Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Students can Download Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Questions and Answers, Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion

Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Physics Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Question 1.
The dimension of angular momentum is
(a) M°L1T-1
(b) M1L2T2
(c) M1L2T-1
(d) M2L1T-2
Answer:
(c) M1L2T-1
Angular momentum = Moment of inertia x angular velocity
(Angular momentum) = [M1L2][T-1] = [M1L2T-1].

Plus One Physics System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Question 2.
If the density of material of a square plate and a circular plate shown in figure is same, the centre of mass of the composite system will be
Plus One Physics Chapter 7 Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion
(a) inside the square plate
(b) inside the circular plate
(c) at the point of contact
(d) outside the system
Answer:
(a) inside the square plate

Plus One Physics Important Questions And Answers Pdf Question 3.
Why spokes are provided in by cycle wheel?
Answer:
This increases moment of inertia even when the mass is small. This ensures uniform speed.

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 4.
A ballet dancer, an acrobat and an ice skater make use of an important principle in physics. Which is that principle?
Answer:
Conservation of angular momentum.

Physics Class 11 Chapter 7 Important Questions Question 5.
A cat is able to land on her feet after a fall. Which principle of physics is being used by her?
Answer:
Principle of conservation of angular momentum.

Hsslive Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 6.
A body is rotating in steady rate. What is torque acting on the body?
Answer:
Zero. Torque is required only for producing angular acceleration.

Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Hsslive Question 7.
A flywheel is revolving with constant angular velocity. A chip of its rim breaks and flies away. What will be the effect on the angular velocity?
Answer:
The reduction in mass will decrease moments of inertia. Hence angular velocity will be increased in order to conserve angular momentum.

Rotational Motion Class 11 Important Questions Question 8.
Is radius of gyration of a body constant quantity?
Answer:
No. It changes with change in position of the axis of rotation.

System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Class 11 Solutions Question 9.
What is another name for angular momentum?
Answer:
Moment of momentum.

Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Two Mark Questions and Answers

Hss Live Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 1.
Moments of inertia of some bodies with axis are given in the table below. Fill in the blanks
Plus One Physics System Of Particles And Rotational Motion
Answer:
Plus One Physics Important Questions And Answers Pdf

System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Questions And Answers Question 2.
Match the following:

(a) Moment of forceΤ ∆ θ
(b) F∆rLinear motion
(c) CoupleTorque
(d) 1/2 Iω2Τ ∆ r
Rotational motion
1/2 MR2
L2/2I

Answer:
(a) Torque
(b) τ ∆ θ
(c) Rotational motion
(d) \(\frac{1}{2} \frac{L^{2}}{1}\).

System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Important Questions Question 3.
A cat is able to function its feet after a fall, taking the advantage of principle of conservation of angular momentum.

  1. Give the law of conservation of a angular momentum.
  2. Explain how cat is able to do so

Answer:
1. When there is no external torque, the total angular momentum of a body or a system of bodies are a constant.
τ = \(\frac{d L}{d t}\) (when τ = 0 , we get \(\frac{d L}{d t}\) = 0).
ie L = constant.
But L = Iω
∴ Iω = a constant.

2. When a cat falls, it stretches its body. So that the moment of inertia becomes large. As Iω = constant, the value of angular speed will be decreased due to the increased value of moment of inertia. So cat lands on its feet gently.

System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Class 11 Important Questions Question 4.
If the polar ice cap melts what will happen to the length of the day?
Answer:
For earth, angular momentum is a constant (Lω = constant, ie no torque acts on the earth). When the polar ice cap melts, the water thus formed will flow down to the equatorial region.

The accumulation of water in equatorial line will increase the moment of inertia I of earth. In order to keep the angular momentum as a constant, ω will decrease. The decrease in ‘ω’will increase the length of day.

System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Class 11 Question 5.
A girl has to lean towards right when carrying a bag in her left hand. Why?
Answer:
When a girl carries her bag in her left hand, the centre of gravity of system will shift towards left. In order to bring it in the middle, the girl has to lean towards right.

Question 6.
If the earth loses the atmosphere what will happen to the length of the day?
Answer:
For earth, the angular momentum (L = Iω) is a constant, because there is no torque acting on it. When earth loses the atmosphere, I decreases and ω increases to keep L as constant. Hence length of the day decreases.

Question 7.
A girl standing on a turn table. What happens to the rotation speed, if she stretches her hand?
Answer:
lf a girl rotating with a uniform speed on turn table, it’s angular momentum (L = Iω) will be a constant. When she suddenly stretches her hand, I Increases and ω decreases to keep L as constant.

Question 8.
How does a circus acrobat and a diver take advantage of conservation of angular momentum? Answer:
The diver while leaving the spring board, is throwing himself in a rotating motion. When he brings his hands and legs close, I decrease and ω increases. But before reaching water he will stretch his hands and legs. Hence I increases and ω decreases. So, that he gets a smooth entry into the water.

Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A rigid body consists of ‘n’ particles of mass m1, m2, m3,……The body rotates about an axis with
an angular velocity ω1, ω2, ω3……..

  1. Starting from the kinetic energy of a single particle, arrive at an equation for kinetic energy of rotation.
  2. Moment of inertia is also called rotational inertia. Why?

Answer:
1. Consider a body rotating about an axis passing through some point O with uniform angular velocity ‘ω’. The body can be considered to be made up of a number of particles of masses m1, m2, m3……etc at distances r1, r2, r3……etc. All the particles will have same angular velocity ω But their linear velocities will be different say v1, v2, v3…….etc.
Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers
K.E of 1st particle = \(\frac{1}{2}\)m1v12
\(\frac{1}{2}\)m1(r1ω)2
(∵ v = rω)
K.E of IInd particle = \(\frac{1}{2}\)m2(r2ω)2
∴ K.E of whole body =
Physics Class 11 Chapter 7 Important Questions
But we know moment of inertia,
Hsslive Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers
∴ KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)Iω2
2. Rotation inertia is measured in terms of moment of inertia. Hence moment of inertia is also called rotational inertia.

Question 2.
The handle of a door is always found at one edge of the door which is located at a maximum possible distance away from hinges.

  1. Give reason for it.
  2. In which direction will the torque act while the door opens inside the room?
  3. If the door handle is fixed at the middle of the door, what difference do you feel in the applied force to open the door.

Answer:
1. Torque τ = r F sin θ
From the above equation it is clear that, we get maximum torque when the handle of a door is located at a maximum possible distance (r) away from hinge.

2. The direction of torque is always along the axis of rotation of door.

3. If the door handle is fixed at middle, more force must be applied to get maximum torque that is required to open the door.

Question 3.
Moment of inertia depends on the mass, axis of rotation and distribution of mass of the body.

  1. What are moment of inertia and radius of gyration?
  2. How will you distinguish a hard boiled egg from a raw egg by spinning each on the table.

Answer:
1. Moment of inertia I = mr2
Radius of gyration K = \(\sqrt{\frac{I}{m}}\).

2. A raw egg has more monemt of inertia than boiled egg. Hence raw egg spins more time than boiled egg.

Question 4.
Table below given analogy between translational and rotational motions. Match the following.
Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Hsslive
Answer:
Rotational Motion Class 11 Important Questions

Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. Show that the total angular momentum of a rotating system remains constant if no torque acts on the system
System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Class 11 Solutions
2. A disc of moment of inertia I1 is rotating freely with angular speed ω1 and a second non rotating disc with moment of inertia I2 is dropped on it as shown in the figure. The two then rotate as one unit. Find the angular speed of rotation of the system.
Answer:
1. we know torque τ = \( \frac{d L}{d t}\)
if τ = 0, we get \( \frac{d L}{d t}\) = 0
ie. L = constant.

2. we know if torque acting on the body is zero, its angular momentum will be conserved
ie. I1ω1 = I2ω2
angular momentum of system, ω2 = \(\frac{I_{1} \omega_{1}}{\left(I_{1}+\mathrm{I}_{2}\right)}\).

Question 2.
A rigid body can rotate an axis with a constant angular velocity and angular momentum L.

  1. What is its moment of inertia about the axis?
  2. Obtain a mathematical expression for rotational kinetic energy.
  3. If the orientation of the axis of rotation changes, what happens to its moment of inertia

Answer:
1. L = Iω
ie. I = L/ω

2. Consider a rigid body rotating about an axis passing through the point O. Let co be the uniform angular velocity of the body.
Hss Live Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions And Answers
The body is imagined to be made up of large number of particles. Consider one such particle of mass ‘m’ at a distance ‘r’ from the axis of rotation.
Linear Velocity of the particle v = rω
K.E of the particle = 1/2mv2 = 1/2 mr2ω2
K.E of whole body = Σ1/2mr2ω2 = 1/2ω2Σmr2
K.E = 1/2Iω2
Where Σmr2 = I, moment of inertia of the body.

3. Moment of inertia will be changed.

Question 3.
A platform diver holds his hands and legs straight and makes loops in air before entering into water.

  1. State the principle behind this.
  2. What happens when he tries to land in the pool by stretching his arms and legs?
  3. In the above situation, rotational kinetic energy is not conserved. Explain.

Answer:
1. Conservation of angular momentum
Statement
Conservation of angular momentum states that, if the total torque acting on a system is zero, its angular momentum will be conserved.

2. Angular velocity decreases.

3. Initial kinetic energy K.E1 = \(\frac{L^{2}}{2 I_{1}}\) ____(1)
where I1 is the moment of inertia of diver when he makes loops in air
final kinetic energy K.E2 = \(\frac{L^{2}}{2 I_{2}}\) _____(2)
where I2 is the moment of inertia of diver when he stretches his hands
But I1 < I2
Hence from eq(1) and eq(2), we get
KE1 > KE2
which means that rotational kinetic is not conserved.

Question 4.
Moment of inertia of a thin ring of radius R about an axis passing through any diameter is 1/2MR2

  1. What is the radius of gyration of the ring about an axis passing through any diameter.
  2. A thin metal ring of radius 0.25m and mass 2kg starts from rest and roll down an inclined plane. If the linear velocity on reaching the foot of the plane is 2m/s, calculate its rotational kinetic energy at that instant.

Answer:
1.
System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Questions And Answers

2.
System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Important Questions

Question 5.
System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Class 11 Important Questions
Figures show the two different spinning poses of a ballet dancer.

  1. In which spinning pose, the ballet dancer has more angular speed?
  2. State the principle used by the ballet dancer to increase his angular speed.
  3. “In the above situation, rotational kinetic energy is not conserved” – Justify this statement.

Answer:
1. The pose shown in figure (B).

2. Statement of conservation of angular momentum.

3. I1ω1 = I2ω2
1/2 I12ω12 = 1/2 I22ω22
I1(1/2 I1ω12) = (1/2 I2ω22)I2, I1 > I2
(1/2 I2ω22) > 1/2I1ω12

Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The moment of inertia of a thin ring of radius R about an axis passing through any diameter is \(\frac{1}{2}\)MR2

  1. To find the moment of inertia of the same ring about an axis passing through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane, which of the following theorem is used and state the theorem.
    • Perpendicular axis theorem.
    • Parallel axis theorem
  2. What is the radius of gyration of the ring about an axis passing through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane?
  3. A thin metal ring has a diameter 0.20 cm and mass 1 kg. Calculate its moment of inertia about an axis passing through any tangent.

Answer:
1. perpendicular axis theorem.

2. Moment of inertia of ring,
I = mr2 ____(1)
Moment of inertia of ring in terms of radius of gyration,
I = mk2 ____(2)
From eq(1) and eq(2), we get
mk2 = mr2
radius of gyration, k = r.

3. I = I0 + ma2
Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Five Mark Questions and Answers 14

Question 2.
The earth is moving around the sun in an elliptical orbit and this brings out the seasons.

  1. Name the physical quantity conserved in this.
  2. As the earth approaches near the sun in its path, it moves faster. State whether this statement is correct or wrong. Why?
  3. Determine the duration of the day on earth if it suddenly shrinks to 1/4th of its present size while the mass of the earth remains unchanged. (Assume earth is a perfect sphere)

Answer:
1. Conservation of angular momentum.

2. This statement is correct.
When earth approaches near the sun, its moment of inertia decreases. To maintain angular momentum as constant, the angular velocity increases.

3. New volume of earth = 1/4 original volume of earth
Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Five Mark Questions and Answers 15
Total angular momentum before shrinking = Total momentum after shrinking.
ie. I1ω1 = I1ω2
mr12ω1 = m22ω2 ______(2)
Sub eq(1) in eq(2)
Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Five Mark Questions and Answers 16
we know period
Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Five Mark Questions and Answers 17
T2 = 3 hr
Duration of day T2 = 3 hr.

Question 3.
1. Find the moment of inertia of a sphere about a tangent to the sphere, given the moment of inertia of the sphere about any of its diameters to be 2MR2/5, where M is the mass of the sphere and R is the radius of the sphere.
2. Given the moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about any of its diameters to be MR2/4, find its moment of inertia about an axis normal to the disc and passing through a point on its edge.
Answer:
1. Applying theorem of parallel axes, moment of inertia of sphere about a tangent
Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Five Mark Questions and Answers 18

2. Using theorem of perpendicular axis, the moment of inertia of the disc about an axis passing through the centre of the disc
Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Five Mark Questions and Answers 19
Using theorem of parallel axes, moment of inertia of the disc passing through a point on its edge and the normal to the disc
Plus One Physics Systems of Particles and Rotational Motion Five Mark Questions and Answers 20

Question 4.
A solid cylinder of mass 20kg rotates about its axis with angular speed 100rad s-1. The radius of the cylinder is 0.25m. What is the kinetic energy associated with the rotation of the cylinder? What is the magnitude of the angular mementum of the cylinder about its axis?
Answer:
M = 20kg
angularspeed, co – 100 rad s-1; R = 0.25m
Moment of inertia of the cylinder about its axis
= \(\frac{1}{2}\)MR2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 20 × (0.25)2kgm2 = 0.625kgm2
Rotational kinetic energy,
Er = \(\frac{1}{2}\)Iω2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0.625 × (100)2J = 3125 J
Angular momentum,
L = Iω = 0.625 × 100 Js = 62.5 Js.

Question 5.
A rope of negligible mass is wound round a hollow cylinder of mass 3kg and radius 40cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30N? What is the linear acceleration of the rope? Assume that there is no slipping.
Answer:
M = 3kg, R = 40cm = 0.4m
F = 30N, α = ?, a = ?
The torque acting on the cylinder,
τ = force × radius of the cylinder = 30N × 0.4m = 12Nm
The moment of inertia of the hollow cylinder about its axis,
I = MR2 = 3kg × (0.4)2m2 = 0.48kgm2
Now, τ = Iα, where α is angular acceleration
∴ The angular acceleration of the cylinder, r 12
α = \(\frac{\tau}{I}=\frac{12}{0.48}\)rad s-2 = 25 rad s-2
The linear acceleration of the rope,
a = Rα = 0.4 × 25m s-2 = 10 m s-2.

Question 6.
Explain why friction is necessary to make the disc in roll in the direction indicated.

  1. Give the direction of the frictional force at B, and the sense of frictional torque, before perfect rolling begins.
  2. What is the force of friction after perfect rolling begins?

Answer:
Friction is necessary for rolling.

  1. Frictional force at B opposes velocity of B. So, the frictional force is in the same direction as the arrow. The sense of frictional torque is such as to oppose angular motion, \(\overrightarrow{ω_{0}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{τ_{0}}\) are both normal to the paper, the first into the paper and the second coming out of the paper.
  2. Frictional force decreases the velocity of the point of contact B. Perfect rolling ensures when this velocity is zero. Once this is so, the force of friction is zero.

Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms

Students can Download Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms Questions and Answers, Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf  Question 1.
Syngamy means:
(a) Fusion of similar spores
(b) Fusion of dissimilar spores
(c) Fusion of cytoplasm
(d) Fusion of gametes
Answer:
(d) Fusion of gametes

Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 2.
Fill in the blanks by observing the relationship of the first.

  1. Amoeba: Binary fission
    Yeast: …………..
  2. Reptiles: Oviparous
    Mammals: ………….

Answer:

  1. Yeast: Budding
  2. Mammals: Viviparous

Plus Two Botany Questions And Answers Chapter 1 Question 3.
Internal buds of Sponges are:,
(a) Spores
(b) Gemmules
(c) Planula
(d) Blastos
Answer:
(b) Gemmules

12th Botany 1st Lesson Important Questions  Question 4.
In honeybees and lizards, the female gamete undergoes development to form new organism without fertilization. Name this phenomenon.
Answer:
Parthenogenesis

Plus Two Botany Previous Question Papers Chapter Wise Question 5.
The life span of man is_____years.
(a) 60
(b) 70
(c) 85
(d) 100
Answer:
(d) 100

Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Hsslive Question 6.
What is meiocyte?
(a) The cell undergoes meiosis
(b) The cell undergoes mitosis
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) The cell undergoes meiosis

Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions And Answers Pdf Question 7
All individuals produced are genetically identical
(a) clone
(b) offspring
(c) fission
(d) monoecious
Answer:
(a) clone

Plus Two Botany Previous Year Questions And Answers Chapter 1 Question 8.
Hydra reproduces asexually by
(a) budding
(b) binary fission
(c) Multiple fission
(d) Vegetative propagation
Answer:
(a) budding

Plus Two Botany Focus Area Questions And Answers Chapter 1 Question 9.
Find the propagules of ginger
(a) Runner
(b) Bulbil
(c) Rhizome
(d) Bulb
Answer:
(c) Rhizome

Hsslive Botany Question Bank Plus Two Chapter 1 Question 10.
Bulb acts as a propagule in
(a) Onion
(b) Garlic
(c) Agave
(d) Both and b
Answer:
(d) Both and b

Plus Two Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 11.
In some algae_____are motile
(a) male gametes
(b) female gametes
(c) both male and female gametes
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(c) both male and female gametes

Plus Two Botany Chapter Wise Previous Questions And Answers Question 12.
A population of genetically identical plants derived from a single parent is called………..
Answer:
Clone

Plus Two Botany Previous Questions Chapter Wise Chapter 1 Question 13.
Embryo sac is found in:
(a) Endosperm
(b) Embryo
(c) Ovule
(d) Seed
Answer:
(c) Ovule

Plus Two Botany Previous Questions Chapter Wise Pdf Chapter 1 Question 14.
Types of asexual reproduction found in Hydra is………
(a) Gemmule formation
(b) Budding
(c) Sporulation
(d) Multiple fission
Answer:
(b) Budding

Reproduction In Organisms Class 12 Objective Questions Question 15.
Observe the relation and fill in the blanks. Syncarpous: the pistils remain united: the pistils remain free.
Answer:
Apocarpous

Reproduction In Organisms Class 12 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 16.
In honeybees and turkey new organisms are formed through a peculiar phenomenon. Name that phenomenon.
Answer:
Parthenogenesis

Botany Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Chapter 1 Question 17.
Choose the correct answer: Chlamydomonas reproduces asexually through
(a) Gemmules
(b) Conidia
(c) Bud
(d) Zoospores
Answer:
(d) Zoospores

Question 18.
In Marchantia male and female thallus are separate. This condition is called
(a) Dioecious
(b) Hermaphrodite
(c) Monoecious
(d) Bisexual
Answer:
(a) Dioecious

Question 19.
Find the odd one. Bulbil, Bulb, Rhizome, Stem tuber.
Answer:
Bulbil

Question 20.
Identify the correctly matched pair.
(a) Chlamydomonas – conidia
(b) Sponge – Zoospore
(c) Hydra – bud
Answer:
(c) Hydra – bud

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Sugarcane, Banana, Ginger, and Onion are flowering plants. But these are mostly cultivated by vegetative propagation.

  1. What is meant by vegetative propagation.
  2. Can you identify which part of the above plants are used for vegetative propagation.

Answer:

  1. The regeneration of new plants from the portions of vegetative organs like stem, root, and leaves.
  2. plants are used for vegetative propagation.
  • Sugar cane – stem
  • Banana – Rhizome
  • Ginger – Rhizome
  • Onion – Bulb

Question 2.
Leaves not only produce foods, but also produce young ones. Comment on this statement.
Answer:
In some plants, leaves are organ of vegetative propagation i.e new plants are formed from leaf margins eg-Bryophyllum.

Question 3.
How is pistia and zingiber officinale different in their mode of Asexual reproduction?
Answer:
The above two plants shows vegetative propagation. The vegetative propagation is a form of asexual reproduction The vegetative propagule of pistia is offset (short and thick internode) and zingiber is rhizome (underground stem).

Question 4.
Fill in the blanks by observing the relationship of the first.

  1. Male and female flowers on the same plant: monoecious
    Male and female flowers on different plants: ………….
  2. Fusion of gametes: Syngamy
    Offspring from unfertilized female gamete: ……………

Answer:

  1. Dioecious
  2. Parthenogenesis

Question 5.
Plant can reproduce both vegetatively and sexually. Name any 4 vegetative propagule.
Answer:

  1. Eye of potato,
  2. rhizome of ginger,
  3. bulbil of agave,
  4. offset of water hyacinth.

Question 6.
Given below is a diagram showing particular types of reproduction.
Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Two Mark Questions and Answers 1

  1. Name the process of reproduction.
  2. Briefly explain the process

Answer:

  1. Budding
  2. It is the mode of asexual reproduction in which the unicellular organism divides unequally and the buds remain attached to the parent cell. Eg. yeast.

Question 7.
Given below the figures of different types of reproduction present in organisms. Identify and name the type of reproduction.
Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Two Mark Questions and Answers 2
Answer:

  1. Zoospores in chlamydomanas
  2. Conidia of penicillium
  3. Eyes of potato
  4. Leaf buds of bryophyllum.

Question 8.
Match the following: (Hint: Name of organisms in column A and asexual reproductive structure in Column B)

AB
1. Chlamydomonas
2.  Penicillium
3.  Hydra
4.  Sponge
1. Gemmules
2. Buds
3. Zoospores
4. Conidia

Answer:

AB
1.  Chamydomonas
2.  Pencillium
3.  Hydra
4.  Sponge
Zoospores
Conidia
Buds
Gemmules

Question 9.
In diploid organisms, meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked. Justify.
Answer:
In diploid organism, reproductive cells undergoes reduction division – meiosis and produces haploid gametes. Gametogenesis means the process of gamete formation. So meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked.

Question 10.
Categorize the following into pre and post-fertilization changes in plants. Gamete transfer, pericarp formation, ovule development, embryogenesis.
Answer:
Pre fertilization-ovule development and gamete transfer. Post fertilization -embryogenesis and pericarp formation.

Question 11.
Events of sexual reproduction is given below.

  1. Write the events in a sequential order. Fertilization, gamete transfer, zygote, gameto – genesis, embryogenesis.
  2. Point out the differences between gametogenesis and embryogenesis

Answer:

  1. Gametogenesis, gamete transfer, fertilization, zygote, embryogenesis.

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Two Mark Questions and Answers 3

Question 12.
‘Water-hyacinth’ is commonly called ‘Terror of Bengal’. Give reason.
Answer:
‘Water-hyacinth’ is a highly spreading aquatic weeds, which drains oxygen from the water and leads to the death of fishes.

Question 13.
Bamboo plant and strobilanthus kunthianus (Neela Kurunji) have similarity and dissimilarity in their reproductive and vegetative character. Justify.
Answer:

  1. Similarity – Both Bamboo and neela kurinji are perennial plants.
  2. Dissimilarity – Bamboo flowers only once in their life time (in the period of 50-100 years) and die whereas neelakurinji flowers once in 12 years.

Question 14.
Zygote is called as the vital link. Why?
Answer:
Zygote is the product of fertilization, that maintains the continuity of species between organisms of one generation and the next.

Question 15.
Post fertilization changes in flowering plants are given, by observing the given pair complete the others.
(a) Zygote: Embryo
(b) Ovule: ……….
(c) Ovary: ………
(d) Nucellus: Perlsperm
(e) Integument: ……….
(f) PEN: ………..
Answer:
(b) Ovule: Seed
(c) Ovary: Fruit
(e) Integument: seed coat
(d) PEN: Endosperm

Question 16.
Leaves are used not only for photosynthesis but also for reproduction.

  1. Name the type of reproduction
  2. Give an example.

Answer:

  1. Vegetative propagation
  2. Eg-Broyophyllum

Question 17.
Observe the relationship between first two terms and fill up the blanks.
1. Asexual reproduction – Unparental
Sexual reproduction……………….

2. Zygote: Diploid nucleus: Endosperm: ………….

3. Pea: non albuminous: wheat ………….
Answer:

  1. biparental
  2. Triploid nucleus
  3. albuminous

Question 18.
In yeast and Amoeba the parent cell divides to give rise to two new individual cells. How does the cell division differ in these two organisms?
Answer:

  • In yeast, the cell division is unequal and small buds are produced.
  • In Amoeba, the cell division is equal and identical daughter cells are produced.

Question 19.
Offsprings formed due to sexual reproduction have better chances of survival. Why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction combines the characters of two parents and introduces variations which make the offsprings better in environmental adaptation.

Question 20.
Some organism are capable of producing fertilized egg but others are not possible.

  1. Name the organism producing fertilized egg.
  2. Why are offspring of oviparous-animals subjected to greater risk as compared to offsprings of viviparous animals.

Answer:

  1. oviparous animals
  2. In oviparous orgaisms development of zygote take place outside the body of the female parent while in viviparous organisms development of zygote take place inside the body of female organisms. Hence viviparous type get proper embryonic care and protection.

Question 21.
In one type plant Adventitious buds develops into new leafy shoot by leaf as means of vegetative propagation but in others by rhizome. Give examples for leaf and rhizome used as unit of vegetative propagation.
Answer:

  • Leave – bryophyllum
  • Rhizome – banana, and Ginger

Question 22.
In certain lower plants, equal and un equal daughter cells are produced by asexual reproduction. Name these Asexual Reproduction with examples
Answer:
In binary fission equal daughter cells are produced. Example bacteria and Paramecium. In budding two unequal daughter cells are produced. Example Yeast and hydra.

Question 23.
In lower plants movement of gametes takes place by water but in seed plants male gametes are non motile. Which part of plant helps the movement of gametes?
Answer:
Pollen tube

Question 24.
Haploid gametes are produced in bryophytes and angiosperms by two types of cell division. Name it
Answer:

  • bryophytes-Mitosis
  • angiosperms-meiosis

Question 25.
Sexual reproduction is very common in higher plants to produce young ones that shows variation.

  1. Name the product formed in sexual reproduction is considered as vital link
  2. Give its significance

Answer:

  1. product-zygote
  2. It maintains continuity of species for many generation.

Question 26.
Nature prefer internal fertilization than external fertilisaiton. Do you agree with this statement.
Answer:
Yes, In nature the advanced plants and animals show internal fertilisation.

Question 27.
In fishes gamete fusion takes place in external medium. Give the disadvantage of this method.
Answer:
The offsprings formed through external fertilisation are subjected to the attack of predators.

Question 28.
Animals are categorized into viviparous and oviparous based on the development of the Zygote takes place outside the body or inside. In which of these two types the chances of survival is greater. Why?
Answer:
In oviparous animals like reptiles and birds, the fertilised eggs after the period of incubation young ones hatch out. In viviparous animals, the zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female organism. After the period of growth, they are delivered out. The chances of survival is greater in viviparous animals.

Question 29.
Mention the characteristic feature and a function of zoospore in some algae.
Answer:

  • Zoospores are flagellated, motile aquatic bodies
  • On germination give rise to new plants

Question 30.
Name the site of occurrence of syngamy in amphibians and reptiles.
Answer:

  • In amphibians syngamy occurs outside the body of organism i.e external.
  • In reptile syngamy occur inside the body of the organism i.e internal

Question 31.
What are the three major phases in the life cycle of an organism? Define each phase.
Answer:
Juvenile phase, Reproductive phase, senescent phase

  • Juvenile phase-The phase of growth in the organisms before reproductive maturity
  • Reproductive phase- In this phase organism attains reproductive maturity
  • Senescent phase- The phase between reproductive maturity and death

Question 32.
How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those formed by sexual reproduction?
Answer:
The progeny formed from asexual reproduction is the product of single parent and does not have genetic variations.

Question 33.
In yeast and amoeba the parent cell divides and give rise to two new individual cells. How does the cell division differ in these two organisms?
Answer:
In yeast, cell division is unequal and small buds are produced that remain attached to parent cell. In amoeba the cell division is equal and produces identical daughter cells.

Question 34.
Mention the site where syngamy occurs in amphibians and reptiles respectively.
Answer:
In amphibians syngamy occurs outside the body of organisms in the external medium (water). In reptiles syngamy occurs inside the body of an organism.

Question 35.
The turkey usually produces females for several. generations. How is this possible?
Answer:
In a turkey, female gametes undergo development without fertilization. This phenomenon is called parthenogenesis.

Question 36.
Leaves not only produce food but also produce young ones. Substantiate.
Answer:
In few plants the leaves are the means of vegetative propagation in addition to photosynthesis. In such plants, plantlets are formed on the leaves eg- Bryophyllum.

Question 37.
Observe the figures given below, identify and name the organisms and their asexual reproductive structures.
Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Two Mark Questions and Answers 4
Answer:
Organisms – Asexual reproductive Structures

  1. Chlamydomonas – Zoospore
  2. Penicilium – Conidia

Question 38.
The chromosome number in the meiocyte of housefly is 12 and that of its gamete is 6. Write the reason for the change in chromosome number of meiocyte and gamete.
Answer:
Meiocyte is a diploid cell undergo reduction division to form haploid gametes.

Question 39.
In coconut, male and female flowers are separate. Write the technical term for the male and female flowers. Write the condition of the flower.
Answer:

  1. Female flower – pistillate
  2. Male flower – staminate
  3. Condition of the flower – unisexual

Question 40.
Observe the figures given below. Identify the gametes in A and B. Justify your answer.
Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Two Mark Questions and Answers 5
Answer:

  1. Homogametes
  2. Heterogametes

In first figure gamates come to fusion have similar structure but in second figure gametes have dissimilar structure.

Question 41.
Match the items of column A with B

AB
a. Offseti. Ginger
b. Bulbii. Agave
c. Rhizomeiii. Onion
d. Adventitious leaf budsiv. Water hyacinth
v. Bryophyllum

Answer:
Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Two Mark Questions and Answers 6

Question 42.
Analyse the table given below and fill in the blanks.
Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Two Mark Questions and Answers 7
Answer:

  1. Hermaphrodite or bisexual
  2. Female gamete develops into new organism without fertilisation
  3. majority of algae or fishes or amphibians
  4. Fertilisation occurs inside the body

Question 43.
The chances of survival of young ones is greater in viviparous organisms than oviparous organisms. Justify this statement.
Answer:
In viviparous organisms the zygote develops into young one inside the body of the female organism. So during the course of development proper embryonic care and protection is provided inside the female organism.

Question 44.
In some organisms male and female reproductive organs are seen in the same individual. Name that condition. Give two examples of such organisms.
Answer:
Hermaphrodite Eg.Earthworm, Leech.

Question 45.
Name of certain plants and their vegetative propagules are given below. Make correct pairs using them. Agave, Offset, Ginger, Bulb, Bulbil, Water hyacinth, Potato, Bryophyllum, Rhizome
Answer:

  1. Agave – Bulbil
  2. Ginger-Rhizome
  3. Water hyacinth – offset
  4. Onion-Bulb

Question 46.
Gametogenesis and gamete transfer are the two prefertilisation events. Write the differences between the two.
Answer:
Gametogenesis – It is the formation of gametes.
Gamete transfer – It is the transfer of male gamete to the female gamete.

Question 47.
Based on the nature of reproduction, organisms are classified as continuous breeders and seasonal breeders. Write the difference between the two.
Answer:

  1. Continuous breeders – They are reproductively active throughout their reproductive phase.
  2. Seasonal breeders – They reproduce only during favourable seasons in their reproductive phase.

Question 48.
Observe the relationship between the first two terms and fill in the blanks.

  1. Hydra: Bud; …….: Gemmule
  2. Birds: Internal fertilization; …….External fertilization.

Answer:

  1. Sponge: gemmule
  2. Algae or fishes or amphibian

Question 49.
Fertilisation in some organisms occur outside the body. Name that kind of fertilization. Write its disadvantage.
Answer:
External fertilization
In this type young ones are subjected to threat of predators. So, it is the disadvantage of external fertilisation.

Question 50.
The offspring formed by asexual reproduction is referred to as clone. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Offsprings formed are morphologically and genetically similar among themselves and to their parents. So such individuals are called clone.

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
During sexual reproduction-fertilization is an important process. But in most aquatic organisms like fishes, amphibians, etc. external fertilization occur. In most terrestrial organisms internal fertilization is common.

  1. Point out the differences between external and internal fertilization.
  2. Write the disadvantages of external fertilization.

Answer:
(a) 1. External Fertilization:
Syngamy occurs in the external medium – water i.e. outside the body of organisms. Eggs and sperms are released outside the female and male parents respectively and move through water before fusion of gametes.

2. Internal Fertilization:
Syngamy occurs inside the body of organisms. Egg is formed inside the female body where they fuse with male gamete that is released by the male parent.

(b) Offsprings formed by external fertilization, are extremely vulnerable to predators threatening their survival up to adulthood.

Question 2.
Write technical terms for the following.

  1. Morphologically different types of gametes.
  2. Process of formation of male and female gametes.
  3. Formation of new organisms without fertilization.

Answer:

  1. Heterogametes
  2. Gametogenesis
  3. Parthenogenesis

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In bacteria and lower organisms offspring formed are close similar among themselves and to their parents.

  1. Name offsprings derived through such process
  2. Write down the 2 characterstics of such offsprings

Answer:

  1. Clone
  2. Morphologically and genetically similar

Question 2.
The offsprings formed by a sexual reproduction have better chances of survival. Why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction combines the characters of two parents and introduces variations which make the offsprings better in environmental adaption.

Question 3.
How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those formed by sexual reproduction?
Answer:
The progeny formed from asexual reproduction is the product of single parent and does not have genetic variations.

Question 4.
In some lower and higher plants offsprings are produced shows greater similarity and it occurs mainly through asexual reproduction, in higher plants the process occurs through vegetative propagation.

  1. What is vegetative propagation?
  2. Give two suitable examples.

Answer:
1. The process of multiplication, in which parts or fragments of the plant act as reproductive unit or propagule to form new individuals is called vegetative propagation.

2. Examples,

  • Buds (eyes) of Potato.
  • Rhizome of Ginger.

Question 5.
Distinguish between asexual and sexual reproduction. Why is vegetative reproduction also considered as a type of asexual reproduction?
Answer:

Asexual reproductionSexual reproduction
1. It is always uniparental
2. There is no formation and fusion of gametes.
3. Only mitotic cell division takes place.
4. Offsprings are genetically identical to the parent.
1. It is usually biparental
2. Formation and fusion of gametes take place.
3. It involves both meiosis and mitosis.
4. Offsprings genetically differ from the parent.

Vegetative reproduction involves single parent and its offsprings are genetically identical hence it is considered as a type of asexual reproduction.

Question 6.
Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity. Why?
Answer:
Because sexual reproduction induces genetic variability(adaptations) which make the offsprings better equipped for the struggle of existence.

Question 7.
Some organism are capable of producing fertilized egg but others are not possible.

  1. Name the organism producing fertilized egg.
  2. Why are offspring of oviparous animals at a greater risk as compared to offsprings of viviparous animals.

Answer:

  1. oviparous animals
  2. In oviparous orgaisms development of zygote take place outside the body of the female parent, (they lay fertilized /unfertilized egg). In viviparous organisms development of zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female organism.

This offers proper embryonic care and protection and have better chances of survival than young ones of viviparous organisms.

Question 8.
Prefertilisation events events of sexual reproduction in all organisms are gametogenesis and gamete transfer.

  1. What are the post fertilization events?
  2. Name the parts of plants such as ovary, ovule and ovary wall develop in post fertilization process.

Answer:

  1. Zygote formation Embrogenesis
  2. Ovary-fruit, ovule-seed, ovary wall -pericarp

Plus Two Botany Reproduction in Organisms Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In papaya, the flowers are:
(a) Unisexual
(b) Bisexual
(c) neuter
(d) Flowers are not formed
Answer:
(a) Unisexual

Question 2.
In vegetative propagation, characters of parent plants are:
(a) Changed
(b) Not preserved
(c) preserved
(d) Exchanged
Answer:
(c) preserved

Question 3.
Rhizopus reproduces asexually by:
(a) Conidia
(b) Spores
(c) Gemma
(d) Bulbil
Answer:
(b) Spores

Question 4.
In potato, vegetative propagation takes place by:
(a) Root
(b) Leaf
(c) Grafting
(d) Stem tuber
Answer:
(d) Stem tuber

Question 5.
Vegetatively propagated plants are:
(a) Genetically similar
(b) Genetically dissimilar
(c) Do not bear roots
(d) Do not form buds
Answer:
(a) Genetically similar

Question 6.
Syngamy means:
(a) Fusion of similar spores
(b) Fusion of dissimilar spores
(c) Fusion of cytoplasm
(d) Fusion of gametes
Answer:
(d) Fusion of gametes

Question 7.
In which pair both the plants can be vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces?
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(b) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(c) Agave and Kalanchoe
(d) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
Answer:
(a) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe

Question 8.
Regeneration of a plant, cell to give rise to new plant is called :
(a) Reproduction
(b) Budding,
(c) Totipotency
(d) Pleuripotency
Answer:
(c) Totipotency

Question 9.
Hydra reproduces asexually through:
(a) iragmettatwn
(b) Budding
(c) binary fission
(d) Sporulation
Answer:
(d) Sporulation

Question 10.
Animals giving birth to young ones are
(a) Oviparous
(b) Ovoviviparous
(c) viviparous
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(c) viviparous

Question 11.
The offspring that are exactly identical to one another as well as identical to their parents are called as
(a) clone
(b) twins
(c) replicates
(d) drones
Answer:
(a) clone

Question 12.
Buds and conidia are asexual reproductive structures of
(a) hydra&rhizopus
(b) rhizopus & penciriium
(c) hydra & pencillium
(d) both a&b
Answer:
(c) hydra & pencillium

Question 13.
Banana is multiplied through
(a) suckers
(b) seeds
(c) rhizome
(d) stolen
Answer:
(c) rhizome

Question 14.
In rotifers, the type of reproduction responsible for the organisms to multiply is
(a) apomixis
(b) parthenogenesis
(c) asexual reproduction
(d) sexual reproduction
Answer:
(b) parthenogenesis

Question 15.
Bulbils are employed for multiplication of
(a) bryophyllum
(b) crocus
(c) Agave
(d) strawberry
Answer:
(c) Agave

Question 16.
During favourable condition Amoeba reproduces by
(a) binary fission
(b) buds
(c) multiple fission
(d) both a and c
Answer:
(a) binary fission

Question 17.
After post-fertilization, the ovary and ovule develops into
(a) pericarp and fruit
(b) fruit and seed
(c) fruit and seed coat
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) fruit and seed

Question 18.
The plants which flower every year after attaining certain maturity are called
(a) monocarpic
(b) polycarpic
(c) perennials
(d) annuals
Answer:
(b) polycarpic

Question 19.
The type of reproduction occurs in ciliated protozoans is
(a) syngamy
(b) conjugation
(c) budding
(d) cross fertilization
Answer:
(b) conjugation

Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II

Students can Download Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II

Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II One Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Accountancy Financial Statement Questions And Answers Question 1.
Closing stock is valued at
(a) Market Price
(b) Cost Price
(c) Market Price or Cost Price whichever is less.
Answer:
(c) Market Price or Cost Price whichever is less.

Financial Statements Without Adjustments Class 11 Solutions Question 2.
Carriage inward is debited to …………… account.
(a) Trading account
(b) Profit and Loss Account
(c) Cash Account
Answer:
(a) Trading Account

Plus One Accountancy Textbook Questions And Answers Question 3.
Balance Sheet is prepared to find out ……………
(a) Capital
(b) Net Profit
(c) Financial position
Answer:
(c) Financial Position

Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 4.
Gross profit is the difference between ……………..
(a) Sales and Purchases
(b) Sales and total cost
(c) Sales and cost of goods sold
Answer:
(c) Sales and cost of goods sold

Trading And Profit And Loss Account Questions Question 5.
Interest on capital is ……………… to the business.
(a) Income
(b) Expenses
(c) Asset
Answer:
(b) Expenses

Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 6.
Wages paid before it has become due is shown in the balance sheet as ……………..
(a) Asset
(b) Liability
(c) Expenses
Answer:
(a) Asset

Financial Statement With Adjustment Class 11 Question 7.
Ameer’s trial balance contains the following information.

  • Bad debt Rs.400
  • Provision for bad debts Rs. 1600

It is desired to maintain a provision for bad debts at Rs. 1500. The amount to be debited to profit and loss a/c is ………….
(a) Rs. 3500
(b) Rs. 100
(c) Rs. 300
Answer:
(c) Rs. 300

Trade Expenses In Final Accounts Question 8.
Profit from Profit and Loss account is transferred to …………… account.
(a) Asset account
(b) Capital account
(c) Liability account
Answer:
(b) Capital Account

Trade Expenses In Profit And Loss Account Question 9.
The Financial statements consist of:
(a) Trial Balance
(b) Profit and Loss account
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Both b and c
Answer:
(d) Both b and c

Find The Odd One Out Rent Salary Insurance Plant And Machinery Question 10.
Choose the correct order of ascertainment of the fol¬lowing profits from the profit and loss account:
(a) Operating profit. Net Profit, Gross profit
(b) Operating profit, Gross Profit, Net Profit
(c) Gross Profit, Operating Profit, Net Profit
(d) Gross Profit, Net Profit, Operating Profit
Answer:
(c) Gross profit, Operating profit, Net Profit

Trading Account Questions And Answers Question 11.
Which of the following are not taken into account at the time of calculation of operating profit?
(a) Normal transactions
(b) Abnormal items
(c) Expenses of a purely financial nature
(d) Both a and c
Answer:
(c) Expenses of a purely financial nature

Trading Profit And Loss Account Questions And Answers Question 12.
If the insurance premium paid Rs. 1,000 and prepaid insurance of Rs. 400. The amount of insurance premium shown in profit and loss a/c will be:
(a) Rs. 1400
(b) Rs. 1000
(c) Rs. 400
(d) Rs. 600
Answer:
(d) Rs. 600

Financial Statement With Adjustment Class 11 Questions Question 13.
When the Manager is entitled to a commission of 10% on profits after charging such commission, it is calculated on profits before charging commission by the formula ………….
(a) 10/90
(b) 10/100
(c) 10/110
(d) 90/100
Answer:
(c) 10/110

Question 14.
Profit and Loss Account is an account prepared to find out ………………
Answer:
Net Profit or Net Loss.

Question 15
Income tax paid for the trader from the business is treated as …………..
Answer:
Drawings.

Question 16.
Adjustments are made in the final accounts to satisfy ………. principle of accounting
Answer:
Matching Principle.

Question 17.
Free samples distributed among customer’s will be credited to ……….. account.
Answer:
Advertisement Account.

Question 18.
…………….. is an expenditure of the revenue nature in the current year, the benefit of which accrues gradually or lasts for more than one accounting year.
Answer:
Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Question 19.
EBIT stands for …………………
Answer:
Earnings Before Interest and Tax

Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the odd one and state the reason.

  1. Wages, carriage, Trade expenses, Freight
  2. Income tax paid, Salary paid, Rent paid, Wages paid

Answer:

  1. Trade expense – It is an indirect expense, all others are direct expenses.
  2. Income tax paid – It is a personal expense of the Proprietor, all others are business expenses.

Question 2.
The sales and cost of goods sold by John Brothers are Rs. 40,000 and Rs. 28,000 respectively. What is the amount of his gross profit?
Answer:
Gross profit = Sales – Cost of goods sold
= 40,000 – 28,000 = Rs. 12,000

Question 3.
What are the financial statements?
Answer:
The term Financial Statements generally refers to two statements prepared at the end of an accounting period for an enterprise. These are Trading and Profit and Loss Account, showing profitability of the business operations and Balance sheet, showing the financial position of the enterprises.

Question 4.
A new manufacturer incurred huge expenditure in advertisement. Explain the nature of expenditure.
Answer:
Deferred Revenue Expenditure:
“Expenses incurred today, and the benefit of which accrue gradually in subsequent year is called Deferred Revenue Expenditure. For example Expenses like advertisement, which may be incurred in one lump sum but the benefit of which will be received only within a series of years. The proportionate amount due the current year must be arrived at and debited to the P/L account. The balance must be shown on the assets side of the Balance sheet.

Question 5.
Calculate the value of cost of goods sold.

  • Opening stock – 10,000
  • Net purchases – 5,000
  • Direct expenses – 2,000
  • Closing stock – 10,500

Answer:
Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net Purchases + Direct Expenses – Closing stock
= (10,000 + 5000 + 2000) – 10500 = Rs. 6,500

Question 6.
What is Operating profit?
Answer:
Operating profit is the profit earned through the normal operations and activities of the business. Operating profit can be calculated as follows:
Operating profit = (Gross profit – Operating expense) + Operating income.

Or

= Net Profit + Non-operating expenses – Non-operating income.
Examples of non-operating expenses are loss on sale of assets, interest paid etc. Non-operating incomes are dividend received, Profit on sale of assets.

Question 7.
Operating profit earned by M/s. Asoka & Sons in 2010-11 was Rs. 17,00,000. Its non-operating incomes were Rs. 1,50,000 and non-operating expenses were Rs.3,75,000. Calculate the amount of net profit earned by the firm.
Answer:
Net profit = Operating profit – Non-operating expenses + Non operating income = 1700000 – 375000 + 150000 Net Profit =Rs. 1475000

Question 8 .
Explain the treatment of goods distributed as sample to customers.
Answer:
In order to increase sales, goods may be distributed among customers free of cost. Such free goods are in the form of samples for test use. It is in the form of advertisement expense. The amount is to be deducted from the purchases in the trading account. The cost of the sample is to be shown as an expenses in the profit and loss account.

Question 9.
To tally a balance sheet, one has to strictly adhere to the basic accounting equation ‘Asset = Liabilities + Captial’. Do you agree with this statement? Substantiate.
Answer:
Every transaction has two aspects which are equal in value but opposite in nature. One of the aspects will form part of liability and the other one asset. Be¬cause of this feature of accounting equation, a balance sheet is always tallied.

Question 10.

  • Closing stock – Rs. 30,000
  • Sales – Rs. 1,00,000

Gross Profit 20% on sale

  • Purchases – Rs. 60,000
  • Direct Wages – Rs. 7000

Find out opening stock.
Answer:
Opening stock = Sales + Closing stock – (Purchases + Direct Expense + Gross Profit)
= 1,00,000 + 30,000 – (60,000 + 7,000 + 20,000)
= 1,30,000 – 87,000 = 43,000

Question 11.
Provide provision for bad debt @ 10% on debtors from the particulars given below.

  • Good Debts Rs. 10,000
  • Doubtful debts Rs. 50,000
  • Bad debts Rs. 1000

Answer:
Provision for doubtful debts = Doubtful debts × % of provision for bad debt
= 50000 × 10/100 = Rs. 5000

Question 12.
Payment received from debtors does not result a change in the total assets. Comment.
Answer:
When the payment is received from debtors the asset, cash is increased and also a corresponding decrease happens on the asset, Debtors. Therefore, there won’t be any change in the value of total assets in effect.

Question 13.
What is meant by provision for discount on debtors?
Answer:
This is a discount which is being allowed by an enterprise to its debtors to encourage prompt payments. Discount likely to be allowed to customers in an accounting year can be estimated and provided for by creating a provision for discount on debtors. Here, it is to be remembered that provision for discount made on good debtors which are arrived at by deducting further bad debts and the provision for doubtful debts.

Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between capital and revenue expenditure.
Answer:
1. Capital expenditure increases earning capacity of business whereas revenue expenditure is incurred to maintain the earning capacity.

2. Capital expenditure is incurred to acquire fixed assets for operation of business whereas revenue expenditure is incurred on the day-to-day conduct of business.

3. Revenue Expenditure is recurring expenditure but capital expenditure is non-recurring by nature.

Question 2.
Differentiate between Direct and Indirect Expenses.
Answer:
1. Direct Expenses:
Means all expenses directly connected with the manufacture, purchase of goods and bringing them to the point of sale. Direct expenses include carriage inward, freight inwards, octroi, clearing charges, wages, factory lighting, coal, water, gas, fuel, import duty, cotton waste, royalty on production, heating, dock dues, customs duty etc.

2. Indirect expenses:
Are those expenses which are incurred after the manufacturing of goods. In other words, Indirect expenses are those expenses that are incurred to operate a business as a whole. Indirect expense include – carriage outward, rent, rates and tax, office expenses, selling and distribution expenses.

Question 3.
Mention the difference between a Balance Sheet and a Trial Balance. (Any two points).
Answer:

Trial BalanceBalance Sheet
1. It is a list of all account balances1. It is prepared with the balances of real and personal accounts only.
2. It is prepared to check the arithmetical accuracy of books of accounts.2. It is prepared to ascertain the financial position of the firm.
3. It is prepared frequently.3. It is usually prepared annually.

Question 4.
Calculate closing stock from the following

  • Sales – 20,000
  • Purchases – 12,300
  • Return inwards – 500
  • Carriage inwards – 400
  • Return outwards – 1,000
  • Gross Profit – 8000

Answer:
Trading Account

Question 5.
On 1st January 2008, a firm had a stock of goods valued at Rs. 10,000. During the year the following transactions took place.

  • Sales – 2,00,000
  • Purchases – 1,20,000
  • Carriage inwards – 500
  • Sales returns – 2,000
  • Purchase returns – 1,000
  • Find out the amount of Gross Profit.

Answer:

  1. Gross Profit = Net Sales – Cost of goods sold
  2. Net sales = 2,00,000 – 2,000 = 1,98,000
  3. Net Purchase = 1,20,000 -1000 = 1,19,000.
  4. Cost of goods sold = 10,000 + 1,19,000 + 500 = 1,29,500
  5. Gross Profit = 1,98,000 – 1,29,500 = Rs. 68,500

Question 6.
What do you mean by Profit and Loss Account.
Answer:
Profit and Loss a/c is an account prepared to find out the net profit earned or net loss incurred by a business during an accounting period. It is debited with all operating expenses and losses and credited with incomes and profit. This account begins with the Gross Profit or Gross Loss brought down from Trading A/c.

If the total of the credit side of this account is more than the total of the debit side, the difference is net profit. If the total of the debit side exceeds the total of the credit side, the difference is net loss. The amount of net profit or net loss transferred to capital account.

Question 7.
From the following information calculate operating profit.

  • Cost of goods sold – Rs. 5,00,000
  • Administrative expenses – 25,000
  • Selling & Distribution expenses – 35,000
  • Net sales – 7,50,000

Answer:

  • Operating Profit = Gross Profit – (Operating expenses + Operating income)
  • Gross Profit = Net sales – Cos of goods sold = 7,50,000-5,00,000 = 2,50,000
  • Operating Expenses = Administration expense + Selling and Distribution exp.
  • Operating Profit = 2,50,000 – (25,000+ 35,000) = Rs. 1,90,000

Question 8.
What do you mean by Deferred Revenue Expenditure? Can you present it with a suitable example?
Answer:
“Deferred Revenue Expenditure is an expenditure of the revenue nature in the current year, the benefit of which accrues gradually or lasts for more than one accounting year.”

Examples are advertisements of usually high amounts, cost of shifting business to a more convenient location, etc. The amounts spend on such expenses would be spread over the period for which the benefit arises. Suppose if a concern spends Rs. 5 lakh for advertisement and it is expected that the benefit of its lasts for 5 years, the amount to be treated as current year’s expenditure is only one fifth (1/5) of Rs. 5 lakhs ie. Rs. 1 lakh. The balance Rs. 4 lakhs would be treated as an asset.

Question 9.
State the reasons why the following items appear or not in the Profit and Loss A/c.

  1. Bad debts
  2. Drawings
  3. Provision for bad debts.

Answer:

  1. Bad debts is an indirect expenditure and hence it appears in the Profit and Loss A/c.
  2. Drawings will reduce the capital a/c. Therefore, it cannot be shown in the P/L a/c.
  3. Provision for bad debt is a charge against profit. Hence it will appear in the P/LA/c.

Question 10.
Mr. Narayanan, an accountant of Samay Ltd wrote off Rs. 2000 as bad debts in the year 2004. The total
Sundry debtors for the year 2005 is Rs. 26,000. During this year half of the bad debts written off in the last year were recovered. Give Journal Entry for the recovery of bad debts and also show how it will be dealt in the financial statement for the year 2005.
Answer:
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 2

Question 11.
What are adjusting entries? Why are they necessary for preparing final accounts?
Answer:
Entries which are given outside the trial balance are called adjustment entries, to record those entries a proper treatment is required according to the double-entry system. Here it is to be remembered that all the adjustments given outside the Trial Balance are posted at two places.

Adjustment is generally done for those items which are omitted or entered with the wrong amount and/or recorded under wrong heads. The following are reasons for recording or. incorporating these adjustment entries in preparation of final account.

  1. Through these adjustment entries, we come to know the actual figure of profit or loss.
  2. Because of these adjusting entries, we can assess the true financial position of an organisation based on accrual basis of accounting.
  3. These adjustment entries enable us to records the omitted entries and help in rectifying all those errors.
  4. These adjusting entries help in providing depreciation and making different provisions, such as Bad Debts and Depreciation.

Question 12.
What is meant by provision for doubtful debts? How are ‘the relevant accounts prepared and what journal entries are recorded in final accounts? How is the amount for provision for doubtful debts calculated?
Answer:
Provision for doubtful debts is a kind of arrangement about the expect bad debts from the debtors. Generally it is provided after deducting the amount of bad debts from the debtors. As provision for doubtful debts is made after preparing the trial balance, to record it we need a kind of adjustment entry in this regard we prepare debtors account and provision for doubtful debts account. For recording bad debts, the following journal entry is passed.

  • Profit and Loss A/c Dr
    To Provision for Doubtful Debts A/c (Being provision for doubtful debts is created out of current year profits)

Computation of the Amount of Provision for Doubtful Debts As it is given at the end of a trial balance as an adjustment, little another related adjustment may be there for instance bad debts and discount on debtors. In this case provision for doubtful debt will be created after deducting the figure for bad debts out of the debtor figure.

Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Trading Account? Explain its purpose.
Answer:
The trading account is an account which shows the results of buying and selling of goods or services. It contains summarized form of all the transactions occurring during a trading period. This account is credited with direct incomes and debited with direct expenses.

Trading account is prepared to ascertain the gross result of the business. The gross result of the business is either gross profit or gross loss. If the net sales exceeds cost of goods sold then there is gross profit and if the opposite takes place, there is a gross loss.

Gross profit = Net sales – Cost of goods sold Gross Loss = Cost of goods sold – Net Sales Purposes of a trading account are:

  1. To ascertain the gross profit or gross loss.
  2. To enable the management to make a comparison of gross profit or gross loss with that of the previous year.
  3. To ascertain different ratios such as gross profit ratio, ratio of cost of goods sold to sales etc.

Question2.
From the following details, prepare Trading Account.

  • Opening stock – Rs. 12500
  • Purchases – Rs. 22,000
  • Purchase returns – Rs.2000
  • Wages – Rs. 2000
  • Carriage inwards – Rs. 500
  • Sales – Rs. 57,000
  • Sales returns – Rs. 3,000
  • Closing stock – Rs. 15,000

Answer:
Trading Account for the year ended ………..
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 3

Question 3.
What is a Balance Sheet? Explain the needs for preparing Balance Sheet.
Answer:
A Balance Sheet is a statement prepared to ascertain the true position of assets and liabilities as on a particular date. It is prepared at the end of the accounting period, after the preparation of Trading and Profit and Loss account. It is called Balance sheet, as it is a statement prepared with the balance of accounts left after the preparation of Trading and Profit and Loss account.

It gives clear picture of the financial position of the concern. Accounts of Assets, liabilities and Owner’s equity are shown in the Balance Sheet. Items of liabilities and capital are shown on the left side, known as “liabilities” side and the item of assets are shown on the right-hand side, known as “Assets” side of the balance sheet. Balance sheet is prepared with the following objectives.

  1. To ascertain the financial position of the concern.
  2. To ascertain the nature of assets and liabilities of the firm.
  3. To know about the source and application of funds.
  4. To ascertain working capital as on the date of Balance sheet.
  5. To ascertain the excess of assets over external liabilities.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Grouping and Marshalling of assets and liabilities?
Answer:
1. Grouping:
The term grouping means putting together items of similar nature under a common heading in the Balance sheet.

2. Marshaling:
Marshaling denotes the order in which the assets and liabilities are shown in the Balance sheet. They are arranged in the following two different ways.

a. In the order of liquidity:
Liquidity means the capacity to raise cash, Under these approach assets are presented in the order of their liquidity. ‘Cash’ being the most liquid item, it is shown as the first item whereas the least liquid item such as ‘Goodwill’ is shown as the last one. The most urgent liability is shown first and the least urgent to pay is shown last.

b. In the order of permanence:
Linder this approach, permanent assets, and liabilities are shown first followed by current assets and liabilities. Joint Stock Companies have to prepare their Balance sheet in the order of permanence. This is just the reverse of the order of liquidity.

Question 5.
Show the treatment in financial statements in respect of the following:

  1. Outstanding expenses
  2. Managers commission
  3. Interest on capital

Answer:
1. Outstanding expenses:
Expenses that have been incurred during the current year, but the payment has not been made is called outstanding expenses. It must be added to respective expense account in the Trading and Profit and Loss account. It will be shown on the ‘liability’ side of the Balance sheet.

2. Managers Commission:
Commission on net profit, at a specific percentage, may be allowed to the manager of a business concern. The commission as a percentage of the net profit may be ‘before’ or ‘after’ charging such commission. In the absence of any special instructions, it is assumed that commission is allowed as a percentage of the net profit before charging such commission.

  • If the commission is on the net profit before charging such commission, the formula is
    Profit before commission × \(\frac{\text { rate of commission }}{100}\)
  • If the commission is on the net profit after charging such commission the formula is
    Profit × rate/(100 + rate)
  • The amount of commission must be debited to Profit and Loss account and it must be shown as a liability in the Balance sheet.

3. Interest on capital:
Sometimes interest is paid on the Proprietor’s capital. Interest is allowed at a certain rate on the capital at the beginning of the year. Such interest is an expense to the business and is debited to Profit and Loss Account. It is shown in the liability side by adding the same to capital.

Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
From the following figures, prepare profit and loss account of M/s. Thomas and Sons for the year ended 31.03.2008.

  • Gross Profit – 15000
  • Printing charges – 750
  • Salaries – 5000
  • Carriage outwards – 500
  • Interest received – 2000
  • Bad debts – 500
  • Insurance charges – 400
  • Discount allowed 650
  • Discount received – 750
  • Advertisement – 440

Answer:
Profit and Loss Account of M/s. Thomas & Sons for the year ended 31.03.08
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 4

Question 2.
Arrange the following assets and liabilities in the order of liquidity and in the order of permanence.
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 5
Answer:
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 6
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 7

Question 3.
Write the adjustment entries for the following:-
a) Salary outstanding Rs. 5000.
b) Insurance prepaid Rs. 5100.
c) Depreciation of Machinery Rs. 4000
d) The commission received in advance Rs. 1000
e) Interest on drawing Rs. 400
Answer:
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 8

Question 4.
What are the closing entries? Give examples.
Answer:
The preparation of trading and profit and loss account requires that the balances of accounts of all concerned items are transferred to it for its compilation. For transferring the balance of all the ledger account to concerned head is done through closing entries.
For examples:
1. Opening stock account, purchase account, wages account, carriage inward account, and direct expense account are closed by transferring to the debit side of the trading and profit and loss account.
The journal entry is:

  • Trading A/c Dr
  • To opening stock A/c
  • To Purchase A/c
  • To Wages A/c
  • To Carriage inward A/c
  • To Direct Expense A/c

2. The purchase return account is closed by transferring its balance to the purchase account. The journal entry is:

  • Purchase Return A/c Dr
  • To Purchase A/c

3. The sales return account is closed by transferring its balance to the sales account as:

  • Sales A/c Dr
  • To Sales Return A/c

4. The Sales account is closed by transferring its balance to the credit side of the trading and profit and loss account.
The Journal entry is:

  • Sales A/c Dr
  • To Trading A/c

Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The following are the extracts from Trial Balance of a business.

  • Sundry Debtors = 40,000
  • Bad debts = 4,000
  • Provision for bad debts = 5,000

Additional Information:

  1. Provide further bad debts Rs. 2000
  2. Create 10% provision for bad debts.

Pass Journal entries and show how these items will appear in the final accounts.
Answer:
Journal
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 9
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 10

Question 2.
Show the treatment of prepaid expenses,
depreciation, closing stock at the time of preparation of final accounts.

  1. When given inside the trial balance.
  2. When given outside the trial balance.

Answer:
Treatment of prepaid expenses, depreciation and closing stock at the time of preparing the final account.
1. When Given Inside the Trial Balance Prepaid Expenses:
When prepaid expenses are given in the trial balance itself it will be treated as current assets only and will be posted in the Assets Side of the balance sheet. No further adjustment will be required in this case.

Depreciation:
When depreciation is given in the trial balance it will be treated as an expenditure and will be shown in the debit side of the Profit and Loss Account. No further adjustment will be required in this case.

Closing Stock:
When closing stock is given in the trial balance it will purely be treated as assets and will be shown only in the Assets Side of the Balance sheet. No further adjustment will be required in this case.

2. When Given Outside the Trial Balance Prepaid Expenses:
When prepaid expenses are given outside the trial balance it will be treated as an Adjustment and will be posted at two places, first of all, it will be deducted from the concerned expenses in the debit side of Profit and Loss Account and after that, it will be treated as current assets and will be posted in the Assets side of the Balance Sheet.

Depreciation:
When depreciation is given outside the trial balance be treated as an adjustment and will be posted at two places to comply with the rules of the double-entry bookkeeping system. First of all the amount of depreciation will be shown in the debit side of Profit and Loss account as an expenditure and the amount of depreciation will be deducted from the concerned assets in the assets side of Balance Sheet.

Closing Stock:
When closing stock is given outside the trial balance it will purely be treated as an adjustment and will be posted at two places first of all the amount of closing stock will be shown at the credit side of Trading Account and after that it will be shown as an assets in the Assets side of the Balance Sheet.

Plus One Accountancy Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The following is the extract takes from the Trial Balance of Vimal.
Trial Balance as on 31.03.2008
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 11
Adjustments:

  1. Salary outstanding has not been recorded – Rs.8000
  2. Prepaid insurance was meant for Proprietor’s son.
  3. Write off further Rs. 200 as bad debts and make a provision for doubtful debts @ 5%.
  4. Depreciate furniture @ 10%.

You are required to prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31.03.2008 and Balance Sheet as on the date.
Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss a/c for the year ended 31.03.2008
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 12
Balance sheet as on 31.03.2008
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 13

Question 2.
Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss a/c for the year ended 31.03.05 and Balance sheet as on that date from the following balance.
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 14
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 15
Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss A/c of Mr. Babu for the year ended 31.03.05
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 16
Balance Sheet of Mr. Babu as on 31.03.05
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 17

Question 3.
The following is the Trial Balance of Vineeth as on 30.06.2008.
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 18
Additional Information:

  1. Closing stock is valued at Rs. 8750.
  2. Provide 5% of debtors for bad debts and 2% of debtors and creditors for discount.
  3. Provide interest on capital at 10% and charge interest on drawings at 5%.
  4. Depreciate delivery van by 20%.
  5. Only one-fifth of advertisement is to be treated as expenses of current year.

Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 30.06.2008 and also a Balance Sheet as on that date.
Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 30.06.08
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 19
Balance Sheet as on 30.06.2008
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 20
Note: Discount on Debtors
= (20000-1000) × 2/100 = 380
Discount on Creditors = 10500 × 2/100 = 210

Question 4.
Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31.03.2005 and a Balance Sheet as on that date from the following balances.
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 21
Adjustments:

  1. Stock on 31.03.05 Rs. 72,600.
  2. Depreciate Plant and Machinery by 33 1/3%, Furniture by 10% and Freehold property by 5%.
  3. Loose tools valued at Rs. 1,760 on 31.3.05.
  4. Of the Sundry debtors Rs. 660 are bad and should be written off.
  5. Maintain a provision of 5% debtors for doubtful debts.
  6. The Manager is entitled to a commission of 10% of the net profits after charging such commission.

Answer:
1. Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 31.03.2005
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 22
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 23
Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2005
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 24
Note: Manager’s Commission:
Net Profit before commission = 49280 (111870-62590)
Therefore, Managers commission @ 10% of Net Profit after charging commission = 49280 × 1°/110 = 4480

Question 5.
The following is the Trial Balance of Balu as on 31/12/2011.
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 25
Adjustments:

  1. Closing stock Rs. 9,500
  2. Depreciate plant and machinery at 10% p.a
  3. Interest on loan at 12% is due for the whole year.
  4. Write off further Rs.400 as bad debts and provision for bad debts is to be made equal to 5% on debtors.
  5. Provide 2% for discount on debtors.

Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended and Balance sheet as on 31/12/2011.
Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31/12/2011
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 26
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 27
Balance sheet as on 31/12/2011
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 28
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 29

Question 6.
The following is the Trial Balance of Mahesh as on 31/3/11.
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 30
Adjustments:

  1. Closing stock Rs. 65,000
  2. Insurance prepaid Rs. 400
  3. Commission earned but not received amounts to Rs. 300
  4. Write off 1/5 of leasehold premises and provide a depreciation of 10% on plant and machinery.
  5. Debtors include goods of the cost of Rs. 4,000 sent on sale or return basis at an invoice price of Rs. 5,000. The goods are likely to be returned.
  6. Transfer 10% of net profit to reserve. Prepare Trading and Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet.

Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 31/3/2011.
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 31
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 32
Balance Sheet as on 31/03/2011
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 33
Note:
Reserve = 10% of net profit
79,500 -16,800 = 62,700 x 10% = 6,270

Question 7.
From the following balance extracted from the books of M/s. Hariharan Brother, you are required to prepare the trading and profit and loss account and a balance sheet as on December 31, 2005.
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 34
Adjustments:

  1. Closing stock Rs. 14000
  2. Wages outstanding Rs.600, Salaries outstandings Rs. 1,000, Rent outstanding Rs. 200.
  3. Fire Insurance premium includes Rs.1200 paid in July 01, 2005, to run for one year from July 01, 2005, to June 30, 2006.
  4. Apprenticeship Premium is for three years paid in advance on January 01, 2005.
  5. Stationery bill for Rs. 60 remain unpaid.
  6. Depreciation on Premises @ 5%, furniture @ 10%, Machinery @ 10%.
  7. Interest on loan given accrued for one year @ 7%.
  8. Interest on investment @ 5% for half year to December 31, 2005, has accrued.
  9. Interest on capital to be allowed at 5% for one year.
  10. Interest on drawings to be charged to him ascertained for the year Rs. 160.

Answer:
Books of Hariharan Bros.
Trading and Profit and Loss account for the year ended December 31, 2005
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 35
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 36
Balance Sheet as at December 31, 2005
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 37

Question 8.
Prepare the trading and profit and loss account of M/s.Roni Plastic Ltd. from the following trial balance and a balance sheet as at March 31,2006.
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 38
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 39
Adjustments:

  1. Depreciation on land and building at 5% and Motor vehicle at @ 15%.
  2. Interest on loan is @ 5% taken on April 01, 2005
  3. Goods costing Rs. 1200 were sent to a customer on sale on return basis for Rs.1400 on March 30, 2006, and has been recorded in the books as actual sales.
  4. Salaries amounting to Rs. 1400 and Rates amounting to Rs. 800 are due.
  5. The bad debts provision is to be brought up to @ 5% on Sundry debtors.
  6. The closing stock was Rs. 13,700.
  7. Goods costing Rs. 1,000 were taken away by the proprietor for his personal use but not entry has been made in the books of account.
  8. Insurance prepaid Rs. 350.
  9. Provide the Manager’s commission at @ 5% on Net profit after charging such commission.

Answer:
Books of Roni’s Plastic Ltd.
Trading and Profit and Loss account for the year ended December 31, 2006
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 40
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 41
Note: New provision for bad debt = (38200 -1400) 5/100 = 1840
Balance Sheet as on 31.3.2006
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 42

Question 9.
From the following balances extracted from the books of Raga Ltd. prepare a trading and profit and loss account for the year ended December 31, 2011, and a balance sheet as on that date.
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 43
The additional information is as under

  1. The closing stock was valued at the end of the year 20,000.
  2. Depreciation on plant and machinery charged @ 5% and land and building @ 10%.
  3. Discount on debtors @ 3%.
  4. Make a provision @ 5% on debtors for bad debts.
  5. Salary outstanding was? 100 and wages prepaid was? 40.
  6. The manager is entitled a commission of 5% on net profit after charging such commission.

Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss Account as on 31st December 2011
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 44
Balance Sheet as on 31st December 2011
Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 8 Financial Statements – I & Financial Statements – II 45

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 4 बटेऊ

Bateu In Hindi

You can Download बटेऊ Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 4 बटेऊ (लोककथा)

बटेऊ Textbook Activities

Hss Live Guru 8th Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
जाट की चरित्रगत विशेषताएँ चुनकर लिखें।
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 4 बटेऊ 1
Hss Live Guru 8th Hindi Kerala Syllabus
उत्तर:
1. मेहमानदार
2. आस्तिक
3. परोपकारी

Hsslive Guru 8th Class Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
अगले दो महीनों के कैलेंडर तैयार करें।
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 4 बटेऊ 3
Hsslive Guru 8th Class Hindi Kerala Syllabus
Hss Live Guru Hindi 8th Kerala Syllabus
Hsslive Guru Hindi Class 8 Kerala Syllabus

Hss Live Guru Hindi 8th Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 3.
साल के महीनों से परिचय पाएँ :
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 4 बटेऊ 7
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Notes
उत्तर:
Class 8 Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus

Hsslive Guru Hindi Class 8 Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 4.
लिखें, प्रत्येक महीने में कितने दिन हैं?
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 4 बटेऊ 10
8th Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus
उत्तर:
Hss Live Guru Class 8 Hindi Kerala Syllabus

बटेऊ Summary in Malayalam and Translation

Hindi Notes Class 8 Kerala Syllabus
8th Standard Hindi Notes State Syllabus
Hindi Class 8 Kerala Syllabus
Hsslive 8th Class Hindi Kerala Syllabus
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi

बटेऊ शब्दार्थ Word meanings

8th Class Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus

Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Social Institutions: Continuity and Change

You can Download Social Institutions: Continuity and Change Questions and Answers, Notes, Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Kerala Chapter 3 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus Two Sociology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Social Institutions: Continuity and Change

Social Institutions: Continuity and Change Questions and Answers

Social Institutions Continuity And Change Important Questions Chapter 3  Question 1.
In the Census taken by the British Government in the year ………… information about the caste was included.
Answer:
1860

Social Institutions Continuity And Change Questions And Answers Chapter 3 Question 2.
From the names given below, who is not considered to be a leader of the lower castes of South India?
a) Sri Narayana Guru
b) Ayyankali
c) Chattambi Swamikal
d) Gandhiji
Answer:
Gandhiji

Social Institutions: Continuity And Change Questions And Answers Chapter 3 Question 3.
From… the British Government began to take regular census every 10 years.
a) 1781
b) 1881
c) 1891
d) 2001
Answer:
1881

Social Institutions Questions And Answers Chapter 3 Question 4.
From among the given things what is not an important feature of the Upper Classes?
a) right to education
b) right to enter temples
c) Not drinking alcohol
d) political power
Answer:
Not drinking alcohol

Sociology Class 12 Chapter 3 Questions And Answers Chapter 3 Question 5.
From the following chose the family in which members of only two generations live: Joint family, Nuclear family, Extended Family.
Answer:
Nuclear family

In India The Institution Of Family Has A Trend Towards Chapter 3 Question 6.
The family in which newly married couples stay with the family of the father of the groom is called …….
Answer:
Patriarchal family

Social Institutions Continuity And Change Notes Chapter 3 Question 7.
A family of a mother with her children and their children is called ………
Answer:
Matriarchal family

Social Institutions Continuity And Change Chapter 3 Question 8.
What are the 3 most important social institutions of a society?
Answer:
Jati, Tribe (Gotram), Family

Caste System Multiple Choice Questions Chapter 3 Question 9.
The 4-phase division of the society is called ……….
Answer:
Caste System

Social Institutions Continuity And Change Pdf Chapter 3 Question 10.
Who is the father of Indian Sociology?
a) VenierElvin
b) G. S. Ghurye
c) M.N. Srinivas
d) Periyar
Answer:
G.S. Ghurye

Sociology Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 3 Question 11.
Match the following

ABC
CasteMatrififcalFought against caste system
Herbert RisleySocial RevolutionSanskritization
M.N. SrinivasMatriarchal familyPatrilocal
Sri Narayana Guru1901Patriarchal family
AuthorityDominant CasteInformation about Caste
Dwelling placeRegional classificationMore than 1000 sub-castes

Answer:

Multiple Choice Questions On Social Institutions Chapter 3 Question 12.
Explain the different levels of the meaning of ‘Jati’.
Answer:
Jati is translated as ‘caste’ in English. Caste actually comes from Portuguese. It means ‘pure breed’. Jati shows a social arrangement of people based on birth. Varna is another word that means Jati. Both these words ‘Jati’ and ‘Varna’ are often used as synonyms. But actually there are some differences between them. Varna is a Sanskrit word. It means color. The ‘Varna’ system originated during the Veda period. At that time the people were divided into four groups – Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaisya, and Sudra. This 4-class division is called Varna, in these 4 groups, a good number of people were not included.

They were excluded from the 4-Varna system. They included those ostracised from the Jati, foreigners, slaves and the people of the defeated nations. These people who were excluded from the 4-Varna system were called ‘Panchamar’ or ‘the fifth group’. Jati is a common name to indicate a group. In this, even inanimate things, plants, animals and persons were included. Thus Jati is simply an institution and S does not mean Varna.

Question 13.
Explain the relation between Jati and Varna.
Answer:
In fact, the actual relation between Jati and Varna is often debated by scholars. There are many imaginary concepts about this. Varna system is an all-India system. The 4-Varna system can be seen everywhere in India. But Jati is a regional or local institution. A Jati found in one area of India may not be found in another area. The Jati chain is different in each area. The main difference between Jati and Varna is in the number. Vamas are 4. But there are hundreds of Jatis and Updates. The Jati system is highly complicated.

Question 14.
What are the main features of Jati?
Answer:

  • Jati is decided by birth.
  • Marriage in the same group (Swagana Vivaham).
  • Restrictions in food items and sharing of food.
  • Hierarchical system by giving people high, low and middle status.
  • Upajatis and upa-upajatis
  • Kulathozhil (specified family jobs)

Question 15.
What re the contributions of Jyoti Rao Phule?
Answer:
Jyoti Rao Phule was later known as Mahatma Phule. He started a Social Reformation Movement in Maharashtra.

  • He gave leadership to a fight against Brahmin domination and Jati system.
  • He worked for the education of the lower castes and women.
  • He rejected the idea of ‘purity-pollution’ (suddha- asuddha) concepts.
  • He worked for righteousness and human rights of the lower castes.
  • • He found the Satyajodhak Samaj.

Question 16.
Jati system is a combination of two kinds of principles. Explain.
Answer:
Theoretically, Jati system is a combination of two kinds of principles. One kind is based on differences and distance. The other kind is based on universality and power hierarchy (chain).
Each Jati is supposed to be different from others. Therefore each Jati was expected to keep away from other Jatis. Most of the rules and regulations of Jati are formulated on the principle of preventing the mingling of Jatis. Thus there were restrictions regarding marriage and ‘panthibhojanam’ (eating together).

At the same time a Jati can’t survive by itself. It can survive only as part of larger community. And this is its universality. The community (society) as a whole is not based on any principle of equality. There is a hierarchical order there. It is like a ladder. In this ladder each Jati is given its place.
Jati is a combination of two kinds of concepts:
a) Differences and distance from other Jatis.
b) Part of a larger community and part of a power hierarchy.

Question 17.
Explain the purity-pollution (Suddha-Asuddha) concept of Jati system.
Answer:
Purity and Pollution are like antonyms, opposite to each other. Purity is associated with the higher classes whereas impurity or pollution is associated with the lower classes. Purity is related to those things which are considered sacred. Thus some rituals in temples can be performed by only the Upper Castes like Brahmins. But those who do lowertypes of jobs, like cleaning, sweeping, etc. are considered impure and even their touch was avoided polluting (untouchability) by the Upper Classes.

Question 18.
What changes did Colonialism bring in the Jati system?
Answer:
Scholars say1 that colonialism brought drastic changes in the Jati system. There are some scholars who even argue the Jati-system as we see it today is not part of the Indian system, but is a creation of colonialism. However, these systems were not deliberately introduced but happened over centuries, it is true that the colonialists did make some changes in the existing system.

Question 19.
Who is Periyar? What were his contributions?
Answer:
E . V. Ramaswami Naicker is called Periyar. He was a rationalist and a leader of the lower caste people of South India. He taught that all people are equal and freedom and equality were the birthrights of everyone. He formed the ‘Swabhiman Movement.’ He took part in the Vaikom Satyagraha, in Kerala.

Question 20.
What were the reforms made for the prosperity of the lower castes by the Colonial rulers?
Answer:
Towards the end of their rule, the Colonial Masters took some interest in bringing prosperity to the so called lower classes of people. As part of the reform activities, in 1935, the Government prepared a schedule of the lower classes. This schedule was officially approved by a law. Those that were approved in the schedule were known as Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and they got special considerations from the Government.

All the lower class people who even suffered from the inhuman, horrible ‘untouchability’ were in the schedule. This way the Colonial rulers brought some good changes in the rigid caste system in India.

Question 21.
What were the factors that brought changes in the Indian Jati System after independence?
Answer:
Changes in the Jati System were brought by different factors working together. They included industrialization, urbanization and spread of modem education.
Developmental activities by the nation and the growth of private industries brought economic changes. This indirectly affected Jati system. Modern industries created a lot of new employment opportunities. The Jati laws did not apply to those jobs. When people of different castes began go work together in factories and business enterprises, many of Jati restrictions became impractical and irrelevant.

Urbanization made life according to Jati laws impossible. People of different Jatis had to live together in cities. It was not practical to live in the city following Jati system. There people had to live together.

Question 22.
Codify the ideas of Sree Narayana Guru.
Answer:

  • He propagated the principle of universal brotherhood.
  • He fought against the Varna system and dominance by the Upper Class.
  • He tried to wipe away the evil practices among the Ezhavas.
  • He formed the SNDPYogam.
  • He brought a silent revolution in the Kerala Society. He spread the message of One Jati, One Religion and One God for Man.

Question 23.
What is Sanskritization?
Answer:
Sanskritization is a process by which members of the lower classes adapt the lifestyles and social conventions of the Higher classes with the intention of raising their own status in society. It is a way through which the lower class people try to enter the higher classes. They do it through imitation.

Question 24.
What is meant by dominant Caste (Prabala Jati)? What are they?
Answer:
Through the land reform measures after independence, many people got ownership of their lands. Among these new owners of land, the castes that had big numbers were called dominant castes by M.N. Srinivas. The land reforms took away the rights of many high caste estate owners to their estates. They were not making any contributions to the economic system except that they collected axes from the farmers. The lands that were confiscated from these landlords were given to people at the next lower level. The people who newly got the land rights were not farmers. They were simply managers of agriculture. They were middle-class Dalits who had a lot of members. Here are some dominant castes:
a) Yadavs of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
b) Vokkaligas of Karnataka.
c) Reddys and Khammans in Andhra Pradesh.
d) Marathis of Maharashtra
e) Jats of Punjab, Haryana and Western UP.
f) Patidars of Gujarat

Question 25.
What were the special features of the dominant castes?
Answer:
The special features are:

  • Large number
  • Land and economic power
  • Political power

Question 26.
What are the permanent features of ‘Gotras’ (Tribes)?
Answer:
The permanent features of Gotras include their region, language, special physical features, and environmental habitat. The Tribals in India are scattered in many regions of the country. But in some places, there are some concentrations. Among the Tribals, some 85% live in Central India. Central India is a wide area extending to Western Gujarat and Rajasthan, Eastern West Bengal and Orissa. Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhatisgarh, Parts of Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh come in this vast area. Of the remaining 15%, more than 11% live in North-East States, and the remaining in different other States of India.

If we look State-wise, most of them are found in the North-East States. Except in Assam, all the North East States have Tribals which come to more than 30% of the total population. In Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland 60 to 95% of the people belong to Tribal groups. IntherestoflndiatheTribalpopulation is negligible. Except in Orissa and Madhya Pradesh, the Tribals are less than 12% of the population. Hills, forests, village plains and even some industrial ‘ belts of cities are the habitats of these Tribals.

Question 27.
Based on language, how are the Tribal groups categorized?
Answer:
Based on language, Tribal groups are categorized into 4:
a) Indo-Aryan
b) Dravidian
c) Austric
d) Tibeto-Burman
The first two, Indo-Aryan and Dravidian, are also spoken by other people of India. Among the Tribals, 1% speak Indo-Aryan and 3% speak Dravidian languages. Austric and Tibeto-Burman are the most popular languages of the Tribals.
Based on physical and racial features, the Tribals of India are divided into 5:
a) Negrito
b) Australoid
c) Mongoloid
d) Dravidian
e) Aryan.
Of these the last two – Dravidian and Aryan, are shared by other Indians also.

Question 28.
Tribal Groups are categorized based on their acquired features. Explain.
Answer:
Acquired features include the ways they earn their livelihood and their mixing with Hindu communities. Sometimes both these happen simultaneously. Based on the means of their livelihood, Tribais are grouped as fishermen, collectors of food, hunters, shifting cultivators, peasants, estate workers, and industrial workers.
Adapting Hindu ways of life is another criterion for the categorization of Tribal Groups. In Sociology, political science and public matters this criterion is more widely used.

Question 29.
Write about the mainstream views about the Tribal Groups of India.
Answer:
In 1940 there was a controversy regarding separation/ integration of the Tribal groups in India. This was the result of a feeling that Tribal Groups should themselves separately from the mainstream society. The spokesman for the Separation theory was Verrier Elwin and the spokesman for Integration was G.S. Ghurye.

The proponents of the Separation theory argued that the Tribals should be kept separate from the mainstream society. They said that these Tribals should be protected from traders, financiers, Hindu and Christian missionaries. All these people are trying to make the Tribals laborers without land and thus make them non- Tribals. The Separation Theory supporters argued that the close relation between Tribals and mainstream society would result in their ruin.

On the other hand, the Integration theory supporters argued that Tribals are part of the Hindu community. GS. Ghurye called them backward Hindus. He argued that the Tribals should be integrated into the mainstream Hindu community. They also said that since the Tribals are backward Hindus, they also should be treated like the other Scheduled Castes and given all considerations.

This argument created a lot of noise in the Indian Constitutional Assembly. People supported both sides. Finally, it was agreed that the Tribals should be integrated into the mainstream gradually. It was this approach -gradual or controlled integration – that resulted in many welfare schemes for the Tribals. There were many welfare schemes for them, provisions for them in the Five Year Plans, specific Tribal schemes, Tribal welfare blocks, multiple-aim schemes and so on. But the integration of the Tribals created a basic problem. The Five Year Plans during the Nehru Era gave prominence to Industrial and agricultural development. Later government followed the same policy The stress was given to the construction of huge dams and factories and exploiting mineral wealth for the development of country.

Question 30.
What are the problems faced by the Tribals?
Answer:
Tribals depended on the forest for their livelihood. The loss of forests was a big blow to them. During the British rule forests were exploited. This tendency continued even after independence. The coming of the land under private ownership also adversely affected the Tribals. When private landowners had their own private lands, the Tribals held their land collectively. This collective ownership proved harmful to them. For example, when a series of dams were constructed on Narmada River, ail the communities did not equally share their advantages and disadvantages. It helped the private landowners but it was harmful to the Tribals, who owned the land collectively.

Many of the regions where* Tribals are concentrated are becoming the targets, and thus victims, of national development schemes. Non-Tribals migrate into their areas in large numbers. It proves a great threat to ihe Tribals and their ways of life. It also reduces their population. For example, in Jharkhand, because of the migration by non-tribals into the new industrial areas, the number of Tribals has been reduced drastically there. But the most dramatic development was in North-Easter States. In States like Tripura, the Tribal population has come down to half in just one decade. The same thing was seen in Arunachal Pradesh. ,

Question 31.
What are the reasons for the rise of Tribal Movements?
Answer:
There are mainly two reasons. One of them is the problem related to the control of land, forests and such other important economic resources. The second problem in connected with the racial-cultural being of the Tribals.

Question 32.
What are the special features of the internal structure of the family?
Answer:
The following are the features:

  • A family can be nuclear or joint.
  • It can be patriarchal or matriarchal.
  • The hereditary rights can be paternal or maternal.

Question 33.
What are the differences between a nuclear family and an extended family?
Answer:
Nuclear family is the smallest. It is also called the primary family. In a nuclear family, there are the parents and their children. It consists of members belonging to two generations.
An Extended family is quite different. It is commonly known as joint family. There are different types of extended families. In an extended family, more than one couple and their children live. This can be a group of brothers and their families. It could be the family of an old couple whose children and grandchildren stay with them. An extended family is often seen as a sign of India. But that was never a strong-knit family. It was limited to some regions and some communities. An extended family is not a strong form even now.

Question 34.
What are the other forms of families?
Answer:
In the different communities of India, different forms of families are found. These differences occur because of the factors like residence, authority, and heredity. Depending on the residence (dwelling), families are of two kinds: paternal and maternal. When the newly married couple stays with the parents of the bride, we call it maternal family. On the other hand, when the newly married couple lives with the parents of the groom, it will be called paternal family.

Depending on hereditary rights there are two kinds of families-matriarchal and patriarchal. In matriarchal families, properties go to the daughters of the mother. In patriarchal families, the property goes to the sons.

Question 35.
How can we divide the family based on authority?
Answer:
Here also we divide the families into patriarchal and matriarchal. In patriarchal families the men wield authority. The father is the leader. In matriarchal families, women wield the authority. The mother is the leader here.

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Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ

Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Kerala Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ

Anand Ki Fuljhadiya Plus One Hindi Chapter 9  प्रश्न 1.
पात्र और घटनाओं का सही मिलान करें।
Anand Ki Fuljhadiya Plus One Hindi Chapter 9
उत्तर:
आनंद की फुलझड़ियाँ Plus One Hindi Chapter 9

आनंद की फुलझड़ियाँ Plus One Hindi Chapter 9 प्रश्न 2.
संक्षेपण करें: “एक बूढ़ा आदमी, जिसके बाल सफ़ेद हो गए थे इसके फल मेरे नाती-पोते खाएँगे।”
उत्तर:
Hindi Plus आनंद की फुलझड़ियाँ Chapter 9

सत्कृत्य:
बूढ़े आदमी से नवजवान ने समझा कि पेड़ पौधे लगाने से प्रकृति सुन्दर हो जाती है और भविष्य में उपयोग में आता है।

Hindi Plus आनंद की फुलझड़ियाँ Chapter 9 प्रश्न 3.
संभ्रांत महिला रेलगाड़ी से कुछ चीजें बाहर फेंकती जा रही है तब सहयात्री और संभ्रांत महिला के बीच का संभावित वार्तालाप तैयार करें।
उत्तर:
संहयात्री : यह आप क्या फेंक रही हैं?
महिला : मैं…….?
सहयात्री : हाँ…. हाँ…….
महिला : तुम देखते नहीं?
सहयात्री : इसलिए तो पूछता हूँ।
महिला : ये तो बीज हैं।
सहयात्री : बीज?
महिला : हाँ… हाँ… फल-फूलों के बीज हैं।
सहयात्री : इनको खिड़की से क्यों फैंकती हैं?
महिला : इनमें कुछ जड़ पकड़ लेंगे।
सहयात्री : तो फिर?
महिला : तब फायदा होगा।
सहयात्री : फायदा? किस प्रकार?
महिला : फूलेंगे, फलेंगे।
सहयात्री : तब?
महिला : मनुष्य के लिए उपयोगी होंगे।
सहयात्री : अरे बापरे! आप तो महान कार्य कर रही हैं।
महिला : यह लो….आप भी फेंकिए।
सहयात्री : हाँ…… हाँ….. दीजिए।

Apoorv Anubhav Class 11 Summary In Hindi Chapter 9 प्रश्न 4.
मान लें, रेलगाड़ी में सफर करनेवाली वृद्ध संभ्रांत महिला की नज़र डिब्बे में चिपके हुए विज्ञापन पर पड़ती है जो रक्तदान के महत्व को रेखांकित करता है। संकेतों के सहारे वह विज्ञापन तैयार करें।

  • समभाव
  • सहिष्णुता
  • मानव-प्रेम
  • जीवनदान

उत्तर:

स्वास्थ्य मंत्रालय का विज्ञापन
‘रक्तदान महादान है।’

भाईयो,…… बहनो,…..
रोगावस्था में पीड़ित भाई-बहनों से समभाव रखिए । सहिष्णुता और अनुकंपा रखकर जान बचाने के लिए रक्तदान करके सहायता दीजिए। रक्तदान जीवनदान ही है!! सरकारी रक्तदान केन्द्रों में जाकर खुशी से रक्तदान कीजिए!! आपका रक्त कटेगा नहीं बढ़ेगा!! दूसरों की जान बचेगी।

Plus One 9 Hindi आनंद की फुलझड़ियाँ प्रश्न 5.
‘आज भी वह रक़म अमेरिका में ज़रूरतमंदों के हाथों में घूम रही है’ – मान लें, वह रक़म अपने वर्तमान अनुभवों का आत्मकथा के रूप में ज़िक्र करती है। वह आत्मकथांश लिखें।
उत्तर:

मैं हूँ जरूरतमंदों के सामने

मैं रकम हूँ। मैं साधारण रकम नहीं। मैं एक अपूर्व रकम हूँ। मैं जन्म से अमेरिकी हूँ। अमेरिका के प्रसिडेंट बेंजमिन फ्रैंकलीन के हाथों से मेरा जन्म हुआ। मुझे प्रसिडेंटजी ने एक गरीब विद्यार्थी की सहायता में दिया था। मैंने उसे भाग्यवान् बनाया। विद्यार्थी ने मुझे वापस करने के लिए प्रसिडेंट के पास गया। लेकिन, बेंजमिनजी ने उससे बतायाः “आप इसे अपने ही पास रखिए और जब आपके पास कोई ऐसा ही ज़रूरतमंद आये तो उसे यह दे दीजिए” । उस व्यक्ति ने ऐसा ही किया। आज भी मैं अमेरिका के ज़रूरतमंदों के हाथों में घूम रही हूँ। मैं कितना सौभाग्यवान हूँ! ज़रूरत पड़े, मुझे बुलाईए। मैं ज़रूर आऊँगा।

मेरे इतने जीवनकाल से मैंने समझा कि समाज की पूँजी धनवानों के हाथों में है। पूँजी का समुचित विवरण से समाज का संतुलन होता है। जरूरतमंदों के हाथों में पूँजी का सौगुना मूल्य होगा। मैं रकम, पूँजी समान है। मैं जरूरतमंदों को जीवनदान करता हूँ।

Plus One Hindi आनंद की फूलझडियाँ Important Questions and Answers

प्रश्न 1.
ज़मीन कौन खोद रहा था?
उत्तर:
एक बूढ़ा आदमी।

प्रश्न 2.
बूढ़े आदमी क्या बो रहे हैं?
उत्तर:
आम की गुठलियाँ।

प्रश्न 3.
नौजवान के प्रश्न पर बूढ़े का उत्तर क्या था?
उत्तर:
भविष्य में दूसरों की भलाई के लिए आम की गुठलियाँ बो रहा हूँ।

प्रश्न 4.
पूर्वजों के मनोवृत्ति का फल क्या है?
उत्तर:
वर्तमान के लोगों के लिए भलाई होती है।

प्रश्न 5.
लेखक ने सुंदर स्वभाव की परिभाषा कैसे दी है?
उत्तर:
अशा दूसरों को सुख और आनंद पधुंचानेवाले सात्विक आनंद का स्वभाव।

प्रश्न 6.
हमारे पूर्वजों की इसी मनोवृत्ती का फल है, जो हम जगह-जगह अमराई देखते हैं। कौन-सी मनोवृत्ति?
उत्तर:
अपने स्वार्थी जीवन को त्यागकर दूसरों को सुख और आनंद पहुँचाने के सुंदर स्वभाव की मनोवृत्ति ।

प्रश्न 7.
बूढ़ा आदमी का ‘आम की गुठलियाँ बोना’ घटना का मुख्य आशय क्या है?
उत्तर:
हमें दूसरों को सुख और आनंद पहूँचानेवाले सात्विक आनंद के स्वभाव अपनाना चाहिए।

प्रश्न 8.
मान लें, रेलगाड़ी में सफर करनेवाली वृद्ध संभ्रांत महिला की नज़र डिब्बे में चिपके हुए विज्ञापन पर पड़ती है जो रक्तदान के महत्व को रेखांकित करता है। संकेतों के सहारे वह विज्ञापन तैयार करें।

  • समभाव
  • सहिष्णुता
  • मानव-प्रेम
  • जीवनदान

उत्तर:

स्वास्थ्य मंत्रालय का विज्ञापन
‘रक्तदान महादान है।’

भाईयो,…… बहनो,…..
रोगावस्था में पीड़ित भाई-बहनों से समभाव रखिए। सहिष्णुता और अनुकंपा रखकर जान बचाने के लिए | रक्तदान करके सहायता दीजिए। रक्तदान जीवनदान ही है!! सरकारी रक्तदान केन्द्रों में जाकर खुशी से रक्तदान कीजिए!! आपका रक्त कटेगा नहीं बढ़ेगा!! दूसरों की जान बचेगी।

प्रश्न 9.
संभ्रान्त महिला किस उम्मीद से फल और फूलों के बज़ फेंक रही है?
उत्तर:
उनमें से कुछ भी अगर जड़ पकड़ लेगें तो लोगों का इससे कुछ फायदा होगा।

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश पढ़ें और प्रश्नों का उत्तर लिखें।

एक वृद्ध संभ्रांत महिला रेलगाड़ी से सफ़र कर रही थी। वे खिड़की के पास बैठकर, बीच-बीच में अपनी मुट्ठी से कुछ चीज़ बाहर फेंकती जा रही थीं। एक सहयात्री ने, जो यह देख रहा था, पूछा, “यह आप क्या कर रही हैं?” उस महिला ने जवाब दिया, “ये सुंदर फलों और फूलों के बीज़ हैं। मैं इन्हें इस उम्मीद से फेंक रही हूँ कि इनमें से कुछ भी अगर जड़ पकड़ लेंगे तो लोगों का इससे कुछ फायदा होगा । पता नहीं इस रास्ते से फिर गुजरूँ या न गुजरूँ, इसलिए क्यों न मैं इस संधि का उपयोग क लूँ?”

i. रेलगाड़ी से कौन यात्रा कर रहीं थी?
उत्तर:
एक वृद्ध संभ्रात महिला।

ii. वे क्या कर रही थीं?
उत्तर:
अपनी मुट्ठी से सुंदर फलों और फूलों के बीज़ बाहर फेंकती जा रही थीं।

iii. सहयात्री ने क्या पूछा?
उत्तर:
सहयात्री ने पूछा : यह आप क्या कर रही हैं?

iv. गद्यांश का संक्षेपण करें।
उत्तर:
एक वृद्ध संभ्रात महिला रेलगाड़ी से सफर करते समय सुंदर फलों और फूलों के बीज़ बाहर फेंकती जा रही थीं। उनका उद्धेश्य था कि उनमें से कुछ भी अगर जड़ पकड़ लेंगे तो, लोगों का उससे कुछ फायदा होगा।

v. संक्षेपण केलिए उचित शीर्षक दें।
उत्तर:
जन-सेवा।

प्रश्न 11.
हमें किसके परे रहना चाहिए?
उत्तर:
घर भौतिकवाद और भोग-विलास की हाय-हाय से परे ।

प्रश्न 12.
किस प्रकार के लोगों को देखकर मानव जाति के भविष्य पर श्रद्धा और विश्वास कर सकते हैं?
उत्तर:
जमाने के अंधकार में भी आनंद की फुलझड़ियों से प्रकाश फैलाते रहनेवालों को देखकर ।

प्रश्न 13.
बेंचमिन फ्रांक्लिन ने विद्यार्थी की मदद कैसे की?
उत्तर:
उन्होंने विद्यार्थी को बीस डॉलर देकर मदद की।

प्रश्न 14.
कुछ दिनों के बाद विद्यार्थी डॉलर लौटाने आए तो फ्रांक्लिन ने क्या कहा?
उत्तर:
उन्होंने कहा : “मुझे याद तो नहीं है कि मैंने यह रक़म आपको कब दी। लेकिन खैर, आप इसे अपने ही पास रखिए और जब आपके पास कोई ऐसा ही जरूरतमंद आए तो उसे यह दे दीजिए।”

प्रश्न 15.
बीस डॉलर किनके हाथों में घूम रही है?
उत्तर:
जरूरतमंदों के हाथों में।

प्रश्न 16.
ज़रूरतमंद कौन-कौन हो सकता है?
उत्तर:
सहायता मिलने के लिए व्याकुल रहनेवाले सभी लोग ज़रूरतमंद होते हैं।

प्रश्न 17.
हमारा जीवन मुसीबतों से भरा पड़ा है । कैसे?
उत्तर:
अब लड़ाई, गरीबी, महंगाई और गुलामी से।

प्रश्न 18.
दुनिया रहने लायक कैसे बनी?
उत्तर:
निस्वार्थ और आदर्श-प्रिय लोगों की उपस्थिति से।

प्रश्न 19.
पैसा वापस देने आया छात्र औह बेंजमिन फ्रैंकलीन के बीच का वार्तालाप तैयार करें?
उत्तर:
छात्र : नमस्कार जी!
फ्रैंकलीन : नमस्कार।
छात्र : आप मुझे जानते हैं?
फ्रैंकलीन : याद नहीं, लगता है कि देखा है।
छात्र : मैंने आप से कुछ डॉलर माँग लिया था।
फ्रैंकलीन : कब?
छात्र : कुछ साल पहले मेरी पढ़ाई केलिए। अब मेरी पढ़ाई खतम हुई। वह डॉलर वापस देने आया हूँ।
फ्रैंकलीन : यह डॉलर मुझे नहीं, किसी ज़रूरतमंद को दो।
छात्र : आप का मन कितना अच्छा है!
फ्रैंकलीन : तुम से कोई ज़रूरतमंद व्यक्ति माँगे है तो उसे यह डॉलर दो। जाओ।
छात्र : ठीक है, धन्यवाद ।

प्रश्न 20.
किसके लिए छीना-झपटी होती थी?
उत्तर:
टिकट लेने के लिए।

प्रश्न 21.
टिकट बाबू किन बातों को सुना-अनसुना करके अपना काम करते रहे?
उत्तर:
टिकट लेने के लिए छीना-झपटी करनेवालों के परिहासों और धमकियों को।

प्रश्न 22.
टिकट बाबू की परेशानी का कारण क्या था?
उत्तर:
टिकट लेने के लिए बड़ी भीड़ थी। वहाँ पर छीना-झपटी होती थी। छोटी-सी खिड़की से टिकट के लिए घुसानेवाले अनेक हाथों को टिकट देने केलिए टिकटबाबू अकेला था।

प्रश्न 23.
टिकट बाबू पर इन शब्दों का अजीब असर पड़ा । क्यों?
उत्तर:
लेखक ने टिकट बाबू की परेशानी समझकर बड़ी सहानुभूति से व्यवहार करके मुसाफिरों को शांत किया।

प्रश्न 24.
टिकट बाबू को नई ताकत कैसे मिली?
उत्तर:
लेखक की सहानुभूति के शब्दों से टिकट बाबू को नयी … ताकत मिली।

प्रश्न 25.
टिकट बाबू का हृदय कब मोम-सा हो गया?
उत्तर:
टिकट बाबू के प्रति लेखक सहानुभूति दर्शाने पर।

प्रश्न 26.
टिकट बाबू से संबंधित घटना का ज़िक्र करते हुए लेखक अपने मित्र को पत्र लिखता है। वह पत्र तैयार करें।
उत्तर:

स्थान,
तारीख,

प्रिय मित्र रामू,

तुम कैसे हो? ठीक हो न? यहाँ पर मैं ठीक ही हूँ।
रामू, कुछ दिन पहले अपने काम से मुंबई जाने के लिए मैं टिकट लेने गया। वहाँ पर बड़ी छीना-झपटी होती थी। टिकट बाबू बड़ी परेशानी में था। लोग हल्ला करते थे, टिकट बाबू का परिहास करते थे। कुछ लोग उनको धमकी भी करता था। लेकिन टिकट बाबू इन बातों को सुना- अनसुना करके आपना काम करते रहे। मैं पास ही खड़ा था। मैंने बड़ी सहानुभूति से टिकट बाबू के बारे में यात्रियों से बात की। मेरी सहानुभूति देखकर टिकटबाबू को बड़ा आश्वास मिल गया। उन्होंने जल्दी मेरा टिकट दे दिया और एक नए उत्साह से अन्य यात्रियों को वे टिकट देने लगे।

प्रिय मित्र, दुसरों की कठिनाइयों को समझकर हमें व्यवहार करना चाहिए। हमारे कर्म और वचन से दूसरों को आश्वास मिला चाहिए।
यहाँ पर तुम कब आवोगो? तुम्हारी प्रतीक्षा में मित्र,

(हस्ताक्षर)
शेवड़े।

पताः
नाम

प्रश्न 27.
क्लर्क का तमाम दिन कैसे बीतता है?
उत्तर:
बैंक के रूखे आँकड़ों से माथापच्ची करते -करते क्लर्क का तमाम दिन बीतता है।

प्रश्न 28.
क्लर्क के किस गुण का सम्मान किया गया?
उत्तर:
अच्छी हस्तलिपि का।

प्रश्न 29.
क्लर्क का चेहरा प्रसन्नता से क्यों खिल उठा?
उत्तर:
लेखक के थोड़े-से शब्दों द्वारा क्लर्क के जीवन में किंचितमात्र सुख पहुँचने पर।

प्रश्न 30.
लेखक को क्यों प्रसन्नता महसूस हुई?
उत्तर:
प्रय लेखक को थोड़े-से शब्दों द्वारा बैंक के क्लर्क के जीवन में थोड़ा सुख पहूँचते देखकर लेखक को प्रसन्नता महसूस हुई।

प्रश्न 31.
बैंक का क्लर्क अपनी हस्तलिपि की तारीफ सुनने पर बहुत खुश हुआ। घर आने पर पत्नी उसकी खुशी का कारण जानना चाहती है-दोनो के बीच का संभावित वार्तालप लिखें।
उत्तर:
पत्नी : आज आप बहुत खुश है ….
क्लर्क : हाँ-हाँ….
पत्नी : कारण क्या है?
क्लर्क : एक कारण है।
पत्नी : मुझे भी बताओ….
क्लर्क : तुम जानना चाहती हो?
पत्नी : क्यों नहीं?
क्लर्क : तुम अनंत गोपाल शेवड़े को…
पत्नी : ओहो… सुप्रसिद्ध लेखक?
क्लर्क : जानती हो उन्हें?
पत्नी : सुनी तो है।
क्लर्क : आज उन्होंने मेरे बैंक में…
पत्नी : बैंक में?
क्लर्क : आये थे।
पत्नी : तो ?
क्लर्क : उन्होंने मेरी हस्तलिपि की …..
पत्नी : प्रशंसा की?
क्लर्क : हाँ…हाँ…
पत्नी : बड़ी बात है।
क्लर्क : हाँ…हाँ…

प्रश्न 32.
बैंक क्लर्क ने अपनी डायरी में क्या लिखा होगा? वह डायरी तैयार करें।
उत्तर:
तारीख
आनंद नगर :
आज का दिन बहुत अच्छा है। आज मुझे मिली प्रशंसा एक पंखुडी के समान मुझे अब भी सहलाती है। वह आदमी कितना अच्छा है! आज पहली बार बैंक के बोरिंग समय में कुछ राहत मिली। उस आदमी ने खाता खोलने के लिए आया था। मैं उनका नाम और पता लिखते समय उन्होंने मेरी हस्तलिपि पर ध्यान दिया और कहा ‘ब्यूटिफुल’! मेरा मन खुशी से भरा। सब लोगों ने मेरी हस्तलिपि देखी थी, पर किसीने भी मुझ से कुछ नहीं कहा था । अब मैं गर्व का अनुभव करने लगा। बड़ी खुशी से मैंने उनसे बातें कीं। पत्नी से भी यह बात कही। यह दिन में कभी नहीं भूलूंगा।

प्रश्न 33.
आनंद की फुलझड़ियाँ निबन्ध में लेखकने रेल विभाग के एक टिकट बाबू से करुणा प्रकट की थी। उस दिन के टिकट बाबू की डायरी तैयार करें।
उत्तर:

तारीख

आनंद शहर :
आज का दिन अच्छा दिन था। एक आदमी ने मुझे आज ठीक समझा है। यह बात मेरे मन में खुशी भरती है। यात्रियों की भीड़, उनकी परेशानियाँ, धमकियाँ आदि – आदि ने मुझे बहुत परेशानियाँ देती थीं। टिकट कौंटर में हर दिन अकेला रह गया हूँ। मेरी कठिनाइयों पर किसी ने ध्यान नहीं किया था। पर आज एक सज्जन ने मुझपर ध्यान देकर मेरी मदद की। टिकट लेने केलिए खड़े लोगों से मेरी परेशानियों के बारे में बताने की कृपा उन्होंने की। यह एक अजीब बात थी। उनकी सहानुभूति देखते वक्त मेरा हृदय मोम जैसा बन गया। वे शब्द मेरे मन में सांत्वना देने लायक थे। उस घटना के बाद मैं शांत भाव से टिकट देने में समर्थ हुआ।

वे कौन होंगे? जाते वक्त उन्होंने कहा कि फिर मिलें। ज़रूर उनसे मिलना चाहिए। ऐसे सज्जनों से परिचय पा लेना कितनी अच्छी बात है! आज का दिन मैं कभी नहीं भूलूंगा।

प्रश्न 34.
निम्नलिखित अर्थों के समानार्थी मुहावरों को लेख से छाँटकर लिखें।
(नष्ट होना, विपत्ति के दिनों के बाद सुख का दिन आना, सहन करना, हिम्मत करना, किसी के अच्छे काम की न्यायदृष्टि से प्रशंसा करना)
उत्तर:
रसातल में जाना = नष्ट होना
दिन फिरना = विपत्ति के दिनों के बाद सुख का दिन आना
ताना कसना = सहन करना
दिल कडा करना = हिम्मत करना
दाद देना = किसी के अच्छे काम की न्यायदृष्टि से प्रशंसा करना

प्रश्न 35.
सूचनाः यह गद्यांश पढ़िए और नीचे दिए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए:

नाविक भोलाराम रेलगाड़ी के वातानुकूलित डिब्बे में बैठ रहे थे। उनके पास काफ़ी रुपये थे। एक लड़की भी उस डिब्बे में आ बैठी। उसने नाविक से बातें शुरू की। उसने अपनी गरीबी का जिक्र किया तो नाविक ने पूछा कि इतनी गरीबी में भी वातानुकूलित डिब्बे में तुम क्यों यात्रा कर रही हो? तब लड़की ने कहा कि उसकी शादी तय हो चुकी है। और अपने ससुरालवालों को प्रभावित. करने केलिए वह इस डिब्बे में यात्रा कर रही है। फिर उस लड़की ने नाविक से कुछ रुपया माँग लिया तो उसने देने से इनकार कर दिया। तब लड़की ने उसको धमकी देकर कहा कि मुझे बीस हज़ार रुपये दें दो, नहीं तो मैं तुम्हारे ऊपर झूठे इल्ज़ाम लगाउँगी। गाड़ी रुकी तो लड़की ने पुलिस से कहा कि नाविक ने अपने हाथ से मेरा मुँह बंद कर लिया और दूसरे हाथ से मुझे खींचकर मेरी इज्जत लूटने की कोशिश की है। लेकिन जाँच करने पर पुलिस को मालूम हुआ कि नाविक के दोनों हाथ कटे हुए हैं। झूठे इल्ज़ाम लगाने के अपराध में लड़की पकड़ी गयी।
(इल्ज़ाम – आरोप, इज्जत लूटना – अपमानित करना)

i) इस गद्यांश से कौन सा सन्देश मिलता है?
उत्तर:
हमें कभी भी कपट न होना चाहिए।

ii) इस गद्यांश का संक्षेपण करें और उचित शीर्षण लिखे।
उत्तर:
कपटता :
एक लड़की ने भोलाराम नामक एक बिना हाथवाला नाविक के साथ रेलगाड़ी में यात्रा करते समय धोखा देने की कोशिश की। पुलिस आकर लड़की को पकड़ा।

प्रश्न 36.
हिंदी भारत की राजभाषा एवं राष्ट्रभाषा है- ‘सीखें हिंदी, सिखाएँ हिंदी’ – इस विषय पर निबंध लिखिए।
उत्तर:

सीखें हिंदी, सिखाएँ हिंदी

भारत में अनेक भाषाएँ हैं। भाषाओं को उपभाषाएँ और प्रादेशिक भाषाएँ भी हैं। लेकिन भारत के अधिकांश लोगों से बोलनेवाली भाषा हिंदी है। इसलिए हिंदी को भारत की संपर्क भाषा के रूप में माना जाता है। हिंदी भारत की राजभाषा एवं राष्ट्रभाषा है। हिंदी एक सरल भाषा है। हमें यह जानने से खुशी होगी कि संसार में सबसे ज्यादा बोलनेवाली तीसरी भाषा हिंदी है। आज हिंदी अन्तर्देशीय भाषा के रूप में प्रचलित होती जाती है।

भारत विविधता का देश है। लेकिन हिंदी एकता की कड़ी है। भारत की संस्कृति हिंदी से जुड़ी रहती है। हिंदी समृद्ध साहित्य से भी संपन्न है।

हिंदी का प्रचार करना प्रत्येक भारतीय का दायित्व है। हिंदी के प्रचार से भारत में एकता बढ़ेगी। इससे यह .मतलब नहीं है कि अन्य प्रादेशिक भाषाएँ महत्वपूर्ण नहीं है और वे तिरस्कृत हो जायें। प्रादेशिक भाषाओं का भी संरक्षण होना चाहिए। हिंदी के प्रचार से भारत की अखंडता सदा सुरक्षित रखें।

आनंद की फूलझडियाँ Previous Years Questions & Answers

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित सहायक बिंदु के आधार पर वार्तालाप तैयार कीजिए।
संभ्रान्त महिला रेलगाड़ी से कुछ चीजें बाहर फेंकती जा रही थी। तब सहयात्री और संभ्रान्त महिला के बीच का संभावित वार्तालाप तैयार कीजिए। सहायक बिंदुः

  • रेलगाड़ी से चीजें बाहर फेंकना
  • सहयात्री द्वारा पूछा जाना
  • निःस्वार्थ सेवा
  • दुनिया में रहने लायक

उत्तर:
सहयात्री : यह आप क्या फेंक रही हैं?
महिला : मैं……?
सहयात्री : हाँ…. हाँ…….
महिला : तुम देखते नहीं?
सहयात्री : इसलिए तो पूछता हूँ।
महिला : ये तो बीज हैं।
सहयात्री : बीज?
महिला : हाँ… हाँ… फल-फूलों के बीज हैं।
सहयात्री : इनको खिड़की से क्यों फैंकती हैं?
महिला : इनमें कुछ जड़ पकड़ लेंगे।
सहयात्री : तो फिर?
महिला : तब फायदा होगा।
सहयात्री : फायदा? किस प्रकार?
महिला : फूलेंगे, फलेंगे।
सहयात्री : तब?
महिला : मनुष्य के लिए उपयोगी होंगे।
सहयात्री : अरे बापरे! आप तो महान कार्य कर रही हैं।
महिला : यह लो….आप भी फेंकिए।
सहयात्री : हाँ…… हाँ….. दीजिए।

प्रश्न 2.
मान लीजिए, आनंद की फूलझड़ियाँ इस निबंध का लेखक आत्मकथा लिखता है। आत्मकथा में टिकट बाबू के प्रसंग का उल्लेख है। निम्नलिखित सहायक बिंदु के आधार पर वह आत्मकथांश तैयार कीजिए।
सहायक बिंदुः

  • लेखक का मुंबई जाना।
  • टिकट काऊंटर के पास भीड़ लगना ।
  • टिकट बाबू का परेशान होना ।
  • लेखक द्वारा टिकट बाबू के प्रति सहानुभूति प्रकट करना।

उत्तर:
आत्मकथा  :
कुछ साल पहले की बात है। मुझे जल्द ही मुंबई पहूँचना था। मैं टिकट लेने केलिए टिकट काउंटर पहूँचा । लड़ाई के कारण गाड़ियों की संख्या कम थी। इसलिए काउंटर के पास बहुत भीड़ लगी हुई थी। टिकट बाबू परेशानी से टिकट बनाते थे। लेकिन भीड़ ज्यादा होने के कारण उसे ठीक तरह से सभी लोगों को टिकट बन नहीं पा रहे थे। लोगों की ओर से कई प्रकार के बुरे टिप्पणियाँ उन पर हो रहे थे। इसका असर उपनर और बुरी तरह से हो रहे थे। बाबू कितने ही ईमानदारी से काम करें लोग उनपर शक से बात करते थे। यह सब देखकर मुझे बहुत दुख हुआ। वह पूरी ताकत से काम कर रहे थे, फिर भी लोग उनपर गालियाँ दे रहे थे। मैं वहाँ के लोगों को समझाया कि बाबू बहुत कोशिश कर रहे हैं और उसे कुछ समय दीजिए। मैं बाबु से ऐसे बातें किया कि उसे कुछ आश्वास मिला। मेरा सहानुभूति का असर उनपर हुआ। वह फिर पूरी कोशिश की और मुझे धन्यवाद भी अदा की। मुझे पूरा यकीन था कि अच्छे वाक्यों का अच्छा असर हो जायेगा।

आनंद की फूलझडियाँ Summary in Malayalam

Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ 4
Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ 5
Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ 6
Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ 7
Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ 8

आनंद की फूलझडियाँ शब्दार्थ

Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ 9
Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ 10
Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ 11
Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ 12
Plus One Hindi Textbook Answers Unit 3 Chapter 9 आनंद की फूलझडियाँ 13

Plus One Economics Notes Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation – An Appraisal

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Kerala Plus One Economics Notes Chapter 3 Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation – An Appraisal

Background of the economic reforms
India introduced economic reforms in 1991. It was due to several reasons. Important among them are:

  • Policies such as MRTP and FEMA prevented large scale domestic and foreign investments.
  • Reserving certain sectors exclusively for the public sector prevented private investment less attractive for such sectors.
  • Gulf war and subsequent events created a severe foreign exchange crisis in our country.
  • Import bill of petroleum products increased alarmingly leading to BoP deficit.
  • Political instability.

Plus One Economics Chapter 3 Notes Liberalisation
Liberalization implies liberating trade from unwanted government controls and restrictions. Indian economy prior to the nineties was following a restrictive policy and excessive government interferences in all economic activities. This interference created the license-permit-raj as indicated earlier. This has led to extensive corruption, red-tapism, undue delay, and inefficiency. Most of the policies such as the licensing system, FERA, MRTP hindered economic growth, and industrialisation. The aim of the liberalization policy was very comprehensive, promoting economic growth by reducing factors hindering it and makes the economy very competitive at international standards.

Liberalisation policies included reforms in the following sectors.

  • Industrial sector reforms
  • Financial sector reforms
  • Tax reforms
  • Foreign exchange reforms

Plus One Economics Chapter 3 Notes Pdf Privatisation
Privatisation refers to any process that reduces the participation of the state/public sector in the economic activities of a country. In other words, the conversion of ownership or management of a government-owned enterprise into a private enterprise is known as privatization or denationalization. India started privatization as part of the Structural Adjustment Programme (SAP). The process of privatisation can take place either by the withdrawal of government ownership and management of public sector companies or by the outright sale of public sector companies (disinvestment).

Economics Notes Class 11 Kerala Syllabus Aims of disinvestment:

  1. Better performance of public sector units (PSUs) through better management techniques
  2. Enforcing financial discipline and improving financial performance
  3. Enhancing the ability of companies to raise financial resources from the market
  4. Raising revenue of the government from sale of equity
  5. A strong impetus to the flow of FOI (Foreign Direct Investment)

Plus One Economics Notes Chapter 3 Globalisation
Globalisation is a complex phenomenon. The term globalisation indicates the opening up of domestic economy for the world market, or integration of an economy with global economy. It involves creation of network and activities transcending economic, social and geographical boundaries. It attempts to establish links in such a way that the happening in India can be influenced by events happening miles away. Integration of economies is possible through interlinking domestic market with world market through foreign trade. Therefore, it is treated as a very complex phenomenon.

Plus One Economics Notes Pdf Outsourcing
Outsourcing is an important feature of globalisation. It is practice where a company hires regular service from external sources mostly from other countries which previously provided internally or within the country.

Plus One Economics Malayalam Notes World Trade Organisation (WTO)
WTO was founded in 1995 replacing GATT. GATT was established in 1948. Following are the aims of WTO.

  • Provides equal opportunities to all participating nations in international trade.
  • To ensure optimum utilization of world resources and protect the environment.
  • Remove of tariffs (tax) and non-tariffs (quota). This leads to the removal of restrictions on trade thereby facilitating free-entry and free exit of goods
  • To encourage multi-lateral trade (more than two nations) rather than bilateral trade (two countries).
  • Extension of a trade by including trade in services like banking, insurance communication.
  • To include Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPs), commonly known as Patent Rights and Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMs) within the span of international trade.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 4 Chapter 4 मरना

You can Download मरना Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 4 Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 4 Chapter 4 मरना

मरना Textbook Activities

Hss Live Guru 8 Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
‘आदमी’ कब ‘आदमी’ बन जाता है?
Hsslive Guru 8th Class Hindi Kerala Syllabus
उत्तर:
आदमी को अपना विवेक एवं चिंताशीलता जानवर से अलग करते हैं। अपनी परिस्थिति से प्रतिक्रिया करने से आदमी आदमी बन जाता है। किसी प्रतिक्रिया के बिना जीना मरने के समान है।

Hsslive Guru Hindi Class 8 Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
‘मानव एवं प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का संरक्षण’ विषय पर लेख लिखें।
Hsslive Guru 8th Hindi Kerala Syllabus
उत्तर:
मानव एवं प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का संरक्षण
मानव एवं प्रकृति का अटूट संबंध है। संसार में जीवन कायम रहने के लिए प्राकृतिक संतुलन ज़रूरी है। मानव जीवन प्राकृतिक संसाधनों पर निर्भर है। प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का नाश जीव-जंतुओं के विनाश का कारण बन जाता है। मानव प्रकृति का शोषण बहुत कर रहे हैं। नदी-नालों को प्रदूषित कर रहे हैं, जंगल काट रहे हैं, खेती निपट रहे हैं, पहाड़ियों को सपाट कर रहे हैं आदि मानव के प्रकृति पर हो रहे कारनामों का उदाहरण है। मानव जीवन को बनाए रखने के लिए प्रकृति से ताल-मेल की ज़रूरत है। प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का सदुपयोग करने से यह ताल-मेल संभव होगा। हर मानव को ध्यान रखना चाहिए कि अपनी ओर से प्राकृतिक संसाधनों पर कोई नुकसान नहीं पहुँचाएगा।

मरना Summary in Malayalam and Translation

Hss Live Guru 8th Hindi Kerala Syllabus

Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

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Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

General Instructions:

  1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may use the time to read and plan your answers.
  2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
  3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
  4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
  5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Section – A

(Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each question carries 1 score) (4 × 1 = 4)

Question 1.
Which of the following molecule can undergo addition reaction? (1)
(methane, ethane, propene, butane)
Answer:
Propene

Question 2.
The glass used to make lenses and prisms is ………(1)
Answer:
Flint glass / optic glass/ Lead glass

Question 3.
Atomic mass of Nitrogen is 14. which of the following sample contain 6.022 x 1023 Nitrogen atoms? (1)
(7g Nitrogen, 14 g Nitrogen, 28g Nitrogen, 1g Nitrogen)
Answer:
14g nitrogen

Question 4.
The ore of a metal is lighter than the impurities. Which method is suitable for its concentration? (1)
Answer:
Froth floatation process

Question 5.
A fresh piece of Mg ribbon loses its luster after a few days. This is due to the formation of the compound ………..(1)
Answer:
Magnessium oxide/MgO/oxide

Section – B

(Answer any 4 questions from 6 to 10. Each question carries 2 scores)(4 × 2 = 8)

Question 6.
The last subshell of an element is 3p and there are 3 electrons in it.
a) Write the complete electronic configuration of the element. (1)
b) Identify its period and group. (1)
Answer:
a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 (2, 8, 5)
b) Period -3 group -15

Question 7.
An iron nail is dipped in CuSO4 solution. (Reactivity order Fe>Cu)
a) What is the change that can be noticed on the iron nail after a while? (1)
b) Write down the chemical equation of the oxidation reaction occurs here. (1)
Answer:
a) Copper gets deposited on iron nail b) Fe → Fe2+ + 2e

Question 8.
4g of NaOH is dissolved in water and the volume is made upto 1 L.
(1 mole of. NaOH = 40 g)
a) Calculate the molarity of the resultant solution. (1)
b) How will you make 1 M solution of NaOH using the same amount (4g) of NaOH? (1)
Answer:
a) Molecular mass of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 2
b) Dissolve 4g NaOH in water and make up the solution in to 100 mL

Question 9.
Concentrated Cu2S is converted into oxide by roasting.
a) Write the process of roasting. (1)
b) How impurities like sulphur and phosphorus are removed in this process? (1)
Answer:
a) Heating the ore in the presence of air below its melting point.
b) Sulphur and phosphorous are removed as their oxides

Question 10.
Ethanoic acid is an organic compound having industrial values.
a) How ethanoic acid is manufactured industrially?^)
b) Give any one use of ethanoic acid. (1)
a) Ethanoic acid is manufactured by reacting methanol and carbon monoxide in the preence of a catalyst.
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 3
b)

  • Production of rayon
  • In rubber and silk industry
  • To produce vinegar

Section – C

(Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each question carries 3 scores) (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
H2(g) + I02(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
a) What is the total number of moles of reactants and products in the above reaction. (1)
b) What is the effect of pressure in this reversible reaction? Explain. (2)
Answer:
a) No. of mol of reactants = 2
No. of mol of products =2
b) Pressure has no effect on this reaction. Because there is no change in volume (no.of molecules) due to forward and backward reactions.

Question 12.
The structure of a hydrocarbon is given below:
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 4
a) How many C-atoms are there in the main chain?
Which is the word root? (1)
b) Identify the branch and its position number (1)
c) Write the IUPAC name of this compound. (1)
Answer:
a) 5, pent
b) Methyl, 3
c) 3-methyl pentane

Question 13.
The chemical equation for the manufacture of ammonia is N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
a) Complete the following: 1 mol N2 + …………H2→ …………NH3 (1)
b) Calculate the amount of H2 required to rea.ct with 28 g of N2 completely. (1)
[Hint: Molecular mass of N2 = 28, H2 = 2]
c) What will be the volume of NH3 formed at STP, if 22.4L of N2 is completely reacted? (1)
Answer:
a) 1 mol N2 + 3mool -H2 → 2 mol NH3
b) 28 g N2 requires 3 mol H2
3 mol H2 = 3 x 2 = 6g
c) NH3 formed when 1 mol (22.4L)
N2 reacts = 2 mol
Volume of 2 mol NH3 at STP = 2 x 22.4 = 44.8L

Question 14.
Consider the metals and solutions given in the box.
Zn, Mg, Cu, Ag, CuSO4 solution, MgSO4 solution
a) Which of the above metals are to be selected to construct a Galvanic cell? (1)
b) Identify the anode and cathode of the cell. (1)
[Hint: Reactivity order Mg > Zn > Cu > Ag]
c) Write the redox reaction taking place in this cell. (1)
Answer:
a) Mg, Cu
b) Anode Mg/MgSO4
Cathode Cu/CuSO4
c)
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 5

Question 15.
Alumina is mixed with cryolite and subjected to electrolysis to extract aluminium.
a) Why cryolite is added to alumina? (1)
b) Which are the ions present in alumina? (1)
c) Write the equation of the reduction reaction taking place at negative electrode. (1)
Answer:
a) To lower the melting point of alumina and to increase the electrical conductivity.
b) Al3+, O2-
c) Al3+ + 3e → Al

Section – D

(Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each question carries 4 scores)(4 × 4 = 16)

Question 16.
Zinc piece and zinc powder are taken in two test tubes and equal’amount of dil. HCl is added.
a) In which test tube does the reaction proceed faster? (1)
b) Give the reason. (2)
c) Give an instance from daily life, where such condition is made use. (1)
Answer:
a) In second test tube (Zinc powder)
b) Total surface area increases on powdering. So the rate of effective collisions increases.
c) • Fire wood catches fire quickly if splitted up into small pieces.
• Vegetables get cooked easily if cut into small pieces.
• Condiments are powdered for quick action.

Question 17.
The structure of two organic compounds are given below:
i) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-OH
ii) CH3-CH2-0-CH2-CH3
a) Write the molecular formula of these com-pounds. (1)
b) Which type of isomerism do they exhibit? (1)
c) Explain this isomerism. (1)
d) Write the strucutral formula of a position isomer of compound (i) (1)
Answer:
a) C4H10O
b) Functional group isomerism
c) Compounds having same molecular formula and different structural formula and functional groups are called functional group isomers.
d)
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 6

Question 18.
The atomic number of an element is 19.
a) Write the subshell electronic configuration. (1)
b) Identify its group, period, block and oxidation state. (2)
c) Write any one characteristic of the block to which the element belongs., (1)
Answer:
a) 1 s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1
b) Group -1 Period – 4
Block – s Oxidation state +1
c) Highly electropositive, low ionisation energy.

Question 19.
Two organic reactions are given below:
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 7
a) Identify the products A and B (1)
b) Which type of reaction is (i)? (1)
c) The product B has industrial values. Give its name and use. (2)
Answer:
a)
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 8
b) Substitution reaction
c) Poly Vinyl chloride (PVC)
PVC is a plastic used for thd manufacture of pipes hoses etc.

Question 20.
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium - 9
a) Give the functions of antipyretics and anti-biotics. (2)
b) Write any two unhealthy practices among people in using medicines. (2)
Answer:
a) Antipyretics – lowers body temperature
Antibiotics – Destroys harmful microbes and prevent their growth.

b)

  • Self treatment
  • Excessive use of medicine
  • Using medicine prescribed for others
  • Using old prescriptions for taking medicines
  • Dont taking medicine at regular intervals.b

Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

  1. The first 15 minutes is the cool off time. You may use the time to read and plan your answers.
  2. Answer the questions only after reading the instructions and questions thoroughly.
  3. Questions with marks series 1, 2, 3 and 4 are categorized as sections A, B, C and D respectively.
  4. Five questions are given in each section. Answer any four from each section.
  5. Answer each question by keeping the time.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

(Answer any 4 questions from 1 to 5. Each question carries 1 score) (1 × 5 = 5)

Question 1.
The element with 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 is placed in the group of the periodic table.
a) 1
b) 6
c) 8
d) 18
Answer:
18

Question 2.
The reaction taking place at the anode of a zinc – copper galvanic cell …………
a) Zn → Zn2+ + 2e
b) Zn2+ + 2e → Zn
c) Cu → Cu2+ + 2e
d) Cu2+ + 2e → Cu
2.
Answer:
Zn → Zn<>sup>2+ + 2e

Question 3.
The metal that liberate hydrogen gas when react with steam is ………….
a) Magnesium
b) Zinc
c) Iron
d) Sodium
Answer:
Iron

Question 4.
The substance used to remove moisture from ammonia is ……………….
a) Vanadium pentoxide
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Calcium oxide
d) Silicon dioxide
Answer:
Calcium oxide

Question 5.
The functional group present in the compound CH3 – O-CH3 is …………
a) Hydroxyl
b) Alkoxy
c) Methyl
d) Carboxylic
Answer:
Alkoxy

Section – B

(Answer any 4 questions from 6 to 10. Each question carries 2 scores)(4 × 2 = 8)

Question 6.
Calculate the number of molecules in 90g of water. (Hint-Atomicmass H = 1 O = 16)
Answer:
1 GMM of water = 18 g.
90 g water = \(\frac{90}{18}\) = 5 mol
No. of molecules in 5 mol = 5 x 6.022 x 1023

Question 7.
The molecular mass of CO2 is 44.
a) Find out the number of molecules in 220g CO2.
Answer:
a) 220g CO2 = \(\frac{224}{44}\) = 5 mol
∴ No. of molecules = 5 x 6.022 x 1023
b) 5×22.4 = 112 L

b) What will be the volume of this much CO2 at STP?
(Hint: The molar volume of gases at STP = 22.4 L)

Question 8.
The equation of the industrial production of ammonia is given below.
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) + Heat
a) By which name the industrial production of ammonia is known?
b) What will be the effect of increased pressure in ‘ this reaction?
c) What will happen if ammonia is removed from the system at regular intervals?
Answer:
a) Heber’s process
b) Due to forward reaction number of molecules decreases. So increase in pressure is favourable to forward reaction.
c) Forward reaction increases, more product will be formed.

Question 9.
Certain elements are arranged in the order as they appear in the electrochemical series.
Answer the questions that follows based on this Na > Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag
a) Which of these element is likely to be found in free state in nature?
b) Which of these metal will produce the stablest compound?
c) Which of these metal is produced by reducing its ore with CO?
Answer:
a) Ag
b) Na
c) Zn

Question 10.
The structural formula of an organic compound is given below.
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 1
a) What is the total number of carbon atom in the longest carbon chain in this compound?
b) Write the name and position of the branch.
c) Write the IUPAC name of the compound.
Answer:
a) 5
b) Methyl, 3
c) 3 – methyl pentane

Section – C

(Answer any 4 questions from 11 to 15. Each question carries 3 scores) (4 × 3 = 12)

Question 11.
The subshell electron configuration of certain elements are given below. (Symbols are not real)
A = [Ar] 4s2 3d1 B = [Ne]3s1
C = [Ar] 4s1 D = [Ne]3s23p5
a) Write any characteristic of the element A.
b) Which among these belong to the same group?
c) Which among these belong to the same period?
Answer:
a) Shows variable oxidation states or forms coloured compounds.
b) B and C
c) C and D

Question 12.
Certain samples are given below.
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 2
a) Find out the number of moles in each sample.
b) Arrange them in the increasing order of number of molecules.
(Hint: Atomic mass of H = 1, He = 4, Ca = 20)
Answer:
200g H2 = \(\frac{200}{2}\) = 100 mol
200 g He = \(\frac{200}{4}\) = 50 mol
200 g Ga = \(\frac{200}{20}\) = 10 mol
200g Ca < 200g He < 200g H2

Question 13.
a) Which substances are used as the anode,
cathode and electrolyte when copper is refined by electrolysis.
b) It is said that electrolytic refining of copper is economic. Why?
Answer:
a) Anode – Impure copper (Copper to be purified)
Cathode – Pure Copper rod
Electrolyte – CuSO4 solution
b) When copper is purified by electrolysis the residue left behind at the anode, called anode mud, often contains precious metals like gold.

Question 14.
Match those given columns suitably.

MetalName of oreChemical formula
AluminiumCalamineAl2O3.2H2O
IronBauxiteZnCO3
ZincHaematiteFe2O3

Answer:
Aluminium – Bauxite – Al2O3-2H2O
Iron – Haematite – Fe2O3
Zinc – Calamine – ZnCO3

Question 15.
There are compounds with same molecular formula but different structural formula,
a) Write two compounds with different structural formula and the molecularformulaC3H8O.
b) By what name these compounds are known?(1)
Answer:
a) CH3-O-CH2-CH3
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
b) Isomers

Section – D

(Answer any 4 questions from 16 to 20. Each question carries 4 scores)(4 × 4 = 16)

Question 16.
In the table given below, under A certain chemical reactions and under B types of chemical reactions are given. Match them suitably.
Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Paper 1 English Medium - 3
Answer:
CH4 + Cl2 → CH3 – Cl + HCl
– Substitution reaction

CH2 = CH2 + H2 → CH3 – CH3
-Addition reaction

CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3 → CH4-C3H6
– Thermal cracking

nCH2 = CH2 → [-CH2-CH2-]n
– Polymerisation

Question 17.
The chemical reactions taking place inside blast furnance during the manufacture of ‘iron is given below. Analyse it and answer the questions given below.
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
CaO(s) + SiO2(s) → CaSiO3(s)
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + Heat
CO(g) + C(s) + Heat → 2CO(g)
Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)
a) Write the chemical formula of the ore of iron.
b) Which compound is the actual reducing agent in the reaction?
c) Which equation shows slag formation?
Answer:
a) Fe2O3
b) CO
C) CaO(s) + SiO2(s) →CaSiO3(s)
d) FeO3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)

Question 18.
The equation of a reversible reaction is given below.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + Heat
a) Write the equations of endothermic and exothermic reactions.
b) Write the mole ratio of the reactants and products
c) Suggest methods to get more product.
Answer:
a) Endothermic
2SO3(g)+Heat → 2SO2(g +O2(g)
Exothermic
2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)+Heat

b) 2:1:2
c) Increase the concentration of the reactants
Remove the product from the system
Decrease the temperature
Increase the pressure.

Question 19.
a) Sulphuric acid is known as ‘the king of chemicals’.
What is the basis for this?
b) How concentrated sulphuric acid is diluted in the laboratory?
c) The wooden cupboards in which concentrated sulphuric acid is often seen charred. Why?
Answer:
a) Due to the wide range of uses sulphuriç acid is known as the king of chemicals eg: Used to make explosives, petroleum refining dehydrating agent, manufacture of chemical fertilizers, etc.
b) Take water in a beaker and add concentrated acid slowly along the side and stir continuously. Otherwise, the add will spurt over as the dissolution is exothermic.
c) Sulphuric absorbs hydrogen and oxygen present in substances in the ratio as that in water. So carbon only remains (dehydrating property)

Question 20.
a) How do galvanic cells and electrolytic cells differ each other?
b) Write any two practical uses of electrolysis.
Answer:
a)

  • Galvanic cells converts chemical energy in to electrical energy.
  • Electrolytic cell converts electrical energy into chemical energy
  • The anode in a galvanic cell is negative and cathode is positive.
  • The anode in an electrolytic cell is positive and cathode is negative

b)

  • Production of metal .
  • Production of non metals
  • Production of compounds
  • Refining of metals
  • Electroplating

 

Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Students can Download Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line Notes, Plus One Physics Notes helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line

Plus One Physics Chapter 3 Notes Pdf Summary
Motion In A Straight Line
In this chapter, we shall learn how to describe motion. For this, we develop the concepts of velocity, acceleration and relative velocity. We also develop a set of simple equations called Kinematic equations.

  • Motion: Motion is change in position of an object with time.
  • Rectilinear motion: The motion along a straight line is called rectilinear motion.
  • Point object: If the distance travelled by the body is very large compared with its size, the size of the body may be neglected. The body under such a condition may be taken as a point object. The point object can be represented by a point.

Example:

  • The length of bus may be neglected compared with the length of the road it is running.
  • The size of planet is ignored compared with the size of the orbit in which it is moving.

Position, Path Length And Displacement
1. Reference point, Frame of reference:
In order to specify position of object, we take reference point and a set of axes. Consider a rectangular coordinate system consisting of three mutually perpendicular axes, labelled x, y, and z axes. The point of intersection of these three axes is called origin (O) and serves as the reference point.

The coordinates (x, y, z) of an object describe the position of the object. To measure time, we place a clock in this coordinate system. This coordinate system along with a clock is called a frame of reference.
Plus One Physics Chapter 3 Notes Pdf
Straight-line motion in coordinate system
Plus One Physics Chapter 3 Notes
To describe the motion along a straight line we can choose x-axis. The position of a carat different time are given in the figure 3.1. The position to the right of 0 is taken as positive and to the left of 0 as negative. The position coordinates of point P and Q are +360m +240m. The position coordinate of R is-120m.

2. Path Length (Distance):
The total length of the path travelled by an object is called path length.
Explanation:
Consider a car moving along straight line. The positions of car at different time are given in the x-axis. (See figure 3.1)
Case-1:
The car moves from 0 to P. In this case the distance moved by car is OP = +360.
Case-2:
The car moves from 0 to P and then moves back from P to Q.
In this case, the distance travelled is OP + PQ = +360 + (+120) = +480m.

3. Displacement:
The distance between initial point and final point is called displacement.

OR

The change of position of the particle in a particular direction is called displacement.
Explanation:
Consider a car moving along a straight line. The positions of car at different time is given in the x-axis.
See figure (3.1)
Let us take two cases
Case-1:
The car moves from 0 to P, in this case displacement = (360 – 0) = 360
Case-2:
The car moves from 0 to P and moves back from P to Q.
In this case,
Displacement = 240m
Let x1 and x2 be the positions of an object at time t1 and t2. Then displacement in time Dt = (t2 – t1) can be written as Dx = x2 – x1
If x1 < x2, Dx is positive and if x2 < x1, Dx is negative.
Note: The magnitude of displacement may or may not be equal to the path length traversed by an object.

4. Position Time Graph:
Motion of an object can be represented by a position-time graph.
Position time graph for a stationary object:
For a stationary object, the position does not change with time. Hence the position time graph will be a straight line parallel to time axis.
Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Notes
Position time graph in a uniform motion:
Uniform motion:
A body is said to be uniform motion, if it undergoes equal displacements in equal intervals of time. In uniform motion velocity is constant The figure below shows the positiontime graph of such a motion.
Motion In A Straight Line Class 11 Notes Pdf

Plus One Physics Chapter 3 Notes Question 1.
The position-time of a car is given below. Analyze the graph and explain the motion of car.
Class 11th Physics Chapter 3 Notes
Answer:
The car starts from rest a time t=0s from the origin 0 and picks up speed till t=10s. After 10 sec, the car moves with uniform speed till t=18 sec. Then the brakes are applied and the car stops at t = 20s and x = 296m.

Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Notes Question 2.
Draw the position-time for an object

  1. moving with positive velocity
  2. moving with negative velocity.

Answer:
1.
Physics Chapter 3 Class 11 Notes

2.
Chapter 3 Physics Class 11 Notes

Average Velocity And Average Speed
1. Average Velocity:
The average velocity of a particle is the ratio of the total displacement to the time interval.
Motion In A Straight Line Class 11 Notes
Explanation:
To explain average velocity, consider a position time graph of a body given below.
Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 3
Let x1 be the position of body at a time t1 and x2 be the position at t2.
The average velocity during the time interval Dt = (t2 – t1)
Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Notes Pdf Download
where Dx = x2 – x1, and Dt = t2 – t1,
\(\overline{\mathbf{v}}\) is the average velocity.

Motion In A Straight Line Class 11 Notes Pdf Question 3.
Find the slope of position time graph given below of uniform motion and explain the result.
Motion In Straight Line Notes Pdf
Answer:
Motion In A Straight Line Class 11 Pdf
Slope of displacement time graph gives average velocity.

Class 11th Physics Chapter 3 Notes Question 4.
Displacement time graph of a car is given below.

  1. Find the average velocity during the time interval 5 to 7 sec.
  2. Find the average velocity by taking slope in the interval 5 to 7 sec.

Motion In A Straight Line Notes Pdf
Answer:
1.
Motion In Straight Line Class 11 Notes

2. Slope, tan q
Motion In A Straight Line Class 11 Notes Pdf Download
In this case, slope and average velocity are equal in the same interval.

2. Average Speed:
Average speed of a particle is the ratio of the total distance to total time taken.
Straight Line Class 11 Notes
Physics Chapter 3 Class 11 Notes Question 5.
A car is moving along a straight line. Say OP in figure. It moves from 0 to P in 18s and returns from P to Q in 6s. What are the average velocity and average speed of the car in going?

  1. From 0 to P? and
  2. from 0 to P and back to Q. (See Figure 3.1)

Answer:
1. Average velocity
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 17
Average speed
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 18

In this case the average speed is equal to the magnitude of the average velocity.

2. In this case
Average velocity
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 19
Average speed
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 20
In this case the average speed is not equal to the magnitude of the average velocity. This happens because the motion here involves change in direction. So that the distance is greater than displacement.
Note: In general, the velocity is always less than or equal to speed.

Instantaneous Velocity And Speed
Nonuniform Motion:
A body is said to be nonuniform motion, if it undergoes unequal displacements in equal intervals of time.

OR

A body moving with varying velocity is called nonuniform motion.

1. Instantaneous Velocity:
Chapter 3 Physics Class 11 Notes Question 6.
Why the concept of instantaneous velocity is introduced?
Answer:
In nonuniform motion the average velocity tells us how fast the object has been moving over a given interval. But it does not tell us how it moves at different instants during that interval. For this we define instantaneous velocity. The velocity at an instant is called instantaneous velocity.
Explanation:
Position-time of a body moving along a straight line is given below.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 21
Let us find average velocity in the interval 2 sec (3s to 5s), centered at t = 4 sec. In this case, the slope of line P1P2 give the value of average velocity, ie. Slope of P1P2,
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 22
Decrease the value of Dt from 2.to 1 sec. (ie. 3.5 to 4.5 sec). Then line P1P2 becomes Q1Q2. Then the slope of gives average velocity overthe interval 3.5 sec to 4.5sec.
ie. slope of Q1Q2
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 23
In the limit Dt ® 0, gives the instantaneous velocity at t = 4sec and its value is nearly 3.84m/s.

Motion In A Straight Line Class 11 Notes Question 7.
When average velocity of a body becomes instantaneous velocity?
Answer:
In the limit, Dt goes to zero, the average velocity becomes instantaneous velocity.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 24

But lim \(\lim _{\Delta t \rightarrow 0} \frac{\Delta x}{\Delta t}=\frac{d x}{d t}\)
\Instantaneous velocity,
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 25
Here \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) is the differential coefficient of x with respect to time. It is the rate of change of position with respect to time at an instant.

Class 11 Physics Notes Chapter 3 Question 8.
The table given below gives the value of \(\frac{\Delta x}{\Delta t}\) for Dt equal to 2s, 1s, 0.55, 0.1s and 0.01s centered at t = 4 sec. (See figure given above). What conclusions can be made from this table?
Answer:
The value of average velocity \(\left(\frac{\Delta x}{\Delta t}\right)\) becomes instantaneous velocity (3.8 m/s), in the limit of Dt goes to zero, (ie Dt is infinitesimally small).

Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Notes Pdf Download Question 9.
The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by x = a + bt2 where a = 8.5m, b = 2.5 m/s2 and t is measured in seconds

  1. What is the velocity at t = 0s and t = 2s.
  2. What is the average velocity between t = 2s and t = 4s?

Answer:
1.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 26
when t = 0
we get v = 2 × 2.5 × 0
v = 0
when t = 2sec
v = 2 × 2.5 × 2 v = 10m/s.

2. The average velocity
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 27
Note: If a body is moving with constant velocity, the average velocity is the same as instantaneous velocity at all instants.

2. Instantaneous Speed:
The speed at an instant is called instantaneous speed.
Note:

  • The average speed over a finite interval of time is greater or equal to the magnitude of the average velocity.
  • Instantaneous speed at an instant is equal to the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity at that instant.

Motion In Straight Line Notes Pdf Acceleration
1. Average Acceleration:
Average acceleration of a particle is ratio of the change in velocity to the time interval.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 28
Explanation
Consider a body moving along a straight line. Let v1 and v2 be the instantaneous velocities at time t1 and t2 respectively.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 29
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 30
where Dv = change in velocity, Dt = Time interval

2. Instantaneous Acceleration:
Acceleration at any instant is called instantaneous acceleration.
Explanation
In the limit Dt ® 0, (Dt goes to zero) the average acceleration becomes instantaneous acceleration.
ie. Instantaneous acceleration
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 31
Instantaneous acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with respect to time.

3. Uniform Acceleration:
A body is said to be in uniform acceleration, if velocity changes equally in equal intervals of time.

Motion In A Straight Line Class 11 Pdf Question 10.
The velocities of two bodies A and B are given in the tables. From this table, find which body is moving with uniform acceleration. Explain.
Body A
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 32
Body B
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 33
Answer:
The body A is moving with uniform acceleration be-cause the velocity of body increases at the rate of 2 m/s2.
The body B is moving with constant velocity. Hence this motion is called uniform motion.

4. Velocity-Time Graph For Uniformly Accelerated Motion:
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 34
An example for velocity-time of a uniformly accelerated motion is given in the above figure.
Let vt1 and vt2 be the velocities at instants t1 and t2respectively.
The slope of graph in the interval (t2 – t1) can be written as,
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 35
∴ tan q = acceleration
Thus the slope of the velocity-time gives the acceleration of the particle.

Motion In A Straight Line Notes Pdf Question 11.
Velocity-time of a body is given below. From this graph draw corresponding acceleration time graph.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 36
Answer:
The slope of velocity-time graph increases in the interval (0 – 10) sec which means that acceleration of the body increases in this interval.

Velocity is constant in the interval (10 – 18) sec. Hence ’ the slope is zero which means that acceleration is zero in this range.

The slope in the interval (18 – 20) sec is constant and negative. Hence acceleration in this is a negative value. The acceleration – time graph for the above motion is given below.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 37

Motion In Straight Line Class 11 Notes Question 12.
The position-time graph of a car is given below.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 38

  1. Draw corresponding velocity-time graph. Explain the reason for your answer.
  2. From velocity-time graph draw acceleration-time graph and identify the regions of
  • positive acceleration
  • Negative acceleration
  • zero acceleration.

Answer:
1. In the time interval (0 – t1) sec, the slope of x – t graph increases which means that velocity is increasing in this time interval.

In the time interval (t1 – t2) sec, slope is constant. Hence velocity remains constant in this time interval.

In the time interval (t2 – t3) sec, the slope is decreasing and finally becomes zero. Which means that velocity decreases to zero.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 39

2. Slope is constant throughout the interval (0 – t1) sec which means that acceleration constant.

In the interval (t1 – t2) sec, slope is zero. Which means that acceleration is zero in this region.

Slope is constant (but negative) in the interval (t2 – t3)sec. Hence acceleration is constant and negative in this time interval.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 40

Motion In A Straight Line Class 11 Notes Pdf Download Question 13.
Find the region of

  1. positive acceleration
  2. zero acceleration
  3. negative acceleration from the above x-t graph

Answer:

  1. Region OA – Positive acceleration
  2. Region AB – zero acceleration
  3. Region BC – Negative acceleration

Straight Line Class 11 Notes Question 14.
Match the following.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 41
Answer:
1) – d, 2) – c, 3) – b, 4) – a.

5. Area Under Velocity-Time Graph:
Area under velocity-time graph represents the displacement over a given time interval.
Explanation
Consider a body moving with constant velocity v. Its velocity-time graph is given below.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 42
The area of the rectangle has height v and bast t. Therefore,
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 43
Note: The acceleration and velocity of a body cannot change values abruptly at an instant. Changes are always continuous.

Kinematic Equations For Uniformly Accelerated Motion
For uniformly accelerated motion, we can derive some simple equations.

  1. Velocity-time relation
  2. Position-time relation
  3. Position-velocity relation

These equations are called kinematic equations for uniformly accelerated motion.
1. Velocity-Time Relation:
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 44
Consider a body moving along a straight line with uniform acceleration ‘a’. Let ‘u’ be initial velocity and ‘v ‘ be the final velocity at time t.
We know acceleration a = \(\frac{\text { Change in velocity }}{\text { Time interval }}\)
a = \(\frac{v-u}{t}\)
at = v – u
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 45

2. Position-Time Relation:
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 46
Consider a body moving along a straight line with uniform acceleration a. Let ‘u’ be initial velocity and ‘v’ be the final velocity. ‘S’ is the displacement travelled by the body during the time interval ‘t‘.
Displacement of the body during the time interval t,
S = average velocity × time
\(S=\left(\frac{v+u}{2}\right) t\) _____(1)
But v = u + at ____(2)
Substitute eq.(2) in eq.(1), we get
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 47
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 48

3. Position-Velocity Relation:
\(S=\left(\frac{v+u}{2}\right) t\) _____(1)
But v = u + at
\(\frac{v-u}{a}\) = t _____(2)
Substitute eq.(2) in eq.(1)
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 49
2as = v2 – u2
v2 – u2 = 2as
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 50
Free-fall:
An object released (near the surface of earth) is accelerated towards the earth. If air resistance is neglected, the object is said to be in free fall. The acceleration due to gravity near the surface of earth is 9.8 m/s2.
Note: Free-fall is a case of motion with uniform acceleration.

Question 15.
A body is allowed to fall freely. Draw the following graph.

  1. Acceleration-time
  2. Velocity-time
  3. Position-time

Answer:
1.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 51

2.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 52

3.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 53

Stopping distance of vehicles:
When brakes are applied to a moving vehicle, the distance it travels before stopping is called stopping distance.

Question 16.
Derive an expression for stopping distance of a vehicle in terms of initial velocity (u) and retardation (a).
Answer:
Let the distance travelled by the vehicle before it stops be ‘s’.
Then we can find ‘s’ using the formula
v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = u2 + -2as
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 54

3.7 Relative Velocity
Suppose the distance between two bodies changes with time in magnitude, or in direction or in both. Then each body is said to have a velocity relative to the other.

For example, consider two cars A and B moving in the same direction with equal velocities. To a person in A, the car B would appear to be rest.

Hence the velocity of B relative to A is zero.
ie. VBA = 0
Similarly, the velocity of A with respect to B is zero.
or VAB = 0
Let A be moving with a velocity VA and B be moving with a greater velocity VB in the same direction. Then the person in A feels that the car B is moving away from him with a velocity VBA. The velocity of B relative to A
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 55
For an observer in B, the car A is going back with a velocity. The velocity of A relative to B
VAB = -(VB – VB).

Question 17.
The position-time graph of two bodies A and B (at different situations) are given in the following graphs. Find the relative velocities of the following graph.
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 56
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 57
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 58

Answer:
a) The slope of Aand B are equal. Hence velocity of A and B are equal. So velocity of A with respect to B, VAB = 0

b) The body A and B meet at t = 3sec
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 59
Velocity of A w.r. to B, VAB = VA – VB
= 20-10 = 10 m/s Velocity of B w.r. to A, VBA = VB – VA
= 10 – 20 = -10 m/s

c) The body A and B meet at t = 1 sec.
The velocity of body in the interval t = 1 sec,
Plus One Physics Notes Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line 60
Velocity of A w. r. to B,
VAB = VA – VB
= 20 – 10 = 30 m/s
Similarly velocity of B w.r. to A,
VBA = VB – VA
= 10 – +20 = -30 m/s
The magnitude of VBA or VAB (=30 m/s) is greater than the magnitude of velocity A or that of B.

Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Kerala

Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Kerala

HSE Kerala Board Syllabus HSSLive Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Pdf Free Download in both English Medium and Malayalam Medium are part of SCERT Kerala Plus Two Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers. Here HSSLive.Guru have given Higher Secondary Kerala Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Year Important Questions and Answers based on CBSE NCERT syllabus.

BoardSCERT, Kerala
Text BookNCERT Based
ClassPlus Two
SubjectZoology
ChapterAll Chapters
CategoryKerala Plus Two

Kerala Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Year Questions and Answers

We hope the given HSE Kerala Board Syllabus HSSLive Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Questions and Answers Pdf Free Download in both English Medium and Malayalam Medium will help you. If you have any query regarding Higher Secondary Kerala Plus Two Zoology Chapter Wise Previous Year Important Questions and Answers based on CBSE NCERT syllabus, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

HSSLive Plus Two

Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Sets

Students can Download Chapter 1 Sets Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Sets

Plus One Maths Sets Three Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions And Answers Question 1.
There are 200 individuals with a skin disorder, 120 had been exposed to the chemical A, 50 to chemical B and 30 to both chemical A and B, Find the number of individuals exposed to

  1. Chemical A but not chemical B. (1)
  2. Chemical B but not.chemical C. (1)
  3. Chemical A or chemical B. (1)

Answer:
1. Given; n(U) = 200; n(A) = 120;
n(B) = 50; n(A∩B) = 30
n (Chemical A but not chemical B)
= n(A ∩ B’) = n(A) – n(A ∩ B) = 120 – 30 = 90

2. n (Chemical B but not chemical A)
= n(A’ ∩ B) = n(B) – n(A ∩ B) = 50 – 30 = 20

3. n (Chemical A or chemical B)
= n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B)
= 120 + 50 – 30 = 140.

Plus One Maths Sets Previous Questions And Answers Question 2.
In a survey of 400 students in a school, 100 were listed as taking apple juice, 150 as taking orange juice and 75 were listed as taking both apple as well as orange juice. Find how many students were taking neither apple juice nor orange juice.
Answer:
Let A – Apple juice; O – Orange juice be the sets.
Given; n(U) = 400; n(A) = 100;
n(O) = 150; n(A ∩ O) = 75
n (neither apple juice nor orange juice)
= n(A’ ∩ O’) = n((A ∪ O)’)
= n(U) – n(A ∪ O)
= 400 – [n(A) + n(O) – n(A ∩ O)]
= 400 – [100 + 150 – 75] = 400 – 175 = 225.

Plus One Maths Sets Questions And Answers Pdf Download Question 3.
In a committee, 50 people speak French, 20 speak Spanish and 10 speak both Spanish and French. How many speaks at least one of these two languages?
Answer:
Let F – French; S – Spanish be the sets.
Given; n(F) = 50; n(S) = 20;w(F ∩ S) = 10
n (speaks at least one of these two languages)
= n(F ∪ S) = n(F) + n(S) – n(F ∩ S)
= 50 + 20 – 10 = 60.

Plus One Maths Textbook Questions And Answers Question 4.
In a group of 65 people, 40 like cricket, 10 like both cricket and tennis, how many like tennis only and not cricket? How many like tennis?
Answer:
Let C – Cricket; T – Tennis be the sets.
Given;
n(C’ ∪ T) = 65; n(C) = 40; n(C ∩ T) = 10
n(C ∪ T) = n(C) + n(T) – n(C ∩ T)
⇒ 65 = 40 + n(T) – 10 ⇒ n(T) = 35
n (tennis only and not cricket)
= n(T ∪ C’) = n(T) – n(T ∩ C) = 35 – 10 = 25.

Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Question 5.
Let A and B be two sets such that n( A) = 20, n(A ∪ B) = 42, n(A ∩ B) = 4. Find

  1. n(B) (1)
  2. n(B – A) (1)
  3. n(A – B) (1)

Answer:

  1. n(A ∪ B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B)
    ⇒ 42 = 20 + n(B) – 4 ⇒ n(B) = 26
  2. n(B – A) = n(B) – n(A ∩ B) = 26 – 4 = 22
  3. n(A – B) = n(A) – n(A ∩ B) = 20 – 4 = 16.

Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Question 6.
A = {x: x is a natural number less than 8}

  1. Write in roster form. (1)
  2. Write a subset of A containing all even numbers in A. (1)
  3. Which of the following could not be the number of elements of power set of a set [2, 8, 10, 16]? (1)

Answer:

  1. A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
  2. {2, 4, 6} or {2, 4, 6, 7}
  3. 10. (since other are powers of 2.)

Plus One Maths Sets Four Mark Questions and Answers

Plus One Maths First Chapter Questions And Answers Question 1.
Observe the Venn diagram.
Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Previous Questions And Answers

  1. Write in roster form. (1)
  2. Verify that (A – B) ∪ (A ∩ B) = A (2)
  3. Find (A ∩ B)’ (1)

Answer:

  1. A = {1, 3, 4, 8} ; B = {2, 3, 5}
  2. A – B = {1, 4, 8}; A ∩ B = {3}
    ⇒ (A – B) ∪ (A ∩ B) = {1, 3, 4, 8}
    Hence; (A – B) ∪ (A ∩ B) = A
  3. (A ∩ B)’ = {1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}

Plus One Maths Sets Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions Question 1.
Write the following sets in roster form.

  1. A = {x: x xis an integer and -3 < x < 7}
  2. B = {x: x ∈ N; x ≤ 6}
  3. C = {x : x is a vowel in English alphabet}
  4. D = {x : x is a two-digit natural number such that the sum of its digits is 8}
  5. E = {x: x ∈ Z; \(-\frac{1}{2}<x<\frac{9}{2}\)}

Answer:

  1. A = {-2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
  2. B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
  3. C = {a, e, i, o, u}
  4. D = {17, 71, 26, 62, 35, 53}
  5. E = {1, 2, 3, 4}

Plus One Maths Text Book Questions And Answers Question 2.
Write the following sets in Set builder form.

  1. A = {3, 6, 9, 12}
  2. B = {2, 4, 8, 16, 32}
  3. C = \(\left\{\frac{1}{2}, \frac{2}{3}, \frac{3}{4}, \frac{4}{5}, \frac{5}{6}, \frac{6}{7}\right\}\)
  4. D = {5, 25, 125, 625}
  5. E = {2, 4, 6……..} (1 score each)

Answer:

  1. A = {x: x = 3n, n ∈ N, n< 4 }
  2. B = {x: x = 2n; n ∈ N; n < 5 }
  3. C = {x: x = \(\frac{n}{n+1}\); n ∈ N, n ≤ 6}
  4. D = {x: x = 5n; n ∈ N, n ≤ 4 }
  5. E = {x: x is an even number}

Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Pdf Hsslive Question 3.
Write the following in interval form.

  1. {x: x∈ R, -4 < x ≤ 6}
  2. {x: x∈ R, 0 ≤ x < 7 }
  3. {x: x∈ R, 3 ≤ x ≤ 4 } (1 score each)

Answer:

  1. (-4, 6]
  2. [0, 7)
  3. [3, 4]

Plus One Maths Sets Questions And Answers Pdf Question 4.
Write the following in set builder form.

  1. [0, 10]
  2. [-2, 7)
  3. (3, 4)

Answer:

  1. {x: x∈ R, 0 ≤ x ≤ 10 }
  2. { x: x ∈ R, -2 ≤ x < 7 }
  3. {x: x ∈ R, 3 < x < 4 }

Plus One Maths Questions And Answers Question 5.
Find Set A, B and Universal set U (1 score each)
Plus One Maths Sets Previous Questions And Answers
Answer:
A = {e, f, d}; B = {a, b, c, d} and U = {a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h}

Hsslive Maths Textbook Answers Plus One Question 6.
Write all subset of the following

  1. {1, 2}
  2. {a, b, c}
  3. Φ (1 score each)

Answer:

  1. Φ, {1}, {2}, {1, 2}
  2. Φ, {a}, {b}, {c} ,{a, b}, {a, c}, {b, c}, {a, b, c}
  3. Φ

Plus One Mathematics Questions And Answers Question 7.
Let A = {1, 2, {3, 4}, s, d, θ} , Which of the following statements are true/false and why?

  1. 3 ∈ A
  2. {1, {3, 4}} ∈ A
  3. {1, 2, 3} ⊂ A
  4. Φ ∈ A
  5. 1 ⊂ A (1 score each)

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. False
  4. False
  5. False

Important Questions For Class 11 Maths Sets Question 8.
If A = {1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 8}; B = {2, 5, 7, 9, 10} and C = {4 , 5, 9, 10}. Find

  1. A ∪ B
  2. B ∪ C
  3. A ∪ C
  4. A ∩ B
  5. B ∩ C
  6. A∪ B ∪ C
  7. A ∩ B ∩ C
  8. (A ∩ B) ∪ (C ∩ A) (1 score each)

Answer:

  1. A ∪ B = {1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
  2. B ∪ C = {2, 4, 5, 7, 9, 10}
  3. A ∪ C = {1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
  4. A ∩ B = {2, 7}
  5. B ∩ C = {5, 9, 10}
  6. A ∪ B ∪ C = {1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
  7. A ∩ B ∩ C = Φ
  8. (A ∩ B) ∪ (C ∩ A) = {2, 7} u {4} = {2, 4, 7}

Plus One Maths Important Questions And Answers Question 9.
If A = {2, 4, 6, 7, 8, 12}; B = {2, 7, 9, 10} and C = {5, 9, 10, 12}. Find

  1. A – B
  2. B – C
  3. A – C
  4. B – A
  5. C – A
  6. (A ∪ B) – C
  7. A – {B ∩ C)
  8. (A ∩ B) – (C ∩ A) (1 score each)

Answer:

  1. A – B = {4, 6, 8, 12}
  2. B – C = {2, 7}
  3. A – C = {2, 4, 6, 7, 8}
  4. B – A = {9, 10}
  5. C – A = {5, 9, 10}
  6. (A ∪ B) – C = {2, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12} – {5, 9, 10, 12} = {2, 4, 6, 7, 8}.
  7. A – (B ∩ C) = {2, 4, 6, 7, 8, 12} – {9, 10} = {2, 4, 6, 7, 8, 12}
  8. (A ∩ B) – (C ∩ A) = {2, 7} – {12} = {2, 7}

Plus One Maths Previous Questions And Answers Question 10.
If U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12}; A = {2, 7, 9, 10} B = {5, 9, 10, 12} and C = {1, 4, 5, 7, 11}. Find

  1. A’
  2. B’
  3. A’ – C
  4. (B – A)’
  5. B’ ∩ C’
  6. (A ∪ B)’
  7. A’ ∩ B’ (1 score each)

Answer:

  1. A’ = { 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 11, 12}
  2. B’ = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 11}
  3. A’ – C = {1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 11, 12} – {2, 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12} = {1, 4, 5, 11}
  4. (B – A)’ = {5, 12}’ = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11}
  5. B’ ∩ C’ = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 11} – {2, 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12} = {2, 3, 6, 8}
  6. (A ∪ B)’ = {2, 5, 7, 9, 10, 12}’ = {1, 3, 4, 6, 8, 11}
  7. A’ ∩ B’ = {1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 11, 12} ∩ {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 11} = {1, 3, 4, 6, 8, 11}

Plus One Maths Text Book Answers Question 11.
If X and Y are two sets such that X ∪ Y has 50 elements, X has 28 elements and Y has 32 elements, how many elements does X ∩ Y have?
Answer:
Given; n(X ∪ Y) = 50; n(X) = 28; n(Y) = 32
n(X ∪ Y) = n(X) + n(Y) – n(X ∩ Y)
⇒ 50 = 28 + 32 – n(X ∩ Y)
⇒ n(X ∩ Y) = 60 – 50 = 10

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 5 Chapter 2 खूबसूरत अनुभूति है एवरेस्ट!

You can Download खूबसूरत अनुभूति है एवरेस्ट! Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 5 Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 5 Chapter 2 खूबसूरत अनुभूति है एवरेस्ट!

खूबसूरत अनुभूति है एवरेस्ट! पाठ्यपुस्तक के प्रश्न और उत्तर

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Notes प्रश्ना 1.
जिंदगी में जिज्ञासा की क्या अहमियत है?
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Notes
उत्तर:
जिज्ञासा हमें जीवन में कुछ नए करने की प्रेरणा देती है। जिज्ञासे के कारण हम कुछ लक्ष्य निश्चित करते हैं। इस लक्ष्य तक पहुँचने की कोशिश निरंतर करते रहते हैं। इसलिए जीवन में जिज्ञासा का बड़ा स्थान है।

8th Standard Hindi Notes State Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
संतुलित दिमाग और संयम अच्छे इंसान के लिए ज़रूरी है।’ इस प्रस्ताव पर आपकी राय क्या है?
8th Standard Hindi Notes State Syllabus
उत्तर:
संतुलित दिमाग और संयम मानव के लिए ज़रूरी है। संतुलित दिमागवाले ही क्षमा के साथ जी सकते हैं। अगर दिमाग का संतुलन बिगड़ जाता है तो वह कभी क्रुद्ध होता है या उदास होता है। सभी परिस्थितयों में संयम रखना ज़रूरी है। संयम से काम करने से जीवन में सफलता पा सकते है।

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Notes Hindi प्रश्ना 3.
समाज को खुश देखने की कल्पना के पीछे संतोष यादव के चरित्र की कौन सी विशेषता प्रकट होती है?
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Notes Hindi
उत्तर:
समाज के प्रति सकारात्मक भाव रखना अच्छी बात है। समाज कल्याण की भावना से युक्त नागरिक ही ऐसा कर सकते हैं। इस कल्पना के पीछे संतोष यादव की समाज कल्याण की भावना हम देख सकते हैं।

खूबसूरत अनुभूति है एवरेस्ट! Textbook Activities

Hindi Class 8 Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 4.
संतोष यादव दो बार माउंट एवरेस्ट की चोटी पर पहुँचनेवाली भारत की पहली महिला है। दूसरी बार उनके एवरेस्ट जीतने के संबंध में एक रपट तैयार करें।
Hindi Class 8 Kerala Syllabus
8th Standard Hindi Solution
उत्तर:
संतोष यादव : दुनिया की चोटी पर… दुबारा
7 मई 1993, दिल्ली : 24 साल की उम्र में, संतोष यादव ने इंडो-तिब्बतन सीमा पुलिस के दारोगा के पद से इस्तीफ़ा दे दिया, इसी कारण से वह माउंट की। एवरस्ट चढ़ सकी। दो साल के अंदर, संतोष यादव, पद्मश्री विजेता दुनिया की चोटी को मापनेवाली दुनिया की प्रथम महिला बनी- दो बार। “एक महिला की हैसियत से मैं थोड़ा कुछ अलग करना चाहती थी, इसलिए इस्तीफ़ा देकर माउंट एवरेस्ट चढ़ने का निश्चय किया” संतोष यादव का सिद्धांत सरल है। संतोष यादव का सपना 12 मई 1992 को पहली बार साकार हुआ। संतोष यादव इससे तृप्त नहीं थी। एक साल के बाद उन्होंने दुबारा कोशिश की। 12 मई 1993 को, पहली चढ़ाई के ठीक एक साल बाद संतोष यादव दो बार माउंट एवरेस्ट को जीतनेवाली दुनिया की दुनिया की प्रथम महिला बनी। “वहाँ चोटी पर पहुँचने के लिए 14 मार्ग हैं। हम ने ऐसा रास्ता अपनाया, जो पहले किसीने अपनाया नहीं था”-संतोष यादव कहती है। उनके मत में जिंदगी चोटियों को पार करने की निरंतर कड़ियाँ हैं। यही उस जैसी महिला को चोटियों पर पहुँचाई हैं।

खूबसूरत अनुभूति है एवरेस्ट! Summary in Malayalam and Translation

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions
Hindi Notes 8th Class Kerala Syllabus
Hsslive Guru 8th Hindi
Hss Live Guru 8 Hindi
8th Standard Hindi

खूबसूरत अनुभूति है एवरेस्ट! शब्दार्थ Word meanings

8th Standard Hindi Textbook Pdf
8th Standard Hindi Guide