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Students can Download Chapter 5 Introduction to C++ Programming Questions and Answers, Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 5 Introduction to C++ Programming

Plus One Introduction to C++ Programming One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
IDE means _____________
Answer:
Integrated Development Environment

Question 2.
We know that C++ is a high level language. From the following which statement is true.
(a) C++ contains English like statements.
(b) C++ contains mnemonics
(c) C++ contains only 0 and 1
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) C++ contains English like statements.

Question 3.
C++ is a ______ language.
(a) High level
(b) Low level
(c) Middle level
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) High level

Question 4.
C++ was developed at ___________
(a) AT & T Bell Laboratory
(b) Sanjose Laboratory
(c) Kansas University Lab
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) AT & T Bell Laboratory

Question 5.
C++ is a successor of ___________ language
(a) C#
(b) C
(c) java
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) C

Question 6.
The most adopted and popular approach to write programs is __________
Answer:
Structured programming

Question 7.
From the following which uses OOP concept
(a) C
(b) C++
(c) Pascal
(d) Fortran
Answer:
(b) C++

Question 8.
______________ is the smallest individual unit
Answer:
Token

Question 9
Pick the odd one out
(a) float
(b) void
(c) break
(d) Alvis
Answer:
(d) Alvis, the others are keywords.

Question 10.
Reserved words for the compiler is ____________
(a) Literals
(b) Identifier
(c) Keywords
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Keywords

Question 11.
Pick an identifier from the following
(а) auto
(b) age
(c) float
(d) double
Answer:
(b) age

Question 12.
Pick the invalid identifier
(a) name
(b) Date of birth
(c) age
(d) joining time
Answer:
(b) Date of birth, because it contains space.

Question 13.
Pick the octal integer from the following
(a) 217
(b) 0 X 217
(c) 0217
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) 0217, an octal integer precedes 0

Question 14.
Pick the hexadecimal integer from the following
(a) 217
(b) 0 × 217
(c) 0217
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 0 × 217, a hexadecimal integer precedes 0×

Question 15.
From the following pick a character constant
(a) ‘A’
(b) ‘ALL’
(c) ‘AIM’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) ‘A’, a character enclosed between single quote

Question 16.
Non graphic symbol can be represented by using ___________
Answer:
Escape Sequence

Question 17.
Manish wants to write a program to produce a beep sound. Which escape sequence is used to get an alert (sound)
(a) \a
(b) \d
(c) Vs
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) \a.

Question 18.
Ajo wants to print a matter in a new line. Which escape sequence is used for this?
(a) \a
(b) \n
(c) \s
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) \n

Question 19.
To represent null character is used ______
(a) \n
(b) \0
(c) \f
(d) As
Answer:
(b) \0

Question 20.
State True/ False a string is automatically appended by a null character.
Answer:
True

Question 21.
From the following pick a string constant
(a) ‘a’
(b) “abc”
(c) ‘abc’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) “abc”, a character constant must be enclosed between double quotes.

Question 22.
C++ was developed by __________
(a) Bjarne Stroustrup
(b) James Gosling
(c) Pascal
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Bjarne stroustrup

Question 23.
From the following which is not a character constant.
(а) ‘c’
(b) ‘e’
(c) ‘d’
(d) “c”
Answer:
(d) “c”, It is a string constant the others are character constant.

Question 24.
From the following which is a valid declaration.
(a) int 91;
(b) int x;
(c) int 9x;
(d) int “x”;
Answer:
(b) int x;

Question 25.
Symbols used to perform an operation is called ____________
(a) Operand
(b) Operator
(c) Variable
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Operator

Question 26.
Consider the following
C = A + B. Here A and B are called
(a) Operand
(b) Operator
(c) Variable
(d) None of these,
Answer:
(b) Operand

Question 27.
The execution of a program starts at ________ function
Answer:
main()

Question 28.
The execution of a program ends with ________ function
Answer:
main()

Question 29.
______ is used to write single line comment
(a) //
(b) /*
(c) */
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) //

Question 30.
const k = 100 means
(a) const float k = 100
(b) const double k = 100
(c) const int k = 100
(d) const char k = 100
Answer:
(c) const int k = 100

Question 31.
Each and every statement in C++ must be end with ________
(а) Semicolon
(b) Colon
(c) full stop
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Semicolon

Question 32.
From the following select the input operator
(а) >>
(b) <<
(c) >
(d) <
Answer:
(a) >>

Question 33.
From the following select the output operator
(a) >>
(b) <<
(c) >
(d) <
Answer:
(b) <<

Question 34.
From the following which is known as a string terminator.
(а) ‘\0’
(b) ‘\a’
(c) ‘As’
(d) ‘\t’
Answer:
(a) ‘\0’

Question 35.
Adeline wrote a C++ program namely sum.cpp and she compiled the program successfully with no error. Some files are generated. From the following which file is a must to run the program
(a) sum.exe
(b) sum.obj
(c) sum.vbp
(d) sum.htm
Answer:
(a) sum.exe

Question 36.
Adeline wrote a C++ program namely sum.cpp and she compiled the program successfully with no error. Some files are generated namely sum.obj and sum.exe. From this which file is not needed to run the program
Answer:
sum.obj is not needed and can be deleted.

Question 37.
From the following which is ignored by the compiler
(a) statement
(b) comments
(c) loops
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) comments

Question 38.
To write a C++ program, from the following which statement is a must
(a) sum()
(b) main()
(c) #include<iostream>
(d) #include<iomanip>
Answer:
(b) main(). A C++ program must contains at least one main() function

Question 39.
State True / False
Comment statements are ignored by the compiler
Answer:
True

Question 40.
More than one input/output operator in a single statement is called _______
Answer:
Cascading of I/O operator

Question 41.
Is 0X85B a valid integer constant in C++? If yes why?
Answer:
Yes. It is a hexadecimal number.

Plus One Introduction to C++ Programming Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Dixon declared a variable as follows
int 9age. Is it a valid identifier. If not briefly explain. the rules for naming an identifier.
Answer:
It is not a valid identifier because it violates the rule
The rules for naming an identifier is as follows:

1. It must be start with a letter(alphabet)
2. Under score can be considered as a letter
3. White spaces and special characters cannot be used.
4. Key words cannot be considered as an identifier

Question 2.
How many bytes used to store ‘\a’.
Answer:
To store ‘\a’ one byte is used because it is an escape sequence. An escape sequence is treated as one character. To store one character one byte is used.

Question 3.
How many bytes used to store “\abc”.
Answer:
A string is automatically appended by a null character.

• Here one byte for \a (escape sequence).
• One byte for character b.
• One byte for character c.
• And one byte for null character.
• So a total of 4 bytes needed to store this string.

Question 4.
How many bytes used to store “abc”.
Answer:
A string is automatically appended by a null character.

• Here one byte for a.
• One byte for character b.
• One byte for character c.
• And one byte for null character.
• So a total of 4 bytes needed to store this string.

Question 5.
Consider the following code
int main()
{
cout<<“welcome to C++”;
}
After you compile this program there is an error called prototype error. Why it is happened? Explain.
Answer:
Here we used the output operator cout<<. It is used to display a message “welcome to C++” to use this operator the corresponding header file <iostream> must be included. We didn’t included the header file hence the error.

Question 6.
In C++ the size of the string “book” is 5 and that of “book\n” is 6. Check the validity of the above statement. Justify your answer.
Answer:
A string is automatically added by a null character(\0). The null character is treated as one character. So the size of string “book” is 5. Similarly, a null character (\0) is also added to “book\n”. \n and \0 is treated as single characters. Hence the size of the string “book\n” is 6.

Question 7.
Pick the odd man out. Justify
TOTSAL, TOT_SAL, totsal5, Tot5_sal, SALTOT, tot.sal
Answer:
tot.sal. Because it contains a special character dot(.). An identifier cannot contain a special character. So it is not an identifier. The remaining satisfies the rules of naming identifier. So they are valid identifiers.

Question 8.
Write a C++ statement to print the following sentence. Justify.
“\ is a special character”
answer:
cout<<“\\ is a special character”
\\ is treated as an escape sequence.

Question 9.
A student type a C++ program and saves it in his personal folder as Sample.cpp. After getting the output of the program, he checks the folder and finds three files namely Sample.cpp, Sample.obj and Sample.exe. Write the reasons for the generation of the two files in the folder.
Answer:
After the compilation of the program sample.cpp, the operating system creates two files if there is no error. The files are one object file (sample.obj) and one executable file(sample.exe). Now the source file(sample.cpp) and object file(sample.obj) are not needed and can be deleted. To run the program sample.exe is only needed.

Question 10.
Mention the purpose of tokens in C++. Write names of any four tokens in C++. (2)
Answer:
Token: It is the smallest individual units similar to a word in English or Malayalam language. C++ has 5 tokens.

1. Keywords
2. Identifier
3. Literals (Constants)
4. Punctuators
5. Operators

Question 11.
The following are some invalid identifiers. Specify its reason.

1. Sum of digits
2. 1 year
3. First jan
4. For

Answer:

1. Sum of digits → space not allowed hence it is invalid
2. 1 year → First character must be an alphabet hence it is invalid
3. First.jan → special characters such as dot (.) not allowed hence it is invalid.
4. For → It is valid. That is it is not the keyword for

Question 12.
Some of the literals in C++ are given below. How do they differ?(5, ‘5’, 5.0, “5”)
Answer:

• 5 – integer literal
• ‘5’ – Character literal
• 5.0 – floating point literal
• “5”- string literal

Question 13.
Identify the invalid literals from the following and write reason for each:

1. 2E3.5
2. “9”
3. ‘hello’
4. 55450 (2)

Answer:
1. 2E3.5 → The mantissa part (3.5) will not be a floating point number. Hence it is invalid

3. ‘hello’ → It is a string hence it must be enclosed in double quotes instead of single quotes. It is invalid.

Question 14.
Which one of the following is a user defined name?
(a) Keyword
(b) Identifier
(c) Escape sequences
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Identifier

Question 15.
Identify whether the following are valid identifiers or not? If not give the reason.

1. Break
2. Simple.interest (2)

Answer:

1. Break – It is valid( break is the keyword, not Break);
2. Simple.interest – It is not valid, because dot(.) is used.

Question 16.
Identify the invalid literals from the following and write a reason for each:

1. 2E3.5
2. “9”
3. ‘hello’
4. 55450 (2)

Answer:
1. Invalid, because exponent part should not be a floating point number

2. valid

Plus One Introduction to C++ Programming Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Rose wants to print as follows
\n is used for New Line. Write down the C++ statement for the same.
Answer:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout<<“\\n is used for New Line”;
}

Question 2.
Alvis wants to give some space using escape sequence as follows
Welcome to C++. Write down the C++ statement for the same
Answer:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout<<“Welcome to \t C++”;
}

Question 3.
We know that the value of pi = 3.14157, a constant (literal). What is a. constant? Explain it.
Answer:
A constant or a literal is a data item its value doe not change during execution.
1. Integer literals:
Whole numbers without fractional parts are known as integer literals, its value does not change during execution. There are 3 types decimal, octal and hexadecimal.
Eg. For decimal “100, 150, etc

• For octal 0100, 0240, etc
• For hexadecimal 0 × 100, 0x1 A, etc

2. Float literals:
A number with fractional parts and its value does not change during execution is called floating point literals.
eg: 3.14157,79.78, etc

3. Character literal:
A valid C++ character enclosed in single

Question 4.
Write a program to print the message “TOBACCO CAUSES CANCER” on screen.
Answer:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
cout<<” TOBACCO CAUSES CANCER”;
}

Question 5.
You are supplied with a list of tokens in C++ program, Classify and Categorise them under proper headings.
Explain each category with its features. tot_mark, age, M5, break, (), int, _pay, ;, cin.
Answer:

Question 6.
Write a program to print the message “SMOKING IS INJURIOUS TO HEALTH” on screen.
Answer:
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int mainO
{
cout<<” SMOKING IS INJURIOUS TO HEALTH”;
}

Plus One Introduction to C++ Programming Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Consider the following code
The new line character is \n. The output of the following code does not contain the \n. Why it is happened? Explain.
Answer:
\n is a character constant and it is also known as escape sequence. This is used to represent the non graphic symbols such as carriage return key(enter key), tab key, backspace, space bar, etc. It consists of a backslash symbol and one more characters.

Question 2.
You are about to study the fundamentals of C++ programming Language. Do a comparative study of the basics of the new language with that of a formal language like English or Malayalam to familiarize C++? Provide sufficient explanations for the compared items in C++ Language.
Answer:
1. Character set:
To study a language first we have to familiarize the character set. For example, to study English language first we have to study the alphabets. Similarly here the character set includes letters(A to Z & a to z), digits(0 to 9), special characters(+, -, ?, *, /, …..) white spaces(non printable), etc.

2. Token:
It is the smallest individual units similar to a word in English or Malayalam language. C++ has 5 tokens

• Keywords: These are reserved words for the compiler. We can’t use for any other purposes.
  Eg: float is used to declare variable to store numbers with decimal point. We can’t use this for any other purpose
• Identifier: These are user defined words. Eg: variable name, function name, class name, object name, etc…
• Literals (Constants): Its value does not change during execution
  eg: In maths % = 3.14157 and boiling point of water is 100.
• Punctuators: In English or Malayalam language punctuation mark are used to increase the readability but here it is used to separate the tokens.
  eg:{,}, (,), ……..
• Operators: These are symbols used to perform an operation(Arithmetic, relational, logical, etc…).

Students can Download Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Questions and Answers, Plus One Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Chemistry Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Plus One Chemistry Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The octet rule is not valid for
a) CO₂
b)H₂O
c) O₂
d) CO
Answer:
d) CO

Question 2.
The stability of an ionic crystal depends principally on
a) High electron gain enthalpy of the anion forming species
b) The lattice enthalpy of the crystal
c) Low ionization enthalpy of the cation forming species
d) Low heat of sublimation of cation forming solid
Answer:
b) The lattice enthalpy of the crystal

Question 3.
Which of the following molecules has highest dipole moment?
a) H₂S
b)CO₂
c) CCl₄
d) BF₃
Answer:
a) H₂S

Question 4.
The d-orbital involved in sp3d hybridization is .
Answer:
d_z²

Question 5.
Which of the following is paramagnetic and has a bond order of ½?

Answer:
H₂⁺

Question 6.
Dipole moment µ electric charge ‘e’ and bond length ‘d’are related by the equation.
Answer:
M = e x d

Question 7.
In which of the following carbon atom is sp2 hybridised?
a) CO₂
b) C₂H₆
c) C₆H₆
d) HCN
e) \(C{ H }_{ 3 }-C\equiv CH\)
Answer:
C₆H₆

Question 8.
AgF is ionic whereas Agcl is covalent. This can be explained by
Answer:
Faja’ens Rule

Question 9.
The shape of covalent molecule CIF₃ is _________
Answer:
T – shaped

Question 10.
The C – O bond order in CO₃^2- is
Answer:
1.33

Plus One Chemistry Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The order of repulsion of electron pairs as written by student is given below:
lone pair-lone pair repulsion < lone pair-bond pair repulsion>bond pair-bond pair repulsion.
1. Can you see anything wrong in this?
If yes, correct it.
2. Name the theory behind this.
Answer:
1. Yes.
Repulsion decreases in the order: lone pair-lone pair repulsion>lone pair-bond pair repulsion> bond pair-bond pair repulsion,

2. VSEPR theory

Question 2.
During a small group discussion in the class room a student argued that in acetylene both the carbon atoms are in sp3 hybridised state.

1. What is your opinion?
2. What is the bond angle between carbon atoms in acetylene?

Answer:

1. The student’s argument is wrong. In acetylene both the carbon atoms are triple bonded and are in sp hybridised state,
2. 180°

Question 3.
Classify the following compounds according to their hybridisation.
CH₄, BF₃, C₂H₄, BeF₂, C₂H₂
Answer:
sp³ hybridisation – CH₄
sp² hybridisation – BF₃, C₂H₄
sp hybridisation – BeF₂, C₂H₂

Question 4.
A student arranged the halide ions in the increasing order of polarisability as: F < l < CI < Br
1. Is this the correct order? If not write it in correct order.
2. Justify.
Answer:
1. No.
Polarisability increases in the order: F^– < Cl^– <Br^– < l^–

2. Polarisability increases when the size of anion increases.

Question 5.
Give any two differences between sigma and pi bonds.
Answer:
Sigma bond (σ) is formed when two atomic orbitals under head-on overlapping. It is a strong bond. Pi(π) bond is formed when atomic orbitals undergo lateral (sidewise) overlapping. It is a weak bond.

Question 6.
Write the type of hybridisation of each carbon in the compound.
CH₃-CH=CH-CN
Answer:
Carbon 1 → sp³
Carbon 2 → sp²
Carbon 3 → sp²
Carbon 4 → sp

Plus One Chemistry Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.

1. What is meant by the above picture?
2. Which type of bond is present here?
3. Which type of overlapping leads to the formation of π bond?

Answer:

1. s-s overlapping
2. A strong sigma bond
3. This type of covalent bond is formed by the lateral or sidewise overlap of half-filled atomic orbitals.

Question 2.
‘In ethane there are 6 covalent bonds. Five are strong σ bonds and the remaining one is a weak π bond.’

1. Do you agree with this?
2. How is a bond different from π bond in the mode of formation?

Answer:

1. Yes.
2. Sigma bond is formed by the end to end overlapping of bonding orbitals along the internuclear axis, π bond is formed by the lateral or sidewise overlap of half filled atomic orbitals.

Question 3.
Choose the correct molecules from the given clues: H₂O, SF₆, BF₃
1. Clue -1 The central atom is in sp² hybridised state and the molecule has trigonal planar in shape. Clue-2 The bond angle is 120°
2. Clue-1 The number of electron pairs in this molecule is 6.
Clue -2 It has octahedral geometry.
3. Clue-1 The bond angle is reduced from 109° 28′ to 104.5°
Clue-2 It has a bent shape.
Answer:

1. BF₃
2. SF₆
3. H₂O

Question 4.
Give theoretical explanation for the following statements.
1. H₂S is acidic while H₂O is neutral.
2. Hydrogen chloride gas dissolves in water.
Answer:
1. S-H bond energy is less than that of O-H bond energy. So H⁺ can be easily generated from H₂S.

2. When HCl is treated with H₂O it undergoes hydrolysis as per the following reaction and dissolves.
HCl + H₂O → H₃O+ +Cl^–

Question 5.
The potential energy level diagram forthe formation of hydrogen molecule as drawn by a student is given below:

1. Resketch the graph with correct labelling.
2. How can you determine the radius of one hydrogen atom?
Answer:
1.

2. Bond length in hydrogen molecule is the intermolecular distance between two hydrogen atoms. So, half of the bond length is taken as the radius of hydrogen atom.

Question 6.
Ionisation enthalpy is one of the factors favoring the
formation of ionic bonds.
1. Will you agree with this statement?
2. Explain how?
3. Write anotherfactorfavouring the formation of ionic bonds.
Answer:
1. Yes.

2. In the formation of the ionic bond, a metal atom losses electrons to form cation. This process requires energy equal to the ionisation enthalpy. Lesser the ionisation enthalpy of the metal atom, easier will be the removal of electron from the atom to form cation and hence greater will be the tendency to form ionic bond.

3. Electron gain enthalpy of the element forming anion.

Question 7.
Complete the following table:

Answer:

Question 8.
a) The dipole moment of BF₃ is zero even though the B – F bonds are polar. Justify.
b) Give the hybridisation involved in the following compounds

1. NH₃
2. C₂H₄
3. SF₆
4. PCl₅

c) o-nitro phenol has a lower boiling point than its para isomer. Why?
Answer:
a) In BF₃, dut to the symmetric trigonal planar geometry of the molecule, the B – F bond are oriented at an angle of 120°to one another. The three bond moments give a net sum of zero as the resultant of any two is equal and opposite to the third.

b)

1. sp³
2. sp²
3. sp³d²
4. sp³d

c) In o-nitrophenol, intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present and there is no association of molecules whereas in p-nitrophenol there is inter-molecular hydrogen bonding which causes association of molecules.

Question 9.
1. How many a and n bonds are there in the following molecules i) ethane ii) acetylene?
2. BF₃ and NH₃ are tetra atomic molecules. But the shape of BF₃ is different from that of NH₃. Explain this using hybridisation.
Answer:
1. i) Ethane – 7σ bonds
ii) Acetylene-3σ bonds and 2 π bonds

2. In BF₃ molecule, the ground state electronic configuration of central boron atom is 1s²2s²2p¹. In the excited state, one of the 2s electrons is promoted to vacant 2p orbital. As a result, boron has three unpaired electrons. These three orbitals (one 2s and two 2p) hybridise to form three sp2 hybrid orbitals oriented in a trigonal planar arrangement and overlap with 2 p orbitals of F to form three B – F bonds. Therefore, BF₃ molecule has a planar geometry with FBF bond angle of 120°.

In NH₃, the valence shell electronic configuration of N in ground state is 2s² \(2p_{ x }^{ 1 }2{ p }_{ y }^{ 1 }2{ p }_{ z }^{ 1 }\). These four orbitals undergo sp³ hybridisation to form four sp³ hybrid orbitals, three of them containing unpaired electrons and the fourth one containing lone pair. The three hybrid orbitals overlap with 1 s orbitals of hydrogen atoms to form three N – H sigma bonds. Since, the bp-lp repulsion is greater than the bp-bp repulsion, the molecule gets distorted and the bond angle is reduced to 107° from 109.5°. Thus, the geometry of NH₃ molecule is trigonal pyramidal.

Question 10.
Covalent bond is formed by the overlaping of atomic orbitals.
1. What is meant by orbital overlapping?
2. What are the 3 types of overlapping?
Answer:
1. Orbital overlapping is the partial interpenetration or merging of atomic orbitals. It results in the pairing of electrons. Greater the overlap the stronger is the bond formed between two atoms.

2. s-s overlapping
s-p overlapping
p-p overlapping

Question 11.
1. Which among the following will exist He₂ or He₂⁺? Explain.
2. H₂S is a gas at ordinary condition, while H₂O is liquid. Account for the above statement.
3. State the hybridisation in the following molecules,
i) PF₆
ii) C₂H₆
Answer:
1. He₂⁺
Helium molecule contains 4 electrons. Out of this 4 electrons, 2 are present in the bonding molecular orbital and the remaining 2 are present in the anti-bonding molecular orbital.
Bond order = ½ (N_b-N_a)
= ½ (2-2) = 0
Hence, He₂ cannot exist. The molecular orbital diagram is given below:

He₂⁺ contains 3 electrons. Out of these 3 electrons, 2 are present in the σ_1s level and the remaining one is present in the σ* 1s level.
Bond order = ½ (N_b-N_a)
= ½ (2-1) = ½
Since the bond order is half the molecular ion exists but possesses low stability.

2. In H₂S, there is no hydrogen bonding whereas in water, molecular association is possible due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding.

3. i) PF₅ = sp³d hybridisation
ii) C₂H₆ = sp³ hybridisation

Question 12.
Bond order is a term commonly used in MO theory.
1. How is it calculated?
2. How is it related to bond length and bond energy?
Answer:
1. Bond order = ½ (N_b-N_a)
where N_b = No. of electrons occupying bonding orbitals and N_a = No. of electrons occupying antibonding orbitals.

2. As the bond order increases, bond length decreases and bond energy increases, i.e., bond order is directly proportional to bond energy and inversely proportional to bond length.

Question 13.
1. Explain the hybridisation and geometry of ethyne.
2. What is the difference between bonding molecular orbital and antibonding molecular orbital?
3. How the magnetic nature of a molecule is related to its electronic structure?
Answer:
1. In the formation of ethyne (C₂H₂), both the carbon atoms undergo sp hybridisation having two unhybridised orbitals (2p_x and 2p_y). One sp hybrid orbital of one carbon atom overlaps axially with sp hybrid orbital of the other carbon atom to form C-C sigma bond, while the other hybridised orbital of each carbon atom overlaps axially with the half filled s orbital of hydrogen atoms forming o bonds. Each of the two unbybridised p orbitals of both the carbon atoms overlaps sidewise to form two K bonds between the carbon atoms. Thus, ethyne has a linear geometry with π bond angle of 180°.

2. The molecular orbital which has lower energy than the atomic orbital is called bonding molecular orbital and the molecular orbital which has greater energy than the atomic orbital is called anti bonding molecular orbital.

3. If all the molecular orbitals in a molecule are doubly occupied (i.e., paired), the substance is diamagnetic (repelled by magnetic field). It one or more molecular orbitals are singly occupied (i.e., unpaired) it is paramagnetic (attracted by magnetic field).

Question 14.
Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT) is an advanced theory
of chemical bonding.
1. Write the salient features of MOT.
2. What is meant by LCAO? Illustrate using hydrogen molecule.
3. What are the conditions for the combination of atomic orbitals?
Answer:
1.

• The electrons in a molecule are present in the
  various molecular orbitals.
• The atomic orbitals of comparable energies and proper symmetry combine to form molecular orbitals.
• iii) The electron in a molecular orbital is influenced by two or more nuclei depending upon the number of atoms in the molecule.
• The number of molecular orbitals formed is equal to the number of combining atomic orbitals. When two atomic orbitals combine, two
  molecular orbitals are formed. One is known as bonding molecular orbital while the other is called antibonding molecular orbital.
• The bonding molecular orbital has lower energy and hence greater stability than the corresponding antibonding molecular orbital.
• The electron probability distribution around a group of nuclei in a molecule is given by a molecular orbital.
• The molecular orbitals are filled in accordance with the Aufbau principle obeying the Pauli’s exclusion principle and the Hund’s rule.

2. LCAO refers to the linear combination of atomic orbitals. It is an approximate method used to explain the formation of molecular obritals. Consider hydrogen molecule consisting of two atoms A and B. Each hydrogen atom has one electron in the 1s orbital. The atomic orbitals of these atoms can be represented by the wave functions ψ_A and ψ_B. Mathematically, the formation of molecular orbitals can take place by addition and by subtraction of wave functions of individual atomic orbitals.
ψ_MO = ψ_A ± ψ_B
Therefore, the two molecular orbitals σ and σ* are formed as:
σ* = ψ_A – ψ_B
The molecular orbital σ formed by the addition of atomic orbitals is called the bonding molecular orbital while the molecular orbital σ* formed by the subtraction of atomic orbital is called antibonding molecular orbital. The energy level diagram is shown below:

3.

• The combining atomic orbitals must have the same or nearly same energy.
• The combining atomic orbitals must have the same symmetry about the molecular axis.
• The combining atomic orbitals must overlap to the maximum extent.

Question 15.
Consider a reaction PCl₅(g) → PC₃(g) + Cl₂(g)
1. What is the change in hybridisation state of phosphorus?
2. Explain why does PCl₅ decomposes easily?
Answer:
1. When PCl₅ decomposes to PCl₃, the hybridisation of P changes from sp³d to sp³.

2. In PCl₅, the five sp³d orbitals of P overlap with the singly occupied p orbitals of Cl atoms to form five P-CI sigma bonds. Three P-Cl bonds which lie in one plane and make an angle of 120° with each other are called equatorial bonds. The remaining two P – Cl bonds, called axial bonds, one lie above and the other lie below the equatorial plane, make an angle of 90° with the plane. As the axial bond pairs suffer more repulsive interaction from the equatorial bond pairs, axial bonds are slightly longer and hence slightly weaker than the equatorial bonds. This makes PCl₅ molecule more reactive and hence it decomposes easily.

Question 16.
The electron dot structure (Lewis structure) of ammonia molecule is shown below:

1. Write the number of bond pairs of electrons and lone pairs of electrons in ammonia molecule.
2. The structures of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol are shown in the figure. The former is a steam volatile liquid whereas the latter is a solid. Justify your answer giving reason.

Answer:
1. Ammonia molecule contains one lone pair of electrons and 3 bond pair of electrons,

2. In o-nitrophenol, there is intramolecular hydrogen bonding and there is no molecular association. But in p-nitro phenol intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present and hence molecular association is possible.

Plus One Chemistry Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Hydrogen bonding is present in NH₃ and H₂O.
1. What is hydrogen bond?
2. What are different types of hydrogen bonds?
3. Explain the effect of hydrogen bonding.
Answer:
1. Hydrogen bond is defined as the attractive force which binds hydrogen atom of one molecule with the electronegative atom (F, O, N) of the same or another molecule.

2. Intermolecular hydrogen bond and Intramolecular hydrogen bond.

3. Compounds containing hydrogen bonds show higher melting and boiling points. Compounds whose molecules can form hydrogen bonds with water molecules are soluble in water.

Question 2.
Classify the following compounds according to their
shape.
BeF₂, BeCl₂, CH₄, BF₃, PCl₅, SF₆, SbCl₅ NH₄⁺, SiF₄, AlCl₃.
Answer:
Linear – BeF₂, BeCl₂
Trigonal planar-AlCl₃, BF₃
Tetrahedral – CH₄, NH₄⁺, SiF₄
T rigonal bipyramidal – PCl₅, SbCl₅

Question 3.
Benzene is an example of a compound exhibiting resonance.
1. What is meant by resonance?
2. Explain the resonance of ozone.
Answer:
1. When a molecule cannot be represented by a single structure but its characteristic properties can be described by two or more different structures, then the actual molecule is said to be a resonance hybrid of these canonical structures.

2. The resonance in ozone can be represented by the following structures:

According to structures I and II, there is one single bond and one double bond in ozone molecule. But experiments show that both the oxygen- oxygen bonds are equal and the bond length 128 pm) is intermediate between single (148 pm) and double bond (121 pm) lengths. Hence it is assumed that ozone is a resonance hybrid (structure III) of structures I and II.

Question 4.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 5.
In the formation of methane, carbon undergoes sp³ hybridisation.

1. What do you mean by sp³ hybridisation?
2. Give the % s-character and p-character of an sp³ hybrid orbital.
3. What is the bond angle in methane?
4. What is the geometry of methane molecule?

Answer:

1. sp³ hybridisation involves mixing up of one – s and three-p orbitals of the valence shell of an atom to form four sp³ hybrid orbitals of equivalent energies and shape.
2. Each sp³ hybrid orbital has 25% s-character and 75% p-character.
3. The angle between the sp3 hybrid orbitals in methane is 109°28′.
4. Tetrahedron.

Question 6.
Complete the following table:

Answer:

Question 7.
Fill in the blanks:

Answer:

Question 8.
Dipole moment is used to predict the shape of
molecules.
1. Justify the statement based on the shapes of CO₂ and H₂O.
2. Which is having high dipole moment? NH₃ or NF₃? Why?
Answer:
1. Carbon dioxide is a linear molecule in which the two C=0 bonds are oriented in the opposite directions at an angle of 180°. Hence the two C=0 bond dipoles cancel each other and the resultant dipole moment of CO₂ is zero. Thus CO₂ is non¬polar molecule

On the other hand, water molecule has a bent structure in which two O-H bonds are oriented at an angle of 104.5°. Therefore, the bond dipoles of two O-H bonds do not cancel each other and the molecule will have a net dipole moment (1.85D).

2. The dipole moment of NH₃ is higher than that of NF₃. In both cases, the central N atom has a lone pair whose orbital dipole points away from the N atom. In NH₃ the orbital dipole due to the lone pair is in the same direction as the resultant bond dipole of the three N-H bonds. On the other hand, in the case of NF₃, the resultant dipole of the three N-F bonds is in the opposite direction to the orbital dipole due to the lone pair. Thus, the orbital dipole due to the lone pair decreases the effect of the resultant N-F bond moments, which results in the low dipole moment of NF₃.

Question 9.
The geometry of a covalent molecule is related to the hybridisation involved in the central atom. Complete the following table:

Answer:

Question 10
Depending upon the type of overlapping, covalent bonds are of two types.
a) Name them and give any two difference between them.
b) Find the total number of these two types of bonds ’ in propane and 2-butene.
Answer:
a) Sigma (σ) bond and pi (π) bond.
Sigma (σ) bond:
This type of covalent bond is formed by the end to end overlapping of half-filled atomic orbitals along the internuclear axis. The overlap is also known as head on overlap or axial overlap. The electrons constituting sigma bond are called sigma electrons.

Pi (π) bond:
This type of covalent bond is formed by the lateral or sidewise overlap of half-filled atomic orbitals. The atomic orbitals overlap in such a way that their axes remain parallel to each other and perpendicularto the internuclear axis.
b) 10 σ bond in propane
11 σ bond and 1π bond in 2-butene

Plus One Chemistry Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure NCERT Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the formation of a chemical bond. (2)
Answer:
According to Kossel-Lewis approach, the formation of chemical bond between the two atoms takes place either by the transference of electrons or by mutual sharing of electrons. However, according to the modem view the formation of chemical bond between the two approaching atoms occurs only if there is a net decrease of energy because of attractive and repulsive forces.

Question 2.
Write the favourable conditions for the formation of ionic bond. (2)
Answer:
Ionic bond is formed by transference of electrons from one atom to another. The favourable conditions for its formation are:

• Low ionisation enthalpy of element forming cation.
• More negative value of electron gain enthalpy of element forming the anion and
• High value of lattice enthalpy of the compound formed.

Question 3.
Although geometries of NH₃ and H₂O molecules are distorted tetrahedral, bond angle in water is less than that in ammonia. Discuss. (2)
Answer:
The difference in bond angles is due to the different numbers of lone pairs and bond pairs in the two species. In NH₃, the N atom has two lone pairs and three bond pairs while in H₂O, the O atom has two lone pairs and two bond pairs. The repulsive interactions of lone pairs and bond pairs in water are relatively more than those in NH₃. Hence, bond angle around central atom in water is relatively smaller (104.5°) than that in NH₃ molecule (107°).

Question 4.
Is there any change in the hybridisation of B and N atoms as a result of the following reaction? (2)
BF₃ + NH₃ → F₃B.NH₃
Answer:
During combination of species BH₃ and NH₃, N atom of NH₃ is donor and B atom of BF₃ is acceptor. The hybrid state of B in BF₃ is sp² and that of N in NH₃ is sp³. In the compound F₃B⁺-NH₃^– both N and B atoms are surrounded by four bond pairs. Thus, the hyrid state of both is sp³. Hence during the reaction the hybrid state of B changes from sp² to sp³ but that of N remains the same.

Question 5.
Define hydrogen bond. Is it weaker or stronger than the van der Waals’ forces? (2)
Answer:
Hydrogen bond can be defined as the attractive force which binds hydrogen atom of one molecule with the electronegative atom (F, O or N) of another molecule. Hydrogen bond is stronger than van der Waals’forces because it is a strong dipole-dipole interaction. The van der Waals’ forces, on the other hand, are weak dispersion forces.

Students can Download Chapter 2 Data Representation and Boolean Algebra Questions and Answers, Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 2 Data Representation and Boolean Algebra

Plus One Data Representation and Boolean Algebra One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
___________ is a collection of unorganized fact.
Answer:
Data

Question 2.
Data can be organized into useful ____________
Answer:
Information

Question 3.
___________ is used to help people to make decision.
Answer:
Information

Question 4.
Processing is a series of actions or operations that convert inputs into __________
Answer:
Output

Question 5.
The act of applying information in a particular context or situation is called ____________
Answer:
Knowledge

Question 6.
What do you mean by data processing?
Answer:
Data processing is defined as a series of actions or operations that converts data into useful information.

Question 7.
Odd man out and justify your answer.
(a) Adeline
(b) 12
(3) 17
(d) Adeline aged 17 years is in class 12.
Answer:
(d) Adeline aged 17 years is in class 12. This is information. The others are data.

Question 8.
Raw facts and figures are known as _______
Answer:
data

Question 9.
Processed data is known as _______
Answer:
Information

Question 10.
Which of the following helps us to take decisions?
(a) data
(b) information
(c) Knowledge
(d) intelligence
Answer:
(b) information

Question 11.
Manipulation of data to get information is known as ___________
Answer:
Data processing

Question 12.
Arrange the following in proper order
Process, Output, Storage, Distribution, Data Capture, Input.
Answer:

1. Data Capture
2. Input
3. Storage
4. Process
5. Output
6. Distribution

Question 13.
Pick the odd one out and give reason:
(a) Calculation
(b) Storage
(c) Comparison
(d) Categorization
Answer:
(b) Storage. It is one of the data processing stage the others are various operations in the stage Process

Question 14.
Information may act as data. State true or False.
Answer:
False

Question 15.
Complete the Series.

1. (101)₂, (111)₂, (1001)₂, ……….
2. (1011)₂, (1110)₂, (10001)₂, ………

Answer:

1. 1011, 1101
2. 10101, 10111

Question 16.
What are the two basic types of data which are stored and processed by computers?
Answer:
Characters and number

Question 17.
The number of numerals or symbols used in a number system is its _______________
Answer:
Base

Question 18.
The base of decimal number system is ________
Answer:
10

Question 19.
MSD is ________
Answer:
Most Significant Digit

Question 20.
LSD is _________
Answer:
Least Significant Digit

Question 21.
Consider the number 627. Its MSD is _________
Answer:
6

Question 22.
Consider the number 23.87. Its LSD is __________
Answer:
7

Question 23.
The base of Binary number system is ___________
Answer:
2

Question 24.
What are the symbols used in Binary number system?
Answer:
0 and 1

Question 25.
Complete the following series,
(101)₂, (111)₂, (1001)₂
Answer:
1011, 1101

Question 26.
State True or False. In Binary, the unit bit changes either from 0 to 1 or 1 to 0 with each count.
Answer:
True

Question 27.
The base of octal number system is ________
Answer:
8

Question 28.
Consider the octal number given below and fill in the blanks.
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, __
Answer:
10

Question 29.
The base of Hexadecimal number system is ________
Answer:
16

Question 30.
State True or False.
In Positional number system, each position has a weightage.
Answer:
True

Question 31.
In addition to digits what are the letters used in Hexadecimal number system.
Answer:
A(10), B(11), C(12), D(13), E(14), F(15)

Question 32.
Convert (1110.01011)₂ to decimal.
Answer:
1110.01011 = 1 × 23 + 1 × 22 + 1 × 21 + 0 × 20 + 0 × 2 – 1 + 1 × 2 – 2 + 0 × 2 – 3 + 1 × 2 – 4 + 1 × 2 – 5
= 8 + 4 + 2 + 0 + 0 + 0.25 + 0 + 0.0625 + 0.03125
= (14.34375)10

Question 33.
1 KB is bytes.
(a) 2⁵
(b) 2¹⁰
(c) 2¹⁵
(d) 2²⁰
Answer:
(b) 2¹⁰

Question 34.
The base of hexadecimal number system is ________.
Answer:
16

Question 35.
A computer has no _________
(a) Memory
(b) l/o device .
(c) CPU
(d) IQ
Answer:
(d) IQ

Question 36.
Pick the odd man out.
(AND, OR, NAND, NOT)
Answer:
NOT

Question 37.
Select the complement of X + YZ.
(a) \(\bar{x}+\bar{y}+\bar{z}\)
(b) \(\bar{x} .\bar{y}+\bar{z}\)
(c) \(\bar{x} \cdot(\bar{y}+\bar{z})\)
(d) \(\bar{x}+\bar{y} \cdot \bar{z}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\bar{x} \cdot(\bar{y}+\bar{z})\)

Question 38.
Select the expression for absorption law.
(a) a + a = a
(b) 1 + a = 1
(c) o . a = 0
(d) a + a . b = a
Answer:
(a) a + a . b = a

Question 39.
What is the characteristic of logical expression?
Answer:
Logical expressions yield either true or false values

Question 40.
Name the table used to define the results of Boolean operations.
Answer:
Truth Table

Question 41.
According to ________ law, \(\bar{x}+\bar{y}=\overline{x y}\) and \(\overline{x y}=\bar{x}+\bar{y}\)
Answer:
De Morgan’s law

Question 42.
A NOR gate is ON only when all its inputs are
(a) ON
(b) Positive
(c) High
(d) OFF
Answer:
(d) OFF

Question 43.
The only function of a NOT gate is __________
Answer:
Invert an output signal

Question 44.
NOT gate is also known as _________
Answer:
Inverter

Question 45.
What is the relation between the following statements.
x + 0 = x and x . 1 = x
Answer:
One is the dual of the other expression.

Question 46.
The algebra used to solve problems in digital systems is called __________
Answer:
Boolean Algebra

Question 47.
Pick the one which is not a Basic Gate.
(AND, OR, XOR, NOT)
Answer:
XOR

Question 48.
Select the universal gates from the list. (NAND, NOR, NOT, XOR)
Answer:
NAND, NOR

Question 49.
Which is the final stage in data processing?
Answer:
Distribution of information is the final stage in data processing

Question 50.
Fill up the missing digit.
(41)₈ = ( )₁₆
Answer:

• Step 1: Divide the number into one each and write down the 3 bits equivalent.
• Step 2: Then divide the number into group of 4 bits starting from the right then write its equivalent hexa decimal.

Answer:
So the answer is 21.

Question 51.
Real numbers can be represented in memory by using __________
Answer:
Exponent and Mantissa

Question 52.
Consider the number 0.53421 x 10^-8 Write down the mantissa and exponent.
Answer:
Mantissa: 0.53421
Exponent: -8

Question 53.
Characters can be represented in memory by using _________
Answer:
ASCII Code

Question 54.
ASCII Code of A’ is __________
Answer:
(100 0001)₂ = 65

Question 55.
ASCII Code of’a’ is __________
Answer:
(110 0001)₂ = 97

Question 56.
Define the term ‘bit’?
Answer:
A bit stands for Binary digit. That means either 0 or 1.

Question 57.
Find MSD in the decimal number 7854.25
Answer:
Because it has the most weight

Question 58.
ASCII stands for __________.
Answer:
American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 59.
List any two image file formats.
Answer:
BMP, GIF

Question 60.
Name the operator which performs logical multiplication.
Answer:
AND

Question 61.
Name a gate which is ON when all its inputs are OFF .
Answer:
NAND or NOR

Question 62.
Specify the laws applied in the following cases.

1. a (b + c) = ab + ac
2. (a + b) + c = a + (b + c)

Answer:

1. Distribution law
2. Associative law

Question 63.
Pick the correct Boolean expression from the following.
(a) \(A +\bar{A}=163.\)
(b) \(\text { A. } \bar{A}=1\)
(c) \(A \cdot \overline{A B}=A + B\)
(d) A + AB = A
Answer:
(a) & (d)

Question 64.
1’s complement of the binary number 110111 is _________
Answer:
Insert 2 zeroes in the left hand side to make the binary number in the 8 bit form 00110111
To find the 1’s complement, change all zeroes to one and all ones to zero. Hence the answer is 11001000

Plus One Data Representation and Boolean Algebra Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do we store information?
Answer:
Normally large volume of data has to be given to the computer for processing so the data entry may be taken more days, hence we have to store the data. After processing these stored data, we will get information as a result that must be stored in the computer for future references.

Question 2.
What is source document.
Answer:
Acquiring the required data from all the sources for the data processing and by using this data design a document, that contains all relevant data in proper order and format. This document is called source document.

Question 3.
Briefly explain data, information and processing with real life example.
Answer:
Consider the process of making coffee. Here data is the ingredients – water, sugar, milk and coffee powder
Information is the final product i.e. Coffee Processing is the series of steps to convert the ingredients into final product, Coffee. That is mix the water,sugar and milk and boil it. Finally pour the coffee powder.

Question 4.
ASCII is used to represent characters in memory. Is it sufficient to represent all characters used in the written languages of the world? Propose a solution. Justify.
Answer:
No It is not sufficient to represent all characters used in the written languages of the world because it is a 7 bit code so it can represent 2⁷ = 128 possible codes. To represent all the characters Unicode is used because it uses 4 bytes, so it can represent 232 possible codes.

Question 5.
The numbers in column A have an equivalent number in another number system of column B.
Find the exact matvh

Answer:

Question 6.

1. Name various number systems commonly used in computers.
2. Include each of the following numbers into all possible number systems
   123 569 1101

Answer:

1. The number system are binary, octal, decimal and hexa decimal
2. All possible number systems are
   • 123 Octal, decimal and hexa decimal
   • 569 Decimal, hexa decimal
   • 1101 Binary, Octal, Decimal, Hexa decimal

Question 7.
Fill up the missing digit. (Score 2)
If (220)_a = (90)_b then (451)_a = (  )₁₀
Answer:
It contains 2 & 9, so a and b 2, b 8. The values of a can be 8 or 10. The values of b can be 10 or 16. L.H.S > R.H.S. a < b and a b also.
The possible values of a and b are given below.

Question 8.
Convert (106)₁₀ = (  )₂?
Answer:

Question 9.
Convert (106)₁₀ = (  )₈?
Answer:

Question 10.
(106)₁₀ = (  )₁₆?
Answer:

Question 11.
Convert (55.625)₁₀ = (  )₂?
Answer:
First convert 55, for this do the following

Write down the remainders from bottom to top.
(55)₁₀ = (110111 )₂
Next convert 0.625, for this do the following.

Write down the remainder from top to bottom. So the answer is
(55.625)₁₀ = (110111.101)₂

Question 12.
Convert (55.140625)₁₀ = (  )₈?
Answer:
First convert 55, for this do the following.

Write down the remainders from bottom to top.
(55)₁₀ = (67)₈
Next convert 0.140625, for this do the following.

Write down the remainders from top to bottom. So the answer is
(55.140625)₁₀ = (67.11 )₈

Question 13.
Convert (55.515625)₁₀ = (  )₁₆
Answer:
First convert 55, for this do the following.

Write down the remainders from bottom to top.
ie. (55)₁₀ = (37)₁₆
Next convert .515625

So the answer is
(55.515625)₁₀ = (37.84)₁₆

Question 14.
Convert (101.101)₂ = ( )₁₀?
Answer:
101.101 = 1 × 2² + 0 × 2¹ + 1 × 2⁰ + 1 × 2^-1 + 0 × 2^-2 + 1 × 2^-3 = 4 + 0 + 1 + 1/2 + 0 + 1/8 = 5 + 0.5 + 0.125
(101.101)₂ = (5.625)₁₀

Question 15.
Convert (71.24)₈ = (  )₁₀?
Answer:
71.24 = 7 × 8¹ + 1 × 8⁰ + 2 × 8^-1 + 4 × 8⁼²
= 56 + 1 + 2/8 + 4/82
= 57 + 0.25 + 0.0625 (71.24)8
(71.24)₈ = (57.3125)₁₀

Question 16.
Convert (AB.88)₁₆ = (  )₁₀?
Answer:

= 160 + 11 + 0.5 + 0.03125
(AB.88)₁₆ = (171.53125)₁₀

Question 17.
Convert (1011)₂ = (  )₈?
Answer:
Step I: First divide the number into groups of 3 bits starting from the right side and insert necessary zeroes in the left side.
0 0 1 | 0 1 1

Step II: Next write down the octal equivalent.

So the answer is (1011)₂ = (13)₈.

Question 18.
Convert (110100)₂ = (  )₁₆
Answer:

• Step I: First divide the number into groups of 4 bits starting from the right side and insert necessary zeroes in the left side.
• Step II: Next write down the hexadecimal equivalent.

So the answer is (110100)₂ = (34)₁₆.

Question 19.
(72)₈ = ( )₂?
Answer:
Write down the 3 bits equivalent of each digit.

So the answer is (72)₈ = (111010)₂.

Question 20.
Convert (AO)₁₆ = (  )₂ ?
Answer:
Write down the 4 bits equivalent of each digit

So the answer is (AO)₁₆ = (1010 0000)₂.

Question 21.
Convert (67)₈ = (  )₁₆?
Answer:
Step I: First convert this number into binary equivalent for this do the following

Step II: Next convert this number into hexadecimal equivalent for this do the following.

So the answer is (67)₈ = (37)₁₆

Question 22.
Convert (A1)₁₆ = (  )₈?
Answer:
Step I: First convert this number into binary equivalent. For this do the following

Step II: Next convert this number into octal equivalent. For this do the following.

So the answer is (A1)₁₆ = ( 241)₈.

Question 23.
What is the use of the ASCII Code?
Answer:
ASCII means American Standard Code for Information Interchange. It is a 7 bit code. Each and every character on the keyboard is represented in memory by using ASCII Code.
eg: A’s ASCII Code is 65 (1000001), a’s ASCII Code is 97 (1100001)

Question 24.
Pick invalid numbers from the following.

1. (10101)₈
2. (123)₄
3. (768)₈
4. (ABC)₁₆

Answer:

1. (10101)₈ – Valid
2. (123)₄ – Valid
3. (768)₈ – Invalid. Octal number system does not contain the symbol 8
4. (ABC)₁₆ – Valid

Question 25.
Convert the decimal number 31 to binary.
Answer:

(31)₁₀ = (11111)₂

Question 26.
Find decimal equivalent of (10001 )₂
Answer:

= 1 × 24 + 0 × 23 + 0 × 22 + 0 × 21 + 1 × 20
= 16 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1
= (17)₁₀

Question 27.
If (X)₈ =(101011 )₂ then find X.
Answer:
Divide the binary number into groups of 3 bits and write down the corresponding octal equivalent.

X = 53

Question 28.
Fill the blanks:
(a) (………..)₂ = (AB)₁₆
(b) (——D—–)₁₆ = (1010 1000)₂
(c) 0.25₁₀ = (—–)₂

Answer:
Write down the 4bit equivalent of each digit
(a) (………..)₂ = (AB)₁₆

= (10101011)₂
(b) (——D—–)₁₆ = (1010 1000)₂
(A D 8)₁₆ =(1010 1101 1000)₂

(c) 0.25₁₀ = (—–)₂

0.25₁₀ = (0.01)₂

Question 29.
Which is the MSB of representation of -80 in SMR?
Answer:
It is 1 because In SMR if the number is negative then the MSB is 1.

Question 30.
Write 28.756 in Mantissa exponent form.
Answer:
28.756 = .28756 × 100
= .28756 × 102
= .28756 E + 2

Question 31.
Represent -60 in 1’s complement form.
Answer:
+60 = 00111100
Change all 1 to 0 and all 0 to 1 to get the 1’s complement.
-60 is in 1’s complement is 11000011

Question 32.
Define Unicode.
Answer:
The limitations to store more characters is solved by the introduction of Unicode. It uses 16 bits so 2¹⁶ = 65536 characters(i.e, world’s all written language characters) can store by using this.

Question 33.
Substract 1111 from 10101 by using 2’s complement method.
Answer:
To subtract a number from another number find the 2’s complement of the subtrahend and add it with the minuend. Here the subtrahend is 1111 and minuend is 5 bits. So insert a zero. So subtrahend is 01111. First take the 1’s complement of subtrahend and add 1 to it

Here is a carry. So ignore the carry and the result is +ve.
So the answer is 110

Question 34.
You purchased a soap worth Rs. (10010)₂ and you gave Rs. (10100)₂ and how much rupees will you get back in binary.
Answer:
Substract (10010)₂ from (10100)₂

You will get rupees (10)₂

Question 35.
Draw the logic circuit diagram for the following Boolean expression.
Answer:

Question 36.
Simplify the expression using basic postulates and laws of Boolean algebra.

1. \(\bar{x}+x \cdot \bar{y}\)
2. \(x(y+y . z)+y(\bar{x}+x z)\)

Answer:

1. \(\bar{x}+\bar{y}\)
2. y

Question 37.
Show \(A(\bar{B}+C)\) using NOR gates only.
Answer:

Question 38.
The following statement Demorgan’s theorem of Boolean algebra. Identify and state ‘Break the line, change the sign’.
Answer:
Demorgan’s theorems,
Demorgan’s first theorem,
\(\overline{x + y}\) = \(\bar{x} . \bar{y}\)
Demorgan’s second theorem,
\(\overline{x – y}\) = \(\bar{x} + \bar{y}\)

Question 39.
Prove algebraically that
\(x \cdot y + x \cdot \bar{y} \cdot z\) = x . y + x . z
Answer:
\(x \cdot y + x \cdot \bar{y} \cdot z\) = \(x(y+\bar{y} . z)\)
= x . (y + z) = x . y + x . z
Hence proved.

Question 40.
State which of the following statements are logical statements.
(a) AND is a logical operator
(b) ADD 3 to y
(c) Go to class
(d) Sun rises in the west.
(e) Why are you so late?
Answer:
(a) and (d) are logical statements because these statements have a truth value which may be true or false.

Question 41.
Express the integer number -39 in sign and magnitude represnetation.
Answer:
First find the binary equivalent of 39 for this do the following

In sign and magnitude representation -39 in 8 bit form is (10100111)₂.

Question 42.

1. Which logic gate does the Boolean expression \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) represent?
2. Some NAND gates are given. How can we construct AND gate, OR gate and NOT gate using them?

Answer:
1. NAND

2. AND gate

Question 43.
Perform the following number conversions.

1. (110111011.11011)₂ = (….)₈
2. (128.25)₁₀= (…..)₈

Answer:
1. 110111011.11011
Step 1: Insert a zero in the right side of the above number and divide the number into groups of 3 bits as follows
110 111 011 . 110 110

Step 2: Write down the corresponding 3 bit binary equivalent of each group
6 7 3 .6 6
Hence the result is (673.66)₈

2. It consists of 2 steps.
Step 1: First convert 128 into octal number for this do the following

Write down the remainders from bottom to top.
(128)₁₀ = (200)₈

Step 2: Then convert .25 into octal number for this do the following

(0.25)₁₀ = (0.2)₈.
Combine the above two will be the result.
(128.25)₁₀= (200.2)₈

Question 44.
Represent -38 in 2’s complement form.
Answer:
+38 = 00100110
First take the 1 ’s complement for this change all 1 to 0 and all 0 to 1

2’s complement of -38 is (11011010)₈.

Plus One Data Representation and Boolean Algebra Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Differentiate manual data processing and electronic data processing?
Answer:
In manual data processing human beings are the processors. Our eyes and ears are input devices. We get data either from a printed paper, that can be read using our eyes or heard with ears. Our brain is the processor and it can process the data, and reach in a conclusion known as result. Our mouth and hands are output devices.

In electronic data processing the data is processing with the help of a computer. In a super market, key board and hand held scanners are used to input data, the CPU process the data, monitor and printers (Bill) are output devices.

Question 2.
Complete the series.

1. 3248, 3278 ,3328, …., ….
2. 5678, 5768, 605s, ……, …..

Answer:
1. (324)₈ = 3 × 82 + 2 × 81 + 4 × 80
= 3 × 64 + 2 × 8 + 4 × 1
= 192 + 16 + 4 = (212)10

(327)₈ = 3 × 82 + 2 × 81 + 7 × 80
= 192 + 16 + 7 = (215)₁₀

(332)₈= 3 × 82 + 3 × 81 +2 × 80
= 192 + 24 + 2 = (218)₁₀
So the missing terms are (221)₁₀, (224)₁₀ we have to convert this into octal.

So the missing terms are (335)₈, (340)₈

2. (567)₈ = 5 x 82 + 6 x 81 + 7 x 80
= 5 x 64 + 6 x 8 + 7 x 1
= 320 + 48 + 7 = (375)₁₀

(576)₈ = 5 x 82 + 7 x 81 + 6 x 80
= 320 + 56 + 6 = (382)₁₀

(605)₈ = 6 x 82 + 0 x 81 + 5 x 80
= 6 + 64 + 0 + 5
= 384 + 0 + 5 = (389)₁₀
So the missing terms are (396)₁₀, (403)₁₀ we have to convert this into octal.

So the missing terms are (614)₈, (623)₈

Question 3.
Fill up the missing digits.

1. (4……)₈ = (……110)₂
2. (…….7……)₈ = (100…….110)₂

Consider the following

Answer:
1. 4…….100 and 110……….6
So (46)₈ = (100 110)₂

2. 100…….4
7……111
110………6
So (476)₈ = (100 111 110)₂

Question 4.
Fill up the missing numbers.

1. (A…….)₁₆ = (……..1001)₂
2. (…….B…….)₁₆ = (1000………1111)₂

Consider the following:


Answer:
1. A……..1010
1001………9
So (A9)₁₆ = (1010 1001)₂

2. B…….1011
1000………8
1111………F
So (8BF)₁₆ = (1000 1011 1111)₂

Question 5.
Complete the Series.

1. 6ADD, 6ADF, 6AE1, ……., …….
2. 14A9, 14AF, 14B5, …….., ……

Answer:
1. Consider the sequence
6ADD, 6ADF, 6AE1, ………….
Here the ‘numbers’ are
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, A, B, C, D, E, F, 10, 11,——–
The difference between 6ADD & 6ADF is 2

Similarly 6ADF & 6AE1 is 2

So Add 2 to 6AE1 we will ge 6AE3 Then add 2 to 6AE3 we will get 6AE5 Therefore the missing terms 6AE3, 6AE5

2. Consider the sequence.
14A9, 14AF, 14B5, ———
The difference between 14A9 and 14AF is 6.
The normal sequence is

The difference between 14AF and 14B5 is also 6.

The normal sequence is

Similarly the next 6 terms in the sequence are given below.

Similarly the next 6 terms are

So the missing terms are 14BB and 14C1

Question 6.
Find the octal numbers corresponding to the following numbers using shorthand method.

1. (ADD)₁₆
2. (DEAD)₁₆

Answer:
1. (ADD)₁₆
Step 1: Write down the 4 bit binary equivalent of each digit

Step 2: Divide this number into groups of 3 bits starting from the right and write down the octal equivalent.

(ADD)(ADD)₁₆ = (5335)(ADD)₈

2. (DEAD)₁₆
Step 1: Write down the 4 bit binary equivalent of each digit.

Step 2: Divide this number into groups of 3 bits starting from the right and write down the octal equivalent.

(DEAD)₁₆ = (157255)₈

Question 7.
If (126)x = (56)y, then find x and y.
Answer:
L.H.S contains 2 & 6, so x ≠ 2
R.H.S contains 5 & 6, so y ≠ 2
L.H.S > R.H.S
So x < y and x ≠ y also The possible values of x and y are given below.

Case I:
Let x = 8 then y = 10

It is grater than (56)₁₀
so when x = 8 then y ≠ 10

case II:
let x = 8 and y = 16

Question 8.
If (102)x = (42)y then (154)x = (  )y.
Answer:
L.H.S contains 2, so x ≠ 2
R.H.S contains 5 & 4, so y ≠ 2
L.H.S > R.H.S
So x < y and x ≠ y also
The possible values of x and y are given below.

case I:
let x = 8 and y = 10

So when x = 8 then y ≠ 10

case II:
let x = 8 and y = 16

So x = 8 and y = 16
then we have fo find the hexadecimal equivalent of (154)₈ For this first convert this into binary thus again convert it into hexadecimal. First write down the 3 bit equivalent of 154.

Then divide this number into groups of 4 bits starting from the right and write down the hexa decimal equivalent.

so the result is (154)₈ = (6C)₁₆

Question 9.
Fill up the missing digit.
If (121)_a = (441)_b then (121)_b = (  )₁₀
Answer:
L.H.S. contains 2, so a ≠ 2
R.H.S. contains 4, so b ≠ 2
L.H.S. < R.H.S. So a > b and a b also.
Hence the values of a can be 10 or 16.
The values of b can be 8 or 10.
The possible values of a and b are given below.

Case I:
Let a = 16 and b = 10
(121 )₁₆ = (289)_10, so b ≠ 10

Case II:
Let a = 16 and b = 8
(121)₁₆ = (289)₁₀
(441)₈ = 4 × 8² + 4 × 8¹ + 1 × 8⁰
= 256 +32 + 1
= (289)₁₀.
So a = 16 and b = 8.
Then (121)₈ = 1 × 82 + 2 × 81 + 1 × 80
= 64 + 16 + 1 = (81)₁₀

Question 10.
Fill up the missing digit. (Score 3)
If (128)_a = (450)_b then (16)_a = (  )₁₀
Answer:
L.H.S. contains 2 & 8, so a 2 and a ≠ 8.
R.H.S. contains 4 and 5, so b ≠ 2.
L.H.S. < R.H.S. so a > b and a ≠ b also.
The possible values of a and b are given below.

Case I:
a = 16 and b = 8
(128)₁₆ = (296)₁₀
(450)₈ = (296)₁₀ So a = 16 and b = 8.
Then (16)₁₆ = 1 × 16 + 6 × 16⁰ = (22)₁₀

Question 11.
Fill up the missing digit.
(3A.6D)₁₆ = (  )₈
Answer:
Step I: Write down the 4 bits equivalent of each digit.

Step II: Divide this number into groups of 3 bit starting from the right side of the left side of the decimal point and starting from the left side of the right side of the decimal point.
So 00/111/010.011/011/010

Step III: Write the octal equivalent of each group. SO we will get. (72.332)₈.
(3A.6D)₁₆ = (72.332)₈

Question 12.
What are the various ways to represent integers in computer?
Answer:
There are three ways to represent integers in computer. They are as follows:

1. Sign Magnitude Representation (SMR)
2. 1’s Complement Representation
3. 2’s Complement Representation

1. SMR:
Normally a number has two parts sign and magnitude, eg: Consider a number +5. Here + is the sign and 5 is the magnitude. In SMR the most significant Bit (MSB) is used to represent the sign. If MSB is 0 sign is +ve and MSB is 1 sign is – ve.
eg: If a computer has word size is 1 byte then

Here MSB is used for sign then the remaining 7 bits are used to represent magnitude. So we can represent 27 = 128 numbers. But there are negative and positive numbers. So 128 + 128 = 256 number. The numbers are 0 to +127 and 0 to -127. Here zero is repeated. So we can represent 256 – 1 = 255 numbers.

2. 1 ‘s Complement Representation: To get the 1’s complement of a binary number, just replace every 0 with 1 and every 1 with 0. Negative numbers are represented using 1’s complement but +ve number has no 1’s complement.
eg: To find the 1’s complement of 21 +21 = 00010101
To get the 1 ‘s complement change all 0 to 1 and all 1 to 0.
-21 = 11101010
1’s complement of 21 is 11101010

3. 2’s Complement Representation: To get the 2’s complement of a binary number, just add 1 to its 1’s complement +ve number has no 2’s complement.
eg: To find the 2’s complement of 21 +21 =00010101
First take the 1’s complement for this change all 1 to 0 and all 0 to 1

2’s complement of 21 is 1110 1011

Question 13.
Write short notes about Unicode (3)
Answer:
It is like ASCII Code. By using ASCII, we can represent limited number of characters. But using Unicode we can represent all of the characters used in the written languages of the world.
eg: Malayalam, Hindi, Sanskrit .

Question 14.
Match the following.

Answer:
1 – b, 2 – f, 3 – a, 4 – c, 5 – d, 6 – e

Question 15.
Find the largest number in the list.

1. (1001)₂
2. (A)₁₆
3. (10)₈
4. (11)₁₀

Answer:
Convert all numbers into decimal
1. (1001)₂ = 1 × 2³ + 0 × 2² + 0 × 2¹ + 1 × 2⁰
= 8 + 0 + 0 + 1
= (9)₁₀

2.) (A)₁₆ = (10)₁₀

3. (10)₈ = 1 × 8¹+0 × 8⁰
= (8)₁₀
So the largest number is 4 – (11)₁₀

Question 16.
Subtract 10101 from 1111 by using 2’s complement method.
Answer:
To subtract a number from another number find the 2’s complement of the subtrahend and add it with the minuend. Here subtrahend is 10101 and minuend is 1111 First take the 1’s complement of subtrahend and add 1 to it.
1’s complement of 10101 is 01010 add 1 to it

Here is no carry. So the result, is -ve and take the 2’s complement of 11010 and put a -ve symbol. So 1’s complement of 11010 is 00101 add 1 to this

So the result is -00110

Question 17.
Mr. Geo purchased (10)₂ kg sugar @Rs. (110 10)₂ and (1010)₂ kg Rice @Rs. (10100)₂. So how much rupees he has to pay in decimal.
Answer:
Convert each into decimal number system multiply and sum it up.
(10)₂ = (2)₁₀

(11010)₂ = 1 × 2⁴ + 1 × 2³ + 0 × 2² + 1 × 2¹ + 0 × 2¹
= 16 +8 + 0 +2 + 0
= (26)₁₀

(1010)₂ = 1 × 2³ + 0 × 2² + 1 × 2¹ +0 × 2⁰
= 8 + 0 + 2 + 0
= (10)₂

(10100)₂ = 1 × 2⁴ + 0 × 2³ + 1 × 2² +0 × 2¹ + 0 × 2⁰
= 16 + 0 + 4 + 0 + 0
= (20)₂
therfore 2 × 26 + 10 × 20
= 52 + 200
= 252
So Mr. Geo has to pay Rs. 252/-

Question 18.
Mr. Vimal purchased a pencil @ Rs. (101)2, a pen @ Rs. (1010)2 and a rubber @ Rs. (10)2. So how much rupees he has to pay in decimal.
Answer:
Add 101 + 1010 + 10

then convert (10001)₂ into decimal
(10001)₂ = 1 × 2⁴ + 0 × 2³ + 0 × 2² + 0 × 2¹ + 1 × 2⁰
= 16 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1
= (17)₁₀
So Mr. Vimal has to pay Rs. 17/-

Question 19.
Mr. Antony purchased 3 books worth Rs. a total of (1100100)₂. Atlast he returned a book worth Rs. (11001)₂. So how much amount he has to pay for the remaining two books in decimal number sys¬tem.
Answer:

then convert (1001011 )₂ into decimal
(1001011)₂ = 1 × 2⁶ + 0 × 2⁵ + 0 × 2⁴ + 1 × 2³ + 0 × 2² + 1 × 2¹ + 1 × 2⁰
=64 + 0 + 0 + 8 + 0 + 2 + 1
= (75)₁₀
So he has to pay Rs. 75/-

Question 20.
Mr. Leones brought two products from a super market a total of Rs. (11010010)₂ and he got a dicount of Rs. (1111)₂ So how much he has to pay for this products in decimal number system.
Answer:
Substract (1111)₂ from (11010010)₂

then convert (11000011)₂ into decimal
(11000011)₂ = 1 × 2⁷ + 1 × 2⁶ + 0 × 2⁵ + 0 × 2⁴ + 0 × 2³ + 0 × 2² + 1 × 2¹ + 1 × 2⁰
=128 + 64 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 2 + 1
= (195)₁₀

Question 21.
A textile showroom sells shirts with a discount of Rs. (110010)₂ on all barads. Mr. Raju wants to buy a shirt worth Rs. (11111000)₂. So after discount how much amount he has to pay in decimal.
Answer:
Substract (110010)₂ from (11 111 000)₂

then convert (11000110)₂ into decimal
(11000110)2 = 1 × 2⁷ + 1 × 2⁶ + 0 × 2⁵ + 0 × 2⁴ + 0 × 2³ + 1 × 2² + 1 × 2¹ + 0 × 2⁰
= 128 + 64 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 4 + 2 + 0
= (198)₁₀

Question 22.
Mr. Lijo purchased a product worth Rs. (1110011)₂ and he has to pay VAT @ Rs. (1100)₂. Then calculate the total amount he has to pay in decimal.
Answer:
Add (1110011)₂ and (1100)₂

then convert (1111111)₂ into decimal
(1111111)₂ = 1 × 2⁶ + 1 × 2⁵ + 1 × 2⁴ + 1 × 2³ + 1 × 2² + 1 × 2¹ + 1 × 2⁰
= 64 + 32 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 1
= (127)₁₀

Question 23.
By using truth table, prove the following laws of Boolean Algebra.

1. Idempotent law
2. Involution law

Answer:
1. A + A = A
A = A = A

2. (A¹)¹ = A

Question 24.
Consider the logical gate diagram.

1. Find the logical expression for the circuit given.
2. Find the compliment of the logical expression.
3. Draw the circuit diagram representing the compliment.

Answer:
1. \((x+\bar{y}) \cdot z\)

2. \((\bar{x} . y)+\bar{z}\)
3.

Question 25.
Draw the logic circuit diagram for the following Boolean expression.
\(A \cdot(\bar{B} + \bar{C})+\bar{A} \bar{B} \bar{C}\)
Answer:

Question 26.
Consider a bulb with three switches x, y and z. Write the Boolean expression representing the following states.

1. All the switches x, y and z are ON
2. x is ON and y is OFF or Z is OFF
3. Exactly one switch is ON.

Answer:

1. xy . z
2. \(x \bar{y}+\bar{z}\)
3. \(x . \bar{y} . \bar{z}+\bar{x} . y . \bar{z}+\bar{x} . \bar{y} . \bar{z}\)

Question 27.
Match the following.

Answer:
i – f, ii – e, iii – d, iv – c, v – b, vi – a

Question 28.
Explain the principle of duality.
Answer:
It states that, starting with a Boolean relation, another Boolean relation can be derived by

1. Changing each OR sign (+) to a AND sign (.)
2. Changing each AND sign (.) to an OR sign (+)
3. Replacing each 0 by 1 and each 1 by 0.

The relation derived using the duality principle is called the dual of the original expression,
eg: x + 0 = x is the dual of x . 1 = x

Question 29.
Draw the circuit diagram for \(F=A \bar{B} C+\bar{C} B\) using NAND gate only.
Answer:
\(F=A \bar{B} C+\bar{C} B\)
= (A NAND (NOT B) NAND C) NAND ((NOT C) NAND B)

Question 30.
Draw a logic diagram for the function f = YZ + XZ using NAND gates only.
Answer:
f = YZ + XZ
= (Y NAND Z) NAND (X NAND Z)

Question 31.
How do you make various basic logic gates using NAND gates.
Answer:
1. AND operation using NAND gate,
A.B = (A NAND B) NAND (A NAND B)

2. OR operation using NAND gate,
A + B = (A NAND A) NAND (B NAND B)

3. NOT operation using NAND gate,
NOT A = (A NAND A)

Question 32.
Which of the following Boolean expressions are correct? Write the correct forms of the incorrect ones.

1. A + A¹ = 1
2. A + 0 = A
3. A . 1 = A
4. A . A¹ = 1
5. A + A . B = A
6. A . (A + B) = A
7. A + 1=1
8. \((\overline{\mathrm{A} . \mathrm{B}})=\overline{\mathrm{A}} . \overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
9. A + A¹B = A + B
10. A + A = A
11. A + B . C = (A+B) . (B+C)

Answer:

1. Correct
2. Correct
3. Correct
4. Wrong, A . A¹ = 0
5. Correct
6. Correct
7. Correct
8. Wrong \(\overline{\mathrm{A} . \mathrm{B}}=\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
9. Correct
10. Correct
11. Wrong, A + B . C = (A + B) . (A + C)

Question 33.
Prove algebraically that (x + y)’ . (x’ + y’) = x’ . y’
Answer:
LHS = (x + y)’ . (x’ + y’)
= (x’ . y’) . (x’ . y’)
= x’ . y’ . x’ + x’ . y’ . y’
= x’ . y’ + x’ . y’
= x ‘. y’ = RHS
Hence proved.

Question 34.
Give the complement of the following Boolean Expression.

1. (A + B) . (C + D)
2. (P + Q) + (Q + R) . (R + P)
3. (B + D’) . (A + C’)

Answer:
1. ((A+B) . (C+D))1 = (A+B)’ + (C+D)’
= A’ . B’ + C’ . D’

2. ((P+Q) + (Q+R) . (R.P))’ = (P+Q) ‘. ((Q+R) . (R+P))’
= P’ . Q’ . (Q+R)’ + (R+P)’
= P’ . Q’ . (Q’ . R’ + R’ . P’),

3. ((B+D’).(A+C’))’ = (B+D’)’0 + (A+C’)’
= B’ . D” + A’ . C”
= B’ . D + A’ . C

Question 35.
State and prove the idempotent law using truth table. Idempotent law
Answer;
Idempotent law states that

1. A + A = Aand
2. A . A = A Proof

1. A + A = A
Truth table is as follows:

ie. A + A = A as it is true for both values of A. Hence proved.

2. A . A = A
Truth table is as follows:

ie. A . A = A itself. It is true for both values of A. Hence proved.

Question 36.
State the Absorption laws of Boolean algebra with the help of truth tables.
Answer:
Absorption law states that
A + A . B = A and A . (A + B) = A
Proof:
The Truth table of the expression A + A . B=A is as follows.

Here both columns A and A + A . B are identical. Hence proved.
For A . (A + B) = A, the truth table is as follows:

Both columns A & A . (A + B) are identical. Hence proved

Question 37.
State Demorgen’s laws. Prove anyone with truth table method.
Answer:
Demorgan’s first theorem states that (A + B)’ = A’ . B’
ie. the complement of sum of two variables equals product of their complements,

The second theorem states that (A . B)’ = A’ + B’
ie. The complement of the product of two variables equals the sum of the complement of that variables.
Proof:
Truth table of first one is as follows:

From the truth table the columns of both (A + B)’ and A’ . B’ are identical. Hence proved.

Question 38.
Fill in the blanks:

1. (0.625)₁₀ = (……….)₂
2. (380)₁₀ = (……..)₁₆
3. (437)₈ = (………)₂

Answer:

1. (0.101)₂
2. (17C)₁₆
3. (100 011 111)₂

Question 39.
What do you mean by universal gates? Which gates are called Universal gates? Draw their symbols.

OR

Construct a logical circuit for the Boolean expression \(\bar{a} \cdot b+a \cdot \bar{b}\). Also write the truth table.
Answer:
Universal gates:
By using NAND and NOR gates only we can create other gate hence these gates are called Universal gate.
NAND gate:

NOR gate:

Truth table:

Logical circute:

Question 40.
Computers uses a fixed number of bits to respresent data which could be a number, a character, image, sound, video etc. Explain the various methods used to represent characters in memory.
Answer:
Representation of characters.
1. ASCII(American Standard Code for Information Interchange):
It is 7 bits code used to represent alphanumeric and some special characters in computer memory. It is introduced by the U.S. government. Each character in the keyboard has a unique number.
eg: ASCII code of ‘a’ is 97.

When you press ‘a’ in the keyboard , a signal equivalent to 1100001 (Binary equivalent of 97 is 1100001) is passed to the computer memory. 2⁷ = 128, hence we can represent only 128 characters by using ASCII. It is not enough to represent all the characters of a standard keyboard.

2. EBCDIC(Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code):
It is an 8 bit code introduced by IBM(International Business Machine). 2⁸ = 256 characters can be represented by using this.

3. ISCII(Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange):
It uses 8 bits to represent data and introduced by standardization committee and adopted by Bureau of Indian Standards(BIS).

4. Unicode:
The limitations to store more characters is solved by the introduction of Unicode. It uses 16 bits so 2¹⁶ = 65536 characters (i.e, world’s all written language characters) can store by using this.

Question 41.
Draw the logic circuit for the function
\(f(a, b, c)=a . b . c+\bar{a} . b+a . \bar{b}+a . b . \bar{c}\)

OR

Prove algebrically.
\(x . y+x . \bar{y} . z=x . y .+x . z\)
Answer:

OR

\(x \cdot y+x \cdot \bar{y} \cdot z=x \cdot(y+\bar{y} \cdot z)\)
= x . (y + z) = x . y + x . z
Hence proved.

Question 42.
Following are the numbers in various number systems. Two of the numbers are same. Identify them:

1. (310)₈
2. (1010010)₂
3. (C8)₁₆
4. (201)₁₀

OR

Consider the following Boolean expression:
(B’ + A)’ = B . A’
Identify the law behind the above expression and prove it using algebriac method.
Answer:
1. (310)₈ = 3 * 8² + 1 * 8¹ + 0 * 8⁰
= 192 + 8 + 0
= (200)₁₀

2. (1010010)₂ = 1 × 2⁶+ 0 × 2⁵ + 1 × 2⁴ + 0 × 2³ + 0 × 2² + 1 × 2¹ + 0 × 2⁰
= 64 + 0 + 16 + 0 + 0 + 2 + 0
= (82)₁₀

3. (C8)₁₆ = C × 16 + 8 × 16⁰
= 12 × 16 + 8 × 1
= 192 + 8
= (200)₁₀
Here (a) (310)₈ and (C8)₁₆ are same

OR

This is De Morgan’s law (B’ + A’) = (B’)’ . A’
= B . A’
Hence it is proved

Question 43.
Find the decimal equivalent of hexadecimal number (2D)₁₆. Represent this decimal number in 2’s complement form using 8 bit word length.
Answer:
Convert (2D)₁₆ to binary number for this write down the 4 bit binary equivalent of each number

(2D)₁₆ = (00101101 )₂
First find the 1’s complement of (00101101 )₂ and add 1 to it

Hence 2’s complement is (11010011)₂

Question 44.
Answer any one question from 15(a) and 15(b).
1. Draw the logic circuit for the Boolean expression:
\((A+\overline{B C})+\overline{A B}\)

2. Using algebraic method prove that
\(\bar{Y} \cdot \bar{Z}+\bar{Y} \cdot Z+Y \cdot Z+Y=1\)
Answer:
1.

OR

2. L.H.S. = \(\bar{Y} \cdot \bar{Z}+\bar{Y} \cdot Z+Y Z+Y\)
= \(\bar{y} \cdot(\bar{z}+z)+y \cdot(z+1)\)
= \(\bar{y}. 1+\bar{y} \cdot 1=y \cdot y=1\)

Question 45.
With the help of a neat circuit diagram, prove that NAND gate is a universal gate.
Answer:
1. AND operation using NAND gate,
A . B = (A NAND B) NAND (A NAND B)

2. OR operation using NAND gate,
A + B = (A NAND A) NAND (B NAND B)

3. NOT operation using NAND gate,
NOT A = (A NAND A)

Question 46.
Boolean expression:
\((A+\overline{B C})+\overline{A B}\)

OR

Using algebraic method, prove that
\(\bar{Y} \cdot \bar{Z}+\bar{Y} \cdot Z+Y \cdot Z+Y=1\)
Answer:

OR

= Y . Z + Y . Z + Y . Z + Y
= Y . (Z + Z) + Y . (Z + 1)
= Y . 1 + Y. 1
= Y + Y
= 1
Hence the result.

Plus One Data Representation and Boolean Algebra Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the components of Data processing.
Answer:
Data processing consists of the techniques of sorting, relating, interpreting and computing items of data in orderto convert meaningful information. The components of data processing are given below.

1. Capturing data: In this step acquire or collect data from the user to input into the computer.
2. Input: It is the next step. In this step appropriate data is extracted and feed into the computer.
3. Storage: The data entered into the computer must be stored before starting the processing.
4. Processing/Manipulating data: It is a laborious work. It consists of various steps like computations, classification, comparison, summarization, etc. that converts input into output.
5. Output of information: In this stage we will get the results as information after processing the data.
6. Distribution of information: In this phase the information(result) will be given to the concerned persons/computers.

Question 2.
Define computer. What are the characteristics?
Answer:
A computer is an electronic device used to perform operations at very high speed and accuracy.
Following are the characteristics of the computer.

1. Speed: It can perform operations at a high speed.
2. Accuracy: It produces result at a high degree of accuracy.
3. Diligence: Unlike human beings, a computer is free from monotony, tiredness, lack of concentration etc. We know that it is an electronic ma chine. Hence it can work four hours without making any errors.
4. Versatility: It is capable of performing many tasks. It is useful in many fields.
5. Power of Remembering: A computer consists of huge amount of memory. So it can store and recall any amount of information. Unlike human beings, it can store huge amount of data and can be retrieved when needed.

Disadvantages of computer:

1. No. IQ: It has no intelligent quotient. Hence they are slaves and human beings are the masters. It can’t take its own decisions.
2. No feelings: Since they are machines they have no feelings and instincts. They can perform tasks based upon the instructions given by the humans (programmers)

Students can Download Chapter 10 Applications of Computers in Accounting Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 10 Applications of Computers in Accounting

Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The physical components of computer is called as …………..
(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) Liveware
Answer:
(b) Hardware

Question 2.
Set of programs which governs the operation of a computer system is termed …………..
(a) System software
(b) Software
(c) Application of window
Answer:
(b) Software

Question 3.
A centrally controlled integrated collection of data is called ……………
(a) DBMS
(b) Information
(c) Database
Answer:
(c) Database

Question 4.
Tally is a
(a) Utility software
(b) Application software
(c) Operating system
(d) Connecting software
Answer:
(b) Application software

Question 5.
…………… is a software system that manages the creation of use of database.
(a) Database
(b) DBMS
(c) Management system
Answer:
(b) DBMS

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an output device of a computer?
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Monitor
(d) Barcode reader
Answer:
(c) Monitor

Question 7.

…………. is the storehouse of a computer.
Answer:
Memory

Question 8.
…………… are set of program designed to carry out operations for a specified application.
Answer:
Application software.

Question 9.
The output obtained from VDU (Visual Display Unit) is termed ………..
Answer:
Hard copy.

Question 10.
The part.of the computer which controls the various operations of a computer is called ………..
Answer:
Control unit.

Question 11.
………….. is temporary memory and anything stored in it will remain there a long as the system is on.
Answer:
RAM (Random Access Memory)

Question 12.
Modern computerised accounting systems are based on the concept of ………..
Answer:
Database.

Question 13.
A sequence of actions taken to transform the data into decision-useful information is called ………..
Answer:
Data processing

Question 14.
The joystick is a …….. device of a computer.
Answer:
Input.

Question 15.
VDU is also called ……….
Answer:
Monitor.

Question 16.
Complete the series using the hint given.
Hint: System analyst → Human beings → liveware
a. Windows → Operating system → ?
Answer:
Software.

Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following.

Answer:
1-b
2-e
3-d
4-c
5-a

Question 2.
What is a computer?
Answer:
Sp A computer is an electronic device that accepts data and instruction as input, stores them, process the data according to the instructions and communicate the results as output.

Question 3.
Hardware includes different devices. Name any four devices.
Answer:
Keyboard, Mouse, Monitor, Processor.

Question 4.
Redraw the given block diagram of a computer correctly:

Answer:

Question 5.
List out any four features of a computer.
Answer:

1. Highspeed
2. Large volume of data can be stored.
3. Accuracy is very high.
4. Computers are multipurpose information machine ie. versatility.

Question 6.
List out any four limitations of a computer.
Answer:

1. Computers lacks common sense.
2. Lack of decision-making skills
3. Computers have no intelligence.
4. Computers cannot make judgments based on feelings.

Question 7.
What is Accounting Information System?
Answer:
Accounting Information System (AIS) is a collection of resources (people and equipment), designed to transform financial and other data into information. Such information is organised in a manner that correct decisions can be based on it.

Question 8.
What are the basic requirements of a computerised accounting system?
Answer:
Every computerised accounting system has two basic requirements.

1. Accounting Framework: It consists of a set of principles, coding and grouping structure of accounting.
2. Operating procedure: It is a well defined operating procedure blended suitably with the operating environment of the organisation.

Question 9.
State the various essential features of an accounting report.
Answer:
The accounting report must have the following features it.

1. Relevance
2. Timelines
3. Accuracy
4. Completeness
5. Summarisation

Question 10.
Give examples of the relationship between a Human Resource Information System and MIS.
Answer:
There is a relationship between the Human Resource Information System and Management Information System, the following are the example of it.

1. Hiring employees as per the requirement.
2. Evaluating the performance of the workers.
3. Enrolling employees in benefit.

Question 11.
Give examples of two types of Operating System.
Answer:

• DOS – Disk Operating System
• Windows – Windows Operating System

Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the term ‘Liveware’.
Answer:
People interacting with computers are called Live-ware of the computer system. It consists of the following three groups.
1. System analysts:
System analysts are the people who design data. processing systems.

2. Programmers:
Programmers are the people who write programs for processing data.

3. Operators:
Operators are the people who participate in operating the computer.

Question 2.
What is the Transaction processing system? Name three components of a Transaction processing system.
Answer:
Transaction processing systems (TPS) are among the earliest computerised systems catering to the requirements of large business enterprises. The purpose of a TPS is to record, process, validate and store transactions that occur in the various functional areas of business for subsequent retrieval and usage.
TPS system has three components:

• Input-Processing-Output
• ATM facility.
• Telephone Account and Airline Seat Reservation System are examples of TPS.

Question 3.
Discuss the different types of accounting packages. The accounting packages are classified into the following categories.
Answer:
1. Ready to use accounting software:
It is relatively easier to learn and people adaptability is very high. It is suited to small/ conventional organisations. The level of secrecy is relatively low. This software offers little scope of linking to other information systems.

2. Customised Accounting software:
Helps to meet the special requirement of the user. It is suited to large and medium organisations and can be linked to the other information system.

3. Tailored:
The accounting software is generally tailored in large business organisations with multi-users and geographically scattered locations. This software requires specialised training for users. The level of secrecy is relatively high and they offer high flexibility in terms of number of users.

Question 4.
“Computers are the servants or masters of human beings.” Elucidate.
Answer:
A computer system have certain special features or advantages which in comparison to human beings become its capabilities.
The advantages of computers are as follows:

1. High speed
2. Accuracy
3. Storage of huge data
4. Versatility
5. Deligence

Even though computers possess the above-mentioned features, it suffers from the following limitations:

1. Computers lack common sense.
2. Lack of IQ
3. Lack of decision making skill
4. No feeling

Question 5.
Find out the odd one and state reasons.

1. Mouse, Monitor, Programmers, Processor.
2. DACEASY, FORTRAN, ALU, LINUX
3. Monitor, Barcode reader, Printer, Plotter

Answer:

1. Programmers, others are hardware components.
2. ALU, others are software
3. Barcode reader, others are output devices.

Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the odd one and state reason.

1. Keyboard, Mouse, Light pen, Printer
2. System Analysts, Language Processors, System software, Utility Programmes.
3. RAM, Floppy disk, Compact disk, Hard disk
4. COBOL, C++, DOS, BASIC

Answer:

1. A printer is an output unit, all others are input units.
2. System Analyst is a human ware.
3. RAM is the Internal memory unit, all others are. external memory unit.
4. DOS is an operating system, all others are computer languages.

Question 2.
Classify the following into input unit and output unit devices.
Keyboard, Mouse, VDU (Visual Display Unit), Printer, Magnetic tape, Magnetic disk, Light pen, Optical scanner, Plotter, Speech synthesiser, MICR, OCR, Barcode reader, Smart card reader, Speaker, LCD projector.
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the generic consideration before sourcing accounting software?
Answer:
The following factors are considered before sourcing accounting software:

1. Flexibility
2. Cost of installation and maintenance
3. Size of organisation
4. Ease of adaptation and training needs
5. Utilities / MIS reports
6. Expected level of secrecy (Software and data)
7. Exporting/importing data facility
8. Vendors reputation and capability

Question 4.
Classify the following components as Hardware, soft-ware and liveware.

1. Programmers
2. Keyboard
3. Windows or Linux
4. COBOL or C++
5. Mouse
6. Assembler or Compiler
7. Operators
8. Virus/Antivirus/ Scanners
9. Monitor
10. Processor
11. System Analysts
12. MS-Excel or MS Office

Answer:
a. Hardware:

• Keyboard
• Mouse
• Monitor
• Processor

b. Software:

• Windows or Linux (Operating System)
• COBOL or C++ (Computer Language)
• Assembler or Compilers (Language processor)
• Virus/Antivirus and Scanner (Utility programs)
• MS Excel or MS Office

c. Liveware:

• System analyst
• Programmers
• Operators

Question 5.
Complete the following diagrams showing the functional relationship of the various components of computers.

Answer:
a. Input devices:

1. Keyboard
2. Mouse
3. Light pen

b. Output devices:

1. Monitor
2. Printers
3. Plotters

c. CPU:

1. Memory unit
2. ALU
3. Control unit

d. Secondary storage devices:

1. Floppy disk
2. Hard disk
3. Optical disk

Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Computerised Accounting is different from Manual accounting. Explain.
Answer:
Computerised accounting is different from manual accounting, the following are the main difference between these two:

Plus One Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the elements of a computer system?
Answer:
A computer system is a combination of six elements. They are as follows:
1. Hardware:
The physical components of a computer system is termed as Hardware. Eg: Mouse, Keyboard, Monitor, Processor, etc.

2. Software:
Set of programs that govern the operations of a computer system is termed as soft-ware. There are six types of software as follows.

1. Application software
2. Operating system
3. Utility programs
4. Language processors
5. System software
6. Connectivity software

3. People:
People interacting with computers are also called the “live-wave” of the computer system. It consists of the following three groups.

1. System analysis
2. Programmers
3. Operators

4. Procedures:
The procedure means a series of operations in a certain order or manner to achieve desired results. There are three types of procedures which constitute part of computer system

1. Hardware oriented
2. Software oriented
3. Internal procedure

5. Data:
These are facts and may consist of numbers, text, etc. These are gathered and entered into a computer system.

6. Connectivity:
Tie manner in which a particular computer system is connected to others says through telephone lines, microwave transmission, satellite, etc. is the element of connectivity.

Question 2.
Define computerised accounting. List out various advantages and limitations of computerised accounting system.
Answer:
A computerised accounting system is an accounting information system that processes financial transactions and events to produce reports as per user requirements.
a. Advantages:

1. Speed
2. Accuracy
3. Reliability
4. Efficiency
5. Storage and Retrieval
6. Automated document production
7. Quality reports
8. Real-time user interface

b. Limitations:

1. Huge training costs
2. Staff opposition
3. System failure
4. Breaches of security
5. Inability to check unanticipated errors

Students can Download Chapter 4 Principles of Programming and Problem Solving Questions and Answers, Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 4 Principles of Programming and Problem Solving

Plus One Principles of Programming and Problem Solving One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The process of writing program is called _______.
Answer:
programming or coding

Question 2.
One who writes program is called _________
Answer:
Programmer

Question 3.
The step by step procedure to solve a problem is known as ________
Answer:
Algorithm

Question 4.
Diagrammatic representation of an algorithm is known as __________
Answer:
Flow Chart

Question 5.
Program errors are known as _________
Answer:
bugs

Question 6.
Process of detecting and correcting errors is called ________
Answer:
debugging

Question 7.
Mr. Ramu represents an algorithm by using some symbols. This representation is called _______.
Answer:
Flow Chart

Question 8.
Your computer teacher asked you that which symbol is used to indicate beginning or ending flow chart? What is your answer?
(a) Parallelogram
(b) Rectangle
(c) Oval
(d) Rhombus
Answer:
(c) Oval

Question 9.
You are suffering from stomach ache. The doctor prescribes you for a scanning. This process is related in a phase in programming. Which phase is this?
Answer:
Problem identification

Question 10.
Your friend asked you a doubt that to draw a flow chart parallelogram is used for what purpose?
Answer:
To input/output

Question 11.
Mr. Anil wants to perform a multiplication which symbol is used to represent in a flow chart.
Answer:
It is a processing so rectangle is used

Question 12.
Mr. George wants to check a number is greater than zero and to perform an operation while drawing a flow chart which symbol is used for this?
Answer:
Rhombus

Question 13.
ANSI means ________
Answer:
American National Standards Institute

Question 14.
To indicate the flow of an operation which symbol is used to draw a flow chart.
Answer:
Flow lines with arrow heads

Question 15.
Mr. Johnson is drawing a flow chart but it is not fit in a single page. Which symbol will help him to complete the flow chart?
Answer:
Connectors

Question 16.
Mr. Ravi developed a s/w student information system, He wants to protect the s/w from unauthorized copying. There is an act what is it?
Answer:
Copy right act

Question 17.
Odd man out.
(а) Parallelogram
(b) Oval
(c) Rectangle
(d) Star
Answer:
(d) Star, others are flowchart symbols

Question 18.
Odd man out
(a) Oval
(b) Rhombus
(c) Connector
(d) Triangle
Answer:
(d) Triangle, Others are flowchart symbols

Question 19.
Raju wrote a program and he wants to check the errors and correct if any? What process he has to do for this?
Answer:
debugging

Question 20.
Odd one out.
(a) Problem identification
(b) Translation
(c) debugging
(d) copyright
Answer:
(d) Copy right, others are phases in programming

Question 21.
Odd man out.
(a) syntax error
(b) logical error
(c) Runtime error
(d) printer error
Answer:
(d) Printer error, Others are different types of errors

Question 22.
A computerized system is not complete after the execution and testing phase? What is the next phase to complete the system?
Answer:
Documentation.

Question 23.
Mr. Sathian takes a movie DVD from a CD library and he copies this into another DVD without permission. This process is called _______________
Answer:
Piracy

Question 24.
Mr. Santhosh purchased a movie DVD and he takes several copies without permission. He is a _________
(a) Programmer
(b) Administrator
(c) Pirate
(d) Organizer
Answer:
(c) Pirate

Question 25.
The symbol used for copy right is a _______
(a) @
(b) Copy
(c) &
(d) ©
Answer:
(d) ©

Question 26.
Following are the advantages of flowcharts one among them is wrong. Find it.
(a) Better communication
(b) Effective analysis
(c) proper program documentation
(d) Modification easy
Answer:
(d) Modification easy. It is a disadvantage.

Question 27.
Which flow chart symbol has one entry flow and two exit flows?
Answer:
Diamond

Question 28.
Which flow chart symbol is always used in pair?
Answer:
connector

Question 29.
Program written in HLL is known as ____________
Answer:
Source code

Question 30.
Some of the components in the phases of programming are given below. Write them in order of their occurrence. (1)

1. Translation
2. Documentation
3. Problem identification
4. Coding of a program

Answer:
The chronological order is as follows

1. Problem Identification
2. Coding of a program
3. Translation
4. Documentation

Question 31.
_________ is the stage where programming errors are discovered and corrected.
Answer:
Debugging or compiling

Question 32.
Ramesh has written a C++ program. During compilation and execution there were no errors. But he got a wrong output. Name the type of error he faced.
Answer:
Logical Error

Question 33.
Pick out the software which rearranges the scattered files in the hard disk and improves the performance of the system.
(a) Backup software
(b) File compression software
(c) Disk defragmenter
(d) Antivirus software
Answer:
(c) Disk defragmenter

Question 34.
Some phases in programming are given below.

1. Source coding
2. Execution
3. Translation
4. Problem study

These phases should follow a proper order. Choose the correct order from the following:
(a) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
(b) 1 → 3 → 2 → 4
(c) 1 → 3 → 4 → 2
(d) 4 → 1 → 3 → 2
Answer:
(d) 4 → 1 → 3 → 2

Question 35.
Which one of the following errors is identified at the time of compilation?
(a) Syntax error
(b) Logical error
(c) Run-time error
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Syntax error

Question 36.
Pick the odd one out and give a reason for your finding

Answer:
c. This has one entry flow and more than one exit flow.

OR

b. Used for both input and output.

Plus One Principles of Programming and Problem Solving Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A debate on ‘Whether Free Software is to be promoted’ is planned in your class. You are asked to present points in support of Free Software. What would be your arguments, (at least three)?
Answer:
Freedom to use Comparatively cheap Freedom to modify and redistribute

Question 2.
Mr. Roy purchased a DVD of a movie and he found that on the cover there is a sentence copyright reserved and a mark ©. What is it? Briefly explain?
Answer:
It is under the act of copyright and the trademark is © copyright is the property right that arises automatically when a person creates a new work by his own and by Law it prevents the others from the unauthorized or intentional copying of this without the permission of the creator.

Question 3.
Can a person who knows only Malayalam talk to a person who knows only Sanskrit normally consider the corresponding situation in a computer program and justify your answer?
Answer:
Normally it is very difficult to communicate. But it is possible with the help of a translator. Translation is the process of converting programs written in High Level Language into Low Level Language (machine Language). The compiler or interpreter is used for this purpose. It is a program.

Question 4.
Define the term, debugging. Write the names of two phases that are included in debugging. (2)

OR

Define the different types of errors that are encountered during the compilation and running of a program.
Answer:
Debugging:
The program errors are called ‘bugs’ and the process of detecting and correcting errors is called debugging. Compilation and running are the two phases.

OR

In general there are two types of errors syntax errors and logical errors. When the rules or syntax of the language are not followed then syntax errors occurred and it is displayed after compilation.

When the logic of a program is wrong then logical errors occurred and it is not displayed after compilation but it is displayed in the execution and testing phase.

Question 5.
Write an algorithm to input the scores obtained in three unit tests and find the average score.

OR

Explain the flowchart and predict the output.
Answer:

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Read S1, S2, S3
• Step 3: avg = S1 + S2 + S3/3
• Step 4: Print avg
• Step 5: Stop

OR

This flowchart is used to print the numbers as 1,2, 3, ………, 10.

Question 6.
Differentiate between top down design and bottom up design in problem sloving.
Answer:
Bottom up design:
Here also larger programs are divided into smaller ones and the smaller ones are again subdivided until the lowest level of detail has been reached. We start solving from the lowest module onwards. This approach is called Bottom up design.

Question 7.
Answer any one question from 5 (a) and 5 (b).
1. Draw a flowchart for the following algorithm.

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Input N
• Step 3: S = 0, K = 1
• Step 4: S = S + K
• Step 5: K = K + 1
• Step 6: If K < = N Then Go to Step 4
• Step 7: Print S
• Step 8: Stop

OR

2. Name the two stages in programming where debugging process is involved. What kinds of errors are removed in each of these stages?
Answer:
1.

2. The two stages are compile time and run time. In the debugging process can remove syntax error, logical error and runtime error.

Question 8.
Answer any one question from 7(1) and 7(2)
1. Observe the following portion of a flowchart. Fill in the blank symbols with proper instructions to get 321 as the output.

2. The following flowchart can be used to print the numbers from 1 to 100. Identify another problem that can be solved using this flowchart and write the required instructions in the symbols.

Answer:
1.

2. The following flowchart can be used to store another problem such as used to print odd numbers lessthan 200.

Question 9.
Write an algorithm to print the numbers upto 100 in reverse order, That is the output should be as 100, 99, 98, 97, …………., 1

OR

Draw a flow chart to check whether the given number is positive, negative or zero.
Answer:

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Set i ← 100
• Step 3: if i <= 0 then go to step 6
• Step 4: Print i
• Step 5: Set i ← i — 1 go to step 3
• Step 6: Stop

OR

Plus One Principles of Programming and Problem Solving Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
When you try to execute a program, there are chances of errors at various stages, Mention the types of errors and explain.
Answer:
1. Syntax error,
eg: 5 = x

2. Logic error:
If the programmer maks any logical mistakes, it is known as logical error.
eg: To find the sum of values A and B and store it in a variable C you have to write C = A + B. Instead of this if you write C = A × B, it is called logic error.

3. Runtime error:
An error occured at run time due to inappropriate data.
eg: To calculate A/B a person gives zero to B. There is an error called division by zero error during run time.

Question 2.
Following is a flow chart to find and display the largest among three numbers. Some steps are missing in the flowchart. Redraw the flow chart by adding necessary steps and specify its purpose. How can this flow chart be modified without using a fourth variable?
Answer:

Question 3.
A flow chart is given below.

1. What will be the output of the above flow chart?
2. How can you modify the above flow chart to display the even numbers upto 20, starting from 2.

Answer:
1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

2.

Question 4.
Write an algorithm to check whether the given number is even or odd.
Answer:

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Read a number to N
• Step 3: Divide the number by 2 and store the remainder in R.
• Step 4: If R = O Then go to Step 6
• Step 5: Print “N is odd” go to step 7
• Step 6: Print “N is even”
• Step 7: Stop

Question 5.
Write an algorithm to find the largest of 2 numbers?
Answer:

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Input the values of A, B Compare A and B.
• Step 3: If A > B then go to step 5
• Step 4: Print “B is largest” go to Step 6
• Step 5: Print “A is largest”
• Step 6: Stop

Question 6.
Write an algorithm to find the sum of n natural numbers and average?
Answer:

• step 1: Start
• Step 2: Set i ←1, S 0
• Step 3: Read a number and set to n
• Step 4: Computer i and n if i > n then go to step 7.
• Step 5: Set S ← S + i
• Step 6: i ← i + 1 go to step 4
• Step 7: avg ← S/n
• Step 8: Print “Sum = S and average = avg”
• Step 9: Stop

Question 7.
Write an algorithm to find the largest of 3 numbers.
Answer:

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Read 3 numbers and store in A, B, C
• Step 3: Compare A and B. lf A > Bthengotostep 6
• Step 4: Compare B and C if C > B then go to step 8
• Step 5: print “B is largest” go to step 9
• Step 6: Compare A and C if C > A then go to step 8
• Step 7: Print”A is largest” go to step 9
• Step 8: Print “C is largest”
• Step 9: Stop

Question 8.
Write an algorithm to calculate the simple interest (I =P × N × R/100)
Answer:

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Read 3 values for P, N, R
• Step 3: Calculate I ← P × N × R/100
• Step 4: Print “The simple interest = l”
• Step 5: Stop

Question 9.
Write an algorithm to calculate the compound interest (C.l = P × (1 + r/100)n – P)
Answer:

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Read 3 number for p, n, r
• Step 3: Calculate C.I = p × (1 + r/100)n – p
• Step 4: Print “The compound Interest = C.l”
• Step 5: Stop

Question 10.
Write an algorithm to find the cube of first n natural numbers (eg: 1, 8, 27, …., n3)
Answer:

• Step 1: Star
• Step 2: Set i ← 1
• Step 3: Read a number and store in n
• Step 4: Compare i and n if i > n then go to step 7
• Step 5: Print i × i × i
• Step 6: i ← i + 1 go to step 4
• Step 7: Stop

Question 11.
Write an algorithm to read a number and find its factorial (n ! = n × (n – 1) × (n – 2) ×………..3 × 2 × 1)
Answer:

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Fact ← 1
• Step 3: Read a number and store in n
• Step 4: If n = 0 then go to step 7
• Step 5: Fact ← Fact × n
• Step 6: n ← n – 1 go to step 4
• Step 7: Print “Factorial is fact”
• Step 8: Stop

Question 12.
Draw a flow chart to find the sum of n natural numbers and average.
Answer:

Question 13.
Draw a flow chart to find the largest of 3 numbers.
Answer:

Question 14.
Draw a flow chart to find the largest of 2 numbers.
Answer:

Question 15.
Draw a flow chart to check whether the given number is even or odd.
Answer:

Question 16.
Draw a flow chart to calculate simple interest.
Answer:

Question 17.
Draw a flow chart to calculate compound interest.
Answer:

Question 18.
Draw a flow chart to find the cube of n natural numbers.
Answer:

Question 19.
Draw a flow chart to read a number and find its factorial.
Answer:

Question 20.
Mr. Vimal wants to represent a problem by using a flowchart, which symbols are used for this. Explain.
Answer:
Flow chart symbols are explained below
1. Terminal (Oval)

It is used to indicate the beginning and ending of a problem

2. Input/Output (parallelogram)

It is used to take input or print output.

3. Processing (Rectangle)

It is used to represent processing. That means to represent arithmetic operation such as addition, subtraction, multiplication.

4. Decision (Rhombus)

It is used to represent decision making. One exit path will be executed at a time.

5. Flowlines (Arrows)

It is used to represent the flow of operation

6. Connector

These symbols will help us to complete the flow chart, which is not fit in a single page. A connector symbol is represented by a circle and a letter or digit is placed within the circle to indicate the link.

Question 21.
Jeena uses an algorithm to represent a problem while Neena uses flowchart which is better? Justify your answer?
Answer:
Flowchart is better. The advantages of flow chart is given below.
1. Better communication:
A flow chart is a pictorial representation while an algorithm is a step by step procedure to solve a program. A programmer can easily explain the program logic using a flow chart.

2. Effective analysis:
The program can be analyzed effectively through the flow chart.

3. Effective synthesis:
If a problem is big it can be divided into small modules and the solution for each module is represented in flowchart separately and can be joined together final system design.

4. Proper program documentation:
A flow chart will help to create a document that will help the company in the absence of a programmer.

5. Efficient coding:
With the help of a flowchart it is easy to write program by using a computer language.

Question 22.
A flow chart is a better method to represent a program. But it has some limitation what are they?
Answer:
The limitations are given below

• To draw a flowchart, it is time consuming and laborious work.
• If any change or modification in the logic we may have to redraw a new flow chart.
• No standards to determine how much detail can include in a flow chart.

Question 23.

Answer:
1 – e
2 – a
3 – d
4 – f
5 – b
6 – c

Question 24.
Alvis executes an error free program but he got an error. Explain different types of error in detail.
Answer:
There are two types of errors in a program before execution and testing phase.They are syntax error and logical error. When the programmer violates the rules or syntax of the programming language then the syntax error occurred.
eg: It involves incorrect punctuation.

Keywords are used for other purposes, violates the structure etc,… It detects the compiler and displays an error message that include the line number and give a clue of the nature of the error, When the programmer makes any mistakes in the logic, that types of errors are called logical error. It does not detect by the compiler but we will get a wrong output.

The program must be tested to check whether it is error free or not. The program must be tested by giving input test data and check whether it is right or wring with the known results. The third type of errors are Runtime errors.

This may be due to the in appropriate data while execution. For example consider B/C. If the end user gives a value zero for c, the execution will be interrupted because division by zero is not possible. These situation must be anticipated and must be handled.

Question 25.
The following are the phases in programming. The order is wrong rearrange them in correct order.

1. Debugging
2. Coding
3. Derive the steps to obtain the solution
4. Documentation
5. Translation
6. Problem identification
7. Execution and testing

Answer:
The correct order is given below.

1. Problem identification
2. Derive the steps to obtain the solution
3. Coding
4. Translation
5. Debugging
6. Execution and testing
7. Documentation

Question 26.
Draw a flow chart to input ten different numbers and find their average.
Answer:

Question 27.
Draw the flow chart to find the sum of first N natural numbers.
Answer:

Question 28.
Make a flow chart using the given labelled symbols, for finding the sum of all even numbers upto ‘N’

OR

Write an algorithm to accept an integer number and print the factors of it.

Answer:
Draw flowchart in any of the following order
e, c, d, f, i, h, a, b, g
e, d, c, f, i, h, a, b, g
e, c, d, a, f, i, h, b, g
e, d, c, a, f, i, h, b, g

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Input n
• Step 3: i = I
• Step 4: if i <= n/2 then repeat step 5 & 6
• step 5: if n % i == 0 print i
• Step 6: i = i + I
• Step 7: Stop

Question 29.
List the two approaches followed in problem solving or programming. How do they differ?
Answer:
Approaches in problem solving:
(a) Top down design:
Larger programs are divided into smaller ones and solve each tasks by performing simpler activities. This concept is known as top down design in problem solving

(b) Bottom up design:
Here also larger programs are divided into smaller ones and the smaller ones are again subdivided until the lowest level of detail has been reached. We start solving from the lowest module onwards. This approach is called Bottom up design.

Phases in Programming
1. Problem identification:
This is the first phase in programming. The problem must be identified then only it can be solved, for this we may have to answer some questions.

During this phase we have to identify the data, its type, quantity and formula to be used as well as what activities are involved to get the desired out put is also identified for example if you are suffering from stomach ache and consult a Doctor.

To diagnose the disease the Doctor may ask you some question regarding the diet, duration of pain, previous occurrences etc, and examine some parts of your body by using stethoscope X-ray, scanning etc.

2. Deriving the steps to obtain the solution. There are two methods, Algorithm and flowchart, are used for this.
(a) Algorithm:
The step-by-step procedure to solve a problem is known as algorithm. It comes from the name of a famous Arab mathematician Abu Jafer Mohammed Ibn Musaa Al-Khowarizmi. The last part of his name Al-Khowarizmi was corrected to algorithm.

(b) Flowchart:
The pictorial or graphical representation of an algorithm is called flowchart.

Question 30.
Write an algorithm to find the sum of the squres of the digits of a number. (For example, if 235 is the input, the output should be 2² + 3² + 5² = 38)
Answer:

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2: Set S = O
• Step 3: Read N
• Step 4: if N > O repeat step 5, 6 and 7
• Step 5: Find the remainder. That is rem = N % 10
• Step 6 : S = S + rem × rem
• Step 7 : N = N/10
• Step 8 : Print S
• Step 9 : Stop

Question 31.
Consider the following algorithm and answer the following questions:

• Step 1: Start
• Step 2 : N = 2, S = 0
• Step 3: Repeat Step 4, Step 5 while N <= 10
• Step 4: S = S + N
• Step 5: N = N + 2
• Step 6: Print S
• Step 7: Stop

1. Predict the output of the above algorithm.
2. Draw a flowchart for the above algorithm

Answer:
1. The output is 30

2.

Question 32.
“It is better to give proper documentation within the program”. Give a reason.
Answer:
It is the last phase in programming. A computerized system must be documented properly and it is an ongoing process that starts in the first phase and continues till its implementation. It is helpful for the modification of the program later.

Plus One Principles of Programming and Problem Solving Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Arun wants to develop a program to computerize the functions of supermarket. Explain different phases he has to undergo is detail.

OR

Briefly explain different phases in programming.
Answer:
The different phases in programming is given below:
1. Problem identification:
This is the first phase in programming. The problem must be identified then only it can be solved, for this we may have to answer some questions.
During this phase we have to identify the data, its type, quantity and formula to be used as well as what activities are involved to get the desired output is also identified for example if you are suffering from stomach ache and consult a Doctor.

To diagnose the disease the doctor may ask you some question regarding the diet, duration of pain, previous occurrences, etc and examine some parts of your body by using stethoscope X-ray, scanning, etc.

2. Deriving the steps to obtain the solution.
There are two methods, Algorithm and flowchart, are used for this.
(a) Algorithm:
The step-by-step procedure to solve a problem is known as algorithm. It comes from the name of a famous Arab mathematician Abu Jafer Mohammed Ibu Musaa Al-Khowarizmi. The last part of his name Al-Khowafizmi was corrected to algorithm.

(b) Flowchart:
The pictorial or graphical representation of an algorithm is called flowchart.

3. Coding:
The dummy codes (algorithm)or flow chart is converted into program by using a computer language such s Cobol, Pascal, C++, VB, Java, etc.

4. Translation:
The computer only knows machine language. It does not know HLL, but the human beings HLL is very easy to write programs. Therefore a translation is needed to convert a program written in HLL into machine code (object code).

During this step, the syntax errors of the program will be displayed. These errors are to be corrected and this process will be continued till we get “No errors” message. Then it is ready for execution.

5. Debugging:
The program errors are called ‘bugs’ and the process of detecting and correcting errors is called debugging. In general there are two types of errors syntax errors and logical errors. When the rules or syntax of the language are not followed then syntax errors occurred and it is displayed after compilation.

When the logic of a program is wrong then logical errors occurred and it is not displayed after compilation but it is displayed in the execution and testing phase.

6. Execution and Testing:
In this phase the program will be executed and give test data for testing the purpose of this is to determine whether the result produced by the program is correct or not. There is a chance of another type of error, Run time error, this may be due to inappropriate data.

7. Documentation:
It is the last phase in programming. A computerized system must be documented properly and it is an ongoing process that starts in the first phase and continues till its implementation. It is helpful for the modification of the program later.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the characteristic of an algorithm.
Answer:
The following are the characteristics of an algorithm

1. It must starts with ‘start’ statement and ends with ‘stop’ statement.
2. it should contains instructions to accept input and these are processed by the subsequent instructions.
3. Each and every instruction should be precise and must be clear. The instructions must be possible to carry out, for example consider the examples the instruction “Go to market” is precise and possible to carried out but the instruction “Go to hell” is also precise and can not be carried out.
4. Each instruction must be carried out in finite time by a person with paper and pencil.
5. The number of repetition of instructions must be finite.
6. The desired results must be obtained after the algorithm ends.

Students can Download Chapter 7 Bill of Exchange Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 7 Bill of Exchange

Plus One Accountancy Bill of Exchange One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Maker of the bill of exchange is called the ……….
(a) Drawer
(b) Drawee
(c) Payee
Answer:
(a) Drawer.

Question 2.
Bill of exchange before its acceptance is called is ……………
(a) Bill
(b) Promissory Note
(c) Draft
Answer:
(c) Draft.

Question 3.
When a discounted bill is dishonoured, the ………… account is credited in the books of the drawer,
(a) Bank
(b) Drawee
(c) Payee
Answer:
(a) Bank

Question 4.
A bill is noted when it is
(a) Dishonoured
(b) Honoured
(c) Discounted
(d) Accepted
Answer:
(a) Dishonoured

Question 5.
The process of transferring the ownership of the bill is called
(a) Acceptance
(b) Negotiation
(c) Endorsement
Answer:
(c) Endorsement

Question 6.
The credit instrument which contains a promise made by the debtor to pay a certain sum of money for value received is
(a) Bill of Exchange
(b) Debenture
(c) Promissory Note
(d) Equity Share
Answer:
(c) Promissory Note

Question 7.
A bill of exchange is an Instrument.
Answer:
Negotiable

Question 8.
………………. days of grace are allowed in case of time bills for calculating the date of maturity.
Answer:
Three

Question 9.
If the date of maturity of a bill is on a holiday then the bill will mature on ………….. day.
Answer:
The Previous day

Question 10.
When noting charges are paid finally the amount will
be recovered from
Answer:
Drawee.

Question 11.
Complete the following on the basis of hints given

1. Dishonour of discounted bill – An entry in the book of drawer.
2. ………………………………………………. – No entry in the book of drawer.

Answer:
Honouring of discounted bill.

1. Noting charges incurred – When bill is dishonoured.
2. Rebate is allowed – …………………….

Answer:
When bill is honoured before due date.

Question 12.
Bill of exchange in Indian languages is called
Answer:
Hundi.

Question 13.
The person to whom the amount mentioned in the promissory note is payable is known as ………………..
Answer:
Promisee.

Question 14.
A person who endorse the promissory note in favour of another is known as ………………..
Answer:
Endorser

Question 15.
In a promissory note, the person who makes the promise to pay is called ……………………
Answer:
Promissor.

Question 16.
Bill of exchange is drawn on the ………….
Answer:
Debtor/Drawee.

Question 17.
The person to whom payment of the bill is to be made is known as ……………….
Answer:
Payee

Question 18.
A promissory note does not require ………..
Answer:
Acceptance.

Question 19.
Making payment of the bill of exchange before the due date is called …………..
Answer:
Retiring of the bill

Question 20.
A bill of exchange accepted without consideration, just to oblige a friend is known as
Answer:
Accommodation Bill

Question 21.
If the proceeds of the bill of exchange is to be paid after a particular period is called …………
Answer:
Time Bill.

Question 22.
Find the odd one and state the reasons.

1. Bill of exchange, cheque, promissory note, fixed deposit receipt.
2. Drawer, Drawee, Payee, Endorser.

Answer:

1. Fixed Deposit Receipt – Others are negotiable instruments
2. Drawee – Others may be the same person

Question 23.
On the date of maturity, Arun (acceptor) requested to Santhosh (drawer) to cancel the old bill and draw a new bill upon him for a period of 2 months. Santhosh agrees to this. It is a case of ………………
Answer:
Renewal of bill

Plus One Accountancy Bill of Exchange Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A bill of exchange must contain “an unconditional promise to pay.” Do you agree with a statement?
Answer:
No. The bill of exchange contains an unconditional order to pay a certain amount on an agreed date.

Question 2.
Define Bill of exchange.
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 a bill of exchange is “an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person, or to the bearer of the instrument.”

Question 3.
What are the features of bill of exchange?
Answer:
Following are the essential features of a bill of exchange.

1. It must be in writing.
2. It must be an order to pay, and not a request to pay.
3. No condition should be attached to the order.
4. The drawer must sign the bill
5. The order must be for the payment of money only.
6. It should be properly stamped.
7. The amount mentioned in the bill may be made payable either on demand or after the expiry of a ‘stipulated period.

Question 4.
Who are.the parties to a bill of exchange ?
Answer:
There are three parties to a bill of exchange:

1. Drawer – He is the creditor who draws a bill of exchange upon the debtor.
2. Drawee – He is the person upon whom the bill of exchange is drawn. He is the purchaser of the goods on credit and the debtor.
3. Payee – He is the person to whom payment of the bill is to be made on the maturity date. The drawer and the payee can be one party when payment is to be made to the drawer.

Question 5.
What are days of grace?
Answer:
Three extra days over the nominal due date legally given to the acceptor of a bill to make payment are called days of grace. Days of grace are allowed only in the case of time bills.

Question 6.
Calculate the maturity date of the following bill.

1. Drawn on January 5^th for three months.
2. Drawn on May 1^st for 4 months.

Answer:
1.

• January 5^th to February 5^th
• February 5^th to March 5^th
• March 5^th to April 5^th
• April 5^th + 3 days of grace = April 8^th

2.

• May 1^st – June 1^st
• June 1^st – July 1^st
• July 1^st – August 1^st
• August 1^st – September 1^st
• September 1^st + 3 days of grace = September 4^th

Question 7.
What do you mean by Endorsement?
Answer:
An endorsement is a written order on the back of the instrument by the payee or the holder, for transferring his right to another person. The person who makes the endorsement is called endorser and in whose favour the endorsement is made is called the endorsee.

Question 8.
What is an Accommodation Bill?
Answer:
A bill of exchange and Promissory note may be used for raising funds temporarily. Such a bill is called an ‘accommodation bill’ as it is accepted by the drawee to accommodate the drawer. These are drawn and accepted without consideration with a view to provide funds to one or more parties. There is no trade or debtor-creditor pfifationsip between parties. It is also known as ‘kite bill’ or ‘Wind bill’.

Question 9.
Ram received a bill from Anil on 1/7/2009 for 3 months for Rs. 4,000. Later the bill has been endorsed to Kumar. In this statement identify the parties involved in terms of drawer, drawee endorser and payee.
Answer:

• Drawer – Ram
• Drawee – Anil
• Payee – Kumar
• Endorsee – Kumar

Question 10.
Manu purchased goods on credit from Kumar for Rs. 40,0 on 1^st April 2009. On the same date Kumar draws a bill for 2 months and got it accepted by Manu. What are the options available to Kumar in dealing with the bill?
Answer:
The following options are available to deal with the bill.

1. He can retain the bill till the date of maturity.
2. He can get the bill discounted through the bank.
3. He can endorse the bill in favour of his creditor.
4. He may sent the bill for collection to the bank.

Question 11.
Mr. Mohan holds a bill of exchange. He approaches a bank to receive the amount of bill before the maturity date. Does he get the money? Write your comments,
Answer:
If the drawer of the bill needs cash immediately or before the maturity date he can discount the bill with the bank. Discounting of the bill means encashing the bill with the banker on the security of the bill before the maturity date. The banker will deduct a certain sum from the bill amount as discount and pays the balance to the holder. The bank will present the bill to the drawee on the due date and get the payment of the bill.

Question 12.
Explain the term “Noting”
Answer:
When a bill of exchange is dishonoured due to nonpayment, it is usual to get it ‘noted’, to establish the matter of dishonour legally. The noting is done by the “Notary public”, who is an officer appointed by the Government for this purpose. Noting authenticates the facts of dishonour.

For providing this service, a number of fees is charged which is called “Noting charges” Noting charges either paid by the holder or any other parties should be borne by the acceptor in the absence of any agreement.

Question 13.
What do you mean by ‘Retiring of Bill’?
Answer:
The acceptor can pay the amount of the bill before its due date. The process of paying the amount of the bills payable before the due date is called retiring the bill. In such case, the holder usually allows some discount to the acceptor of bill. Such a discount is called “rebate on retired bill”. The amount of rebate depends on the period that the bill has yet to run.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Renewal of Bills?
Answer:
process of drawing and accepting a new bill by cancelling the old bill is called renewal of a bill. It is a granting of extension of credit to the acceptor. When this is done the acceptor may have to pay interest for the extended period of credit. It is paid in cash or may be included in the amount of the new bill.

Question 15.
On 1.1.2005 Raju sold goods to Anil for Rs. 20,000/ – and draw upon him a bill for 2 months. Anil accepted the bill and returned it to Raju. Later Raju endorsed the bill to Tom. On the date of maturity the bill was dishonoured.
Give advice to Tom, regarding the steps to be undertaken immediately after the dishonour.
Answer:
1. The holder of the bill, Tom should send a notice of dishonour to the drawer, Raju within a reasonable time. Otherwise, the other parties of the bill may deny their liability.

2. When the bill is dishonoured it is better to get the fact noted with a Notary public.

Question 16.
Identify the endorser, endorsee and type of endorsement from the following

Answer:

• Endorser – Santhosh
• Endorsee – Arunkumar
• Type – Conditional Endorsement

Plus One Accountancy Bill of Exchange Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define promissory Note and Point out its Features.
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, a promissory note is “an instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking, signed by the maker, to pay a certain sum of money only to or to the order of a certain person, or to the bearer of the instrument.”
The following are the features of promissory note

1. It must be in writing
2. It must contain an unconditional promise to pay.
3. It must be signed by the maker
4. The person to whom payment is to be made must also be certain.
5. The amount payable must be certain.
6. It should be properly stamped.

Question 2.
Who are the parties to a promissory note:
Answer:
There are two parties to a promissory note.
1. The maker or the promisor:
He is the person who makes or draws the promissory notable is the debtor.

2. The payee or the promisee:
He is a person in whose favour the promissiory note is drawn.

Question 3.
Syam sold goods to Anil on credit for Rs. 3,000, on 10th April 2003. He drew a bill on Anil for the amount at 3 months after date. Anil accepted the same and returned it to syam. At maturity, he met his obligation. Pass journal entries in the books of both parties.
Answer:
Book of Syam (Drawer) Journal

Book of Anil [Drawee] Journal

Question 4.
Haridas discounts a bill for Rs. 10,000 with his banker on 4th February, 2007. The bill was drawn on 1^st January for Four months. The discount rate was 12%. p.a. write Journal entries in the book of Haridas.
Answer:
Book of Haridas [Drawer] Journal


Note: Calculation of discount
Discount = 10.000 × 12/100 × 3/12 = 300 It may be noted that discount has been charged for three months and not for 4 months because the bank will have to wait for 3 months to get the payment of bill on the due date.

Question 5.
From the given specimen of a promissory note identify:-
a) Promisor
b) Promisee
c) Consideration

Answer:

Plus One Accountancy Bill of Exchange Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
On January 1^st, 2006, Ramesh sold goods worth ₹2,000 to Kannan and drew abill for the amount for 3 months. Kannan accepted the bill and returned it to Ramesh. Ramesh endorsed the bill in favour of Jayan, on 6^th January. The bill was duly met on maturity. Pass journal entries in the book of Ramesh, Kannan and Jayan.
Answer:
Book of Ramesh [Drawer] Journal

Book of Kannan [Drawee] Journal

Book of Jayan [Endorser] Journal

Question 2.
On 10^th March 2004, Chandran drew and Devan accepted a 2 months bill for Rs. 2000. On April 11 Chandran sends the bill to his bank for collection. On due date the amount is collected. Give journal entries in the book of both the parties.
Answer:
Journal (In the book of Chandran)

Journal (In the book of Devan)

Question 3.
On 1^st June 2005, ‘A’ Sold goods to ‘B’ worth Rs.
20,000 and drew on him a bill for 3 months. ‘B’ accepted the same and returned to ‘A’. On 5^th June 2005, ‘A’ discounted the bill with his banker and received Rs. 19,000. On the due date, ‘B’ failed to pay the amount and the bill got dishonoured. Pass journal entries in the books of A and B.
Answer:
Book of A [Drawer] Journal

Book of B [Drawee] Journal

Question 4.
Identify the document shown below and state Any 6 features of the document.

Answer:
Document is a Bill of Exchange.
Features:

1. It contains an order to pay money.
2. The order shortly be unconditional
3. The drawer must sign the bill
4. The drawee must be a certain person.
5. The order must be for the payment of money only.
6. It should be properly stamped.

Question 5.
From the given specimen of Bill of exchange, identify:

1. Drawer
2. Drawee
3. Payee
4. Term of bill
5. Date of maturity
6. Consideration on the bill

Answer:

Question 6.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

1. Debtor
2. Order or promise, order to make payment
3. Needs acceptance by drawee/does not need any acceptance.
4. Three – Drawer, Drawee, Payee Two – Drawer and payee
5. Drawer has secondary liability.

Question 7.
Complete the journal on the basis of the narration given for a bill of exchange of Rs. 20,000/-
Book of Santhosh Journal

Answer:
Journal Book of Santhosh

Plus One Accountancy Bill of Exchange Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Ajay sold goods to Babu for Rs. 2,700 on 1.1.2007 and immediately drawn a bill for 4 months upon Babu for the same amount Babu accepted the bill and returned it to Ajay. On the 4^th February 2007, Babu retires his acceptance under a rebate of 12% p.a. Give journal entries in the books of both the parties.
Answer:
Book of Ajay [Drawer] Journal


Book of Babu [Drawee] Journal

Question 2.
In a classroom debate Mohan argued that a bill of exchange and promissory note are same but syam disagree with him and states that they are different, whose argument is correct? Give reason.
Answer:
The argument of Syam is correct. There are some defference between bill of exchange and promissory note.

Question 3.
On January 15^th, 2003 ‘N’ draw a bill of Rs. 8000 on his debtor ‘M’ for two months. By the due date of the bill, ‘M’ became insolvent and a dividend of 50 paise in the rupee was received from his estate. Pass Journal entries in the books of N and M.
Answer:
Journal (In the book of ‘N’)

Question 4.
Identify the types of endorsement from the given format and write short notes on each type.

Answer:

1. Blank Endorsement: The endorser simply puts his signature, without mentioning the name of the endorsee.
2. Special Endorsement: The endorser mentions the name of the endorsee along with his signature on the back of the Instrument.
3. Restrictive Endorsement: Restrictlnq further endorsement.
4. Sans – Recourse Endorsement: If the bill is dishonoured the holder cannot have recourse to the endorser.
5. Facultative Endorsement: Endorsement made by waiving some right of the endorser.

Question 5.
The transaction between Rajesh and Murali are journalised below. Identify the drawer, drawee/acceptor, amount and term of bill. Also write appropriate narration to each transaction.
Book of Murali Journal

Answer:

1. Drawer – Rajesh
2. Drawee – Murali
3. Amount of bill – 10,000/-
4. Term of bill – 3 Months
5. Narration:
   • Purchased goods on credit
   • Acceptance given on bill
   • Bill amount paid on the due date

Plus One Accountancy Bill of Exchange Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
On 5^th January 2003, Balu sold goods to Raju for Rs. 2500. Balu drew a 2 months bill on Raju. Raju accepted the bill and returned it to Balu. On 5^th March Raju approached Balu with a request to renew the bill for a further period of 2 months. Balu agreed on the proposal for which an interest of Rs. 50 is charged. The second bill is duly accepted and was met on maturity. Give Journal entries in the book of Balu & Raju.
Answer:
Journal (In the book of Balu)

Question 2.
On January 15, 2012, ‘Syam’ sold goods to’ Naveen’ for Rs.30,000 and drew a bill for the same amount payable after 3 months. The bill was accepted by Naveen. The bill was discounted by Syam from his bank for Rs. 29,500 on January 31,2012. On maturity, the bill was dishonoured. He further agreed to pay Rs. 10,500 in cash including Rs.500 interest and accept a new bill for two months for the remaining Rs.20,000. The new bill was endorsed by Syam in favour of his creditor ‘Kiran’ for settling a debt of Rs.20500. The new bill was duly met by Naveen on maturity.
Record the Journal entries in the book of Syam and Naveen.
Answer:
Journal Entries (in the book of Syam)

Journal Entries (in the book of Naveen)

Plus One Accountancy Bill of Exchange Eight Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mr. Anil sold goods to Sunil for Rs. 5,000 on credit and drew a bill for 3 months. Sunil accepted the bill and returned it to Anil. On the due date, the bill was dishonoured, noting charge being Rs. 100. Show journal entries in the books of Anil and Sunil, if

1. The bill was retained by Mr. Anil.
2. The bill was endorsed to Mr. Hari.
3. The bill was discounted with the bank for Rs. 4,800.
4. The bill was sent to the bank for collection.

Answer:
Book of Anil [Drawer] Journal
1. If the bill is retained

2. If the bill was endorsed to Mr. Hari.

3. If the bill is discounted with bank.

4. If the bill sent for collection

Book of Sunil [Drawee] Journal

Students can Download Chapter 12 Internet and Mobile Computing Questions and Answers, Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 12 Internet and Mobile Computing

Plus One Internet and Mobile Computing One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A network of smaller networks that exists all over the world is called ____________
Answer:
Internet

Question 2.
ARPANET means ______
Answer:
Advanced Research Projects Agency Network

Question 3.
Odd one out.
(a) Internet explorer
(b) Mozilla
(c) Netscape navigator
(d) Windows Explorer
Answer:
(d) Windows explorer, the others are browsers.

Question 4.
Odd man out.
(a) Word
(b) Excel
(c) PowerPoint
(d) Mosaic
Answer:
(d) Mosaic. It is a browser, others are MS Office packages.

Question 5.
The interface between user and computer hardware is called operating system then what about the interface between user and internet (www)?
Answer:
Browser

Question 6.
With the help of this the user can search informations provided on the internet. What is it?
Answer:
Browser.

Question 7.
Benhur wants to navigate through the web pages from the following which will help him?
(a) A browser
(b) MS Word
(c) Tally
(d) Paint
Answer:
(a) A browser

Question 8.
I am a piece of software. With the help of me a user can search information from the internet and navigate through the web pages. Who am I?
Answer:
Browser

Question 9.
Anil told you that he was browsing at that time. From the following choose the right one.
(a) He was visiting a website
(b) He was reading a book
(c) He was watching TV
(d) He was sleeping
Answer:
(a) He was visiting a website. The process of visiting a website is called browsing.

Question 10.
___________ is a popular browser commonly used in windows operating system.
(a) Mozilla
(b) Netscape navigator
(c) Mosaic
(d) Internet explorer
Answer:
(d) Internet Explorer

Question 11.
___________ browser is commonly used in Linux.
(a) Internet explorer
(b) Mozilla
(c) Netscape navigator
(d) Mosaic
Answer:
(b) Mozilla

Question 12.
Mr. Asokan wants to go the previous page. From the following which option will help him?
(a) Back button
(b) Refresh
(c) Favorites
(d) Stop
Answer:
(a) Back and forward button

Question 13.
While navigating through a website, sita wants to go back to the home page. From the following which will help her?
(a) Refresh
(b) Search
(c) Home
(d) Mail
Answer:
(c) Home

Question 14.
While surfing a website, Joyson wants to play music or video. Which button will help him?
(a) Home
(b) Search
(c) Media
(d) Mail
Answer:
(c) Media

Question 15.
Purnima wants to know the websites that her brother had visited last week? From the following which will help her?
(a) Media
(b) History
(c) Mail
(d) Search
Answer:
(b) History

Question 16.
While browsing, the internet connection is lost so you want to reload the web page. Which will help for this?
(a) Refresh
(b) Stop
(c) Media
(d) Edit
Answer:
(a) Refresh

Question 17.
The address bar is also known as _________
(a) URL
(b) UDL
(c) KRL
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) URL

Question 18.
You want to add and organize a website to a list. Which will help for this?
(a) Favorites
(b) Search
(c) Back
(d) Mail
Answer:
(a) Favorites

Question 19.
How can it possible to understand that the browser is retrieving data?
(a) Access indicator icon animates
(b) From the refresh button
(c) From the back button
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Access indicator icon animates

Question 20.
The progress of the data being downloaded indicates by the ____________
(a) Address bar
(b) Progression bar
(c) Status bar
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Status Bar

Question 21.
Baby wants to download a file The time needed for that depends on the _________ of the file.
(a) Size
(b) Place
(c) Type
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Size

Question 22.
Kasim wants to print data on a A4 size paper. From the following which option will help him for that?
(a) Copy
(b) Page setup
(c) Search
(d) Media
Answer:
(b) Page setup

Question 23.
Mr. Franco’s e-mail id is [email protected]. He wants to connect this page fastly. From the following which will help him.
(a) Favorite
(b) Search
(c) Refresh
(d) Media
Answer:
(a) Favorite

Question 24.
Mrs. Janaki purchased a product through online and payment was given by credit card. She wants to protect the information about the credit card. How can it be possible from the following?
(а) Security
(b) Favorite
(c) Media
(d) Content
Answer:
(a) Security

Question 25.
Odd man out.
(a) www.google.com
(b) www.yahoo.com
(c) www.altavista.com
(d) www.stmaryshss.com
Answer:
(d) www.stmaryshss.com, the others are search engines.

Question 26.
Alvis got email about some products without his consent. Which type of email is this?
Answer:
Spam

Question 27.
What is the primary thing you have needed to sent an email to your friend?
Answer:
You have need an email id (address)

Question 28.
There is a PTA meeting in your school in the next month. The school authorities want to send the invitation to the parents. Which field of the message structure will help for this?
Answer:
CC or bcc

Question 29.
You want to send an invitation to your friends But the friends should not know that the same invitation is sent by you to others also. Which field of the message structure will help you?
Answer:
bcc

Question 30.
Mr. Lijo wants to send his photograph to his friend by email. Which feature will help him for this?
Answer:
Attachment feature

Question 31.
You got some pictures of Jesus Christ through email from one of your friends. You want to send this pictures to your brother. What button will help you for this?
Answer:
Forward button

Question 32.
You got an email from your father working abroad. You want to send an email without typing his email id. Which button will help you for this?
Answer:
Reply button

Question 33.
You got an email from an Insurance Company you want to store their email id which feature will help you for this?
Answer:
We can add address to Address Book.

Question 34.
Who proposed the idea of www.
Answer:
Tim Berners Lee

Question 35.
The protocol for internet communication is ___________
Answer:
TCP/IP protocol

Question 36.
A short distance wireless Internet access method is ___________.
Answer:
Wi-Fi

Question 37.
Give an example for an e-mail address.
Answer:
[email protected]

Question 38.
Which of the following is not a search engine?
(а) Google
(b) Bing
(c) Face book
(d) Ask
Answer:
(c) Facebook

Question 39.
Name the protocol used for e-mail transmission across Internet.
Answer:
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol(SMTP)

Question 40.
Name three services over Internet.
Answer:
WWW, Search engine, Engine

Question 41.
Each document on the web is referred using ___________
Answer:
Uniform Resource Locator(URL)

Question 42.
The small text files used by browsers to remember our email id’s, user names, etc are known as ____________.
Answer:
Cookies

Question 43.
The act of breaking into secure networks to destroy data is called ___________ hacking.
Answer:
Black hats

Question 44.
SIM is _______
(a) Subscriber Identity Module
(b) Subscriber Identity Mobile
(c) Subscription Identity Module
(d) Subscription Identity Mobile
Answer:
(a) Subscriber Identity Module

Question 45.
The protocol used to send SMS message is _________
Answer:
SS7(Signalling System No.7)

Question 46.

1. Define Intranet
2. Write the structure of an e-mail address. (1)

Answer:

1. Intranet: A private network inside a company or organisation is called intranet,
2. The structure of the email address is given below username@domainname
   eg: [email protected]

Question 47.

1. Acquiring information such as username, password, credit card details etc. using misleading websites is known as _______
2. Pick the odd one out:
   Google, Safari, Mozilla Firefox, Internet explorer.

Answer:

1. Phishing
2. Google it is a search engine All others are web browsers

Question 48.
Bluetooth can be used for _________ communication
(i) long distance
(ii) short distance
(iii) mobile phone
(iv) all of these
Answer:
(ii) short distance/(iii) mobile phone

Question 49.
Pick the odd one from the following list
(a) Spam
(b) Trojan horse
(c) Phishing
(d) Firewall
Answer:
(d) Firewall

Question 50.
_________ are small text files that are created in our computer when we use a browser to visit a website.
Answer:
cookies

Question 51.
Which one of the following technologies is used for locating geographic positions according to satellite based navigation system?
(a) MMS
(b) GPS
(c) GSM
(d) SMS
Answer:
(b) GPS

Plus One Internet and Mobile Computing Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
While walking on the road, Simran saw a notice board contains a text “Browsing” in front of a shop. What is Browsing?

OR

Roopa’s mother told you that Roopa is browsing in her room. What is browsing?
Answer:
The process of visiting the websites of various companies, organization, government, individuals etc is called internet browsing or surfing with the help of a browser software we can browse websites.

Question 2.
How can we know that the browser is working or not?
Answer:
The access indicator icon on the right corner of menu bar animates (rotates), when the browser is retrieving data or working. It is static when the browser is not working.

Question 3.
Discuss the steps to download a file from the website.
Answer:
To download a file from the website click on the link or button provided in the web page, then a dialog box will display. Enter the file name and specify the folder to which the file is to be saved. Then click save button then a window showing the progress of the downloading.

Question 4.
What is a Spamming?
Answer:
Sending an email without recipient’s consent to promote a product or service is called spamming. Such an email is called a spam.

Question 5.
You want to send a picture drawn using MS paint immediately to your friend. What method will you adopt for this, so that your friend receives it within seconds? Explain the steps to perform this operation.
Answer:
E-mail (Electronic mail) can be used. There is a facility called attachment will help you to send files with E-mail to your friend. First open your mail box, then take the option to write mail. Fill the email id and subject in the text boxes namely To and Sub respectively.

You can type text in the area given below. Then press the option attachments then select the picture file then press done and press send button.

Question 6.
What do you mean by an ‘always on’ connection?
Answer:
Wired broadband connection is called ‘always on’ connection because it does not need to dial and connect.

Question 7.
What are wikis?
Answer:
In this we can give our contributions regarding various topics and others can watch and edit the content. So incorrect information, advt, etc. are removed quickly.
eg: www.wikipedia.org.

Question 8.
How does a Trojan horse affect a computer?
Answer:
It appears as a useful software but it is a harmful software and it will delete useful software or files in a computer.

Question 9.
How can multimedia content be sent using mobile phones.
Answer:
MMS (Multi-Media Service) allows sending Multi-Media(text, picture, audio and video file) content using mobile phones. It is an extension of SMS.

Question 10.
What are the functions of a mobile OS?
Answer:
Mobile OS manages the hardware, multimedia functions, Internet connectivity, etc. Popular OSs are Android from Google, iOS from Apple, BlackBerry OS from BlackBerry and Windows Phone from Microsoft.

Question 11.
1. Observe the two figures given

• Write their names
• What are their uses?
• Name the device associated with them.

2. RAM cannot be replaced by hard disk in a computer. Why?
Answer:
1. Their names are

• Bar code, QR code
• This is used to store all the information about a product such as name, price, batch, Exp. date etc.
• Barcode Reader, Mobile camera (Mobile camera can be used to read QR code information).

2. RAM means Random Access Memory. It is also called read and write memory. It is used to store operating system, and other programs, The one and only memory that the processor can be accessed is the primary memory. Hence RAM cannot be replaced by hard disk in a computer.

Question 12.
Explain “DOS attack’’ on servers.
Answer:
Denial of Service(DoS) attack:
Its main target is a Web server. Due to this attack the Web server/computer forced to restart and this results refusal of service to the genuine users.

If we want to access a website first you have to type the web site address in the URL and press Enter key, the browser requests that page from the web server. Dos attacks send huge number of requests to the web server until it collapses due to the load and stops functioning.

Question 13.
Find the best matches from the given definitions for the terms in the given list.
(Worm, Hacking, Phishing, Spam)

1. Unsolicited emails sent indiscriminately.
2. A technical effort to manipulate the normal behavior of networked computer system.
3. A stand alone malware program usually makes the data traffic slow.
4. Attempt to acquire information like usernames and passwords by posing as the original website.
5. Appear to be a useful software but will do damage like deleting necessary files.

Answer:
Worm – 3
Hacking – 2
Phishing – 4
Spam – 1

Plus One Internet and Mobile Computing Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a browser?
Answer:
A browser is a piece of software that acts as an interface between the user and the internal working of the internet. With the help of a browser the user can search information on the internet and it allows user to navigate through the web pages. The different browsers are

• Microsoft internet explorer
• Mozilla
• Netscape Navigator
• Mosaic
• Opera

Question 2.
Mr. Anirudhan wants to visit the website of Manorama. Their website address is www. manoramaonline.com. How can it be possible?
Answer:
To visit the website of manorama. Anirudhan has to type “www.manoramaonline.com” in the address bar and press the enter key or use the go button. Then the home page of manorama will display. Sometimes while typing the website address on the browser automatically searches and display the homepage.

Question 3.
The education Dept, of Govt, of Kerala declared SSLC results and it is available on the internet your friend wants to save the result in his computer. Help him to do so. .
Answer:
To save the result in his computer to a file by using the ‘save’ or ‘save as’ option of the file menu. When click this option a dialog box will appear then specify the folder whereas the file has to be saved using the dialog box and click OK. To save an image right click on the image, a pop-up menu will appear then choose the save option give a name and press OK.

Question 4.
The application form of Kerala entrance exam can be downloaded from the official website of Kerala govt. What do you mean by downloading?
Answer:
Downloading is the transfer of files or data from one computer to another usually from a server com¬puter to a client computer. The time required to download the file depends on the size of the file. The files may be text, graphics, program, movies, music, etc.

To download a file click on the link or button provided in the web page and specify the folder and filename and there is a window that shows the progress of the file being downloaded.

Question 5.
To apply minority scholarship, a student has to enter his details online, take a printout of this web page then send the application form with this printout to the authorities. Explain how to take a printout of a web page ?
Answer:
To print a web page either select the print command from file menu or use the print button on the standard tool bar. The page setup option is provided in the file menu. It helps to specify the paper size, margins header and footer and also the page orientation. The print preview option helps to view how the page will look after printing.

Question 6.
Mr. Franco’s e-mail id is [email protected]. He wants to connect this page fastly and he visited regularly. How can it possible?
Answer:
Mr. Franco regularly visited this site to visit this site he has to type the address repeatedly every time. It is laborious work and it can be avoided if he marks the particular address as favorite. A favorite is a link to a web page. So that he can access that page faster.

To do this click add to favorite option then a dialog box appears that asks for a name for the favorite. To make the web page available offline, then ‘Make available offline1 option has to be checked.

Question 7.
Match the following.

Answer:
(1) f (2) a (3) e (4) b (5) d (6) c

Question 8.
Noby accessing internet by using a dial-up connection and manu using a direct connection. What is the difference between these two?
Answer:
There are two ways to connect to the internet. First one dialing to an ISP’s computer or with a direct connection to an ISP.
1. Dial-up Connection:
Here the internet connection is established by dialing into an ISP’s computer and they will connect our computer to the internet. It uses Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) or Point to Point Protocol (PPP). It is slower and has a higher error rate.

2. Direct connection:
In direct connection there is a fixed cable or dedicated phone line to the ISP. Here it uses ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) a high speed version of a standard phone line. Another method is leased lines that uses fibre optic cables.

Digital Subscribers Line (DSL) is another direct connection, this uses copper wires instead of fibre optic for data transfer. Direct connection provides high speed internet connection and error rate is less.

Question 9.
Explain the different steps happened in between user’s click and the page being displayed.
Answer:

1. The browser determines the URL selected.
2. The browser asks the DNS for URLS corresponding IP address (Numeric address)
3. The DNS returns the address to the browser.
4. The browser makes a TCP connection using the IP address.
5. Then it sends a GET request for the required file to the server.
6. The server collects the file and send it back to the browser.
7. The TCP connection is released.
8. The text and the images in the web pages are displayed in the browser.

Question 10.
What is a Spamming?
Answer:
Sending an email without recipient’s consent to promote a product or service is called spamming. Such an email is called a spam.

Question 11.
You wish to visit the website of your school. Name the software required. Which software is available with Windows for this purpose? Give names of other such software.
Answer:
Browsing software or Browser. The browsers are:

1. Netscape Navigator
2. Internet Explorer
3. Mozilla
4. Opera
5. Mosaic etc.

Question 12.
Suppose you want to collect information regarding Tsunami using Internet.

1. Suggest a method for this purpose
2. Explain one method adopted.

Answer:
A browser is a piece of software that acts as an interface between the user and the internal working of the internet. With the help of a browser the user can search information on the internet and it allows userto navigate through the web pages. The different browsers are

• Microsoft internet explorer
• Mozilla
• Netscape Navigator
• Mosaic
• Opera

Question 13.
What is a blog?
Answer:
Conducting discussions about particular subjects by entries or posts. The posts appeared in the reverse chronological order means the most recent post appears first.
eg: Blogger.com, WordPress.com, hsslive.com etc.

Question 14.
What do you mean by phishing.
Answer:
it is an attempt to get others information such as usenames, passwords, bank ale details etc by acting as the authorized website. Phishing websites have URLs and home pages similar to their original ones and mislead others, it is called spoofing.

Question 15.
What is quarantine?
Answer:
When you start an anti-virus program and if any fault found it stops the file from running and stores the file in a special area called Quarantine (isolated area) and can be deleted later.

Question 16.
Compare the intranet and extranet.
Answer:
A private network inside a company or organisation is called intranet and can be accessed by the company’s personnel. But Extranet allows vendors and business partners to access the company resources.

Question 17.
Write short notes on

1. mobile broadband
2. Wi-MAX

Answer:

1. Mobile broadband: Accessing Internet using wireless devices like mobile phones, tablet, USB dongles, etc.
2. Wi MAX(Wireless Microwave Access): It uses microwaves to transmit information across a network in a range 2GHz to 11GHz over very long distance.

Question 18.
Compare blogs and microblogs.
Answer:
Blogs: Conducting discussions about particular subjects by entries or posts. The posts appeared in the reverse chronological order means the most recent post appears first.
eg: Blogger.com, WordPress.com, hsslive.com etc.

Microblogs: It allows users to exchange short messages, multimedia files, etc.
eg: www.twitter.com

Question 19.
What is firewall?
Answer:
It is a system that controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic by analyzing the data and then provides security to the computer network in an organization from other networks (internet).

Question 20.
XYZ engineering college has advertised that its campus is Wi-Fi enabled. What is Wi-Fi? How is the Wi-Fi facility implemented in the campus.
Answer:
Wi-Fi means Wireless Fidelity. It is a wireless technology. Some organisation offers Wi-Fi facility. Here we can connect internet wirelessly over short distance, using Wi-Fi enabled devices.

It uses radio waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz in short distance. Nowadays this technology is used to access internet in campuses, hypermarkets, hotels by using Laptops, Desktops, tablet, mobile phones etc.

Question 21.
What is GPS?
Answer:
It is a space based satellite navigation system that provides location and time information in all weather conditions, anywhere on or near the Earth where there is an unobstructed line of sight to four or more GPS satellites. The system provides critical capabilities to military, civil and commercial users around the world.

It is maintained by the United States government and is freely accessible to anyone with a GPS receiver. GPS was created and realized by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and was originally run with 24 satellites. It is used for vehicle navigation, aircraft navigation, ship navigation, oil exploration, Fishing, etc. GPS receivers are now integrated with mobile phones.

Question 22.
Write short notes on SMS.
Answer:
Short Message Service(SMS):
It allows transferring short text messages containing up to 160 characters between mobile phones. The sent message reaches a Short Message Service Center(SMSC), that allows ‘store and forward’ systems. It uses the protocol SS7(Signaling System No7). The first SMS message ‘Merry Christmas’ was sent on 03/12/1992 from a PC to a mobile phone on the Vodafone GSM network in UK.

Question 23.
What is smart card? How it is useful?
Answer:
A smart card is a plastic card with a computer chip or memory that stores and transacts data. A smart card (may be like your ATM card) reader used to store and transmit data. The advantages are it is secure, intelligent and convenient. The smart card technology is used in SIM for GSM phones. A SIM card is used as an identification proof.

Question 24
Social media plays an important role in today’s life. Write notes supporting and opposing its impacts.(3)
Answer:

Advantages of social media:

• Bring people together: It allows people to maintain the friendship.
• Plan and organize events: It allows users to plan and organize events.
• Business promotion: It helps the firms to promote their sales.
• Social skills: There is a key role of the formation of society.

Disadvantages.

• Intrusion to privacy: Some people may misuse the personal information.
• Addiction: sometimes it may waste time and money.
• Spread rumours: The news will spread very quickly and negatively

Question 25.
One of your friends wants to send an email to his father abroad to convey him birthday wishes with a painting done by him. Explain the structure and working of email to him. (3)
Answer:
The email message contains the following fields.

1. To: Recipient’s address will be enter here. Multiple recipients are also allowed by using coma.
2. CC: Enter the address of other recipients to get a carbon copy of the message.
3. bcc: The address to whom blind carbon copies are to be sent. This feature allows people to send copies to third recipient without the knowledge of primary and secondary recipients.
4. From: Address of the sender
5. Reply to: The email address to which replies are to be sent.
6. Subject: Short summary of the message.
7. Body: Here the actual message is to be typed.

Question 26.
Briefly explain any three mobile communication services.
Answer:
Mobile communication services.
1. Short Message Service(SMS):
It allows transferring short text messages containing up to 160 characters between mobile phones. The sent message reaches a Short Message Service Center(SMSC), that allows ‘store and forward’ systems. It uses the protocol SS7(Signaling System No7), The first SMS message ‘Merry Christmas’ was sent on 03/12/1992 from a PC to a mobile phone on the Vodafone GSM network in UK.

2. Multimedia Messaging Service (MMS):
It allows sending Multi-Media(text, picture, audio and video file) content using mobile phones. It is an extension of SMS.

3. Global Positioning System(GPS):
It is a space – based satellite navigation system that provides location and time information in all weather conditions, anywhere on or near the Earth where there is an unobstructed line of sight to four or more GPS satellites. The system provides critical capabilities to military, civil and commercial users around the world.

It is maintained by the United States government and is freely accessible to anyone with a GPS receiver. GPS was created and realized by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and was originally run with 24 satellites. It is used for vehicle navigation, aircraft navigation, ship navigation, oil exploration, Fishing, etc. GPS receivers are now integrated with mobile phones.

4. Smart Cards:
A smart card is a plastic card with a computer chip or memory that stores and transacts data. A smart card (maybe like your ATM card) reader used to store and transmit data. The advantages are it is secure, intelligent and convenient. The smart card technology is used in SIM for GSM phones. A SIM card is used as an identification proof.

Question 27.
Define Internet. Compare two types of Internet connectivities namely Dial-up and Broadband.
Answer:
Types of connectivity
There are two ways to connect to the internet. First one dialing to an ISP’s computer or with a direct connection to an ISP.

Question 28.
1. your friend does not have an e-mail address. Suggest an e-mail address for him. Starting the advantages of e-mail, explain how it becomes useful for his further communications.

OR

2. List the possible risks while interacting with social media.
Answer:
1. An example of an email id isjobi_cg@rediffmail. com. here jobi_cg is the user name, rediffmail is the portal or website address and.com is the top level domain which identifies the type of organisation. Similarly, we can create an email id, for this type the URL “www.rediffmail.com” and for the new user you have to signup and create an email Id.
The advantages of email are given below:

1. Speed is high
2. It is cheap
3. We can send email to multiple recipients.
4. Incoming messages can be saved locally.
5. It reduces the usage of paper.
6. We can access mail box anytime and from any where.

2. The possible risks while interacting with social media is given below.

• Intrusion to privacy: Some people may mis use the personal information.
• Addiction: Sometimes due to addiction it may waste time and money.
• Spread rumours: The news will spread very quickly and negatively.

Question 29.
Mobile phone technology has evolved through four generations.

1. Which generation is called Long Terms Evolution?
2. Explain some major advancements evolved through these generations. (3)

Answer:
1. 4G

2. Generations in mobile communication
The mobile phone was introduced in the year 1946. Early stage it was expensive and limited services hence its growth was very slow. To solve this problem, cellular communication concept was developed in 1960’s at Bell Lab. 1990’s onwards cellular technology became a common standard in our country.

The various generations in mobile communication are:
(a) First Generation networks(1G):
It was developed around 1980, based on analog system and only voice transmission was allowed.

(b) Second Generation networks(2G):
This is the next generation network that was allowed voice and data transmission. Picture message and l\4MS(Multimedia Messaging Service) were introduced. GSM and CDMA standards were introduced by 2G.

(i) Global System for Mobile(GSM):
It is the most successful standard. It uses narrow band TDMA(Time Division Multiple Access), allows simultaneous calls on the same frequency range of 900 MHz to 1800 MHz. The network is identified using the SIM(Subscriber Identity Module).

(a) GPRS(General Packet Radio Services):
It is a packet oriented mobile data service on the 2G on GSM. GPRS was originally standardized by European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) GPRS usage is typically charged based on volume of data transferred. Usage above the bundle cap is either charged per megabyte or disallowed.

(b) EDGE(Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution):
It is three times faster than GPRS. It is used for voice communication as well as an internet connection.

(ii) Code Division Multiple Access(CDMA):
It is a channel access method used by various radio communication technologies. CDMA is an example of multiple access, which is where several transmitters can send information simultaneously over a single communication channel. This allows several users to share a band of frequencies To permit this to be achieved without undue interference between the users, and provide better security.

(c) Third Generation networks(3G):
It allows high data transfer rate for mobile devices and offers high speed wireless broadband services combining voice and data. To enjoy this service 3G enabled mobile towers and hand sets required.

(d) Fourth Generation networks(4G):
lt is also called Long Term Evolution(LTE) and also offers ultra broadband Internet facility such as high quality streaming video. It also offers good quality image and videos than TV.

Question 30.
What is browsing? Briefly explain the steps needed for browsing.
Answer:
The process of visiting a website is called browsing.
Web Browsing steps are given below:

1. The browser determines the URL entered.
2. The browser asks the DNS for URLS corresponding IP address (Numeric address)
3. The DNS returns the address to the browser.
4. The browser makes a TCP connection using the IP address.
5. Then it sends a GET request for the required file to the server.
6. The server collects the file and send it back to the browser.
7. The TCP connection is released.
8. The text and the images in the web pages are displayed in the browser.

Question 31.
Susheel’s email id is [email protected]. He sends an email to Rani whose email id is [email protected]. How is the mail sent from susheel’s computer to Rani’s computer?
Answer:
To send an email first type the recipients address and type the message then click the send button. The website’s server first check the email address is valid, if it is valid it will be sent otherwise the message will not be sent and the sender will get an email that it could not deliver the message.

This message will be received by the recipient’s server and will be delivered to recipient’s mail box. He can read it and it will remain in his mail box as long as he will be deleted. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol(SMTP) is used.
The advantages of email are given below:

1. Speed is high
2. It is cheap
3. We can send email to multiple recipients
4. Incoming messages can be saved locally
5. It reduces the usage of paper
6. We can access mail box anytime and from anywhere.

The disadvantages are:

1. it requires a computer, a modem, software and internet connection to check mail.
2. Some mails may contain viruses.
3. Mail boxes are filled with junk mail. So very difficult to find the relevant mail.

Plus One Internet and Mobile Computing Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Your younger brother does not know the structure of an email message. Explain the structure of an email message.
Answer:
The email message contains the following fields:

1. To: Recipient’s address will be enter here. Multiple recipients are also allowed by using coma.
2. CC: Enter the address of other recipients to get a carbon copy of the message.
3. bcc: The address to whom blind carbon copies are to be sent. This feature allows people to send copies to third recipient without the knowledge of primary and secondary recipients.
4. From: Address of the sender
5. Reply to: The email address to which replies are to be sent.
6. Subject: Short summary of the message.
7. Body: Here the actual message is to be typed

Question 2.
‘Email is the most popular, but most misused service of the internet’. Justify your answer.
Answer:
The advantages of email are given below:

1. Speed is high
2. It is cheap
3. We can send email to multiple recipients
4. Incoming messages can be saved locally
5. It reduces the usage of paper
6. We can access mail box anytime and from anywhere.

The disadvantages are:

1. it requires a computer, a modem, software and internet connection to check mail.
2. Some mails may contain viruses
3. Mail boxes are filled with junk mail. So very difficult to find the relevant mail

Students can Download Chapter 1 Physical World Questions and Answers, Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Physics Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 1 Physical World

Plus One Physics Physical World One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The word ‘Science’ originated from a Latin verb. Which is that verb?
Answer:
‘Scientia’ means ‘to know’.

Question 2.
The word physics comes from a Greek word______.
Answer:
‘Fusis’ means ‘nature’.

Question 3.
Name the branch of science that deals with

1. Study of stars
2. Study of earth

Answer:

1. Astronomy
2. Geology

Plus One Physics Physical World Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks

Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 16 Probability Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 16 Probability

Plus One Maths Probability Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two dice are thrown. The events A, B and C are as follows:

1. A: getting an even number on the first die.
2. B: getting an odd number on the first die.
3. C: getting sum of the numbers on the dice ≤ 5.

Describe the events.
Answer:

1. A = {(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6), (6, 1), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
2. B = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6),(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6), (5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6)}
3. C = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (2, 2), (1, 3), (3, 1), (2, 3), (3, 2), (1, 4), (4, 1)}

Question 2.
A bag contains 6 red and 12 green balls. Two balls are drawn. What is the probability that one is red and other is green?
Answer:
Here total number of balls = 6 + 12 = 18 Two balls from 18 can be drawn in
¹⁸C₂ = \(\frac{18 \times 17}{1 \times 2}\) = 153
One red ball out of 6 red can be drawn in ⁶C₁ = 6 ways. One green balls from 12 green may be done in ¹²C₁ = 12 ways.
Therefore, number of favorable cases
= 6 × 12 = 72
The probability that one is red and other is green \(=\frac{72}{153}=\frac{8}{17}\).

Question 3.
In class XI of a school 40% of the students study Mathematics and 30% study Biology, 10% of the class study both Mathematics and Biology. If a student is selected at random from the class, find the probability that he will be studying Mathematics or Biology.
Answer:
Let M- Mathematics and B – Biology be the events.
P(M) = \(\frac{40}{100}\) = \(\frac{2}{5}\); P(B) = \(\frac{3}{10}\);
P(M ∩ B) = \(\frac{1}{10}\)
P(M ∪ B) = P(M) + P(B) – P(M ∩ B)

Plus One Maths Probability Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two die are rolled, A is the event that the sum of the numbers shown on the two die is 7 and B is the event that at least one of the die shows up 2. Are the two events A and B

1. Mutually exclusive
2. Exhaustive.

Answer:
S = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5),(2,6), (3, 1) , (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6), (4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6), (5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
A = {(6, 1), (1, 6), (4, 3), (3, 4), (2, 5), (5, 2)}
B = {(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6), (1, 2), (3, 2), (4, 2), (5, 2), (6, 2)}
1. Now; A ∩ B = {(2, 5), (5, 2)} ≠ Φ
Therefore not mutually exclusive.

2. A ∪ B = {(6, 1), (1, 6), (4, 3), (3, 4), (2, 5), (5, 2), (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 6), (1, 2), (3, 2), (4, 2), (6, 2)} ≠ S
Therefore not mutually exhaustive.

Question 2.
A letters of the word ASSASSINATION are randomly chosen. Find the probability that letter is

1. a vowels. (2)
2. a consonant (2)

Answer:
There 13 letter in the word, with 6 vowels and 7 consonants.
One letter is selected out of 13 in ¹³C₁ = 13 ways.
1. One vowel is selected out of 6 in ⁶C₁ = 6 ways.
Thus the probability of a vowel = \(\frac{6}{13}\).

2. One consonant is selected out of 7 in ⁷C₁ = 7 ways.
Thus the probability of a consonant = \(\frac{7}{13}\).

Question 3.
If E and F are events such that P(E) = \(\frac{1}{4}\), P(F) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and P(E and F) = \(\frac{1}{8}\). Find

1. P(E or F)
2. P(not E and not F)

Answer:
P(E) = \(\frac{1}{4}\), P(F) = \(\frac{1}{2}\); P(E ∩ F) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)
1. P(E ∪ F) = P(E) + P(F) – P(E ∩ F)

2. P(not E and not F) = P(E’ ∩ F’) = P(E ∪ F)’
= 1 – P(E ∪ F) = 1 – \(\frac{5}{8}\) = \(\frac{3}{8}\)

Plus One Maths Probability Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A die is thrown. Describe the following events: (1 score each)

1. A: a number less than 7.
2. B: a number greater than 7.
3. C: a multiple of 3:
4. D: a number less than 4.
5. E: An even number greater than 4.
6. F: a number not less than 3.

Also find
A ∪ B, A ∩ B, B ∪ C, E ∩ F, D ∩ E, A – C, D – E F’, E ∩ F’.
Answer:

1. A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
2. B = Φ
3. C = {3, 6}
4. D = {1, 2, 3}
5. E = {6}
6. F = {3, 4, 5, 6}

Now; A ∪ B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
A ∩ B = Φ; B ∪ C = {3, 6}, E ∩ F = {6}
F’ = {1, 2}, E ∩ F’ = Φ.

Question 2.
Describe the sample space for the following events: (2 score each)

1. A coin is tossed and a die is thrown.
2. A coin is tossed and then a die is rolled.
3. 2 boys and 2 girls are in a Room X and 1 boy and 3 girls in Room Y. Specify the sample space for the experiment in which a room is selected and then a person.
4. One die of red colour, one of white colour and one of blue colour are placed in a bag. One die is selected at random and rolled, its colour and the number on its upper most face is noted.
5. An experiment consists of tossing a coin and then throwing it second time if a head occur. If a tail occurs on the first toss, then a die is rolled once.
6. A coin is tossed. If the outcome is a head, a die is thrown. If the die shows up shows up an head, a die is thrown. If the die shows up an even number, the die is thrown again.

Answer:
1. A coin is tossed then S₁ = {H, T}
A die is rolled then S₂ = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Hence sample space
S = {H1, H2, H3, H4, H5, H6, T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6}.

2. A coin is tossed then S₁ = {H, T}
A die is rolled then S₂ = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Hence sample space S = {H1, H2, H3,H4, H5,H6, T}

3. Let B₁, B₂ denote the boys and G₁, G₂ girls in room X, B₁ denote the boys and G₃, G₄, G₅ girls in room Y. Hence sample space
S = {XB₁, XB₂, XG₁, XG₂, YB₁, YG₃, XG₄, XG₅}

4. Three die are R,W, and B, then S₁ = {R, W, B)
A die is rolled then S₂ = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Hence sample space S = {R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6, W1, W2, W3, W4, W5, W6, B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6}

5. A coin is tossed then S₁ = {H, T}
A coin tossed again then S₂ = {H, T}
A die is rolled then S₃ = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Hence sample space
S = {HH, HT, T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6}

6. A coin is tossed then S₁ = {H, T}
When the coin shows T, then there is no action. When the coin shows H, a die is thrown
S₂ = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
When the die shows {1, 3, 5}, then there is no action.
When the die shows {2, 4, 6}, then a die is thrown again.
Hence;
S = {T, H1, H3, H5, H21, H22, H23, H24, H25, H26, H41, H42, H43, H44, H45, H46,H61, H62, H63, H64, H65, H66}.

Question 3.
A die is rolled. Let E be the event “die shows 4” and F be the event “die shows even number”. Are E and F mutually exclusive?
Answer:
When die is rolled the sample space is S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}.
E: die shows 4 = {4}
F: die shows even number = {2, 4, 6}
Now E ∩ F = {4} ≠ Φ
Thus E and F are not mutually exclusive.

Question 4.
Two die are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting 4 as the product.
Answer:
n(S) = 36
A = {(1, 4), (4, 1), (2, 2)}
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{36}=\frac{1}{12}\).

Question 5.
A coin is tossed, twice, what is the probability that atleast one tail occurs?
Answer:
Here, S = {HH, HT, TH, TT}; n(S) = 4
A = {TH, HT, TT}; n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{4}\).

Question 6.
A die is rolled, find the probability of following events: (2 score each)

1. A prime number will appear.
2. A number greater than or equal to 3 will appear.
3. A number less than or equal to one will appear.
4. A number more than 6 will appear.
5. A number less than 6 will appear.

Answer:
Here sample space is S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
1. A: A prime number will appear A = {2, 3, 5};
P(A) = \(\frac{n(A)}{n(S)}=\frac{3}{6}=\frac{1}{2}\)

2. B: A number greater than or equal to 3 will appear. B = {3, 4, 5, 6};
P(B) = \(\frac{n(B)}{n(S)}=\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\)

3. C: A number less than or equal to one will appear. C = {1};
P(C) = \(\frac{n(C)}{n(S)}=\frac{1}{6}\)

4. D: A number more than 6 will appear.
D = Φ; P(D) = \(\frac{n(D)}{n(S)}=\frac{0}{6}=0\)

5. E: A number less than 6 will appear. E = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6};
P(E) = \(\frac{n(E)}{n(S)}=\frac{6}{6}=1\).

Question 7.
One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards, each of the 52 cards being equally likely to be drawn. Find the probability that (2 score each)

1. The card drawn is black.
2. The card drawn is a king.
3. The card drawn is black and a king.
4. The card drawn is either black ora king.

Answer:
1. A pack of 52 cards has 26 black cards. So one black card may be drawn in 26 ways. Therefore; Probability of card drawn is black
= \(\frac{26}{52}=\frac{1}{2}\)

2. A pack of 52 cards has 4 kings. So one king card may be drawn in 4 ways. Therefore; Probability of drawing a king
= \(\frac{4}{52}=\frac{1}{13}\)

3. A pack of 52 cards has 2 black king cards. So one black king card may be drawn in 2 ways. Therefore; Probability of drawing a king
= \(\frac{2}{52}=\frac{1}{26}\)

4. A pack of 52 cards has 26 black cards which include 2 black king and 2 red king cards. So number of cards which are black or king cards
= 26 + 2 = 28.
Therefore; Probability of drawing either a black or king card = = \(\frac{28}{52}=\frac{7}{13}\).

Question 8.
GivenP(A) = \(\frac{3}{5}\) and P(B) = \(\frac{1}{5}\). Find P(A or B), if A and B are mutually exclusive events.
Answer:
Here; P(A) = \(\frac{3}{5}\) and P(B) = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Since A and B mutually exclusive events
P(A ∪ B) = P(A) + P(B)

Students can Download Chapter 15 Statistics Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 15 Statistics

Plus One Maths Statistics Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the mean deviation about the median for the following data: (3 score each)

1. 13, 17, 16, 14, 11, 13, 10, 16, 11, 18, 12, 17.
2. 36, 72, 46, 42, 60, 45, 53, 46, 51, 49.

Answer:
1. Arrange the data in the ascending order we have;
10, 11, 11, 12, 13, 13, 14, 16, 16, 17, 17, 18
Here n = 12. So median is the average of 6^th and 7^th observations.
Therefore; Median, M =\(\frac{13+14}{2}\) = 13.5

Mean deviation = \(\frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left|x_{i}-M\right|}{n}=\frac{28}{12}\) = 2.33

2. Arrange the data in the ascending order we have; 36, 42, 45, 46, 46, 49, 51, 53, 60, 72
Here n = 10. So median is the average of 5^th and 6^th observations.
Therefore; Median, M = \(\frac{46+49}{2}\) = 47.5

Mean deviation = \(\frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n}\left|x_{i}-M\right|}{n}=\frac{70}{10}\) = 7.

Question 2.
The mean and standard deviation of marks obtained by 50 students of a class in three subjects, mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry are given below:

Which of the three subject shows the highest variability in marks and which shows the lowest?
Answer:
For Mathematics:
\(\bar{x}\) = 42, σ = 12
∴ CV of Mathematics = \(\frac{12}{42}\) × 100 = 28.57%
For Physics:
\(\bar{x}\) = 32, σ = 15
∴ CV of Physics = \(\frac{15}{32}\) × 100 = 46.88%
For Chemistry:
\(\bar{x}\) = 40.9, σ = 20
∴ CV of Chemistry = \(\frac{20}{40.9}\) × 100 = 48.9%
Thus Chemistry with highest CV shows highest variability and Mathematics with lowest CV shows lowest variability.

Plus One Maths Statistics Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the mean deviation about the mean for the following data: (4 score each)
1.

2.

Answer:
1.

2.

Question 2.
Find the mean deviation about the median for the following data: (4 score each)
1.

2.

Answer:
1.

\(\frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n} f_{i}}{2}=\frac{26}{2}\) = 13
The c.f just greater than 13 is 14 and corresponding value of x is 7. Therefore; median, M = 7
Hence; M.D about median

2.

\(\frac{\sum_{i=1}^{n} f_{i}}{2}=\frac{29}{2}\) = 14.5
The c.f just greater than 14.5 is 21 and corresponding value of x is 30. Therefore; median, M = 30
Hence; M.D about median

Question 3.
Find the mean deviation about the mean for the following data: (4 score each)
1.

2.

Answer:
1.

2.

Question 4.
Find the mean deviation about the median for the following data: (4 score each)
1.

2.

Answer:
1.

Median class is the class in which the \(\left(\frac{N}{2}\right)^{th}\) observation lies.
\(\frac{N}{2}=\frac{50}{2}\) = 25
Median class = 20 – 30
M = Median

2.

Median class is the class in which the \(\left(\frac{N}{2}\right)^{th}\) observation lies.
\(\frac{N}{2}=\frac{100}{2}\) = 50
Median class = 35.5 – 40.5
M = Median

Question 5.
Find the variance and standard deviation of 3, 4, 6, 5, 5, 3, 8, 1, 7, 5
Answer:



\(\frac{259}{10}\) – (4.7)² = 25.9 – 22.09 = 3.8
Standard Deviation (σ) = \(\sqrt{\text {Variance}}\) = \(\sqrt{3.8}\) =1.95.

Question 6.
Find the variance and standard deviation of

Answer:


Standard Deviation (σ) = \(\sqrt{\text {Variance}}\)
= \(\sqrt{15.08}\) = 3.88.

Question 7.
An analysis of monthly wages paid to workers in two firms A and B, belonging to the same industry, gives the following result.

1. Which firm A or B pays larger amount as monthly wages?
2. Which firm A or B, shows greater variability in individual wages?

Answer:
1. Firm: A
Number of wages earners (n₁) = 586
Number of wages earners (\(\bar{x}_{1}\)) = 5253
Total monthly wages = 5253 × 586 = 3078258
Firm: B
Number of wages earners (n₁) = 648
Number of wages earners (\(\bar{x}_{1}\)) = 5253
Total monthly wages = 5253 × 648 = 3403944

2. Since both the firms have same mean of monthly wages, so the firm with greater variance will have more variability in individual wages. Thus firm B will have more variability in individual wages.

Question 8.
The sum and sum of squares corresponding to length x (in cm) and weight y (in gm) of 50 plant products are given below:

which is more varying, the length or weight?
Answer:
Here,

Now

C.V of weight = \(\frac{1.38}{5.22}\) × 100 = 26.44
C.V of weight > C.V of length
Thus weight have more variability than length

Plus One Maths Statistics Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the variance and standard deviation of

Answer:

Standard Deviation (a) = \(\sqrt{\text {Variance}}\)
= \(\sqrt{223.22}\) = 14.94.

Plus One Maths Statistics Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Find the mean deviation about the mean for the following data: (2 score each)

1. 4, 7, 8, 9, 10, 12, 13, 17.
2. 38, 70, 48, 40, 42, 55, 63, 46, 54, 44.

Answer:
1.

2.

Students can Download Chapter 11 Computer Networks Questions and Answers, Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 11 Computer Networks

Plus One Computer Networks One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
An interconnected collection of autonomous computers is called _________
Answer:
Computer Networks

Question 2.
State true/false
A computer connected to a network is called work station.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
A work station is also called
Answer:
Node

Question 4.
Which hardware is used to connect a work station to a network?
Answer:
Network Interface Card (NIC)

Question 5.
Rules and convention to transmit data on a network is called _________
Answer:
Protocol

Question 6
In your computer lab sometimes you can see that cable from some computers are connected to a small box. What is it?
Answer:
It is a Hub/Switch

Question 7.
The computers connected in your school lab is a _________ type network.
Answer:
Local Area Network

Question 8.
A Cable TV Network that spread over the city is a _________ type network.
Answer:
Metropolitan Area Network

Question 9.
Internet is a __________type network.
Answer:
Wide Area Network

Question 10.
The school management is decided to connect computers in your HSS lab and high school lab located adjacent buildings. Which type of network is this?
Answer:
Local Area Network

Question 11.
A company decided to connect the computers of their branch located in another city away from 10 km. Name this network.
Answer:
Metropolitan Area Network

Question 12.
Geometrical arrangement of computers in a network is called _________
Answer:
Topology

Question 13.
From the following select an ISP.
(a) KSEB
(b) KSRTC
(c) BSNL
(d) PWD
Answer:
(c) BSNL

Question 14.
ISP means
Answer:
Internet service provider

Question 15.
ISDN means
Answer:
Integrated services digital network

Question 16.
State true/false.
In peer to peer configuration all the computers are with equal configuration.
Answer:
True

Question 17.
State true/false.
In client server configuration, a computer is powerful than others.
Answer:
True

Question 18.
Consider the following address.
http://www.nic.kerala.gov.in, “in” is used to represent what?
Answer:
“in” is used to represent the country “India”.

Question 19.
Which top level domain is used for non commercial organisation?
Answer:
org

Question 20.
Which geographical top level domain is used for the country “France”?
Answer:
Fr

Question 21.
DNS stands for.
Answer:
Domain Name System

Question 22.
An IP address consists of bits long.
(a) 4
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64
Answer:
(c) 32 bits

Question 23.
An IP address consists of bytes long.
(a) 4
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64
Answer:
(a) 4 Bytes

Question 24.
From the following which media is using light rays for data transfer.
(a) Twisted pair cable
(b) Optical fibre
(c) Coanial cable
(d) Microwave station
Answer:
(b) Optical fibre

Question 25.
The wiring is not shared in a topology. Which is that topology?
Answer:
Star

Question 26.
________ is a combination of any two or more network topologies.
Answer:
Hybrid Topology

Question 27.
The nodes in a topology with two or more paths. Which topology is this?
Answer:
Mesh topology

Question 28.
Copying the signals from the earth to satellite is called __________
Answer:
Uplink

Question 29.
Copying the signals from the satellite to earth is called ____________
Answer:
Downlink, Mesh topology

Question 30.
In very short distance networks, which communication media is used?
Answer:
Twisted pair cables or coaxial cables.

Question 31.
In long distance networks, which communication medias are used?
Answer:
microwave station, satellites, etc.

Question 32.
From the following which connector is used to connect UTP/STP twisted pair cable to a computer.
(a) RJ – 45
(b) RS – 1
(c) CG – 1
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) RJ – 45

Question 33.
The cable media that use light to transmit data signals to very long distance is ________.
Answer:
Optical fibre cable

Question 34.
AM and FM radio broadcast and mobile phones make use of _________ medium for transmission.
Answer:
Radio waves

Question 35.
A short range communication technology that does not require line of sight between communicating device is __________.
Answer:
Wi-Fi

Question 36.
A communication system that is very expensive, but has a large coverage area when compared to other wireless communication system is ______
Answer:
Satellite link

Question 37.
In which topology is every node connected to other nodes?
Answer:
Mesh topology

Question 38.
Any device which is directly connected to a network is generally known as ___________
Answer:
Node or Work station or Client or Terminal

Question 39.
In ____________ topology all the nodes are connected to a main cable. (1)
Answer:
Bus topology

Question 40.
Write the full from of FTTH.
Answer:
Fibre To The Home

Question 41.
Which one of the following statements is TRUE in relation with Wi-MAX Internet connectivity?
(a) make use of satellite connection
(b) Uses cable connection
(c) Uses laser beam for connection
(d) Microwave is used for connectivity
Answer:
(d) Microwave is used for connectivity

Question 42.
Identify the type of LAN topology in which there are more than one path between nodes,
(a) Star
(b) Ring
(c) Mesh
(d) Bus
Answer:
(c) Mesh topology

Question 43.

1. To make data transfer faster, a switch stores two different addresses of all the devices connected to it. Which are they?
2. Name the device that can interconnect two different networks having different protocols.

Answer:

1. IP and MAC address
2. Gateway

Question 44.

1. Different networks with different protocols are connected by a device called ________
   • Router
   • Bridge
   • Switch
   • Gateway
2. Define Protocol

Answer:

1. Gateway
2. Protocol: The rules and conventions for transmitting data.

Plus One Computer Networks Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Is it possible to connect all the computers to a network? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. It is not possible to connect all the computers to a network. A computer, with a hardware called Network Interface Card (NIC), can only connect to a network.

Question 2.
Define Computer Networks?
Answer:
Two or more computers connected through a communication media that allows exchange of information between computers is called a Computer Network.
eg: LAN, MAN, WAN

Question 3.
Do you heard about work station/Node. What is it?
Answer:
A personal computer connected to a network is called work station/Node.

Question 4.
Define a protocol.
Answer:
A protocol is the collection of rules and conventions used to exchange information between computers as a network.

Question 5.
Is the following a valid IP address? 258.1001.10.1. Justify your answer?
Answer:
No. It is not a valid IP address. An IP address has 4 parts numeric address. Each parts contains 8 bits. By using 8 bits we can represent a decimal number between 0 to 255. Here 258 and 1001 are greater than 255. So it is not valid.

Question 6.
Mr. Dixon purchased a Laptop with bluetooth technology. What is bluetooth?
Answer:
It is a specification that allows mobile phones, computers and PDAS to be connected wirelessly over short distance.

Question 7.
Some Airport or college campus offers Wi-Fi facility. What is Wi-Fi?
Answer:
Wi-Fi means Wireless Fidelity. It is a wireless technology. Some organisation offers Wi-Fi facility. Here we can connect internet wirelessly over short distance, using Wi-Fi enabled devices.

Question 8.
What is a protocol?
Answer:
A protocol is a collection of rules and regulations to transmit data from one computer to another on a network.
eg: Http, FTP, TCP/IP, etc.

Question 9.
Explain Infrared waves in detail?
Answer:
These waves are used for transmitting data in short distance and its frequency range is 300 GHz to 400 GHz. Tv’s remote control, wireless mouse and intrusion detectors etc are the devices that used infrared.

Question 10.
Define resource sharing.
Answer:
Resource sharing means the computers on a network can share resources like software (programs, data) and hardware (printer, scanner, CD drive etc.).

Question 11.
Name two classification of communication channels between computers in a network.
Answer:
The two classification of communication channels are guided media and unguided media.

Question 12.
What is the use of a Repeater ?
Answer:
A Repeater is a device used to strengthen weak signals on the network and retransmits them to the destination.

Question 13.
Differentiate between router and Bridge.
Answer:
Bridge is a device used to link same type of networks while Router is similar to a bridge, but it can connect two networks with different protocols.

Question 14.
Categorise and classify the different types of network given below.
ATM network, Cable television network, Network within the school, Network at home using Bluetooth, Telephone network, Railway network ,
Answer:

• PAN: Network at home using Bluetooth
• LAN: Network within the school
• MAN: Cable television network
• WAN: ATM network, Telephone network, Railway network

Question 15.
What is PAN?
Answer:
PAN means Personal Area Network. It is used to connect devices situated in a small radius by using guided media(USB cable)or unguided media (Bluetooth, infrared,etc).

Plus One Computer Networks Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of Networks?

OR

In a school lab all the 10 computers are connected to a network. We know that there is no need of 10 printers or 10 scanners why? Explain the advantages of Networks?
Answer:
The advantages of Networks are given below:
1. Resource sharing:
All the computers in a network can share software (programs, data) and hardware (printer, scanner, CD drive etc.).

2. Reliability:
If one computer fails, the other computer can perform the work without any delay. This is very important for banking air traffic control and other application.

3. Price Vs Performance:
A main frame computer can be 10 times faster than a PC but it costs thousand times a PC. Therefore instead of a main frame 10 personal computers are used with less cost and same performance.

4. Communication Medium:
It is a powerful communication medium. We can exchange information between computers in a network.

5. Scalable:
This means, System performance can be increased by adding computers to a network.

Question 2.
Match the following,

Answer:
(1) c
(2) a
(3) b
(4) f
(5) d
(6) e

Question 3.
Your friend told you that a workstation and server are same. What is your opinion? Is it true?
Answer:
No it is not true. A work station is a ordinary computer connected to a network. But a server is a powerful computer connected to a network. Its main aim is to serve the needs of a workstation. Server is the master and workstations are the slaves.

Question 4.
Your friend told you that there are different types of servers. Do you agree with that ? Justify your answer?
Answer:
Yes, there are different types of servers, dedicated and non dedicated servers.
1. Dedicated Server:
In large networks, a computer is reserved only for doing server function like sharing software and hardware resources and it is unavailable for running user applications and therefore increases system cost.
eg: File server, Printer server etc.

2. Non dedicated Server:
In smaller networks, a computer is doing the function of a server as well as it also act as a workstation.

Question 5.
Your friend asked you that a Hub or switch is better. What is your opinion?
Answer:
A Hub is a device that receives data from a PC and transmit it to all other PC’s on the network. If two or more PC’s transmit data at the same time, there is a chance for collision.

Hub is a cheap device and data transfer through a Hub is slow. A switch is also a device and it transmits data to the right recipient. Therefore collision rate is low. A switch is faster but it is expensive.

Question 6.
A LAN is classified by their configuration. What are they?
Answer:
They are, peer to peer or client-server.
1. Peer to peer:
In this configuration all the computers have equal priority. That means each computer can function as both a workstation and a server. There is no dedicated server.

2. Client-Server:
In this configuration a computer is powerful which acts as a dedicated server and all others are clients (work stations). Server is the master and others are slaves.

Question 7.
Your friend told you that internet and intranet are same. Do you agree with that. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No. Internet and intranet are not same. They are different.
1. Internet:
It is a network of networks. It means that international network. We can transfer information between computers within nations very cheaply and speedily.
2. Intranet:
A private network inside a company or organisation is called intranet.

Question 8.
Your friend decides to start an internet cafe in his shop. What are the requirements forthis? Help him.
Answer:
The following are the requirements.

1. Computer with a built in Modem or a facility to connect an external modem.
2. A telephone connection
3. An account with an ISP
4. Install respective software
   • eg: Internet explorer or mozilla or netscape Navigator etc.

Question 9.
Consider the following URL and explain each parts.
http://www.nic.kerala.gov.in / results.html.
Answer:
1. http:
http means hyper text transfer protocol. It is a protocol used to transfer hyper text.

2. www:
World Wide Web. With an email address we can open our mail box from anywhere in the world.

3. nic.kerala:
It is a unique name. It is the official website name of National Informatic Centre

4. gov:
It is the top level domain. It means that it is a government organisation’s website,

5. in:
It is the geographical top level domain. It represents the country, in is used for India,

6. results.html:
It represents the file name.

Question 10.
Write any valid email and explain the working of an email.
Answer:
An example of an email id is jobi_cg@rediffmail. com. Here jobi_cg is the user name, rediffmail is the website address and .com is the top level domain which identifies the types of the organisation. To send an email we require an email address.

Some websites provide free email facility. To send an email first type the recipients address and type the message then click the send button. The website’s server first check the email address is valid, if it is valid it will be sent otherwise the message will not be sent and the sender will get an email that it could not deliver the message.

This message will be received by the recipient’s server and will be delivered to recipient’s mail box. He can read it and it will remain in his mail box as ong as he will be deleted.

Question 11.
Is it possible to give numeric address (IP address) to URL instead of string address of a website just like the following, http://210.212.239.70/
Answer:
Our Post Office has two addresses one string ad¬dress (Irinjalakuda) and one numeric code (680121). Just like this the website has also two addresses a string address www.agker.cag.gov.in and a numeric address (http://210.212.239.70/).

Numeric Address (IP address):
It has 4 parts one byte (8 bits) each separated by dots. One byte can represent a number in between 0 to 255. So we can use a number in between 0 to 255 separated by dots. It is the fastest method to access a website. To remember this number is not easy to humans. So a string address is used by humans, eg:- http://203.-127.54.1/

String Address:
It uses a string to represent a website, it is familiar to the humans. The string address is mapped back to the numeric address using a Domain Name System (DNS). It may consists of 3 or 4 parts. The first part is www., the second part is website name, the third top level domain and the fourth geographical top level domain,
eg: www.kerala.gov.in

Question 12.
Arun is in charge of networking the computers in your newly built computer lab.

1. Suggest any two options for communication media that can be usedfor connecting computers in your school lab.
2. Explain the structure and features of both. (3)

Answer:
1. Twisted pair cables and coaxial cables.

2. Twisted Pair Wire :
Two copper wires individually insulated, twisted around each other and covered by a PVC. There are two types of twisted pair wire. They are UTP and STP. It is very cheap and easy to install.

Coaxial Cable:
A sturdy copper wire(conductor) is insulated by plastic. This is covered just like a mesh by a conductor , which in turn is enclosed in an protective plastic coating. Compared to twisted pair wire it is more expensive, less flexible and more difficult to install. But it is more reliable and carry for higher data rates.

Question 13.
The computer uses digital signals and this signal is transmitted through telephone lines to computers at distant locations. Discuss how this is made possible.
Answer:
1. Modem

2. A Modem is a two in one device. That is it performs two functions. It is used to convert Digital signals to Analog, the process is Modulation(DAM) and the reverse process is converting Analog to Digital known as Demodulation (ADD).

Question 14.
Explain the structure of the television cable in your house.
Answer:
Coaxial Cable:
A sturdy copper wire(conductor) is insulated by plastic. This is covered just like a mesh by a conductor, which in turn is enclosed in an protective plastic coating. Compared to twisted pair wire it is more expensive, less flexible and more difficult to install. But it is more reliable and carry far higher data rates. The various coaxial cables are RG – 8, RG – 9, RG – 11,…………

Question 15.
Answer the following questions from the list given below.
[Router, Modem, Bridge, Gateway]
Answer:

1. Device used to connect a network using TCP/IP protocol and a network using IPX/SPX protocol.
2. Device that can convert a message from one code to another and transfer from one network to a network of another type.
3. Device used to link two networks of the same type.

Question 16.
Find the most suitable match.

Answer:
i. www.keralapsc.org
ii. first page of a web site
iii. file with extension.htm
iv. www.yahoo.com

Question 17.
What do you mean by line of sight method of propagation.

OR

Why Microwave station use tall towers instead of short one?
Answer:
MicroWave signals can travel only in straight line. It cannot bend when the obstacles in between. There fore it uses tall towers instead of short one. The dish like antenna mounted on the top of the tower. Hence the two antennas must be in a straight line, able to look at each other without any obstacle in between.

Question 18.
Mr. Alvis took a photograph by using his mobile phone and he sends that photograph to his friend by using blue tooth. What is Bluetooth? Explain.
Answer:
This technology uses radio waves in the frequency range of 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz. And transmit data in short distance. Mobile phones, Laptops, tablets etc use Bluetooth technology to transmit data.

By using Bluetooth Dongle(a small device that can be buy from the shop) we can convert non Bluetooth PC into Bluetooth enabled and transmits data with data transmission rate of 3 Mbs onwards.

Question 19.
Differentiate Wi-Fi and Wi-Max in detail.
Answer:
WI Fi(Wireless Fidelity) uses radio waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz in short distance. Nowadays this technology is used to access internet in Laptops, Desktops, Tablets, Mobile phones etc. But Wi MAX(Wireless Microwave Access) uses microwaves to transmit information across a network in a range 2 GHz to 11 GHz over very long distance.

Question 20.
What is MAC address? What is the difference between a MAC address and an IP address?
Answer:
MAC means Media Access Control address. It is a unique 12 digit hexadecimal number(IMEI for mobile phones, it is a 15 digit decimal number) assigned to each NIC by its manufacturer. This address is known as MAC address and it is permanent. It is of the form. MM:MM:MM:SS:SS:SS.

The first MM:MM:MM contains the ID number of the adapter company and the second SS:SS:SS represents the serial number assigned to the adapter by the company.

IP address means Internet Protocol address. It has 4 parts numeric address. Each parts contains 8 bits. By using 8 bits we can represent a decimal number between 0 to 255(28=256 numbers). Each part is separated by dot. A total of 4 × 8=32 bits used. But nowadays 128 bits are used for IP address.

Question 21.
What is the limitation of microwave transmission? How is it eliminated?
Answer:
MicroWave signals can travel only in straight line. It cannot bend when the obstacles in between. Therefore it uses tall towers instead of short one. The dish like antenna mounted on the top of the tower. Hence the two antennas must be in a straight line, able to look at each other without any obstacle in between.

Question 22.
Explain the different types of networks.
Answer:
The networks are classified into the following.
1. Local Area Network (LAN):
This is used to connect computers in a single room, rooms within a building or buildings of one location by usin(j twisted pair wire or coaxial cable. Here the computers can share Hardware and software. Data transferrate is high and error rate is less,
eg: The computers connected in a school lab.

2. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN):
A Metropolitan Area Network is a network spread over a city. For example a Cable TV network. MAN have lesser speed than LAN and the error rate is less. Here opticalfibre cable is used.

3. Wide Area Network (WAN):
This is used to connect computers over a large geographical area. It is a network of networks. Here the computers are connected using telephone lines or Micro Wave station or Satellites. Internet is an example for this. LAN and MAN are owned by a single organisation but WAN is owned by multiple organisation. The error rate in data transmission is high.

Question 23.

1. To make data transfer faster, a switch stores two different addresses of all the devices connected to it. What are they?
2. There are 5 computers in your computer lab. Write short notes on any three possible methods to interconnect these computers. Draw the diagram of each method.

Answer:
1. Identification of computers over a network:
A computer gets a data packet on a network, it can identify the senders address easily. It is similarto oursnails mail, each letter is stamped in sender’s post office as well as receiver’s post office.

(1) Media Access Control(MAC) address:
It is a unique 12 digit hexadecimal number(IMEI for mobile phones, it is a 15 digit decimal number) assigned to each NIC by its manufacturer. This address is known as MAC address and its permanent. It is of the form. MM:MM:MM:SS:SS:SS. The first MM:MM:MM contains the ID number of the adapter company and the second SS:SS:SS represents the serial number assigned to the adapter by the company.

(2) Internet Protocol (IP) address:
An IP address has 4 parts numeric address. Each parts contains 8 bits. By using 8 bits we can represent a decimal number between 0 to 255(2°=256 numbers). Each part is separated by dot. A total of 4*8=32 bits used. But nowadays 128 bits are used for IP address.

2. Network topologies:
Physical or logical arrangement of computers on a network is called structure or topology. It is the geometrical arrangement of computers in a network. The major topologies developed are star, bus, ring, tree and mesh.

(1) Star Topology:
A star topology has a server all other computers are connected to it. If computer A wants to transmit a message to computer B. Then computer A first transmit the message to the server then the server retransmits the message to the computer B.

That means all the messages are transmitted through the server. Advantages are add or remove workstations to a star network is easy and the failure of a workstation will not effect the other. The disadvantage is that if the server fails the entire network will fail.

(2) Bus Topology:
Here all the computers are attached to a single cable called bus. Here one computer transmits all other computers listen. Therefore it is called broadcast bus. The transmission from any station will travel in both the direction. The connected computers can hear the message and check whether it is for them or not.

Advantages are add or remove computer is very easy. It requires less cable length and the installation cost is less. Disadvantage is fault detection is very difficult because of no central computer.

(3) Ring Topology:
Here all the computers are connected in the shape of a ring and it is a closed loop. Here also there is no central computer. Here a computer transmits a message, which is tagged along with its destination computer’s address.

The message travels in one direction and each node check whether the message is for them. If not, it passes to the next node. It requires only short cable length. If a single node fails, at least a portion of the network will fail. To add a node is very difficult.

(4) Hybrid Topology:
It is a combination of any two or more network topologies. Tree topology and mesh topology can be considered as hybrid topology.
(a) Tree Topology:
The structure of a tree topology is the shape of an inverted tree with a central node and branches as nodes. It is a variation of bus topology. The data transmission takes place in the way as in bus topology. The disadvantage is that if one node fails, the entire portion will fail.

(b) Mesh Topology:
In this topology each node is connected to more than one node. It is just like a mesh (net). There are multiple paths between computers. If one path fails, we can transmit data through another path.

Question 24.
ABC Ltd. required to connect their computers in their company without using wires. Suggest suitable medium to connect the computers. Explain. (3)
Answer:
Unguided Media

1. Radio waves: It transmits data at different frequencies ranging from 3 kHz. to 300 GHz.
2. Microwaves: Microwave signals can travel in straight line if there is any obstacle in its path, it can’t bend. So it uses tall towers instead of short one.
3. Infrared waves: These waves are used for transmitting data in short distance and its frequency range is 300 GHz to 400 GHz.

Question 25.
It is needed to set up a PAN, interconnecting one tablet, two mobile phones and one laptop. Suggest a suitable communication technology and list its features for the following situations:

1. the devices are in a room at distance of 5 to 10 meters.
2. the devices are in different rooms at a distance of 25 to 50 meters.

Answer:
1. Wireless communication technologies using radio waves
Bluetooth:
This technology uses radio waves in the frequency range of 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz. And transmit data in short distance. Mobile phones, Laptops, tablets etc use Bluetooth technology to transmit data.

2. Wi Fi(Wireless Fidelity):
It uses radio waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz in short distance. Nowadays this technology is used to access internet in Laptops, Desktops, tablets. Mobile phones etc.

Question 26.
Computers and other communication devices can be connected a network using wireless technology.

1. A song is transferred from mobile phone to a laptop using this technology. Name the transmission medium used here.
2. Explain any other three communication media which use this technology

Answer:

1. Blue tooth or Radio waves
2. Wireless communication technologies using radio waves

(1) Bluetooth:
This technology uses radio waves in the frequency range of 2.402 GHz to 2.480 GHz. And transmit data in short distance. Mobile phones, Laptops, tablets etc use Bluetooth technology to transmit data.

(2) Wi Fi(Wireless Fidelity):
It uses radio waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz in short distance. Nowadays this technology is used to access internet in Laptops, Desktops, tablets, Mobile phones etc.

(3) Wi MAX(Wireless Microwave Access):
It uses micro waves to transmit information across a network in a range 2 GHz to 11 GHz over very long distance.

(4) Satellites:
By using satellite we can communicate from any part of the world to any other. The ground stations are connected via the satellite. The data signals transmitted from earth to satellite (uplink) and from the satellite to the earth (downlink).

Question 27.
Find the correct match for each item in column A from columns B and C.

Answer:
(a) QR code – (iii) – 3
(b) USB flash drives – (i) – 4
(c) Bridge – (V) – 1
(d) FTTH – (ii) – 6

Question 28.
Write notes on the following:

1. IP address
2. MAC address
3. Modem

Answer:
1. IP address:
An IP address has 4 parts numeric address. Each parts contains 8 bits. By using 8 bits we can represent a decimal number between 0 to 255(2⁸=256 numbers). Each part is separated by dot. A total of 4 × 8=32 bits used. But nowadays 128 bits are used for IP address.

2. Media Access Control(MAC) address:
It is a unique 12 digit hexadecimal number(IMEI for mobile phones, it is a 15 digit decimal number) assigned to each NIC by its manufacturer. This address is known as MAC address. It is of the form. MM:MM:MM:SS:SS:SS.

3. Modem:
It is a device used to connect the computer to the internet. It converts digital signal into analog signal (modulation) and vice versa (De modulation)

Question 29.
Compare any three types of networks based on span of geographical area.
Answer:
Types of networks:
The networks are classified into the following based upon the amount of geographical area that covers.
1. Personal Area Ne,twork(PAN):
It is used to connect devices situated in a small radius by using guided media or unguided media

2. Local Area Network (LAN):
This is used to connect computers in a single room, rooms within a building or buildings of one location by using twisted pair wire or coaxial cable. Here the computers can share Hardware and software. Data transfer rate is high and error rate is less,
eg:The computers connected in a school lab.

3. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN):
A Metropolitan Area Network is a network spread over a city. For example a Cable TV network. MAN have lesser speed than LAN and the error rate is less. Here optical fiber cable is used.

4. Wide Area Network (WAN):
This is used to connect computers over a large geographical area. It is a network of networks. Here the computers are connected using telephone lines or Micro Wave station or Satellites.

Internet is an example for this. LAN and MAN are owned by a single organization but WAN is owned by multiple organization. The error rate in data transmission is high.
In short

Plus One Computer Networks Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the different network topologies.
Answer:
physical or logical arrangement of computers of a network is called structure or topology. It is the geometrical arrangement of computers in a network. The major topologies developed are star, bus, ring, tree and mesh.
1. Star Topology:
A star topology has a server all other computers are connected to it. If computer A wants to transmit a message to computer B. Then computer A first transmits the message to the server then the server retransmits the message to the computer B.

That means all the messages are transmitted through the server. Advantages are add or remove workstations to a star network is easy and the failure of a workstation will not effect the other. The disadvantage is that if the server fails the entire network will fail.

2. Bus Topology:
Here all the computers are attached to a single cable called bus. Here one computer transmits all other computers listen. Therefore it is called broadcast bus. The transmission from any station will travel in both the direction. The connected computers can hear the message and check whether it is for them or not.

Advantages are add or remove computer is very easy. It requires less cable length and the installation cost is less. Disadvantage is fault detection is very difficult because of no central computer.

3. Ring Topology:
Here all the computers are connected in the shape of a ring and it is a closed loop. Here also there is no central computer. Here a computer transmits a message, which is tagged along with its destination computer’s address.

The message travels in one direction and each node check whether the message is for them. IF not, it passes to the next node. It require only short cable length. If a single node fails, atleast a portion of the network will fail. To add a node is very difficult.

4. Hybrid Topology:
It is a combination of any two or more network topologies. Tree topology and mesh topology can be considered as hybrid topology.

(a) Tree Topology:
The structure of a tree topol-ogy is the shape of an inverted tree with a central node and branches as nodes. It is a variation of bus topology. The data transmis-sion takes place in the way as in bus topology. The disadvantage is that if one node fails, the entire portion will fail.

(b) Mesh Topology:
In this topology each node is connected to more than one node. It is just like a mesh (net). There are multiple paths between computers. If one path fails, we can transmit data through another path.

Question 2.
What are the different data communication equipments?
Answer:
1. Modem:
A Modem is a two in one device. That is it performs two functions. It is used to convert Digital signals to Analog, the process is Modulation (DAM) and the reverse process is converting Analog to Digital known as Demodulation (ADD).

2. Multiplexer(Many to One):
A multiplexer is a device that combines the inputs from different sources and produces one output. A demultiplexer does the reverse process.

3. Bridge:
It is a device used to link two same type of networks.

4. Router:
It is a device used to link two networks with different protocols.

5. Gateway:
It is a device used to link two networks of different types.lt can convert a message from one code to another.

Question 3.
Explain the protocol TCP/IP.
Answer:
1. TCP:
(Transmission Control Protocol) is a connection oriented protocol. It is responsible for sending the data from one PC to another and also verifying the correct delivery of data from client to server. Data can be lost in the intermediate network. TCP adds support to detect errors or lost data and to trigger retransmission until the data is correctly and completely received.

2. IP:
is responsible for moving packet of data from node to node. IP forwards each packet based on a four byte destination address (the IP number). The Internet authorities assign ranges of numbers to different organizations.

The organizations assign groups of their numbers to departments. IP operates on gateway machines that move data from department to organization to region and then around the world. In short TCP handle the flow control and error free packet delivery and IP provides basic addressing and data packets forwarding services.
eg: 101.65.105.255

Question 4.
What is a protocol. Explain any four.

OR

Why protocol is necessary for communication? Explain any two of them.
Answer:
A protocol is a collection of rules and regulations to transfer data from one location to another. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), which uses a set of rules to exchange messages with other Internet points at the information packet level. Internet Protocol (IP), which uses a set of rules to send and receive messages at the Internet address level.
1. FTP:
File Transfer Protocol which is used for transferring files between computers connected to local network or internet.

2. HTTP:
HTTP is a protocol used for WWW for enabling the web browse to access web server and request HTML documents.

Students can Download Chapter 6 Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves Questions and Answers, Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Accountancy Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 6 Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves

Plus One Accountancy Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Depreciation arises due to ………
(a) Wear and tear
(b) Fall in money value
(c) Fall in the market value of asset
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Wear and Tear

Question 2.
Reason for a reduction in the value of a quarry is
(a) Depletion
(b) Wear and Tear
(c) Passage of time
(d) Obsolescence
Answer:
(a) Depletion

Question 3.
Scrap value can also be called as …………….. value.
(a) Realisable
(b) Break-up
(c) Resale
Answer:
(b) Break up

Question 4.
Decrease in the value of intangible asset is termed as …………..
(a) Wear and tear
(b) Depletion
(c) Amortization
(d) Accident
Answer:
(c) Amortization

Question 5.
Under diminishing value method, depreciation is calculated on ……………
(a) Original cost
(b) Written down value
(c) Scrap value
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Written down value

Question 6.
Capital profits are used to create ………………
(a) General reserve
(b) Capital reserve
(c) Secret reserve
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Capital reserve

Question 7.
Profit on sale of fixed assets is a ………………….
Answer:
Capital profit.

Question 8.
Purpose of Provision is to meet a ………….
Answer:
Liability.

Question 9.
……………… is an appropriation from the profit.
Answer:
Reserve.

Question 10.
……………. are usually created out of business profits which are available for distribution of dividend.
Answer:
Revenue Reserves.

Question 11.
Under …………….. method, the percentage of depreciation is applied on the original cost of the asset.
Answer:
Fixed Instalment Method

Question 12.
Depreciation is a expense.
Answer:
Non-cash

Question 13.
……………. implies to an existing asset becoming out-of-date on account of the availability of better type of asset.
Answer:
Obsolescence.

Question 14.
Installation, freight, and transport expenses are a part of …………
Answer:
Acquisition cost.

Question 15.
…………….. reserve is a reserve which does not appear in the balance sheet.
Answer:
Secret reserve.

Question 16.
Reserve created for maintaining a stable rate of dividend is termed as ………….
Answer:
Dividend Equalisation Reserve

Question 17.
…………. is created to make for decline in the value of investment due to market fluctuation.
Answer:
Investment Fluctuation Fund.

Question 18.
……………. is a charge against profit.
Answer:
Provision.

Question 19.
Choose odd one and give reason.
(a) Copyright
(b) Goodwill
(c) Building
(d) Patent
Answer:
(c) Building. Others are intangible assets.

Question 20.
Which of the following is a natural cause of depreciation?
(a) Obsolescence
(b) Wear and Tear
(c) Prohibition of an asset by the govt.
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Wear and Tear

Plus One Accountancy Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves Two Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Is depreciation an expense like salary or rent etc? How is it distinguished from any other type of expense?
Answer:
In case of depreciation, there is no payment or outflow occurring.

Question 2.
Define Depreciation.
Answer:
Depreciation is defined as “a fall in the value of fixed assets owing to wear and tear, obsolescence, passage of time or exhaustion.”

Question 3.
List out the causes of depreciation.
Answer:

1. Wear and Tear
2. Obsolescence
3. Passage of time
4. Depletion
5. Accident.

Question 4.
What are the factors affecting the amount of depreciation?
Answer:
There are three basic factors which are required to charge depreciation, they are:

1. Cost of Assets
2. Estimated Net Residual value or Scrap value or salvage value
3. Estimated Useful life

Question 5.
True profit is arrived at only if depreciation is taken into account. Explain.
Answer:
Depreciation is the operating expenses of a physical asset. It should be considered in arriving at the true profit earned during each year.

Question 6.
Mr. Raju running a soda manufacturing company is of the view that ‘‘no depreciation need be provided on
the fixed assets because he does not pay any amount as depreciation to anyone.” As a commerce student, how will you respond to his statement? State reasons.
Answer:
The need for providing depreciation in accounting records arises from conceptual, legal and practical business considerations. Though depreciation is not paid it has to be identified as important business expenditure. The consequence of not providing depreciation as

1. Timely replacement of fixed assets become impossible.
2. Cost of production cannot be exactly calculated.
3. Paying dividend out of capital.

Plus One Accountancy Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the objectives or needs of providing depreciation?
Answer:
The main objectives of providing depreciation are:

1. To ascertain the true result of the business.
2. To present true Balance sheet.
3. To retain funds for replacement.
4. To avoid excess payment of income tax
5. To fulfill the legal requirements

Question 2.
“Provision is a must and reserve is an option.” – Elucidate.
Answer:
A provision is created for meeting some expected contingency and can only be utilized for the purpose for which it is meant. Thus provision are the amounts set aside out of profit’s to provide for:

1. Depreciation, renewals or decrease in the value of fixed assets and
2. Any known liabilityof which the amount cannot be determined with substatial accuracy.

A reserve is meant for meeting an unanticipated situation and can also be used in the payment of any future liability or loss. It is an appropriation from profit, which are not earmarked in any way to meet any liability. Thus, provision is a must and reserve is an option.

Question 3.
Explain the terms:

1. Depletion
2. Scrap value
3. Obsolescence

Answer:
1. Depletion:
Assets such as mines, quarries, etc. are of wasting nature. By extraction of these natural depositions, their value is reduced. This reduction in value of natural deposition due to depletion in quantity is a cause of depreciation.

2. Scrap value:
This is the estimated value of a fixed asset at the end of its useful life. It is the amount which is expected to be received when the asset is sold after being removed from service. It is also known as Salvage value or residual or Break-up value of asset.

3. Obsolescence:
As a result of change in fashion or new inventions, some assets may be discarded before their productive life comes to an end. This is called obsolescence.

Question 4.
Explain the concept of secret Reserve.”
Answer:
Secret reserve is a reserve that does not appear in the balance sheet. It may help to reduce profit and also tax liability. Management may resort to creation of secret reserve by charging higher. depreciation than required. It is termed as ‘Secret Reserve’, as it is not known to outside stakeholders. Secret reserve can also be created by way of

1. Undervaluation of inventories /stock
2. Charging capital expenditure to P/L account
3. Making excessive provision for doubtful debts.
4. Showing contingent liability as actual liabilities.

Plus One Accountancy Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Match the following.

Answer:

• 1 – c
• 2 – d
• 3 – g
• 4 – f
• 5 – a
• 6 – b
• 7 – e
• 8 – i

Question 2.
Discuss the straight-line method and written down value method of depreciation.
Answer:
1. Straight Line Method:
Under this method, a fixed percentage on the original cost of the asset is written off every year so that the value of the asset become zero at the end of its effective working life. The amount of depreciation charged annually will be constant. This method is also known as “Fixed Instalment Method” or“Original Cost method”.
\(Depreciation =\frac{\text { Original cost – Scrap value }}{\text { Expected working life }}\)

2. Written down value method:
Under this method, depreciation is charged on the book value of asset. This method uses a fixed percentage on the book value of the asset at the beginning of every year. The amount of depreciation charged in each period is not uniform and it reduces year after year. This method is also known as “Diminishing value method” or “Reducing Balance method”.

Question 3.
Give any four difference between Fixed Instalment method and Diminishing Value method for providing depreciation.
Answer:

Question 4.
Ram Brothers acquired a machine on 1^st July 2000 at a cost of ₹14000 and spent ₹1000 on its installation. The firm writes off depreciation at 10% of the original cost every year. The books are closed on 31^st December every year. On March 31, 2003, the machine is sold for ₹9500. Show the machinery account under Fixed Instalment method.
Answer:

Question 5.
John Enterprises has the following balances in its books as on March 31, 2005.
Machinery (Gross value) -₹6,00,000 Provision for depreciation – ₹2,50,000 A machine purchased for ₹1,00,000 on December 1^st 2001, having accumulated depreciation amounting to₹60,000 was sold on April 1^st 2006 for₹35,000. Prepare Machinery a/c and Machinery Disposal a/c.
Answer:
Machinery Disposal a/c

Question 6.
Manjusha Ltd. purchased a machinery for ₹1,00,000/ – on 1^st January 2001. Depreciation is charged at 10% p.a. on straight line method. After two years the company decided to change the method to written down value at 10% p.a. Prepare machinery a/c for first four years assuming that accounts are closed on 31^st December every year.
Answer:

Question 7.
Explain Revenue Reserve & Capital Reserve.
Answer:
1. Revenue Reserve:
Revenue reserve are usually created out of business profits which are available for distribution of dividend. It is further classified in to:
a. Specific Reserve:
An amount set aside for meeting a specific purpose or objective is called specific reserve. Eg: Debenture redemption reserve, dividend equalisation reserve, Investment fluctuation reserve, etc.

b. General Reserve:
The amount kept aside is used for the overall improvement of business, it is called general reserve. Eg: Contingency reserve

2. Capital Reserve:
A reserve created out of capital profit is called capital reserve. Usually such reserves are not available for dividend to shareholders. The following are some of the capital profit usually kept as capital reserve.

• Profit on sale of fixed assets
• Premium on issue of shares
• Profit prior to incorporation
• Profit on reissue of shares
• Profit made on purchase of a business.

Plus One Accountancy Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves Five Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Provision is a charge against Profit whereas reserve is an appropriation of Profit.” Comment.
Answer:
The provision means any amount set aside as a charge against profit to meet a loss, the amount of which cannot be determined with substantial accuracy. Reserve refers to amount set aprt from profit and loss account to meet unforeseen contingencies.
The following are the difference between provision and reserve.

Question 2.
‘X’ Ltd, purchased a machinery on 1.1.2005 for a sum of ₹40,000. It is expected to have a working life of 7 years, by the end of which it would get a scrap value of ₹5000. Prepare machinery account in the book of X Ltd. for the last 3 years by providing depreciation under Fixed Instalment Method and also prepare depreciation account for the 3 years.
Answer:

Question 3.
On 1.1.2001, Anil and Co. purchases machinery for ₹19000 and spend ₹1500 for its installation. Show machinery account for 2001, 2002 and 2003 if the company writes off depreciation at 20% p.a. on diminishing balance method.
Answer:

Question 4.
The following data is given to you regarding the asset- Plant of Tinu Ltd. whose accounting year ends on 31^st December every year.

• Plant held on 1.1.2006-₹10,000
• Plant bought on 1.1.2007 – ₹20,000
• Plant bought on 1.4.2007 – ₹30,000
• Plant held on 1.1.2006 sold on 1.4.2007 – ₹7000
• Depreciation @ 10% p.a. on original cost method.
• Prepare Plant A/c.

Answer:

Question 5.
A firm purchased 3 machines of ₹1,00,000 each on 01/01/2003. Depreciation is charged @ 10% p.a. of original cost and accumulated on depreciation provision account. On 01/01/2004 one machine was sold for ₹80,000and a new one was purchased on 1/ 1/2004 for Rs. 2,00,000.
Show Asset Disposal Account.
Answer:

Question 6.
A machine purchased for ₹8,00,000 on April 01, 2000. Depreciation was provided on straight-line basis at the rate of 20% on original cost. On April 01, 2002, a substantial modification was made in the machine to make it more efficient at a cost of ₹80,000. This amount is to be depreciated @ 20% on straight line basis. Routine maintenance expenses during the year 2003-04 were ₹2000. Draw up the Machinery account, Provision for depreciation account and charge to Profit and Loss account in respect of the accounting year ended on 31.3.2003.
Answer:

Plus One Accountancy Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
On 1^st January 2004, a company bought Plant and Machinery costing ₹45,000 and spent ₹5000 on its erection. Addition is made on 1^st July 2006 for the value of ₹20,000. Depreciation is provided @ 10% p.a. Prepare plant and machinery account for 4 years under:

1. Fixed Instalment system
2. Diminishing Balance method

Answer:
1. Fixed Instalment method

2. Diminishing Balance Method

Question 2.
A machine costing ₹30000 was bought on 1/4/2000. Further machinery costing ₹2000 was acquired on 1/10/2000 and another machinery costing ₹10000 was installed on 1/7/2001. On 1/7/2002 the machinery bought on 1/7/2001 was sold for ₹3000. Accounts are closed on 31^st December every year. Assuming 10% depreciation p.a.
Prepare Machinery a/c under the diminishing balance method.
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 14 Mathematical Reasoning Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 14 Mathematical Reasoning

Plus One Maths Mathematical Reasoning Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the contrapositive and converse of the following statements: (3 score each)

1. If x is a prime number, then x is odd.
2. If the two lines are parallel, then they do not intersect in the same plane.
3. Something is cold implies that it has low temperature.
4. You cannot comprehend geometry if you do not know how to reason deductively.
5. x is an even number implies that x is divisible by 4.

Answer:
1. Here p: x is a prime number.
q: x is odd.
Now, ~ p: x is not a prime number.
~ q: x is not odd.
The contrapositive statement is:
If x is not odd x is not a prime number.
The converse statement is:
If x is an odd, then x is a prime number.

2. Here p: Two lines are parallel.
q: They do not intersect in the same plane.
Now, ~ p: Two lines are not parallel.
~ q: They intersect in the same plane.
The contrapositive statement is:
If two intersect in the same plane then they are not parallel.
The converse statement is:
If the two lines do not intersect in the same plane, then they are parallel.

3. Here p: Something is cold.
q: It has low temperature.
Now, ~ p: Something is not cold.
~ q: It does not have low temperature.
The contrapositive statement is:
If something does not have low temperature then it is not cold.
The converse statement is:
If something has low temperature then it is cold.

4. Here p: You cannot comprehend geometry.
q: You do not know how to reason deductively.
Now, ~ p: You can comprehend geometry.
~ q: You know how to reason deductively.
The contrapositive statement is:
If you know how to reason deductively, then you can comprehend geometry.
The converse statement is:
If you do not know how to reason deductively then you cannot comprehend geometry.

5. Here p: x is an even number.
q: x is divisible by 4.
Now, ~ p: x is not an even number.
~ q: x is not divisible by 4.
The contrapositive statement is:
If x is not divisible by 4 then x is not an even number.
The converse statement is:
If x is divisible by 4 then x is an even number.

Question 2.
Show that the statement: “For any real numbers a and b, a² = b² implies that a = b” is not true by giving a counter-example.
Answer:
The given compound statement is of the form “if p then q”.
We assume that p is true then
a, b ∈ R such that a² = b²
Let us take a = -3 and b = 3
Now a² = b² but a ≠ b
So when p is true, q is false.
Thus the given compound statement is not true.

Plus One Maths Mathematical Reasoning Four Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
State whether the or used in the following statements is “exclusive” or “inclusive”. Give reasons for your answer.

1. A rectangle is a quadrilateral or a pentagon. (2)
2. A square is a polygon or a parallelogram. (2)

Answer:
1. This statement make use of exclusive ‘or’. Since a geometrical figure cannot be a quadrilateral and also a pentagon.

2. This statement make use of inclusive ‘or’. Since a geometrical figure can be a polygon as well as a parallelogram.

Plus One Maths Mathematical Reasoning Six Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Show that the statement p: “If x is a real number such that x³ + 4x = 0 then x is 0” is true by

1. Direct method. (2)
2. Method of contradiction. (2)
3. Method of contrapositive. (2)

Answer:
The given compound statement is of the from “if p then q”.
P: x ∈ R such that x³ + 4x = 0
q: x = 0

1. Direct method:
We assume that p is true then
x ∈ R such that x³ + 4x = 0
x ∈ R such that x(x² + 4) = 0
x ∈ R such that x = 0 or x² + 4 = 0
⇒ x = 0
⇒ q is true.
So when p is true, q is true.
Thus the given compound statement is true.

2. Method of contradiction:
We assume that p is true and q is false, then x ≠ 0
x ∈ R such that x³ + 4x = 0
x ∈ R such that x(x² + 4) = 0
x ∈ R such that x = 0 or x² + 4 = 0
⇒ x = 0
Which is a contradiction. So our assumption that x ≠ 0 is false. Thus the given compound statement is true.

3. Method of contrapositive.
We assume that q is false, then x ≠ 0
⇒ x ∈ R such that x³ + 4x ≠ 0
⇒ q is false
So when q is false, p is false.
Thus the given compound statement is true.

Plus One Maths Mathematical Reasoning Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following sentences are statements: (1 score each)

1. There are 35 days in a month.
2. Mathematics is difficult.
3. The sum of 5 and 7 is greater than 10.
4. The square of a number is an even number.
5. The sides of a quadrilateral have equal length.
6. Answer this question
7. The product of -1 and 8 is -8.
8. The sum interior angles of a triangle is 180.
9. Today is a windy day.
10. All real numbers are complex numbers.

Answer:

1. No month have 35 days. Hence it is a statement.
2. Here the correctness of the sentence depends upon the observer. So the sentence is not a statement.
3. The sentence is true so it is a statement.
4. Here the correctness of the sentence depends upon the observer. So the sentence is not a statement.
5. This sentence is sometimes true and some time false. So the sentence is not a statement.
6. This sentence is an order. So the sentence is not a statement.
7. The sentence is true so it is a statement.
8. The sentence is true so it is a statement.
9. It is not clear from the context which day is referred. Hence not a statement.
10. The sentence is true, so it is a statement.

Question 2.
Write the negation of the following statements: (1 score each)

1. Chennai is the capital of Tamil Nadu.
2. \(\sqrt{2}\) is not a complex number.
3. All triangles are not equilateral triangle.
4. The number 2 is greater than 7.
5. Every natural number is an integer.

Answer:

1. Negation: Chennai is not the capital of Tamil Nadu.
2. Negation: \(\sqrt{2}\) is a complex number.
3. Negation: All triangles are equilateral triangle.
4. Negation: The number 2 is not greater than 7.
5. Negation: Every natural number is not an integer.

Question 3.
Find the component statements of the following compound statements and check they are true or false. (1 score each)

1. Number 3 is prime or it is odd.
2. All integers are positive or negative.
3. 100 is divisible by 3,11 and 5.
4. The sun shines or it rains.
5. India is a democracy and a monarchy.

Answer:
1. The component statements are
p: Number 3 is prime
q: Number 3 is odd.
Both the component statements p and q are true.

2. The component statements are
p: All integers are positive
q: All integers are negative.
Both the component statements p and q are true.

3. The component statements are
p: 100 is divisible by 3.
q: 100 is divisible by 11.
r: 100 is divisible by 5.
The component statements p and q are false, whereas r is true.

4. The component statements are
p: The sun shines
q: It rains.
Both the component statements p and q are true.

5. The component statements are
p: India is a democracy.
q: India is a monarchy.
Both the component statements p is true, whereas the component statement q is false.

Question 4.
For each of the following compound statement first identify the connecting words and then break it into component statement: (2 score each)

1. All rational numbers are real and all real numbers are not complex.
2. Square of an integer is positive or negative.
3. The sand heats up quickly in the sun and does not cool down fast at night.
4. x = 2 and x = 3 are the roots of the equation 3x² – x – 10 = 0

Answer:
1. The component statement has the connecting word ‘and’ component statements are
p: All rational numbers are real
q: All real numbers are not complex.

2. The component statement has the connecting word ‘or’ component statements are
p: Square of an integer is positive.
q: Square of an integer is negative.

3. The component statement has the connecting word ‘and’ component statements are
p: The sand heats up quickly in the sun.
q: The sand does not cool down fast at night.

4. The component statement has the connecting word ‘and’ component statements are
p: x = 2 are the roots of the
equation 3x² – x – 10 = 0.
q: x = 3 are the roots of the equation 3x² – x – 10 = 0.

Students can Download Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives Questions and Answers, Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Maths Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 13 Limits and Derivatives

Plus One Maths Limits and Derivatives Three Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Evaluate the following: (3 score each)

Answer:

Question 2.
Evaluate the following: (3 score each)

Answer:

ii) Put x + 1 = y, x → 0, y → 1

iii) Put 1 – x = y, x → 0, y → 1

Question 3.
Evaluate the following: (3 score each)

Answer:


= 1 × 3 × 1 × 3 = 9

iv) Put π – x = y, x → π, y → 0

vii) Put x – \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) = y, x → \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), y → 0

Question 4.
Evaluate the following: (3 score each)

Answer:






= \(\frac{1}{1}\) × 1 = 1.

Question 5.
Find \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} f(x)\) and \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1}\) f(x) where
f(x) = \(\left\{\begin{array}{cc}{2 x+3,} & {x \leq 0} \\{3(x+1),} & {x>0} \end{array}\right.\).
Answer:

Question 6.
Find \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1}\)f(x) where f(x) = \(\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
{x^{2}-1,} & {x \leq 1} \\{-x^{2}-1,} & {x>1}\end{array}\right.\).
Answer:

Therefore; \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1^{-}}\)f(x) ≠ \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1^{-}}\)f(x)
Hence \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1^{-}}\)f(x) does not exist.

Question 7.
Evaluate

Answer:

Plus One Maths Limits and Derivatives Practice Problems Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Evaluate the following:(2 score each)

Answer:

Question 2.
Find the derivatives of the following: (2 score each)

1. y = (x – d)(x – b)
2. y = (ax² + b)²
3. y = \(\frac{x-a}{x-b}\)
4. y = x^-3(5 + 3x)

Answer:
1.

= (x – a) × 1 + (x – b) × 1
= x – a + x – b = 2x – a – b

2. y = a²x⁴ + b² + 2abx²
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 4a²x³ + 4abx.

3.

4. y = 5x^-3 + 3x^-2
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 5(-3)x^-3-1 + 3(-2)x^-2-1
= -15x^-4 – 6x^-3

Question 3.
Find the derivatives of the following: (3 score each)

Answer:

Question 4.
If xy = c² , prove that x² \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + c² = 0.
Answer:
xy = c² ⇒ y = \(\frac{c^{2}}{x}\)
Differentiating with respect to x;

Question 5.
Evaluate: \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{(x+5)^{2}-25}{x}\).
Answer:

Question 6.
Find the derivative of f(x) = x sin x.
Answer:
f'(x) = x × cosx + sin x × 1 = xcosx + sinx.

Question 7.
Find the derivative of f(x) = \(\frac{\sin x}{x}\).
Answer:

Question 8.
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{\sin a x}{b x}\).
Answer:

Students can Download Chapter 3 Components of the Computer System Questions and Answers, Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Plus One Computer Science Chapter Wise Questions and Answers Chapter 3 Components of the Computer System

Plus One Components of the Computer System One Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Tangible parts of a computer is _________
Answer:
Hardware

Question 2.
The instructions that tell the hardware to perform a task is __________
Answer:
Software

Question 3.
The brain of the computer is __________
Answer:
CPU

Question 4.
CPU means _________
Answer:
Central Processing Unit

Question 5.
ALU is
Answer:
Arithmetic Logic Unit