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You can download Financial Institutions and Services Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 9 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 9 Financial Institutions and Services Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 9 Notes

Question 1.
Name the central bank of India
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Question 2.
………….. is the headquarters of RBI
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 3.
Complete the following.

Answer:

Question 4.
What do you mean by financial institutions?
Answer:
The institution that undertakes economic transactions like accepting deposits and giving loans are called financial institutions.

Question 5.
RBI was nationalized in:
a) 1935
b) 1945
c) 1947
d) 1949
Answer:
d) 1949

Question 6.
Complete the following chart

Answer:

Question 7.
The deposit that allows to deposit and withdraw money many times in a day
1. Current deposit
2. Recurring deposit
3. Saving deposit
Answer:
1. Current deposit

Question 8.
Industrial Finance Corporation is an example for
1. Commercial Banks
2. Development Banks
3. Non-Banking Financial Institution
Answer:
2. Development Banks

Question 9.
Point out the functions of RBI.
Answer:
1. Issue of Currency Notes
2. Controller of Credit
3. Banker’s Bank
4. Government’s Bank

Question 10.
Explain the different phases in the growth of banks in India.
Answer:

First phase (1771 to 1969):

• English East India Company set up three Presidency Banks: Bank of Bengal, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras.
• The operations and growth of banks were slow.

Second phase (1969 to 1990):

• Banking operations became fast.
• The awareness that bunks should operate with the objective of social welfare became prevalent.
• Bank nationalization of 1969 and 1980.

Third phase (From 1991 onwards):

• Along with the performance of basic functions, implemented services that would speed up banking procedures.
• Implemented new trends in banking like ATM, credit card, phone banking, net banking, etc.
• Operations of New Generation Banks.

Question 11.
Prepare a list of nationalized banks in India.
Answer:

• Bank of India
• United bank of India
• Indian Bank
• DenaBank
• United Commercial Bank
• Syndicate Bank
• Bank of Maharashtra
• Vijaya bank
• Oriental Bank of Commerce
• Andhra Bank
• Punjab and Sindh Bank
• Centra Bank of India
• Union Bank of India
• Indian Overseas Bank
• Allahabad Bank of India
• Canara bank
• BankofBaroda
• PunjabNationalBank
• Corporation Bank

Question 12. Name the first. modern bank in India.
Answer:
Bank of Hindustan (1770)

Question 13.
In India, coins and one rupee notes are issued by
Answer:
The Ministry of Finance

Question 14.
Explain the features of new generation banks.
Answer:
The private banks which are given license after 1991, in the third phase of the growth of banking sector are called New Generation Banks. These banks adopted new trends in banking sector like ATM, credit card, phone banking, net banking, and core banking. They have also adopted steps to make the proceeding easy and simple.

Question 15.
Name the different types of commercial banks.
Answer:

• Public sector banks
• Private Indian banks
• Private Foreign banks

Question 16.
Write on the different types of deposits accepted by commercial banks?
Answer:
Commercial banks accept the following deposits.
Saving Deposit:
It is a scheme for depositing surplus income by individuals and institutions. Banks offer low rate of interest for this deposit. Depositor can withdraw money from this deposit subject to certain restrictions.

Current Deposit:
A scheme for depositing and withdrawing money many times in a day. Normally traders and industrialists use this deposit scheme. It does not offer any rate of interest’

Fixed Deposit:
Fixed deposits are suitable for depositing money for a fixed period. Interest is fixed on the period (tenure) of the deposit. It can be normally withdrawn only after the expiry of the period. Rate of interest will decrease if withdrawn before the expiry period. Recurring Deposit Depositing a fixed sun monthly for a fixed period is the recurring deposit. It offers a rate of interest higher than that of saving deposit, but less fixed deposit.

Giving Loans:
This is the next major function of commercial banks. Banks provide loans by using the amount deposited by the public. Banks give loans to individual as well as institutions. Interest rates charged for loans will be higher that of deposits. Rate of interest vary depending upon the duration of loans.

Other Functions:
Apart from the basic functions like accepting deposits and lending money, commercial banks render certain other services to their customers. The services rendered by the banks include.

Locker Facility:
its offer locker facility to keep costly articles (gold, title deed of property) of their customers. Banks charge a fixed amount as service charge for this.

Demand Draft:
Demand draft is a facility provided by banks to send money from one place to another. Bank account is not necessary for this.

Mail Transfer:
Mail transfer is a facility provided by banksto transfer money from any place in the world to one’s own account or to the account of another person. Telegraphic transfer is faster than mail transfer. Telegraphic transfer is a system of transfer of money through message.

ATM:
Automated Teller Machine helps the customers to withdraw money without stepping into the banks. Most banks have ATM facility today. Today money can be deposited and withdrawn through the ATM of some banks. Th.e bank gives ATM debit card for this.

Credit card:
Customers can purchase goods with the help of credit card. This system enables the customers to purchase goods even if there is no balance in the account. Money should be deposited in the bank within fixed days.

Banks help the customers to ‘remit their insurance premium, telephone bills, and electricity bills and to purchase travel tickets. Pension amount to the retired officials is disbursed through banks.

Question 17.
Define Commercial Banks
Answer:
Commercial banks are those banks which accept deposits and lend money for commercial purposes, industrial and agricultural purposes.

Question 18.
Distinguish between private Indian bank and private foreign banks.
Answer:
Private Indian commercial banks are owned by private individuals. These banks operate subject to the regulations of RBI. Banks owned by private individuals and registered in India, with their headquarters abroad are called private foreign commercial banks. These also function subject to regulations of RBI.

Question 19.
Who all are getting the benefits of RRBs
Answer:
Small scale farmers
Agricultural laborers
Small entrepreneurs

Question 20.
Describe the functions of commercial banks.
Answer:
Commercial banks perform various functions. They are discussed below:-
Accepting deposits is the main function of commercial banks. These banks accept four types of deposits. These deposits are

1. Saving Deposit
2. Fixed Deposit
3. Current Deposit

Question 21.
interest is not given for current deposits. Why?
Answer:
Current deposits are not given interest. This is because in current deposit scheme money can be deposited and withdrawn many times in a day without any restrictions.

Question 22.
Point out the factors influencing difference in the rate of interest on loans?
Answer:

• Tenure of loan
• Mode of repayment
• Purpose of loan

Question 23.
What do you mean by overdraft?
Answer:
Overdraft is a type of loan given by commercial banks to customers. This facility enables a customer to withdraw money over and above the credit balance.
Banks give this facility to permanent and reliable customers. This facility is provided to those who have current account deposit.

Question 24.
Give examples of plastic money
Answer:
Credit Card Debit Card

Question 25.
What are the two trends in banking?
Answer:
Electronic banking Core banking

Question 26.
Prepare a note on the facilities offered by electronic banking?
Answer:
Today banking, services are easily available through any banks with the computerization of banks and the ATM facility. Doing all banking transactions through net banking and telebanking is called electronic banking. Banking at any time and banking at any place, net banking, and mobile banking are part of electronic banking. It does not need the support of employees and banking instruments. Only bank account and net banking facility are needed for this.

Customers can send money anywhere in the world and remit the bills from home itself without stepping into a bank. Banking activities can be completed within a short time. Not expensive as the service charge for this is very less.

Question 27.
Banking operations become easy with core banking. Explain.
Answer:
Core banking is a banking facility under which all the branches of the banks are brought under a central server to enable transactions from one bank to another. It operates with the help of internet. Making use of this facility, an individual can send money from his account to his friend’s account in another place. Facilities like ATM, debit card, credit card, net banking, telebanking, mobile banking, etc. are brought under one umbrella through core banking. This made bank transactions easy.

Question 28.
What are the things to be taken care of while using ATM cards?
Answer:

• Make sure that nobody is in the counter.
• Do not disclose your ATM pin number to anyone.
• Check the cash withdrawals against your bank statement and keep receipts from the ATM to check back against your statement. Do not throw away the receipt carelessly.

Question 29.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 30.
Point out the functions of NABARD?
Answer:
The institutions that give financial assistance for the development of certain areas only are called specialized banks. NABARD is a specialized bank. Its features are:

1. The apex bank operating for agricultural and rural development.
2. Co-ordinates all banks working for rural development.
3. Gives financial assistance to agriculture, handicrafts and small scale industries.

Question 31.
Define Mudra Bank
Answer:
Mudra bank stands for micro-units development and refinances agency banks. It is a public sector financial institution in India that provides loans to low rates of interest to microfinance institutions and small scale entrepreneurs.

Question 32.
What are the objectives of Mudra bank?
Answer:

• Provide small lending
• Provide financial help to microfinance and small entrepreneurs.

Question 33.3
NABARD stands for?
Answer:
National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development

Question 34.
What are co-operative banks? Mention their objectives?
Answer:
Co-operative banks operate on the basis of principles like co-operation, self-help and mutual help. They have been set up for rural development. Co-operative banks were set up with the aim of extending financial help to farmers, handicrafts men, small scale industrialists, etc.
The objectives of Co-operative banks are

1. Give loans to people
2. Save the rural folk from the exploitation of private money lenders
3. Give loan at low rate of interest
4. Promote saving habits among the rural folk

Question 35.
Complete the following chart

Answer:
a – State Co-operative Bank
b – District Co-operative Bank
c – Primary co-operative Bank

Question 36.
Write the difference between life insurance company and non – life insurance company. Write example for each.
Life Insurance Company :
Life insurance companies are institutions that provide security to life and property of individuals. Eg. Life Insurance Corporation of India.
Non – Life insurance companies:
These are institutions that provide security to individuals from the loss incurred due to accident and natural calamity. Eg. General insurance companies

Question 37.
Which among the following is a private sector bank?
i) Vijaya Bank
ii) Canara Bank
iii) Syndicate Bank
iv) Federal Bank.
Answer:
iv) Federal Bank

Question 38.
Which is the major non-banking financial company operating in Kerala? What are the services they provide?
Answer:
Kerala State Financial Enterprises (KSFE)
Services

1. Operate chitties
2. Housing loan
3. Gold loan
4. Hire purchase

Question 39.
Mutual fund helps common man to overcome the constraints in investing money in share market. Explain.
Answer:
Mutual fund is a deposit scheme. Common man cannot directly involve in share market. Mutual fund helps investors to overcome this constraint. Money is mobilized from common man and small scale farmers for investing in shares and other assets like debentures and infrastructure. The profit or loss resulting from this is distributed among them.

Question 40.
Name any two mutual fund operations in public sector.
Answer:
i) SBI mutual fund
ii) Unit Trust df India

Let Us Assess

Question 41.
Reserve Bank acts as the last resort in monetary matters of all banks. Substantiate the statement based on the functions of RBI
Answer:
Reserve Bank is the Central Bank of India. It was established in 1935 and its headquarters is in Mumbai. It is the apex bank that controls all the other banks. RBI not only regulates and supervises the banks but also other financial institutions in the country by giving them necessary instructions and advice. It acts as the last resort in the monetary matters of all banks.
The functions of RBI are:

Issue of currency notes:
RBI has the legal right to issue all currency notes except one rupee note and subsidiary coins. The finance ministry is authorized to issue one rupee note and subsidiary coins. A proportional value of gold and foreign exchange are kept as reserve for issuing notes.

Controller of credit:
The availability money supply in the economy increases when the RBI issues and distributes currency notes and also by loans. Controlling credit is an important function of RBI. This is done by changing the rate of interest. When the rate of interest increases, the amount of loan decreases. Rate of interest decreases and the amount of loan increases.

government’s Bank:
The RBI acts the bank of both the Central Government and the State Governments. As per this, the RBI accepts deposits from central and state governments, gives them loans and other banking services, The Reserve Bank does not accept any remuneration for these services for the governments.

Bankers’s Bank:
Reserve Bank controls all the banks. It is the functions of the RBI to help in the operations of other banks and to advise them when needed. It regulates commercial banks and help them in emergency.
Thus the RBI acts as the last resort of all the other banks in monetary matters.

Question 42.
Explain the basic functions performed by banks.
Answer:
Banks are those institutions which accept deposits from the public and lend out money to the borrower on certain conditions. They operate on the basis of common bye-law and criteria prepared by the Reserve Bank of India.

Banks accept deposits from people, institutions, and government and disburse this amount as loans to people, institutions and government. The banks take back the loan amount with interest after a particular period and repay the depositors with interest. Thus the banks acts as the intermediary between borrowers and lenders.

Question 43.
Mahila banks, Payment banks, and Mudra banks have recently entered the banking sector. Write their aims.
Answer:
Mahila banks, Payment banks, and Mudra banks are the new entrants in the banking sector formed for specific purposes.
Mahila Bank:
The slogan of Mahila bank is ‘Empowering Women, Empowering India’. The bank accepts deposits from everyone, but lending is predominantly for women.
Payment Bank:
Payment banks are set up to help low-income groups, small scale industrialists and migrant laborers. They do not undertake all the services rendered by banks.
Mudra bank:
Mudra banks are set up to provide small credit (up to ? 10 lakh), especially in agriculture and self-employment sector. It provides financial assistance to small entrepreneurs and microfinance.

Question 44.
Evaluate how microfinance is beneficial to common people?
Answer:
The objective of microfinance is ‘to provide financial services to common people including small lendings. It helps to promote saving habits and self-employment. activities among the poor. This helps members to avail themselves of loans without providing any collaterals. Kudumbasree and Self Help Group for men are examples for this.
Aims of microfinance:

1. Promotes saving habits.
2. Helps to improve the standard of living of the poor.
3. Helps to mobilize fund from individuals and use it for collective economic activities.
4. Individual abilities are used for the benefit of the group.
5. Gives loans to members when required.
6. Sets up small enterprises.

Question 45. (Qn. Pool-2017)
List the various types of banks that function in your area.
Answer:
Commercial bank SBI, Federal bank, Co-operative banks.

Question 46.
Who is responsible for issuing one rupee note and its subsidiary coins?
Answer:
Central Finance Department

Question 47.
A measure adopted by the Reserve Bank to Control Credit is ……………
a. To abolish tax
b. To bring stringent measures
c. To incerease tax rate
d. To reduce tax rate
Answer:
c. To increase tax rate

Question 48.
Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
Answer:
State Bank of India

Question 49.
Differentiate public sector commercial banks and private sector commercial banks.
Answer:
Public Sector Banks are totally under the ownership of the government. The ownership of the private sector bank is with private individuals.

Question 50.
What type of Banks are called private foreign commercial banks?
Answer:
Banks which have registered in India but have headquarters in a foreign country.

Question 51.
The statement given below belongs to which type of deposit?
“The interest rate is calculated on the basis of the time period for which the money is deposited.”
a. Savings Deposit
b. Current Deposit
c. Fixed Deposit
d. Recurring Deposit
Answer:
c. Fixed Deposit

Question 52.
Elucidate Cash Credit.
Answer:
Cash credit are loans provided by banks to institutions accepting collateral and salary certificate.

Question 53.
What is the name of the facility provided by the bank to withdraw more money than in the account?
Answer:
Overdraft

Question 54.
What is mail transfer?
Answer:
Facility provided by the bank to send money to one’s own account or its others account from anywhere in the world is mail transfer.

Question 55.
Differentiate Banks and non-banking financial institutions.
Answer:
Non-banking financial institutions do not provide facilities like withdrawal of cash by cheque, mail transfer, lockers, etc.

Question 56.
List down the name of two mutual fund institutions functioning in India.
Answer:
Unit Trust of India
Life Insurance Corporation Mutual Fund

Question 57.
Explain the functioning of Kudumbasree and Men self-help group.
Answer:
At least 20 women/men of a locality join to form small groups. Each member deposits a fixed amount. Banks provide loans at a lower rate to these groups. The funds thus collected will be distributed among the members who need it or start small scale enterprises.

Question 58. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Write a note on the functioning of banks.
Answer:
Accepting deposits, providing loans. Providing locker facilities for safekeeping issuing checks and demand drafts. ATM, CDM, Netbanking and care banking facilities.

Question 59.
Bank nationalization strengthened the banking sector in India. Give your opinion on this statement.
Answer:
The major banks in India were nationalized with the view that banks should operate with the view that banks should operate with the aim of social progress with nationalization banking sector strengthened with more government control and banking spread to rural areas.

Question 60.
What are newb generation banks? How are they different from other banks?
Answer:
Banks that started after 1991. Mainly city-centered. New management and functions with modern technologies.

Question 61.
Explain the important functions of commercial banks.
Answer:
Two important functions of the banks are accepting deposits and granting loans. Deposits are classified into savings deposit. Which is aimed to encourage saving habits. Current deposits which is used by industrial and traders fixed deposit with more interest and recurring deposits. Banks give loans of different types for various purposes. Some are short terms and some are long-terms loans are granted on the basis of asset security or personal security.

Question 62.
Prepare a short note on public sector commercial banks.
Answer:
Commercial banks functions in the public sector and private sector. The banks which are under government control are called public sector banks. They accept
deposit, provide loans, locker facilities, net banking, care banking facilities are provided.

Question 63.
Write about the different of deposits in commercial banks and their features.
Answer:
Deposits are of mainly four types savings deposits. Ant one can open on account any amount can be deposited and withdraw comparatively low interest.
Current deposit: This deposits facility depositing and withdrawing many times in a day. Used mainly by traders and industrialists. No interest.
Fixed deposit: Ideal for depositing money for a fixed period. Comparatively high interest.
Recurring deposit: A specific amount is deposited every month for a fixed period of time. Receives high rate of interest.

Question 64.
Explain the grounds under which overdrafts are issued.
Answer:
Overdraft is a credit facility provided to individuals by banks. This allows an account holder who have frequent transactions to withdraw an amount over and above the balance in the account.

Question 65.
The upcoming trends in banking sector makes banking more people-friendly.
Answer:
Electronic banking is a method by which all transactions can be carried out through not banking and telebanking. Its features are money can be sent and bills can be paid anywhere in the world. Saves time and low service charges.
Core banking: Core banking is the facility which is arranged in such a way that the branches of all banks are brought under a control server. This facility helps and individual to send money to his account from anywhere.

Question 66.
Cooperation, self-help, and mutual help are the working principles of Co-operative banks.’To what extent did the objectives of Co-operative Banks justify this? Write your inferences.
Answer:
Provide loans to the public, protect the villages from private money lenders, provide loans at low-interest rates, encourage saving habits amoung people. Co¬operative banks have strengthened banking activities in remote areas.

Question 67.
Which are the different levels of the co-operative banks? Write their different type of functions.
Answer:
State Co-operative Banks. Apex body in the state Co-operative sector. Provides financial assistance to district Co-operative banks and primary Cooperative banks.
District Co-operative banks operate at district centres. Provides assistance and guidance toprimary Co-operaitve banks.
Primary Co-operative banks Function in villages area of functions is limited. Encourage saving habit in villagers. Provides loansto villages at low interest rates.

Question 68.
Write a short note on the development banks.
Answer:
Development banks provide long term loans for various needs such as modernisation of industries. There banks work as an agent that helps in the development of different sectors. Provide loans for construction of house small scale industry and infrastructure development. .

Question 69.
What are specified banks? Write examples for them.
Answer:
Specified banks provide financial help for the development of certian sectors.
e.g: Exim bank, Small Industries Devlopment Banks, NABARD

Question 70.
Write down the features of the specialized banks given below.
1. Exim bank of India
2. Indian Small Scale Industries Development Bank
3. NABARD
Answer:
Exim Bank (Export-Import Bank) : Provides loans for exporting and importing products Provides instructions to individuals who come into this sector
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) : Provides help to establish new small scale industries and modernizing existing industries Aimc is to vitalizes.
National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) : Apex bank in India which functions for the development of villages and agriculture Unites all the banks which operate for the development of villages Provides financial assistance to agriculture handicraft small scale industries etc.

Question 71.
What is the slogan of Bharathiya Mahila Bank? What is its contemporary significance?
Answer:
In the contemporary world Bharathiya Mahila Bank plays a significant role in helping women to become self-reliant.

Question 72.
What are payment banks? Write down their features.
Answer:
Payment Banks have been established to help the low-income groups small scale industrialists and migrated employees.
The main features are
1. Accept deposit up to only one lakh rupees from individuals.
2. Provide interest on deposits as specified by the Reserve Bank of India.
3. Do not provide loans.
4. Charge a specific fee as commission for bank transactions.
5. Debit card will be provided but no credit card.

Question 73.
What are non-banking institutions? Why are the following institutions non-banking institutions?
1. Mutual fund institutions
2. Insurance companies
Answer:
Non-Banking financial institutions that operate under the supervision of the Reserve Bank of India. They are registered under the Company Act 1936 and carry out the basic functions of the Banks. Mutual fund institutions and insurance companies are non-banking financial companies because they do not carry out all the functions of Banking institutions

Question 74.
Which are the Mutual fund institutions that function in the Public and Private sectors?
Answer:
SBI Mutual Fund LIC Mutual Fund ICICI Mutual Fund HDFC Mutual Fund

Question 75.
Which is the major institution in India, that functions for the protection of the health and life of the individuals?
Answer:
Self-help groups are formed to encourage saving habits among low-income groups in the society and to seek self employment. Men/women in a locality join together and form small groups, normally 20 members. Each member invest a fixed amount in the group and with the help of Bank loans are provided to member at low rate to find self-employment.

You can Download The State and Political Science Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 9 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 9 The State and Political Science Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 9 Notes

The human being, animals, plants, etc., in this world, exist within the boundary of a state. The rise of nation-states was an important feature of the modern world. A state would have certain components.

Question 1.
Identify the important elements of state.
Population : ………………
…………….. : ………………
Answer:
Population: government
Territory: sovereignty

Question 2.
Examine how a state is adversely affected by increased population and decreased population.
Answer:
Population is an essential element information of the state. Existence of the state is depending upon the coexistence and cooperation of people without population no state can be formed. However, there is no criteria about the minimum and maximum number of population a sate should have. But very huge population and very less population are not suitable for a state. These extreme situations will adversely affected the development of a state. Very high population may lead to poverty and unemployment conditions.

Similarly, lack of sufficient population may result in deficiency of human capital/human resources. Government is one of the important features of the state. The administration of the state. The administration of the state is maintained by the government. The government has many functions. Providing peace and security to the people is the most important function of the state.

Question 3.
Point out the functions performed by governments in a state.
Answer:

• Maintain law and order
• Increase employment opportunities
• Implement development projects
• Protect democracy
• Uphold human rights.

Question 4.
Critically evaluate the optional functions different from compulsory functions.
Answer:
The compulsory functions include maintenance of law and order within the state. But optional functions are totally different. As the word indicates these functions may or may not be performed by the state. However, most of the modern states try to perform these functions.

Provision of health facilities, education facilities, transportation facilities, social welfare activities, etc., are optional functions. These functions are performed by the modem states as per their ability and convenience. These are many theories and opinions regarding the origin of the state. Whether the state is created by the society, or individual, or God.

Question 5.
Name the persons who gained acquired citizenship in India.
Answer:

• Larry Baker
• Sonia Gandhi
• Mother Theresa

Question 6.
Summarise the viewpoints of various theories on origin of state.
Answer:
The case issue in the study of political science are the state and the government. The institution of state is studied in relation to its origin, nature, aims, and functions of the state. There are 4 important theories about the origin of the state. The are :

• Force theory
• Evolutionary theory
• Divine Right theory
• Social contract theory

The Divine Origin Theory of the state is the oldest theory concerning the primary origin of state. According to this theory, the state is established by had who rules the state directly or indirectly through someone regarded as an agent.

The evolutionary theory is also known as sociological or correct theory of the origin of the state. This theory helps in understanding the forces and actors which created the state and historical stage through which it passed.

The Force Theory of the sate origin is none of the oldest theories on origin of the sate. The idea contained in force theory is that the state originated due to force exerted by the strong over the weak.

The social contract theory states that the origin of the sate is through the contract of people. People formed sate in order to satisfy their requirements.

Question 7.
Define the meaning of citizen.
Answer:
Citizen is a person who is entitled to enjoy all the legal rights and privileges granted by a state to the people comprising its constituency and is obliged to obey its laws and to fulfill his duties as called upon.

Question 8.
Define citizenship.
Answer:
Citizenship is the position or status of being a citizen of a particular country.

Question 9.
Prepare a flow chart showing relationship between a citizen and the state.
Answer:

Question 10.
What are the civil/political rights?
Answer:
Civil and political rights are a class of rights that protect individual’s freedom from infringement by governments, social organization and private individuals. The civil rights include right to vote, right to contest in elections, right to form organization right to criticize the government, right to decorates official position, etc.,

Question 11.
Point out the important topics covered under political science.
Answer:

• Public administration
• Political theories
• International polities
• Comparative polities

Let Us Assess

Question 12.
What is meant by state? What are the essential elements of state.
Answer:
A state is a nation or territory considered as an organized political community under one government. The basic elements of the state are population, territory, government, and sovereignty.

Question 13.
Explain the internal sovereignty and external levels sovereignty.
Answer:
A state can exist only through sovereignty. It is the absolute and comprehensive power of a state. It has two broad levels – internal and external.

Question 14.
What are the obligatory and discretionary functions of a state?
Answer:
Modern states have wide range of functions to perform with the popularity of welfare state, the functions and duties increased considerably. We can classify the functions of a state into obligatory and discretionary.

Question 15.
Name the theorem related to state formation.
Answer:

• Force theory
• Evolutionary theory
• Divine Right theory
• Social contract theory

Question 16.
What is citizenship?. Note down the difference be-tween a citizen and foreigner.
Answer:
Citizen is a person who is entitled to enjoy all the legal rights and privileges granted by a state to the people comprising its constituency, and is obliged to obey its lows and to fulfil his duties as called upon. All those who are residing in state many not be the citizen of that state. Foreigners also reside in a state. But only citizens can enjoy the political rights.

Question 17.
Explain natural and acquired citizenship.
Answer:
National citizenship is given by birth on the otherhand acquired citizenship.refersto the citizenship by virtue of being borne abroad. Acquired citizenship can be acquired only if a person has got the requirements/ qualifications mentioned in the ruler/laws in a country.

Question 18.
What is political science.
Answer:
Political science is a social science discipline that deals with systems of government and the analysis of political activity and political behavior.

Question 19.
What is known as the factor of political science?
a) Aristotle
b) Socates
c) Plato
d) Kautilya
Answer:
a) Aristotle

The State and Political Science Model Questions & Answers

Question 20.
Define state?
Answer:
A state is a nation or territory considered as an organized political community under one government.

Question 21.
The term state was first used by ……….
Answer:
Niccolo Muchiavelli

Question 22.
Prepare a note on ‘Saptang Theory of State’.
Answer:
The ‘Saptanga Theory was given by Kautilya a state has seven elements or constituents namely:

• Swamin — The king
• Amartya — The minister
• Janapada — The land and the people
• Durga — The fortress
• Kosha — The treasury
• Danda — The army
• Mitra — The allies

Question 23.
What do you mean by demography?
Answer:
Demography is the study of statistics such as births, deaths, income or the incidence of discussion, which illustrates the changing structure of human population.

Question 24.
India has ______ position in the world on the basis of population.
Answer:
7^th

Question 25.

Observe the above news headlines and prepare a note.
Answer:
The headlines are related to national as well as international level decisions taken by the government. It shows that a government has the power to take decisions on national importance without any external pressure or compulsion. This power of a nation may be considered an sovereignty.

Question 26.
Categories the following functions of state
1. Internal peace
2. Dispensing justice
3. Maintaining law and order
4. Physical welfare
5. Social security measures
6. Provision of education
7. Protection from external invasion
8. Provision of transportation facilities
Answer:
Compulsory functions:

• Internal peace
• Dispensing justice
• Maintaining law and order
• Protection from external invasion

Optional functions:

• Physical welfare
• Social security measures
• Provision of education
• Provision of transportation facilities

Question 27.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

Question 28.
What is the importance of the study of political science?
Answer:
The study of political science is very useful and valuable. Its knowledge is essential and useful to both the ruler and the ruled. The significance of the study of political science is pointed out below:

• Imparting knowledge of the state.
• Imparting knowledge of the government and administration
• Importing knowledge about the world.
• Creating democratic values
• Creation of good citizenship
• Lessons of co-operation and toleration

Question 29.
Point out the important topics covered under political science.
Answer:

• Public administration
• Political theories
• International politics
• Comparative politics

Question 30.
What is the importance of the study of political science?
Answer:
The study.of political science is very useful and valuable. Its knowledge is essential and useful to both the ruler and the ruled. The significance of the study of. political science is pointed out below:

• Imparting knowledge of the state.
• Imparting knowledge of the government and administration
• Importing knowledge about the world.
• Creating democratic values
• Creation of good citizenship
• Lessons of co-operation and toleration

Question 31.
Larry Baker was born in ………………..
Answer:
Hip Britain

Question 32.
The book “Ethics” was written by.
Answer:
Aristotle

Question 33.
The word politics was originated from Greek word ‘polis’ meaning …………..
Answer:
Nation-state.

Question 34.
Citizenship are of two types. Complete the chart
Answer:

1) Natural citizenship
2) Acquired citizenship

Question 35.
What are the necessary basic elements of state? Explain one among them.

• Population, Territory, Government, Sovereignty
• Population: People should live with unity mutual understanding, interdependence and common public interest.
• The minimum and maximum number of people for the formation of country are not fixed.

Territory:

• State should have exact territory with clearcut boundary.
• Territory consists of land area water bodies, coastal area, aerial space.

Government:

• Whatever be the form the state should have a government.
• Government may change but state is permanent.
• Day-to-day administration, maintain law and order.
• Increases employment opportunities making of laws seeking permanent solutions to disputes, etc. are functions of government.

Sovereignty:

• State has the power to take decisions on internal and international affairs independently without any external control. This supreme authority of state is called sovereignty.

Question 36. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Implementation of developmental projects is one of the functions of a government. What are the other functions?
Answer:

• Ensure law and order
• Increase employment opportunities
• Make and execute laws
• Find permanent solution to disputes

Question 37. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Complete the given flow chart

Answer:

• Internal sovereignty
• External sovereignty

Question 38. (Qn. Pool -2017)
Providing health care, providing educational facilities, etc. are discretionary functions of a government. How do you respond to this? What is meant by discretionary functions?
Answer:
Development of human resources is the major objective of medem state. Protection of health providing education facilities, etc. are main objectives of state.

• So that they should be included among the compulsory functions.
• Discretionary functions are those which have to be implemented as per economic condition of state.

Question 39. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Complete the chart

Answer:
Divine Right theory, Evolutionary theory, Social contract theory, Power theory

Question 40. (Qn.Pool-2017)
What is meant by political science? What is the importance of it in the present-day society?
Answer:

• According to Aristotle ‘political science is the study of state and government’.
• The merit of the society in which we live helps us to understand how much we involve in the political process of society.
• Empowers people to logically analyze and creatively intervene in all public issues.

Question 41. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Mother Teresa and poet Kamala Surayya are per¬sons having Indian citizenship.
Do they have same type of citizenship? If not, what is the difference between their citizenship?
Answer:

• Mother Teresa has acquired citizenship
• Kamala Surayya has natural citizenship
• Citizenship by birth is natural citizenship but citizenship acquired through legal procedure is acqured citizenship.

Question 42. (Qn.Pool-2017)
What is meant by sovereignty?
Answer:
State has the right to take decisions on national and international issues independently. This supreme authority of state is called sovereignty.

Question 43. (Qn.Pool-2017)
What are the equal rights one get through citizen-ship?
Answer:

• Right to contest election
• Right to vote
• Right to form organizations

Question 44. (Qn. Pool -2017)
What are the different branches of study of political science?
Answer:
Political theories
Public administration
Comparative politics
International-politics

Question 45. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Too much or too less population is not good for a state. Why?
Answer:
Too much and too less population will adversely af¬fect the development of a state.

Question 46. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Why states like Canada having less population encourages migration?
Answer:
Scarcity of human resources is the reason for this.

Question 47. (Qn.Pool-2017)
What is meant by citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is full and equal membership of a nation

Question 48. (Orukkam – 2017)
List out the obligatory and discretionary powers of the state in the given table.

Answer:

Question 49. (Orukkam – 2017)
The following are the different theories of the origin of state. Point out the ideas put forward by each of the theories in the formation of state.

Answer:

Question 50. (Orukkam – 2017)
Complete the sun diagram showing the branches of political science.

Answer:

Question 51. (Orukkam – 2017)
Match the column A with B.

Answer:

You can Download British Exploitation and Resistance Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 1 Chapter 4 British Exploitation and Resistance Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 4 Notes

British Exploitation And Resistance Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Prepare the diagram that depicts the features of the Permanent settlement, the Ryotwari, and the Mahalwari land revenue systems.
Answer:

British Exploitation And Resistance Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
How did the British land revenue Policy make the peasantry fall easy prey to the exploitation of moneylenders? Explain.
Answer:
In the permanent land revenue settlement the tax was collected by zamindars. When the zamindars became the owners of the land, the actual farmers became tenants. The tax to be paid to the Government was exactly estimated. In the Ryotwari system the ownership of the land was vested with the farmers. The condition of the farmers did not improve. The tax to be paid was of high interest.

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Conduct a discussion on ‘British policies and commercialization of agriculture.
Answer:
The commercialization of agriculture began as a result of landlordism and revenue policy. The products made by them were used to meet their needs. The products were based on both their daily needs and luxury. They began to cultivate cotton. Indigo after Industrial Revolt.

Farmers did not get much income. Indian goods were thrown away. Indian goods lost their value with the arrival of foreign goods. Tax was more during the British rule. Indian lands became the cultivating field of Europe. Indigo, cotton, sugarcane, tea, jute and wheat were cultivated during that period.

10th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Imagine yourself as a journalist. Prepare a news report on the plight of the indigo farmers of the nineteenth century.
Answer:
Indigo Plantation Makes the Farmers in Misery:
Bengal: flic farmers from Bengal are irudiiionally cultivators of wheat and sugarcane. They began Indigo plantation due to the compulsion of the British But (he profit did not go to the farmers, though the pi ice was high m the market They got only cheap wages.

The use of two artificial cnlomlessened (lie demand of indigo. So the farmers began to Lullivate wheal, sug.in.anc. and other crops Bui the Brilisli stood against it and deslroycd the crops. With this, the misery and plight nfthclanncrs increased.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 5.
Analyse the circumstances that led to the Indigo Revolt.
Answer:
Indigo was a product in the market. It was used for dyeing. Indigo was found from Indian farms for Europe. The British compelled Indian farmers. Low rate was permitted for the fanners. No other products were allowed to be made. Farmers came with protest, first in Bengal. They attacked indigo factories with arrows, swords and spears. As the protest be came severe, factories were closed. By the end of 1860 Indigo cultivation in Bengal came to an end.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Question 6.
How did the British rule make the Tribal life miserable. Examine ?
Answer:
The tribes became the victims of the British rule. Gathering forest produce, cattle rearing, shifting cultivation, and hunting were their major means of livelihood. The Forest Acts imposed by the British made their life miserable.

They were prohibited to enter forest when the British declared forests as protected.The forests that were abundant with trees required by the British were declared as protected forests.

The British widely felled trees from forests to lay railway lines and build ships, and for plantation. The British levied tax at higher rates on the forest produce collected by the tribes.

Hsslive Guru Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Analyse the reasons for the decline of the Indian textile industry and complete the diagram below.
Answer:

Sslc Geography Chapter 1 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Prepare an article on the problems faced by different sections of people due to the British policies in India.
Answer:
The rules of the British have helped the people in many ways. Land Revenue System is one among them. According to the rule, many fanners lost their land. They were compelled to pay heavy rate as taxes. The inflation in Bengal and the life of the workers, poverty, heavy tax, decline in the field of agriculture, the exploitation of Zamindars, money lenders and merchants all affected the people badly.

Social Science 10th Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Discuss the causes of the Revolt of 1857 based on the hints below.

• Miseries of farmers.
• Poverty of the craftsmen.
• Dissatisfaction of kings.
• Miseries of the sepoys.

Answer:
The Rebellion was started by the sepoys of Meerut. Poor salary and abuse by the British officers were the major reasons for their resentment. The rumour that the cartridge in the newly supplied enfield rifles were greased with the fat of cows and pigs provoked Indians.

It wounded the religious sentiments of the Hindu and Muslim soldiers.The soldiers who were unwilling to use the new cartridge were punished by the officers.Along with the kings and the sepoys, common people also took part in the revolt. The British rule had adversely affected the kings too. In addition to the Doctrine of Lapse, the princely states were convicted of in efficient rule and were annexed by the British.

This made the kings lead the Rebellion.The salient features of this Rebellion was the active participation of the common people like farmers and craftsmen.The rioters could not overcome the superior military power of the British and the rebellion was extremely suppressed.

Though the revolt could not succeed completely, it was marked as the foremost massive resistance of the Indians against the British.1857 sepoy revolt brought several changes in the policies and administration of the British. The British parliament took over Indians from the British East India company. Economic exploitation of the British reached its extreme level in the post 1857 phase.

Social 10th Class Notes State Syllabus Question 10.
Prepare a note on Drain Theory.
Answer:
The financial exploitation of British created hatred among the Indians. Dadabhai Naoroji published the facts on the deterioration of Indian economy under British rule. He established the fact that a huge amount of money was flowing to the British every year. He proved that the drain of wealth was the root cause of poverty and starvation in India. His findings were known as ‘Drain Theory.’
The sources of drain of wealth from India to British were of different types.

• Export of Indian raw materials.
• Pension and salary given for British employees.
• Profit gained after selling British products.
• Tax collected from India.

The drain of wealth to foreign countries was just a part of exploitation in India. The British used the methods of heavy taxes, unfavorable marketing etc. They gained more through these means.

British Exploitation and Resistance Let us Assess

10th Standard Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
The revenue policy of the British was the major cause for the decline of agricultural sector in India. Examine this statement by analyzing the features of the permanent settlement.
Answer:
Permanent land revenue settlement system was mainly implemented among the farmers by the British. This land revenue settlement was implemented in Bengal, Bihar and Odisha region. The permanent settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis, the Governor General of British India. This system is also known as Zamindari system. In this system the Zamindars collected tax from the farmers. They received 1/11^th of the total tax collected as commission.

Various features of permanent land revenue settlement:
Zamindars were the owners of the entire land where they had the right to collect tax. While zamindars became the owners of the land, the actual farmers became tenants. Farmers were to pay up to 60% of the yield as tax. Tax was to be paid even at the time of poor yield. The tax was to be paid in cash strictly before the cut-off date

Sslc Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Pdf 2020 Question 2.
Match column A with column B.

Answer:

Sslc History Chapter 1 Malayalam Medium Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
What were the circumstances that led to the commercialization of agriculture during the British period?
Answer:
During the British rule Indian farmers were mainly engaged in agriculture. The farmers produced things only to meet the needs of their family and the village. During the British rule farmers were compelled to cultivate crops according to the market needs. As a result commercial crops were largely cultivated instead of food crops.

This transformation is called commercialization of agriculture.Farmers had to pay high rate of tax in the form of cash before the deadline. To meet this, farmers cultivated the crops that had the higher market price. The products that had demand in the European markets were given higher price.

Thus,the Indian lands became the cultivating field of Europe.Various crops that were widely cultivated during this period were indigo, cotton, sugarcane, tea, jute, wheat etc.

Sslc Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Analyze the causes of the Indigo Revolt.
Answer:
With the industrial revolution in the 18th century in England textile industry gathered much momentum and the demand for indigo further increased.Import of indigo from Britain nearly doubled by 1810 against 1780. It was necessary for the British industrialists to get indigo plantation spread to more regions in India.

They gave the farmers a good amount as advance for the cultivation of indigo.The farmers succumbed to the temptation of the British and widely planted indigo as they were in trouble with no other means to pay the heavy land tax.

Due to the interference of the British agents in the harvesting seasons, the farmers received only a lower price for indigo. Later when artificial colors were invented, the indigo became obsolete. This made the plight of the farmers more miserable.

The Indigo farmers Revolt:
According to D. G. Tendulkar “not a chest of indigo reached England without being stained with human blood.” This quote reveals the sufferings of the indigo farmers. The indigo farmers resorted to revolt owing to the severe exploitation and endless miseries. In 1859 the farmers of Bengal organised themselves and declared that they were giving up indigo cultivation.

They attacked indigo factories with bows, arrows, swords and spears. Several women also participated in the revolt. The rioters excommunicated the British supporters and those who worked for the British. The Government appointed a commission to study the problem of the indigo farmers. The commission found that the indigo farming was uneconomic and proposed to stop it.

Question 5.
‘Kurichya rebellion was a resistance by the tribes against the British exploitation.’ What were the circumstances that led to the Kurichya rebellion?
Answer:
Kurichya revolt was another tribal in surgency against the British in Wayanad. It was organised by the Kurichya and the Kurumba tribes of Wayanad in 1812. There are various reasons for this revolt. Imposition of excessive tax by the British, compulsion for paying tax in cash and seizing of agricultural land for non-payment of tax, etc. are some of them.

The Revolt was led by the Kurichya leader Rama Nambi. Several people other than the tribes also joined in this struggle. The British government suppressed the struggle and killed Rama Nambi. Besides the Santhal and Kurichya revolt. Several other tribal insurgencies broke out in different parts of India. The important ones among them are.

• Pachariya Rebellion
• Kol Rebellion
• Bhil Rebellion
• Munda Rebellion
• Khasi Rebellion

Question 6.
What were the causes of the decline of the Indian textile industry?
Answer:
The observation made by William Ben tick, the Governor General of India, on the decline of textile industry that was world famous once. The bones of the cotton weavers were bleaching the plains of India.

The British policies completely ruined not only the agricultural sector, but also the handicrafts in India.Large scale import of machine made British textiles was the major reason for the ruin of Indian textile industry.The machine made textiles imported from Britain could be sold easily, for they were cheaper.

The expansion of railway was also responsible for the decline of the Indian textile industry.It helped the British to carry the imported fabrics from port towns to interior villages and the cotton collected from villages to the ports for exporting to Britain.

Due to the higher tax levied, the price of Indian textiles exported to Britain increased so it lost the British market too.Weavers gave up their work massively due to the exploitation and torture of the British officers. So they searched for other jobs. The textile centers like Murshidabad and Dhaka that were thickly populated once, became least inhabited.

The people, who had been working in the textile industry migrated to villages and engaged in agriculture related works. This led to the stagnation in agriculture. The ruins of agriculture sector and handicrafts industry led India to famine and deaths due to starvation. Lakhs of people died of famine.

Question 7.
Do you think that the famines in India were the creation of the British? Why?
Answer:
India became a mere supplier of raw materials to Britain and a market for finished goods. Life had become a burden when the production and distribution of consumer items like salt came under the control of the British government. A huge amount of money was flowing to Britain every year.

The drain of wealth was the root cause of poverty and starvation in India. Export of Indian raw materials, salary and pension to the British officers in India, profit gained through the sale of the British products in India, Tax from India also led to poverty and starvation among Indians.

Question 8.
Evaluate the role of Drain theory by Dadabhai Naoroji in stimulating national feeling among the Indian masses.
Answer:
Economic exploitation among Indians by the Britishers reinforced their anti British attitude. Dadabhai Naoraj i’s drain theory played an important role in making the common people aware of the economic policy of the British and nationalism among Indians.

Question 9.
Analyzes the causes of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
There are various reasons for the Revolt of . 1857. The Rebellion was started by the sepoys of Meerut. Poor salary and abuse by the British officers were the major reasons for their resentment. The rumour that the car ridge in the newly supplied infield rifles were greased with the fat of cows and pigs provoked Indians. It wounded the religious sentiments of the Hindu and Muslim soldiers.

The soldiers who were unwilling to use the new cartridge were punished by the officers. Along with the kings and the sepoys, common people also took part in the revolt. The British rule had adversely affected the kings too. In addition to the Doctrine of Lapse, the princely states were convicted of inefficient rule and were annexed by the British.

This made the kings lead the Rebellion.The salient features of this Rebellion was the active participation of the common people like farmers and craftsmen. Out of one and a half lakhs of people who were killed in the riots at Awadh, a princely state, one lakhs were the common people.

The real strength of the rebellion was the Hindu Muslim unit. A spirit of cooperation existed among the soldiers, common people and the leaders. The rioters captured Delhi and declared Bahadur Shah II as the emperor of India.

The rioters could not overcome the superior military power of the British and the rebellion was extremely suppressed. Though the revolt could not succeed completely, it was marked as the foremost massive resistance of the Indians against the British.

1857 sepoy revolt brought several changes in the policies and administration of the British.The British parliament took over Indians from the British East India company. Economic exploitation of the British reached its extreme level in the post 1857 phase.

Question 10.
What were the sources of economic drain from India to Britain? .
Answer:
Export of Indian raw materials . Salary and pension to the British officers in India . Tax from India.These are the various sources of economic drain from India to Britain.

Question 11.
Do you think that the Swadeshi Movement was a mass movement? Why?
Answer:
To check economic drain, the early national leaders pleaded with the people to boycott foreign goods and strengthen Indian industry by consuming Indian products. As a part of the agitation, foreign goods were collected and burnt publicly. The extensive use of indigenous products by discarding foreign items rejuvenated Indian industry.

As a result, a number of textile mills, soap factories, match box companies, national banks and insurance companies were established. It was during the Swadeshi movement that the Bengal chemical store in Bengal, The Tata steel plant in Maharashtra and the Swadeshi steam Navigation company in Tamil Nadu were established.

Import of British goods to India steadily went down during this period.Massive participation of women, laborers, and students were another remarkable feature of this movement. Washer men look a vow that they would not wash foreign clothes.

The priests swore that they would not perform rituals and prayer using foreign items. Women boycotted foreign bangles and utensils. Students quit schools to take part in the movement. Indian nationalism attained further strength from Swadeshi movement.

British Exploitation and Resistance Extended Activities

Question 1.
Collect news and pictures on peasant and tribal rebellions that took place in different parts of India during the British rule and prepare an album
Answer:
Mappila Riots:
Mappila Riots or Mappila Outbreaks refers to a series of riots by the Mappila (Moplah) Muslims of Malabar, South India in the 19th century and the early 20th century (1836-1921) against native Hindus and the state. The Malabar Rebellion of 1921 is often considered as the culmination of Mappila riots. Mappilas committed several atrocities against the Hindus during the outbreak.

Santhal Rebellion:
The Santhal rebellion (sometimes referred to as the Santhal rebellion), commonly known as Santhal Hool, was a native rebellion in present Jharkhand, in eastern India against both the British colonial authority and upper caste Zamindari system by the Santhal people.

It started on June 30,1855 and on November 10, 1855 martial law was proclaimed which lasted until January 3,1856 when martial law was suspended and the movement was brutally ended by troops loyal to the British.

Kurichya Rebellion:
Unjust and violent acts against the people of Wayanad were done with the knowledge and concurrence of the Collector, Mr. Warden. His stubbomess and his officers’ stupidity and cruelty combined to produce a strong spirit of resistance and aggressive attitude on the part of the people of Wayanad in 1812. It was in this background that the Kurichya Rebellion of 1812 erupted.

Question 2.
Prepare a magazine featuring the centres and leaders of the First war of Indian Independence in 1857.
Answer:
Delhi : Bahadur Shah Zafar and Bakht Khan.
Jhansi : RaniLaxmiBai.
Bihar : Kunwar Singh.
Mathura : Devi Singh.
Meerut : Kadam Singh.
Faizabad : Muhammad Ullah. ,
Kanpur : Nana sahib, Tantya Tope and Azimullah Khan.
Allahabad : LiaqatAli.

British Exploitation and Resistance Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the table give below.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write the impact of the land revenue policies of its British.
High taxation
Answer:

• High Taxation,
• Seizing of agricultural land for non payment of tax,
• Compulsion for paying tax in cash.

Question 3.
Complete the given chart in connection with the condition of Indian peasants and cultivation in India.


Answer:

• Increase in the manufacture of textile.
• High demand for indigo.
• Land used for cultivation of food grains was to be reserved for indigo plantation.
• Indigo became obsolete.
• The plight of the farmers became more miserable.

Question 4.
Complete the time line given below.

Answer:

Question 5.
List out the causes for the peasant revolts in Malabar.
Answer:

• Unfair land revenue system.
• Exploitation of Land Lords.
• Eriction of Tenants.

Question 6.
Complete the given table.

Answer:

• Peasant Revolt,
• Tribal Revolt,
• Tribal Revolt.

Question 7.
Write the causes for the revolt of the tribal’s against the British.
Answer:

• Forest Laws of the British.
• Imposition of excessive tax by the British.
• Compulsion of paying tax in cash.

Question 8.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:

• Imposition of excessive tax by the British.
• Seizing of agricultural land for paying tax in cash.

Question 9.
Complete the diagram.

Answer:

• Pahariya Rebellion,
• Kol Rebellion,
• Vaadi Revolts,
• Munda Rebglion,
• Bhil Rebellion.

Question 10.
Identify the cause for the decline of the textile industry.
Answer:

• Import of machine made textile.
• Export of raw materials. Expansion of railway.
• Exploitation and Torture of British.
• Advent of rail ways.

Question 11.
List out the results of the decline of the textile industry in India.
Answer:

• The cities became least inhabited.
• People who had been working in textile industry migrated to villages and engaged in agriculture related works.
• The ruins of agriculture sector and handicraft industry led India to famine and death.

Question 12.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 13.
List out its problem faced by the labors in the modern industrial factories started by the British.
Prolonged working hours
Answer:

• Prolonged working hours.
• Meagre wages.
• Unhealthy accommodation.

Question 14.
Complete its table.

Answer:

• Discrimination of cast,
• Miseries of sepoys,
• Miseries of farmers,
• Poverty of Crafts men.

Question 15.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

• Bahadur Shah II,
• Jhansi,
• Begum Hazret Mahal,
• Kanpur,
• Moulavi Ahammedullah.

Question 16.
Identify how the wealth of India drained to Britain.
Export of raw materials from India
Answer:

• Salary and Pension to the British officers in India.
• Tax from India.
• Profit gained through the sale of the British products in India.

Question 17.
Complete the given time line.

Answer:

Question 18.
Complete the table.

Answer:
Consumption of Indigenous products.

British Exploitation and Resistance Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
Analyse the features of the permanent land revenue settlement.
Answer:

• In the permanent land revenue settlement the tax was collected by zamindars.
• Zamindar was the owner of the entire land where had the jurisdiction to collect tax.
• While the zamindars became the owners of the land, the actual farmers became tenants.
• Farmers were to pay up to 60% of the yield as tax.
• Tax was to be paid even at the time of poor yield.
• The tax was to be paid in cash strictly before the cutoff date.

Question 2.
Distinguish between its Ryot Wari and the Mahal Wari systems.
Answer:
The Ryotwari system introduced in South India the land revenue was collected directly from the farmers (Ryots). Though ownership of land was vested with the farmers, excessive tax impoverished them. Further more the tax rates were frequently increased.

In the Mahalwari system, the village headman was assigned the responsibility to collect tax. The tax rate was excessive in this system too. The entire village (Mahal) was considered as a single unit for tax collection.

Question 3.
What do you mean by the commercialization of agriculture? How did if affect Indian peasants?
Answer:
Traditionally the peasants in India were engaged in agriculture mainly to produce things only to meet the needs of their family and the village.During the British rule they were compelled to cultivate crops according to the market needs. As a result, commercial crops were largely cultivated instead of food crops. This transformation is termed as commercialization of agriculture.

Question 4.
Analyse how the land revenue and economic policies of its British affected different sections of India society.
Answer:
Farmers were one of the immediate victims of the British rule. It was the land revenue system implemented by the British that destroyed the backbone of the farmers.

The aim of their tax policy was to maximize the income. The land revenue system implemented in the various regions under the British rule was different. The Land Revenue systems introduced by the British were. Permanent land revenue settlement, Ryotwari system, Mahalwari system.

Permanent Land Settlement:
The permanent settlement was introduced by lord Cornwallis, the governor general of British India. This system is also known as the zamindari system. In this system, the zamindars collected tax from farmers. They received 1/11^th of the total tax collected as commission.

Features of permanent land revenue settlement:

• In the permanent land revenue settlement the tax was collected by zamindars.
• Zamindar was the owner of the entire land where he had the jurisdiction to collect tax. . While the zamindars became the owners of the land, the actual farmers became tenants.
• Farmers were to pay up to 60% of the yield as tax.
• Tax was to be paid even at the time of poor yield.
• The tax was to be paid in cash strictly before the cutoff date.

Ryotwari System:
In the ryotwari system introduced in South India the land revenue was collected directly from the farmers (Ryots). Though ownership of land was vested with farmers, excessive tax impoverished them. Furthermore, the tax rates were frequently increased.

Mahalwari System:
The village headman was assigned the responsibility to collect tax. The tax rate was excessive in this system too. The entire village (Mahal) was considered as a single unit for tax collection.

Question 5.
Explain the causes of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
There are various reasons for the Revolt of . 1857. The Rebellion was started by the sepoys of Meerut. Poor salary and abuse by the British officers were the major reasons for their resentment. The rumour that the car ridge in the newly supplied infield rifles were greased with the fat of cows and pigs provoked Indians.

It wounded the religious sentiments of the Hindu and Muslim soldiers.The soldiers who were unwilling to use the new cartridge were punished by the officers. Along with the kings and the sepoys, common people also took part in the revolt.

The British rule had adversely affected the kings too. In addition to the Doctrine of Lapse, the princely states were convicted of inefficient rule and were annexed by the British.This made the kings lead the Rebellion.The salient features of this Rebellion was the active participation of the common people like farmers and craftsmen.

Out of one and a half lakhs of people who were killed in the riots at Awadh, a princely state, one lakhs were the common people. The real strength of the rebellion was the Hindu Muslim unit. A spirit of cooperation existed among the soldiers, common people and the leaders.

The rioters captured Delhi and declared Bahadur Shah II as the emperor of India.The rioters could not overcome the superior military power of the British and the rebellion was extremely suppressed.Though the revolt could not succeed completely, it was marked as the foremost massive resistance of the Indians against the British.

1857 sepoy revolt brought several changes in the policies and administration of the British.The British parliament took over Indians from the British East India company. Economic exploitation of the British reached its extreme level in the post 1857 phase.

Question 6.
What do you mean by its drain theory?
Answer:
The earlier leaders of congress were much conscious of the economic exploitation of the British and the resultant poverty faced by the Indians. They unveiled the British attempts to convert India as the market for selling British products, and a mere center for collecting raw material for the British industries.

They pointed out that life has become a burden when the production and distribution of consumer items like salt came under the control of the British government. Dadabai Naoroji was at the lead in pointing out such discrimination.

Through his studies, he publicized the facts On the deterioration of Indian economy under the British rule. His studies were based on empirical data. He proved that the drain of wealth was the root cause of poverty and starvation in India. His finding is known as ‘Drain Theory’.

Question 7.
How did the swadeshi movement resist British colonial domination?
Answer:
To check Economic drain, the early national leaders pleaded with the people to boycott foreign goods and strengthen Indian industry by consuming Indian products. The major strategy adopted for the anti partition movement in Bengal in 1905 was the boycott of for reign goods and consumption of indigenous products by discarding foreign items rejuvenated Indian industry.

As a result a number of textile mills, soap factories, match box companies, national banks and insurance companies were established.It was during the Swadeshi Movement, that the Bengal chemical store in Bengal. The Tata steel plant in Maharashtra and the Swadeshi steam navigation company in Tamil Nadu was established.

Import of British goods to India steadily went down during this period massive participation of women, laborers and students were another remarkable feature of this movement. Washer men took a vow that they would not wash foreign clothes. The priests swore that they would not perform rituals and prayers using foreign items. Women boycotted foreign bangles and utensils. Students quit school to take part in the movements.

Question 8.
Arrange its following table appropriately.

Answer:

British Exploitation and Resistance SCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What were the revenue systems implemented by the British in various parts of India?
Answer:

• Permanent land revenue settlement,
• Ryotwari system,
• Mahalwari system.

Question 2.
Revenue systems implemented by the British broke the back bone of the Indian farmers. Evaluate the statement based on Permanent land revenue settlement implemented by the British.
Answer:

• In this system the tax was collected by the zamindar
• Right to collect tax from the land and its ownership was also vested on zamindar.
• The zamindars became the owners of land, the actual farmers became tenants.
• 60% of production was given as tax.
• Tax was to be paid in cash before the cut-off date.

Question 3.
What was the major difference of the Ryotwari system from the Permanent land revenue settlement?
Answer:
In Ryotwari system, the land revenue was collected directly from the farmers. Ownership of land was vested with the farmers.

Question 4.
How did the Mahalwari system differ from Ryotwari system.
Answer:

• In the Mahalwari system village headman collected tax.
• Village was considered as a single unit for tax collection.

Question 5.
Although there are certain differences in the ownership of land and the collection of land revenue, certain similarities can also be found in the land revenue system implemented by the British. Substantiate.
Answer:

• Tax has to be paid in cash.
• Tax was very high.

Question 6.
Evaluate how the revenue system implemented by the British adversely affected the agricultural sector.
Answer:
Tax was to be paid in cash. So often peasants had to take loans from money lenders at a high rate of interest. Farmers got money from money lenders by mortgaging land. Moneylenders seized the mortgaged agricultural land of farmers, who couldn’t repay the loan.

Question 7.
Evaluate the circumstances that forced Indian farmers to cultivate cash crops.
Answer:

• High rate of tax
• Tax had to be paid in cash before the dead line.
• To meet this situation they cultivated products having higher market price.

Question 8.
What was the name of the revenue system implemented by the British in the regions of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa?
Answer:
Permanent land revenue settlement.

Question 9.
What was the name of the revenue system implemented by the British in South India?
Answer:
Ryotwari system.

Question 10.
What was the name of the revenue system implemented by the British in the North western region.
Answer:
Mahalwari system.

Question 11.
Revenue systems implemented by the British in India and its features are given below in table. Arrange them in proper order.

Answer:
1 – b,
2 – c,
3 – a.

Question 12.
Certain commercial crops cultivated in India and its important centers of cultivation are given in table below. Arrange them in correct order.

Answer:
1- c,
2 – e,
3 – a,
4 – f,
5 – d,
6 – b.

Question 13.
What was the strategy used by the British to force Indian farmers to cultivate indigo?
Answer:
Indigo farmers were given money in advance.

Question 14.
Analyse the factors that led to the miseries of Indigo farmers in India.
Answer:
With the Industrial revolution textile industry gathered momentum in England. The demand for indigo increased. British merchants were ready to give money in advance to farmers in order to encourage the cultivation of Indigo.

Farmers succumbed to the temptation of the British and were liable to plant indigo in a fixed portion of the land. So the land used for the cultivation of food crops had to be set a part for indigo plantations. But in the harvest season, the farmers received only a lower price for indigo.

With the invention of artificial indigo, demand for natural indigo reduced. This made the plight of the farmers more miserable for they had used much of their land for indigo cultivation.

Question 15.
Why is the peasant revolts in the British Malabar region considered as Mappila revolt?
Answer:
Most of the tenants in Malabar were Mappilas (Muslims in Malabar). So peasant revolts in Malabar were known as Mappila revolt.

Question 16.
Which was the commission appointed by the British government to study recurring peasant revolts in Malabar.
Answer:
William Logan Commission.

17. What was the reason found out by the William Logan Commission for the peasant revolt in Malabar?
Answer:
Unfair land revenue system of the British.

Question 18.
“The tribal people also became the victims of the British rule”. Do you agree with the statement. Explain the reasons.
Answer:
The Forest laws implemented by the British made their life miserable. The British imposed restriction on tribals to collect forest products and enter into the protected forest. Imposed high taxes on forest products collected by the tribals.

Question 19.
Evaluate the circumstances that led to the kurichyas and Kurumbas of Wayanad to turn against the British.
Answer:

• Imposition of excessive tax by the British.
• Paying of tax in cash.
• Seizing of agricultural land for non payment of tax.

Question 20.
Analyse the circumstances that led to the deterioration of textile industry which was one of the important traditional industries in India.
Answer:

• Large scale import of machine made textiles in India.
• Low price of machine made textiles.
• Expansion of railway.
• Imported textiles could reach the villages.
• Traditional weavers lost their village markets.
• Due to high export tax, textiles exported to Britain lost its market.
• Seizing of agricultural land for non payment of tax.

Question 21.
Evaluate the circumstances that led to the deterioration of village industries like pottery, tannery, carpentry etc.
Answer:

• Pottery – Import of aluminium vessels.
• Tannery – Export of raw leather to Europe.
• Carpentry – Use of machines made of metals.

Question 22.
The British Industrialists exploited Indian laborers. Examine the validity of this statement.
Answer:

• Prolonged working hours.
• Meagre wages.
• Unhealthy accommodation.

Question 23.
What were the early labour strikes in India against the exploitation of British Industrialists.
Answer:

• Great Bombay Textile strike.
• Calcutta Jute Mill strike.

Question 24.
Analyse the circumstances that led the British Indian soldiers to the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

• Poor Salary.
• Abuse by the British officers.
• Rumours connected with newly introduced rifle and its cartridges.
• Server punishments given to sepoys who were unwilling to use this cartridges.
• The religious sentiments of the Hindu and Muslim soldiers were wounded.
• Mangal Pandey, an Indian sepoy was hanged, as he shot a British official.

Question 25.
What was the important strategy used by the company to annex the princely states into the British empire.
Answer:
The Doctrine of Lapse.

Question 26.
The first war of Indian independence in 1857 was entirely different from the early resistance movements held in India so far. Evaluate the validity of the statement.
Answer:

• Active participation of the common people like farmers and craftsmen.
• Hindu-Muslim unity.
• Co-operation existed among the soldiers, common people and the leaders.

Question 27.
Name of the leaders and centers of the first war of Indian independence in 1857 are given in table below. Arrange them in appropriate order.

Answer:
1 – c,
2 – a,
3 – d,
4 – b.

Question 28.
What are the methods by which the wealth of India drained to Britain according to the drain theory of Dadabai Naoroji.
Answer:

• Export of Indian raw materials.
• Salary and pension to the British officers in India.
• Profit gained through the sale of the British products in India.
• Tax from India.

Question 29.
What was the idea put forward by leaders to prevent the drain of India’s wealth?
Answer:
Swadeshi.

Question 30.
What was the major strategy adopted in the agitation against the partition of Bengal in 1905.
Answer:
Boycott of foreign goods.

Question 31.
The use of swadeshi goods and boycott of foreign goods rejuvenated Indian Industry. Substantiate.
Answer:
A number of textile mills, soap factories, match box companies, national banks and insurance companies were established. The Bengali Chemical store, the Tata Steel Plant in Maharashtra and Swadeshi Steam navigation company in Tamil Nadu etc. started during swadeshi movements. Import of British goods to India steadily went down during this period.

British Exploitation and Resistance Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find out the region where the permanent land revenue system was not implemented from given below?
a. Bengal.
b. Bihar.
c. Orissa.
d. Kerala.
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 2.
Swaraj is better than the best form of foreign rule.”. Whose opinion is this ?
Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak.

Question 3.
In which year was Indian National Congress formed ?
Answer:
1885

Question 4.
Write the name of the book of Dadabhai Naoroji in which the ‘Drain Theory’ is included.
Answer:
Poverty and Un British rule in India

Question 5.
What was the reason behind the division of Eastern Bengal and Western Bengal?
Answer:
Bengal was the center of nationalist movements at that time. The Hindu Muslim Unity in Bengal strengthened such movements. To destroy such unity, separate people on the basis of religion was focused by the British to divide Bengal.

Question 6.
Was the 1st war of Independence a failure? Did it motivate for the succeeding revolt?
Answer:
The 1st war of Independence was a failure but it helped in generating nationalism. The suppression of rulers brought hatred among the Indians. It was able to motivate and create a sense of cooperation for the succeeding revolts.

Question 7.
Besides the Santhal and Kurichya Revolts several other insurgencies broke out in different parts of India. Write the important revolts among them.
Answer:

• PahariyaRebellion.
• Kol Rebellion.
• Khasi Rebellion.
• Munda Rebellion.
• Bhil Rebellion.

Question 8.
What were the measures taken by the British Government against poverty?
Answer:
The British government did not take any measures for the upliftment of the people. Starve and die was the fate of the people.

Question 9.
Why did the British compel the farmers to produce crops instead of food products?
Answer:
Raw materials were needed for the British industrial growth. So the farmers were compelled to cultivate crops according to the market needs. Commercialization resulted in many problems and the most important was the scarcity of food.

Question 10.
Find out the difference in the Indigo Revolts and other revolts?
Answer:
The Indigo cultivation led the Indian farmers to misery. The British forced them to make the products at a low rate. When the cost of land in Europe was decreased, the condition of Indian farmers became miserable. They showed their protest by standing against cultivation. The farmers in Bengal protested against the land lords. But other protests were against the British Government.

Question 11.
What was the common aspect in Peasant Revolts?
Answer:
The reasons of peasant revolts were the heavy tax imposed by them and the suppression in the British rule. Most of the peasant revolts were for the people.

Question 12.
What were the reason for poverty?
Answer:
India was economically high in the field of agriculture. But with the entry of British, exploitation and suppression became strong and India turned to misery. The commercialization of agriculture resulted in scarcity of food. Jute, cotton and Indigo increased and traditional products lost its market. Indigo cultivation in the wheat field brought the farmers of Orissa and Bengal into misery.

Question 13.
How did the misery affect the peasants? What were the other happenings in Bengal?
Answer:
The British rule made the life of peasants in trouble. Farmers who borrowed money for high interests were compelled to leave the fields. Merchants of Bengal closed their shops. Weavers lost their job. Cattle were sold. Tools for agriculture were sold. They ate whatever they got. Many were dead. Fever, Plague and other epidemics spread all over. Many lost their lives in Bengal and Bihar.

Question 14.
Prepare a news paper report on Bengal Famine.
Answer:
Indians on Hunger
Calcutta:
People in Orissa, Bengal, Bihar, and Madras are dying in starvation. They struggle with out food to feed once a day. The British is responsible for it. People die due to the hunger and starvation. Schools and markets remain closed. Epidemics like plague spreads everywhere. Even infants are lost every day. But no measures are taken from the part of government to fight the trouble.

Question 15.
What were the reflections of the decline of the textile industry in India.
Answer:
The immediate reflection of the decline of the textile industry was found in urban areas. The textile centers like Murshidabad and Dhaka that were thickly populated once, became least inhabited. The people who had been working in textile industry migrated to villages and engaged in agriculture related works.

As a result, the number of people who engaged in agriculture to earn a living, increased. It fragmented the agricultural fields and the production became stagnant.

Question 16.
What were the common reasons for the revolt of 1857 and regional revolts which happened before 1857?
Answer:
Common reasons were there for the revolt of 1857 and other regional revolts. The revenue policies and heavy taxes of the British were one which made the Indians stay against the British. The military officials who served under English East India company their small land owners.

British took over the rule of Kings. They decided to bring them under their control. They also thought to bring the militants under the expense of kings. After signing the militant force, they lost their rights. The life of the people were in misery.

The temporary policies of Travancore made Veluthampi Dalava and British to revolt. Changes were brought in the British rule in India after 1857. British parliament took the control of India from English East India Company. The miseries were after 1857. Starvation and death were the ultimate results.

Question 17.
a. How did the Indian textiles lose the British market ?
b. Why did the weavers in India search for other jobs?
Answer:
a. Due to the higher tax levied the price of Indian textiles exported to Britain increased. So the Indian textiles lost the British market.
b. The British officers forced the weavers to work at meagre wages and to exchange the products to them at cheaper rate. Weavers gave, up their work due too the exploitation and fortune of the British officers. So they searched for other jobs.

Question 18.
What were the reflections of the decline of the textile industry in India ?
Answer:
The immediate reflection of the decline of the textile industry was found in urban areas. The textile centers like Murshidabad and Dhaka that were thickly populated once, became least inhabited. The people, who had been working in textile industry, migrated to villages and engaged in agriculture relayed works. As a result, the number of people, who engaged in agriculture to earn a living, increased. It fragmented the agricultural fields and the productions became stagnant.

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 6 Eyes in the Sky and Data Analysis Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 6 Notes

Question 1.
Identify the type of remote sensing which each of the above photograph fig 5.2, 5.3, 5.4 in your T.B. might have been captured.

Answer:
A. Terrestrial photography
B. Aerial photography
C. Satellite Remote Sensing

Question 2.
What change does the satellite image exhibit as its spatial resolution decreases?
Answer:
As the spatial resolution decreases the clenty of the image reduces.
Geographic Information System(GIS):
The software used for preparing maps with the help of data collected through remote sensing and other methods of survey for various purposes is called GIS. The latitudinal and longitudinal position of an object is called spatial data and the features of the object is called attributes.

Question 3.
Find out the latitude and longitude of your house using the software Wiki mafia.
Answer:
Wiki mafia is a software that will help us to locate a place. For example, of you house is in Thrissuryour house will be 10.5276°N, 76.2144°E, of it is in Trivandrum city 8.5241 °N, 76.9366°E of it is in Kannur 11,8745°N, 75.3704°E.

Satellite-based Navigation System:
Nowadays, satellite-based tracking system are used for monitoring the location and movement of objects on the earth’s surface Global positioning system helps sensing the latitudinal and longitudinal locations and elevation of objects. In this system, 24 satellites are placed at six different orbits at differ¬ent attitudes.

Question 4.
List the other potentials of GPS.
Answer:
GPS has significant role in the present-day world from tracking not work analysis etc.

Question 5.
Explain the history of remote sensing.
Answer:
Our ancestors made map after collecting information about the surface of the earth and survey of earth’s surface which lasted for a long time. Aerial photography which developed later made map-making quite easy. Satellite remote sensing and geographical information systems which developed in the 1960s as a result of the progress in science and technology paved the way for map-making efficient and fast.

Question 6.
What do you mean by remote sensing?
Answer:
Remote sensing is the method of collecting information about an object with the help of distantly placed sensors without touching

Question 7.
What are sensors? Write examples.
Answer:
Sensors are instruments used for collecting infor¬mation through remote sensing.
Eg. Camera, Scanners

Question 8.
What is the difference between scanner and . camera?
Answer:

• Cameras record the visible light reflected by the objects.
• Objects reflect high-frequency energy which can not be detected by human eyes. Scanners are complex instruments that can detect even these.

Question 9.
Distinguish between active remote sensing and passive remote sensing.
Answer:

• Active Remote Sensing: Remote sensing based on an artificial source of light or energy source is called active remote sensing.
• Passive Remote Sensing: Remote sensing based on the energy from the sun is called passive remote sensing.

Question 10.
What are the advantages of aerial remote sensing?
Answer:

• Useful for collecting information of a limited area with clarity.
• Widely used for the preparation of topographical maps.
• Highly useful for obtaining photographs with a three-dimensional view.
• A three-dimensional view enables to distinguish heights and depressions.

Question 11.
Identify from the pictures, the platforms used to collect information. Also, write the name of sensors placed in these.

Answer:

• Platform in Fig. A. Earth. Sensor used is camera.
• Platform in Fig. B Aircraft. Sensor used is camera.
• Platform in Fig. C. Satellite. Sensor used is scan-ner.

Question 12.
How is remote sensing divided based on the plat¬form used? Explain.

Answer:
Based on the type of platform used, remote sensing is divided into three:
(i) Terrestrial photography
(ii) Aerial remote sensing
(iii) Satellite remote sensing

• Terrestrial photography: Taking photographs of the earth’s surface from the terrain or from high elevations is called terrestrial photography. Eg: taking pictures using cameras.
• Aerial remote sensing: The process of taking photographs of the earth’s surface with the help of cameras fixed on balloons or aircraft is called aerial remote sensing.
• Satellite remote sensing: The process of collecting information using sensors fitted on artificial satellites is called satellite remote sensing.

Question 13.
Point out the uses of remote sensing.
Answer:
1. Understanding land use
2. Exploring the oceans
3. Oil exploration
4. Collecting details about places
5. Finding out drought and flood-affected areas

Question 14.
Name the 2 types of satellites in satellite remote sensing.
Answer:
1. Geostationary satellites
2. Sun-synchronous satellites

Question 15.
Examine the features of Geostationary satellites.

Answer:

• Orbit the earth at a height of about 36000 km.
• Positioned in the equatorial plane.
• As they move according to the orbital velocity of the earth, they always face the same region of the earth.
• One-third of the globe is brought under its observational limit.
• Constant data collection of one part of the earth is possible.
• Useful for understanding changes in weather conditions and for telecommunication.

Question 16.
Point out the features of sun-synchronous satellites.
Answer:

• Position is below 1000 km from the earth’s sur¬face.
• Move by traversing the north and the south poles.
• Less observational limit.
• Come over a particular region at a fixed interval of days.
• Continuous collection of information about a region is possible.
• Used to collect information about natural resources, land use and groundwater.

Question 17.
Point out the uses of overlay analysis.
Answer:
Know changes in the extent of crops.
Know change in land use pattern.
Know changes in the agricultural crops.

Question 18.
Distinguish between stereo pair and stereoscope.
Answer:
Stereo pair is two aerial photographs of adjoining areas. Whereas the instruments used for obtaining a three-dimensional view from the stereo pairs is called stereoscope.

Question 19.
Though Aerial remote sensing has many advantages it has got several limitations. What are those limitation?
Answer:

• The shaking of the aircraft affects the quality of photographs.
• Open space is needed for the takeoff and landing of planes.
• Not practical for taking photographs of vast and extensive regions.
• Costly to land the aircraft frequently for refuel¬ling.

Question 20.
What are the difference between India’s satellites INSATandIRS?
Answer:
INSAT satellites are geostationary satellites. On the other hand, IRS are sun-synchronous satellites.

Question 21.
Why are geostationary satellites known by that name? What are its uses?
Answer:
Geostationary satellites are those that orbit the earth with the same orbital velocity and direction as that of the earth. Since they move according to the or¬bital movement of the earth, they always face the same region of the earth. So they are known by this name.
Uses:

• Understanding difference in weather conditions.
• Telecommunications.

Question 22.
What is spectral signature? Write the reason for difference in the amount of spectral signature.
Answer:

• The measure of reflected energy by each object is called spectral signature. Every object on the earth’s surface reflects electromagnetic radiation in different measure.
• The difference in the amount of reflection is because of the variations in the physical properties of objects.
  For eg. The spectral signature of plants is different from that of sands.

Question 23.
What is spatial resolution? How does it influence the study of the surface of the earth?
Answer:

• Spatial resolution of a sensor is the size of the smallest object on the earth’s surface that it can distinguish.
• The sensors fitted on satellites cannot distinguish objects of all sizes on the surface of the earth. Earliersensorswere able to distinguish only large objects and they had less resolution (Eg. 1 km). Today there are sensors that can even represent information of less than one meter.

Question 24.
What do you mean by Geographic information systems?
Answer:
Geographic information system is a software that stores, updates, retrieves and analyses spatial data and their peculiarities.

Question 25.
Complete the list of possibilities of GIS.
1. Display the maps
2. …………………
3. …………………
4. …………………
Answer:
1. Display the maps
2. Renew/update the maps
3. Make new maps
4. Analyze the collected data and to make tables and graphs.

Question 26.
What is the importance of preparing layers in GIS? Write an example.
Answer:
With the help of GIS software, spatial data can be stored as different layers. When the features of the surface of the earth are made as layers, we can separate the data that we need to make tables and maps easily.

Example: Using QGIS, a GIS software, different data about India are made into separate layers. Different layers to show the states in India, natural resources, mountains, cotton cultivated regions and jute cultivated regions are made. Maps obtained as different layers in this manner can be used for different analyses.

Question 27.
Explain the three possibilities of GIS.
Answer:
The three possibilities of GIS are explained below.
Overlay analysis:
Overlay analysis is used for understanding the mutual relationship between and the changes undergone by the various features on the earth’s surface. For example, using maps showing the states of India and the cotton cultivated regions, we can find out the states where cotton is cultivated, using overlay analysis. This analysis also helps to find out the changes in the extent of crops and land use patterns.

Buffer analysis:
In buffer analysts, a circular region is created around a point or corridor like region around a linear feature. For example, if the width of an existing road is increased by 10 m, we can find out the number of houses to be acquired, using buffer analysis.

Network analysis:
Linear features such as roads, rivers, and railway lines are subjected to network analysis. Using this, we can find the nearest road to reach a place, less congested roads, roads without toll and hospitals, hotels and petrol pumps along the road.

Question 28.
The instrument used to obtain the three-dimensional view of aerial photographs is …………..
Answer:
Stereoscope

Question 29.
Which is more suitable for repeated earth observations?
Answer:

• Aerial remote sensing
• Terrestrial photograph
• Satellite remote sensing

Question 30.
The geostationary satellites of India are included in the series of
1. INSAT
2. IRS
3. Challenger
Answer:
1. INSAT

Question 31.
Compete the Chart.

Answer:

Question 32.
Point out the advantages of Aerial remote sensing.
Answer:

• Useful for collecting information of a limited area with clarity.
• Widely used for the preparation of topographical maps.
• Useful for obtaining photographs with three-dimensional view.
• A three-dimensional view enables to distinguish heights and depressions.
• Useful for viewing a region as a whole.

Question 33.
Identify the advantages of overlap in aerial photo-graphs
Answer:

• To maintain continuity of aerial photographs.
• To ensure three-dimensional view
• To view a region as a whole.
• To distinguish the heights and depressions of the earth’s surface.

Question 34.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 35.
List the institutions that use remote sensing in Kerala.
Answer:

• Kerala State Remote Sensing and Environment Centre (KSRSEC)
• Centre for Earth Science Studies (CESS)
• Centre for Water Resources Development and Management (CWRDM)
• Kerala Forest Research Institute (KFRI)
• Kerala State Land Use Board (IKSLUB)
• Geological Survey of India (GSI)
• Central Ground Water Board (CGWB)
• Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI)

Let Us Assess

Question 36.
Compare active remote sensing and passive remote sensing.
Answer:
On the basis of sources of energy or light, remote sensing can be divided into two such as
(i) Active remote sensing –
(ii) Passive remote sensing

• Active Remote Sensing: Remote sensing based on an artificial source of light or energy source is called active remote sensing.
• Passive Remote Sensing: Remote sensing based on the energy from the sun is called passive remote sensing.

Question 37.
What is advantage of overlap in aerial photography?
Answer:
Each aerial photograph covers about 60 percent area of the adjacent photographs also. This is called overlap of aerial photographs.
Its advantages are:

• to maintain continuity of aerial photographs
• to ensure three-dimension view using a stereoscope.
• to view a region as a whole
• to distinguish the heights and depressions of the earth’s surface.

Question 38.
Write the uses of remote sensing technology
Answer:

• For exploring the oceans for oil exploration
• For finding out drought-affected and flood-affected areas
• For finding out forest fire in inaccessible areas and for taking control measures by monitoring their spread
• For understanding about the land use in a region.
• For finding out places having greater groundwater availability.
• For collecting information about the extent of crops and pest attacks.

Question 39.
What is the benefit of using layers in GIS?
Answer:
With the help of GIS software, spatial data can be stored as different layers. From these, we can make maps, graphs, and tables for our specific needs.

Question 40.
Describe the features of geostationary satellite and sun-synchronous satellites.
Answer:
Geostationary satellites:

• Geostationary satellites are those with the same orbital velocity and direction as that of the earth.
• Orbit the earth at a height of about 36000 km
• Positioned in the equatorial plane.
• Since the orbits are at great heights, one-third of the globe is brought under their observational unit.
• Since they move according to the same orbital movement of the earth, they always face the same region of the earth.
• Constant data collection of any one part of the earth is possible.
• Used for understanding the differences in weather conditions and for telecommunications.
• Eg: INSAT satellites of India.

Sun-synchronous satellites:

• These are satellites that move at a very low height.
• The orbital height is below 1000 km from the earth’s surface.
• Move by traversing the north-south poles.
• Less observation limit.
• Come over a particular region at a fixed interval of days.
• Continuous collection of information about a region is possible.
• Used for Collecting information about natural resources, land use, and groundwater.
• Eg: IRS and Landsat

Question 41.
Analyze the analytical capabilities of overlay analysis.
Answer:
Used for understanding the mutual relationships between and the changes undergone by the various features on the earth’s surface.

• To identify the agricultural corps of different states.
• To identify the changes in the extent of crops.
• To identify the changes in land-use patterns.
• To understand the changes in the extent of forests.
• To understand about urbanization,
• To understand the extent of drought and flood-affected areas.

Question 42. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Identify the types of remote sensing to which the following statements are related.
1. Remote sensing with the help of solar energy
2. Remote sensing with the help of an artificial source of energy
Answer:
1. Passive Remote sensing
2. Active Remote sensing

Question 43. (Qn.Pool-2017)
How are balloons, aircraft, and satellites related to remote sensing? What is the common name by which these are known?
Answer:

• The sensors for collecting information are fixed on them
• Platform

Question 44. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Classify remote sensing based on platforms
Answer:

• Satellite remote sensing
• Aerial remote sensing
• Terrestrial photography

Question 45. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Each aerial photograph captures nearly 60% of the area included in the adjacent photographs. What is the significance in doing so? Mention the name by which this is known?
Answer:

• For the continuity of photographs
• To get three-dimensional view
• Overlap

Question 46. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Which is the instrument used to get three-dimensional view from aerial photographs?
Answer:
Stereoscope

Question 47. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Explain in setting three-dimensional view from aerial photos.
Answer:

• Helps in setting three-dimensional view from aerial photos
• To get the synoptic view of an area and to identify the undulations of the terrain.

Question 48. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Write the name of a pair of aerial photos with over-lap.
Answer:
Stereo pair

Question 49. (Qn. Pool – 2017)
Aerial remote sensing has some demerits along with its merits. List out the demerits.
Answer:

• The shaking of aircraft may affect the quality of photos.
• Unable to take photographs of extensive areas
• Requires open lands for landing and takeoff
• Frequent landing for refueling makes it expen¬sive

Question 50. (Qn.Pool-2017)
A. Can obtain continuous data of a place.
B. Satellite travels with the same speed of rotation of earth.
Choose the appropriate option after reading the above statements regarding remote sensing.
1. A & B are different statements..
2. B is the reason for A
3. A is the reason for B
4. Both the statements are related to sun synchronous satellites.
Answer:
B is the reason for A

Question 51. (Qn.Pool-2017)
INSAT and IRS are two series of satellites launched by India. Which among these are geostationary satellites? Distinguish between sun-synchronous and geostationary satellites.
Answer:

Question 52.
(Qn.Pool -2017)
Two types of satellites are utilized for communication purposes and land use studies. Identify them and compare their characteristics.
Answer:

• Geostationary Satellites (Communication)
• Sun-Synchronous satellites (for, landuse studies)

Geostationary satellites:

• Orbits at an altitude of 36000 km
• One-third of the earth’s surface comes under the field of view.

Sun-Synchronous Satellites:

• Orbits at an altitude of 1000 km
• Smaller field of view

Question 53 (Qn.Pool-2017)
Lists the sectors where the remote sensing technology is used. Classify the sector you have listed on the basis of the types of satellites made use of.
Answer:

Geostationary satellites:

• Communication
• Weather studies

Sun-Synchronous Satellites:

• Resources studies
• Landuse studies

Question 54. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Two types of data are essential for analysis in GIS. Name them.
Answer:

• Spatial data
• Attribute data

Question 55. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Both spatial data and attributes are essential for analysis in GIS. Write any four attributes regarding your school.
Answer:

• Number of level in the building
• Name of school
• Number of students
• Number of teachers.

Question 56. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Identify the wrong statement and make correction.
a) Spatial information regarding the earth’s surface are converted into layers for analysis of Gis.
b) Analysis of surface features of the earth is possible in Gis.
c) Along with spatial data, attributes are also essential for analysis in GIS
d) The linear features such as road, railway, rivers, etc. are used in buffer analysis.
Answer:

• d is the wrong answer.
• The linear features such as road, railway, rivers

etc. are used in network analysis.

Question 57. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Which type of analysis in GIS can be used for identifying the roads with least traffic as part of town planning?
Answer:
Network analysis

Question 58. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Identify the type of analysis in GIS used for study¬ing the relationship between different spatial information of an area.
Answer:
Overlay analysis

Question 59. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Name the technology which helps in generating visual models of future phenomena and processes. Write any four uses of this technology.
Answer:

• Geographic information system
• For compiling data from different sources
• For thematic studies
• To represent the geographic features spatially
• To prepare maps

Question 60. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Name the system which helps in sensing the latitudinal and longitudinal location and elevation of ob-jects on the earth’s surface with corresponding time.
Answer:
Global Positioning System (GPS).

Question 61. (Qn.Pool – 2017)
Stereoscope is much useful in the study of satellite imagery. Is the statement correct? Substantiate your answer.
Answer:

• Statement is wrong.
• Stereoscope is the instrument used for getting three-dimensional view from aerial photographs.
• Aerial photos with overlap alone can provide three- dimensional view.

Question 62. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Due to a severe sea erosion, an extensive coastal stretch destructed and a lot of people lost their habitats. Government decided to estimate the extent of land area destructed and to identify the real land-owners using GIS. Which are the analytical capabilities in GIS made use of for each purpose? Explain them.
Answer:

• To estimate the destructed land – Buffer analysis
• To find the real landowners – Overlay analysis
• Explain both the type of analysis

Question 63. (Qn. Pool – 2017)
Which among the following is the most suitable method for understanding the seasonal growth rate of crops in an extensive agricultural land?
a) Field survey
b) Geographic Information System
c) Satellite remote
d) Aerial remote sensing sensing
Answer:
c) Satellite remote sensing

Question 64. (Qn. Pool – 2017)
Fill in the column A, B, and C based on the given hints.

1. Weather studies.
2. Geostationary satellite
3. Resource mapping
4. Buffer analysis
5. Aerial remote sensing
6. Stereoscope
7. Geographic Information System
8. IRS
Answer:

Question 65. (Qn.Pool-2017)
The continuous numbers of a series of aerial photographs are given.
62 63 64 65 66
a) Can we call the photographs 62 and 66 together as a stereo pair? Why?
b) Which are the pairs of photographs 64?
Answer:
a) Not stereo pair
Two adjacent photographs with overlap is the stereo pair
b) 63, 65

Question 66. (Qn. Pool – 2017)
Identify the criterion used for the classification of remote sensing
1. Sensors
2. Platform
3. Use
4. Size of the picture obtained
Answer:
2. Platform

Question 67. (Qn.Pool-2017)
What is the significance of overlap in aerial remote sensing?
Answer:
1. Overlap – definition
2. It’s importance

Question 68. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Explains the importance of overlap in aerial photo-graphs

Identify the pictures and write notes on each of them.
Answer:
1. i) Overlap
ii) Stereo pair
iii) Stereoscope
2. i) Each aerial photograph includes about 60% of the adjacent photograph
ii) Two adjacent aerial photos with overlap – stereo pair
iii) Stereoscope is the instruments to get three-dimensional view from stereo pair

Question 69. (Qn. Pool – 2017)
a) List any three limitations of aerial remote sensing
b) Name the new technology developed to overcome the limitations
Answer:
a) Requires open space The shaking of aircraft may affect the quality of the photograph
Extensive areas cannot be photographed (Any other valid points can be considered)
b) Satellite remote sensing

Question 70. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Compare the geostationary and sun-synchronous satellites based on the given hints.
1. Altitude (Height)
2. Revolution
3. Use
Answer:
1. Altitude
Geostationary – 36000 km
Sun-synchronous – 800-950 km
2. Revolution
Geostationary: with the speed of rotation of earth Sun-synchronous: Polar-orbiting
3. Use
Geostationary: Climate studies, telecommunication
Sun-synchronous: Remote sensing

Question 71. (Qn. Pool – 2017)
Which technology can be used to understand the extent of agricultural crops and pest attack?
Answer:
1. Satellite remote sending
2. i) Spread of forest fire
ii) To detect natural calamities
iii) Landuse studies
iv) Resources mapping (Any 3)

Question 72. (Qn. Pool – 2017)
Complete the table with correct information

Answer:
a) Surface of the earth-camera-covers small areas
b) Aircraft/Balloon-Camera-covers extensive area
c) Satellite – Scanner-Cover very large aerial extent.

Question 73. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Rearrange the columns B and C suitable to those in column A.

Answer:

• Spectral signature – Reflection of electromagnetic radiation-Physical property of objects.
• Spatial resolution – Detects the smallest object Sensor
• Sun-synchronous satellite – Polar-orbiting -IRS
• Geostationary satellite – Moves along with the rotation of earth-INSAT

Question 74. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Complete the diagram related to the uses of satellite.

Answer:

• Ocean explorations
• Forest management
• Land survey (Any valid points)

Question 75. (Qn.Pool-2017)
Classify the following as spatial and attributes
1. Silent valley
2. Kerala
3. Population
4. Vegetation
5. Lakshadweep
6. Area of land
Answer:
i) Spatial Data : Silent Valley, Kerala, Lakshadweep
ii) Attributs: Population, Vegetation, Area of land

Question 76.
(Qn.Pool-2017)
One of the uses of DIS is given. List any 3 more uses
1. Theme based studies
2. ………………………….
3. ………………………….
4. ………………………….
Answer:
2. Analaysis the spatial relationship of surface features.
3.Represent geographical features spatially
4. Update and incorporate data easily and with less expense
(include other valid points also)

Question 77. (Qn.Pool-2017)
It is decided to construct a water reservoir Lakshmipuram panchayat. A suitable place is to be identified for the same. Is it possible by making use of the below-mentioned layers? Which analytical capability in GIS can be used here? How?
Layer 1 — Physiography
Layer 2 — Waterbodies
Layer 3 — Settlements
Layer 4 — Land use
Answer:
1. Yes
2. Overlay analysis
3. Explain overlay analysis

Question 78. (Qn.Pool-2017)
The water level in the reservoirs rose beyond the limits. The authorities decided to raise the shutters to discharge the water to the river.
a) Which analytical capability in GIS can be used to assess the possible area which may get flooded by the river?
b) Suggest another case where this analytical capability can be utilized?
Answer:
a) Buffer analysis
b) Site an example where buffer analysis can be used
(Road construction, railway development)

Question 79. (Qn.Pool – 2017)
Can the network analysis in GIS be made for conducting a study tour from the school? What all requirements in study tour can be satisfied through the capabilities of GIS analysis? List any three.
Answer:
State that network analysis is possible by giving any three examples (Eg: To find suitable place to visit, to find the suitable routes to reach there )

Question 80. (Qn.Pool-2017)
The school social science club decided to prepare a plan of the school to be submitted to the panchayat. Which too can be used for detecting the latitudinal position?
Answer:
GPS

Question 81. (Orukkam – 2017)
Classify the remote sensing based on the source of energy and prepare a flow chart to represent them

Answer:

Question 82. (Orukkam – 2017)
Observe the pictures 6.2, 6.3 and 6.4 in the Chap¬ter and find out the platforms on which the cameras are supposed to be fixed while taking the pictures.

Pictures 6.2 from the surface of the earth or from a higher elevation
Picture 6.3 …………………….
Picture 6.4 …………………….
Answer:
6.3 From cameras mounted on balloons or aircraft
6.4 From the Sensors mounted satellites

Question 83. (Orukkam – 2017)
Classify the remote sensing and complete the flow chart appropriately.

Answer:
i) From ground or higher elevation
ii) From balloons or aircraft
iii) From sensors lifted on satellites

Question 84. (Orukkam – 2017)
List out the major characteristic features of aerial remote sensing
1. Camera is fixed on balloons or aircraft
Answer:
1. Used to gather clear information about comparatively smaller areas.
2. Continues pictures of the areas along the path of the aircraft are made available.

Question 85. (Orukkam – 2017)
Observe the picture 6.5 and 6.6 in the chapter and explain the following terms
1. Overlap
2. Stereo pair
3. Stereoscope
Answer:
1. Overlap: For ensuring continuity and to obtain dimensional vision nearly 60% of the places
2. Stereo pair: Two adjacent frames in air photography is called a stereo pair
3. Stereoscope: The instrument that provides three-dimensional views from stereo pair is called Ste-reoscope.

Question 86. (Orukkam – 2017)
List out the limitation of aerial remote sensing
1. The shaking of aircraft affects the quality of photos
2. …………………………
Answer:

• The aircraft requires open space for take-off and landing
• Frequent landing for refueling increases the cost
• Picturistation of large area is not possible.

Question 87. (Orukkam – 2017)
Suppose the given below are some aerial photographs. Then find out the stereo pairs from them.
1 2 3 4
Answer:
1 and 2, 2 and 3, 3 and 4

Question 88.
(Orukkam-2017)
Write the appropriate terms in columns in accordance with the indications given below.
1) The amount of energy reflected by the objects is
2) The data collected by the scanners are transformed into images, such images are called.
3) The size of the smallest object on the earth that can be recognized by the sensor is
Answer:
1) Spectral signature
2) Satellite imaginary
3) Spatial resolution

Question 89. (Orukkam-2017)
List out the uses of remote sensing
Answer:

• For weather observation
• For ocean explorations
• For understanding land use
• For monitoring flood and draught
• For identifying forest fires in deep forest and to adopt controlling measures.
• For collecting data regarding the extent of crops and spread of post-attack
• For oil exploration
• To locate groundwater potential

Question 90. (Orukkam – 2017)
The spatial resolution of three sensors are given below, arrange them based on spatial resolution (from higher to lower)
A. 70 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 5 meters
Answer:
C, B, A

Question 91. (Orukkam – 2017)
List out two kinds of data which are necessary for data analysis in GIS
Answer:
Spatial data, Attributes

Question 92. (Orukkam – 2017)
The surface features of the earth can be analyzed by GIS in various ways according to the requirements. Find out the major analytical capabilities of GIS and list them accordingly.
Answer:

1. Network analysis
2. Buffer analysis
3. Overlay analysis
4. Complete data from different sources
5. Conduct thematic studies
6. Represent geographic features spatially

Question 93. (Orukkam-2017)
List out the uses of GPS
Answer:
1. Helps in sensing the latitudinal and longitudinal location, elevation of objects on the earth surface
2. For navigation purpose
3. For tracking

Question 94. (Orukkam – 2017)
Prepare a brief note on Global Positioning System
Answer:
Global positioning system helps sensing the latitudinal and longitudinal location and elevation of objects – on the earth. Surface along with the corresponding time. This is made possible with the help of 24 satellites placed at 6 different which between the attitudes 2000 km to 20200 km above the earth’s surface are located with the help of the signals.

Question 95. (Orukkam-2017)
Discuss GIS and prepare a note on it based on the indications given below Indications
1. The characteristic features of GIS
2. The two types of data required for GIS
3. Analystical capabilities of GIS
4. Uses of GIS
Answer:
The software used for incorporating more details in the maps and analyzing them for various purposes is known as information systems. (GIS) Two kinds of data required for it are the latitudinal and longitudinal position of the object which is known spatial data and the features of the object known as attributes. The GIS is used for network buffers and overlay analysis. GIS is used for compiling data from different sources to update and incorporate data to conduct them studies and to represent geographic features spatially.

Eyes in the Sky and Data Analysis Additional Questions

Question 1.
Elucidate stereo pair and stereoscope.
Answer:
Two adjoining aerial photographs with overlap is called a stereo pair. The instrument which is used to obtain three dimensional view from the stereo pairs is called a stereoscope.

Question 2.
Give an example for a geostationary satellite launched by India.
Answer:
Satellite belonging to INSAT series.

Question 3.
Give an example for a sun-synchronous satellite .aunched by India.
Answer:
Satellites belonging to IRS and Land Sat Series.

Question 4.
Elucidate what satellite imageries are?
Answer:
The sensors on artificial satellites distinguish objects on the earth’s surface based on their spectral signature and transmit the information in digital for¬mat to the terrestrial stations. This is interpreted by the computers and converted into picture formats. These are called satellite imageries.

Question 5.
Identify the analytical capabilities that can be used to identify the following geographical features.
Answer:
a. Used for understanding the changes in the area of crops, the changes in land use, etc.
b. To identify the geographical features surrounding a point or along a linear feature.
c. To find out the easiest and less congested roads from one place to another.
1. Overlay Analysis
2. Buffer Analysis
3. network analysis

Question 6.
Information from how many satellites are required to display the information like latitude, longitude, elevation, time, etc.
Answer:
Information from at least 4 satellites.

Students can Download Social Science Part 2 Chapter 9 Economic Systems and Economic Policies Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Social Science Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

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Sociology: What? Why? Textbook Questions and Answers in Malayalam

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The East and the West: Era of Exchanges Textual Questions and Answers in Malayalam

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 1  Chapter 3 Public Administration Questions and Answers

SSLC History Chapter 3 Notes

Public Administration Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Some of government institutions and their functions are given below. Expand the table by writing more.
Answer:

Sslc History Chapter 3 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Discuss and list out the changes in the objectives of public administration in monarchy and democracy.
Answer:

State Syllabus Class 10 Social Science Notes Pdf  Question 3.
Whom do you wish to get the services of public administration? Discuss in your class and write your conclusion.
Answer:
The main aim of public administration is to ensure equality and justice to all is, especially, the deprived society. Government has taken measures for the social safety and enlistment. Crores are spent for the purpose. But corruption and political intervention are a hindrance.

• Justice for the deserved.
• Education, employment and treatment facilities for the deprived ones.
• Control the cost of commodities.
• Strict laws for the upliftment of women.
• I believe these to be the main aims of public administration.

Public Administration Malayalam Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Visit a nearby Government. Office and prepare a report on the features of bureaucracy there.
Answer:
Bureaucracy is the main weapon of the government. They play various responsibilities. Employee may be highly experienced as they serve for long years. Ministers are the heads. Employees influence the decisions of the government. Though the ruling party changes, bureaucracy remains the same. Employees help the ministers in order to execute plans.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Question 5.
Discuss and prepare a note on the changes to be brought in the administrative system.
Answer:

• Ensure justice and equal rights to all sections of the society.
• Create corruption free administration and responsibility among the workers.
• Constitution must be to save the victims and punish culprits.
• Government service must be reached at fixed time.
• Protect the rights of women and ensure their safety.
• Ensure the welfare of all.

Use our free online relative standard deviation RSD calculator to know the standard deviation and %RSD for the given mean of data.

Social Science Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 6.How far the Right to Information Act make the general administration system efficient. Evaluate.
Answer:
In 2005, RTI Act was passed by the parliament. To get information is the fundamental right of all citizens. The main objectives of this Act are to prevent corruption, create responsibility and make the functioning of the government transparent. The citizens will get copies of public documents if they apply for them.

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
What are the situations in our society where the Right to Information Act can be positively used? Discuss and prepare a note.
Answer:
In 2005, RTI Act was passed by the parliament. To get information is the fundamental right of all citizens. RTI Act is helpful socially, for all the subjects, quickly in our society.
Example: Waiting for the results after University Exam if delayed, RTI commission could be approached :

• To get information about certain legal affairs.
• Any problems concerned with government.

Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Notes Question 8.
Discuss whether the Right to Service Act is helpful for the people to get the service they should obtain from Government offices.
Answer:
The responsible employer would have to pay the penalty if he fails in his duty. So, the people can get the service from Government offices at the right time.

Hsslive Guru Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
What is the use of Ombudsman to the public? Prepare a note.
Answer:
Elected representatives and bureaucrats are part of administration. Complaints are filed against their corruptions to Ombudsman. People can directly approach Ombudsman with complaints.

Social Science 10th Kerala Syllabus Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
Can we make Government services transparent and corruption free through the above mentioned system? Conduct a debate.
Answer:
For:

• Need not wait in Government offices for services.
• Receives Govt, service with less expense and quickly.
• Increases the efficiency and excellence of services.
• Receives feedback quickly.

Against:

• Is completely hidden in files.
• Life is free of corruption.
• Govt, services are obtained based on the financial status.

Public Administration Let Us Assess

Social 10th Class Notes State Syllabus Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Explain the need of public administration in a country?
Answer:
Public administration is related to governmental administration. It is the effective way of utilizing men and materials for implementing the existing law policies and developmental projects. Primary Health Centers, Police station Krishi Bhavan, Village office, Corporation office, Election Commission, and other government organisations are all the parts of public administration.

The responsibilities of these institutions must be strictly executed for the public welfare.There must be an accurate method of public administration for all the sectors of people in our country. The following is a list of a few public administration.

Centers and their duties are given:
1. Vanitha Commission: Ensures the rights and welfare of women.

2. Election Commission: Relates with the election procedures.

3. Human Rights Commission: Protects the rights of men.

4. Village office: Ensures the primary needs of people.

10th Standard Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
How are employees selected in a public administration system?
Answer:
Certain methods are adopted in the selection of employees to the public administrative system in India. The first step is the notification through Public Service Commission of India.Through this, the vacancies in various sections of governments are made known to the public. Later, through the exam conducted on the date notified or on the basis of interviews, candidates are selected and appointed.

Civil Service began during the British rule. It came to be the Civil Service of India after Independence. All the employees who work under the central and state governments and the employees under public sector undertakings are a part of India’s Civil Service. It is divided into All India Service, Central Service and State Service. The selection procedures of employees to these are given below.

All India Service:

• Recruits at national level.
• Appoints in Central Service or State Service.
  eg: IAS, IPS.

Central Service:

•  Recruits at national level.
•  Appoints in central government department only.
  eg: Indian Foreign Service, Indian Railway Service.

State Service:

• Recruits at State level
• Appoints in state government department
  eg: Sales Tax officer.

Candidates to All India Services and Central Services are recruited by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). The chairman and members of this commission are selected by the President of India. The UPSC has elaborate mechanisms for the selection based on qualifications.

In the state level, candidates are recruited by the Public Service Commission (PSC) of the state. The governor appoints the Chairman and the member of the State Public Service Commission. UPSC and state PSCs are on the basis of constitutional provisions and can be called constitutional institutions.

Std 10 Social Science Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
What are the features of bureaucracy ?
Answer:
Hierarchical organisation:
Bureaucracy is organised in such a way that there is one employee at the top and the number increases, when it reaches the lower levels. This is known as hierarchical organisation.

Permanence:
Persons appointed will continue in service till the age of retirement.

Appointment based on qualification:
Employees are recruited and appointed on the basis of educational qualification.

Political Neutrality:
Bureaucrats are liable to implement the policies of which ever party comes to power. Party interests should not reflect in their work.

Professionalism:
Every government employee must be skilled in their work.

Sslc Social Science Notes Malayalam Medium Pdf 2021 Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Classify the bureaucracy in India and explain ?
Answer:
Kerala Public Service Commission notifies for the recruitment of employees to the government service. Then candidates are selected on the basis of competitive examinations and interviews and are appointed in different government sectors. All those appointed in this way become a part of the civil service of India.

The aim of it is to bring welfare programmers speedily to all. Now there are specific services at the central and state levels. All the employees who work under public sector undertakings are the part of India’s civil service. There are All India services, central services and state services.

10th Social Science Notes Pdf State Syllabus Question 5.
What are the measures taken for the administrative reforms in India? Prepare a note.
Answer:
Government has taken a number of steps to increase the efficiency of services and to provide service to people within a time limit. This is called as administrative reforms. It makes the administration friendly and effective. Administrative reform commissions are made at national and state levels. Here are some steps taken for the reformation in our country.

E-Governance:
The single window system for Higher Secondary education, online applications for several scholarships etc are example of E-Governance. The use of electronic technology has helped to obtain the services of government effectively in a faster way.

Right to Information:
Every citizen has the right to collect the information from any government office about its working. This is under the Right to Information Act in 2005. The efforts of Mazdoor Kiran Shakthi Samghathan of Rajasthan led to this Act. The interventions of several organisations and social activities helped in passing this Act in 2005. The Right to Information ensures the right of all citizens of India to receive information.

Information Commission:
Files documents, circulars, memos, advice or orders, agreements statistics, reports, log books, press notes, samples, models, information in the form of electronic data, e-mail etc. related to government offices belong to public departments. Information commission helps to know everything.To perform the functions under the Right to information Act, Information Commissions are constituted at National and state levels.

A chief Information Commissioner and members not more than ten are in the Information Commission. If the information given is wrong and unsatisfactory we have the right to approach the Information Commission. If the commission is convinced a fine of Rs. 250 can be imposed on the employee.

Right to Service:
This ensures service to the people. This law determines the time limit for every service given by a government office. If the deserved service is not given within the time limit the responsible employee should pay fine. As per the Right to Service, an officer is appointed to give proper guidance and help to the applicants.

Lokpal and Lokayuktha:
These are the institutions to prevent corruption at administrative, bureaucratic and political levels. Lokpal has the power to register cases on issues of corruption against public workers and then suggest necessary actions. Lokayuktha hears the corruption cases at the state level. Both follow judicial procedures.

Central Vigilance Commission:
This is constituted at the national level to prevent corruption. It came in to force in 1964. It was formed to prevent corruption at central government offices.

Ombudsman:
Complaints of corruption against the elected representatives and bureaucrats who are a part of public administration are filed to ombudsman. A retired Judge of the High Court is appointed as Ombudsman. People can directly approach the Ombudsman with complaints.

He has the power to summon anyone on receiving the complaints, can order inquiry and recommend actions. Ombudsman began in the banking sector to hear the complaints of clients and rectify them.These actions recommended for the welfare of people as a part of administration maintains the public administration more trans parent.

Question 6.
How is E-Governance helpful to the public?
Answer:

• Need not wait in the government offices for services.
• Can receive service with the help of information technology.
• It services offers fast and at less expense.
• Enhances efficiency of offices and quality of the service.

Question 7.
Right to Information and Right to Service help to make public administration popular. Substantiate this statement.
Answer:
We can collect information from any government office about its working. People got this opportunity under the right to information act, 2005. This ensures the right of all citizens of India to receive information. The main objectives of this act are to prevent corruption, create responsibility and make the functioning of government transparent.

The citizens will get copies of public documents if they apply for them. Right to Service act is a law which ensures services to the public. As per the Right to Service Act, an officer is appointed in every government office to give guidance and proper help to the applicants. That is Right to Information and Right to Service helps to make public administration popular.

Question 8.
List out the steps taken to prevent corruption in India.
Answer:
1. Lokpal and Lokayuktha
2. Central vigilance commission
3. Ombudsman.

Public Administration Extended Activities

Question 1.
Prepare an application for getting information from an office under the Right to Information Act.
Answer:
From
Madhavan
Mahal Nivas
Ollavanna

To
Secretary
Grama Panchayath
Ollavanna

Based on RTI Act of 2005
Sir,
Sub: Amount spent for the electrification of houses for schedule tribes in the year 2015-16.
Could you kindly give details about how many applicants there were and how many money was spent in previous years. Expecting the reply within 15 days.
Ollavanna — Madhava
25/08/19  —  sd/-

Question 2.
Prepare a chart o the importance of All India Services.
Answer:
All the employees who work under the central and the state governments and the employees under the public sector under takings are part of India’s civil service. India’s civil service classification as All India Service, Central Service ans State Service.

All India Service.
Recruits at National level.
Appoints in the central or state service.
The UPSC has elaborate mechanisms for the recruitment of candidates based on qualification.
e.g., Indian Administrative Service.
Indian Foreign Service.
Indian Police Service.

Question 3.
Prepare a questionnaire to conduct an interview with the District Collector.
Answer:
Interview with kozhikode District Collector.

Sir, could you please share with me the inspiration behind your selection this position?

What were the changes you have thought to bring in Kozhikode before becoming the District Collector?

Sir, even in the presence of Lokpal, Lokayuktha, Central Vigilance Commission, Ombudsman being launched against corruption still corruption exists in Kerala. Don’t you long for a change ? How do you react as a district collector?

Sir, hope you have noted that vegetables from Tamil Nadu were sold less here in the Onam season. Do you expect the same for Vishu? As a District Collector, what all steps would you take to improve the agriculture sector of Kerala?

Though Kerala has developed in the educational field, the number of suicidal attempts have also increased. A change in our educational system is unavoidable. Sir, what all changes could be made possible?

Sir, M. C. Noufal was arrested here in Kozhikode for raping a woman from Bangladesh. Though many were arrested they were refused saved. Let me ask you sir with due respect, don’t you long for a change in the system of punishment here ?

Public Administration Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
List out the changes and objectives of public Administrative in monarchy and democracy.
Monarchy – The interest of the Monarch were the basis of public administration.
Democracy –
Answer:

Democracy – Importance is given to the interests of the people.

Question 2.
Complete the diagram showing the importance of public administration
Answer:

• Formulate government policies.
• Ensure welfare of the people.
• Find out solutions to public issues.
• Provides goods and services.

Question 3.
Some features of public administration are given in column A. Find out the definitions of each one of them in column B.
i. Hierarchical Organisation – one employee at the top and the number increases when it reaches the lower levels.
ii. Permanence- i
iii.Appointment on the Basic of qualification- iii
iv. Political Neutrality – iii.
x Professionalism – iv
Answer:
i. Permanence – Persons appointed will continue in service till the age of retirement.
ii. Appointment on the basis of qualification- Employees are recruited and appointed on the basis of educational qualification.
iii. Political Neutrality – Bureaucrats are liable to implement the policies of which ever party comes to power. Party inters ts should not reflect in their work. They should act neutrally.
iv. Professionalism – Every government employee must be skilled in their work.

Question 4.
Find out the functions of the following constitutional institutions.
1. State public service commission.
2. Union Public Service Commission.
Answer:
1. State Public Service Commission – At the state level, candidates are recruited by the public service commission of the state.

2. Union Public Service Commission- Candidates to all India services and central services are recruited by the Indian Public service commission.

Question 5.
Complete the short showing the classification of India’s Civil Service.
All India Service
Central Service
State Service
Answer:
All India Service: Recruits at national level, Appoints in the central or state service.
Eg: Indian Administrative Service, Indian Police.

Central Service : Recruits at national level, Appoints in central government departments only.
Eg: Indian foreign service, Indian Railway Service.

State Service: Recruits at state level, Appoints in state government departments only.
Eg: Sales Tax Officer

Question 6.
Find out and list the benefits of E – Governance to Public.
Need not to wait in government offices for services.
Answer:

• Can receive service with the help of information technology.
• Government services offered speedily and with less expense.
• Efficiency of the offices and quality of the service get enhanced.

Question 7.
Prepare a sample applications of Right to Information Act 2005
Answer:
From
Smitha Vijayan
DeviVihar
Arppookara

To
Secretary
Grama panchayath
Arpookara

Sir,
I request you to furnish information regarding the following questions under the right to information act 2005.

• In the academic year 2015-2016 what is the amount of money taken from the fund for the constriction of houses for the backward castes in arpookara grama panchayath.
• What was the amount of money spent in the past years for this purpose.
• Expecting reply within 15 days.

Question 8.
Lokpal, and Lokayukta are institutions constituted to prevent corruption at administrative, bureacrative and political level, find out the features and complete the chart.

Answer:

Question 9.
Right to service Act is a law which ensures services to the people. Find out and list the treasures of Right to service Act. This law determines the time limit for every service given by a government office.
Answer:

• If the deserved service is not given within this time limit, the responsible employee should pay a fine.
• An officer is appointed in every government office to give guidance and proper help to the applicants.

Question 10.
Compare and the list out central vigilance commission and state vigilance commission.
Answer:
Central Vigilance Commission :
The Central Vigilance Commission constituted at national level to prevent Corruption, Central Vigilance Commission, it came into effect into 1964, Formed to prevent corruption in central government offices, in every department there will be a chief vigilance officer.

State Vigilance Commission :
Constituted at State level to prevent corruption, Inquires in to corruption in the state government offices.

Question 11.
Complete the diagram of administrative reform measures adopted by the government.

Answer:

• Right to information.
• Information commission.
• Lokpal and lokayuktha.

12. Complete the concept map given below.

Answer:

• Create responsibility
• The citizen will get copies of public documents if they apply for them.

Public Administration Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
‘Public Administration is about Governmental Administration’ on the basis of Gladden’s definition examine the features of public administration.
Answer:
From the definition of Gladden we can under stand that the important area of public administration is governmental administration. Public administration is the effective utilization of men and materials for the implementation of existing laws, governmental policies, programmer and developmental projects. Government try to find the solutions to various problems and ensure the welfare of the people through public administration.
Significance of Public administration.

• Formulate government policies.
• Provide goods and services.
• Ensure welfare the people.
• Find out solutions to public issues.

Question 2.
Explain Gandhiji’s vision on public administration.
Answer:
Gandhiji expected the protection of the interests of all through public administration. But there are a number of persons in our society who require special consideration and protection. Fie opined that public administration should consider them specially and protect them. Gandhiji’s concept of Grama Swaraj influenced India’s outlook of public administration to a great extent.

Question 3.
Define Bureaucracy. Examine the features of Bureaucracy?
Answer:
The employees who work under public administrative system are together known as Bureaucracy.

Features of Bureaucracy:
Hierarchical Organisation:
Bureaucracy is organised in such a way that there is one employee at the top and the number increases when it reaches the lower levels. This is known as Hierarchical organisation.

Permanance:
Persons appointed will continue in service till the age of retirement. Appointment on the basis of qualification Employees are recruited and appointed on the basis of educational qualification.

Political Neutrality:
Bureaucrats are liable to implement the policies of whichever party comes to power. Party interests should not reflect in their work.They should act neutrally.

Professionalism:
Every Government employee must be skilled in their work.

Question 4.
Name of the feature of bureaucracy which intercepts quick decisions.
a. Political Neutrality.
b.Professionalism.
c. Permanence.
d. Hierarchical organisation.
Answer:.
Hierarchical Organisation.

Question 5.
The Rajasthan based organisation paved the way for the legislation of right to Information Act.
a. Narmada Bachao Andolan.
b. Swabhimana Prasthanam
c. Mazdoor Kisan sakthi Sangathan.
d. Bharatiya Kissan Union.
Answer:
Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan.

Question 6.
Write a short note on the functions of central and state information commission.
Answer:
To perform the functions under the right to information act, Information Commissions are constituted at national and state levels.

Question 7.
State level organisation to prevent corruption at administrative, bureaucratize and political levels
a. Lokpal b. Lokayuktha
c. Central Vigilance Commission d Child rights commission
Answer:
Lokyukta

Question 8.
Match the items of column A with B

Answer:
1-ii,
2-iii,
3-i.

Question 9.
The Institution constituted at the national level to prevent corruption in 1964
a. NitiAyog.
b. Administrative Tribunal.
c. Central Information Commission.
d. Central Vigilance Commission.
Answer:
Central Vigilance Commission.

Question 10.
UPSC and PSC are caused constitutional institutions why?
Answer:
UPSC( Union Public Service Commission) and state PSC are constituted on the basic of constitutional provisions.So they are called constitutional institutions.

Question 11.
Define E-Governance and write down two examples of E – Governance.
Answer:
E- governance is the use of electronic technology in administration . This help to obtain government services easily in a speedy manner. The single window system for admission to higher secondary courses, Online applications for various scholarships etc are exam pies for E- governance.

Question 12.
Explain different administrative reforms adopted by government for increasing the affiance of service.
Answer:
information Commission:
To perform the functions under the right to information act, In formation Commissions are constituted at the national and state levels. There will be a chief Information commission and not more than ten members in the Information Com mission.

Central Vigilance Commission:
The Central Vigilance Commission is the institution constituted at the national level to prevent corruption. It came into effect in 1964. It is formed to prevent corruption in the central government offices.The Central Vigilance Commissioner is the head of the Central Vigilance Commission.

Lokpal and Lokayuktha:
Lokpal and lokayuktha are institutions constituted to prevent corruption at administrative, bureaucratic and political levels, the institution constituted at the national level to prevent corruption is lokpal.

Lokpal has the power to register cases on issues of corruption against employees and public workers and can suggest necessary actions. Lokayukta is the institution constituted at the state level to hear the corruption cases.

Ombudsman:
Elected representatives and bureaucrats are part of public administration. Complaints can be filed against their corruption,nepotism or financial misappropriation or negligence of duties. Ombudsman is constituted for this purpose.

Public Administration SCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pick out any two public administration institutions and write about their functions.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the differences found in the public administration under monarchy and democracy?
Answer:

• In monarchy, the interest of the monarch is the basis of public administration,
• In democracy importance is given to the interests of the people.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of public administration.
Answer:

• Ensures welfare of people
• Formulates government policies
• Provides goods and services
• Finds out solution for public grievances

Question 4.
Explain the importance of bureaucracy in public administration.
Answer:

• Makes the public administration system dynamic,
• Services of the government made accessible to the people ,
• Performs the day- to-day administration of the country.

Question 5.
What is meant by hierarchical organisation and permanence of bureaucracy.
Answer:

• Organization made up of one employee at the top and more towards the bottom.
• Persons once appointed as employee will continue in service till the age of retirement. This is permanency.

Question 6.
Prepare a note on civil service in India.
Answer:

• All India service
• Central services
• Stateservice. Explain hints

Question 7.
Why PSC and UPSC are called as constitutional institutions?
Answer:
UPSC and PSC are constituted on the basis of constitutional provisions. So they are cal led as constitutional institutions.

Question 8.
Find out the factors that adversely affect the efficiency of public administration.
Answer:

• Inefficiency of bureaucracy,
• Corruption
• Shortage of employees

Question 9.
Write a brief note on e-Governance implemented as part of administrative reforms?
Answer:

• e-Governance is the use of electronic technology in administration. This helps people to obtain government services quickly and easily .
• Information technology is used in the field of public service.
• Government service is made available less expensively expensively

Question 10.
A road constructed before six months in your place is damaged now. You became aware that there is some corruption, Prepare an application under Right to Information Act addressing panchayat secretary to get the details of it.
Answer:
To Prepare an application under the RTI Act.

Question 11.
What are the benefits attained by society as a result of formulation of the Right to Information Act.
Answer:

• Controlled corruption,
• Increased the responsibility of bureaucrats,
• Functioning of government became transparent.

Question 12.
Explain the structure of Information Commission?
Answer:

• Central Information Commission,
• Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten members,
• State Information Commission.

Question 13.
How the Right to Service Act is helpful to people?
Answer:

• Ensures government services to people.
• Gets service within time limit.
• Employee should pay fine in case of delay.
• Appoints an officer in charge as per Right to Service Act in all offices to give service.

Question 14.
Differentiate the functioning of Lokpal and Lokayuktha?
Answer:
Lokpal:

• Institution constituted to prevent corruption charges at national level
• Has the power to register cases of corruption against employees and public workers.

Lokayuktha :

• Constituted at state level to hear corruption cases.
• Follow Judicial procedures

Question 15.
From the following select the statement appropriate to central vigilance commission and state vigilance commission?
a. Esquires about corruption in state government offices.
b. Institution to prevent corruption at national level.
Answer:
a. State vigilance commission .
b. Central vigilance commission

Question 16.
How the functioning of Ombudsman helps the public to prevent corruption.
Answer:

• Complaints against corruption among elected representatives and bureaucrats can be filed in Ombudsman,
• People can directly approach Ombudsman to give complaints.
• Ombudsman can enquirer into such complaints and recommend actions.

Question 17.
Compare and list the different levels of civil services in India.
Answer:

• All India Service
• Central Service
• State Service

Question 18.
What is considered as corruption by modern society?
Answer:

• Delayed service, Denial of right to service is corruption.
• Making service as a favor.

Public Administration Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The chairman and the members of this commission are appointed by
Answer:
The president of India

NSUI full form stands for National Students’ Union of India that is a student wing of famous politician Indian National Congress party.

Question 2.
What is the full form of U. P. S.C ?
Answer:
Union Public Service Commission.

Question 3.
In which year Central Vigilance Commission come into effect ?
Answer:
1964

Question 4.
Write a note on Akshaya Center and E-literacy.
Answer:
For the benefit of people, Akshaya centers have been constituted to make use of Government service delivered through E – governance. It also aims at making people E-literate. E – literacy is the awareness about basic information about technology.

Question 5.
Prepare a seminar report on the importance of public administration.
Answer:
Without public administration, the government cannot operate and manage activities effectively and efficiently. The administration plays a vital role for delivering and distributing the public services to all comers of the country.

Administration spreads all over the country for supplying the governmental and public goods and services up to the villages and door to door. The administration is not operating and managing the activities properly and smoothly in developing countries. The scopes of administration shows the importance of public administration.

Following are the importance of Public Administration:
Management of Public Service, Distribution Social Change, Disaster Management, Population Control, Preservation of Human Right, Management of Industrial Relationship, Internal and External attached Economic Development. These points show that the administration is used all over the sections of the country.

Question 6.
Write a note on Administrative Tribunal.
Answer:
Actions are taken by various government departments against the government officials. The Administrative Tribunal is the institution where the employees can lodge their complaints against such actions. ”

Question 7.
The famous western administrative thinker Gladden says “ Public administration is concerned with an administration of the government”. On the basis of this definition, explain the relationship between Public administration and the government.
Answer:
From this definition we can understand that the important area of public administration is governmental administration. Public administration is the effective utilization of men and materials for the implementation of existing laws, governmental policies, programmers and developmental projects and the government has constituted a number of institutions for this purpose. All these governmental institutions are part of public administration. They function for the welfare of the people.

An administrative system is needed for governments to exist and function. The history of public administration begins with the formation of state. Based on differences in the form of government we can find differences in public administration also. In a monarchy, the interests of the monarch was the basis of public administration. But in a democratic system, importance is given to the interests of the people. Democratic administration becomes more effective and efficient through public administration.

Students can Download Social Science Part 1 Chapter 4 British Exploitation and Resistance Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity in Malayalam Medium, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus Class 10th Standard Social Science History Chapter 4 Notes Malayalam Medium ബ്രിട്ടീഷ് ചൂഷണവും ചെറുത്തുനിൽപ്പും

British Exploitation and Resistance Textbook Questions and Answers in Malayalam

You can Download Seasons and Time Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Part 2 Chapter 1 Seasons and Time Questions and Answers

SSLC Geography Chapter 1 Notes

Sslc Geography Chapter 1 Question Answer Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
You have learnt that there is periodic variation in the amount of sunshine over different places in both the hemispheres of the earth. Why?
Answer:
Variations in the amount of sunshine received are the basis for the occurrence of different seasons. The earth’s revolution and the tilt of the axis are the reasons for this variation.

Season And Time Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
How much time does the earth take to complete one revolution ?
Answer:
365 1/4 days

Seasons And Time Sslc Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
What is a leap year ?
Answer:
To complete one revolution, the earth takes 365 1/4 days. But a year normally has 365 days. The remaining 1/4 part of a day will be considered as a full day one in every fair year. Thus every fourth year has 366 days and is called a leap year. Thus in every fourth year February has 29 days.

Seasons And Time Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Seasons are not distinctly felt in Kerala. Why?
Answer:
Kerala is a place located near the equator since Kerala receives high amount of sunlight in every year. In such regions seasons are not distinctly felt.

Seasons And Time Class 10 In English Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
What is the peculiarity of the day and the night in the Southern Hemisphere on 21 June?
Answer:
On June 21 the Southern hemisphere experiences its longest night and shortest day.

Seasons And Time Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
What are the changes observed in nature during the summer season?
Answer:

• The atmospheric temperature increases.
• Rivers, ponds, springs and other water sources get dried up.
• Availability of rain becomes reduced. As a result, land gets parched.
• Shortage of food materials.
• The grasslands dry up.

Sslc Geography Time Calculation Questions Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
What is the peculiarity of the day and the night in the Southern Hemisphere on 22 December?
Answer:
Longest day and shortest night.

Season And Time Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
What is the season in the Southern Hemi-sphere, when it is autumn in the Northern Hemisphere?
Answer:
Spring

Time Calculation Questions In Geography Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
What are the peculiarities of winter season ?
Answer:
We feel many variations in the winter season than other seasons such as long nights, short days, cold weather, cold wind, snow fall, winter storms, cold rains, thick fog, frost, very low temperature, etc.

Season And Time Class 10 Textbook Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
What is the change that occurs in the duration of day in the Southern Hemisphere during ‘Dakshinayanam’?
Answer:
The duration of day in the southern hemi-sphere gradually increases during this period.

Sslc Geography Chapter 1 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
What is the duration of day and night in the south polar regions, when the Sun is respectively over the Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:
During the period from March to September, as the Sun is in the Northern Hemisphere, the south polar regions experience continuous night for six months.

During the remaining period, that is from September to March, as the Sun is in the Southern Hemisphere south polar regions experience continuous day light for six months.

Seasons And Time Class 10 In English Medium Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
Is the local time in all the Indian states the same ?
Answer:
No, The time estimated at each place based on the apex position of the sun is termed as the local time.

Seasons And Time Class 10 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
What will be the hardships if there are several local times in a country?
Answer:
Cannot prepare a railway time table applicable throughout the country.

• Cannot give announcements about radio programs.
• Peoples have to adjust their watches suitably.
• Cannot organize a All India Exams.

10th Geography Chapter 1 Seasons And Time Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
The people of which Indian states sees the sun first ?
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh.

Sslc Geography Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
What would be the longitudinal extent of each time zone ?
Answer:
15°

Hsslive 10th Social Science Kerala Syllabus Question 16.
Find the difference between the Indian Standard Time and the Greenwich Mean Time.
Answer:
The 82 1/2 °E longitude which passes almost through the middle of these longitudes has been fixed as the standard meridian of India. The time difference between Indian Standard Time and Greenich Mean Time is 5 1/2 hours ahead.

Hss Live Guru 10th Geography Kerala Syllabus Question 17.
Calculate the time at each 15° longitude east and west of the Greenwich Line up to 180° longitude and complete the table.

Sslc History Chapter 1 Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 18.
Which day would it be for those residing at place ‘A’ in given Fig.

Answer:
If 180° longitude passes through the country A, the places situated East and West of this line will be having two different days. Think about the practical difficulties caused by this. To avoid this, certain necessary adjustments have been effected in this line with the result that it doesn’t pass through the corresponding land areas. Note the longitude marked with broken lines.

The line is in such a way that it passes through Bering – strait in Pacific Ocean and avoid some of the inhabited islands. The travelers who cross this line from the West calculate the time by advancing it by one day and those who cross the line from the west deduct one day. This imaginary line is known as the International Date Line. A can cross this line from the West calculate the time by advancing it by one day, take it as Friday.

Sslc Geography Chapter 1 Kerala Syllabus Question 19.
Note the International Date Line marked on the globe. Identify the continents situated to the east and the west of this line. The travelers to which of these continents will gain one day on crossing the International Date Line?
Answer:
The continents situated to the west of the international Date Line are Asia and Australia. North America and South America lie to, the east of the International Date Line. The travelers who cross International Date Line and go to North America and South America will gain one day.

Seasons and Time Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Identify the factor responsible for the occurrence of seasons from among the following.
a. Rotation of the Earth
b. Tilt of the Earth’s axis
c. Parallelism of the Earth’s axis
d. All the above.
Answer:
Tilt of the Earth’s axis.

Question 2.
The sun’s rays fall vertically between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn. Why?
Answer:
Earth maintains its parallelism throughout the revolution, the position of the sun in relation to the earth varies. The sun shifts apparently between Tropic of Cancer (23 1/2 °N) and Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2 °S).

Question 3.
Highlight the importance of March 21, June 21, September 23 and December 22.
Answer:
On 21^st March, the sun rays are overhead the equator, 0°. So the days and nights are of equal duration, namely 12 hours at all places on the earth. This is called equinoxes. On June 21st, sun appears overhead at the tropic of cancer. This is called summer solstice, and it makes the summer season in the Northern Hemi-sphere.

On September 23^rd, the sun is overhead at the equator and experiences equinoxes that means equal days and nights. On 22^nd December, the sun continues its apparent movement from the equator to the Southern Hemisphere and reaches vertically above the tropic of capricon. This is called winter solstice.

Question 4.
Why there is an eastward increase and west-ward decrease in time?
Answer:
The earth rotates from west to east. So, the sun rise first in the Eastern longitude. We calculate time by considering the time when sun reaches the highest point in the sky as 12’0 clock. So when we consider Greenwich line as the base line for time, it becomes noon early in the Eastern longitudes.That is why eastern longitudes feel the time is getting increased. But in western longitudes noon will be after the noon in Greenwich.

Seasons and Time Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.

Observe the picture and complete the following table.

Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

Question 3.
Answer the following Questions. World Time Calculation

1. The time required for the earth to complete one rotation
a. In Hours
b. In Minutes
Answer:
24 hours, 1440 minutes

2. What is angular distance of the earth when it complete one rotation ?
Answer:
360°

3. The time required for the earth to turn one degree is
Answer:
4 minutes

4. What is the change in time when we move towards west or east from a degree of longitude?
Answer:
More time is taken towards east and less time towards west.

5. a. Is there any particular longitude based on which the time is calculated world wide?
b. If yes, Name the longitude
c. By what name this longitude is known when it is used to calculate the time worldwide?
Answer:
a. Yes,
b. Greenwich longitude
c. Prime Meridian

6. What is meant by the standard meridian?
Answer:
Each country in the world considers the longitude that passes almost through its middle as the standard meridian.

7. Which is the standard meridian of India.
Answer:
83°30 E

8. What is the time difference between Indian Standard Time and Greenwich Mean Time?
Answer:
5 hours 30 minutes

9. The International Date Line is not a straight line Why.
Answer:
Other lines of longitudes are straight lines. But International Date line is not a straight line. The international dateline passes through the Pacific ocean. It deviates from the 180° longitudes where it crosses land in order to keep all the lands under one administration on one side of the dateline. The Dateline deviates. Eastwards in the Bering straits between Australia and Siberia. The line deviates west-wards of 180° longitude. Further south, the date line deviates eastwards of 180° around Fiji, Toga islands.

Question 4.
Complete the following Table.

Answer:

Seasons and Time Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
Explain the reason for the occurrence of seasons.
Answer:
Variations in the amount of sunshine received are the basis for the occurrence of different seasons. The earths revolution and the tilt of the axis are the
reasons for this variation.

Question 2.
What is meant by the parallelism of axis?
Answer:
The axis of the earth is tilted at an angle of 66 1/2 from the orbital plane. If measured from the vertical plane this would be 23 1/2.The earth maintains this tilt throughout its revolution. This is known as parallelism of earth’s axis.

Question 3.
Define the term equinoxes.
Answer:
The apparent position of the sun during the earth’s revolution will be over the equator on March 21 and September 23. Hence the length of the day and night will be equal during these days on both the hemispheres.These days are called equinoxes.

Question 4.
What is leap year?
Answer:
To complete one revolution, the earth takes 365 1/4 days. But a year normally has 365 days. The remaining 1/4 part of a day will be considered as a full day one in every fair year. Thus every fourth year has 366 days and is called a leap year. Thus in every fourth year February has 29 days.

Question 5.
How is the duration of days and nights experienced at the places with in the Antarctic circle when the sun is in the southern hemisphere?
Answer:
lt will be six months of days throughout in the places within the Antarctic circle.

Question 6.
The local time is not same everywhere in India. Substantiate.
Answer:
In the ancient period, time was calculated based on the apex position of the sun and the length of the shadow cast by it. When the sun is vertically overhead, it is noon. The time estimated at each place, based on the position of the sun, is termed as the local time. In a vast country like India there are many longitudinal. Hence the standard time will be different. There is a difference of 2 hours in time between the states Arunachal Pradesh which is in the eastern part of India and Gujarat which is in the western part of India.

Question 7.
India has only one standard meridian but many other countries have more than one standard meridian. How do you interest this statement?
Answer:
It is not practical to follow only one standard time for the countries with wide longitudinal extent. So more than one longitudes are considered as standard meridians.
Eg: Russia, China, USA

Question 8.
What will be the time a New Delhi when it is noon at Greenwich?
Answer:
When it is 12 noon in Greenwich, it will be morning 6.30 in Delhi.

Question 9.
Distinguish between winter solstice and summer solstice.
Answer:
The apparent position of the sun shifts from the equator to the northern hemisphere from March 21 to June 21 .The sun will be vertically above the Tropic of Cancer on June 21. This day is known as summer solstice. The sun continues its apparent movement from the equator to the southern hemisphere and reaches vertically above the Tropic of Capricon on December 22. This day is known as Winter solstice.

Question 10.
Variation in the amount sunshine received is the basis of the occurrence of different sea¬son. Elucidate
Answer:
Variations in the amount of sunshine received are the basis for the occurrence of different seasons. The apparent position of the sun during the earth’s revolution will be over the equator on March 21 and September 23. Hence the length of day and night will be equal during these days on both the hemispheres. These days are called Equinoxes.

The apparent position of the sun shifts from the equator to the northern hemisphere from March 21 to June 21. The sun will be vertically above the tropic of cancer on June 21. This day is known as Summer solstice. lt has the longest day in northern hemisphere and the longest night in southern hemisphere. From June 21 onward, the sun shifts from the tropic of cancer towards the equator and reaches vertically over the equator on September 23.As the sun is in the northern hemisphere from March to September,it will be summer in the northern hemisphere.

The sun continues its apparent movement from the equator to the southern atmosphere and reaches vertically above the Tropic of Capricorn on December 22. This day is known as Winter solstice. During the period from September to March, it will be winter in the northern atmosphere and summer in the southern atmosphere.

Seasons and Time SCERT Questions and Answer

Question 1.
The earth travels around the sun along an elliptical orbit.
a. By what name is this movement known?
b. Mention the time taken by the earth to complete one turn round the sun?
c. The amount of solar energy received is not uniform at any place on the earth during this journey. Why?
Answer:
a. Revolution
b. 365 days and 6 hours
c. Change in the apparent position of the sun due to the inclination and parallelism of the earth’s axis.

Question 2.
A year generally comprises 365 days. But in certain occasions it consists of 366 days. Mention the name by which such years are known? Explain how 366 days are included in such years.
Answer:
Leap year:
The earth takes 365 days and 6 hours to complete one revolution. 365 days are included in a normal year and by adding the rest 6 hours together one additional day is included in the fourth year which is in February (29 days).

Question 3.
Observe the answers given by 2 students based on the inclination of eart’s axis and evaluate.

Answer:
The axis of the earth is inclined to 661/2° from the plane of the orbit and it is 23 1/2 ° from the vertical to the plane of orbit

Question 4.

the parallelism of earth’s axis. Identify the correct ones?
a. A and B
b. B only
c. C and D
d.A and D

Answer:
b. B only

Question 5.
One among the following statements is wrong. Identify the wrong answer and make necessary correction.
a. The duration of day in the northern hemisphere increases from 21 March to 21 June.
b. The duration of night in the northern hemisphere increases from 21 March to 21 June.
c. The duration of day decreases in the northern hemisphere from 21 June to 23 September.
d. The duration of night in the southern hemisphere increases from 21 June to 23 September.
Answer:

• b is the wrong answer
• The duration of night in the northern hemisphere decreases from 21 March to 21 June.

Question 6.
What is the peculiarity of the duration of day and night in both the hemispheres on 21 March, 21 June, 23 September and 22 December?
Hints:
‘Apparent position of the sun
(i) The duration of day and night in both the hemispheres
(ii) The names by which this days are known.

Answer:
21 March – The sun comes vertically over head at the Equator – The duration of day and night are equal on both the hemisph-eres- Equinox

21 June – The sun is vertically overhead at the Tropic of cancer – The longest day in the northern hemisphere and longest ni ght in the southern hemisphere – Summer solstice

23 September – The sun comes vertically overhead at the equator – The duration of day and night are equal on both the hem-ispheres- Equinox
22 December -The sun is vertically over head at the tropic of Capricorn – The long-est day in the southern hemisphere and longest night in the northern hemisphere – Winter solstice

Question 7.
Analyse the diagrams and complete the table below.

Answer:

a. Tropic of Capricorn
b. Tropic of cancer
c. Shortest night
d. Longest night
e. Longest night
f. Shortest night
g. Winter solstice
h. Summer solstice

Question 8.
The time of sunset varies over different months. Why?
Answer:
When the sun is over the northern hemisphere northern hemisphere, experiences longer days and shorter nights. When the sun is over, the southern hemisphere, the northern hemisphere experience shorter days and longer nights. This causes variations in the time of sunrise and sunset.

Question 9.
The seasons experiencing in the northern hemisphere are given in the table. Write do¬wn the corresponding seasons in the southern hemisphere.

Answer:

• Summer
• Autumn
• Winter
• Spring

Question 10.
The following are the hints related to certain seasons. Identify each season.
a. Transition season between winter and summer
b. Transition season between summer and winter
Answer:
a. Spring
b. Autumn

Question 11.
Following are a few natural phenomena occurring in different seasons in India. Identify the season represented by each.
a. Sprouting and blooming of plants and trees
b. Trees shed their leaves.
c. Drying of reservoirs.
d Dry atmosphere and low temperature.

Answer:
a. Spring
b. Autumn
c. Summer
d. Winter

Question 12.
Each degree of longitude corresponds to four minutes of time. How can we arrive at this fact?
Answer:

• Earth takes 24 hours to complete one rotation, i.e., 360° or 1440 minutes
• In other words it takes 1440 minutes to complete one rotation.
• Hence 1 ° of longitude corresponds to 4 minutes (1440 ÷ 360 = 4 min)

Question 13.
The world is divided in to 24 time zones.
a. What is the longitudinal extent of each of these time zone?
b. What is the time difference within a time zone?

Answer:
a. 15°
b. 1 hour

Question 14.
There is an increase in time towards the east and decrease in time towards the west of ail the longitudes other than 180° longitude. Why?
Answer:

• The earth rotates from west to east
• So the sun rises in the east and sets in the west.
• He nee these are increase in time towards the east and decrease in time towards the west

Question 15.
Explain the significance of Greenwich meridian and International date line in determining time.
Answer:

• Greenwich meridian – 0° longitude. It is based on this longitude that the time is calculated worldwide.
• International date line – 180°longitude. There is a difference of 24 hours on either side of this line of longitude. So it is drawn deviated to avoid the land areas and to pass entirely through the ocean.

Question 16.
Every country considers a particular longitude as their standard meridian for determining time. Why?
Answer:
The local time is different at different longitudes. If the same country follows different time, this may create a lot of confusions and problems. So the longitude passing almost through the middle of the country is considered as the standard meridian. The local time at this longitude is considered as the standard Time.

Question 17.
Why do certain countries consider more than one longitude as their standard meridians? Give an example for such a country.
Answer:
It is not practical to follow only one standard time for the countries with wide longitudinal extent. So more than one longitudes are considered as standard meridians.
Eg: Russia, China, USA

Question 18.
What is the standard meridian of India?
Answer:
8214° East longitude

Question 19.
The standard meridian of India is 82‘/2° East longitude. Why do India consider this longitude as the standard meridian?
Answer:
82 1/2 ° East longitude passes almost through the middle of the country.

Question 20.
Which among the following longitudes is drawn deviated to avoid the land areas?
a. Equator
b. Greenwich meridian
c. International date line d 82/2° East longitude
Answer:

c. International date line

Question 21.
Why is International date line drawn deviated from the land areas?
Answer:

• There is a difference of 24 hours on either side of this longitude.
• If this line passes through land areas, the same inhabited areas may have different days.

Question 22.
What is the Greenwich Mean Time when the Indian Standard time is 2 pm on Mon¬day?
Answer:
8.30 am on Monday (2 pm – 5 hrs. 30 min = 8.30 am)

Question 23.
Determine the local time at 45° East and at 45° West longitude when the Greenwich Mean Time is 10 am Wednesday.
Answer:
45° East- 1 pm Wednesday
\(\left(\frac{45}{15}=3 \text { hrs, } 10 \mathrm{am}+3 \mathrm{hr}=1 \mathrm{pm}\right)\)
45° West- 7 am Wednesday
\(\left(\frac{45}{15}=3 \text { hrs, } 10 a m-3 h r=7 a m\right)\)

Seasons and Time Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is revolution?
Answer:
The earth revolves around the sun in elliptical orbit. This motion is known as revolution.

Question 2.
What is rotation ?
Answer:
The earth rotates its own axis is known as rotation.

Question 3.
What is the tilt of the earth?
Answer:
23 1/2°

Question 4.
How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation ?
Answer:
24 hrs.

Question 5.
Why the amount of solar energy received on earth is different ?
Answer:
Due to the apparent movement of the sun.

Question 6.
What is the amount of sunlight received in the Northern and Southern Hemisphere when the sun is vertically over the equator ?
Answer:
Equal amount of sunlight.

Question 7.
What is parallelism of the earth’s axis ?
Answer:
The axis of the earth is tilled at an angle of 66 1/2 from the orbital plane. If measured from the vertical plane this would be 23 1/2°The earth maintains this tilt throughout its revolution. This is known as the parallelism of the earth’s axis.

Question 8.
What do you mean by apparent movement of the sun ?
Answer:
Since the earth maintains its parallelism throughout the revolution, the position of the sun is in relation to the earth varies. The sum shifts apparently between Tropic of Cancer (23 1/2 °North) and Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2 °South). This is known as the apparent movement of the sun.

Question 9.
What is the main reason for the occurrence of seasons ?
Answer:
The apparent movement of the sun due to the inclination of axis is the main reason for the occurrence of seasons.

Question 10.
How did the term equinoxes and solstices derived ?
Answer:
The word equinox is derived from the Greek words equi and noxe. ‘Equi’ means equal and ‘noxe’ means night. The word solstices derived from the Greek words sol and stic. Sol means sun and stic means stationary state.

Question 11.
What is equinoxes?
Answer:
When sum is over head over the equator on March 21 and September 23, the length of the day and night will be equal on both the hemisphere. These days are called equinoxes.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Summer solstice? How does it affect Northern and Southern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The apparent position of the sun shifts from the equator to the Northern Hemisphere from March 21 to June 21. The sun will be vertically above the Tropic of Cancer on June 21. This day, known as summer solstice. As a result of summer solstice, Northern hemisphere will have longest day and longest night in the Southern hemisphere.

Question 13.
Name the parallels marked in the following diagram.

0° — Equator
23 1/2 °N — Tropic of Cancer
23 1/2 °S — Tropic of Capricorn
66 1/2°N — Arctic circle
66 1/2 °S — Antarctic circle
90°N — North pole
90° S — South pole

Question 14.
What will be season in Northern and Southern hemisphere from September to March ?
Answer:

• In Northern hemisphere — Winter
• In Southern hemisphere — Summer

Question 15.
The seasons are not same in the two hemisphere. What are the reasons for this ?
Answer:
Revolution of the earth, rotation of the earth, tilt of the axis and inclination of the axis in the same direction.

Question 16.
Compare Rotation and Revolution, equinoxes and solstice ?

Question 17.
What will happen if the earth stops rotation?
Answer:
The regular occurrence of day and night will | not be possible. The side of the earth which j for as the sun always feel day and the other | side always will have night. If the earth stops j rotation, it will become an unsuitable planet j to sustain life.

Question 18.
What will happen if the axis of the earth be-comes vertically ?
Answer:
The length of the days and night all over the earth would be equal.

Question 19.
What will be the complications if there are several local times in a country ?
Answer:

• Cannot prepare a railway time table applicable throughout the country.
• Cannot give information on radio programmes
• People have to adjust their watches suitably.

You can Download The Happiness Machine Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard English Solutions Unit 5 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 9th Standard English Solutions Unit 4 Chapter 1 The Happiness Machine (Story)

Std 9 English Textbook The Happiness Machine Questions and Answers

The Happiness Machine Questions Answers Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 1.
What according to Huffman is the novel invention?
Answer:
The novel invention is “The Happiness Machine”.

The Happiness Machine Summary Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 2.
What was the perplexing question forming in his mind?
Answer:
The perplexing question forming in his mind was “Should the machine be something you carry in your pocket or something that carries you in its pocket?”

The Happiness Machine Lesson Plan Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 3.
Leo Huffman was carrying a dictionary when he went to talk to his wife. What is his intention behind it?
Answer:
His intention is to get the right words for feelings associated with happiness.

Happiness Machine Lesson Plan Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 4.
“Do you think whether I am happy by doing all these household works?” What did Lena mean by that? Do you think she is really happy?
Answer:
She means she is not happy doing all those household works. No, she is not really happy.

The Happiness Machine Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 5.
What made Lena freeze? What led to such a mishap?
Answer:
Lena froze because she caught the burning smell from the kitchen. Her husband’s talk with her led to the mishap as her attention was diverted by the talk.

The Happiness Machine Notes Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 6.
Pick out the expressions which suggest Leo Huffman worked hard.
Answer:
Clings, clangs, rings, beeps; sounds of toil echoed rhythmically from the garage. Those days were without food, rest and sleep.

The Happiness Machine Summary Pdf Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 7.
How did Lena respond when she heard that the Happiness Machine was ready?
Answer:
She said that Leo had become thinner and their children had lacked his care. She said that man could not make such changes and he should stop working on such a
machine.

Happiness Machine Question Answer Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 8.
The garage grabbed the attention of even the birds and dogs. Why were they attracted to it?
Answer:
They were attracted to it because the Happiness Machine produced sounds with all kinds of humming in varied frequencies.

The Happiness Machine Short Summary Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 9.
What made Lena think that the machine was worthless? How should the happiness machine be according to Lena?
Answer:
Lena thought the machine worthless because if Leo died of overwork, she would be left alone with all the tedious household tasks. According to her, a happiness
machine should make old men young and her happy. It should be able to get all things done for the house, the kitchen and the children.

The Happiness Machine Summary In Malayalam Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 10.
Who was the first to test the machine? What was the effect of it?
Answer:
Saul, Leo’s son, was the first to test the machine.
He went inside the machine but the machine became terribly hot. The Machine could not make him happy.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard English Notes  Question 11.
Why was Lena ready to try the machine?
Answer:
Lena was ready to try the machine because she wanted to spare her children from being tested in the machine. She did not want them to get nightmares.

The Happiness Machine Pdf Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 12.
How did the machine behave when the button was pressed?
Answer:
When the button was pressed, the machine shivered and growled like a wild dog. The machine continued to make strange sounds.

Lesson Plan Of The Happiness Machine Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 13.
“Blue Danube”
Answer:
Stands for the Danube River.

The Happiness Machine Characters Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Question 14.
“Only she thinks she is dancing!” What did Leo Huffman mean by this?
Answer:
He meant that he too was dancing because of the success of the machine.

Question 15.
How did Paris make Lena sad?
Answer:
The sight of Paris made her realize that she and Leo had not danced for 20 years.

Question 16.
What all things did the machine do to make Lena happy?
Answer:
Apart from showing her Paris, Rome and the . Pyramids of Egypt, the machine-made the sunset last forever. The air was fragrant and the temperature fine.

Question 17.
Why could not Lena enjoy the sunset which lasted long?
Answer:
Lena could not enjoy the sunset which lasted long because she always likes sunset when it comes and goes. Moreover she could not go on watching the sunset when her children were waiting for food, dishes were to be washed and beds made.

Question 18.
In the words of Lena what was the mistake Leo Huffman made in the making of the Happiness Machine?
Answer:
Leo Huffman made the mistake of making quick things slow and far away things close. People like quick things for they are quick and far away things as they are not easily reachable.

Question 19.
How could Leo Huffman escape from the burning machine?
Answer:
The boys dragged him out from the machine when someone broke the door open.

Question 20.
What changed the house into total disarray?
Answer:
The burning Happiness Machine and the commotion it caused changed the house into total disarray.

Question 21.
Did Leo Huffman realize his mistake in his attempt to make others happy with a machine?
Answer:
Yes, he did. It was made more than a thousand years ago and it is still there even though not good all the time. It runs on and on.

Question 22.
According to Leo Huffman, what is the real Happiness Machine? What made him realize that?
Answer:
According to Leo Huffman, the real Happiness Machine is a well-knit Home, where all the family members work and enjoy together carrying out their various responsibilities and doing the things they like most. He realized that when he looked through the window and saw the various things going on around him. He saw the ripples outside, his children playing games or making dresses for the doll or painting. Lena was cooking. Someone was singing melodiously. There was the aroma of the baking bread and the tempting butter. All this made real happiness.

Let’s Revisit and Reflect

Let’s quote what Mr. Leo Auffman and Lena Huffman said about the machine. The following quotes of Leo Huffman suggest that he is very confident about the machine which creates happy situations. Now pick out the comments of Lena Huffman about the machine.

a) Could the machine make old men young or make me happy?
Answer:
lam trying to get away to solve all your complaints.

b) Can the machine get all things done for the house, the kitchen and the children?
Answer:
That’s not how it’s built!

c) OK. You test your damn thing with me and spare my children. Don’t give them nightmares.
Answer:
Press the button and you will see!

d) Oh! Ah! look at that! Paris! Rome! The Pyramids! Perfume!
Answer:
She only thinks she is dancing!

e) Music! lam dancing.
Answer:
I still do not understand what’s wrong with the machine. Amazing!

Now we have gone through the different perspectives of Leo and Lena Huffman towards happiness. Let’s discuss to what extent the story supports or refutes the following statements.
Answer:
Real happiness comes from our relationships rather than from material things. Machines and devices do make our life easy, but they will not bring real happiness. A family may have a large, fully air-conditioned mansion, fine furniture, all kinds of electrical and electronic gadgets in the house, the latest Benz car, and an excellent garden.

But if the parents and children go on quarreling, arguing and getting angry with one another, where is happiness there? Happiness can’t be bought with money. In a home where the parents and the children work hard at their respective duties and carry out their responsibilities, encourage, love and make little sacrifices for one another, there will be real happiness. A house is built of stones, bricks, steel, and wood and you may pack it with all sorts of luxurious things, but it does not become a home unless love reigns there.

Activity -1

a) Given below is the storyboard of the film ‘The Happiness Machine’. Study the pictures carefully and write the appropriate events from the story in the space provided. One has been done for you.
Answer:
1. Leo Huffman is with his wife. Wife is ironing the clothes. He asks his wife whether she is happy or not.

2. Lena is busy in the kitchen preparing food for the family. Nobody is helping her. She looks tired and bored, and even slightly angry.

3. Leo is busy in the garage working on his Happiness Machine, It is almost finished. It is a huge one and looks taller than him.

4. Leo sees his son Saul crying in his bed at late night. He asks Saul if he had a nightmare. He finds that the garage door is open. On checking, he finds the Happiness Machine is hot. Saul had gone inside the machine.

5. Lena is inside the machine. Leon is instructing her how to operate the machine. He looks very happy and confident. So is one of his sons standing beside him.

6. The Happiness Machine is on fire. The firemen are trying to put out the flames. Leo is angry and surprised as he tries to keep away from the flames.

b) Now select any scene from the given storyboard and complete the worksheet. Sample is given



Answer:
Title of the Scene: Lena inside the Happiness Machine (Inside the garage)
Key Ideas: Showing the sights, sounds and smells inside the happiness machine.
Appearance/Features of the characters: Lena (middle-aged, happy-looking) inside the Machine. Leo (middle-aged, confident-looking) outside the machine. Saul, the son of Lena and Leo, stands by Leo, looking worried.
Setting and Background Information: Leo has made the Happiness Machine. He wants to test it. Lena volunteers to go inside the machine to spare the children of any nightmare of being tested. The children gathered round the 8-foot tall, orange-colored machine.
Plot (Problems and Solutions) : Leo spends all his time perfecting his Happiness Machine. Lena is unhappy as she has to clean the dishes, cook the meals and iron the clothes by herself. Leo also does not spend time with his children. Finally, the machine is ready. Lena volunteers to go inside the machine to spare the children of any nightmare of being tested. She thinks Leo has wasted his time making this machine. ,
Props you may need A large washing-machine-like box with the front door with see-through glass.
Likely Conversation :
Naomi: Is Mama alright, Papa?
Leo : All right! She is fine! Listen!
Lena (from inside) the machine: Oh, Ah, Look at that! Paris! Rome! The Pyramids! Perfume! The Blue Danube! Music! I’m dancing!
Leo : Only she thinks she is dancing.
Lena : Amazing!
Naomi: She is crying!
Leo: She can’t be!
Saul : She is like a baby. (Leo opens the door of the machine.)
Lena : Please Lee! Let me finish!

c) Watch the film, and complete the checklist.

d) Given below is the dialogue of the characters from a particular scene of the film ‘ The Happiness Machine ‘. Scan the QR code to see the particular scene. Watch the scene carefully and complete the dialogue.
Leo : Why am I in bed so late?
Lena : Stay there or I will give you such a hit.
Leo: What’s this?
Lena : ………………………
Leo:………………………
Answer:
Leo : Why am I in bed so late?
Lena : Stay there or give you such a hit.
Leo : What’s this?
Lena : It used to be breakfast; then it could have been lunch; now it’s dog’s dinner.
Leo : What is that? It can’t be. Where is the Happiness Machine?
Lena : You haven’t spoken to the children for 2 weeks. You haven’t spoken to me for months. You lost 10 pounds and I lost 15. Leave off that machine. You will never find a cook big enough to go into it.

e) Let’s now draft a subtitle for this scene.
Answer:
Subtitle : Breakfast for dinner
Subtitle is the caption or translation shown at the bottom of a film or television screen.

Activity – 2

Words for the blank spaces: Love, optimism, sacrifices

How can we be happy?
Answer:

Happiness is a state of mind. It is not something that can be bought with money or can be got through material things alone. Machines and gadgets will certainly add to our happiness, but the basic ingredients are love, optimism, ambition, friends, kindness, and sacrifices. Love is the primary ingredient.

A house is made of bricks, stones, steel, and wood, but a home is made of, mainly, love. If there is no love, even the members of the family become an unruly crowd where selfishness dominates. Optimism helps us to overcome our worries. Ambition enables us to achieve greater things. Friends make our life worth living. Kindness shows that we care for others and sacrifices indicate that we are willing to suffer for others.

Why are Gandhiji, Mother Theresa and Nelson Mandela so loved all over the world?
Answer:
They had all these qualities in abundance.

Activity – 3

a) Leo Auffmann tries to find happiness from a machine. The present generation tries to seek happiness from mobile phones. Now, look at this cartoon strip.
Answer:

b) What idea does this cartoon strip convey?
Answer:
The cartoon strip shows how a man is so immersed in his mobile that he does not even notice that birds come and lay eggs in his cap. The eggs are incubated and hatched there. Small birds fly out and still, the man is busy with his mobile not knowing what has happened in his cap.

c) Based on the discussion on the cartoon, conduct a debate on the topic, ‘Mobile phone – boon or bane.’
Boon (Blessing):

• Easy communication with people all over the world.
• Can watch movies, and other entertainment programs and listen to songs.
• play games
• learn a lot of new things
• get the latest news
• is helpful in emergencies
• take photos
• send quick messages
• access to the internet
• There are things like calculators, spell-checks, etc.

Bane (Curse):

• expensive
• people get addicted to it
• accidents happen as people use mobile while walking or driving
• loss of secrecy as people take photos even without your knowledge
• spread rumors
• vulgar videos from the internet
• chats often lead to unhealthy relations
• people become dependent on it
• misuse it even in the exam halls for malpractices
• people lose their interest in reading, instead, they use the mobile for information

Language activity

a. Leo consoled Lena.
b. Lena was consoled by Leo.
1. Do the above two sentences express the same meaning?
2. What did Leo do?
3. Hence Leo is the doer of the action.

Activity -1

Read the following sentences and identify the doer of the action in each sentence.

1. The oven door was pulled open by Lena. ………………………………….
2. Leo forced Lena to stop her work. ………………………………….
3. Leo was awakened by vague sounds. ………………………………….
4. Leo makes a new machine. ………………………………….
5. The clothes have been ironed by Lena. ………………………………….
6. Naomi was cutting paper doll dress. ………………………………….
Answer:
1. Lena
2. Leo
3. Vague sounds
4. Leo
5. Lena
6. Naomi

When do we begin a sentence with the doer of the action? Tick the correct option
(a) When the doer of the action is emphasized.
(b) When the receiver of the action is emphasized.
Answer:
(a) When the doer of the action is emphasized.

a) Observe the sentence patterns given in column A and column B and complete the missing rows.

Answer:

b) Some events from the lesson The Happiness Machine are given below. Read them

Active and passive voice.
In the given sentences, the doers are emphasised. Now rewrite the sentences giving emphasise to the receiver.
1. Leo completed the work of the happiness machine.
Answer:
The work of the happiness machine was completed.

2. Lena checked the function of the happiness machine.
Answer:
The function of the happiness machine was checked by Lena.

3. Leo did not care for their children.
Answer:
Their children were not cared for by Leo.

4. Lena looked after their children.
Answer:
Their children were looked after by Lena.

5. They could hear a muffled explosion.
Answer:
A muffled explosion could be heard by them.

6. The boys dragged him out.
Answer:
He was dragged out by the boys.

7. They called the fire force.
Answer:
The fire force was called by them.

8. Children were watching the firemen.
Answer:
The firemen were being watched by the children

You can Download The Boy Who Drew Cats Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Solutions Unit 1 Chapter 2 helps you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 8th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 1 Chapter 2 The Boy Who Drew Cats (Hasegawa Takejiro)

Std 8 English Textbook The Boy Who Drew Cats Questions and Answers

The Boy Who Drew Cats Questions And Answers Pdf Kerala Syllabus 8th Question 1.
How is the youngest child introduced in the story?

Answer
The youngest boy is introduced as a clever, but quite weak and a small boy who is not fit for hard work.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus 8th Question 2.
Why did the parents take the boy to the priest?

Answer:
People of the village opined that the boy could never grow very big. So his parents thought it would be bet¬ter for him to become a priest than to become a farmer.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Activities Kerala Syllabus 8th Question 3.
‘… but perhaps you will become a great artist.’
Do you think the opinion of the priest about the boy is appropr¬iate? Why?

Answer:
Yes. Because whenever the boy was alone, he drew the pictures of cats.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Lesson Activities Kerala Syllabus 8th Question 4.
What was the advice of the priest to the boy?

Answer:
The priest advised the boy to avoid large places at night and to keep to the small.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Worksheet Answers Kerala Syllabus 8th Question 5.
Why didn’t the boy go home after he left the temple?

Answer:
The boy did not go home because he felt sure that his father would punish him for being disobedient to the priest.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Pdf Kerala Syllabus 8th  Question 6.
When the boy entered the temple he did not see anyone. What could be the reason?

Answer:
The reason was that a goblin rat had! frightened the priests away and had taken possession of the place.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Notes Kerala Syllabus 8th Question 7.
Why did he choose a small place to sleep?

Answer:
The boy felt afraid of the place and he resolved to look for a small place to sleep.

Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard English Solutions Unit 1 Chapter 2 Question 8.
Where did the boy find a safe place to sleep on?

Answer:
He found a little cabinet, with a sliding door and got into it and shut himself up.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Conversation Between Boy And Priest 8th Question 9.
What was the dreadful voice that the boy heard?

Answer:
The dreadful voice might have been the result of the fighting and screaming between the cats and the goblin rat.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Story Kerala Syllabus 8th  Question 10.
How do you think the goblin rat was killed?

Answer:
The goblin rat was killed by the cats which the boy had drawn.

8th Standard English Notes Kerala Syllabus 8th Question 11.
Was the advice of the priest helpful to the boy? Why?

Answer:
Yes. Because a dreadful fight was going on between the cats and the goblin rat and the boy was safe in the Cabinet.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Textbook Activities And Answers

The Boy Who Drew Cats Character Sketch Kerala Syllabus 8th Activity 1.

Did you enjoy the story, ‘The Boy who Drew Cats’? If you were the young boy, how would you tell the story?
You may begin like this.

Answer:
I was the youngest child of a poor Japanese family. Because of my ill health, I was sent to a priest home to be trained as a priest. I liked to draw the pictures of j cats. Although I obeyed all the rituals and i I rule of the priest home I could not stop I drawing cats. My teacher ordered me not to draw cats anymore. But I could not stop drawing.

At last, my teacher advised me to become a painter, not a priest. I planned to quit the place. Before leaving the teacher advised me to take shelter in small places and asked me to avoid big places.

I started my journey to the next village. I found a temple. It was covered with dust and cobwebs. I did not know that it was j the place of a monstrous rat. I entered in and saw walls which were empty. I started painting cats. When I felt sleepy I slept in a small room. After sometime hearing some sound I woke up. When it was morning, I came out and saw a big rat killed. Because of the pictures of the cats the big rat was killed. After that incident, I became a famous painter in Japan.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Short Summary Kerala Syllabus 8th Activity 2.

How was the goblin rat killed?
Write the events that led to the death of the goblin rat to complete the flow-chart given below.

Answer:

The Boy Who Drew Cats Additional Questions & Answers

Question 1.
Read the passage from the story ‘ The Boy who Drew Catstfand answer the questions that follow.
Whenever he found himself alone, he drew cats. He drew them on the margins of the priest’s books, and on all the screens of the temple, and on the walls, and on the pillars. Several times the priest told him this was not right: but he did not stop drawing cats. He drew them because he could not really help it.

He had what is called ‘the genius of an artist’ and just for that reason he was not quite fit to be an acolyte- a good acolyte should study books. One day after he had drawn some very clever pictures of cats upon a paper screen, the old priest said to him severely: ‘ My boy, you must go away from this temple at once. You will never make a good priest, but perhaps you will become a great artist. Now, let me give you a last piece of advice, and be sure you never forget it. Avoid large places at night, keep to small!’

The boy did not know what the priest meant by saying, ‘ Avoid large places keep to small.’ He thought and thought, while he was tying up his little bundle of clothes to go away; but he could not understand those words and he was afraid to speak to the priest anymore, except to say good-bye.
1. The boy continued to draw cats because ……………………
a. He hated cats.
b. He wanted to become an artist
c. He wanted to please the priest
d. He was unable to stop drawing cats
2. Pick out the word from the passage which means ‘ one who helps the priest’,
a. Genius
b. Acolyte
c. Artist
d. Cats
3. Which were the places the boy choose to draw cats?
4. Why did the priest decide to send the boy away from the temple?
5. Pick out the expression from the passage that shows the boy wandered about the priest’s advice.
Answer:
1. He was unable to stop drawing, cats.
2. Acolyte
3. On the margins of the priest’s books, and on all screens of the temple, and on the pillar.
4. He would never make a good priest.
5. He thought and thought

Question 2.
Edit the following passage.
Whenever he found himself alone, he draws (a) cats. He drew them on the mar¬gins of the priests (b) books, and on all the screens (c) of the temple and on the walls and on the pillars.
Answer:
a. drew
b. priest’s
c. screens

Question 3.
Complete the passage given using suitable phrasal verbs from the ones given below.
The boy ………. (a) ……….. for the big temple in the next village. When he ……….. (b) ………… the village it was already dark. He……….. (c)……… the temple on a hill. He went at once to the temple and knocked. There was no sound inside. He ………….. (d)………. knocking but still nobody came. At last, he pushed gently at the door and found that it was not fastened.

Answer:
a. set out
b. got out
c. came across
d. went on

Question 4.
Given below are signboards to create awareness on Road Safety. Read them carefully and identify the verb phrases. One is done for you.
a) School Ahead, Go Slow
b) Wear Seatbelts While Driving
c) Pedestrians, Keep To Your Left

Verb Phrase
a. Go slow
b. ………….
c. ………….
Answer:
b. Wear seat belts
c. Keep to your left

Speech

Speech is an effective verbal communication made by a person addressing a group of people. Usually, a speech begins with an appropriate salutation.

Tips to remember

• Good beginning with a salutation
• Introduce the topic well
• Conclude the speech well

Question 5.
You are the secretary of the Arts Club in your school. The club decides to honor the boy in the story ‘ The Boy who Drew Cats’ in your school assembly. Prepare a speech of appreciation.

(Hints: The boy always drew cats- send away from temple by the priest as he always drew cats – goes to next village – draws cats in the haunted temple – goblin rats were killed- blood on the mouth of the cats drawn by the boy – became a famous artist)
Answer:
A very warm welcome to all present here. Today I am very happy to introduce to you the famous painter Erico. He was the youngest child of a poor Japanese family. Because of his ill health, he was sent to a temple to be trained as a priest. He loved to draw cats. Although he learned whatever that was taught he couldn’t stop drawing cats. Though the old priest ordered him not to draw cats anymore he couldn’t stop drawing. At last, his teacher advised him to become a painter, not a priest. So he planned to quit the place.

Before leaving, the teacher advised him to take shelter in small places and asked him to avoid big places. He started his journey to the next temple. The temple was covered with dust and cobweb. He did not know that it was the place of a monstrous rat. When he saw the walls empty he painted cats. He felt sleepy and slept in a small cabinet. After sometime hearing some sound he woke up. In the morning when he woke up he found that the big rat had been killed by the cats he drew. It was the words of his teacher ‘Avoid large places at night, keep to small’ that saved him from the monstrous rat. After that incident, he became a famous painter in Japan.

Question 6.
Look at the following word pyramid.

Now, construct a similar word pyramid using the word ‘ book’.
Answer:

The Boy Who Drew Cats Summary in English

The main character in the story, youngest son of poor, hardworking farmer, lives in a country village of old Japan. Because he is small, weak, and bright, his parents sent him to the village priest to be trained for priesthood. The boy learns well and pleases his master in almost all ways, but he persists in one act of disobedience drawing cats whenever he can. Although warned to stop, he continued it. The disobedience of the boy causes the old priest to send him away with the advice to stop trying to become a priest but instead become an artist. The priest cautions the boy to avoid large places at night and keep to the small. Puzzled by the strange warning, the boy reluctantly leaves his temple home and walks to the next village, where there is a large temple at which he hopes to continue his religious training.

He arrives at the temple at night, only to find it deserted and covered with thick layers of dust and cobwebs. He does not know the temple has been abandoned because a bloodthirsty goblin lived there. Earlier, soldiers entered the temple at night to kill the goblin but did not survive the attempt. The unsuspecting boy sits quietly and waits for the temple priests to appear. He notices large, white screens, wonderful surfaces for drawing cats, and soon has drawing ink and brushes ready. He unhesitatingly draws cats, not stopping until he is too tired to continue.

Sleepily he remembers the old priest’s warning as he lies down, so he crawls into a small cabinet and pulls the door before he sleeps. Hours later, the boy wakes to sounds of horrible screaming and fighting. He cowers silently while the fight rages, and only ventures out after daylight streams into the room. He finds a floor wet with blood and, lying dead, a monster goblin-rat the size of a cow. Scanning the temple, he notices the wet, blood-red mouths of the cats he has drawn on the screens. Suddenly he understands the priest’s advice and realizes that his cats have destroyed the goblin in the vicious fight he has overheard. The boy later becomes a famous artist, whose pictures of cats can still be seen in Japan.

The Boy Who Drew Cats Summary in Malayalam

The Boy Who Drew Cats Glossary