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You can Download नंगे पैर(Nange pair) Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 1 नंगे पैर (कहानी)

नंगे पैर Textual Questions and Answers

नंगे पैर विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

Nange Pair Notes Kerala Syllabus 9th प्रश्ना 1.
‘बंद दरवाज़ा खोलने में उसे थोड़ा समय लगा। दरवाज़े से बाहर और हॉल को पारकर आगे आने में देर लगी।’ देर लगने का कारण क्या होगा?

उत्तर:
बेबी एक अपाहिज लड़की है। उसके एक पैर नहीं है। वह बैसाखियों के सहारे चलती है। इस लिए देर लगी।

9th Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
‘दोपहर में बेबी को अकेलापन लगता’ -बेबी बाहर निकल नहीं पाती। जो अकेलापन सहते हैं, वे हमसे क्या-क्या चाहते होंगे?

उत्तर:
जो अकेलापन सहते हैं वे दूसरों की हाज़िरी चाहते हैं। बोलने-बियाने के लिए दोस्तों को चाहते हैं। उनकी आँखें हमेशा दूसरों के आने की प्रतीक्षा करती रहती हैं।

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 1 Chapter 3 प्रश्ना 3.
लगने दो बहिन! पोस्टमैन का काम जिस-तिस की डाक जिस-तिस के हाथ में सौंपने का है- अहाते में फेंकने का नहीं।” यहाँ पोस्टमैन का कौन-सा मनोभाव प्रकट होता है?

उत्तर:
इससे स्पष्ट होता है कि पोस्टमैन अपने काम के प्रति ईमानदार है। वह अपना दायित्व समझता है। उसे ईमानदारी के साथ निभाता है। अपने काम के प्रति पोस्टमैन का सकारात्मक मनोभाव यहाँ हम देख सकते हैं।

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 3 Chapter 1 प्रश्ना 4.
बेबी ने मन ही मन निश्चय किया कि वह उस पोस्टमैन को नंगे पैर चलने नहीं देगी । यह तय करते ही उसे सुखद अनुभूति हुई’ कारण क्या होगा?’

उत्तर:
दूसरों की खुशी में खुशी ढूँढ़ना बड़ी बात है। यही सबसे बड़ी खुशी है। बेबी ने पोस्टमैन को जूते देकर खुश करने का निश्चय किया। इससे ही वह खुश हो जाती है। यहाँ बेबी के खुले दिल का परिचय मिलता है। इससे ही उसे सुखद अनुभूति होती है।

Hss Live Guru 9th Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 5.
‘तब होली का त्योहार मनाया जा चुका था।’ इस प्रस्ताव का तात्पर्य क्या है?

उत्तर:
बेबी पोस्टमैन को चप्पल सीधे देना नहीं चाहती है। वह उपहार के रूप में देने का बहाना ढूँढ़ती है। लेकिन होली का त्योहार बीत गया था।

9th Standard Hindi Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 6.
‘साहब मेरी लाइन बदल दीजिए, सिटी में कहीं भी बदली दीजिए’ ऐसा क्यों कहा होगा?

उत्तर:
पोस्टमैन बिना चप्पल चलता था। यह देखकर बेबी ने उसे जूते दिए। बेबी के एक पैर ही नहीं है। लेकिन पोस्टमैन उस अभाव की पूर्ति करने में असमर्थ है। उसे यह हाल सह नहीं पाता होगा। इससे बदली माँगी होगी।

नंगे पैर Text Book Activities

नंगे पैर अभ्यास के प्रश्न

Hsslive Hindi Class 9 Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
‘पोस्टमैन की आवाज़ उसके कानों में आई, पर फर्श पर डाक गिरने की आवाज़ सुनाई नहीं दी। बेबी पीछे मुड़ी। सँभालकर पलंग से उतरी। फिर बैसाखियों के सहारे एक-एक कदम चलकर दरवाजे तक आई।’

i. बेबी हर बात का सूक्ष्म निरीक्षण करती है। उसके मुताबिक व्यवहार भी करती है।

जैसे,

9th Standard Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
लिखें, इसपर आपकी प्रतिक्रिया।

उत्तर:

नंगे पैर विधात्मक प्रश्न

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Notes Hindi प्रश्ना 1.
डायरी लिखें :
‘बेबी ने मन ही मन निश्चय किया कि वह उस पोस्टमैन को नंगे पैर चलने नहीं देगी। यह तय करते ही उसे सुख अनुभूति हुई।’ सोचें, उस दिन बेबी के मन में कौन-कौन से विचार आए होंगे? बेबी के विचारों को डायरी के रूप में लिखें।

उत्तर:
14 सितंबर 2016
सोमवार
आज कितना अच्छा दिन है। जीवन में एक अच्छा निर्णय लिया। कितने दिन से उस पोस्टमैन को नंगे पैर चलते देख रही हूँ। लेकिन उसे ऐसे चलने देना सही नहीं है। बेचारे के पैर गर्मी से तपते होंगे। जो भी हो अपना निर्णय सही है। उसे मैं जूते बनवाकर दूंगी। इससे बढ़िया और क्या मैं कर सकती हूँ।

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Hindi Guide Pdf प्रश्ना 2.
टिप्पणी लिखें :
‘नंगे पैर’ शीर्षक इस कहानी के लिए कहाँ तक सार्थक है? अपना मत स्पष्ट करते हुए एक टिप्पणी लिखें।

उत्तर:
इस कहानी में दो विशेष पात्र हैं- पोस्टमैन और बेबी। बेबी अपाहिज है, उसके एक पैर नहीं है। पोस्टमैन बिना चप्पल चलता है। बेबी पोस्टमैन की हालत सह नहीं पाती है। पोस्टमैन के लिए वह जूता बनवाकर देती है। बेबी के पैर नहीं है लेकिन वह नंगे पैर चलनेवाले पोस्टमैन की कठिनाई को महसूसती है। यह कहानी नंगे पैर के इर्द-गिर्द घूमती है। इससे हम यह कह सकते हैं कि यह शीर्षक बिल्कुल सार्थक है।

नंगे पैर Additional Questions and Answers

नंगे पैर आशयग्रहण के प्रश्न

9th Standard Hindi Textbook Pdf Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 1.
दुपहर के समय बेबी के कमरे का माहौल कैसा था?

उत्तर:
बीच हॉल में रखे रेडियो में साढ़े बारह बजे के रिकॉर्ड बज रहे थे। शांत माहौल में गीतों के सुर गूंज रहे थे।

Class 9 Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
नए पोस्टमैन को धक्का-सा लगने का कारण क्या था?

उत्तर:
नए पोस्टमैन ने एक नज़र बेबी के पैरों की ओर देखा। बेबी के एक पैर नहीं था। वह बैसाखियों के सहारे चलती थी। यह देखकर उसे धक्का-सा लगा।

Hsslive Guru 9th Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 3.
पोस्टमैन को बिना चप्पल चलने के संबंध में बेबी ने क्या सोचा? ।

उत्तर:
बेबी ने सोचा कि शायद उसके जूते फट गए होंगे, वे मरमत होकर आते होंगे। .

Hss Live Guru Hindi 9th Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 4.
पोस्टमैन के अभावों को कहानी में कैसे दर्शाया गया है?

उत्तर:
पोस्टमैन के पास छाता नहीं, साइकिल नहीं और जूता भी नहीं था। धूप से उसका चेहरालाल-पीला होता। पसीने से उसकी कमीज़ पीठ से चिपकी रहती।

9th Standard Hindi Textbook Answers Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 5.
बेबी ने पोस्टमैन के पैर का नाप लेने के लिए कौन-सा तरकीब अपनाया?

उत्तर:
पोस्टमैन के डाक देकर चले जाने पर बेबी अहाते के किनारे आई, सीढियों से नीचे उतर आई। फ्रॉक की जेब से परकार निकालकर जानेवाले पोस्टमैन के पैरों के निशान का नापजोख किया।

नंगे पैर Grammar

नंगे पैर व्याकरण के प्रश्न

प्रश्ना 1.
इस वाक्य पर ध्यान दें

‘पैरों की. गोलाई आदि का ठीक-ठीक माप।’

प्रश्ना 2.
इसमें ‘गोलाई’ शब्द ‘गोल’ और ‘आई’ के मेल से बना है। ध्यान दें, इससे अर्थ में कौन-सा परिवर्तन आता है। इस तालिका में इसी प्रकार के और कुछ शब्दों को जोड़ें।

उत्तर:

नंगे पैर Summary in Malayalam and Translation

नंगे पैर शब्दार्थ

You can Download Equal Triangles Questions and Answers, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 7 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Ratio

Area of Quadrilaterals Text Book Questions and Answers

Ratio Chapter Class 8 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
In a regular polygon, the ratio of the inner and outer angle is 7 : 2. What is each angle? How many sides does the polygon
Solution:
Let the inner angle be 7x and the outer angle 2x .
Inner angle + outer angle = 180°
7x + 2x = 180°
9x = 180°
x = 180 ÷ 9 = 20°
Inner angle = 7x = 7 × 20 = 140°
Outer angle = 2x = 2 × 20 = 40°
Sum of the outer angles of a polygon of n sides is 360°. Since it is a regular polygon, the outer angles are equal,
n × 40 = 360°

Number of sides of the polygon = 9

Hsslive Maths Class 8 Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
The number of girls and boys in a class are in the ratio 7 : 5 and there are 8 more girls than boys. How many girls and boys are there in this class?
Solution:
Let the number of girls be 7x and the number of boys be 5x ,
Difference = 7x – 5x = 2x

Number of girls = 7x = 7 × 4 = 28
Number of boys = 5x = 5 × 4 = 20

Hsslive Class 8 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Blue and yellow paints are mixed in the ratio 2 : 5 to make a new colour. 6 litres more of yellow 1 than blue is taken. How many litres of each is mixed?
Solution:
Let the measure of blue paint be 2x and yellow paint be 5x .
Their difference = 5x – 2x = 3x
3x = 6
x = 2
Quantity of blue paint = 2x = 2 × 2 = 4 litre
Quantity of yellow paint = 5x = 5 × 2 = 10 litre

Hsslive Guru 8th Class Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
There are four right triangles, the ratio of perpendicular sides being 3 : 4 m each. One more fact about each is given below. Find the lengths of the sides of each triangle.
i. The difference in the lengths of the perpendicular sides is 24 metres.
ii. The hypotenuse is 24 metres.
iii. The perimeter is 24 metres.
iv. The area is 24 square metres.
Solution:
i. Let the perpendicular sides be 3x and 4x

The difference between the perpendicular sides be,
4x – 3x =x
x = 24
Sides are, 3x = 3 × 24 = 72 m
4x = 4 × 24 = 96 m
5x = 5 × 24 = 120 m

ii. Hypotenuse = 5x = 24

Perpendicular sides 3x = 3 × 4.8 = 14.4 m
4x = 4 × 4.8 = 19.2 m

iii. Perimeter = 3x + 4x + 5x = 12x
12x = 24
x = 2
Sides are, 3x = 3 × 2 = 6m
4x = 4 × 2 = 8 m
5x = 5 × 2 = 10 m

iv. Area = 1/2 × 3x × 4x = 6x ²
6x ² = 24
x ² = 4; x = 2
Sides are, 3x = 3 × 2 = 6m
4x = 4 × 2 = 8m
5x = 5 × 2 = 10 m

Textbook Page No 137

8th Std Maths Guide Kerala Syllabus  Question 5.
Acid and water are mix ed in the ratio 4 : 3 to make a liquid. On adding 10 more litres of water, the ratio changed to 3 : 1. How many litres of acid and water does the liquid contain now?
Solution:
Let the volume of acid be 4x and volume of water be 3x volume of acid on adding 10 more litres of acid = 4x + 10 litres
present ratio = 3 : 1
4x + 10 : 3x = 3 : 1
3 × 3x = 1 × (4x + 10)
9x = 4x + 10
9x – 4x = 10 ; 5x = 10
x = 2
Volume of acid in the original mix ture = 4x = 4 × 2 = 8 litres
Volume of water in the original mix ture = 3x = 3 × 2 = 6 litres
Volume of acid in the present mix ture = 8 + 10 = 18 litres
Volume of water in the present mix ture = 6 litres

Hss Live Maths Class 8 Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Two angles are in the ratio 1 : 2. On increasing the smaller angle by 6° and decreasing the larger angle by 6°, the ratio changed to 2 : 3. What were the original angle?
Solution:
Let x be the smaller angle and 2x be the larger angle,
x + 6 : 2x – 6 = 2 : 3
2(2x – 6) = 3 (x +6)
4x – 12 = 3x + 18
4x – 3x = 18 + 12 = 30; x = 30
Original smaller angle = x ° = 30°
Original larger angle =2x ° = 6o°

Hss Live Guru 8th Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
The sides of a rectangle are in the ratio 4 : 5.
i. By what fraction should the shorter side be increased to make it a square?
ii. By what fraction should the longer side be decreased to make it a square?
Solution:
Let 4x be the smaller side and 5x be the larger side,
i. Let y part of a shorter side be added breadth after adding = 4x + 4xy = 4x (1 + y)
Ratio of breadth and length of a square = 1 : 1
so present ratio
4 × (1 + y) : 5x = 1 : 1
1 × 4x (1 + y) = 5x × 1
4(1 + y) = 5

On adding \(\frac{1}{4}\) part of the original breadth, it can be made into square,

ii. Let y part of the longer side be substracted length after subtracting = 5x – 5xy
= 5x (1 – y)
As the present ratio is 1 : 1
5x (1 – y) : 4x = 1 : 1
1 × 5x (1 – y) = 1 × 4x
5 (1 – y) = 4

On subtracting \(\frac{1}{5}\) part of the original length, it can be made into square.

Hss Live Guru 8 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Two quantities are in the ratio 3 : 5
i. If the smaller alone is made four times the original, What would be the ratio?
ii. If the smaller is doubled and the larger is halved, What would be the ratio?
Solution:
i. Let 3x be the smaller side and 5x be the larger side,
4 times the smaller = 4 × 3x = 12x
present ratio = 12x : 5x = 12 : 5

ii. Double the smaller = 2 × 3x = 6x

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Notes Question 9.
i. The capacities of two bottles are in the ratio 3 : 4. The smaller bottle was filled twice and the larger bottle was filled and emptied into a vessel. Twice the smaller and half the larger was emptied into another. What is the ratio of the quantities of water in the two vessels?

ii. In the problem, what is the capacities of the bottles are in the ratio 4 : 7?
Solution:
i. Let the capacity of the smaller bottle = 3x
the capacity of the larger bottle = 4x
Volume of water when the smaller bottle is filled twice = 2 × 3x = 6x
Volume of water when the larger bottle is filled once = 4x
Total volume now = 6x + 4x = 10x
Volume of the water when the smaller bottle is filled twice = 6x
Volume of water when larger bottle is filled half = \(\frac{4 x }{2}\) = 2x
Total volume now = 6x + 2x = 8x
Ratio of the quantities of water = 10x : 8x , = 10 : 8 = 5 : 4

ii. Ratio of capacities of the bottle = 4 : 7
Let the capacity of the smaller bottle = 4x
the capacity of the larger bottle = 7x
Volume of water when the smaller bottle is filled twice = 2 × 4x = 8x
Volume of water when the larger bottle is filled once = 7x
Total volume now = 8x + 7x = 15x
Volume of the water when the smaller bottle is filled twice = 8x
Volume of water when larger bottle is filled half = \(\frac{7 x }{2}\)

= 30 : 23 (multiplied by 2)

8th Std Maths Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
The breadth and length of two rectangles are in the ratio 2 : 3. In another rectangle, whose breadth is 1 cm less and length is 3 cm less than those of the first, this ratio is 3 : 4. Calculate the breadth and length of both rectangles.
Solution:
Ratio between the breadth and length of the first rectangle = 2 : 3
Breadth of the first rectangle = 2x
Length of the first rectangle = 3x
Breadth of the second rectangle = 2x – 1
Length of the second rectangle = 3x – 3
Ratio between the breadth and length = 3 : 4
so, (2x – 1) : (3x – 3) = 3 : 4
3 (3x – 3) = 4 (2x – 1)
9x – 9 = 8x – 4
9x – 8x = -4 + 9
x = 5
Breadth of the first rectangle = 2x = 2 × 5 = 10cm
Length of the first rectangle = 3x = 3 × 5 = 15 cm
Breadth of the second rectangle = 2x – 1 = 10 – 1 = 9 cm
Length of the second rectangle = 3x – 3 = 15 – 3 = 12 cm

Textbook Page No 141

Hsslive Guru Class 8 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
Johny invested 50000 rupees, Jaleel 40000 rupees and Jayan 20000 rupees to start a business together. They got 3300 rupees as profit in a month, which they divided in the ratio of their investments. How much did each get ?
Solution:
Ratio of the investment = 50000 : 40000: 20000 = 5 : 4 : 2
Profit of one month = 3300 rupees

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Notes Maths Question 12.
The capacities of three water tanks are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. The smallest of them can hold 2500 litres. How many litres can the other two hold ?
Solution:
Ratio of the capacities = 2 : 3 : 5
Let the capacities be 2x , 3x , 5x
Quantity of water in smaller tank = 2x = 2500
x = 1250 litres
Capacity of second tank = 3x = 3 × 1250 = 3750 litres
Capacity of third tank = 5x = 5 × 1250 = 6250 litres

Maths Guide For Class 8 Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. How much is each angle?
Solution:

Class 8 Maths Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
The outer angles of triangle are in the ratio 5 : 6: 7. What are the angles ?
Solution:
Sum of outer angle = 360°
Let the angles be 5x , 6x , 7x
5x + 6x + 7x = 360°
18x = 360°
x = 20°
Angles are = 5x =5 x 20 = 100°
6x = 6 × 20 = 1200
7x = 7 × 20 = 140°

8th Standard Maths Notes Kerala SyllabusQuestion 15.
The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. The longest side is 20 cm more than the shortest side. Calculate the length of all three sides.
Solution:
Let sides be 2x , 3x , 4x then,
Since the longest side is 20 cm more than the shortest side,
4x = 2x + 20, 4x – 2x = 20
2x = 20
x = 10
First side = 2 × 10 = 20 cm
Second side = 3 × 10 = 30 cm
Third side = 4 × 10 = 40 cm

Class 8 Chapter 7 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
A box contains beads of three colors. Black beads and white beads are in the ratio 3 : 5. White and red beads are in the ratio 2 : 3. What is the ratio of all three colors ?
Solution:
Black beads : White beads: Red beads

Hsslive Guru 8 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
The length, breadth and height of a rectangle block are in the ratio 3 : 2 : 5 and its volume is 3750 cubic centimetres. Calculate the length, breadth and height.
Solution:
Let breadth be 3x , length be 2x and height be 5x , then
3x × 2x × 5x = 3750
30 × 3 = 37
x = 5
Breadth = 3x = 3 × 5 = 15 cm
Length = 2x = 2 × 5 = 10 cm
Height = 5x = 5 × 5 = 25 cm

Additional Questions And Answers

Hss Live Guru Maths 8th Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Sides of a triangular plot are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. Perimeter of the plot is 150 meter. Find the length of the sides.
Solution:
Perimeter = 150 m

= 30 m, 50 m, 70 m

Question 2.
The denominator and numerator of fraction are in the ratio 3 : 1. If \(\frac{1}{2}\) part of the numerator is added to it, prove that the ratio becomes 2 : 1.
Solution:

Ratio between denominator and numerator, when \(\frac{1}{2}\) part of the numerator is added to it, then the ratio is 6 : 3 = 2 : 1

Question 3.
Arun, Varun and Hari bought two packet of sweets, 245 in all. The ratio of the number of sweets Arun took to the number of sweets Varun took is 3 : 4. The ratio of the number of sweets Varun and Hari took is 6 : 7
How many sweets did each take?
Solution:

Question 4.
In a goat farm, the ratio of the number of goats which give milk to the number of goats which don’t is 6 : 2. The number of goat which don’t give milk is 160. How many goats do give milk? And how many goats are there in all?
Solution:
Ratio of the number of goat which give milk to the number of goat which don’t = 6 : 2
We have to find how many times the number of goat which don’t give milk is the number of goats which give milk is \(\frac{6}{2}\) times
that the number of goats which don’t give milk.
Therefore the number of goats which give milk \(160 \times \frac{6}{2}=480\)
Total number of goats = 160 + 480 = 640

Question 5.
Length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 5 : 3. How many parts of the length of this rectangle is to be deducted so as to get the ratio of the length and breadth of the new rectangle is 7 : 6?
Solution:
5 : 3 = 10 : 6
If \(\frac{3}{10}\) part of 10 is deducted from it, the ratio is 7 : 6
That is \(\frac{3}{10}\) part of the length is deducted from it, the ratio is 7 : 6

Question 6.
In a school, the ratio of the number of boys to the number of teachers 2 : 3; and the ratio of the number of teacher to the number of girls is 4 : 5. What is the ratio of the number boys to girls.
Solution:
boys : teacher : girls

Question 7.
The ratio between the number of boys and girls in a college is 8 : 5. If the number of girls is 800, find the total number of students.
Solution:
Let the number of boys = 8x
Let the number of girls = 5x
5x = 800
x = 800 ÷ 5 = 160
Number of boys = 8 × 160 = 1280
Total number of students = 800 + 1280 = 2080

Question 8.
The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7. Its smallest side is 28 cm less than the largest side. Find the sides of the triangle.
Solution:
Ratio of the sides of the triangle = 3 : 5 : 7
3x = 7x – 28
7x – 28 = 3x
4x = 28
x = 28 ÷ 4
Smallest side = 3 × 7 = 21 cm
Second side = 5 × 7 = 35 cm
Largest side = 7 × 7 = 49 cm

Question 9.
To make a colour, red, blue and green paints mixed in the ratio 1 : 2 : 4. How much quantity red and green are needed for 10 bottle of blue paint?
Solution:
Let red paint be 1x bottle, blue paint
2x bottle and green paint 4x
2x = 10 x = 10 ÷ 2 = 5
Red paint needed = 1 × 5 = 5 bottles
Green paint needed = 4 × 5 = 20 bottles.

Question 10.
In a 50 litre mixture of milk and water, milk and water are in the ratio 3 : 2. How much more milk should be added to it to make the ratio as 3 : 1.
Solution:
Let the measure of milk = 3x litre and
that of water = 2x litre.
3x + 2x = 50, 5x = 50
x = 50 ÷ 5 = 10
Milk = 3 × 10 = 30 litres
Water = 2 × 10 = 20 litres
Let k more litre of milk is added to make the ratio 3 : 1
Then 30 + k : 20 = 3 : 1
30 + k = 60, k = 60 – 30 = 30
Measure of milk to be added = 30 litres

Question 11.
The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 8 : 5. The length is 9 centimetres more than the breadth. What are the length and breadth of the rectangle?
Solution:
Let the length of the rectangle = 8x and breadth = 5x
Their difference = 8x – 5x = 3x
This is given as 9 m, 8x – 5x = 9
3x = 9, x = 9 ÷ 3 = 3
∴ Length of the rectangle = 8 × 3 = 24 cm
Breadth of the rectangle = 5 × 3 = 15 cm

Question 12.
In a concrete, cement and sand are mixed in the ratio 4 : 3. Prove that double the quantity of cement should be added to it to make the ratio 4 : 1.
Solution:
cement : sand = 4 : 3
Let cement = 4x and sand = 3x .
Double of cement = 2 x 4x = 8x ,
Quantity of cement now = 4x + 8x = 12x
Quantity of sand = 3x
Their ratio now = 12x : 3x
= 12 : 3 (divided by x)
= 4 : 1 (divided by 3)
That is if double the quantity of cement is added, the ratio will become 4 : 1.

Question 13.
Ratio of the number of red beads and blackheads in a box is 6 : 5. If the number of red beads is 4 more than the number of black beads find the number of red beads and black beads in the box.
Solution:
Let the number of red beads = 6x
Number of black beads = 5x
6x – 5x = 1x ; = 6x – 5x = 4
This is given as 4. ∴ x = 4
Number of red beads = 6 × 4 = 24
Number of black beads = 5 × 4 = 20

Question 14.
The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in a school is 14 : 15. There are 27 more girls than boys. How many girls are there in this school? How many boys?
Solution:
Ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls = 14 : 15
Let girls be 15x & boys be 14x
Their difference = 15x – 14x
= x = 27
Number of girls = 15x = 15 × 27 = 405
Number of boys = 14x = 14 × 27 = 378

Question 15.
State that if the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5, then it is a right angled triangle. If perimetre is 36 cm, then find the length of the sides?
Solution:
Sides are 3x , 4x and 5x

Square of two sides are equal to the square of the third side. Therefore, it is a right angled triangle.

Question 16.
Ratio of cement, sand and gravel in a concrete mixture are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 4. If 80 kilogram of mixture is to be prepare, what quantity of cement, sand and gravel are to be taken?
Solution:
Let quantity of cement = x,
Quantity of sand = 2x,
Quantity of gravel = 4x
x + 3x + 4x = 80
8x = 8o ⇒ x = 10
quantity of cement = x = 10 kg
quantity of sand = 3x = 3 × 10 = 30 kg
quantity of gravel = 4x = 4 × 10 = 40 kg

Question 17.
Did the sides of a triangle be in the ratio 3 : 5 : 8 ? Why ?
Solution:
Sides are 3x, 5x and 8x .
3x + 5x = 8x
here sum of two sides is equal to the third side.
But sum of two sides should be greater than the third side. So the given sides
3x, 5x and 8x are not the sides of a triangle.
Therefore the ratio 3 : 5 : 8 cannot be the sides of a triangle.

Question 18.
In ∆ ABC, AB : BC = 2 : 3, BC : CA = 4 : 5, then find AB : BC : CA.
Solution:

Question 19.
One side of triangle given below is 12 cm. P is the midpoint of BC. Find the ratio of areas between ∆ ABC and ∆ APC

Solution:

Question 20.
Area of a rectangle is 2400 sq.cm. If length and breadth are in the ratio 8 : 3, find length and breadth? If length and breadth are increased by 20 cm, then find the ratio between length and breadth
Solution:
Length = 8x
Breadth = 3x

length = 8 × 10 = 80,
Breadth = 3 × 10 = 30
When length and breadth are increased by 20, then length = 100;
Breadth = 50
length : breadth = 2 : 1

You can Download Sensations and Responses Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 1 Sensations and Responses

Sensations and Responses Questions and Answers

Sslc Biology Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 1.

Children and other organisms have a variety of experiences? What are they?
Answer:

• A child tasting a mango.
• A snail withdrawing its body into the shell when it is touched.
• Feel cold when washing face.
• Birds are flying when making sound.

Sslc Biology Chapter 1 Questions Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
What are the factors to which children and organisms respond here?
Answer:

• Touch
• Sound
• Light
• Taste
• Smell

Stimulus: The senses that evoke responses in organisms are called stimuli. These are two types, external and internal stimuli.

External stimuli: Sound, touch, heat, chemicals, pressure, cold, radiations.

Internal stimuli: Hunger, touch, infection, pressure variation, thirst, exhaust.

• Nerve cells or receptors that are capable of receiving stimuli from within the body and external environment are located in sense organs.
• Nerve cells are capable of receiving stimuli from within the body and external environment. They also transmit messages to and from central nervous system and organs.
• The function of the nervous system is to generate and coordinate responses according to internal and external changes.
• The nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, nerves, and receptors.

Neuron
A neuron has mainly the following parts a cyton (cell body), impulse receiving dendrons and branches of dendrons is dendrites, impulse transmitting axon and branches of axon is aconites, synaptic knobs for secreting neurotransmitter. In certain neurons, the nerve fibers are covered by myelin sheath, made up of white Schwann cells.

Sensations And Responses Kerala Syllabus  Question 3.
Make a table which shows the function and peculiarities of different parts of nerve cell.

10th Biology First Chapter Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Analyse figure given below and write inferences on myelin sheath.

Formation of myelin sheath:
Schwann cells, a part of nervous tissues repeatedly encircle the axon to form the myelin sheath. Myelin sheath in the brain and spinal cord is formed of specialized cells called Oligodendrocytes. The myelin sheath has a shiny white colour.

Functions of myelin sheath:

• Provide nutrients and oxygen to the axon.
• Accelerate impulses.
• Act as an electric insulator.
• Protects the axon from external shocks.
• Gives white appearance (white matter) to the neural parts.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Chapter 1 Question 5.
Differentiate between white matter and grey matter.
Answer:
The part of nerve, where myelinated neurons are present in abundance, is called as the white matter. The part of nerve where the cell bodies and nonmyelinated neurons are present is called as the grey matter.

Generation Of Impulses

The difference in the distribution of ions maintains positive charge on the outer surface and negative charge inside the plasma membrane of the receptor part of neuron. When stimulated, this ionic equilibrium (polarity) changes there and the outer surface becomes negatively charged and inner become positively charged. As a result, impulse generated. This charge difference stimulates its adjacent parts and similar changes occur there too. Thus a continuous flow of the impulse becomes possible.

Charges on either side of the plasma membrane in a resting state:
Positive charge on the outer surface and negative charge inside the plasma membrane of the neuron.

Charges in the distribution of ions on both sides of the plasma membrane when it gets stimulated:
When stimulated, the ionic equilibrium in a particular part changes. As a result polarity changes and the outer surface becomes negatively charged while the inner surface becomes positively charged. The change does not persist for long.

Sensations And Responses Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
How is the impulses transmit through the neurons?
Answer:
When impulses reach at the synaptic knobs, a chemical substance, known as neurotransmitter, released in the synaptic cleft. This neurotransmitter stimulates the adjacent dendrites to form new electric impulses.
Synapse:

The junction between neurons or between neurons and muscles or glands is known as the synapse. It helps to regulate the speed and direction of impulses. The impulses are transmitted across the synaptic cleft only through a chemical (neurotransmitter), secreted from the synaptic knobs.

This neurotransmitter stimulates the adjacent dendrites to form new electric impulses. Acetylcholine and dopamine are examples of neurotransmitters. Synapse helps to regulate the speed and direction of impulses.

Sensations And Responses Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 7.
Complete the flow chart that shows the transmission of impulses through a neuron to other neurone.
Answer:
Impulse due to stimulus → dendrites → dendrons → cyton → axon → aconites → synaptic knob → secretion of neurotransmitter to the synaptic cleft → Stimulation in the adjacent dendrites → Impulse forms.

Nerves

Nerves are groups of axons or nerve fibers. They are covered by connective tissues. On the basis of function are further classified.

Sensation And Responses Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Analyse table 1.1 and prepare notes in your science diary.

Answer:
Nerves:
Nerves are groups of axons or nerve fibers. They are covered by connective tissue.

Sensory nerve:
Carry impulses from various parts of the body to the brain and the spinal cord. Formed by the union of sensory nerve fibers.

Motor nerve:
Carry impulses from brain and spinal cord to various parts of the body. Formed by the union of motor nerve fibres.

Mixed nerve:
Formed by the union of sensory and motor fibres. Carry sensory impulses from the receptors to the brain or spinal cord. Carry motor impulses from brain or spinal cord to different parts of the body.

Nervous System

The nervous system consists of two parts, namely the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.

Sslc Biology Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Complete the Worksheet.
Answer:

Brain

The brain contains the greatest number of neurons in the nervous system.
Protection of the brain:
The brain is protected inside a hard skull and is covered by a three-layered membrane, called the meninges. Cerebrospinal fluid, a fluid formed inside the meninges. It regulates the pressure inside the brain and to protect the brain from injuries.

Nourishment of the brain:
The cerebrospinal fluid formed from blood is reabsorbed into the blood. It provides nutrients and oxygen to the tissues of the brain.

Different parts of brain:
Human brain has outer cerebrum, cerebellum and medulla oblongata and inner thalamus and hypothalamus.

Sslc Biology Chapter 1 Question Paper Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Prepare a table showing different parts of brain, peculiarity and functions of each.
Answer:

spinal cord

Biology Class 10 Chapter 1 Kerala Syllabus  Question 11.
Structure of spinal cord
Answer:
Spinal cord, which is the continuation of medulla oblongata, is situated within the vertebral column and is covered by a three-layered membrane, called meninges. The outer part of spinal cord is white matter and inner is grey matter. The central canal at its center is filled with CSF. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves arising from the spinal cord. A dorsal root and a ventral roof join to form a spinal nerve.

10th Biology 1st Chapter Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
How does the dorsal root differ from ventral root?
Answer:
Sensory impulses reach the spinal cord through the dorsal root. Motor impulses go out of the spinal cord through the ventral root.

Sslc Biology Chapter 1 Questions Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
Mention the functions of spinal cord.
Answer:

• Transmitting impulses from different parts of our body to and fro the brain.
• Coordinates the rapid and repeated movements during walking, running, etc.
• Effects certain reflex actions.

Reflex Actions:
Reflex actions are the accidental and involuntary responses of the body in response to a stimuli. There are cerebral and spinal reflexes.

Reflex Arc:
Reflex arc is the pathway of impulses in the reflex action.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Biology Chapter 1  Question 14.
What are the parts that involve in a reflex arc?
Answer:

A reflex arc involves.

• stimulus receiving receptor.
• sensory neuron.
• inter neuron.
• motor neuron.
• effecting muscles.

10th Class Biology 1st Chapter Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Complete the flowchart of the pathway of impulse during a reflex action.

Hsslive Guru 10th Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
What you mean by Cerebral reflex?
Answer:
A reflex under the control of the cerebrum is called cerebral reflex. Eg. We blink our eyes when light suddenly falls on our eyes.

Class 10 Biology Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
There may be instances in your life when you felt sudden fear or sadness. Write down some of those experiences.
Answer:

• Suddenly seeing a snake while walking.
• On touching hot objects, the hand is withdrawn.
• Withdrawal of the leg when a spine pierce into the feet.
• When a housefly flies towards the eye, the eye blink.

Question 18.
What are the changes that take place in the body during emergency situations? Write them down in Table.
Answer:
During an emergency situation:

• Heartbeat increases.
• Breathing rate increases decreases.
• Dilates eye pupil.
• Salivary secretion decreases.

Autonomous nervous system:
The autonomous nervous system is composed of the sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system.
There are many activities which occur beyond our conscious area. Such activities are controlled by the autonomous nervous system. The endocrine system is also associated with the nervous system for performing this function.

Question 19.
Analyze illustration 1.5 to understand the actions of sympathetic and parasympathetic systems during emergency situations and complete table.

Answer:

Sensations and Responses Let Us Assess

Question 1.
The part of the brain which helps to maintain body balance,
a) Cerebrum.
b) Cerebellum.
c) Medulla oblongata.
d) Thalamus.
Answer:
b) Cerebellum.

Question 2.
Identify the relationship and fill in the blanks.
Irregular flow of charge in the brain: Epilepsy.
Decreased production of dopamine:….?
Answer:
Parkinsons.

Question 3.
Analyse the following instances and answer the questions.
1) a thorn accidentally pierce the foot.
2) the leg is withdrawn.
3) the thorn is taken out slowly.
a) Write the stimuli and response.
b) Which is the conscious response?
c) Was the leg withdrawn after sensing the pain? Which action took place there? Prepare an illustration showing the parts through which the impulses transmitted.
Answer:
a) A thorn accidentally pierce the foot (stimulus) and the leg is withdrawn (response).
b) The thorn is taken out slowly.

c) No, reflex action.
Stimulus → Receptor → Sensory nerve → Interneuron → motor nerve → related muscle → Withdrawl of leg.

Sensations and Responses Extended Activities

1. Prepare a model of the human brain using locally available materials and exhibit in the class.
(Hint:- Paper/Pulp)
2. Prepare the script of a short play which contains the methods of first aid to be given to people who have met with accidents and present it.

Sensations and Responses More Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Select the suitable code from the indicators and write them on the basis of correct features in the given boxes.
Cerebrum – CRB
Cerebellum – CRZ
Medulla oblongatas – MOG
Hypothalamus. – HYP
Thalamus – THL
Answer:
1. The part that provide awareness of vision, hearing, smell, tastes, touch, heat. (CRB)
2. Co-ordinates muscular activities and maintains equilibrium of the body. (CRL)
3. Plays a major role in the maintenance of homeostasis. (HYP)
4. Controls involuntary actions like heartbeat, breathing, etc. (MOG)
5. Relay station of impulses to and fro the cerebrum. (THL)
6. Centre of thought, intelligence, memory and imagination. (CRB)
7. The second-largest part of the brain. (CRL)
8. The rod-shaped medulla oblongata is seen below the cerebrum. (MOG)
9. Greymatter is seen in the external cortex and white matter is seen in the internal medulla. (CRB)
10. Part that controls pituitary gland. (HYP)

Question 2.
Classify the following items as external stimulus and internal stimulus.
Sound, hunger, touch, heat, chemicals, pressure, infection, pressure variation, thirst, cold, exhaust, radiations.
Answer:
External stimuli: Sound, touch, heat, chemicals, pressure, cold, radiations.
Internal stimuli: Hunger, touch, infection, pressure, variation, thirst, exhaust.

Question 3.
Suppose that the formation of CSF ceases in meninges, how would be the aftereffect of this?
Answer:
When the formation of CSF ceases, it will adversely affect our nervous system, because, CSF provides nutrients and oxygen to brain tissues, regulates the pressure inside the brain and also protects brain from injuries.

Question 4.
Any mild injury to the medulla oblongata may lead to sudden death. Why?
Answer:
Medulla oblongata controls involuntary actions like heartbeat and breathing. Any mild injury to medulla oblongata results disfunctioning of breathing and heartbeat and may lead to death.

Question 5.
A person could not walk easily after drinking alcoholic beverages. Can you say why?
Answer:
Alcohol is affected the normal functioning of his cerebellum, which maintains equilibrium of the body through muscular coordination. So he could not walk easily.

Question 6.
After a road accident, a person lost his memory for a few days. In which part of his brain got injured?
Answer:
Cerebrum.

Question 7.
List out the physiological changes that may occur when a boy facing the audience during a competition.
Answer:

• Increases the rate of heartbeat.
• Dilation of trachea / Increases breathing.
• Conversion of glycogen to glucose.
• Secretion of hormones increase.
• Decrease in the secretion of saliva.

Question 8.
Rajesh is taking his food watching blood cold scenes of a film on TV. Will this affect his digestion? Make inferences in connection with his sympathetic and parasympathetic system.
Answer:
When excitement occurs, sympathetic nervous system enhances the physiological activities, except activities related to digestion. Since sympathetic system worked in Rajesh, it will affect his digestion and related activities.

Question 9.
Find out the odd one. Write down the common feature of others: Intelligence, Hearing, Breathing, Imagination. (Model 2016)
Answer:
Breathing. All others are controlled by the cerebrum.

Question 10.
Find out the relationship between the pair of words and fill up the blanks.
a) Relay of impulses: thalamus
…………… : hypothalamus
Answer:
Homeostasis

Question 11.
Find out the odd one and identify the common features of others: Dendrite, Acetyl Choline, Axon, Synaptic knob. (March 2016)
Answer:
Acetyl Choline. Others are parts of neurons.

Question 12.
Which is related to Alzheimer’s disease from those given below? What is the chief symptom of the disease?
a) Degeneration of specific ganglion.
b) Accumulation of an insoluble plaque in nervous tissue.
c) Irregularity in the electric Impulse in the brain. (March 2016)
Answer:
b) Accumulation of an insoluble protein in nervous tissue.

Question 13.
Tabulate the following activities based on the type of nervous system that controls, and give proper headings.
a) Recognize smell of flowers.
b) Taking decisions at the emergency situations.
c) Rate of heartbeat increases at times of crisis.
d) Production of hormone decreases after overcoming the crisis. (March 2016)
Answer:
a) Central nervous system
b) Autonomous nervous system
c) Sympathetic nervous system
d) Parasympathetic nervous system

Question 14.
Find out Sword pair relation’ and fill in the blanks,  (Model 2015)
a) Cerebellum: Equilibrium.
…….. : Functions as the relay station of impulses.
Answer:
a) Thalamus.

Question 15.
Some indications of a disease are given below.  (Model 2015)
1) Loss of complete memory, even the memory regarding the day, date, etc.
2) The patient becomes unaware of his actions.
3) It is common among aged people.
a) Identify the disease.
b) How is it caused?
Answer:
a) Alzheimer’s disease.
b) Continuous degeneration of neurons due to plaque by the accumulation of an insoluble protein.

Question 16.
Find out the relationship between the pair of words and fill up the blanks.  (Model 2015)
Cranial nerve : Communication from Brain to organ.
………. : Communication from Spinal cord to organ.
Answer:
Spinal Nerve.

Question 17.
Find out the odd one and comment on the common feature of others.  (Model 2014)
a) Dendron, Axon, Ampulla, Dendrite, Aconite.
b) Seeing beautiful cinema, Thinking, Hearing melodious song, Sudden withdrawal of legs while stepping on fire accidentally, Sensing the taste of sweets.
Answer:
a) ampulla, others are parts of neurons.
b) Sudden withdrawal of legs while stepping on fire accidentally, others are conscious activities.

Question 18.
List of various physiological activities in human body which are under the control of 2% autonomous nervous system are given below. Group them into actions of sympathetic system (Group A) and parasympathetic system (Group B).
a) Pupil dilates.  (Model 2014)
b) Urinary bladder contracts.
c) Trachea dilates.
d) Function of the stomach is stimulated.
e) Secretion of saliva increases.
f) Glycogen is converted into glucose.
g) Peristalsis slows down.
h) Rate of heartbeat decreases.
Answer:
Sympathetic System:
a) Pupil dilates.
c) Trachea dilates.
f) Glycogen is converted to glucose.
g) Peristalsis slow down.

Parasympathetic System:
b) Urinary bladder contracts.
d) function of stomach is stimulated.
e) Secretion of saliva increases.
h) Rate of heartbeat decreases.

Question 19.
Symptoms of a disease related to nervous system is given below.  (Model 2014)
a) Tremor due to the irregular involuntary movement of muscles.
b) Uncontrolled flow of saliva.
c) Loss of balance of the body.
i) Identify this disease and write down its name.
ii) What is the cause of this disease?
Answer:
i) Parkinson disease.
ii) Deficiency of a neurotransmitter dopamine.

Question 20. )
Redraw the picture and answer the following questions.  (Model 2014)

a) Identify and label the parts according to the functions given below:
i) the part which maintains balance and equilibrium of the body?
ii) the part which controls heartbeat.
iii)the part which controls voluntary activities.
b) Write one more function for each of these three identified parts.
Answer:
a) Redrawing figure:
b) i) Cerebellum-co-ordinating muscular activities.
ii) Medulla oblongata – Controls breathing.
iii) Cerebrum – center of intelligence.

Question 21.
Select the odd one. Write the common feature of others.  (March 2013)
Axon, Nephron, Dendron, Dendrite.
Answer:
Nephron. Others are parts of neuron.

Question 22.
Radha is moving away with fear from a snake.  (March 2013)
a) State what happens to the functioning of following organs?
Heart, Pupil, Trachea and Liver
b) Which nervous system is activated during such emergency situation?
Answer:
a) Rate of heartbeat increases, Pupil dilates, Trachea dilates, Glycogen is converted into glucose within liver,
b) Sympathetic system.

Question 23.
Find out ‘Word pair relation’ and fill in the blanks.  (March 2013)
Eye – Vision
Cerebellum –
Answer:
To maintain body balance.

Question 24.
Find the odd one. Write down the common features of others.  (March 2013)
Epilepsy, Parkinson’s disease, Mumps, Alzheimer’s disease.
Answer:
Mumps – All others are the diseases caused by any kind of problems in brain.

Question 25.
a) Which is the part of nervous system excited during emergency situation?  (Model 2012)
b) How does this system acts on the following internal organs?
Heart, Liver, Urinary bladder and Eye.
Answer:
a) Sympathetic nervous system
b) Heart – Rate of heartbeat increases, Liver Glycogen is converted into glucose, Urinary bladder – Regains its original state, Eye – Pupil dilates.

Question 26.
Find out the odd one. Justify your answer.  (Model 2012)
a) Blinking of eyes in intense light.
b) Withdrawing hands-on touching hot object.
c) Withdrawing of legs when contact with thorns.
Answer:
a) Blinking of eyes in intense light. This is cerebral reflex. Others are spinal reflexes.

Question 27.
Find out ‘word pair relation’ and fill up.  (Model 2012)
Cerebrum: Thought
Cerebellum :
Answer:
Equilibrium

Question 28.
Hypothalamus has an important role in maintaining homeostasis. Analyze this statement and note down 4 ideas to justify your views.  (March 2012)
Answer:
Hypothalamus produces certain neurosecretory hormones which influence the production of various stimulating hormones secreted by the pituitary gland. These hormones, in turn, stimulate the production of hormones of certain other important endocrine glands. Pituitary glands stimulate the glands to produce the hormones only according to the need of the body.

So hypothalamus indirectly helps in maintaining homeostasis. For example, during summer when water has to be retained in the body vasopressin is produced which will enhance the reabsorption of water from urine and they maintain the water level in the body. Calcium level is also maintained by the decrease and increase production of calcitonin and parathormone. In short

• Changes in the internal environment affects the rhythm of life activities.
• Secretion of hormones is increased or decreased according to the changes
• Life activities are regularised this way.
• Thus hypothalamus prepares the body to overcome different situations and maintain a normal balance.

Question 29.
Segregate the appropriate statements from column.  (March 2012)
(A) as the functions of sympathetic.
(B) and Parasyampathic.
(C) nervous system.

Answer:
B. Sympathetic nervous system:

• Decreases abdominal activities.
• Conversion of glycogen to glucose.
• Peristalsis slows down.
• Increases breathing.

C. Parasympathetic nervous system:

• Pupil constricts
• Secretion of saliva increases

Sensations And Responses SCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The parts of a reflex arc are illustrated in the form of a flow chart. Fill in the blank portions and complete the flow chart.  (Question Pool – 2017)

Answer:
A) Receptor.
B) Sensory neuron.
C) Intemeuron.
D) Motor neuron.

Question 2.
Appu was taken by fear, on seeing a snake on his way to school and ran back.  (Question Pool – 2017)
i) Which part of the autonomous nervous system controlled the body activities of Appu in the above situation?
ii) What are the changes that take place in the intestine and eye during the above situation?
Answer:
i) Sympathetic system.
ii) Peristalsis in the intestine slows down pupil dilates.

Question 3.
Which of the following activities take place under the control of the parasympathetic system?  (Question Pool – 2017)
Urinary bladder contracts, glycogen is converted to glucose, Gastric activities slow down, production of saliva increases.
Answer:
Urinary bladder contracts.
Production of saliva increases.

Question 4.
The brain contains a fluid which is formed from and reabsorbed into the blood,  (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Identify the fluid.
b) What are the functions of that fluid?
Answer:
a) Cerebrospinal fluid.
b) Provides nutrients and oxygen to brain tissues, protects the brain from injuries.

Question 5.
Some of the activities of the autonomous nervous system are given below. Analyze the activities and tabulate them under appropriate headings.  (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Pupil dilates.
b) Production of hormones decreases.
c) Converts glucose to glycogen.
d) Peristalsis slows down.
Answer:

Question 6.
A synapse is only the junction between two neurons. Do you agree with this statement? Why?  (Question Pool – 2017)
Answer:

• Don’t agree.
• It is the junction – between two neurons.
• between a neuron and a muscle cell.
• between a neuron and a glandular cell.

Question 7.
Write down the action of the parasympathetic and the sympathetic system in the following organs.  (Question Pool – 2017)

Answer:
a) Pupil constricts.
b) Pupil dilates.
c) Heartbeat becomes normal.
d) Heartbeat increases.

Question 8.
One of the components of the nervous system is illustrated below. Fill in the blanks appropriately.  (Question Pool – 2017)

Answer:
A. Cranial nerves.
B. 31 pairs.
C. Autonomous nervous system.
D. Sympathetic system.

Question 9.
The dorsal root and the ventral root play a significant role in the transmission of impulses between spinal cord and different parts of the body. Do you agree with this statement? Justify.  (Question Pool – 2017)
Answer:

• Yes. Sensory impulses reach the spinal cord through the dorsal root.
• Motor impulses go out of the spinal cord to different parts of the body through ventral root.

Question 10.
All reflex actions take place under the control of the spinal cord. Evaluate the statement and justify with suitable examples.  (Question Pool – 2017)
Answer:

• All reflex actions are not under the control of the spinal cord.
• Cerebral reflex / some reflex actions are under the control of the cerebrum.
  Eg. Weblink our eyes when light suddenly falls on eyes/any cerebral reflex.

Question 11.

The causes of diseases related to the nervous system in two individuals X and Y are given above.  (Question Pool – 2017)
i) Identify the diseases?
ii) The deficiency of which neurotransmitter causes disease in Y?
Answer:
i) X-Alzheimer’s.
ii) Dopamine.

Question 12.
The flow chart given below indicates the transmission of impulse from one neuron to another. Complete the flow chart using the data given in the box.  (Question Pool – 2017)

Answer:
A. Dendron.
B. Cell body.
C. Axon.
D. Aconite.
E. Synaptic knob.
F. Neurotransmitter.

Question 13.
Examine the picture given below.  (Question Pool – 2017)

a) Identify A and B.
b) What is the role of A in the transmission of electric impulses?
Answer:
a) A – Myelin sheath.
B – Schwann cell.
b)1. accelerates impulses.
2. act as an electric insulator.
3. provides nutrients and oxygen to axon.

Question 14.
The illustration of a nerve based on its function is given below.  (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Identify the nerve depicted in the illustration.
b) Identify the nerve that carries impulse to and from A and B?
Answer:
a) Sensory nerve.
b) Mixed nerve.

Question 15.
The sympathetic nervous system stimulates all body activities. Its activity helps the body to overcome emergency situations.  (Question Pool – 2017)
Do you agree with the statement? Justify your answer by citing suitable examples.
Answer:

• Agree partially.
• Sympathetic system enables body to overcome emergency situations.
• Sympathetic system slows down certain body activities.
• Eg. Production of saliva decreases/slows down peristalsis. Slows down gastric activities.

Question 16.
The illustration given below indicates the transmission of impulses from one neuron to another. Observe the illustration and answer the following question.  (Question Pool – 2017)

Identify the part in the illustration.
Identify the chemical substance which is secreted from A. Give one example for this chemical substance.
Answer:
a) Synapse.
b) Neurotransmitters, Acetylcholine / Dopamine.

Question 17.
Analyze the illustration of impulse transmission through axon and answer the following questions.  (Question Pool – 2017)

a) What are the changes that take place in illustration B when compared to A? Give reason for this change.
b) Explain how this change brings about the transmission of impulses through axon.
Answer:
a) When stimulated, ionic equilibrium in the particular part changes and the outer surface of the plasma membrane of axon becomes negatively charged while the inner surface becomes positively charged.
b)1. These changes generate impulses.
2. The momentary charge difference in the axon stimulates its adjacent parts.
3. Similar changes occur there also.
4. Impulses get transmitted through axon.

Question 18.
Complete the following illustration.  (Question Pool – 2017)

Answer:
A. Central canal.
B. Sensory impulses.
C. Ventral root.

Question 19.
The disease symptoms of two individuals are given below.  (Question Pool – 2017)

a) Identify the diseases of individuals A and B.
b) Explain the causes of diseases in individual A.
Answer:
a) A-Alzheimers.
B – Parkinsons.
b)1. Accumulation of an insoluble protein in the neural tissues of the brain.
2. Neurons get destroyed.

Question 20.
Mohan lost his memory and was partially paralyzed after he met with an accident.  (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Which part of Mohan’s brain was affected?
b) How is the brain protected?
Answer:
a)1. Cerebrum.
2. Skull.
3. Meninges.
4. Cerebrospinal fluid.
b) The brain is protected inside a hard skull and is covered by a three-layered membrane called the meninges. Cerebrospinal fluid a fluid formed inside the meninges also protects the brain.

Question 21.
Observe the picture and answer the following.  (Question Pool – 2017)

a)Identify A.
b)What are the peculiarities of the impulses which are transmitted through the dorsal root and the ventral root?
Answer:
a) A – central canal.
b)1. Dorsal root – sensory impulses.
2. Ventral root – motor impulses.

Question 22.
The following figure shows the distribution of ions on either side of the plasma membrane of the axon. Analyze the figure and answer the following.  (Question Pool – 2017)

a) Why is there a difference in charge distribution on either side of the plasma membrane?
b) What changes do the stimulus create in the charges on either side of the plasma membrane? How do these charges get transmitted through the axon as impulses?
Answer:
The difference in the distribution of ions.

• When stimulated, in that particular part, the outer surface of the plasma membrane becomes negatively charged while the inner surface becomes positively charged.
• The momentary charge difference stimulates its adjacent parts and similar.

Question 23.
Draw the diagram and label the following parts.  (Question Pool – 2017)

a) The part which secretes acetylcholine.
b) The part which receives impulses from the adjacent neuron.
c) The part which carries impulses from the cell body to outside.
Answer:

a) Synaptic knob.
b) Dendrite.
c) Axon.

Question 24.
Draw the diagram and label the following parts.  (Question Pool – 2017)

a) The part that helps in the maintenance of homeostasis
b) That acts as relay station of impulses to and from the cerebrum.
c) The second-largest part of the brain.
Answer:

a) Hypothalamus.
b) Thalamus.
c) Cerebellum.

Question 25.
Identify the correct statements from those given below:  (Question Pool – 2017)
i) The central nervous system consists of the brain and the spinal cord.
ii) The peripheral nervous system consists of 31 pairs of cranial nerves and 12 pairs of spinal nerves.
iii) The sympathetic system and the parasympathetic system are parts of the central nervous system.
iv) The autonomous nervous system which is a part of the peripheral nervous system helps to overcome the emergency situations.
Answer:
Correct statements
(i),
(iv).

Question 26.
Identify the odd one. What is common about others?  (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Touch, light, hunger, sound.
b) Brain, gland, nerves, spinal cord.
c) Breathing, sight, intelligence, hearing.
Answer:
a) hunger – others are external stimuli.
b) gland – others are parts of nervous system.
c) breathing – others are controlled by cerebrum.

Question 27.
Box A and Box B contains the parts of the brain and related information respectively. Analyze the information in the boxes and complete the table as per the model “cited”.  (Question Pool – 2017)

Answer:

Question 28.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions.  (Question Pool – 2017)

a) Which action does the illustration depict?
b) Identify A, Band C.
Answer:
a) reflex action.
b) A – Sensory nerve.
B – Motor nerve.
C – Interneuron.

Question 29.
Identify the word pair relationship and fill in the blanks:  (Question Pool – 2017)
i) Sensory nerves: Carries impulses to the spinal cord.
………….. : Carries impulses from the brain to various parts of the body.
ii) Skull : Brain
…………… : Spinal cord
iii) Hypothalamus: Maintains homeostasis
…………… : Control center of involuntary actions.
iv) Dendrite: Receives impulses
…………… : Carries impulses outside
Answer:
i) Motor nerve.
ii) Vertebral column.
iii) Medulla oblongata.
iv) Axon.

Question 30.
Redraw the illustration and answer the questions given below.  (Orukkam – 2017)

a) Identify the parts A, B, C?
b) Identify the part indicated by D?. How impulses are transmitted through this part?
c) Write the role of myelin sheath in the transmission of impulses?
d) The flowchart related to the transmission of impulses from one neuron to another is below. Complete the flowchart?

A- Dendrite.
B- Dendron.
C- Axon.
b) Synapse:
Neurotransmitter released by the synaptic knobs stimulate the dendrites of adjacent neurons to produce further impulse.
c) Myelin sheath increases the speed of impulse transmission. It also acts as an electric insulator.
d) A – Dendron.
B – Axon.
C – Aconite.
D – Neurotransmitter.

Question 31.
Balu: In the spinal cord and the cerebrum, white matter is seen outside and Greymatter is seen inside.  (Orukkam – 2017)
Ramu: In the cerebrum, the grey matter is seen outside and the white matter is seen inside, but in the spinal cord, the white matter is seen outside and the grey matter is seen inside.
In the group discussion related to the nervous system, Balu and Ramu said so.
a) Whose opinion do you agree with?
b) Explain white matter and grey matter?
Answer:
a) Ramu’s opinion
b)1. The part where myelinated neurons are present in abundance – white matter.
2. The part where cell body and non-myelinated. neurons are present – grey matter.

Question 32.
The statements related to the generation and transmission of impulses are given below. Select the letters related to each statement and label in the figures given below.  (Orukkam – 2017)
A. The charge difference in the axon membrane stimulates its adjacent parts and the part which is stimulated regain in its original state.
B. There exists a positive charge on the outer surface and negative charge inside the plasma membrane of the neuron.
C. The momentary charge difference proceeds, impulses get transmitted through axon.
D. When stimulated, the outer surface of the plasma membrane becomes negatively changed while the inner surface becomes positively charged.

Answer:

Question 33.
Redraw the picture, identify and label the parts which have the following functions.  (Orukkam – 2017)

a) The part which controls involuntary actions.
b) The part which coordinates muscular activities.
c) The part which helps to feel senses.
d) The part which acts as the relay station of impulses.
e) The part which plays a major role in the maintenance of homeostasis.
B. Identify the parts of brain related to the following actions.

Answer:

B. a – Cerebellum
b – Medulla oblongata.
c – Meninges.
d – Hypothalamus.
e – Cerebrum.

Question 34. (Orukkam – 2017)

a) How these responses are known as?  (Orukkam – 2017)
b) Prepare a flowchart related to the pathway of impulses mentioned in A?
Answer:
a) Reflex Action
b) Receptor generates impulses → sensory neuron → Interneuron → Motor neuron → Related muscles.

Question 35.
Arrange the statements related to the actions of autonomous nervous system in the illustration given below. Give title to the illustration. (Orukkam – 2017)
A. The pupil in the eye dilates.
B. Urinary bladder contracts.
C. Glucose is converted to glycogen.
D. Gastric activities slow down.
E. The pupil constricts.
F. Gastric activities become normal.
G. Production of saliva decreases.
H. Glycogen is converted to glucose.
I. Production of saliva increases.
J. Urinary bladder retains to normal state.

Answer:

Question 36.
Write the different types of nerves and their functions like the example given below.  (Orukkam – 2017)

Answer:
B. Sensory Nerve → Carries impulse to the brain and spinal cord from various sensory parts of the body.
C. Motor Nerve → Carries impulses from the brain and spinal cord to various parts of the body.

Question 37.
The symptoms of a disease that affecting nervous system is given below.  (Orukkam – 2017)
Loss of body balance, irregular movement of muscles, shivering of the body, profuse salivation
a) Identify the disease.
b) Write the causes of the disease.
c) Explain the other diseases that affecting nervous system with their cause and symptoms.
Answer:
a) Parkinsons
b) Degeneration of specific ganglia in the brain due to decreased production of dopamine.
c)1. Alzheimer’s: Loss of memory, Inability to recognize friends and relatives, Inability to do routine works.
2. Epilepsy: Continuous muscular contraction, frothy discharge from the mouth, clenching of teeth and falls unconscious.

Question 38.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.  (Orukkam – 2017)

a) Identify the parts indicated as A, B, C?
b) Write the name of the fluid-filled in B?
c) How spinal cord is protected?
Answer:
a) A – Dorsal root.
B – Central canal.
C – Ventral root.
b) Cerebrospinal fluid.
c) Spinal cord is protected by a three-layered membrane meanings, filled with CSF, inside the spinal column.

You can Download Excretion to Maintain Homeostasis Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Part 2 Chapter 5 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Excretion to Maintain Homeostasis

Excretion to Maintain Homeostasis Textual Questions and Answers

Excretion To Maintain Homeostasis Kerala Syllabus 9th Question 1.
How can make our external environment garbage-free?
Answer:
We can made our external environment garbage free by processing reusing or recycling waste material.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 5 Question 2.
Different by-products are formed as a result of many …. in the cells.
Answer:
Metabolic activities

Excretion To Maintain Homeostasis Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
What are the main excretory products in human beings?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, water, and nitrogenous compounds.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Question 4.
………. carries excretory products to excretory compounds.
Answer:
Blood

9th Class Biology Chapter 5 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Complete the flow chart of the waste materials formed inside the cells reach excretory organs?

Answer:
a) Tissue fluid
b) Blood

Excretory Organs

9th Standard Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Name the organs that help to remove waste materials from blood and maintain homeostasis?
Answer:
Liver, Lungs, skin, and kidney

9th Class Biology 5th Lesson Questions And Answers Question 7.
Complete the illustration.

Answer:

Liver – The Waste Processing Unit

Hsslive Guru Class 9 Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
What is the function of liver?
Answer:
Liver converts harmful substances entering the body and those produced inside the body into harmless substances. Synthesis of urea from ammonia is an example for this.

Hss Live Guru 9 Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
…………….. are formed by the breakdown of protein.
Answer:
Amino acids

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Question 10.
What are the uses of amino acids?
Answer:
Amino acids are used for the synthesis of various substances like proteins, enzymes etc. which are used for bodybuilding.

Class 9 Biology Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
What is the most harmful by-product formed by the metabolism of amino acid?
Answer:
Ammonia

9th Class Biology Chapter 5 Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Prepare a note on the synthesis of urea.
Answer:
Amino acids are formed by the breakdown of proteins. As a result of the metabolic activities of amino acids, several nitrogenous by-products are formed. The most harmful among these is ammonia. The ammonia formed in tissues diffuses into blood through tissue fluids and blood transports it to the liver. In liver with the help of certain enzymes, ammonia combines with carbon dioxide and water to form urea.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Class Biology Notes Question 13.
Write down the chemical equation of the synthesis of urea.
Ammonia + carbon dioxide + water → urea

Formation Of Sweat

Hsslive Guru 9th Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
How is sweat formed from blood?
Answer:
Blood passes through the capillaries excess water and minerals enter the sweat glands. This is eliminated as sweat through the body surface.

9th Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
What are the components of sweat?
Answer:
Urea, salt, and water

Biology 9th Class Chapter 5 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
Which is the largest organ in our body?
Answer:
Skin

Kerala Syllabus 9th Biology Notes Question 17.
What do you mean by sweat gland?
Answer:
Sweat gland is a long coiled tube that opens to the surface of the skin.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Guide Question 18.
The lower portion of the sweat gland is rich in
Answer:
Capillaries

Hsslive Guru Biology 9th Kerala Syllabus Question 19.
……… helps in regulating our body temperature.
Answer:
Sweating

Kidneys

Hsslive Guru 9 Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 20.
What are the main functions of kidney?
Answer:
Kidneys are vital organs which help in maintaining homeostasis by filtering waste products like urea, salts, vitamins, other harmful substances, etc. from blood. When blood passes through the kidneys, the waste materials present in it are filtered.

Question 21.
Prepare a short note on the position and size of the kidney?
Answer:
Human beings possess a pair of kidneys, situated on both sides of the vertebral column adjoining the muscles in the abdominal cavity. They are bean-shaped and are about 11 cm long, 5 cm broad and 3 cm thick. Each kidney is covered by a strong but soft membrane.

Question 22.
Illustrate kidney and its parts.
Answer:

Question 23.
Complete the illustration of kidneys and associated parts.

Answer:
a) bean-shaped and are located in the abdominal cavity on either side of the vertebral column.
b) Renal artery
c) Renal vein
d) Ureters

Internal Structure of Kidney

Question 24.
Internal structure of kidney
Answer:

Question 25.
Analyze illustration given below and prepare table including the parts and peculiarities of nephron.

Answer:

Question 26.
……… are the structural and functional units of kidneys.
Answer:
Nephrons

Question 27.
Where is Bowmann’s Capsule of nephrons distributed?
Answer:
Cortex

Question 28.
What is capsular space?
Answer:
It is the space between the double walls of the Bowman’s capsule.

Question 29.
Blood capillaries seen around the renal tubules as continuation of the efferent vessel are ………..
Answer:
Peritubular capillaries

Question 30.
………… helps the ultrafiltration.
Answer:
Glomerulus

Formation of urine

Question 31.
List out the process of formation of urine.
Answer:

• Ultrafiltration
• Reabsorption and secretion
• Absorption of water

Question 32.
What are the characteristic that help in ultrafiltration?
Answer:
This process is supported by the high pressure developed in the glomerulus, due to the difference in the diameter of afferent vessel and efferent vessel

Question 33.
How is urine formed?
Answer:
When blood flows through the glomerulus, ultrafiltration takes place through its small pores. The glomerular filtrate formed as a result of this is collected in the capsular space. When glomerular filtrate flows through renal tubeless to the collecting duct, essential components are reabsorbed to the peritubular capillaries. The absorption of excess water from the glomerular filtrate takes place in the collecting duct. What is left behind is urine.

Question 34.
Prepare a table relating to the different components of the glomerular filtrate and urine.
Answer:

Question 35.
Urine is temporarily stored in the
Answer:
Urinary bladder

Question 36.
State whether true or false
Washing out of germs inside the urinary tract also
takes place during the process of micturition.
Answer:
True

Question 37.
How does avoiding timely urination affect our body and list out the healthy habits to be followed?
Answer:
Avoiding urination for a long time prevents the expulsion of bacteria that may be present in the urinary tract and urinary bladder. This causes infection in the inner membrane of the urinary bladder.
Females are more susceptible to urinary tract infections when compared to males.
1) Frequent urination
2) Drink plenty of water
3) Keep the personal hygiene

Question 38.
Prepare a flow chart on the role of kidneys in maintaining homeostasis
Answer:

Kidney Diseases

Haemodialysis

Question 39.
What do you mean by hemodialysis?
Answer:
Haemodialysis is the process proposed by modern medicine for the removal of wastes from the blood when both the kidneys become non-functional. In this process, blood is pumped into an artificial kidney called haemodialyser and is purified.

Question 40.
Who designed the first artificial kidney?
Answer:
William Johann Kolff in 1944.

Kidney Transplantation

When both kidneys of an individual get damaged completely a fully functioning kidney should be received from a donor to save life. Kidney of a healthy person who died in an accident or of a completely healthy person can be transplanted after considering the matching of blood groups and tissues.

Excretion In Other Organisms

Diversity in Excretion:

Question 41.
Prepare a table about the excretory organs and excretory products of different organisms?

Answer:

Question 42.
What are the methods of the excretion in plants?
Answer:
Stomata, hydathodes, formation of heartwood, abscision of leaves.

Question 43.
Illustration related to the excretion in plants.
Answer:

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Glucose, amino acids, etc. found in the glomerular filtrate are absent in urine. Why?
Answer:
When glomerular filtrate flows through renal tubules to the collecting duct, essential components are reabsorbed to the peritubular capillaries. So glucose and amino acids are absent in urine.

Question 2.
The steps involved in the formation of urine are given below. Arrange them in the correct sequence.
1. Collects urine
2. Ultrafiltration takes place
3. Reabsorption of ions takes place towards this part from renal tubules.
4. Collects glomerular filtrate
5. Excess urea is secreted here from peritubular capillaries.

Answer:

Question 3.
Alcoholism is a bad habit which should be avoided. Analyze this statement relating it to the health of liver.
Answer:
The detoxification of alcohol in our body is done by liver cells. As a result liver cell become damaged.

Question 4.
Based on the similarities in major excretory materials, arrange the following organisms properly in the table given below
Frog, Amoeba, Human beings, Fish, Birds, Insects

Answer:

Question 5.
Observe the figure and answer the questions.

Answer:
a) A) Afferent vessel
B) Efferent vessel
b) When blood flows through the glomerulus, ultrafiltration takes place through its small pores. This process is supported by the high pressure developed.in the glomerulus, due to the difference in the diameters of afferent versel and efferent vessel.

You can Download हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 1 Chapter 2 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 1 Chapter 2 हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था (टिप्पणी)

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था Text Book Questions and Answers

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न

Hatasha Se Ek Vyakti Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
‘जानना’ शब्द की लेखक की व्याख्या से आप कहाँ तक सहमत हैं?

उत्तर:
लेखक का कहना सही है। अकसर हम दूसरों को उनके नाम, पता, उम्र, ओहदे, जाति आदि के द्वारा जानते हैं। लेकिन असल में किसी को जानना है तो उसके जीवन के असलियत को जानना है। उसका दुख, निराशा, असहायता और कठिनाइयों को जाने बिना ‘जानना’ कभी पूरा नहीं होता।

Hatasha Se Ek Vyakti Baith Gaya Tippani 10th प्रश्ना 2.
कविता के शिल्प-पक्ष पर लेखक के क्या-क्या निरीक्षण है?

उत्तर:
लेखक कहते हैं कि इस कविता में शिल्प की बारीक कारीगरी हम देख सकते हैं। इसमें ‘जानना’ किसी लोकगीत की स्थाई की तरह बार-बार आता है। इस कविता में गीतात्मकता बोध बहुत मिलता है।

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था Text Book Activities & Answers

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था अभ्यास के प्रश्न

Hatasha Se Ek Vyakti Baith Gaya Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
टिप्पणी के आधार पर लिखें।

उत्तर:

Hatasha Se Ek Vyakti Baith Gaya Summary 10th प्रश्ना 2.
कविता पर टिप्पणी लिखते समय किन-किन बातों पर ध्यान देना है? नरेश सक्सेना की टिप्पणी के आधार पर आकलन सूची तैयार करें।

उत्तर:

• कवि का परिचय दिया है।
• कविता का आशय संक्षिप्त रूप से प्रस्तुत किया है।
• कविता का संदेश लिखा है।
• कविता के शिल्प पक्ष का विश्लेषण किया है।

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था Summary Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 3.
सोचें, यह चित्र आपसे क्या कह रहा है?


उत्तर:
चित्र में एक मुर्गी का बच्चा दिखाई पड़ता है। वह प्रलय से बचा हुआ जूते पर खड़ा हुआ नज़र आ रहा है। चारों ओर पानी ही पानी। कहाँ जाएँ? उसके मन में आकांक्षा होगी कि मैं बच पाएगा या नहीं। फिर भी एक जूते को आसरा बनाकर वह आगे बढ़ना चाहता है। आगे की सैर मुश्किल होगी या नहीं, कुछ सोचता भी नहीं, प्रस्तुत चित्र एक उत्तरजीविता की कहानी बताता है।

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था Orakkum Questions and Answers

सूचनाः कविता का यह अंश पढ़े और निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखें।
हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था ।
व्यक्ति को मैं नहीं जानता था ।
हताशा को जानता था।

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था Notes Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
यहाँ कवि क्या कहना चाहता है?
उत्तर:
दर्द और एहसास सबके एक जैसे होते है।
उसे समझने केलिए किसी को वैयक्तिक रूप से जानने की ज़रूरत नहीं।

Hatasha Se Ek Vyakti Baith Gaya Tha Notes Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
‘व्यक्ति को न जानना’ और ‘हुताशा को जानना’ का मतलब क्या है?
उत्तर:
व्यक्ति न जानना का अर्थ है – उनका नाम, पता, स्थान, जाति आदि का न जानना। हताशा को जानना का मतलब है उनके एहसासों और दर्दो को जानना।

Hatasha Se Ek Vyakti Notes Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 3.
यहाँ कवि का कौन-सा मनोभाव व्यक्त होता है?
उत्तर:
किसी व्यक्ति के एहसासों और दों का जानने का मनोभाव है। दर्द और एहसास सब के एक जैसे होते है। उसे समझने केलिए किसी को वैयक्तिक रूप से जानने की ज़रूरत नहीं हैं।

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था SCERT Questions and Answers

Hatasha Se Ek Vyakti Baith Gaya Tha Question Answer Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
कवितांश का टिप्पणी लिखें।
उत्तर:
प्रस्तुत पंक्तियाँ श्री विनोद कुमार शुक्ल की कविता “हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था” कविता से ली गई हैं। इन पंक्तियों में कवि किसी व्यक्ति को जानने का हमारा जो रूढी होता है वह तोड़ देते हैं। किसी व्यक्ति को उनके नाम, जाति, पते, उम्र, से जानना नहीं उन के एहसासों या दर्दो से जानना है। दर्द और एहसास सबके एक जैसे होते है। उसे समझने वैयक्तिक रूप से जानने की ज़रूरत नहीं। उनकी मदद करने केलिए दर्द और एहसास समझना ही काफी हैं।

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था Additional Questions and Answers

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था आशयग्रहण के प्रश्न

Sslc Hindi Chapter 2 Tippani Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 1.
नरेश सक्सेना के मत में जानने पहचानने की हमारी रूढ़ी क्या है?

उत्तर:
व्यक्ति के नाम, पते, उम्र, ओहदे या जाति ही किसी को जानने पहचानने की हमारी रूढ़ी है।

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था Worksheet Kerala Syllabus 10th प्रश्ना 2.
नरेश जी के मत में हमें किसी व्यक्ति की किन-किन बातों को जानना चाहिए?

उत्तर:
हमें किसी भी व्यक्ति की हताशा, निराशा और असहायता को जानना पहचानना चाहिए।

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था Summary in Malayalam and Translation

हताशा से एक व्यक्ति बैठ गया था शब्दार्थ

You can Download Motion and Laws of Motion Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Chapter 3 Motion and Laws of Motion

Motion and Laws of Motion Textual Questions and Answers

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Chapter 3 Question 1.
What will be the result when a man tries to move a vehicle by pushing it, standing inside the vehicle? The vehicle moves/the vehicle doesn’t move.
Answer:
The vehicle doesn’t move.

Motion And Laws Of Motion Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
What if the same vehicle is pushed from outside.
Answer:
Yes, the vehicle moves
Internal forces can not move an object, but only an external unbalanced force can cause motion.

Newton’S First Law Of Motion

Every object continues in its state of rest or of uniform motion along a straight line unless an unbalanced external force acts on it. This is Newton’s First law of motion.

Class 9 Physics Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
What is inertia of rest?
Answer:
Inertia of rest is the tendency of a body to remain in its state of rest or its inability to change its state of rest by itself.

Class 9 Physics Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Write down an activity to show inertia of rest.

Answer:
Place a bottle filled with water on a thick rough pa¬per as shown. Pull the paper suddenly to one side. The bottle falls in the opposite direction fo the motion of paper. This is because of inertia of rest.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Chapter 3 Question 5.
What is inertia of motion?
Answer:
Inertia of motion is defined as the inability of a body to change it state of motion by itself.

9th Class Physics Notes Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Write down an activity to show inertia of motion.

Answer:
Place a bottle on a thick paper with rough surface. Bring the bottle into motion by pulling the paper slowly. Gradually increase the speed of pulling stop pulling when the bottle gains a certain speed. The bottle falls in the direction of motion of the pa-per, due to inertia of motion of the bottle.

9th Physics Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Find out reasons for the Situations
a) Place some carom board coins in a pile. Using the striker, strike out the coin at the bottom. What do you observe? What is the reason?
b) When a running bus is suddenly stopped, passengers, standing in the bus show a tendency to fall forward.
c) Place a small brick on a plank. When the plank
is pulled suddenly the brick remains in the same position as before.
d) When a bus moves forward suddenly from rest, the standing passengers tend to fall backward.
e) Accidents that happen to passengers who do not wear seat belts are more fatal.
Answer:
a) Only the coin at the bottom is thrown away. Others will remain in the previous stage.
b) The passengers start to move forward due to the tendency to continue in its state of motion.
c) It is due to the tendency to continue in the state of rest.
d) The passengers tend to fall backward due to the tendency to continue in their state of rest.
e) The passengers inside the vehicle have the tendency to move forward due to inertia of motion.
Inertia: The inability of a body to change its state of rest or of uniform motion along a straight line by its itself.
Inertia of rest: Inertia of rest is defined as the inability of a body to change its state of rest by itself.
Inertia of motion : Inertia of motion is defined as the inability of a body to change its state of motion by itself. Eg. When a running bus is suddenly stopped, the standing passengers fall forward due to inertia of motion. When a bus at rest starts suddenly, the standing passengers fall backward due to inertia of rest.

9th Class Physics Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Expand the table by finding more situations from daily life.

Answer:

Physics Class 9 Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Find out the reasons
a) An athlete doing a long jump-start his run from a distance.
b) A running elephant cannot change its direction suddenly.
Answer:
a) This activity helps to cover long distances by utilizing inertia of motion.
b) Mass of elephant is greater. So inertia of motion also be greater. Also, it cannot be able to change its direction suddenly.

Mass And Inertia

9th Class Physics 3rd Chapter Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
It is dangerous for loaded vehicles to negotiate a curve in the road without reducing speed. What is the reason?
Answer:
Loaded vehicles possess more inertia of motion. As ” mass increases, inertia also increases.

9th Class Physics Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
It is more difficult to roll a filled tar drum than an empty drum.
a) Which of two has a greater mass?
b) Which has greater inertia?
Answer:
a) The mass of drum filled with tar will be greater,
b) Inertia will be greater to tar filled drum
Conclusion: Inertia depends on mass. When the mass increases inertia also increases. When the mass decreases inertia also decreases.

Physics Class 9 Chapter 3 Questions And Answers Question 12.
If a tennis ball (mass 58.5 g) and a cricket ball (mass 163 g) are the reach a certain distance when hit with a cricket bat, which is to be hit with greater force? The tennis ball / the cricket ball?
Answer:
The cricket ball

9th Class Physics Notes Kerala Syllabus  Question 13.
Will the change of velocity be the same in both the cases?
Answer:
Velocities are different in both cases due to the difference in masses.

The inertia of an object depends upon its mass. When the mass increases, inertia also increases.

Momentum

Momentum is a characteristic property of moving objects. It is measured as the product of the mass of the body and its velocity.

Momentum = mass × velocity
Unit of momentum is kg m/s

Chapter 3 Physics Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
A car of 1000 kg moves with a velocity of 10 m/s. On applying brakes it comes to rest in 5s. Then what are its initial momentum and final momentum?
Answer:
m = 1000 kg
u = 10 m/s
v = 0
t = 5s
Initial momentum = mu
= 1000 × 10 =10000 kg m/s
Final momentum = mV
= 1000 × 0 = 0 Kg m/s

Physics Chapter 3 Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
A hockey ball of mass 200 g hits on a hockey stick with a velocity 10 m/s. Calculate the change in momentum if the ball bounces back on the same path with the same speed.
Answer:
m = 200g = 200/1000 = 0.2 kg
Initial momentum = mu
= 0.2 × 10 = 2 kg m/s
Final momentum = mv
= 0.2 × 70 = 2 kgm/s
change in momentum = mv – mv = – 2 – 2
= -4 kg m/s

Class 9 Physics Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
A loaded lorry of mass 12000 kg moves with a velocity of 12 m/s. Its velocity becomes 10 m/s after 5 s.
a) What is the initial momentum and what is the final momentum?
b) What is the change in momentum?
c) What is the rate of change of momentum?
Answer:
a) Initial momentum = mu
=12000 × 12 = 144000 kg m/s Final momentum = mv
=12000 × 10 = 120000 kg m/s
b) Change in momentum = mv – mu
= 120000 – 144000 = –24000 kg m/s
c) Rate of change in momentum = \(\frac { mv – mu }{ t }\)
= \(\frac { -24000 }{ 5 }\)
= – 4800 kgm/s²

Newton’S Second Law Of Motion

The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the unbalanced external force acting on it.

Equation for Calculating Force:
According to second law of motion F ∝ ma
F = kma (k – a constant)
k = 1 ∴ F = 1 × ma
F = ma,

ie. F- Force, m – mass, a – acceleration.
Unit of force is Newton (N)
Another unit is dyne.

Physics 9th Class Chapter 3 Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
A constant force is applied for 2 s on a body of mass 5 kg. As a result, if the velocity of the body is changed from 3 m/s to 7 m/s, find out the value of the applied force.
Answer:

Physics Class 9 Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 18.
A car moving with a speed of 108 km/h comes to rest after 4s on applying brake, if the mass of the car including the passengers is 1000 kg, what will be the force applied when brake is applied?
Answer:
Initial velocity of the car u = 108 km/h

= 30 m/s
Final velocity v = 0
Mass m = 1000 kg
Time t = 4s
According to newton’s second law
F = ma

= – 7500 N
The negative sign indicates that the applied force is opposite to the direction of motion.

Question 19.
Velocity of an object of mass 5 kg increases from 3 m/s to 7 m/s on applying a force continuously for 2s. Find out the force applied. If the duration for which force acts is extended to 5s, what will be the velocity of the object then?
Answer:
u = 3 m/s
v = 7 m/s
t = 2s
m = 5 kg
According to Second Law of Motion F = ma

If we substitute the values in the equation v = u + at, velocity can be calcualted when the time for force is extended to 5s.
v = 3 + (2 × 5) = 13 m/s

Question 20.
Velocity-time graph of an object of mass 20 g, moving along the surface of a long table is given below.

What is the frictional force experienced by the object?
Answer:
From the graph
Initial velocity u = 20 m/s
Final velocity v = 0m/s
t = 10 s
m = 20
g = 20/100 kg
F = ma

= -0.04 N
The negative sign shows that the frictional force is acting opposite to the direction of motion of the object.

Question 21.
m₁ and m₂ are the masses of two bodies. When a force of 5 N is applied on each body, m₁ gets an acceleration of 10 m/s² and m₂, 20 m/s². If the two bodies are tied together and the same force is applied, find the acceleration of the combined system.
Answer:

Impulse

Impulsive force is a very large force acting for a very short time.
Impulse of force is the product of the force and the time.
Impulse = Force × time
Impulse – Momentum Principle
According to Newton’s second law of motion,
\(F=\frac{m(v-u)}{t}\)
F x t = m(v – u)
F × t= mv – mu
ie. impulse = change Is momentum This is known as impulse-momentum principle. It states that a change in momentum of an object is equal to the impulse experienced by it.

Question 22.
Explain the following situation by relating force and time.
Answer:
When the change in momentum is a constant, the force acting on a body will be inversely proportional to the time taken. As time increase, the force acting decreases and as time decreases, the force acting increases.

Question 23.
During a pole vault jump, the impact is reduced by falling on a foam bed.
Answer:
When the change in momentum is a constant, the force acting on a body will be inversely proportional to the time taken. As time increase, the force acting decreases and as time decreases, the force acting increases.

Question 24.
Hay or sponges are used while packing glassware. This helps to avoid breaking of glasswares due to collision.
Answer:
When the change in momentum is a constant, the force acting on a body will be inversely proportional to the time taken. As time increase, the force acting decreases and as time decreases, the force acting increases.

Question 25.
Karate experts move their hands with great speed to chop strong bricks.
Answer:
When the change in momentum is a constant, the force acting on a body will be inversely proportional to the time taken. As time increase, the force acting decreases and as time decreases, the force acting increases.

Newton’S Third Law Of Motion

Pass a long string through a straw and tie the string between two windows of the classroom Paste an inflated balloon on the straw.

Question 26.
Inflate a balloon and release it suddenly. What happens?
Answer:
Release of air causes the balloon to move in the opposite direction. Releasing air from the balloon is action and the movement of the balloon is reaction.

Question 27.
What do you observe?
Answer:
The cork pushed out due to the pressure of steam. The tube moves backward.

Question 28.
If the action is the cork being pushed out due to the force exerted by the steam on it, what is the reaction?
Answer:
The reaction is the backward movement of boiling tube.

Question 29.
Write down the action and reaction while we are walking on a floor?
Answer:
When we are walking through a floor, we applies a force on the floor. This is action. The floor applies a force in the opposite direction. This is reaction.
Rocket Propulsion:

• Escaping of hot gases from the jet of rocket is action.
• The force exerted by these gases on the rocket is reaction.

Question 30.
Are the action and reaction equal and opposite?
Answer:
Action and reaction are equal and opposite.
Newton’s Third law of Motion For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

Question 31.
Examine the following situations and complete the table.

Answer:

Conclusions:

• As a result of the applied force by a second body to a body, reaction will occur at the second body.
• Action and reaction are equal and opposite.
• Since action and reaction takes place in two different bodies, they do not cancel each other.

Law Of Conservation Of Momentum

Observe the figure and answer the following questions.

Question 32.
Move the first marble slightly back and roll forward. What happens?
Answer:
One marble will be thrown off from the other end and reaches the previous position.

Question 33.
Bring the two marbles into contact and let them roll. What happens?
Answer:
Two marbles will move from the other end.

Observe the figure and answer the following questions.

Question 34.
Total momentum before collision = ………….
ANswer:
m₁ u₁ + m₂ u₂.

Question 35.
Total momentum after collision =…….
Answer:
m₁ v₁ + m₂ v₂

Question 36.
Initial momentum of A=
Answer:
m₁ u₁

Question 37.
Final momentum of A =
Answer:
m₁ v₁

Question 38.
Change in momentum of A=
Answer:
m₁ v₁ – m₁ u₁

Question 39.
Rate of change of momentum of A =
Answer:
\(\frac{m_{1} v_{1}-m_{1} u_{1}}{t}\)

Question 40.
Initial momentum of B =……
Answer:
m₂ u₂

Question 41.
Final momentum of = …………….
Answer:
m₂ v₂

Question 42.
Change in momentum of B = ………
Answer:
m₂ v₂ – m₂ u₂.

Question 43.
Rate of change of momentum of B = ……………
Answer:
\(\frac{\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{v}_{2}-\mathrm{m}_{2} \mathrm{u}_{2}}{\mathrm{t}}\)

According to IInd Law of motion, rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the external force.
Force exerted by B on A

Law Of Conservation Of Momentum

In the absence of an external force, the total momentum of a system is a constant.

Question 44.
A bullet is fired with a velocity v from a gun of mass M. What will be the recoil velocity of the gun if the mass of the bullet is m?
Answer:
According to low of Conservation of Momentum, total momentum ofthe gun and the bullet before firing and their total momentum after firing will be equal,
ie. Total momentum before firing = 0 + 0 =0
Total momentum after firing = MV + mv
Accoriding to Law of Conservation of Momentum 0 =MV + mv
MV = -mv
V = \(\frac { -mv }{ M }\)
The recoil velocity ofthe gun V = \(\frac { -mv }{ M }\). The negative
sign indicates that the gun moves in the opposite direction of motion ofthe bullet.

Question 45.
Suppose a child of mass 40 kg running on a horizontal surface with a velocity of 5m/s jumps on a stationary skating board of mass3 kg while running as shown in the figure. If there is no other force acting horizontally (assuming the frictional force on the wheels to be zero), calculate the velocity of the combined system of child and the skating board.
Answer:
Suppose the velocity of the board while moving is u. Total momentum of the child and the skating board before jumping will be
= 40 kg × 5 m/s + 3 kg × 0 m/s
= 200 kg m/s Total momentum when the system starts moving (body and skating board)
= (40 + 3) kg × u m/s
= 43 × u kgm/s.
According to the Law of Conservation of Momentum, Total momentum remains constant.
43 u = 200
u = 200/43 = + 4.65 m/s

Circular Motion

Motion of a body through a circular path is known as circular motion.

Question 46.
Does the velocity of an object moving with a uniform speed along a circular path change?
Yes

Question 47.
How does this change in velocity happen?
Due to change in speed/change in direction/due to change in both speed and direction.
Answer:
Due to change in direction.

• Whirling of a stone tied to a string is a type of circular motion.
• The force we apply form the center of the circle reaches the object through the string. The acceleration which a body in circular motion experiences towards the center of the circle through the radius is centripetal acceleration. The force that creates centripetal acceleration is a centripetal force.
  Centripetal force (Fc) = mv²/t
  m – mass, v-velocity, r- radius of the circular path
• In the absence of centripetal force, circular moving body thrown off through the tangent.
• If a body moving along a circular path covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in uniform circular motion.

Question 48.
In hammer throw, before the hammer is let go off, why is it whirled around along a circular path?
Answer:
It is to get initial momentum. Also helpful to cover long distances through the tangent.

Question 49.
How does the speed of a giant wheel in an amusement park?
Answer:
The motion of giant wheel is controlled by mechanically. So its speed is uniform except when starting and stopping.
Examples for uniform circular motion:

• Motion of needles in a watch.
• Whirling of a stone tied to a string.
• Movement of the leaf of an electric fan except when starting and stopping.
• Circular motion of earth’s artificial /satellites.

The acceleration experienced by an object in a circular motion, along the radius, towards the center of the circle, is known as centripetal acceleration. The force that creates a centripetal acceleration is called centripetal force. Centripetal acceleration and centripetal force are directed towards the center.
If an object moving along a circular path covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, it is said to be in uniform circular motion.

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Observe the figures given below. Answer the following questions.

a) When the card is suddenly struck off, what happens to the coin? Explain.
b) What is the law to which this property is related?
c) How is this property related to the mass of the object?
Answer:
a) The coin falls into the glass due to inertia of rest.
b) Newton’s 1st law of motion.
c) Mass increases inertia increases.

Question 2.
What are the balanced forces acting on a book at rest on a table?
Answer:
a) Downward force exerts by the book on the table (i.e., weight of the book).
b) Upward force applies by the table on the book (reaction).

Question 3.
To remove the dust from a carpet, it is suspended and hit with a stick. What is the scientific principle behind it?
Answer:
Inertia of rest. The dust in the carpet shows the tendency to continue in its state of rest.

Question 4.
Acar and a bus are traveling with the same velocity. Which has greater momentum? Why?
Answer:
Bus. Because when mass increases momentum increases.

Question 5.
On the basis of Newton’s third law of motion, explain the source of force that helps to propel a rocket upward.
Answer:

• It is due to the reaction force by the escaping gas from rocket.
• Escaping gases form the rocket is action.
• The force exerted by escaping gases on the rocket is reaction.

Question 6.
A car-travels with a velocity of 15 m/s. The total mass of the car and the passengers in it is 1000 kg. Find the momentum of the car.
Answer:
Momentum p = mv
= 1000 × 15
= 15000 kg m/s

Question 7.
Give reasons:
a) When a bullet is fired from a gun, the gun recoils.
b) When a bus at rest suddenly moves forward, the passengers, standing in the bus, fall backward.
c) We slip on a mossy surface.
Answer:
a) The gun recoils due to the reaction force applied by the shot to the gun. Forward movement of the shot is action and the Backward movement of the gun is reaction.
b) Inertia of rest is the reason. The passengers tends continue in state of rest.
c) Absence of reaction force is the cause for this.

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare and present an experiment to illustrate inertia of rest.
Answer:
Make a pile of coins on a table. Strikes off the lowest coin by a knife quickly. Only that particular coin thrown off and the others remains in the previous manner. This is due to the tendency of coins to remain in its state of rest.

Question 2.
Find out situations from our daily life to explain the law of conservation of momentum and note them down.
Answer:

• Recoil of a gun during firing.
• Rocket propulsion.
• Bomb explosion.

Motion and Laws of Motion More Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
a) As the time interval decreases, rate of change of momentum
b) The force required to produce an acceleration of 1 m/s² on a body of mass 1 kg is
Answer:
a) Increases
b) 1 Newton (1N)

Question 2.
Correct the statement if any wrong.
An object moving with uniform speed along a circular path undergoes velocity change due to the change in speed.
Answer:
An object moving with a uniform speed along a circular path undergoes velocity change due to change in direction.

Question 4.
a) What is meant by momentum?
b) Write down the equation for calculating momentum.
c) A body of mass 50 kg starts from rest. If its velocity changes to 15 m/s after 10 seconds, calculate the change in momentum? What will be the rate of change of momentum?
Answer:
a) The measurement of the quantity of motion of a body is called momentum
b) Momentum p = mv

Question 5.
a) Define circular motion and uniform circular motion.
b) What is the relation between centripetal force and centripetal acceleration?
Answer:
a) The motion of an object through a circular path is said to be circular motion.
If an object moving along a circular path covers equal distance in equal intervals of time if is said to be uniform circular motion.
b) The force requires to produce centripetal acceleration is centripetal force.

Question 6.
a) State Newton’s II law of motion?
b) Derive the equation for force on the basis of this law.
Answer:
a) The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the unbalanced external force acting on it.
b) According to II law.

F = kma (k – a constant)
The force required to produce an acceleration of 1 m/s² on a body of mass 1 kg is 1N
1 = k × 1 × 1
k = 1
∴ F = 1 × ma
F = ma

Question 7.
A car of mass 1000 kg runs with a velocity of 10 m/s. What is the momentum of this car?
Answer:
Momentum p = mv
m = 1000 kg
v = 10 m/s
∴ P = 1000 × 10
= 10000 kg m/s

Question 8.
A loaded lorry of mass 1500 kg moves with a velocity of 12 m/s. Within a small interval of the time, the velocity becomes 10 m/s.
a) What is the initial momentum of the lorry?
b) What is its final momentum?
c) What is the change in momentum?
Answer:
a) Initial momentum P = mv, m = 1500 kg
= 1500 × 12, v₁ = 12m/s
= 18000 kg m/s, v₂ = 10 m/s
b) Final momentum p = mv₂
= 1500 × 10 = 15000 kg m/s
c) Change in momentum = mv₂ – mv₁
=15000 – 18000
= – 3000 kg m/s
Rate of change of momentum
= \(\frac { change in momentum }{ Time }\)
= \(\frac { m(v – u) }{ t }\)

You can Download Wave Motion Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Part 2 Chapter 5 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Chapter 5 Acids, Bases, Salts

Acids, Bases, Salts Textual Questions and Answers

Learning Activities

hss live guru 9th chemistry Acids, Bases, Salts Question 1.
What are the methods used to identify acids and alkalies
Answer:
Using indicators like litmus, phenolphthalein and methyl orange.

kerala syllabus 9th standard chemistry chapter 5 Acids, Bases, Salts Question 2.
Find the characteristics of the substances given in the table below using litmus papers.

Answer:

class 9 chemistry chapter 5 kerala syllabus Acids, Bases, Salts Question 3.
Take a small piece of zinc in a test tube as shown in the figure. Add 2ml of dilute hydrochloric acid using a dropper. Show a burning match stick at the mouth of the test tube. Record the observation.

Answer:
Burn with a ‘pop’ sound

kerala syllabus 9th standard chemistry notes Acids, Bases, Salts Question 4.
What would be the reason?
Answer:
Hydrogen gas liberated burns

kerala syllabus 9th standard chemistry notes chapter 5 Question 5.
Now complete the chemical equation of this reaction
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + …………..
Answer:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
Acids react with reactive metals to form hydrogen gas

class 9 chemistry chapter 5 notes kerala syllabus Question 6.
Take some calcium carbonate (marble pieces) in a boiling tube as shown in figure. Add dilute hydro¬chloric acid to it through a thistle funnel. Pass the evolving gas through clear lime water taken in a test tube.

Which is the gas that comes out through the delivery tube?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

class 9 chemistry chapter 5 notes Acids, Bases, Salts Ques 7.
What is your observation when this gas is passed through clear lime water?
Answer:
LimeWater turns milky
When acids react with carbonates, carbondioxide(CO₂) gas is liberated.

9th class chemistry chapter 5 Acids, Bases, Salts Question 8.
From the characteristics given below, find out those suitable for acids and put (✓) Mark.
1. Have alkaline taste.
2. Turn blue litmus red
3. React with carbonates to form carbon dioxide gas
4. Soapy to touch
5. Liberate hydrogen on reaction with highly reactive metals like Mg and Zn
6. Have sour taste
7. Turns red litmus blue
Answer:

1. Have alkaline taste.
2. Turn blue litmus red (✓)
3. React with carbonates to form carbon dioxide gas (✓)
4. Soapy to touch
5. Liberate hydrogen on reaction with highly reactive metals like Mg and Zn (✓)
6. Have sour taste (✓)
7. Turns red litmus blue

Question 9.
The name of some familiar acids and their chemical formulae are given in the table below. Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 10.
Which component is responsible for the common properties of acids
Answer:
H

Question 11.
Chemical equations showing the formation of oppositely charged ions when hydrochloric acid (HCI) and nitric acid (HN03) dissolve in water are given.
HCI → H⁺+Cl^–
HNO₃ → H⁺+ NO^–
a) Which are the ions present in HCl solution?
b) Which are the ions present in HNO3 solution
c) Which is the ion common to both?
Answer:
a) H⁺ and Cl^–
b) H⁺ and NO₃^–
c) H⁺

Question 12.
What is acids?
Answer:
Acids are substances which can increase the concentration of hydrogen (H⁺) ions in an aqueous solution.

Question 13.
List the acids that are present in lime juice, curd, tamarind, vinegar.
Answer:
Lime juice — Citric acid
Curd — Lactic acid
Tamarind — Tartaric acid
Vinegar — Acetic acid

Question 14.
Write the chemical equation for the ionization of HCl.
Answer:
HCl → H⁺+Cl^–

Ques 15.
How many hydrogen ions are released when one molecule of HCI is ionized?
Answer:
one H⁺

Question 16.
What is the basicity of an acid?
Answer:
The number of hydrogen ions that can be donated by one molecule of an acid is its basicity.
If the basicity is 1, it is called monobasic acid.

Question 17.
Write the ionization equation of nitric acid (HNO3) and find its basicity.
Answer:
HNO₃ → H⁺ +NO^–₃
Basicity -1

Question 18.
Write the chemical equation for the ionization of the sulphuric acid (H2S04)
Answer:
H2SO₄ → H⁺ + HSO^–₄ (bisulphate ion)
HSO^–₄ → H+ + SO^2–₄ (sulphate ion)

Question 19.
How many hydrogen ions are released when one molecule of H₂SO₄ gets ionized? What is its basicity? ’
Answer:
Two H+ ions basicity = 2
It the basicity of an acid is 2,
it is said to be a dibasic acid.

Question 20.
Complete the ionization equation of phosphoric acid (H3PO4).
H₃PO₄ → ………… + PO^3–₄(Phosphate ion)
Answer:
H₃PO₄ → 3H+ + PO^3–₄ (Phosphate ion)

Question 21.
What is the basicity of H₃PO₄?
Answer:
3
If the basicity is 3,
the acid is called a tribasic acid.

Ques 22.
The chemical formulae of some acids are given in the box. Pick out monobasic and dibasic acids.
H₂CO₃, HNO₃, H₃PO₄, H₂SO₃, HCI, H₂SO₄
Answer:
Monobasic: HNO₃, HCI
Dibasic: H₂CO₃, H₂SO₃, H₂SO₄

Question 23.
How do you make soda water? Write the equation of this reaction.
Answer:
CO₂ is dissolved in water to make soda water.
H₂O + CO₂ → H₂CO₃ (Carbonic acid)

Question 24.
Complete the equation of dissolution of SO₂ in water.
………… + ………….. → H₂SO₃ (sulfurous acid)
Answer:
SO₂ + H₂O → H₂SO₃ (sulfurous acid)
CO₂, SO₂ and NO₂ are non-metallic oxides. Generally, compounds formed by the reaction of non-metallic oxides with water are acidic.

Question 25.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
In industrial areas and townships, the chances of air pollution are very high. In such regions, gases like SO₂ and NO₂ reach the atmosphere in larger amounts. These gases dissolve in rainwater and reach the soil as acids. This is known as ‘acid rain’.

Question 26.
What are the environmental problems caused by acid rain?
Answer:

• Plants lose their ability to produce carbohydrates through photosynthesis as their leaves are de- strayed.
• Severe acid rain destroys the greenery of a region.
• The acidic nature of water causes the death and destruction of fish and corals.

Question 27.
What measures are to be taken against the environmental issues caused by acid rain?
Answer:

• Reduce the excessive use of fossil fuels.
• Before using fossil fuels, remove sulfur compounds from them as far as possible.

Question 28.
Burn a neatly rubbed and cleaned magnesium ribbon. Record the observation. What would be the white powder obtained?
Answer:
Magnesium burns brightly and a white powder is formed. The white powder formed is magnesium oxide (MgO)

Question 29.
Take the product in a watch glass and add two or three drops of water. Find its nature using litmus paper.
Answer:
Red litmus turns to blue. MgO is alkaline in nature.

Question 30.
Write the chemical equation of this reaction.
MgO + H₂O → Mg(OH)₂
magnesium hydroxide

Question 31.
Take some water in a beaker, add some quick lime (calcium oxide) and stir it. Take some clear solution in a test tube from the beaker and add a drop of red litmus solution.
a) What do you observe?
b) What is the substance formed when calcium oxide reacts with water? Complete the chemical equation of the reaction.
CaO + H₂O → ……………
c) What do you infer about the nature of this substance from this litmus test?
Answer:
a) The solution turns to blue
b) CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂
c) Ca(OH)₂ is alkaline in nature

Question 32.
Are MgO and CaO metallic oxides or non-metallic oxides?
Answer:
Metallic oxides
Metallic oxides generally exhibit characteristics of bases. The bases that dissolve in water are called alkalies.

Question 33.
From the oxides given below, find out the basic oxides. K₂O, SO₂, P₂O₅, MgO, CaO, NO₂
Answer:
Basic oxides- K₂O, MgO, CaO

Question 34.
Chemical names and formulae of some familiar alkalies are given in the table. Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 35.
Can you find out the common factor in alkalies?
Answer:
OH

Bases and alkalies:
All bases are not alkalies. Water-soluble bases are called alkalies.
NaOH and KOH are alkalies. But even though Al(OH)₃ and Cu(OH). are based, they are not considered as alkalies as they are not soluble in water. Metallic oxides are generally basic in nature. But a few of them have both acidic as well as basic character. Such oxides are called amphoteric oxides. Example Al,O₃, ZnO
They can react with acids as well as bases.

Question 36.
Write the equation of the dissolution of sodium hydroxide in water.
Answer:
NaOH → Na⁺ +OH^– (hydoxide ion)

Question 37.
Complete the given equation of the ionization of calcium hydroxide.
Ca(OH)₂ → Ca⁺₂ +……….
Answer:
Ca(OH)₂→ Ca⁺₂ + 2OH^–

Question 38.
Which is the common ion released when alkalies dissolve in water?
Answer:
OH-
Alkalies are substances which can increase the concentration of hydroxide (OH) ions in anaqueous solution.

Question 39.
Write common names of some alkalies, their chemical names and chemical formulae
Answer:

Question 40.
The equations representing the ionization of some acids and alkalies are given below. Fill in the blanks.
Answer:
HCl → H⁺ + Cl^–
KOH → K⁺ +OH^–
H₂CO₃ → 2H⁺ + CO₃^2-
NH₄OH → NH⁺₄ + OH^–
HNO₃ → H⁺ + NO^–₃

Question 41.
What is Arrhenius theory?
Answer:
According to Arrhenius theory, acids are substances which liberate H+ ions in aqueous solution and bases are substances which liberate OH- ions in aqueous solutions.

Question 42.
What was the color of NaOH solution when phenolphthalein was added?
Answer:
Pink

Question 43.
Which nature of the NaOH solution is indicated here?
Answer:
Alkaline

Question 44.
What do you infer from the decrease in the intensity of colour of the NaOH solution on adding HCl?
Answer:
Concentration of NaOH is decreasing

Question 45.
When the color disappears completely will there be any NaOH left behind in the conical flask?
Answer:
No

Question 46.
Add a few drops of NaOH solution to the completely decolorized. What change can you observe? What will be the reason?
Answer:
Pink color reappears concentration of NaOH in-creases.

Question 47.
To this again add dilute HCl drop by drop and stir it. What do you observe?
Answer:
Pink color disappears

Question 48.
What are neutralization reactions?
Answer:
Acid and alkali react with each other to nullify their individual properties. Such chemical reactions are called neutralization reactions.

Question 49.
Write the chemical equation for the neutralization reaction between sodium hydroxide and dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
NaOH + HCI → NaCI + H₂O

Question 50.
You have already recorded the volume of HCI used for neutralization of 20 mL NaOH in the earlier experiment. Change the concentration of the acid and repeat the experiment. Is there any change in the volume of HCI?
Answer:
Yes

Question 51.
Can you find out more examples for neutralization reaction?
Answer:

• Slaked lime is sprinkled in farms to reduce acidity
• Antacids are used to remove acidity in the stom¬ach.

Question 52.
What happens when the acid level in the stomach is high?
Answer:
It increases the acidity of the stomach

Question 53.
What do we do in such situations?
Answer:
We take antacids.

Question 54.
What are antacids?
Answer:
The medicines used for reducing acidity in the stomach are known as antacids.

Question 55.
What types of substances are present in antacids?
Answer:
Alkaline

Question 56.
How do they work?
Answer:
They neutralize acid in the stomach.

Question 57.
Take equal quantities of dilute hydrochloric acid, sodium hydroxide solution and distilled water in three test tubes. Use red litmus paper and blue litmus paper to find out the nature of the solutions. Also, add two or three drops of phenolphthalein solution to the three test tubes. Record the observation and find out the nature of the substances.
Do you notice any color change in distilled water? What property of water is revealed here?
Answer:
No’, water is neutral

Question 58.
What happens to the amount of H⁺ ions when a little acid is added to water?
Answer:
Increase

Question 59.
What happens if alkali is added?
Answer:
Amount OH^– increases

Question 60.
What is pH value?
Answer:
Determination of pH value is the scientific method for finding the acidic/alkaline nature of substances. The Danish scientist Sorensen devised the pH scale for this. The pH scale was devised based on the H⁺ ion concentration in the solution.

Question 61.
Observe the pH scale and answer the questions given below. What is the pH value of the neutral solution?

Answer:
7

Question 62.
What is the nature of the solution having pH value more than 7?
Answer:
Basic

Question 63.
What is the nature of the solution having pH value less than 7?
Answer:
Acidic

Question 64.
What is pH scale?
Answer:
The pH scale is the method used to express the acidic /basic nature of a substance based on the amount of H ions present in their aqueous solutions.
On the basis of the pH scale, the pH value of a neutral solution is 7. The pH value of acids is less than

Question 65.
How the pH value can be find out using pH solution?
Answer:
Add a drop of pH solution to the solution whose pH is to be determined or dip the pH paper into it. The pH value of the solution can be determined by comparing with the pH color chart.

Question 66.
Find the pH value of the following substances using the pH paper and complete the table given below.

Answer:

Question 67.
It is better to determine the pH of soil before farming? Why?
Answer:
The pH of soil is an important factor for crops. It is important to identify whether the soil of a region is suitable for a particular crop. Acidic soil is suitable for some crops while basic soil for a few others.

Question 68.
What are the products of the reaction between dilute hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide solution?
Answer:

Question 69.
Name the products formed when the common component of an acid and the common component of an alkali combine together.
Answer:
H₂O (water)

Question 70.
Which is the positive ion present in sodium hydroxide? Which is the negative ion present in hydrochloric acid?
Answer:
Na+ Cl^–

Question 71.
Write the chemical formula of the compound formed by the combination of these two ions. Identify this substance.
Answer:
Na+ + Cl → NaCI

Question 72.
What is naturalization?
Answer:
Neutralization is the process in which acid and alkali react with each other to form salt and water. Acid + Alkali → Salt + water

Question 73.
Complete the equation for the reaction between dilute sulphuric acid (H2S04) and magnesium hydrox¬ide Mg(OH)2.
Mg(OH)₂ + H₂SO₄ → + 2H₂O
Answer:
Mg(OH)₂ + H₂SO₄ MgSO₄ + 2H₂O

Question 74.
What are the products formed?
Answer:
Magnesium sulfate (MgSO₄) and water (H₂O)

Question 75.
Identify the salts given in the table and find out the acids and alkalies required for the formation of salt

Answer:

Question 76.
Write the name and symbol of some positive ions and negative ions.
Answer:

Question 77.
Write the name and symbol of some positive ions and negative ions.
Answer:
Formula — Name
KOH — Potassium hydroxide
K₂CO₃ — Potassium carbonate
KHCO₃ — Potassium bicarbonate
KNO₃ — Potassium nitrate
K₂SO₄ — Potassium sulphate
KHSO₄ — Potassium bisulphate
K₃PO₄ — Potassium phosphate
KH₂PO₄ — Potassium dihydrogen phosphate
Zn(OH)₂ — Zinc hydroxide
ZnCO₃ — Zinc carbonate
Zn(HCO₃)₂ — Zinc bicarbonate
Zn(NO3)2 — Zinc nitrate
ZnSO₄ — Zinc sulfate
Zn(HSO₄)₂ — Zinc bisulfate
Zn₃(PO₄)₂ — Zinc phosphate
Zn(H₂PO₄)₂ — Zincdihydrogen phosphate
Fe(OH)₂ — Ferrous hydroxide
FeCO₃ — Ferrous carbonate
Fe(HCO₃)₂ — Ferrous bicarbonate
Fe(NO₃)₂ — Ferrous nitrate
FeSO₄ — Ferrous sulfate
Fe(HSO₄)₃ — Ferrous bisulfate
Fe₃(PO₄)₂ — Ferrous phosphate
Fe(H₂PO₄)₂ — Ferrous dihydrogen phosphate
Fe(OH)₃ — Ferric hydroxide
Fe₂(CO₃)₃ — Ferric carbonate
Fe(HCO₃)₃ — Ferric bicarbonate
Fe(NO₃)₃ — Ferric nitrate
Fe₂(SO₄)₃ — Ferric sulphate
Fe(HSO₄)₃ — Ferric bisulphate
FePO₄ — Ferric phosphate
Fe(H₂PO₄)₃ — Ferric dihydrogen phosphate
CuOH — Cuprous hydroxide
Cu₂CO₃ — Cuprous carbonate
CuHCO₃ — Cuprous bicarbonate
CuNO₃ — Cuprous nitrate
Cu₂SO₄ — Cuprous sulphate
CuHSO₄ — Cuprous bisulphate
Cu₃PO₄ — Cuprous phosphate
CuH₂PO₄ — Cuprous dihydrogen phosphate
Cu(OH)₂ — Cupric hydroxide
CuCO₃ — Cupric carbonate
Cu(HCO₃)₂ — Cupric bicarbonate
Cu(NO₃)₂ — Cupric nitrate
CuSO₄ — Cupric sulphate
Cu(HSO₄)₂ — Cupric bisulphate
Cu₃(PO₄)₂ — Cupric phosphate
Cu(H₃PO₄)₂ — Cupric dihydrogen phosphate
NHOH — Ammonium hydroxide
(NH₄)₂CO₃ — Ammonium carbonate
NH₄HCO₃ — Ammonium bicarbonate
NH4NO3 — Ammonium nitrate
(NH₄)₂SO₄ — Ammonium sulphate
NH₄HSO₄ — Ammonium bisulfate
(NH₄)₃PO₄ — Ammonium phosphate
NH₄H₂PO₄ — Ammonium dihydrogen phosphate
Mn(OH)₂ — Manganous hydroxide
MnCO₃ — Manganous carbonate
Mn(HCO₃)₂ — Manganous bicarbonate
Mn(NO₃)₂ — Manganous nitrate
MnSO₄ — Manganous sulfate
Mn(HSO₄)₂ — Manganous bisulfate
Mn₃(PO₄)₂ — Manganous phosphate
Mn(H₂PO₃)₃ — Manganous dihydrogen phosphate

Question 78.
The name of few salts and their chemical formulae are given in the table. Complete the table adding names of more salts and write the positive ions and negative ions.

Answer:

Question 79.
What is the number of positive ions and negative ions in a ‘molecule’ of NaCI?
Anaswer:
Positive ions 1, Negative ions 1

Question 80.
What would be the sum of the charges of the posi¬tive ions and negative ions in a ‘molecule’ of NaCI?
Answer:
1⁺ + 1^– = 0 (zero)

Question 81.
Why slats are neutral in nature?
Answer:
Salts are electrically neutral. The sum of the charge of the positive ions and negative ions in a salt will be zero.

Question 82.
What are the method of writing chemical formulae of salts?
Answer:

• While writing the chemical formula, first write the symbol of the positive ion and then the symbol of the negative ion.
• Write the numbers indicating the charge of each ion as subscripts after interchanging them.
• Simplify the subscripts and write them in the smallest whole-number ratio.

Question 83.
Write the different stages in writing the chemical formulae of compounds formed by the combination of magnesium ion (Mg³⁺) with phosphate ion (PO₄³-) and carbonate ion (CO₃²-)
Answer:
Mg²⁺ PO₄³–
Mg²⁺CO₃²–
Mg₃ (PO₄)₂
Mg_2/2 (CO₃)_2/2
MgCO₃

Question 84.
Some positive ions and negative ions are given in the table. Write the name and chemical formulae of the maximum possible salts formed by them.
Positive ion — Negative ion
Ca²⁺ (calcium ion) — Cl^– (chloride ion)
NH₄⁺ (Ammonium ion) — SO₄²– (sulphate ion)
PO₄³– (Phosphate ion)
Answer:
1) Calcium chloride CaCl₂?
2) Calcium sulphate CaSO₄
3) Calcium phosphate Ca₃(PO₄)₂
4) Ammonium chloride NH₄Cl
5) Ammonium sulphate (NH₄)2SO₄
6) Ammonium phosphate (NH₄)3PO₄

Question 85.
Give example for some salts that are used as fertilizers.
Answer:

• Ammonium sulphate.(NH₄)₂SO₄
• Potassium chloride KCl
• Sodium nitrate NaNO₃

Question 86.
We use various salts in our daily life. A list of some of these salts and their chemical formulae are given in the table. Analyze the table and complete.

Answer:

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Complete the chemical equations for the following ionization equation.

Answer:

Question 2.
Identify the symbol from the box and write against their names.
SO₃²– , NO₃^– , HCO₃^–, OH^–, CO₃²-, HSO₄^–
Carbonate —
Bisulphate —
Sulfite —
Nitrate —
Hydroxide —
Bicarbonate —
Answer:
Carbonate → CO₃²–
Bisulphate → HSO₃^–
Sulfite → SO₃²–
Nitrate → NO₃
Hydroxide → OH^–
Bicarbonate → HCO₃

Question 3.
a) Name the salt formed by the reaction between
magnesium hydroxide [Mg(OH)₂] and dil. hydrochloric acid (HCl).
b) Write the equation for the reaction
c) Which is the acid required for the preparation of magnesium sulfate?
Answer:
a) Magnesium Chloride
b) Mg(OH)₂ + 2HCl MgCl₂ + 2H₂O
c) H₂SO₄ (sulphuric acid)

Question 4.
List the cation and anions of the substance given in the table.

Answer:

Question 5.
A little distilled water is taken in a beaker.
A. What is the pH value of the distilled water?
B. What happens to the pH value when the following substances are added to the water? Justify your answer.
i) Caustic soda
ii) Vinegar
Answer:
A. Seven
B. i) pH value increases, solution becomes basic
ii) pH value decreases, solution becomes acidic

Question 6.
Match the column A, B, and C by identifying the correct chemical formulae and the use of the salts

Answer:

Question 7.
The pH values of some substances are given in the table. Analyze the table and answer the questions

a. Is blood acidic or basic in nature?
b. The pH value of pure milk is 6.4. Does the pH value increase or decrease when milk changes . to curd. Justify your answer
c. Among the substances given in the above table
(i) Which one is strongly basic?
(ii) Which one has weak acidic nature
Answer:
a) Basic
b) pH value decrease. Curd is lactic acid
c) i) Limewater
ii) Blood

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Organic acids are present in a number of substances we use in our daily life.
(eg. Tomato, orange, apple, grapes, curd, etc.) Identify the organic acids in each of them and tabulate.
Answer:
Tomato — oxalic acid
Orange — Citric acid
Apple — Malic acid
Grapes — Tartaric acid
Curd — Lactic acid, Butiric acid

Question 2.
Haven’t you conducted an activity to find the pH value of the soil related to different crops? Identify the pH values of soil samples collected from different places.
Prepare a list of the crops that are suitable for the soil of each area on the basis of its pH value
Answer:

Question 3.
a) Complete the equations of the ionization of phosphoric acid.
H₃PO₄ → H⁺ + H₂PO₄^– (Dihydrogenphosphate ion)
H₃PO₄^– → H+ + …………. (Hydrogenphosphate ion)
…….. → H⁺ + PO₄^3- (phosphate ion)
b) How many types of salts can be formed by phosphoric acid? Why?
c) Write the chemical name of the following salts.
Mg(H₂PO₄)₂
MgHPO₄
Mg₃(PO₄)₂
Answer:
a) H₂PO₄^– → H⁺ + HPO₄^2- (Hydrogenphosphate ion)
HPO₄^2- → H^– + PO₄^3- (phosphate ion)
b) It is tribasic
c) Magnessium dihydrogen phosphate Magnessium hydrogenphosphate Magnessium phosphate

Question 4.
Solution of sodium carbonate, potassium chloride, and ammonium sulfate are taken in separate beakers. Dip a litmus paper (red, blue) in each beaker.


Answer:

i) Observe the color change of litmus paper and tabulate.
ii) Name the acid and alkali that react to form each salt given above?
iii) Can you explain the color change of the litmus paper on the basis of the nature of the acid and alkali that react to form the salt?
(hint: Potassium chloride is a salt formed by the reaction between a strong acid and a strong alkali)

i) Salts formed by the reaction between a strong acid and a strong base will be neutral in nature, eg: KCI
ii) Salts formed by the reaction between a strong base and weak acid will be slightly basic eg: Na2CO3
iii) Salts formed by the reaction between a weak base and strong acid will be slightly acidic eg:(NH4)2SO4

Acids, Bases, Salts More Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Non-metalic oxides like CO₂, SO₂, and NO₂ shows acidic nature, justify it.
Answer:
Compounds formed by the reaction of the above nonmetal oxide dissolves in water shows acidic character.

Question 2.
Take quick lime (Calcium oxide) in a beaker containing water. Take a little of this in a test tube and show a red litmus paper.
Answer:
Red litmus paper turns to blue because calcium oxide dissolves in water to form calcium hydroxide. It is basic in nature.

Question 3.
Complete the equation of the reaction between calcium oxide and water.
Answer:
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂

Question 4.
What can be inferred about the nature of this substance from the litmus test?
Answer:
Alkaline nature

Question 5.
Classify the following oxides into acidic oxide and basic oxide
SO₃, NO₂, CaO, K₂O P₂O₅, Na₂O, CO₂, MgO
Answer:

Question 6.
Try to write the chemical equation for the reaction of Fe with hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
Fe + 2 HCI → FeCl₂ + H₂

Question 7.
Analyze the chemical equation for the reactions taking place when hydrochloric acid dissolves in water.
Answer:
HCl → H⁺ + Cl^–
H⁺ + H₂O → H₃O⁺ (Hydronium ion)

Question 8.
Explain the basis of classification of acid into monobasic, Dibasic and tribasic acids.
Answer:
An acid molecule dissolves in water to liberate H⁺ ions. Based on this acids are classified into monobasic, Dibasic and tribasic acids. HCl is a monobasic acid.

Question 9.
Explain the dissociation of H2SO4
Answer:
H₂SO₄ → H⁺ + HSO₄⁺ (Bisulphate ion)
HSO₄– → H⁺ + SO₄²⁺ (Sulphate ion)

Question 10.
Classify the following acids into monobasic, dibasic and tribasic acids,
H₂CO₃, HNO₃, H₃PO₄, H₂SO₄, HCl, H₂S₄
Answer:

Question 11.
During the rainy season, the farmers are using slaked lime in agricultural fields, give reason.
Answer:
To reduce the acidity of the soil.

Question 12.
Write the chemical formula of slaked lime.
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide – Ca(OH)₄

Question 13.
Most of the alkalies are also known by the common names in addition to their chemical names. Caustic soda, milk of lime, milk of magnesia and caustic potash are the common names of some alkalies. Identify the chemical formula with the help of the given table.
Answer:

Question 14.
Observe the chemical equation of the dissolution of Sodium hydroxide in water.
NaOH → Na⁺ + OH^– (Hydroxide ion)
Now complete the given chemical equation for the ionization of Calcium hydroxide.
Ca(OH)2 → + ………. + …………..
Answer:
Ca(OH)₂ → Ca⁺ + 2OH^–

Question 15.
Which is the common ion released when alkalies dissolved in water?
Answer:
OH^–

Question 16.
Difference between bases and alkalies?
Answer:
Bases are compounds that are opposite in acids in their characteristics.
Bases dissolving in water are alkalies. The metal hydroxide which dissolves in water functioning as strong alkalies.
Sodium hydroxide, Potassium hydroxide are alkalies, but Al(OH)₃, Ca(OH)₂ are bases.

Question 17.
What is meant by a neutralization reaction?
Answer:
An acid combines with alkali to nullify their individual properties. Such reactions are called neutralization reaction.

Question 18.
Give equation for the neutralization reaction of Sodium hydroxide with Hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O

Question 19.
If we add small quantity of acid to water, what happens to the quantity of H⁺ ion?
Answer:
Quantity of H⁺ ion increases.

Question 20.
What change occurs when alkali is added?
Answer:
Quantity of OH⁺ ion increases.

Question 21.
Complete the table and find the pH value by using pH paper of the following substances.
Answer:

Question 22.
If the pH value increases whether acid or alkali character increases?
Answer:
Alkali character increases

Question 23.
If the pH value increases whether the H⁺ ion concentration decreases or increases?
Answer:
Decreases

Question 24.
The names of a few salts and their chemical formulas are given below. Find the cations & anions and complete the table.
Answer:

Question 25.
Can you find out the acid and alkali responsible for the formation of the salts given in the table from their chemical formula
Answer:

Question 26.
Prepare a table by writing the chemical formula of more salts that you are familiar with and also the names of the acid and alkalies from which they are formed.
Answer:

Question 27.
Find out how the chemical formula of the salts are written analyzing the table.
Answer:

Question 28.
Give the salts used as chemical fertilizers?
Answer;
Ammonium Sulphate – (NH₄)₂SO₄
Potassium Chloride – KCl
Sodium Nitrate – NaNO₃

Question 29.
a) Complete the chemical equation for the ionization of Phosphoric acid.
H₃PO₄ → H⁺ + H₂PO₄⁺
H₃PO₄⁺ → H+ + ……….
………. → H⁺ + PO₄^3-
b) Based on the ionization equation given above Phosphoric acid is a tribasic acid? Justify it.
Answer:
a) H₃PO₄ → H⁺ + H₂PO₄^2-(Dihydrogen Phosphate ion)
H₂PO₄^– → H⁺ + HPO₄^2- (Hydrogen Phosphate ion)
HPO₄^2- → H⁺ + PO₄^3- (Phosphate ion)
b) In Phosphoric acid in aqueous solution number of H⁺ ion release is 3. Hence it is a tribasic acid.

Question 30.
Two solutions A and B having pH value 5 and 9, respectively. Which one shows acidic character and which one shows alkaline character. Why?
Answer:
A shows acidic character because the pH value is below 7, B shows alkaline character because the pH value is above 7.

Question 31.
List the cations and anions of the substances given in the table.

Answer:

Question 32.
Some cations and anions are given. Write the chemical formula of all the salts possible by combining them.

Answer:

Question 33.
Name the salt formed by the reaction between Potassium hydroxide (KOH) and Nitric acid (HNO₃).
Answer:
a) Potassium Nitrate
b) KOH + HNO₃ → KNO₃ + H₂O

You can Download Non-Metals Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Part 2 Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Chapter 6 Non-Metals

Non-Metals Textual Questions and Answers

Activities In The Text

9th Class Chemistry Chapter 6 Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Which are the non-metals familiar to you?
Answer:
Nitrogen, Oxygen, Chlorine, Argon

Class 9 Chemistry Chapter 6 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Is it interesting to see the balloons flying up in the air? Which is the gas-filled in these balloons?
Answer:
Hydrogen.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Chapter 6  Question 3.
Which gas is mainly filled in cylinders used in hospitals for artificial respiration?
Answer:
Oxygen

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Notes Question 4.
Which is the gas-filled in tires to increase their efficiency?
Answer:
Nitrogen

Hsslive Guru 9th Chemistry Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Which are the gases present in air

Which is the most abundant gas in air?
Answer:
Nitrogen

Chemistry 9th Class Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Write the constituent elements of food materials?
Answer:
Carbohydrates: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
Protein: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen
Fat: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

9th Chemistry Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
List the constituent elements of some plastics?
Answer:
PVC: Carbon, hydrogen, chlorine Polythene: Carbon, hydrogen Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, chlorine are nonmetals

Chemistry Class 9 Chapter 6 Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
What do you know about hydrogen gas?
Answer:
Hydrogen is the major component in the sun and stars. A very small quantity of hydrogen is seen in the atmosphere in free state. Water is a major com¬pound of hydrogen. Hydrogen is present in large amounts in bio substances.

Hss Live Guru 9 Chemistry Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
List out the hydrogen compounds known to you
Answer:
1. H₂SO₄ HCI HNO₃ H₂CO₃
2. H₂O H₂O₂ NaOH H₂PO₄

Hsslive Guru 9 Chemistry Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Explain the preparation of hydrogen in the laboratory?
Materials required: Test tube, zinc granule, dilute hydrochloric acid, lighted match stick.

Procedure: Take 5 ml. dilute hydrochloric acid in a test tube and add some zinc granule to it. Bring a burning match stick at the mouth of the test tube. What do you observe?
Answer:
The gas burns with a pop sound

Class 9 Chemistry Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
Which gas is produced?
Answer:
Hydrogen.

Chemistry Notes Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Write the balanced equation of this chemical reaction.
Answer:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂

Hss Live Guru Chemistry 9th Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
What are the reactants and products in this reaction?
Answer:
Zn, HCl – Reactants ZnCl₂ + H₂ – Products

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Question 14.
How is zinc chloride formed along with hydrogen gas in this chemical reaction?
Answer:
During this chemical reaction, Zn atom replaces hydrogen in hydrochloric acid.

Chemistry Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
What are displacement reactions?
Answer:
Reactions, where an element in a compound is displaced by another element, is called displacement reactions/ Substitution reactions.

9 Standard Chemistry Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
Give examples for displacement reactions.
Answer:
1) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂
2) Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂
3) Mg + 2HNO₃ → Mg(NO₃ )₃ + H₂
4) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
5) 2NaBr + Cl₂ → 2NaCl + Br₂
6) CH₄ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + HCl

Question 17.
You have seen hydrogen balloons fly up in the air. What can you infer about the density of hydrogen from this?
Answer:
The density of hydrogen is less than that of air.

Question 18.
What is the reaction between hydrogen and oxygen?
Answer:
Hydrogen burns in oxygen to form water. This is an exothermic reaction. (Water is also formed when electric sparks are passed through a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen)
2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O + heat

Question 19.
What is a combination reaction?
Answer:
The reaction in which two or more simple substances (elements/compounds) combine to form a compound is called combination reaction.
eg: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Question 20.
What is the reaction between hydrogen and chlorine?
Answer:
Hydrogen combines with chlorine in the presence of sunlight to form hydrogen chloride

Question 21.
Give examples for combination reactions.
1) N₂ +3H₂ → 2NH₃
2) 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
3) H₂ + S → H₂S
4) 2Na + H₂ → 2NaH
5) CaO + H₂O→ Ca(OH)₂

Qn. 22
List the uses of hydrogen
Answer:

• For the industrial production of ammonia and methanol
• To saturate unsaturated oils
• As a fuel

Question 23.
Observe and analyse the graph showing the heat energy released during the combustion of various fuels.

Which among the fuels given has the highest calorific value?
Answer:
Hydrogen

Question 24.
What is calorific value?
Answer:
The calorific value of a fuel is the heat energy released from one unit mass of that fuel on complete combustion.

Question 25.
Which fuel has the highest calorific value?
Answer:
Hydrogen

Question 26.
What will be the product formed when hydrogen burns in air?
Answer:
Water(H20)

Question 27.
What are the advantages of using hydrogen as a fuel?
Answer:

• High calorific value
• No environmental pollution
• Availability is very high

Question 28.
What are the limitations of using hydrogen as a fuel?
Answer:

1. Hydrogen is a gas that burns explosively in air
2. Distribution and storing the gas is not easy.

Question 29.
List out some compounds containing oxygen.
Answer:

• C₆H₁₂O₆
• CuO
• CaCO₃
• H₂SO₄

Question 30.
Prepare and present a short note on the role of plants in maintaining the oxygen level.
Answer:
In the presence of sunlight, the chlorophyll present in plants forms glucose by combining CO₂ and water. As a result of this reaction (photosynthesis), oxygen is liberated. This helps to maintain the oxygen level in the atmosphere.
6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂

Question 31.
What do know about the presence of oxygen on earth
Answer:

From the table you might have understood that the level of oxygen is very high in nature

Question 32.
Explain the preparation of oxygen in the laboratory with a figure?

Question 33.
Write the apparatus materials used for the preparation of oxygen?
Answer:

• Dry boiling tube
• Crystal of potassium permanganate
• Spirit lamp
• Glowing splinter

Question 34.
Introduce a glowing matchstick into the boiling tube. What do you observe?
Answer:
The glowing matchstick flares up.

Question 35.
Presence of which gas is indicated by the flaring up of the glowing matchstick?
Answer:
oxygen

Question 36.
Complete the equation of this chemical reaction.

Answer:

Question 37.
What is decomposition?
Answer:
Decomposition is the process of forming two or more products due to the decomposition of a compound.

Question 38.
What happens during the electrolysis of water? Com¬plete its chemical equation given below

Answer:

Question 39.
Put a (✓) mark against the correct option related to oxygen from those given below.

Answer:
Colour — Yes/ No ✓
Odour — Yes/ No ✓
Solubility in Water — Soluble✓/insoluble
Density — More than air ✓/less than air
Flammability — supports combustion✓

Question 40.
What is combustion?
Answer:
The burning of a substance in oxygen is called combustion.

Question 41.
Take some sulphur in a spatula and burn it. What do you observe?
Answer:
Sulphur burns. The smell of gun powder.

Question 42.
How does oxygen react with non-metals?

Answer:
Oxygen reacts with the non-metals such as carbon and hydrogen to produce carbon dioxide and water respectively,
e.g: C + O₂ → CO₂.
2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Question 43.
Have you notice that the lustre of metals like aluminium and ion fades gradually. Give reason?
Answer:
The reason for this is the formation of oxide of these metals when they combine with oxygen

Question 44.
Explain the uses of oxygen
Answer:

• For combustion
• As an oxidant in rocket fuels
• For artificial respiration

Question 45.
What is ozone?
Answer:
Oxygen is seen as diatomic molecule that is formed by combining two oxygen atoms.
But ozone is a triatomic molecule containing three oxygen atoms. (03)
Ozone is found in the stratosphere, a layer of atmosphere.

Question 46.
How ozone is formed in the atmosphere?
Ozone is present mostly in the stratosphere of the atmosphere. Atmosphere oxygen dissociates on absorption of high energy ultraviolet radiation. The oxygen atoms thus formed combine together to form 03 molecule.

Question 47.
Depletion of ozone in the atmosphere reduces the absorption of ultraviolet rays. Justify the statements.
Answer:
Chloroflouro carbons are responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer. Chlorofluorocarbon released into the atmosphere reach the stratosphere and breakdown by the action of ultraviolet radiation releasing chlorine the chlorine decomposes ozone molecules into oxygen. This disturbs the equilibrium in the ozone – oxygen cyclic process. Hence the depletion of ozone in the atmosphere reduces the absorption of ultraviolet rays.

Question 48.
Howto reducing the rate of depletion of ozone layer?
Answer:
Today the use of CFC is being controlled in most of the countries. Harmful CFC are replaced nowadays with safer substances this has helped in reducing the rate of depletion of ozone layer.

Question 49.
Nitrogen is the chief constituent of atmospheric air have you ever thought of the advantage of having a greater quantity of nitrogen in the atmosphere?
Answer:
Nitrogen molecule has a triple bond (N = N). Because of this strong bond, nitrogen is most inert oxygen helps in combustion while nitrogen plays on important role in regulating the rate of combustion of oxygen.

Question 50.
What are the different ways in which nitrogen is obtained by plants?
Answer:

• By bio decomposition
• Through fertilizers
• By nitrogen-fixing by bacteria

Question 51.
“It is said that lightning is a boom to plants”. Justify the statement?
Answer:
During lightening the triple bond in nitrogen breaks and combine with the atmospheric oxygen to form nitric oxide (NO)
N₂+O₂ → 2NO
Nitric oxide thus formed further combines with more amount of oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
2NO + O₂ → 2NO₂
Nitrogen dioxide dissolves in rainwater in the presence of oxygen and reaches the soil as nitric acid (HNO₃)
4NO₂ + 2H₂O + O₂ → 4HNO₃
Nitric acid reacts with the minerals in the soil to form nitrate salts which is absorbed by the plants. So it is said that lightning is a boom to plants.

Question 52.
Can you list out which other means are there for getting greater amount of elements for plants?
Answer:

• Use of organic fertilizers
• Use chemical fertilizers
• Bio decomposition
• Through nitrogen fixation

Question 53.
List the merits and limitations of the application of organic fertilizers?
Answer:
Merits:

• Eco-friendly
• Preserve the inmate nature of the soil

Limitation:

• Biodegradation needs time so it cannot easy to absorbed by plants in time.
• Presence of microorganism is necessary.
• Storage and transportation not easy.

Question 54.
What are the other uses of nitrogen?
Answer:

• In production of nitrogenous fertilizers
• To fill in the tyres of vehicles
• Liquified nitrogen as a refrigerant
• Tc avoid the presence of oxygen in packed foods
• In the manufacture of ammonia

Question 55.
List out the chlorine compounds you are familiar with.
Answer:

• Hydrogen chloride (HCl)
• Sodium chloride (NaCl)
• Potassium chloride (KCl)

Question 56.
Draw the arrangement for the preparation of chlorine in the laboratory.
Answer:

Question 57.
Write the balanced chemical equation?
Answer:
2KMnO₄ +16HCl → 2KCl + 2MnCl₂ + 8H₂O + 5Cl₂

Question 58.
What are the reactants required for the preparation of chlorine?
Answer:
Potassium permanganate, Con. HCI

Question 59.
What are the products obtained?
Answer:
Potassium chloride (KCl)
Manganous chloride (MnCl₂)
Water (H₂O)
Chlorine (Cl₂)

Question 60.
In laboratory preparation of chlorine why chlorine gas is passed through water?
Answer:
Hydrogen chloride vapours conning along with chlorine is removed by passing it through water.

Question 61.
Which method is used to remove the water vapour formed along with chlorine?
Answer:
The chlorine gas formed can be passed through con. H₂SO₄ because it can absorb the water vapour formed along with chlorine.

Question 62.
Observe the figure and see the way in which chlorine is being collected in a gas jar? Why this method is used?
Answer:
The density of Cl₂ is greater than that of air hence it can be collected by the upward displacement of air.

Question 63.
Explain the physical properties of chlorine?
Colour – colourless
Odour – pungent smell
Density -greater than that of air

Question 64.
Describe an experiment to show the bleaching action of chlorine?
Answer:
Prepare and store dry chlorine in a gas jar. Put some moist petals of colour flowers and pieces of coloured paper in the jar. The observation is chlorine gas can decolourise coloured substances by bleaching.

Question 65.
Write the chemistry behind the bleaching action of chlorine?
Answer:
Chlorine gas reacts with the water to give hydrochloric acid hypochlorous acid (HClO)
Cl₂ + H₂O → HCl + HOCl
Hypochlorous acid decomposes and liberate atomic oxygen.
HClO → HCl + [O]
This atomic oxygen oxidises coloured substances.

Question 66.
Write the uses of chlorine?
Answer:

• For bleaching
• For the preparation of insecticides
• For removing stains in the fabric
• For purification of water
• For the preparation of bleaching powder

Question 67.
How bleaching powder is prepared?
Answer:
Bleaching powder is prepared by passing dry chlorine gas over dry slaked lime.

Question 68.
How bleaching powder act as a disinfectant?
Answer:
Chlorine, liberated when bleaching powder reacts with water, helps disinfection. Bleaching powder is a good source of chlorine.

Question 69.
How the presence of a chloride salt can be confirmed?
Answer:
When silver nitrate solution is added to the given salt solution, if a white curdy precipitate soluble in ammonium hydroxide solution, is formed the pres¬ence of a chloride salt can be confirmed.
NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃

Question 70.
Analyse the chemical equation given below.
NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃
Which is the ion combined with sodium ion in the
first reactant NaCl?
Answer:
Cl^–

Question 71.
To which metal ion, is this ion combined in the product?
Answer:
Ag+

Question 72.
To which metal ion is this nitrate ion combined now in the product.
Answer:
Na⁺

Question 73.
Are the ions interchanged here?
Answer:
Yes

Question 74.
What is double decomposition reaction?
Answer:
Double decomposition is a reaction in which two compounds when react with each other, interchange their ions to form two new compounds.
eg: 1) NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃
2) H₂SO₄+BaCl₂ → 2HCl + BaSO₄

Question 75.
Arrange the chemical reactions given below in the table under the heads combination reaction, decom¬position, displacement reactions and double decomposition.
a) 2KCl → 2K + Cl₂
b) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
c) 2Hl → H₂+l₂
d) KCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + KNO₃
e) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂
f) 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
g) Mg + H₂SO₄ → MgSO₄ + H₂
h) Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl
Answer:
a) Decomposition
b) Decomposition
c) Combination
d) Double decomposition
e) Displacement
f) Combination
g) Displacement
h) Double decomposition

Let’S Assess

Question 1.
Some chemicals are given in the box. Find out and write down the chemicals needed to prepare oxygen and hydrogen in laboratory.
Sulphuric acid, hydrochloric acid, sodium nitrate, zinc, potassium permanganate, ammonium chloride, water.
Answer:
Oxygen — Potassium permanganate
Hydrogen — Zinc, Hydrochloric acid

Question 2.
Find out to which gases are the following statements related?
a) The gas which is combustible and is formed through the electrolysis of water
b) The gas that is used for water purification.
c) The element inevitable for the growth of plants.
d) The gas formed by the thermal decomposition of KMnO.
Answer:
a) Hydrogen
b) Chlorine
c) Nitrogen
d) Oxygen

Question 3.
Certain nonmetals and their uses are given in the wrong order in the table below. Match them correctly.
Element — Uses
Hydrogen — Disinfectant
Oxygen — Refrigerant
Chlorine — Fuel
Nitrogen — Biodegradati
Answer:
Element — Uses
Hydrogen — Fuel
Oxygen — Biodegradati
Chlorine — Disinfectant
Nitrogen — Refrigerant

Question 4.
a) What are the chemicals used for the preparation of chlorine in the laboratory?
b) why is chlorine passed through sulphuric acid during its preparation?
c) how will you prepare bleaching powder?
d) Name the gas that comes out of bleaching powder in the presence of water?
Answer:
a) Potassium permanganate concentrated HCl
b) It can absorb water vapour in the chlorine gas obtained
c) Bleaching p[owder is prepared by passing dry chlorine over dry slaked lime.

Question 5.
“We should give up chemical fertilizers completely and promote the use of organic fertilizers”. Do you agree with this statement? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Yes

1. Organic fertilizers are echofriendly.
2. Preserve the inmate nature of the soil.
3. Does not create any health problem.

Question 6.
Classify the given chemical reactions in the table below.
a) Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
b) H₂ + l₂ → 2HI
c) 2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂
d) NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃
e) ZnSO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + ZnCl₂
f) Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂
g) FeSO₄ + Zn → ZnSO₄ + Fe
h) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
Answer:
a) Combination
b) Combination
c) Decomposition
d) Double decomposition
e) Double decomposition
f) Displacement
g) Displacement

Extended Activities

Question 1.
Conduct a discussion on how nitrogen cycle benefits plants and animals.
Answer:
Nitrogen cycle helps to maintain the level of nitrogen in the atmosphere stable. During lightning nitro¬gen in the atmosphere combines with oxygen and forms nitric oxide. This nitric oxide combines with oxygen again to form nitrogen dioxide Nitrogen dioxide in the presence of oxygen dissolves in rainwater and reaches earth as nitric acid. This nitric acid combines with compounds present in earth and changes them to nitrates. Plants absorb this nitrates easily. Through plant products, nitrogen reacts animals also When plants and animals decay nitrogen again reaches the atmosphere this process goes on continuously. So the amount of nitrogen is kept constant.

Question 2.
Conduct a seminar on ‘Ozone Depletion and its Solutions’
Answer;
Ozone is present mostly in the stratosphere of the atmosphere. Atmosphere oxygen dissociates on absorption of high energy ultraviolet radiation. The oxy¬gen atoms thus formed combine together to form 03 molecule.

Ozone absorbs low energy ultraviolet radiations and decomposes back to oxygen as a result of this cyclic process the level of ozone remains constant. In the atmosphere.
The energy required for this process is obtained from the ultraviolet process is obtained form the ultraviolet radiations emitted by the sun. Due to this such harmful radiations doe not reach the earth excessively.

Chloroflouro carbons are responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer. Chlorofluorocarbon released into the atmosphere reach the stratosphere and breakdown by the action of ultraviolet radiation releasing chlorine the chlorine decomposes ozone molecules into oxygen. This disturbs the equilibrium in the ozone – oxygen cyclic process. Hence the depletion of ozone in the atmosphere reduces the absorption of ultraviolet rays.

Today the use of CFC is being controlled in most of the countries. Harmful CFC are replaced nowadays with safer substances this has helped in reducing the rate of depiction of ozone layer.

Question 3.
Take 5 ml hydrogen peroxide (H202) solution in a test tube. Add a little manganese dioxide to it. Bring a burning matchstick into the test tube. What do you observe? Find reason for your observation?
Answer:
Observation: The burning matchstick flares up. Reason: In the presence of manganese dioxide, hydrogen peroxide decomposes quickly and liberates oxygen gas. The presence of oxygen flaring up of the match stick.
2H₂O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂

Non-Metals More Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Certain gases are given below Hydrogen oxygen-nitrogen chlorine, carbon dioxide
a) Which is a combustible gas?
b) Which gas support combustion?
c) Which gas has the tendency to limit combustion?
d) Which gas resist combustion?
Answer:
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbondioxide

Question 2.
Classify the following gases into molecules having single bond, double bond and triple bond
a) Nitrogen
b) Chlorine
c) oxygen
Answer:
Single bond – Chlorine
double bond – Oxygen
Triple Bond-Nitrogen

Question 3.
Which one of the following doesn’t belong to the group?
Carbohydrates, protein, polythene, Fats
Answer;
Polythene

Question 4.
The components in food materials are given below. Filling the missing ones
a) Carbohydrate – Carbon, Hydrogen, …………
b) Protein – Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen,
c) Fats – Carbon, Hydrogen,
Answer:
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Nitrogen

Question 5.
Identify the relation in the first pair and fill up the missing ones in the second pair
a) PVC: Carbon, Hydrogen, Chlorine
…………..: Carbon, Hydrogen
b) Aqueous solution of CO2: H2CO3
Aqueous solution of SO2:
c) Na₂CO₃.10.H₂O : Washing soda
NaHCO₃ :…….
Answer;
a) Polythene
b) H2SO3
c) Baking soda

Question 6.
Certain gases are given in column A. Chemicals required to produce the gases are given in column B. Match them suitably.

Answer:

You can Download Identities Questions and Answers, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Identities

Identities Text Book Questions and Answers

Textbook Page No. 68

Identities Class 8 State Syllabus Question 1.
Write numbers as shown below.

(i) Mark a square of four numbers as shown in the calendar then find the difference by multiplying angle to angle. Is the difference same when 4 numbers from any of the square is taken?
(ii) Explain the reason by using algebra.
(iii) Instead of 4 numbers, take a square of nine numbers and mark the numbers from 4 corners.

Solution:
(i)

6, 7
6 × 2 – 1 × 7
= 12 – 7 = 55 When 4 numbers of any square is taken we get the same difference.

(ii) If first number is x when we consider any of the square,

we get in this form (x + 5) (x + 1) – x (x + 6)
(x² + 6x + 5) – (x² + 6x)
= x² + 6x + 5 – x² – 6x = 5
so any square is taken the difference is 5

(iii)

Difference = 18 × 10 – 8 × 20 = 180 – 160 = 20
We can represent the numbers at the 4 corners from the square of nine numbers in the method of algebra as follows.

Difference is
(x + 10) (x + 2) – x (x + 12)
(x² + 12x + 20) – (x² + 12x)
(x² + 12x + 20 – x² – 12 x) = 20
so, when any difference is taken we can find that the answer is 20.

Class 8 Maths Chapter 4 Identities Question 2.
Instead of 4 numbers take the square of nine numbers as shown in the previous table and mark the numbers at the four corners.

(i) Find the difference of angle to angle sum?
(ii) Explain with the help of algebra, why we get the same difference in all such squares?
(iii) Explain the case of the square of 16 numbers?
Solution:
(i) (6 + 20) – (12 + 10)
= 26 – 22
= 4

(ii) If we write the square of 9 numbers in the algebraic method

Difference of angle to angle sum
[yx + (y + 2)(x + 2)] – [y(x + 2) + (y + 2)x]
[(yx + yx + 2x + 2y + 4) – ( yx + 2y + xy + 2x)] = 4

(iii) If we take the square of 16 numbers.
We get the form as

The difference of the angle to angle sum is ,
[yx + (y + 3)(x + 3)] – [y(x + 3) + (y + 3)x]
[yx + yx + 3x + 3y + 9] – [yx + 3y + yx + 3x] = 9

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Identities Question 3.
Observe the following operations
1 × 4 = (2 × 3) – 2
2 × 5 = (3 × 4) – 2
3 × 6 = (4 × 5) – 2
4 × 7 = (5 × 6) – 2
(i) Write next operations of two rows in the same order.
(ii) Among the 4 nearest natural numbers. Find the relation- ship between the product of first and last and those in the middle.
(iii) Write the principle in algebraic expression and explain the reason
Solution:
(i) 5 × 8 = (6 × 7) – 2
6 × 9 = (7 × 8) – 2
(ii) The product of first and last numbers = 2 subtracted from the product of two middle numbers.
(iii) The numbers are n, n+1, n+2, (n+3)
n (n+3) = n² + 3n
(n + 1) (n + 2) = n² + 3n + 2
difference = 2

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Notes Question 4.
The method to find the product of 46 × 28 is shown below.

(i) Observe the method in 2 two digit numbers.
(ii) Two digit numbers are expressed in the algebraic form, 10 m + n
Solution:
(i) 57 × 24

(ii) If ab, cd are the numbers
ab × cd
(10a + b) (10c + d)
10a × 10c + 10a × d + 10c × b + b × d
100 × ac + 10 (ad + cb) + bd

Textbook Page No. 71

8th Class Maths Identities Question 1.
Find the squares of the given numbers by using simple calculations.
(i) 52
(ii) 105
(iii) 20\(\frac{1}{2}\)
(iv) 10.2
Solution:
(i) 52² = (50 + 2)²
= 50² + 2 × 50 × 2 + 2²
= 2500 + 200 + 4
= 2704

(ii) 105² = (100 + 5)²
= 100² + 2 × 100 × 5 + 5²
=10000 + 1000 + 25
= 11025

(iii) (20 \(\frac{1}{2}\))² =(20 + \(\frac{1}{2}\))²
= 20² + 2 × 20 ×\(\frac{1}{2}\) + (\(\frac{1}{2}\))²
= 400 + 20 +\(\frac{1}{4}\)
= 420\(\frac{1}{4}\)

(iv) (10.2)² = (10 + 0.2)²
= 10² + 2 × 10 × 0.2 + (0.2)²
= 100 + 4 + 0.04
= 104.04

Textbook Page No. 74

Hsslive Guru 8th Class Maths Question 1.
Is there any common method to find the squares of numbers like 1\(\frac{1}{2}\), 2\(\frac{1}{2}\), 3\(\frac{1}{2}\) etc. Explain with the help of algebra?
Solution:

We can adopt an easy method to find out the square of numbers like 1\(\frac{1}{2}\), 2 \(\frac{1}{2}\), 3\(\frac{1}{2}\) as
(n + \(\frac{1}{2}\))² = n² + n + \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Eg: (10 \(\frac{1}{2}\))² = 10² + 10 + \(\frac{1}{4}\)
= 100 + 10 + \(\frac{1}{4}\)
= 110\(\frac{1}{4}\)

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Notes Maths Question 2.
The method to find 37² is shown below

(i) Use this method to find the square of other 2 digit numbers.
(ii) Explain algebraic method to get correct answer in this method.
(iii) Find an easy method to find the square of numbers end in 5
Solution:
(i) Square of 23

(ii) Number = xy
10x + y
(10x + y)²
= (10x)² + 2 × 10x × y + y²
= 100x² + 10 (2 xy) + y²
= x² x 100 + 2 x y × 10 + y²
= 100x² + 20xy + y²

(iii) 10 (x + 5)²
= 10²x² + 2 × 10x × 5 + 5²
= 100 x² + 100 x + 25
= 100 (x² + x) + 25
Eg:
15² = 100 (1² + 1) + 25
= 200 + 25= 225
25² = 100 (22 + 2) + 25
= 600 + 25 = 625
35² = 100 (3² + 3) + 25
= 1200 + 25 = 1225
Multiply the sum of first number and its square with 100 and add 25.

Hss Live Guru Class 8 Maths Question 3.
Observe the following expressions.
12 + (4 × 2) = 3²
22 + (4 × 3) = 4²
32 + (4 × 4) = 5²
(i) Write two more expressions we get
(ii) What is the common principles from this? Explain on the basis of algebra
Solution:
(i) 4² + (4 × 5) = 6²
5² + (4 × 6) = T
(ii) n² + 4(n + 1) = (n + 2)²
n² + 4n + 4 = (n + 2)²

8th Standard Maths Guide Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Explain on the basis of algebra that any natural number which is not a multiple of 3 when divided by 3, we get the remainder as 1.
Solution:
We can write the natural numbers which are not the multiple of 3 as.
3n + 1, 3 n + 2
(3n + 1)² = (3n)² + 6n + 1
= 9n² + 6n + 1
= 3 (3n² + 2n) + 1
When divided by 3, remainder is 1
(3n + 2)² = 9n² + 6n + 4
= 9n² + 6n + 3 + 1
= 3 (3n² + 2n + 1) + 1
When divided by 3, remainder is 1

8th Standard State Syllabus Maths Solutions Question 5.
Prove that, the squares of numbers which end in 3 end in 9.
Solution:
We can write the numbers end in 3 as
10x + 3 is (10x + 3)²
=(10x)² + 6ox + 9; So it ends in 9.

Textbook Page No. 79

8th Maths Solutions State Syllabus Question 1.
Find the squares of the numbers given below.
(i) 49
(ii) 98
(iii) 7 \(\frac{3}{4}\)
(iv) 9.25
Solution:
(i) 49² = (50 – 1)²
= 50² – 2 × 50 × 1 + 1
= 2500 – 100 + 1
= 2401

(ii) 98² = (100 – 2)²
= 100² – 2 × 100 × 2 + 2²
= 10000 – 400 + 4
= 9604

(iii) (7 \(\frac{3}{4}\))² = (8 – \(\frac{1}{4}\))²
= 8² – 2 × 8 × \(\frac{1}{4}\) + (\(\frac{1}{4}\))²
= 64 – 4 + \(\frac{1}{16}\)
= 60\(\frac{1}{16}\)

(iv) 9.25 ²
= (10 -.75)²
= 10² – 2 × 10 × .75 + (.75)²
= 100 – 15 + 0.5625
= 85. 5625

8th Standard Maths 4th Chapter Question 2.
Observe the following

Explain the common principle in these using algebra?
Solution:
(x – \(\frac{1}{2}\))² + (x + \(\frac{1}{2}\))²
x² – x + \(\frac{1}{4}\) + x² + x + \(\frac{1}{4}\)
2x² + \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 3.
Some of the natural numbers can be written as the difference of two squares as.
24² = 7² – 5² = 5² – 1²
3² = 9² – 7² = 6² – 2²
40 = 11² – 9² = 7² – 3²
(i) Explain the method to write the multiples of 8 from 24 onwards in this method on the basis of algebra.
(ii) In how many methods the multiples of 16 from 48 onwards to write the difference of perfect squares?
Solution:
(i) 4xy = (x + y)² – (x – y)²
24 = 4 × 6 × 1 = ( 6 + 1)² – (6 – 1)²
= 7² – 5²
24 = 4 × 3 × 2 = (3 + 2)² – (3 – 2)²
= 5² – 1²
The multiples of 8 from 24 onwards can be written in two forms as 4 × x × y
Number = 4 × y = (r + y)² – (r – y)²
Number = 4 ab = (a + b)² – (a – b)²
32 = 4 × 8 × 1
= (8 + 1)² – (8 – 1)²
= 9² – 7²
32 = 4 × 4 × 2
= (4 + 2)² – (4 – 2)²
= 6² – 2²
40 = 4 × 10 × 1
= (10 + 1)² – (10 – 1)² = 11² – 9²
40 = 4 × 5 × 2
= (5 + 2)² – (5 – 2 )² = 7² – 3²

(ii) 48 = 4 × 4 × 3, 4 × 12 × 1, 4 × 6 × 2
There are the different ways of writing 48. So it can be written in 3 different methods as the difference of perfect squares.
48 = 4 × 4 × 3
= (4 + 3)² – (4 – 3)² = 7² – 1²
48 = 4 × 12 × 1
= (12 + 1)² – (12 – 1 )² = 13² – 11²
48 = 4 × 6 × 2
= (6 + 2)² – (6 – 2)² = 8² – 4²

Textbook Page No. 81

Maths Notes For Class 8 State Syllabus Question 1.
Calculate the answers of the following questions by using mental calculations.
(i) (a) 68² – 3²
(b) (31\(\frac{1}{2}\))² – (2\(\frac{1}{2}\))²
(c) 3.6² – 1.4²
(ii) (a) 201 × 99
(b) 2 \(\frac{1}{3}\) × 1\(\frac{2}{3}\)
(c) 10.7 × 9.3
Solution:

(c) 10.7 × 9.3
= (10 + 0.7) (10 – 0.7)
= 10² – 0.7²
= 100 – 0.49
= 99.51

8th Standard Maths Identities Question 2.
Observe the following expressions.

Explain the common method in these using algebra.
Solution:
n² – (n – 1)²
= n² – (n² – 2n+ 1)
= n² – n² + 2n – 1
= 2n – 1
n² – (n – 1)² = 2n – 1

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Maths Guide Question 3.
Find, where we get big number among the following pairs without multiplying them?
(i) 25 × 75, 26 × 74
(ii) 76 × 24 . 74 × 26
(iii) 10.6 × 9.6
(iv) 10.4 × 9.6
Solution:
(i) 26 × 74
(ii) 74 × 26
(iii) 10.6 × 9.6
Indications
25 × 75 = (50 – 25) (50 + 25)
= 50² – 25²
26 × 74 = (50 – 24) (50 + 24)
= 50² – 24²

Class 8 Maths State Syllabus Question 4.
Find the difference in the given questions.
(i) (125 × 75) – (126 × 74)
(ii) (124 × 76) – (126 × 74)
(iii) (224 × 176) – (226 × 174)
(iv) (10.3 × 9.7) – (10.7 × 9.3)
(v) (11.3 × 10.7) – (11.7 × 11.3)
Solution:
(i) (125 × 75) – (126 × 74)
(100 + 25) (100 – 25) – (100 + 26) (100 – 26)
(100² – 25²) – (100² – 26²)
= 26² – 25²
= (26 + 25) (26 – 25)
= 51

(ii) (124 × 76) – (126 × 74)
(100 + 24) (100 – 24) – (100 + 26) (100 – 26)
(100² – 24²) – (100² – 26)²
= 26² – 24²
= (26 + 24) (26 – 24)
= 50 × 2
= 100

(iii) (224 × 176) – (226 × 174)
(200 + 24) (200 – 24) – (200 + 26) (200 – 26)
(200² – 24²) – (200² – 26²)
= 26² – 24²
= (26 + 24) (26 – 24)
= 50 × 2
= 100

(iv) (10.3 × 9.7) – (10.7 × 9.3)
(10 + 0.3) (10 – 0.3) – (10 + 0.7) (10 – 0.7)
(10² – 0.3²) – (10² – 0.7²)
= 0.7² – 0.3²
= (0.7 + 0.3) (0.7 – 0.3)
= 1 × .4 = .4

(v) (11.3 × 10.7) – (11.7 × 11.3)
(11 + 0.3) (11 – 0.3) – (11 + 0.7) (11 – 0.7)
(11² – 0.3²) – (11² – 0.7²)
= 0.7² – 0.3²
= (0.7 + 0.3) (0.7 – 0.3)
= 1 × 0.4 = 0.4

Textbook Page No. 85

State Syllabus 8th Class Maths Question 1.
4 numbers in a square is marked on the calendar.

Add the squares of number pairs in angle to angle. Find out the difference of these sums?
4² + 12² = 160
11² + 5² = 146
160 – 146 = 14
(i) In the same was mark other 4 numbers and work out the questions.
(ii) Explain the reason on the basis of algebra that in all the squares we get the difference 14.
Solution:
(i)

5² + 13² = 25 + 169 = 194
12² + 6² = 144 + 36 = 180
194 – 180 = 14

(ii) Let the first number in the square is x

[x² + (x + 8)²] – [(x + 7)² + (x + 1)²]
[x² + x² + 16x + 64] – [x² + 14x + 49 + x² + 2x + 1]
= 14

Question 2.
Take nine numbers forming a sq¬uare in a calendar and mark the four numbers at the corners.

Add the squares of diagonal pai¬rs and find the difference of the sums.
3² + 19² = 370
17² + 5² = 314
370 – 314 = 56
(i) Do this for other such nine numbers.
(ii) Explain using algebra, why the difference is always 56. (it is convenient to take the number at the centre of the square as x – see the section
Solution:

(ii) If we represent a square with 9 nu-mbers
[(x – 8)² +(x + 8)²] – [(x + 6)² + (x – 6)²]
[x² + 8² + x² + 8²] – [x² + 6² + x² + 6²]
(8² + 8²) – (6² + 6²) = 128 – 72 = 56

Question 3.
Take a square of nine numbers in the calendar and make the 4 numbers in the 4 corners.

Multiply the angle to angle number pairs. Find the difference of the products.
3 × 19 = 57
17 × 5 = 85
85 – 57 = 28
(i) Take a square of nine numbers and follow the same method as above.
(ii) Explain the reason why we get the difference in the^squares as 28 on the basis of algebra.
Solution:
(i)

18 × 6 – 4 × 20
108 – 80 = 28

(ii)

(x + 6) (x – 6) – (x – 8) (x + 8)
(x² – 6²) – (x² + 8²)
= x² – 6² – x² – 8²
= 8² – 6²
= (8 + 6) (8 – 6)
= 14 × 2 = 28

Identities Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.

(a) Take a square of 4 numbers and multiply angle to angle and find the difference. Is the difference the same when 4 numbers are taken from the comers in any square?
(b) Explain the reason by using the principle of algebra.
(c) Take a square of 9 numbers multiply angle to angle and find the difference. Explain on the basis of algebra.
Solution:
(a)

17 × 12 – 11 × 18 = 204 – 198 = 6 We get the same difference.

(b) Take the square with the numbers as follows.

(n + 6) ( n + 1) – n (n + 7)
(n² + 7) (n + 6) – (n² + 7n)
= 6

(c)

(n + 5) (n – 5) – (n – 7) (n + 7)
(n² – 5²) (n² – 7²)
= 7² – 5²
= 49 – 25 = 24

Question 2.
Find the square of 10.01
Solution:
10.01² = (10 + 0.01)²
= 10² + 2 × 10 × 0.01 + 0.01²
= 100 + 0.2 + 0.0001 = 100.2001

Question 3.
Find the square of 99. 99
Solution:
99.99² = (100 – 0.01)²
= 100² – 2 × 100 × 0.01 + 0.01²
= 10000 – 2 + 0.0001 = 9998.0001

Question 4.
Find out the difference in the following question.
1. (18 × 12) – (20 × 10)
2. (131 × 19) – (135 × 17)
3. (222 × 78) – (224 × 76)
4. (12.4 × 2.6) – (12. 6 × 2.4)
Solution:
Use the same method of the 4th question in page 83 of the text book.

You can Download Breathing for Energy Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Part 1 Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 4 Breathing for Energy

Breathing for Energy Textual Questions and Answers

……… is essential for releasing energy from nutrients.
Answer:
Oxygen

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 4 Question 2.
Oxygen from the atmospheric air is taken into the body through the ………. system.
Answer:
Respiratory

Breathing For Energy Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
List of important parts of the respiratory system in humans?
Answer:
Nostril, Nasal Cavity, Trachea, Bronchus, Bronchiole, Alveolus, Pleura, and Diaphragm

Breathing For Energy Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
……….. is the pathway which extends from the external nostrils to the internal alveoli.
Answer:
The respiratory tract

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 4 English Medium Question 5.
An opening through which air passes in and out of the body is called
Answer:
Nostril

Class 9 Biology Chapter 4 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
……….. connects nostrils with the pharynx
Answer:
Nasal cavity

Class 9 Biology Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
State whether true or false
There are no cartilaginous rings in the bronchioles
Answer:
True

Biology 9th Class Chapter 4 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Which part of respiratory system takes place in the exchange of gases?
Answer:
Alveoli

9th Class Biology Notes Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
……… is the double-layered protective membrane of the lungs.
Answer:
Pleura

9th Class Biology Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
What is the function of pleura?
Answer:
Pleural fluid seen in between the membraneous layers prevents friction between lungs and walls of the thoracic cavity. ‘

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Question 11.
Complete the word relation
Bronchus: cartilaginous rings
………..: no cartilaginous rings
Answer:
Bronchiole

Class 9 Biology Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
……… is a long tube strengthened by ‘C’ shaped cartilaginous rings
Answer:
Trachea

Biology Class 9 Chapter 4 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
Which is the muscular wall that separates thoracic and abdominal cavities?
Answer:
Diaphragm

Class 9 Biology Notes Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
Prepare a table of parts and functions of the respiratory system.
Answer:

9th Biology Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Complete the flow chart of the pathway of atmospheric air from the nostrils to the alveoli
Answer:
Nostrils → Nasal cavity → Trachea → Bronchus Bronchiole → Alveoli

Atmospheric Air In To Lungs

9th Class Biology Chapter 4 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
What helps in variation in volume of the thoracic cavity?
Answer:
The combined working of intercostal muscles and the diaphragm help in increasing and decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity.

9 Class Biology Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
In humans, tidal volume is about …….. ml
Answer:
500ml

Biology Class 9 Chapter 4 Kerala Syllabus Question 18.
Complete the table given below

Answer:

Biology Chapter 4 Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 19.
What is the surface area of the skin that covers the entire body?
Answer:
2 sq. mtrs

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Malayalam Medium Chapter 4 Question 20.
Surface area of both the lungs together turn up to be at least…. sq. mtrs.
Answer:
70

Exchange Of Gases In The Alveoli

Biology Chapter 4 Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 21.
How far is the structure of alveoli suitable for the exchange of respiratory gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide?
Answer:
Alveoli increase the respiratory surface area in lungs. The large surface area help in the easy exchange of respiratory gases.

Class 9 Chapter 4 Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 22.
Explain the exchange of gases in alveoli?
Answer:
Alveoli increase the respiratory surface area in lungs. This large surface area help in the easy exchange of respiratory gases. Alveoli are surrounded by numerous capillaries. The inner wall of the alveoli is always kept moist. During inspiration, the concentration of oxygen inside the alveoli is higher than that of blood capillaries whereas the concentration of carbon dioxide in blood capillaries is higher than that of alveoli. As a result oxygen from the alveoli diffuses to the capillaries and carbon dioxide from capillaries diffuses to the alveoli

Biology Class 9 Chapter 4 Question Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 23.
The average amount of hemoglobin in a healthy man is
Answer:
15gm/100 ml blood

Chapter 4 Biology Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 24.
15gm/100 ml blood : Haemoglobin: man
……… : Haemoglobin: Woman
Answer:
13 gm/100ml blood

Chapter 4 Biology Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 25.
Complete the flow chart given below

Answer:

Question 26.
What is the compound formed by the combination of oxygen and hemoglobin?
Answer:
Oxyhaemoglobin

Question 27.
……….. is caused when the amount of hemoglobin in the blood decreases.
Answer:
Anemia

To Release Energy

Question 28.
What do you mean by cellular respiration?
Answer:
The process by which energy is released from glucose in cells is called cellular respiration.

Question 29.
Energy is released mainly from
Answer:
Glucose

Question 30.
Name the first phase in cellular respiration
Answer:
Glycolysis

Question 31.
Glycolysis: Cytoplasm
………: Mitochondria
Answer:
Krebs’’ cycle

Question 32.
Complete the table

Answer:

Question 33.
“Food containing iron should be taken included in diet,” said Sabari. Do you agree with this opinion? Why?
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this opinion because iron molecules
are essential for the synthesis of hemoglobin

Question 34.
Complete the worksheet of cellular respiration?

Answer:

Question 35.
Find the relation between respiration and photosynthesis and complete the table.

Answer:

1. Food production, energy released from glucose
2. Dark reaction and light reaction, Glycolysis and Krebs’ cycle
3. CO2 + water, Glucose + Oxygen
4. Glucose + Oxygen, CO2 + water + 30 ATP

Expulsion Of Carbon Dioxide

Question 36.
Water is eliminated from the body in the form of…. & …..
Answer:
Sweat and urine

Question 37.
What are the major byproducts of respiration?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide and water

Question 38.
The …… & ………. changes back to carbon dioxide in the lungs.
Answer:
Carbamino hemoglobin and bicarbonate.

When Carbon Dioxide Becomes Excessive

Question 39.
What is Homeostasis?
Answer:
Maintenance of internal equilibrium by removal of harmful materials is called homeostasis.

Question 40.
How does increased amount of carbon dioxide affect the internal environment of our body?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide formed by the cellular respiration combines with water present in and out of the cell to form carbonic acid and this increases the activity in the body, which in turn changes the internal environment.

Question 41.
What is the role of the respiratory system in maintaining homeostasis?
Answer:
The respiratory system helps in the maintenance of homeostasis by eliminating carbon dioxide.

Respiration Without Oxygen

Question 42.
Prepare a flow chart relating to Anaerobic respiration
Answer:

Question 43.
Name some microorganisms live without oxygen?
Answer:
Bacteria, yeast, etc.

Question 44.
What is fermentation?
Answer:
Fermentation is the process of the production of lactic acid or alcohol from glucose by anaerobic respiration.

Question 45.
Merits of Anaerobic respiration – prepare a flow chart
Yeast  Fermenting batter to soften it
↑
Anaerobic
respiration
↓
Lactobacillus bacteria  Curding milk

Question 46.
Describe a circumstance anaerobic respiration takes place in human beings
Answer:
During straneow exercise, energy utilization in muscles increases and the oxygen availability decreases. In such situations muscle cells produce energy by anaerobic
respiration and lactic acid is formed in the muscle cells.

Question 47.
How does butter become soft and puffy?
Answer:
Fermentation helps the batter rise, become lighter and increase in volume making it double in size, thicker and fluffier.

Do Not Damage The Respiratory System

Question 48.
………. is an army in the lungs?
Answer:
Macrophages

Question 49.
……… is the specialized cells seen in the alveoli that engulf dust particles and germs.
Answer:
Macrophages

Question 50.
What are the instances that are harmful to lungs?
Answer:
Dust, germs, chemicals, etc. which are contained in the air we breathe in.

Question 51.
Find out the protective mechanism of the respiratory system? Explain.
Answer:
Nose, nasal cavity:

• Small hairs prevent dust and germs from entering the lungs.
• Dust particles and germs get entangled in the mucus secreted by the mucous membrane.
• Lysozyme present in the mucous destroys germs.
• Ciliary cells transport mucus that contains dust and germs to the pharynx and from there to the digestive tract.

Trachea:

• The germs and dust particles get entangled in the mucus secreted by the mucous cells(Goblet cells) and mucus glands seen throughout the tracheal wall.
• The cilia of ciliary cells in the tracheal wall move the mucus containing dust and germs to pharynx.

Alveoli:

• Macrophages, the specialized cells seen in the alveoli, engulf dust particles and germs.

Question 52.
‘Smoking is injurious to health’ Rekha reminded Rajeev. Do you agree with Rekha? Justify your answer.
Answer:
I agree with Rekha’s statement. Smoking is a bad habit that harmfully affects the human race. It not only affects the person who smokes but also affects the nearby persons who breathe the smoke. Carcinogens present in tobacco cause lung cancer. Alveoli rupture due to the loss of elasticity by the deposition of toxic substances contained in tobacco. This reduces the respiratory surface and reduces vital capacity. This stage is emphysema. The tar, carbon monoxide, etc. in tobacco leads to the deposition of mucus and the swelling of lungs due to the proliferation of germs in the alveoli. This stage is known as bronchitis.

Question 53.
Prepare a poster relating to anti-smoking
Answer:

Vital Capacity

Question 54.
What do you mean by Tidal volume?
Answer:
Tidal volume is the volume of air we breathe in and out during a normal breathing.

Question 55.
What is vital capacity?
Answer:
Vital capacity is the volume of air that can be breathed out by forceful expiration after maximum or forceful inspiration. ,

Question 56.
What can be taken as an indicator of normal and healthy respiratory capacity?
Answer:
Vital capacity

Question 57.
What is the vital capacity of men?
Answer:
It is about 4.5 liters

Question 58.
What is the vital capacity of women?
Answer:
about 3 liters

Respiration In Other Organism

Question 59.
Collect data on respiratory diversity in organisms and complete the table.
Answer:

Do Plants Breathe

Question 60.
State whether true or false.
Plants also utilize glucose for the production of energy.
Answer:
True

Question 61.
The oxygen needed for the oxidation of glucose is absorbed from ………….
Answer:
Atmospheric air

Question 62.
………. are the centers of exchange of gases in plants.
Answer:
Stomata

Question 63.
Exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen takes place in stems and roots through ………….
Answer:
Lenticels

Question 64.
Prepare a poster for environment day observation.
Answer:
Plant trees
Plant generations

Let Us Assess

Question 65.
Reason for the diffusion of oxygen from alveoli to blood.
a) Low concentration of oxygen in blood.
b) As the walls of the alveoli and blood vessels are thin.
c) High concentration of oxygen in alveoli.
d) All of the above,
Answer:
d) All of the above.

Question 66.
Observe the two reactions given below
Reaction 1:
C₂H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + energy Reaction

a) Identify the process occurring in plants and in animals.
b) Which is the process that takes place only in plants?
Answer:
a) C₂H₁₂O₂ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + energy

You can Download Structure of Atom Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Chapter 1 Structure of Atom

Structure of Atom Textual Questions and Answers

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Chapter 1 Question 1.
Explain the postulates of Rutherford model of atom?
Answer:

• An atom has a center called nucleus
• Compared to the size of an atom the size of the nucleus is very smell
• All the positively charged particles and most of the mass are concentrated in the nucleus of atoms.
• Negatively charged electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular path.
• This atom model is known as planetary model of atom because sun at the center is compared to the nucleus planets revolving around the sun is compared to electrons.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Notes Question 2.
Explain the limitations of Rutherford’s model of atom?
Answer:
According to James Clerk Maxwell’s electromagnetic theory, a charged body in circular motion continuously emits energy as radiations. Electrons which revolve around the nucleus are negatively charged. Hence while electrons revolve around the nucleus, they should emit electromagnetic radiations lose energy and come closer to the nucleus Finally the negatively charged electrons should collapse into the nucleus. But this does not happen in an atom. It Rutherford’s model failed to explain this.

9th Chemistry Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Explain Bohr model of atoms?
Answer:

• Electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed paths called orbit or shells.
• Electrons in each shell have a definite energy hence shells are also called energy levels.
• As long as an electron revolves in a particular orbit its energy remains constant.
• The energy of the shell increases as the distance form the nucleus increases
• The shells.around the nucleus can be numbered from near the nucleus 1,2, 3,4…. or represented by the letters K, L, M, N

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Guide Pdf Question 4.
Explain the discovery of chargeless particles too- within an atom?
Answer:
The actual mass of an atom should be equal to the sum of the mass of particles present in it. Scientists realized the fact that there is no relation between the total mass of particle, ie., electrons, and protons in an atom and the actual mass of an atom.

From this, it can be inferred that nucleus may contain neutral particles having mass equal to that of protons predicted by Rutherford. In 1932 James Chad Wick-confirmed the presence of neutral particles within the nucleus of an atom. These particles are called neutrons. The mass of neutron is determined slightly higher than that of protons.

Fundamental particles of an atom

Answer:

Mass Number and Atomic Number

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Notes Chemistry Question 5.
Which are the fundamental particles whose masses are mainly responsible for the mass of an atom?
Answer:
Protons and neutrons

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Solutions Question 6.
Is there any relation between the total number of protons and neutrons in an atom and its mass?
Answer:
Same

Chemistry Notes Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Define mass n u m ber of an atom?
Answer:
The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom is called the mass number it is represented by the Letter ‘A’.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Notes Pdf Question 8.
Which is the particle of an atom- that has the possibility of changing of position, which can be exchanged when atoms rub against each other collide or chemically react with other atoms?
Answer:
Electrons

9th Class Chemistry Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Atoms are electrically Neutral” Justify it?
Answer:
The number of protons and electrons are equal in an atom.

Chemistry 9th Class Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Define atomic number of an element?
Answer:
The total number of protons in an atom is called atomic number it is represented as Z.

Chemistry Notes For Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
Which are the particles whose numbers you can find out if you know the atomic number of an atom?
Answer:
No. of protons and electrons

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Chemistry Notes English Medium Question 12.
Why?
Answer:
Because the number of protons and electrons in an atom are equal.

Hsslive Guru Chemistry Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
How to write the mass number and atomic number of an element if the symbols are known?
Answer:
Mass number on the left side above the symbol and atomic number on the left side below the symbol.
Eg. Sodium atom can be represented as \(\begin{array}{l}{23 \mathrm{Na}} \\ {\text { 11 }}\end{array}\)

Question 14.
Symbol of certain atoms are given in the table complete the table

Answer:

Electronic Configuration in Atom

Question 15.
Analyze the electronic configuration of atoms of element 1 – 18 in the following table:

Question 16.
What is maximum electrons that can be accommodated in K shell?
Answer:
2

Question 17.
What is maximum electrons in that can be accommodated in L shell?
Answer:
8

Rules for filling electrons in shells
1. The maximum electrons that can be accommodated in any given shell can be calculated by the equation 2n² where ‘n’ represents the number of shells.

2. Shells with lower energy will be filled with maximum number of electrons first. Thereafter shells having higher energy will get filled.
3. The maximum number of electrons that can be contained the outermost shell of an atom is 8.

Question 19.
Write down the electron configuration of the following elements Draw its Bohr model.

Answer:
1. \(\frac{14}{7} \mathrm{N}\) Atomic No.: -7
Electron configuration – 2, 5

2. \(\frac{24}{12} \mathrm{Mg}\) Atomic No.: 12
Electron configuration – 2, 8,2

3. \(\frac{32}{16} \mathrm{S}\) Atomic No.: -16
Electron configuration – 2, 8,6

Question 20.
Bohr model of atoms of certain elements are given below (Fig 1.9) asess their electronic configuration.

Question 21.
The symbol of the aluminum atom is \(\frac{27}{13} \mathrm{AI}\) Bohr model of the atom is given in Fig. 1.10 analyze these and complete the table

Answer:

Isotopes

Question 22.
You would have understood that the number of protons in an atom determines the element. Analyze the given Bohr models.

Question 23.
Complete the table providing details related to these atoms.

Answer:

Question 24.
Among these atoms which is the particle that is differs in numbers?
Answer:
Neutrons

Question 25.
Which inferences can you arrive at when you examine the atomic number and mass number of these elements?
Answer:
They are atoms of the same element with same atomic number. But different mass numbers.

Question 26.
What is meant by Isotopes?
Answer:
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with same atomic number but different mass number.

Question 27.
Which isotope of Hydrogen is used in atomic reactors?
Answer:
Deuterium

Question 28.
Write the isotopes of carbon?
Answer:

Question 29.
Which are the isotopes is used as tracers for identifying the nutrient exchange in plant?
Answer:
Phosphorous-31

Question 30.
Which isotope of Uranium is used in atomic reac¬tors as fuel?
Answer:
Uranium – 235

Question 31.
What is meant by isobar?
Answer:
Isobars are atoms having the same mass number but different atomic number
e.g. \(_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca}, \quad_{18}^{40} \mathrm{Ar}\)

Question 32.
Symbols of certain isotopes are given in table 1.9. Complete the table writing their atomic number, mass number, number of protons, electrons and neutrons.

Answer:

Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Name of some scientists and their contributions are given in in the following table. Match them suitably in the chronological order.

Answer:

Question 2.
Atomic number of an atom Z=17, Mass number 35.
a) Find the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in the atom.
b) Write the electronic configuration of different shells.
c) Draw the Bohr model of atom.
Answer:
a) No. of protons -17
No. of electrons -17 No. of neutrons = 35 – 17 =18
b) 2, 8, 7

Question 3.
The mass number of an atom is 31. The M shell of this atom contains 5 electrons.
a) Write the electronic configuration.
b) What is the atomic number of this atom?
c) How many neutrons does this atom have?
d) Draw the Bohr model of the atom.
Answer:
a) 2, 8, 5
b) 15
c) 31 – 15 = 16

Question 4.
Bohr models of atoms A, B, C, D are given (Symbols are not real).
a) Write the atomic number, mass number and electronic configuration of the atoms.
b) Among these, which are isotopes? Why?



Answer:

Question 5.
Symbols (not real symbols) of some atoms are given.
\(_{17}^{8} \mathrm{P}, \quad_{40}^{18} \mathrm{Q}\)\(_{8}^{16} \mathrm{P}, \quad_{40}^{20} \mathrm{R}\)
a) Find the atomic number and mass number of these elements.
b) Which among these are isotopic pairs?
c) Draw the Bohr model of atom Q
Answer:
a)
b) Isotopes P, R

Structure of Atom Model Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the atomic number of an atom is 18 and mass number is 40
a) Find the number of protons, electrons, and neutrons in the atom.
b) Write the electronic configuration of different shells
c) Draw the Bohr model of the atom
Answer:
a) No. of protons -18
No. of electrons -18
No. of neutrons – 40 – 18 = 22
b) 2, 8, 8

Question 2.
The 3^rd shell ie. M shell of an atom contains 3 electrons. The mass number is 27.
a) Write the atomic number of this atom.
b) Write the electronic configuration.
c) How many electrons, neutrons does this atoms have?
d) Draw the Bohr model of atom?
Answer:
a) 13
b) 2, 8, 3
c) No. of protons -13 No. of electrons -13
No. of neutrons – 27 – 13 = 14

Question 3.
Write the uses of the following isotope
a) Carbon – 14
b) Phosphorous – 31
c) Iodine – 131 and cobalt 60
d) Uranium – 235
Answer:
Isotope Uses
a) Carbon-14 — Used to determine the age of fossils and prehistoric objects
b) Phosphorous-31 — Used as tracers for identifying the nutrient exchange in plants
c) Iodine -131 or cobalt – 60 — In medical sciences for the diagnosis and treatment of cancer and tumor
d) Uranium – 235 — Used in atomic reactor as fuel

Question 4.
Write the electronic configuration and draw the Bohr model?
Answer:
1) \(_{35}^{17} \mathrm{CI}\)
Electron configuration : 2, 8, 7
No. of neutrons = 35 – 17 = 18

2) \(_{23}^{11} \mathrm{Na}\)
No. of neutrons = 23 – 11 = 12
Electron configuration -2,8,1

Question 5.
\(\frac{12}{6} \mathrm{C}, \frac{14}{6} \mathrm{C}\)
Find the isotopes and isobars pairs among them. Justify it?
Answer:
\(\frac{40}{18} \mathrm{Ar}, \frac{40}{20} \mathrm{Ca}\) are Isotopes. Because they are atoms of the same element with same atomic number but different mass numbers.
1840Ar, 2040Ca are Isobars because they are atoms of different elements with different atomic numbers but same mass number.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 5 Questions Soldiers of Defense English Medium

Question 1.
The vitamin that helps in blood clotting
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin K
Answer:
d. Vitamin K

Question 2.
The normal temperature of human body
a. 36° C
b. 37° C
c. 38° C
d. 39° C
Answer:
b. 37° C

Question 3.
The white blood cell that stimulates other white blood cells
a. Neutrophil
b. Basophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Monocyte
Answer:
b. Basophil

Question 4.
The equipment used to record the electric waves in brain.
a. EEG
b. ECG
c. CT Scan
d. BCG
Answer:
a. EEG

Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship between the first pair.
a. To get the three-dimensional visuals of internal organs: MR scanner
To record the electric waves in heart muscle: ………………….
b. Vaccine: Edward Jenner
Antibiotic: ………………….
c. Cardiology: Treatment of heart
Ophthalmology: ………………….
Answer:
a. Electrocardiogram
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Treatment of eye.

Question 6.
Find the odd one out and note down the common features of others.
a. Inflammatory response, Phagocytosis, Fever, Production of antibodies
b. Allopathy, Ayurveda, Antibiotics, Unani
c. Sphygmomanometer, Electrocardiogram, E.N.T, E.E.G
Answer:
a. Production of antibodies. The others are nonspecific defense.
b. Antibiotics. The others are various treatment methods.
c. E.N.T. The others are modem diagnostic tools.

Question 7.
A person felt reduced level of vitamin in his body who takes some medicines for fever without consulting a doctor.
a. What type of medicine may be used by this person?
b. What are the side effects of using them? Explain the reason.
Answer:
a. Use of antibiotics
b. Though antibiotics are effective medicines, their regular use brings many side effects. Some important side effects of regular use are it develops immunity in pathogens against antibiotics, destroys useful bacteria in the body, reduces the quantity of some vitamins in the body.

Question 8.
What is the role of cuticle, cell wall and callose in defense of plants?
Answer:
Cuticle: The external layer of the epidermis of leaves defends the attack of microorganisms.
Cell wall: A well equipped resistant coat.
Chemical substances such as lignin, cutin, suberin, etc., provide rigidity to the cell wall.
Callose: Prevents the entry of germs which, have crossed the cell wall, through the cell membrane

Question 9.
Sharon hit his head while falling and the head swelled.
a. Is this reaction useful to the body? Why?
b. What is this type of reaction called?
c. How is this reaction helpful in defending diseases?
Answer:
a. Yes. Second level defense.
b. Inflammatory response
c. Blood vessels dilate and white blood cells from the blood vessel reach the wound site. White blood cells destroy the germs.

Question 10.
Observe the picture and answer the question given.

a. Identify the white blood cells indicated by A, B.
b. Write the defense activities of these white blood cells.
Answer:
a.
A – Neutrophil B – Basophil
b.

• Neutrophil – engulfs and destroys the bacteria produces chemicals that can destroy bacteria.
• Basophil – stimulates other white blood cells, dilates the blood vessels.

Question 11.
When infection becomes uncontrollable, the body temperature may rise very high.
a. How is this situation known as?
b. Write the reason for the rise in body temperature.
c. How the rise in body temperature controls the infection? –
Answer:
a. Fever
b. The presence of toxins produced by the pathogens stimulates white blood cells, the chemical substances produced by the white blood cells rise the body temperature.
c. The rise in the body temperature reduces the rise of multiplication of pathogens, increases the effect of phagocytosis.

Question 12.
Observe the picture of skin and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the parts indicated as A, B, C.
b. What is the role of these parts in defense mechanism?
Answer:
a. A – Epidermis B – Sebaceous gland C – Sweat gland
b. A protein called keratin present in the epidermis prevents the entry of germs. Sebum produced by the sebaceous gland makes the skin oily and waterproof. The disinfectants present in the sweat produced by sweat gland destroy the germs.

Question 13.
Complete the flow chart related to inflammation.

Answer:
A: Produces chemical messages.
B: White blood cells reach the wound site through the walls of the capillaries.

Question 14.
Select the suitable statements related to B lymphocytes.
a. Mature in the bone marrow.
b. Stimulate other defense cells of the body.
c. These cells are capable of destroying cancer cells.
d. Neutralise the toxin of the antigens.
Answer:
a. Mature in the bone marrow.
d. Neutralise the toxin of the antigens.

Question 15.
Whichever be the type of germs infected, the initial symptom appears in human body will be the fever. Give reason.
Answer:
Pathogens enter the body. Then the presence of toxins produced by the pathogens stimulate the white blood cells. The chemical substances produced by the white blood cells raise the body temperature. The rise in body temperature reduces the rate of multiplication of pathogens and increases the effect of phagocytosis. So fever is a defense mechanism.

Question 16.
Select the correct pairs.
a. Cardiology – Treatment of heart
b. Ophthalmology – Cancer treatment
c. Chemotherapy – Treatment of disorders of the nervous system.
d. E.N.T – Treatment of ear, nose and throat disorders.
Answer:
a. Cardiology – Treatment of heart
d. E.N.T – Treatment of ear, nose and throat disorders.

Question 17.
Select the statements related to specific defense from the statements given below.
a. Destroys the germs that have entered the body.
b. Sebum is a disinfectant
c. Neutrophil is a phagocyte.
d. Prevents the germs from entering the body.
e. Identifies and destroys pathogens.
f. Neutralises the toxin of the antigens.
Answer:
b. Sebum is a disinfectant
c. Neutrophil is a phagocyte.
d. Prevents the germs from entering the body.

Question 18.
The stages related to phagocytosis are given below. Arrange them in correct order.
a. The pathogens are degenerated and destroyed by the enzymes in lysosome.
b. Engulfs the pathogen in the membrane sac.
c. Phagocytes reach near the pathogens.
d. Membrane sacs combine with the lysosome.
Answer:
c. Phagocytes reach near the pathogens.
b. Engulfs the pathogen in the membrane sac.
d. Membrane sacs combine with the lysosome.
a. The pathogens are degenerated and destroyed by the enzymes in lysosome.

Question 19.
The immunity to disease of a child living in natural environment will be ‘greater than that of a child living in over hygienic environment. Do you agree with this statement? Give reason for this.
Answer:
a. Natural environments increase immunity. More chances to acquaint with antigens and to form antibodies against them in the body. Over hygienic environment leads to reduction in natural immunity.

b. When we avoid situations for the body to make antibodies against antigens, we develop poor immunity.

Question 20.
Given below are the two methods which can be used against diseases.
a. Antibiotics
b. Vaccines
i. What is the major difference between the two?
ii. Give one example for each.
Answer:
i. Antibiotics – Antibiotics are used to resist bacterial diseases.
Vaccines – Used for immunity.
ii. Antibiotics-Penicillin Vaccines – B.C.G

Question 21.
What is the role of calcium, thrombin, and fibrin in blood clotting?
Answer:
Calcium ions- Play a major role in the convention of prothrombin in plasma to thrombin by thromboplastin
Thrombin – Thrombin converts the fibrinogen in the plasma to fibrin.
Fibrin – Blood clot is formed by the entangling of platelets and red blood cells in the fibrin network.

Question 22.
Everyone cannot receive blood from all blood groups. Justify this statement.
Answer:
When a foreign antigen reaches one’s blood, it stimulates the defense mechanism. On receiving unmatching blood, the antigen present in the donor’s blood and the antibody present in the recipient’s blood will react with each other and form a blood clot. Hence, everyone cannot receive blood from alt blood groups.

Question 23.
Observe the given picture and answer the questions given below.

a. Name the defense activity indicated in the illustration.
b. Write the stages of this activity.
Answer:
a. Phagocytosis
b. Phagocytes reach near the pathogens.
Engulfs the pathogen in the membrane sac.
Membrane sac combines with lysosome.
The pathogens are degenerated and destroyed by the enzymes in lysosome.

Question 24.
Write down the correct ones among the following statements related to defense.
a. Specific defense is the mechanism in which monocytes engulf the pathogens.
b. Non-specific defense mechanism is a mechanism that protects us from all pathogens without considering their characteristic features.

c. Lymphocytes are the part of non-specific defense mechanism.
d. T-Lymphocytes destroy cancer cells.
Answer:
b. Non- specific defense mechanism is a mechanism that protects us from all pathogens without considering their characteristic features.
d. T-Lymphocytes destroy cancer cells.

Question 25.

a. Identify A
b. B is a vitamin and C is an enzyme. Name them.
c. How does the lack of B or C affect the consequent chemical process?
Answer:
a. A – Prothrombin
b. B – Vitamin K, C – Thromboplastin
c. Thrombin is not formed Fibrinogen will not be converted to fibrin.

Question 26.
One of the scars of the wound obtained by Binu while playing football remained even after 10 years. What explanation will you give for the scar remaining as such?
Answer:
Connective tissue heals the wound.
New tissues are not formed in the place of damaged tissues.

Question 27.
Ashiq who met with an accident, was in need of blood. Antigen A and D and Antibody b was identified in his blood.
a. Name his blood group?
b. Whose blood, among the following, can be accepted by Ashiq?
i. Venu: A +
ii. Amal: AB+
iii. Sahara: AB-
iv. Anoop: A-
Answer:
a. A+
b. i. Venu : A+
ii. Anoop : A-

Question 28.
Complete the table.

Answer:
a. B.C.G.
b. O.P.V.
c. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough), hepatitis B and Haemophilus influenza type b
d. Measles, mumps, and rubella (German measles)
e. Tetanus

Question 29.
Given below is the picture of white blood cells which are parts of specific defense.

a. Identify A and B.
b. What is the role of A in specific defense?
c. Give any one difference between A and B.
Answer:
a. A – T – lymphocyte B – B lymphocyte

b. Stimulates other defense cells.
Destroys cancer cells and virus affected cells.

c. B – lymphocytes mature at bone marrow.
T – lymphocytes mature at thymus.

Question 30.
What all things should be taken care of while transfusing blood?
Answer:

• People in the age group 18-60 can donate blood.
• Blood donation can be done once in three months.
• Blood donation causes no problem to the donor’s health.
• Pregnant women and breastfeeding mothers should not donate blood.
• Persons with communicable diseases (transmitted through blood) should not donate blood.

Question 31.
How do the following situations help in defense activity?
a. Many useful bacteria that habitat in the coverings of the body.
b. Rise in body temperature
c. Antibodies
d. Vaccines
Answer:
a. Coverings of the body act as a habitat for many useful bacteria. The genus that enter the body need to compete with such useful bacteria for shelter and nutrients. A great number of germs get destroyed in this competition.

b. The rise in the body temperature reduces the rise of multiplication of pathogens, increases the effect of phagocytosis.

c. Antibodies destroy the pathogens in three different ways.

1. Destroy the bacteria by disintegrating their cell membrane.
2. Neutralise the toxin of the antigens.
3. Destroy the pathogens by stimulating other white blood cells.

d. Vaccines are the substances used for artificial immunization. Vaccines act as antigens that stimulate the defense mechanism of the body. Antibodies are formed in the body against them. These antibodies are retained in the body which in future protect the body from the pathogen responsible for the same disease.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 6 Questions Unravelling Genetic Mysteries English Medium

Question 1.
The scientist who has laid the foundation of Genetics
a. Carl Linnaeus
b. Gregor Johann Mendel
c. James Watson
d. Charles Darwin
Answer:
b. Gregor Johann Mendel

Question 2.
The different forms of genes that control the trait,
a. Chromosome
b. Allele
c. Nucleotide
d. Nucleus
Answer:
c. Allele

Question 3.
The genetic constitution of females,
a. 44 + XX
b. 44 + XY
c. 43 + XX
d. 43 + XY
Answer:
a. 44 + XX

Question 4.
The sugar seen in DNA.
a. Ribose
b. Ribosome
c. Ribulose
d. Deoxyribose sugar
Answer:
d. Deoxyribose sugar

Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship between the first pair.
a. DNA: Two strands RNA: …………………..
b. Associated with ribosome: rRNA
Carry amino acids to the ribosome: …………………..
c. TT: tall
tt: …………………..
Answer:
a. Single strand
b. tRNA
c. Dwarf

Question 6.
Find the odd one out, note down the common features of others.
a. TTRR, TtRr, TTRr, ttrr
b. A-T, G-C, T-A, U-A
c. Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Uracil
Answer:
a. ttrr
Others are tall plant with round seed
b. U-A
Others are nitrogen base pairs in DNA.
c. Thymine
Others are nitrogen bases seen in RNA.

Question 7.
Select the statements related to RNA from the given statements.
a. Has two strands
b. Ribose sugar is seen
c. Do not participate directly in protein synthesis
d. The nitrogen bases are Adenine, Uracil, Cytosine, Guanine
Answer:
b, d

Question 8.
Given below is the illustration showing how sex determination is taking place in human beings.

b. What are the inferences you arrive at from this illustration?
Answer:
a. i. 44 + XX
ii. 44 + XY
iii. 44 + XX
iv. 44 + XY
b. The male and female ratio will be 1:1. The XY chromosomes of the father determine whether the child is male or female.

Question 9.
The stages related to action of gene is given below. Arrange them in correct order.
a. mRNA reaches the ribosome.
b. mRNA reaches outside the nucleus.
c. Protein is synthesized.
d. tRNA carries amino acids to the ribosome.
e. mRNA forms from DNA.
f. Based on the information in mRNA amino acids are added.
Answer:
e, b, a, d, f, c

Question 10.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions given below.

a. Name the illustration.
b. What is its importance?
Answer:
a. Crossing over
b. As a result of this, part of a DNA crosses over to become the part of another DNA. This causes a difference in the distribution of genes. When these chromosomes are transferred to the next generation, it causes the expression of new characters in offspring.

Question 11.
Select the correct statements.
a. 46 chromosomes are seen in humans.
b. 23 pairs of autosomes are found in humans.
c. Genetic constitution of male is 44 + XY.
d. Sex chromosomes are of two types.
e. Genetic constitution of female is 46 + XX.
Answer:
a, c, d

Question 12.
Observe the illustration related to hybridization of two types of pea plants and answer the following questions.

a. Which are the characters expressed in first-generation?
b. Which are the hidden characters in this experiment?
c. Write the possible expression of different characters in next generation.
Answer:
a. Round seed, white flower
b. Flat seed, red flower
c. Round seed, white flower Round seed, red flower Flat seed, white flower Flat seed, red flower.

Question 13.
Given below is the illustration of a cross conducted between red-flowered and white-flowered pea plants. Complete it suitably.

a. First-generation
b. Write down the ratio of pea plants with different characters in the second generation.
Answer:

b. 3 red flowers: 1 white flower

Question 14.
Complete the given illustration of a nucleotide molecule.

Answer:
a. Sugar molecule
b. Phosphate

Question 15.
Complete the flow chart showing gene action.

Answer:
a. mRNA reaches outside the nucleus.
b. mRNA reaches ribosomes.
c. Based on the information in mRNA amino acids are added.

Question 16.
Complete the table suitably.

Answer:

Question 17.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions given below.

a. What is the dominant and recessive characters in the first generation?
b. If the plants obtained in first-generation is self-pollinated, what are the characters appear in the second generation? In which ratio.
c. Redraw the illustration using letters.
Answer:
a. Dominant character – Tall Recessive character – Dwarf
b. 3 Tall: 1 Dwarf

Question 18.
Analyze the illustration based on the self-pollination of first-generation.

a. Complete the illustration.
b. Offsprings of second generation. In which ratio?
Answer:
a. 1 – T
2-t
3 – TT
4 – Tt
5 – Tt
6 – tt

b. 3 tall: 1 Dwarf

Question 19.
A pea plant with genetic constitution TtRr (Tall plant producing round seed) was subjected to self-pollination. The genetic constitution of some of the progenies obtained are given below. Write the expressed character of the given progenies based on their genetic constitution.
a. TTRr
b. ttRr
c. ttrr
d. Ttrr
Answer:
a. TTRr – Tall plant producing round seed
b. ttRr – Dwarf plant producing round seed.
c. ttrr – Dwarf plant producing wrinkled seed
d. Ttrr – Tall plant producing wrinkled seed

Question 20.
The note prepared by Shahana on Mendel’s inferences during the classroom analysis of Mendel’s hybridization experiment in pea plants, based on a single trait is given below. Analyse the statements in the note and correct those that are wrong ones.
a. A trait is controlled by a specific factor.
b. A character is expressed and the other remains hidden in the first generation.
c. The character that remains hidden in the first generation does not appear in the second generation.
d. The ratio of characters in the second generation is 3:1.
Answer:
a. One trait is controlled by the combination of two factors.
c. The character that remains hidden in the first generation appears in the second generation.

Question 21.
Complete the flowchart illustrating the location of gene by using the information given in the box:

Answer:

Question 22.
Observe the illustration given below and answer the questions.

a. Identify the dominant character.
b. How does the parental plant with green-colored seed and the plant in the first generation differ in their alleles?
c. Describe alleles.
Answer:
a. Green
b. Alleles in parental plant-QG Allele in the first generation – Gg
c. Different forms of a gene.

Question 23.
Observe the nucleotide strands given below and answer the questions. ‘

a. Identify the strand that is found in DNA only.
b. Identify the strand that can be found in both DNA and RNA.
c. What is a nucleotide?
Answer:
a. B
b. A
c. A unit of sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base/ Component of nucleic acid.

Question 24.
Given below is an illustration regarding sex determination. Observe the illustration and answer the questions.

a. Complete A, B, C in the illustration.
b. What is the possibility of the formation of a male child or a female child? Explain.
Answer:
a.
A. 44 + XY
B. 22 + X
C. 22 + Y
b. Equal chance. The number of male gametes with X chromosome and those with Y chromosome are equal. Egg with the X chromosome has equal chance to combine with sperm having Y chromosome and those having X chromosome.

Question 25.
Given below is a placard exhibited in a school rally organised ‘Against Racism ’.
It is not racial difference that makes the skin colour different; This is an adaptation to live under the sun.
a. How will you explain the difference in skin colour of people living in different parts of the world?
b. What attitude should be adopted by a scientifically enlightened society towards the idea in the placard? Substantiate.
Answer:
a. Melanin, a pigment protein imparts colour to skin.
It is due to the difference in gene function.

b. Skin colour is an adaptation to live under the sun.

• Races among mankind are only cultural.
• Scientifically, all men are of the same race.
• Consider all men as equal, without any racial difference.

Question 26.
‘Gene itself is allele; allele itself is gene Substantiate your answer.
Answer:
Statement is partly correct. Each character is controlled by pair factors called genes. Different forms of a gene are called alleles. Generally, a gene has two alleles. Alleles can be of the same types (TT) or of different types (Tt). If the alleles are of different types, only one trait represented by any one of the alleles get expressed.

Question 27.
In the hybridization experiment conducted by Mendel on the basis of two contrasting traits of the character height in pea plant
a. In the first generation, tall plants are expressed. No dwarf plant is seen in the first generation.
b. The dwarf plants were expressed in second generation. Give explanation.
Answer:
a. When plants that differ in a pair of contrasting traits are hybridized, only one trait is expressed while the other remains hidden in the offsprings of the first generation. The expressed trait is called dominant trait and the hidden trait is called recessive trait.
b. During gamete formation the factors that determine height segregate without getting mixed. This is the reason for the expression of the dwarf plants in second generation.

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter Wise Questions and Answers

Kerala SSLC Biology Chapter 1 Questions Sensations and Responses English Medium

Select the correct answer.

Question 1.
The tip of axonite
a. Axon
b. Dendron
c. Synaptic knob
d. Dendrite
Answer:
c. Synaptic knob

Question 2.
In spinal cord
a. white matter outside and grey matter inside ”
b. white matter on outside and inside
c. grey matter on outside and inside
d. white matter inside and grey matter outside
Answer:
a. white matter outside and grey matter inside

Question 3.
The part of brain which plays a major role in the maintenance of homeostasis.
a. Thalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Cerebrum
d. Medulla oblongata
Answer:
b. Hypothalamus

Question 4.
Read the statements given below.
i. The part where myelinated neurons are present in abundance is called white matter.
ii. Nerves are groups of dendrites covered by connective tissue.
a. i and ii correct
b. i and ii wrong
c. i wrong ii correct
d. i correct ii wrong
Answer:
d. i correct ii wrong

Question 5.
Fill up the blanks by observing the relationship between the first pair.
a. SoundExternal stimulus : : Hunger : …………………
b. Spinal nerves : 31 pairs : : Cranial nerves …………………
c. Sensory impulses reach the spinal cord : Dorsal root: : Motor impulses go out of the spinal cord : ………………..
Answer:
a. Internal stimulus
b. 12 pairs
c. Ventral root

Question 6.
Find out the odd one and note down the com-mon features of others.
a. Alzheimer’s, Tuberculosis, Parkinson’s, Epilepsy
b. Dendron, Axon, Nephron, Dendrite
c. Thought, maintains equilibrium, memory, imagination
Answer:
a. Tuberculosis
Others are diseases affecting nervous system
b. Nephron. Others are parts of neuron
c.

• Maintains equilibrium
• Others are functions of cerebrum

Question 7.
Explain the differences between axons and dendrons.
Answer:
Axons and dendrons are projections from the cyton (cell body). Axons are the longest filament from the cell body and dendrons are the short filament from the cell body. Dendrites are the branches of dendron and branches of axons are axonites. Dendron carries impulses from dendrites to the cell body while axon carries impulses from the cell body to outside. Axon is encircled by myelin sheath.

Question 8.
Complete the table suitably.

Answer:
a. Carries impulses from various parts of the body to the brain and the spinal cord.
b. Motor nerve
c. Mixed nerve
d. Carries impulses to and from the brain and spinal cord.

Question 9.
Select the correct pairs.
a. Axonite – secretes neurotransmitter
b. Schwann cell – encircles the axon
c. Axonite – branches of dendron
d. Axon – carries impulses from the cell body to outside
e. Synaptic knob – secretes neurotransmitter
Answer:
b. Schwann cell – encircles the axon
d. Axon – carries impulses from the cell body to outside
e. Synaptic knob – secretes neurotransmitter

Question 10.
Arrange columns B, C in accordance with the data given in column A.

Answer:

Question 11.
The cause of a disease affecting the nervous system is given below.
Continuous and irregular flow of electric charges in the brain
a. Identify the disease.
b. Write the symptoms.
Answer:
a. Epilepsy
b. Fits due to continuous muscular contraction, frothy discharge from the mouth, clenching of teeth following which the patient falls unconscious.

Question 12.
Observe the illustration and answer the questions given below.
a. Identify the part indicated as A.
b. How is this part formed?
c. Write the functions of this part.

Answer:
a. A – Myelin sheath.
b. Schwann cells repeatedly encircle the axons to form the myelin sheath.
c. To provide nutrients and oxygen to the axon, accelerate impulses, act as an electric insulator and protect the axon from external shocks.

Question 13.
Rajesh ate his food while watching the hairraising scenes of a film on TV. Will this affect hi’s digestion? Formulate an inference related to sympathetic-parasympathetic actions. List out the facts which led you to the inference.
Answer:
Adversely affects digestion.
Sympathetic system gets stimulated in such situations. So secretion of saliva decreases, peristalsis slows down and functions of the stomach slow down in this situation.

Question 14.
a. What are the parts of the central nervous system?
b. What are the parts included in the peripheral nervous system?
c. How does the brain communicate with organs?
d. How does the spinal cord communicate with organs?
e. Complete the flowchart of nervous system.

Answer:
a. Brain and spinal cord
b. Peripheral nervous system includes 12 pairs of cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves and sympathetic and parasympathetic systems of autonomous nervous system.
c. Brain communicates with the organs by 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
d. Spinal cord communicates with the organs by 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Question 15.
The diagram below shows neuron and the direction of nerve impulse through it. Observe the diagram and answer the questions.

a. If there is a mistake in the direction of nerve impulse, redraw the diagram and correct it.
b. How does the impulse pass through the part X?
Answer:

b. When electric impulses from the axon reach the synaptic knob, certain chemical substances are secreted from there to the synaptic cleft. These chemical substances are called neurotransmitters. They stimulate the adjacent dendrite or cell and new electric impulses are generated.

Question 16.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the figure.
b. Identify the parts A, B and C.
c. Write the functions of part indicated as A and B.
d. Write the peculiarity of part indicated as C.
Answer:
a. Spinal cord
b. A – Dorsal root B – Ventral root C – Central canal
c. Dorsal root – Sensory impulses reach the spinal cord through the dorsal root.
Ventral root – Motor impulses go out of the spinal cord through the ventral root.
d. Filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

Question 17.
Select the answer for the statements from the box given below.
Thalamus, Synaptic knob, Spinal cord, Dendrite, Axonite, Medulla oblongata

a. Secretes neurotransmitter.
b. Carries impulses to the synaptic knob.
c. Branches of dendron.
d. Acts as relay station of impulses.
e. Controls involuntary actions
f. Coordinates the rapid and repeated movements during walking, running.
Answer:
a. Synaptic knob
b. Axonite
c. Dendrite
d. Thalamus
e. Medulla oblongata
f. Spinal cord

Question 18.
Arrange the statements suitably.
a. Trachea dilates
b. Glycogen is converted to glucose.
c. Production of hormone increases.
d. Urinary bladder contracts
e. Production of saliva increases.
f. Peristalsis in the intestine slows down
g. Heartbeat increases.
h. Glucose is converted to glycogen.

Answer: