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Students can Download Adisthana Padavali Unit 1 Chapter 3 AmmathottilQuestions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Adisthana Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Adisthana Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Guide Unit 1 Chapter 3 Ammathottil

Ammathottil Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

You can Download अकाल और उसके बाद Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 1 अकाल और उसके बाद (कविता)

अकाल और उसके बाद Text Book Activities & Answers

अकाल और उसके बाद विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

i. पढ़ें और चर्चा करें

अकाल और उसके बाद Notes Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
कई दिनों तक चूल्हा रोया, चक्की रही उदास
कई दिनों तक कानी कुतिया सोई उनके पास
चूल्हे का रोना और चक्की का उदास होना- इसका मतलब क्या है?

उत्तर:
इससे कवि यह बताना चाहते हैं कि घर में खाद्य वस्तुओं का बिलकुल अभाव है। कई दिनों इन दोनों का कोई इस्तेमाल नहीं हुआ है।

Akaal Aur Uske Baad Summary Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
कई दिनों तक लगी भीत पर छिपकलियों की गश्त
कई दिनों तक चूहों की भी हालत रही शिकस्त
ये पंक्तियाँ किस हालत की ओर इशारा करती हैं?

उत्तर:
घर में कई दिनों से खाने की चीजें नहीं हैं। जहाँ खाना नहीं होगा वहाँ दीप जलाने के लिए तेल की भी संभावना नहीं। तो वहाँ छोटे कीड़ों का होना असंभव है। इससे छिपकली परेशान है। इसलिए वे कीड़ों को तलाशते हुए दीवार पर घूम रहे हैं। घर में कोई खाद्य वस्तु नहीं है। इससे चूहे भी हार गए हैं।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Poem Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 3.
दाने आए घर के अंदर कई दिनों के बाद
धुआँ उठा आँगन से ऊपर कई दिनों के बाद
इन पंक्तियों से कवि क्या कहना चाहता है?

उत्तर:
अकाल के बाद के दिनों का चित्रण कवि ने इन पंक्तियों द्वारा किया है। अकाल के बाद घर में दाने आने पर घर के आँगन से ऊपर धुआँ उठता है। मतलब चूल्हा जलने लगा है। यह घर में खाने पकाने की ओर इशारा करता है।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 4.
कवि ने अकाल का चित्रण किस प्रकार किया है? चर्चा करें।

अकाल:
i. चूल्हे का रोना

ii. भीत पर छिपकलियों की गश्त

iii. चक्की का उदास रहना

iv. शिकस्त हालत वाले चूहे

उत्तर:
अकाल के भीइषण समय में चूल्हे रो रहे हैं। घर की दीवारों पर छिपकलियाँ खाना न मिलने की वजह से विवश होकर घूम रहे हैं। चक्की उदास है, मतलब कई दिनों से उसका कोई उपयोग नहीं है। चूहे पराजित-सा हो गए हैं। क्योंकि घर में दाने का अभाव ने उनके पेट भरने की आशा को निराशा बना दिया है।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Poem Summary In Malayalam Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 5.
कवि ने अकाल के बाद के हालत का चित्रण किस प्रकार किया है? चर्चा करें।

अकाल के बाद:
i. घर के अंदर दाने का आना

ii. घर भर की आँखों का चमक उठना

iii. आँगन के ऊपर धुएँ का उठना

iv. कौए के पंखों का खुजलाना

उत्तर:
घर के भीतर दाने आते हैं। घर भर की आँखें चमक उठती हैं। अभी भोजन बना नहीं है। लेकिन अन्न की आहट ने ही आँखों में रोशनी भर दी है। उम्मीद इसी तरह रोशनी लाती है। फिर धुआँ उठता है छप्पर के ऊपर ! यानि चूल्हा जल गया है। यह धुआँ शुभ संकेत दे रहा है। और कौए अब अपने पंख खुजला रहे हैं।

Akal Or Uske Baad Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 6.
चर्चा करें
कविता में कई दिनों तक और कई दिनों के बाद दूहराने का तात्पर्य क्या हो सकता है

उत्तर:
आचार्य नागार्जुन की कविता है ‘अकाल और उसके बाद।’ कविता की पहली चार पंक्तियों में कई दिनों तक’ की पुनरावृत्ति अभाव की निरंतरता को अंकित करती है। कविता में दूसरे खंड की चार पंक्तियों में कई दिनों के बाद ‘तक’ और ‘बाद’ के बीच एक लंबे अंतराल को व्यंजित करती है

Akal Aur Uske Baad Question Answer Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 7.
अकाल के क्या-क्या कारण हो सकते है? चर्चा करें।

उत्तर:
अकाल और उसके बाद’ कविता में बिहार राज्य में हुई अकाल का आँखों देखा हाल है। अकाल पडने के मुख्य कारण प्राकृतिक आपदाएँ (National Calamities) अत्याधिक जनसंख्या, फसलों की असफलता, दरिद्रता एंव बेरोज़गारी, सरकारी दुकानों का प्रभावशाली ढंग से प्रबंधन न होना आदि है। भूकंप हिम झंझावत, बाढ़, सूखा तथा महामारी के कारण अकाल की परिस्थिति उत्पन्न हो जाती है। संसाधनों से अधिक जनसंख्या के कारण कृषि पर अधिक भार पडता है। फसलों की असफलता होने पर भी अकाल पडता है। गरीब एंव बेरोज़गार लोगों की खाघ सामग्री खरीदने की क्षमता बहुत कम होती है। सरकारी दूकानों पर गरीब लोगों को सही समय पर पर्याप्त मात्रा में खाघ सामग्री नहीं मिलती। इस प्रकार का भ्रष्टाचार भी अकाल पडने में सहायक होता है।

अकाल और उसके बाद कविता का सारांश Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 8.
कविता की प्रासंगिकता पर टिप्पणी लिखें।

उत्तर:
बेहाल दीवजंतु
‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कवि नागार्जुन रचित कविता है। इसमें गरीब, बेबस, . व्यक्तियों के जीवन में व्याप्त भुखमरी और उससे उबरने का चित्र अंकित किया गया है। गरीब व्यक्ति ही बिना अन्न परेशान नहीं है। वरना जीवजंतुओं का हाल भी बेहाल है। छिपकालियाँ दीवारों पर गश्त लगाती है, परंतु उन्हें कुछ नहीं मिलता। चूहे भी भुख से व्याकुल हैं।

प्रस्तुत कविता में प्रत्यक्ष रूप से मनुष्य का चित्रण नहीं है। परंतू अन्न, भोजन, चूल्हा जलाना ये चारी चिजें मनुष्य संबंधित है। मनुष्य पूरी परिस्थिति में विघमान है। अकाल की विभीषिका आ जाती है, वह भी बडी शब्दावली में। अकाल जीवन को स्थगित करता है और अन्न जीवन में हलचल पैदा करता है। जनवादी कवी प्रस्तुत कविता में गरीबी का, भुखमरी का साक्षात्कार किया गया।

कवी जीवन की दो विरोधी स्थितियों को अलग-अलग बिंबों के माध्यम से व्यक्त करता है। ये बिम्ब यों तो जीवन की विरोधी स्थितियों को बड़ी सहजता से व्यक्त करते है। जब तक भूख रहेगी तब तक अकाल और उसके बाद कविता भी रहेगी।

अकाल और उसके बाद Orakkum Questions and Answers

गतिविधि – 1

सूचना :‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कविता का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
कई दिनों तक चुल्हा रोया, चक्की रही उदास
कई दिनों तक कानी कुतिया सोई उनके पास
कई दिनों तक लगी भीत पर छिपकलिया की गश्त
कई दिनों तक चूहों की भी हालत रही शिकस्त।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Kavita Ka Saransh Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
इस कविता में किन-किन जीव-जंतुओं का जिक्र है?
उत्तर:
कानी कुतिया, छिपकलियाँ, चूहे, कौए।

Akal Aur Uske Baad Ka Saransh Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
इसमें किन-किन निर्जीव वस्तुओं के बारें में बताया गया है?
उत्तर:
चूल्हा, चक्की, भीत।

Akal Or Uske Bad Summary Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 3.
निर्जीव वस्तुओं का मानवीकरण हुआ है। दो-एक उदाहरण बताइए।
उत्तर:
चूल्हे का रोना, चक्की का उदास रहना।

Akal Aur Uske Bad Kavita Ka Saransh Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 4.
जीव-जंतुओं के व्यवहारों की विशेषता क्या है?
उत्तर:
चूल्हे के जलने और चक्की के चलने की प्रतीक्षा में कानी कुतिया उनके पास सो गई। कई दिनों . तक चूहों की हालत बहुत दयनीय है। भूख से तड़पती छिपकलियाँ दीवार पर टहलती रही थी।

Akal Or Uske Bad Kavita Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 5.
इन जीव-जंतुओं और निर्जीव वस्तुओं की व्याकुल स्थिति का कारण क्या है?
उत्तर:
अकाल

प्रश्ना 6.
इन पंक्तियों के द्वारा कवि क्या कहना चाहते हैं?
उत्तर:
अकाल का समय केवल मानव पर ही नहीं, पूरे समाज पर पड़ता है। इसकी हानी कुछ समय केलिए भी समाज पर बनी रहती है।

प्रश्ना 7.
कवितांश का टिप्पणी लिखें।
उत्तर:
नागार्जुन हिन्दी के प्रगतिशील साहित्यकार हैं। लोकजीवन, प्रकृति और समकालीन राजनीति आप की रचनाओं के मुख्य विषय हैं। इस कविता में कवि अकाल की दयनीय स्थिति का वर्णन करते हुए कहते है कि कई दिनों से वहाँ अकाल पड़ा था। अकाल के दिनों में घर में अनाज का एक दाना भी नहीं था। कई दिनों से घर का चुल्हा नहीं जलाया था। अर्थात घर में भोजन नहीं बनाया था। इस से चुल्हा रो रहा था और चक्की उदास पड़ी थी। घर की दीवारों पर छिपकलियाँ घूम रही थी। चुल्हे और चक्की के पास घर की कानी कुत्तिया अनाज आने के प्रतीक्षा में सो रही थी। चूहों को भी खाने केलिए कुछ नही मिला था। यह सब अकाल की दयनीय दशा था।

अकाल और उसके बाद SCERT Questions and Answers

गतिविधि – 1

सूचनाः ‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कविता का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
दाने आए घर के अंदर कई दिनों के बाद।
धुआँ उठा आँगन से ऊपर कई दिनों के बाद।
चमक उठी घर भर की आँखें कई दिनों के बाद।
कौए ने सुजलाई पॉखे कई दिनों के बाद।

प्रश्ना 1.
पंक्तियों में किसका वर्णन हैं? (अकाल की स्थिति का, अकाल के पूर्व की स्थिति का, अकाल के बाद की स्थिति का)
उत्तर:
अकाल के बाद की स्थिति का।

प्रश्ना 2.
‘चमक उठीं घर भर की आँखें’ – का मतलब क्या हैं?
उत्तर:
अकाल के बाद घर में खाना पकाने लगा। कई दिनों के बाद चुल्हा में आग जलने लगे।

अकाल और उसके बाद Additional Questions and Answers

अकाल और उसके बाद आशयग्रहण के प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
‘चक्की रही उदास और चूल्हा रोया’ -से कवि का क्या तात्पर्य है?

उत्तर:
इससे कवि यह बताना चाहते हैं कि घर में खाद्य वस्तुओं का बिलकुल अभाव है। कई दिनों इन दोनों का कोई इस्तेमाल नहीं हुआ है।

प्रश्ना 2.
छिपकली, कानी कुतिया और चूहों की हालत खराब क्यों थी?

उत्तर:
घर में कई दिनों से खाने की चीजें नहीं हैं। जहाँ खाना नहीं होगा वहाँ दीप जलाने के लिए तेल की भी संभावना नहीं। तो वहाँ छोटे कीड़ों का होना असंभव है। इससे छिपकली परेशान है। घर में खाना न होने से कानी कुतिया और चूहे भी परेशान हैं।

प्रश्ना 3.
घर में रहनेवाले मानव और जीव-जंतुओं की किस समान भावना को कवि ने इस कविता में प्रकट किया है?

उत्तर:
चाहे घर के मानव हो या जीव-जंतु, सब भोजन सामग्री के नितांत अभाव में परेशान हैं। उनकी इस विवशता को कवि ने इस कविता में प्रकट किया है।

अकाल और उसके बाद विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
कानी कुतिया कहाँ सोई हुई थी? क्यों?

उत्तर:
कांनी कुतिया उदास रही चक्की के पास सोई हुई थी। क्योंकि उसे कहीं भी खाने को कुछ मिलने की संभावना नहीं थी।

प्रश्ना 2.
दीवारों पर छिपकलियाँ क्या कर रही थीं। ऐसा करने का कारण क्या है?

उत्तर:
छिपकलियाँ दीवारों पर गश्त लगा रहे थे। कठिन अकाल के समय घर में कोई दीया भी जलने की संभावना न होगी। ऐसे में छिपकलियों के लिए कीड़ों को मिलना भी मुश्किल है। इसलिए वे गश्त लगा रहे होंगे।

प्रश्ना 3.
‘चमक उठी घर भर की आँखें’ -इस प्रयोग का मतलब क्या होगा?

उत्तर:
आँखें जीव-जंतुओं की होती हैं। लेकिन यहाँ कवि ने निर्जीव वस्तुओं में भी मानवीय गुण का आरोप किया है। ऐसे में चूल्हा, चक्की, कुतिया, छिपकली, चूहा आदि घर के सब निर्जीव और सजीव घर में दाने आने के कारण खुश हैं। यही इसका मतलब है।

अकाल और उसके बाद विधात्मक प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
कविता की प्रासंगिकता पर टिप्पणी लिखें।

उत्तर:
अकाल और उसके बाद
इस छोटी-सी कविता के चार पंक्तियों में अकाल का विवरण है और चार पंक्तियों उसके बाद का दृश्य। इन चार पंक्तियों में भी “कई दिनों तक” हर पंक्ति के शुरू में बार-बार दुहराया जाता है। इसके बाद बहुत थोड़े-से सरल शब्द बजते हैं जिसमें अकाल की कथा कही गई है। इस अकाल कथा की पहली चार पंक्तियों में मनुष्य कहीं नहीं है। बिंबों में चूल्हा-चक्की है, कानी कुतिया है, चूहे हैं और छिपकलियाँ हैं।

अनाज नहीं है तो चूल्हा और चक्की तो उदास और उतरे हुए मुँह के होंगे ही। कुतिया है वह भी कानी। क्योंकि गरीब घर की है। संपन्न घर के कुत्ते तो झबरे बालों वाले सुंदर कुत्ते होते हैं। रोटी की आस में चक्की के पास पड़े नहीं रहते। छिपकलियाँ भला क्यों भीतर परेशान हाल गश्त लगा रही है? क्योंकि वे तो दाल-रोटी खाती नहीं हैं, कीड़े खाती हैं। लेकिन जिस घर में भोजन नहीं है वहाँ तेल क्या होगा! लिहाजा रात को घर में दीया भी नहीं जलता होगा और कीड़े तो रात की रोशनी में आते हैं। दिन की रोशनी में नहीं आते। ऐसे में छिपकलियाँ भी भूख की मारी हैं। चूहे तो कुत्ते की तरह स्वामीभक्त होते नहीं। शिकस्ता हाल चूहे उस घर में कर क्या रहे हैं? चूंकि अकाल पड़ा है, इसलिए गाँव के किसी घर में अन्न नहीं होगा। वरना चूहे वहाँ चले जाते। खेतों में तो अन्न होने का सवाल ही नहीं उठता! वरना हम जानते हैं कि चूहे खेतों से अन्न चुराकर अपने बिलों में घसीट ले जाते हैं।

बाद की चार पंक्तियों में हर पंक्ति का अंत ‘कई दिनों के बाद’ से होता है। जो भी होता है हर पंक्ति में कई दिनों के बाद’ होता है। घर के भीतर दाने आते हैं। घर भर की आँखें चमक उठती हैं। अभी भोजन बना नहीं है। लेकिन अन्न की आहट ने ही आँखों में रोशनी भर दी है। उम्मीद इसी तरह रोशनी लाती है। फिर धुआँ उठता है छप्पर के ऊपर ! यानि चूल्हा जल गया है। यह धुआँ शुभ संकेत दे रहा है।

और कौए अब अपने पंख खुजला रहे हैं। क्योंकि इन पंखों से वे बहुत तेज़ी से उठते हैं और किसी भी थाली में झपट्टा मारके अपने हिस्से की रोटी ले उठते हैं। . धुआँ देखकर वे भी उम्मीद से भर उठते हैं। कुत्ते, चूहे, छिपकलियाँ और कौए भी सामाजिक प्राणी हैं। वे बस्तियों में, घर में मनुष्यों के साथ ही रहना चाहते हैं। उजाड़ में नहीं।

प्रश्ना 2.
‘कौए ने खुजलाई पाँखें कई दिनों के बाद’ – कविता के संदर्भ में पंक्ति का विश्लेषण करें।
उत्तर:
कवि अकाल के बाद की स्थिति को सामने लाते हैं। अकाल की भयावह स्थिति से बेचारा कौआ भी हतबुद्धि था। लेकिन झूठ-मूठ की आशा जगते ही वह प्रबुद्ध होकर पंख खुजलाने लगा। कविता का दूसरा अंश, निम्नवर्गीय समाज की जिजीविषा और उसकी संघर्षशील प्रवृत्ति को सामने लाता है। यह बड़ी बात है कि भारतीय समाज का यह हिस्सा अत्यंत धैर्य से भरा है। वह अकाल में बेघर होता है, न जाने किन-किन कैंप-खंडहरों में शरण लेता है, फिर अपने नीड़ में लौटता है और फिर से उसका चूल्हा जलता है। यह कविता भारतीय समाज में परिवार के उस गठन को भी सामने लाती है जिसमें मनुष्य के साथ ही पशु-पक्षियों का भी बसेरा होता है।

अकाल और उसके बाद Summary in Malayalam and Translation

अकाल और उसके बाद शब्दार्थ

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions Chapter 6 Struggle and Freedom

Answer the following. Score 1 each.

A. Choose the correct answer.

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Important Questions Question 1.
The first Satyagraha organised by Gandhiji in India after returning from South Africa
Champaran Satyagraha
Ahmedabad Cotton Mill Strike
Kheda Satyagraha
Answer:
Champaran Satyagraha

Question 2.
The first of the regional agitation led by Gandhiji.
Khilafat Movement
Kheda Satyagraha
Champaran Satyagraha
Answer:
Champaran Satyagraha, 1917

Question 3.
Who directed the film ‘Gandhi’?
Syam Benagal
Richard Attenborough
Rajath Kapoor
Answer:
Richard Attenborough

Question 4.
The Act passed by the British Parliament in 1919 by which a person could be arrested and imprisoned without trial
Rowlatt Act
Minto-Morley Act
The Act of 1919
Answer:
Rowlatt Act

Question 5.
The Chairman of the Committee which recommended the Rowlatt Act
Sir Alan Rowlatt
Sir Sydney Rowlatt
Sir William Rowlatt
Answer:
Sir Sydney Rowlatt

Question 6.
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on
3 April 1919
13 April 1919
11 April 1919
Answer:
13 April 1919

Question 7.
The army chief who was responsible for the Jallian wala Bagh Massacre
General Dyer
General Sanderson
General Franco
Answer:
General Dyer

Question 8.
The first national level struggle by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Gandhiji
Khilafat movement
Non-Co-operation movement
Salt Satyagraha
Answer:
Non-Co-operation movement

Question 9.
The President of the Lahore Congress Session of 1929
Mahatma Gandhi
Jawaharlal Nehru
Subash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 10.
Quit India struggle began in the year
1942
1941
1943
Answer:
1942

Question 11.
The military wing started by Hindustan Socialist Republican Association for armed rebellion
Anuseelan Samiti
Indian National Army
Indian Republican Army
Answer:
Indian Republican Army

Question 12.
Who founded Abhinav Bharat Society?
V.D.Savarkar
Surya Sen
Sukh Dev
Answer:
V.D.Savarkar

Question 13.
The founder of Indian Republican Army
Lala Hardayal
Surya Sen
Bareenderkumar Ghosh
Answer:
Surya Sen

Question 14.
Under whose leadership was the Congress Socialist Party formed in 1934?
Jai Prakash Narayan
Jawaharlal Nehru
Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Jai Prakash Narayan

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Pdf Question 15.
The political party formed by Subhash Chandra Bose
Congress Socialist Party
Ghadar Party
Forward Bloc
Answer:
Forward Bloc

Question 16.
The founder of Indian National Army
Rash Bihari Bose
Subhash Chandra Bose
Captian Lakshmi
Answer:
Rash Bihari Bose

Question 17.
The centre of Salt Satyagraha in Kerala
Payyannur
Kozhikode
Thiruvananthapuram
Answer:
Payyannur

Question 18.
The founder of Ghadar Party
Lala Hardayal
Surya Sen
V.D.Savarkar
Answer:
Lala Hardayal

Question 19.
Who is known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?
Maulana Abdul Kalam
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

Question 20.
The last British Viceroy of India
Lord Mountbatten
Lord Wavel
Clement Atlee
Answer:
Lord Mountbatten

Question 21.
The first martyr of Indian freedom struggle from South India
Bhagat Singh
Vanchi Iyer
Raj Guru
Answer:
Vanchi Iyer

Question 22.
Which was the last popular protest organized by the Indian National Congress under the leadership of Gandhiji?
Answer:
Quit India Movement

B. Answer in a sentence each.

Question 1.
What was the reason for the Ahmedabad cotton mill strike of 1918?
Answer:
Cotton mill workers in Ahmedabad started their strike in 1918 when they were denied ‘Plague Bonus’. During the plague outbreak in Ahmedabad in 1917, the labourers were given a bonus up to 80% of their wages to prevent labourers from quitting the job for fear of plague. When the plague threat was over, this bonus was withdrawn and the labourers started agitation against it.

Question 2.
Where was All India Kisan Congress formed? Name the leader who took efforts to form it.
Answer:

• Lahore
• N.G Renga

Question 3.
‘If the Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for British rule, Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation’. Whose words are these? When was this said?
Answer:
Gandhiji said this after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

Question 4.
Name the national educational institutions started in India during the Non co-operation struggle.
Answer:

• Kashi Vidya Pith
• Gujarat Vidya Pith
• Jamia Millia

Question 5.
Who were the leaders of Indian Khilafat Movement?
Answer:

• Maulana Mohammad Ali
• Maulana Shoukath Ali

Question 6.
What were the important decisions of the Lahore Congress Session of1929? Who was its Chairman?
Answer:

• The Session declared that the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle was to attain complete freedom.
• It also decided to start the Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji.
• Jawaharlal Nehru was the Chairman.

Question 7.
When did the Quit India struggle begin? What was the slogan given by Gandhiji in this struggle?
Answer:

• Quit India struggle began in August 1942.
• Gandhiji gave the slogan ’Do or Die’.

Class 10 History Chapter 6 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
When was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association formed? Who were its main leaders?
Answer:

• Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was formed in Delhi in 1928 by the revolutionaries of Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
• Its main leaders were Bhagat Singh, Chandra Sekhar Azad, Raj Guru and Sukh Dev.

Question 9.
Why did Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt throw bomb at the Central Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
To protest against the attempts to pass laws curtailing civil rights.

Question 10.
Who were the founders of Anuseelan Samiti?
Answer:

• Bareender Kumar Ghosh
• Pulin Bihari Das

Question 11.
What was the name of the women wing of Indian National Army? Who was in charge of this regiment?
Answer:

• Jhansi Regiment
• Captain Lakshmi

Question 12.
Which were the earlier labour unions formed in India?
Answer:

• Ahmedabad Textiles Association
• Madras Labour Union
• All India Trade Union Congress

Question 13.
Who were the leaders of the All India Trade Union Congress at the time of its formation in 1920?
Answer:

• N.M. Joshi
• Lala Lajpat Rai

Question 14.
Name the British Prime Minister who agreed to the independence of India. To which political party did he belong?
Answer:

• Clement Atlee
• Labour Party

Question 15.
What was Mountbatten Plan?
Answer:
The strategy prepared by Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India, for the transfer of power, by dividing India into India and Pakistan.

Question 16.
When was the Indian Independence Act passed?
Answer:

• The British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act in July 1947.
• As per this Act, two free nations – India and Pakistan came into existence.

Question 17.
Who gave leadership to the anti-Rowlatt agitations in Punjab?
Answer:

• Saifuddin Kitchlew
• Satyapal

Question 18.
People’s protest against the Act which violated civil rights resulted in the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre? Which was that Act?
Answer:
RowlattAct, 1919

Question 19.
How did Gandhiji respond to jallianwala Bagh Massacre?
Answer:
If the battle of plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, the Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation.

Question 20.
Why did Gandhiji stop Non-Cooperation Movement after the Chauri Chaura incident?
Answer:
People turned to violence and Gandhiji was disappointed.

Question 21.
What did Gandhiji aim by Civil Disobedience?
Answer:
To disobey all anti-democratic and anti-popular civil laws made by the British government.

Question 22.
Who gave leadership to Dharasana struggle?
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu. It was a struggle in connection with Salt Satyagraha.

Answer the following. Score 2 each.

Question 1.
Write a note on the role of Gandhiji in the indigo farmers’ protest at Champaran.
Answer:
The indigo farmers of Champaran were exploited by the European planters. Gandhiji intervened.in the problems faced by the indigo farmers in Champaran and adopted the strategies of disobedience of British laws and Satyagraha. His involvement compelled the authorities to pass laws in favour of the indigo farmers. After the struggle in Champaran, Gandhiji worked for the progress of this region by establishing primary schools, initiating medical aids and involving in cleaning activities.

Question 2.
What was the reason for the Kheda agitation?
Answer:
The rulers decided to collect tax from the farmers of Kheda who were living in utter misery due to drought and crop failure. Gandhiji used the weapons of Satyagraha and non payment of tax in this agitation. The authorities agreed to reduce tax rates.

Question 3.
What was Rowlatt Act?
Answer:

• In the pretext of preventing extremist activities, the British Parliament passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919 limiting civil rights. As per this Act, any person could be arrested and imprisoned without trial.
• The Committee which recommended this Act was led by Sir Sydney Rowlatt.

Question 4.
What was the reason for Khilafat Movement?
Answer:

• Khilafat Movement was the worldwide protest against the efforts of Britain which tried to limit the power of Khalifa, the ruler of Turkey and the spiritual leader of world Muslims, after the First World War.
• In India, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Moulana Shoukath Ali gave leadership to Khilafat agitation.

Question 5.
Gandhiji supported the Khilafat agitation and used it as a forum to propagate his ideologies. What were its results?
Answer:

• Hindu-Muslim unity was intensified.
• Anti British feeling spread to the nook and comer of India.

Question 6.
Why did Gandhiji use salt as a tool of protest
against the British?
Answer:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• The tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.

Question 7.
Which were the main centres of Salt Satyagraha in India?
Answer:

• Dandi – Gujarat
• Payyannur – Kerala
• Vedaranyam – Tamil Nadu
• Bombay – Maharashtra
• Noakhali – Bengal

Question 8.
Write a note on Congress Socialist Party.
Answer:

• Taking cue from the Russian Revolution, socialist ideologies started to spread in India.
• At a meeting under the chairmanship of Jai Prakash Narayan in Bombay in 1934, the Congress Socialist Party was formed.
  During the Quit India agitation, leaders like Jai Prakash Narayan and Aruna Asaf Ali led the movement from their hideouts.

Question 9.
Who is known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’? Why is he called so?
Answer:

• Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan is called Frontier Gandhi.
• Gaffer Khan led countless agitations in the North West frontiers. Tried his best for Hindu- Muslim unity. Strongly opposed the dual nation theory.

Question 10.
What was the objective of Gandhi in travelling across India with the Khilafat leaders to propagate ideas?
Answer:

• To intensify Hindu – Muslim unity
• To spread anti – British feeling to the nook and corner of the nation.

Question 11.
Write the result of the rise of the movements of workers and peasants.
Answer:

• Organization of labourers and farmers and their subsequent protests energised Indian National Movement.
• Their policy of equally opposing the imperialist policies of the British government as well as the feudal system that existed in India triggered agitations and revolts in various parts of the country. E.g. Tebhga struggle.

Question 12.
Who were the leaders of Congress Socialist Party?
Answer:

• Jawaharlal Nehru
• Subhash Chandra Bose
• Jai Prakash Narayan
• Aruna Asaf Ali

Answer the following. Score 3 each.

Question 1.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the sun diagram on the characteristics of Non-Co-operation Movement.

Answer:

Question 3.
Write on the functioning of Hindustan Socialist Republican Organisation that adopted an approach different from Gandhian way of struggle for freedom.
Answer:
Revolutionaries from Punjab, Rajasthan, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh gathered in Delhi and formed the revolutionary organisation Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928. Bhagat Singh, Chandra Sekhar Azad, Raj Guru and Sukh Dev were the main leaders. They floated a military wing called Republican Army for armed revolution. Their plan was to overthrow the colonial government through military action and establish a federal republic of Indian states.

Question 4.
What led to the formation of peasant agitations in India?
Answer:

• The tax laws of the British
• Severe exploitation of the Zamindars
• Low price of agricultural produces

Question 5.
Match the agitations and places suitably.

Answer:

Question 6.
Write a note on Round Table Conferences.
Answer:
The British government convened in London three Round Table Conferences in 1930,1931 and 1932 to discuss the administrative reforms to be implemented in India. Representatives of Indian political parties, princely states and other organizations were invited to attend the conference. The Indian National Congress boycotted the first and third conferences. Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Conference as the representative of Indian National Congress.

Question 7.
Examine the factors that caused Quit India Movement.
Answer:

• Reluctance of the British to implement constitutional reforms in India.
• Public disgust with price hike and famine.
• The assumption that the British would be defeated in the Second World War.

Question 8.
What were the main objectives of the All India Trade Union Congress formed in 1920? Who were the main leaders at the time?
Answer:

• To organise and act as a working class.
• To facilitate Indian working class to co-operate with the working class outside India.
• To participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.
• Leaders were N.M. Joshy and Lala Lajpat Rai.

Question 9.
Which plan proposed that Punjab and Bengal should be partitioned? Write other two recommendations of the plan.
Answer:

• Mountbatten Plan
• Other recommendations:
  • To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per their wish.
  • To appoint a Commission to determine the borders in Punjab and Bengal.

Question 10.
Give a short description about the role of Subhash Chandra Bose in Indian National Movement.
Answer:
Subhash Chandra Bose was a leading figure in Indian freedom movement. At various stages of the national movement, he expressed his difference of opinion on Gandhian ideas of struggle. Quitting the Congress, he formed a political party called ‘Forward Bloc’. He took charge of the Indian National Army formed by Rash Bihari Bose to attain freedom for India.

He formed a provisional government for free India in Singapore, with the aim of forcing the British to quit India. With the support of the Japanese army, the Indian National Army marched to the northeast border of India and hoisted the Indian flag in Imphal.

Answer the following. Score 4 each.

Question 1.
The first national struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the Non Co-operation movement. Examine the characteristics of Non co-operation Movement.
Answer:

• Denial of taxes
• Boycott foreign products
• Boycott elections
• Lawyers shall boycott courts
• Students shall boycott English schools

Question 2.
Find out examples to show how the Indian society responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for Non Co-operation.
Or
How did people respond to Gandhiji’s appeal for Non Co-operation?
Answer:

• Workers in various parts of India struck work.
• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• Farmers in Uttar Pradesh refused to carry the luggage of the colonial officials.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest produces violating the forest laws.
• The public including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Question 3.
Match the columns suitably.

Answer:

Question 4.
Arrange the following in chronological order.

• Chauri Chaura incident
• Quit India Movement
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
• Kheda Peasant struggle

Answer:

• Kheda Peasant Struggle (1918)
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919)
• Chauri Chaura incident (1922)
• Quit India Movement (1942)

Question 5.
What were the proposals put forward by Gandhiji as part of Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary to top officials.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Question 6.
What were the instructions that Gandhiji gave to the people as part of Quit India Movement?
Answer:

• Farmers shall not pay land tax.
• Princely states shall recognise the sovereignty of their people.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• If possible, students shall boycott schools till obtaining freedom.

Question 7.
What was Mountbatten Plan? What were its main proposals?
Answer:
Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India prepared a strategy for India’s freedom by dividing it. This was the Mountbatten Plan.
Its Proposals were :

• To divide Punjab and Bengal.
• To appoint a Commission to determine the borders in Punjab and Bengal.
• To form a separate country in Muslim majority area as per the Muslim wish.
• To conduct a referendum to determine whether to add North-West Frontier Province to Pakistan or not.

Question 8.
‘ Name the organisation that framed Kisan Manifesto. Write the demands included in the ‘Kisan Manifesto.
Answer:

• The All India Kisan Samiti Conference held in Bombay prepared Kisan Manifesto.
• Reduce 50% of land tax and lease charge.
• Write off debts.
• Cancel feudal taxes.
• Ensure minimum wage for agricultural workers.
• Recognise peasant unions.

Question 9.
Write the factors that helped Gandhiji to gain the trust and recognition of the common people of India.
Answer:

• Gandhiji became familiar to the Indians after his involvement in addressing the problems of the Indian expatriates in South Africa.
• His protests in South Africa made him famous.
• Gandhiji was very popular because he lived among the common people and his food and clothing was similar to that of the common man in India and he spoke in their language
• Common people found in Gandhiji a saviour who could solve their problems.

Question 10.
Write the main constructive programmes during the Non Co-operation movement.
Or
Along with Non Co-operation, constructive programmes were also given importance. Elucidate.
Answer:

• Established national educational institutions.
• People made indigenous products.
• Spun khadi clothes using charka.
• Participated to eradicate untouchability.
• Popularised Hindi.

Question 11.
Examine the reasons why Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon against the British during the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930?
Answer:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• Salt tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• British government banned small scale indigenous salt production.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of society.

Question 12.
Write the factors that forced Britain to give
independence to India.
Answer:

• The collapse of imperialism in the world after the Second World War.
• Consequent to financial crisis, Britain lost its capacity to maintain colonies.
• Freedom struggles in the colonies of Asia and Africa intensified.
• The super power USA and Soviet Union were against colonialism.

Question 13.
What were the common characteristics of the early struggles under Gandhiji?
Answer:

• The early struggles were originated and based on economic issues.
• Adopted the methods of non payment of tax and Satyagraha.
• Received the help of regional leaders.
• His methods of struggle made him acceptable to all sections of people.
• People got the belief that Gandhiji could solve the problems of people.

Question 14.
How did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre influence Indian National Movement?
Answer:
Rowlatt Act limited the civil right of Indians. People gathered at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar on 13 April 1919 to protest against the arrest of those who led anti – Rowlatt agitations in Punjab. The army chief ordered to shoot without warning and this resulted in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.

The massacre intensified the protests at the national level. ‘Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation of British rule’, Gandhiji said. Anti – British feeling fuelled and strengthened the national movement. People became very courageous to fight against the British.

Question 15.
Which were the labour and peasant organisations formed after the Russian Revolution? What were their main objectives?
Answer:

• Ahmedabad Textile Association
• Madras Labour Union
• All India Trade Union Congress
• Objectives:
  • To organise and act as a working class.
  • To participate actively in the Indian freedom struggle.

Answer the following. Score 5,6 each.

Question 1.
Examine the role of Gandhiji in Indian freedom struggle.
Answer:
The period from 1917 to 1947 in Indian history is known as Gandhian era.

Gandhiji and Champaran Satyagraha:
Gandhiji started his social activities in India by intervening in the problems faced by the indigo farmers in Champaran in 1917. In Champaran, he resorted to disobedience of British laws and Satyagraha. His involvement compelled the authorities to pass laws in favour of the indigo farmers.

Gandhiji and Ahmedabad Cotton Mill Strike:
Cotton mill workers in Ahmedabad started their strike in 1918 when they were denied plague bonus. Gandhiji adopted the tools of disobedience of British laws and Satyagraha here also. Following his Satyagraha, the authorities agreed to hike the wages of the employees.

Gandhiji and Kheda peasant struggle:
The rulers decided to collect tax from the poor farmers of Kheda who were living in utter misery due to drought and crop failure. Starting Satyagraha, Gandhiji protested against the decision. He advised the people not to pay tax. As a result, the authorities were forced to reduce tax.

Gandhiji and Rowlatt Act:
When the protests against Rowlatt Act failed, Gandhiji suggested starting Satyagraha. Vigorously reacting to this proposal, people in various parts of the country went to the streets and started demonstrations and strikes. The massacre at Jallianwala Bagh intensified the protest against the British. Gandhiji said about the Jallianwala Bagh massacre: ‘If the Battle of Plassey laid the foundation for the British rule, Jallianwala Bagh shook the foundation’.

Gandhiji and Non-Co-operation Movement:
The first national level struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the non co-operation movement. The confidence gained from the anti- Rowlatt protest motivated Gandhiji to declare non co-operation against the British. The methods of agitation were denial of taxes, boycott foreign goods, boycott elections, etc.

In addition to this, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes like making indigenous products, spinning Khadi cloth using charka, establishing national educational institutions, popularising Hindi and eradicating untouchability. Non co-operation movement had a great role in making the national movement a grass root mass movement. But he suspended the Non cooperation movement due to the Chauri Chaura incident.

Gandhiji and Civil Disobedience:
The Lahore Congress Session of 1929 decided to launch a Civil Disobedience Movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. With the civil disobedience, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic laws made by the British government. As part of the movement, Gandhiji demanded to lift salt tax, to declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers and to release political prisoners. Gandhiji selected salt as a powerful weapon against the British.

The Civil Disobedience Movement began with the Dandi March in 1930. Gandhiji broke the salt law by making salt. Inspired by the call of Gandhiji, people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations. The British government arrested Gandhiji and suppressed the movement callously.

Gandhiji and Quit India Movement:
The Quit India Movement was the last popular protest organised by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji. It was a mass movement based on the ideology of non-violence, meant to force the British to leave the country, offering complete freedom to Indians. As part of the movement, Gandhiji called for:

• Princely states shall recognize the sovereignty of their people.
• Farmers shall not pay land tax.

Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’ to the Indians. The movement became strong all over India. The British government in India began to shake. But the government suppressed the movement very severely and arrested leaders including Gandhiji.
Gandhian ideas played a major role in making the national movement a mass movement and finally achieving independence.

Question 2.
Examine the relevance of Non-Co-operation Movement and Quit India Movement in Indian freedom struggle.
Answer:
Indian freedom movement became a mass movement after the adoption of Non-Co-operation movement.

Non-Co-operation Movement:
The first national level struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the Non-Co-operation movement. It was a novel agitation of not to co-operate with the British. The characteristics of Non- co-operation policy were:

• Denial of taxes
• Returning the British awards and prizes
• Boycott elections
• Boycott foreign goods
• Lawyers shall boycott courts
• Students shall boycott English schools

In addition to his appeal for Non-Co-operation, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes like making indigenous products, spinning khadi cloth using charka, establishing national educational institutions, popularising Hindi and eradicating untouchability. Kashi Vidya Pith, Gujarat VidyaPith and Jamia Millia were some of the national educational institutions started during this period.
People in different parts of India responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for non co-operation.

• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• Workers struck work.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest products violating the forest laws.
• Lawyers boycotted courts.
• Students quitted colleges and schools run by the British.
• The public, including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Non-Co-operation movement had a major role in making the national movement, which was till then confined to the elite of the society, a grass root mass movement. However, Gandhiji withdrew the movement following the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922.

Quit India Movement:
The Quit India Movement was the third mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British. It was a mass movement based on the ideology of nonviolence meant to force the British to leave the country offering complete freedom to Indians. As part of the movement, Gandhiji called for:

• Farmers shall not pay tax.
• Princely states shall recognise the sovereignty of their people.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’ to the common people. The Quit India Movement began on August 8,1942. The next day, Gandhiji and all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested. In protest, the uncontrolled mob demolished government offices, electric lines and railway lines. At the end of 1942, India was under the fire of popular unrest. The British government suppressed the movement very severely. The Quit India movement was a clear indication of the people’s determination to grab freedom for their country.

Question 3.
By making salt as a tool of protest, Gandhiji proved that any trivial issue can be snowballed into a popular strategy to trigger public protest and intensify a mass movement. Examine this statement in the light of Civil Disobedience Movement launched by Gandhiji.
Answer:
Civil Disobedience Movement:
The Lahore Congress Session of 1929 decided to start a civil disobedience movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. This was the second mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British.

With the civil disobedience movement, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic laws made by the British government. As part of the movement, Gandhiji proposed the following.

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of top officials.
• To dissolve the secret surveillance wing formed to watch Indians.
• To start coastal shipping service.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Gandhiji gave top priority to reducing salt tax due to a variety of reasons. He selected salt as a powerful tool against the British because:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• Salt tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The British government banned small scale indegenous salt production.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Gandhiji began the civil disobedience with Salt Satyagraha. The Salt Satyagraha began with the famous Dandi March by Gandhiji on 30 March, 1930. Gandhiji along with 78 followers marched from Sabarmali Ashram to Dandi, a coastal village in Gujarat. He broke the salt law by making salt. Inspired by the call of Gandhiji, people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations.

Payyannur in Kerala, Vedaranyam in Tamil Nadu, Bombay in Maharashtra, Naokhali in Bengal and North West Frontier Province were some of the centres of this protest. As part of the protest, volunteers made salt and distributed it to the people, hoisted national flag and chanted anti- British slogans. Gandhiji was arrested and the movement was suppressed callously.

Struggle And Freedom Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Which are the three major struggles organised under the leadership of Gandhiji? Explain each of them.
Answer:

• Non – Co – operation movement
• Civil Disobedience (Salt Satyagraha)
• Quit India movement

Non – Co-operation movement :
The first national level struggle by the INC under the leadership of Gandhiji was the Non-Co-operation movement. It was a novel agitation of not to co-operate with the British. The characteristics of Non- co-operation policy were:

• Denial of taxes
• Returning the British awards and prizes
• Boycott elections
• Boycott foreign goods
• Lawyers shall boycott courts
• Students shall boycott English schools

In addition to his appeal for Non-Co-operation, Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes like making indigenous products, spinning khadi cloth using charka, establishing national educational institutions, popularising Hindi and eradicating untouchability. Kashi Vidya Pith, Gujarat Vidya Pith and Jamia Millia were some of the national educational institutions started during this period.
People in different parts of India responded to Gandhiji’s appeal for non co-operation.

• Farmers in Awadh refused to pay taxes.
• Workers struck work.
• The tribal groups in northern Andhra entered the forests and collected the forest products violating the forest laws.
• Lawyers boycotted courts.
• Students quitted colleges and schools run by the British.
• The public, including women, burnt foreign clothes on the streets.

Non-Co-operation movement had a major role in making the national movement, which was till then confined to the elite of the society, a grass root mass movement. However, Gandhiji withdrew the movement following the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922.

Civil Disobedience Movement:
The Lahore Congress Session of 1929 decided to start a civil disobedience movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. This was the second mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British.

With the civil disobedience movement, Gandhiji meant to disobey all anti-popular and antidemocratic civil laws made by the British government. As part of the movement, Gandhiji proposed the following.

• To lift salt tax.
• To declare 50% tax relaxation for farmers.
• To increase the tax on imported foreign clothes.
• To release political prisoners.
• To cut short military budget and high salary of top officials.
• To dissolve the secret surveillance wing formed to watch Indians.
• To start coastal shipping service.
• To implement prohibition of liquor.

Gandhiji gave top priority to reducing salt tax due to a variety of reasons. He selected salt as a powerful tool against the British because:

• Salt tax constituted two fifth portion of the income collected by the British through taxes.
• Salt tax was a heavy burden for the poor people.
• There was three fold hike on salt price.
• The British government banned small scale indegenous salt production.
• The demand for lifting salt tax was a slogan suitable to inspire all segments of the society.

Gandhiji began the civil disobedience with Salt Satyagraha. The Salt Satyagraha began with the famous Dandi March by Gandhiji on 30 March, 1930. Gandhiji along with 78 followers marched from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, a coastal village in Gujarat.

He broke the salt law by making salt. Inspired by the call of Gandhiji, people in various parts of the country started to produce salt on their own, violating the British regulations. Payyannur in Kerala, Vedaranyam in Tamil Nadu, Bombay in Maharashtra, Naokhali in Bengal and North West Frontier Province were some of the centres of this protest.

Quit India Movement:
The Quit India Movement was the third mass movement launched by Gandhiji against the British. It was a mass movement based on the ideology of non¬violence meant to force the British to leave the country offering complete freedom to Indians.
As part of the movement, Gandhiji called for:

• Farmers shall not pay tax.
• Princely states shall recognise the sovereignty of their people.
• Government officials shall disclose their loyalty to Indian National Congress without resigning their positions.
• Without quitting their positions in the army, soldiers shall disobey orders to shoot and kill Indians.
• If possible, students shall boycott education till attaining freedom.

Gandhiji gave the slogan ‘Do or Die’ to the common people. The Quit India Movement began on August 8, 1942. The next day, Gandhiji and all the top leaders of the Congress were arrested. In protest, the uncontrolled mob demolished government offices, electric lines and railway lines. At the end of 1942, India was under the fire of popular unrest. The British government suppressed the movement very severely. The Quit India movement was a clear indication Of the people’s determination to grab freedom for their country.

Question 5.
Match the items related to Column A from Columns B and C.

Answer:

Question 6.
Match suitably.

Answer:

Question 7.
Prepare a Timeline using the events and years.

• Lahore Congress Session
• Second Round Table Conference
• Champaran Satyagraha
• Quit India Movement
• Chauri Chaura Incident

Answer:

Question 8.
Arrange the following in chronological order.

• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
• Non Co-operation Movement
• Ahmedabad Cotton Mill strike
• Bombay Naval Mutiny
• Formation of Swaraj Party

Answer:

• Ahmedabad Cotton Mi 11 strike (1918)
• Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919)
• Non Co-operation Movement (1921)
• Formation of Swaraj Party (1923)
• Bombay Naval Mutiny (1946)

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Important Questions

You can Download Forces in Fluids Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 1 Forces in Fluids

Forces in Fluids Textual Questions and Answers

Activity

Class 9 Physics Forces Of Fluids Kerala Scert Solutions Question 1.
Take water in a bucket. Place a tightly closed bottle on it. What do you observe?
Answer:
Bottle floats on water surface

Physics Class 9 Chapter 1 Forces In Fluids Notes Question 2.
Immerse the plastic bottle to the bottom of the bucket. Don’t you have to exert a force? Why is it so?
Answer:
It is because water exerts an upward force

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Chapter 1 Question 3.
Leave the bottle free. What do you observe?
Answer:
Bottle rises to the surface of water

Forces In Fluids Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus 9th Question 4.
When an object in water is lifted, what happens? What can be the reason?
Answer:
When an object in water is lifted, its weight appears diminished, when compared to that in air.
It is because water exerts an upward force on a body placed in it.
Fluids: Liquids and gases together are generally called fluids.
Buoyancy: When a body is immersed completely or partially in a liquid, the liquid exerts an upward force on the body. This force is the buoyancy.

Class 9 Physics Forces Of Fluids Kerala Scert Worksheets Question 5.
Tabulate some situations in your daily life where buoyant forces are experienced in liquids and gases.
Answer:

• A hydrogen-filled balloon rises in the air.
• Ships float on the surface of water.
• Submarines work by controlling the upthrust of water.
• While drawing water from well, weightlessness is felt when the bucket is underwater level.
• Life jacket floats on the surface of water.

To Measure Buoyancy?

Experiment:
Aim: To find method to measure the buoyancy experienced by a body in a liquid.
Materials: Stone, piece of metal, water, beaker, spring balance.
Procedure: Take a piece of stone and a piece of metal of almost the same size. Find out the weight of each in air using a spring balance calibrated in newton. Then find the weight of each of them when immersed in water. Record the data obtained in table.

Observation: The stone and the metal piece lose weight in water.
Conclusion: Buoyancy is the same as the loss of weight experience in water. That is in order to calculate the buoyancy experienced by a substance immersed in a fluid, it is enough to find out the loss of weight of the substance in that fluid.
Buopyant force of liquid = loss of weight

Factors That Influence Buoyancy

Experiment: To find the factors that influence buoyancy
Materials: Water, Kerosene, Saline water, beakers, spring balance, stone, copper block and iron block of same weight etc.
Activity 1: Take water, kerosene and saline water in three separate beakers. Find out the buoyancy of these liquids which is exerted on a piece of stone and tabulate.

• The stone experiences maximum buoyancy in saline water.
• The stone experiences least buoyancy in kerosene. Density of Kerosene is lower than that of other liquids.

Analysis:

Saline water has greatest density and kerosene has least density. As density increases, buoyancy also increases.
Conclusion
Density of a liquid is a factor that influences the buoyancy of a body in that liquid. As density of the liquid increases buoyancy increases.
Activity: Calculate the buoyancy exerted by water on two blocks of equal weight, one of copper and the other of iron.

Observation:

• Buoyancy experienced by each block can be seen different.
• Buoyancy exerted by water on copper block is greater and on iron block is less.

Analysis: The mass and weight of the copper and the iron blocks are the same. But their volumes are different. Copper block has greater volume, and the buoyancy experienced by copper block is greater. Iron block has less volume and the buoyancy experienced by iron block is less.
Conclusion: The buoyancy acting on a body depends also on its volume.

Archimedes principle

Experiment:
Aim: To find whether there is any relation between the weight of the fluid displaced and its buoyancy when an object is in a fluid.
Materials: Store, water, spring balance, overflowing jar, beaker, iron block

Activity: Find out the buoyancy of a piece of stone and an iron block in water. Simultaneously, using an overflowing jar, find out the volume of water they dis¬placed. Find out the weight of water overflowed using a spring balance. Tabulate the results in table.
Observation:

• The loss of weight of the stone in water (buoyancy) is the same as the weight of water overflowed.
• The loss of weight of the iron block in water (buoyancy) is the same as the weight of water overflowed.

Conclusion: The buoyancy experienced by an object in a liquid will be equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.
Archimedes principle:
When an object is immersed partially or completely in a liquid, the buoyancy experienced by it will be equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.

Archimedes:
Archimedes was born in 273 BC at Syracuse, a port city in Italy. He lived during the rule of Hiero II. King Heiro commissioned a goldsmith to fabricate a crown. He commanded Archimedes to find out whether there was any impurity in the crown. This problem confounded him. He knew that the density of pure gold could be calculated by dividing the mass of the gold bar by its volume.

His confusion was how to calculate the volume without damaging the crown. When he stepped into his bath, he could see water overflowing. This made him realise that he could calculate the volume of an object, by finding the volume of the water displaced by the same. By finding the density and volume of the gold he could prove that the crown contained impurities. He was stabbed to death by a Roman soldier in 212 BC during the Punic War. This happened when he was engaged in the complicated mathematical activities related to circle.

Forces In Fluids Worksheet Answers Kerala Syllabus 9th Floatation

Activity: Make a small vessel using aluminium foil of length and breadth 10 cm each. Place this small vessel on the surface of water in a trough. Then unfold the vessel of aluminium foil. Fold it till it becomes a small piece. Then put it in water.

Observation:

• The aluminium foil vessel floats on water.
• The folded foil sink in water.

Activity 2: Put some pieces of stone, wood, rubber cork etc., one by one into water. Note down the items which float on water. Find out the buoyancy and the weight of the water displaced by each floating body and record them in table. Observation: In the case of the floating object the buoyancy and weight of the displaced water is same.
Conclusion: A body float on a liquid when the weight of body is equal to the weight of displaced water.
Law of floatation:
Weight of a floating body is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Pdf Question 6.
Find out the reasons for the following.
a) A piece of stone experience a loss of weight within water.
b) Though an egg sinks in pure water, it floats on salt water.
c) Kerosene floats on water
d) A ship floats on water
e) When a body was placed in a liquid it remained in the same position.
Answer:
a) It is because of the buoyancy exerted by water.
b) As pure water has lower density it has less buoyancy. Saline water has greater density and has greater density and has greater buoyancy. So an egg sinker in pure water and floats on saltwater.
c) Kerosene has density less than that of water.
d) It is because weight of the ship is equal to the weight of the water displaced by it.
e) Density of the body is same as that of the liquid.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium Question 7.
Does a ship that enters a freshwater lake from the ocean sink more or rise move? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The ship sinks more.
Seawater has more density and has higher buoyancy. Pure water has less density and less buoyancy. So the ship that enters a freshwater lake from the ocean sinks more.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes English Medium Question 8.
What are the factors affecting buoyancy?
Answer:
Density of the liquid and volume of the body

9th Standard Physics Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
As density of a liquid increases buoyancy (increases/decrease)
Answer:
increases

Relative Density

Relative density of a substance is the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water.
Relative density = \(\frac{\text { Density of substance }}{\text { Density of water }}\)
Since it is a ratio, relative density has no unit.

Forces In Fluids Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Density of water is =
Answer:
1000 kg/m3

Hsslive 9th Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
How is relative density of kerosene calculated?
Answer:
Relative density of a liquid = \(=\frac{\text { Density of liquid }}{\text { Density of water }}\)

Hsslive Std 9 Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Write examples for liquids of density greater and lesser than that of water.
Answer:

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Malayalam Medium Question 13.
Which device is used to measure the relative density of a liquid?
Answer:
Hydrometer

Question 14.
What will be the reading when the hydrometer is dipped in water?
Answer:
1

Question 15.
Suppose the hydrometer is dipped in a liquid of density greater than that of water. Will the liquid surface be above or below the marking of 1?
Answer:
The liquid surface will be below the marking of 1.

Question 16.
In which case does the hydrometer sink more? In liquids of greater density or those with a lower density?
Answer:
In liquids of lower density.

Question 17.
Why do the markings on the hydrometer increase towards the bottom?
Answer:
When a hydrometer is dipped in a liquid of greater density, the liquid surface will be below the marking of 1. But in a liquid of lower density, the hydrometer sinks more and the liquid surface will be above the marking of 1. Relative density of water is 1, and that of liquids with higher density will be greater than 1 and that of liquids with lower density will be less than 1.

Question 18.
Name two instruments which work on the principle of floatation?
Answer:
Hydrometer:

Lactometer:

Question 19.
Which instrument is used to test the purity of milk?
Answer:
Lactometer

Pascal’S Law

Activity 1: Take a plastic bag without holes and fill it with water. Tie its mouth tightly so that no air gets inside. Make holes on the bag with a pin. Observe what happens?
Observation: There are identical streams of water from all the holes.
Conclusion: Pressure applied at any point of the bag is transmitted equally to entire bag.
Pascal’s Law:
The pressure applied at any point of a liquid at rest in a closed system will be experienced equally at all parts of the liquid.
Volume of a liquid can not be changed using pressure. This is the basis of Pascal’s law.
Activity 2: Fill two identical syringes with water. Connect them with a plastic tube. Then arrange them as shown in figure.

Question 20.
Press slightly on the end X. What do you observe.
Answer:
Y rises up

Question 21.
Bring the ends X and to the same level. Place a slotted weight of 1N (100 gwt) at the end of X. What happens at the end Y?
Answer:
Y rises

Question 22.
Place a weight of 1 N at the end Y as well. What do you observe now?
Answer:
X and Y balance
Then replace the syringe X with one of slightly smaller diameter and repeat the activity.

Question 23.
Are you able to balance with 1N at Y?
No
Now increase the weight at Y and find out the weight required to bring both the ends to the same level.

Question 24.
More weight was required at to attain equilibrium. Is it not due to the increased surface area of water at that end?
Answer:
Yes

It is the figure of a hydraulic jack. Two cylinders of different area of cross-section, filled with water, are connected using a pipe.
A₁ is the area of cross-section of the smaller piston and A₂, that of the bigger one.
When a force F₁ is applied on the piston X, a force F₂ will be experienced on the piston Y. Then according to Pascal’s Law, pressure applied on the side X will be equal to the pressure experienced on the side Y.
So P_x = P_y

If the area of cross-section of the 100 times that of the first piston
A₂ = 100A,
Therefore A₂/A₁ = 100
F₂ = 100F₁
That means the large piston will experience a force of 100N when a force of 1N is applied on the small piston. The amount of work done on the two dies of the tube is equal. Therefore if the section Y is to be raised by 1cm, the section X has to be lowered by 100cm.

Question 25.
Devices constructed on the basis of Pascal’s Law
Answer:

• Hydraulic brake of vehicles
• Hydraulic jack
• Hydraulic press
• Excavator, Hydraulic lift

Capillarity

Activity: Take two boiling tubes, one containing water, and the other mercury. Dip a capillary tube in each tumbler.

Question 26.
What happened to the water level in the capillary tube?
Answer:
Water rises up in the tube
The rising of water in a tube against gravitation or against the weight of water is known as capillary rise.

Question 27.
Does the capillary rise occur in mercury as well? What did you observe?
Answer:
No. depression occurs in the case of mercury.

Capillarity:
The rise or depression of a liquid in a narrow tube or a minute hole is capillarity.
Cohesive Force:
Cohesive force is the force of attraction between molecules of the same type.
Adhesive Force:
Adhesive force is the force of attraction between molecules of different types of substance.

Question 28.
What is the reason for capillary rise?
Answer:
Capillary rise occurs when the adhesive force is greater than the cohesive force.

Question 29.
What is the reason for capillary depression?
Answer:
Capillary depression occurs when the cohesive force is greater than the adhesive force.

Question 30.
Arrange capillary tubes of different diameter on a piece of thermocol. Dip the capillary tubes in water. Compare the capillary rises in the tubes.

a) Which has greater capillary rise?
In the tube of smaller / greater diameter
b) Which has lower capillary rise?
c) How is the diameter of the tube and capillary rise related?
Answer:
a) In the tube of smaller
b) Larger diameter
c) As the diameter of the tube decreases, capillary rise increases. As diameter increases, capillary rise decreases.

Question 31.
Why does the capillary rise increases when the diameter of the tube decreases?
Answer:
Weight of the liquid in the tube is supported by adhesive force. When the diameter of the tube decreases, the weight of the liquid it can contain also decreases. The adhesive force with the tube is greater than the cohesive force of the liquid. So the liquid is able to rise. Capillary rise increases with the decrease in the diameter.

Question 32.
Why does the capillary rise decreases when the diameter is increased?
Answer:
In bigger tube, as the liquid level rises, the volume increases and the weight of the liquid also increases. Capillary rise is opposed by the weight of the liquid in the tube.

Question 33.
How does the oil rise up along the wick made of cotton cloth in lamps?
Answer:
This is due to capillarity. Oil rises up through the narrow capillary tubes in the cotton wick.

Question 34.
Why is the land ploughed before the beginning of summer? Does it have any relation to the capillary rise?
Answer:
When the land is ploughed the separation between the soil particles increases. The diameter of the capillary tubes formed in the soil increases. So the capillary rise decreases. This helps to retain moisture in the soil.

Viscous Force

Place one drop each of kerosene, water, glycerine and honey at various places along a single line at one end of a glass plate. Hold the glass plate slightly tilted. Compare the speed of flow of each liquid and writedown.

• Water flows faster than honey
• Kerosene flows faster than water
• Water flows faster then glycerine.

Conclusion: Different liquids flow at different speed. There is frictional force between the layers of each. liquid. This frictional force is parallel to the layers which try to prevent the relative motion between the layers. This frictional force is viscous force. Every layer of liquid prevents the flow of the layer is contact with it. This is the reason for the variation in speed between the layer of liquid.

Question 35.
What is viscosity?
Answer:
Viscosity is the characteristic property of liquid to initiate a force that tries to prevent the relative motion between the layers of the liquid.

Question 36.
Find out liquids of viscosity greater and lower than that of water and tabulate them.

Answer:

Viscous liquids:
Liquids of greater viscosity are the viscous liquids, eg. honey, glycerine
Mobile liquids:
Liquids of very low viscosity are the mobile liquids eg. kerosene, diesel, petrol

Question 37.
What is the relation between temperature of a liquid and its viscosity?
Answer:
As temperature of a liquid increases, its viscosity decreases

Question 38.
Why is it said that the body of a person who gets an electric shock should be massaged well?
Answer:
The body temperature of a person who gets an electric shock falls suddenly. As a result, the viscosity of the blood increases, causing hindrance to the flow of blood, resulting in a heart attack. When massaged, the body becomes warm and the viscosity of the blood attains normal level. The person thus overcomes the dangerous situation.

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
The weight of a piece of stone in air is 120 N and its weight in water is 100 N. Calculate the buoyancy, experienced by the stone.
Answer:
Buoyancy = weight of stone in air – weight in water = 120 N – 100 N = 20 N

Question 2.
A body which floated in water sank when put in kerosene. Why did it happen?
Answer:
Kerosene has lower density than water. So kerosene can not exert more buoyancy when compared with water.

Question 3.
Observe the figures of an object placed in different liquids.

a) Compare the gravitational force and the buoyancy acting on the body when it is in the liquids A and B.
b) Among A and B, which is the liquid whose density is greater than that of the object? Why?
Answer:
a) In the liquid A, buoyancy is greater than the gravitational force. In B, buoyancy is less than the gravitational force,
b) Liquid A. As the body floats, the density of the liquid is greater.

Question 4.
A body of weight 1000 N sinks in water. The weight of the liquid overflowed is 250 N.
a) What will be the weight of the body in water?
b) A body of the same weight as above floats in water. What is its weight in water? What will be the weight of the water displaced?
Answer;
a) Weight of the body in water = 1000 N – 250 N = 750 N
b) Zero, 1000N

Question 5.
The area of one end of a U-tube is 0.01 m² and that of the other end the force 1 m², When a force was applied on the liquid at the first end?
Answer:
A₁ = 0.01 m²
A₂ = 1 m²
F₁ = ?
F2 = 20000 N

Question 6.
Write down the reason for the following:
a) Ink can be blotted with chalk.
b) Sweat can be blotted with tissue paper.
Answer:
a) Due to capillarity
b) Due to capillarity

Question 7.
Which is the correct figure? Why?

Answer:
Fig. A
Reason: The centre portion of the liquid surface is seen higher than the edge portion. This is due to the reason that in this liquids, the cohesive force greater than the adhesive force. Insides liquids undergo capillary depression instead of capillary rise.

Question 8.
A hydraulic lift has been constructed to lift vehicles of maximum 3000 Kg. weight. The area of cross-section of the piston’s platform on which the vehicles are lifted is 580 Sq.cm. Calculate the maximum pressure experienced on the small piston.
Answer:
Area = 580cm² = 0.058m²
Force = 3000 × 10 = 30000N
Pressure = \(\frac { 3000 }{ 0.058 }\) = 517241.36Pa

Forces in Fluids More Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by fluids?
Answer:
Liquids and gases together are called fluids

Question 2.
What are the force experienced by an object inside a fluid?
Answer:
a) Weight of the object (gravitational force)
b) Buoyancy applied by the fluid

Question 3.
What is buoyancy? How is buoyancy measured?
Answer:
When a body is immersed completely or partially in a liquid, the liquid exerts an upward force on the body. This force is called buoyancy.
Buoyancy will be equal to the loss of weight experienced by the body inside the liquid.
Buoyancy = Weight of the body in air – weight of the body in the liquid.

Question 4.
What are the factors affecting buoyancy?
Answer;

• Density of liquid
• Volume of the object

Question 5.
State Achiemes principle.
Answer:
When an object is immersed partially or completely in a liquid, the buoyancy experienced by it will be equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.

Question 6.
The given below datas are tabulated by Gokul while conducting an experiment to prove Archimedes principles. Fill the missing parts.

Answer:

Question 7.
Kerosene and saline water are taken in two beakers. The same stone is immersed in both liquids.
a) In which liquid, more weight difference is experienced?
b) In which liquid, the stone experiences more buoy¬ancy?
c) Write whether the buoyancy of that liquid is more or less than that of the other liquid?
d) What is the relation between the density of a liquid and buoyancy?
Answer:
a) In saline water
b) In saline water
c) More
d) Buoyancy increases with increase in density of a liquid

Question 8.
X represents kerosene and Y represents water

Among A and B, which is the right figure? Why?
Answer:
B is the right figure.
Reason: Density of water is greater than that of kerosene. When taken in the same container due to the difference in density, water comes to the lower part and kerosene to the upper part.

Question 9.
A body of weight 10 N sinks in water. Weight of the water displaced is 2N.
a) What is the weight of the object in water?
b) Which principle is related to this?
Answer;
a) 8 N
b) Archimedes principle

Question 10.
State principle of floatation
Answer:
Weight of a floating body is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.

Question 11.
Does a ship enters a freshwater lake from a sea sink more or rise more? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Sinks more
Seawater has more density. Seawater exerts more buoyancy on the ship. Freshwater has less density. It exerts less buoyancy.

Question 12.
An object of weight 500 N sinks in water. Weight of water overflowed is 50 N.
a) What is the weight of the object in water?
b) If another object of the same weight floats on water, what is the weight in water? What is the buoyancy? What is the loss of weight in water?
Answer:
a) Weight in water = Weight in air – weight of water overflowed = 500 N – 50 N = 450 N
b) When floats,
Weight in water = 0 N
buoyancy = 500 N
Loss of weight in water = 500 N
(When a body floats on a liquid, weight of the body in air = loss of weight = buoyancy = weight of water displaced)

Question 13.
Density of water is = ………….
Answer:
1000 kg/m³

Question 14.
Relative density of water = ………
Answer:
1

Question 15.
Classify the following liquids into liquids having density greater than that of water and liquids having density less than that of water.
Honey, kerosene, glycerine, mercury, saline water, petrol, diesel
Answer:

Question 16.
What is the relation between the diameter of capillary tube and capillary rise? Why?
Answer:
As the diameter of the tube increases, capillary rise decreases.
Weight of the liquid inside the tube opposes capillary rise.

Question 17.
On which law, hydraulic break works? Name other three devices that works on the basis of this law. State the law.
Answer:
Hydraulic break works on the basis of Pascal’s law. Other devices are hydraulic jack, hydraulic press and excavator.
Pascal law: The pressure applied at any point of a liquid at rest in a closed system, will be experienced equally at all parts of the liquid.

Question 18.
Honey : Viscous liquid
Petrol : ……………
Answer:
Mobile liquid

Question 19.
P, Q and R are three capillary tubes. If these are dipped in water.

a) Which has greater capillary rise?
b) Which factor influenced capillary rise?
c) Why is the land ploughed before the beginning of summer?
Answer:
a) In R
b) Diameter of the tube
c) When the land is ploughed the separation between the soil particles increases. The diameter of the capillary tubes formed in the soil increases. So the capillary rise decreases. This help to retain moisture in the soil.

Question 20.
In the given figure, the area of cross-section of B is 10 times greater than that of A

a) What is the working principle behind this device?
b) If a force of 20 N is applied on A, what will be the force experienced on B?
c) If the section A is lowered by 1 cm, how much will B rise up?
Answer:
a) Pascal’s law

c) Rises 10 cm

Question 21.
An iron block of weight 2N is immersed in three dif-ferent liquids A, B, C weight of the iron block experi-enced inside the liquids are labelled in the figure.

a) In which liquid, the iron block experiences more buoyancy?
b) Among these three liquids, which has less density?
c) What is the relation between density of a liquid and buoyancy?
Answer:
a) C
b) B
c) As density of the liquid increases, buoyancy also increases.

Question 22.
When a hydrometer is dipped n a liquid, the reading is found to be 1.25. What is the density of the liquid?
Answer:
Relative density = \(\frac{\text { density of liquid }}{\text { density of water }}\)
∴ Density of liquid = Relative density x density of water
= 1.25 × 1000 = 1250 kg/m³

Question 23.
What is the relation between viscosity and temperature?
Answer:
Viscosity decreases with increase in temperature.

Question 24.
Whan a midrib of a coconut leaf, pencil etc. are dipped in water, and taken out, water is seen sticking to them. Why?
Answer:
Due to the adhesive force between the midrib of a coconut leaf and water.

Question 25.
When a piece of chalk is used on a blackboard, particles of the chalk stick to the board. Why?
Answer:
Due to the adhesive force between particles of chalk and particles of board.

Question 26.
Fingers are wetted at intervals when currency notes are being counted. Why?
Answer:
To make use of the adhesive force between notes and water. Otherwise, notes stick together.

Question 27.
Which attractive force between the molecules is responsible for the surface tension?
Answer:
Force of cohesion.

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Arbhatattilninn Lalityattilekk Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

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Amma Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

You can Download सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 2 Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

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सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Text Book Activities & Answers

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

Sabse Bada Showman Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
‘इस अभद्र शोर ने माँ को स्टेज से हने को मजबूर कर दिया’ -उस समय माँ की हालत कैसी होगी?

उत्तर:
माँ ने बहुत तनाव का अनुभव किया होगा। जब तारीफ़ करने वाले माँ की हालत समझे बिना शोर मचा रहे थे। किसी भी कलाकार के लिए यह सह पाना मुश्किल की बात है। माँ विवश हुई होगी।

Sabse Bada Showman Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
पाँच साल का चार्ली स्टेज पर अकेला था- उस समय चार्ली ने क्या सोचा होगा?

उत्तर:
चार्ली ने सोचा होगा कि माँ ने क्यों गाना बंद किया? माँ ने क्यों मुझे यहाँ अकेला छोड़ दिया है। इतने अधिक लोगों के सामने क्या करूँ। माँ ने गाने को कहा है, इसलिए मैं गाऊँगा।

Sabse Bada Showman Question And Answer Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 3.
‘इस बात ने हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया’ – क्यों?.

उत्तर:
चार्ली स्टेज के व्यवहार नहीं जानता था। वह स्टेज में बाल-सहज भोलेपन से जी रहा था। उसका .. गाना रोककर पैसा बटोरने की घोषणा, मैनेजर के पीछे संदेह के साथ जाना आदि इसका उदाहरण है। किसी भी बालक के इसी प्रकार के व्यवहार देखने पर लोग सब कुछ भूलकर हँसने लगते हैं।

Sslc Hindi Sabse Bada Showman Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 4.
‘उसने जन्म ले लिया था।’ इससे क्या मतलब है?

उत्तर:
चार्ली चैप्लिन विश्व के इतिहास में एक अद्वितीय व्यक्तित्व है। अपनी माँ की विवशता ही उसके स्टैज में आने का कारण बना। पाँच साल के उस भोलेपन में ही उसने लोगों को आनंदित कर दिया। इसलिए ऐसा कहा गया है।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Text Book Activities & Answers

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन विधात्मक प्रश्न

Sabse Bada Showman Summary Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
‘दुनिया के सबसे बड़े शो मैन का यह पहला शो था’ इस घटना के आधार पर एक रपट तैयार करें।

ध्यान दें,
1. रपट वस्तुनिष्ठ हो।

2. रपट क्या, कौन, कब, कैसे, कहाँ आदि प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने लायक हो।

3. रपट में लेखक का अपना दृष्टिकोण प्रकट हो।

4. शीर्षक आकर्षक हो।

उत्तर:
पाँच साल के बच्चे ने हॉल को हँसीघर में बदल दिया
लंदन :
आज शहर के प्रसिडेंसी हॉल को पाँच साल का चार्लस स्पेनसर चैप्लिन नामक बच्चे ने अपना गाना तथा भोलापन से हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। हॉल में चैप्लिन की माँ हन्ना का गाना चल रहा था। अचानक उसकी आवाज़ फट गई। लोगों ने शोर मचाना शुरू किया। हन्ना स्टेज से हटने को मज़बूर हुई। मैनेजर के आदेश से हन्ना के पाँच साल के बच्चे को गाने के लिए स्टेज पर लाया गया। चैप्लिन ने अपने सहज भोलेपन से गाना शुरू किया। लोग खुश होकर स्टेज पर पैसे फेंकने लगे। बच्चा गाना रोककर पैसा बटोरने की घोषणा की। बच्चे के इस व्यवहार ने हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। लोग इस छोटे से बच्चे में भविष्य के मशहूर कलाकार को देख रहे थे।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Orakkum Questions and Answers

गतिविधि -1

सूचना : ‘सबसे बडा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़ें और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
‘गाना अभी आधा ही हआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शरू हो गई। चार्ली ने गाना रोक दिया और घोषण की कि पहले मैं ये पैसे बटोरूँगा और उसके बाद गाऊँगा। इस बात ने हाँल को हँसीघर में तबदील कर दी।’

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
चार्ली को क्यों स्टेज जाना पड़ा?
उत्तर:
स्टेज में गाते माँ की आवाज़ फटकर फुसफुसाहट में तब्दील हो गई। लोग चिल्लाने लगे। माँ को स्टेज से हटाना पड़ा। तब मैनेजर ने चार्ली को स्टेजपर भेजने की ज़िद किया। इसलिए चार्ली को स्टेज जाना पड़ा।

Sslc Hindi Sabse Bada Showman Notes Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
‘चार्ली ने गाना रोक दिया।’ इस वाक्य में ‘रोक दिया’ शब्द का सीधा संबंध वाक्य के किस शब्द से हैं?
उत्तर:
वाक्य में रोक दिया’ शब्द का सीधा संबंध ‘गाना’ शब्द से हैं।

Sabse Bada Show Man Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 3.
पाँच साल के एक बालक ने हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। इस शीर्षक में एक रपट तैयार करें।
उत्तर:
‘पाँच साल के एक बालक ने हाँल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया।
लंदन : कल लंदन के बालवर्त थिएटर में स्टेज पर सुप्रसिद्ध गायिका हेन्ना गा रही थी। अचानक उसकी आवाजं फटकर फुसफुसाहट में तब्दील हो गई। लोक चिल्लाने लगे। तब मैनेजर ने उसका बेटा चार्ली को स्टेज पर भेजा गया। उस ने मशहूर गीत ‘जैक जोन्स गाना’ शुरु किया। आर्केस्ट्रावाले उसका गाना सजाने लगा। गाना आधा ही हुआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शुरु हो गई। हाँल हँसी से तब्दील हो गया। लोगों ने चार्ली की प्रशंसा की।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन SCERT Question Pool Questions and Answers

गतिविधि – 1

सूचना : ‘सबसे बडा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
गाना अभी आधा ही हुआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शुरु हो गई। चार्ली ने गाना रोक दिया और घोषणा की कि पहले मैं ये पैसे बटोरूँगा और उस के बाद ही गाऊँगा। इस बात ने हाँल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। तब तक मैनेजर एक रुमाल लेकर आया और पैसे बटोरने लगा।

Sabse Bada Showman Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
मैनेजर के स्थान पर ‘माँ’ का प्रयोग करके वाक्य बदलकर लिखें।
मानेजर एक रुमाल लेकर आया।
उत्तर:
माँ एक रुमाल लेकर आयी।

Sabse Bada Showman Summary In Malayalam Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
मान लें, चार्ली की माँ इस दिन डायरी लिख रही हैं। उसने डायरी में क्या – क्या लिखा होगा? कल्पना करके लिखें।
उत्तर:
20 आगस्त 2017
रविवार
आज एक अविस्मरणीय दिन था। मैं स्टेज पर गा रही थी, अचानक मेरी आवाज़ फटकर फुसफुसाहट में तब्दील हो गई। लोग चिल्लाने लगे। तब मैनेजर को मेरा बेटा चाली को स्टेज पर भेजना पडा। चाली ने मशहर गीत ‘जैक जोन्स गाना’ शुरु किया। आर्केस्ट्रा वाले उस का गाना सजाने लग। गाना आधा ही हुआ था कि स्टेज पर पैसों की बौछार शुरू हो गई। चार्ली ने पैसों को बटोरना चाहा पर मैनेजर ने एक रुमाल लेकर पैसों को बटोरकर मुझे सौंप दिया। मेरा प्यारा बेटा अपना गीत से हॉल को हँसीघर में तब्दील कर दिया। वह ऐसा नहीं किया तो… क्या करें? आज का दिन मैं कभी भी भलँगी।

गतिविधि – 2

सूचना : ‘सबसे बडा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़े और अनुबद्ध प्रश्नो के उत्तर लिखें।
चार्ली ने जनता में गुदगुदी फैला दी थी। उसके बाद उसने दर्शकों से बातचीत की, नृत्य किया और अपनी माँ सहित कई गायकों की नकल उतारी।

Hindi Sabse Bada Showman Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
‘उसके’ में निहित सर्वनाम कौन-सा हैं ? (वह, हम, वे)
उत्तर:
वह।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Malayalam Meaning Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
‘अनुकरण करना’ के अर्थ में प्रयुक्त प्रयोग चुनकर लिखें। (नकल उतारना, फैला देना, बातचीत करना)
उत्तर:
नकल उतारना।

गतिविधि – 3

सूचना : संबंध पहचानें और सही मिलान करें।

उत्तर:

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Grammar Questions and Answers

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन व्याकरण के प्रश्न

Sabse Bada Showman Malayalam Meaning Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 1.
पढ़ें
1. लोग चिल्लाने लगे।

2. कहीं से कछ लोग म्याऊं-म्याऊं की आवाज़ निकालने लगे।

3. वह उसे स्टेज पर भेजने की ज़िद करने लगा।

4. मैनेज़र एक रूमाल लेकर आया और पैसे बटोरने लगा।

रेखांकित शब्दों पर ध्यान दें और पहचानें इन शब्द-रूपों में समानता कहाँ है? चचो करे।


उत्तर:
यहाँ रेखांकित शब्द ‘लग’ सहायक क्रिया के विभिन्न रूपों में है। ‘लग’ सहायक क्रिया के रूप में प्रयुक्त होते समय यह किसी व्यापार के आरंभ को सूचित करती है। मुख्य क्रिया के चिल्लाना, निकालना, ज़िद करना, बटोरना आदि के रूपों के साथ लग’ सहायक क्रिया लगती है। ‘लग’ सहायक क्रियावाले वाक्य के कर्ता के साथ कोई परसर्ग नहीं जुड़ता। यह कर्ता के लिंग-वचन का अनुसरण करती है।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन अनुबद्ध कार्य

Sslc Hindi Unit 2 Chapter 2 Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
चार्ली चैप्लिन पर एक विशेषांक निकालें।

उत्तर:
चाप्लिन की ज़िंदगी
जन्मः
1889 ब्रिटन में
1925 ‘द गोल्ड रश’
1889 हास्य प्रदर्शनियों की शुरूआत
1931 ‘सिटी लाइट्स”
1910 अमरीका में भ्रमण
1936 ‘मॉर्डन टाइम्स’
1913 सिनेमा जीवन का आरंभ
1940 ‘ग्रेट डिक्टेटर’
1914 पहली सिनेमा ‘मेकिंग ए लिविंग’ ।
1952 अमरीका से निकाला गया।
1918 अपनी स्टुडियो की स्थापना
1972 स्पेशल ऑस्कार
1919 यूनाइटड आर्टिस्ट की स्थापना
1975 सर की उपाधि
1921 ‘द किड’
1977 मृत्यु

Hsslive Guru 10th Hindi Kerala Syllabus Chapter 2 प्रश्ना 2.
चार्ली चैप्लिन और सत्यजीत रे- दोनों की फिल्म की शैली अलग-अलग है। दोनों की फिल्मों के फेस्टिवल का आयोजन करें।

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन Summary in Malayalam and Translation

सबसे बड़ा शो मैन शब्दार्थ

Students can Download Kerala Padavali Unit 4 Chapter 1 Akkarmashi Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Guide Unit 4 Chapter 1 Akkarmashi

Akkarmashi Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Students can Download Kerala Padavali Unit 3 Chapter 1 Pralobhanam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Guide Unit 3 Chapter 1 Pralobhanam

Pralobhanam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

You can Download Food Through Digestive Tract Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Part 1 Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Food Through Digestive Tract

Food Through Digestive Tract Textual Questions and Answers

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 2 Question 1.
What are the nutrients we get from food?
Answer:
Carbohydrate, Protein, Fat, Minerals, vitamins & water.

Food Through Digestive Tract Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Complete the table given below.

Answer:

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 2 English Medium Question 3.
Illustrate & identify the different parts of the digestive system.

Answer:

Food Through Digestive Tract Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
What are the functions performed by the nutrients in our body – Prepare a table?

Answer:

Food Inside Mouth

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Question 5.
State true or false
a) Vitamin A is required to the healthy eyesight
b) Incisor helps to bite and cut the food
c) Molar helps to tear the food
Answer:
a) True
b) True
c) False

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Malayalam Medium Chapter 2 Question 6.
Complete the Illustration

Answer:
Canine: Helps to tear the food
Premolar: Helps to chew at the food
Molar: Helps to chew the food

9th Class Biology Chapter 2 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
What do you mean by digestion?
Answer:
Digestion is the process of conversion of complex food materials into simple absorbable forms.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes English Medium Question 8.
…………. helps to tear the food?
Answer:
Canine

Kerala Syllabus Biology 9th Standard Question 9.
Molar helps to the food
Answer:
Chew

9th Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
The process of digestion begins from the.
Answer:
Mouth

9th Class Biology Book Chapter 2 Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
……….. helps to chew the food
Answer:
Premolar

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Pdf Question 12.
……… helps to bite and cut the food
Answer:
Incisor

Question 13.
Define enamel.
Answer:
Enamel is the hardest part in our body. It is white in color. It is a dead tissue seen in the out layer of our teeth.

Question 14.
What is the role of the tongue in the digestive system?
Answer:
The tongue mixes food items with saliva and helps the teeth to masticate it. It taste buds in the tongue also help us to sense taste.

Question 15.
………. is the living tissue which forms the tooth.
Answer:
Dentine.

Question 16.
……… is a calcium-containing connective tissue that holds the tooth in the socket of the gum.
Answer:
Cementum

Question 17.
………….. is the soft connective tissue seen in the pulp cavity.
Answer:
Pulp

Question 18.
Complete the word relation
Enamel: dead tissue
……….: living tissue
Answer:
Dentine

Saliva And Digestion

Question 19.
Where is saliva produced?
Answer:
Saliva is produced in the Salivary glands.

Question 20.
Write a note on the significance of salivary glands?
Answer:
There are three pairs of salivary glands in the mouth. The saliva secreted from the salivary glands contains mucus and enzymes like salivar amylase & lysozyme.

Question 21.
……… makes the food slimy, so that it can be swallowed.
Answer:
Mucus

Question 22.
………….. helps to destroy the germs that enter the body through food.
Answer:
Lysozyme

Question 23.
……….. partially converts starch to maltose?
Answer:
Salivary amylase

Question 24.
What are the components of saliva?
Answer:
Mucus and enzymes like salivary amylase and lysozyme

Question 25.
Complete the word relation.
Salivary amylase: ………….
Lysozyme: destroy germs
Answer:
Maltose

Question 26.
When iodine added to starch color appears.
Answer:
Blue

Food Through Oesophagus

Question 27.
Complete the illustration?

Answer:
a) Uvula
b) Pharynx
c) Epiglottis
d) Oesophagus

Question 28.
Trachea begins from the
Answer:
Pharynx

Question 29.
From the mouth, food enters the………. through the pharynx
Answer:
Oesophagus

Question 30.
Prepare a flow chart regarding the swallowing of food?
Answer:
Mouth → buccal cavity → pharynx → Oesophagus → food into the stomach.

Question 31.
Observe the illustration and write down the questions below.

1. What is the role of uvula?
2 compresses the food into balls with the help of plate?
3. State whether true or false?
The trachea tilts up and it is closed by the epiglottis
Answer:

1. Uvula doses the nasal cavity that opens to the pharynx
2. Tongue
3. True

Question 32.
How does the food we swallowed enter the esophagus properly without entering the trachea? Explain?
Answer:
The Tongue compresses the food into balls with the help of the palate. That time Ovula closes the nasal cavity that opens to the pharynx and the trachea tilts up and it is closed by the epiglottis.

Food Inside The Stomach

Question 33.
Food reaches the stomach by
Answer:
Peristalsis

Question 34.
What do you mean by peristalsis?
Answer:
Peristalsis is the wave-like movement of the esophagus, stomach, and intestines.

Question 35.
What is the role of peristalsis in the process of digestion?
Answer:
Peristalsis in the stomach converts foods into a pastelike form.

Question 36.
What are the changes that happen to food while it is in the stomach?
Answer:
Peristalsis in the stomach converts food into a paste-like form. Special kind of circular muscles present in the posterior part of stomach retains food for a specific period. Different components in the gastric juice, secreted by the glands in the stomach wall also play a very important role in the process of digestion.

Question 37.
Complete the illustration

Answer:
a) Pepsin – Converts protein to peptones partially
b) Hydrochloric acid
c) Mucus: Protects the stomach wall from the action of digestive Juices

Question 38.
What is the role of Hydrochloric acid in the gastric juice?
Answer:
Hydrochloric acid in the gastric juice kills germs in the food. It also regulates pH for the digestion in the stomach.

Question 39.
………….. protects the stomach wall from the action of digestive juices.
Answer:
Mucus

Question 40.
………….. converts protein to peptones partially
Answer:
Pepsin

Question 41.
……………. regulates pH for the digestion in stomach.
Answer:
Hydrochloric acid

Food In The Small Intestine

Question 42.
Define Liver and its main function?
Answer:
Liver is the largest solid organ in the body situated in the upper part of the abdomen on the right side. The main function of liver is to filter the blood coming from the digestive tract, before passing it to the rest of the body.

Question 43.
What is the role of gall bladder?
Answer:
The excess bile secreted by the Liver is stored in the gall bladder.

Question 44.
………… secretes pancreatic juice
Answer:
Pancreas

Question 45.
Complete the table given below.

Answer:

Question 46.
Complete the word relation.
Liver: …………….
Pancreas: Pancreatic juice
Answer:
Bile

Question 47.
Pancreatic juice contains the enzymes …………. & ……………
Answer:
Amylase, lipase, trypsin

Question 48.
Prepare a flow chart showing the role of pancreas in the process of digestion?
Answer:

Question 49.
Complete the word relation.
Starch: Maltose
Protein: ……….
Answer:
Peptides

Question 50.
Peptidase converts peptides to …………..
Answer:
Amino acids.

Question 51.
………. converts lactose to glucose & galactose.
Answer:
Lactase

Question 52.
Prepare a flow chart showing the digestion within the small intestine?
Answer:
Small Intestine → Intestinal glands →
Intenstinal juice → Peptidase → Peptides → AminoAcids

Question 53.
Explain the action of disaccharidases?
Answer:
Disaccharidases like Maltose converts maltose to glucose, Lactase converts lactose to glucose and galactose and sucrase converts sucrose to glucose and fructose.

Question 54.
Which are the end products formed after digestion? Write in table.
Answer:

Question 55.
Which are the nutrients that do not undergo digestion?
Answer:

• Water
• Minerals
• Vitamins

Absorption Begins

Question 56.
Which are the simple components formed by the digestion of protein, fat, and carbohydrate?
Answer:
Protein: amino acids and glycerol
Fat: fatty acid and glycerol
Carbohydrate: Monosasacchrides (glucose, fructose, galactose).

Question 57.
The small intestine of humans is about ………… long.
Answer:
5 to 6 meters.

Question 58.
illustrate the structure & position of villus?
Answer:

Question 59.
State whether true or false.
a) Movement of food through the small intestine is very fast.
b) Many foldings are seen in the inner wall of small intestine.
Answer:
a) False
b) True

Question 60.
Small intestine is seen in the
Answer:
Abdominal cavity.

Question 61.
What are Villi?
Answer:
Villas are small finger-like projections seen in the walls of the intestine.

Question 62.
Fatly acids and glycerol are absorbed to the ………… of villus.
Answer:
Lacteal

Question 63.
……… are small finger-like projections seen on the walls of the intestine.
Answer:
Villi

Question 64.
What is the function of villi? Write down your interference?
Answer:
Villi increase the area of absorption of nutrients to a great extent within the small intestine. They also contain blood capillaries & lacteals, the lymph capillaries. Absorption of nutrients & 90% of water absorption take place in the villi.

Question 65.
……….. are the lymph capillaries?
Answer:
Lacteals

Question 66.
Villi are covered with ……………
Answer:
Single-layer of cells

Behind Absorption

Question 67.
‘Diffusion does not require energy’ Kalyani said to Ishan. Do you agree with Kalyani’s opinion? Why? )
Answer:
Yes. Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. By diffusion, molecules move across the cell through the cell membrane. This process continues till the concentration becomes equal in both sides of the membrane. So this process does not require any energy.

Question 68.
Absorption of fatty acids and glycerol into lacteals is the example of
Answer:
Diffusion

Question 69.
What do you mean by facilitated diffusion?
Answer:
Diffusion of certain molecules with the help of protein molecules in the cell membrane is called facilitated diffusion.

Question 70.
Asha stated that “Absorption of water in the small intestine and the large intestine is an example of Osmosis” Do you agree? Substantiate your answer by explaining the term osmosis?
Answer:
Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration across a semi-permeable mebrane. This process continues till the concentration becomes equal. It can be stated that in small intestine and large intestine water molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region on lower concentration.

Question 71.
Explain the process of Active Transport?
Answer:
The process by which molecules are absorbed with the help of carrier Proteins against the concentration gradient is called active transport.

Question 72.
Absorption of glucose and salt are examples of
Answer:
Active Transport

Question 73.
Complete the word relation:
Osmosis: absorption of water
…………: absorption of amino acid.
Answer:
Facilitated diffusion

Question 74.
Which are the process that help in the transport and substances in cells?
Answer:
Diffusion & Osmosis

Question 75.
Differences and similarities between Diffusion and Osmosis – Prepare a table.
Answer:

Question 76.
How does diffusion differ from facilitated diffusion?
Answer:
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration but facilitated diffusion is the diffusion of certain molecules with the help of protein molecules in the cell membrane.

Question 77.
What is the difference noticed in active transport when compared to other processes?
Answer:
In Active transport energy is needed by other process energy is not needed.

In And Out Of Large Intestine

Question 78.
The digestive wastes left after the absorption of nutrients move towards the …………
Answer:
Large intestine

Question 79.
Bacteria residing in the large intestine produced ………….
Answer:
Vitamin K

Question 80.
Absorption of vitamin K takes place in the ………….
Answer:
Large intestine

Question 81.
What are the main ideas that can include in the seminar relationship between food and health?
Answer:

• Importance of roughage for a healthy digestive system.
• Health issues created by junk food and fast food.
• Harmful chemical substances added to food to enhance its taste and color.

Let Us Assess

Question 82.
Identify the correct statement with regard to bile.
a) Secreted in liver
b) Enzymes are seen
c) Secreted into the stomach
d) Converts fat into tiny particles
Answer;
a) Secreted in liver

Question 83.
Complete the table related to the process of digestion in humans.

Answer:

Food Through Digestive Tract Additional Question and Answers

Question 84.
Illustrate the process of Osmosis
Answer:

Question 85.
How much time is required for the completion of digestion?
Answer:
4 to 5 hours

Question 86.
“You should take food only after an interval of 4 hours” – said Arun to Archa. What is your opinion?
Answer:
The process of digestion is completed through many complex actions. It requires 4 to 5 hours. Hence it is necessary to arrange the intake of food accordingly keeping an interval of four hours between the intake.

Question 87.
Doctor advised Minnu who had a complaint of stomach pain to avoid cool drinks like cola &junk food. What can be the reason for this advice? Point out your opinion?
Answer:
The nutrients required for our health are derived from our food. If we choose food only on the basis of taste, we may not get all the required nutrients. Regular use of colo drinks & junk foods are not good for our health. Therefore try to take all types of food instead of giving priority to cola & junk food.

Question 88.
Prepare a poster on ‘Good food habits’
Answer:

• Eat plenty of fruits & vegetables every day
• Eat less unhealthy food
• Balance your food choices over time. (Draw a suitable picture using these ideas).

You can Download Redox Reactions and Rate of Chemical Reactions Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Chapter 3 Redox Reactions and Rate of Chemical Reactions

Redox Reactions and Rate of Chemical Reactions Textual Questions and Answers

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Notes Chapter 3 Activity -1

Given below is a table showing the mass of the reactants and the products when hydrogen combines with chlorine to form hydrogen chloride in two situations.

HSSlive chemistry redox reactions Question 1.
Write down the total mass of the reactants and also the total mass of product in the above experiment.
a) Situation 1: …………………
b) Situation 2: ……………….
Answer:
a) Total mass of reactants 73g products 73g
b) Reactants 146g products 146 g

Class 9 Chemistry Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Activity-2

Given below is a table showing the mass of the reactants and the products when hydrogen combines with oxygen to form water, in two situations.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Chapter 3 Question 2.
Write down the total mass of the reactants and the total mass of product in the above experiment.
a) Situation 1:
b) Situation 2:
Answer:
a) Reactants 18 g, Product 18 g
b) Reactants 36 g, Products 36 g

Redox Reaction And Rate Of Chemical Reaction Kerala Syllabus 9th Question 3.
What is the relation between the total mass of the reactants and the total mass of products?
Answer:
Both are equal.

State The Law Of Conservation Of Mass

In a chemical reaction mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is the law of conservation of mass.
This law was proposed by the scientist Antoine Lavoisier. That is, the total mass of the reactants will be equal to the total mass of the products.

Activity-3

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Chapter 3 Notes Question 4.
A piece of magnesium is burned in air. What do you observe?
Answer:
It burns with sparkling light

Redox Reactions And Rate Of Chemical Reactions Kerala Syllabus 9th Question 5.
What is the white powder formed?
Answer:
Magnesium oxide (MgO)

Hss Live Guru 9th Chemistry Kerala Syllabus  Question 6.
Which are the reactants here?
Answer:
Mg and O₂

Chemistry 9th Class Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Which is the product?
Answer:
MgO

9th Class Chemistry Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Note down the number of atoms in the reactant side and the number of atoms in the product side in the table below.

Answer:

9th Class Chemistry Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Is the number of atoms of each element equal on both sides?
Answer:
No

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Notes Question 10.
The number of which atom is not equal on both sides?
Answer:
O

Chemistry Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
How many product molecules are needed to equalize the number of oxygen atoms on both sides?
Answer:
2

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Notes Pdf Question 12.
How will you represent two molecules of magnesium oxide?
Answer:
2 MgO

Hss Live Class 9 Chemistry Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
Now, is the number of magnesium atoms equal on both sides?
Answer:
No

Chemistry Notes For Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
How many magnesium atoms are needed in the reactant side to equalize the number of magnesium atoms on both sides?
Answer:
2

Chemistry 9th Class Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Then how can you rewrite the above equation?
Answer:
2 Mg + O₂ → 2MgO

Question 16.
Is the total number of atoms of each element in the molecules present in the reactant side and that in the product side equal in this equation?
Answer:
Yes

Question 17.
What is balancing of equations?
Answer:
Equalizing the number of atoms of each element in molecules in the reactant side and that in the product side is called balancing of equation.
Zn + HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
Tabulate the total number of atoms of each elements in the reactant side and that in the product side of the above reaction.

Question 18.
How many Zn atoms are there in the reactant side and in the product side?
Answer:
1 each

Question 19.
Which are the atoms showing a difference in their number?
Answer:
H and Cl

Question 20.
In order to make them equal on both sides how many molecules of HCI should be taken as reactant.
Answer:
2
Now rewrite the equation
Zn + HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂

Question 21.
Balance the chemical equation H₂ + O₂ → H₂O
Answer:
Step I: H₂+ O₂ → H₂O
Step II: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Question 22.
Balance the chemical equation Al + O₂ → Al₂O₂
Answer:
Step I: 2Al + O₂ → Al₂O₃
Step II: 2Al+ 3O₂ → 2Al₂O₃

Question 23.
Balance the chemical equation H₂ + O₂ → H₂O
Answer:
Step I: H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
Step II: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Question 24.
Some chemical equations are given below. Note down the number of reactant atoms and that of product atoms in the table given below.
1. C + O₂ → CO₂
2. N₂ + H₂ → NH₃
3. 2H₂ O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂
4. SO₂ + O₂ → SO₃
5. BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO+2HCl

Balance the equations which are unbalanced
Answer:
1. N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
2. 2SO₂ + O₂ → 2SO₃

Oxidation And Reduction

Question 25.
The electronic configuration of magnesium and chlorine are 2, 8, 2 and 2, 8, 7 respectively. How many electrons does a magnesium atom donate? What charge will it get?
Answer:
2, two positive (2+)

Question 26.
Let us complete the equation for this process,
Mg → Mg²⁺ + ……………
Answer:
Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e^–

Question 27.
How many electrons are accepted by each chlorine atom? What will be the charge acquired by each atom?
Answer:
One 1^– Cl^1-

Question 28.
Complete the equation of this process.
Cl + 1e^– →
Answer:
Cl + 1e^– → Cl^1-

Question 29.
What are oxidation and reduction?
Answer:
Oxidation is the process of loss of electrons. Reduction is the process of gain of electrons. The atom which loss electron is called the reducing agent and the atom which gains electron is called the oxidizing agent.

Question 30.
In the above chemical reaction, which atom is oxidized?
Answer:
Sodium

Question 31.
Which atom is reduced?
Answer:
Chlorine

Question 32.
Which is the oxidizing agent in this chemical reaction?
Answer:
Chlorine (Cl)

Question 33.
Which is the reducing agent in this chemical reaction?
Answer:
Sodium (Na)

Question 34.
Analyze the following equations and list the oxidized atom, reduced atom, oxidizing agent and reducing agent.
a) Mg + F₂ → MgF₂
b) 2Na + Cl → NaCl
Answer:
a) Oxidized atom — Mg
Equation of oxidation — Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e^–
Reduced atom — F
Equation of reduction — F + e^– → F^–
Oxidizing agent — F
Reducing agent — Mg

b) Oxidized atom — Na
Equation of oxidation — Na → Na + 1e^–
Reduced atom — Cl
Equation of reduction — Cl+ 1e^– → Cl^–
Oxidizing agent — Na
Reducing agent — Cl

Question 35.
Analyse the following equations and complete the Table given below.
1. Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e^–
F+ le^– → F^–
2. Na → Na⁺+1e^–
Cl + 1e^– → Cl^–
3. Fe → Fe²⁺+ 2e^–
O + 2e^– → O^2–

Answer:

Oxidation Number

Oxidation number of an atom in a molecule is the formal charge assigned on the atom if all the bonds in the substance arc considered to be ionic.

Question 36.
Consider the equation H₂ +Cl₂ → 2HCl What is the oxidation number of hydrogen in H₂?
Answer:
O

Question 37.
What is the oxidation number of chlorine in Cl₂?
Answer:
O

Question 38.
In this reaction, does the oxidation number of hydrogen increase or decrease?
Answer:
Increases

Question 39.
What change takes place in the oxidation number of chlorine?
Answer:
Decreases

Question 40.
What are oxidation and reduction on the basis of change in oxidation number?
Answer:
The process in which the oxidation number increases is called oxidation.
The process in which the oxidation number decreases is called reduction.

Question 41.
During the formation of hydrogen chloride, which atom was oxidized?
Answer:
H

Question 42.
Which is the reducing agent?
Answer:
Cl

Question 43.
Which atom was reduced, during this reaction?
Answer:
Cl

Question 44.
Which is the oxidizing agent?
Answer:
H

Question 45.
Analyze oxidation numbers in the given equation and list the oxidizing agent and reducing agent in the table given below.

Answer:
Oxidizing agent – O
Reducing agent-C

Question 46.
Analyze the oxidation number and note down the oxidizing agent and reducing agent in the following reaction.

a) Oxidation number of which atom is increased?
b) The oxidized atom is
c) Oxidation number of which atom is decreased?
d) The reduced atom is
e) Oxidizing agent
f) Reducing agent
Answer:
a) Na
b) Na
c) Cl
d) Cl
e) Na
f) Cl

Question 47.
Analyze the following equation fill-up the blanks.

Question 48.
The oxidation number of zinc increases/decreases from … to…
Answer:
0 to +2

Question 49.
The oxidized atom is…
Answer:
Zn

Question 50.
The oxidation number of hydrogen increases/decreases from …. to
Answer:
+1 to 0

Question 51.
The reduced atom is …
Answer:
H
Here HCI is the oxidizing agent and Zn is the reducing agent. „

Question 52.
How do you determine the oxidation number of sulfur in H₂ SO₄?
Answer:
Oxidation state of hydrogen = +1
Oxidation state of oxygen = -2
Let the oxidation state of sulphur be ‘x’ We know the sum of oxidation states of all atoms in a compound is zero. Therefore,
[2×(+1)] + x + (4x – 2) = 0
(+2) + x + (-8) = 0
x – 6 = 0
x = +6

Question 53.
Find the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄ (oxidation number of K is +1, oxidation number of O is -2)
ANswer:
Oxidation state of potassium = +1
Oxidation state of oxygen = -2
Let the oxidation state of Mn be ‘x’.
1 x (+1) + x + 4(-2) = 0
(+1) + x + (-8) = 0
x – 7 =0
x = +7

Question 54.
Find the oxidation number of Mn in MnO₂, Mn₂O₃ and Mn₂O₇
Answer:
MnO2
Mn + 2x -2 = 0
Mn + 4 = 0
Mn = +4

Mn2O3
2Mn + 2x -2 = 0
2Mn + -4 = 0
2 Mn = +4
Mn = +2

Mn2O7
2Mn + -2×7 = 0
2Mn + -14 = 0
2Mn = +14
Mn = +7

Question 55.
What is Redox reaction?
Answer:
The process of oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously. Hence these two reactions together are known as redox reaction.
Examples:
H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
Mg + F2 → MgF₂
2Na + Cl₂ → 2NaCl

Question 56.
What are the methods usually adopted to make firewood burn faster? ‘
Answer:
1. Provide more air
2. Split up into small pieces
3. Make firewood dry

Question 57.
Describe an experiment to prove that nature of the reactants affects the rate of chemical reaction.
Answer:
Materials required for the experiment.
Zn, Mg, dil. HCl arid test tubes.
Procedure:
Take equal volume of dil. HCl in two test tubes. Add Zn to one and Mg of same mass to the other. Hydrogen gas is produced in both the test tubes. Rate of reaction is faster in the test tube containing Mg.

Question 58.
Write an experiment to prove that concentration of reactants affect the rate of reactions.
Answer:
Materials required: Mg, dil. HCl, Con. HCl and test tubes.
Procedure: Take magnesium ribbons of equal mass in two test tubes. Add concentrated HCl to one test tube and dilute HCl to the other in equal volume

Question 59.

Write your observation
Test tube 1: ……………
Test tube 2: …………..
Test tube 1: Reaction is faster in con. HCl
Test tube 2: Reaction rate is slow

Question 60.
Why rate of reaction increases when concentration increases?
Answer:
As the concentration of reactants increases, the number of molecules per unit volume and the number of effective collisions increase. Consequently the rate of reaction increases.

Question 61.
What is the relation between rate of reaction and surface area? Write an experiment to prove it.
Answer:
Take equal volume of dil. HCI in two beakers. Add a small piece of marble into one and marble powder of equal mass into the other. Reaction rate is greater when marble powder is used. Rate of reaction increases when surface area increases

Question 62.

Is there any difference in the rate of reaction in the two beakers?
Answer:
Reaction rate is greater when powdered marble is used.

Question 63.
What about the concentration of acid in both the reactions?
Answer:
Same

Question 64.
Is there any difference in the mass of the marble?
Answer:
No

Question 65.
What about the surface area of marble?
Answer:
Different

Question 66.
In which case is the chance for greater number of acid molecules to get in contact with marble, in a given time?
Answer:
If marble is powdered

Question 67.
What is the change in the rate of collision when surface area increases?
Answer:
When surface area increases rate of reaction also increases.

Question 68.
What will happen to the rate of this reaction if marble is further crushed or powdered?
Answer:
Will increase

Question 69.
Why rate of reaction increases when surface area increases?
Answer:
When solids are made into small pieces or powder, their surface area increases. As a result the number of molecules undergoing effective collision also increases. Hence the rate of reaction increases.

Question 70.
Write an experiment to prove the relation between temperature and rate of reaction.
Answer:
Materials required: Sodium thiosulphate, hydrochloric acid, water, boiling tube, spirit lamp. Procedure: Prepare dilute solution of sodium thiosulphate in a beaker. Take equal volumes of this solution in two boiling tubes. Heat one boiling tube for some time. Add dilute hydrochloric acid in equal amounts in both the boiling tubes.
Observation: Reaction is faster in heated test tube.

Question 71.
In which of the boiling tubes is the precipitate formed faster?
Answer:
In heated test tube

Question 72.
What is the color of the precipitate formed?
Answer:
Pale yellow

Question 73.
What is Threshold Energy?
Answer:
To take part in a chemical reaction, molecules should attain certain minimum kinetic energy. This energy is called threshold energy.

Question 74.
Write an experiment to prove the influence of catalysts in a chemical reaction.
Answer:
Take some hydrogen peroxide solution in a test tube. Show a glowing incense stick into the test tube.
What is the observation? Is there any difference occurring in the way in which the incense stick bums? No . ‘
Now add some manganese dioxide (MnO₂) into the test tube. Again show the glowing incense stick. Observation:
Glowing incense stick flares up now.

It indicates that when manganese dioxide is added, the rate of reaction increases and oxygen is formed faster. Filter the solution using a filter paper when the reaction is completed.

The substance remaining in the filter paper is manganese dioxide itself When examined carefully it becomes clear that there is no change in its amount or property. The presence of manganese dioxide has increased the rate of the reaction. Manganese dioxide acts as a catalyst in this reaction.

Question 75.
What are catalysts?
Answer:
Catalysts are substances which alter the rate of chemical reactions without themselves undergoing any permanent chemical change.

Redox Reactions and Rate of Chemical Reactions Additional Questions and Answers

Magnesium combines with chlorine to form magnesium chloride. The equation is given below
Mg + Cl₂ → MgCl₂

Question 1.
Write down the electronic configuration of magnesium and chlorine
Answer:
Mg – 2, 8, 2
Cl – 2, 8,7

Question 2.
How many electrons are donated by magnesium? Write the chemical equation for this process
Answer:
2, Mg → Mg²⁺ +2e^–

Question 3.
How many electrons are accepted by chlorine?
Answer:
1, charge – ve

Question 4.
Write the chemical equation.
Answer:
Cl + 1e^– → cl^–

Question 5.
Explain oxidation, reduction, oxidizing agent and reducing agent?
Answer:

• Oxidation is the process by which the removal of electrons.
• Reduction is the process by which the addition of electrons.
• In the above process, magnesium reduces chlorine by donating electrons to it hence magnesium is the reducing agent. In this process since chlorine oxidizes magnesium by accepting electrons it is considered as the oxidizing agent.

Question 6.
From the given chemical equation identify the oxidizing agent and the reducing agent by writing the chemical equation of oxidation and reduction
(i) Mg + F₂ → MgF₂
(ii) 2Na + Cl₂ → 2NaCl
Answer:
(i) Mg → Mg²⁺ + 2e^– (Oxidation)
F + 1e^– → F^– (Reduction)
Here magnesium is the reducing agent and fluorine is the oxidising agent.
(ii) Na → Na⁺ + 1e^– (Oxidation)
Cl + 1e → Cl^– (Reduction)
Here sodium is the reducing agent and chlorine is the oxidizing agent.

Question 7.

In the formation of hydrogen chloride does the oxidation number of hydrogen increase or decrease?
Answer:
The oxidation number of hydrogen increases from 0 to +1

Question 8.
Whether the oxidation number of chlorine decrease or increase?
Answer:
The oxidation number of chlorine decreases from 0 to — 1.

Question 9.
Based on oxidation number which is the oxidizing agent and reducing agent?
Answer:
H₂ is the reducing agent and Cl₂ is the oxidizing agent.

Question 10.
What is meant by Redox reaction?
Answer:
A process in which the increase in oxidation number is the oxidation and decrease in oxidation number is the reduction. A process in which both oxidation and reduction takes place is the redox reaction. The molecule in which the atom whose oxidation number decreases during the process is the oxidizing agent and that in which oxidation number of an atom increase is the reducing agent.

Question 11.
In the following chemical reactions which is the oxidizing agent which is the reducing agent? Analyze the oxidation number and find out?

Reducing agent – C
Oxidising agent – Cl₂

Question 12.
Given below is the equation of the reaction between zinc and hydrochloric acid also indicating the oxidation number.

Analyze and find the following:
Answer:
In this process, oxidation number of zinc increases from 0 to +2.
Oxidation number of hydrogen decrease from +1 to 0 The reducing agent is zinc and oxidising agent is HCl.

Question 13.
Calculate the oxidation number of‘S’ in H₂ SO₄?
Answer:
Oxidation number of hydrogen = +1
Oxidation number of oxygen = -2
Let the oxidation number of ‘S’ be x
The sum of the oxidation numbers of all the Elements in a compound is zero,
Hence
[2x (+1] + x + 4 x (-2] = 0
2 + x – 8 = 0
x = +8 – 2
x = +6
ie., oxidation number of ‘S’ in H₂ SO₄ is +6.

Question 14.
Find the oxidation number of the ions in ionic compound?
The charge of ions in ionic compound is the oxidation number. Eg. In FeCl₂ the oxidation number of Fe is +2 and FeCl3 is +3.

Let Us Assess

Some chemical equations are given below.
C + O₂ → CO₂
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
N₂ + O₂ → NO
CaCO₂ → CaO + CO₂
H₂ + l₂ → Hl
Fe + HCl → FeCl₂ + H₂
CO₂ + C → CO
a) Which of these are balanced equations?
b) Balance the unbalanced equations.
c) Which among these are redox reactions?
Answer:
a) C + O₂ → CO₂
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ +2 H₂O
CaCO₃ → CaO +CO₂
b) N₂ + O₂ → 2NO
H₂ + l₂ → 2Hl
Fe + 2HCl → FeCl₂ + H₂
CO₂ + C₂CO

Question 2.
The chemical reaction between marble and dilute HCl is given.
CaCO₃ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O +CO₂
a) Which gas is formed here? How can you identify this gas?
b) Suggest any two ways you would choose to increase the rate of this chemical reaction. Explain the reason.
Answer:
a) Carbon dioxide (CO₂). Show a burning splinter in the gas. It will get extinguished.
or
Show a glass rod dipped in clear lime water into the gas. The lime water will turn milky
b) 1) Use powdered marble
2) Use concentrated HCl
3) Heat the mixture.

Question 3.
Sulfur pieces do not react with cold concentrated nitric acid. But sulfur powder reacts.
a) Explain the reason why the rate of chemical reaction is increased here?
b) Suppose you want to increase the rate of reaction again. Which way you would choose? Give reason.
Answer:
a) When surface area increases rate of effective collision increases. So the rate of reaction increases.
b) Heat the mixture.
When temperature increases more molecules will get threshold energy. So rate of effective collision and rate of reaction increases.

Question 4.
Small amounts of phosphoric acid is usually added to hydrogen peroxide to prevent its decomposition?
a) What is the function of phosphoric acid here?
b) By which name are these type of substances known?
c) Which substance would you add to increase the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide?
Answer:
a) Slow down the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
b) Negative catalyst
c) Manganese dioxide

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Find the oxidation number of the elements which are underlined in the compounds given below. Among these find out the elements which show variable oxidation numbers.
MnO₂, Mn₂O₇, K₂Cr₂O₇, KCrO₃, MnCl₂, MgO, MgCl₂, Al₂O₃,AlCl₃
(Hint. Oxidation number 0 = -2, Cl = -1, K = +1)
Answer:
MnO₂ Let x be the oxidation number of Mn

Question 2.
Some apparatus and chemicals are given.
Zn, Mg, dilute HCl, CaCO₃, test tube, water.
a) Design an experiment to prove that the nature of reactants can influence the rate of reaction.
b) Write the equations for the chemical reactions.
c) Write the expression for the rate of the reaction.
a) Take equal volume of dil HCl in two test tubes. Add a piece of Mg m to one of them. Add a piece of Zn of equal mass to the other.
Observation:- Mg reacts faster with dil. HCl than Zn. This is due to the difference in the chemical nature of Mg and Zn.
b) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ +H₂
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
c) Rate of a chemical reaction \(=\frac{\text { amount of reactants used up }}{\text { time }}\)
= \(\frac{\text { amount of product formed }}{\text { time }}\)

Question 3.
The experiments conducted by two students are given below.
Experiment 1: 2 mL of sodium thiosulphate solution is taken in a test tube, heated and to it 2 mL of HG solution is added.
Experiment 2:2 mL of sodium thiosulphate solution is taken in a test tube and to it 2 mL of HC1 solution is added.
a) In which experiment is the precipitate formed quickly? Justify your answer.
b) Write the balanced equation for the reaction.
Answer:
a) ln heated test tube.
When temperature increases more molecules get threshold energy. So rate of effective collision increases and rate of reaction increases.
b) Na₂ S₂O₃ + 2HCl → 2NaCl + SO₂ + S

Question 4.
Some materials available in the laboratory are given below. Magnesium ribbon, marble powder, marble pieces, dilute HCl, concentrated HCl.
a) Which materials will you choose for the preparation of more CO₂ in less time?
b) Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
Answer:
a) Marble powder and concentrated HCl CaCO₃ + 2 HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂