Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 2 Tanatita Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.
Kerala Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 2 Tanatita
Tanatita Summary












Kerala State Board New Syllabus Plus Two Malayalam Textbook Answers Unit 2 Tanatita Text Book Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.












You can Download Real Numbers Questions and Answers, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 10 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
Textbook Page No. 160
Hss Live Guru 9th Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Find the distance between the two points on the number line, denoted by each pair of numbers given below: .

Answer:

Real Numbers Class 9 Kerala State Board Question 2.
Find the midpoint of each pair of points in the first problem.
Answer:



Real Numbers Class 9 State Board Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
The part of the number line between the points denoted by the numbers 1/3 and 1/2 is divided into four equal parts. Find the numbers de-noting the ends of each such part.
Answer:

So the portion between 1/3 and 1/2 is divided into 4 equal parts the points are
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Textbook Page No. 164
Hsslive Guru 9th Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Find those x satisfying each of the equations below:
i. |x – 1| = |x – 3|
ii. |x – 3| = |x – 4|
iii. |x + 2| = |x – 5|
iv. |x| = |x + 1|
Answer:
i. \(|x-1|=|x-3|\)
\(|x-1|\) means distance between x and 1
\(|x-3|\) means distance between x and 3. Therefore the distance from x to 1 and 3 are equal.
x is in between 1 and 3 , that is x is the midpoint of 1 and 3.
\(x=\frac{1}{2} \times(1+3)=\frac{1}{2} \times 4=2\)
ii. \(|x-3|=|x-4|\)
The distance from x to 3 and 4 are equal.
∴ x is in between 3 and 4 , that is x is the midpoint of 3 and 4.
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iii. \(\begin{array}{l}{|x+2|=|x-5|} \\ {|x+2|=|x-(-2)|}\end{array}\)
The distance from x to -2 and 5 are equal.
∴ x is in between -2 and 5 , that is x is the midpoint of -2 and 5.

iv. |x| = |x + 1|
|x + l] = ]x – (-l)|
The distance from x to -1 and 0 are equal.
∴ x is in between -1 and 0, that is x is the midpoint of -1 and 0.

9th Std Kerala Syllabus Maths Solutions Question 2.
Prove that if 1 < x < 4 and 1 < y < 4, then |x – y| < 3.
Answer:
1 < x < 4 , possible values of x = 2, 3 1 possible values of y = 2, 3
|x – y| = |2 – 2| = 0 < 3
|x – y| = |3 – 2| – 1 < 3
|x – y| = |2 – 3| = |-l| = l < 3
|x – y| = |3 – 3| = 0 < 3
From this if 1 < x < 4, 1 < y < 4, then |x – y| < 3.
Hss Live Guru Maths 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Prove that if x < 3 and y > 7, then |x – y) > 4 .
Answer:
Since x < 3, the maximum value of x is less than 3. Since y > 7 the minimum value of y is greater than 7.
Then the difference between the minimum values of y and the maximum value of x is greater than 7 – 3 = 4.
i.e., |x – y| > 4
9th Standard Maths Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Find two numbers x, y such that
\(|x+y|=|x|+|y|\)
Answer:
1. If x = 3, y =7, then
| x + y | = |13 + 71| = 3 + 7 = 10
|x| + |y| = |3| + |7| = 3 + 7 = 10
|x + y| = |x| + |y|
2. If x = -6, y =-9 , then
|x + y| = |-6 + -9|
= l-15| = 15
Class 9 Maths Chapter 10 Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Are there numbers x,y such that |x + y| < |x| + |y| ?
Answer:
x = 5, y = -3
|x+y| = |5 + -3| = |5 – 3| = |2| = 2
|x| = |5| = 5
|y| = |-3| = 3 |x| + |y| = 5 + 3 = 8
Among x, y, if one is a positive number and the other is a negative number, then
| x + y | < |x| + |y|. Question 6. Are there numbers x, y such that |x + y| > |x| + |y| ?
Answer:
No
Real Numbers 9th Standard Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
What are the numbers x, for which
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = 6
Answer:
\(|x-2|\) means distance between x and 2.
x can be to the right or left side of the number 2.
\(|x-8|\) means distance between x and 8
x can be to the right or left side of the number 8.
If we add the distance between x and 2 with x and 8 we get 6.
When x is to the left side of 2, when we add the distance of x to 2 and 8 we get a number which is greater than 6.
Distance between 2 and 8
= |2 – 8| = | -6| = 6
The difference between 2 and 8 is 6, so the position of x is between 2 and 8.
That is the value of x is in between 2 and 8 including 2 and 8.
i. e., 2 ≤ x ≤ 8
Std 9 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
What are the numbers x, for which
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = 10 ?
Taking x as different numbers, what all numbers do we get as
|x – 2| + |x – 8| ?
Answer:
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = 10, |x – 2| – |x – 8| = 10
x – 2 + x – 8 = 10
x = 10
( x – 2) – (x – 8) = 10
There is no number x which satisfies this.
– ( x- 2) + (x – 8) = 10
There is no number x which satisf¬ies this.
-(x – 2) – (x – 8) =10
-x + 2 – x + 8=10
-2x = 0
= x = 0
i.e., x = 0, 10
If x = 1
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = |1 – 2| + |1 – 8|
= | -1 | + | -7| = 1 + 7 = 8
If x = 2
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = |2 – 2| + |2 – 8|
= |0| + | -6| = 0 + 6 = 6
If x = 3
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = |3 – 2| + |3 – 8|
= | -1| + | -5| = 1 + 5 = 6
If x = 4
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = |4 – 2| + |4 – 8|
= | -2| + | -4| = 2 + 4 = 6
If x = 5
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = [5 – 2| +15 – 8|
= | -3| + | -3| = 3 + 3 = 6
If x=6
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = |6 – 2| + |6 – 8|
= | -4|+ | -2| = 4 + 2 = 6
If x = 7
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = |7 – 2| + |17 – 8|
= |-5| + |-1| = 5 + 1 = 6
i.e., |x – 2| + |x – 8| = 6 when 2 < x < 8
If x=9
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = |9 – 2| + |9 – 8|
= |7| + |1| = 7 + 1 = 8
If x= 11
|x – 2| + |x – 8| = |11 – 2| + |11 – 8|
= |9| + |3|= 9 + 3 = 12
…………. etc
Taking x as different numbers, different numbers get as |x – 2| + |x – 8|.
Hss Live Guru Class 9 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
a. Which number indicates the point located 7 units to left of 5 on the number line?
b. Write down the numbers located 2 units apart from these points.
Answer:
a. The point which is 7 units to the left of 5 = 5 – 7 = -2
b. There is one point 2 unit apart to the left and right side of -2 .
The point which is 2 units to the left of -2 = -4
The point which is 2 units to the right of -2 = 0
9th Standard Maths Textbook Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
How many numbers are on the number line which are 11 units apart from 5. What are they ? Calculate the distance between the numbers.
Answer:
There is one point 11 unit apart to the left and right side of 5.
Point on the left side = 5 + -11 = -6
Point on the right side = 5 + 11 = 16
Distance between them = 16 – (-6) = 16 + 6 = 22 unit
Chapter 10 Maths Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Find the distance between the num-bers given below on the number line.
i. 4, 6
ii. 3, -2
iii. -5, -8
iv. 3/5, 5/6
Answer:
i. Distance = |6 – 4| = |2| = 2
ii. Distance = |3 – (-2)| = |3 + 2| = |5| = 5
iii. Distance = |-5 -(-8)| =|-5 + 8|
= |+3| = 3

9th Std Maths Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
The endpoints of one side of an equilateral triangle are -2 and 4 on the number line. Calculate the area and perimeter of the triangle.
Answer:
The distance between -2 and 4 = 4 – (-2) = 6
One side of a equilateral triangle = 6 unit Perimeter of an equilateral triangle
= 3 × 6 = 18 unit Area of an equilateral triangle

Class 9 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
The number x is on the number line, then find x if |x – 10| = – |x – 4|.
Answer:
The distance between x to 10 and 4 are same. Therefore x is the midpoint of 4 and 10.

Real Numbers Class 10 State Syllabus Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
The quadrilateral ABCD is a square. A and B the points denote -2 and 3 on the number line.
a. Draw the square ABCD on the number line
b. Calculate the perimeter of the square ABCD.
Answer:

b. AB = |-2 – 3| = 5 unit
Perimeter = 5 × 4 = 20 unit
Question 7.
If |a + 1| = |a + 5 |, |b – 2| = |b – 6|,
|a – x| = |b -x|, then find x.
Answer:
|a + 1| = |a + 5|
Since the point, ‘a’ represented on the num¬ber line is at a the equal distance from -1 and -5.
That is ‘a’ is midpoint of -1 and -5.
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|b – 2| = |b – 6|
Since the point, ‘a’ represented on the number line is at a equal distance from 2 and 6.
That is ‘a’ is midpoint of 2 and 6
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|x – a| = |x – b| therefore point x is the
midpoint of a = -3 and b = 4
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Question 8.
Find the value of x.
a. |x – 2| = |x – 10|
b. |x + 3| = |x – 7|
Answer:
a. The distance between x to 2 and 10 are same. Therefore x is the midpoint of 2 and 10.
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b. |x + 3| = |x – (-3)|
The distance between x to -3 and 7 are same. Therefore x is the midpoint of -3 and 7.
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Question 9.
If the difference between two numbers is 4. If one number is 8. What values will the other number have?
Answer:
Consider other number as x, then
|x – 8| = 4
i.e., x – 8 = 4 or 8 – x = 4
x = 12 or x = 4
Other number as 12 or 4.
Question 10.
Find the distance between the pairs of numbers given below.
a. 2, 8
b. -2, 8
c. -2, -8
Answer:
a. Distance between 2 and 8
= |x – y| = |2 – 8| |-6| = 6
b. Distance between -2 and 8
= |-2-8| = |-10| = 10
c. Distance between -2 and -8
= |-2 – (-8)| = |-2 + 8| = |6| = 6
Question 11.
Draw the number line. Mark the position of numbers given below.
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Answer:

Question 12.
The number x is located to the right side of 3 on the number line, if
|x – 3|= 0, then
a. What is the value of x ?
b. Calculate |x – 3| + |x – 9|.
Answer:
a. |x – 3| = 0
-(x – 3) = 0 or x – 3 = 0
-x = -3 or x = 3
x=3
b. |x – 3| + |x – 9|
= |3 – 3| + |3 – 9|
= |0| + |-6 | = 6
Question 13.
If |x – 5| = 10, then find the value of x .
Answer:
The distance between x and 5 is 10.
If x is to the right side of 5 , then x = 5 + 10 = 10
If x is to the left side of 5 , then
x = 5 – 10 = -5
Question 14.
If |x + 2| = |x – 8|, then find the value of x ?
Answer:
|x + 2| = |x – (-2)|
The distance of x to -2 and 8 are equal.
Therefore position of x is between -2 and 8.
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Question 15.
If |x – 1| =|x – 3|, then find the value of x.
Answer:
Distance from 1 and 3 to x are same.
Therefore position of x is between 1 and 3.
Position of x = \(\frac { 1 + 3 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 }\) = 2
Question 16.
Using the common form of rational numbers, prove that the sum, difference, product and quotient of any two rational numbers is again a rational number.
Answer:
i. If a, b, c and d are natural numbers,
\(\frac { a }{ b }\), \(\frac { c }{ d }\) are rational numbers.
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Sum and product of all-natural numbers are always natural numbers. So here the numerator and denominator are natural numbers.
That is if x and y are natural numbers
then this can be expressed as x/y.
Therefore the sum is rational
ii. Difference:
a, b, c and d are natural numbers
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Hence it is rational.
iii. Product:
a, b, c and d are natural numbers
![]()
Hence it is rational.
iv. Quotient:
a, b, c and d are natural numbers
![]()
Hence it is rational.
Question 17.
Prove that the product of any irrational number and non – zero rational number is an irrational number.
Answer:
Let a be the irrational number and b the rational number and a × b = c, that is to prove that c is irrational.
Consider c is a rational number, a × b = c
From this we get b = c/a
That is b = \(\frac { One rational }{ other rational }\) = One rational
If we take b as irrational here we get b as a rational number. This is a wrong decision. This is due to our wrong assumption that is c is a rational number. The assumption that c is a rational number is a wrong one.
∴ c is an irrational number.
That is the product of any irrational number and non – zero rational number is an irrational number.
Question 18.
Give an example of two different irrational numbers whose product is a rational number.
Answer:
3√2 and 5√2 are irrational numbers
3√2 × 5√2 = 3 × 5 × √2 × √2 = 3 × 5 × 2 = 30 is a rational nummber. More examples
1. √3 × 7√3 = 4 × 7 × 3 = 84
2. 2√5 × 5√5 = 2 × 5 × 5 = 50
3. √20 × √5 = √20 × √5 = √100 = 10
You can Download Protectors of Biosphere Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Chapter 1 Global Warming
Global warming is the increase of earth’s average surface temperature due to effect of greenhouse gases. Deforestation, atmospheric pollution, burning of fossil fuels, etc.
1) At least do not ruin the life of those trees, depending on whom we live”.
2) ‘Plant together let’s make the world greener.’
3) It is our duty to save environment duties.
4) Plant trees: for our future.
5) Plant trees: It is the only way to prevent Global warming.
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Question 1.
………… is the result of deforestation, atmospheric pollution, etc.?
Answer:
Global warming.
Protectors Of Biosphere Class 9 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
What is Global warming?
Answer:
Global warming is the increase of earth’s average surface temperature due to effect of greenhouse gases.
Class 9 Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
What are the causes of Global warming?
Answer:
Deforestation, atmospheric pollution, burning of fossil fuels, etc.
9th Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
“Trees are essential for protecting our nature and life.” Prepare slogans highlighting this idea to protect our environment?
Answer:
Pigments In Leaves
9th Class Biology Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
Which of the pigments given below is the main pigment that performs photosynthesis?
a) Chlorophyll a
b) Chlorophyll b
c) Xanthophyll
d) Carotene
Answer:
a) Chlorophyll a
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Malayalam Medium Chapter 1 Question 6.
Complete the equation related to photosynthesis
![]()
Answer:
![]()
Protectors Of Biosphere Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
Complete the word relations.
a) Light reaction: Grana
Dark reaction: ……………
b) Green plants: land
……………..: Ocean
c) …………..: bluish green
Carotene: yellowish-orange
Answer:
a) Stroma
b) Algae
c) Chlorophyll a
9th Class Biology Notes Chapter 1 Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
………. is the main source of energy on the earth
Answer:
Sunlight
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Pdf Question 9.
Which group of living things can absorb solar energy directly?
Answer:
Plants
9th Class Biology Chapter 1 Kerala Syllabus Question 10.

Have you noticed Veena’s doubt’? Write down your inference?
Answer:
More number of chloroplasts are seen on the upper part of leaf than on the lower part. That is why the lower part of the leafless green in color.
9th Class Biology Chapter 1 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
Odd one out, give reason Carotene, xanthophyll, chlorophyll a
Answer:
Chlorophyll a. Others accessory pigments.
Hsslive Guru Class 9 Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
………. part of leaf are seen chloroplasts more in number
Answer:
Upper part
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Biology Notes Malayalam Medium Question 13.
Photosynthesis in green plants taken mainly in
Answer:
leaves
Hss Live Guru 9 Biology Kerala Syllabus Question 14.
How many chloroplasts will be there in one square millimeter of a leaf?
Answer:
At an average 5 lakh chloroplasts
9th Class Biology First Chapter Kerala Syllabus Question 15.
Identify the missing parts in the picture.

Answer:
a) Grana
b) Stroma
Question 16.
The fluid part of the chloroplast is
Answer:
Stroma
Question 17.
What are the pigments seen in the grana?
Answer:
Chlorophyll a, Chlorophyll b, Carotene, and Xanthophyll are seen in the grana.
Question 18.
Describe the structure of chloroplast?
Answer:
The chloroplast is an organelle with a double-layered membrane. The fluid part of the chloroplast is the stroma. The membranous sacs arranged on above other is the grana. The membrane-bound structures joining the grana are the stroma lamellae, Pigments that can absorb sunlight are seen in the grana.
Question 19.
What is the function of accessory pigments?
Answer:
Chlorophyll b, Carotene, and Xanthophyll are accessory pigments. They are seen in the grana. They can absorb light and transfer it to chlorophyll a.
Question 20.
How do carbon dioxide and water reach the leaves for photosynthesis?

Answer:

The Chemistry Of Photosynthesis
Question 21.
Differentiate between Light reaction and Dark reaction; Prepare a table?
Answer:

Question 22.
Find out whether the statements given below are true or false?
a) Dark reaction occurs in the grana.
b) Light reaction stops when availability of light decreases.
Answer:
a) False
b) True
Question 23.
Light reaction occurs in the ………….
Answer:
grana of chloroplast
Question 24.
Dark reaction occurs in the …………..
Answer:
Stroma of chloroplast.
Question 25.
Complete the flow chart related to photosynthesis.

Answer:
a) Light is required
b) Glucose is produced
c) Takes place in the grana
Question 26.
During light reaction, light energy is converted to ……… and stored as ………..
Answer:
Chemical energy, ATP molecules
Question 27.
Water splits into & in the light reaction
Answer:
Hydrogen & Oxygen
Question 28.
Define Dark reaction?
Answer:
Sunlight is not utilized in this phase that occurs in the stroma of chloroplast. In this process, hydrogen is added to C02 to form glucose using the energy of ATP molecules.
Question 29.
Illustrate an experiment to prove that plants released oxygen during the time of photosynthesis.
Answer:

Question 30.
Dark reaction is also known as …………
Answer:
Calvin cycle
Question 31.
……….. is known as the energy currencies of the cell.
Answer:
ATP
Question 32.
Expansion of ATP =
Answer:
Adenosine Tri Phosphate
Question 33.
About 70-80% of oxygen in the atmospheric air is contributed by ………..
Answer:
algae in the ocean
Question 34.
What is the contribution of Melvin Calvin?
Answer:
Melvin Calvin explained the various stages of the formation of glucose during photosynthesis.
Question 35.
Prepare the equation showing the process of photosynthesis?
Answer:
![]()
After Photosynthesis
Question 36.

Isn’t doubt genuine? What happens to the glucose formed as a result of photosynthesis? Explain your opinion?
Answer:
Glucose is easily soluble in water. It can’t be stored in plant body. Therefore plants store glucose in the form of insoluble starch in leaves. Plants utilize starch as a source of energy for life activities and to prepare substances required for growth. Starch is converted to sucrose and it transported through phloem to various plant parts and to store in different forms such as starch, protein, fat, fructose and sucrose.
Question 37.
Prepare a flow chart showing the chemical changes of glucose after its formation
Answer:

Question 38.
In which form is starch transported to various parts of the plant body for storage?
Answer:
Sucrose
Question 39.
Complete the table?
| Food item | Main nutrient |
| Wheat | ………….. |
| apple | ………….. |
| …………….. | fat |
| Pea | ………….. |
Answer:
| Food item | Main nutrient |
| Wheat | Starch |
| apple | Fructose |
| mustard | fat |
| Pea | protein |
Question 40.
Plants store glucose in the form of ………….. in leaves.
Answer:
Insoluble starch.
Question 41.
Write the examples of economically important plant products.
Answer:
Coffee, Rubber, Pepper, Cocoa
Ocean At Par With Land
Question 42.
‘Ocean – an ecosystem’ – Prepare a flow chart.
Answer:
Sunlight + CO2 → Algae & other aquatic Organisms → Photosynthesis
Fish and other aquatic organisms → Birds & Terrestrial organisms
Question 43.
How does pollution in the ocean affect the organisms?
Answer:
Ocean is polluted due to sewage, toxic chemicals from industries, land runoff, large scale oil spills, ocean mining, Littering, etc. As a result of ocean pollution, there are several negative impacts such as
1) Effect of toxic wastes on marine animals.
2) Disruption to the cycle of coral reefs
3) Depletes oxygen content in water
4) Failure in the reproductive system of sea animals.
5) Effects on food chain.
6) It affects human health.
In this way ocean pollution adversely affects the organisms.
Plants – Earth’S Wealth
Question 44.
Do we obtain food only from producers?
Answer:
No plants are the cheapest and effective natural mechanism for the purification of air. It offers great service to the biological world by absorbing CO2 from the
atmosphere and releasing oxygen.
Question 45.
The service rendered by plants for the sustenance of the living world is unique comment on this statement.
Answer:
Plants serve as the cheapest, effective and natural means for the purification of air. Plants also have a . major role in the mitigation of natural disasters. Mangrove forests help in controlling Tsunami to some extend. Bamboo forests, reed, vetiver, lemongrass, etc protect the river banks from collapsing during flood. Trees and bushes in mountains and hills prevent soil erosion and landslides.
Question 46.
“Trees are essential for protecting our nature and life.” Prepare slogans highlighting this idea to protect our environment?
Answer:
Question 47
What is photosynthesis?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is a process used by plants and other organisms to convert light energy into chemical energy that can be later released to fuel the organisms’ activities.
Question 48.
What do you mean by greenhouse gases? Give examples?
Answer:
Greenhouse gases are gases that contribute to the greenhouse effect by absorbing infrared radiation. Carbon dioxide and chloroform carbons are examples of greenhouse gases.
Question 49.
“They kill Good Trees To put out Bad Newspapers” -comment.
Answer:
There are wide range of cutting trees all over the world. Many such instances are for making newspapers. In the same newspapers, we proclaim that trees should not be cut down. It is really a controversy. Similarly, bad news and wrong messages are passed onto people & generations by spoiling the life-supporting trees. Therefore
protection of trees is more important.
Question 50.
“Sale of AC’ has increased in Kerala due to severe heat” – Comment on this pews paper statement?
Answer:
The temperature in Kerala has gone up to the record figure this year. This has happened due to the practice of cutting down trees and pollution. To escape from the heat people started purchasing AC instead of planting trees. The excessive use of AC will again increase heat in the atmosphere by increased emission of chloroform carbon. This will finally intensify the magnitude of Global warming.
Question 51.
Plants give out approximately ………. of oxygen when they use one tonne CO2
Answer:
118 kg
Question 52.
Why the plants are called the lungs of the earth? Explain.
Answer:
Plants are the cheapest and effective natural mechanism for the purification of air. They absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere & release oxygen. It is estimated that plants give out approximately 118 kilograms of oxygen when they use one tonne CO2. As the plant cover on the earth decreases, this recycling mechanism stops and air pollution becomes severe. That is why the plants are called the lungs of the earth.
You can Download Wave Motion Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Solutions Part 2 Chapter 7 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
Wave Motion Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Wave Motion
Fill half of a trough with water. Place some crumpled paper balls in it. Make ripples on the surface of the water using finger.
Observation:
We can see disturbance spreading from its origin to other place. Water particles move up and down about their mean position without displacement in the direction of propagation of wave. Energy is transferred from particle to particle and spreads everywhere due to wave motion. Wave motion is the propagation of disturbances, produced on one part of a medium by the vibration of its particles, to all its other parts.
Hss Live Guru 9th Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Write down examples of wave motion that you see around.
Answer:
Mechanical waves & electromagnetic waves:
Waves can be classified mainly into two types
9th Class Physics Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
How many types of mechanical waves are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are two types of mechanical waves:
They are
Transverse Wave

Tie one end of a rope to a window, Wind a ribbon or paper on the rope ins such a way that you can see it clearly. Hold the other end of the rope and move it up and down. Observe the wave motion on the rope.
Hss Live Guru Physics 9th Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
How does the ribbon/paper move?
Answer:
Ribbon/ paper moves up and down
9th Class Physics 7th Chapter Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
In which direction does the wave move?
Answer:
The wave moves forward or horizontally.
9th Class Physics Chapter 7 Kerala Syllabus Inferences
1. The ribbon moves up and down
2. The ribbon’s position on the rope does not change.
3. The ribbon is vibrating in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
Each particle of the wave vibrates in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.

4. In this case is the motion of particles parallel or perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave? The direction of motion of particles is perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. A transverse wave is a wave in which the particles of the medium vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
Can’t you explain why the disturbances on water could not make the paper boat move away from the shore? The waves formed on the surface of water is transverse wave. The water particles move only up and down. The water particles do not move in the horizontal direction. So the paper boats could not move away from the shore.
Observe the graphic representation of a transverse wave at a particular instant.

Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes English Medium Question 5.
What are crests and troughs?
Answer:
The elevated portions are called crests. The depressed portions are called troughs
Hsslive Guru Std 9 Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
In the figure, which are the points of the highest displacement (amplitude)?
Answer:
A, C, E, G, I, K, M
Class 9 Physics Kerala Syllabus Kerala Syllabus Question 7.
How many crests and troughs are there in the figure?
Answer:
4 crests, and 3 troughs.
Class 9 Scert Physics Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 8.
Whether all the particles are in the same phase of vibration at a particular time?
Answer:
No
Hss Live Guru 9 Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 9.
Which are the particles in the same phase of vibration as that of A?
Answer:
E, I, M
Std 9 Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 10.
What about C?
Answer:
G, K
Std 9 Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 11.
What is the wavelength of the wave shown in the figure?
Answer:
Wavelength = 4 m
Characteristics of Waves:
Hsslive Guru 9th Physics Kerala Syllabus Question 12.
What is the frequency of the wave if the particles A makes 100 vibrations is 5 s?
Answer:
\(\begin{array}{l}{\text { Frequency of the wave }=\frac{\text { number of vibrations }}{\text { time }}} \\ {f=n / t=\frac{100}{5}=20 \mathrm{Hz}}\end{array}\)
The equation connecting velocity, wavelength, and frequency of a wave is v=f λ ;
v – Velocity (distance travelled by the wave in one second);
f – frequency (number of vibrations in one second);
x – wavelength (distance between two consecutive particles which are in the same phase of vibration).
The graphical representation of two waves of the same amplitude, generated at specific intervals of time, is given below.

9th Standard Physics Textbook Kerala Syllabus Question 13.
What is the wavelength of the first wave? What about the second one?
Answer:
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Pdf Question 14.
Which wave has a higher wavelength?
Answer:
First wave has a higher wavelength.
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Physics Notes Chapter 1 Question 15.
Calculate the frequency of each wave if they have traveled this distance (12 m) in 0.25s.
Answer:
Frequency of the first wave

9th Class Physics Notes Kerala Syllabus Malayalam Medium Question 16.
What change takes place in the wavelength when the frequency increases?
Answer:
As frequency increases, wavelength decreases. Wavelength of a wave with a constant speed decreases with increase in frequency, ie. frequency is inversely proportional to the wavelength.
f ∝ 1/λ
Question 17.
Observe the graphic representation of a wave motion given below.

a) What is the amplitude of the wave?
b) What is the wavelength?
c) Calculate the frequency of the wave if it took 0.2s to reach A.
d) Calculate the speed of the wave
Answer:
a) 2 cm
b) 8 m

Longitudinal Wave
Fix one end of a slinky to a wall. Hang some pieces of paper on the coils at equal distances. Press a few coils on the free end held in the hand and then release

Observation: The air particles vibrate to and fro when the waves pass through air.
High pressure is experienced in places where the air particles are close. Such a region is the compression (C). Regions of low pressure are the rarefactions (R).
A longitudinal wave is a wave in which the particles of the medium vibrate in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of the wave. This creates compressions and rarefactions alternately in the medium.
Question 18.
How do we hear a sound from a source?
Answer:
Listen to the sound from an excited tuning fork. The vibrations of the tuning fork make the air particles around it to vibrate.
Sound waves are longitudinal waves

Question 19.
How many compressions are their in the longitudinal wave shown in the figure?
Answer:
4 compressions
Question 20.
Find out the differences between transverse and longitudinal waves and complete the table.

Answer:

Sound
Sound is produced by the vibration of objects. Sound is a longitudinal wave. Sound needs a material medium to travel.

Question 21.
What do C and R in the figure indicate?
Answer;
C for compressions and R for rarefactions.
Wavelength of longitudinal wave The distance between corresponding points of two consecutive compressions or two consecutive rarefactions is the wavelength of the longitudinal wave.
Question 22.
Find out the wavelength in the figure and write it down.
Answer:
Wavelength = 1 m
Question 23.
What is the speed of the wave if its frequency is 92 Hz?
Answer:
Velocity V = f λ = 92 × 1 = 92 m/s
Speed Of Sound
| Medium | Velocity(m/s) (At 20°C) | |
| Solid | Aluminum | 6420 |
| Steel | 5941 | |
| Liquid | Pure water | 1482 |
| Seawater | 1522 | |
| Gas | Air | 343 |
| Helium | 965 |
Question 24.
What are the factors that influence the speed of sound through air?
Answer:
Humidity and speed of sound:
The amount of water vapor in the air is humidity. It is less during winter and high in summer. The speed of sound increases with increase in humidity. This is because the density of air decreases with the increase in humidity.
Reflection Of Sound

Arrange two PVC pipes, a glass plate, and a stop clock as shown in the figure.
We can hear sound through the pipe B.
It is due to the reflection of sound from the glass plate.
Sound can also reflect like light The law of reflection, ∠i = ∠r is true in the case of sound also.
Multiple Reflection Of Sound
Sound getting reflected repeatedly from different objects is multiple reflection.
Situation making use of multiple reflection:
Reverberation
Reverberation is the persistence of sound as a result of multiple reflection
Question 25.
If we felt a boom of sound in empty rooms.
a) Which are the regions where sound waves in a room get reflected?
b) Do these repeatedly reflected sound waves reach the ear of a listener simultaneously?
c) Will you be able to hear all these sounds clearly due to the persistence of audibility? Won’t’ you be hearing only a boom of all the sound?
Answer:
a) The sound waves get reflected form the walls, ceilings, floor etc.
b) No
c) We will not be able to hear all these sounds clearly, due to the persistence of audibility. We will be able to hear only a boom of all the sounds. This is as a result of reverberation.

Persistence of Audibility:
The sensation of hearing produced by a sound is 1
retained for a period of 1/10 s = 0.1 s. This characteristics of the ear is the persistence of audibility. If another sound reaches the ear within 0.1 s, simultaneous hearing of both the sounds is experienced.
Echo
The phenomenon of hearing a sound by reflection from a surface or obstacle, after hearing the original sound is the echo.
Question 26.
What should be the minimum distance to the reflecting surface if the velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s?
Answer:
Due to persistence of audibility, we can hear the first sound and reflected sound separately, only if there is a time gap second between them.
Speed = \(\frac { Distance travelled }{ time }\)
Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s
time = 1/10 s
Distance = speed × time
= 340 × 1/10
= 34m
So the minimum distance to the reflecting surface is half of 34 m.
i.e. = 17 m
Question 27.
A person who bursts a cracker hears its echo after 1 s. What is the distance to the reflecting surface if the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s?
Answer:
2d = v × t = 340 × 1 = 340
∴ d = 340/2 = 170m
Question 28.
What should be the minimum distance between the source and the reflecting surface in water to identify the echo within water? (speed of sound in water is 1482 m/s)
Answer:
Velocity sound = 1482 m/s
Distance = velocity × time
= 1482 × 1/10
= 148.2 m
So the minimum distance between the source and the reflecting surface in water to identify the echo within water
= 148.2/2
= 74.1 m
Question 29.
Write down the situation in which echo is heard.
Answer:
When we clap our hands from a field or valley having width greater the 17m, we can hear echo. When we talk loudly standing in an auditorium having length more than 17m, we can hear echo.
Acoustics Of Buildings
Acoustics of building is the branch of science that deals with the conditions to be fulfilled in the construction of a building for clear audibility.
Question 30.
Why are the walls made rough in big halls like the cinema theatres?
Answer:
The walls are made rough to avoid the regular reflection of sound. Rough surfaces can absorb sound.
Question 31.
With respect to reflection of sound, what are the problems if the distance between the walls in a room is more than 17 m?
Answer:
If the distance between the walls in a room is more than 17m, the sound waves are reflected repeatedly from the walls, ceiling and floor of the hall, and produce many echos So the sound becomes blurred, distorted and confusing due to overlapping of different sounds.
Question 32.
What are the methods to minimize the problems that occur due to reflection of sound?
Answer:
The methods to minimize the problems that occur due to reflection of sound are
Whispering galley:
The Whispering Gallery at St. Paul’s Cathedral in London is the best example for the reflection of, sound. Event if you are only whispering near the circular wall below the dome the sound will be heard loudly anywhere within the gallery. This is due to the multiple reflection of sound from the circular walls. The Gol Gumbas in Bijapur of Karnataka is another example.
Ultrasonic Sound
Sound with a frequency greater than 20000 Hz, ie, above the higher limit of audibility is called ultrasonic sound.
Uses of Ultrasonic waves:
1. Ultrasonic waves are used to clean spiral tubes, machine parts without a definite shape and electronic components. Objects to be cleaned are dipped in a cleaning solution. Ultrasonic waves are passed through this solution. Due to the high frequency of vibration of ultrasonic waves, dust and grease like substances get detached and are removed from the object.

2. Ultrasonic waves are used to detect cracks and flaws in large metal blocks

Ultrasonic waves passed through a metal block, are allowed to reach the detectors. If there is any crack or flaw, ultrasonic waves will reflect back from that part. So they do not reach the detectors. Audible sound waves of longer wavelength cannot be used for this purpose as they bend around the corners of the defective location to reach the detectors.
3. Echocardiography: Ultrasonic waves are used for taking images of heart. This is known as Echocardiography (ECG).
4. Ultrasonography: Ultrasonic waves are used for getting images of internal organs such as kidney, liver, gall bladder and uterus. Ultrasonic waves travel through the tissues of the body and get reflected from the region where there is a change in tissue density. These waves are then converted into electrical signals and are used to form images of the organs. This technology is called ultrasonography Ultrasonic waves can crush small stones formed in the kidney into fine grains.
5. Sonar (Sound Navigation and Ranging): Sonar is a device that uses ultrasonic waves to measure the distance, direction, and speed of objects underwater.

In the figure, ultrasonic waves are sent out from a SONAR which is installed in a ship and they get reflected back after striking an object at the bottom of the sea.
Question 33.
What happens to the ultrasonic waves after striking the object on the seabed?
Answer:
Ultrasonic waves that are reflected back after striking the object reach the detector. The detector converts the ultrasonic waves into electrical signals.
Question 34.
The distance traveled by a wave can be calculated by knowing the speed of ultrasonic sound in seawater and the time taken for the wave to return.
Answer:
Distance = speed × time
Question 35.
Ultrasonic waves from a ship hits a rock at the bottom of the sea and comes back after 0.5 s. Calculate the distance to the rock from the ship. Consider speed of sound through seawater as 1522 m/s.
Answer:
Distance = speed × time .
= 1522 × \(\frac { 0.5 }{ 2 }\) = 380.5 m
Question 36.
Bats make use of ultrasonic sounds for catching prey. How do bats catch prey? Observe figure and write down in your science diary.

Answer:
Bats produce ultrasonic sounds and the sound gets reflected after striking the prey. It can receive the waves.
Seismic Waves And Tsunami
Originate from the epicenter of the earthquake. Seismology is the branch of science that deals with the study of seismic waves. Scientists dealing with the study of seismic waves are called seismologists. The intensity of earthquake is measured in Richter scale.

Seismic waves formed as a result of earthquakes are classified into three: Primary waves (p waves), Secondary waves (S waves) and surface waves. Among these, primary waves travel fastest.

Secondary waves are slower than the primary waves. In a seismograph, the difference in the arrival time of the primary and secondary waves can be used to determine the approximate distance to the epicenter. The amplitude of the waves, obtained using seismo-graph determines the intensity of an earthquake. Two surface waves, Rayleigh waves that travel only through the Earth’s surface and Love waves, are also formed as a result of earthquake. Surface waves are the reason for major damages caused by earthquake, though the speed-of surface waves is less than that of secondary waves.
Tsunami
Tsunami is a series of gigantic waves in a water body caused by the displacement of large volume of water in the deep regions near the sea bed. Tsunamis are caused by underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, meteorite impacts, and other such disturbances. The term
Tsunami is coined by combining two Japanese words Tsu’ which means ‘harbor’ and ‘nami’ .which means ‘long wave’. In the bay region, the speed of Tsunami ranges from 600 to 800 km/h and their wavelength from 10 to 1000 km. The amplitude is less in the deep sea. Hence Tsunami is not felt by passengers . in ships. As waves approach the seashore, the trough of the waves rubs against the land. As a result the speed and wavelength of the waves drop down suddenly, amplitude increases and the coastal re¬gion gets submerged.
Tsunami height depends on the geographical nature of the coast and the depth of the seabed. As Tsu¬nami approaches the shore from the deep sea, the energy lost is not significant. Hence the magnitude of destruction will be very high. If it is the crest of the wave that first reaches the shore, the waves rise high and if it is the trough that reaches first, the sea will be in a state of retreat. The system that gives advance warning about Tsunami is known as DART (Deep Ocean Assessment and Reporting of Tsunami).
Question 37.
What are the methods to be adopted to escape from Tsunami? Discuss.
Answer:
Let Us Assess
Question 1.
Observe the graph

1. Find out the amplitude of the wave
2. What is the speed of the wave if it travels 800 m in 2 s?
3. What is the frequency of the wave?
Answer:
1. The amplitude = 1. 5 m
2. Speed = \(\frac { Distance travellaed }{ time }\)
3. V = 800/2 = 400 m/s
λ = 4m
v= 400 m/s
f = V/ λ = 400/4 = 100 Hz
Question 2.
What do you mean by acoustics of buildings? Suggest four steps that can be taken, while constructing buildings, to avoid problems that may occur due to multiple reflection of sound.
Answer:
Acoustics of buildings is the branch of science that deals with the conditions to be fulfilled in the construction of a building for clear audibility.
To avoid problems that may occur due to multiple reflection of sound are
Question 3.
A sound signal from a ship floating on water hits a rock at the bottom of the sea and comes back to the ship after 4s. Calculate the distance of the rock from the surface of water. The speed of sound in water is estimated to be 1500 m/s
Answer:
V = s/t
Velocity of sound = V = 1500 m / s
time ,t = 4s
Distance travelled, S = v x t =1500 x 4 = 6000 m
= 6000 m
Distance of the rock from the surface of water = 6000/2 m
= 3000 m
Question 4.
Wavelength of a wave that travels with a speed 339 ms is 1.5 km. What will be its frequency?
Answer:
v = 339 m/s
λ = 1.5 km
= 1500 m
V = f λ
f = v/λ = 339/1500
= 0.226 Hz
Question 5.
Wavelength of a sound wave having frequency 2 kHz is 35 cm. How much time will it take to travel a distance 1500 m?
Answer:
f = 2 kHz = 2000 Hz
λ = 35 cm = 0.35 m
v = f λ = 2000 × 0.35
= 700 m/s
t = \(\frac{\text { distance }}{\text { time }}\)
= \(\frac { 1500 }{ 700 }\) = 2.14 s
Question 6.
For a person with normal hearing, the limit of audibility is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz. If so, what will be the limit of wavelength of sound waves that are audible to human beings? Assume that the speed of sound is 340 m/s.
Answer:
f = 20 Hz,
v = f λ ,
λ = v/f = 17m
f = 20000Hz,
v = f λ,
λ = 0.017 m
so limit of wavelength = 0.017 to 17
= 0.017 to 17 m
Question 1.
Classify the following statements as transverse waves and longitudinal waves.
a) Particles of the medium vibrate perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
b) Creates pressure difference in the medium
c) Forms in solids, liquids, and gases
d) Lightwaves
e) Seismic waves
f) Forms crest and trough
Answer:
Transverse wave: a, d, f
Longitudinal wave: b, c, e
Question 2.
Observe the figure

a) What kind of wave motion is shown in the figure? Illustrate your answer
b) Calculate the frequency of this wave if its velocity is 6420 m/s and wavelength is 6 m.
Answer:
a) Longitudinal wave
Here pressure difference is plotted against the y-axis. Pressure difference forms only in longitudinal waves
b) V = 6420 m/s
λ = 6 m
frequency, f = V/λ
= 6420/6 = 1070 Hz
Question 3.
If a person clap his hands stands at a distance of 99m from a wall hear the echo after 0.6s, what is the velocity of sound?
Answer:
Distance travelled by the sound
= 2 x 99 = 198 m
time = 0.65
Velocity = \(\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { time }}\)
V = 198/0.6
= 330 m/s
Question 4.
A sound signal of 50 kHz is sent to the bottom of a sea. It returned back after 4S. The velocity of sound in seawater is 1500 m/s. Then,
a) Calculate the depth of the sea
b) What is the wavelength of the wave?
Answer:
a) Suppose the depth of the sea =d
then distance travelled by the wave = 2d
distance – velocity × time
= 1500 x 4 = 6000m
∴ depth = 6000/2
= 3000 m
b) V = f λ
V = 1500 m/s
f = 50 KHz
= 50000Hz
λ = \(\frac{v}{f}=\frac{1500}{50000}=0.03 \mathrm{m}\)
Question 5.
Given below are graphs of sound waves from differ¬ent sources that travels through the same medium. Among these, which one has higher frequency? What is the basis of your conclusion?

Answer:
Wave with higher frequency is shown in graph B.
As both travel through the same medium, velocity remains the same. But wavelength is inversely proportional to the frequency. ‘B’ has lower wavelength, so B itself has higher frequency.
Question 6.
A sound wave enters water from air. What happens to its wavelength? Why?
Answer:
Wavelength increases. Velocity of sound in water is 1482 m/s and velocity in air is 343 m/s. But the frequency of the sound wave will not change as the medium differs. We know V = f λ. So wavelength should increase.
Question 7.

A person standing at A claps his hands,
a) Is there any change for occurring echo?
Answer:
a) Yes, can hear echo.
Question 8.
Figure shows the distance – displacement graph. The wave is formed in 2s.

a) What is its amplitude?
b) What is its wavelength?
c) What is its frequency?
d) What is its velocity?
Answer:
a) 0.2 m
b) 4 m
c) f = \(\frac { n }{ t }\) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 }\) = 2Hz
d) V = f λ = 2 × 4 = 8 m/s
Question 9.

Answer:
A: Stethoscope
B: Reverberation C: Echo
D: 1) Provide more ventilation and windows
2) Use carpets on the floor
Question 10.
Figure shows the distance and displacement of a wave formed in 0.2s.

Answer:
a) What is its wavelength?
b) What is the frequency?
c) What is its velocity?
Answer:
a) 5 m
b) f = \(\frac { n }{ t }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 0.2 }\) = 15Hz
c) V = f λ = 15 × 5 = 75 m/s
Question 11.
Identify what kind of wave the following are
a) sound wave
b) ripples formed on the surface of water.
c) wave formed due to vibration of tuning fork.
Answer:
a) longitudinal wave
b) transverse wave
c) longitudinal wave
Question 12.
Observe the figure

a) Which particle is in the same phase of vibration as that of B?
b) What is the distance between these particles called?
c) If the distance between C and E is 25 m, what is the wavelength?
Answer:
a) F
b) wavelength
c) 50 m
Question 13.

a) How many trough are there?
b) Find out the wavelength?
c) Calculate velocity of the wave if it is traveled within 0.02 S.
Answer:
a) 2
b) 4 m
c) f = \(\frac { n }{ t }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 0.02 }\) = \(\frac { 300 }{ 2 }\) = 150 Hz
V = f λ
= 150 × 4 = 600 m/s
Question 14.

a) What is its amplitude?
b) What is the frequency?
c) Draw the graph of another wave with no change in the frequency and with half of its amplitude.
d) If this wave travels with velocity 300m/s in 1s, calculate the wavelength?
Answer:
a) 0.1 m
b) f = \(\frac { n }{ t }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 4 }\) = 0.5 Hz

d) V = 300 m/s
V = f λ
f = 0.5 Hz
= 300 = 0.5 × λ
λ = 300/0.5 = 600 m
Question 15.
If a sound wave travels 1700 m through a medium in 5 s. Identify the medium. (March 2016)
Answer:
Air
V = \(\frac { s }{ t }\)
= \(\frac { 1700 }{ 5 }\) = 340 m/s
Question 16.

Given in the graph the points A, B, C, D represents state of vibration of a sound wave. From the below-mentioned options which represent the wavelength.
a) Distance between A and C
b) Distance between A and D
c) Distance between A and B
d) Distance between B and C
Answer:
Distance between A and C
Question 17.
Select the instrument that works on the principle of multiple reflection of sound,
a) Watthour meter
b) Sonar
c) Stethoscope
d) Decibel meter (March 2015)
Answer:
c) Stethoscope
Question 18.
State what happens to the loudness of sound in the following cases.
a) Density of the medium increases.
b) Distance between the source and the receiver increases.
a) Loudness increases (March 2015)
Answer:
b) Loudness decreases
Question 19.
A sound wave generated in 4 seconds is shown in the graph.

If wavelength of the wave is 15m, calculate
a) Frequency of the wave
b) Distance traveled by the wave in 4 seconds.
c) Find out the amplitude of the wave. (March 2015)
Answer:
a) 1 Hz.
b) 60m
c) 1m
Question 20.
A sound was produced. Three seconds later, its echo was heard.
a) What is the distance between the reflecting surface and source? (Speed of sound in air is 340 m/s)
b) Write TWO methods, by which you can reduce the harmful effects of reflection of sound in big halls. (March 2015)
Answer:
a) Distance = Velocity × time
= 340 × 3 = 1020m
So distance between the source and reflecting surface = 1020/2 = 510 m
b) Make the walls rough, provide a large number of ventilators. .
Question 21.
State what change happens to the loudness of sound in the following situations:
a) Amplitude of vibration decreases.
b) The distance between source and receiver decreases (Model 2014)
Answer:
a) Loudness decreases
b) Loudness increases
Question 22.
The wavelength of sound traveling in air with the velocity 330 m/s was found to be 66 m. If so.
a) Find the frequency of sound.
b) By what name are sounds of such frequency known as? (Model 2014)
Answer:
a) V = f λ
330 = f × 66
f = 330/60 = 5.5 Hz
b) Infrasonic ( ∠ 20Hz)
Question 23.
Velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s. Sound waves of wavelength 0.01 m. from a vibrating body reach your ear through air. Will you be able to hear the sound? Justify your answer. (March 2012)
Answer:
V = 340 m/s
λ = 0.01 m
v = u λ
f = V/λ
f = 340/0.01
= 34000 Hz > 20,000 Hz
Human beings cannot hear these sounds. Audible frequency range is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
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You can Download Reflection of Light in Spherical Mirrors Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Basic Science Solutions Chapter 18 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
The phenomena of light is always a surprising one. From long time ago man has tried to study about light. This chapter explains to draw the figure of the images formed by mirrors, their uses, magnification etc.
Reflection Of Light In Spherical Mirrors Class 8 Notes Spherical mirrors
Images are formed not only in-plane mirrors but also in smooth curved surfaces. Spherical mirrors are mirrors in which the reflecting surface is a part of the sphere. The center of a sphere of which the mirror is a part is the center of curvature. Any I line drawn from the center of curvature to the mirror is normal to the mirror. Radius of curvature of a mirror is the radius of the sphere of which is a part. The reflecting surface of the mirror is called the aperture of a mirror. The midpoint of the reflecting surface is called the pole. The straight line connecting the pole and center of curvature of a mirror is the principal axis of the mirror.
The angle of incident and angle of reflection are equal in spherical mirrors. Rays of light incident on a concave mirror, parallel to the principal axis, passes through a fixed point on the principal axis after reflection. This point is the principal focus of the concave mirror. Rays of light incident on a convex mirror parallel to the principal axis appear to come from a fixed point on the other side of the mirror. The point is the principal axis of the convex mirror.
Focal length of a mirror is the distance from pole of the mirror and the principal’s focus of the mirror. Rays of light coming from infinity get focused on a plane perpendicular to the principal axis. This plane is the focus plane. The focus plane passes through the focus plane.
Reflection Of Light In Spherical Mirrors Class 8 Images formed by spherical mirrors
The image of an object placed different positions in front of a mirror is.formed in different positions. Rays of light incident on a concave mirror, parallel to the principal axis, passes through a fixed point on the principal axis after reflection Rays incident on an a concave mirror through the principal focus are reflected parallel to the principal axis.
Rays incident through the center of curvature reflected through the same path. Rays incident on the pole makes an angle with the principal axis. The ray diagrams of images formed by spherical mirrors are drawn according to the above rules. An object placed between F and C in front of a concave mirror, the image will be real and inverted. If the object is at F the image is formed at infinity. The paths of reflected rays are parallel to each other. If the object is in between F and P the image is formed behind the mirror. The image is erect and virtual.
Reflection Of Light In Spherical Mirrors 8th Magnification
Magnification is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object.
Reflection Of Light In Spherical Mirrors Class 8 Notes Pdf Uses of spherical mirrors
Spherical mirrors are used in lighthouses and reflectors.
Class 8 Physics Notes Kerala Syllabus Questions 1.
Classify the following statements as to those related to concave mirrors and convex mirrors and tabulate them accordingly.
a. to view the face
b. as makeup mirror
c. as rearview mirrors in vehicles
d. in solar concentrators
e. in periscopes
f. as shaving mirror
Answer:
Concave mirror:
Convex mirror:
Plane mirror:
8th Class Physics Notes Pdf Question 2.
Calculate the radius of curvature of a convex mirror of focal length 12 cm.
Answer:
focal length of the mirror = 12 cm
\(\mathrm{f}=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{2} \quad 12=\frac{\mathrm{R}}{2}\)
R = 2 × 12 = 24 cm
Reflection Of Light At Curved Surfaces Questions And Answers 8th Question 3.
A ray of light is made to fall on the pole of a concave mirror making an angle 30° with the principal axis.
a. What is the angle of reflection?
b. Justify your answer.
c. Draw the ray diagram.
Answer:
a. Angle of reflection is 30°
b. angle of incidence and angle of reflection are equal
c. the figure showing angle of incidence and angle of reflection is 210°

Chemistry Class 8 Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
Which type of mirror always gives an erect and diminished image?
Answer:
Convex mirror
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Chemistry Notes Question 5.
A ray of light incident on a spherical mirror gets reflected along the same path. If so, show the light incident on the mirror.
Answer:

8th Class Biology Notes Pdf Question 6.
OA is a ray of light incident on a concave mirror.
a. Draw the path of the reflected ray

b. On what basis did you mark the reflected ray?
Answer:

b. In mirrors angle of incidence and angle of reflection are same. The normal to the point of incidence is passed through the center of curva¬ture. The angle between ray of reflection and the normal is the same as angle of incidence.
8th Class Biology Notes Pdf Malayalam Medium Question 7.
Write down the type of mirrors that should be used for getting the following type of images.
a. real and magnified
b. virtual and magnified
c. virtual and diminished
d. real and diminished
Answer:
a. concave mirror
b. concave mirror
c. convex mirror
d. concave mirror
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Chemistry Notes Malayalam Medium Question 8.
The height of an object kept 12 cm away from a concave mirror is 1 cm. Calculate the magnifica¬tion if an image of height 2.5 cm is formed in front of the mirror.
Answer:
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8th Standard Chemistry Textbook Question 9.
Which type of mirror always gives a virtual and erect-image, b. Is this image magnified or diminished?
Answer:
a. convex mirror
b. Diminished
8th Class Biology Notes Pdf Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
Complete the table
| No | Angle of incidence | Angle of reflection |
| 1 | 30° | …… (a) ……. |
| 2 | …. (b)… | 40° |
| 3 | 50° | …. (c)… |
| 4 | 60° | … (d) …. |
Answer:
a. 30°
b. 40°
c. 50°
d. 60°
Kerala Syllabus 8th Standard Physics Notes Question 2.
If the radius of curvature of a concave mirror is 24 cm what is its focal length?
Answer:
R = 24 cm
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8th Standard Chemistry Textbook Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
Find the radius of curvature of a convex mirror of focal length 0.6 m
Answer:

Basic Science Class 8 Solutions Question 4.
Write the characteristics of the image formed by an object plac¬ed at the center of curvature of a concave mirror?
Answer:
Position: At the center of curvature at the same side
Size : Same as the size of the object Nature: Real, Inverted
Reflection Of Light By Spherical Mirrors 8th Question 5.
Complete the figure

Answer:

Hsslive Guru Physics 8th Standard Question 6.
Complete the table

Answer:
a. Passes through principal focus
b. Seem to come from the principal focus
c, d. Returns parallel to the principal axis
e, f. Returns through the same path
g, h. Reflects in the same angle of incident ray.
Question 7.
Write three differences of real image and virtual image which is made by spherical mirrors
Answer:
Real image:
Virtual image:
Question 8.
Write uses of concave mirrors
Answer:
Question 9.
Examine the position off the object given in the figure and table the following peculiarities

a. position of the image
b. size of the image
c. nature of the image
Answer:
a. Behind the mirror.
b. Larger than the object.
c. Erect and virtual
Question 10.
When an object of height 4 cm is placed in front of a concave mirror an image of height 8cm is formed. Find magnification.
Answer:
hi = 4cm ho= -8 cm
Magnification = \(\frac{h_{i}}{h_{0}}\) = \(\frac{h_{-8}}{h_{4}}\) = -2
Question 11.

a. Examine the figure and find the magnification
b. What is the height of the object if height of the image is 4cm when the object is placed on the same position in front of the mirror.
Answer:

Question 12.
Write the uses of convex mirror
Answer:
You can Download Statistics Questions and Answers, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Solutions Chapter 13 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
Textbook Page No. 193
Statistics Class 9 Kerala Syllabus Question 1.
The weight of 6 players in a volleyball team are all different and the average weight is 60 kilograms.
i. Prove that the team has at least one player weighing more than 60 kilograms.
ii. Prove that the team has at least one player weighing less than 60 kilograms.
Answer:
i. Total weight of 6 players = 60 × 6 = 360 kg
The team contains players having weights 60, less than 60 or greater than 60. If the weights of all the players are less than 60, the average will also be less than 60. This is not possible. Therefore there will be at least one player having weight greater than 60.
ii. If the weight of all the players are greater than 60, the average will also be greater than 60. Therefore there will be at least one player having weight less than 60.
Hss Live Guru 9th Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
Find two sets of 6 numbers with average 60, satisfying each of the conditions below:
i. 4 of the numbers are less than 60 and 2 of them greater than 60.
ii. 4 of the numbers are greater than 60 and 2 of them less than 60.
Answer:
Total sum = 60 × 6 = 360
i. 20, 30, 40, 50, 100, 120
ii. 5, 15, 70, 80, 90, 100
Other ways are also possible.
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Notes Question 3.
The table shows the children in a class, sorted according to the marks they got for a math test.
| Marks | Children |
| 2 | 1 |
| 3 | 2 |
| 4 | 5 |
| 5 | 4 |
| 6 | 6 |
| 7 | 11 |
| 8 | 10 |
| 9 | 4 |
| 10 | 2 |
Calculate the average marks of the class.
Answer:
Total number of children is 45. Repeated addition can be written as multiplication.

Average mark = \(\frac { Total }{ Number }\) = \(\frac { 297 }{ 45 }\) = 6.6
Class 9 Maths Solutions Kerala Syllabus Question 4.
The table below shows the days in a month sorted according to the amount of rainfall in a locality
| Rainfall(mm) | Days |
| 54 | 3 |
| 56 | 5 |
| 58 | 6 |
| 55 | 3 |
| 50 | 2 |
| 47 | 4 |
| 44 | 5 |
| 41 | 2 |
What is the average rainfall per day during this month?
Answer:
| Rainfall(mm) | Days | Total |
| 54 | 3 | 54 × 3 = 162 |
| 56 | 5 | 56 ×5 = 280 |
| 58 | 6 | 58 × 6 = 348 |
| 55 | 3 | 55 × 3 = 165 |
| 50 | 2 | 50 × 2=100 |
| 47 | 4 | 47 × 4 =188 |
| 44 | 5 | 44 × 5 = 220 |
| 41 | 2 | 41 × 2 = 82 |
| Total | 30 | 1545 |
The average of the rain fall per day during that month = \(\frac { Total rain fall }{ Number of days }\)
= \(\frac { 1545 }{ 30 }\) = 51.5mm
Hsslive Guru 9th Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
The details of rubber sheets a farmer got during a month are given below.
| Rubber (Kg) | Days |
| 9 | 3 |
| 10 | 4 |
| 11 | 3 |
| 12 | 3 |
| 13 | 5 |
| 14 | 6 |
| 16 | 6 |
i. How many kilograms of rubber did he get a day on average in this month?
ii. The price of rubber is 120 rupees per kilogram. What is his average income per day this month from selling rubber?
Answer:


i. Average Quantity of rubber per day = \(\frac { 381 }{ 30 }\) = 12.77kg
ii. . If the price is Rs. 120 per kg, then average incomeperday = 12.7 × 120 = Rs.1524
Textbook Page No. 197
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Solutions Question 1.
Find different sets of 6 different numbers between 10 and 30 with each number given below as mean:
i. 20
ii. 15
iii. 25
Answer:
i. The mean of 6 numbers is 20.
ie; sum = 6 x 20= 120 (Write 3 pairs with sum 40)
i.e., 15, 25, 18, 22, 19, 21
ii. The mean of 6 numbers is 15
i.e; sum =6 x 15=90
(Write 30 pairs with sum 3)
12, 18, 13, 17, 14, 16
iii. Mean is 25
sum = 25 x 6 = 150
(Write 50 pairs with sum 3)
22, 28, 23, 27, 24, 26
Hss Live Guru Class 9 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 2.
The table below shows the children in a class, sorted according to their heights.
| Height(cm) | Number of children |
| 148 – 152 | 8 |
| 152 – 156 | 10 |
| 156 – 160 | 15 |
| 160 – 164 | 10 |
| 164 – 168 | 7 |
What is the mean height of a child in this class?
Answer:
Height (cm) | No. of children | Mid Value | Total Height |
| 148 -152 | 8 | 150 | 150 × 8 = 1200 |
| 152 -156 | 10 | 154 | 154 × 10 = 1540 |
| 156 -160 | 15 | 158 | 158 × 15 = 2370 |
| 160 -164 | 10 | 162 | 162 × 10 = 1620 |
| 164 -168 | 7 | 166 | 160 × 7 = 1162 |
| Total | 50 | 7892 |
Mean height = \(\frac { Total height }{ No of children }\)
= \(\frac { 7892 }{ 50 }\) = 157.84 cm
Hss Live Class 9 Maths Kerala Syllabus Question 3.
The teachers in a university are sorted according to their ages, as shown below.
| Age | Number of Persons |
| 25 – 30 | 6 |
| 30 – 35 | 14 |
| 35 – 40 | 16 |
| 40 – 45 | 22 |
| 45 – 50 | 5 |
| 50 – 55 | 4 |
| 55 – 60 | 3 |
What is the mean age of a teacher in this university?
Answer:
| Age | No.of persons | Midvalue | Total |
| 25 – 30 | 6 | 27.5 | 165 |
| 30 – 35 | 14 | 32.5 | 455 |
| 35 – 40 | 16 | 37.5 | 600 |
| 40 – 45 | 22 | ‘42.5 | 935 |
| 45 – 50 | 5 | 47.5 | 237.5 |
| 50 – 55 | 4 | 52.5 | 210 |
| 55 – 60 | 3 | 57.5 | 172.5 |
| Total | 70 | 2775 |
Mean age = \(\frac { Total age }{ No of persons }\)
= \(\frac { 2775 }{ 70 }\) = 39.64
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Question 4.
The table below shows children in a class sorted according to their weights.
| Weight (kg) | Number of children |
| 21 – 23 | 4 |
| 23 – 25 | — |
| 25 – 27 | 7 |
| 27 – 29 | 6 |
| 29 – 31 | 3 |
| 31 – 33 | 1 |
The mean weight is calculated as 26 kilograms. How many children have weights between 23 and 25 kilograms?
Answer:
Let’s prepare the table for finding the mean by considering the number of children in the group 23 to 25, as ‘x’.
Weight (kg) | No.of children | Mid value | Total weight |
| 21 – 23 | 4 | 22 | 22 × 4 = 88 |
| 23 – 25 | X | 24 | 24 × x = 24x |
| 25 – 27 | 7 | 26 | 26 × 7 = 182 |
| 27 – 29 | 6 | 28 | 28 × 6 = 168 |
| 29 – 31 | 3 | 30 | 30 × 3 = 90 |
| 31 – 33 | 1 | 32 | 32 × 1 = 32 |
| Total | 21 + x | 560 + 24x |
Mean weight = 26 kg

i.e; the number of children having weight between 23 to 25 is 7.
Kerala Syllabus Std 9 Maths Solutions Question 1.
The details of rubber sheets got for a month by a farmer are given in the table.
| Rubber (kg) | No. of days |
| 7 | 3 |
| 8 | 4 |
| 9 | 5 |
| 10 | 6 |
| 11 | ? |
| 12 | 4 |
| 13 | 3 |
During this month he got an average of 10 sheets per day. If so in how many days did he get 11kg per day ?
Answer:
| Rubber (kg) | Days | Total weights (kg) |
| 7 | 3 | 7 × 3 = 21 |
| 8 | 4 | 8 × 4= 32 |
| 9 | 5 | 9 × 5 = 45 |
| 10 | 6 | 10 × 6 = 60 |
| 11 | X | 11 × x= 11x |
| 12 | 4 | 12 × 4 = 48 |
| 13 | 3 | 13 × 3 = 39 |
| Total | 25 + x | 245 + 11x |
Let ‘x’ be the number of days in which he got 11 kg rubber sheet.

∴ He got 11 kgs of sheets for 5 days.
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Notes Malayalam Medium Question 2.
In a factory, there are workers belonging to four categories. The average income and the number of workers in each category are given. What is the mean income when all the workers in the four categories are combined?
| Class | No.of workers | Average income (Rs) |
| I | 12 | 6000 |
| II | 16 | 8000 |
| III | 8 | 9500 |
| IV | 4 | 11000 |
Answer:

Mean income = \(\frac { 320000 }{ 40 }\)
= Rs. 8000
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Maths Solution Question 3.
The daily wages of 10 workers in a factory are given below.
400, 350, 450, 500, 400, 500, 350, 500, 350, 450
If one more person is joined, the mean becomes Rs. 450. What is the daily wage of the new person?
Answer:
Total wages of 10 workers = 4250 Total wages of 11 workers= 11 × 450 = Rs. 4950
Wage of the 11th person = 4950 – 4250
Kerala State Class 9 Maths Solutions Question 4.
Find 10 different numbers between 10 and 30 whose mean is 20.
Answer:
Given mean is 20
Sum 20 × 10 = 200.
We have to find 10 different numbers whose sum is 200 (for this find 5 pairs of sum 40)
(15, 25) (16, 24) (17, 23) (18, 22) (19, 21)
The numbers are 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25
9th Maths Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
A table categorizing the workers in an office on the basis of their salary is given below.
| Salary (Rs) | Number of workers |
| 15000 -18000 | 1 |
| 18000 – 21000 | 3 |
| 21000 – 24000 | 5 |
| 24000 – 27000 | 4 |
| 27000 – 30000 | 1 |
| 30000 – 33000 | 1 |
Find the mean of salary.
Answer:

Mean income = \(\frac { 349500 }{ 15 }\)
= R.s 23300
Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Notes Maths Question 6.
i. Find the mean of natural numbers from 1 to 100.
ii. What is the mean of even numbers from 1 to 100? What is the mean of odd numbers?
iii. What is the difference between the means of the first 100 even numbers and odd numbers?
iv. What is the difference between the means of the first 200 even numbers and 200 odd numbers?
Answer:
Sum of the natrural numbers from 1 to n = \(\frac n{ n + 1 }{ 2 }\)


Sum of the first 100 odd numbers
= 1002 = 100 × 100

In general, the difference between the means of n even numbers and n odd numbers is always 1.
Question 7.
A table tabulating the players in a cricket team on the basis of their age is given below.
| Age | Number of players |
| 21 | 1 |
| 22 | 2 |
| 25 | 3 |
| 26 | 3 |
| 29 | 2 |
| 30 | 1 |
Calculate the mean age of the players?
Answer:

Mean age of players = 306/12 = 25.5
You can Download अकाल में सारस Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 9th Standard Hindi Solutions Unit 4 Chapter 1 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
अकाल में सारस विश्लेषणात्मक प्रश्न
अकाल में सारस कविता का आशय Kerala Syllabus 9th प्रश्ना 1.
धान की सूखी पत्तियों की गंध’ –से किसका आभास होता है?

उत्तर:
धान के पौधे गर्मियों में सूखते हैं। धान की सूखी पत्तियों की गंध से गर्मियों का आभास मिलता है।
Akal Mem Saras Hindi Poem Kerala Syllabus 9th प्रश्ना 2.
सारसों ने जल भर कटोरे को क्यों न देखा होगा?
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उत्तर:
सारसों के लिए कटोरे भर का जल पर्याप्त नहीं है। वे ताल-तलैयों की तलाश कर रहे थे। उनके लिए प्राकृतिक जल स्रोतों की ज़रूरत थी। इसलिए वे जल भर कटोरे को न देखा होगा।
अकाल में सारस Summary Kerala Syllabus 9th प्रश्ना 3.
सारसों ने जाते-जाते शहर की ओर क्यों मुड़कर देखा होगा?

उत्तर:
शायद सारसों को वह जगह पसंदीदा थी। लेकिन उनकी आशा के विरुद्ध वहाँ कोई जलस्रोत न देखा। वे निराश लौटने लगे। वहाँ के लोगों के प्रति उनके मन में दया या घृणा की भावना थी। दया इसलिए कि ये लोग कितने अभागे हैं। घृणा शायद इसलिए कि इन्होंने प्राकृतिक जलस्रोतों का ह्रास किया है।
अकाल में सारस आशयग्रहण के प्रश्न
Akaal Mein Saras Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 9th प्रश्ना 1.
वे देर तक करते रहे शहर की परिक्रमा’ -सारस किसकी तलाश में शहर की परिक्रमा करते होंगे?

उत्तर:
सारस देश-देशांतर में जानेवाले पक्षी हैं। वे ऋतुओं के बदलने के अनुसार एक देश से दूसरे में चले जाते हैं। यहाँ सारस पानी की तलाश कर रहे हैं।
अकाल में सारस कविता की व्याख्या Kerala Syllabus 9th प्रश्ना 2.
बुढ़िया ने क्या सोचकर पानी लाकर रखा होगा?
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उत्तर:
सारसों को देखकर बुढ़िया ने सोचा कि वे पानी की तलाश में हैं। इसलिए बुढ़िया ने कटोरे में पानी लाकर रखा।
अकाल में सारस व्याकरण के प्रश्न
अकाल में सारस Summary In Hindi Kerala Syllabus 9th प्रश्ना 1.
तुलना करें :
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i. तीन बजे दिन में / आ गए वे
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ii. वे दिन में तीन बजे आ गए।
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iii. कवितांश की संरचना और वाक्य की संरचना का अंतर पहचानें।

iv. कविता को गद्य में बदलने पर शब्दों के क्रम में क्या परिवर्तन आया है?

उत्तर:
वाक्य की संरचना कर्ता, कर्म और क्रिया का पालन किया है। लेकिन कविता की संरचना में यह क्रम नहीं है। कविता की सुंदरता को बढ़ाने के लिए कभी-कुभी शब्दों के क्रम में आवश्यक परिवर्तन करते हैं।
Hss Live Guru 9th Hindi Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 2.
इन पंक्तियों को गद्य की संरचना में बदलकर लिखें।
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उत्तर:
| पंक्तियाँ | वाक्य |
| एक के बाद एक वे झुंड के झुंड धीरे-धीरे आए। | वे झुंड के झुंड एक के बाद एक धीरे-धीरे आए। |
| वे देर तक करते रहे शहर की परिक्रमा | वे देर तक शहर की परिक्रमा करते रहे |
9th Class Hindi Notes Kerala Syllabus प्रश्ना 3.
लेख लिखें :
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1. प्रकृति के जलस्रोतों का नाश होता जा रहा है।
2. साथ ही पर्यावरण का संतुलन भी बिगड़ रहा है।

उत्तर:
अकाल में सारस’ कविता मनुष्यों के बुरे व्यवहार की संकेत करनेवाली कविता है। प्राकृतिक संसाधन केवल मनुष्यों के लिए नहीं है। पशु-पक्षी, मछलियाँ और दूसरे प्राणी भी इनके हकदार है। दरअसल ऋतु बदलने पर सारस पक्षी पानी आदि की तलाश में एक देश से दूसरे देश में चले जाते हैं। लेकिन यहाँ कहीं पानी नहीं है। सारसों को तो पता तक नहीं था कि लोग उन्हें सारस कहते हैं। यहाँ तो पानी और धान की पत्तियाँ सूख गई हैं। उनकी गंध हवा में हैं। यही गंध सारसों के डैनों से नीचे झर रही है। एक बुढ़िया अपने आँगन में जलभरा कटोरा रख देती है।
लेकिन सारसों ने न तो बुढ़िया को देखा। क्योंकि वे जलस्रोतों की तलाश में आए थे। उनकी निगाहों में दया थी या घृणा, हम समझ नहीं पाते। दया शायद इसलिए कि सारस तो उड़कर कहीं और चले जाएँगे, जहाँ पानी होगा। किंतु ये दयनीय लोग जो अपना पानी तक नहीं बचा पाए, अपने खेत-खलिहान और घर-बार छोड़कर, कहाँ और कैसे जाएँगे? और घृणा इसलिए कि अपना पानी तो नष्ट किया ही हमारा भी नष्ट कर दिया। क्योंकि पर्यावरण नष्ट करने के ज़िम्मेदार तो मनुष्य ही हैं।





Akal प्रश्ना 1.
बरसों बीते
बादलों को इधर
बरसे नहीं।
ये पंक्तियाँ किस हालत की ओर ।
संकेत करती है?

उत्तर:
पानी की कमी एक बड़ी समस्था हो.
पर्यावरण में हुए बदलाव से बारिश
की मात्रा कम होती जा रही है। इस
हालत की ओर ये पंक्तियाँ संकेत देती है
अकाल में सारस शब्दार्थ

You can Download Unravelling Genetic Mysteries Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Solutions Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.
Emergence Of Genetics
Genetics is the branch of science emerged at the beginning of the 20th century. It influences almost all areas of life like diagnosis, therapeutic and food production. Gregor Johann Mendel’s hybridization experiments in pea plants have led to the foundation of genetics. So he is considered as the father of Genetics.
Unravelling Genetic Mysteries Kerala Syllabus 10th Chapter 6 Question 1.
What are the traits that were experimented by Mendel?
Answer:
The traits that were experimented by Mendel
Experiments Of Mendel

Sslc Biology Chapter 6 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 2.
Which trait of the pea plant was considered in these experiments?
Answer:
Height of the pea plant was considered as the trait in this experiment.
Biology Chapter 6 Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 3.
What variant forms of the trait are considered here?
Answer:
Tall and dwarf are the variant forms of the trait considered here.
Unravelling Genetic Mysteries Notes Kerala Syllabus 10th Chapter 6 Question 4.
Which forms of the trait was expressed in the first generation?
Answer:
Tall is the trait was expressed in the first generation.
Sslc Biology Chapter 6 Notes Kerala Syllabus Question 5.
The following illustration showing hybridization experiment in pea plants using symbols for the factors that control traits.
Answer:

Peculiarities of offsprings in the second generation

Mendel self-pollinated the plants obtained in the first generation and produced the second generation. Among the 1064 plants obtained in the second generation, 787 plants were tall and 277 plants were dwarf. The ratio of the result obtained is about 3:1
Statistics In Mendel’S Experiment
10th Class Biology 6th Chapter Kerala Syllabus Question 6.
Complete the table

Answer:
a) Axial
b)3:1
c) Round
d) 3:1
Inferences of Mendel:
Gene – Allele:
The gene present in the chromosome of the nucleus determines the character. A gene that controls a trait has different forms. The different forms of a gene are called alleles. Generally, a gene has two alleles. When.we illustrate hybridization experiment, the allele that controls the dominant character that is expressed in the first generation is indicated by a capital letter and the allele that controls recessive character is indicated by a small letter.
Sslc Biology Chapter 6 Malayalam Medium Question 7.
Which are the alleles of a tall plant?
Answer:
‘TT are the alleles of a tall plant.
Hsslive Guru 10th Biology Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 8.
Which are the alleles of the dwarf planets?
Answer:
‘tt’ are the alleles of the dwarf planet.
Sslc Biology Focus Area Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 9.
How do the allele combination of the first generation differ from parental plants?
Answer:
The allele combination ‘Tt’ is responsible for the character height in first-generation instead of TT. One character is expressed and the other character remains hidden in the offsprings.
Kerala Genetics Question 10.
How can you differentiate alleles that control the dominant character and recessive character?
Answer:
The allele that controls dominant character generally indicated by capital letter and the allele that controls recessive character is indicated by a small letter.
Biology Class 10 Kerala Syllabus Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 11.
Observe the illustration showing the hybridization experiment conducted by Mendel on two traits namely height and color of flowers. Complete the illustration and table suitably based on the indicators, analyze illustration and write down inferences.

Answer:

Tall, red flower TtRr
Self-pollination first-generation TtRr x TtRr

Hss Live Guru 10th Biology Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 12.
What are the characters expressed in the offsprings of the first generation? Which are the recessive ones?
Answer:
Expressed characters – Tall and red flower
Recessive characters – Dwarf and white flower.
Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Notes Pdf Chapter 6 Question 13.
Are there new combination of characters different from parents appeared in the second generation? Which are they?
Answer:
Yes. New combination of characters different form parents appeared in the second generation. The appearance of new combination of characters in offsprings is due to the independent assortment of each character.
New combination of characters appeared in second generation
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid)
Sslc Biology Chapter Wise Questions And Answers Kerala Syllabus Chapter 6 Question 14.
What are the peculiarities of double-helical model of DNA presented by Watson and Crick?
Answer:
James Watson and Francis Crick presented the double-helical model of DNA in 1953. As per the double-helical model, DNA contains two strands. Two strands of DNA are made of phosphate and pentose sugar and steps with nitrogen bases. The nitrogen bases are adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine.
Structure of DNA molecule

DNA molecule contains two long strands with deoxyribose sugar, phosphate, and steps with nitrogen bases. Nitrogen bases are molecules that contain nitrogen and are alkaline in nature. The nitrogen bases are of four types. In DNA the bases adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine. One deoxyribose sugar molecule one phosphate molecule and one nitrogenous base join together to form a nucleotide. Nucleotides are the basic unit of DNA. Since DNA has four kinds of nitrogen bases, DNA has four kinds of nucleotides.
Kerala Syllabus 10th Standard Biology Pdf Chapter 6 Question 15.
Observe the illustration and complete its second strand.

Answer:

Terminal Axial Question 16.
Compare the structure of DNA and RNA and complete the table.

Answer:

How Do Genes Act?
Question 17.
Observe the following illustration and write down the inferences in the science diary.

Answer:
DNA does not participate directly in protein synthesis. RNA is the molecule that carries information form DNA to ribosomes and controls protein synthesis. This RNA is messenger of DNA, it is called messenger RNA or mRNA. Besides mRNA, there are tRNA (Transfer RNA) that carry amino acids to the ribosomes and rRNA (Ribosomal RNA) that are seen associated with ribosomes. Protein molecule is synthesized by the combined activities of all these molecules.
Question 18.
Prepare a flow chart of Protein synthesize.
Answer:

There are 46 chromosomes in human beings. Of these 44 are somatic chromosomes and two are sex chromosomes. A somatic chromosome pair contains two identical chromosomes. Thus in human beings, there are 22 pairs of somatic chromosomes. Sex chromosomes are two types. They are called x chromosomes and y chromosomes. Females have 44 + xx and genetics of variation that of male 44 + XY.
Genetics Of Variation
Crossing over in chromosomes: A source of variation:

During the initial phase of meiosis, chromosomes pair and exchange their parts. This process is called crossing over. As a result of this, part of a DNA crosses over to become the part of another DNA. This causes a difference in the distribution of genes. When these chromosomes are transferred to the next generation, it causes the expression of new characters in offsprings.
Combination of Allele during fertilization:
When gametes undergo fusion, the combination of allele changes. This causes the expression of characteristics in offsprings that are different from parents. Thus fertilization causes variations int the next generation.
Mutation
Question 19.
What is mutation?
Answer:
Mutation is a sudden heritable change in the genetic constitution of an organism.
Question 20.
What are the causes of mutations?
Answer:
The defects in the duplication of DNA, certain chemicals and radiations.
Question 21.
What is the importance of mutations?
Answer:
Certain mutations are harmful and some are helpful for survival of the organisms. Mutations lead to variations in characters. Mutation has great relevance in evolution.
Is The Child – Male Or Female
Observe illustration and write down the inferences in the science diary.

Question 22.
Is there any difference in the number of chromosomes in male and female.
Answer:
No. In male and female, there is not any difference in the number of chromosomes. In men and women 46 chromosomes are present.
Question 23.
Which chromosome is different in male and female?
Answer:
Sex chromosome is different. The sex chromosome of female is are XX and in male are XY.
Question 24.
What is the possibility for the birth of a male or a female child? Discuss.
Answer:
The possibility for the birth of a male or a female child is more or less equal. If the X chromosomes in male unite with X chromosome in female the offspring will be female and if with the Y chromosome In female the offspring will be male.
Question 25.
Is it fair to criticize mothers who deliver only female- children. Substantiate your opinion scientifically.
Answer:
The XY chromosomes of the father determine whether the child is male or female. Child with XX sex chromosomes is female arid with XY sex chromosomes is made. So male sex chromosomes have greater importance than female sex chromosomes in sex determination. So the view of her husband and relatives is wrong.
Difference In Colour
Melanin, a pigment-protein imparts color to the skin. The difference in gene function is the reason for the color difference of skin. This is simply an adaption to live under sun.
Let Us Assess
Question 1.
The nitrogen base absent in RNA.
a) Admin
b) Thymine
c) Uracil
d) Cytosine
Answer:
b) Thymine
Question 2.
Arrange the stages of protein synthesis in the form of a flow chart.
1. Combines amino acid.
2. mRNA reaches ribosomes
3. mRNA is formed
4. Amino acids are carried to the ribosomes.
Answer:
mRNA is formed → mRNA reaches ribosomes → amino acids are carried to the ribosomes → combines amino acids.
Question 3.
Observe the hybridization experiment given below

a) Prepare an illustration of this hybridization experiment using symbols
b) Prepare an illustration for the second generation.
Answer:

b) Parental plants (Self-pollination of first-generation) F2 → Gg × Gg

Extended Activities
Question 1.
‘ Prepare an excerpt including information on scientist who made contributions in the progress of genetics. (Hints – Gregor Johann Mendel, Walter, S. Sutton, Boveri, Friedrich Meischer, Johannsen, Avery, James Watson, Francis Crick, Marshall, Nirenberg, Har Gobind Khorana)
Answer:
Milestones in the History of Genetics

Question 2.
Prepare models of DNA and RNA using locally available materials and present them in a science exhibition.
Question 1.
The father of genetics?
Answer:
Gregor Johann Mendel
Question 2.
Mendel conducted the process of hybridization using one pair of contrasting characters. In all his experiments only one character was expressed. So which was the method he adopted to find out recessive character?
Answer:
Mendel self-pollinated the plants obtained as the first generation.
Question 3.
When Mendel conducted experiment using one pair of contrasting characters, the plants obtained in the F2 generation is was in ………. ratio.
Answer:
3:1
Question 4.
Find out the dominant characters in plants having TTRR, TTRr, TtRR, TtRr traits.
Answer:
All plants are tall with red flowers.
Question 5.
Hereditary factors which Mendel had described are now known as …………….
Answer:
Genes
Question 6.
What are genes?
Answer:
Genes are the specific units of DNA that control metabolic activities and responsible for the specific characters of any organism.
Question 7.
“Offsprings of the same parents show differences among themselves” Give reasons for this?
Answer:
During fertilization alleles from the chromosomes of gametes segregate and causes change in the allele combination. This change causes variations in the offsprings. So offsprings of the same parents also show differences.
Question 8.
When a woman gave birth to girl children in her consecutive deliveries, her husband and relatives blamed her. Evaluate this social situation and write your opinion.
Answer:
The XY chromosomes of the father determine whether the child is male or female. Child with XX sex chromosomes is female and with XY sex chromosomes is male. So male sex hormones have greater importance than female sex chromosomes in sex determination. So the view of her husband and relatives is wrong.
Question 9.
What is the possible ratio for the birth of a male or a female child? What is the reason for this?
Answer:
The possibility for the birth of a male or a female child is more or less equal. If the X chromosomes in male unite with X chromosome in female the offspring will be female and if with the Y chromosome in female the offspring will be male.
Question 10.
Which are the two types of nucleic acids?
Answer:
DNA, RNA
Question 11.
What is the figure shows?
Answer:
a) a DNA molecule
b) a RNA molecule
c) a nucleotide
d) a chromosome
Answer:
a) nucleotide
Question 12.
Identify the picture? From where is it seen?

Answer:
DNA molecule. DNA molecules are seen in chromosome.
Question 13.
Identify the nucleotides presented in DNA and RNA. Which factor help you to identify this?
Answer:

B and C are nucleotides seen in DNA because the adenine and thymine are seen in DNA. A and C are nucleotide seen in RNA because Adenine and Uracil are seen in RNA.
Question 14.
Give examples for different kinds of RNA seen in the cell?
Answer:
mRNA(messenger RNA), tRNA (transfer RNA), rRNA (ribosomal RNA).
Question 15.
What is the following illustration represents?
Answer:

Answer:
Protein synthesis of DNA.
Question 16.
Explain the role of mRNA in protein synthesis.
Answer:
DNA does not participate directly in protein synthesis. It unwinds and mRNA is synthesized which carries the information from DNA to ribosomes. Based on the information in mRNA protein is synthesized by proper adding amino acids.
Question 17.
Observe the diagram and find out the names of the labeled parts a. b and c.
Answer:

Answer:
a) mRNA
b) Ribosomes
c) Protein molecule
Question 18.
Observe the figures and identify the process given below.

Answer:
Crossing over
Question 19.
‘ While some mutations are harmful, some of them are helpful.” Analyze the statement.
Answer:
This statement is correct. Certain mutations are harmful and some are helpful for survival of the organism. Mutations also lead to evolution.
Question 20.
‘‘Some specific processes during Meiosis helps to create variation in characters among organisms Analyse this statement and explain the process.
Answer:
Homologous chromosomes from father and mother pair exchange chromosomal material during meiosis. Tbi3 is “Crossing Over” in meiosis.
Question 21.
Diagrammatically represent with symbols the First generation of progenies of Tall and Dwarf pea plants when cross-pollinated as in Mendel’s first stage of Experiment (March 2015)
Answer:

Question 22.
Observe the flow chart given below. (Model 2015)
Answer:
i) RNA is synthesized
↓
ii) DNA unwinds
↓
iii) RNA combines with ribosome
↓
iv) RNA comes out through nuclear membrane.
↓
v) Protein molecule is formed.
↓
vi) Different amino acids are formed.
↓
a) Arrange the flow orderly.
b) Identify the process.
Answer:
a) DNA unwinds
↓
RNA Is synthesized
↓
RNA comes out through nuclear membrane.
↓
RNA combines with ribosome
↓
Different amino acids are formed.
↓
Protein molecule is formed
b) Protein synthesis or gene action
Question 23.

(Model 2014)
Observe the diagram Identify the process which occurs in Chromosomes during meiosis.
Answer:
Crossing over
Question 24.
A pea plant with genetic constitution TtRr (Tall plant which produces red flower) was subjected to self-pollination. The genetic constitution of some of the progenies obtained are given below.
Write the expressed character of the given progenies based on their genetic constitution. (Model 2014)
(a) TTRr
(b) ttrr
(c) ttRr
(d) Ttrr
Answer
a) TTRr – tall plant with red flower
b) ttrr – dwarf plant with white flower
c) ttRr – dwarf plant with red flower
d) Ttrr – tall plant with white flower
Question 25.
Mr. Rajan decided to divorce his wife by arguing that she is incapable to give birth to a boy child.
a) Can you agree with Mr. Rajan?
b) Give scientific explanation, to this problem with the help of an illustration showing the role of sex chromosomes in determining sex in human beings.
Answer:
a) I cannot agree with Rajan

Y chromosome from male decide the sex of child
Question 26.
Find the odd one. Write down the common feature of the others. (March 2014)
a) Bypass surgery, ECG, EEG, Pacemaker
b) Adenine, Cytosine, Thymine, Uracil
Answer:
a) EEG: Related with the treatment of heart diseases
b) Uracil: Nitrogen bases in DNA/Thymine: Nitrogen bases in RNA.
Question 27.
Gopalettan is trying to develop new varieties of pea plants in his garden. Given below is the illustration of the experiment which he conducted. Observe this and answer the questions that follow. (Model 2013)

a) Which law of hereditary can be used to explain the reason of violet flowered plants in the F1 generation?
b) Among these, which are the dominant and recessive characters?
c) What will be the characters appearing in the F2 generation if the plants in the F1 generation are self-pollinated? In what ratio?
Answer:
a) Law of dominance. (When a pair of contrasting characters combines, only one character is expressed, while the other remains hidden.)
b) Dominant is violet and recessive is white.
c) Yellow and green seeds in 3:1 ratio.
Question 28.
Fill up the blanks in the table showing gene action in protein synthesis. (Model 2013)

Answer:
a) RNA is being synthesized
b) RNA comes out through nuclear membrane
c) RNA1 combines with ribosomes
Question 29.
Rearrange B and C according to the data given in A. (Model 2013)
| A Nucleic Acids | B Sugar | C Nitrogen Base |
| i) DNA | Ribosome | Uracil |
| ii) RNA | Deoxyribose | Amenin |
| Ribose | Thymine |
Answer:
| A Nucleic Acids | B Sugar | C Nitroge Base |
| i) DNA | Deoxyribose | Thymine |
| ii) RNA | Ribose | Uracil |
Question 30.
A portion of DNA molecule is shown below. Find out the missing nitrogen base pair from those given below. (Model 2012)

Answer:
(b) C – G
Question 31.
The fusing of gametes during self-pollination of F1 in pea plants with two separate characters combined together were tabulated; (Model 2012)

A) Fill up the blanks.
B) How many white-flowered plants will be formed if 16 pea plants in F2 generation were produced?
Answer;
A) (a) TtRR
(b) Ttrr
(c) ttRR
(d) ttrr
B) 4
Question 32.
Given below is the illustration showing how sex determination is taking place in man. (March 2012)

a) Observe the illustration and examine the 4 types of possible offsprings. Specify their sex chromosomes.
b) What are the inferences you arrive at from this illustration?
c) What is the probable ratio of formation of male child and female children in man ? Illustrate your answer.
d) Which are the sex-determining chromosomes in man?
Answer:
a) (i) and (iii) are female children having XX chromosomes
(ii) and (iv) are male children having XY chromosomes
b) The sex chromosomes of male determine the sex of a child. The probability of formation of male and female children is almost equal (1:1)
c) 1: 1
d) Male XY and female XX.
Question 33.
Using given indicators, construct RNA nucleotide and anyone DNA nucleotide. (March 2012)

Answer:

Question 1.
Find the word pair relationship and fill in the blanks appropriately. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) DNA: Thymine
RNA:……………..
b) Adenine: Thymine
Guanine:…………………
c) The character which is expressed: dominant
The character which remains hidden:……………
Answer:
a) Uracil
b) Cytosine
c) Recessive character
Question 2.
Given below are certain indicators exhibited by Anu in her slide presentation while conducting seminar on the topic ” Emergence of Genetics”. What explanations would you give for these indicators?
a) Heredity
b) Variation
c) Genetics
d) The father of Genetics
Answer:
a) Transmission of features of parent to offspring.
b) Features seen in offspring that are different from their parents.
c) The branch of science that deals with heredity and variation.
d) Gregor John Mendel
Question 3.
The note prepared by Shahana on Mendel’s inferences during the classroom analysis of Mendel’s hybridization experiment in pea plants, based on a single trait is given below. Analyze the statements in the note and correct those that are wrong ones.
a) A trait is controlled by a specific factor.
b) A character is expressed and the other remains hidden in the first generation.
c) The character that remains hidden, in the first generation does not appear in the second generation.
d) The ratio of characters in the second generation is 3: 1
Answer:
a) One trait is controlled by the combination of two factors.
b) The characters that remain hidden in the first generation appears in the second generation.
Question 4.
Fill in the blanks in the illustration given below. (Question Pool -2017)

Answer:
A) tt
B) t
C) Tt
D) dwarf
Question 5.
Complete the flowchart illustrating the location of gene by using the information given in the box: (Question Pool – 2017)
nucleus, gene, DNA, cell, chromosome

Answer:
A – Cell
B – Nucleus
C – Chromosome
D – DNA
Question 6.
Analyze the article and answer the questions. The experiments performed by Gregor John Mendel in pea plants led to the emergence of a new branch of science that has today grown and expanded to a great extent. This branch of science has untravelled several mysteries regarding the similarities and variations found in the characters of organisms. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Which branch of science does the article refer to?
b) List out any 4 traits selected by Mendel for performing hybridization in pea plants.
Answer:
a) Genetics
b) Height, colour of the seed, colour of the flower, shape of the seed, color of the fruit, shape of the pod
Question 7.
Observe the illustration given below and answer the questions. (Question Pool-2017)

a) Identify the dominant character
b) How does the parental plant with green colored seed and the plant in the first generation differ in their alleles.
c) Describe alleles.
Answer:
a) Green
b) Alleles in parental plant – G, G Allele in the first generation – G, g
c) Different forms of a gene
Question 8.
Fill in the blanks in the illustration related to chromosomes in man. (Question Pool-2017)

Answer:
A) Autosomes
B) 2
C) XY
Question 9.
Identify the word pair relationship and fill in the blanks: (Question Pool -2017)
Female : 44 + XX
Male: …………….
Answer:
44 + XY
Question 10.
Fill in the blanks in the illustration. (Question Pool-2017)

Answer:
A. ggww
B. GW
C. Green colored round seed
Question 11.
The indicators given below are about the plant in the first generation formed as a result of the hybridization between a tall plant with red flowers and a dwarf plant with white flowers. (Question Pool-2017)

a) Identify the alleles in the plant related to the trait ’tallness’.
b) Identify the gametes formed from this plant.
Answer:
a) T, t
![]()
Question 12.
Complete the illustration of the second generation obtained from the hybridization in which two traits of a plant are considered. (Question Pool-2017)
Indicators:
Dominant character – Tallness, red color of flower Recessive character – Dwarfness, white color of flower

Answer:
A. TTRr
B. TtRr
C.TTRr
D. TtRr
E. TtRr
F. ttRR
G. ttRr
H. TtRr
Question 13.

Given below are some of the offspring obtained by self-pollinating the above plant. Analyze the offspring and answer the questions.
a) ttRr
b) ttRR
c) TTrr
d) ttrr
i) Identify the dominant characters in each of the offspring?
ii) What explanation would you give for the expression of characters in the offspring which were hidden in the parental plant?
Answer:
i. a) dwarf, red flower
b) dwarf, red flower
c) tall, white flower
d) dwarf, white flower
ii. The expression of characters in the offsprings which were hidden in the parental plant is due to the independent assortment of each character.
Question 14.
Analyze the illustration of a nucleotide molecule and answer the questions. (Question Pool-2017)

a) Identify A and B in the illustration.
b) ‘Nucleotides are found in DNA alone’. What is your opinion regarding these statements? Substantiate.
Answer:
a) A – Phosphate
B – Sugar
b) 1. does not agree
2. Like DNA, RNA is also made up of nucleotides
Question 15.
Genes which are the specific units of DNA control the metabolic activities and are also responsible for specific characters. They control the process of protein synthesis. Binu has a doubt on the above note. (Question Pool – 2017)
‘Does the RNA have no role in protein synthesis?’ What explanation would you give to Binu’s doubt? Substantiate.
Answer:
Question 16.
The components and features of nucleic acid are given below. Analyze them and complete the table. (Question Pool-2017)
a) ribose sugar
b) double helical shape
c) Uracil
d) one strand
e) deoxyribose sugar
f) thymine

Answer:

Question 17.
Observe the nucleotide strands given below and answer the questions. (Question Pool-2017)

a) Identify the strand that is found in DNA only.
b) Identify the strand that can be found in both DNA and RNA.
c) What is a nucleotide?
Answer:
a) B
b) A
c) A unit of sugar, phosphate and nitrogen base / Component of nucleic acid
Question 18.
The stages in the process of protein synthesis are given below. Prepare a flowchart using the stages. (Question Pool-2017)
a) tRNA carries different kinds of amino acids to the ribosome.
b) mRNA reaches outside the nucleus.
c) mRNA forms from DNA
d) Amino acids are added based on the information in mRNA
e) mRNA reaches ribosome.
f) Proteins are synthesized.
Answer:
c → b → e → a → d → f
Question 19.
A part of the article. Variations in ourself is given below: The features seen in offspring that are different form their parents are called variations. Certain processes taking place in the initial phase of meiosis are responsible for such variations. (Question Pool-2017)
a) Which process, as mentioned in the article, is responsible for variations?
b) How does this process bring about variations?
Answer:
a) Crossing over of chromosomes
b) 1. Part of a DNA crosses over to become the part of another DNA.
2. This causes difference in the distributions of genes
3. When these chromosomes are transferred to the next generation, new characters are expressed.
Question 20.
The process of crossing over of chromosomes that takes place in the initial phase of meiosis is illustrated below. Analyse-it and answer the questions. (Question Pool – 2017)

a) Arrange the stages appropriately.
b) This process brings about variations in offspring. How?
Answer:
a) C, A, B
b) 1. Part of a DNA crosses Over to become the part of another DNA.
2. This causes difference in the distributions of genes.
3. When these chromosomes are transferred to the next generation, new characters are expressed.
Question 21.
Given below is an illustration regarding sex determination Observe the illustration and answer the questions. (Question Pool-2017)

a) Complete A, B, C in the illustration.
b) What is the possibility of the formation of a male child or a female child? Explain.
Answer:
a) A) 44 + XY
B) 22 + X
C) 22+ Y
b) Equal chance. The number of male gametes with X chromosome and those with Y chromosome are equal.
Egg with the X chromosome has equal chance to combine with sperm having Y chromosome and those having X chromosome.
Question 22.
The practice of blaming those mothers who give birth to girl children exists even today. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) As a science student, how will you respond to this situation? Substantiate.
Answer:
Question 23.
The chromosomes from the father determine whether the child is male or female. Evaluate this statement on a scientific basis. (Question Pool-2017)
Answer:
Males have 2 types of sex chromosomes. (X, Y) Females have only one type of sex chromosome (X, X) Sex determination is based on the type of male gamete that fuses with the egg. If the male gamete with Y chromosome fuses with the egg, then male child is born, if the male gamete with X chromosome fuses with the egg, then female child is born.
Question 24.
Given below is a placard exhibited in a school rally organized ‘Against Racism’. It is not racial difference that makes the skin color different;
This is an adaptation to live under the sun.
a) How ; will you. explain the difference in skin color of people living in different parts of the world?
b) What attitude should be adopted by a scientifically enlightened society towards the idea in the placard? Substantiate.
Answer:
a) 1. Melanin, a pigment-protein imparts color to skin.
2. It is due to the difference in gene function,
b) 1. Skin color is an adaptation to live under the sun.
2. Races among making are only cultural.
3. Scientifically, all men are of the same race.
4. Consider all men as equal, without any racial difference.
Question 25.
Vipin wrote the following as situations that create variations in organisms. Choose the right ones. (Question Pool – 2017)
a) Mutation
b) Formation of mRNA
c) Crossing over of chromosomes
d) Action of rRNA
Answer:
a) Mutation
c) Crossing over of chromosomes
Question 26.
The components of nucleic acids are given below. Answer the questions through illustrations using these components: (Question Pool – 2017)

a) Illustrate the nucleotide which is found only in RNA.
b) Illustrate the nucleotide which is found only in DNA.
Answer:

Question 27.
Analyze the nitrogen bases given below and write the nitrogen base pairs found in DNA. (Question Pool-2017)
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Answer:
Thymine – Adenine.
Guanine – Cytosine
Question 28.
‘Gene itself is allele; allele itself is gene. (Question Pool – 2017)
Answer:
Statement is party correct.
Each character is controlled by pair factors called genes.
Different forms of a gene are called alleles. Generally, a gene has two alleles. ,
Alleles can be of the same type (TT) or different types (Tt).
If the alleles are of different types, only one trait represented by anyone of the alleles get expressed.
Question 29.
Offsprings may vary in characters from their parents.
a) What are reasons of this variation in the light of genetics?
b) How does the changes take place during meiosis cause variations in next generation?
c) How does the chemical substances and the radiations cause variation in characters?
Answer:
a) Crossing over and mutations.
b) When a part of a particular DNA become the part of another DNA, the sequencing of nucleotides in the DNA become differs and hence variation may occur in the offsprings.
c) Mutation may occur due to chemicals and radiations.
Question 30.
Observe the illustration related to Mendel’s experiment based on two contrasting characters.
a) Complete the illustration appropriately

b) What are the characters observed in the second generation?
Answer:

b) Tall with red flowers = 9
Tall with white flower = 3
Dwarf with red flowers = 3
Dwarf with white flowers = 1
Question 31.
The different stages of protein synthesis given below. Rearrange them appropriately. (Orukkam – 2017)
a) tRNA carries different types of amino acids.
b) mRNA come out from the nucleus.
c) mRNA is formed from DNA.
d) Amino acids are joined together based on the messages in mRNA.
e) mRNA reaches in ribosome.
f) Protein is synthesized.
Answer:
c → b → e → a → d → f
Question 32.
Observe the figure and answer the questions given below. (Orukkam – 2017)

a) Name the process shown in the figure.
b) Write the importance of this process.
Answer:
a) Crossing over
b) Causes variation
Question 33.
Write the role of mRNA and tRNA in protein synthesis. (Orukkam – 2017)
Answer:
mRNA carries messages for protein synthesis from DNA to the ribosomes.
tRNA carries amino acids to ribosomes according to the message in the mRNA.
Question 34.
What is mutation? Write the reasons? (Orukkam – 2017)
Answer:
Mutation is a sudden heritable change occur in the genetic material (chromosomes)
Reasons: – Radiations, chemicals, changes in the replication of DNA.