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Students can Download Chapter 8 Sources of Business Finance Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examination

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Sources of Business Finance

Plus One Sources of Business Finance One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Equity shareholders are called
(a) Owners of the company
(b) Partners of the company
(c) Executive of the company
(d) Guardians of the company
Answer:
(a) Owners of the company

Question 2.
Fund required for purchasing current assets is an example of __________
Answer:
Working capital

Question 3.
Under the lease agreement, the lessee get the rights to __________
Answer:
Use the asset for a specified period.

Question 4.
Under the factoring agreement, the factor
Answer:
Collects the client’s debt or account receivables.

Question 5.
Internal sources of capital are those that are
Answer:
generated within the business.

Question 6.
Preference shares abd equity shares are called ____________ securities.
Answer:
Ownership Securities

Question 7.
Equity shareholders are called
(a) Owners of the company
(b) Partners of the company
(c) Executives of the company
(d) Guardians of the company
Answer:
(a) Owners of the company

Question 8.
Equity share capital is called ________ capital
Answer:
Risk

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of equity shares?
(a) Voting rights
(b) Ownership security
(c) Fixed rate of return
(d) Residual owners
Answer:
(c) Fixed rate of return

Question 10.
Which source is called as permanent source of capital?
Answer:
Equity Share Capital

Question 11.
__________ shareholders have the right to control the company.
Answer:
Equity Shareholders

Question 12.
Which source is called as permanent source of capital?
Answer:
Equity Share Capital

Question 13.
Sumesh an NRI is interested to invest in companies, but he is not ready to take up more risk. Which type of security he should buy?
Answer:
Preference shares.

Question 14.
_________ shareholders have the right to get dividend at a fixed rate .
Answer:
Preference shareholders

Question 15.
This source of finance is called ‘internal source of financing’ and ‘self financing’. Identify the source of finance and mention its three merits.
Answer:
Ploughing back of profit

Question 16.
Retained earnings are parts of __________ capital.
Answer:
Ownership Capital

Question 17.
Employment of corporate savings use of accumulated saving in the business in the form of reserves is called
Answer:
Ploughing back of profits

Question 18.
___________ are the cheapest source of finance.
Answer:
Retained earnings

Question 19.
___________ are called creditorship securities
Answer:
Debentures

Question 20.
Debentures which are secured by a charge on the assets of the company are called _________
Answer:
Secured debentures

Question 21.
Debentures which can be converted in equity shares are called _________
Answer:
Convertable debentures

Question 22.
Debenture issued without the name of owner is __________ debenture.
Answer:
Unregistered or naked

Question 23.
Which of the following is not a characterstics features of debentures?
(a) Ownership security
(b) Generally secured
(c) Participate in the surplus profit
(d) Guarantee of returms
Answer:
(c) Participate in the surplus profit

Question 24.
An Indian Company can now raise funds not only from India but also through foreign equity participation. How is it possible?
Answer:

1. GDRs
2. ADRs
3. FDI

Question 25.
Expand the term GDR
Answer:
Global Depositors Receipts.

Question 26.
Expand the term ADR
Answer:
American Depository Receipt

Question 27.
ADRs are issued in
(a) Canada
(b) China
(c) India
(d) USA
Answer:
(d) USA

Question 28.
Identify the type of financial services belonged to each cash explain its features.

1. Acquired a machinery for monthly rental basis from an outside agency.
2. Gives the right for collecting their accounts receivable to a specialised agency.
3. An organization which collects and pools funds from public and invests in securities.

Answer:

1. Leasing
2. Factoring
3. Mutual fund

Question 29.
A company decided to raise its funds by selling its account receivables to an agency. Which type of financial service is maintaining here.
Answer:
Factoring

Question 30.
I render specialized services to companies in the collection of their accounts receivables.
Answer:
Factoring

Question 31.
State the appropriate term to denote the arrangement of acquiring the right to use an asset without actually owning it.
Answer:
Leasing

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is business finance? Why do businesses need funds? Explain. (2)
Answer:
Nature of Business Finance:

1. Fixed capital requirements:
In order to start a business funds are needed to purchase fixed assets like land and building, plant and machinery. This is called fixed capital requirement.

2. Working Capital requirements:
A business needs funds for its day to day operation. This is known as working Capital requirements. Working capital is required for purchase of raw materials, to pay salaries, wages, rent and taxes.

Question 2.
These are shares which carry preferential rights over the equity shares. Being a commerce student, identify this type of share. And state its 2 preferential rights. (2)
Answer:
Preference shares.
Their preferential rights are:

1. The right to get a fixed rate of divided
2. The right to claim repayment of capital in the event of winding up of the company.

Question 3.
Match the following

1. Equity share – Fixed percentage of interest
2. Debenture – International source of finance
3. Preference share – Real owner
4. American depository – No voting right receipt

Answer:

1. Equity share – Real owner
2. Debenture – Fixed percentage of interest
3. Preference share – No voting right
4. American depository receipt – International source of finance

Question 4.
An Indian company can expand not only through the fund in India but also from foreign equity participation. How is it possible? (2)
Answer:
FDI. It refers to direct subscription to the equity capital of an Indian company by a multinational corporation. It includes Establishment of a new enterprise in a foreign.

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An Indian company can now raise funds not only from India, but also through foreign equity participation. How is it possible? Explain
Answer:
GDR: Global Depository Receipts are issued by an Indian company to an intermediary abroad called an Overseas Depository Bank. They are issued and traded in European capital market.

ADR: American Depository receipts are issued and traded in U.S.A.

Question 2.
List sources of raising long-term and short-term finance. (3)
Answer:
Long Term Sources:
The amount of funds required by a business for more than five years is called long-term finance. Generally this type
of finance is required for the purchase of fixed assets like land and building, plant and machinery furniture, etc. It include sources such as shares and debentures, long-term borrowings and loans from financial institutions.

Short Term Sources:
Short-term funds are those which are required for a period not exceeding one year. These sources include Trade credit, loans from commercial banks and commercial papers etc. Short-term finance is used for financing of current assets such as accounts receivable and inventories.

Question 3.
Name any three special financial institutions and state their objectives. (3)
Answer:
Financial Institutions:
The state and central government have established many financial institutions to provide finance to companies. These institutions aim at promoting the industrial development of a country, these are also called ‘development Bank’. These are IFCI, ICICI, IDBI and LIC, UTI.

This source of financing is considered suitable when large funds for longer duration are required for expansion, reorganisation and modernisation of an enterprise.
Merits:

1. Financial Institution provide long term finance which is not provided by Commercial Bank
2. These institutions provide financial, managerial and technical advice and consultancy to business firms.
3. It increases the goodwill of the borrowing company in the capital market.
4. As repayment of loan can be made in easy installments, it does not prove to be much of a burden on the business.
5. The funds are made available even during periods of depression, when other sources of finance are not available.

Limitations:

1. The procedure for granting loan is time consuming due to rigid criteria and many formalities.
2. Financial Institution place restrictions on the powers of the borrowing company.
3. Financial institutions may have their nominees on the Board of Directors of the borrowing company thereby restricting the autonomy of the company.

Question 4.
While presenting a seminar paper on different sources of business finance, your friend Vineeth, pointed out that “ownership capital is the risk capital of the business”. Can you explain why it is called risk capital? (3)
Answer:
Equity shareholders are the real owners of the company. Equity shareholders will get their dividend only after dividend is paid to preference shareholders. They can claim back their capital only on winding up after discharging all other liabilities of the company. So we can say that ownership capital is the risk capital of the business.

Question 5.
“ADR & GDR serves the same purpose whenever shares are issued abroad by Indian companies”. Then why can’t we call them by the same name? (3)
Answer:
The important differences between ADR and GDR are:

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the difference between internal and external sources of raising funds?
Answer:

Question 2.
What is the difference between GDR and ADR? (4)
Answer:

Question 3.
Discuss the financial instruments used in international financing. (4)
Answer:
International Financing:

1. Commercial Banks:
Commercial banks all over the world extend foreign currency loans for business purposes. Standard chartered is a major source of foreign currency loan to the Indian industry.

2. International Agencies and Development Banks:
A number of international agencies and development banks provide long and medium term loans and grants to promote the development of economically backward areas in the world. Eg. International Finance Corporation (IFC), EXIM Bank and Asian Development Bank.

3. International Capital Markets:

a. Global Depository Receipts (GDR’s):
Under GDR, shares of the company are first converted into depository receipts by international banks. These depository receipts are denominated in US dollars. Then these depository receipts are offered for sale globally through foreign stock exchanges. GDR is a negotiable instrument and can be traded freely like any other security.

The holder of GDRs are entitled for dividend just like shareholders. But they do not enjoy the voting rights. Many Indian companies like ICICI, Wipro etc. have raised foreign capital through issue of GDRs.
Feature of GDR:

• GDR can be listed and traded on a stock exchange of any foreign country other than America.
• It is negotiable instrument.
• A holder of GDR can convert it into the shares.
• Holder gets dividends
• Holder does not have voting rights.
• Many Indian companies such as Reliance, Wipro and ICICI have issue GDR.

b. American Depository Receipts (ADR’s):
The depository receipts issued by a company in the USA are known as American Depository Receipts.
Feature of ADR:

• It can be issued only to American Citizens.
• It can be listed and traded is American stock exchange.
• Indian companies such as Infosys, Reliance issued ADR

Question 4.
Explain different types of Preference shares. (4)
Answer:
Types of Preference Shares:

a. Cumulative and Non-cumulative Preference Share:
in cumulative preference shares, the unpaid dividends are accumulated and carried forward for payment in future years. On the other hand, in non- cumulative preference share, the dividend is not accumulated if it is not paid out of the current year’s profit.

b. Participating and Non-participating Preference Share:
Participating preference shares have a right to share the profit after making payment to the equity shares. The non-participating preference shares do not enjoy such a right.

c. Convertible and Non-convertible Preference Share:
The preference shares which can be converted into equity shares after a specified period of time are known as convertible preference share. Non-convertible shares cannot be converted into equity shares.

d. Redeemable and Irredeemable Preference Share:
Redeemable preference shares are those where the company undertakes to repay it after a specified period. Where the amount of the preference shares is refunded only at the time of liquidation, are known an irredeemable preference shares.

Merits:

1. Preference shares provide reasonably steady income in the form of fixed rate of return and safety of investment.
2. Preference shares are useful for those investors who want fixed rate of return with comparatively low risk

Limitations:

1. Preference shareholders have no voting right.
2. The dividend paid is not deductible from profit for income tax.

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a commercial paper? What are its advantages and limitations. (5)
Answer:
Commercial Paper (CP):
It is an unsecured promissory note issued by a firm to raise funds for a short period. The maturity period of commercial paper usually ranges from 90 days to 364 days. Being unsecured, only firms having good credit rating can issue the CP and its regulation comes under the purview of the Reserve Bank of India.
Merits:

1. A commercial paper does not contain any restrictive conditions.
2. As it is a freely transferable instrument, it has high liquidity.
3. A commercial paper provides a continuous source of funds.
4. They are cheaper than a bank loan.

Limitations:

1. Only financially sound and highly rated firms can raise money through commercial papers
2. The size of money that can be raised through commercial paper is limited
3. Commercial paper is an impersonal method of financing. Extending the maturity of a CP is not possible.
4. Issue of commercial paper is very closely regulated by the RBI guidelines.

Question 2.
Mr. Ganesh, a sole trader, acquired a machinery on a monthly rental basis from an outside agency. Identify the type of financial service in which he entered into. Explain it. (5)
Answer:
Lease Financing:
A lease is a contractual agreement whereby the owner of an asset (lessor) grants the right to use the asset to the other party (lessee). The lessor charges a periodic payment for renting of an asset for some specified period called lease rent.
Merits:

1. It enables the lessee to acquire the asset with a lower investment;
2. Lease rentals paid by the lessee are deductible for computing taxable profits;
3. It provides finance without diluting the ownership or control of business
4. The lease agreement does not affect the debt raising capacity of an enterprise;
5. Simple documentation makes it easier to finance assets.

Limitations:

1. A lease arrangement may impose certain restrictions on the use of assets.
2. The normal business operations may be affected in case the lease is not renewed.
3. The lessee never becomes the owner of the
   asset.

Question 3.
Both Equity shares and Preference shares are ownership funds of a company. But there is significant difference between these two funds. Can you identify the same. (5)
Answer:

Plus One Sources of Business Finance Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“The issue of debentures provides wide options to the company as well as investors in terms of its features”. Can you substantiate the statement from the point of view of its classification? (8)
Answer:
Debentures:
A debenture is a document issued by a company under its seal to acknowledge its debt. Debenture holders are, therefore, termed as creditors of the company. Debenture holders are paid a fixed rate of interest.
Types of Debentures:

a. Secured and Unsecured Debentures:
Secured (Mortgaged) debentures are debentures which are secured by a charge on the assets of the company. Unsecured (Simple or naked) debentures do not carry any charge or security on the assets of the company.

b. Registered and Bearer Debentures:
In the case registered debentures, the name, address and other details of the debenture holders are entitled in the books of the company. The debentures which are transferable by mere delivery are called bearer (Unsecured) debentures.

c. Convertible and Non-convertible Debentures:
Convertible debentures are those debentures that can be converted into equity shares after the expiry of a specified period. On the other hand, non¬convertible debentures are those which cannot be converted into equity shares.

d. First and Second:
Debentures that are repaid before other debentures are repaid are known as first debentures. The second debentures are those which are paid after the first debentures have been paid back.

Merits:

1. It. is preferred by investors who want fixed income at lesser risk
2. Debenture holder do not have voting right
3. Interest on Debentures is a tax deductable expense
4. It does not dilute control of equity shareholders on management
5. Debentures are less costly as compared to cost of preference shares.
6. They guarantee a fixed rate of interest
7. It enables the company to take the advantage of trading on equity.
8. The issue of debentures is suitable when the sales and earnings are relatively stable

Limitations:

1. It is not suitable for companies with unstable future earnings.
2. The company has to mortgage its assets to issue debentures.
3. Debenture holders do not enjoy any voting rights.
4. In case of redeemable debentures, the company has to make provisions for repayment on the specified date, even during periods of financial difficulty.
5. With the new issue of debentures, the company’s capability to further borrow funds reduces.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Shares and Debentures. (8)
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 7 Formation of a Company Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examination

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Formation of a Company

Plus One Formation of a Company One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Application for approval of name of a company is to be made to
Answer:
Registrar of companies.

Question 2.
A prospectus is issued by
Answer:
Public company

Question 3.
Preliminary contracts are signed
Answer:
Before the incorporation

Question 4.
At which stage in the formation of a company does it interact with SEBI
Answer:
Capital subscription

Question 5.
The first stage in the formation of a company is __________
Answer:
Promotion

Question 6.
“I undertake to form a new company and carry out all the preliminary work in connection with its establishment” Who am I?
Answer:
Promoter

Question 7.
Preliminary Contracts are signed
1. Before the incorporation
2. After incorporation but before capital subscription
3. After incorporation but before of commencement of business
4. After commencement business
Answer:
1. Before the incorporation

Question 8.
Spot the odd one and state the reason
1. Memorandum of Association
2. Articles of Association
3. Certificate of incorporation
4. Certificate of commencement of business
Answer:
5. Certificate of commencement of business

Question 9.
_____________ is the magnacarta of the company.
Answer:
Memorandum of Association

Question 10.
_____________ is the birth certificate of a company.
Answer:
Certificate of incorporation

Question 11.
The procedure for conducting company meetings, voting, quorum, poll and proxy will be mentioned in the
1. Prospectus
2. Memorandum of Association
3. Articles of Association
Answer:
3. Articles of Association

Question 12.
The provision regarding the internal management of a company will appear in its
Answer:
Articles of Association

Question 13.
Public Companies need __________ to commence the business.
Answer:
Certificate of commencement of business

Question 14.
Directors of a public Ltd. Co. decided to give advertisement in all newspapers for subscribing their shares. Identify the document given below
1. table A
2. memorandum of association
3. prospectus
Answer:
3. Prospectus

Question 15.
This clauses is the form of a declaration, it states that the subscribers express the willingness and agreement to form a company. Name the clause of memorandum of association.
Answer:
Association Clause

Question 16.
This clause specifies the name of the state where the registered office of the Co. is situated. Identify the clause.
Answer:
Situation clause

Question 17.
This clause specifies the name of the company.
Answer:
Name clause

Question 18.
Identify the document in which the following information about a company can be found.

1. Object with which the company is formed.
2. Rules and regulations of internal management
3. Investing deposits from the public
4.  Acknowledgement of debt in a company

Answer:

1. Memorandum of Association
2. Articles of Association
3. Mutual fund
4. Debenture

Question 19.
TABLE A is a model of _________ given in companies Act.
Answer:
Articles of Association

Question 20.
Identify the documents in which following information about a company is found.

1. Authorized capital
2.  Rules and regulation for internal management.
3.  Date of opening and closing of subscription list.

Answer:

1. Memorandum of Associaiton
2. Articles of Association
3. Prospectus

Question 21.
Identify the relevant clauses in the memorandum of association in which the following information can be included.

1. The registered office is in Kerala.
2. Statutory declaration by members
3. Ram Limited
4. The scope of activities of company

Answer:

1. Situation clause
2. Association clause
3. Name clause
4. Object clause

Question 22.
State the odd item in the case of a private limited company.
1. memorandum of association
2. articles of association
3. certificate of incorporation
4. certificate of commencement of business
Answer:
4. Certificate of Commencement of business

Question 23.
Mention the name of the certificates/documents relating to following activities / formalities

1. The certificate issued by the Registrar of companies certifying that the company has come into existence.
2. The document, which contains the various rules and regulations that govern the management of the company.
3. The document that defines the objectives of the company.

Answer:

1. Certificate of Incorporation
2. Articles of Association
3. Memorandum of Association

Question 24.
Name the following documents.

1. The document issued by the company to the public to invite them to subscribe its share capital.
2. The document that binds a member with the company, company with members and members with members.
3. The document that contains rules for internal management of the company.
4. The document that specifies the aims of the company.
5. The document issued by the public company which does not want to issue a prospectus.

Answer:

1. Prospectus
2. Articles of Association
3. Articles of Association
4. Memorandum of Association
5. Statement in lieu of Prospectus

Plus One Formation of a Company Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the stages in the formation of a company?
Answer:

1. Promotion
2. Incorporation
3. Capital subscription
4. Commencement of business (2)

Question 2.
Name the stages in the formation of a company. (2)
Answer:

1. Promotion
2. Incorporation
3. Commencement of business

Question 3.
What do you mean by promotion? (2)
Answer:
The identification of business opportunities, analysis of its prospects and initiating steps to form a joint stock company is called promotion.

Question 4.
For incorporating a private limited company, Deepthi Pvt. Ltd., the directors submit all relevant documents to the registrar of company except Articles of Association. But the registrar insists that, registration will not be granted without filing Articles of Association. But the directors of Deepthi Pvt. Ltd., argue that the provisions of ‘Table A’ can be adopted in the absence of Articles of Association. Whose argument is correct? Justify your answer. (2)
Answer:
The argument of the Company Registrar is right because filing of Articles of association is compulsory for Pvt. Ltd company by shares.

Question 5.
Arya Ltd. commences its business immediately on getting the certificate of incorporation. The registrar of companies serves a notice to them for remitting a fine of ₹500 for everyday of its operation. Is it legally enforceable? Give your suggestion. (2)
Answer:
Yes. Public Ltd. Company can commence business only after getting the certificate of commencement of business.

Question 6.
It is proposed to conduct a seminar on the topic ‘important documents in the formation of joint stock company’ in your class. You are selected as the leader of one of the groups and are directed to submit a seminar paper for the same. Suggest valuable points that should be included in the paper. (2)
Answer:

1. Memorandum of Association
2. Articles of Association
3. Prospectus

Question 7.
What do you mean by Minimum Subscription? (2)
Answer:
Minimum subscription is the minimum amount of shares that must be subscribed by the public. This amount is stated in the prospectus. A company can allot shares only after receiving minimum subscription.

Question 8.
I lay down the charter or the constitution of the company. I define the object and powers of the company.

1. Identify who am I?
2. Also name my companion who provides rules and regulations for the internal management of the company. (Both are two documents). (2)

Answer:

1. Memorandum of Association
2. Articles of Association

Plus One Formation of a Company Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Is it necessary for a public company to get its shares listed on a stock exchange? What happens if a public company fails to get the permission from stock exchange? (3)
Answer:
Yes. A public company must list its shares with at least any one of the stock exchange for the allotment of shares. Therefore, the promoters must apply in a stock exchange for permission to deal in its shares or debentures. If permission is not granted before the expiry of ten weeks from the date of Closure of subscription list, the allotment shall become void and the application money must be returned to the applicants within eight days.

Question 2.
State the difference between certificate of incorporation and certificate of commencement of business. (3)
Answer:
Certificate of Incorporation gives legal status to the company. It is also known as birth certificate of the company. But certificate of commencement of business allows to start the operation.

These two certificates are required by the public limited company, but in case of private limited company only certificate of Incorporation is required to start the operation.

Question 3.
Nisha, Shani and Sheena are promoters of a public company. But they do not want to raise capital by approaching the public. They decide to raise capital by issuing shares to a few persons. Is it possible? If yes, what document is used for raising capital? (3)
Answer:
Yes. They can raise capital by issuing shares to a few persons. For this they can issue Statement in lieu of prospectus.

Plus One Formation of a Company Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify the documents required for commencing business for the following companies. (4)

1. Athira Pvt. Ltd.
2. Aditya Ltd.

Answer:
1. Athira Pvt. Ltd – A private company must file the following documents for commencing business

• Certificate of incorporation
• Statutory declaration duly verified by one of the directors.

2. Aditya Ltd., a public company, must file the following documents for commencing business.

• Certificate of incorporation
• Certificate of commencement of business
• Prospectus
• Statutory declaration duly verified by one of the directors.

Question 2.
The details of a proposed private company having limited liability is given below. You are required to identify as to which clauses in the Memorandum of Association have to be rightly inserted. (4)
Proposed names:
Mahatma Gandhi Khadi – Company
Premier Mills (P) Ltd.
Kerala Government Khadi Company
Sobha Co-operative Company
Maximum capital which can be collected is 20 lakhs rupees
Nature of shares
Equity shares at Rs. 10/- share

Address:
Pushpa Nivas Kodunganoor (P.O)
Thiruvananthapuram 13
Kerala State
India.

Nature of business:
To produce Khadi clothes through machine To stitch Khadi ready wears Name of the persons who are wishing to form the company
P. Sudarsanan
K. Muraleedharan Nair
S. Renjith
Answer:

1. Name clause
2. Capital clause
3. Situation clause
4. Object clause
5. Association clause

Plus One Formation of a Company Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Promoter would be personally liable for the preliminary contracts, if they are not ratified by the company after incorporation. Analyse the statement. (5)
Answer:
Promotion:
Promotion is the first stage in the formation of a company. The identification of business opportunities, analysis of its prospects and initiating steps to form a joint stock company is called promotion. The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.

Functions of a Promoter:

1. Identification of business opportunity:
The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.

2. Feasibility studies:
After identifying a business opportunity, the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the viability and profitability of the proposed activity.

• Technical feasibility – To determine whether the raw materials or technology is easily available
• Financial feasibility – To determine the total estimated cost of the project
• Economic feasibility – To determine the I profitability of the proposed project

3. Name approval:
After selecting the name of company the promoters submit an application to the Registrar of companies for its approval. The selected name is not the same or identical to an existing company.

4. Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association:
Promoters have to decide about the members who will be signing the Memorandum of Association of the proposed company.

5. Appointment of professional:
Promoters appoint merchant bankers, auditors etc. to assist them in the preparation of necessary documents.

6. Preparation of necessary documents:
The promoters prepare certain legal documents which are to be submitted to the Registrar of companies. They are

• Memorandum of Association
• Articles of Association,
• Consent of proposed Directors
• Agreement, if any, with proposed managing or whole time director
• Statutory declaration

Position of Promoters:
The promoter is neither an agent nor a trustee of the company. The promoter stands in the fiduciary relationship with the company. He should not make any secret profits out of the dealings. Any, such gains are to be disclosed. The promoter must act honestly, in good faith and in the best interest of the company.

The promoter is personally liable for all the preliminary contracts with the other parties before incorporation. The promoter is also liable for any omission of facts or false statements in the prospectus.

Question 2.
Memorandum of Association is the charter or magna carta of the company. Elucidate the statement. (5)
Answer:
Memorandum of Association:
It is the charter or magnacarta of the company. It defines the objects of the company and provides the framework beyond which the company cannot operate. It lays down the relationship of the company with outside world.

Memorandum of Association must be printed, divided into paragraphs, numbered consecutively. The Memorandum of Association must be signed by at least seven persons in case of a public company and by two persons in case of a private company.

Contents of Memorandum of Association

1. The name clause:
Under this clause the name of the company is mentioned. A company can select any name subject to the following restrictions.

• The proposed name should not be identical with the name of another company
• A name which can mislead the public
• In case of a public company the name should end with the word ‘Limited’ and in case of a private company the name should end with the word ‘Private Limited’
• The name must not directly or indirectly imply any participation of the Central or State Govt.
• The name must not suggest any connection or patronage of a national hero
• It should not include the word cooperative.

2. Registered office clause:
This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated. It must be informed to the Registrar within thirty days of the incorporation of the company.

3. Objects clause:
This is the most important clause of the memorandum. It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.

4. Liability clause:
It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.

5. Capital clause:
This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through, the issue of shares.

6. Association clause:
In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Question 3.
Explain the contents of prospectus. (5)
Answer:
Prospectus:
Prospectus is a document issued by the public companies inviting the public to subscribe for shares or debentures of the company. It contains all information regarding the company’s affairs and its future prospects. A prospectus must be dated and signed by all the directors. A copy of the prospectus must be filed with Registrar before it is issued to public.

Contents of prospectus

1. Name and address of the registered office of the company.
2. Main objects of the company.
3. Classes of shares and debentures.
4. Name, address and occupation of the signatories to the memorandum.
5. Details of the borrowing powers of the company.
6. Name, address and occupation of the directors and managing director.
7. Name and address of the promoters.
8. Minimum subscription.
9. Time of opening and closing of subscription.
10.  The amount payable on application and allotment of each class of shares.
11.  Name of underwriters.
12.  Details of preliminary expenses.
    Companies which do not want to issue a prospectus may submit a statement in lieu of prospectus to the Registrar of Companies. It is a copy of the prospectus but is not issued to the public.

Question 4.
The details of a proposed limited company are given below. You are required to identify them as to which clause of the memorandum of association they have to be inserted. (5)

1. Proposed name: Jnana Construction Company Ltd
2. Maximum Capital: ₹10,00,000
3. Registered office: Kollam
4. Nature of liability: Limited
5. Nature of Business: Construction company
6. Names of promoters: Jnana, Akshara, Pooja, Ajay

Answer:

1. Name clause
2. Capital clause
3. Situation / Domicile clause
4. Liability clause
5. Object clause
6. Association clause

Question 5
A public company can commence business only after getting the certificate of commencement of business. Abhijith, a plus two student wants to know the conditions to be fulfilled to obtain the certificate of commencement of business.
Answer:

Commencement of Business:
A public company can commence business only after getting certificate of commencement of business from the Registrar. The company must file the following documents to obtain the certificate of commencement of business.

1. Declaration that the minimum subscription has been received in cash to allot shares.
2. A declaration that all directors have taken up and paid for their qualification shares
3. A statutory declaration stating that necessary legal formalities have been complied with has to be filed.

The Registrar shall examine these documents. If these are found satisfactory, a ‘Certificate of Commencement of Business’ will be issued. This certificate is conclusive evidence that the company is entitled to do business. With the grant of this certificate the formation of a public company is complete and the company can legally start doing business.
Documents used in the formation of a company

Plus One Formation of a Company Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
I govern the internal affairs of the company. Explain who am ‘I’? List out my contents.
OR
For the purpose of registering a new company, the promoter requires a document containing the rules and regulations governing its internal affairs. (6)

1. What is that document? Explain.
2. State the contents of this statement.

Answer:
Articles of Association:
The Articles of Association is the second important document of a company. The Articles define the rights, duties and powers of the officers and the Board of directors. It contains the rules regarding internal management of the company. It shows the relationship between the company and its members.

Contents of Articles of Association:

1. The share capital of the company and its division.
2. Rights of each class of shareholders.
3. Details of contracts made with different parties.
4. Procedure for making allotment of shares.
5. Procedure for issuing share certificate.
6. Procedure for transfer and transmission of shares.
7. Procedure for forfeiture and reissue of shares.
8. Procedure for conducting meetings, voting, proxy and poll
9. Procedure for appointing, removal and remuneration of directors.
10. Procedure for declaration of and payment of dividend.
11. Keeping books of account and audit of the company.
12. Procedure regarding alteration of share capital.
13. Procedure regarding winding up of the company.

Table A:
A public limited company may adopt Table A which is a model set of articles given in the Companies Act. Table A is a document containing rules and regulations for the internal management of a company. If a company adopts Table A, there is no need to prepare separate Articles of Association.

Question 2.
Vishnu, a promoter of a public company, approaches you to get information relating to raising of capital from public. As a commerce student mention the document required for inviting the public to purchase or subscribe to its shares and debentures. Explain. (6)
Answer:
Prospectus:
Prospectus is a document issued by the public companies inviting the public to subscribe for shares or debentures of the company. It contains all information regarding the company’s affairs and its future prospects. A prospectus must be dated and signed by all the directors. A copy of the prospectus must be filed with Registrar before it is issued to public.

Contents of prospectus:

1. Name and address of the registered office of the company.
2. Main objects of the company.
3. Classes of shares and debentures.
4. Name, address and occupation of the signatories to the memorandum.
5. Details of the borrowing powers of the company.
6. Name, address and occupation of the directors and managing director.
7. Name and address of the promoters.
8. Minimum subscription.
9. Time of opening and closing of subscription.
10. The amount payable on application and allotment of each class of shares.
11. Name of underwriters.
12. Details of preliminary expenses.

Companies which do not want to issue a prospectus may submit a statement in lieu of prospectus to the Registrar of Companies. It is a copy of the prospectus but is not issued to the public.

Question 3.
It is often said that Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association are the first and second important documents of a company. As a commerce student can you differentiate between these two documents? (6)
Answer:

Plus One Formation of a Company Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the steps in the incorporation of a company. (8)
Answer:
Incorporation:
A company comes into existence only when it is registered with the Registrar of Companies. For this purpose the promoter has to take the following steps:
Steps for Incorporation

1. Application for incorporation:
Promoters make an application for the incorporation of the company to the Registrar of companies.

2. Filing of documents:
The following documents must be filed with the Registrar of Companies for incorporation.

• The Memorandum of Association duly stamped, signed and witnessed
• Articles of Association duly stamped, signed and witnessed
• Written consent of the proposed directors
• Agreement, if any, with proposed managing or whole time director
• A copy of the Registrar’s letter approving the name of the company.
• Statutory declaration
• A notice about the exact address of the registered office.
• Documentary evidence of payment of registration fees.

The Registrar verifies the entire document submitted. If he is satisfied then he enters the name of the company in his Register. After the registration, the Registrar issues a Certificate called Certificate of Incorporation. This is called the birth certificate of the company. With effect from November 1, 2000, the Registrar of Companies allots a CIN (Corporate Identity Number) to the Company.

Effect of the Certificate of Incorporation:
Certificate of Incorporation is the conclusive evidence of the legal existence of the company. A private company can commence its business after receiving Certificate of Incorporation. The certificate of incorporation is the birth certificate of the company.

Question 2.
Explain the contents of Memorandum of Association.

Answer:
Memorandum of Association: It is the charter or magnacarta of the company. It defines the objects of the company and provides the framework beyond which the company cannot operate. It lays down the relationship of the company with outside world.

Memorandum of Association must be printed, divided into paragraphs, numbered consecutively. The Memorandum of Association must be signed by at least seven persons in case of a public company and by two persons in case of a private company.

Contents of Memorandum of Association:

1. The name clause:
Under this clause the name of the company is mentioned. A company can select any name subject to the following restrictions.

• The proposed name should not be identical with the name of another company
• A name which can mislead the public
• In case of a public company the name should end with the word ‘Limited’ and in case of a private company the name should end with the word ‘Private Limited’
• The name must not directly or indirectly imply any participation of the Central or State Govt.
• The name must not suggest any connection or patronage of a national hero
• It should not include the word co operative.

2. Registered office clause:
This clause contains the name of the state, in which the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated. It must be informed to the Registrar within thirty days of the incorporation of the company.

3. Objects clause:
This is the most important clause of the memorandum. It defines the purpose for which the company is formed. A company is not legally entitled to undertake an activity, which is beyond the objects stated in this clause.

4. Liability clause:
It states that the liability of members is limited to the face value of shares held by them or the amount guaranteed to be paid on winding up.

5. Capital clause:
This clause specifies the maximum capital which the company will be authorised to raise through, the issue of shares.

6. Association clause:
In this clause, the signatories to the Memorandum of Association state their intention to be associated with the company and also give their consent to purchase qualification shares.

Question 3.
Mr. Hemand, a Gulf returnee, intends to start a business in the form of private limited company. But he lias no clear idea about the business opportunities in Kerala and the formalities to be followed in the formation of company. (8)

1. As a commerce student can you suggest a specialised person who would undertake all activities for the formation of a company?
2. Explain the functions of those specialised persons.

Answer:

Promotion:
Promotion is the first stage in the formation of a company. The identification of business opportunities, analysis of its prospects and initiating steps to form a joint stock company is called promotion. The person who undertakes to form a company is called promoter.

Functions of a Promoter:

1. Identification of business opportunity:
The first and foremost activity of a promoter is to identify a business opportunity.

2. Feasibility studies:
After identifying a business opportunity, the promoters undertake some feasibility studies to determine the viability and profitability of the proposed activity.

• Technical feasibility – To determine whether the raw materials or technology is easily available
• Financial feasibility – To determine the total estimated cost of the project
• Economic feasibility – To determine the I profitability of the proposed project

3. Name approval:
After selecting the name of company the promoters submit an application to the Registrar of companies for its approval. The selected name is not the same or identical to an existing company.

4. Fixing up signatories to the Memorandum of Association:
Promoters have to decide about the members who will be signing the Memorandum of Association of the proposed company.

5. Appointment of professional:
Promoters appoint merchant bankers, auditors, etc. to assist them in the preparation of necessary documents.

6. Preparation of necessary documents:
The promoters prepare certain legal documents which are to be submitted to the Registrar of companies. They are

• Memorandum of Association
• Articles of Association,
• Consent of proposed Directors
• Agreement, if any, with proposed managing or whole time director
• Statutory declaration

Position of Promoters:
The promoter is neither an agent nor a trustee of the company. The promoter stands in the fiduciary relationship with the company. He should not make any secret profits out of the dealings. Any, such gains are to be disclosed. The promoter must act honestly, in good faith and in the best interest of the company.

The promoter is personally liable for all the preliminary contracts with the other parties before incorporation. The promoter is also liable for any omission of facts or false statements in the prospectus.

Students can Download Chapter 6 Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examination

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify which of the following is not a social responsibility of business _________
1. Offering goods and services at reasonable price.
2. Keeping environment pollution free
3. Giving reasonable pay to workers
4. Help in nation building activities
Answer:
3. Giving reasonable pay to workers

Question 2.
State Bank of India gives scholarship to bright students each year. This is a part of their __________
1. Sales promotion
2. Social responsibility
3. Charity work
4. Business ethics
Answer:
2. Social responsibility

Question 3.
Application of general ethics and principles in business practice is ____________
Answer:
Business ethics

Question 4.
It is the belief in what is right, proper and just. Identify it.
Answer:
Business ethics

Question 5.
______________ is the code of conduct followed and performed by businessmen.
Answer:
Business ethics

Question 6.
Which among the following is not a case for an ethical activity.
1. child labour
2. equal pay for equal work
3. dumbing of waste in river
4. high usage of preservatives in products.
Answer:
2. Equal pay for equal work

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Roy and Rejitha joined in a factory as peons on the same day. Both of them are doing 8 hrs work a day. Roy is paid ₹100 while Rejitha ₹80 per day. Do you think the owner of the factory is fair to Rejitha? If not, give your opinion. (2)
Answer:
No. The owner of the factory is not fair to Rejitha. It is the social and moral responsibility of the business to offer equal pay for equal work without considering any caste, sex, etc.

Question 2.
Explain the need for pollution control. (2)
Answer:
Need for Pollution Control:

1. Reduction of health hazard:
Pollution control measures can check diseases like cancer, heart attack & lung complications and support a healthy life on earth.

2. Reduced Risk of Liability:
It is a sound business policy to install pollution control devices in its premises to reduce the risk of liability of paying compensation to the affected people.

3. Cost Saving:
An effective pollution control programme is needed to save costs of operating business.

4. Improved Public Image:
A firm that adopts pollution control measures enjoys a good reputation as a socially responsible enterprise.

5. Other social benefits:
Pollution control results in many other benefits like clearer visibility, cleaner buildings, better quality of life, and the availability of natural products in a purer form.

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
George is working in a manufacturing industry. The manager compels him to do 10hrs work continuously without giving any additional benefits. Do you agree with the manager? Give your suggestions. (3)
Answer:
No. We cannot agree with the decision of the manager. It is against the social responsibility of the business. George has to work only 8 hours a day. Compelling to do 10 (without any additional benefits) hours is a violation of human right. Managers cannot ask a worker to do work continuously without giving remuneration. It is also a violation of human rights.

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match column A with columns B and C

Answer:

Question 2.
Jaleel, owner of a fish stall, usually sells damaged and decayed fish by pouring chemicals, ice, along with sea sand for creating an impression in the minds of consumers that it is newly caught. Is it justifiable from the point of view of business ethics? How will it affect the reputation of the business? (4)
Answer:
Business ethics refer to the socially determined moral principles which should govern business activities.
A few examples of business ethics are

• charging fair prices from customers
• providing quality products
• using fair weights for measurement of commodities
• giving fair treatment to workers & earning only reasonable profits.

Ethical business behaviour improves public image, earns people’s confidence and trust, and leads to greater success. Selling damaged and decayed fish is unethical.

It will affect the reputation of the business and finally it leads to business loss. He must not goods of low quality for personal gain. No business can make progress without adopting ethical values.

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Anchu, a stationery dealer distributed good quality products at low price by suffering huge losses, in order to eliminate the competition from Chinju, another stationery dealer, in the same locality. When Chinju stopped her business, Anchu started to supply low quality products at high price. (5)

1. Can you justify Anchu’s action from point of view of the society?
2. Give a few undesirable practices which a business follow in a real life situation.

Answer:
1. No. We cannot justify Anchu’s action. It is against business ethics. Business ethics refers to moral values which should be followed in business activities.

2. Examples of unethical practices are

• Providing low quality products at high prices.
• Making misleading advertisements.
• Creating artificial scarcity to increase demand.
• Keeping false accounts to avoid paying taxes.
• Acceptance of bribe for personal benefits.
• Manufacture and sale of adulterated goods.
• Polluting the environment.
• Exploiting workers.

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What steps can an enterprise take to protect the environment from the dangers of pollution? (6)
Answer:
Role of Business in Environmental Protection:

1. A definite commitment by top management to create a work culture for environmental protection

2. Ensuring that commitment of environmental protection is shared throughout the enterprise by all divisions and employees.

3. Developing clear cut policies and programmes for purchasing good quality raw materials, introducing superior technology, using scientific techniques of disposal of waste and developing employee skills for pollution control

4. Complying with the laws and regulations enacted by the Government for prevention of pollution.

5. Participation in government programs relating to management of hazardous substances, cleaning up of polluted rivers, plantation of trees, and checking deforestation.

6. Periodical assessment of pollution control programmes in terms of costs and benefits with a view to improve them.

7. Arranging educational workshops and training materials to share technical information with everyone involved in pollution control.

Question 2.
Explain the elements of business ethics. (6)
Answer:
Business Ethics:
Ethics is concerned with what is right and what is wrong in human behavior. Business ethics refer to the socially determined moral principles which should govern business activities.

Business ethics is the code of conduct followed and performed by every business. Ethical business behavior improves public image earn’s public confidence and leads to greater success.
Examples of Business Ethics:

1. Charging fair prices from customers
2. Using fair weights for measurement of commodities
3. Giving fair treatment to workers
4. Earning reasonable profits.
5. Avoiding adulteration, hoarding etc.
6. Using environmentally friendly products

Elements of Business Ethics:

1. Top management commitment:
The Chief Executive Officer and higher level managers must give continuous leadership for developing and upholding the moral values of the organisation.

2. Publication of a Code:
‘Code’ refers to a formal written document of the principles, values and standards that guide a firm’s actions. It may cover the areas of fundamental honesty and adherence to laws, product safety and quality, health and safety in the workplace, etc.

3. Establishment of Compliance Mechanism:
A suitable mechanism should be developed to comply with the ethical standards of the enterprise.

4. Employees Involvement:
To make ethical business a reality, employees at all levels must be involved.

5. Measuring Results:
Ethical results must be verified and audited that how far work is being carried according to ethical standards.

Plus One Social Responsibilities of Business and Business Ethics Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Build up arguments for and against social responsibilities. (8)
Answer:
Arguments in favour of Social Responsibility:

1. Justification for Existence and Growth:
The prosperity and growth of business is possible only through continuous service to society.

2. Long term Interest of the firm:
A firm can improve its image and builds goodwill in the long run when its highest goal is to serve the society.

3. Avoidance of government regulations:
Business can avoid the problem of government regulations by voluntarily assuming social responsibilities.

4. Maintenance of society:
Law alone can’t help out people with all the difficulties they face. A socially responsible business can contribute something for social peace and harmony.

5. Availability of resources with business:
Business has valuable financial and human resources which can be effectively used for solving problems of the society.

6. Better environment for doing business:
Social responsibility creates better environment for business operations as it improves quality of life and standard of living of the people.

7. Contribution to social problems:
Some of the social problems have been created by business firms themselves such as pollution, unsafe workplaces, discrimination, etc. Therefore, it is the moral obligation of business to solve such social problems.

Arguments Against Social Responsibility:

1. Violation of profit maximization objective:
According to this argument, business exists only for the maximum profit to its shareholders and do not have responsibility to the society as a whole.

2. Burden on consumers:
Involvement of business in social responsibilities involve a lot of expenditure which will ultimately be borne by the customers.

3. Lack of Social Skills:
The business firms and managers are not expert to tackle the social problems like poverty, overpopulation etc.

4. Lack of public support:
Business cannot fulfill social responsibility because of lack of public confidence & cooperation.

Question 2.
Mr. Biju, a readymade garment manufacturer, is of the view that “different interest groups always claim some sort of protection from the business as such. These interest groups, no doubt consist of persons connected with business in one way or other, such as shareholders, employees, society and so on”. Do you agree with this statement? Explain. (8) 

OR

“Business is a social institution having responsibilities towards different interest group.” Do you agree. Explain the responsibility towards each group.
Answer:
Social Responsibility towards different interest groups

1. Responsibility towards share holders or owners:

1. Provide a fair and regular return on the investment of shareholders.
2. Provide regular and accurate information on the financial position of the firm.
3. To ensure the safety of their investment.

2. Responsibility Towards the workers:

1. Providing fair wages
2. Providing good working conditions and welfare amenities.
3. Respect democratic rights of workers to form
   unions.

3. Responsibility toward consumers:

1. Supply right quality and quantity of goods and services at reasonable prices.
2. Avoiding unfair trade practices like adulteration, poor quality, misleading advertisement etc.
3. Inform them about new products, its features, uses and other matters relating to the products.
4. To handle the customers grievance promptly.

4. Responsibility Towards Government:

1. Respect the laws of the country
2. Pay taxes regularly and honestly.
3. act according to the well accepted values of the society.

5. Responsibility towards community:

1. Make employment opportunities
2. Protect the environment from pollution.
3. To uplift the weaker sections of society

Question 3.
Prosperity and higher living standards are the hallmarks of industrial development for any nation. But during this course, it equally causes damages to the environment. (8)

1. Explain the different types of pollution.
2. Substantiate the above statement with regard to various types of pollution.

Answer:

Business & Environmental Protection Causes of Pollution: Many industrial organisations have been responsible for causing air, water, land and noise pollution.

1. Air Pollution:
Air pollution is mainly due to Carbon monoxide emitted by automobiles and smoke and other chemicals from manufacturing plants. It has created a hole in the ozone layer leading to global warming.

2. Water pollution:
Water becomes polluted primarily from chemical and waste dumping. It has led to the death of several animals and posed a serious problem to human life.

3. Land Pollution:
Dumping of toxic wastes reduces the quality of land and making it unfit for agriculture or plantation.

4. Noise Pollution:
Noise caused by the running of factories and vehicles create a serious health hazard such as loss of hearing, malfunctioning of the heart and mental disorders.

Question 4.
Explain the role of business in environmental protection. (8)
Answer:
Role of Business in Environmental Protection:

1. A definite commitment by top management to create a work culture for environmental protection
2. Ensuring that commitment of environmental protection is shared throughout the enterprise by all divisions and employees.
3. Developing clear cut policies and programmes for purchasing good quality raw materials, introducing superior technology, using scientific techniques of disposal of waste and developing employee skills for pollution control
4. Complying with the laws and regulations enacted by the Government for prevention of pollution.
5. Participation in government programs relating to management of hazardous substances, cleaning up of polluted rivers, plantation of trees, and checking deforestation.
6. Periodical assessment of pollution control programmes in terms of costs and benefits with a view to improve them.
7. Arranging educational workshops and training materials to share technical information with everyone involved in pollution control.

Students can Download Chapter 5 Emerging Modes of Business Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Emerging Modes of Business

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Carrying business activity through internet is popularly known as _______
Answer:
E-commerce

Question 2.
____________ refers to illegal entry into the web site of an enterprise and thereby damaging data input there.
Answer:
Hacking

Question 3.
____________ are programmes designed to corrupt data in a system.
Answer:
Viruses

Question 4.
Mr. Arun, a retailer pays tax online. Identify this E-Commerce Transaction
Answer:
C2G

Question 5.
Which of the following helps to purchase goods and services without making spot payments and zero balance in the account?

1. ATM card
2. credit card
3. debit card
4. Kisan card

Answer:
2. credit card

Question 6.
The advancement of technology helps people for shopping goods for cash without holding cash or making any deposits with banks. How is it possible explain the identified term?
Answer:
Credit card

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by cryptography? (2)
Answer:
It refers to the art of protecting information by transforming it into an unreadable format called ‘cyphertext’. Only those who processes a secret key can decrypt the message into plaintext.

Question 2.
What are the ethical concerns involved in outsourcing? (2)
Answer:
In the name of cost cutting, unlawful activities such as child labour, wage discrimination, etc. may be encouraged in other countries.

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Anish, an NRI businessman, sends money to his wife, Nisha. She in turn deposits all this money in her bank account. She is very thankful to the technology and can withdraw money whenever she is in need of money even after banking hours. What type of technology she might be using? Explain. (3)
Answer:
ATM. From the ATM, customers can withdraw cash from the account by using ATM card. ATM card is a plastic card bearing a number for each customer. The card is to be entered into the machine and enter the PIN. This opens the account and we can deposit cash into it or withdraw from it at any time.

Question 2.
The advancement of technology facilitates shopping -goods for cash without holding cash or making any deposit with banks. How is it possible? (3)
Answer:
It is possible through credit card. A credit card is an instrument issued by a bank in the name of the customer providing for credit up to a specified amount. The sellers get cash from the bank and the buyers have to pay for the purchase within the credit period.

Question 3.
Majority of people in India, even internet users, hesitate shopping through internet. Can you cite a few reasons for their hesitation for buying online? (3)
Answer:
The important reasons forthe hesitation of shopping through internet are:

1. Time to deliver goods is too long.
2. Disclosure of credit card details is not safe.
3. Choices are not very interesting.

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Elaborate the steps involved in online trading. (4)
Answer:
Online Transactions:
Online transaction means receiving information about goods, placing an order, receiving delivery and making payment through medium of internet.

Buying / Selling Process:

Steps involved in online purchase:
1. Register with the online vendor by filling-up a registration form.

2. Place the order for the items put by customer in his virtual shopping cart, an online record of what has been picked up while browsing the Online store.

3. Payment for the purchases through online shopping may be done in a number of ways: i.e Cash on delivery, cheque, net banking transfer, debit/credit card.

Question 2.
Name the resources required for E-commerce. (4)
Answer:
Resources Required for Successful e-Business Implementation:

1. Computer system
2. Internet connection and technically qualified workforce
3. A well developed web page
4. Effective telecommunication system
5. A good system for making payment using credit instruments.

Question 3.
Explain any 4 types of outsourcing services. (4)
Answer:

1. Financial services.
2. Advertising services
3. Courier services
4. Customer support services

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List two examples each for B2B, B2C, B2G and B2E transactions (5)
Answer:
B2B:

• Transactions between businessmen
• Collaboration
• Placing order with suppliers
• Forming joint ventures
• Transfer of goods between branches
• Transfer of goods between suppliers

B2C:

• Business offering services to customers
• Consumer placing order online
• Electronic payment
• Consumers seeking clarification on price, terms etc. (any two)

B2G:

• Payment of taxes
• Application for licence
• Seeking government clearance

B2E:

• Employees salary payments
• Operation of welfare schemes
• Information to employees on business process
• Seeking employees suggestions online

Question 2.
Sankar and Co is a leading can manufacturing company. They are not concentrating on their advertisement due to lack of time. In orderto boost up the sales they made a contract with an advertising agency to make an advertisement which can be released through the media. Analyze this situation. Do you favour this activity of the company? Can you identify the concept and brings out its merit? (5)
Answer:
Business Process Outsourcing (BPO)

Plus One Emerging Modes of Business Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State any three differences between e-business and traditional business.
Answer:

Outsourcing or Business Process Outsourcing (BPO):
Outsourcing is a management strategy by which an organisation contracts out its major non-core functions to specialized service providers with a view to benefit from their expertise, efficiency and cost effectiveness, and allow managers to concentrate on their core activities.

Merits of outsourcing:

1. It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on areas in which it has core competency or strength.
2. It helps better utilisation of its resources as the management can focus its attention on selected activities and attain higher efficiency.
3. It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices. It helps in improved service and reduction in costs.
4. It facilitates inter-organisational knowledge sharing and collaborative learning.
5. It enables expansion of business as resources saved from outsourcing can be used for expanding the production capacity and diversified products.

Limitations of outsourcing:

1. It reduces confidentiality as outsourcing involves sharing a lot of information with others.
2. It may be opposed by labour unions who feel threatened by possible reduction in their employment.
3. In the name of cost cutting, unlawful activities such as child labour, wage discrimination maybe encouraged in other countries.
4. The organisation hiring others may face the problem of loss of managerial control because it is more difficult to manage outside service providers than managing one’s own employees.
5. It causes unemployment in the home country.

Question 2.
Evaluate the need for outsourcing and discuss its limitations. (6)
Answer:
Outsourcing or Business Process Outsourcing (BPO):
Outsourcing is a management strategy by which an organisation contracts out its major non-core functions to specialized service providers with a view to benefit from their expertise, efficiency and cost effectiveness, and allow managers to concentrate on their core activities.

Merits of outsourcing:

1. It provides an opportunity to the organisation to concentrate on areas in which it has core competency or strength.
2. It helps better utilisation of its resources as the management can focus its attention on selected activities and attain higher efficiency.
3. It helps the organisation to get an expert and specialised service at competitive prices. It helps in improved service and reduction in costs.
4. It facilitates inter-organisational knowledge sharing and collaborative learning.
5. It enables expansion of business as resources saved from outsourcing can be used for expanding the production capacity and diversified products.

Limitations of outsourcing:

1. It reduces confidentiality as outsourcing involves sharing a lot of information with others.
2. It may be opposed by labour unions who feel threatened by possible reduction in their employment.
3. In the name of cost cutting, unlawful activities such as child labour, wage discrimination maybe encouraged in other countries.
4. The organisation hiring others may face the problem of loss of managerial control because it is more difficult to manage outside service providers than managing one’s own employees.
5. It causes unemployment in the home country.

Question 3.
What is online transactions? Explain its steps. (6)
Answer:
On line Transactions:
On line transaction means receiving information about goods, placing an order, receiving delivery and making payment through medium of internet.

Buying / Selling Process:

Steps involved in online purchase:

1. Register with the online vendor by filling-up a registration form.
2. Place the order for the items put by customer in his virtual shopping cart, an on-line record of what has been picked up while browsing the On-line store.
3. Payment for the purchases through online shopping may be done in a number of ways: i.e Cash on delivery, cheque, net banking transfer, debit/credit card.

Students can Download Chapter 4 Business Services Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Business Services

Plus One Business Services One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name the type of account opened in a bank with an over draft facility
Answer:
Current Account

Question 2.
DTH services are provided by
Answer:
Cellular companies

Question 3.
CWC Stands for
Answer:
Central warehousing corporation

Question 4.
Mr. James running a software development business, incur heavy expenditure for replacement of computers due to updation in technology. To avoid this expenditure he may opt for
(a) Factoring
(b) Venture capital
(c) Leasing
(d) Merchant banking
Answer:
(c) Leasing

Question 5.
Name the type of account opened in the bank with overdraft facility
Answer:
Current account

Question 6.
Classify the following into appropriate categories SBI, Federal Bank, American Express Bank.
Answer:

• SBI – Public Bank
• Federal Bank – Private bank
• American Express bank – Foreign bank

Question 7.
Which among the following helps in issue management of shares,
(a) Mutual fund
(b) Merchant banks
(c) Venture Capital
(d) Factoring
Answer:
(b) Merchant banks

Question 8.
Classify the following bank into Appropriate Categories,

1. IDBI
2. HDFC
3. Axis Bank
4. Canara Bank
5. HSFC
6. CITI Bank

Answer:

1. IDBI – Private Bank
2. HDFC – Private Bank
3. Axis Bank – Public Bank
4. Canara Bank – Public Bank
5. HSFC – Private Bank
6. CITI Bank – Foreign Bank

Question 9.
Which facility allows a current account holder to withdraw more amount than his deposit?
Answer:
Overdraft

Question 10.
Which of the following is not applicable in life insurance contract?
(a) Conditional contact
(b) Unilateral contract
(c) Indemnity contract
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Indemnity contract

Question 11.
When the same subject matter is insured with more than one insurer, it is called
Answer:
Double insurance

Question 12.
________ is a contract of insurance entered into by the insurer with another insurer to reduce the risk.
Answer:
Reinsurance

Question 13.
Rajiv insures his shop for ₹5,00,000 against fire. His shop is completely damaged by a mob attack. Rajiv claims ₹5,00,000/- from the insurance company.

1. Will the company admit the claim of Rajiv?
2. Which principle of insurance is applicable here?

Answer:

1. No.
2. Causa Proxima

Question 14.
Principle of indemnity does not apply to __________
(a) Life insurance
(b) Health insurance
(c) Fire insurance
(d) Marine insurance
Answer:
(a) Life insurance

Question. 15
I will give security against fraudulent practices of employees who deal with cash or other variables. Can you identify me? Explain its features?
Answer:
Fidelity insurance

Question 16.
Govind insures his shop for ₹6,00,000. in a fire accident. The shop incurred a loss of ₹3,00,000. But he claimed for the assured sum. Will the insurance co admit the claim in full? Identify the principle of insurance which is applicable here.
Answer:
No. Principle of indemnity

Question 17.
Life insurance is a contract of ________
Answer:
Guarantee

Question 18.
_______ principle states, the insurer step into the shoes of insured.
Answer:
Subrogation.

Question 19.
Jacob purchased a new car for ₹15,00,000 and insured it with National insurance company and Oriental Insurance Company for ₹15,00,000 each. On an accident, the car was damaged completely and he claimed compensation from both companies.

1. Can he get compensation from both companies?
2. Identify relevant principle of insurance.

Answer:

1. No
2. Principle of Contribution

Question 20.
According to _________ principle, the insured is not allowed to make any profit out of his loss.
Answer:
Indemnity

Question 21.
Rajan wants to take an insurance policy covering the risk arising from the dishonesty of employees. Which type to policy close he have to take?
Answer:
Fidelity insurance

Question 22.
__________ is a contract whereby the insurer, in consideration of premium, undertakes to compensate the insured for the loss or damage suffered due to fire.
Answer:
Fire insurance

Plus One Business Services Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define service and goods. (2)
Answer:
Services are those identifiable and intangible activities that provide satisfaction of wants. Goods is a physical product which can be delivered to a purchaser and involves the transfer of ownership from the seller to customer.

Question 2.
Explain various telecom services available for enhancing business. (2)
Answer:
The various types of telecom services are:

1. Cellular mobile services:
Mobile communication device including voice and non-voice messages, data services and PCO services utilising any type of network equipment within their service area.

2. Radio paging services:
It means of transmitting information to persons even when they are mobile.

3. Fixed line services:
It includes voice and non-voice messages and data services to establish linkage for long distance traffic.

4. Cable services:
Linkages and switched services within a licensed area of operation to operate media services which are essentially one way entertainment related services.

5. VSAT services (Very small Aperture Terminal):
It is a Satellite-based communication service. It offers government and business agencies a highly flexible and reliable communication solution in both urban and rural areas.

6. DTH services (Direct to Home):
It is a Satellite based media services provided by cellular companies with the help of small dish antenna and a set up box.

Question 3.
Mr. Dino is running a textile shop. He insured the shop for ₹1,00,000 against natural calamities. After this the shop was completely destroyed by fire due to electrics short circuit. He claimed for compensation. But the insurance company refused to admit the claim on the ground that the shop was insured against natural calamities. (2)

1. Can you justify the decision of insurance company.
2. Which principle of insurance is applicable here.

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Causa proxima. It states that insurance company will admit the claim only if mishap has resulted directly by an event covered by under insurance.

Question 4.
Mr. Sabu is running a provision store. He insured the shop for ₹ 50,000 against fire. One day during course of business the shop caught fire and Mr. Sabu purposefully did not take any efforts to minimize the loss. He claimed for compensation. In this situation. (2)

1. What will be your decision assuming that you are the officer in charge of admitting the claims for insurance company?
2. Which principle is applicable here?

Answer:

1. The claim can not be admitted because the insurer did not take any reasonable steps to minimize the loss.
2. Principle of mitigation of loss

Question 5.
Why do we say that the principle of indemnity is not applicable to life insurance. Illustrate your answer. (2)
Answer:
The loss due to death of the insured cannot be measured in terms of money. So principle of indemnity is not applicable to Life insurance.

Question 6.
Mr. Sibi purchased a new car and it was completely damaged in an accident. Subsequently, he lodged a claim with the insurance company and the same was admitted. Later, the insurance company recovered the destroyed property. (2)

1. Why did the company take ownership of the car?
2. State the relevant principle. Explain.

Answer:

1. Ownership of the damaged car is vested with the insurance company.
2. According to the principle of subrogation, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the right of ownership of such property passes to .the insurer.

Question 7.
Mr. Anand your friend has started a new business. He decided to open a bank account with SBI. He has only a vague idea about the type of accounts available to the business people. So he seeks your help to choose the most favourable account for him. Give reason. (2)
Answer:
Mr. Anand can open current account. There is no restriction on the frequency and volume of deposits or withdrawals of money.

Question 8.
Match the following

Answer:

Plus One Business Services Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Janardhanan, a business man, has a current a/c of ₹1,00,000 in the S.B.I. He is in need of another ₹50,000 for the purpose of expansion of his business. By availing which facility, can he have money from the bank? Explain its features. (3)
Answer:
Overdraft: Overdraft is an arrangement where customers are allowed to withdraw up to a level over and above their deposits in the current account. Interest is to be paid only on the actual amount of overdraft availed by him. OD is granted to businessmen against their current account.

Question 2.
Write a detailed note on various facilities offered by Indian Postal Department. (3)
Answer:
1. Postal services:
Indian post and telegraph department provides various postal services across India. Various facilities provided by postal department are
(a) Financial facilities:
They provide postal banking facilities to the general public and mobilise their savings through the saving schemes like public provident fund (PPF), Kisan Vikas Patra, National Saving Certificate, Recurring Deposit Scheme and Money Order facility

(b) Mail facilities:
1. Mail services consist of

• Parcel facilities that is trans-mission of articles from one place to another
• Registration facility to provide security of the transmitted articles
•  Insurance facility to provide insurance cover for all risks in the course of transmission by post.

2. Allied Postal Services

• Greetings Post: Greetings card can be sent through post offices.
•  Media Post: Corporate can advertise their brands through post cards, envelops etc.
•  Speed Post: It allows speedy transmission of articles to people in specified cities.
•  e-bill post: The post offices collect payment of telephone, electricity, and water bills from the consumers.
•  Courier Services: Letters, documents, parcels etc. can be sent through the courier service.

(2) Telecom Services:
The various types of telecom services are:

1. Cellular mobile services:
Mobile communication device including voice and non-voice messages, data services and PCO services utilising any type of network equipment within their service area.

2. Radio paging services:
It means of transmitting information to persons even when they are mobile.

3. Fixed line services:
It includes voice and non-voice messages and data services to establish linkage for long distance traffic.

4. Cable services:
Linkages and switched services within a licensed area of operation to operate media services which are essentially one way entertainment related services.

5. VSAT services (Very small Aperture Terminal):
It is a Satellite based communication service. It offers government and business agencies a highly flexible and reliable communication solution in both urban and rural areas.

6. DTH services (Direct to Home):
It is a Satellite based media services provided by cellular companies with the help of small dish antenna and a set up box.

Question 3.
What is e-banking? What are the advantages of e-banking? (3)
Answer:]
e-banking is a service provided by many banks, that allows a customer to conduct banking transactions, such as managing savings, checking accounts, applying for loans or paying bills over the internet using a personal computer, mobile telephone. Eg. Electronic Fund Transfer (EFT), ATM etc.

Question 4.
Babu insures his shop for ₹3,00,000. In a fire accident the shop burned and incurred a loss of ₹1,50,000. Babu claimed for the assured sum i.e, ₹3,00,000. (3)

1. Will the insurance company admit the claim in full. Why?
2. Which principle of insurance is applicable here.

Answer:

1. No. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of actual value of his loss or the sum insured which ever is less,
2. Principle of Indemnity

Question 5.
Mrs. Anjali has a medical shop and it is insured with two insurers for ₹50,000 each against natural calamities. During the rainy season, the subject matter was partly destroyed by flood. The total amount of loss was estimated at ? 30,000. She claimed compensation from both insurance companies for ₹30,000 each. (3)

1. Can she get the claim from both the insurers?
2. Justify your answer with regard to the relevant principle of insurance.

Answer:

1. No. She cannot get claim from both the insurance.
2. According to the principle of contribution, the insured is eligible to receive a claim only up to the amount of actual loss suffered by her.

Question 6.
Mr. Joy keep stock of inflammable materials in his shop premises, takes an insurance policy for the shop against fire. But he did not disclose anything about the inflammable materials to the insurance company. Later, the inflammable goods caught fire and the shop was completely destroyed by fire. The insurance company refused to admit the claim of Mr. Joy on the ground that he did not disclose information about the inflammable goods. (3)

1. Can you justify the decision of the insurance company?
2. What principle of insurance is applicable here ?

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Principle of utmost good faith. The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insurer. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract. The insurer must disclose all the terms and conditions in the insurance contract to the insured.

Plus One Business Services Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Surendran is running an electrical shop which is insured against fire for ₹50,000. Due to heavy rainfall his stock was fully damaged and he claimed for compensation. The insurance company refused to admit the claim as goods were not insured against natural calamities. Can you justify the decision of the insurance company? Which principle of insurance is applicable here? (4)
Answer:
Yes. The decision taken by the insurance company is correct. Mr. Surendran has no right to claim compensation from the insurance company. The principle of insurance applicable here is causa proxima. It states that insurance company will admit the claim only if the mishap has resulted directly by an event covered under the insurance. An event covered under the insurance.

Question 2.
Draw a chart showing types of insurance. (4)
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the functions of Transport. (4)
Answer:
Functions of Transport:

1. Helps in the movement of goods and materials from one place to another
2. Helps in the stabilisation of prices.
3. Helps in the social, economic and cultural development of the country
4. Helps in national and international trade
5. Facilitates large scale production
6. Generates employment opportunities
7. Increases growth of towns and cities
8. Connects all part of the world

Plus One Business Services Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the functions of warehousing. (5)
Answer:
Functions of Warehousing:

1. Warehouse helps in supplying the goods to the customers when it is needed.
2. By maintaining a balance of supply of goods warehousing leads to price stabilization.
3. By keeping the goods in the warehouse, the trader can relieve himself of the responsibility of keeping of goods.
4. The warehouse performs the function of dividing the bulk quantity of goods into smaller quantities.
5. Warehousing helps in the seasonal storage of goods to select businesses.
6. The functions of grading, branding and packing of goods can be done in warehouses.
7. The warehousing receipt can be used as a collateral security for obtaining loans.

Question 2.
Name the principle of insurance violated in the following cases. (5)

1. ‘A’does not own the building but is trying to get it insured as a party to the insurance policy.

2.  ‘A’ enters into life insurance contract with LIC of India. ‘A’ was ailing with heart decease but he did not reveal this at the time of entering the contract. ‘

3. ‘B’ enters into insurance contract with two companies ‘C’ and ‘D’. The subject matter is a building worth ₹ 5 lakh. The building caught fire and properties worth ₹3 lakhs were damaged. ‘C’ paid the entire claim and asked ‘D’ to share the claim. ‘D’ denies.

4. Goods worth ₹50,000 are damaged and the insurance company pays the claim to ‘Z’ for the loss. ‘Z’ not only took the compensation for loss but also claims the damaged goods.

5. ‘P’ takes an insurance policy for ₹1 lakh with ‘Q’ company. The goods of ‘P’ are damaged due to fire the loss incurred is ₹25,000. ‘Q’ shall restore the actual loss but ‘P’ claims full amount of the policy.

Answer:

1. Principle of insurable interest
2. Principle of utmost good faith
3. Principle of contribution
4. Principle of subrogation
5. Principle of Indemnity

Question 3.
Match A with B and C.

Answer:

Plus One Business Services Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between life insurance and general insurance. (6)
Answer:

Question 2.
I will give security against fraudulent practices of employees who deal with cash or other valuables

1. Can you identify me?
2. Explain my features. (6)

Answer:
1. Fidelity insurance.

2. This type of policy is taken by the employer of a fire to cover the risk arising out of fraud or dishonesty of his employees. Banks, Financial institutions and other business firms commonly use such insurance policies.

Question 3.
What are services? Explain their distinct characteristics? (6)
Answer:
Nature of Services
1. Intangibility:
Services are intangible, i.e., they cannot be touched. They are experiential in nature, e.g. Treatment by a doctor.

2. Inconsistency:
Since there is no tangible product, services have to be performed according to the demand and expectations of the different customers, e.g. Mobile services/Beauty parlour.

3. Inseparability:
Another important characteristic of services is the simultaneous activity of production and consumption being performed, i.e. They are inseparable, e.g. ATM may replace clerk but presence of customer is a must.

4. Less Inventory:
Services cannot be stored for future use.

5. Involvement:
Participation of the customer in the service delivery is a must.

Plus One Business Services Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Suppose you have visited a commercial bank in your locality. Then what information you have collected from there with regard to. (8)

1. Deposit schemes
2. Lending scheme
3. Other services

Answer:
Functions of Commercial Banks:
a. Acceptance of deposits:
A commercial bank accepts following types of deposits. They are

1. Current deposit:
This type of account is usually opened by business men.lt carries no interest. There are no restrictions on number of deposits or withdrawals.

2. Savings deposit:
Savings accounts are for encouraging savings by individuals. Banks pay rate of interest as decided by RBI on these deposits. Withdrawal from these accounts has some restrictions.

3. Fixed deposit:
Fixed accounts are time deposits with higher rate of interest. They cannot be withdrawn before the maturity period.

b. Lending of funds:
The second important function of a commercial bank is to grant loans and advances out of the money received through deposits. These advances can be made in the form of overdrafts, cash credits, discounting trade bills, term loans, consumer credits and other miscellaneous advances.
1. Cash Credit:
Under this arrangement, the bank advances loan up to a specified limit against current assets. The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the money up to the sanctioned limit. Interest is charged on the amount actually withdraw.

2. Bank Overdraft:
Overdraft is an arrangement where customers are allowed to withdraw up to a level over and above their deposits in the current account. Interest is to be paid only on the actual amount of overdraft availed by him. OD is granted to businessmen against their current account.

3. Discounting of bill of exchange:
Under this, a bank gives money to its customers on the security of a bill of exchange before the expiry of the bill after deducting a small amount of discount.

4. Term Loans:
These loans are provided by the banks to their customers for a fixed period. Interest will be charged to the entire amount of loan.

c. Secondary Functions:
The secondary functions of commercial banks are as under:
1. Agency Functions:

• Cheque facility: Bank collects customers cheque drawn on other bank. There are two types of cheques mainly
  Bearer cheques, which are encashable immediately at bank counters Crossed cheques which are to be deposited only in the payees account.
• Payment of insurance premium, telephone charges, collection of dividend etc
• Purchase and sale of shares and debentures
• Acting as trustees or executors
• Providing credit information

2. General utility services:

• Providing lockers for safe custody of jewellery and others valuables of customers
• Issuing letter of credit, pay orders, bank draft, credit cards, traveller’s cheques to customers.
• Underwriting issues of shares and debentures
• Providing foreign exchange to importers and traveller’s going abroad.

Bank Draft:
It is a financial instrument with the help of which money can be remitted from one place to another. The payee can present the draft on the drawee bank at his place and collect the money. Bank charges some commission for issuing a bank draft.

Pay Order:
It is almost like a bank draft. Banks issue pay order for local purpose and issue bank draft for outstations.

Question 2.
“For the smooth conducting of insurance the insurer and Insured should know the relevant factors underlying the insurance contracts.” In the light of this statement, can you state the principles of Insurance?
Answer:

1. Utmost good faith:
The insured must disclose all material facts about the subject matter to the insured. Otherwise the insurer can cancel the contract. The insurer must disclose all the terms and conditions jn the insurance contract to the insured.

2. Insurable interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means the interest shown by the insured in the continued existence of the subject matter or the financial loss he is subjected to on the happening of an event against which it has been insured.

3. Indemnity:
All insurance contracts, except life insurance are contracts of indemnity. According to the principle of indemnity, in the event of occurrence of loss, the insured will be indemnified to the extent of the actual value of his loss or the sum insured which ever is less. The objective behind this principle is nobody should treat insurance contract as the source of profit.

4. Subrogation:
According to this principle, after the insured is compensated for the loss to the property insured by him the right of ownership of such property passes on to the insurer. This is because the insured should not be allowed to make any profit, by selling the damaged property.

5. Causa proxima:
When the loss is the result of two or more causes, the proximate cause for the loss alone will be considered by the insurance company for admitting the claim.

6. Contribution:
In certain cases, the same subject matter is insured with one or more insurer. In case there is a loss, the insured is eligible to receive a claim only up to the amount of actual loss suffered by him.

7. Mitigation of loss:
This principle states that it is the duty of the insured to take reasonable steps to minimize the loss or damage to the insured property. If reasonable care is not taken then the claim from the insurance company may be rejected.

Question 3.
Prepare a seminar paper on Types of warehouses. (8)

Answer:
Warehousing:
Warehousing means holding or preserving goods in huge quantities from the time of their purchase or production till their consumption. Warehousing is one of the important auxiliaries to trade. It creates time utility by bridging the time gap between production and consumption of goods.
Functions of Warehousing:

• Warehouse helps in supplying the goods to the customers when it is needed.
• By maintaining a balance of supply of goods warehousing leads to price stabilization.
• By keeping the goods in the warehouse, the trader can relieve himself of the responsibility of keeping of goods.
• The warehouse performs the function of dividing the bulk quantity of goods into smaller quantities.
• Warehousing helps in the seasonal storage of goods to select businesses.
• The functions of grading, branding and packing of goods can be done in warehouses.
• The warehousing receipt can be used as a collateral security for obtaining loans.

Types of Warehouses:

1. Private warehouses:
Private warehouses are owned by big business concerns or wholesalers for keeping their own products.

2. Public warehouses:
They are owned by some agencies, offer storage facilities to the public after charging certain fees. The working of public warehouses is subject to some govt, regulations. They are also known as Duty paid warehouses.

3. Bonded warehouses:
These warehouses are used to keep the imported goods before the payment of import duties. It offers many advantages to the importer, i.e. The importer can releases the goods in part by paying the proportionate amount of duty. The goods can be branded, blended and packed in the warehouse itself.

4. Government warehouses:
These warehouses are fully owned and managed by the government. For example, Food Corporation of India, State Trading Corporation, and Central Warehousing Corporation.

5. Co-operative warehouses:
Marketing co operative societies and agricultural oo operative societies have set up their own warehouses for members of their cooperative society.

Students can Download Chapter 2 Collection of Data Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Collection of Data

Plus One Economics Collection of Data One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which among the following is a method of primary data collection?
(i) Direct personal interview
(ii) Telephonic interview
(iii) Mailed questionnaire method
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 2.
Identify the random sampling method from the following.
(i) Judgment sampling
(ii) Stratified sampling
(iii) Convenience sampling
(iv) Quota sampling
Answer:
(ii) Stratified sampling

Question 3.
Which among the following is a source of secondary data?
(i) CSO
(ii) NSSO
(iii) RGI
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 4.
Identify an advantage of sample method.
(i) Less time consuming
(ii) Less cost is needed
(iii) Gives more reliable information
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 5.
Name the different types of data.
Answer:
Primary data and secondary data

Plus One Economics Collection of Data Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Differentiate between census survey and sample survey.
Answer:
Under census method, we collect information from each and every unit of population relating to the problem under investigation. On the other hand, under-sample method, rather than collecting information about all the units of population, we collect information from a few selected items from population.

Question 2.
Name the two important errors related to sampling?
Answer:

1. Sampling error.
2. Non – sampling error.

Question 3.
Give one example of primary data and one example of secondary data.
Answer:
The price of rice collected from a shop is primary data. The price of rice collected from a daily is secondary data.

Question 4.
Do samples provide better results than surveys? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
In sample method, we take part of the information. A small number of trained investigators can collect complete data. This information is reliable. In the case of doubt, enquiries can be undertaken for verification. Follow up is made easy in this case. In survey many difficulties are faced when the universe is very large. A large number of investigators are required in surveys. In case of doubts, it is difficult to undertake the enquiry again for verification.

Question 5.
List out the different steps involved in planning the survey.
Answer:

1. Purpose of the survey
2. Scope of the survey
3. Unit of data collection
4. Sources of data
5. Technique of data collection
6. Choice of the frame
7. Degree of accuracy needed
8. Miscellaneous considerations

Question 6.
Point out the advantages of sample method over census method?
Answer:
The advantages of sample method over census method are:

1. Less time consuming
2. Less cost is needed,
3. Gives more reliable information
4. Gives more detailed information.

Question 7.
Suppose you want to select 50 households from a total of 5100 households by giving equal opportunity to all the units. Which method you would prefer for this purpose? Substantiate.
Answer:
Simple random sampling is appropriate for this purpose. It refers to that technique in which each and every unit of population has an equal opportunity of being selected in the sample. The selection depends purely on chance. Random samples may be selected by lottery method.

Plus One Economics Collection of Data Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of mailed questionnaire method?
Answer:
Advantages of mailed questionnaire method are the following.

• Least expensive
• The only method to reach remote areas
• No influence on respondents
• Better for sensitive questions

Question 2.
How the non-sampling errors can be controlled?
Answer:
Sampling errors can be controlled by taking the following steps.

1. Sample should be selected with care.
2. Scientific methods of data collection should be used.
3. The investigator should be well trained.
4. A test check should be done.

Question 3.
List out the errors you would expect in the field survey by census method?
Answer:
Some of the errors expected in the field survey by census method are:

1. Errors of measurement
2. Errors due to mishandling of the questionnaire
3. Recording mistakes
4. Errors of non-response
5. Arithmetic errors

Question 4.
Suppose the Wayanad district Panchayat wants to study the literacy of tribal population in the district.

1. Which method would you suggest for data collection? Why?
2. Give a popular instance Is this method suitable in all cases? If not, what are the drawbacks.

Answer:
1. I would suggest census method of data collection to the panchayat authorities in this situation. In this method, we get reliable information from all units of the population for which the study is conducted.

2. A popular instance where this method is used is population census conducted ever 10 years.

3. It is not suitable in all cases because there are some drawbacks – the effort, money and time required will be very high.

Question 5.
Give two examples each of sample, population and variable.
Answer:
1. Examples each of samples:

• A representative group of few individuals taken form a particular locality to study the impact of rise in prices of petroleum products
• A group of students from the school is selected to study average monthly expenditure

2. Examples each of population:

• All individuals residing in a particular locality about . whom the information is to be collected
• All students in a school for whom the information is to be collected.

3. Examples of each of variables:

• Changing price of petrol
• Increase or decrease in the production of rice.

Question 6.
List the demerits of telephone interviews.
Answer:
Demerits of telephone interview are:

• Reactions cannot be watched
• Limited use
• Possibility of influencing respondents.

Question 7.
Point out the precautions to be taken while using secondary data?
Answer:
While using secondary data it should be ensured that the following precautions are taken

1. Ability of the collecting organisation
2. Objective and scope of investigation
3. Method of collection of secondary data
4. Time and conditions of collection of data Definition of the unit, and
5. Accuracy of the data

Question 8.
Point out the advantages of conducting pilot survey.
Answer:
Once the questionnaire is ready, it is advisable to conduct a try out with a small group which is known as Pilot Survey or PreTesting of the questionnaire. The pilot survey helps the investigator in the following ways.

• The pilot survey helps in providing a preliminary idea about the survey.
• It helps in pretesting of the questionnaire, so as to know the shortcomings and drawbacks of the questions.
• Pilot survey also helps in assessing the suitability of questions, clarity of instructions, performance of enumerators and the cost and time involved in the actual survey

Question 9.
Explain the procedure of selecting a random sample of 3 students out of 10 in your class by using random number table.
Answer:
The procedures of selecting a random sample of 3 students out of 10 are as follows

1. Prepare 10 slips of paper of identical size and shape
2. Write the names of students on the slips
3. Place the slips in a box and mix them properly
4. Draw three slips without looking into the box
5. The students, whose names appear on the slips drawn, constitute the required random sample.

Question 10.
Mention the important sources of collecting secondary data.
Answer:
The main sources of secondary data can be classified into two. They are:
A. Published sources

• Government publications
• Semi government publications
• International publications
• Private publications
• Research publications

B. Unpublished sources

• Studies made by scholars
• Studies of various institutions

Question 11.
Prepare a note on NSSO?
Answer:
The National Sample Survey Organisation was established by the Government of India to conduct nationwide surveys on socioeconomic issues. The data collected by NSSO surveys on different socioeconomic subjects are released through reports and its quarterly journal Sarvekshana.

NSSO provides periodic estimates of literacy, school enrolment, utilisaiton of educational services, employment, unemployment, manufacturing and service sector enterprises, morbidity, maternity, child care, utilisation of the public distribution system, etc.

The NSSO also undertakes the fieldwork of annual surveys of industries, conducts crop estimation surveys, collects rural and urban retail prices for complication of consumer price index numbers.

Question 12.
“Non-sampling errors are more serious than sampling errors”. Do you agree? Mention the possible nonsampling errors occur in sampling.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement that non-sampling errors are more serious than sampling errors because a sampling error can be minimized by taking a larger sample. It is difficult to minimize non-sampling error, even by taking a large sample. Even a Census can contain nonsampling errors.
Some of the non-sampling errors are:
1. Errors in Data Acquisition:
This type of error arises from recording of incorrect responses. Suppose, the teacher asks the students to measure the length of the teacher’s table in the classroom. The measurement by the students may differ. The differences may occur due to differences in measuring tape, carelessness of the students, etc.

2. Non-Response Errors:
Non-response occurs if an interviewers unable to contact a person listed in the sample or a person from the sample refuses to respond. In this case, the sample observation may not be representative.

3. Sampling Bias:
Sampling bias occurs when the sampling plan is such that some members of the target population could riot possibly be included in the sample.

Plus One Economics Collection of Data Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a chart showing different methods of sampling.
Answer:

Question 2.
Give the advantages of direct personal interview.
Answer:
Advantages of direct personal interview.

• Highest response rate
• Allows use of all types of questions
• Allow clarification of ambiguous questions
• Better for using open ended questions

Question 3.
“Certain principles should be kept in mind while drafting a questionnaire” explain.
Answer:
The principles that are to be kept in mind while drafting a questionnaire are given below.

1. The questionnaire should not be too long. The number of questions should be as minimum as possible. Long questionnaires discourage people from completing them.

2. The series of questions should move from general to specific. The questionnaire should start from general questions and proceed to more specific ones.

3. The questions should be precise and clear.

4. The questions should not be ambiguous, to enable the respondents to answer quickly, correctly and clearly.

5. The question should not use double negatives. The questions starting with “Wouldn’t you” or “Don’t you” should be avoided, as they may lead to biased responses.

6. The question should not be a leading question, which gives a clue about how the respondent should answer.

7. The question should not indicate alternatives to the answer.

Plus One Economics Collection of Data Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State true or false

1. there are many sources of data
2. telephone survey is the most suitable method of collecting data when their population is literate and spread over a large area
3. data collecting by investigator is called secondary data
4. non-sampling errors can be minimized by taking large samples
5. there is a certain bias involved in the non-random selection of samples.

Answer:

1. true
2. true
3. false
4. false
5. true

Plus One Economics Collection of Data Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar report on the topic “methods of collecting primary data”
Answer:
“Methods of collecting primary data”
Introduction:
The plus one commerce batch of (Name of school) conducted a seminar on the topic “methods of collecting primary data” on 05/08/2017 at 11.0 a.m with the ample guidance of our economics teacher. Our class was divided into three groups to cover the entire area of the topic. Each group presented one objective each. They focused on the area given to them and the group leader presented the seminar paper after required preparation.

Content:
There are three basic ways of collecting data:

1. Personal Interviews,
2. Mailing (questionnaire) Surveys, and
3. Telephone Interviews

1. Personal Interviews:
This method is used when the researcher has access to all the members. The researcher (or investigator) conducts face to face interviews with the respondents. Personal interviews are preferred due to various reasons. Personal contact is made between the respondent and the interviewer.

The interviewer has the opportunity of explaining the study and answering any query of the respondents. The interviewer can request the respondent to expand on answers that are particularly important. Misinterpretation and misunderstanding can be avoided.

Watching the reactions of the respondents can provide supplementary information. Personal interview has some demerits too. It is expensive, as it requires trained interviewers. It takes longer time to complete the survey.

2. Mailing Questionnaire:
When the data in a survey are collected by mail, the questionnaire is sent to each individual by mail with a request to complete and return it by a given date. The advantages of this method are that it is less expensive. It allows the researcher to have access to people in remote areas too, who might be difficult to reach in person or by telephone.

It does not allow influencing of the respondents by the interviewer. It also permits the respondents to take sufficient time to give thoughtful answers to the questions. The disadvantages of mail survey are that there is less opportunity to provide assistance in clarifying instructions, so there is a possibility of misinterpretation of questions. Mailing is also likely to produce low response rates due to certain factors.

3. Telephone Interviews:
In a telephone interview, the investigator asks questions over the telephone. The advantages of telephone interviews are that they are cheaper than personal interviews and can be conducted in a shorter time. They allow the researcher to assist the respondent by clarifying the questions.

Telephone interview is better in the cases where the respondents are reluctant to answer certain questions in personal interviews. The disadvantage of this method is accessible to people, as many people may not own telephones. Telephone Interviews also obstruct visual reactions of the respondents.

Conclusion:
All the three groups presented their topics with necessary facts and figures. After the presentation, there was the question-answer session. The active participation of everyone made this session live and interesting. On the whole, the seminar was a big success.

Students can Download Chapter 3 Organisation of Data Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Organisation of Data

Plus One Economics Organisation of Data One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Under inclusive method ………….
(a) Upper-class limit is excluded
(b) Lower class limit is excluded
(c) Lower class limit is included
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Lower class limit is included

Question 2.
Which of the following alternatives is true?
The class midpoint is equal to:
(a) The average bf the upper-class limit and the lower class limit.
(b) The product of the upper-class limit and the lower class limit.
(c) The ratio of the upper-class limit and the lower class limit.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) The average bf the upper-class limit and the lower class limit.

Question 3.
Which of the following alternatives is true?
The frequency distribution of two variables is known as ………
(a) Univariate Distribution
(b) Bivariate Distribution
(c) Multivariate Distribution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Bivariate Distribution

Question 4.
Which of the following alternatives is true?
Statistical calculations in classified data are based on …………
(a) the actual values of observations
(b) the upper-class limits
(c) the lower class limits
(d) the class midpoints
Answer:
(d) the class midpoints

Question 5.
Which of the following alternatives is true?
Under Exclusive method.
(a) the upper-class limit of a class is excluded in the class interval
(b) the upper-class limit of a class is included in the class interval
(c) the lower class limit of a class is excluded in the class interval
(d) the lower class limit of a class is included in the class interval
Answer:
(a) the upper-class limit of a class is excluded in the class interval

Question 6.
Which of the following alternatives is true?
Range is the ………….
(a) difference between the largest and the smallest observations
(b) difference between the smallest and the largest observations
(c) average of the largest and the smallest observations
(d) ratio of the largest to the smallest observation.
Answer:
(a) difference between the largest and the smallest observations

Plus One Economics Organisation of Data Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is classification?
Answer:
Classification of data is a technique with the help of which data is arranged into different groups or classes according to some common characteristics so as to facilitate the tabulation, analysis, and interpretation.

Question 2.
Distinguish between raw data and classified data.
Answer:
Raw data is the collected information in the form of numerical facts. It is the data collected as it is without any processing. The raw data is summurised and made comprehensible is known as classified data.

Question 3.
Distinguish between frequency table and frequency array.
Answer:
Frequency table is the classification of the data for a continuous variable. Frequency array is the classification of the data for a discrete variable.

Question 4.
Distinguish between univariate frequency distribution and bivariate frequency distribution.
Answer:
The frequency distribution of a single variable is called univariate distribution. The frequency distribution of two variables is known as bivariate frequency distribution.

Question 5.
In a city 45 families were surveyed for the number of domestic appliences they used. Prepare a frequency array based on their replies as recorded below.
1, 3, 2, 2, 2, 2, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 3, 2, 4, 2, 7, 2, 0, 3, 1, 3, 3, 2, 3, 2, 2, 6, 1, 6, 2, 1, 5, 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 4, 3, 4, 3
Answer:

Question 6.
Classification of data is a function similar to that of sorting letters in a post office. Do you agree? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with the statement that the classification of data is a function similar to that of sorting letters in a post office.

The process of arranging data in groups or classes according to similarities is technically called classification. The classification is somewhat similar to that of sorting letters in a post office. Letters collected in a post office are sorted into different lots on geographical basis.

They are then put in separate bags. Thus by classification, we are trying to make different groups with similar characteristics. Units having a common characteristic place in one class and the whole data are thus divided into a number of classes.

Question 7.
List examples of variables and attributes in your daily life.
Answer:
1. Variables

• Height
• Weight
• Marks obtained in final examination
• Cricket score

2. Attributes

• Caste religion
• Sex
• Marital status
• Educational qualification

Question 8.
There are some problems in preparing frequency distribution on the basis of class interval’. Do you agree? Justify.
Answer:
Yes, I agree.
The following problems arise in preparing frequency distribution on the basis of class interval.

1. Number of class intervals to be formed
2. Size of class intervals
3. Class limits.

Plus One Economics Organisation of Data Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following

1. To arrange things in appropriate order and to put them into homogenous groups means ………..
2. a variable is continuous when it can be taken within the range ……….
3. Population refers to ……………

Answer:

1. classification
2. any value
3. both frequency and cumulative frequency

Question 2.
Name the three types of series.
Answer:

1. Individual series
2. Discrete series
3. Continuous series

Plus One Economics Organisation of Data Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Can there be any advantage in classifying things?
Answer:
The advantage of classification are the following.

• It helps in the comparison of data.
• It helps to understand relationship among variables.
• It makes statistical analysis easier.
• It highlights significant features of data at a glance.

Question 2.
State the meaning and example for the following.

1. Chronological Classification.
2. Spatial Classification
3. Qualitative Classification
4. Quantitative Classification.

Answer:
1. Chronological Classification:
In Chronological classification, data are classified either in ascending or in descending order with reference to time such as years, quarters, months, weeks, etc.
Example: population of India from 1951 to 2011

2. Spatial Classification:
In Spatial Classification the data are classified with reference to geographical locations such as countries, states, cities, districts, etc.
Example: yield of wheat in different states of India.

3. Qualitative Classification:
Attributes can be classified on the basis of either the presence or the absence of a qualitative characteristic. Such a classification of data on attributes is called a Qualitative Classification.
Example: grouping of people on the basis of gender

4. Quantitative Classification:
When the collected data of such characteristics are grouped into classes, the classification is a Quantitative Classification.
Example: marks obtained by students.

Question 3.
What is variable? Distinguish between a discrete and a continuous variable.
Answer:
A simple definition of variable does not tell you how it varies. Different variables vary differently and depending on the way they vary, they are broadly classified into two types:

1. Continuous and
2. Discrete.

A continuous variable can take any numerical value. It may take integral values (1, 2, 3, 4,…) or fractional values(1/2, 2/3, 3/4).

Unlike a continuous variable, a discrete variable can take only certain values. Its value changes only by finite “jumps”. It “jumps” from one value to another but does not take any intermediate value between them.

Question 4.
Differentiate between exclusive method and inclusive method.
Answer:
1. exclusive method, the upper-class limit is excluded but the lower class limit of a class is included in the interval.

2. On the other hand, under the inclusive method, the upper-class limit is included in the class interval.

Plus One Economics Organisation of Data Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Differentiate between quantitative classification and qualitative classification.
Answer:
Classification done according to quantitative varieties like marks and wages etc. is termed as quantitative classification. On the other hand, classification according to attributes like honesty and beauty is known as qualitative classification.

Question 2.
Prepare a frequency distribution by inclusive and exclusive method for the following data.
28 27 6 16 15 2 14 5 19 25 19 20 28
32 37 13 15 11 32 4 6 9 3 36 12 8
4 1 8 3 18 12 7 17 15 22 29 21 23
2 9 4 10 5 20 20 33 27 21 27 18 9
31 18 9 7 1 26 24 20
Answer:

Plus One Economics Organisation of Data Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define and illustrate the inclusive and exclusive method used in classification of data.
Answer:
1. Inclusive Method:
In comparison to the exclusive method, the Inclusive Method does not exclude the upper-class limit in a class interval. It includes the upper class in a class. Thus both class limits are parts of the class interval.
An example for inclusive method of frequency distribution is given below.

2. Exclusive Method:
The classes, by this method, are formed in such a way that the upper-class limit of one class equals the lower class limit of the next class. In this way, the continuity of the data is maintained. That is why this method of classification is most suitable in case of data of a continuous variable. Under the method, the upper-class limit is excluded but the lower class limit of a class is included in the interval.
An example for exclusive method of frequency distribution is given below.

Students can Download Chapter 1 Statistics for Economics Introduction Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Statistics for Economics Introduction

Plus One Economics Statistics for Economics Introduction One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The word statistics is used as ……………
(a) Singular
(b) Plural
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
Statistics deals with …………..
(a) Qualitative data
(b) Quantitative data
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) Quantitative data

Question 3.
The statistical method to analyze the data maybe ……….
(a) Explanatory
(b) Non-explanatory
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Explanatory

Question 4.
Who is known as the father of statistics?
Answer:
Grottfried Achenwale is known as the father of statistics.

Plus One Economics Statistics for Economics Introduction Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish the singular and plural senses of statistics.
Answer:

• singular sense statistics is the science of collecting, classifying and using statistics or a statistical fact.
• In plural sense, it means numerical facts systematically collected or it is data.

Question 2.
Classify the following data into qualitative and quantitative.
Height, weight, marks scored in an exam, truth, honesty, beauty, credibility, income.
Answer:

• Quantitative data: Income, height, weight, marks scored in an exam.
• Qualitative data: Truth, honesty, beauty, credibility.

Question 3.
Mention a few examples each for quantitative and qualitative data.
Answer:
1. Quantitative data

• height
• weight
• marks
• price
• income

Qualitative data

• colour
• intelligence
• attitude
• honesty
• beauty

Question 4.
Write some examples for distrust of statistics.
Answer:
Distrust of statistics means lack of confidence in statistical statements and statistical methods. Examples of such distrust are:

• People keep blind faith in statistics. So they are not careful while accepting statistical figures.
• People manipulate statistical data to present a wrong idea of their interest.

Plus One Economics Statistics for Economics Introduction Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give the limitations of statistics.
Answer:
The limitations of statistics are given below.

• Statistical laws are true only on average.
• Statistics can be misused.
• Statistics deals only with quantitative data.
• Statistical results lack mathematical accuracy.
• Statistical facts are collected for a predetermined purpose.

Question 2.
Identify the data from the following statement.

1. Indian economy grew at an average rate of 7% after the reforms.
2. RBI increased the bank rate to 6.5.
3. The percentage of people below poverty line in India is 26.

Answer:

1. Average growth rate – 7%
2. Bank rate – 6.5
3. Percentage of people below poverty line – 26%

Question 3.
Mark the following statements as true or false

1. statistics can only deal with quantitative data
2. statistics solves economic problems
3. statistics is of no use to economics without data.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True

Question 4.
Explain how statistics is helpful in the formulation of economic planning.
Answer:
Statistics is the most important tool in economic planning. Economic planning is the best use of national resources, both in planning, without statistics is a leap in the dark. Every phase in planning, drawing a plan, execution, and review is based on statistics. The success of plan depends upon sufficient and accurate statistical data available at all the stages.

Question 5.
Make a list of economic activities found in your daily life.
Answer:
Some of the economic activities found in our daily life are:

• Teachers teaching in the school.
• People working in a factory.
• Doctor treating a patient.
• Milkman working in a dairy farm.

Question 6.
‘Statistics plays a vital role in policymaking’. Illustrate with examples.
Answer:
The government and the policymakers use statistical data to formulate suitable policies of economic development. No analysis of a problem would be possible without the availability of data on various factors underlying an economic problem. For example, if the government wants to make policy to solve the problem of unemployment and poverty, reliable data are required for it.

The number of persons who are waiting for a job, unemployed, the number of illiterate people, those living below the poverty line, etc are required. If the government wants to help the people affected by the tsunami earthquakes, the bind flu dangers then the data should be collected and put together about disaster’s cost systematically and correctly.

Modern economists include learning the basic skills involved in making useful studies for measuring poverty, how incomes are distributed, how earning opportunities are related to education, how environmental disasters affect our lives and so on.

Question 7.
Write the important functions of statistics.
Answer:
The important functions of statistics are the following:
1. It enables an economist to present economic facts in a precise and definite form that helps in proper comprehension of what is stated.

2. Statistics also helps in condensing the mass of data into a few numerical measures (such as mean, variance, etc., about which you will learn later). These numerical measures help summarize data.

3. Statistics is used in finding relationships between different economic factors. Statistics find economic relationships using data and verifies them.

4. Statistical tools are used in the prediction of future trends. The economist might be interested in predicting the changes in one economic factor due to the changes in another factor.

5. Statistical methods help formulate appropriate economic policies that solve economic problems.

Question 8.
The knowledge of statistics is helpful in several ways. List out the beneficiaries of statistics with examples for each.
Answer:
1. The applications of statistics are so numerous and ever interesting. It can be applied to any field of study whether it be trade, sociology, medicine, etc. Its application in economics, business, research, etc are discussed below.

2. In economics variables like income, consumption, input, saving, etc. are systematically and scientifically analyzed and studied with the tools of statistics. Therefore, it is highly useful in economics.

3. With the help of statistical methods abundant quantitative information can be obtained which can help immensely in formulating suitable policies. Statistics are so important to the state that government in most countries is the biggest collector and user of statistical data.

4. There is hardly any research work today that one can complete without statistical data and statistical methods. The statistical tools are highly needed for research.

5. Thus in this respect, the knowledge of statistics is helpful to society in different ways.

Plus One Economics Statistics for Economics Introduction Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List out examples for quantitative data and qualitative data.
Answer:
A. Some examples of quantitative data in daily life are:

1. family income
2. family expenditure
3. monthly saving of a family
4. expenditure on education
5. expenditure on medical treatment
6. marks scored in examination

B. Some examples of qualitative data in daily life are:

1. nationality
2. sex
3. religion
4. caste
5. colour
6. educational qualification

Question 2.
Distinguish between quantitative and qualitative data.
Answer:
1. Quantitative data are those data which can be measured in numerical terms.
Eg: height, weight, etc.

2. On the other hand, qualitative data are those facts that cannot be numerically measured.
Eg: intelligence, beauty, etc.

Students can Download Chapter 3 Private, Public and Global Enterprises Questions and Answers, Plus One Business Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Bussiness Studies Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Private, Public and Global Enterprises

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Environmental protection can be best done by the efforts of the
(a) Business people
(b) Government
(c) Scientists
(d) All the people
Answer:
(d) All the people

Question 2.
Reconstruction of a sick public sector unit is taken up by
(a) MOFA
(b) MoU
(c) BIFR
(d) NRF
Answer:
(c) BIFR

Question 3.
Disinvestment of PSE’s implies
Answer:
Sale of equity shares to private sector

Question 4.
Enterprises owned and managed by private individuals is known as_________
Answer:
Private enterprises.

Question 5.
The enterprises which are wholly owned and controlled by Government are known as
Answer:
Public enterprises

Question 6.
Enterprises which are partly in the private sector and partly in the public sector are known as__________
Answer:
Joint sector enterprises

Question 7.
Which among the following type of organization is not a public sector enterprise?
(a) Indian Railways
(b) IFCI
(c) SBI
(d) MRF Tyres Ltd.
Answer:
(d)MRF Tyres Ltd.

Question 8.
Which among the following type of organization has no separate legal entity?
(a) Public corporation
(b) Government company
(c) Departmental organization
(d) Private company
Answer:
(c) Departmental organization.

Question 9.
Indian Railway is an example of__________
Answer:
Departmental undertaking

Question 10.
Which of the following is formed by a special Act of parliament?
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd
(b) L.G. Electronics India
(c) The East India Company
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

Question 11.
LlC is an example of one type of govt, organization. Identify its name and give another example.
Answer:
Public corporation. Another example of public corporation is SBI.

Question 12.
_________are the organisations, which are incorporated
under the special Acts of the Parliament/State Legislative Assemblies.
Answer:
Statutory Corporations

Question 13.
A government company is any company in which the paid up capital held by the government is not less than
(a) 49 percent
(b) 51 percent
(c) 50 percent
(d) 25 percent
Answer:
(b) 51 percent

Question 14.
The company which operates in more than one country.
Answer:
MNC

Question 15.
Coco Cola is an example of_________companies
Answer:
MNC

Question 16.
Outright sale of public enterprises is called _________
Answer:
Didinvestment

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by public sector and private sector? (2)
Answer:
The economy may be classified into two sectors viz., private sector and public sector.
1. Private Sector:
The private sector consists of business owned by individuals or a group of individuals. The various forms of organization are sole proprietorship, partnership, joint Hindu family, cooperative and company.

2. Public Sector:
The business units owned, managed and controlled by the central, state or local government are termed as public sector enterprises or public enterprises. These are also known as public sector undertakings.

Question 2.
What is a Multinational Company? (2)
Answer:
Global enterprises are huge industrial organizations which extend their industrial and marketing operations through a network of their branches in several countries. Their branches are also called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA).

They are characterized by their huge size, large number of products, advanced technology, marketing strategies and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Susuki etc.

Question 3.
What is Joint venture? (2)
Answer:
When two or more independent firms together establish a new enterprise by pooling their capital, technology and expertise, it is known as a joint venture. The risks and rewards of the business are also shared. The aim of the joint venture is business expansion, development of new products or moving into new markets, particularly in another country. Benefits

1. Increased resources and capacity:
Since two or more firms join together to form a joint venture, there is the availability of increased capital and other resources, able to face market challenges and take advantage of new opportunities.

2. Access to new markets and distribution networks:
A foreign company gains access to the vast Indian market by entering into a joint venture with an Indian Company. They can also take advantage of the established distribution channels.

3. Access to technology:
It provides access to advanced techniques of production which increases efficiency and then helps in a reduction in cost and improvement in the quality of a product.

4. Innovation:
Foreign partners can come up with innovative products because of new ideas and technology.

5. Low cost of production:
Low cost of raw materials, technically qualified workforce, management professionals, excellent manpower etc. helps to reduce the cost of production and it results increased productivity.

Established brand name :
When one party has well established brands and goodwill, the other party gets its benefits.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Disinvestment? (2)
Answer:
The outright sale of Government shares in public sector undertaking is called disinvestment. Eg. Maruthi Udyog Ltd, Indian Petro Chemicals Ltd., etc. Government company

Question 5.
What is meant by Public sector? (2)
Answer:
Business units owned, managed and controlled by the central, state or local government are termed as public sector enterprises or public enterprises. These are also known as public sector undertakings.

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the various types of organizations in the private sector? (3)
Answer:
The private sector consists of business owned by individuals or a group of individuals. The various forms of organization are sole proprietorship, partnership, joint Hindu family, cooperative and company.

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Identify the following public sector enterprises. (4)

1.  Business Organisation established by the government and controlled by the Ministry concerned.
2.  Organizations incorporated under a special Act of Parliament or state legislatur
3.  1t is managed by the government and is subject to budgetary, accounting and audit control
4.  Organisation established by the government and registered under the Companies Act

Answer:

1.  Departmental undertaking
2.  Statutory corporation
3.  Government company

Question 2.
Some organizations are directly attached to a particular ministry of the Central or State Government and are under the direct control of concerned Minister. The business decisions are, thus, influenced by political consideration. (4)

1. (a) State the type of enterprise coming under this category.
2. (b) give four examples of such enterprises.

Answer:

1. Departmental undertaking
2. (b) Railways, Communications, Post & Harbours, Electricity etc.

Question 3.
Match the column ‘A’ with column ‘B’ and ‘C’. (4)

Answer:

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Public sector enterprises have been chosen as a means for having a socialistic pattern of society”. Do you think so? If yes, state the reasons. (6)
Answer:
1. Development of infrastructure:
It is the responsibility of the Government to provide infrastructural facilities to the core sector which requires huge capital investment, complex and upgraded technology etc.

2. Regional balance:
The government is responsible for developing all regions and states in a balanced way and removing regional disparities.

3. Economies of scale:
Public sector enterprises are large in size and are, able to avail the advantages of large scale operations.

4. Check over concentration of economic power:
The development of public enterprises prevents concentration of economic power and wealth in the hands of private sector.

5. Employment opportunities:
Public sector enterprises helps to generate a large number of employment opportunities.

6. Import substitution:
It is also necessary for the economic progress of the country that industries which can decrease imports and increase exports are only promoted. Public enterprises also ensure promotion of such industries.

Question 2.
Some organisations are directly attached to a particular ministry of the Central or State Government.
State the type of enterprise comming under this category.
Explain its merits and demerits. (6)
Answer:
This is the oldest and most common form of organization. These are established as departments of the ministry and are financed, managed and controlled by either central govt, or state govt.. They are managed by government employees and work under the control of a minister. Eg. Railways, Post & Telegraph, All India Radio, Doordarshan, Defense undertakings etc.

Features:

1.  The enterprise is financed by annual appropriation from the budget of the Government and all revenue is paid to the treasury.
2.  The enterprise is subject to accounting and audit control.
3.  It is subject to the direct control of the ministry.
4.  Its employees are govt, employees and are recruited and appointed as per govt, rules.
5.  They are accountable to the concerned ministry.

Merits:

1. These undertakings facilitate the Parliament to exercise effective control overtheiroperations;..
2.  These ensure a high degree of public accountability.
3.  The revenue earned by the enterprise goes directly to the treasury and hence is a source of income for the Government.
4.  Where national security is concerned, this form is most suitable since it is under the direct control and supervision of the concerned Ministry.

Limitations:

1.  Departmental undertakings lack flexibility because its policies cannot be changed instantly.
2.  The employees are not allowed to take independent decisions, without the approval of the ministry concerned. This leads to delay in decision making.
3.  These enterprises are unable to take advantage of business opportunities.
4.  There is red tapism in day-to-day operations.
5.  There is a lot of political interference throughthe ministry. .
6.  These organisations are usually insensitive to consumer needs and do not provide adequate services to them.

Plus One Bussiness Studies Private, Public and Global Enterprises Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Kerala Pharmaceuticals Ltd. registered under the Companies Act of 1956, was started with a paid-up capital of 15 lakhs. 40% of paid-up capital is in the hands of private individuals and the balance is held by the Govt, of Kerala.
(a) Identify the type of enterprise.
(b) Explain its merits and demerits. (8)
Answer:
A Government Company is established under the Indian Companies Act, 1956. According to the Indian. Companies Act 1956, a government company
means any company in which not less than 51percent of the paid up capital is held by the central government, or by any state government or partly
by central government and partly by one or more state governments.

Features:

• It is registered under the Companies Act, 1956.
• It has a separate legal entity. It can sue and be sued, and can acquire property in its own name.
• The management of the company is regulated by the provisions of the Companies Act.
• Employees are recruited and appointed as per the rules and regulations contained in Memorandum and Articles of association.
• These companies are exempted from the accounting and audit rules and procedures.
• The government company obtains its funds from government shareholdings and other private shareholders.

Merits

• It has a separate legal entity, apart from the Govt.
• It enjoys flexibility and autonomy in all management decisions
• These companies by providing goods and services at reasonable prices are able to control the market.
• The formation of a Government company is easy as compared to other forms of Government enterprises.
• It can appoint professional managers on high salaries.

Limitations

• It evades constitutional responsibility as it is not directly answerable to parliament.
• They are autonomous only in name. Company is operated by the controlling ministry.
• The law relating to the companies, in general is meaningless for the government companies, as it requires fulfillment of various formalities.

Question 2.
It is an organisation which is formed by a special Act of Parliament.
(a) Identify the type of organisation.
(b) Explain its merits and demerits. (8)
Answer:
Statutory corporations are public enterprises brought into existence by a Special Act of the Parliament. The Act defines its powers and functions, rules and regulations governing its employees and its relationship with government departments. Eg. LIC, IFCI, RBI, SBI, ONGC, UTI, Air India etc.

Features:

1.  Statutory corporations are set up under an Act of Parliament and are governed by the provisions of the Act.
2.  It is wholly owned by the state.
3.  It has a separate legal entity, i.e it can sue and be sued, enter into contract and acquire property in its own name.
4.  It is usually independently financed.
5.  It is not subject to budget, accounting, and audit laws.
6.  The employees of these enterprises are not government or civil servants.

Merits:

1. They enjoy independence in their functioning and a high degree of operational flexibility
2. It enjoys administrative and financial autonomy
3. Since they are autonomous organizations, they can frame their own policies and procedures
4. A statutory corporation is a valuable instrument for economic development

Limitations:

1. A statutory corporation does not enjoy as much operational flexibility
2. Government and political interference has always been there in major decisions
3. Where there is dealing with public, rampant corruption exists
4. Commercial principles are ignored in the operation of public corporations which leads to inefficiency.

Question 3.
Cyclone Ltd. is a software company established in India, during the year 2002. They extended its operations to UK and USA in May 2005, by establishing corporate offices in these countries.(8)

(a) What type of company is this?
(b) Explain the features of these type of companies?
Answer:
(a)MNC

(b) Global enterprises are huge industrial organisations which extend their industrial and marketing operations through a network of their branches in several countries. Their branches are also called Majority Owned Foreign Affiliates (MOFA). They are characterised by their huge size, large number of products, advanced technology, marketing strategies and network of operations all over the world. Eg. Pepsi, Coca Cola, Cadbury, Sony, Susuki etc.

Features of MNCs:
1. Huge capital resources:
Multinational companies have the ability to raise huge funds from different sources such as equity shares, debentures, bonds, etc. They can also borrow from financial institutions and international banks.

2. Foreign collaboration:
Global enterprises usually enter into agreements relating to the sale of technology, production of goods, use of brand name, etc. with local firms in the host countries.\

3. Advanced technology:
Multinational companies can possess latest and advanced technology so that they can provide quality products.

4. Product innovation:
Multinational companies are able to conduct sophisticated research so that they can develop new products.

5. Marketing strategies:
They use aggressive marketing strategies in order to increase their sales in a short period. Their advertising and sales promotion techniques are normally very effective.

6. International Market:
They operate through a network of subsidiaries, branches and affiliates in host countries. Due to their giant size, they occupy a dominant position in the market.

7. Centralized control:
They have their headquarters in their home country and exercise control over all branches and subsidiaries.

Question 4.
What are the benefits of entering into Joint ventures? (8)
Answer:
When two or more independent firms together establish a new enterprise by pooling their capital, technology and expertise, it is known as a joint venture. The risks and rewards of the business are also shared. The aim of joint venture is business expansion, development of new products or moving into new markets, particularly in another country.

Benefits:
1. Increased resources and capacity:
Since two or more firms join together to form a joint venture, there is availability of increased capital and other resources, able to face market challenges and take advantage of new opportunities.

2. Access to new markets and distribution networks:
A foreign company gain access to the vast Indian market by entering into a joint venture with Indian Company. They can also take advantage of the established distribution channels.

3. Access to technology:
It provides access to advanced techniques of production which increases efficiency and then helps in reduction in cost and improvement in quality of product.

4. Innovation:
Foreign partners can come up with innovative products because of new ideas and technology.

5. Low cost of production:
Low cost of raw materials, technically qualified workforce, management professionals, excellent manpower, etc. helps to reduce cost of production and it results increased productivity.

Established brand name :
When one party has well-established brands and goodwill, the other party gets its benefits.

Students can Download Chapter 10 Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours

Plus One Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The system in which people collectively cultivated land in China is known as.
Answer:
Commune System.

Question 2.
Which of the following countries has the highest population growth rate?
(i) India
(ii) China
(iii) Pakistan
Answer:
(iii) Pakistan

Question 3.
In which year, China announced its first five-year plan?
(i) 1950
(ii) 1951
(iii) 1952
(iv) 1953
Answer:
(iv) 1953

Question 4.
India introduced economic reforms in _______ .
(i) 1990
(ii) 1991
(iii) 1993
(iv) 1995
Answer:
(ii) 1991

Question 5.
Chinas great leap forward was in the year ______ .
(i) 1953
(ii) 1958
(iii) 1978
(iv) 1991
Answer:
(ii) 1958

Question 6.
Commune system is the feature of
(i) India
(ii) China
(iii) Pakistan
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(ii) China

Question 7.
Reforms in ……………… were introduced in 1978. (China, Pakistan, India)
Answer:
China

Plus One Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The table shows the growth of crops domestic product of India China and Pakistan.

State two reasons why Pakistan’s growth rate declined compared to two other countries.
Answer:
Political instability, over-dependence on remittance and foreign aid along with volatile performance of agricultural sector are the reasons for Pakistan’s decline in economic growth.

Question 2.
Write full form of the following.

1. SAARC
2. ASEAN

Answer:

1. SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.
2. ASEAN – Association of Southeast Asian Nations.

Question 3.
Evaluate the various factors that led to rapid economic development in China.
Answer:
Great leap forward, commune system, privalisation, reforms, foreign direct investment, etc were the factors that led to rapid economic development of China.

Question 4.
Name the SAARC nations.
Answer:

• India
• Pakistan
• Napal
• Bhutan
• Bangladesh
• Maldives
• Srilank

Question 5.
Mention some examples of regional and economic grouping.
Answer:
Some regional and economic grouping are:

1. SAARC
2. European Union
3. ASEAN
4. G-8
5. G-20

Plus One Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give the basic feature of an underdeveloped economy.
Answer:
Over-dependence on agriculture, large population growth and low income, large poverty and unemployment are the basic features of underdeveloped economies.

Question 2.
State whether true or false

1. in India, agriculture is the largest contributor to GDP
2. in china, industry is the largest contributor to GDP
3. compared to India and Pakistan, China has the highest rank in HDI.

Answer:

1. False. In India, services sector is the larges contributor to GDP
2. True
3. True

Question 3.
Mention the various indicators of Human Development Index.
Answer:

1. Per capita income
2. Adult literacy
3. Life expectancy

Question 4.
Mention the years when first five-year plan was initiated in India, China, and Pakistan.
Answer:

• China – 1978
• Pakistan – 1989
• India – 1991

Question 5.
Prepare a table showing demographic indicators of India, China and Pakistan.
Answer:

Question 6.
Group the following features pertaining to the economies of India, China, and Pakistan under three heads One child norm, low fertility, high degree of urbanization, mixed economy, very high fertility rate, large population, high density of population, growth due to manufacturing sector, growth due to service.
Answer:
1. Economy of India:

• High density of population
• Growth due to service sector

2. Economy of Pakistan:

• Mixed economy
• Very high fertility rate

3. Economy of China:

• One child norm
• Low fertility
• High degree of urbanization’
• Large population
• Growth due to manufacturing sector

Question 7.
Prepare a note on ‘Great Leap Forward’ of China.
Answer:
The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign initiated in 1958 aimed at industrializing the country on a massive scale. People were encouraged to set up industries in their backyards. In rural areas, communes were started. Under the Commune system, people collectively cultivated lands.

In1958, there were 26,000 communes covering almost all the farm population. GLF campaign met with many problems. A severe drought caused havoc in China killing about 30 million people. When Russia had conflicts with China, it withdrew its professionals who had earlier been sent to China to help in the industrialization process.

Question 8.
Mention the salient demographic indicators of China, Pakistan and India.
Answer:
The population of Pakistan is very small and is about one-tenth of China and India:
Though China is the largest nation among the three, its density is the lowest. Population growth is highest in Pakistan, followed by India and China. Sex ratio is low and biased against females in all the three countries.

The fertility rate is also low in China and very high in Pakistan. Urbanization is high in both Pakistan and China with India having 28 percent of its population living in urban areas.

Question 9.
Give the similarities of the development path India, China and Pakistan.
Answer:
India, China and Pakistan had adopted economic reforms for economic development. Five Year Plans were initiated in these countries as development strategy. Agriculture plays an important role in the economic development in these nations.

Plus One Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match column A with column B

Answer:

Question 2.
China’s rapid industrial growth can be traced back to its reforms in 1978. Do you agree? Elucidate.
Answer:
Yes, China’s rapid industrial growth can be traced back to its reforms in 1978. this is because reforms in agriculture and establishment of infrastructure in the areas of education and health, land reforms, etc. had been taking place with the introduction of reforms.

In the initial phase, reforms were initiated in agriculture, foreign trade, and investment sectors. In the later phase, reforms were initiated in the industrial sector. Private sector firms and township and village enterprises were allowed to produce goods.

The reform process also involves dual pricing:
It was found that establishment of infrastructure in the areas of education and health, land reforms, long existence of decentralized planning and existence of small enterprises had helped positively in improving the social and income indicators in the post-reform period. In short, it can be concluded that China’s rapid industrial growth can be traced back to its reforms in 1978.

Plus One Economics Comparative Development Experience of India with its Neighbours Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Compare and contrast India, China and Pakistan’s sectoral contribution towards GDP in 2003. Draw inferences.

Answer:
The table given above shows the sectoral contribution of India, China, and Pakistan towards GDP. It can be seen from the table that in both India and Pakistan, the contribution of agriculture to GDP is the same, at 23 percent, but the proportion of workforce that works in this sector is more in India. In Pakistan, about 49 percent of people work in agriculture whereas in India it is 60 percent.

The sectoral share of output and employment also shows that in all the three economies, the industry and service sectors have less proportion of workforce but contribute more in terms of output. In China, manufacturing contributes the highest to GDP at 53 percent whereas in India and Pakistan; it is the service sector that contributes the highest. In both these countries, service sector accounts for more than 50 percent of GDP.

In the normal course of development, countries first shift their employment and output from agriculture to manufacturing and then to services. This is what is happening in China as can be seen from Table. In both India and Pakistan, the service sector is emerging as a major player of development. It contributes more to GDP and, at the same time, emerges as a prospective employer.

Question 2.
Compare the development of China, India, and Pakistan with respect to some salient human development indicators.
Answer:
The following table shows some of the salient features of China, India, and Pakistan with respect to human development indicators.

It can be found that the HDI index and value are much better in China compared to India and Pakistan. That is China is ahead of India and Pakistan on many human development indicators. Similarly, the life expectancy rate is higher in China compared to India and Pakistan.

In India and Pakistan, the life expectancy rate is almost similar that is 63 years. Adult literacy rate is very high in China and the infant mortality rate is comparatively lower. Thus China has made a better development in respect of HDI compared to India and Pakistan.

Students can Download Chapter 9 Environment Sustainable Development Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 Environment Sustainable Development

Plus One Economics Environment Sustainable Development One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the name of UNCED seminal report?
Answer:
Our Common Future.

Question 2.
Protecting future generations is emphasised by which of the following?
(i) Brundtland commission
(ii) Our common future
(iii) UNCED
(iv) Herman Daly
Answer:
(i) Bmndtland commission

Question 3.
Kyoto protocol was signed in ______ .
(i) 1990
(ii) 1992
(iii) 1997
(iv) 1999
Answer:
(iii) 1997

Question 4.
In which state, Chipko Movement took place?
(i) Karnataka
(ii) Punjab
(iii) Himachal Pradesh
(iv) U.P.
Answer:
(iii) Himachal Pradesh

Question 5.
Identify the strategy for sustainable development.
(i) Wind energy
(ii) Solar energy
(iii) Gobar gas
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Plus One Economics Environment Sustainable Development Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How does the UNCED define sustainable development?
Answer:
The UNCED defines sustainable development as the development that meets the need of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.

Question 2.
Explain the supply-demand reversal of environmental resources.
Answer:
In the initial stages of development, the demand for environmental resources was less than that of supply. But now the world is faced with increased demand for environmental resources, but their supply is limited due to overuse and misuse.

Question 3.
Give two instances of

1. overuse of environmental resources
2. misuse of environmental resources

Answer:
1. Overuse of environmental resources:

• land
• forests

2. Misuse of environmental resources:

• electricity,
• water

Question 4.
Classify the following into renewable and non-renewable resources.
[Coal, Forest resources, Fish, Petrol]
Answer:
1. Renewable

• Forest resources
• Fish

2. Non-renewable

• Coal
• Petrol

Question 5.
A few terms are given below. Make pairs of them.
[Growth, Development, Unidimensional, Multi dimensional]
Answer:

• Unidimensional – Growth
• Multidimensional – Development

Question 6.
Outline the steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India.
Answer:
The steps involved in attaining sustainable development in India are:
1. decreasing the absolute poverty of the poor by providing employment opportunities

2. providing livelihood in such a manner that can minimize resource depletion, environmental degradation, cultural disruption, and social instability.

Question 7.
Two major environmental issues facing the world today are ………. and ……………
Answer:
Ozone depletion and global warming.

Question 8.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of the future generation to meet their own needs.

Question 9.
Make a list of items that can be recycled.
Answer:
The following are the things that can be recycled

1. Plastic
2. Papers
3. Polythene
4. Glass, and
5. Certain categories of waste of industries

Question 10.
What happens when the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration?
Answer:
If the rate of resource extraction exceeds that of their regeneration, the environment fails to sustain life by providing genetic and biodiversity. This will result in an economic crisis. The rising population in developing countries and the affluent consumption of resources have placed a huge stress on environments.

Question 11.
Give a short narration of ‘Chipko movement’.
Answer:
‘Chipko Movement’ was started in Karnataka to save trees. The word ‘Chipko’ means ‘to hug’. On 8^th September 1983, 160 men, women and children hugged the trees in Salkani forest in Sirsi and forced the woodcutters to leave the ultimate aim of this movement is to save trees.

Plus One Economics Environment Sustainable Development Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the opportunity costs of negative environmental impacts?
Answer:

1. As the reserves are exhausted huge amount of money should be spent on research to explore new resources.
2. Health cost of degraded environmental quality.
3. Increased financial commitment for the government due to global warming and ozone depletion.

Question 2.
What do you mean by ‘Green net national income’? How is it calculated?
Answer:
Green net national income is the difference between net national income and depreciation of natural capital. It can be calculated using the following formula.
Green net national income = Net national income – depletion of natural resources – environmental degradation.

Question 3.
Match the columns

Answer:

Plus One Economics Environment Sustainable Development Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Keeping in view your locality, suggest any four strategies of sustainable development.
Answer:
The following strategies can be adopted for the sustainable development of our locality.

• Use of solar power through photovoltaic cells
• The practice of bio composting
• Generating wind power
• Using bio pest control

Question 2.
Differentiate between natural capital and man made capital?
Answer:
1. Natural capital refers to the sum total of the natural resources and environment available to a country as a free gift of nature.

2. On the other hand, man-made capital refers to the stock of all such things which are produced by man for use as means of production.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks

1. Coal is a …………… energy
2. Burning of fossil fuel leads to …………
3. Bio composts are used in …………… farming
4. CFCs cause ……………… depletion

Answer:

1. non-renewable
2. global warming
3. organic
4. ozone

Question 4.
List out the functions of the environment.
Answer:
The environment performs four vital functions which
are listed out below:
1. It supplies resources:
resources here include both renewable and nonrenewable resources. Renewable resources are those which can be used without the possibility of the resource becoming depleted or exhausted.

That is, a continuous supply of the resource remains available. Examples of renewable resources are the trees in the forests and the fishes in the ocean. Nonrenewable resources, on the other hand, are those which get exhausted with extraction and use, for example, fossil fuel.

2. It assimilates waste

3. It sustains life by providing genetic and biodiversity and

4. It also provides aesthetic services like scenery etc.

Question 5.
Identify the factors contributing to land degradation in India?
Answer:
The following are the factors responsible for land degradation in India.

1. loss of vegetation occurring due to deforestation.
2. shifting cultivation.
3. forest fires.
4. unsustainable fuelwood extraction.
5. overgrazing.
6. non-adoption of soil conservation measures.

Question 6.
“The environmental crisis is a recent phenomenon”. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, environment crisis is a recent phenomenon. In early days, when civilisation just began, before the phenomenal increase in population and growth of industrialisation, the demand for environmental resources was within the carrying capacity of the environment and so the pollution was also within the absorptive capacity, of the environment.

Therefore, environmental problems did not arise. But with the advent of industrialisation and outbreak of population, environmental problems arisen and the resources for both production and consumption proved to be beyond the rate of regeneration of the resources and the absorptive capacity of the environment.

Plus One Economics Environment Sustainable Development Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Account for the current environmental crisis.
Answer:
Environment performs four functions, namely, supplies resources, assimilates wastes, sustains life and provides aesthetic services. But the rising population of the developing countries, the affluent consumption and production standards of the developing countries and industrial revolution have brought the situation of environmental crisis i.e., it all had put great pressure on the first two functions of the environment.

Many resources have become extinct and the wastes generated are beyond the absorptive capacity of environment. The crisis has worsened by the drying up of rivers. Besides, the intensive and extensive extraction of both renewable and non-renewable resources has exhausted some of these vital resources and thus we are compelled to spend huge resources on technology and research to explore new resources.

The situation becomes more worsened with the current issues of global warming and ozone depletion. They also put great strain on government’s finite financial resources.

Question 2.
In 2007 Nobel Prize for Peace was awarded to an individual Algore and an institution IPCC, both engaged in creating awareness about the consequences of global warming. Suggest some measures to keep global warming under control.
Answer:
Global warming refers to the increase in the atmosphere temperature. The temperature increases due to the emission of greenhouse gases. Greenhouse gases are emerged from the burning of biomass and from the consumption of petrol, coal, etc, can absorb temperature.
This can be reduced by :

1. Reducing pollution and waste.
2. Using more solar, wind and tidal energy.
3. New technology and eco-friendly means of production.
4. Afforestation
5. Effective rules and its implementation.

Plus One Economics Environment Sustainable Development Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a Seminar Report on “Strategies for Sustainable Development”
[Hint: A Seminar Report should have a title, Introduction, Content, and conclusion].
Answer:
“Strategies for Sustainable Development”.
Introduction:
The plus one commerce batch of (Name of school) conducted a seminar on the topic “Strategies for Sustainable Development” on 12/09/ 2017 at 11.0 a.m with the ample guidance of our economics teacher. Our class was divided into five groups to cover the entire area of the topic. Each group focused on two points each. They focused on the area given to them and the group leader presented the seminar paper after required preparation.

Content:
Sustainable development is, in this sense, a development that meets the basic needs of all, particularly the poor majority, for employment, food, energy, water, housing, and ensures growth of agriculture, manufacturing, power, and services to meet these needs.

1. Strategies for sustainable development use of non-conventional Sources of Energy:
India, as you know, is hugely dependent on thermal and hydropower plants to meet its power needs. Both of these have adverse environmental impacts. Thermal power plants emit large quantities of carbon dioxide which is a greenhouse gas. It also produces fly ash which, if not used properly, can cause pollution of water bodies, land and other components of the environment.

2. LPG, Gobar Gas in Rural Areas:
Households in rural areas generally use wood, dung cake or other biomass as fuel. This practice has several adverse implications like deforestation, reduction in green cover, wastage of cattle dung and air pollution. To rectify the situation, subsidized LPG is being provided.

In addition, gobar gas plants are being provided through easy loans and subsidy. As far as liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) is concerned, it is a clean fuel it reduces household pollution to a large extent. Also, energy wastage is minimized

3. CNG in Urban Areas:
In Delhi, the use of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) as fuel in public transport system has significantly lowered air pollution and the air has become cleaner in the last few years.

4. Wind Power:
In areas where speed of wind is usually high, windmills can provide electricity without any adverse impact on the environment. Wind turbines move with the wind and electricity is generated.

5. Solar Power through Photovoltaic Cells:
India is naturally endowed with a large quantity of solar energy in the form of sunlight. With the help of photovoltaic cells, solar energy can be converted into electricity. These cells use special kind of materials to capture solar energy and then convert the energy into electricity.

6. Mini hydel Plants:
In mountainous regions, streams can be found almost everywhere. A large percentage of such streams are perennial. Mini-hydel plants use the energy of such streams to move small turbines.

7. Traditional Knowledge and Practices:
Traditionally, Indian people have been close to their environment. They have been more a component of the environment and not its controller.

If we look back at our agriculture system, health care system, housing, transport, etc., we find that all practices have been environment-friendly. Only recently have we drifted away from the traditional systems and caused large scale damage to the environment and also our rural heritage.

8. Bio-composting:
In our quest to increase agricultural production during the last five decades or so, we almost totally neglected the use of compost and completely switched over to chemical fertilizers.

9. Bio-pest Control:
With the advent of green revolution, the entire country entered into a frenzy to use more and more chemical pesticides for higher yield. Soon, the adverse impacts began to show; food products were contaminated, soil, water bodies, and even groundwater were polluted with pesticides.

Conclusion:
All five groups presented their topics with necessary facts and figures. After the presentation, there was a question-answer session. The active participation of everyone made this session live and interesting. On the whole, the seminar was a big success.

Students can Download Chapter 8 Infrastructure Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Infrastructure

Plus One Economics Infrastructure One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which among the following is an economic infrastructure?
(i) Eduction
(ii) Transport
(iii) Healthcare
(iv) Housing
Answer:
(ii) Transport

Question 2.
Who was the largest consumer of commercial energy in 1953-54 in India?
(i) Household sector
(ii) Industry sector
(iii) Agriculture sector
(iv) Transport
Answer:
(iv) Transport

Question 3.
What is the Contribution of nuclear energy of total energy consumption in India?
(i) 2%
(ii) 13%
(iii) 20%
(iv) 10%
Answer:
(i) 2%

Question 4.
Which of the following nations has lowest Health expenditure as a percentage of GDP?
(i) India
(ii) China
(iii) USA
(iv) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(iv) Sri Lanka

Question 5.
Identify social infrastructure from the following.
(i) Education
(ii) Energy
(iii) Transport
(iv) Communication
Answer:
(i) Education

Question 6.
Find out conventional energy.
(i) Biogas
(ii) Wind energy
(iii) Petroleum
(iv) Solar energy
Answer:
(iii) Petroleum

Question 7.
Infant mortality rate in India in 2012 was ______ .
(i) 40
(ii) 47
(iii) 57
(iv) 60
Answer:
(ii) 47

Question 8.
Write the full form of NTPC.
Answer:
NTPC stands for National Thermal Power Corporation.

Plus One Economics Infrastructure Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two features of Indian system of medicine.
Answer:

1. They are very effective
2. They are safe and inexpensive

Question 2
State whether true or false.

1. education comes under social infrastructure
2. solar energy is nonconventional energy
3. Ayurveda is an Indian system of medicine
4. major part power generation in India comes from hydro projects.

Answer:

1. true
2. true
3. true
4. False, major part power generation in India comes from thermal projects

Question 3.
Name some National Health Care Programme.
Answer:

• National Malaria Eradication Programme
• National Filaria Control Programme
• National Family Welfare Programme
• National Diarrhoeal Diseases Control Programme

Plus One Economics Infrastructure Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name three sources of non-conventional energy.
Answer:

1. Solar energy
2. Wind energy
3. Tidal power

Question 2.
Classify the following into commercial energy and non-commercial energy:
Coal, petrol, agricultural waste, dry animal dung, twig of trees, natural gas.
Answer:

Question 3.
Classify the following sources of energy into conventional sources and non-conventional sources.
(Coal, Electricity, Wind energy, Solar energy, Petroleum, Tidal energy)
Answer:
1. Conventional source files

• Coal
• Petroleum
• Electricity

2. Non-conventional sources

• Solar energy
• Tidal energy
• Wind energy

Question 4.
List various non-commercial sources of energy?
Answer:
Various non-commercial source of energy are :

• solar energy
• wind energy
• tidal energy
• energy from firewood
• energy from vegetable waste
• energy from dried dung

Question 5.
What are the three basic sources of generating power?
Answer:

1. Hydroelectricity
2. Thermal electricity
3. Nuclear electricity

Question 6.
List the six system of Indian medicine.
Answer:
Six system of Indian medicine are :

1. Ayurveda
2. Yoga
3. Siddha
4. Unani
5. Homeopathy
6. Naturopathy

Question 7.
Explain the term ‘infrastructure’.
Answer:
Infrastructure is the support system on which the sufficient working of a modern industrial economy depends. It is the physical framework which is essential for giving services to people such as roads, railways, airports, ports, dam, power stations, telecommunication educational and health facilities, etc. Infrastructure consists of services like banking, communication, transport, irrigation, power, etc. These are very essential for production of goods.

Question 8.
Name different types of energy?
Answer:
The different types of energy are:

• Coal
• Petroleum
• Natural gas
• Bioenergy
• Solar energy
• Atomic energy

Question 9.
Categorize the following as elements of economic infrastructure and social infrastructure.
[Canals, Houses, schools and colleges, railways, ships, hospitals, banks, courts, power plants, satellite stations],
Answer:

Question 10.
Justify that energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable sources of energy.
Answer:
There are two sources of energy namely, commercial and noncommercial. Noncommercial sources are firewood, agricultural waste, and dried dung. These are noncommercial as they are found in nature. Commercial sources of energy like grass hay, twigs and small branches of a tree, sundried cow dung cakes are generally renewable.

More than 60 percent of Indian households depend on these traditional sources of energy for meeting regular cooking and heating needs. The energy crisis can be overcome with the use of renewable sources of energy.

Plus One Economics Infrastructure Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the names of four atomic energy plants in India.
Answer:

1. Atomic energy power plant at Tarapur
2. Atomic energy power plant at Narora
3. Atomic energy power plant in Kalapakkam (Chennai)
4. Atomic energy power plant at Rana Pratap Sagar Dam (Kota)

Question 2.
Write a note on ISM.
Answer:
Indian Systems of Medicine (ISM):
It includes six systems: Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, Naturopathy, and Homeopathy (AYUSH). At present, there are 3,004 ISM hospitals, 23,028 dispensaries and as many as 6,11,431 registered practitioners in India. But little has been done to set up a framework standardize education or to promote research.tSM has huge potential and can solve a large part of our health care problems because they are effective, safe and inexpensive.

Question 3.
Kerala is experiencing huge energy crisis. Suggest some measures for solving the problem.
Answer:
More public investment, better research and development efforts, exploration, technological innovation and use of renewable energy sources can ensure solution of energy crisis in Kerala. Though the private sector has made some progress, it is necessary to tap this sector to come forward and produce power on a large scale.

One also has to appreciate the efforts made in this regard. More efforts and encouragement should be given by the government for the widespread use of wind, solar and tidal energy production in the state. Moreover, greater reliance on renewable energy resources offers enormous economic, social and environmental benefits.

Question 4.
Analyze the state of health infrastructure in India citing facts and figures.
Answer:
India has built up a vast health infrastructure and manpower at different levels since independence. At the village level, a variety of hospitals have been set up by the government. India also has a large number of hospitals run by voluntary agencies and the private sector.

These hospitals are manned by professionals and paramedical professionals trained in medical, pharmacy and nursing colleges. Since independence, there has been a significant expansion in the physical provision of health services.

During 1951-2000, the number of hospitals and dispensaries increased from 9,300 to 43,300 and hospital beds from 1, 2 to 7.2 million during 1951 – 99, nursing personnel increased from 0.18 to 8.7 lakh and allopathic doctors from 0.62 to 5.0 lakh. Expansion of health infrastructure has resulted in the eradication of smallpox, guinea worms and the near eradication of polio and leprosy.

Question 5.
Differentiate between commercial and noncommercial sources of energy.
Answer:
Commercial sources of energy:
Commercial sources of energy include coal, petroleum, and electricity. They could be bought and sold. They are generally exhaustible in nature. More than 60 percent of Indian households depend on the traditional source of energy.

Non-commercial sources of energy include firewood, agricultural waste, and dried dung. They are found in nature or forests. Lesser number of persons use these resources.

Question 6.
Point out the connection between consumption of energy and economic growth?
Answer:
The central issue has been whether economic growth stimulates consumption of energy or is energy consumption itself a stimulus for economic growth. But whatever may be the causal relationship between energy consumption and economic growth of a nation, they are both closely related.

Since energy is an essential input of all productive activities, agricultural or industrial, the process of economic development inevitable demands increasing levels of energy consumption. The higher the degree of economic growth, the higher is the consumption of energy and vice versa. Thus energy consumption is an important indicator of economic growth.

Electricity is one of the most critical infrastructures that determines economic development of a country. The growth rate of demand for power is generally higher than GDP growth rate. In order to have an 8 % GDP growth rate per annum, the power supply needs to grow around 12% annually. This shows that the rates of consumption of energy and economic growth are connected.

Plus One Economics Infrastructure Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
‘Infrastructure facilities boost production’ Do you agree? Substantiate your answers.
Answer:
Infrastructure facilities boost production in the following manner.
1. Infrastructure provides support services in the main areas of industrial and agricultural production, domestic and foreign trade and commerce.

2. Infrastructure facilities include roads, railways, ports, airports, dams, power stations, oil and gas pipelines, telecommunication facilities, educational systems, health systems, monetary systems, etc. It is the support system on which depends the efficient working of a modern industrial economy.

3. Modem agriculture largely depends on infrastructure for speedy and large scale transport of seeds, pesticides, fertilizers, and the produce by making use of modem roadways, railways, and shipping facilities.

4. Infrastructure contributes to the economic development of a country both by increasing the productivity of the factors of production and improving the quality of life of its people.

Question 2.
“Infrastrucure contribute to the economic development of a country like india” Do you agree? Justify.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement that infrastructure contribute to the economic development of a country like India. The reason why infrastructure is an essential precondition for economic development are pointed out below.

1. Infrastructure contributes to economic development of a country both by increasing the productivity of the factors of production and improving the quality of life of its people.

2. Inadequate infrastructure can have multiple adverse effects on health. Improvements in water supply and sanitation have a large impact by reducing morbidity from major waterborne diseases and reducing the severity of disease when it occurs.

3. In addition to the obvious linkage between water and sanitation and health, the quality of transport and communication infrastructure can affect access to health care.

4. Infrastructure is in itself a source of employment for the large labour force of developing economies like India.

Question 3.
Suggest the progammes to increase the effectiveness of health care system.
Answer:
The following are the progammes to increase the effectiveness of health care system

• Public health facilities should be decentralized
• People should be educated about the nature, causes, and remedies of general diseases
• People should be made aware about sanitation facilities, cleanliness, immunization, etc.
• Efforts should be taken to develop health infrastructure
• Primary health care facilities should be strengthened
• Private-public participation in health care system should be encouraged

Question 4.
“India’s power sector faces some challenges today”. Do you agree? If yes mention the challenges.
Answer:
agree with the statement that India’s power sector faces some challenges today.
Some of the challenges that India’s power sector faces today are:

1. India’s installed capacity to generate electricity is not sufficient to feed an annual economic growth of 7 percent. In order to meet the growing demand for electricity, between 2000 and 2012, India needs to add 1,00,000 MW of new capacity, whereas, at present, India is able to add only 20,000 MW a year. Even the installed capacity is underutilized because plants are not run properly

2. State Electricity Boards (SEBs), which distribute electricity, incur losses which exceed Rs 500billion. This is due to transmission and distribution losses, wrong pricing of electricity and other inefficiencies. Some scholars also say that distribution of electricity to farmers is the main reason for the losses; electricity is also stolen in different areas which also adds to the woes of SEBs

3. Private sector power generators are yet to play their role in a major way same is the case with foreign investors

4. There is general public unrest due to high power tariffs and prolonged power cuts in different parts of the country
Thermal power plants which are the mainstay of. India’s power sector are facing a shortage of raw material and coal supplies.

Question 5.
There are some drawbacks in our health care system. Do you agree? Substantiate.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with these statements
The Indian constitution assign, the state, the responsibility of raising the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health. However, the National Health Policy lacks specific measures to achieve broad state goals. The government expenditure on health sector is 5% of total GDP. This is very low compared to other countries.

At present, less than 0% of the population utilises public health facilities However only 38% of the Public Health Centres (PHCs) have the required number of doctors and only 30% of the PHCs have sufficient stock of medicines. The people living in Rural areas do not have sufficient medical infrastructure.

There is shortage of beds, doctors and basic diagnostic facilities in rural areas. This has led to regional inequality in health services. Thus, it can be concluded that there are some draw-backs in our health care system.

Plus One Economics Infrastructure Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar report on “energy and health infrastructure”.
Answer:
“Energy and health infrastructure”
Introduction:
The plus one commerce batch of (Name of school) conducted a seminar on the topic “Energy and health infrastructure” on 12/09/2018 at 11.0 a.m with the ample guidance of our economics teacher. Our class was divided into three groups to cover the entire area of the topic.

The first group explained the meaning and relevance of infrastructure, the second group explained the energy infrastructure and the third group presented their idea on health infrastructure. They focused on the area given to them and the group leader presented the seminar paper after required preparation.

Content:
Infrastructure:
Infrastructure is the support system on which depends the efficient working of a modern industrial economy. Modern agriculture also largely depends on it for speedy and largescale transport of seeds, pesticides, fertilizers, and the products by making use of modern roadways, railways and shipping facilities.

Infrastructure contributes to economic development of a country both by increasing the productivity of the factors of production and improving the quality of life of its people.

1. Energy:
Energy is a critical aspect of the development process of a nation. It is, of course, essential for industries. Now it is used on a large scale in agriculture and related areas like production and transportation of fertilizers, pesticides and farm equipment. It is required in houses for cooking, household lighting, and heating.

There are commercial and non-commercial sources of energy. Commercial sources are coal, petroleum, and electricity as they are bought and sold. They account for over 50 percent of all energy sources consumed in India. Noncommercial sources of energy are firewood, agricultural waste, and dried dung.

These are noncommercial as they are found in nature/forests. Both commercial and noncommercial sources of energy are known as conventional sources of energy. There are three other sources of energy which are commonly termed as nonconventional sources solar energy, wind energy, and tidal power.

The most visible form of energy, which is often identified with progress in modern civilization, is power, commonly called electricity; it is one of the most critical components of infrastructure that determines the economic development of a country. The growth rate of demand for power is generally higher than the GDP growth rate.

Studies point that in order to have8 percent GDP growth per annum, power supply needs to grow around 12per cent annually. Electricity is a secondary form of energy produced from primary energy resources including coal, hydrocarbons, hydro energy, nuclear energy, renewable energy, etc. Primary energy consumption takes into account the direct and indirect consumption of fuels.

2. Health:
Health is not only absence of disease but also the ability to realize one’s potential. It is a yardstick of one’s wellbeing. Health is the holistic process related to the overall growth and development of the nation. Development of health infrastructure ensures a country of healthy manpower for production of goods and services.

In recent times, scholars argue that people are entitled to health care facilities. It is the responsibility of the government to ensure the right to healthy living. Health infrastructure includes hospitals, doctors, nurses and other paramedical professionals, beds, equipment required in hospitals and a well developed pharmaceutical industry.

Conclusion:
All the three groups presented their topics with necessary facts and figures. After the presentation, there was a question-answer session. The active participation of everyone made this session live and interesting. On the whole, the seminar was a big success.

Students can Download Chapter 7 Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Related Issues Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Related Issues

Plus One Economics Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Related Issues One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Some instances of people engaging in economic activity in given below. Identify worker from there.
Answer:
(a) A man who temporarily abstains from work due to illness.
(b) A woman is paid by her employer.
(c) A self-employed farmer.
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Which among the activity?
(a) Trade
(b) Transportation
(c) Construction
(d) Mining
Answer:
(d) Mining

Question 3.
Which organisation is responsible for estimating unemployment in India?
(a) ILO
(b) NSSO
(c) NitiAayog
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) NSSO

Question 4.
Identify the activity not included in secondary sector.
(a) Quarrying
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Construction
(d) Water supply
Answer:
(a) Quarrying

Question 5.
Choose the correct answer Workforce refers to that part of:
(a) labour force which is employed
(b) population which is employed
(c) population which is forced to work
(d) labour force which is employed
Answer:
(a) labour force which is employed

Question 6.
Name the sector in the main source of employment for the majority of workers in India.
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Service Sector
(d) Tertiary sector
Answer:
(a) Primary Sector

Question 7.
Who developed the concept of unemployment in India?
Answer:
National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) has developed the concepts of unemployment suitable to Indian conditions.

Question 8.
The newly emerging jobs are found mostly in the …………. sector (Service/agriculture/manufacturing).
Answer:
Service.

Question 9.
Name the main sector providing maximum employment in India?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Service
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Agriculture sector/primary sector.

Plus One Economics Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Related Issues Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Meena is a housewife. Besides taking care of household duties, she works in a cloth shop which is owned and operated by her husband. Can she be considered as a worker? Why?
Answer:
Meena’s activities in the cloth shop owned by her husband are not considered as the activity of a worker since she is not paid for her service. If she works in the shop owned by some other person and is paid for her services then she will be considered as a worker.

Question 2.
List any five activities that contribute to national income in India.
Answer:
The activities that contribute to national income in India are:

• farming
• trading
• mining
• treatment of a doctor in hospital
• manufacturing
• forestry

Question 3.
Distinguish between usual status and weekly status?
Answer:
Usual status refers to a situation where a person usually spends majority of his time in work. In India, 183 days of work is a standard cutoff per usual status. On the other hand, if the person is found to be a part of the workforce during the stipulated week, he will be considered as employed by weekly status.

Question 4.
Given below some economic activities. Classify them as primary, secondary and tertiary sector activities. Agriculture, Mining and Quarrying, Manufacturing, Electricity Gas and Water Supply Construction, Trade, Transport and Storage, Services.
Answer:
1. Primary sector

• Agriculture
• Mining and Quarrying

2. Secondary sector

• Manufacturing
• Electricity, Gas and Water Supply
• Construction

3. Tertiary sector

• Trade
• Transport and Storage
• Services

Question 5.
What is a worker-population ratio?
Answer:
Worker population ratio is the percentage of total population engaged in work. When the total number of workers is divided by population and multiplied by 100, we get the worker – population ratio.
Worker population ratio = \(\frac{\text { Total number of workers }}{\text { Population }} \times 100\)

Question 6.
Write a short note on RLEGP.
Answer:
RLEGP stands for Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme. It was introduced in August 1983. This programme guarantees employment to at least one members of every landless family up to 100daysin a year.

Plus One Economics Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Related Issues Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 2.
Raj is going to school. When he is not in school, you will find him working in his farm. Can you consider him as a worker? Why?
Answer:
Raj, when he is busy in his farm contributes to production but he is not paid for his work. He helps his parents in agricultural jobs. As he is not paid, he is not a paid worker.

Question 3.
Kerala economy is experiencing huge unemployment problems. Similarly, the number of workers from outside Kerala are visiting our states and engaging in different activities. What do you infer from this? Justify your answer.
Answer:
In Kerala there exists problem of unemployment, especially educated unemployment. The educated people are usually unwilling to engage in manual works and therefore prefer white color jobs. They often go outside the state and even abroad to find a suitable job in accordance with their education level. At the same time, the usual works in the state are done by people coming from outside the state.

Plus One Economics Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Related Issues Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name some of the recent employment generation programmes launched by the Govt, of India.
Answer:
Following are some of the recent employment generation programmes launched by the Govt, of India.

• Rural Landless employment Guarantee programme (RLEGP)
• National Rural Employment Guarantee programme (NREGP)
• Bharat Nirman Programme
• Janani Suraksh%JTojana

Question 2.
Distinguish between open unemployment and technical unemployment?
Answer:
When the country’s labour force does not get opportunities for gainful employment, it is termed as open unemployment. On the other hand technical unemployment refers to persons who have been thrown out of work by the introduction of superior technology.

Question 3.
Classify the following into organized sector and unorganized sector.
Street vender, school teacher, business executive, agricultural labourer, mechanic, railway ticket examiner, college professor, software engineer, head load worker, cart puller, washerman.
Answer:
1. Organized sector:

• Schoolteacher
• Business executive
• Mechanic
• Railway ticket examiner
• College professor
• Software engineer

2. Unorganized sector:

• Street vender
• Agricultural labourer
• Head load worker
• Cart puller
• Washerman

Question 4.
Analyze the recent trends in sectoral distribution of workforce in India.
Answer:
Primary sector is the main source of employment for majority of workers in India. Secondary sector provides employment to only 16% of workforce. About 24% of workers are in service sector. More than three – fourth of the workforce in the rural India depends on agriculture and mining. About 10% of the rural workers are working in manufacturing industries, construction and other sectors.

Service sector provides employment to only about 13% of rural workers. About 60% of urban workers are in the service sector. The secondary gives employment to about 30% of the urban workforce. Women workers concentration is very high in primary sector. Men get opportunities in both secondary and services sectors.

Question 5.
Prepare a note on NREGP.
Answer:
The government of India passed an Act in Parliament known as the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005. As a result of this act, the employment generation programme known as National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (NREGP) came into existence. By 2008, it has been extended to all the districts of the country.

lt promises 10Odays of guaranteed wage employment to all adult members of rural households who volunteer to do unskilled manual work. The families, which are living below poverty line, will be covered under the scheme. This scheme is one of the many measures that the government implements to generate employment for those who are in need of jobs in rural areas.

Plus One Economics Employment-Growth, Informalisation and Related Issues Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The following table shows Worker-Population Ratio in India during 1999-2000.

1. Analyze the table
2. Give reasons for the findings

Answer:
1. It shows the different levels of participation of people in economic activities. For every 100 persons, about 40 (by rounding off 39.5) are workers in India. In urban areas, the proportion is about 34 whereas in rural India, the ratio is about 42.

2. People in rural areas have limited resources to earn a higher income and participate more in the employment market. Many do not go to schools, colleges and other training institutions. Even if some go, they discontinue in the middle to join the workforce; whereas, in urban areas, a considerable section is able to study in various educational institutions.

Urban people have a variety of employment opportunities. They look for the appropriate job to suit their qualifications and skills. In rural areas, people cannot stay at home as their economic condition may not allow them to do so.

Question 2.
Suggest the measures to be adopted to solve the problem of unemployment in India?
Answer:
Measures to solve the unemployment in India are suggested as follows.

1. Investment in heavy and basic industries and consumer goods industries should be increased. They should provide more employment with the supply consumer goods.
2. Cottage and small scale industries should be developed because they provide more employment by adopting labour intensive technique.
3. Educational System should be changed. Emphasis should be given to vocational education.
4. Means of transport and communication should be developed.
5. Rapidly rising population should be checked by adopting family planning and welfare schemes,
6. Rural work programme should be developed.
7. Youth enterpreneurs should be financed for self-employment.
8. Infrastructure of the economy should be increased.

Question 3.
How far formal sector is differentiated from informal sector? Point out some of the benefits of working in the formal sector. Analyze the informalization found among the Indian workforce.
Answer:
All the public sector establishments and those private sector establishments which employ 10 hired workers or more are called formal sector establishments and those who work in such establishments are formal sector workers. All other enterprises and workers working in those enterprises form the informal sector.

Thus, informal sector includes millions of farmers, agricultural labourers, owners of small enterprises and people working in those enterprises as also the self-employed who do not have any hired workers.

There are several benefits enjoyed by the workers in the formal sector. Some of them are :

• Those who are working in the formal sector enjoy social security benefits.
• They earn more than those in the informal sector.
• Developmental planning envisaged that as the economy grows, more and more workers would become formal sector workers and the proportion of workers engaged in the informal sector would dwindle.

We learn that there are about 400 million workers in the country. There are about 28 million workers in the formal sector. That is only about seven per cent (28/400 × 100). Thus, the rest 93 per cent are in the informal sector. Out of 28 million formal sector workers, only 4.8 million, that is, only 17 percent (4.8/28 × 100) are women.

In the informal sector, male workers account for69 per cent of the workforce Since the late 1970s, many developing countries, including India, started paying attention to enterprises and workers in the informal sector as employment in the formal sector is not growing.

Workers and enterprises in the informal sector do not get regular income; they do not have any protection or regulation from the government. Workers are dismissed without any compensation. Technology used in the informal sector enterprises is outdated; they also do not maintain any accounts. Workers of this sector live in slums and are squatters.

Question 4.
Discuss causes responsible for unemployment in India.
Answer:
The causes responsible for unemployment in India may be discussed below.
1. Slow economic growth:
The nature of Indian economy is underdeveloped and the rate of economic growth is slow. This causes lower employment opportunities to the rising population.

2. Rapid Growth of Population:
Constant increase in population has been a great problem of India. It is one of the main causes of unemployment. Despite the completion of nine Five Year Plans, the number of unemployed has actually increased inspite of decreasing.

3. Agriculture:
A Seasonal Occupation: Agriculture is so underdeveloped in India that it largely offers seasonal employment. Most of the farmers remain idle for three to four months in a year. The volume of disguised unemployment is estimated to be nearly 15 percent of the total working population in agriculture.

4. Lack of Irrigation Facilities:
Despite the completion of Nine Five Year Plans, irrigation facilities could be provided only to 34 percent of agriculture area. For want of irrigation only one crop is grown in a year on the large part of agricultural land. Consequently, the farmers remain unemployed for quite sometime during the year.

5. Joint Family Systme:
It encourages disguised unemployment. Joint family system is more prevalent in rural areas; hence a high degree of disguised unemployment exists there.

6. Decline of Cottage and Small Industries:
The industrial development policy adopted by the Britishers adversely affected the artisans working in small and cottage industries. The goods previously produced by these industries are now being produced by large scale industries.

These artisans were, therefore, thrown out of employment. After Independence, Government of India has been taken several measures to revive and develop small scale and cottage industries, but still, these continue to be in distress.

7. Low Savings and Investment:
There is shortage of capital in India, and even the scarce capital has not been wisely invested. Bulk of the capital has been invested in large scale industries with high capital-output ratio needing more capital per unit of output.

8. Mobility of Labour:
Mobility of labour in India is very low. Owing to their attachment to the family, people generally do not move out to far off areas even when jobs are available there. Factors like diversity of language, religion and customs also contribute to low mobility. Lesser the mobility, greater the unemployment.

You can Download The Industrial Revolution Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 9 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One History Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 9 The Industrial Revolution

Chapter 9 the Industrial Revolution Notes Question 1.
Define Industrial Revolution and describe its main features.
Answer:
The changes that took place in the industry and economy of England between 1780s and 1850s are called the first Industrial Revolution.

The Industrial Revolution was a technological revolution. It was new technology and new machines that brought the Industrial Revolution in England. The progress in technology made large scale production possible.

Industrial Revolution: Main Changes:

1. Change from physical labour to machine work.
2. Movement from the home system to the factory system.
3. Large scale mechanization.
4. Use of energy sources like steam and electricity.
5. Revolutionary changes in travel and communication (Ships, railway).

Question 2.
Make a note of the books and writers that throw light into the Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
The term Industrial Revolution was first used by George Michel of France and Frederick Engels of Germany. In English language, it was used for the first time by Sir Arnold Toynbee (1889-1975) who was a great thinker and economist. He used this term to describe the changes that took place in England between 1760 and 1820. On this subject, he delivered a series of lectures in Oxford University. After his death, these lectures were published in a book form with the title Lectures on the Industrial Revolution in England: Popular Address, Notes, and other Fragments. It was this book that popularised the term Industrial Revolution.

Class 6 History Chapter 9 Questions and Answers Question 3.
Industrial Revolution started in Britain. Why?
Answer:
Industrial Revolution started in Britain. There are many factors that helped Britain to become the first industrial nation.

1. Political stability: As England, Wales and Scotland came together under a single long, there has been political stability in Britain since the 17^th century. The country had common laws and a unified currency system. The market in the country had a national character. Since regional authorities did not impose taxes on goods, there ‘ was no price increase. This kind of political stability helped Britain.

2. Wide use of money: Since the 17^th century, money had been used extensively as a means of transaction. With this, a lot of people began to get cash as wages and salaries instead of goods. By using this cash, people could buy any goods of their choice. This enlarged the market and it helped the Industrial Revolution.

3. The Influence of the Agricultural Revolution: Prior to the Industrial Revolution, there was an agricultural, revolution in Britain. Big landowners bought the small pieces around them and enclosed the fields with fences. Thus there were big estates that helped in the increased production of foodstuff. The people who earned their livelihood by grazing cattle in the open fields could not continue to do so and they became jobless. They went into big cities seeking jobs. By providing raw materials and labour, the agricultural revolution helped the Industrial Revolution.

4. Cities, trade and wealth: The growth of cities and trade and the availability of wealth helped the Industrial Revolution. From the 18^th century, cities have been growing in Europe. Out of the 19 metropolises, 11 were in Britain. London was the biggest. London became a centre of all the markets in the country.

Question 4.
Explaining the discoveries and changes in the manufacturing of coal and iron, describe how they helped the Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
Coal and iron ore were essential for the. manufacture of machines were plenty in England. Materials like black lead, copper and white lead which were extensively used in industries were also plenty in the country. But until the 18^th century, there was a shortage of “usable iron”. Iron was made by melting iron ore into a liquid state and then separating the pure iron from it. To melt iron ore charcoal was used. There were many problems with this. Since charcoal was brittle, it was difficult to transport charcoal to faraway places. Because of the impurities in it, the iron produced this way was not of high quality. Moreover charcoal could not produce high heat. Because of the large scale deforestation, there was a shortage of charcoal.

The solution to this problem was found by the Darby family of Shropshire. In 50 years, three generations of this family (grandfather, father, and son) brought a revolution in the refining of iron.

In 1709, Abraham Darby (1677-1717) developed the first blast furnace which could maintain a very high degree of heat. In it, coke could be used. Coke was made by removing the sulphur and other impurities from coal. With this, there was no need for charcoal. The iron that was made from the blast furnace of Darby was strong and of a higher quality.

Darby II(1711-1768) made cast iron from iron. This would not break easily. Henry Cort (1740-1823) made two important discoveries – the puddling furnace to remove impurities from pig iron and the rolling mill to produce rails. These discoveries helped in producing many different kinds of iron products.

Question 5.
The cotton industry had two special features. Write about them.
Answer:
The cotton industry had two special features.

1. Cotton had to be completely imported. The major portion of the cloth made from this was fully exported. This: helped in maintaining the colonization process. To get raw materials and to’ sell the finished goods, control over the colonies was essential.

2. The cotton industry largely depended on the work of women and children in factories. This showed the cruel face of the early industrialization.

Question 6.
In 1773, John Kay invented the flying shuttle. What were the other inventions related to the cotton industry?.
Answer:
1. In 1773, John Kay invented the flying shuttle. Using this, the speed in weaving clothes was increased. One worker Could now do the work of two. Since spinning (thread-making) was a slow process, enough thread was not available for weaving clothes. This problem was solved by Hargreaves.

2. In 1765 James Hargreaves had invented the, spinning jenny. This jenny could produce many strands of threads at the same time. But the strands were not sufficiently strong.

3. In 1769 Richard Arkwright invented a new spinning machine called water frame. This machine could produce strong threads. The production capacity of the spinners increased 7 times.

4. In 1779, Samuel Crompton invented a machine called mule. With this, a spinner could make 250 strands of thread simultaneously.

5. In 1787 Edmund Cartwright invented power loom. This machine worked with mechanical energy and it drastically increased the speed of weaving. It was easy to work with it. If the thread broke, it would stop automatically. Anything could be woven in this loom.

From the 1830s, importance was given by the cotton industry to increase the productivity of workers and not to inventions.

Chapter 9 the Industrial Revolution Question 7.
For large scale industrialization, steam power was essential. Describe the major inventions in the area.
Answer:
In 1698, Thomas Savery invented a pump that worked on steam power. It was used to drain water from mines. It was called Miner’s Friend. It worked very slowly. Moreover when the pressure increased the boiler burst.

In 1712, Thomas Newcomen invented another steam engine. This helped in draining water from the mines in a better way. But the steaming chamber became cold too soon and thus energy was lost and this was a defect of this machine.

In 1769, James Watt developed his steam engine. Until then all the steam machines were used only in the mines. From mere pumps, James Watt changed steam engines to a driving force. His steam engines were suitable for different industries. In 1775, with the help of his friend Mathew Bouton, James Watt established a factory in Birmingham for producing steam engines. This factory-produced steam engines one after the other. By the end 18^th century, stream energy of Watt replaced water power.

History Plus One Chapter 9 Question 8.
During the period of the Industrial Revolution, There was great progress in the building of canals. Justify.
Answer:
An important thing that took place during the Industrial Revolution was the changes in the modes of travel. These changes were first visible in the construction of canals and railways.

Canals were first made to transport coal to the cities. Taking coal by road was expensive and slow. Since a lot of coal was needed, there was a great need for canals. The most famous of the early canals were Worsley Canal built by James Brindley (1716-72). Transporting coal to the city was its aim. When the canal was completed, the price of coal was reduced to half.

HssLive in History Question 9.
The most surprising change in travel was the development of the railway. Explain.
Answer:
The most surprising change in travel was definitely the development of the railway. George Stevenson started the railway age. In 1814 he built the steam engine called rocket. With this engine, a train could go as fast as 35 miles an hour and this was history. Soon railways became a new means of travel and transport. Rail travel was available throughout the year and it was cheap and fast. People and goods could be easily transported.

Railway travel connected two inventions – rails and steam engines. In the 1760s iron rails replaced wooden rails. At the beginning of the 19th century, steam engines began to be used in railways.

In 1801 Richard Trevithick developed a machine called. Puffing Devil. This machine was useful in dragging trucks around the mines.

In 1814 George Stevenson made a train with the name Blucher. It could climb hills carrying even goods weighing 30 tons. It was Stevenson that built the first rail Connecting Stockton and Darlington. In 1830, Liverpool and Manchester were linked by rail. With the opening of this railway line, the railway age dawned.

Chapter 9 the Industrial Revolution Answers Question 10.
Prepare a seminar paper showing the Changes the Industrial Revolution brought.
Answer:
The Industrial Revolution brought many changes in the life of people. Though it brought ease and comfort to one section of the people, it brought misery and pain to some others.

Rich persons invested money in different industries to reap profits. Their income increased dramatically because of the proper use of goods, services, knowledge, and productivity. But industrialization arid urbanization adversely affected common people. Families were separated, cities became crowded and dirty, and the terrible work conditions in the factories made people suffer.

In 1750, in England, there were only two cities that had more than 50,000 people. By 1850, this increased to 29. The speed of this growth did not reflect on the life of people. They.did not have proper places to live and sanitation facilities. Not even enough drinking water was available. Persons newly coming to the cities were forced to live in the slums in, or close to, the cities. But the rich people built their second homes in villages which were free from pollution.

Workers:
A survey done in 1842 revealed that the longevity of the workers (labourers) in the city was less than those of others. The average life expectancy of workers was 15 years in Birmingham, 17 in Manchester and 21 in Derby. This was because in cities many children died at a very young age. Many died even before they reached 5. The increase in the city population was because of migration from the rural areas and not because of increased birth rates there.

Workers died prematurely mainly because of contagious diseases. Cholera and typhoid that came as the result of water pollution and tuberculosis that spread through the atmosphere killed many. In a cholera epidemic in 1832, more than 31,000 workers died.

Until the end of the 19th century, the municipal authorities ignored these dangerous circumstances. There was also no medical expertise to diagnose and treat these diseases.

Women, Children, and Industrialization:
One of the worst outcomes of industrialization was the exploitation of women and children. Children of poor parents had to work in the fields and also at home. They worked under strict supervision from their parents or relatives. The village women had to work in the field. They grew cattle and gathered wood. They also made thread using looms.

In the factories of the city, women and children were made to work. The work here was quite different from the work in villages. They had to work in factories and mines for long periods without rest and under strict supervision. They were punished severely for any little mistakes they made. The income from the women and children were needed for meeting the expenses of the family as the men earned very little as they had low wages.

Even when the use of machines became widespread, employers preferred women and children to do the work because they had to be paid much less than men. The women and children would not protest against bad working conditions.

In the cotton industries of Lancashire and Yorkshire, plenty of women and children were employed. In silk-making, brocade making and sewing, women were the main workers. In the iron industry at Birmingham also they worked along with children.

Children were made to labour hard. Machines like the spinning jenny were made in such a way that children with small bodies and fast fingers could work them. Since children could move in between the many thickly laid machines in the factory, they were preferred in the cotton mills. Even on Sundays, they had to work cleaning the machines. Thus they were denied rest and even clean air. Accidents were common in the factories. Some even died in factories as they fell on to the machines being tired and sleepy.

The work in the mines was also dangerous. Accidents were usual there. These were caused by the upper portions of the mines crumbling or because of the explosions carried out there. Mine owners employed children to draw the carts filled with coal along the underground rails. Since entrances were narrow and small, children were preferred by the cruel owners. The children carried loads of coal. Working in the mines was looked upon as training for working in the factories. Evidences from the factory records show that there were children of even less than ten years working there.

It is true that the self-confidence and economic situation of the working women were better. But the adverse circumstances in which they worked, the children they lost at birth or infancy, and the dirty slums in which they were forced to live spoiled the little satisfaction they got from the wages they earned.

Plus One History Notes in Malayalam Question 11.
Against the evils of industrialization, there were strong protests. Prepare a seminar paper based on this statement.
Answer:
Against the evils of industrialization, there were strong protests in England as well as in other industrialized societies. The slogans of the French Revolution “Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity” gave these movements impetus. The French Revolution had shown the way for fighting for organizing democratic institutions, controlling the price of essential things like bread and to reduce the sufferings caused by wars.

Political protests against the adverse conditions in the factories of England were getting stronger. Workers also demanded the right to vote. The British government first tried to suppress these movements. It brought hew laws preventing the people from protesting.

Between 1792 and 1815, there were constant wars between England and France. As a result, European trade suffered. Factories had to close down. Unemployment increased. The prices of essential things like bread and meat skyrocketed.

In 1795, the British government passed two Combination Acts. The Combination acts said that any writing or speech against the king, constitution or government is against the law. The Parliament; banned any unpermitted meeting of more than 50 persons. But the protests against government policies continued. The Parliament which included landowners, producers and professionals were against giving voting right to the workers. It also backed the anti-people Corn Laws.

The workers in the factories and cities started expressing their anger in many ways. From 1790 there were many ‘Bread Riots’ throughout Britain. The main food of the poor people was bread. The increase in its price troubled them. People captured hoarded bread and distributed it among people at reasonable prices. This was a big blow to the greedy merchants. The ‘bread riots’ continued until 1840.

The Enclosure Movement started by the rich in the early 1700s increased the misery of the common people. Rich landowners bought pieces of land from small farmers and increased the size of their farms which were protected by enclosures (walls). This also adversely affected poor people. They were forced to work in industries.

The introduction of machines in the cotton industry j destroyed the livelihood of many. Thousands of J weavers lost their jobs. They became poor. In the 1790s, the weavers began to demand the legal minimum wages. The Parliament was not ready to make such laws. Against this, the weavers started protests. The government dismissed them from their jobs by force. The desperate workers destroyed power looms. They believed that it was the machines that destroyed their means of livelihood. Workers made strong resistance against mechanization in the wool industry at Nottingham. There were also protests in Leicestershire and Derbyshire.

The workers in Yorkshire who traditionally sheared (cut) the wool from sheep destroyed the shearing frames that were brought for this purpose. In the 1830s, workers in the fields protested against the threshing, machines. They destroyed the machines that were a threat to their jobs. 9 of the protesters were hanged. 450 were deported to Australia as criminals.

Luddism was another Movement that was started against industrialization. Workers who thought that machines were the cause of all their troubles started this movement with the plan of destroying them. This Movement was begun under General Nel Ludd. England suppressed this moment by using the army. Luddism was not a movement that merely wanted to destroy machines. The members of this group demanded minimum wages. They also wanted to stop the exploitation of women and children in the factories and other workplaces. They were interested in the formation of labour organizations.

In the initial years of industrialization, workers did not have voting rights. They had no other way of expressing their anger and despair. In August 1819, there was a big meeting at St. Peters Field in which more than 80,000 people came. They demanded democratic rights like the right to call public meetings, to organize political groups and freedom . of the press. Army rushed to the scene and brutally attacked those attending the meeting. This incident is known as Peterloo Massacre. [Rejecting all the demands of the workers, that year itself the Parliament passed “Six Acts”. The Combination Acts of 1795, which prohibited workers from taking part in political activities, were strictly enforced. However, the Peterloo Massacre made some gains:

1. All the liberal political groups approved the idea of increasing the number of representatives in the House of Commons.

2. In 1824, the Combination Acts were repealed.

Question 12.
For improving the condition of workers, the government carried out some legal steps. Based on this statement, write a note on factory laws.
Answer:
In 1819 laws were passed prohibiting the employment of children below the age of 9 in factories. The working time of children between 9 and 16 was fixed as 12 hours per day. But this rule was not effectively implemented.

Workers in the northern regions of England had. carried out intense protests against the existing conditions. As a result, in 1833, the British Parliament passed a factory law. This law prohibited the employment of children below the age of 9 in silk factories and cotton mills. The time of work for the children was fixed at 8 hours per day. There was also a condition to appoint factory inspectors to ensure that the laws were kept.

Marking the end of 3 decades of protests in 1847 the “Ten Hours Bill” was passed. By this law the working time was limited. Men had to work only for 10 hours.

Plus One History Notes Question 13
“The Industrial Revolution can’t be seen as a revolution.” In a classroom discussion Abnijn. expressed this view. Do you agree with him? Justify.
Answer:
It is true that nowadays nobody sees the Industrial Revolution as a revolution. Revolution means radical and sudden changes in the existing situation. Industrialization did not happen suddenly.

In fact, industrialization was a slow process. It was a continuation of the existing situation. Things like concentration of workers in factories and extensive use of money were already in existence in England. Therefore industrialization cannot be seen as a revolution.

Industrialization in England was a regional process. Until the 19^th century, a major portion of England had no factories or mines. Industrialization was centered around a few cities like London, Manchester, Birmingham, and Newcastle. That means industrialization there was a regional affair. It did not happen throughout the country. Therefore using the term industrial revolution is quite inappropriate.

Question 14.
Adding the word ‘industrial’ to the world ‘revolution’ is inappropriate. Why?
Answer:
Adding the word ‘industrial’ to the world ‘revolution’ is quite inappropriate. It is so because the changes happened not only in the economic and industrial spheres but also in the social arena. For example, two classes came up in society – the capitalists (bourgeoisie) and the workers (labour class).

Students can Download Chapter 4 Poverty Questions and Answers, Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Kerala Plus One Economics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Poverty

Plus One Economics Poverty One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The estimated minimum calorie intake for a rural person is:
(i) 2000
(ii) 2100
(iii) 2200
(iv) 2400
Answer:
(ii) 2100

Question 2.
Who publishes the official data on poverty in India?
(i) Ministry of finance
(ii) Finance commission
(iii) Planning commission
(iv) World Bank
Answer:
(iii) Planning commission

Question 3.
Identify an anti-poverty programme in India
(i) REGP
(ii) PMRY
(iii) JRY
(iv) All the above
Answer:
(iv) All the above

Question 4.
Complete the following statement.
(i) Inflation is a situation of general price …………. level.
Answer:
Increasing

Question 5.
According to 2001 census, _____ % of people live.below poverty line in India.
Answer:
26.1%

Question 6.
When was NREGP started in India?
Answer:
On 2^ndFebruary 2006.

Question 7.
Give the new name of NREGP?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (MNREGP).

Plus One Economics Poverty Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State an example each of self employment in rural and urban areas.
Answer:
Self employment in rural areas: Rural Employment Generation Program.
Self employment in urban areas : Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana.

Question 2.
Point out the causes of urban poverty, mm
Answer:
In India, poverty exists both in rural and urban areas. The urban poor are largely the overflow of the rural poor who migrated to urban areas in search in employment and livelihood. The modem industries does not absorb all these surplus labour as they are unskilled. Most of the urban poor are either unemployed or face irregular job opportunities.

Question 3.
What is food for work programme ?
Answer:
The ‘food for work’ programme was started in 1970’s. This programme aims at ensuring food for poor instead of money. It provides assurance to the family of the worker to get minimum food to eat and survive well. Then, this programme can solve the problem of malnutrition and poverty to a great extent.

Question 4.
Differentiate between absolute poverty and relative poverty.
Answer:
Absolute poverty is defined as the inability to achieve the minimum requirement of life, health, and efficiency as a result of very low level of income. On the other hand, relative poverty makes a comparison of relative levels of income of different people or groups of population to determine who is poor.

Plus One Economics Poverty Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the odd one out

1. PDS, ICDS, MDMS, NREGP
2. Rice, wheat, pulses, rubber
3. RLEGP, PMRY, NREGP, NSO

Answer:

1. NREGP. Others are food security programs
2. Rubber. Others are food crops
3. NSO. Others are employment generating programs

Question 2.
Match the following columns

Answer:

Question 3.
Name a few women oriented poverty eradication programmes in India?
Answer:

• Panchadhara Yojana
• Kamdhenu Yojana
• Apni Beti Apni Dhan Yojana
• Kudumbasree

Question 4.
Define poverty line.
Answer:
Poverty line is defined as per capita consumption expenditure which is required to attain a minimum acceptable standard of living.

Plus One Economics Poverty Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Suppose you are from a poor family and wish to get help form the government to setup petty shops. Under which scheme, you will apply for the assistance and why?
Answer:
The following are the measures to solve the problem of poverty in a village like that of mine.

1. creating more employment opportunities in rural areas
2. educating the villagers 1
3. encouraging small scale and cottage industries to generate employment
4. spreading awareness regarding health and sanitation
5.  they should be made aware of the different schemes offered to them by the government
6. the government should provide them with basic amenities such as schools, roads, hospitals communication facilities, etc.

Question 2.
List out the causes responsible for poverty in India.
Answer:
Poverty is explained by individual circumstances and/or characteristics of poor people. Some examples are:

1. low levels of education and skills
2. infirmity, ill health, sickness
3. discrimination.

These can be caused as a result of

1. Social, economic and political inequality
2. Social exclusion
3. Unemployment
4. Indebtedness
5. Unequal distribution of wealth.

Aggregate poverty is just the sum of individual poverty. Poverty is also explained by general, economy-wide problems, such as:

1. Low capital formation
2. Lack of infrastructure
3. Lack of demand
4. Pressure of population
5. Lack of social/welfare nets.

Question 3.
Give the year of starting the following programmes.
i) SGSY
ii) RLEGP
iii) NREG Act
iv) SJSRY
Answer:

Question 4.
Critically evaluate the poverty alleviation programmes in India.
Answer:
A. Critical Assessment of Poverty Alleviation Programmes:
Through the policy towards poverty alleviation has evolved in a progressive manner but over the last five and a half decades it has not undergone any radical transformation. Scholars state three major areas of concern which prevent the success implementation of the programs, they are:

1. Unequal distribution of land and other assets due to the benefits have been availed by the non-poor.

2. In comparison to the magnitude of poverty the amount of resources allocated for these programmes is not sufficient,

3. These programs depend mainly on government and bank officials for their implementation since such officials are ill-motivated, inadequately trained, corruption-prone and vulnerable to pres-sure from a variety of local elites, the resources are inefficiently used and wasted.

Plus One Economics Poverty Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Illustrate the difference between rural and urban poverty. Is it correct to say that poverty has shifted from rural to urban areas?
Answer:
The features of rural poverty are :

• Open, under disguised unemployment, are found simultaneously in rural areas
• It is difficult to differentiate between open unemployment and underemployment in rural areas
• No or meager facility of education, employment, social welfare, etc lead to poverty among the masses
• Rural people posses few assets and many are landless

The features of urban poverty are:

• Open unemployment is generally found
• One can differentiate between open and disguised unemployment
• Good facility of education, drinking water, sanitation, etc make the standard of living of urban people high
• Urban people posses many assets Yes, poverty has shifted from rural to urban areas.

This is clear from the fact that in n1973-74 more than 80% of the poor resided in rural areas but in 1999 – 2000, this proportion has reduced to 75%. This means that poverty has shifted from rural to urban areas. In the 1990s the absolute number of the poor in the rural areas has declined whereas the number of poor in urban areas has increased.

Question 2.
Write full form of the following.

1. PMRY
2. SGRY
3. NSSO
4. SJSRY
5. JGSY

Answer:

1. PMRY – Prime Minister’s RozgarYojana.
2. SGRY – Sampoorna Grameena RozgarYojana
3. NSSO – National Sample Survey Organisation
4. SJSRY – Swama Jayanthi Shahari RozgarYojana
5. JGSY – JawaharGramSamridhiYojana

Question 3.
Give the year of starting the following programmes.

1. Mid-day meals scheme
2. Aam Admi Bima Yojana
3. JLNNURM
4. Bharat Nirman
5. VAMBAY.

Answer:

1. 1995
2. 2007
3. 2005
4. 2005
5. 2001

Question 4.
Suppose you are a resident of a village. Suggest a few measures to solve the problem of poverty in your locality.
Answer:
The following are the measures to solve the problem of poverty in a village like that of mine.

1. creating more employment opportunities in rural areas
2. educating the villagers
3. encouraging small scale and cottage industries to generate employment
4. spreading awareness regarding health and sanitation
5. they should be made aware of the different schemes offered to them by the government
6. the government should provide them with basic amenities such as schools, roads, hospital communication facilities, etc.

Question 5.
Govt, of India, has introduced a number of antipoverty programmes. Do you think that these anti-poverty programmes are sufficient for reducing our country’s poverty? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The govt, implement many programmes to reduce poverty. REGP, PMRY, SJSRY, SJSY, MNREGS are few among them. The rate of poverty has been mitigated due to the implementation of these programmes. However, there are a lot of problems associated with these policies. They are given below.

1. The amount of resources allocated for these programmes is not sufficient.
2. The effectiveness of the implementation of these programmes depends mainly on government and bank officials. May such officials are ill-motivated, inadequately trained and corrupt. So the resources reach the hand of the people who do not reserve it.
3. There is non-participation of local-level institutions in programme implementation.
4. The government also failed to address the vast majority of vulnerable people who are living on or just above the poverty line.

Plus One Economics Poverty Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the various measures taken by the government to solve the problem of poverty in India.
Answer:
The poverty reduction approach of the government near of three dimensions.
a. Growth oriented approach.

b. Income and employment creation specifically for the poor.

c. Providing basic amenities to the people. Growth-oriented approach is based on the expectation that the effects of economic growth-rapid increase in Gross Domestic Income and Per Capita Income – would spread to all sections of society and will trickle down to the poor sections also.

The approach of income and employment creation specifically for the poor initiated from the third five-year plan. The programmes under the approach include food for work (1970) self-employment programmes like RLEGP, PMRY SJSRY. The Khadi and Village Commission implements these programmes. The government also started wage employment programme like national food for work programme, SGSRY, MNREGS, etc.

1. The Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP):
This programme was launched on 15th August 1983 to supplement NREP. This is a centrally sponsored scheme with 100 percent fund by the union government.

2. The PMRY:
GA was launched on 1^st April 2000. The programme aims at providing the housing needs of rural people. Providing basic amenities includes Integrated Child Development Scheme, Mid-day Meal Scheme, Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana, ValmikiAmbedkarAvasYojana, etc.

3. Integrated Child Development Schemes (ICDS):
A nutrition programme meant for children below 6 years of age, pregnant and lactating women.

4. Mid-day Meal at School:
Mid-day Meal at School is in operation in several states. The programme was launched in all India level on 15^th August 1995.