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Hss Live Guru 8th Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
कहानी का कौन-सा प्रसंग शीर्षक को सार्थक बनाने में अधिक संगत है?

उत्तर:
कहानी का यह अंतिम प्रसंग शीर्षक को सार्थक बनाने में अधिक संगत है। यहाँ लेखक के पूछने पर अंधा व्यक्ति कहता है कि रात में लोग प्रकाश के बिना निकलते हैं। वे आकर हमसे टक्कर लेते हैं। उनसे बचने तथा उन्हें प्रकाश देने के लिए हम लालटेन लेकर चलते हैं। मतलब स्वयं अंधे होते हुए भी वे लालटेन से दूसरों को राह दिखाते हैं। यह प्रसंग ‘उजाला’ शीर्षक को सार्थक बनाने योग्य है।

उजाला Summary in Malayalam and Translation

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions Chapter 2 In search of the Source of Wind

Answer the following. Score 1 each.

Choose the correct answer.

Sslc Social Science Important Questions Question 1.
The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Anemometer
Mercury barometer
Thermometer
Wind Vane
Answer:
Mercury barometer

Question 2.
The unit used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Millibar
Milligram
Millimeter
Celsius
Answer:
Millibar

Question 3.
The quantity of water vapour in atmospheric air.
Pressure gradient
Humidity
Dew
Density
Answer:
Humidity

Question 4.
The pressure belt where sun rays fall vertically throughout the year.
Subpolar low pressure belt
Subtropical high pressure belt
Equatorial low pressure belt
Polar high pressure belt
Answer:
Equatorial low pressure belt

Question 5.
The basis for the formation of global pressure belts
Temperature
Altitude
Rotation of the earth and the variations in the amount of solar energy
None of these
Answer:
Rotation of the earth and the variations in the amount of solar energy

Question 6.
Which of the following does not influence the speed and direction of winds’?
Pressure gradient
Friction
Altitude
Coriolis force
Answer:
Altitude

Question 7.
Winds that blow from subtropical high pres-sure belts to equatorial low pressure belt.
Trade winds
Polar easterlies
Westerlies
Periodic winds
Answer:
Trade winds

Question 8.
Monsoon winds are
planetary winds
local winds
periodic winds
variable winds
Answer:
periodic winds

Question 9.
The wind known as ‘snow eater ’
Chinook
Loo
Harmattan
Foehn
Answer:
Chinook

Question 10.
The hot dry winds that blow towards the southern valleys of the Alps mountains
Mistral
Chinook
Foehn
Loo
Answer:
Foehn

Question 11.
A low atmospheric pressure at the centre surrounded by high pressure regions
Cyclone
Anticyclone
Trade wind
Periodic wind
Answer:
Cyclone

Answer in a sentence.

Question 1.
The winds that helped Vasco da Gama to travel from Malindi port to Calicut port.
Answer:
Southwest monsoon winds.

Question 2.
What is the basic reason for the formation of winds. ‘
Answer:
Pressure differences over different latitudinal zones at the global level.

Question 3.
What is atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The weight of atmospheric air on the earth’s surface.

Question 4.
What is average weight exerted by air on the earth’s surface?
Answer:
1034 mg per cm²

Question 5.
What is the rate at which atmospheric pressure decreases as height increases’?
Answer:
At the rate of 1 millibar per an altitude of 10 m.

Question 6.
When we go to high altitude places like Ootty, we feel clogging of ear. Why?
Answer:

• Low pressure in high altitude regions.
• Decrease in the amount of air.

Question 7.
Which pressure belt was a nightmare to ancient mariners? Why?
Answer:

• Equatorial low pressure belt.
• The air in this region ascends on a large scale and so feeble horizontal movement of air.

Question 8.
Equatorial low pressure belt with feeble winds is also known by another name. Which is that
Answer:

• Doldrum
• It means zone with no winds.

Question 9.
What is the reason for the low pressure experienced in the equatorial regions’?
Answer:
Since sun rays are always vertical here, air expands and rises vertically. This is the zone where the sun’s rays fall vertically throughout the year.

Question 10.
Which pressure belt is known as Horse latitude?
Answer:
Subtropical high-pressure belt.

Question 11.
Why is low pressure experienced in the subpolar regions’?
Answer:
Cold air is thrown up due to the rotation of the earth.

Sslc Social Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 12.
With the apparent movement of the sun, the shifting of pressure belt is more vivid in Northern Hemisphere. Why?
Answer:
Presence of continents/landmasses.

Question 13.
The westerlies are stronger in the Southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere. Why?
Answer:
Presence of vast oceans in the Southern Hemi-sphere.

Question 14.
Polar winds are known as polar easterlies. Why?
Answer:
Due to Coriolis force, polar winds blow from the east in both the hemispheres.

Question 15.
Who was the first to observe the shift in the direction of monsoon winds?
Answer:
Hippalus, the Arab scholar.

Question 16.
Name the winds formed as a result of the defection of south-east trade winds due to Coriolis effect.
Answer:
Southwest monsoon winds.

Question 17.
Name the winds formed when northeast trade winds get strengthened.
Answer:
Northeast monsoon winds.

Answer the following. Score 2 each.

Question 1.
What are the factors influencing atmospheric pressure? How are they related to atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The factors influencing atmospheric pressure are temperature, altitude and humidity.
Temperature, altitude and humidity are inversely proportional to atmospheric pressure. As temperature, altitude and humidity increase, pressure decreases. In other words, as temperature, altitude and humidity decrease, pressure increases.

Question 2.
The atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude. Why? Write the rate at which atmospheric pressure decreases.
Answer:

• The ratification of air with altitude is the reason for decrease in pressure.
• The rate at which pressure decreases is 1 Mb per an altitude of 10 m.

Question 3.
Mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders with them. Why?
Answer:
As height increases, the amount of air decreases. So required amount of air will not be available at high altitudes.

Question 4.
The weight exerted by air on earth’s surface is the atmospheric pressure, but atmospheric pressure is not experienced uniformly all over. Why?
Answer:
Temperature, altitude and humidity are the factors that influence pressure.
The variations in the distribution of temperature due to the spherical shape of the earth and the tilting of earth’s axis, difference in the altitude of regions and the variations in humidity influence pressure.

Question 5.
What is the relation between humidity and atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The quantity of water vapour present in the atmosphere is called humidity. Humidity and atmospheric pressure are inversely proportional. Increase in the quantity of water vapour in a unit volume of air leads to decrease in atmospheric pressure.

Question 6.
Equatorial low pressure belt is also known as Doldrum. Why?
Answer:
Equatorial low pressure belt is situated between 5°N and 5°S. As the air in this zone ascends on a large scale due to high temperature, winds are very feeble here. So it is called Doldrum meaning the zone with no winds.

Question 7.
Though the air in subpolar regions is cold, low pressure is experienced here. Why?
Answer:
Though the cold air in subpolar regions remain close to the earth, the air is thrown up due to earth’s rotation. As the amount of air decreases, low pressure is experienced in the subpolar regions.

Question 8.
How does pressure gradient influence the speed of wind?
Answer:
The pressure gradient is said to be steeper when the pressure difference is more. In such places the speed of wind will be high also.

Question 9.
What is Coriolis force?
Answer:
Due to the earth’s rotation, freely moving bodies on the earth’s surface get deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This is known as Coriolis force. This was detected by the French mathematician Gustav Coriolis.

Question 10.
What is Ferrel’s law?
Answer:
Admiral Ferrel, an American scientist found out that the winds in the Northern Hemisphere deflect towards their right and those in the Southern Hemisphere deflect towards the left due to the Coriolis effect Which increases from equator to the poles. The law put forward by him on the basis of this is known as Ferrel’s law.

Question 11.
How does friction influence the speed of winds?
Answer:
The speed of wind will be high over ocean surfaces and level lands as the friction is less.
The friction is more along difficult terrains and places with dense forest cover. The speed of wind will be less in those places.

Question 12.
Polar winds are called Polar easterly winds. Why?
Answer:
Polar winds are the cold winds that blow from polar high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure belts.
Due to Coriolis force, polar winds in both the hemispheres blow from the east.

Question 13.
When we travel up to Ooty or Kodaikanal, we experience clogging of ears and slight breathing difficulty. Why?
Answer:
It is because of low pressure in high altitude regions. Altitude of a place determines change in atmospheric pressure. Ooty and Kodaikanal are high-altitude regions. We experience discomfort while traveling up to high altitude regions because it takes some time for our body to adjust to the difference that happens to atmospheric pressure. Due to this we experience clogging of ears and slight breathing difficulty.

Question 14.
In what way would equatorial region and polar regions experience atmospheric pressure?
Answer:

• Equatorial region – high temperature – low pressure
• Polar regions – low temperature – high pressure.

Question 15.
Air in coastal regions would show a higher humidity in comparison with that of inland areas. What could be the reason?
Answer:
Nearness to water body is the main reason. Coastal regions have high humidity due to nearness to water body. Inland regions are away from water bodies and have less humidity.

10th Social Science Important Questions Question 16.
Identify the following winds from the given hints.
a. Blow from subtropical high pressure belts to equatorial low pressure belt.
b. Blow from subtropical high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure belts.
c. Blow from polar high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure belts.
d. Blow from sea to land during day time.
Answer:
a. Trade winds
b. Westerlies
c. Polar winds
d. Sea breeze

Question 17.
The following are the features of some local winds. Identify them.
a. Since this wind reduces the severity of the cold, it is helpful for wheat cultivation in the Canadian Shields.
b. Causes a rise in the summer temperature of North Indian plains.
c. As the air heats up due to pressure from the descent, it helps in reducing the severity of cold in that region.
d. Improves the climate of West Africa.
Answer:
a. Chinook
b. Loo
c. Foehn
d. Harmattan

Question 18.
Explain:
High pressure
Low pressure
Answer:
High pressure:
If the atmospheric pressure of an area is higher than that of the surrounding regions, it can be designated as high pressure.

Low pressure:
If the atmospheric pressure of an area is less than that of the surrounding regions, it can be designated as low pressure.

Question 19.
Identify the following local winds.
a. A dry wind which blows from Sahara desert towards the West Africa.
b. The wind that blows towards the southern valleys of the Alps.
Answer:
a. Harmattan
b. Foehn

Question 20.
Arrange the columns suitably.

Answer:

Question 21.
The equatorial low pressure region was a nightmare for the ancient mariners. Why?
Answer:

• In ancient times, the ocean voyages were in yachts by making use of winds.
• The winds are feeble in equatorial regions due to high temperature and massive rising up of air.
• The region is also known as doldrum.
• The voyage across this region was difficult due to the lack of winds.

Question 22.
What are the variable winds? Give example.
Answer:
Winds with entirely different characteristics formed during certain atmospheric situations, e.g. Cyclones.

Answer the following. Score 3 each.

Question 1.
Choose the correct pair.
Factors Pressure
i. Temperature increases Increases
ii. Humidity decreases Decreases
iii. Altitude increases Increases
iv. Humidity increases Decreases
v. Temperature decreases Increases
vi. Altitude decreases Increases

A. i, ii, iii
B. ii, iv, v
C. i, ii, iii
D. iv, v, vi
Answer:
D. iv, v, vi

Question 2.
Temperature and pressure are inversely proportional. Explain.
Answer:
Air expands when it gets heated. The expanded air is less dense and hence it ascends. This results in lowering of atmospheric pressure.

The ascending air spreads to the sides and cools. On cooling, it becomes dense and descends. As a result, atmospheric pressure increases.

As temperature increases, pressure decreases and as temperature decreases, pressure increases.

Question 3.
Write the three basic reasons for the forma¬tion of global pressure belts.
Answer:

1. Variations in the amount of solar energy received.
2. Rotation of the earth.
3. Inclination of the earth’s axis.

Question 4.
Explain with examples that the peculiarities of the source regions influence the nature of wind.
Answer:

• Wind blowing from sea to land is called sea breeze. It is saturated with moisture.
• The winds blowing from dry regions are hot dry winds, and have less moisture content.

Question 5.
What are the factors that influence the speed and direction of winds?
Answer:

• Pressure gradient
• Coriolis force
• Friction

Question 6.
Why do trade winds blow from northeast and southeast directions?
Answer:
Trade winds blow from subtropical high pressure belts to equatorial low pressure belt.

Due to Coriolis force, these winds get deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. As a result, they blow towards west.

Thus trade winds blow from northeast in the Northern Hemisphere and southeast in Southern Hemisphere.

Question 7.
Westerlies are described as ‘Roaring Forties ‘Furious Fifties ’ and ‘Shrieking Sixties ’ in the Southern Hemisphere. Why?
Answer:

• Westerlies are very strong and powerful in the Southern Hemisphere due to the presence of the vast oceans there. Beyond 40°S, due to the absence of landmasses, they blow with great velocity.
• Along 40°S, westerlies are called Roaring forties.
• Along 50°S, westerlies are called Furious Fifties and along 60°S, they are called Shrieking Sixties.

Question 8.
The diagrammatic representation of some winds is given. Identify and name the winds.

Answer:

B – Westerlies in Northern Hemisphere.
C – Trade winds in North-South Hemispheres.

Question 9.
The following are the characteristics of planetary winds. Identify to which wind they are related.
Hints: Trade winds, Westerlies, Polar winds Correct direction of planetary winds

Answer:
a. Westerlies
b.Polar winds
c. Trade winds
d. Polar winds
e. Westerlies
f. Trade winds

Question 10.
The following are the factors influencing pres-sure. How do they affect pressure?
Temperature
Altitude
Humidity
Answer:

Question 11.
Write the factors for the occurrence of monsoon winds.
Answer:

• Apparent movement of the sun
• Coriolis force
• Differences in heating

Question 12.
Match the columns suitably.

Answer:

Question 13.
Find out an example for local wind in India. Write its features.
Answer:
Loo, a hot dry wind blowing in the North Indian plain

Features

• Hot dry wind that blows in North Indian plains during summer.
• Blowing from Rajasthan desert, Loo causes a rise in the summer temperature of North Indian plains.

Question 14.
Which are the Statements related to trade winds?
a. Blow from sub tropical high pressure belt to subpolar belts.
b. Blow from east direction to equatorial regions
c. Blow from east direction to subpolar belts
d. Blow towards equator in both hemispheres
e. Winds that converge at Intectropical zone.

i. a, b, c
ii. b, d, e
iii. b, c, e
iv. c, d, e
Answer:
ii. b, d, e

Question 15.
A. Mountain breeze
B. Valley breeze
Based on the features of the above winds answer the following questions,
a. Which wind blows during day time, A or B?
b. From where to where is the direction of wind during night time?
c. How is valley breeze formed?
Answer:
a. Valley Breeze occurs during day time, ie, B.
b. Mountain breeze formed during night blows towards the valley.
c. During the day time, the air in the valley gets heated up more than the air on the mountain top. As a result, the wind blows upslope from the valley. This is valley breeze.

Question 16.
i. The planetary winds that blow from subtropical high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure best are called westerlies. Why?
ii. These winds are stronger in the Southern Hemisphere. Why?
iii. By what other names are these winds known?
Answer:
i. The direction of these winds are mostly from the west.
ii. Due to the vast expanse of oceans in the South- em Hemisphere,
iii. Roaring Forties: along 40° latitudes
Furious Fifties: along 50° latitudes
Shrieking sixties: along 60° latitudes

Question 17.
Observe the pictures and answer the questions.


i. Which diagram represents low pressure region? Substantiate your answer.
ii. What is the name by which the smooth curved lines in the diagrams are known? What does it indicate?
Answer:
i. Diagram B represents low pressure region.
The value of isobars decreases towards the centre.

ii. Isobars These are imaginary lines joining places having equal atmospheric pressure.

Question 18.
Is the atmospheric pressure the same at all places given below? Write a note based on the factors influencing the atmospheric pressure.
Central Pacific region
Ootty
Polar region
Answer:
The factors influencing the atmospheric pressure are temperature, altitude and humidity. All these factors are inversely proportional to pressure.

Central Pacific region: As this is equatorial region, high temperature and high humidity are experienced. So low pressure is the result.

Ooty: As situated above sea level, there is a ratification of air and so the pressure is low.

Polar region: Since the sunrays are slanting, low temperature and high pressure.

Question 19.
Write the reason. .
i. The atmospheric pressure is low in the coastal regions and high in the interior regions.
ii. Low pressure is experienced throughout the year in the equatorial regions.
iii. Compared to plains, there is a decrease in the atmospheric pressure in the mountains.
Answer:
i. Difference in humidity. Humidity is the amount of water present in the atmosphere. If the quantity of water vapour is more in a unit volume of air, the atmospheric pressure will be less. Coastal regions have high humidity due to the nearness to waterbodies. So the pressure is low. But the interior regions experience high pressure as they are away from water bodies.

ii. Due to temperature. Sunrays fall vertically throughout the year in the equatorial regions. As the temperature is high, the air expands and rises up on a massive scale. As a result, low pressure is experienced.

iii. Difference in altitude. As height increases, atmospheric pressure decreases. The amount of air is less in the mountainous regions. This results in low pressure.

Answer the following. Score 4 each.

In Search Of The Source Of Wind Important Questions Question 1.
Write a note on monsoon winds.
Or
Analyse the role of trade winds in the occurrence of south west monsoon winds and north east monsoon winds.
Answer:
Winds that change their direction according to change in season are called monsoon winds.
Monsoon winds are formed due to the apparent movement of the sun, Coriolis force and differences in heating.
Sun’s rays fall vertically to the north of the equator during certain months due to the tilt of the earth’s axis. This leads to an increase in temperature along the region through which Tropic of Cancer passes. The pressure belts
also shift slightly northwards in accordance with this.

The south east trade winds cross the equator and move towards the north. As the trade winds cross the equator, they get deflected and transform into south west monsoon winds under the influence of the Coriolis effect. The low pressure formed over the land due to the intense day temperature attracts these sea winds and further contributes to the formation of south west monsoon winds. As a result of the formation of high pressure zones over the Asian landmasses during winter and low pressure zones over the Indian Ocean, the north east trade winds get strengthened. These are the north east monsoon winds.

Question 2.
Write the difference between land breeze and sea breeze.
Answer:
During day time, the land gets heated up quickly. As a result, the air in contact with the land also gets heated. This leads to the formation of low pressure over the land which causes comparatively cooler air to blow from the sea. This is known as sea breeze.

As the land cools faster than the sea during the night, it would be high pressure over the land and low pressure over the sea. This results in the movement of air from the land to sea. This is the land breeze.

Question 3.
Based on the hints given, identify the pressure belts.
a. The zone where sun rays fall vertically throughout the year.
b. Also known as Horse latitude.
c. The zones where low pressure are formed due to the rotation of the earth even though the air masses here are very cold.
d. The zones that experience severe cold throughout the year.
Answer:
a. Equatorial low pressure belt
b. Subtropical high pressure belt
c. Subpolar low pressure belts
d. Polar high pressure belts

Question 4.
Based on the given hints, identify the basic reasons for the formation of the pressure belts.
Hints: Amount of solar energy, rotation of earth

Answer:
a. Amount of solar energy
b. Rotation of earth
c. Rotation of earth
d. Amount of solar energy.

Question 5.
‘Global variation in the atmospheric pressure lead to the formation of winds ’. Explain this statement relating it with the formation of planetary winds.
Answer:

The horizontal movement of air form high pressure regions to low pressure regions is called wind. Steady winds blow from subtropical high pressure belts to equatorial low pressure belts (trade winds) and from subtropical high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure belts (westerlies).

Similarly, polar winds blow from polar high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure belts. Due to the variations in the distribution of solar energy received and the rotation of the earth, variations occur in the pressure belts formed. This is the reason for the formation of winds.

Question 6.
Write to which winds the following characteristics are related.
a. Blow from the east in both the hemispheres due to Coriolis force.
b. Blow strongly over the oceans of Southern Hemisphere.
c. Blow constantly towards equatorial low pressure belt.
d. Play a significant role in determining the climate of North America, North European countries and Russia.
Answer:
a. Polar winds
b. Westerlies
c. Trade winds
d. Polar winds

Question 7.
Match suitably.

Answer:

Question 8.
Complete the table on local winds over the places through which they blow.

Answer:
a. North Indian plains
b. Eastern slopes of the rocky mountain in North America
c. Southern val leys of the Alps mountain
d. Western Africa

Question 9.
South west monsoon winds are in fact the south east trade winds that blow in the southern hemisphere. Do you agree with this? Why?
Answer:
Sun’s rays fall vertically to the north of the equator during certain months due to the tilt of the earth’s axis. This leads to an increase in temperature along the region through which Tropic of Cancer passes. The pressure belts also shift slightly northwards in accordance with this.

The south east trade winds cross the equator and move towards the north. As the trade winds cross the equator, they get deflected and transform into south west monsoon winds under the influence of the Coriolis effect. The low pressure formed over the land due to the intense day temperature attracts these sea winds and further contributes to the formation of south west monsoon winds.

Question 10.
The given statements are related to two global pressure belts. Name them.
a. Extends up to about 5° N, 5° S of the equator.
b. Extends approximately over 30°N and 30°S.
c. Trade winds and westerlies blow from either side of this pressure belt.
d. Known as doldrum.
Answer:
a. Equatorial low pressure belt.
b. Subtropical high pressure belts.
c. Subtropical high pressure belts.
d. Equatorial low pressure belt.

Question 11.
Answer the questions based on the figure.

a. Globally, how many high pressure belts and low pressure belts are there?
b. What is the latitudinal extent of each pres-sure belt?
c. Equatorial regions experience low pressure throughout the year. Why?
Answer:
a. There are four high pressure belts and three low pressure belts globally.
b.

• Equatorial low pressure belt – between 5°N and 5°S on either sides of the equator.
• Subtropical high pressure belt – extends over 30° N (Northern hemisphere)
• Subpolar low pressure belt – extends over 60°N (Northern hemisphere)
• Polar high pressure belt – in the north pole (Northern hemisphere)
• Subtropical high pressure belt – over 30° S (Southern hemisphere) ‘
• Subpolar low pressure belt – over 60° S (Southern hemisphere)
• Polar high pressure belt – in the south pole

c. Equatorial regions experience high temperature throughout the year. Due to this, the air expands and rises vertically, resulting in low pressure.

Question 12.
Which are the pressure belts on either side of subtropical high pressure belts. Write notes on the winds formed from this pressure belt in the Northern Hemisphere. Which of these winds is most influenced by the Coriolis force?
Answer:

• Equatorial low pressure belt and subpolar low pressure belt.
• The winds formed from this pressure belt in the Northern Hemisphere are trade winds and westerlies.

Trade winds

• Blow continuously from north subtropical high pressure belt to subpolar low pressure belt.
• As these winds blow from the north east, they are known as north east trade winds.

Westerlies

• Blow continuously from north subtropical high pressure belt to subpolar low pressure belt.
• Blow in south west direction in the Northern Hemisphere.
• Westerlies are most influenced by the Coriolis force. It is because Coriolis force increases while advancing from the equator.

Question 13.
Observe the picture and answer the questions.
a. Which is the periodic wind marked in the picture?
b. In which season does it blow?
c. Why do these winds blow form Indian Ocean to Indian subcontinent?
d. In which direction do these winds blow? Why?

Answer:
a. Monsoon wind: South west monsoon wind.

b. During summer season of Northern Hemisphere.

c. Low pressure is formed over Indian subcontinent due to the intense day temperature. The Indian Ocean regions remain as high pressure during this time. So these winds blow from the Indian Ocean to Indian subcontinent.

d. South west monsoon winds blow from sea to land. The difference in pressure over land and sea is the reason.

Question 14.
Distinguish between mountain and valley breeze.
Answer:
Valley breeze: During day time, the air in the valley gets heated up more than the air on the mountain tops. As a result, the wind blows upslope from the valley. This is known as valley breeze.

Mountain breeze: During night, the air in the mountainous regions cools due to the intense cold conditions in that region. As cool air is denser, it blows towards the valley. This is known as mountain breeze.

Question 15.
Distinguish between cyclones and anticyclones.
Answer:
Cyclones are caused by the formation of low atmospheric pressure at the centre surrounded – by high pressure regions. Strong whirl winds blow towards such low pressure centres from the surrounding high pressure areas. Due to Coriolis effect, winds flow in the anticlockwise direction in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise direction in the Southern Hemisphere.

Anticyclones are phenomenon where strong whirl winds blow form the high pressure centres to the surrounding low pressure areas. Due to Coriolis effect, the pattern of wind is anticlockwise in Southern Hemisphere and clockwise in Northern Hemisphere.

Answer the following. Score 5 or 6 each.

Question 1.
Observe the picture an answer the questions.
i. Which are the pressure belts indicated by the letters A. B, C and D in the picture?
ii. How are the pressure belts A and B formed? Hi. Which are the planetary winds formed in these pressure belts? Write their features also.

i. A: Equatorial low pressure belt
B: Subtropical high pressure belt
C: Subpolar low pressure belt
D: Polar high pressure belt

ii. Equatorial low pressure belt This is the zone where the sun’s rays fall vertically throughout the year. Hence the temperature will be high in this zone all through the year. The air expands due to sun’s heat and rises up on a massive scale. So low pressure is formed here.
Subtropical high pressure belt The hot air ascending from the equatorial low pressure belt cools gradually and subsides at the subtropical zone due to the rotation of the earth. This is the reason for the formation of high pressure in this zone.

iii. Trade winds: The winds blowing continuously from subtropical high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt. As the winds blow from north east in this zone, they are known as north east trade winds.

Westerlies: The winds blowing continuously from subtropical high pressure belt to subpolar low pressure belt. The direction of these winds is from south-west. These winds are mostly influenced by Coriolis force.

Polar winds: Winds blowing from polar high pressure belt to subpolar low pressure belt. These winds blow from the east due to the Coriolis force.

Question 2.
Planetary winds influence global climate.
i. Substantiate this statement based on the influence of trade winds in the formation of monsoon winds.
ii. Write the pressure belts of northern hemisphere and the winds blowing between them.
Answer:
i. The north east trade winds blowing in the northern hemisphere and the south east trade winds blowing in the southern hemisphere lead to the formation of monsoon winds. Monsoon winds are winds that change direction in accordance with season. Monsoon is the seasonal reversal of wind in a year.

The factors responsible for the formation of monsoon winds are the apparent movement of the sun, Coriolis force and difference in heating. During the summer in the Northern Hemisphere, high temperature is experienced along the region through which the Tropic of Cancer passes. The pressure belts shift slightly northwards. The south east trade winds also cross the equator and move towards the north.

As the trade winds cross the equator, they get deflected and transfer into south west monsoon winds under the influence of the Coriolis effect. The low pressure formed over the land due to the intense day temperature attracts these sea winds and further contributes to the formation of south west monsoon winds. As a result of the formation of high pressure zones over the Asian landmass during winter and low pressure zones over the Indian Ocean, the north east trade winds get strengthened. These are the north east monsoon winds.

ii. Global pressure belts in the northern hemisphere.

• Equatorial low pressure belt: between 5°N and 5°S.
• Subtropical high pressure belt: 30°N
• Subpolar low pressure belt: 60°N
• Polar high pressure belt: 90°N
• Planetary winds in the Northern hemisphere:
• Trade winds: Blow from subtropical high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt.
• Westerlies: Blow from subtropical high pressure belt to subpolar low pressure belt.
• Polar winds: Blow from polar high pressure belt to subpolar low pressure belt.

Question 3.
Variations in atmospheric pressure occur in accordance with the variations in temperature, altitude and humidity experienced in a region. Explain how atmospheric pressure is related to these factors.
Answer:
The weight exerted by air on the earth’s surface is called atmospheric pressure. The variations in the density of air bring about variations in weight of air and thereby variations in atmospheric pressure. Temperature, altitude and humidity are inversely proportional to atmospheric pressure.

Temperature and atmospheric pressure :
Air expands when gets heated up. The expanded air is less dense and hence it ascends. This leads to lowering of atmospheric pressure. The ascending air spreads to the sides and cools. It becomes dense and decends. This results in sinking of cold air. As a result, atmospheric pressure increases. Thus as temperature increases, pressure decreases and as temperature decreases, pressure increases. Thus temperature and atmospheric pressure are inversely proportional.

Altitude and atmospheric pressure: The atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude. The pressure decreases at the rate of 1 millibar per an altitude of 10 metres. The ratification of air with altitude is the reason for the decrease in atmospheric pressure.

Humidity and atmospheric pressure: The quantity of water present in atmospheric air is called humidity. Water vapour is lighter than air and hence it ascends. If the quantity of water vapour is more in a unit volume of air, then naturally the atmospheric pressure will be less. Thus humidity and atmospheric pressure are also inversely proportional.

Question 4.
Explain about Global pressure belts.
Answer:
The atmospheric pressure is uniform between certain latitudes. Based on that the earth’s surface is divided into different pressure belts. These are known as global pressure belts.

Equatorial low pressure belt: This pressure belt extends upto 5°N and 5°S of the equator. This is the zone where the sun’s rays fall vertically throughout the year. Hence the temperature will be high in this zone all through the year. The air expands due to sun’s heat and ascends on a massive scale. This is the reason for the formation of low pressure here. As the air in this zone ascends on a large scale, winds are feeble here. This pressure belt is also known as Doldrum, meaning the zone with no winds.

Subtropical high pressure belts: Subtropical high pressure belts extend about 30°N and 30°S. The hot air ascending from the equatorial low pressure belt cools gradually and subsides at the subtropical zone due to the rotation of the earth. This is the reason for the formation of high pressure belts all along this zone. These latitudes are also known as horse latitudes.

Subpolar low pressure belts: The pressure belts formed over 60°N and 60°S are the subpolar low pressure belts. As this zone is close to the poles, the air is colder here. Though the cold air remains closer to earth, the air is thrown up due to the rotation of the earth. As a result, low pressure is experienced all along the subpolar region.

olar high pressure belts: These zones experience severe cold throughout the year. As a result, the air remains chilled under the extreme cold that prevails over the poles. This contributes to the steady high pressure experienced here.

Question 5.
The factors that influence the speed and direction of winds are pressure gradient, Coriolis force and friction. Explain.
Answer:
The horizontal movement of air form high pressure zone to low pressure zone is called wind. The pressure belts shift according to the apparent movement of the sun. The nature of wind is influenced by variations in pressure, rotation of earth and the features of the region over which it blows.

Pressure gradient:The change in pressure with horizontal distance is termed as pressure gradient. The pressure gradient is said to be steeper when the pressure difference is more. In
such places, the speed of wind will also be more.

Coriolis force: French mathematician Coriolis observed that due to a force generated as a result of the earth’s rotation, freely moving bodies get deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This is known as Coriolis force. Admiral Ferrel, an American scientist noted that as winds are free movement of air, they get deflected. Coriolis force formed as a result of earth’s rotation, deflects the winds.

Friction: Friction is something that prevents the free movement of wind. The speed of wind will be high over ocean surface and level lands as the friction is less. On the other hand friction is more along difficult terrains and places with dense forest cover. So the speed of wind will be less in those places.

Question 6.
Explain about the planetary winds.
OR
Global pressure belts pave the way for the formation of planetary winds. Explain the inter-relationship between the two.
Answer:
Pressure differences exist globally between different latitudinal zones. These pressure difference lead to the formation of winds. The winds developed between global pressure belts are called planetary winds. There are three types of planetary winds.

1. Trade winds
2. Westerlies
3. Polar easterlies

1.Trade winds: Trade winds are the winds blowing from subtropical high pressure belts to equatorial low pressure belt. These winds blow as north east winds in Northern Hemisphere and south east winds in Southern Hemisphere. The zone where trade winds from both the Hemispheres converge is known as Inter Tropical Convergence Zone.

2. Westerlies: The winds blowing from the subtropical high pressure belts in both the hemisphere towards the subpolar low pressure belts are called Westerlies. As they blow from the west, they are called westerlies. In the Northern Hemisphere, they blow from the south western direction to the north eastern direction. But in the Southern Hemisphere, they blow from the north western direction to the south eastern direction. Due to the presence of vast oceans in Southern Hemisphere, the westerlies are very strong here. Here they are known by different names like Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties and Shrieking Sixties.

3. Polar easterlies: Polar regions are centres of high pressure. The polar winds are cold winds that blow from polar high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure belts. Due to Coriolis force, these winds blow from the east in both the hemispheres. Hence they are called Polar easterlies. Polar winds play a significant role in determining the climate of North America, North European countries and Russia.

Question 7.
Write a note on the periodic winds.
Answer:
Periodic winds are winds that repeat at regular intervals of time and can be seasonal or diurnal.
There are three types of periodic winds.

Monsoon winds: Monsoon winds are those that undergo seasonal reversal of direction. The term monsoon has derived from the Arabic word “Mausim” meaning season. Monsoon is a phenomenon in which reversal of direction
of winds occur in a year. The main factors responsible for the formation of monsoon winds are the apparent movement of the sun, Coriolis force and differences in heating.

Sun’s rays fall vertically to the north of the equator during certain months due to the tilt of the earth’s axis. This leads to an increase in temperature along the region through which Tropic of Cancer passes. The pressure belts also shift slightly northwards in accordance with this. The south east trade winds cross the equator and move towards the north. As the trade winds cross the equator, they get deflected and transform into south west monsoon winds under the influence of the Coriolis effect. The low pressure formed over the land due to the intense day temperature attracts these sea winds and further contributes to the formation of south west monsoon winds.
As a result of the formation of high pres¬sure zones over the Asian landmasses during winter and low pressure zones over the Indian Ocean, the north east trade winds get strength¬ened. These are the north east monsoon winds.

Land breeze and sea breeze: During day time, the land gets heated up quickly. As a result, the air in contact with the land also gets heated. This leads to the formation of low pressure over the land which causes compara-tively cooler air to blow from the sea. This is known as sea breeze.

As the land cools faster than the sea during the night, it would be high pressure over the land and low pressure over the sea. This results in the movement of air from the land to sea. This is the land breeze.

Mountain breeze and valley breeze :
Mountain breeze and valley breeze are winds experienced in mountainous regions. During the day, the air in the valley gets heated up more than the air on the mountain tops. As a result, the wind blows upslope form the valley. This is called valley breeze.

During the night, the air in the mountainous regions cools due to the intense cold conditions in that region. As cool air is denser, it blows towards the valley. This is called mountain breeze.

Wind Flow Direction In Kerala Question 8.
Write a note on local winds.
Answer:
Local winds are those that are formed as a result of the local differences in atmospheric pressure. Their effects are limited to a comparatively smaller locality and are weak. These are known by different names in different parts of the world.

Loo: Hot, dry winds that blow in the afternoons in the North Indian plains in summer are called Loo. These winds blowing from Rajasthan desert cause a rise in the summer temperature of North Indian plains.

Chinook: The hot and dry winds that blow down the eastern slopes of the Rocky mountain chains of North America are called Chinook. As a result of these winds, the snow along the eastern slopes of the Rockies melts away. So they are known as “Snow eater”. As they lessen the intensity of cold, suitable for the cultivation of wheat in the Canadian lowlands.

Foehn: The hot dry winds that blow towards the southern valleys of the Alps mountains are called Foehn. As the air heats up due to pressure from the descend, it helps in reducing the severity of cold in that region.

Harmattan: Hot dry wind that blows from the Sahara desert to West Africa. This wind improves the humid and sultry conditions of West Africa significantly.

Mangoshowers: Winds that blow in South India during summer and bring rainfall in Kerala and coastal Karnataka. It acquires the name owing to the fall of ripe mangoes on its arrival.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Malayalam Model Question Paper 1 (Kerala Padavali) Pdf, Kerala SSLC Malayalam Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Malayalam Model Question Paper 1 (Kerala Padavali)

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

You can Download Simple Nutrients into Cells Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Simple Nutrients into Cells

Simple Nutrients into Cells Textual Questions and Answers

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 3 Question 1.
…………. carrying hormones to their target tissues.
Answer:
Blood

Simple Nutrients Into Cells Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 3 Question 2.
State whether true or false.
a) Blood transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide.
b) Plasma is the straw yellow colored fluid.
c) Albumin regulates blood pressure.
d) Fibrinogen synthesizes antibodies for immunity.
Answer:
a) True
b) True
c) True
d) False

9th Class Biology Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Prepare a word wheel related to the functions of blood
Answer:

Class 9 Biology Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
……..carried nutrients to the cell
Answer:
Blood

9th Class Biology Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
………. regulates the body temperature.
Answer:
Blood

Biology Class 9 Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
‘Nutrients formed as a result of digestion reach cells.’ – How do they reach cells.
Answer:
Blood carried nutrients formed as the result of digestion to the cells.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 3 English Medium Question 7.
Blood is a tissue.
Answer:
Fluid connective.

Class 9 Biology Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
What are the important parts of blood?
Answer:
Fluid part named plasma and blood cells.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 3 Question 9.
Complete the table.

Answer:

9th Class Biology Notes Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
List the various types of blood cell
Answer:

• Red blood cells
• White blood cells
• Platelets

Plasma

9th Class Biology 3rd Chapter Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
Define plasma
Answer:
Plasma is the straw yellow colored fluid that constitutes 55% of blood. Blood cells are found in plasma. The simpler molecules formed as a result of digestion namely glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, glycerol, etc. reach cells through the plasma.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Chapter 3 Question 12.
Prepare a flow chart relation the components of plasma.
Answer:

9th Class Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 3 Question 13.
Plasma constitutes …………. % blood.
Answer:
55%

9th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Blood cells are found in the
Answer:
Plasma

Heat

Class 9 Biology Chapter 3 Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Where is the heart situated?
Answer:
The heart is situated slightly tilted towards left in between the two lungs behind the sternum in the thoracic cavity.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 3 Malayalam Medium Question 16.
Human heart is of shape.
Answer:
Conical

Question 17.
State whether true or false.
Size of one’s heart is equal to the size of one’s fist.
Answer:
True

Question 18.
Heart is covered by the double-layered membrane called
Answer:
Pericardium

Question 19.
Complete the table

Answer:
a) Between the left atrium and left ventricle
b) Tricuspid valve
c) Prevents backward flow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium.
d) Helps blood to enter the right ventricle from the right atrium.
e) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
f) Aortic valve
g) Closes off the lower left chamber that holds the oxygen-rich blood before it is pumped out to the body.

Question 20.
What is pericardial fluid? What is its main function?
Answer:
Pericardial fluid is filled in between the pericardial membranes. Its main function is to reduce friction between the membranes during the heartbeats.

Question 21.
Consider the following functions of the heart and identify the parts performing them.
a) Carries blood to lungs.
b) Carries blood to various parts of the body.
c) Brings blood from the lungs.
d) Carries blood from various parts of the body.
Answer:
a) Pulmonary artery
b) Aorta
c) Pulmonary vein
d) Vena cava

Question 22.
…….. regulate the flow of blood through the heart.
Answer:
Valves

Question 23.
The valves of the left ventricle is the tickest one. What may be its reason?
Answer:
The wall of the left ventricle is the thickest one because it needs to pump blood to most of the body, while the right ventricle fills only the lungs.

Question 24.
What are the major valves of the heart?
Answer:
Pulmonary valve, Tricuspid valve, Aortic valve, Bicuspid valve.

Blood Vessels

Question 25.
Complete the table listing the characteristics of different types of blood vessels.

Answer:
Up Wall: Thick wall, thin wall, wall is formed of single layer of cells and minute pores on the wall
Valves: No valves, valves are seen, no valves
Blood transportation: High speed and high pressure, low speed and low pressure, low speed and low pressure

Question 26.
………. carries blood to the heart
Answer:
vein

Question 27.
………. carries blood from the heart
Answer:
Artery

Question 28.
What are capillaries?
Answer:
Capillaries are the thin vessels that connect veins ” and arteries together.

Question 29.
State whether true or false
a) There are minute pores on the capillary walls
b) Artery carries blood to the heart
c) Vein transports blood in low speed and high pressure
d) Valves are seen in veins.
e) Artery carries blood in high speed and high pressure
Answer:
a) True
b) False
c) False
d) True
e) True

Question 30.
What is the function of vein?
Answer:
Vein carries blood to the heart

Question 31.
Small arteries spilt into
Answer:
Capillaries

Question 32.
Capillaries unite to form
Answer:
Small veins

Working Of Heart

Question 33.
What is pacemaker?
Answer:
Initiation of the contraction and relaxation of the heart and regulation of the heartbeat are carried out by the special muscles of SinoArtial Node (SA node) at the anterior part of the right atrium. This part is called pacemaker.

Question 34.
Complete the following diagram

Answer:

1. Left atrium
2. Tricuspid valve
3. Bicuspid valve
4. Right ventricle
5. Pulmonary artery

Double Circulation

Question 35.
Complete the illustration.

Answer:
a) Pulmonary vein
b) Right atrium
c) Aorta
d) Left ventricle

Question 36.
………. helps to maintain the level of oxygen in the blood.
Answer:
Double circulation.

Question 37.
Prepare a flow chart relating the circulation of blood.
Answer:

Question 38.
Define Double circulation.
Answer:
The same amount of blood passes through the heart twice. This type of circulation is called double circulation. It includes pulmonary circulation and systemic circulation. Double circulation helps to maintain the level of oxygen.

Question 39.
What is pulmonary circulation?
Answer:
The blood circulation that starts from the right ventricle to the lungs and from there to left atrium is called pulmonary circulation.

Question 40.
What do you mean by systemic circulation?
Answer:
The circulation that starts from the left ventricle and ends in the right atrium after calculating throughout the whole body is called systemic circulation

Portal Circulation

Question 41.
Differentiate veins and portal veins.
Answer:
Veins are the vessels that carry blood from various organs to the heart. But certain veins do not reach the heart and they carry blood from organ to organ. They are called portal veins.

Question 42.
……. is an example for portal system.
Answer:
Hepatic portal system.

Question 43.
Prepare a flowchart showing the Hepatic portal system.
Answer:

Question 44.
Which is the center of metabolism?
Answer:
Liver

Question 45.
Explain the functions of Liver.
Answer:
The nutrients that are formed by digestion undergo many changes in the liver. They include storing of glucose as glycogen, releasing of energy from fatty acids, producing cholesterol, etc. Besides, specific defense cells in the liver destroy the pathogens that enter the blood from the digestive tract.

Heart, Pulse, Blood Pressure

Question 46.
What do you mean by systole?
Answer:
Contraction of the chambers of the heart is termed as systole. During this phase, blood flows from atria to ventricles and from ventricles to outside.

Question 47.
Define diastole.
Answer:
After systole along with atria, ventricles also relax. This stage of relaxation is termed as diastole. In this phase, blood fills in the chambers of the heart.

Question 48.
Define heartbeat.
Answer:
One systole and the subsequent diastole together constitute a heartbeat. It takes about 0.8 seconds.

Question 49.
Explain systolic pressure and diastolic pressure.
Answer:
About 70 ml of blood is pumped into the arteries during each heartbeat. The pressure exerted by this excess blood to the walls of the arteries is systolic pressure. It is about 120mm Hg (mercury). When the heart dilates fully the same amount of blood enters the heart. A low pressure felt in the arteries in this phase is known as diastolic pressure. It is about 80 mm Hg.

Question 50.
Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure?
Answer:
Sphygmomanometer

Question 51.
Average heartbeat is
Answer:
72 times/minute

Question 52.
What is pulse?
Answer:
The wave-like movement formed due to the contraction and relaxation of the heart is felt throughout the walls of the arteries is pulse.

Question 53.
State whether true or false.
Rate of pulse is equivalent to that of the heartbeat.
Answer:
True

Question 54.
Carrying oxygen to cells is one of the major functions of ………
Answer:
Blood

Question 55.
Oxygen is absorbed into the blood from
Answer:
Lungs

Variation In Blood Pressure

Question 56.
Differentiate between hypertension and hypotension.
Answer:
The normal rate of blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg.The condition in which the blood pressure increases above the normal rate is disease condition called hypertension. This happens due to many reasons. Unhealthy habits such as excess use of salt and fat, smoking, lack of exercise. The condition in which the blood pressure rate goes below the prescribed rate is called hypertension. These hypotensions and hypertension may lead to stroke or heart attack.

From The Blood To The Cell

Question 57.
What is lymph capillary?
Answer:
Besides blood capillaries, small vessels with their one end closed are seen’ in intercellular spaces. These are the lymph capillaries.

Question 58.
Tissue fluid that reaches the lymph capillaries is called ………
Answer:
Lymph

Question 59.
……….. is the largest organ in the Lymphatic system.
Answer:
Spleen

Question 60.
What is the main function of spleen?
Answer:
Destruction of germs and inactive red blood cells is the main function of spleen.

Question 61.
Why does spleen known as the blood bank of body?
Answer:
Since spleen stores blood in small quantities, it is also known as the blood bank of the body.

Question 62.
Name the blood bank of the body?
Answer:
Spleen

Question 63.
…… is the major production center of lymphocytes.
Answer:
Lymph nodes

Question 64.
Lymphatic system participates in the defense mechanism of the body – substantiate.
Answer:
The lymph nodes seen at intervals in the lymph ducts are the major production center of lymphocytes, a kind of white blood cells. When lymph passes through these nodes, the white blood cells destroy the pathogenic bacteria that are present in it. Thus lymphatic system participates itself in the defense mechanism of the body.

Question 65.
Define lymphatic system.
Answer:
Lymphatic system consists of large and small lymph ducts, lymph nodes, lymph, and spleen,

Question 66.
Prepare a flow chart on how fatty acid and glycerol that are absorbed into the lymph from the small intestine reach cells.
Answer:
Fatty acid and glycerol → Lacteals (Lymphs) → Small lymph ducts → Large lymph ducts → Venacava (Blood) → Heart

A Healthy Heart – Vital For Life

Question 67.
What are the factors that affect health of the heart?
Answer:
Food habits, lack of exercise

Question 68.
Define atherosclerosis
Answer:
Consumption of excess fatty food leads to the accumulation of fat in the arterial walls. This condition is called atherosclerosis. As a result of atherosclerosis, the inner diameter of the artery reduces. Moreover, the arterial walls become rigid, losing their elastic nature.

Question 69.
What is thrombosis?
Answer:
The accumulated fat roughens the inner wall of blood vessels. Here platelets and RBCs may clump together to form blood clots, named thrombus. This condition is called
thrombosis.

Question 70.
How we maintain the health of the heart?
Answer:
Proper food habits and regular exercise play an important role in reducing the level of fat in blood. Thus we can maintain the health of the heart and the circulatory system.

Question 71.
The first heart transplantation was done by
Answer:
Dr. Christian Bernard

Transportation In Plants

Question 72.
Complete the table

Answer:

Conduction Through Xylem

Question 73.
Transportation of water takes place through ……… & ………..
Answer:
Tracheids and vessels

Question 74.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
Water is expelled from leaves due to evaporation. This process is called transpiration.

Question 75.
How does water reach the treetop through the xylem naturally?
Answer:
This happens due to the combined action of many processes like transpiration, root pressure, cohesion, and adhesion.

Question 76.
Define adhesion?
Answer:
The force of attraction between unlike molecules or the binding of a cell to another cell.

Question 77.
………… keeps the water drops on the surfaces of leaves and flowers in place.
Answer:
Adhesion

Question 78.
…….. is the intermolecular attraction between like molecules.
Answer:
Cohesion

Question 79.
Define cohesion in water?
Answer:
Cohesion in water is a property of water that makes its molecules attracted to each other. A water molecule is made of one oxygen atom bonded to two hydrogen atoms.

Question 80.
Differentiate between cohesion and adhesion.
Answer:
Cohesion is the force of attraction between molecules of the same substance. But adhesion is defined as the force of attraction between different substances such as glass and water.

Transport Through Phloem

Question 81.
Which is the main part of the phloem?
Answer:
Sieve tube

Question 82.
Food is transported in the form of ……….. through the sieve tube.
Answer:
Sucrose

Question 83.
……….. cells are seen along with sieve tubes, they also help in the transportation of food.
Answer:
Companion cells

Let Us Assess

Question 84.
Choose the simple nutrients which are absorbed into blood from those given below.
A) Fatty acid
B) Amino acid
C) Fructose
D) Glycerol
E) Glucose
Answer:
B) Amino acid
C) Fructose
E) Glucose

Question 85.
Observe the figure showing the transportation of water and minerals plants.

a) Identify the vascular tissues indicated by A and B.
b) Name the processes that help water absorbed by the roots to reach the leaves.
Answer:
a) A ……. Xylem
B ……… Phloem
b) Transpiration, root pressure, cohesion and adhesion

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Chapter 1 Seasons and Time

Sslc Geography Chapter 1 English Medium Question 1.
Identify the factor not responsible for the occurrence of seasons from among the following.
a. Revolution of the earth
b. Tilt of the earth’s axis
c. Parallelism of the earth’s axis
d. Rotation of the earth
Answer:
d. Rotation of the earth

Question 2.
The sun’s rays fall vertically between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. Why?
Answer:
The movement of the earth around the sun in a fixed orbit is known as revolution. During revolution, the apparent position of the sun in relation to earth varies. The sun shifts apparently between Tropic of Cancer (23\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°N) and Tropic of Capricorn (23 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°S). The position of the sun will be over the equator on March 21, over the Tropic of Cancer on June 21, over the equator again on September 23 and over the Tropic of Capricorn on December 22.

Thus the position of the sun in relation to earth varies apparently between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. This is known as the apparent movement of the sun. As a result, Sun’s rays fall vertically between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.

Question 3.
Explain the geographical importance of March 21, June 21, September 23 and December 22.
Answer:

March 21 and September 23: The apparent position of the sun during the earth’s revolution will be over the equator on March 21 and September 23. So equal amount of sunlight is received in both the hemispheres. Hence the length of day and night will be equal on these days in both the hemispheres. These days are called equinoxes.

June 21: From March 21 onwards, the sun apparently shifts from the equator northwards and leaches vertically over the Tropic of Cancer on June 21. This day is known as summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere. On this day the Northern Hemisphere experiences the longest day and the shortest night and the Southern Hemisphere the longest night and the shortest day.

December 22: The apparent position of the sun shifts from the equator from September 23 and reaches vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn on December 22. This day is known as winter solstice in the Northern Hemisphere. On this day, the Northern Hemisphere experiences the shortest day and longest night and the Southern Hemisphere experiences the longest day and the shortest night.

Question 4.
Why is there an eastward increase and westward decrease in time?
Answer:
As the earth rotates from west to east, time advances towards the east and recedes towards the west. From a definite longitude, the time is estimated to increase by 4 minutes towards the east and decrease by 4 minutes towards the west for every degree of longitude. Since the rotation is from west to east, the sunrise is first experienced in the eastern part of a region.

Question 5.
Why is the International Date Line not straight unlike other longitudes?
Answer:
The 180° longitude line from the east and west of Greenwich line is the International Date Line. There is a time difference of 24 hours on both the sides of this line. It creates much difficulty if the same place records two different times with 24 hours difference.

To avoid this, certain adjustments have been made avoiding the land area along the 180° longitude. The line is in such a way that it passes through Bering Strait in the Pacific Ocean and avoids some of the inhabited islands. So the International Date Line is not a straight line. The travellers who cross this line from the west calculate time by advancing it by one day and those who cross the line from the east deduct one day.

Question 6.
There is periodic variation in the amount of sunshine over different places in both the hemispheres of the earth. Why?
Answer:

• Earth’s revolution
• Tilt of the earth’s axis
• Parallelism of the earth’s axis.

Question 7.
How much time does the earth take to complete the revolution?
Answer:
One year or 365\(\frac{1}{4}\) days.

Question 8.
What is a leap year?
A year in which February has 29 days.
Find out the leap years from 2000 to 2014.
Answer:

• Leap years:2000,2004,2008,2012 – N
• After:2016,2020,2024,2028
• Leap year occurs once in 4 years.
  Identify the days on which sun is closest and farthest from the earth.
• The earth comes closest to sun on January 3 and the distance is 147 million km. This day is known as perihelion.
• The earth is farthest from the sun on July 4 and the distance is 152 million km. This day is known as aphelion.

Question 9.
What will be the corresponding season in the Southern Hemisphere when it is summer in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:
It is winter in the Southern Hemisphere because the amount of solar energy received here will be less.

Question 10.
The change of season is not explicit in Kerala. Why?
Answer:
Kerala lies near the equator. So the seasonal change is not explicit here. Here the summer is hot while the winter is not very severe. High temperature is experienced on almost all days and so the amount of rainfall is also high. There is no marked difference in the length of day and night.

Sslc Social Science Geography Question 11.
The frigid zones do not experience all the seasons. Discuss the reason.
Answer:
In frigid zones, generally, summer season and winter season are experienced. The summer season here is cold and winter season is very severe. The northern frigid zone experiences continuous daylight for six months when the sun is in the Northern Hemisphere and the southern frigid experiences continuous night for 6 months.

From September to March when the sun is in the Southern Hemisphere, north polar or frigid zone experiences continuous night for six months and south polar region experiences continuous daylight for six months.

Question 12.
What is the peculiarity of day and night in the Southern Hemisphere on June 21?
Answer:
On June 21, the Southern Hemisphere experiences its longest night and shortest day.

Question 13.
What is the peculiarity of the day and night in the Southern Hemisphere on 22 December?
Answer:
On December 22, the Southern Hemisphere experiences its longest day and shortest night.

Question 14.
What is the season in the Southern Hemisphere when it is autumn in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:
Spring season

Question 15.
What are the peculiarities of winter season?
Answer:

• Winter season is severe in temperate and frigid zones.
• Severe cold and snowfall.
• Temperature falls below 0°C.

Question 16.
What might be the length of the day and night on the winter solstice day?
Answer:
On December 22, the winter solstice day, the sun will be vertically above the Tropic of Capricorn. So nights would be longer and days would be shorter in the Northern Hemisphere. But in the Southern Hemisphere, days would be longer and nights would be shorter.

Question 17.
If the earth’s axis was not tilted, would there be alternate summer and winter in both the hemispheres?
Answer:
If the earth’s axis was not tilted, the position of the sun would be always over the equator. If so, both the hemispheres would have received equal amount of sunlight throughout the year. There would not have been change in season on earth.

Question 18.
How is the duration of days and nights experienced at places within the Antarctic Circle while the sun is in the Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:
When the sun is in the Southern Hemisphere, continuous daylight is received for six months throughout in the places within the Antarctic Circle. Days are longer and nights are shorter.

Question 19.
What is the change that occurs in the duration of day in the Northern Hemisphere during Dakshinayanam?
Answer:

• Duration of day decreases.
• Duration of night increases.

Question 20.
What is the duration of day and night in the south polar regions when the sun is respectively over the Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:

• When the sun is over the Northern Hemisphere, the south polar regions experience long nights and short days.
• When the sun is over the Southern Hemisphere, the south polar regions experience long days and short nights.

Question 21.
Is the local time in all the Indian states the same?
Answer:
The local time of each longitude varies. The local time of all the Indian states is different. This creates difficulty and confusion. To avoid this, the local time of the meridian that goes through the centre of a country is taken as the common time for the whole country.

Seasons And Time Class 10 Question 22.
What will be the hardships if there are several local times in a country?
Answer:

• Cannot prepare a railway time table applicable. throughout the country.
• Cannot give information on radio programmes.
• Cannot conduct a national level examination at a common time.

Question 23.
The people of which Indian state sees the sun first?
Answer:
The people of Arunachal Pradesh. The eastern part of any country sees the sun first. Arunachal Pradesh is the easternmost state of India.

Question 24.
What would be the longitudinal extent of each time zone?
Answer:

• 15° longitudinal extent
• Time difference is 1 hour.

Question 25.
Find the difference between the Indian Standard Time and the Greenwich Mean Time.
Answer:
The longitude of Greenwich is 0°. The standard meridian of India is 82 \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°E or 82° 30 minutes. The longitudinal difference between India and Greenwich is 82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°. Time difference for 15° longitude is 1 hour. Time difference for 82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°
Longtiude = \(\frac{82^{\circ} 30 \text { minute }}{15}\) = 5 hours 30 minutes
As India is located to the east of Greenwich, the time in India will be 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.

Question 26.
The countries with wide longitudinal extent need to calculate time on the basis of more than one standard meridian. Why?
Answer:
Each country in the world considers the longitude that passes through its middle as the standard meridian. The local time of the standard meridian is the common time for the eastern and western parts of the nation. If the time difference between the rising and setting of the sun in the eastern and western part of a nation is more than 2 hours usually, it leads to many difficulties and confusion. They are nations with wide longitudinal extent and so they take more than one standard meridian.

Time Zones:
There are 24 time zones in the world. Each time zone covers 15° of longitude. Russia has 11 time zones. USA has 5 time zones.

Question 27.
Why is the 82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)°E longitude considered as the standard meridian of India?
Answer:
The longitudal extent of India is from 68°E and 97°E. This amounts to 30°. 82\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)° E longitude passes almost through the middle of these longitudes. So it has been fixed as the standard meridian of India. The line passes through Mirzapur near Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 28.
Calculate the time at each 15° longitude east and west of the Greenwich line up to 180° longitude.
Answer:

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Malayalam Model Question Paper 4 (Kerala Padavali) Pdf, Kerala SSLC Malayalam Model Question Papers with Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Malayalam Model Question Paper 4 (Kerala Padavali)

Time: 1 1/2 hours
Total Score: 40

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions Chapter 2 World in the Twentieth Century

Answer the following. Score 1 each.

A. Choose the correct answer.

Sslc Social Science Important Questions Question 1.
The members of Triple Alliance
Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
Italy, Germany, Holland
Britain, France, Russia
Answer:
Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy

Question 2.
Which of the following was not a member of Triple Entente?
Britain
Russia
Germany
Answer:
Germany

Question 3.
The movement not related to aggressive nationalism
Pan Slav movement
Pan German movement
Glasnost
Answer:
Glasnost

Question 4.
The country not involved in Moroccan crisis
France
Germany
Italy
Answer:
Italy

Question 5.
The most important treaty signed after the First World War
Non-Aggression Pact
Treaty of Versailles
Munich Pact
Answer:
Treaty of Versailles

Question 6.
The statement not related to Fascism
Support to democracy
Opposition to socialism
Military dictatorship
Answer:
Support to democracy

Question 7.
The military force of Hitler
Black Shirts
Red Shirts
Brown Shirts
Answer:
Brown Shirts

Question 8.
The members of Axis Powers
Germany, Italy, Japan
Germany, France, Britain
Britain, Japan, Russia
Answer:
Germany, Italy, Japan

Question 9.
The UN Day is observed on
October 24
December 10
August 6
Answer:
October 24

B. Answer in a sentence each.

Question 1.
What is known as imperialism?
Answer:
The distinctive phase of flow of finance capital to colonies is known as imperialism. Imposing a nation’s political, economic and cultural dominance on another nation is a fundamental feature of imperialism.

Sslc History Chapter 2 Important Questions Question 2.
Who were the members of Triple Entente?
Answer:
Britain, France, Russia
The ruling dynasties that lost power after the First World War.

• Romanov in Russia
• The Hohenzoliem in Germany
• The Habsburg in Austria-Hungary

Question 3.
What was known as ‘Holocaust’?
Answer:
Hitler held the view that the Jews were responsible for Germany’s ruin and humiliation. So Jews were massacred by Hitler and the Nazis enmasse in specially built concentration camps. This was known as Holocaust.

Question 4.
What were the objectives of Zionist Movement and PLO?
Answer:

• Zionist movement – to form a nation for the Jews.
• PLO – to establish a nation for the people of Palestine.

Question 5.
Name the members of Allied Powers.
Answer:
England, France, China

Question 6.
What is known as the policy of appeasement?
Answer:
When Germany, Italy and Japan attacked other nations, capitalist countries like Britain and France did not prevent the attacks. This policy which encouraged Fascist attack is known as the policy of appeasement.

Question 7.
What is known as Balfour Declaration?
Answer:
Britain took over the territory including Palestine after the First World War. Since the Jews helped Britain in the war, the then British Foreign Secretary Arthur Balfour declared the establishment of a Jewish nation in West Asia. This is known as Balfour Declaration.

Question 8.
Why was the Palestine Liberation Organisation formed?
Answer:
Palestinians became refugees following the formation of Israel. Palestine Liberation Organization was formed with the objective of establishing a nation for the Palestinians.

Question 9.
Which was the agreement recognised by Israel with the mediation of America in 1993 to recognize Palestine as a free nation?
Answer:
Oslo Pact.

Question 10.
‘War is to man what maternity is to woman’. Whose words are these?
Answer:
The words of Benito Mussolini who was the leader of Fascism in Italy.

Question 11.
Who led the Fascist reign in Italy? Which was the military force that he formed?
Answer:

• Benito Mussolini
• Black Shirts to suppress the opponents.

Question 12.
What was Nazism? Who started it?
Answer:
Nazism was a political ideology rooted in aggressive nationalism and anti-democratic principles.
Adolf Hitler started it in Germany.

Question 13.
Who were ‘Hibakusha’?
Answer:
The surviving victims of the atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

Answer the following. Score 2 each.

Question 1.
Write the feature of capitalist economic system.
Answer:

• The economic system in which production and distribution are controlled by the capitalists with the aim to increase profit is known as capitalism.
• This economic system developed following the Industrial Revolution.

Question 2.
The mutual rivalry deliberately developed by imperialist powers led the world to a war.
a. Which were the crises that led to the First World War?
b. Which were the imperialist countries responsible for these crises?
Answer:
a. Moroccan crisis, Balkan crisis.
b. France and Germany were responsible for Moroccan crisis.
Turkey, Serbia, Austria and Russia were responsible for Balkan crisis.

Question 3.
One of the objectives of UNO is to save the succeeding generations from the scourge of war. Write the other objectives of UNO.
Answer:

• To protect international treaties and laws.
• To foster social and economic development of countries.
• Ensure human rights and protect the rights of nations.
• To co-operate for world peace and security.

Question 4.
What is called decolonization? Analyse its causes.
Answer:
The colonies of Asia and Africa started to secure freedom from the imperialist control after the Second World War. This is called decolonization.
Causes:

• Supremacy of imperialist countries was questioned.
• Freedom movement strengthened in colonies.
• Super powers like USA and USSR supported freedom movement in the colonies.

Question 5.
Name the military pacts formed during cold war.
Answer:

• North Atlantic Treaty Organisation – NATO
• South East Asia Treaty Organisation – SEATO
• Central Treaty Organisation – CENTO
• Warsaw Pact

Question 6.
What led to the emergence of a unipolar world under the leadership of USA?
Answer:

• Disintegration of Soviet Union
• End of cold war

Question 7.
What is meant by neo imperialism?
Answer:
Multinational companies which are registered in a country and functioning in many countries, began to interfere in the economic, social and cultural sectors of developing countries for serving the interests of capitalist countries. This is known as neo imperialism.

Question 8.
Write the features of globalisation.
Answer:

• Economic system of the country linked to global economy.
• The interests and motives of multinational companies are protected.
• Competition driven market came into existence.
• Trans-border flow of products, services, raw materials, capital, latest technology and human resources facilitated.

Question 9.
What is meant by aggressive nationalism? Write an example.
Answer:

• The policy of considering one’s own nation as the supreme and justifying whatever be the actions of the nation is called aggressive nationalism. European nations used this policy to invade other countries.
• Pan German movement is an example.

Question 10.
What is meant by bipolar politics?
Answer:
USA and USSR who were in the same ally during the Second World War gave leadership to capitalist bloc and socialist bloc respectively after the war. This ideological division is called bipolar politics.

Question 11.
What is the difference between liberalisation ‘ and privatisation?
Answer:

• Liberalisation:
  Adoption of liberal regulations and taxation systems to facilitate the import of multinational products to domestic markets.
• Privatisation :
  Privatisation of public sector undertakings in an attempt to promote private sector.

10th Social Science Important Questions Question 12.
What do you mean by Cold War? What was its base?
Answer:

• Enmity based on ideological conflict and diplomatic confrontation between the two power blocs was called Cold War.
• Ideological conflict and political distrust were its base.

Answer the following Score 3 each.

Question 1.
What is meant by colonization?
Answer:

• The European countries had established trade relationship with Asian, African and Latin American countries.
• Using political power and military forces, European countries economically exploited these nations.
• Later they became the colonies of European countries. This process is called colonization.

Question 2.
‘How did imperialism affect the colonial countries?
Answer:

• Traditional economic system of the colonies was destroyed.
• Administrative and judicial systems were replaced.
• Poverty and unemployment increased.
• Natural resources were widely exploited.
• People were forced to cultivate cash crops in lieu of traditional food crops.
• Indigenous arts, literature, language, culture and education system were destroyed.

Question 3.
Explain the background of Balkan crisis.
Answer:
The Balkan region is situated in Europe, close to the Aegean Sea and the Black Sea. It was a part of the Ottoman Empire. In 1912, the Balkan League (Greece, Bulgaria, Serbia and Montenegro) defeated Turkey. However, the conflict among the allied nations in sharing the benefits of the war led to the break up of the League and resulted in wars among them.

Question 4.
How far was aggressive nationalism a cause for the First World War?
Answer:

• The European nations resorted to various strategies to succeed in their imperialistic competitions. Aggressive nationalism was one among them.
• The European nations used aggressive nationalism to invade other countries.
• Aggressive nationalism considers one’s own nation as the supreme and justifies whatever be the actions of the nation.
• Movements based on aggressive nationalism were Pan Slav Movement, Pan German Movement and Revenge Movement. This led to the First World War.

Question 5.
Analyse the results of the First World War.
Or
‘Any war will led to the destruction of mankind’. Explain this statement based on the results of the First World War.
Answer:

• Over 10 million people lost their lives or were injured in war.
• Liberation movements in Asia and Africa strengthened.
• Economic dominance of Europe diminished.
• Agriculture, industry and communication system were destroyed.
• Poverty, unemployment and inflation increased.
• In a bid to bring peace in the world, the League of Nations was formed.
• Emergence of Fascism and Nazism.

Question 6.
The Treaty of Versailles was the most important treaty signed at the Paris Peace Conference of 1919. With whom was it signed! What were its provisions?
Or
How did the Treaty of Versailles affect Germany? Explain.
Answer:
The victorious powers in the First World War, Britain and France signed the Treaty of Versailles with Germany, the defeated nation. Its main provisions were:

• German colonies were divided among victorious powers.
• Forced to pay a huge amount as war indemnity.
• The allies occupied the rich mines of Germany.
• All war guilt was imposed on Germany and she was disarmed.

Question 7.
Write the results of the World Economic Depression of 1929.
Answer:

• People who became pauper because of the war, couldn’t afford the commodities.
• European nations failed to repay their debts to the USA.
• Inflation became uncontrollable.
• Goods were kept unsold in factories.
• Banks collapsed.
• Acute unemployment and poverty.

Question 8.
Discuss the circumstances under which the Fascist Party came to power in Italy.
Answer:

• Italy got nothing, though she was with the victors in the First World War.
• Industrialists, in fear of Italy moving to socialism, were prompted to support fascism.
• Post-war destruction of industries, unemployment, increase in tax, inflation, etc. kept the people away from the government.

Question 9.
Write a note on Munich Pact.
Answer:

• Hitler put forth his claims over the prosperous Sudetanland, a region of Czechoslovakia.
• To discuss the issue, the representatives of Britain, France, Italy and Germany met in the . German city of Munich. They approved Germany’s claim over Sudetanland without consulting Czechoslovakia. This was the Munich Pact.
• Munich Pact is the best example of the policy of appeasement.

Sslc Social Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 10.
Prepare a table showing the leaders of non-aligned movement with their countries.
Answer:

Question 11.
Several strategies were adopted by America to establish her dominance over the world. Which are they?
Answer:

• Utilizing international agencies, America provided financial and military aids to countries of the world.
• Extended military alliances.
• Media were used to promote America’s vested interests.

Question 12.
Write a note on the reforms of Mikhail Gorbachev in Russia. ,
Answer:

• Glasnost and Perestroika were Gorbachev’s two administrative reforms in Soviet Union.
• Glasnost was to implement openness in political processes.
• Perestroika was implemented to restructure the economic system of Soviet Union.

Question 13.
What forced the capitalist countries to begin production in their colonies in Asia and Africa?
Answer:

• Availability of raw materials.
• Cheap labour.
• Low cost involved in manufacturing and selling goods in colonies.

Question 14.
How did imperialist forces implement exploitative policies in the colonies?
Answer:

• By using legal system
• By using military force
• By using administrative measures

Question 15.
What were the conducive factors for the growth of Fascism and Nazism?
Answer:

• Economic destruction
• Aimlessness
• Rivalry against the victors

Question 16.
What were the factors that enabled Hitler to assume power in Germany?
Answer:

• The imposition of the humiliating Treaty of Versailles on Germany.
• Economic destruction and inflation
• Failure of German government and the resultant political uncertainty.

Question 17.
“Today I came bearing on olive branch in one hand and the freedom fighter s gun in the other. Don’t let the olive leaves fall from my hand. ” Whose speech is this? What made him make such a speech?
Answer:
The speech of Yaser Arafat, the leader of PLO in the UN Assembly in 1974.

Israel was formed in 1948. Following this, Israel seized Palestine, expelling the Palestinians from their homeland. The Palestinian refugees migrated to various Arab countries. It was in this context that the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO) was formed with Yaser Arafat as President to establish a nation for the Palestinians. Yaser Arafat made such a speech in order to create a state for Palestinians through peaceful means.

Question 18.
Which are the international organizations devising and executing various policies in favour of globalization?
Answer:

• World Bank
• International Monetary Fund
• World Trade Organization

Question 19.
Moroccan crisis was one of the crises created by imperialist countries. What was the Moroccan crisis?
Answer:
A secret treaty was signed between Britain and France in 1904. According to this, Britain recognised the claim of France over Morocco. The French claim over Morocco was opposed by Germany and she sent battleships to Moroccan port Agadir. This was the Moroccan crisis. France agreed to transfer a part of French Congo to Germany and Germany agreed to concede Morocco to France in return.

Question 20.
Liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation are the concepts of neo imperialism. Substantiate.
Answer:

• Liberalisation:
  Adoption of liberal regulations and taxation systems to facilitate the import of multinational products to domestic market.
• Privatisation:
  The policy of promoting private sector instead of public sector.
• Globalisation:
  Trans-border flow of products, services, raw materials, capital, latest technology and human resources facilitated.

Sslc Social Science Chapter Wise Questions Question 21.
Non – Alignment was the product of the then world situation. Analyse the world situation at the time of the adoption of non alignment and write the reasons that led to its formation.
Answer:
Following the Second World War, many Asian, African and Latin American countries became independent. These countries which suffered under long years of colonial oppression came to be known as Third World Countries. The world of that time was divided into capitalist bloc and socialist bloc.

They realized that cold war was yet another face of imperialism and that it would threaten world peace. The liberated nations decided not to join any of the blocs and formed the Non Aligned Movement. They understood that the race of super powers for weapons and a strong military force would pose harm to them. They realized that only a world sans wars and conflicts accelerates economic and social development.

Question 22.
Write a contribution each of the following leaders.
i) Mikhail Gorbachev
ii) Gamal Abdul Nasar
iii) Yasser Arafat
Answer:
i) Mikhail Gorbachev :
Glasnost for reform in political field and Perestroika for reform in economic field of Soviet Union.

ii) Gamal Abdul Nasar:
One of the leaders who introduced Non – alignment in lieu of the capitalist bloc and socialist bloc.

iii) Yasser Arafat:
Founded Palestine Liberation organization to establish a nation for the Palestinians.

Question 23.
Write note on the following.
i) Black Shirts
ii) Cold war
iii) Disintegration of Soviet Union
Answer:
i) Black Shirts :
The military force used by Mussolini to suppress opponents and to implement fascist policies.

ii) Cold War :
The enmity based on the ideological conflict and diplomatic confrontations between the capitalist bloc and socialist bloc was called Cold War.

iii) Disintegration of Soviet Union :
Due to the administrative measures of Mikhail Gorbachev and other reasons like deviation from the basic principles of socialism and corruption, Soviet Union disintegrated in 1991.

Question 24.
Analyse the problems faced by the Palestine people against the background of West Asian issues.
Answer:
Palestine was inhabited by Jews and Arabs. It became a British mandate after the First World War. Balfour declaration decided to establish a Jewish state in West Asia. In 1948, the Jewish state Israel was formed. Israel seized Palestine, expelling the Palestinians from their homeland. The Palestinian refugees migrated to various Arabs countries.

Question 25.
Which were the movements formed in connection with aggressive nationalism?
Answer:

• Pan Salv Movement:
  To unite the Slavic people of Serbia, Bulgaria and Greece in Eastern Europe under the leadership of Russia was the objective. Russia gave leadership to it.
• Pan German Movement:
  To unite Teutonic people in Central Europe and Balkan Provinces was the objective. It was led by Germany.
• Revenge Movement:
  To conquer Alsace- Lorraine under the control of Germany was the aim. The movement started in France.

The consequences of the First World War in Europe:

• As Europe was the focal point war, it had to bear the major burnt.
• European nations suffered serious set backs ‘ economically and politically.
• Ruling dynasties in Europe lost power. Eg: Hohenzollern in Germany, Habsburg in Austria-Hungary.

Question 26.
America gained much in the First World War. Substantiate.
Answer:

• War did not take place in USA. So she was not affected by the war.
• European nations which were destroyed in war took large scale loans from America.
• American dollar overtook British pound as the basis of foreign exchange holding.
• As a result, USA emerged as a new economic power.

Answer the following. Score 4 each.

Question 1.
Arrange the following events related to the Second World War in chronological order.
i) Dropping of atom bomb in Japan by USA
ii) Pearl Harbour attack of Japan.
iii) Munich Pact
iv) Nazi – Soviet Non- Aggression Pact
Answer:
i) Munich Pact (1938)
ii) Nazi – Soviet Non- Aggression Pact (1939)
iii) Pearl Harbour attack of Japan (1941)
iv) Dropping of atom bomb in Japan by USA (1945)

Question 2.
Complete the sun diagram given below.

Answer:

Question 3.
The humiliating provisions of the Treaty of Versailles led to the rise of Hitler in Germany. Substantiate.
Answer:

• The victorious powers signed the Treaty of Versailles with Germany in 1919.
• The Treaty imposed all war guilt on Germany and she was disarmed.
• Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war indemnity to victorious powers.
• German colonies were divided among the victors.
• The allies occupied the rich mines of Germany.
• Germans felt humiliated when the provisions of the Treaty of Versailles were imposed on them. They were agitated and yearned for a leader who could avenge this unfair treatment and lead the country to economic progress.
• It was under these circumstances that the Nazi party leader Adolf Hitler gained popular support and came to power.

Question 4.
Evaluate the results of the Second World War.
Answer:

• Over 10 million people died.
• Freedom movements in Asia and Africa intensified.
• In a bid to preserve and maintain world peace, the United Nations Organization was formed.
• Economic system of European countries was destroyed.
• European dominance in world diminished.
• USA and Soviet Union emerged as global powers.
• Beginning of cold war and arms race.

Question 5.
Examine the circumstances that paved the way for the formation of Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:

• The newly independent countries of Asia and Africa realized that cold war was yet another face of imperialism and that it would threaten world peace. They wanted to stay remain free.
• Arms race between super powers and the formation of military pacts.
• Cold war and arms race.
• The realization that the race of super powers for weapons and a stronger military force would pose harm to them.
• The formation of capitalist bloc under US A and socialist bloc under Soviet Union.

Question 6.
Examine the reasons for the disintegration of Soviet Union? How did this lead to a unipolar world?
Answer:

• Deviation from the basic principles of socialism.
• The administrative measures of Mikhail Gorbachev – Glasnost and Perestroika.
• Corruption and inefficiency of the bureaucracy.
• Failure in bringing about changes in economic sector.

In the absence of a socialist bloc, policies and programmes of the capitalist countries remained unquestioned. This had a wide impact on international relations. A unipolar world emerged under the leadership of USA instead of a bipolar world.

Question 7.
Globalisation posed some challenges to developing countries. What are they?
Or
How did globalisation affect the developing countries adversely?
Answer:

• The intervention of multinational companies challenged the concept of nation state.
• Led to the destruction of indigenous culture.
• Natural resources were looted.
• Public sector undertakings were destroyed.
• Price of agricultural products plunged.
• Government withdrew from social service sectors.

Question 8.
What are, the steps taken by Hitler to consolidate his power in Germany?
Answer:

• Socialists, communists, Jews and democrats were executed.
• Used newspaper, radio, cinema and education systems widely to propagate the ideologies of Nazism.
• Adopted an aggressive foreign policy and attacked neighbouring countries.
• All other political parties except the Nazi party were banned.
• Trade unions were banned.

Question 9.
Explain the terms Glasnost and Perestroika.
Answer:

• Glasnost and Perestroika were the two administrative reforms of Mikhail Gorbachev in Soviet Union.
• Glasnost was to implement openness in political processes. Accordingly, regulation on media and civil rights was taken off.
• Perestroika was implemented to restructure the economic system of the Soviet Union.
• It called for ending the price controls on production sector established by government and abating centralisation.

Question 10.
What were the factors that prompted the European countries to set up colonies in Afro- Asian nations?
Answer:

• Overproduction
• Availability of raw materials.
• Availability of markets to sell their industrial products.
• The disunity in the Afro-Asian nations.

Question 11.
Imperialism is the developedform of capitalism. Evaluate the statement.
Answer:
Factory system emerged as a result of Industrial Revolution. Capitalists invested in factories and production was increased. This increased their profit. The economic system in which production and distribution are controlled by the capitalist with the aim to increase profit is known as capitalism.

European countries produced more than they could accommodate in their domestic markets. This over-production forced them to search for markets. So they turned their attention to Afro- Asian nations for markets. Using political power and military forces, the European countries economically exploited these nations and later they became the colonies of European countries.

This is called colonization. Conflicts in capitalism,forced the capitalists to shift production from Europe to colonies. The phase of flow of finance capital to colonies is known as imperialism.

Question 12.
Do you think the Treaty of Versailles led to another war? Why?
Or
The Treaty of Versailles was a one sides Treaty. Substantiate the statement by analysing the provisions of the Treaty.
Answer:

• The Treaty of Versailles led to another war.
• The Treaty of Versailles signed with Germany disarmed her.
• War guilt was imposed on her.
• Germany was forced to pay a huge amount as war indemnity.
• German colonies were divided among allies.
• The allies occupied the rich mines of Germany.
• The Treaty humiliated the Germans.

They were agitated and yearned for a leader who could avenge this unfair treatment. The Germans sought someone who could restore the economic progress of Germany. It was in this circumstance that Hitler promised to save Germany from all humiliations. The measures taken by Hitler in Germany after assuming power led to the Second World War.

Question 13.
How did the World Economic Depression that began in USA affect the other countries?
Answer:
The economic depression began with the stock market crash in New York Stock Exchange on 24 October 1929. The investors rushed to sell their stocks which led to a massive volume of stock and trade. This led to abrupt and dramatic price decline. The depression affected not only America, but also the European nations. The production rate plunged. Unemployment became grave. Many lost their wealth. World trade completely collapsed. The European countries imposed heavy taxes on their colonies.

Question 14.
List the similarities of Fascism and Nazism.
Answer:

• Antagonism to democracy
• Opposition to socialism
• Glorifying the nation
• Adoring the purity of race
• Justifying war
• Diffusion to aggressive nationalism
• Deifying the past
• Indoctrination of ideologies through arts, literature and education.
• Military dictatorship
• Destruction of political rivals

Question 15.
Evaluate the present day relevance of Non- Aligned Movement.
Answer:
Non-Aligned Movement is the second largest international organisation in the world. NAM is the unity of countries of Asia, Africa and Latin America which were colonies of imperialist powers. NAM succeeded to some extent in reducing the intensity of cold war and arms race. It has great relevance in the unipolar world of today. NAM can expose the evils of globalisation and prevent the intervention of new imperialists on the social, economic and environmental sectors of third world countries.

Question 16.
The reforms of Gorbachev led to the disintegration of Soviet Union. Evaluate the statement.
Answer:
The reasons for the disintegration of Soviet Union are:

• Deviation from the basic principles of socialism.
• Failure in bringing about changes in economic sector.
• Corruption and inefficiency of bureaucracy.
• Administrative reforms of Gorbachev – Glasnost and Perestroika.

Glasnost was to implement openness in political processes. It removed regulation on media and civil rights. Perestroika was implemented to restructure the economic system of Soviet Union. It aimed at ending price controls on production sector and abating centralisation.

These two reforms were deviation from the communist ideologies. In this context, it can be said that Gorbachev’s reforms led to the disintegration of Soviet Union.

Question 17.
How did the imperialist crises cause the First World War? Explain.
Or
What was Moroccan Crisis? How was it solved?
Answer:
Moroccan crisis:
A secret treaty was signed between Britain and France in 1904. According to this, Britain recognised the claim of France over Morocco. The French claim over Morocco was opposed by Germany and she sent battleships to Moroccan port Agadir. This was the Moroccan crisis. France agreed to transfer a part of French Congo to Germany and Germany agreed to concede Morocco to France in return.

Balkan crisis :
The Balkan region is situated in Europe, close to the Aegean Sea and the Black Sea. It was a part of the Ottoman Empire. In 1912, the Balkan League (Greece,Bulgaria, Serbia and Montenegro) defeated Turkey. However, the conflict among the allied nations in sharing the benefits of the war led to the break up of the League and resulted in wars among them.

Sslc Social Science Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 18.
What were the changes brought about by the disintegration of the Soviet Union in the international level?
Answer:

• Marked the end of the Cold War.
• Bipolar world ended.
• Unipolar world emerged.
• America emerged as an unquestionable power.

Question 19.
What were the consequences of the Industrial Revolution which began in England in the 18th century?
Or
What were the circumstances that led to the supremacy of Europeans in Asian and African countries?
Answer:

• Capitalists invested in factories and increased production.
• Increase in profit of capitalists.
• Production and distribution were controlled by private individuals with the aim to increase profit.
• The advent of large scale industries enhanced capital investment.
• Over production forced them to search for foreign markets.
• Industrial nations of Europe competed for foreign markets.
• Using political power and military forces, Asian and African nations were exploited.

Answer the following. Score 5/6 each.

Question 1.
Examine critically the causes and results of the First World War.
Or
Why is the First World War called the imperialistic war? Examine based on the
following hints.
Hints:
i) Imperialistic conflicts
ii) Military alliances
iii) Aggressive nationalism
iv) International crises
Answer:
The First World War was fought from 1914 to 1918. Its causes are discussed below.

i) Imperialistic Conflicts:
When the imperialist powers entered into mutual competition to conquer the world, conflicts among them became widespread. The international problems surfaced during this period caused mutual mistrust and enmity. The conflicts among imperialist powers led to the war.

ii) Military Alliances:
The competition among the imperialist powers drove them to sign military alliances. The Tripple Alliance was formed by Germany, Italy and Austria-Hungary. To counter this, Britain, France and Russia formed the Triple Entente. The formation of such alliances created an atmosphere of war in Europe.

iii) Aggressive Nationalism:
Aggressive nationalism was one of the strategies adopted by the imperialist countries to succeed in their competitions. The European nations used aggressive nationalism to invade other countries. Aggressive nationalists considered their own nations as the supreme and justified whatever be the actions of their nations. The Pan Slav Movement under Russia, the Pan German Movement under Germany and the Revenge Movement in France were examples for aggressive nationalism.

iv) International crises:
Imperialist rivalries drove the European countries into several crises. Some of them were Moroccan crisis and Balkan crisis.

Moroccan crisis:
A secret treaty was signed between Britain and France in 1904. According to this, Britain recognised the claim of France over Morocco. The French claim over Morocco was opposed by Germany and she sent battleships to Moroccan port Agadir. This was the Moroccan crisis. France agreed to transfer a part of French Congo to Germany and Germany agreed to concede Morocco to France in return.

Balkan crisis:
The Balkan region is situated in Europe, close to the Aegean Sea and the Black Sea. It was a part of the Ottoman Empire. In 1912, the Balkan League (Greece, Bulgaria, Serbia and Montenegro) defeated Turkey. However, the conflict among the allied nations in sharing the benefits of the war led to the break up of the League and resulted in wars among them.

Immediate cause:
The assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand, the heir to the throne of Austria by Princep, a Serbian youth at the Bosnian capital Sarajevo in June 1914 was the immediate cause. Austria held Serbia responsible for it and declared war pESerbia on 28 July 1914. Almost all the nations of the world directly or indirectly were involved in it.

Results

• Over 10 million people lost their lives or were injured in war.
• Liberation movements in Asia and Africa strengthened.
• Economic dominance of Europe diminished.
• Agriculture, industry and communication systems were destroyed.
• Poverty, unemployment and inflation increased.
• In a bid to bring peace in the world, the League of Nations was formed.
• Emergence of Fascism and Nazism.

Question 2.
Germany and Italy were crushed by the First World War. But Fascism and Nazism played a key role in making them the important powers in the Second World War. Examine this.
Or
How did the growth of Fascism and Nazism become a cause for the Second World War and a threat to world peace?
Answer:
The First World War ruined Germany and Italy economically. Unemployment and poverty threw up people’s protests. The government of both the countries had to face popular unrest. The conditions of the victorious and the defeated nations in the First World War were miserable. Many European governments lost their power. Unemployment and poverty occurred. Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany rose to power, capitalizing on the political and economic chaos prevailing then.

Economic destruction, rivalry against the victors and aimlessness facilitated these forces to grab power.

Mussolini and Fascism:
Mussolini led Fascist reign in Italy. He resorted to despotic measures in the political and economic fields of Italy after coming to power. Violence and ferocity were the strategies of Fascism. Socialists, leaders of peasants and workers were considered as enemies of the state and executed them.

The aim of Mussolini was to restore ancient Roman Empire. Using the military force ‘Black Shirts’, Mussolini suppressed the opponents. His aggressive foreign policies led him to conquer Ethiopia and Albania. Italy’s run for dictatorship led to the Second World War.

Hitler and Nazism:
Nazism is the German version of Fascism. The Germans felt humiliated when the Treaty of Versailles was imposed on them after the First World War. It was at this time that Hitler and his Nazi party gained popular support. Hitler promised to save Germany from all humiliations. He adopted many measures to consolidate his power.

Socialists, communists, Jews and democrats were executed. Hitler held the Jews responsible for Germany’s ruin and humiliation. The Jews were massacred enmasse in specially designed concentration camps. A military force known as ‘Brown Shirts’ and a secret police troop ‘Gestapo’ were in charge of assaulting and massacring Jews.

Banned all political parties except the Nazi party. Trade unions were also banned. Military service was made compulsory. Taking advantage of the feeling of revenge among the Germans, Hitler adopted an aggressive foreign policy. He attacked Austria, Czechoslovakia and Poland. Germany formed the military alliance with Italy and Japan. This led to the outbreak of the Second World War.

Question 3.
Explain Neo Imperialism and its features.
Answer:
In the post war period, a new kind of imperialism emerged. Multinational companies which are registered in a country and functioning in many countries, began to interfere in the economic, social and cultural sectors of developing countries for serving the interests of capitalist countries. This is known as Neo imperialism.

Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation are the concepts of neo imperialism.

• Liberalisation:
  Adoption of liberal regulations and taxation systems to facilitate the import of multinational products to domestic markets.
• Privatisation:
  Privatisation of public sector undertakings in an attempt to promote private sector:
• Globalisation:
  Economic system of the country linked to global economy. The interests and motives of MNCs are protected. Competition driven market came into existence. Trans-border flow of products, services, raw materials, capital, latest technology and human resources facilitated.

Question 4.
Explain the features of globalization and its impact on the world.
Answer:
Globalization
Africa the Second World War, a new kind of imperialism emerged. Multinational companies which are registered in a country and functioning in many countries began to interfere in the economic, social and cultural sectors of the developing countries for services the interests of capitalist countries. This is termed as neo imperialism.

The multinational companies competed with one another to control the resources and assets of third world countries. They promoted consumerism in third world countries to sell their products. Developing nations were considered as the markets for the multinational companies. Liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation were the concepts of neo imperialism.

Globalisation is the policy of transfer of products, services, raw materials, capital, latest technology and human resources across the borders of countries without any restriction.

Features of globalisation

• Economic system of the country linked to global economy.
• The interest and motives of multinational companies protected.
• Competition driven market came into existence.
• Trans-border flow of products, services, raw materials, capital, latest technology and human resources facilitated.

Impact of globalisation
Positive impacts of globalisation are:

• Globalisation opened up many opportunities and possibilities around the world.
• The transfer of goods, products and services beyond boundaries and the dissemination of information technology shaped the concept of global village.

Globalisation posed challenges to developing countries:

• Due to pressure from multinational products and marketing strategies, the economy of developing countries started to collapse.
• The intervention of multinational companies challenged the concept of nation state.
• Led to the destruction of indigenous culture.
• Price of agricultural products plunged.
• Public sector undertakings were destroyed.
• Government withdrew from social service sectors.
• Natural resources were looted.

Question 5.
Critically analyse the causes and results of the Second World War.
Answer:
The Second World War lasted from 1939 to 1945. Its causes are discussed below.

Formation of Military Alliances:
Following the Peace Treaty of 1919, the victorious nations shared the colonies of defeated nations. Germany and Italy had no colonies and no markets. Therefore they planned to conquer colonies and attack weak nations. In an effort to extend this policy of aggression, Italy, Germany and Jap&n formed an alliance called Axis Powers. Countering this alliance, Britain, France and China formed the Allied Powers.

Growth of Fascism and Nazism:
The First World War devastated both the allies. Many European governments lost their power. People were in misery. Unemployment and poverty followed. Capitalizing on the political and economic chaos, Fascists and Nazis came to power in Italy and Germany.

The Fascists and the Nazis opposed democracy and socialism, justified war, glorified the nation, adored purity of race, destroyed political rivals and believed in military dictatorship. The aggressive policies and their attacks on neighbouring countries led to the Second World War.

Failure of the League of Nations:
The League failed to stall the attacks of the Axis Powers. This led to the war.

Policy of Appeasement:
When Germany, Italy and Japan attacked other nations, capitalist countries like Britain and France did not prevent the attacks. They considered the Soviet Union as their chief enemy because they were opposed to socialism. This policy which encouraged Fascist attacks is known as the policy of appeasement.

Germany’s attack on Poland/Immediate cause:
Hitler claimed the Polish Corridor from Poland. Poland refused. So Germany attacked Poland on 1 September 1939. This was the beginning of the Second World War.

Results:

• Over 10 million people died.
• Freedom movements in Asia and Africa intensified.
• In a bid to preserve and maintain world peace, the United Nations Organization was formed.
• European dominance in world diminished.
• USA and Soviet Union emerged as global powers.
• Beginning of cold war and arms race.

Question 6.
Match the items related to Column A from Columns B and C.

Answer:

Question 7.
Match the items related to Column A from that of Columns B and C.

Answer:

Question 8.
Arrange the following events in chronological order.
i) Hitler’s attack on Poland
ii) Moroccan crisis
iii) Balkan crisis
iv) Munich Pact
v) Oslo Pact
Answer:
i) Moroccan crisis – 1904
ii) Balkan crisis – 1912
iii) Munich Pact – 1938
iv) Hitler’s attack on Poland – 1939
v) Oslo Pact – 1993

Question 9.
Arrange the following events in chronological order.
i) World Economic Depression
ii) Treaty of Versailles
iii) Formation of UNO
iv) Disintegration of Soviet Union
v) Formation of Israeli
Answer:
i)Treaty of Versailles – 1919
ii) World Economic Depression – 1929
iii) Formation of UNO – 1945
iv) Formation of Israel – 1948
v) Disintegration of Sbviet Union – 1991

Additional Information / Extra Reading

Mandatory Territories:
After the First World War, the German colonies were placed under the administration of one or more of the victorious nations, based on the Treaty of Versailles. Togoland, Cameroon, Pacific colonies like Islands of Carolina, Marshall Islands, German South West Africa, German East Africa, etc. were the colonies of Germany. The League of Nations handed over the administration of these colonies to the allies. The colonies thus governed by the allies were known as Mandatory Territories.

Gaurilo – Princip:
‘Black Hand Secret Society’ was a revolutionary group led by the Slavic community to free their country from the rule of Austria. Gaurilo Princip was a member of this terrorist group, which was assisted by the Serbian Government.

American Prosperity:
During the 1919-29 span, the American economy grew and reached its zenith. They put into effect many policy declarations and actions for the mounting growth of their economy. The industrial sectors had been freely conceded to the control of private owners. Most of the government owned institutions were handed over to the capitalists.

The tax levied on the imported goods were raised enormously. Active steps were taken to merge multinational corporations to form even larger corporations. As a result of all these, the economy showed drastic growth. During this period, the percapita average production was increased to 53%. With this America emerged as a major economic power.

Holocaust:
Hitler and Nazi party who upheld die principles of Aryans, considered Jews, communists and socialists as the reasons for the economic decline faced by Germany. Nazis stated that the caste revolts, demilitarization, penalty of war etc. are the instruments deployed by Jews to effect the downfall of Aryans. As a solution, Hitler decided to wipe out the entire Jews, communists, religious leaders, physically disadvantaged, mentally disadvantaged, etc.

The method devised to fulfil this notorious idea was the Holocaust. New laws were formulated to curtail the right of the Jews to work. Hitler employed additional tax on the Jews. He sought the help of the scientists, doctors and other technical experts for the mass killing. He massacred millions at the concentration camps, gas chambers and labour camps. The para military department of Nazi party, ‘Schutzstaffel’, headed the genocide.

Women prisoners were also tortured brutally. They were inhumanly tortured under the supervision of doctors. They were subjected to sterilization experiments using X-rays. Chemicals were injected to their wombs and were exposed to surgeries without anaesthesia. Joseph Mengele, known as the Angel of Death, was interested in conducting horrifying experiments on twins.

His experiments included cutting off body partly leaving his victims to suffer, injecting chemicals into childrens’ eyes, etc. So many were subjected to unimaginable tortures. Nazis massacred Jews of Poland, Rumania, Luxembourg, Latvia, Hungary, Greece, Yugoslavia, Netherlands, etc. Nazis killed 2.9 crores of Jews in 6 years.

Gas Chambers:
Hitler had opened up concentration camps at Treblinka, Befseck, Bergen-Belsen, Sachsenhausen, Hossenburg etc. Gas chambers,- hells on earth, were the prominent feature of these camps. Brutal tortures and mass killings were staged in gas chambers.

The prisoners-were led to the gas chambers, disguised as shower rooms and gassed them to death using poisonous gases like Zyklon B and Carbonmonoxide. The Nazis enjoyed the suffocation and sufferings of the victims in the gas chamber, through the specially made glass windows.

Swasthik
Hitler and Nazi party used swasthik as a symbol of their racial superiority. Swasthik, which had a heritage of 3000 years, had been used all over the world by different cultures and different religions like Hindus, Jains, Buddhists, etc. The word Swasthik means ‘good fortune’ or ‘well being’. Black swasthik in a white coloured circle on a red backdrop was the flag of Nazis.

Gestapo:
Gestapo was the secret police formed under the supervision of Adolf Hitter. In 1933, when Nazis came to power, the German Home Minister formed a special wing for spy work. It was the Gestapo. Gestapo enjoyed judicial independence and the power to arrest and imprison without trial. In certain concentration camps, it was the Gestapo who supervised the proceedings.

Anne Frank: The Diary of a Young Girl
The diary was written by Anne frank, when gone to hiding, fearing Hitler’s Gestapo. The notes on the diary were the revelations of the tortures of cruelties of Nazis on the Jews. The diary, considered as a classic work in war literature, was begun writing on June 4, 1942.

The last note on the diaiy was scribbled by Anne on August 1,1944. Anne lovingly addressed the diary as Kitti. In August 1944, Nazis arrested Anne and her family. Anne died in the Bergun-Belgun concentration camp due to Typhus, in the March of 1945. In 1947, the notes of Anne Frank were published in the name ‘The Diaryofa Young Girl’.

Eventually it was translated into various other languages too. The inhuman tortures of the Nazi concentration camps were revealed to the outer world through the diary notes of this young girl.

Hitler in Films:
Hitler, his party and its activities were discussed not only in literature but also in cinema as well. The film on Hitler, ‘The Great Dictator’ by the world famous comedian, Charlie Chaplin, featured Hitler and Nazi party in a ridiculous manner. In the film, ‘Schindler’s List’, directed by the renoimed director Stephen Spielberg, the Jews in the concentration camps were protected by a German Catholic merchant named Oscar Schindler.

Recession in American Economy:
During 1920 s, one of the major traders of America was the stock market trade. Americans found another way to make money other than the profit shares they amassed from the shares of the American companies. This was succeeded by buying the shares of mutual trade companies.

This being a trend, the price of the shares in the share market rocketed sky high. Instead of the income made through the dividends, everyone tried to make money by selling the shares. Without even considering the status of the trades, many people began to sell the shares. By 1929, the rate of the shares reached its zenith. Many people tried to buy shares with borrowed money.

Industrialists who amassed large amounts of money, produced large quantities of goods in their factories. Goods piled up as the industrialists and workers lost their purchasing ability. Moreover, the economic profit America earned before, were restricted itself to the hands of a limited number of industrialists.

Share markets crashed, This was the root cause of the American recession. The America of 1929 was nothing but a land of closed mills, factories, markets, mines, banks and poverty stricken people who were thrown to the streets from the lap of luxury and prosperity.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions

You can Download मेरी ममतामई माँ Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 1 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 1 Chapter 1 शाहंशाह अकबर को कौन सिखाएगा? (लोककथा)

शाहंशाह अकबर को कौन सिखाएगा? पाठ्यपुस्तक के प्रश्न और उत्तर

8th Standard Hindi Notes Pdf 2021 Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
“बहुत-सी ऐसी चीजें हैं जिनके बारे में मैं नहीं जानता।” इस कथन से अकबर का कौन-सा मनोभाव प्रकट होता है?

उत्तर:
बादशाह अकबर की सादगी इसमें देख सकते हैं। बादशाह होने पर भी वे कुछ न कुछ सीखना चाहते हैं। ज्ञान पाने की आकांक्षा हम इसमें देख सकते हैं।

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Notes Pdf प्रश्ना 2.
बीरबल समाज के विभिन्न प्रकार के लोगों को दरबार में बुला लाया। कारण क्या होगा?

उत्तर:
बीरबल समझता था कि हर एक व्यक्ति में कुछ न कुछ हुनर है। मानव अपने आसपास के लोगों से कुछ न कुछ सीख सकता है। बीरबल बादशाह अकबर को ये बातें समझाना चाहता था।

8th Class Hindi Textbook Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 3.
“हमेशा ही सीखता हूँ।” इससे क्या मतलब है?

उत्तर:
इसका मतलब है कि मानव मृत्युपर्यंत कुछ न कुछ सीखता रहता है। मानव का ज्ञान कभी संपूर्ण नहीं होता। हमेशा उसे कुछ सीखने को बाकी रहता है।

8th Standard Hindi First Chapter Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 4.
यह बूढ़ी महिला किन-किन की प्रतिनिधि हो सकती है?

उत्तर:
यह बूढ़ी महिला माताओं की प्रतिनिधि हैं। माँ ही सबकी पहली और श्रेष्ठ गुरु हैं।

शाहंशाह अकबर को कौन सिखाएगा? Textbook Activities

कहानी पढ़ी।

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Notes  प्रश्ना 1.
इसमें मुख्य पात्र कौन-कौन हैं और उनकी वेश-भूषा कैसी हैं?

उत्तर:
इसमें मुख्य तीन पात्र हैं- बादशाह अकबर, बीरबल और बूढ़ी महिला। बादशाह की वेशभूषा राजकीय हैं। राजसी कुर्ता और पाइजामा। सिर पर राजसी पगडी। तलवार कमर पर टाँग रही है। आभूषण पहने हैं। बीरबल ने विद्वानों के समान वेश धारण किया है। बूढ़ी महिला ने सलवार पाजामा पहन रखी है।

8th Standard Hindi Textbook Pdf Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
इस कहानी के कितने प्रसंग है? वे कौन-कौन से हैं?

उत्तर:
इस कहानी के मुख्य दो प्रसंग हैं- पहला; राजदरबार में बादशाह विद्वानों को देख रहे हैं। दूसरा प्रसंग में बीरबल समाज के विभिन्न तबकों के लोगों को दरबार में उपस्थित करते हैं।

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Guide प्रश्ना 3.
अब इन तालिकाओं की पूर्ति करें।

उत्तर:

Class 8 Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 4.
प्रत्येक प्रसंग में इस कहानी के पात्रों के बीच का संवाद क्या होगा? किसी एक प्रसंग का संवाद तैयार करें।

उत्तर:
बादशाह : बीरबल, इन सबका क्या मतलब है? मेरा महल राज्य की आधी जनता से भर दिया?
बीरबल : माफ़ी चाहता हूँ, जहाँपनाह। मैंने तो आपके आदेशों का पालन किया है।
बादशाह : तो ये सब?
बीरबल : हुजूर, गुस्ताखी माफ़ हो।
बादशाह : फ़रमाइए।
बीरबल : यहाँ मौजूद हर व्यक्ति में कुछ न कुछ हुनर हैं जो दूसरों को कुछ सिखा भी सकते हैं।

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Textbook प्रश्ना 5.
कहानी को एकांकी के रूप में बदलकर लिखें।

उत्तर:
बादशाह अकबर को कौन सिखाएगा? (एकांकी)
पात्र:
अकबर : आयु 45 साल। राजकीय पोशाक।
बीरबल : आयु 45 साल। धोती, कुर्ता, पगड़ी।
3-4 विद्वान : आयु 50-60, धोती, कुर्ता, पगड़ी।
किसान : 50 वर्ष की आयु, धोती और बनीयान।
लिपिक : 40 वर्ष की आयु, धोती और कुर्ता।
महिला : 80 साल की आयु, सलवार ।
[बादशाह अकबर का दरबार । सम्राट अकबर सिंहासन पर तशरीफ़ रखे हैं। बीरबल और कुछ अन्य विद्वान दरबार में चर्चा में मग्न हैं।]
अकबर : (बीरबल की ओर मुड़कर) बीरबल, मैं बहुत चतुर नहीं हूँ। बहुत सी ऐसी चीजें हैं जिनके बारे में मैं नहीं जानता। मैं हर चीज़ को सीखना चाहता हूँ। कल से मेरी पढ़ाई शुरू हो, इसका इंतज़ाम करो।
बीरबल : जहाँपनाह, जैसे आपका हुक्म। (पर्दा गिरता है)
[अकबर का दरबार बच्चे, बुजुर्ग, गृहणियाँ, धोबिनें, किसान, कचरा बीननेवाले, दुकानदार, लिपिक, विद्वान आदि से भरा है। बीरबल दरवाज़े पर खड़े हैं। बादशाह दरबार में आते हैं। सब लोग झुककर बादशाह को प्रणाम करते हैं। दरबार की भरी भीड़ को देखकर बादशाह क्रोधित हो जाते हैं।]
अकबर : बीरबल, इन सबका क्या मतलब? मैंने तुमसे ऐसे लोगों को लाने के लिए कहा था जो मुझे कुछ सिखा सकें। और तुमने मेरा महल राज्य की आधी जनता से भर दिया? अब जवाब दो।
बीरबल : (शांत भाव से) माफ़ी चाहता हूँ, जहाँपनाह। मैंने तो बस आपके आदेशों का पालन किया है। गुस्ताखी माफ़ हो, पर क्या जहाँपनाह, रेत में घंटों खेलकर अपना मनोरंजन करना जानते हैं?
अकबर : (बौखलाते हुए) नहीं! पर इससे क्या?
बीरबल : क्या आप किसी गरीब आदमी की आमदनी में घर चला सकते हैं? या क्या आप जानते हैं कि कपड़ों से दाग कैसे हटाया जाता है?
अकबर : (शांति से) कतई नहीं।
बीरबल : क्या आप जानते हैं कि बुवाई कब होती है? फसल को पानी कब देना है? या कचरे से उपयोगी चीज़ों को कैसे छाँटना है? या कहाँ हरे-भरे चराहगाह हैं? हमारी फ़सलों को बढ़िया दाम कहाँ मिलेगा? या किसी शब्द को इतनी खूबसूरती से कैसे लिखें कि वह चित्र जैसा लगे?
अकबर : (गुस्से से) नहीं, नहीं, नहीं। हज़ार बार नहीं।
बीरबल : (शांति से) तब जहाँपनाह, इस दरबार में मौजूद हर शख्स को कुछ न कुछ हुनर है, कुछ ज्ञान है, दिल या दिमाग की कोई खासियत है। तो सभी शिक्षक भी हैं और विद्यार्थी भी।
अकबर : (हँसते हुए) तब तो तुम भी एक विद्यार्थी हो बीरबल? हा… हा… हा… मैं तो सोचता था कि तुम्हें कोई कुछ नहीं सिखा सकता।
बीरबल : बात इससे उलट है जहाँपनाह, मैं तो हमेशा ही सीखता हूँ।
[बीरबल भीड़ के बीच से एक बूढ़ी महिला का हाथ थामकर धीरे से अकबर के सामने आते हैं।]
बीरबल : हुजूर, ये मेरे पहले और श्रेष्ठ गुरुओं में से एक हैं। (बूढ़ी महिला शाहंशाह को सलाम करती है।)
महिला : हुजूर, बुद्धिमान व्यक्ति जानते हैं कि सब कुछ सीख जाना संभव नहीं है। लेकिन सबको यह सीखना चाहिए कि अच्छा इंसान कैसे बन जा सकता है।’
(अकबर बूढ़ी महिला के सामने अदब से झुकते हुए बीरबल से) .
अकबर : तुम सच में भाग्यशाली हो जो तुम्हें इतनी समझदार गुरु मिली।

शाहंशाह अकबर को कौन सिखाएगा? मेरी रचना में

1. उचित चौकोर में ✓ लगाएँ।

2. रंगमंच:
रंग सज्जा का विवरण है।

3. पात्र:
आयु, वेषभूषा, चाल – चलन
हाव-भाव का संकेत है।

4. कथोपकथन:
संवाद पात्रानुकृल है


भाषा स्वाभाविक है।

इन वाक्यों पर ध्यान दें:

हर शख्स आपको कुछ न कुछ सिखा सकता है।
हरेक ऐसा कुछ जानता है।
क्या आप जानते हैं?

8th Standard Hindi Notes State Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.

उत्तर:

शाहंशाह अकबर को कौन सिखाएगा? पोल खुल गया…!

Std 8 Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.

उत्तर:

शाहंशाह अकबर को कौन सिखाएगा? Summary in Malayalam and Translation

→ शाहंशाह अकबर गंभीर ……………. इतजाम करो ।

→ अगली सुबह जब ……………………… लोग थे ।

→ इन सब का क्या अब जवाब दो ।

→ माफ़ी चाहता हूँ करना जानते है ।

→ नही पर उससे ने जवाब दिया ।

→ क्या जहाँपनाह यह होकर चिल्लाए ।

→ तब जहाँपनाह ओर विदुयत्रि भी ।

→ शाहंशाह समझा नही सिखा सकता ।

→ बात इससे उलट गुरुओं में से है ।

→ बृटी महिला ने बन जा सकता है ।

→ शाहंशाह बूटी मालिमा समजदार गुरु मिलीं ।

शाहंशाह अकबर को कौन सिखाएगा? शब्दार्थ Word meanings