar paper.
Answer:
Religious reform movement was started in Germany. The leader of this movement was a young priest named Martin Luther (1433-1546). He started strong propaganda against the vices and evil practices that were rampant in the Catholic Church at that time. He argued that there was no need for an intermediary between an individual and God. He asked his followers to rely entirely on God. He taught that only good faith and would lead them to a good life and to heaven.

The religious reform movement caused a split in the Catholic Church. The Churches in Germany and Switzerland ended all their relations with the Catholic Church and the Pope. The people who went out of the Catholic Church were named “Protestants” as they protested against the Church.

The ideas of Luther were propagated in Switzerland by Ulrich Zwingli (1484-1534). Later John Calvin (1509-64) gave strong leadership to the Protestant Movement there.

The reformers had the support of merchants. Therefore they got great support in the.cities. But in the rural areas, the Catholic Church was able to maintain its supremacy. Among the German reformists, there were also the Anabaptists who wanted radical changes in Christianity. They considered the concept of heaven as freedom from all kinds of social persecutions. Anabaptists argued that since all people were created equal there was no need for anybody to pay taxes. They also taught that people should have the right to elect their own priests. The farmers who were suffering under the feudal lords were deeply impressed by these new ideas and they welcomed them.

The farmers of Germany who were inspired by the ideas of Luther and Anabaptists organised strong protests against their persecutors. But Luther was not in agreement with those who wanted radical changes. So he exhorted the German rulers to suppress the peasant revolts. In 1525, with the support of Luther, the protests were successfully suppressed.

But Radicalism survived all these oppositions. In France, the radicals joined with the Protestants. The Catholic authorities in France were cruelly persecuting the Protestants there. The Protestants argued that they have a right to remove the Persecutor and elect a new person according to the will of the people. Following this, France also, like other European countries, recognized the Protestant religion.

The Catholic Church allowed the Protestants to have their own way of worship. In England also there was a reform movement. The rulers of England ended ail their relations with the Pope. The King or Queen of England became the Head of the Church there.

To face the Protestant Revolt, the Catholic Church began to bring in reforms. These efforts of the Church to reform itself are collectively called Counter-Reformation. The priests of Spain and Italy stressed the importance of living simple lives and serving the poor.

In Spain St. Ignatius Loyola led the efforts to reform the Catholic Church. To face the Protestant threat, in 1540, he founded a Congregation called the “Society of Jesus”. The members of this Congregation are called Jesuits. Their goal was to serve the poor and enlarge their knowledge of other faiths.

Class 11 History Chapter 7 Important Questions Question 13
The Christian concept of the Universe was proved wrong by Copernicus. Based on this statement, examine the astronomical revolution brought by Copernicus.
Answer:
It was Copernicus, from Poland, who changed the Christian concept about the Universe which was prevalent until then. He started an astronomical revolution. He presented his views about the Universe in his famous book “De Revolutionibus” which means on the revolutions. Copernicus theorized that the sun is the centre of the solar system and the earth and other planets revolve round the sun. This is known as the Heliocentric Theory.

Chapter 7 History Class 11 Questions And Answers Question 14.
The Heliocentric Theory of Copernicus was taken forward by Johannes Kepler and Galilei Galileo. Do you agree with this view? Explain.
Answer:
The theory of Copernicus was approved by people Only after a long time. It was Galileo and Kepler, two famous scientists, who took his theory forward to its perfection.

Johannes Kepler (1571-1630), a German scientist, popularised the idea that the earth was a mere part of the solar system. He wrote this in his famous book “Cosmographic Mystery”. He also proved that the planets revolve around the sun not in a circular manner but in an elliptical course.

Class 11 History Chapter 7 Extra Questions Question 15.
What is Science Revolution? What are the contributions made by Science Groups towards the propagation of the ideas of the Science Revolution?
Answer:
The work of thinkers like Galileo showed that it was not belief but knowledge that is the basis of observations and tests. By moving through these paths shown by the scientists, physics, chemistry, and biology made fast growth. This new approach to man and nature is called the ‘Science Revolution’ by historians. Because of the science revolution, atheist and non-believers in any religion started looking at Nature, and not God, as the creator of things. Even those who retained their faith in God started thinking of God as a distant power who does not interfere in the day-to-day working of the world.

Changing Cultural Traditions Class 11 Notes Question 16.
“The Renaissance era was completely different from the past,” Shibu.
“The Renaissance is a rebirth of the Greco-Roman traditions,” Babu.
“The period before the Renaissance was a Dark Period,” Razia.
Based on these paradoxical views, examine the concept of Renaissance.
Answer:
Peter Burke, a modem historian from England, says that by using, the term Renaissance Jakob Burckhardt exaggerated the difference between the periods before it and after it. Peter Burke added that it would mean that during the Renaissance period the Greco-Roman cultures revived and the scholars and artists accepted the Christian view of the world instead of the pre-Christian view.

Both these arguments are exaggerated in their own ways. The scholars before the Renaissance were familiar with the then cultures and therefore. It would be incorrect to say that the cultures had a rebirth. In the case of religion also there was no serious departure from the past. Religion continued to be an essential part of the life of people.

The Humanist historians pictured Renaissance as a period of energy and artistic creativity. At the same time, they considered the Middle Ages as a park Period with no development at all.

Many of the features of Renaissance could be seen in Italy in the 12^th and 13^th centuries. But some historians point out that even in the 9^th Century France there were literary and artistic development like those of the Renaissance period.