Class 10

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions :

• The first 15 minutes Is the Cool-off time.
• You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer only on the basis of instructions and questions given.
• Consider score and time while answering.

Time: 1½ Hours
Total Score: 40 Marks

Section – A

Answer any five questions 1-6. One score each. (5 x 1 = 5)

Question 1.
The doctor prescribed an injection for an allergy patient. Choose the component present in its.
a) Insulin
b) Oxytocin
c) Cortisol
d) Adrenaline
Answer:
c) Cortisol

Question 2.
Make word pairs from the words given in box as scientist – concept of evolution.

Answer:
Mutation – Devries Natural selection – Darwin

Question 3.
Select the correct statements regarding cerebrum.
a) Centre of thought, intelligence , memory and imagination
b) Maintains equilibrium of the body
c) Sensations
d) Maintenance of homeostasis.
Answer:
a) Centre of thought, intelligence, memory and imagination
c) Sensations

Question 4.
Correct the word underlined in the given statements if there is any mistake.
a) The different forms of a gene are called autosomes.
b) The sugar seen in RNA is ribose
c) the RNA that carries amino acids to ribosome is called mRNA.
Answer:
a) The different forms of gens are called alleles
c) The RNA that carries amino acids to ribosome is called tRNA

Question 5.
Complete the illustration using the words given in the box.

Answer:
A) Acromegaly
B) Gigantism

Question 6.
Identify the correct statement.
a) Non functional genes ard called vectors
b) The sum of the genetic material present in an organism is called its genome.;
c) The technology used to identify the location of a gene is called gene therapy.
Answer:
b) The sum of the genetic material present in an organism is called its genome

Question 7.
Some symptoms of a disease are given
Loss of memory
Inability to recognize friends and relatives
a) Identify the disease .
b) What ¡s the cause of this disease?
Answer:
a) Aalzheimers
b) Accumulation of insoluble proteins

Section – B

Answer any 6 from questions 7-13. 2 Scores each (6 x 2 = 12)

Question 8.
Fill the blanks in the illustration suitably.

Answer:
a) Bacteria
b) Mosaic
c) Fungus
d) Coconut tree

Question 9.
A person severely injured in an accident needs blood. Antigen A is detected in his blood on blood text.
a) Identify the blood group of this person.
b) From the following persons whose blood can be received by him
i) X – A group
ii) Y – B group
iii) Z-AB group
Answer:
i) A group
ii) – b X – A group

Question 10.
First generation raised from the hybridisation experiment of Mendel is given. Write the gametes formed from this generation.

Answer:

Question 11.
Make suitable pairs.

Answer:
Bacteria -Cholera
Virus – Foot and mouth disease
Fungus – Ringworm
Protozoa – Malaria

Question 12.
Observe the figure

a) Which disease is indicated by the structural change of RBC?
b) Explain the cause of this disease.
Answer:
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Due to defects of gene RBC become sickle shape

Question 13.
a) Steps of the genetic engineering process through which new gene become the part of genetic constitution of target cell are given in disorder form. Write them in correct sequence.

b) Name the genetic glue used to join the new gene to the bacterial DNA
Answer:
a)

b) Ligase

Section – C

Answer any five from questions 14-20. 3 score each (5 x 3 = 15)

Question 14.
Rearrange columns B and C according to the column A
Table

A. Gland	B. Thormone	C. Disease
Hypothalamus	Somatotropin	Diabetes mellitus
Pancreas	Vasopressin	Cretinism
Thyroid	Thyroxine	Diabetes insipidus Dwarfism

Answer:
Hypothalamus – Vasopressin – Diabetes insipidus
Pancreas – Insulin – Diabetes mellitus
Thyroid – Thyroxine – Cretinism

Question 15.
Analyse the graph and answer the following questions.

a) Name the pathogen of disease that mostly affected.
b) Name the vector of the diseases shown in the graph
c) What measure to be adopted to prevent the spreading of these diseases.
Answer:
a) Dengue virus
b) Mosquito
c) Eradication of mosquito
Observing dry day

Question 16.
a) Identify the illustration given below:

b) Which nitrogen base, pairs with Thymine.
c) Name the nitrogen base and sugar seen only in RNA.
Answer:
a) Nucleotide
b) Adenine
c) Uracil

Question 17.
Observe the figure.

a) Which labeled part helps for hearing? Name it.
b) To which part of brain the vestibular nerve carry impulses?
c) Name the parts labelled as A, B, and C
Answer:
a) D-Cochlea
b) Towards cerebellum
c) A-Auditory nerve, B-Vestibule C- Semicircular canals

Question 18.

Raju 65 years	Rahim 25 years	Roy 30 years
Complete loss of Memory. Not able to do daily activities	Increased pressure in the eye. Pain and defective vision	Persistent cough with chest pain, Fatigue and loss of body weight

a) Out of these three persons, who is affected with communicable disease? In what way the disease spread?
b) Identify the diseases of others.
Answer:
a) Tuberculosis, which is the communicable disease, affected to Roy
b) Raju -Alzheimers, Rahim- Glaucoma

Question 19.
Give reason for the following:
a) Persons with colour blindness cannot distinguished Red and Green colour.
b) Deficiency of vitamin A causes night blindness.
c) Maximum visual clarity is there in yellow spot.
Answer:
a) Defect of cone cell
b) Vitamin A is necessary for production of retinal
c) More number of cone cells in yellow spot

Question 20.
Differences in the amino acids of the beta chain a particular molecule in man compared to other organisms are given in the table.
Analyse the table and answer the questions.

Organism	Difference
Chimpanzee	0
Gorilla	1
Rat	31

a) Which molecule was studied here?
b) Why amino acids carry in this molecule?
c) What is the inference drawn from this study?
Answer:
a) Protein molecules in heamoglobin –
b) Mutation
c) All organisms have a common ancessor. Man and chimpanzee are loosely related organisms.

Section – D

Answer any two form questions 21-24 4 score (2 x 4 = 8)

Question 21.
Analyse the indicators
Name the parts of ear indicated and write the functions they perform.
a) The tube that connects middle ear and pharynx
b) Coiled tube, like a snail shell.
c) The membrance separates external ear from the .middle ear.
d) The nerve that begins from the cochlea
Answer:
a) Eustachian tube
b) Cochlea
c) Tympanum
d) Aditory nerve

Question 22.
Observe the illustration showing, the maintenance of calcium level in blood and answer the following questions.

a) Name the hormones A and D
b) Name the glands C and B
c) How A and D maintain the level of calcium in blood.
Answer:
a) A) Parathormone
B) Parathyroid
b) C) Thyroid gland
D) Calcitonin
c) When the level of calcium in blood increases, the thyrod gland secretes calcitoxins. It lowers the level of calcium in blood. Parathormone increases the level of calcium in blood.

Question 23.
Re draw the diagram of cross section of the spinal cord. Name and label the following parts.

a) Part through which the sensory impulses reach the spinal cord.
b) Part through which the motor impulses go out of the spinal cord
c) Part filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
Answer:

a) Dorsal root
b) Ventral root
c) Central canal

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Hindi Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 Pdf, Kerala SSLC Hindi Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Hindi Previous Year Question Paper March 2019

सामान्य निर्देश:

• पहला पंद्रह मिनट कूल ऑफ़ टाईम है।
• इस समय प्रश्नों का वाचन करें और उत्तर लिखने की तैयारी करें।

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

सूचना : बीरबहूटी’ कहानी का अंश पढ़ें, प्रश्न 1 और 2 का उत्तर लिखें।

उन्हें बीरबहूटियों से मिलना होता था। सो वे स्कूल के लिए घर से कुछ समय पहले निकल आते थे। कस्बे से सटे इन खेतों में बीरबहुटियाँ खोजा करते थे। सुर्ख, मुलायम, गदबदी बीरबहूटियाँ | धरती पर चलती-फिरती खून की प्यारी-प्यारी बूंदें।

प्रश्न 1.
कौन-सा विशेषण बीरबहूटी का नहीं है? (1)
(क) मुलायम
(ख) गदबदी
(ग) बैंगनी
(घ) सुर्ख
उत्तर:
(ग) बैंगनी

प्रश्न 2.
बीरबहूटियों से मिलने की उत्सुकता से बेला और साहिल निकले। उनके बीच क्या-क्या बातें हुई होंगी। इस बातचीत को आगे बढ़ाएँ। (बातचीत में पाँच विनिमय हों) (4)
बेला : देखो साहिल, कितनी बीरबहूटियाँ हैं!
साहिल : ……………………
उत्तर:

• साहिल: हाँ, देखो इस बीरबहूटी का रंग लाल है।
• बेला: हाँ सही कहा तुमने।
• साहिल: तुम्हारे रिबन जैसे लाल।
• बेला: हाँ, कितने अच्छे हैं ये।
• साहिल: देखो कितना मुलायम है?
• बेला: हौं खून की प्यारी-प्यारी बूंदों की तरह।
• साहिल: साहिल, तुमने कुछ सुना?
• बेला: हाँ सुना, पहली घंटी लग गई है।
• साहिल: अच्छा, चलो।

सूचनाः ‘जैसलमेर’ यात्रावृत्त का यह अंश पढ़ें और प्रश्न 3 और 4 का उत्तर लिखें।

संसार किला एक मज़ेदार जगह है। किला होने के बावजूद इसके भीतर बड़ी संख्या में परिवार रहते हैं। इन परिवारों के लिए आनेवाले पर्यटक ही उनकी रोजी-रोटी हैं। किले के अंदर एक लाइन से दुकानें सजी हैं। इनमें सजावटी सामानों से लेकर खूबसूरत कपड़ों तक सब मिलता है।

प्रश्न 3.
वाक्य पूर्ति के लिए कौन-सा रूप सही है? (1)
किले में एक आदमी ………..।
(क) रहते हैं
(ख) रहता है
(ग) रहती है
(घ) रहती हैं.
उत्तर:
(ख) रहता है

प्रश्न 4.
सोनार किले के अंदर के मज़ेदार अनुभवों का जिक्र करते हुए मिहिर अपने मित्र के नाम पत्र लिखता है। मिहिर का संभावित पत्र लिखें। (पत्र का कलेवर 70 शब्दों का हो) (4)
उत्तर:
Out of syllabus

सूचनाः ‘अकाल और उसके बाद’ कवितांश की पंक्तियाँ प, 5 से 7 तक के प्रश्नों का उत्तर लिखें।

कई दिनों तक चूल्हा रोया, चक्की रही उदास कई दिनों तक कानी कुतिया सोई उनके पास कई दिनों तक लगी भीत पर छिपकलियों की गश्त कई दिनों तक चूहों की भी हालत रही शिकस्त।

प्रश्न 5.
कौन-सा प्रस्ताव सही है? (1)
(क) कुतिया बच्चे-बच्ची के पास सो रही है।
(ख) कुतिया पेड़-पौधों के पास सो रही है।
(ग) कुतिया माँ-बाप के पास सो रही है।
(घ) कुतिया चूल्हे-चक्की के पास सो रही है।
उत्तर:
(घ) कुतिया चूल्हे-चक्की के पास सो रही है।

प्रश्न 6.
चूल्हा और चक्की क्यों बहुत दुखी हैं? (1)
उत्तर:
कई दिनों से चूल्हा नहीं जला। चक्की में कुछ नहीं पीसा था।

प्रश्न 7.
‘पानी नहीं तो खाना नहीं – जल संरक्षण का संदेश देते हुए पोस्टर बनाएँ। (4)
अथवा
जीवों की आधारभूत आवश्यकता है जल| जल संरक्षण के महत्व पर लघु-लेख लिखें। (लेख 80 शब्दों का हो)
उत्तर:
(a)

(b) जलसंरक्षण जल जीवन का आधार है। यह जीवों की आधारभूत आवश्यकता है। ऐसा कहा जाता है कि दुनिया में धरती की तुलना में जल की मात्रा अधिक है। लेकिन पीने योग्य पानी की मात्रा बहुत कम है। कुओं, तालाब, नदी, नाले आदि हमारे मुख्य जलस्रोत होते हैं। स्वार्थ के वश में पड़कर मनुष्य हमारे जलस्रोतों का नष्ट करता जा रहा है।

प्रदूषण की वजह से जलस्रोतों का नाश होता जा रहा है। जलस्रोतों का संरक्षण हर मानव का कर्तव्य है। जलसंरक्षण से यदि हम मुँह मोड़ें तो हमारा भविष्य खतरे में पड़ जाएंगे। हमें यह याद रखना चाहिए कि आनेवाली पीढ़ी को इस धरती में जीना है तो जल संरक्षण का कार्य अपने कंधे पर उठाना ही चाहिए। “जल नहीं तो कल नहीं” – यह बिलकुल सही है।

सूचनाः ‘सबसे बड़ा शो मैन’ जीवनी का यह अंश पढ़ें, पश्न 8 और 9 का उत्तर लिखें।

अंत में माँ जब उसे लेने आई तो दर्शकों ने देर तक खड़े होकर तालियाँ बजाई। कई लोगों ने माँ से हाथ मिलाकर उसके छोटे बच्चे की तारीफ़ की। चार्ली स्टेज पर पहली बार आया और माँ आखिरी बार…….

प्रश्न 8.
वाक्य विस्तार करके पिरामिड की पूर्ति करें। (2)

उत्तर:
लोगों ने छोटे बच्चे की तारीफ की।
लोगों ने हाथ मिलाकर छोटे बच्चे की तारीफ की।

प्रश्न 9.
दर्शकों ने देर तक खड़े होकर तालियाँ बजाईं और चार्ली की तारीफ़ की। इसपर माँ बहुत खुश हुई। माँ की उस दिन की डायरी लिखें। (डायरी 80 शब्दों की हो) (4)
उत्तर:
दिन, दिनांक हे भगवान! न जाने आज कैसा दिन था! यह दिन मैं कैसे भूल पाऊँगी। मेरा चाली आज शोमैन बन गया। उसने लोगों का दिल जीत लिया। उसकी मासूमियत देखकर लोग एकदम खुश हो गए। पैसे भी बरसने लगे। उसका गाना ….. नाच …… दूसरों का नकल करना …… सब अजीब सा लगा था। खूब पैसे मिले। आदर भी। मैनेजर साहब की जिद के कारण ही उसे यह अवसर मिला था। लगती है मैं आगे गा नहीं पाऊँगी। तो क्या….. मेरा लाडला शो मैन बनकर नाम कमाएगा। बस….. आज इतना ही। गले में कुछ खराबी है। थक गई हूँ। सफल दिन की उम्मीद में…… शुभरात्री।

सूचना: ‘गुठली तो पराई है’ कहानी का अंश पढ़ें, प्रश्न 10 और 11 का उत्तर लिखें।

वह ताऊजी के पास जाकर बोली, “देखिए भइया मेरा .. नाम कार्ड में छरदाना भूल गया?” ताऊजी बोले, “भुला नहीं है रे……… अपने घर की छोरियों के नाम कार्ड पर नहीं छपते।” गुठली, “पर ताऊजी उसमें भइया के छोटे-से बेटे का भी नाम है जो अभी बोल भी नहीं सकता तो मेरा …..।

प्रश्न 10.
गुठली का नाम कार्ड पर नहीं था। कारण क्या था? (1)
(क) केवल परिवार के बड़ों का नाम कार्ड पर छपते थे।
(ख) कार्ड में गुठली का नाम छपने की जगह नहीं थी।
(ग) घर की छोरियों के नाम कार्ड पर नहीं छपते थे।
(घ) अपना नाम छपना गुठली को पसंद नहीं था।
उत्तर:
(ग) घर की छोरियों के नाम कार्ड पर नहीं छपते थे।

प्रश्न 11.
‘उसमें’ में निहित सर्वनाम कौन-सा है?
(क) वह
(ख) ये
(ग) वे
(घ) यह (1)
उत्तर:
(क) वह

प्रश्न 12.
प्रस्तुत प्रसंग पर पटकथा का एक दृश्य लिखें।
अथवा
गुठली की चरित्रगत विशेषताओं पर टिप्पणी लिखें। (4)
उत्तर:
(a)

• सीन सं: 5
• स्थान: ताऊजी का कमरा
• समय: शाम को 4 बजे
• पात्र: ताऊ (70 साल)
  गुठली (15 साल)
• वेश भूषा: (1) ताऊ धोती और कुरता पहने हैं।
  (2) गुठली सलवार कमीज पहनी है।

संवाद: 

• गुठली: (दौड़कर आती है) ताऊजी…..
• ताऊ: क्या है बेटी?
• गुठली: (उदास होकर)
• ताऊजी….. यह देखिए, मेरा नाम कार्ड पर छपवाना भूल गया।
• ताऊ: भूला नहीं है।
• गुठली: (आश्चर्य से) फिर…
• ताऊ: (हँसते हुए) अपने घर की छोरियों के नाम कार्ड पर छपते नहीं।
• गुठली: ताऊजी, मगर उसमें भइआ के छोटे-से बेटे का नाम है।
• ताऊ: तू जा….. जा……..

(b) गुठली बड़ी सयानी
गुठली कनक राशि द्वारा लिखी गई कहानी ‘गुठली तो पराई है’ का मुख्य पात्र है। वह चौदह साल की लड़की है। यह स्कूल में पढ़ती है। वह अन्याय को सहनेवाली नहीं है। वह अन्याय के विरुद्ध आवाज़ उठानेवाली है। वह लड़का और लड़की में कोई भेदभाव नहीं समझती और मानती नहीं है। यह बुओं से इस बात पर झगड़ती भी है। दीदी की शादी के कार्ड पर उसका नाम नहीं छपने पर ताऊजी से भी शिकायत करती है। अंत में वह घरवालों को सबक भी सिखाती है। जो काम यह हमेशा करती आती थी वह करने को तैयार नहीं होता है। वह कहती है घर, बगीचा, नानु आदि उसका नहीं है। इसलिए ये सब संभालना बाकी लोगों का काम है। गुठली हिम्मतवाली और सूझबूझवाली लड़की है।

सूचनाः ‘ठाकुर का कुऔं’ कहानी का यह अंश पढ़ें, 13 से 15 तक के प्रश्नों का उत्तर लिखें।

गंगी प्रतिदिन शाम पानी भर लिया करती थी। कुआँ दूर था, बार-बार जाना मुश्किल था। कल वह पानी लाई, तो उसमें बू बिलकुल न थी, आज पानी में बदबू कैसी! लोटा नाक से लगाया, तो सचमुच बदबू थी। ज़रूर कोई जानवर कुएँ में गिरकर मर गया होगा, मगर दूसरा पानी आवे कहाँ से?

प्रश्न 13.
सही प्रस्ताव चुनकर लिखें। (1)
(क) लोटे में गंदा जल भरा था।
(ख) लोटे में साफ जल भरा था।
(ग) लोटे में मीठा जल भरा था।
(घ) लोटे में गरम जल भरा था।
उत्तर:
(क) लोटे में गंदा जल भरा था।

प्रश्न 14.
‘मगर दूसरा पानी आवे कहाँ से?’ यहाँ जोखू की किस हालत की ओर संकेत है? (2)
उत्तर:
जोखू को मालुम था कि गाँव में उन लोगों को पानी लेने के लिए दूसरा कुआँ नहीं है। वह बीमारी और प्यास से परेशान था । उसको मालुम था कि ठाकुर और साहू के कुएँ से पानी भरने नहीं देंगे।

प्रश्न 15.
मान लें, ‘कोई जानवर गाँव के कुएँ में गिरकर मर गया है। – गाँववाले के लिए यह बड़ी मुसीबत की बात है। इसपर समाचार पत्र के लिए एक रपट लिखें। (लेख 80 शब्दों की हो)
उत्तर:
कुआँ गंदा हो गया, गाँववाले मुसीबत में
पिपलीः गाँव के सार्वजनिक कुएं में कोई जानवर गिरकर मर गया और पानी खराब हो गया। पिपली गाँव के 6 नंबर गली के लोग इस कुएँ का पानी पीता था। पिछले दो दिन से पानी खराब होने पर गाँववाले बहुत परेशान हो गए है। ये लोग पीने का पानी मिलने से वंचित हो रहे हैं। पंचायत की ओर से पानी दिलाने की कोई प्रयास अभी तक नहीं हुआ। गाँव के सौ से अधिक लोग इस समस्या के कारण बहुत दुविधा में पड़ गए है। यहाँ के निम्न जाति के लोगों को ठाकुरों और साहुओं के कुएँ से पानी भरने की अनुमति भी नहीं है।

सूचनाः ‘यह कहानी पढ़ें, प्रश्न 16 और 17 का उत्तर लिखें।

सोना को अपना बचपन बहुत ही अच्छा लगता था। एक बार सोना अपनी सहेली के साथ स्कूल जा रहे थी। रास्ते में बहुत सारे लोग खड़े थे। सोना अपनी सहेली से बोली “चलो देखें, क्या बात है?” सहेली बोली, “नहीं, हमें देर हो जाएगी। अभी तो बहुत समय हा चलो हम देखकर चलेंगे’ सोना ने कहा। वहाँ एक भालू नाच रहा था। वे दोनों नाच देखकर खड़ी रहीं। उन्हें स्कूल के लिए देर हो गई।

प्रश्न 16.
सोना और सहेली क्या देखकर सड़क के किनारे खड़ी रहीं? (1)
उत्तर:
वहाँ एक भालू नाच रहा था।

प्रश्न 17.
आशय समझें और सही मिलान करें। (4)

सोना को अपना बचपन	स्कूल जाती है।
सोना सहेली के साथ	लोग इकट्ठे हुए थे।
भालू की नाच देखने के लिए	दे स्कूल देर से पहुंची।
भाली की नाच देखने के कारण	बहुत पसंद था

उत्तर:
• सोना को अपना बचपन बहुत पसंद था।
• सोना सहेली के साथ स्कूल जाती है।
• भालू की नाच देखने के लिए लोग इकट्ठे हुए थे।
• भालू की नाच देखने के कारण वे स्कूल देर से पहुंची।

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Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Chapter 10 Consumer: Satisfaction and Protection

Consumer: Satisfaction and Protection Textbook Questions and Answers in Malayalam

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Kerala SSLC Social Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is the cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer all questions in PART – A. Answer any one from the questions given under each question number in PART – B.

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Question 1.
Which is the earliest regional struggle conducted by Gandhiji in India? (2)
Answer:
Champaran

Question 2.
“The goal of state is the maximum happiness of the maximum number”. Name the thinker who made this statement. (1)
Answer:
Jermi Bantham

Question 3.
Identify the northern mountain range where the major hill stations such as Shimla, Darjeeling, etc., are located: (1)
a) Karakoram
b)Himadri
c) Himachal
d) Siwaliks
Answer:
Himachal

Question 4.
‘Women empowerment is Indian empowerment’ is the slogan of: (1)
a) MUDRA Bank
c) Mahila Bank
c) EXIM Bank of India
d) Development Bank
Answer:
Mahila Bank

Question 5.
The Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region of West Bengal is known for:
a) Tea plantations
b) Wheat cultivation
c) Cotton cultivation
d) Jute cultivation.
Answer:
Jute cultivation

Question 6.
Link Column‘A’with appropriate items from column ‘B’. (4)

A	B
Asiatic Society of Bengal	Mahatma Gandhi
Wardha Education Plan	Pandita Ramabai
Banaras Sanskrit College	William Jones
Sarada Sadan	Jonathan Duncan

Answer:

A	B
Asiatic Society of Bengal	William Jones
Wardha Education Plan	Mahatma Gandhi
Banaras Sanskrit College	Jonathan Duncan
Sarada Sadan	Pandita Ramabai

Question 8.
Write a note on the north-east monsoon season in India. (3)
Answer:
By the end of September, as the sun is apparently shifts towards the southern hemisphere, intense high pressure develops over the northern plains. k Comparatively low pressure over the Indian Ocean causes wind to blow from the northern part of India towards the south. These winds are dry that do not generally cause any rain in India. This season is known as the retreating monsoon

What is citizenship? Mention the two types of Citizenships. (3)
Answer:
Total and complete membership of a country is called citizenship. Natural and acquired citizenship.

Question 9.
Interview and social survey are the two methods of study in sociology. Write a note byjcomparing them. (3)
Answer:
Survey is the most suitable method for the study of sociology. It helps to formulate a comprehensive point of view of the topic, based on the data collected from a group of selected people. Survey method is used when data is to be collected from a larger population.

Interview is a method by which information is collected orally. Interview is the talk between the interviewer and the interviewee. As a method of study interview helps to know and analyse the attitudes, views, beliefs, habits, etc., of the individuals.

Question 10.
Write down the geographical requirements for the cultivation of wheat in India. . . (3)
Answer:
Wheat, the second major food crop produced in India is a rabi crop.

• Well drained alluvial soil is ideal for wheat cultivation.
• The crop which is mainly cultivated in temperate . regions requires 10°C to 26°C temperature and 75 cm of rainfall.
• Wheat cultivation in India is mainly dependent on irrigation as it is a winter crop.

Question 11.
What are the purposes for which the commercial banks provide loans to the public? (3)
Answer:
Agricultural purposes

• Industrial purposes
• Constructing houses
• Purchasing vehicles
• Purchasing home appliances

Question 12.
Elucidate the features of permanent settlement introduced by the British in Bengal. (4)
Answer:
In the permanent land revenue settlement the tax was collected by zamindars.

• Zamindar was the owner of the entire land where he had the jurisdiction to collect tax.
• While the zamindars became the owners of the land, the actual farmers became tenants.
• Farmers were to pay up to 60% of the yield as tax.
• Tax was to be paid even at the time of poor yield.
• The tax was to be paid in cash strictly before the cut-off date. (Before introducing this system, tax could be paid in kind)

Question 13.
Explain the qualitative features of human resource. (4)
Answer:
Education

• Healthcare
• Training
• Social capital

Question 14.
Analyse the constructive programmes introduced by Gandhiji as a part of non-cooperation movement.(4)
Answer:
Gandhiji motivated the people to participate in constructive programmes. Inspired by this, people began to make indigenous products, spin khadi cloth using charka, establish national schools and popularise Hindi.

Question 15.
Mark and label the following geographical information in the provided outline map of India. (4)
a) River Narmada
b) East Coastal Plain
c) Tuticorin Port
d) Eastern High Lands
Answer:
For marking the places on the map.

Part – B

Question 16.
Who signed the Panchsheel principles with Jawaharlal Nehru? Write any two of the Panchsheel principles. (3)
OR
Prepare a note on Malabar Rebellion.
Answer:
Chou En-lai the then Prime Minister of China.

• Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
• Mutual non-aggression
• Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
• Equality and cooperation for mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence

OR

The Khilafat committee was formed with Kattilasseri Mohamed Moulavi and Mohammed Abdurahiman Sahib as the President and the Secretary respectively. The Khilafat Movement became strong in Malabar. Subsequently, there were direct fights with the British in several places in Malabar. The Mappila peasants of Malabar fought against the British in Eranad, Valluvanad. and Ponnani Taluks. These struggles, in general, are known as Malabar Rebellion (1921).

Question 17.
Why does the atmospheric pressure vary from place to place? (3)
OR
Complete the table appropriately.

Answer:
The atmospheric pressure varies from place to place depending on Altitude, Temperature and Humidity.

OR

Day	Relative Position of the Sun	Speciality of the day
21 March	Equator Equinox
21 June	Tropic of Cancer	Summmer solstice
23 September	Equator Equinox
22 December	Tropic of Capricorn	Winter Solistice

Question 18.
What is instrument of Accession? Name the persons who prepared it. (3)
OR
Explain the resistance of Kerala Varma Pazhassi Raja against the British in Malabar.
Answer:
Patel and V.P. Menon prepared an Instrument of Accession, which stipulated that the princely states had to transfer their control over defence, external affairs, and information and communication to the Government of India.

OR

The British promised Pazfiassi the right to collect tax from Kottayam region as a reward for helping them in the wars against Mysore. The British refused . to keep their promise after the triumph in the battle. Moreover, the British claimed their dominance over Wayanad. Pazhassi Raja organised the people and fought against the British. He unleashed guerilla war against the-British with the help of Chempan Pokker, Kaitheri Ambu Nair, Edachena Kunkan Nair and Thalakkal Chandu, the leader.of the Kurichias in Wayanad.

Question 19.
What do you mean by administrative reforms? Identify the administrative reforms implemented in India. (4)
OR
How can we overcome the challenges faced by Civic Consciousness?
Answer:
A number of steps are taken by the government for increasing the efficiency of the services and to provide service to people in a time bound manner. They are known as administrative reforms.

• E-governance
• Right to Information
• Right to service Act

OR

Each one should evaluate his activities critically.

• Should work for one’s interest without going against public interest.
• Be the change which you expect from others.
• Equal weight should be given to both rights and duties.
• Individuals should act democratically and tolerably.

Question 20.
Distinguish between direct taxes and indirect taxes. (4)
OR
Prepare a short note on different departments and institutions working for the protection of consumer’s interest.
Answer:
Here the burden of the tax is borne by the same person on whom tax is imposed. These types of taxes are called direct taxes. The unique feature of direct tax is that the tax payer undertakes the burden of the tax.

An important feature of indirect tax is that the tax burden can be shifted from the person on whom it is imposed to another person.

OR

• Legal Metrology : ensures the weights and Department measures standards
• Food Safety Department : ensures the quality of food products
• Central Drugs Price : controls price of medicines Control Committee
• Drugs Control Department : ensures the quality and safety of medicines.
• Food Safety and Standard : ensures the quality of food Authority of India products at various stages like production, distribution, storage, sale and import.

Question 21.
Explain Central Service with examples. . (4)
OR
Elucidate the role of family in the formation of Civic Consciousness.
Answer:
Recruits at national level
Appoints in central government departments only Eg: Indian Foreign Service, Indian Railway Service

OR

Family has an important role in fostering and maintaining sense of responsibility among its . members. Inspiration and encouragement from the family will develop civic consciousness. The concept that each individual is for the family and the family is for the society should be developed in the family atmosphere.

Question 22.
Why do you mean by Remote Sensing? Explain the types of Remote Sensing based on platform. (4)
OR
Identify the features represented by the given map . symbols and also mention the colours by which they are shown in topographical maps.

Answer:
A method of collecting information about an object, place or phenomenon without actual physical contact is remote sensing.

Terrestrial Photography: The method of obtaining the earth’s topography using cameras from the ground is known as terrestrial photography.

Aerial Remote Sensing: The method of obtaining photographs of the earth’s surface continuously from the sky by using cameras mounted on aircraft is known as aerial remote sensing.

Satellite Remote Sensing : The process of gathering information using the sensors installed in artificial satellites is known as satellite remote ‘sensing.

OR

Question 23.
Mention the situations when complaints about consumer disputes can be filed. – (4)
OR
What are the sources of non-tax revenue of the government of India?
Answer:

• When the purchased product is damaged or defective.
• Defective services received from government/ nongovernment/ private institutions.
• Appropriation of price over and above the amount legally fixed or marked on the outeq casing.
• Violation of the prevention of adulteration law.
• Sale of products which are harmful to life and safety.
• Loss due to trading methods which lead to unfair practices and limited consumer freedom.
• Giving misleading advertisement for increasing sales.

OR

• Fees Fines and penalties Grants
• Fees is the reward collected for the government’s services. License fees, registration fees, tuition fees, etc. are examples.
• Fines and penalties are punishments for violating the laws.
• Grants are the financial aid provided by one government of organisations for meeting a specific objective. For example, grants are provided by central and state governments to local self-governments:
• Interest Government receive interest for loans given to various enterprises, agencies and countries.
• Profit is the net income received from the enterprises operated by thes government. For example, profit from the Indian Railways.

Question 24.
Describe any two planetary wind systems. (5)
OR
Answer the following questions based on International Date Line.
i) What is International Date Line?
ii) Explain the peculiarity of this line with reason.
iii) Estimate the time at International Date Line when the Greenwich mean time is 12 noon.
Answer:
From subtropical high pressure belt winds blow continuously towards the equatorial low pressure belt. These are known as trade winds. As these winds blow from the northeast in the Northern Hemisphere, they are known as northeast trade winds. The equatorial low pressure zone where the trade winds from both the hemispheres converge is known as the InterTropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). Winds blow continuously from the sub tropical high pressure zones to these low pressure zones. As the direction of these winds is moslty from the west, they are known as the westerlies. The westerlies are stronger in the Southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere. This is due to the vast expanse of oceans in the Southern Hemisphere.

The polar winds are the cold winds that blow from these high pressure areas towards the subpolar low pressure belts. These winds blow from the East in both the hemispheres due to the Coriolis Force. Hence these are known as polar easterlies. These winds play a significant role in determining the climate of North America, the eastern European countries, and Russia, (any two)

OR

i) 180° longitude is called International Date Line since there is 24 hour difference on either side of 180° longitude.
ii) To avoid practical difficulties of IDL passing through land it is passing through sea only.
iii) 12 midnight.

Question 25.
Explain the background of the Fresh revolution based on the following hints. (6)
French Society
Thinkers and their ideologies
OR
Explain the features of globalization and its impact on the world.
Answer:
French society was divided into three.
First estate : The Clergies held vast powers they held vast land, collected taxes ‘Tithe’ from the farmers. Exempted from all taxes. Controlled higher position administration and military services.

Second Estate : Nobility engaged in military service. Collected various taxes from farmers. Made farmers work without wages. Exempted from taxes. Led luxurious life. Held vast lands.

The third estate: The middle class they have no role in the administration paid land tax named ‘Tally’ to the government. Low social status. Paid taxes to the clergy and nobles.

Role of thinkers :Voltaire ridiculed the Clergy. Promoted rational * thinking, ideals of equality and humanism. Roussea spelled out the importance of freedom with the statement, “Man is born free, but everywhere he is in chains.’ Declared that the people are the sovereign.

Montesquieu encouraged democracy and the Republic. Suggested division of powers of the – government into legislature, executive andjudiciary.

OR

In globalisation Economic system of the country linked to global economy.

• The interests and motives of the multinational companies protected.
• Competition-driven market came into existence.
• Trans-border flow of products, services, raw materials, capital, latest technology and human resources facilitated.

Challenges of globalisation.
The intervention of multinational companies challenged the concept of nation state.

• Led to the destruction of indigenous culture.
• Price of agricultural products plunged
• Public sector undertakings were destroyed
• Government withdrew from social service sectors
• Natural resources were looted.

Students can Download Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is the cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer all questions in PART – A. Answer any one from the questions given under each question number in PART – B.

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Part – A

Answer all the questions

Question 1.
Which session of the Indian National Congress declared that the ultimate aim of Indian freedom struggle was to attain compjete-freedom. (Poorna Swaraj? (1)
a) Nagpur session
b) Payyannur session
c) Lahore session
d) Bombay session.
Answer:
c) Lahore session

Question 2.
Which of the following was the first Iron and Steel Plant established in South India? (1)
a) Durg
b) Bhadravathi
c) Durgapur
d) Jamshedpur
Answer:
b) Bhadravathi

Question 3.
Which bank provides help to establish new small scale industries and to modernise existing industries? (1)
Answer:
SIDBI

Question 4.
Which of the following theory states that ‘State is the creation of God. (1)
a) Divine Right Ttheory
b) Evolutionary Theory
c) Social Contract Theory
d) Power Theory
Answer:
a) Divine Right Ttheory

Question 5.
From where does River Kaveri originate? (1)
Answer:
Brahamgiri hills

Question 6.
What are the discretionary functions of the State? (3)
Answer:
Protection of health Provide educational facilities Implement welfare programmes Provide transportation facilities

Question 7.
What is case study? What are its features? (3)
Answer:
In-depth study on rare and different social phenomena and problems. Exact and comprehensive. Used for colecting data.

Question 8.
What are the characteristics of Himadri ? (3)
Answer:
The highest mountain range average altitude is 6000 meters. Origin of the rivers Ganga and Brahmaputra has a number of peaks above 8000 meters,

Question 9.
Electronic banking (E-Banking) has many merits. Explain. (3)
Answer:
Money can be sent and bills can be paid anywhere in the world from home. Save time. Low service charge.

Question 10.
The city of Mumbai is often termed as ‘Cottonopolis’. Elucidate. (3)
Answer:
Easy availability of raw materials cheap availability of power. Export and import possibilities of the Mumbai port. Fresh water availability. Huan resource availability.

Question 11.
Literary works produced during freedom struggle played a major role in creating nationalism. Substantiate. (4)
Answer:
Protest against the British rule as well as social evils. Writers illustrated the agonies and atrocities faced by the people, The readers in other parts experienced the sorrows as their own. People shared the sentiments. Developed the spirit of patriotism.

Question 12.
Textile industry was a leading village industry that declined due to the British interference. Substantiate. (4)
Answer:
Starting of Railways. Competition of mill clothes. Shortage of raw materials. Heavy tax imposed on Indian textiles.

Question 13.
List down the results of early struggles took up by Gandhiji in India. (4)
Answer:
Popularised his ideologies and method of protest his methods of protest attraced ten laymen to the movement. City centric national movement spread to rural areas Gandhiji became a national leader acceptable to all strata of the society.

Question 14.
Education helps in thfe development of a country. Substantiate. (4)
Answer:
Improves the skills of the individuals Betters the technological know-how helps to secure better job and income Improves the standard of living.

Question 15.
Mark and label the given Geo – information on the outline map of India provided. (4)
a) Narmada
b) Aravally Ranges
c) Visakhapatnam
d) Malabar coast
Answer:
For marking correctly.

Part – B

Question 16.
Prepare a short note on Panchasheel principles. (3)
OR
By the end of the 18th Century whole of Kerala came under the British rule. Elucidate.
Answer:
Signed between India and China Signed by Nehru and Chou En Lai. Signed in 1954.

OR

Sreerangapattanam Treaty of 1792 Mysore under British. Kochi Raja accepted supremacy in 1792. Treaty of 1795 Travancore care under the British.

Question 17.
Write a short note on the summer season ih the northern hemsiphere. (3)
OR
How do land breeze and sea breeze occur?
Answer:
For Explaining the features of summer season.

OR

For explaining land breeze and sea breeze.

Question 18.
Integration of Princely states was a major challenge faced by independent India. Elucidate. (3)
OR
Prepare a note on Vaikam Satyagraha.
Answer:
Sardar Patel, V P Menon. The Treaty of Accession. For explaining.

Question 19.
Some signs and symbols used on a toposheet are given below. Identify and write them in the corresponding column. (4)

OR
Some features of the synchronous satellite and Geostationary satellites are given. Arrange them accordingly.
a) Positioned at a height of 1000 km
b) Positioned at a height of 36000 km
c) Data colletion of a particular region is possible
d) Repetitive data collection is possible
e) Used for telecommunication
f) Used for the data collection of ground water, etc.
g) INSAT
h) IRS

Answer:
For explaining T K Madhavan, Mannam, Savarnajatha.
a) Metalled Road
b) Unmetalled Road
c) Footpath
d) Cart track

OR

Question 20.
Media plays an important role in fostering civic consciousness. Explain. (4)
OR
Compare the features of All India Service and State Service with one example each.
Answer:
Media influence the society. Information reach the masses through the media. Judicious and objective information lead to the formation of creative ideas. Should be independent. Information should be evaluvated critically.

OR

Recruits at national level. Appoints in state or central service IAS,IPS, etc. Recruits at state level. Appoints in state service. Sales tax officer.

Question 21.
Apart from, the Consumer Protection Act 1986, list down some of the important acts implemented for the protection of the interest of the consumer. (4)
OR
What is fiscal policy? List down the goals of the fiscal policy.
Answer:
Sale of Goods Act, 1930 It ensures that the prescribed conditions of sale are met while purchasing products. Agriculture Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937 This Act is meant for determining the standard of agricultural products.

Essential Commodities Act, 1955 This Act protects the consumers from supernormal profit, hoarding, black marketing, etc.
Weights and Measures Act, 1976 This Act is helpful in preventing cheating in weights and measures.

OR

Governments policy regarding public revenue, public expenditure and public debt. Attain economic stability. Create employment opportunities. Control unnecessary expenditure.

Question 22.
Prepare a short note on Right to Service. (4)
OR
Social science learning can be utilised for the formulation of civic consciousness. Explain.
Answer:
Law which ensures service, to people. Determine the time limit for each services. If the service is not given within the specific period, the responsible employee should pay a fine. An officer is appointed to give guidence and proper help to the applicants.

[OR]

Equips the indviduals to respect diversity and to behave with tolerance. Helps to understand the different contexts of political social economic and environmental problems. Eqd’ps the individuals to suggest comprehensive solutions. Disseminate the message of peace and co-operation inihe society. Makes the individuals civic conscious.

Question 23.
What are the reasons for the increase in India’s public debt? (4)
OR
List down the ways in which consumers are empowered through consumer education.
Answer:
Increased defence expenditure. Increase in population, Social welfare activities. Developmental activities.

OR

Helps to consUyme sensibly. Helps to acquire information regarding products and šervices. Enable the consuer to make the right choice. Make the consumer aware of his rights. Makes them capable in intervening in consumer disputes.

Answer any 1 question (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 24.
Prepare notes on the following.
a) Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)
b) International Date Line
c) Standard Time
d) Indian standard time
OR
Prepare a note on the South west monsoon
Answer:
0° longitude is known as Greenwich meridian. Time is calculated world wide based on this. 180°longitude is called Inter National Date Line. There is 24 hour difference between either side of the IDL. The time observed at the standard meridian of a country is known as standard tie. The tie observed at 83 ‘A °E longitude is the standard time of India

OR

Sun’s rays fall vertically to the North of the Equator during certain months due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis. This leads to an increase in temperature along the region through which Tropic of Cancer passes. The pressure belts also shift slightly northwards in accordance with this. The southeast trade winds also cross the equator and moves towards the north as the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) moves northwards during the summer in the northern hemisphere. As the trade winds cross the Equator they get deflected and are transformed into southwest monsoon winds due to the Coriolis Effect. The low pressure formed over the land due to the intense day temperature attracts these sea winds and further contributes to the formation of the southwest ’ monsoon winds. Asa result of the formation of South West monsoon.

Answer any 1 question (1 x 6 = 6)

Question 25.
Racial discrimination towards the people was a common policy adopted by the Portuguese and the Spansih in Latin America. Substantiate.
OR
Examine the reasons for the disintegration of Soviet Union.
Answer:
The Spanish and Portuguese propagated their language, religions and customs. They build houses and Churches in Spanish style, several schools were established for imparting Spanish system of education. The Spanish farming methods and crops were introduced. New diseases spread from Europeans to the Latin Americans. Racial discrimination was enforced towards the natives in all walks of life. They looted the resources and wealth of the Latin American people. Enslaved the natives to work.

OR

• The administrative measures of Mikhail Gorbachev (Glasnostand Perestroika)
• Deviation from the basic principles of socialism
• Corruption and inefficiency of the bureaucracy.
• Failure in bringing about changes in economic sector
• With the resignation of Gorbachev as President in 1991, Soviet Union formally ceased to exist.
• Naturally, this ended cold war.

The disintegration of the Soviet Union had a wide impact on international relations.

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Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 80 Marks

Instructions:

• The first 15 minutes is the cool-off time. You may use the time to read the questions and plan your answers.
• Answer all questions in PART – A. Answer any one from the questions given under each question number in PART – B.

Part – A

Answer all the questions

Question 1.
‘Who was the founder of the Indian National Army? (1)
Answer:
Rashbihari Bose

Question 2.
Which of the following Iron and Steel Plant was established in collaboration with Russia in 1959?
a) Bhadravathi
b) Sundargarh
c) Dung
d) Bokaro
Answer:
Durg

Question 3.
Which bank provides loans for exporting and importing products? (1)
Answer:
EXIMBank

Question 4.
Which of the following theory states that ‘State is the product of history.’ (1)
a) Divine Right Theory
b) Evolutionary theory
c) Social contract Theory
d) Power Theory
Answer:
Evolutionary theory

Question 5.
Write the name of the Himalayan river that originates from Chema-yung dung glacier in Tibet. (1)
Answer:
Brahmaputra

Question 6.
What are the obligatory functions of the government? (3)
Answer:
Protection of Boundary Protection of Boundary .

• Maintain internal peace
• Protection of rights
• Implementation of justice

Question 7.
How does study of sociology differ from creative writing? (3)
Answer:
Creative writing :

• Writing is based on imagination and creativity
• Social events are depicted on aesthetic realms
• The goal of creative writing is appreciation Study of sociology
• Social issues/subjects are analysed scientifically
• Social conditions are analysed on the basis of cause-effect relationship society is objectively analysed.

Question 8.
What are the characteristics of Himachal? (3)
Answer:
Situated to the south of the Himadri. Average altitude is 3000 mtrs. The hill stations like Shimla, Darjeeling, etc. are situated in the southern slopes of this range.

Question 9.
List any three precautions to be taken while using the ATM. (3)
Answer:
Make sure that no one is at the counter. Do not share the ATM PIN. Assure the balance amount on receiving the receipt of money withdrawal. Do not carelessly throw away the receipt.

Question 10.
What are the geographical requirement for the cultivation of Tea? (3)
Answer:
Hill slopes having an annual rainfall range of 200 to 250 cm and 25° to 30° Celsius of temperature are most favourable for tea plantations. Well drained soil rich in humus content is required for this plantation crop.

Question 11.
Newspapers functioned with the aims to create public awareness during the freedom struggle. Substantiate. (4)
Answer:
Disseminated information on massacres, repressive rule motivated the people to protest against British rules. Created public awareness on economic exploitation. Popularised reformative movements. Kept abreast of the global agitation. Reported calamities (any four)

Question 12.
What were the features Permanent Land Revenue settlement? (4)
Answer:
Zamindar collected tax. Zamindar was the owner. Actual farmers were tenants. 60% of the yield was paid as tax. tax was collected even during poor yield (any three)

Question 13.
Which was the last popular protest against the British under the leadership of Gandhiji? What were the factors that favoured that movement? (4)
Answer:
Quit India movement. British reluctance to implement constitutional reforms. Public disgust with price hike and famine. The assumption that the British would be defeated in the 2nd World War.

Question 14.
What are the objectives of the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan? (4)
Answer:
To ensure universal education to all up to higher secondary level

• To ensure quality and equity
• To promote the vocational education strengthen to the teacher training institutes like SCERT/DIET

Question 15.
Mark and label the given Geo – information on the outline map of India provided. (4)
a) Godavari
b) Chota nagpur Plateau
c) Kandla Port
d) Delhi
Answer:
For marking the places correctly.

Part – B

Question 16.
Examine the role of Sree Narayana Guru as a social reformer. (3)
OR
Write the name of the commission appointed in Independent India to study about higher education in India? What were the major recommendations?
Answer:
The consecration of the idol of lord Shiva at Aruvippuram by Sri Narayana Guru in 1888 caused the rise of new insights in the social sphere. Consequently, the lower caste people gained right to perform the poojas and temple rituals. In front of the Aruvippuram temple, Sri Narayana Guru inscribed: “ It is a model place where people live without caste disparity or religious aversion, but with fraternity”. Guru gave importance to education and started schools and libraries along with temples. He wished to “enlighten through education and strengthen by union”.

OR

Dr. S. Radhakrishnan Commission :

• Start professional education educational institutions
• Give emphasis to women education
• Form the Univesity Grants Commission (UGC)

Question 17.
What is known as Utharayanam? (3)
OR
Explain the occurrence of mountain breeze and valley breeze.
Answer:
Following the winter solstice, the Sun sets its northward apparent movement from Tropic of Capricorn (231/2°S) and it culminates on Tropic of Cancer (231/2°N) on 21 June. This northward apparent movement of the Sun from Tropic of Capricorn to Tropic of Cancer is termed as ‘Utharayanam’. The duration of day in the northern hemisphere gradually, increases during this period.

OR

During the day time the air above the mountains gets heated and rises up. As a result, the wind blows upslope from the valley with relatively lower temperature. This is known as valley breeze.
During night the air in the mountainous regions cools due to the intense cold conditions in that region. As cool air is dense, it blows towards the valley. This is known as mountain breeze.

Question 18.
What is Malayali Memorial? (3)
OR
Prepare a note on the linguistic reorganisation of states.
Answer:
InTravancore, political agitations started in 1891 with the Malayan Memorial. Under the leadership of Barrister G.P. Pillai, a memorandum was submitted to the King signed by more than ten thousand people seeking proportionate representation for the people of Travancore in government jobs. This mass representation is known as the Malayan Memorial.

OR

There were demands from different parts of India for the formation of states on the basis of language. In ‘1920 the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress resolved to form its state committees on the basis of language. After independence, people agitated for the formation of states along linguistic lines. The Government of India formed a Commission to reorganise Indian states on the basis of languages, with Fazl Ali as Chairman and H.N. Kunzru and K.M.Panikkar, a Keralite, as members.

Question 19.
Write the colours used to represent the following features on a toposheet. (4)

Features	Colours
Fort
Agricultural lands
Railway lines
Rivers (Perinial)

OR
Explain the drawback of aerial remote sensing.
Answer:

Features	Colours
Fort	Red
Agricultural lands	Yellow
Railway lines	Black
Rivers (Perinial)	Blue

• Thd shaking of aircraft affects the quality of photos.
• It is not praptical to take photographs of regions that are vast and extensive.
• The aircraft require open space for take-off and landing.
• Landing the aircraft frequently for refuelling increases the cost.

Question 20.
Family plays a major role in fostering civic consciousness. Elucidate. (4)
OR
E-governance is the use of electronic technology in administration. List down its merits.
Answer:

• Learn to respect elders.
• Develops service mentality
• Maintains a sense of responsibility
• Inspiration and encouragement

OR

• Need not to wait in government offices.
• Can receive services with the help of information technology.
• Government Services offered speedily without less expenses.
• Efficiency of the offices and quality of the services getenhanced.

Question 21.
What are the rights of the consumer according to the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
OR
What are the major responsibilities of the GST council?
Answer:
The right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property.

• The right to be informed about the quality related aspects of goods and services.
• The right to have access to goods and services at fair prices.
• The right to be heard and to seek redressal at appropriate forums.
• The right to consumer education.

OR

• Taxes, cess and surcharges that are to be merged into GST.
• The goods and services that are to be brought under GST.
• Determining GST rates.
• The time frame for including the excluded items into GST.
• Determining the tax exemption limit on the basis of total turnover.

Question 22.
Prepare a note on Lokpal and Lokayukta.
OR
How can we overcome the challenges faced by civic consciousness?
Answer:
Lokpal and Lokayukta are institutions constituted to prevent corruption at administrative, bureaucratic and political levels. The institution constituted at the national level to prevent corruption is Lokpal. Lokpal has the power to register cases on issues of corruption against employees and public workers and can suggest necessary actions. Lokayukta is the institution constituted at the state level to hear the corruption cases.

OR

• Eaph one should evaluate his activities critically.
• Should work for one’s interest without going against public interest.
• Be the change which you expect from others.
• Equal weight should be given to both rights and duties.
• Individuals should act democratically and tolerably.

Question 23.
List down and explain any four non- tax revenue of Jheigovemment.
OR
Explain the structure and functioning of the State Consumer Redressal Forum.
Answer:
Fees Fines and penalties Grants Fees is the reward collected for the government’s services. Fines and penalties are punishments for violating the laws. Grants are the financial aid provided by one government or organisations for meeting a specific objective. Interest Government receive interest for loans given to various enterprises, agencies and countries. Profit is the net income received from the enterprises operated by the government.

OR

Functions at state level – president and two members – at least one woman member – state government has the right to appoint more members. Verdicts are given on consumer disputes where compensation claimed is above Rs. 20 lakhs but upto rupees one crore.

Answer any question (1 x 5 = 5)

Question 24.
Prepare a note on the reasons for the occurrence of the seasons and the features of seasons experienced -in India.
0R
With the help of a diagram describe the global pressure belts.
Answer:
As a result of the apparent movement of the sun between Tropic of Cancer (23 1/2°N) and Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2°S), the different seasons – Spring, Summer, Autumn and Winter – get repeated in a cyclic manner.

The Northern Hemisphere generally experiences spring season between 21 March and 21 June. The southward apparent movement of the Sun begins from 21 June and again reaches vertically above the Equator on 23 September. Summer season is experienced in the Northern Hemisphere during this period. The Sun continues its southward apparent shift from the Equator from 23 September and reaches vertically above Tropic of Capricorn (231/2°S) on 22 December. It is autumn season in the Northern Hemisphere from 23 September to 22 December. The northward apparent shift of the Sun begins by 22 December and again reaches vertically above the Equator on 21 March. This period marks the winter season in the Northern Hemisphere.

OR

Equatorial low pressure belt: This is the zone where the sun’s rays fall vertically throughout the year. The equatorial low pressure belt is situated between 5° North and South latitudes.

Sub-tropical high pressure belt 30°N and S.
The hot air ascending from the equatorial low pressure belt cools gradually and subsides at the sub-tropical zone due to the rotation of the Earth.

Subpolar low pressure belt. As this zone is close to the Pole, the air is colder here. Though the cold air remains close to the Earthy the air is thrown away due to the rotation of the earth. As a result, low pressure is experienced all along the subpolar region.

Polar high pressure belt. This zone experiences severe cold throughout the year. As a result, the air remains chilled under the extreme cold that prevails over the Poles, and this contributes to the steady high pressure experienced here.

Answer any 1 question (1 x 6 = 6)

Question 25.
French Revolution had far-reaching impacts. Substantiate.
OR
With suitable examples, explain the movements based on aggressive nationalism which became an ‘ important cause of the First World War.
Answer:
Stimulated the later revolutions in the world.
Paved the way for the end of feudal system in Europe.
Proclaimed that nation is not merely a region.
Contributed the concept of people’s sovereignty.
Led to the emergence of nationalism.
Helped the growth of the middle class.
Threatened the autocratic rulers in Europe.

OR

For explaining: Pan-Slav Movement Russia wanted to unite the Slavic people of Serbia, Bulgaria, Greece, etc. in Eastern Europe under her leadership. For this the Pan-Slav Movement was formed with the help of Russia. Pan-German Movement. To establish its dominance in Central Europe and Balkan Provinces, Germany planned to unite the Teutonic people. This Pan-German movement came into being under the leadership of Germany. Revenge Movement. In 1871, Germany occupied Alsace Lorraine, the territories that were under the control of France. To regain these territories, the Revenge Movement was formed under the leadership of France.

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Board	Kerala Board
Textbook	SCERT, Kerala
Class	SSLC Class 10
Subject	SSLC Biology
Chapter	Previous Year Question Papers, Model Papers, Sample Papers
Year of Examination	2020, 2019, 2018, 2017
Category	Kerala Syllabus Question Papers

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Board	Kerala Board
Textbook	SCERT, Kerala
Class	SSLC Class 10
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Textbook	SCERT, Kerala
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Textbook	SCERT, Kerala
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Board	Kerala Board
Textbook	SCERT, Kerala
Class	SSLC Class 10
Subject	SSLC Social Science
Chapter	Previous Year Question Papers, Model Papers, Sample Papers
Year of Examination	2020, 2019, 2018, 2017
Category	Kerala Syllabus Question Papers

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Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers in Malayalam Medium

• Kerala SSLC Social Science Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 Malayalam Medium
• Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 1 Malayalam Medium
• Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 2 Malayalam Medium
• Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Paper 3 Malayalam Medium

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We hope the given KBPE Kerala State Board Syllabus SSLC Social Science Previous Year Model Question Papers with Answers 2019 2020 Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Malayalam Medium of Kerala SSLC Social Science Previous Question Papers with Answers, SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers with Answers for Class 10 Kerala State Board, SSLC Social Science Question Pool 2020 will help you.

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Expert Teachers at HSSLive.Guru has created KBPE Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Model Question Papers with Answers for Class 10 Kerala State Board Syllabus 2019-2020 in English Medium and Malayalam Medium Pdf free download are Part of Kerala SSLC Previous Year Question Papers with Answers. By solving Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Question Papers with Answers, SSLC Maths Model Question Papers and Answers, SSLC Maths Question Pool 2020 will help the students to check their progress.

Here we have provided SCERT Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Papers 2019-20 with Answers for Class 10th Std. Students can view or download the Kerala State Board SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Papers and Answers Malayalam English Medium for their upcoming Kerala SSLC board examinations. Students can also read Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Maths Solutions.

Board	Kerala Board
Textbook	SCERT, Kerala
Class	SSLC Class 10
Subject	SSLC Maths
Chapter	Previous Year Question Papers, Model Papers, Sample Papers
Year of Examination	2020, 2019, 2018, 2017
Category	Kerala Syllabus Question Papers

Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Model Question Papers with Answers

These SSLC Maths Model Question Papers 2020 Kerala with Answers Pdf are designed according to the latest exam pattern, so it will help students to know the exact difficulty level of the question papers.

These 10th Standard SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Papers in Malayalam Medium and English Medium are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for Kerala Board Exams and Score More marks. Here is the latest Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Question Papers Free Download given below.

Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Papers in English Medium

• Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium
• Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium
• Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium
• Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium
• Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Papers in Malayalam Medium

• Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 Malayalam Medium
• Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 1 Malayalam Medium
• Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 2 Malayalam Medium
• Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 3 Malayalam Medium
• Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Paper 4 Malayalam Medium

It is necessary that students will also get to know about the types of questions and their level of difficulty according to the latest exam pattern. These Model Question Papers for Class 10 Maths Kerala State Syllabus English Medium will help to prepare for Kerala SSLC Board Exams 2020.

We hope the given KBPE Kerala State Board Syllabus SSLC Maths Previous Year Model Question Papers with Answers 2019 2020 Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Malayalam Medium of Kerala SSLC Maths Previous Question Papers with Answers, SSLC Maths Model Question Papers with Answers for Class 10 Kerala State Board, SSLC Maths Question Pool 2020 will help you.

If you have any queries regarding Kerala State Board SSLC Maths Model Question Papers and Answers Malayalam English Medium 2019 20 Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Expert Teachers at HSSLive.Guru has created KBPE Kerala State Board Syllabus SSLC Previous Year Model Question Papers with Answers 2019-2020 Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Malayalam Medium. By solving Kerala SSLC Previous Question Papers with Answers, S.S.L.C Model Question Papers with Answers for Class 10 Kerala State Board, Question Pool 2020, SCERT Kerala Question Papers 10th Standard all subjects will help the students to check their progress. Students can effectively learn and prepare for their examinations, by referring through the model question papers.

KBPE Kerala Board of Public Examination is an independent department for education which is responsible for conducting the Public Examinations like SSLC, SSC, HSC, TTC, KGTE, KTET, THSLC, etc. Here we have provided SCERT Kerala SSLC Model Question Papers 2019-20 with Answers for Class 10th Std. Students can view or download the Kerala State Board SSLC Model Question Papers and Answers Malayalam English Medium for their upcoming Kerala SSLC board examinations. Students can also read Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Textbooks Solutions.

Board	Kerala Board
Textbook	SCERT, Kerala
Class	SSLC Class 10
Subject	All Subjects
Chapter	Previous Year Question Papers, Model Papers, Sample Papers
Year of Examination	2020, 2019, 2018, 2017
Category	Kerala Syllabus Question Papers

Kerala SSLC Previous Question Papers Free Download | S.S.L.C Model Question Papers with Answers

These SSLC Model Question Papers 2020 Kerala with Answers Pdf are designed according to the latest exam pattern, so it will help students to know the exact difficulty level of the question papers.

These 10th Standard SSLC Previous Year Question Papers for all subjects in Malayalam Medium and English Medium are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for Kerala Board Exams and Score More marks. Here is the latest Kerala SSLC Previous Question Papers Free Download given below.

Kerala SSLC Model Question Papers in English and Malayalam Medium

• Kerala SSLC Maths Model Question Papers
• Kerala SSLC Physics Model Question Papers
• Kerala SSLC Chemistry Model Question Papers
• Kerala SSLC Biology Model Question Papers
• Kerala SSLC Social Science Model Question Papers
• Kerala SSLC English Model Question Papers
• Kerala SSLC Hindi Model Question Papers
• Kerala SSLC Malayalam Model Question Papers
• Kerala SSLC IT Theory Model Question Papers

It is necessary that students will also get to know about the types of questions and their level of difficulty according to the latest exam pattern. These Model Question Papers for Class 10 Kerala State Syllabus English Medium will help to prepare for Kerala SSLC Board Exams 2020.

We hope the given KBPE Kerala State Board Syllabus SSLC Previous Year Model Question Papers with Answers 2019 2020 Pdf Free Download in English Medium and Malayalam Medium of Kerala SSLC Previous Question Papers with Answers, S.S.L.C Model Question Papers with Answers for Class 10 Kerala State Board, Question Pool 2020, SCERT Kerala Question Papers 10th Standard all subjects will help you.

If you have any queries regarding Kerala State Board SSLC Model Question Papers and Answers Malayalam English Medium 2019 20 Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

You can download Resource Wealth of India Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 8 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 8 Resource Wealth of India

Resource Wealth of India TextBook Questions and Answers

Resource wealth of India Question 1.
Name the different sectors that are the basis of Indian economy
Answer:

• Agriculture
• Transport
• Communication
• Energy production
• Mining

Zaid Crops Examples Question 2.
Observe the map and identify major rice producing states in India.

Answer:

1. West Bengal
2. Assam
3. Odisha
4. UP
5. Bihar
6. Andra Pradesh
7. Telangana
8. Tamil Nadu

Universal Fiber Crop Question 3.
What are the favorable conditions for the cultivation of diverse agricultural crops in India?
Answer:

• Suitable agricultural climate that extends throughout the year
• Fertile soil
• Suitable physiography
• Irrigation facilities

Which Crop is Known as Universal Fiber Question 4.
…………. is called golden fiber
Answer:
Jute

Question 5.
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

1. Cash crops
2. Fibre crops
3. Plantation crops
4. Beverages

Universal Fibre Crop Question 6.
Match the following.

A	B
Food crop	Rubber
Cash crop	Jute
Fiber crop	Cotton
Plantation crop	Wheat

Answer:

A	B
Food crop	Wheat
Cash crop	Cotton
Fibre crop	Jute
Plantation crop	Rubber

Coffee Raw Material Question 7.
Distinguish between Kharif crops, Rabi crops and Zaid crops. Give examples for each
Answer:
Kharif crops: Crops that are cultivated at the beginning of monsoon and harvested by the end of monsoon.
Eg. rice, cotton.
Rabi crops: Crops that are cultivated by the beginning of winter season and harvested by the beginning of summer.
Eg. wheat
Zaid crops: Crops that are cultivated by the beginning of summer and harvested by the beginning of monsoon.
Eg. fruits, vegetables.

Electroplating Plant Question 8.
Which crop is called universal fibre? Why?
Answer:
Cotton is called universal fibre. Cotton is widely used all over the world as the raw material for textile industry. Hence it is known as ‘Universal fibre’.

Rubber Industry Question 9.
Categories the following crops into food crops and cash crops
Rice, wheat, cotton, tea, coffee, pulses, tobacco, maize, ragi, rubber

Answer:

Food crops	Cash crops
1. Rice	1. Cotton
2. wheat	2. Tea
3. Pulses	3. Coffee
4. Maiza	4. Tobacco
5. Ragi	5. Rubber

Question 10.
Observe the map of India and name the major wheat-producing states in India.
Answer:

• Punjab
• U.P.
• Hariyana
• Himachal Pradesh
• Utterakhand
• M.P
• Rajastan
• Bihar

Question 11.
What are the geographical conditions suitable for wheat cultivation?
Answer:
The geographical conditions suitable for wheat cultivation are:

• Fertile plain lands.
• Temperate regions conducive for wheat cultivation
• Availability of porous or well-drained fertile soil with content of lime.
• Average temperatures of 10°C during planting and 15°C to 26°C during harvesting period and 75 cm of rainfall are needed for wheat cultivation. These conditions are available in these states.
• Rainfall received from western disturbance is suitable for the cultivation of rabi crops like wheat.

Question 12.
Wheat is not cultivated in Kerala. Why?
Answer:
Wheat cultivation is not possible in Kerala because,

• Scarcity of alluvial soil
• High temperature
• Poor irrigation facilities

Question 13.
Which are the soils ideal for cotton cultivation?
Answer:

• Black soil of Deccan plateau
• Alluvial soil of North Indian Plain.

Question 14.
What are the raw materials for iron and steel industry?
Answer:

• Irone ore
• Manganese
• Coal
• Limestone

Question 15.
Distinguish between metallic minerals and non- metallic minerals.
Answer:

• Minerals with metallic content are called metallic minerals. Eg. iron ore.
• Minerals without metallic content are called non-metallic minerals. Eg. Mica.

Question 16.
Iron is considered as the basis of all industries. Why?
Answer:

• Machines and tools made of iron are used widely.
• The amount of iron used in a country determines its standard of living.

Question 17.
Which are the four varieties of iron ore?
Answer:

• Magnetite
• Hematite
• Limonite
• Siderite

Question 18.
Name the non-metallic minerals.
Answer:

• Limestone
• Mica
• Gypsum
• Coal
• Petroleum

Question 19.
Is there any metro project in Kerala?
Answer:
Yes, Kochi metro

Question 20.
How many international airports are there in Kerala? Which are they?
Answer:
4 airports.

1. Thiruvananthapuram
2. Nedumpasseri
3. Kozhikode (Karipur)
4. Kannur

Question 21.
Which are the major iron and steel industries in India?
Answer:

• Tata Iron and Steel factor (TISCO)
• Visvesvaraya Iron and steel factory limited (VISL)
• Bhilai Steel Plant
• Durgapur Steel Plant
• Rourkela Steel Plant
• Bokaro Steel Plant
• Indian Iron and Steel Company
• Visakhapatnam Steel Plant.

Question 22.
Describe the two agro-based industries in India. Agro-based industries are those that use agricultural products as raw material. The two major agro-based industries of India are cotton textile industry and sugar industry.

Cotton textile industry: This is the biggest agro-based industry in India. India has been renowned for cotton clothes since very old times. The first cotton mill in India was established at Fort Gloster near Kolkata in 1818. The large scale cotton textile industry began to function at Mumbai in 1854. Mumbai is the largest cotton textile manufacturing centre in India. Though cotton textile mills function in various parts of the country, the majority of them are located in the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Sugar industry: Among agro-based industries, sugar holds the second place. If sugarcane is kept for a longer period after their cropping, the content of sugar (sucrose) in it decreases. Therefore all sugar factories have been located near sugar fields. About 60% of the sugar being manufactured in India is from the states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and Maharashtra. Uttar Pradesh leads both in the production of sugarcane and sugar. The majority of the sugar industries in India are concentrated in the states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. So these states are known as the sugar belt of India.

Question 23.
Compared to road transport, what are the advantage of rail, water, and air transport?
Answer:
Each means of transport has its own advantage. Road transport is the best for short distances. But the other means of transport have certain advantages over road transport.
Rail transport:

• Suitable for long-distance travel and cargo.
• Can rest while traveling.

Water transport:

• Less air pollution.
• Less sound pollution.
• Less cost for construction and maintenance of water transport route.
• Transportation of heavy cargo.
• Helps international trade.

Air transport:

• Suitable for rugged terrain and in places which cannot be reached by roads and railways.
• Most speedy form of transport.

Question 24.
Which are the Indian states leading in spice production?
Answer:
Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu

Question 25.
The states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are known as the ‘Sugar Belt of India’. Why?
Answer:
Among the sugar industries in India, majority of them are set up in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

Question 26.
Complete the chart

Cash crops	Agro-based industries
1. Cotton
2. Jute
3. Rubber
4. Oilseeds

Answer:

Cash crops	Agro-based industries
1. Cotton	1. Cotton textile industry
2. Jute	2. Jute industry
3. Rubber	3. Footwear, Sports goods, Cables, Cushions
4. Oilseeds	4. Paint, Varnish, Soap, Lubricants, Spices

Question 27.
All sugar industries have been located near sugar fields, Why?
Answer:
The juice is to be extracted immediately after the harvest of sugarcane. Otherwise, the quantity of juice and the amount of sucrose in the juice will be less. That is why sugar industries are located near sugar fields.

Question 28.
What are the raw materials for agro-based industries?
Answer:
Sugarcane, cotton, jute, rubber, oil seeds

Question 29.
Which are the major agro-based industries in In-dia?
Answer:
Sugar industry, cotton textile industry, jute industry, paper industry, woollen industry, silk industry, paint industry, varnish industry, soap industry, rubber industry, etc.

Question 30.
Identify the Indian states where sugar factories are located.
Answer:
Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu.

Question 31.
Name major tea producing states in India.
Answer:

• Assam
• West Bengal
• Kerala
• Tamil Nadu

Question 32.
Complete the flow chart of industries in India.

Answer:

Question 33.
Match the following.}

A	B
Cottonopolis	Sugarcane
Universal fibre	Mumbai
Arabica	Rubber
Kerala	Cotton
U.P.	Coffee

Answer:

A	B
Cottonopolis	Mumbai
Universal fibre	Cotton
Arabica	Coffee
Kerala	Rubber
U.P.	Sugarcane

Question 34.
Rail and road transports are not developed in north-east states of India and in the regions lying close to the Himalayas. Why?
Idukki and Wayanad districts in Kerala have no railway lines. Why?
Answer:
The construction of road and railway network is difficult in mountainous regions, hilly areas, valleys, and slopes. The above-said regions belong to such places.

Question 35.
What is the importance of agro-based industries?
Answer:
These industries contribute substantially to India’s national income.
They are a base for huge employment potential

Question 36.
What are the conclusions to be drawn on the analysis of the location of the agro-based industries in relation to agricultural regions?
Answer:
All the agro-based industries of India are located near to places where the raw materials for them are cultivated. This enables to get raw materials cheaply and in plenty. For eg: Mumbai and Ahmedabad, the centers of cotton textile industry in India are located near to places where cotton is cultivated on a large scale.

Question 37.
Which are the fossil fuels?
Answer:

• Coal
• Petroleum
• Natural gas

Question 38.
Point-out conditions required for rubber cultivation.
Answer:
Temperature raging from 25°C to 35°C and annual rainfall of over 150 cm are ideal. Laterite soil is ideal.
Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are the leading producers.

Question 39.
Mumbai is the largest cotton textile manufacturing center in India. What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

• Availability of abundant raw materials
• Humid climate
• Availability of electricity at cheaper rate
• Availability of freshwater
• Nearness to harbor

Question 40.
Classify the roads in India

Answer:

Question 41.
Which is the largest mineral-based industry in India? Why is it called basic industry?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry is the largest mineral-based industry in India. The measuring rode of the industrial progress of any nation is calculated on the basis of the production and consumption of iron. The present progress in the country is due to the growth of iron and steel industry. Many other industries depend on this industry. It laid the foundation for rapid industrialization in India. So it is called the basic industry.

Question 42.
Consider the map showing parts of India

Answer:
Name the important ports

1. Kandla
2. Mumbai
3. Goa
4. Mangalore
5. Kochi
6. Thoothukudi
7. Chennai
8. Vishakhapatnam
9. Vishakhapatnam
10. Paradweep
11. Kolkatta

Let Us Assess

Question 43.
Starting cultivation by the end of winter season and take harvest before rainy season’. Which agricultural season is mentioned here? Which are the main crops of this season?
Answer:
Zaid season
Main crops: Fruits and vegetables

Question 44.
Prepare short notes
i) Golden quadrangle
ii) Universal fibre
Answer:
Golden quadrangle: Golden quadrangle is the Express Highway that links the four metropolitan cities of India. In addition to this, the Government of India has planned under the category of Expressways, a North-South (Srinagar to Kanyakumari) and east-West (Silcharto Porbandar) corridor.

Universal fibre: Cotton is called universal fibre. Cotton is widely used all over the world as the raw material for textile industry. Hence it is known as ‘Universal fibre’.

Question 45.
Identify the following ports.
i) Port at southern end
ii) Main port of Karnataka
iii) Important port in West Bengal other than Kolkotta
Answer:
i) Thoothukudi
ii) Mangalore
iii) Haldia

Question 46.
During which season are crops like Maize, Cotton and Jute are cultivated.
Answer:
Kharif

Question 47.
Which one of the following is a winter crop?
a. Wheat
b. Sugarcane
c. Groundnut
d. Millet
Answer:
a. Wheat

Question 48.
Name the agricultural season that starts in June and ends in June.
Answer:
Zaid

Question 49.
Differentiate food crops and cash crops.
Answer:
The crops which can directly be consumed as food are called food crops. Cash crops are those having industrial and commercial significance.

Question 50.
Explain the geographical factors required for rice cultivation.
Answer:
Alluvial soil is most suitable for rice cultivation. Rice requires high temperature (24°C) and a good amount of Rainfall (more than 150cm) Rice is being cultivated on regions with less rainfall with the aid of irrigation.

Question 51.
Why is it said that maize is a suitable crop for In-dia?
Answer:

1. In India Maize is cultivated in both summer and winter.
2. Cultivated in regions receiving an annual average rainfall of 75cm.
3. Well drained fertile soil is ideal.

Question 52.
How are roads classified in India?
Answer:
Roads in India are classified based on the con-struction and management.

Question 53.
What is Golden Quadrilateral Superhighway?
Answer:
The six lane superhighways connecting the metropolitan cities in India such as Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata are together named as the golden quadrangle superhighway.

Question 54.
Which type of waterways are used for inland navigation?
Answer:
Rivers, Backwaters, Canals, etc.

Question 55.
Which are the major inland waterways in India?
Answer:

1. Godavari – Krishna rivers and itstributories
2. Buckingham canal of Andhra-Tamilnadu Region
3. Mandovi and Zuvari rivers of Goa
4. Back water of Kerala.

Question 56.
Through which mineral, the following places are known
i) Neyveli
ii) Jharia
iii) Digboy
Answer:
i) Lingnite
ii) Coal
iii) Petroleum

Question 57. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Prepare a note on any three cash crops cultivated in India, its geographical requirements and the states where it is cultivated.
Answer:
Cotton: Forest free growing seasons, 200 to 30°C temperature small amount of rainfall. Black soil in the best soil. Jute: Hot and humid conditions. High temperature and rainfall above 150cm is essential well-drained alluvial soil is suitable.
Sugareane: 4 tropical crop, requires hot and humid climate. Black soil and alluvial soil are ideal.

Question 58. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Presence of mineral resources has made some regions industrial centers. Substantiate this statement based on two industrial centers and the factors responsible for it.
Answer:
Iron and steel industry, Aluminium industry availability of raw materials, transport facilities.

Question 59. (Qn. Pool-2017)
Write the favorable geographical factors required for the cultivation of major cash crops – cotton and jute and the states in which they are cultivated.
Answer:
Cotton — Jute
1. Frost-free growing season — Hot and humid conditions
2. 20°C to 30°C temperature — High temperature
3. Black soil — Rainfall above 150cm
4. GujratMaharastra — Well drained alluvial soil
5. Andrapradesh, Tamilnadu — West Bengal,

Question 60.
(Qn. Pool-2017)
Write any two mineral-based industries in India. Find out the favorable factors for their development and prepares short note.
Answer:
Iron and steel industries, Aluminium industries. Availability of new materials, transport facilities, cheap power, availability of water.

Question 61. (Orukkam – 2017)
Complete the following flow chart about the major Minerals in India.

Answer:
a) Ferrous metals
b) Non-ferrous metals
c) Other minerals
d) Iron ore manganese
e) Gold silver copper
f) Coal, Petroleum
g) Mica

Question 62. (Orukkam – 2017)
Complete the following table of Major Iron and Steel Industry in India.
Answer:

Iron and steel Industry	Location	Characteristics
Tata Iron and Steel Industry	Jamshedpur	First public sector iron and steel company
Visweswarayya Iron and Steel Ltd.	Bhadravati	First iron and steel plant in south India
Bhilai Steel Plant	Durgapur	Established in collaborations with Russia in 1959
Rourkela Steel Plant	Sundargarh	Established in Collaboration with Germany in 1954
Durgapur Steel Plan	Durgapur	Established in collaboration with the UK in 1962
Bokaro steel plant	Bokaro	Established in collaboration with Russia in 1964

Question 63. (Orukkam- 2017)
Complete the table about the major Minerals in India, Uses, and the major state that produce these minerals.
Answer:

Minerals	Uses	Major producing States
Gold	For making jewelry	Karnataka
Silver	For making jewelry in electroplating, photographs	Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Karnataka
Copper	Used conductor in electrical industries	Jharkhand, Rajasthan Madhyapradesh-
Bauxite	Ore of Aluminium used for making aircraft, electrical equipment, domestic utensils	Jharkhand, Chattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Andrapradesh, Rajasthan, Jharkhand, Bihar

Question 64. (Orukkam – 2017)
Classify and write the Characteristics of Mineral
Fuels
Coal:
1. The major Thermal energy source in India
2. …………………..
3. …………………..
4. …………………..
5. …………………..
Petroleum and Natural gas:
1. Main energy source of Bus, Rail and Air transport
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
4. ……………….
Non – Conventional energy source:
1. Comparatively cheap
2. …………………
3. …………………
Answer:
Coal:

1. Coal is a major industrial fuel
2. Most of coal of fund in India is of medium grade of bituminous type.
3. West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chattisgarh are the major states producing coal.
4. The largest coalfield in India is Jharia in Jharkhand.
5. The less energy-efficient coal is lignite.

Petroleum and Natural gas:

1. Other than petrol and diesel etc. numerous by-products are also obtained.
2. Petroleum mining in India started at Digboi in Assam.
3. Petroleum producing states in India are Assam Gujrat and Maharashtra.
4. Natural gas is the fuel obtained along with petroleum.

Non – Conventional energy source:

1. Environment-friendly
2. Renewable

Question 65. (Orukkam – 2017)
Classify Roads in India and list down the features. National Highways
1. Major roads of the country
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
State Highways
1. ……………..
2. …………….
3. …………….
District roads
1. ……………
2. …………..
3. …………..
Village Roads
1. ……………
2. …………..
3. …………..
Answer:
National Highways:

1. Major roads of the country
2. Maintained and constructed by the central government
3. Links the state capitals, major cites, etc.

State Highways:

1. Major roads of the state.
2. Links state capital with the district headquarters.
3. Construction and maintenance by the government

District roads:

1. Major roads in the district.
2. links district headquarters with important places with in the roads

Village Roads:

1. Built and maintained by the district panchayath
2. Ensures the domestic movements both in the state
3. Construction and maintenance by local self-government

Question 66. (Orukkam – 2017)
List down the characteristics of Water Transport.
1. Cheapest mode of transport
2. …………………
3. …………………
4. …………………
5. …………………
Answer:
2. Suitable for large scale cargo transport
3. Does not cause environmental pollution.
4. Does not cause environmental pollution.
5. Most suitable for international trade.

Question 67. (Orukkam-2017)
List down the areas where inland navigation is more
1. The rivers Ganges, Brahmaputra, and its tributaries.
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
4. ………………..
5. ………………..
Answer:
2. Godavari – Krishna and their tributaries.
3. Buckingham canal of Andhra – Tamilnadu region
4. Mandovi and Zuari rivers of Goa
5. Backwaters of Kerala

Question 68. (Orukkam – 2017)
List down the major National Waterways in India
Answer:

National waterways	Area through which it passes
National waterway 1	Allahabad to Haldia
National waterway	Sadia to Dubri in the river Brahmaputra
National waterway 3	The west coastal canal in. Kerala from Kollam to Kottapuram
National waterway 4	Canal from Kakinada to Pondicherry linking Godavari and Krishna
National waterway 5	Brahmini – Mahanadi delta river system

You can Download Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 5 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala State Syllabus 10th Standard Social Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 5 Public Expenditure and Public Revenue

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Text Book Questions And Answers

Classification of Public Revenue Question 1.
Observe the pictures given above. They are related to certain activities performed by the government. What are they ? Find out other activities of the government.
Answer:

• Distribution of drinking water
• Distribution of welfare pension
• Protection of environment
• Protection of the country
• Road construction
• Health centers
• Center for distributing food

Vehicle Tax Kerala Question 2.
Given below is the graph showing the public expenditure of India from 2010-11 to 2016-17.

Answer:
The public expenditure of the year 2010-ll was 1197328 Crore. In the year 2011-12 it increased by 107037 Crore and became 130463 Crore. In 2012-13 it increased by 106007 Crore and became 141037 Crore. In 2013 -14, it increased by 149075 Crore and became 1559447 Crore.

In 2014-15 the public expenditure increased by 121711 Crore and became 1681158 Crore. In 2015-16 the public expenditure increased by 96319 Crores and became 1777477 Crores. In 2016-17 the public expenditure increased by 197717 Crores and became 1975194 Crores.

Types of Public Revenue Question 3.
Find out of the government expenditure in your ward and classify them into developmental and non-developmental expenditure.
Answer:

Developmental Expenditure	Non-developmental Expenditure
Construction of Roads	Disaster management
Industrial expense	Eradication of wastes
Setting up educational institutions	Giving loans with subsidy
Farming	Welfare pension

Standard Social Question 4.
Discuss how these factors lead to an increase in public expenditure and make inferences.
Answer:
Government undertakes welfare activities in the form of education, health, infrastructure, food, urbanization which leads to increase in public expenditure automatically. Natural calamities makes more expenditures and unemployment also rise the expenditure that is to control unemployment and to attain economic, development industrialization must be encouraged. Thus starting new industries and protecting industries increase Public expenditure.

What is Public Revenue Question 5.
Can you identify the receipt given? Where do we remit land tax? (Textbook page no. 75)
Answer:
Land tax remitted receipt.
Land tax will remit at their own village offices.

10th Public Question 6.
Discuss whether direct or indirect tax seriously affect common people.
Hints – Tax burden, rise price, income inequality.
Answer:
In direct tax payer bears the burden himself. So the tax payer known the burden of tax. But indirect tax collected by raising the price of commodities. Tax payer is ignorant of the tax. Evading a tax means giving up the wants. Direct tax is based on the principle of the ability to pay.

But indirect tax will not ensure social justice as it falls upon the rich and to poor alike. The rate of increase in the direct tax j may cause increase in the price of commodities. Thus we can assess that direct tax affects common man more public debt.

Public Finance Syllabus Question 7.
With the help of reading material, find out the main taxes of the state government.
Answer:

• Land tax
• Vehicle tax
• Excise duty
• Entertainment tax

Define Public Revenue Question 8.
Calculate the annual per capital debt of India.
Answer:
We get annual percapita debt of India by dividing total debt of a year with population of the year. According to 2011 population census our population is 1, 21, 01, 93, 422.
Public debt of 2015 = 5, 50, 36, 75
Per capita debt = 1, 21, 01, 93, 422 – 5503675
= 00, 45, 47, 76 crores

Question 9.
Statistics shows that India’s public debt is increasing. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of this and report the findings?
Answer:
Under development and increase in population results increase of public debt. If the public debt is increased, major portion of the public income will be allocated to interest and repayment. As a result allotment to welfare schemes will below and it adversely affect the economic 1 development of a country.

Public Revenue Question 10.
Prepare a note by analyzing the major items of the central govt.
Items — Expenditure
Interest and repayments — 456145
Defense — 246727
Subsidies — 243811
Grants to state and union territories — 108552
Pension — 88521
Police — 51791
Social service — 29143
Economic service — 28984
Grants to foreign govt — 4342
Other public services — 30936
Answer:

• The largest amount is spent on interest and repayment.
• The least amount is spent on grants to foreign government.
• The expenditure on welfare schemes and defense is more or less same.
• Rs. 29143 crores, Rs 28984 crores and Rs 30936 crores are allotted social economic service and to public services respectively.

Question 11.
Observe the diagram related to the major income sources of the central budget 2017-18.

Find out the following after observing the diagram.

a. From which item does the central government receive maximum tax revenue?
Answer:
Corporate tax

b. Which is the source of non tax revenue that yields maximum income to the central government?
Answer:
Profit

c. Which source yields more income to the central government – tax revenue or non tax revenue?
Answer:
444631

Question 12.
What are the goals of the fiscal policy ?
Answer:

• Attain economic stability
• Create employment opportunities
• Control unnecessary expenditure
• Increase the aggregate output of the economy
• Keep prices and wages stable
• Used to curtail inflation, increase aggregate demand and other macroeconomic issues

Question 13.
How do public expenditure, public income and public debt benefit a country? Discuss.
Answer:
Public expenditure is the governmental expenditure for social welfare. Public expenditure is very important for the development of a country. Under Govt taken various initiation on welfare activities public expenditure increases.To meet this expenditure govt mobilizes income from various sources.

This income is called public revenue. It includes both tax revenue and non tax revenue. In a developing and under developed nation budget will be deficit budget became they have to undertake various developmental activities.

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Let Us Assess

Question 1.
Compare developmental and non -develop-mental expenditure and give examples for each.
Answer:
Public expenditure can be classified into developmental and non developmental expenditure. Any expenditure that creates assets for the future is called developmental expenditure.
Examples :- construction of roads, bridges, and harbors, setting up of educational institutions, starting up new enterprises etc.
Expenditures that does not create any assets are called non-developmental expenditure.
Examples :- expenditure incurred by way of war. interest, pension etc.

Question 2.
Describe the features of direct tax and indirect tax.
Answer:
Taxes are the main source of income of’the government. The amount to be compulsorily paid by the public to the government is called tax. There are two types of taxes. Direct tax and indirect tax.

Direct tax	Indirect tax
Tax is paid by the person on whom it is imposed.	Tax is imposed on one person and paid by another.
Tax burden is felt by the tax payer	Tax burden is not felt by the tax payer
Comparatively low expenditure is incurred for tax collection.	Comparatively high expenditure is incurred for tax collection.

Question 3.
What are the important functions of GST council.
Answer:

• Taxes, cess and surcharges that are to be merged into GST.
• The goods and services that are to be brought under GST.
• Determining GST rates.
• The time frame for including the excluded items into GST.
• Determining the tax exemption limit on the basis of total turnover.

Question 4.
Explain with examples Public revenue and Public expenditure.
Answer:
Public Revenue:
Income of the government is known as Pub- lie revenue. The government earns income primarily from two sources. They are tax revenue and non-tax revenue. Tax revenue are of two types: Direct tax and indirect tax. Tax is paid by the person on whom it is imposed is called direct tax.

Examples:- Personal income tax, Corporate tax etc. While tax is imposed on one person and paid by another is called Indirect tax. Exam pie:- Value added tax, Excise duty, Sales tax, Customs duty, Service tax etc. Along with tax government receives in from two other sources such as surcharge and cess. Additional tax imposed on tax is called surcharge. Additional tax imposed by the government for certain specific purposes is called Cess

Public Expenditure:
Expenditure incurred by the government for various development and non-developmental activities are called Public expenditure. Examples for developmental expenditure are construction of roads, railways, bridges, harbors, setting up of new enterprises, educational institutions and medical institutions. Examples for non-developmental expenditure are expenditure on war, pension, interest etc. India’s public expenditure is increasing because when population increases, facilities for education, health, shelter etc for more people have to be given. For this, the government has to spend more money. There are various reasons for the increase in expenditure.

• Increase in the defense expenditure
• Welfare activities
• Urbanization
• Increase in population

Question 5.
What are the sources of non tax revenue?
Answer:
Fees, fines and penalties, grants, interest and profit are the various sources of non tax revenue.

Question 6.
Rewrite if required
Deficit budget → Income = Expenditure
Surplus budget → Income < Expenditure
Balanced budget → Income > Expenditure
Answer:
Balanced budget → Income = Expenditure
Deficit budget → Income < Expenditure
Surplus budget → Income > Expenditure

Question 7.
What is fiscal policy? Explain its aims.
Answer:
Governments policy regarding public revenue, public expenditure and public debt is called fiscal policy.
There are various aims of fiscal policy.

• Attain Economic stability
• Create employment opportunities
• Controls unnecessary expenditure
• It helps to maintain price stability
• For efficient resource allocation.

Question 8.
Public finance and fiscal policy determines a country’s progress. Substantiate.
Answer:
Public finance and fiscal policy determines a country’s progress. Public finance is the branch of economics that relates to public income, public expenditure and public debt. It is presented through the budget. Fiscal policy is the government policy regarding public revenue, public expenditure and public debt.

These policies are implemented through the budget. Fiscal policy influences a countries progress. A sound fiscal policy helps in nourishing the developmental activities and to attain growth.

Fispal policy controls inflation and deflation which affect economic security. The tax rate is increased when there is inflation. As a result of this, the purchasing power of the people falls. Similarly tax is reduced at the time of deflation. That will increase purchasing power of the people. As a result the demand for products increases. This results in an increase in the price of the products. The timely application of fiscal policy helps the government to over-come such situations.

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Orukkam Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the chart.

Answer:
a. By government,
b. Non-developmental,
c. For constructing road,
c. Agriculture,
d. interest, pension.

Question 2.
One of the factors which is responsible for the increase in government expenditure has been given. Find out and write some other factors.
1. Population increase
Answer:

• Increase in defense expenditure
• Welfare activities
• Urbanization
• Inflation.

Question 3.
In the above activity you found out the factors responsible for the increase in public expenditure in India. Prepare a small write up using these points.
Answer:
Government undertakes welfare activities in the form of education, health, infrastructure, food, urbanization which leads to increase in public expenditure automatically. Natural calamities makes more expenditures and unemployment also rise the expenditure that is to control unemployment and to attain economic development industrialization must be encouraged. Thus starting new industries and protecting industries increase Public expenditure.

Question 4.
Complete the flow chart, connected with ‘different types of taxes’.

Answer:
a. Indirect Tax,
b. Personal income tax,
c. Tax imposed on the net income or profit of a company,
d. Land tax,
e. Excise duty,
f. Imposed on import and export of products,
g. Service Tax,
h. Taxes imposed on services.

Question 5.
The names of different types of taxes are given below. Categorize them, and fill the tables.

Answer:
Central government taxes

• Corporate tax
• Personal income tax
• Union excise duty

State government taxes

• Land tax
• Stamp duty
• Value Added Tax
• State Excise Duty

Local Self Government Taxes

• Property tax
• Professional tax
• Entertainment tax

Question 6.
Complete the picture.

Answer:
a. Grants
b. Fees
c. Interest
d. Profit

Question 7.
You have successfully found out the main sources of non-tax revenue, in the above activity. Now clarify each of them. An example is given for you.
Interest: Interest is the amount received for the loans provided by the government
Answer:
Fees: Reward collected for the government’s services.
Eg: License fees, Tuition fees, Registration fees etc.

Fines and penalties:Punishments for violating the laws.

Grants: Financial aid provided by one government to another.
For example, grants are provided by central and state government to local self governments.

Interest: Amount received for loans provided by the government to various enterprises, agencies and countries.

Profit: Income received from the enterprises operated by the government.
Eg. Profit from Indian Railways.

Question 8.
Complete the chart

Answer:
a. Loans taken by the government,
b. External Debts,
c. Loans availed by the government from individuals and institutions within the country.

Question 9.
Complete the world wheel.
increase in population.

Answer:

• Increase in Import
• Developmental activities
• Increased Defense expenditure
• Social Welfare Activities.

Question 10.
Find out correct answers from the box given below the table.

Answer:
a. Budget
b. Expenditure = Revenue
c. Surplus Budget
d. Expenditure Revenue
e. Deficit Budget

Question 11.
Fill the blank parts, suitably.
1. Government policy regarding public revenue, public expenditure and public debt is called ……………….
2. There policies are implemented through ………………..
3. Attainment of economic stability is one of its goals. Two other goals are ………….
Answer:
1. Fiscal Policy
2. Budget
3. Create employment opportunities
4. Control Unnecessary expenditure

Question 12.
Put the symbols ↓ or ↑ appropriately, in the blanks.
1. During inflation the tax rate ………….
2. As a result, the purchasing power of the people …………..
3. During deflation the tax rate …………..
4. As a result the purchasing power of the people ……………..
Answer:
1. During inflation the tax rate ↑
2. As a result, the purchasing power of the people ↓
3. During deflation the tax rate ↓
4. As a result the purchasing power of the people ↑

Question 13.
As a following up activity of the former, prepare a short note on ‘Timely application of the fiscal policy during Inflation and Deflation’, by the government.
Answer:
The tax rate is increased when there is inflation. As a result of this the purchasing power of the people falls.Tax is reduced at the time of deflation. This will increase the purchasing power of the people. As a result the demand for products increases. This results in an increase in the price of products.The timely application of fiscal policy helps the government to overcome such situations.

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Evaluation Questions

Question 1.
What is Public expenditure? Which are its two divisions?
Answer:
Public Expenditure: Expenditure incurred by the government is known as Public expenditure. Developmental Expenditure and Non Developmental Expenditure.

The Expenditure incurred by the government for constructing roads, bridges and harbors starting up new enterprises, setting up educational institutes etc are considered as Developmental expenditure. Expenditure incurred by the way of war, interest, pension etc are considered as Non developmental expenditure

Question 2.
Why does India’s, public expenditure in-crease?
Answer:
Welfare Activities, Urbanization, Increase in Defense expenditure.

Question 3.
What is public revenue? Which are its main sources?
Answer:
The income of the government is known as Public revenue.There are two types of public revenue.

1. Tax Revenue
2. Non Tax Revenue

Question 4.
What is the differences between Direct tax and Indirect tax?
Answer:
Direct Tax:

• Tax is paid by the person on whom it is imposed
• Tax burden is felt by the tax payer
• Comparatively high expenditure is incurred for tax collection.

Indirect Tax:

• Tax is imposed on one person and paid by another
• Tax burden is not felt by the tax payer
• Comparatively low expenditure is incurred for tax collection.

Question 5.
What is Corporate tax?
Answer:
It is the tax imposed on the net income or profit of a company.

Question 6.
Differentiate ‘Surcharge and ‘Cess’
Answer:
Additional tax imposed on tax is called surcharge. Generally surcharge is imposed for a specific period. Additional tax is imposed by the government for certain specific purposes is called Cess. Cess will be discontinued when enough money is received.

Question 7.
Who imposes Entertainment tax?
Answer:
Entertainment tax is imposed by Local self government.

Question 8.
Increase is defence expenditure is one of the reasons for the increase in India’s pub-lic debt. Find out 3 other for the same.
Answer:

• Increase in population
• Social Welfare Activities
• Developmental activities.

Question 9.
What is ‘budget’? Which are its three types?
Answer:
Budget is the financial statement showing the expected income and expenditure of the government during a financial year. Three types of budget are Balanced Budget, Surplus Budget, Deficit budget.

Question 10.
What is fiscal policy? What is the merit of a sound fiscal policy?
Answer:
Government’s policy regarding public revenue, public expenditure and public debt is called a Fiscal policy. A sound fiscal policy helps in nourishing the developmental activities and to attain growth.

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue SCERT Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Some of the activities performed by welfare governments are given below.Complete the table by incorporating other two activities.
1. Distribution of welfare pension
2. Empowering General education
3. a ……………………..
4. b ………………….
Answer:
a. Public health care protection
b. Environment protection.

Question 2.
What is meant by public expenditure?
Answer:
Expenditure of the government for public welfare.

Question 3.
Which are the two main sources of public revenue of the government?
Answer:

• Tax revenue
• Non-tax revenue

Question 4.
What is the major difference between direct tax and indirect tax.
Answer:

• Tax is paid by the person on whom it is imposed
• Tax is imposed on one and paid by another.

Question 5.
List down the main features of direct tax and indirect tax.
Answer:
Direct tax:

• Tax paid by the tax payer
• Tax burden is felt by the tax payer
• Comparatively expensive

Indirect tax:

• Tax is imposed on one and paid by another
• Tax burden is not felt by the tax payer
• Comparatively low expenditure.

Question 6.
Two major direct taxes are given below. Explain them.
1. Personal income tax
2. Corporate tax
Answer:
1. Tax imposed on the income of the individuals
2. Tax imposed on the net income or profit of a company.

Question 7.
Prepare a description about the indirect taxes in India.
Answer:
Describe value added tax, excise duty, customs duty and service tax.

Question 8.
Classify the taxes given below as direct tax and indirect tax.
a. Personal income tax,
b. Excise duty,
c. Corporate income tax
d. Value added tax
Answer:
a. Direct tax – Personal income tax,
b. corporate tax
c. Indirect tax – Excise duty,
d. Value added tax

Question 9.
Classify the following taxes properly as mentioned in the table.
1. Entertainment tax
2. Value added tax
3. Property tax
4. Personal income tax
5. Corporate tax
6. tamp duty
7. and tax
8. Professional tax
Answer:

• Central Government: Corporate tax, Personal Income tax.
• State Government: Value added tax, Stamp duty, Land tax.
• Local Self Government: Property tax, Entertainment tax, Professional tax.

Question 10.
Prepare a note on the different sources of income of the state government.
Answer:
Describes the tax income of the state government such as value added tax, stamp duty, state excise duty, land tax.

Question 11.
Write your opinion about the taxes that affect ordinary people.
Answer:
Write about indirect tax and your opinion on price hike, economic inequality.

Question 12.
Some non-tax income are given below. Ex-plain them.
1. Fees
2. Grant
3. Interest
4. Profit
Answer:
Explain fees, grant, interest and profit.

Question 13.
Prepare a short note on the impact of public debt in India.
Answer:
Write and explain the negative result of in-creasing public debt.

Question 14.
Table showing the internal and external debt of India from 2010 -11 to 2015 -16 is given below. Observe the table and answer the following.
a. When compared to 2010 -11 how much was the increase in public debt in 2015-16
b. What conclusions do you arrive at by comparing the internal and external debt?
c. What might be the reasons for increasing public debt in India?
Answer:
a. Debt doubled
b. Internal debt is more than external debt
c. Expenses for Defense, Increase in population, Social welfare activities, Development activities.

Question 15.
What is meant by public finance?
Answer:
A branch of Economics that deals with public income, public expenditure and public debt.

Question 16.
How do you think that the payment and nonpayment of tax with affect the development of a nation?
Answer:

• Explains the advantages of paying tax
• Explains the disadvantages of not paying tax.

Question 17.
What is budget? What is the importance of budget in economic activities of the government?
Answer:

• An economic document that shows the income and expenditure of the government in a financial year.
• Explains the importance of the budget.

Question 18.
How do you differentiate direct tax from in¬direct tax?
Answer:
In direct tax, tax is imposed one and another person pays the tax

Question 19.
What are the features of public income and public expenditure?
Answer:
The features of public expenditure and public revenue. Explain different type of budgets.

Question 20.
Explain different type of budgets.
Answer:

• Balanced budget : Income and expenditure are equal.
• Surplus budget : Income is more than expenditure.
• Deficit budget: Expenditure is more than income

Question 21.
What are the major features of the fiscal policy?
Answer:
The features of fiscal policy

Question 22.
Which are the major sources of income in Central budget?
Answer:
Corporate tax, Personal income tax, Customs duty, Excise duty.

Question 23.
What are the features of internal debt and external debt.
Answer:
The features of internal debtapd external debt.

Question 24.
Compare developmental expenditure and non-developmental expenditure.
Answer:
Write and explains developmental expenditure and non-developmental expenditure.

Question 25.
Public finance and fiscal policy determines the development of nation. Substantiate.
Answer:
Write and substantiates public finance and fiscal policy.

Question 26.
Explain what is fiscal policy and what are its objectives.
Answer:
Write and explains fiscal policy

• Economic stability
• Employment opportunity
• Control unnecessary expenses
• Control inflation and deflation
• Economic discipline

Question 27.
Analyse the pie diagram given below and answer the following.

a. Through which tax did government get more income?
b.How much income is received through service tax?
c. Which is the highest source of non tax revenue to the Central Government?
d Does tax revenue or non-tax revenue bring more income to the government?
Answer:
a. Corporate tax,
b. 209774 crores,
c. Profit,
d. Tax income.

Public Expenditure and Public Revenue Exam Oriented Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who collects professional tax ?
Answer:
Local self government institutions.

Question 2.
The government servants in a Panchayat area pay tax to the Panchayat. Which type of tax is this ?
Answer:
This is professional tax

Question 3.
Give some examples for direct taxes in India.
Answer:
Personal income tax, Corporate tax.

Question 4.
What are the source of Non- tax revenue ?
Answer:
Fees, fines and penalties. Grants, interest, Profit.

Question 5.
What are the two types of customs duty?
Answer:
Export duty and import duty.

Question 6.
a. For what purpose, the government spend money ?
b. Identify the areas where local self government under takes expenditure ?
Answer:
a.The government money for undertaking public institution and for attaining social welfare.
b. Education sector, Health sector, Social welfare, Public work, Drinking water.

Question 7.
Complete the following table based on the institutions which collects the different types of taxes given below.
Answer:

Question 8.
What is public revenue ? What are the two source of public revenue ?
Answer:
The income of the Govt is known as public revenue. Tax revenue and non-tax revenue are the two sources of public revenue.

Question 9.
What is public expenditure? What are the two source of public expenditure ?
Answer:
The expenditure incurring by the government is known as public expenditure. Developmental and non-developmental expenditures are the two sources of public expenditure.

Question 10.
Why does India’s Public expenditure in-creases ? Suggest some reasons.
Answer:

• Increase in the defense expenditure
• Welfare activities
• Urbanization
• Increasing Population
• Various developmental activities.

Question 11.
Give a brief account on Taxes ?
Answer:
Taxes are the main source of income for the Government. The amount to be compulsorily paid by the public to the government for expenditure such as welfare activities, developmental activities etc incurred in public interest is called tax. The person who pays tax is called tax payer. Taxes are of two types. Direct tax and indirect taxes.

Question 12.
What is personal income tax and corporate tax.
Answer:
The tax imposed on the income of individuals is called income tax. Tax rate increases with income. Tax is imposed on income beyond a certain limit. It is the tax imposed on the net income or profit of a company.

Question 13.
What are the major indirect taxes in India.
Answer:
Value added tax, Excise duty, Customs duty, Service tax.

Question 14.
What is Value added tax ? Write its advantages and disadvantages ?
Answer:
It was introduced in France in 1954. A product reaches the consumers through different stages. Value is added at each stage. Taxes which are imposed on such value is called Value Added Tax (VAT).

Advantages:

• Can avoid conceding effect
• As tax is paid at different stages, malpractices can be minimized.
• Help to collect correct information on production and trade
• As there are chances for giving tax subsidy it promotes exports.
• Easy to introduce tax is not concentrated in a place alone.

Disadvantages:

• Tax collection is expensive
• Not a simple tax system, especially for developing countries.
• Success depends on the co-operation of tax collectors.
• Chance of small purchase exist.
• Difficult for small traders as they have to keep correct accounts.
• Everybody has to keep correct accounts.

Question 15.
Give a brief accounts on non- tax re venue ?
Answer:
Fees Fees is the reward collected for the governments services. License fee, registration fee, tuition fee, etc. are the examples.

Fine and penalties :- Fines and penalties are punishments for violating the laws.

Grants:- Grants are the financial aid provided by one government to another. For example grants are provided by central and state goveminent to local self Governments.

Interest:- Interest is the amount received for the loans provided by the government to various enterprises, agencies and countries.

Profit:- Profit is the income received from the enterprises operated by the government.
For example profit from the Indian railways.

Question 16.
Explain about various indirect taxes in India?
Answer:
Excise duty :- Tax imposed at the production stage of a commodity.
Customs duty :- Imposed on import and export of products.
Service tax :- The tax imposed on services called service tax.

Question 17.
What is surcharge?
Answer:
Additional tax imposed on tax is called surcharge. Generally surcharge is imposed for a specific period.

Question 18.
What do you mean by Cess?
Answer:
Additional tax imposed by the government for certain specific purpose is called Cess. Cess will be discontinued when enough money is received.

Question 19.
Give a brief account on taxes imposed by the central, the state, and the local self government
Answer:
Central Government:

• Corporate tax
• Personal income tax
• Union excise duty

State Government:

• Value added tax
• Stamp duty
• State excise duty
• Land tax

Local Self Government:

• Property tax
• Professional tax
• Entertainment tax.

Question 20.
Increase in tax rate leads to increase in the price of commodities. Which of the following will you recommend for tax imposition ? Why ? Gold jeweler, Diamond jeweler, Life saving medicines, Petroleum products, Salt, Luxury cars.
Answer:
I will recommend to impose tax on gold jeweler, Diamond jeweler and luxury cars. I will not recommend to impose tax on petroleum product, salt, life saving medicines etc because they are essential commodities. The price of there will increase as a result of tax imposition and it will affect the standard of living of the common people. .

Question 21.
Classify the following taxes into Direct and Indirect taxes.
1. Agricultural tax,
2. Entertainment tax,
3. Profes-sional tax,
4. Income tax,
5. Customs duty,
6. Excise duty – Land tax,
7. Property tax,
8. Vehicle tax.
Answer:
Direct tax :-
Income tax, Agricultural tax, Professional tax, Land tax, Property tax, Vehicle tax.

Indirect tax :-
Customs duty, Excise duty, Entertainment tax, Service tax.

Question 22.
High rate is imposed on liquor and drugs, What is the objective behind this ?
Answer:
By imposing high tax on liquor and drug the government get high income, and spend it for social welfare. Now a days the number of ; people, using drugs are increased. Through , imposing high tax on liquor and drug the government brings a social control, that is the j aim of the government is social welfare with j increased income.

Question 23.
Grant is an example of non- tax revenue to government. Identify the other non-tax sources of Income to a government ?
Answer:
Profit :- Central government gets profits from public sector undertakings like Railways, BSNL etc. The state government receives pro fit from state enterprises like KSFE, KEL- TRONetc.

Income from public property :- It includes rent for government owned land and rent for govt buildings.

Payments for government service :- Tuition fee registration fee and license fee etc.

Debts :- Internal and external borrowings

Fines :- Government imposes a fine upon who violate some rules. This is a source of income of the government.

Question 24.
What are public debt? Write two types of public debt ?
Answer:
The loans taken by the government is called public debt. Internal debt and external debt are the two kinds of public debt.

Question 25.
Distinguish between Internal debt and external debt
Answer:
internal debt :- The loans availed by the government from individuals and institution with in the country.

External debt :- The loans availed from foreign governments and international institutions.

Question 26.
Given below is the table indicating the internal and external debt of India from 2010-11 to 2015-16.

Question 27.
How much did public debt increase in 2015-16 compared to 2010-11 ? What conclusion can be arrived at while comparing internal debt with external debt?
Answer:

• 2678921 crores.
• Internal debt is more than external debt.

Question 28.
What are the reason for the increase in Indian public debt ?
Answer:

• Increased defense expenditure.
• Expense on educator and other service. Social welfare activities
• Developmental activities
• Urbanization
• Increase in import
• Unemployment benefit
• Expenses for periodic elections.
• To meet loss caused by natural calamities.

Question 29.
Apart from internal and external debt what are the various kinds of debts ?
Answer:
Productive debt and unproductive debt :- If the borrowed amount is used for productive purposes it is known as productive debt. Unproductive debt includes expenses like war finance and covering budgetary deficit. Compulsory and voluntary debt Compulsory debt is done in times of war, inflation etc. If the people are free to buy or not to buy the bonds debentures issued by the government. It is voluntary debt.

Redeemable and Irredeemable debt :- Redeem able debts are repaid with in a specific period of time. It there is no time limit for repayment it is redeemable debt.

Funded and Unfunded debt :- Funded debts are taken for a long period and for specific purpose. Short term debts are called unfunded debts.

Question 30.
What is public finance ?
Answer:
Public finance is the branch of economics that relates to public income, public expenditure and public debt. Public finance is presented through the budget.

Question 31.
Define the term budget ?
Answer:
Budget is the financial statement showing the expected income and expenditure of the government during a financial year. In India, financial year is from April 1 to March 31.

Question 32.
What are the three types of Budget
Answer:

• Surplus budget
• Deficit budget
• Balanced budget

Question 33.
Fill in those aspects which are missing in facts related with budget
1. Budget deficit :- Total budget expenditure …………..
2. Revenue deficit :- Revenue expense ………………
3. Surplus Budget :- Expenditure ………………..
4. ………………. = Budget deficit+borrowing
Answer:

• Total budget income
• Revenue income
• Income
• Fiscal deficit

Question 34.
What are the various aims of budget?
Answer:

• To ensure accountability
• To serve as a tool of management for controlling administration.
• To help economic planning.
• To work as a method for collection public fund.
• To work as a basis for public welfare.
• As a tool for policy formulation to government.
• To work as a source of information to the public about government programmes.

Question 35.
Distinguish between inflation and deflation.
Answer:
A general rise in price of commodities is called inflation. A general fall in price of commodities is called deflation.

Question 36.
What is fiscal policy ? Explain is main goals. The policy relating to taxes, public expenditure and borrowings is known as fiscal policy.
Answer:
Goals:

• Attain economic stability
• Create employment opportunities.
• Control Unnecessary expenditure
• Economic development of a nation.
• Control monopoly.
• Increase employment opportunities
• Eradication of poverty
• Maintain equilibrium in international trade
• Reducing economic inequality

Question 37.
The following are the features related to certain taxes. Find out the type of taxes.
a. Taxes burden is not to the tax payer.
b. Tax payer himself bears the burden of tax
Answer:
a. Indirect tax
b. Direct tax

Question 38.
How do fiscal policy controls inflation and deflation of a country.
Answer:
The tax rate is increased when there is inflation as a result of this purchasing power of the people falls. Tax is reduced when there is deflation.This will increase purchasing power of the people. So the demand for the products increases. The timely application of fiscal policy helps the government.